1. An oxidizing agent used to disinfect drinking water d.

Propofol
a. Benzyl peroxide 17. 4,5,2-aminomethyl imidazole
b. Eugenol a. Acetylcholine
c. Sodium halazone b. Dopamine
d. Cresol c. Epinephrine
2. Sulphonamides are synthesized from d. Histamine
a. Mercurial 18. Block axn of histamine H1 receptors
b. Azo dyes a. Analgesics
c. Arsenials b. Antacids
d. Streptomyces c. Antihistamine
3. Mineralocorticoid antagonist d. Cholinergic agents
a. Aldosterone 19. OTC sleep and antihistamine
b. HC a. Cimetidine
c. HCTZ b. Diphenhydramine
d. Spironolactone c. Fexofenadine
4. Anabolic activity of androgens d. Levoceterizine
a. 2ndary sex characteristics in girls 20. Pairs that is a component of enteric mixture of local anesthetics
b. 2ndary sex characteristics in boys (EMLA)
c. Salt retention a. Bupivacaine, lidocaine
d. Muscle binding b. Prilocaine, lidocaine
5. Maximum dosage per day of paracetamol c. Lidocaine, epinephrine
a. 1g/day d. Ropivacaine, mepivacaine
b. 500mg/d 21. DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis
c. 4g/d a. Azithromycin
d. 10g/d b. Dapsone
6. Classified as 4,5-epoxy morphinones c. Linezolid
a. Dextromethorphan d. Sparfloxacin
b. Loperamide 22. Ratio of a dilution of a given test disinfectant to the dilution of
c. Morphine phenol
d. Meperidine a. Phenol power
7. MOA: Trimethoprim b. Phenolic value
a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis c. Phenol coefficient
b. Inhibition of topoisomerase 2 d. Phenol effect
c. Inhibition of beta lactamase 23. Anthelmintic drug for onchocerciasis (river blindness)
8. Phenylpiperidines-amilidopiperidines is used for acute diarrhea a. Albendazole
a. Fentanyl b. Ivermectin
b. Loperamide c. Mebendazole
c. Meperidine d. Pyrantel
d. Sulfetanil 24. Opioid antagonist reverse respiratory depression caused by opioid
9. Gold standard of micro receptor antagonist overdose
a. Codeine a. Nalmefene
b. Heroin b. Naloxone
c. Hydrocodone c. Methylnaltrexone
d. Morphine d. Hydrocodone
10. Study in the use of chemical agents that are selectively more toxic 25. Adrenal cortex steroids w/ high salt retaining activity
a. Anti infectives a. Androgens
b. Chemotherapy b. Mineralocorticoid
c. Chemotaxis c. Glucocorticoid
d. Prophylaxis d. Progesterone
11. Standard to which the activity of most germicidal substance is 26. Describe as bimodal character of acetylation pattern of drugs
compared a. Acetylation polymorphism
a. Phenol b. Acetylation idiosyncrasy
b. Carbolic acid c. Methylation enantiomerism
c. Alcohol d. Acetylation inactivation
d. A&b 27. Co-trimoxazole
12. 3rd generation cephalosporins a. Sulfasalazine, astemizole
a. Cefixime b. Mafenide, mometasone
b. Cefuroxime c. Sulfadiazine, trimethoprim
c. Cefepime d. SMX-TMP
d. Cephalexin 28. Allylamine target enzyme
13. Reductive process in drug metabolism a. Aromatase
a. Elimination b. Cholinesterase
b. Detox c. Squalene epoxidase
c. Termination of pharmacologic activity d. Nota
14. Management of gout and hyperuricemia 29. Mixture if chlorides of rosaniline and prosaniline
a. Mometasone a. Gentian violet
b. Spironolactone b. Methylene blue
c. Carvedilol c. Basic fuschin
d. Probenecid d. Nota
15. If Matt, continues smoking together with his medications 30. Not a therapeutic use of estrogen
(imipramine a CYP 2C9 anti-depressant, alters metabolisms) a. HRT
a. Imipramine blood levels will increase drastically b. Tx for inoperable cancers in men
b. Px will stop smoking c. Birth control
c. Imipramine will be prolonged d. Tx breast cancer in women
d. Px can’t trecover from depression 31. Source of conjugated estrogen (premarin)
16. Local anesthetic used for eye surgery a. Blood of sheep
a. Xenon b. Blood cow
b. Cocoaine c. Ovaries of goats
c. Ketamine d. Urine in pregnant mares
32. Steroidal compounds similar to progesterone d. Sulphate conjugation
a. Androgen 48. Main site of excretion
b. Testosterone a. Skin
c. Progestin b. Liver
d. Cholesterol c. Kidney
33. Absorption substrates for GSH conjugation are d. Intestines
a. Neutrophilic 49. Rate limiting step steroid hormone synthesis
b. Nucleophilic a. Cholesterol to pregnenolone
c. Inorganic b. Cholesterol to ergosterol
d. Electrophilic c. Cholesterol to cholicalciferol
34. Most common phase 1 reaction d. Nota
a. Reduction 50. Inhibits axn potential in afferent/efferent nerve fibers
b. Oxidation a. Cox inhibitors
c. Hydrolysis b. Laxatives
d. Conjugation c. Local anesthetics
35. COX2 inhibitor d. Mydriatics
a. Piroxicam 51. Acidic drug known to bind to this protein during its systemic
b. Meloxicam distribution
c. Diazepam a. A1-acid glycoprotein
d. Celecoxib b. Albumin
36. Antiprurituc effect; tx for scabies c. Nota
a. Crotamiton 52. Most important organ in drug metabolism
b. Lindane a. Brain
c. Pyrethroids b. Kidney
d. HC c. Liver
37. Morphinan opioid OTC antitussive agent d. Intestines
a. Butamirate 53. Statement 1: branching of alcohol chains antibacterial potency
b. Codeine
c. Dextromethorphan Statement 2: isopropyl alcohol is effective against spores
d. Eugenol
38. Crystalluria SE of what antibiotic class a. Both are correct
a. Macrolides b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b. Penicillins c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
c. Rifamycins d. Both are incorrect
d. Sulfanilamides 54. Co-amoxiclav
39. Drug class pair is correct a. Clavulanic + ampicillin
a. Propylamine-chlorpheniramine b. Clavulanic + amoxicillin
b. Propylamine-chlorpheniramine c. Clarithro + amoxicillin
c. Piperazine-pheniramine d. Sulbactam + ampicillin
d. Nota 55. Statement 1: cationic dyes are active against gram – bacteria
40. Primary prophylactic anti-nauseate and for tx of
a. Promethazine Statement 2: gentian violet is also known as hexamethyl-p-
b. Meclizine rosaniline chloride
c. Doxylamine
a. Both are correct
d. Fexofenadine
b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
41. 2nd generation antihistamine
c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
a. Acrivastine
d. Both are incorrect
b. Cyclizine
56. Ofloxacin has higher concentration in the CSF compared to
c. Diphenhydramine
ciprofloxacin
d. Meclizine
a. True
42. QSAR
b. False
a. Qualitative structure activity ratio
c. Most likely true
b. Qualification structure activity ratio
d. Most likey false
c. Quantitative structure activity relationship
57. Statement 1: griseofulvin is obtained from penicillumnotatum
d. Quantitative structure activity ratio
43. Contribution reaction of drug metabolism
Statement 2: it is a fungicidal agent
a. Phase 1
b. 2 a. Both are correct
c. 3 b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
d. 4 c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
44. Enzyme inhibitors d. Both are incorrect
a. Ketoconazole 58. Phase 1 metabolic rxn is hydrogenation in nature
b. Cimetidine a. Oxidation
c. Grape fruit juice b. Reduction
d. Smoking c. Hydrolysis
45. Methenamine d. Nota
a. TMP 59. Grape fruit = enzyme inducer. Which component id responsible for
b. Urotropin this phenomenon
c. Sulfasalazine a. Naringin
d. Picric acid b. Pectin
46. Antibiotic from steptomyces spp c. Glycosides
a. Mitrofurans d. Benzopyrene
b. Rifamycins 60. Amlodipine with ciprofloxacin
c. Quinolones a. Uti will shorten
d. Sulphonamides b. Uncontrolled hypertension
47. Most predominant conjugation rxn in phase 2 c. Might encounter hypotension
a. Acetylation d. Uti progresses
b. Glucoronidation 61. Reduction products of ketones
c. Methylation a. Ketones
 b. Carboxylic acid a. benzyl alcohol and resorcinol
c. Secondary alcohols b. benzoic acid and salicylic
62. Slow acytelators c. salicylic and resorcinol
a. Egyptians d. phenol and carbolic acid
b. Eskimo 78. the activity of triacetin is due to the liberation of which substance
c. Asians a. acetic acid
d. Nota b. nitric
63. Source of quinine and quinidine c. hydrochloric
a. Pine needle tree d. sulphuric
b. Cinchona tree 79. statement 1: higher molecule weight fatty acid have the advantage
c. Sargassum of lower volatility
64. Prontosil
a. Orphan drug Statement 2: itraconazole requires basic environment for optimum
b. Lead drug solubilisation and oral absorption
c. Prodrug
d. Me too drug a. Both are correct
65. Isonicotic acid hydrazide b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
a. Rifampicin c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
b. INH d. Both are incorrect
c. Ethambutol 80. DOC for the tx of bacterial gastroenteritis cause by G. bacilli
d. Riboflavin a. Enoxacin
66. A nitrofuran b. Levofloxacin
a. TMP c. Nalidixic acid
b. Ciprofloxacin d. Ciprofloxacin
c. Metronidazole 81. Tinea manuum: Hand; tinea sycosis:______________
d. Rifampicin a. Groin
67. Therapeutic use quinolones associated w/ b. Beard
a. Hypertension c. Scalp
b. Seizure 82. Agent for diaper rash in infants
c. Viral infections a. Methylbenzethonium cl
d. UTI b. Cetylpyridium cl
68. Antibacterial agent’s SAR is dependent on its 1,4-dihydro-4-oxo-3- c. Benzalkonium cl
pyridine carboxylic acid moiety d. Chlorhexidinegluconate
a. Sulphanilamide 83. 1: activity of alcohols against microorganisms is due to the ability
b. Macrolides denature important microbial proteins and carbs
c. Penicillin 2: amphotericin b is the only polyene useful for tx of serious
d. Quinolones bacterial systemic infections and must be solubilized w/ a
69. Grapefruit is a known inhibitor of CYP enzyme systems detergent
a. Dissolve the medication in grapefruit juice a. Both are correct
b. Take the medication together with grapefruit juice b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
c. Avoid grapefruit and its juice c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
d. Nota d. Both are incorrect
70. Basic red dye that has slow bactericidal effect on M. leprae 84. Oral ulceration/dental care
a. Aminosalicylate Na a. Benzoyl peroxide
b. INH b. Povidone-iodine
c. Clofazimine c. Carbamide peroxide
d. Rifamycin d. Halazone
71. INH: hepatotoxicity;ethambutol:__________ 85. Gas sterilization of temperature-sensitive equipment and certain
a. Phototoxicity pharmaceuticals that can be heat sterilize in autoclave
b. Optic neuritis a. Formaldehyde
c. Gi irritation b. Isopropyl alcohol
72. An agent which interferes w/ uric acid secretion so it must be used c. Ethylene oxide
w/ great caution in px w/ hyperuricemia and gout d. Phenol
a. Ethionamide 86. Amebiasis:entamoebohistolytica:Chaga’s disease: _____________
b. Ethambutol a. chuchuGambiense
c. Ciprofloxacin b. giardia lamlia
d. Pyrazinamide c. tryponosoma cruzi
73. Unasyn d. toxoplasma gondii
a. Sulbactam + ampicillin 87. scabicides kill adults paracites and kill their eggs
b. Tazobactam + piperacillin
c. Clavulanic + amoxicillin permethrin exters lethal axn against lice, ticks, mites and fleas
d. SMX-TMP
a. Both are correct
74. Agent used in the tx chronic UTI; dependent on liberation of
b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
formaldehyde
c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
a. Nitrofurantoin
d. Both are incorrect
b. Macrodantin
88. Effective scabicide topically applied single application of a 25%
c. Methanemine
emulsion in oleic acid
d. Tetracycline
a. Lindane
75. Tx of choice for disseminated gonorrhoea
b. Benzyl benzoate
a. Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone
c. Crotamiton
b. Ciprofloxacin and doxycycline
d. Aota
c. Ciprofloxacin and INH
89. Agent used in the tx of lepromatous and tuberculoid types of
d. aota
leprosy
76. thiazoles except
a. INH
a. fluconazole
b. Ethambutol
b. itraconazole
c. Dapsone
c. oxiconazole
d. TMP
d. nota
77. whitfield’s ointment is made up of
90. Broad spectrum anthelmintic effective against various nematode
infestations including whipworm
a. Biothionol
b. Mebendazole
c. Ivermectin
d. Oxamiquine
91. Balantidiasis: tetracycline; trichominiasis:-________
a. Iodoquinol
b. Quinacrine
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Metronidazole
92. Inhibits DNA gyrase; topoisomerase 2 of the bacterial cell
a. Nitrofurazone
b. Enoxacin
c. INH
d. Itraconazole
93. Prototype of azole antifungal agent
a. Ketoconazole
b. Econazole
c. Miconazole
d. Clotrimazole
94. 1: oxidizing agents are effective against anaerobic bacteria and
can be used to cleansing wounds

2: clotrimazole inhibits squaleneepoxidase needed in fungal sterol

synthesis

a. Both are correct

b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
d. Both are incorrect
95. Agent is used to retard mold growth
a. Propylparaben
b. Sorbic acid
c. Methylparaben
d. B and c
96. The following are uses of methylene blue, except
a. Tx of cyanide poisoning
b. Leaker’s test for pharmaceutical use
c. Cystitis and urethritis
d. NOTA
97. Defined change in chemical structure results in a predictable change
in physiological action
a. LADME
b. QSAR
c. LADMERT
d. OSCE
98. Statement 1: polyenes are fungicidal at low concentration and
fungisitic at high concentrations.
Statement 2: fungizone was isolated from a culture of
actinomycete streptomyces noursei
a. Both are correct
b. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
c. 2 correct, 1 incorrect
d. Both are incorrect
99. Prototype drugs of quinolones
a. levofloxacin
b. Lomefloacin
c. Nalidixic acid
d. Enoxacin
100.