Veloci Q

The Questionnaire Velociq-101
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1. A Process defines basically :

Answer : ...Choose...A running Program Who is doing what when and how to reach
a specific goal A new procedure to be implemented All of the above
2. ISO, CMM, Six Sigma are

Answer : ...Choose...Quality models Tools Programming LanguagesCoding
Standards
3. The International Standard for Quality Assurance – ISO 9001 emphasizes on :
Answer : ...Choose...
a. Process Quality (rather than product Quality)

b. Product Quality
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Critical Component quality
4. Maintenance Process Model is best suited for

Answer : ...Choose...Problem resolution on existing software products
Interface modification due to changes in hardware or software environment Minor
functional enhancements or performance improvement of the existing software All
of the above
5. In Wipro which model representation of CMMI was adopted

Answer: Choose...
a. Rank model
b. Linear model
c. Staged model
d. Process area model
6. Achieving the goal of means your product will be defect free to an extent of:
a. 13.5 defects per million opportunities

b. 3.4 defects per million opportunities
c. 4.4 defects per million opportunities
d. 4.3 defects per million opportunities
7. _______ is a process of examining whether the process conforms to the defined

quality system:
Answer : ...Choose...(Doubt)
a. Audit
b. Assessment
c. Testing Review
8. All Configuration Audit issues are recorded in -------------- and tracked to

closure:
a. Software Configuration Audit Report (SCAR)
b. Software Configuration Order Form (SCOF)
c. Baseline Record
d. PMR
9. The process followed in the software development project should be:
Answer : ...Choose...Client specified processes Processes as described in
velociQ. Tailored ODC specific processes Any One of the above
10. Which of this is a planned mechanism for Defect Prevention?

Answer: ...Choose...
a. Look Ahead Meetings(doubt please check while answering)
b. PDMR and PMR reviews
c. Customer feedback
d. All of the above
11. Which Lifecycle model emphasizes preparation of plans for validation during
the early Life Cycle stages itself?
Answer : ...Choose...V-Process Model Maintenance model Rational Unified
Process Model 2I Process Model
12. You are a Project Engineer who has just joined Wipro. You want to know all
your responsibilities as defined by veloci-Q for your role. Where would you go?
Answer : ...Choose...PDB Treasure House Guidelines Navigator
13. Six Sigma measures defects based on:

Answer : ...Choose...the team’s decision Wipro’s Senior management’s
perception Customer’s perception number of defects in the project
14. _______ is a monthly mechanism to track metric trends, exceptions of metrics

and ensure Process Improvements in the Business Unit
Answer : ...Choose...QICs Look Ahead Meetings PIP Board meetings Quality meet
15. Deviations from the stated processes that are identified during the audit
are recorded as
Answer : ...Choose...Non-Conformances Process Improvement Proposal Process
Improvement and Process Development Creation of Work Plans
16. Which of the following can be used to validate the design

Answer : ...Choose...Proof Of Concept Voice Of Customer (VOC)LOC Function
points
17. The FS document may address

Answer : ...Choose...Functional requirements of the system Interface
requirements Environmental constraints All of the above
18. Organisation’s Customer Focus should meet the needs and expectations of:
Answer : ...Choose...The customers and end users People in the Organisation
Suppliers and partners All of the above
19. __________________ is a mechanism of maintaining the mapping between

requirements and products resulting from the requirements.
Answer : ...Choose...Design document Requirements Traceability Functional
design Test cases
20. The set of actions to be taken to minimize the occurrence of Risk is

documented as part of
Answer : ...Choose...Contingency plan Mitigation Plan Defect Prevention Report
Risk Tracker
21. veloci-Q has a ____ -tier architecture
Answer : ...Choose...234 Multi-dimensional
22. Which phases of SDLC can be sources for errors?

Answer : ...Choose...RS, Design, CUT, IT, ST & ATRS, Design, CUT, IT & STRS,
Design, CUT & ITRS, Design & CUT
23. Which of the below statements is incorrect on shared vision

Answer : ...Choose...Team members of the project should participate while
evolving shared vision Shared vision is evolved from individual goals and
objectives Shared vision is documented in the project plan Customer needs are
considered while evolving project shared vision
24. Each phase /activity of a life cycle model is represented in veloci-Q by the
____________ Criteria
Answer : ...Choose...WBS DMADVETVX SDLC
25. The prevention activities coming out of a LAM is documented in

a. Project Plan
b. PDMR
c. Defect Prevention Report
d. Risk Plan
26. Voice Of Customer (VOC) can be used to

Answer : ...Choose...Prioritize customer requirements Select requirements
Analyze customer requirements Requirements traceability
27. The data and information of all previously executed projects are in the:
Answer : ...Choose...Project data bank PIP DB Treasure house Navigator
28. The CMMI level 5 stage is termed as a :

Answer : ...Choose...Repeatable stage Optimizing stage Iterative stage Defined
stage
29. Project Performance Analysis (PPA) is an exercise which examines :

Answer : ...Choose...Lessons learnt and best practices Individual performance
Process Improvement Proposals Conformance of requirements
30. The Six Sigma methodology we use for new product/ process development:
Answer : ...Choose...DMAIC DSSS
+Veloci-Q TQSS
31. This is the testing procedure according to which modules, sub modules are
tested and test case verification is done
Answer : ...Choose...Functional testing Module testing Unit testing System
testing
32. As per veloci-Q, in a project following V process model – the activity to

define acceptance Test Plan is recommended as part of
Answer : ...Choose...RS phase Design Phase Acceptance Testing Phase Project
Planning phase
33. A “Surveillance audit “is conducted by:

Answer : ...Choose...SQA and SEPG Technical manager External certification
agency Project Managers coordinated by SEPG
34. A NCR (Non Conformance Report) signifies :
Answer : ...Choose...Deviation from a stated process Failure of ISO
certification Deviation of coding standard Observation
35. Which of the following certifications mandate the use of Audits as a

periodic check on compliance?
Answer : ...Choose...ISO 9001:2000 CMM CMMI Six Sigma
36. Taxonomy based checklist is used for

Answer : ...Choose...Risk identification Team members Project name None of the
above
37. Wipro Technologies is assessed as a CMMI 5____Organization

Answer : ...Choose...453It is assessed at CMM only, but no level of CMMi
38. The role of a person who facilitates the six sigma team project to align
with the methodology is:
Answer : ...Choose...Green Belt Champion Black Belt Yellow Belt
39. Choose the odd one: One of the process models NOT suitable for Development
Answer : ...Choose...Iterative model n Waterfall Development model V-Process
model Conversion/ Porting Process Model
40. Which of the following is not a management review mechanism, where senior
management reviews performance of projects/ organization with respect to
Quality?
a. PMR
b. QIC(Quality Improvement Council)
c. MRM(Management Review meetings)
d. PIP(Process Improvement Proposal) board meeting
41. Project level internal assessment at PPA stage should be carried out with
Answer : ...Choose...CMMi PA Rating review checklist SCAMPI checklist PPR
Project Data & Metrics report
42. The Assessment methodology defined by SEI for the CMMI model is
a. CBAIPI
b. SCAMPI
c. PVPDCAQ
43. As per veloci-Q organization structure, the QC in a project reports to

Answer : ...Choose...PM TM SQA M b and c
44. How many Process Areas are there in CMMI:

A. 24
B. 18
C. 23
D. 28
45. Release note is prepared :

Answer : ...Choose...Prior to the release , contains the list of software
items To explain the project closure norms After the final test case is executed
On acceptance of the release
46. What is the 3rd level in CMMI called?
Answer : ...Choose...Managed Defined Optimized Controlled
47. A project can be initiated based on

Answer : ...Choose...(doubt)
a. TM’s preference to develop his favourite application
b. wants his team to understand a technology
c. the contract signed by the customer
d. team feels the customer should have that application they are developing
48. The philosophy of "say what you do, do what you say" belongs to
Answer : ...Choose...the Project Manager BS7799 ISO CMMI
49. The process followed in the software development project should be:
Answer: ...Choose...Client specified processes Processes as described in veloci-
Q. Tailored ODC specific processes Any One of the above
50. ______________ in the CM process represents the snapshot of a set of

deliverables at a given point in time.
Answer : ...Choose...Baselines Configuration Audits Configuration Items CCB
51. The vital few problems identified from the Organization level Defect
Prevention activities are tracked to closure by initiating
Answer : ...Choose...Specific Task teams PIPs Six Sigma projects. Any of the
above
52. Which of the following would help us in deriving the projects specific
process from the organization’s standard process?
Answer : ...Choose...Process guidelines Project Procedures Tailoring
Guidelines Life Cycle models
53. Which Lifecycle model emphasizes preparation of plans for validation during
the early Life Cycle stages itself?
a. V-Process Model
b. Maintenance model
c. Rational Unified Process Model
d. 2I Process Model
54. In the execution of maintenance projects each trigger from the customer is
recorded in a:
Answer : ...Choose...Change Request MRP MR Change control Register
55. In CMMI the Level 2 stage is described as

Answer : ...Choose...Managed Repeatable defined optimized
56. Project monitoring reviews are conducted :

a. On a monthly basis
b. Whenever we have a client release
c. In the external audit meeting
d. By the SQA Team periodically
57. Release review process involves

ANS : (TM,PM,QC/TL)
a. PM, customer and TM PM, QC, TM All team members entire team along with SQAM
and customer
58. Prior to start of the project, the PM should estimate

Answer : ...Choose...good idea - he can get familiar with our estimation
guidelines it is a must to plan better on execution of the project verify
estimation and address differences if any all of the above
59. ___________ methodology involves breaking of the requirements into modules

with information on Interface Requirements between the modules.
Answer : ...Choose...High Level design Top Down design Coupling Cohesion
60. Which of these is not true regarding an Observation recorded during an audit
Answer : ...Choose...This is a deviation from the stated process This does not
need closure This is a suggestion for improvement It could be a potential for
non-conformance in future
61. The different categories of Lifecycle models are

a. Development, maintenance, service, testing(these are Project types not

models) (doubt) etc
b. V-process model, 2i, RUP
c. iPAT, veloci-Q, Six Sigma
d. All of the above
62. Which of the following templates are for ensuring detailed requirement
elicitation?
Answer : ...Choose...Voice Of Customer (VOC)Testing template QFD DPMO
63. The following is not a section of the project plan template :

a. Resource Plan
b. Execution Process Plan
c. PDMR (Doubt)
d. Project Vision
64. Different Design approaches can be evaluated using

Answer : ...Choose...QFD Pugh Matrix FMEA none of the above
65. Who is responsible for approving the estimate?

A. Project Manager
B. Technical Manager
C. Business Development Manager
D. Presales staff
66. The 'Three Times Estimate' technique involves

a. Estimating using three different techniques

b. Estimation done by three people independently
c. Specifying the "Pessimistic", "Optimistic" and "Most probable" Values for
an activity
d. Estimating at three points in time proposal stage, after requirements
analysis and after design.(correct but doubt)
67. Selection criteria for design alternatives can be based on

Answer : ...Choose...Requirements and constraints Costs and benefits Risks All
of the above
68. Objectives of customer focus is to:

Answer : ...Choose...Elicit parameters that are critical to quality from
customers Collect data and metrics Track performance All of the above
69. The mechanism for obtaining customer feedback at project closure as per
veloci-Q is:
Answer : ...Choose...Create a feedback form and send it Use template in
veloci-Q as a feedback form, tailor the feedback form by including project
specific questions Call the customer and obtain feedback An acceptance mail from
the customer post project completion will suffice
70. We take customer complaint seriously

Answer : ...Choose...TRUE FALSE None of the above All of the above
71. Customer Satisfaction survey is conducted to

a. obtain feedback on delivery by Wipro
b. obtain feedback on the engagement with Wipro
c. a and b
d. none of the above
72. Corrective and Preventive Action Plan should be drawn for:

a. Customer complaints received
b. Customer feedback ratings
c. Customer Satisfaction surveys
d. All of the above
73. While tailoring the processes to meet the project needs, which of the
following should be ensured
Answer : ...Choose...Coverage of all phases of the selected life cycle To
define the ETVX for the phases and activities of the tailored process SEPG sign
off of the tailored process all of the above
74. Which of these are used to identify the Risks in the project?
Answer: ...Choose...Risk Identification checklist Stake holder inputs Past
project data All of the above
75. Which of these set of parameters are used for Risk Quantification in Risk
Plan?
Answer : ...Choose...Probability and Impact Mitigation and Contingency
Probability and Mitigation Contingency and Impact
76. The set of actions to be taken when the perceived risk becomes a reality is
documented as part of
Answer : ...Choose...Contingency plan Mitigation Plan Defect Prevention Report
Risk Tracker
77. The threshold value of Risk Score beyond which the Mitigation and
contingency plans need to be documented is
Answer:...Choose...181002745
78. The Six Sigma technique/tool recommended for use for Risk Analysis is
a. Voice of Customer
b. FME
c. ARCA
d. Pugh Matrix
79. Effort Deviation means

(Actual Ans: Difference b/w actual effort and planned effort expressed as % of
planned effort)
a. Variation between planned effort and actual effort+ effort to go PM's effort
allocated to the Team member Projected effort and planned effort Actually
consumed effort only
80. Which of this is not the intended use of Metrics?

Answer : ...Choose...To monitor the project performance To take appropriate
decisions based on measured values To monitor individual performance To revise
plans
81. Which of the below situations recommends an RCA?

Answer : ...Choose...Metrics computed as part of the project is better than
norm Metrics computed as part of the project is below norm Metrics is equal to
the norm All of the above
82. What is the monthly mechanism to record and track metrics of the project?
a. PDMR(Project data and metrics report)
b. Work Plans
c. PMR(Project Monitoring Review)
d. ASR(Account Status Report)
83. Which metric is used for tracking change in requirements?

a. Requirements Change Index
b. Requirements Volatility
c. CRs Index
d. None of the above
84. What does function point estimation mean:

Answer : ...Choose...A standard method to measure size of software projects A
Metric for effort calculation A review technique / mechanism An experimental
method to calculate project delivery time
85. A Functional specification review involves one of the following:

Answer : ...Choose...The following factors like safety, performance,
reliability are considered. Code review Identification and testing of sub
modules Validation of the work items with the environment
86. The effectiveness of the Quality Management System is continuously improved

through
Answer : ...Choose...Audit results, corrective and preventive actions, CSATs,
Management Review Sales reports, Balance sheets, Company audit reports Quality
group recruitments Individual Performance appraisals
87. Preventive action is different from corrective action in terms of

Answer : ...Choose...Fire Fighting Identifying the necessary action as soon as
the non conformities occurred Identifying the problems, waiting for its
occurrence and doing the post mortem study Identifying potential non-
conformities and stops the non conformitis before occurring
88. Quality Policy

Answer : ...Choose...Should not be shown to the customer as it is very
confidentialis prepared for the Mission Quality Group is used to rate the
Mission Quality Group performance every year states a clear commitment to
quality and consistent with organization goals
89. What is re-work in a development project?

Answer : ...Choose...Working late night Working on the job repeatedly
Reviewing the specifications Bug Fixing
90. stands for

Answer : ...Choose...International Organization for Standardization
International Systems for Organization International Systems Orientation
International Systems Organization
91. Purpose of Project performance report is to

Answer : ...Choose...provide the project team appropriate reward compute
average time it takes for screens to load To record the learning’s from the
project for future referencere start the project again at a future date
92. Process improvements can be suggested by anyone in Wipro

Answer : ...Choose...TRUE FALSE Only Project Managers are eligible None of the
above
93. Prototype helps in validating

Answer : ...Choose...technology design requirements technical skills
94. PDCA stands for

Answer : ...Choose...Plan, Define, Change, AddPlan, Do, Change, AidPlan, Do,
Check, ActPlan, Define, Check, Add
95. Process improvement suggestions are periodically reviewed and evaluated for
implementation
a. SQA
b. External Agency
c. SEPG
96. Quality is defined as

a. Ability of the product to meet stated or implicit needs of customers
b. Set of process and procedures
c. Use of checklists and templates
d. All of the above
97. In Wipro, quality group is

a. Part of project teams

b. A separate group headed by Chief Quality Officer(consists of SEPG, SQA Group
and Tool Group),
c. Part of a vertical
98. The subgroups of the quality group are

(Actual Ans :SEPG,SQA Group, Tools Group)
Answer : ...Choose...SEPG, Tools group, Six Sigma and Knowledge Management
GroupSEPG, Six Sigma Group Tools Group, Knowledge Management Group SEPG, Six
Sigma and Knowledge Management Group
99. Organizational learning enters Veloci-Q through

Answer : ...Choose...Queries and PIP Audit findings Project Performance
Analysis All of the above
100. It is mandatory to take corrective and preventive actions for

a. Non-conformances
b. Observations
c. Customer complaints
d. (a) and (c)
101. CMMi model outlines levels of maturity.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
102. In CMMi level software process is improved in a controlled manner.

Answer : ...Choose...125All of the above
103. is a cluster of related practices that are performed collectively to

achieve a set of objectives.
a. Quality System
b. Channel W
c. Process Area
104. In CMMi context is a collaborative effort to find strengths and improvement

areas.
a. Appraisal
b. Audit
c. Assessment
d. Observation
105. An assessment consists of

a. Questionnaire,
b. Documents review and Interviews
c. Review of quality System Interview of customers
d. All of the above
106. is an initiative that involves measuring and analyzing business processes.

a. Six Sigma
b. Root Cause Analysis
c. Pugh Matrix
107. Statistical term that describes the amount of variation in data

a. Normal Distribution
b. Median
c. Standard Deviation
d. Six Sigma
108. DPMO stands for

A. Defects per million opportunities
B. Defects per million occasions
C. Derivations per million opportunities
D. Any of the above
109. In a six sigma project, the problem owner is

A. TMGreen
B. Black Belt
C. BeltWhite Belt
110. Six sigma methodology that is used for reduction of cycle time is
A. Cross Functional Process Mapping
B. DMAIC
C. DSSS
D. Six steps
111. DSSS, DMAIC and TQSS are six sigma methodologies used for
a. Reduction of cycle time
b. Defect Reduction
c. Cost calculations
112. is a repository of data and learning from closed projects.

Answer : ...Choose...Project Data Bank Veloci-QSix SigmaNone of the above
113. A list of project documents, quality records and customer supplied

documents are recorded in
Answer : ...Choose...Master List of Documents Project Folder Document Bank
None of the above
114. Look ahead meetings and root cause analysis are examples of
a. Defect prevention activities
b. Error capture activities
c. Appraisal activities
115. Triggers for root cause analysis are documented in

a. Master list of documents
b. Project Dashboard
c. Project Plan
d. Quality Plan
116. At organizational level, metrics are reviewed by management in

Answer : ...Choose...Management Review Meeting Quality Review Meeting Quality
Improvement Council Any of the above
117. Schedule deviation, effort deviation, field error rate are some of the
metrics captured for
a. Service projects
b. Development Projects(/conversion or porting projects)
c. Maintenance projects
d. Any of the above
118. Difference between actual end date and planned end date expressed as a % of
planned duration is
a. Requirements volatility
b. Schedule volatility
c. Schedule deviation
119. Ratio of product size to total project effort is

a. Effort DeviationCUT productivityOverall ProductivityNone of the above
120. The ratio of defected reported during UAT to the size of project is
Answer : ...Choose...Overall ProductivityPhantom Error RatePost Delivery
defect rateAny of the above
121. Project’s shared vision should be derived from

Answer : ...Choose...Organization Shared VisionCustomer & project
NeedsOrganizational process performance baselinesAll the above
122. Inputs for project initiation are

a. Project Requirements
b. Contract/Proposal
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) or (b)
123. The quality group responsible for process definition, metrics analysis and
quality assurance activities at organizational level is
a. SEPG
b. SQA
c. Tools Group
124. The quality group responsible for process definition, metrics analysis and
quality assurance activities at vertical/group vertical level is
a. SEPG
b. SQA
c. Tools Group
125. Acceptance criteria should be part of RS

Answer : ...Choose...TRUE FALSE Can be part of RS if provided by customer None
of the above
126. The mandatory members for RS and FS review are

a. PM / TM
b. PM / TM / SQA
c. Either PM or SQA Team members
127. The mandatory members for review of plan documents are

Answer : ...Choose...TM, PM, SQA Either PM or SQA TM Tech Lead
128. Risk quantification is done based on

Answer : ...Choose...Risk probability and impact of riskRisk mitigationRisk
scheduleNone of the above
129. is used for tracking and monitoring risks.

Answer : ...Choose...Risk Management planProject planRisk Identification
checklistNone of the above
130. Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project

is known as
a. Process Tailoring
b. Process Approval
c. Process Deviation
131. Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project

are documented in
a. Project Plan
b. Veloci-Q
c. Master List of Process
132. The process model suited for projects with dissimilar service requests is
Answer : ...Choose...Service Process modelRational Unified Process ModelV-
Process ModelNone of the above
133. The data warehousing development process model is derived from
a. Incremental Iterative Process Model
b. Rational Unified Process Model
c. V-Process Model
134. For a project that involves resolving incidents, job cycle monitoring and
software upgrades, the process model to be chosen is
Answer : ...Choose...V-Process model Iterative Process model Production
Support process model None of the above
135. Estimation technique where the project activities are broken down into
smaller tasks and estimated is
a. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
b. Function Point
c. Lines of code
136. Planned and systematic activities performed to provide adequate confidence

that an item/product conforms to requirements is
Answer : ...Choose...Regression Testing Unit Testing Quality Assurance None of
the above
137. The i model was developed by

Answer : ...Choose...Software Engineering Institute Wipro Motorola None of
the above
138. are requests to make changes to baselined work products.

Answer : ...Choose...Requirements Maintenance Request (MR)Change Request
(CR)None of the above
139. Work items that would undergo changes during product life cycle are known
as
Answer : ...Choose...Change Items Configuration Items Product Items None of
the above
140. Wipro’s quality system is known as

Answer : ...Choose...Wiq Tree Veloci-Q Project Data BankK-net
141. Wipro’s quality policy is

a. Meet the needs and expectations of customers
b. Achieve customer satisfaction by providing defect free products and
services on time.
c. Attain CMMi Level 5 compliance
142. Group that focus on the tools used by projects and the impact of using
tools is
Answer : ...Choose...Tools group SQA SEPGAll of the above
143. Practitioners working on projects can suggest process improvements through

a
Answer : ...Choose...Process Improvement Proposal Change Request Email/Phone
All of the above
144. are the industry standards and benchmarks for quality.
Answer : ...Choose...Six Sigma Quality Models Veloci-Q ChannelW
145. Bureau of India Standards emphasizes on

Answer : ...Choose...Project Quality Process Quality Quality Models Product
Quality
146. In Veloci-Q, intentions and directions for quality initiative are

documented in
Answer : ...Choose...Policies section Procedure section Guidelines section All
of the above
147. In a project context, who needs to do what is documented in

Answer : ...Choose...Policies section Procedure section Guidelines section All
of the above
148. Process artifacts that help to perform project activities in a standard

manner are
Answer : ...Choose...Policies Procedures Checklists and Templates All of the
above
149. The extent to which a specific process is defined, managed, measured and
controlled within an organization is known as
Answer : ...Choose...Software Process Maturity Procedures Capacity Measurememt
Maturity Capability Maturity Model Any of the above
150. The two representations in the CMMI Framework are:

Answer : ...Choose...Integrated and Staged Integrated and Continuous Staged
and Continuous None of the above
151. The philosophy of is based on the key principles like:

Answer : ...Choose...Say what you do, do what you sayRecord what you did and
check the resultsAct upon the findingsAll of the above
152. ____________ documents all change requests to baselined items.

Answer : ...Choose...Change Register Change Control Register Configuration
Register Change Request Register
153. Configuration audits are verification mechanisms used to ensure that

deliverables are:
Answer : ...Choose...Defect free On schedule Consistent with requirements None
of the above
154. The different types of Reviews are:

a. Formal / Table reviews
b. Peer / Online Reviews
c. Project Monitoring Reviews
d. Both a and b
155. _________is used to document the features/functionality to be tested, test

strategy and testing methods to be used.
Answer : ...Choose...Test Plan Test Form Test development Test Design
156. _________ serves as an important verification activity to ensure the

completeness of testing in order to ensure product quality.
Answer : ...Choose...Unit Testing Integration Testing Test Audit System
testing
157. __________ matrix is an aid to trace requirements across different phases

of development.
Answer : ...Choose...Traceability Requirements Change request All of the above
158. _________ is a technique used for arriving and prioritizing requirements.

Answer : ...Choose...Pugh matrix Quality Function Deployment (QFD)Voice Of
Customer (VOC)All of the above
159. Pair Programming, Small & Frequent releases are practices recommended by
Answer : ...Choose...XP model V-Process model 2I process model All of the
above
160. Project monitoring reviews are conducted to

a. review project progress
b. understand project requirements
c. monitor requirements volatility
d. All of the above
161. ________ is defined as any adverse event that is likely to occur.

a. Change request
b. Risk
c. Maintenance
d. request Disaster recovery
162. ________ are mistakes / faults caught during the same phase of SDLC
Answer : ...Choose...Defects Bugs Errors All of the above
163. The process model applicable to projects that involve development of new
products or major enhancements to existing products is
Answer : ...Choose...V-process model Waterfall process model Iterative process
model None of the above.

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The Questionnaire Velociq-101

1. A Process defines basically :

2. ISO, CMM, Six Sigma are

3. The International Standard for Quality Assurance – ISO 9001 emphasizes on :

a. Process Quality (rather than product Quality)

4. Maintenance Process Model is best suited for

5. In Wipro which model representation of CMMI was adopted

a. 13.5 defects per million opportunities

7. _______ is a process of examining whether the process conforms to the defined

8. All Configuration Audit issues are recorded in -------------- and tracked to

10. Which of this is a planned mechanism for Defect Prevention?

13. Six Sigma measures defects based on:

14. _______ is a monthly mechanism to track metric trends, exceptions of metrics

16. Which of the following can be used to validate the design

17. The FS document may address

19. __________________ is a mechanism of maintaining the mapping between

20. The set of actions to be taken to minimize the occurrence of Risk is

22. Which phases of SDLC can be sources for errors?

23. Which of the below statements is incorrect on shared vision

25. The prevention activities coming out of a LAM is documented in

26. Voice Of Customer (VOC) can be used to

28. The CMMI level 5 stage is termed as a :

29. Project Performance Analysis (PPA) is an exercise which examines :

32. As per veloci-Q, in a project following V process model – the activity to

33. A “Surveillance audit “is conducted by:

35. Which of the following certifications mandate the use of Audits as a

36. Taxonomy based checklist is used for

37. Wipro Technologies is assessed as a CMMI 5____Organization

43. As per veloci-Q organization structure, the QC in a project reports to

44. How many Process Areas are there in CMMI:

45. Release note is prepared :

47. A project can be initiated based on

50. ______________ in the CM process represents the snapshot of a set of

55. In CMMI the Level 2 stage is described as

56. Project monitoring reviews are conducted :

57. Release review process involves

58. Prior to start of the project, the PM should estimate

59. ___________ methodology involves breaking of the requirements into modules

61. The different categories of Lifecycle models are

a. Development, maintenance, service, testing(these are Project types not

63. The following is not a section of the project plan template :

64. Different Design approaches can be evaluated using

65. Who is responsible for approving the estimate?

66. The 'Three Times Estimate' technique involves

a. Estimating using three different techniques

67. Selection criteria for design alternatives can be based on

68. Objectives of customer focus is to:

70. We take customer complaint seriously

71. Customer Satisfaction survey is conducted to

72. Corrective and Preventive Action Plan should be drawn for:

79. Effort Deviation means

80. Which of this is not the intended use of Metrics?

81. Which of the below situations recommends an RCA?

83. Which metric is used for tracking change in requirements?

84. What does function point estimation mean:

85. A Functional specification review involves one of the following:

86. The effectiveness of the Quality Management System is continuously improved

87. Preventive action is different from corrective action in terms of

88. Quality Policy

89. What is re-work in a development project?

90. stands for

91. Purpose of Project performance report is to

92. Process improvements can be suggested by anyone in Wipro