The Complete Guide To The TOEFL Test PBT - Tests 1 - 3 PDF

414 Practice Test 1
[IJ Listening Comprehension

This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three parts,
each with its own directions. You are not permitted to turn the page during the reading of the
directions or to take notes at any time.
Part A
l1li))) Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear the conversations and
questions only once, and they will not be written out.
When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer choices and select
the one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or
on what can be inferred. Then ftll in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
answer that you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer
You will read: (A) Open the window.

(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.
From the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man should put the chair over by
the window. The best answer to the question, "What does the woman think the man should do?"
is (B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.
8
Section 1 • Listening Comprehension 415
[I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I]
1. (A) She doesn't have an appointment. 8. (A) He was too busy to take it.
(B) Her problem is complicated. (B) He did well on it.
(C) She must live somewhere else. (C) He left some questions unanswered
(D) Her apartment isn't far away. on it.
(D) He took it two times.
2. (A) She can use his phone if she wants.
(B) There's no charge for phone calls. 9. (A) Breaking the glass.
(C) His phone is out of order too. (B) Warming the lid.
(D) She can call him later if she likes. (C) Hitting the lid.
(D) Filling the jar.
3. (A) He couldn't find it.
(B) It was too hard to solve. 10. (A) It was too expensive.
(C) It was simpler than he'd thought. (B) She bought it at the shop next door.
(D) He solved it even though it was hard. (C) It was given to her as a gift.
(D) She paid very little for it.
4. (A) He cleaned up after cooking.
(B) He forgot to put the pots and pans 11. (A) She doesn't want to discuss the traffic.
away. (B) She didn't have to go downtown today.
(C) He was out in a terrible storm. (C) She was in the traffic herself.
(D) He put some plants in the kitchen. (D) She thinks the traffic was better today.
5. (A) He studied forestry in school. 12. (A) The classes aren't interesting.
(B) He worked in a forest. (B) Classes have been canceled.
(C) He read a lot of books about trees. (C) The weather is pleasant.
(D) His father taught him. (D) It isn't very sunny today.
6. (A) How many pages he must write. 13. (A) Gary doesn't need a audio player.
(B) What Professor Barclay discussed. (B) She wants her audio player back.
(C) How long the class lasted. (C) She's glad Gary is finally here.
(D) When the paper is due. (D) Gary can keep her audio player.
7. (A) She doesn't like any music except 14. (A) Stay inside and read it.
classical. (B) Look in it for advertisements for
(B) There is some classical music she umbrellas.
doesn't like. (C) Cover her head with it.
(C) She likes classical music, but she can't (D) Throw it away.
play it.
15. (A) She originally supported Margaret.
(D) Classical music doesn't interest her at
(B) She can no longer support Ed.
all.
(C) Ed has dropped out of the race.
(D) She's not interested in the election.
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416 Practice Test 1
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16. (A) She and her brother painted the 24. (A) To improve his game quickly.
apartment. (B) To take more lessons.
(B) Her brother owes her some money. (C) To train with a professional.
(C) Her brother painted the apartment by (D) To teach people to play tennis.
himself.
25. (A) Wrap the present.
(D) She painted her brother's apartment.
(B) Playa game.
17. (A) Give him a map. (C) Point out a problem.
(B) Cut his hair for him. (D) End the discussion.
(C) Drive him to the lake.
26. (A) He wants to buy some books.
(D) Show him another route.
(B) Two of the books are the same.
18. (A) Hanging it. (C) He needs some matches.
(B) Buying it. (D) The couple is a good match.
(C) Painting it.
27. (A) Neither street goes downtown.
(D) Framing it.
(B) California Street is better than Oak
19. (A) Borrow Stephanie's computer. Street.
(B) Buy her own computer. (C) There's not enough time to go
(C) Save some money. downtown.
(D) Stay home and complete her (D) He can take either street.
assignment.
28. (A) It was hard to hear.
20. (A) He doesn't need to practice anymore. (B) It wasn't true.
(B) His team has won a lot of games. (C) It was surprising.
(C) He doesn't want to play volleyball. (D) It wasn't very interesting.
(D) His.team needs to improve.
29. (A) The handle on the suitcase is broken.
21. (A) She seems to be feeling better. (B) His hands are already full.
(B) She has quite an imagination. (C) The luggage is too heavy for him.
(C) She takes beautiful pictures. (D) He'll be happy to help.
(D) She's too sick to go out.
30. (A) She had to prepare for an exam.
22. (A) Lou has been here once before. (B) She'd passed the physics test.
(B) They'll start when Lou arrives. (C) She was going camping.
(C) Lou has already started. (D) She'd dropped the physics class.
(D) Everyone is getting hungry.
23. (A) She thinks they're reasonably priced.
(B) She doesn't like them at all.
(C) She'd buy them if she had enough
money.
(D) She doesn't need them, but she still
likes them.
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Part B
Directions: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two speakers. After
each of these conversations, there are a number of questions. You will hear each conversation and
question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A),
(B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can
be inferred. Then fIll in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that
you have selected.
Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.
8
418 Practice Test 1
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31. (A) They are both studying social 35. (A) At a university.
anthropology. (B) At a television station.
(B) Both of them are going to the museum (C) At a newspaper office.
on Saturday. (D) At a hospital.
(C) They both have the same teacher.
36. (A) He needs a well-paying position.
(D) Both of them have studied
(B) He was told to by a professor.
anthropology before.
(C) He wants the experience.
32. (A) In the morning. (D) He recently lost another job.
(B) In the afternoon.
37. (A) Drama.
(C) In the evening.
(B) Journalism.
(D) Only on Saturdays.
(C) Telecommunications.
33. (A) Relationships between parents and (D) History.
children.
38. (A) Talk to Ms. Wagner.
(B) The tools used by ancient people.
(B) Drop a class.
(C) Leadership in contemporary society.
(C) Change his major.
(D) Marriage customs.
(D) Complete a form.
34. (A) He found it uninteresting.
(B) He found it useful.
(C) He found it fascinating.
(D) He found it difficult.
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Part C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After
each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only
once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard each question, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A),
(B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be
inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you
have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Now here is a sample question.

You will hear:
Sample Answer
You will read: (A) Philosophy.

(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography.
The lecture concerns a lunar eclipse, a topic that would typically be discussed in an astronomy
class. The choice that best answers the question, "In what course is this lecture probably being
given?" is (C), "Astronomy." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer
You will read: (A) The Earth's shadow moves across the .\1oon
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
(C) The Moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.
420 Practice Test 1
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From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun and
the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice that best answers the
question, "According to the speaker, which of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is (A),
"The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."
8
39. (A) A football game. 45. (A) As confusing.
(B) Jet transportation. (B) As innovative.
(C) The Hindenburg disaster. (C) As amusing.
(D) Lighter-than-air craft. (D) As wasteful.
40. (A) Early twentieth century airships. 46. (A) To standardize daylight saving time.
(B) Blimps. (B) To establish year-round daylight saving
(C) Jet aircraft. time.
(D) Modern airships. (C) To abolish daylight saving time.
(D) To shorten daylight saving time.
41. (A) The age of zeppelins ended in disaster
there. 47. (A) A program the city is starting.
(B) It was there that the first blimp was (B) The uses of recycled materials.
designed. (C) A proposed schedule.
(C) Helium was first substituted for (D) A recent newspaper article.
hydrogen there.
48. (A) Newspapers.
(D) It was there that the last zeppelin was
(B) Aluminum cans.
built.
(C) Plastic bottles.
42. (A) They would be safer. (D) Glass containers.
(B) They would use less fuel.
49. (A) The north.
(C) They would be faster.
(B) The east.
(D) They could fly higher.
(C) The south.
43. (A) The Uniform Time Act. (D) The central.
(B) The role of daylight saving time in
50. (A) Look in the local newspaper.
wartime.
(B) Keep listening to radio.
(C) Ways to save energy.
(C) Stop by the recycling center.
(D) The history of daylight saving time.
(D) Call the radio station.
44. (A) In the spring.
(B) In the summer.
(C) In the fall.
(D) In the winter.
TInS IS THE END OF SECTION 1, USTENING COMPREHENSION.
STOP WORK ON SECTION 1.
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422 Practice Test 1
[I] Structure and Written Expression

Time: 25 minutes
This section tests your ability to recognize grdmmar and usage suitable for standard written
English. This section is divided into two parts, each with its own directions.
Structure
Directions: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of these sentences, there
are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-CA), (B), CC), or (D)-that
best completes the sentence. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of
the answer that you have selected.
Example! Sample Answer
Pepsin ____ an enzyme used

in digestion.
(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being
This sentence should properly read "Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion." You should fill in (B)
on your answer sheet.
Example II Sample Answer
c.FJCDCD . .
____ large natural lakes are found
in the state of South Carolina.
(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
CD) No
This sentence should properly read "No large natural lakes are found in the state of South
Carolina." You should ftll in CD) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this part.
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Section 2 • Structure and Written Expression 423
1.
••••••••••••
team sports require cooperation. 7. A person of ____ age may suffer from
(A) Of all defects of vision.
(B) They are all (A) every
(C) All (B) some
(D) Why are all (C) certain
(D) any
2. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a
garden roots firmly anchor 8. ____ have settled, one of their first
plants to the soil. concerns has been to locate an adequate
(A) is well aware of water supply.
(B) is well aware that (A) Wherever people
(C) well aware (B) There are people who
(D) well aware that (C) Whether people
(D) People
3. Centuries of erosion have exposed
____ rock surfaces in the Painted 9. If a bar magnet is , the two
Desert of northern Arizona. pieces form two complete magnets, each
(A) in colors of the rainbow with a north and south pole.
(B) colored like a rainbow (A) broken
(C) rainbow-colored (B) broke
(D) a rainbow's coloring (C) breaking
(D) break
4. The higher the temperature of a molecule,
10. The type of plant and animal life living in
(A) the more energy it has and around a pond depends on the soil of
(B) than it has more energy the pond, , and the pond's
(C) more energy has it location.
(D) it has more energy (A) what the quality of the water is
(B) how is the water quality
5. Frontier surgeon Ephraim MacDonald had to
(C) the quality of the water
perform operations anesthesia.
(D) what is the water quality
(A) no
(B) not having 11. Clifford Holland, civil engineer,
(C) without was in charge of the construction of the
(D) there wasn't first tunnel under the Hudson River.
(A) he was a
6. ____ young, chimpanzees are easily
(B) a
trained.
(C) being a
(A) When are
(D) who, as a
(B) When
(C) They are
(D) When they
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424 Practice Test 1
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12. parrots are native to tropical 14. In 1775 Daniel Boone opened the
regions is untrue. Wilderness Trail and made the
(A) That all ftrst settlements in Kentucky.
(B) All (A) possibly it was
(C) Why all (B) as possible
(D) Since all (C) possible
CD) it possible
13. A major concern among archaeologists
today is the preservation of archaeological 15. Rarely seen far from water.
sites, are threatened by (A) spotted turtles
development. (B) spotted turtles are
(A) of which many (C) have spotted turtles
(B) many of them (D) are spotted turtles
(C) which many
(D) many of which
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Section 2 • Structure and Written Expression 42S
••••••••••••
Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C), and (D).
You must identify the one underlined expression that must be changed for the sentence to be
correct. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and fill in the space
corresponding to the letter.
Example I Sample Answer
Lenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.

ABC D
This sentence should read "Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes." You should
therefore select answer (A).
/<'xample II Sample Answer
When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the damp plaster of a wall.
A B C D
This sentence should read "When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to the damp
plaster of a wall." You should therefore select answer (B).
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.
426 Practice Test 1
16. Ceramics can be harder, !_ight, and more resistant to heat than metals.
A B C D
17. Not everyone realizes that the most largest organ of the human body is the skin.
A -B- C D
18. Mold is extremely destruction to books in a library.

A B --c--n
19. Sidney Lanier achieved fame both as a poet or as a symphony musician.

A 13 C 0
20. The horses used play polo are not of any special breed or of any definite size.
A B C 0
21. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave, called the warp, which across are passed different
A B
colored threads, called the weft, forming decorative patterns.
C D
22. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these craftsmen
--A- -B--
probably did not think of them as artists.

C -0-
23. Perhaps mankind's first important musical influence were the songs of birds.
i\ B -c-.- --0-
24. The techniques of science and magic are quite different, but their basic aims-to understand
--A- B C
and control nature-they are very similar.

o
25. It was in a cave near Magdalena, New Mexico, when the -

oldest known ears of cultivated corn
------
A B C
were discovered.
D
26. The fossil remains of much extinct mammals have been found in the tar pits at Rancho La Brea
-A- B -c-
in Los Angeles.
D
27. Sharks can detect minute electrical discharges coming from its prey.
A --B-- C D
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28. A dark nebula consists of a cloud of interstellar dust enough dense to obscure the stars
A B C
beyond it.
D
29. Commercially honey is heated and filtered in order to stabilize and clarify !!:.
A B C D
30. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical specialties
A B C -D-
have developed.
31. One reason birds have been so successful is because of their able to escape from danger
A B C
quickly.
D
32. The wood of the rosewood tree -

is used
--
to do fine musical instruments.
B C D
33. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.
A B C I)
34. Ballet performers must be believable actors and actresses as well as experts dancers.
A -B- --C- D
35. Venus, the second planet from the Sun, is exactly almost the same size as the Earth.
A B C D
36. P T. Barnum opened his own circus in 1871 and become the most famous showman of his
A B C
time.
-1)-
37. The way a child plays with other children reveals a lots about the child's emotional
A B C
development.
D
38. Sheep have been domesticated for over 5,000 years ago.
A B -C D
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428 Practice Test 1
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39. Chemical compounds with barium, cobalt, and strontium are responsible to many of the vivid
-A- B C
colors in fireworks.
-D-
40. Duke University in North Carolina has an outstanding collecting of documents concerning
~ B C
Southern history.
D
THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2 ONLY.
DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

Section 3 • Reading Comprehension 429
00 Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes
This section of the test measures your ability to comprehend written materials.
Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of questions. Read
the passages and, for each question, choose the one best answer-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-based on
what is stated in the passage or on what can be inferred from the passage. Then fill in the space on
your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.
Read the following passage:

Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A
bird's territory may be small or large. Some birds
claim only their nest and the area right around it,
(line) while others claim far larger territories that include
(5) their feeding areas. Gulls, penguins, and other waterfowl
nest in huge colonies, but even in the biggest colonies,
each male and his mate have small territories of their
own immediately around their nests.
Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other
(10) males of the same species. In some cases, a warning call
or threatening pose may be all the defense needed, but in
other cases, intruders may refuse to leave peacefully.
What is the main topic of this passage?

(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds'mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds
The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
Example!! Sample Answer
According to the passage, male birds defend their

territory primarily against
(A) female birds
(B) birds of other species
(C) males of their own species
(D) mammals
The passage states that "Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of the same
species." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
430 Practice Test 1
Questions 1-11
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by

thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert hydrogen to
helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about 4
(line) billion, 600 million years and is thousands of times larger than
(5) the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest
of the Sun's life will be like. About 5 billion years from now,
the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface
temperature will fall. The higher temperature of the center will
(10) increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of
the Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the
distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun. The
Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will
become too hot for life to exist.
(15) Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant,
it will begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the Earth,
it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge
amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova explosions as it
changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
(20) After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used
up all its fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a star is called
a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth
will be dark and cold. If any atmosphere remains there, it will
have frozen onto the Earth's surface.
1. What is the primary purpose of this passage?
(A) To alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
(B) To discuss conditions on Earth in the far future
(C) To present a theory about red giant stars
(D) To describe changes that the Sun will go through
2. The word "fueled" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) powered
(B) bombarded
(C) created
(D) propelled
3. The word "state" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) shape
(B) condition
(C) location
(D) size
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4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun

(A) is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
(B) has been in existence for 10 billion years
(C) is rapidly changing in size and brightness
(D) will continue as a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
5. What will probably be the first stage of change as the Sun becomes a red giant?
(A) Its core will cool off and use less fuel.
(B) Its surface will become hotter and shrink.
(C) It will throw off huge amounts of gases.
(D) Its center will grow smaller and hotter.
6. When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will conditions be like on Earth?
(A) Its atmosphere will freeze and become solid.
(B) It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the Sun.
(C) It will become too hot for life to exist.
(D) It will be nearly destroyed by nova explosions.
7. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be

(A) the same size as the planet Mercury
(B) thousands of times smaller than it is today
(C) around 35 million miles in diameter
(D) cold and dark
8. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the sequence of stages that
the Sun will probably pass through?
(A) Yellow dwarf, white dwarf, red giant, black giant
(B) Red giant, white dwarf, red dwarf, nova explosion
(C) Yellow dwarf, red giant, white dwarf, black dwarf
(D) White dwarf, red giant, black dwarf, yellow dwarf
9. The phrase "throw off" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) eject
(B) burn up
(C) convert
(D) let in
10. The word "there" in line 23 refers to

(A) our own planet
(B) the outer surface of the Sun
(C) the core of a black dwarf
(D) the planet Mercury
11. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
(A) Alarmed
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Comic
.¥(-.
(D) Objective
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432 Practice Test 1
------------------------------------ -------------------------------------------------------
Questions 12-23
It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize

how important the building of canals would be to the nation's
development. In fact, before he became President, he headed the
(line) first company in the United States to build a canal which was to
(5) connect the Ohio and Potomac rivers. It was never completed, but it
showed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the country
expanded westward, settlers in western New York, Pennsylvania, and
Ohio needed a means to ship goods. Canals linking natural waterways
seemed to offer an effective solution.
(10) In 1791 engineers commissioned by the state of New York
investigated the possibility of a canal between Albany on the
Hudson River and Buffalo on Lake Erie, which would link the Great
Lakes area with the Atlantic seacoast. It would avoid the
mountains that served as a barrier to canals from the Delaware
(15) and Potomac rivers.
The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Erie Canal,
was made by private companies, but only a comparatively small
portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds.
The cost of the project was an estimated five million dollars, an
(20) enormous amount for those days. There was some on-again-offagain
Federal funding, but the War of 1812 put an end to this. In 1817
DeWitt Clinton was elected Governor of New York and persuaded the
state to finance and build the canal. It was completed in 1825,
costing two million dollars more than expected.
(25) The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors' faith, quickly paying
for itself through tolls. It was far more economical than any other
form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between the
Great Lake region and East Coast, robbing the Mississippi River of
much of its traffic. It allowed New York to supplant Boston,
(30) Philadelphia, and other Eastern cities as the chief center of both
domestic and foreign commerce. Cities sprang up along the canal.
It also contributed in a number of ways to the North's victory over
the South in the Civil War.
An expansion of the canal was planned in 1849. Increased traffic
(35) would undoubtedly have warranted its construction had it not been
for the development of the railroads.
12. Why does the author most likely mention George Washington in the first paragraph?
(A) He was President at the time the Erie Canal was built.
(B) He was involved in pioneering efforts to build canals.
(C) He successfully opened the first canal in the United States.
(D) He commissioned engineers to study the possibility of building the Erie Canal.
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13. The word "feasibility" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) profitability
(B) difficulty
(C) possibility
(D) capability
14. According to the passage, the Erie Canal connected the
(A) Potomac and Ohio rivers
(B) Hudson River and Lake Erie
(C) Delaware and Potomac rivers
(D) Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River
15. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "comparatively" in line 17?
(A) Relatively
(B) Contrarily
(C) Incredibly
(D) Considerably
16. The phrase "on-again-off-again" in line 20 could be replaced by which of the following with the
least change in meaning?
(A) Intermittent
(B) Unsolicited
(C) Ineffectual
(D) Gradual
17. The completion of the Erie Canal was financed by
(A) the state of New York
(B) private companies
(C) the federal government
(D) DeWitt Clinton
18. The actual cost of building the Erie Canal was
(A) five million dollars
(B) less than had been estimated
(C) seven million dollars
(D) more than could be repaid
19. The word "tolls" in line 26 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Jobs
(B) Grants
(C) Links
(D) Fees
lij.i.",t."UjU§!i.¥t-.
434 Practice Test 1
20. Which of the following is NOT given in the fourth paragraph as an effect of the building of the
Erie Canal?
(A) It allowed the East Coast to trade with the Great Lakes area.
(B) It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.
(C) It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War.
(D) It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.
21. What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in the last paragraph?
(A) They were being planned but had not yet been built.
(B) They were seriously underdeveloped.
(C) They had begun to compete with the Erie Canal for traffic.
(D) They were weakened by the expansion of the canal.
22. The word "warranted" in line 35 is closest in meaning to
(A) guaranteed
(B) justified
(C) hastened
(D) prevented
23. At what point in the passage does the author focus on the beginning of construction of the
Erie Canal?
(A) Lines 3-5
(B) Lines 10-13
(C) Lines 16-18
(D) Lines 25-26
Questions 24-33
It's a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree

sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard
the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are
(line) drawn to them like vultures to a dying animal.
(5) Researchers with the u.s. Department of Agriculture's Forest
Service fastened sensors to the bark of parched trees and
clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists,
most drought-stricken trees transmit their plight in the 50- to 500-
kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than
(10) 20 kilohertz.) Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make
slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface
of the wood.
The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the
water columns inside tubes that run the length of the tree break,
(15) a result of too little water flowing through them. These fractured
columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some
lij.i.,;,t.ilUj U4:J i ¥t-.

insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the

trees'vibrations and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are
now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of
(20) water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. "Water-
stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they
experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to
something other than sound," one scientist said.
24. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
(A) The vibrations produced by insects
(B) The mission of the U.S. Forest Service
(C) The effect of insects on trees
(D) The sounds made by distressed trees
25. The word "them" in line 4 refers to
(A) trees
(B) scientists
(C) insects
(D) cries
26. The word "parched" in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
CA) Burned
(B) Dehydrated
CC) Recovered
(D) Fallen
27, The word "plight" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) signal
(ll) condition
(C) need
(D) agony
28. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees
CA) serve as a form of communication with other trees
(B) are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
(C) cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
CD) fall into the 1-20 kilohertz range
29, The word "fractured" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) long
(ll) blocked
(C) hollow
CD) broken
30. Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees' distress signals?
(A) Torn roots
(B) Attacks by insects
(C) Experiments by scientists
(D) Lack of water
@.i·'I,t.iIIUi U43'@(-.
436 Practice Test 1
31. In line 17, the phrase "pick up" could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) Perceive
(B) Lift
(C) Transmit
(D) Attack
32. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees
EXCEPT
(A) thermal changes
(B) smells
(C) sounds
(D) changes in color
33. It can be inferred that, at the time the passage was written, research concerning the distress
signals of trees
(A) had been conducted many years earlier
(B) had been unproductive up to then
(C) was continuing
(D) was no longer sponsored by the government
Questions 34--41
The concepts of analogy and homology are probably easier to

exemplify than to define. When different species are structurally
compared, certain features can be described as either analogous or
(line) homologous. For example, flight requires certain rigid aeronautical
(5) principles of design, yet birds, bats, and insects have all
conquered the air. The wings of all three types of animals derive
from different embryological structures, but they perform the same
functions. In this case, the flight organs of these creatures can
be said to be analogous. In contrast, features that arise from the
(10) same structures in the embryo but are used in different functions
are said to be homologous. The pectoral fins of a fish, the wings
of a bird, and the forelimbs of a mammal are all homologous
structures. They are genetically related in the sense that both
the forelimb and the wing evolved from the fin.
34. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) A contrast is drawn between two concepts by means of examples.
(B) A general concept is introduced, examples are given, and a conclusion is offered.
(C) Two definitions of the same concept are compared.
(D) Two proposals are suggested and support for both is offered.
35. According to the passage, the concepts of analogy and homology are
(A) difficult to understand
(B) easier to understand through examples than through definitions
(C) impossible to explain
(D) simple to define but hard to apply
@.i·,;.t:jlUjU§ii.@t-.
36. The word "rigid" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) inflexible
(B) ideal
(C) unnatural
(D) steep
37. According to the information provided in the passage, which of the following would most
probably be considered analogous?
(A) A shark's fin and a tiger's claws
(8) A man's arms and a bird's wings
(C) A monkey's tail and an elephant's tail
(D) A spider's legs and a horse's legs
3R. According to the passage, one way in which homologous organs differ from analogous organs
is that they
(A) are genetically related
(B) are only found in highly developed animals
(C) perform the same general functions
(D) come from different embryological structures
39. As used throughout the passage, the term "structures" most nearly means
(A) buildings
(B) features of an animal's anatomy
(C) organizational principles
(D) units of grammar
40. The word "sense" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) feeling
(B) logic
(C) meaning
(D) perception
41. Where in the passage does the author first focus his discussion on the concept of homology?
(A) Lines 2-4
(B) Lines 6-8
(C) Lines 9-1 1
(D) Lines 13-14
Questions 42-50
Probably the most famous film commenting on twentieth century

technology is Modern Times, made in 1936. Charlie Chaplin was
motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing
(line) him, happened to describe working conditions in industrial
(5) Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were lured
Id·i .,,'i.ilUj U43.@t-.

438 Practice Test 1
to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or

five years, these young men's health was destroyed by the stress of
work in the factories.
The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way
(10) down a crowded ramp. Abruptly the scene shifts to a scene of
factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory.
However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied
comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a gentler note of
satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.
(15) Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of
the footage of Modern Times, but they contain some of the most
pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No
one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to
keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his
(20) mind in the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic
feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need
not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions,
hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped into his position on the
assembly line and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people's
(25) utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve
their basic needs.
Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best
film treating technology within a social context. It does not
offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the
(30) sentiments of many who feel they are victims of an over-mechanized
world.
42. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to
(A) criticize the factory system of the 1930's
(B) analyze an important film
(C) explain Chaplin's style of acting
(D) discuss how film reveals the benefits of technology
43. According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for the film Modern Times from
(A) a newspaper article
(B) a scene in a movie
(C) a job he had once held
(D) a conversation with a reporter
44. The word "abruptly" in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) suddenly
(B) mysteriously
(C) finally
(D) predictably
lij.i·';'&11 Uj U43 i @t--'

45. It can be inferred from the passage that two-thirds of the film Modern Times
(A) is completely unforgettable
(B) takes place outside a factory
(C) is more critical than the other third
(D) entertains the audience more than the other third
46. Which of the following could best replace the phrase "losing his mind" in lines 19-20?
(A) Getting fired
(B) Doing his job
(C) Going insane
(D) Falling behind
47. The word "This" in line 24 refers to which of the following?
(A) The machine
(B) The food
(C) The assembly line
(D) The scene
48. According to the passage, the purpose of the scene involving the feeding machine is to show
people's
(A) ingenuity
(B) adaptability
(C) helplessness
(D) independence
49. The word "utter" in line 25 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Notable
(B) Complete
(C) Regrettable
(D) Necessary
50. The author would probably be LEAST likely to use which of the following words to describe
the film Modern Times?
(A) Revolutionary
(B) Entertaining
(C) Memorable
(D) Satirical
THIS IS THE END OF THE SAMPLE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
~TO~ ~TO~ ~TO~ ~TO' ~TO' ~TO~

THERE IS NO TEST MATERIAL ONTHIS PAGE.
442 Practice Test 2
I .
[}] Listening Comprehension

This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three parts, each
with its own directions. You are not permitted to turn the page during the reading of the
Part A
liliiii))) Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer

(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.
the window. The best answer to the question, "What does the woman think the man should do?" is
(B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.
8
Practice Test 2
441
442 Practice Test 2
m listening Comprehension
Part A
l1li»)) Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer

(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.
(B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.
8
1. (A) The plane hasn't taken off yet. 10. (A) To a game.
(B) The cost of flying has increased. (B) To buy tickets.
(C) More flights will soon be scheduled. (C) To get some groceries.
(D) He hasn't changed his vacation plans. (D) To a party.
2. (A) All of the books are cheap. 11. (A) The bucket has been broken.
(B) None of the books is required. (B) The water was spilled.
(C) Half of the books should be returned. (C) They still need more money.
(D) Only four of the books are expensive. (D) They have run out of time.
3. (A) It will probably rain today. 12. (A) He is kind.
(B) She likes to watch the rain come down. (B) He is impolite.
(C) She'll play even if it rains. (C) He is somewhat busy.
(D) It has rained a lot lately. (D) She doesn't want to say.
4. (A) Nearly all of the students can meet. 13. (A) It's not surprising that Tony went
(B) The meeting time must be changed. fishing.
(C) Only Lisa will be at the library. (B) He already knew Tony had caught only
(D) Lisa dropped the class on Friday. one fish.
(C) He doesn't think Tony is a good
5. (A) He walked so far that he was
fisherman.
exhausted.
(D) Tony usually catches a lot of fish.
(B) He was wearing shorts on his hike.
(C) He encountered some wild animals in 14. (A) Don't complete the form.
the woods. (B) Don't waste time.
(D) He should get some comfortable hiking (C) Take a form.
shoes. (D) There's no hurry.
6. (A) He intends to see Michelle. 15. (A) He is telling her the truth.
(B) Michelle may visit him anytime. (B) He's never been to Seattle.
(C) He has to return some money to (C) He has visited Seattle once.
Michelle. (D) She's only spoken to him once.
(D) Michelle owes him some money.
16. (A) Disapproved of her plan.
7. (A) Buying some red chairs. (B) Watered Lily's plants.
(B) Renting a bigger auditorium. (C) Traveled overseas.
(C) Moving chairs from the auditorium. (D) Caught colds.
(D) Getting more chairs.
17. (A) It should have been turned up.
8. (A) He can't read the sign. (B) The people across town enjoyed it.
(B) He didn't make the sign. (C) It's extremely popular.
(C) He didn't sign his name. (D) It was much too loud.
(D) He doesn't like the sign.
18. (A) It was quite relaxing.
9. (A) Housing near campus is getting (B) The weather wasn't good.
cheaper and cheaper. (C) It was unexpectedly busy.
(B) She doesn't need to live close to (D) It was perfectly planned.
campus.
(C) It's not easy to find inexpensive
housing near campus.
(D) The man could tind housing if he
looked carefully. lij.i.",t·iIIUiU4:J i ¥t--'
444 Practice Test 2
[IJ[IJ[IJ[I]ITJ[I][I][I][I][I][I][I]
19. (A) The lab is generally locked on 25. (A) He doesn't mind moving.
Saturdays. (B) His brother won't move for two weeks.
(B) The man doesn't have a key to the lab. (C) He'd rather not help his brother move.
(C) Something strange happened in the lab (D) His brother decided not to move.
on Saturday.
26. (A) She has a coin like his.
(D) The lab should never be locked.
(B) She knows a lot about coins.
20. (A) He needs the insurance no matter how (C) She thinks the coin is worthless.
much it costs. (D) She's never seen this type of coin.
(B) There are other types of insurance he
27. (A) Its lyrics are hard to understand.
should buy.
(B) It needs a stronger melody.
(C) The man doesn't have enough money
(C) It has become very popular.
to buy insurance.
(D) Its melody is hard to forget.
(D) The cost of insurance is becoming
more reasonable. 28. (A) He hadn't been smiling.
(B) His picture hadn't been taken.
21. (A) She's an art student.
(C) It wasn't a good picture.
(B) She's afraid of flying.
(D) The woman wouldn't show him the
(C) She did well on the test.
picture.
(D) She got her pilot's license.
29. (A) They're always expensive.
22. (A) An elevator.
(B) They haven't been cleaned.
(B) A television.
(C) They're inexpensive now.
(C) An automobile.
(D) There aren't any available.
(D) A telephone.
30. (A) From college.
23. (A) Meg's sister took it to the cleaner's.
(B) Through her roommate.
(B) Meg cleaned it.
(C) From the reception.
(C) Meg wore it to class.
(D) Through her sister.
(D) Meg's sister borrowed it.
24. (A) They must go to an orientation session.
(B) They are not new students.
(C) They won't be allowed to register.
(D) They were given the wrong schedule.
@,i""al UjU§3 i @t. •

Part B
have selected.
446 Practice Test 2
[IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ [IJ[IJ [IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ

31. (A) At a newspaper. 36. (A) To warn of dangers.
(B) At an advertising agency. (B) To explain traffic regulations.
(C) At a furniture store. (C) To wake up drivers who are falling
(D) At a real estate office. asleep.
(D) To give directions.
32. (A) A two-bedroom apartment.
(B) A sofa. 37. (A) He has a good sense of direction.
(C) A chair. (B) He owns a "smart" car.
(D) A roommate. (C) He doesn't know how to drive.
(D) He doesn't know the way to the
33. (A) Her phone number.
woman's house.
(B) The location of the apartment.
(C) The best time to call her. 38. (A) He got lost.
(D) Her first name. (B) He ran out of gas.
(C) He was in an accident.
34. (A) $5.
(D) His car broke down.
(B) $15.
(C) $30.
(D) $250.
35. (A) From a newspaper advertisement.
(B) From a magazine article.
(C) From a television program.
(D) From an automobile dealer.
(ij.i.,;,t.ilUj U43.¥t. •
Part C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After each
of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only once,
and the questions are not written out.
have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

You will hear:
Sample Answer

(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography.
Here is another sample question.
You will hear:
Sample Answer
You will read: (A) The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon.
CB) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
CC) The Moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.
CD) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.
lij.i.,;,t·"nj U43.@t--'
448 Practice Test 2
IITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ
From tbe lecture you learn that a lunar eclip~e occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun and
the \1oon and the shadow of the Earth pas'ies acro~s the Moon. The choice that best answers the
question, 'According to the speaker, which of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is (A),
"The Earth's shadow moves acros~ the Moon,"
Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is Hot permitted,
8
39. CA) To present an award. 46. (A) Take part in the race.
(ll) To say goodbye to Professor Callaghan. (ll) Travel to the country.
(C) To explain computer models. (C) Avoid the downtown area.
(D) To welcome a new college president. (D) Ride a bicycle to work.
40. (A) An administrator. 47. (A) In an art history class.
(ll) A faculty member. (ll) In a painter's studio.
(C) A chancellor of the college. (C) In a photography class.
(D) A graduate student. (D) In an art museum.
4l. (A) Computer science. 48. (A) A famous person.
(ll) History. (ll) A beautiful landscape.
(C) Economics. (C) An empty phone booth.
(D) Physics. (D) Geometric shapes.
42. (A) Two. 49. (A) They are very valuable.
(ll) Four. (ll) They are quite large.
(C) Six. (C) They are highly ahstract.
CD) Eight. (D) They are extremely lifelike.
43. (A) A bicycle racer. 50. (A) Paint pictures.
(ll) A radio announcer. (ll) Write papers.
(C) A coach. (C) View some slides.
(D) A television reporter. (D) Discuss their reactions.
44. (A) The benefits of bicycle commuting.
(ll) Local traffic problems.
(C) A series of bicycle races.
(D) The American university system.
45. (A) On the college campus.
(ll) On downtown streets.
(C) In Woodland Park.
(D) In the nearby countryside.
THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1, liSTENING COMPREHENSION.

450 Practice Test 2
~ Structure and Written Expression

Time: 25 minutes
This section tests your ability to recognize grammar and usage suitable for standard written
Structure
are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that

in digestion.
(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being

(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
(D) No
Carolina." You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
lij.i.,;,t"Uj;tM.¥t a
- '
1. Sharp knives are actually safer to use _ _ _ _ __

(A) as dull ones
(B) as ones that are dull
(C) than dull ones
(D) that are dull ones
2. Daniel Webster, Thaddeus Stevens, and many others _ _ _ _ _ _ prominent in public life
began their careers by teaching school.
(A) they became
(B) once they became
(C) became
(D) who became
3. As coal mines became deeper, the problems of draining water, bringing in fresh air, and
_ _ _ _ _ _ to the surface increased.
(A) transporting ore
(B) to transport ore
(C) how ore is transported
(D) ore is transporting
4. because of the complexity of his writing, Henry James never became a popular
writer, but his works are admired by critics and other writers.
(A) It may be
(B) Perhaps
(C) Besides
(D) Why is it
5. Piedmont glaciers are formed _ _ _ _ _ _ several valley glaciers join and spread out over a
plain.
(A) by
(B) when
(C) from
(D) that
6. As late as 1890, Key West, with a population of 18,000, _ _ _ _ _ _ Florida's largest city.
(A) that was
(B) to be
(C) was
(D) it was
7. A mastery of calculus depends on _ _ _ _ _ _ of algebra.
(A) an understanding
(B) is understood
(C) to understand
(D) understand
@.i."'i.',UjUMi!$t-.
452 Practice Test 2
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8. he was not a musician himself, Lawrence Hammond developed an electronic
keyboard instrument called the Hammond organ.
(A) Although
(B) That
(C) Despite
(D) For
9. Agnes De Mille's landmark musical play Oklahoma! was _ _ _ _ _ _ of story, music, and
dance.
(A) successfully combined
(B) a successful combination
(C) to combine successfully
(D) successful combining
10. single dialect of American English has ever become dominant.
(A) No
(B) Not only a
(C) Not
(D) Nor a
11. In 1837 the University of Michigan became the first state university _ _ _ _ _ by a board
of regents elected by the voters of the state.
(A) under the control
(B) it was controlled
(C) being controlled
(D) to be controlled
12. Indoor heating systems have made _ _ _ _ _ _ for people to live and work comfortably in
temperate climates.
(A) it is possible
(B) possible
(C) it possible
(D) possibly
13. Certain fish eggs contain droplets of oil, _ _ _ _ _ _ to float on the surface of the water.
(A) allowing them
(B) allows them
(C) they are allowed
(D) this allows them
14. Considered America's first great architect,
(A) many of the buildings at Harvard University were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson
(B) Henry Hobson Richardson designed many of the buildings at Harvard University
(C) Harvard University has many buildings that were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson
(D) it was Henry Hobson Richardson who designed many of the buildings at Harvard University
15. is caused by a virus was not known until 1911.
(A) That measles
(B) As measles
(C) Measles ~
(D) What if measles @.i.hi(.ihti;rtiiWn-~
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Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, CA), CB), (C), and CD).
correct. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and fill in the space
Lenses may to have either concave or

ABC
convex shapes.
--D-
When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint

A B
directly to the damp plaster of a wall.
---c-·-- D
plaster of a wall." You should therefore select answer CB).
lij.i.",(.i,UJU§:ii@t-.
454 Practice Test 2
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16. Dreams are commonly made up of either visual and verbal images.
A B --C-- D
17. The Yale Daily News is oldest than any other college newspaper still in operation in the
A -B- ---c- D
United States.
18. Mary Rinehart was a pioneer in the field of journalist in the early twentieth century.
A --B- C D
19. The Dave Brubek Quartet, one of the most popular jazz bands of the 1950's, had a particularly
A B
loyal following on campuses college.
C D
20. In the architecture, a capital is the top portion of a column.

--A-- --B- C D
21. Today, successful farmers are experts not only in agriculture, but also in market, finance, and
ABC
accounting.
D
22. In the early days of jet development, jet engines used great numbers of fuel.
--A- --B- C -0-
23. Georgia has too many types of soil that virtually any temperate-zone crop can be grown there.
ABC -D-
24. The sum of all chemical reactions in an organism's living cells are called its metabolism.
A B C 0
25. River transportation in the United States consists primarily of barges pull by towboats.
A B C ~
26. Most modern barns are both insulated, ventilated, and equipped with electricity.
A B C D
27. Many bridges in New England were covered with wooden roofs to protect it from
-A- B C
rain and snow.
D
@.i.",t·"Uj U43 i @t--'

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28. It is their nearly perfect crystal structure that gives diamonds their hardness, brilliance, and
A B C
transparent.
D
29. Needles are simple-looking tools, but they are very relatively diff1cult to make.
A B C D
30. Ducks are less susceptible to infection than another types of poultry.
~ B -c- D
31. Unlike competitive running, race walkers must always keep some portion of their feet
A B ---c:
in contact with the ground.
D
32. One of the most beautiful botanical gardens in the United States is the wildly and lovely
A B C
Magnolia Gardens near Charleston, South Carolina.

D
33. Composer John Cage used many unusual objects as instrument in his music, including
A B C
cowbells, flower pots, tin cans, and saw blades.

D
34. Woody Guthrie wrote thousands of songs during the lifetime, many of which became classic
A B C
folk songs.
D
35. RunnerWilma Rudolph win three gold medals at the 1960 Olympics, and she set the
A B C
world record for the laO-meter dash in 1961.

D
36. Some critics have called Theodore Dreiser's book Sister Carrie a first modern novel because
A -B- c
it broke so many traditions.
D
37. Abigail Adams' letters to her husband present a graphic picture of the age which she lived.
--A- -'-I C D
lij.i·'I'&1!IUi U§:J i ¥t-.

456 Practice Test 2
••••••••••••
38. Viscosity is a measurement describing the relative difficulty or easy with which liquids flow.
A --B-- (~- 0
39. More than 10,000 years ago, glaciers moved across the Minnesota region four time, leveling
A -B- -C-
most of the land.

[)
40. The discover of gold and silver in the rugged mountains of Nevada in 1858 attracted many
A B C
fortune-seekers to that area.
o
DO NOT RFAD OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.
~TO' ~T07 ~TO' ~TO' ~T07 ~TO'

@] Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes

Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A
What is the main topic of this passage l

(B) Birds' mating habits
The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
458 Practice Test 2
Example 1/ Sample Answer
According to the passage, male birds defend

their territory primarily against
(A) female birds
(D) mammals
lij.i.';'i.ilUj;t=tJi ¥(-.
Questions 1-11
The time when humans crossed the Arctic land bridge from
Siberia to Alaska seems remote to us today, but actually
represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when
(line) polished stone implements and bows and arrows were already being
(5) used, and dogs had already been domesticated.
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found
the woods and plains dominated by three types of American
mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from today's
elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge,
(10) upward-curving tusks. They had arrived on the continent hundreds
of thousands of years before their human followers. The
wooly mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North
America. and the imperial mammoth of the South, together with
their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land. Here, as
(15) in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these
elephants, as shown by the numerous spear points found with
mammoth remains.
Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had
retreated, there was a relatively sudden and widespread
(20) extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and
mastodons disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African
elephants survived.
Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear?
Were humans connected with their extinction? Perhaps, but at
(25) that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were still
widely scattered and not very numerous. It is difficult to see
how they could have prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent.
1. With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned'
(A) Migration from Siberia to Alaska
(B) Techniques used to hunt mammoths
(C) The prehistory of humans
(D) The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World
2. The word "implements" in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) tools
(B) ornaments
(C) houses
(D) carvings
3. The phrase "these early migrants" in line 6 refers to
(A) mammoths
(B) humans
(C) dogs
(D) mastodons
@.i·';'t:jl;tj U4!iiijWt-.
460 Practice Test 2
4. Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?

(A) In Alaska
(B) In the central portion of North America
(C) In the southern part of North America
(D) In South America
5. It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they
(A) had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia
(B) had never seen mammoths before
(C) brought mammoths with them from the Old World
(D) soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths
6. Which of the following could best substitute for the word "remains" in line 17?
(A) Bones
(B) Drawings
(C) Footprints
(D) Spear points
7. The word "seemingly" in line 23 is closest in meaning to
(A) tremendously
(B) apparently
(C) formerly
(D) obviously
8. The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoths?

(A) Humans hunted them to extinction.
(B) The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply.
CC) The cause of their extinction is not definitely known.
CD) Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct.
9. The word "cunning" in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) clever
(B) determined
(C) efficient
(D) cautious
10. Which of the following is NOT true about prehistoric humans at the time of the mammoths'
extinction?
(A) They were relatively few in number.
(8) They knew how to use bows and arrows.
CC) They were concentrated in a small area.
(D) They were skilled hunters.
11. Which of the following types of elephants does the author discuss in the most detail in the
passage?
(A) The mastodon
(B) The mammoth
CC) The Indian elephant
(D) The African elephant
@,i""t,',Uj;tWii!Wt-.
Questions 12-23
--------------------
Just before and during World War I, a number of white

musicians came to Chicago from New Orleans playing in an idiom
they had learned from blacks in that city. Five of them formed
(line) what eventually became known as the Original Dixieland Band. They
(5) moved to New York in 1917 and won fame there. That year they
recorded the first phonograph record identified as jazz.
The first important recording by black musicians was made in
Chicago in 1923 by King Oliver's Creole Jazz Band, a group that
featured some of the foremost jazz musicians of the time,
(10) including trumpet player Louis Armstrong. Armstrong's dynamic
trumpet style became famous worldwide. Other band members had
played in Fate Marable's band, which traveled up and down the
Mississippi River entertaining passengers on riverboats.
The characteristics of this early type of jazz, known as
(15) Dixieland jazz, included a complex interweaving of melodic lines
among the cornet or trumpet, clarinet, and trombone, and a
steady chomp-chomp beat provided by the rhythm section, which
included the piano, bass, and drums. Most bands used no written
notations, preferring arrangements agreed on verbally.
(20) Improvisation was an indispensable element. Even bandleaders such
as Duke Ellington, who provided his musicians with written
arrangements, permitted them plenty to freedom to improvise when
playing solos.
In the late 1920's, the most influential jazz artists in
(25) Chicago were members of small bands such as the Wolverines. In
New York, the trend was toward larger groups. These groups
played in revues, large dance halls, and theaters. Bands would
become larger still during the next age of jazz, the Swing era.
12. What is the main topic of this passage-
(A) The early history of jazz
(B) The music of World War I
(C) The relationship of melody and rhythm in jazz
(D) The New York recording industry in the 1920's
13. The word "idiom" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) slang
(B) tempo
(C) tune
(D) style
14. The musicians who made the earliest jazz recordings were originally from
(A) New Orleans
(B) Chicago
(C) New York
(D) Mississippi
lij.i·';'GlIUjUg:i.@t-.
462 Practice Test 2
15. When was the first important recording by black jazz musicians made?
(A) In 1917
(B) In 1923
(C) In the late 1920's
(D) In the early 1930's
16. According to the passage, Louis Armstrong was a member of which of the following'
(A) The Original Dixieland Band
(B) Fate Marable's riverboat band
(C) King Oliver's Creole Jazz Band
(D) The Wolverines
17. The word "steady" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) constant
(13) basic
(C) urgent
(I)) happy
IR. According to the passage, which of the following instruments helped provide the beat for
Dixieland jazz?
(A) The cornet
(B) The piano
(C) The trombone
(D) The clarinet
19. Duke Ellington is given as an example of a bandleader who
(A) could not read music
(B) did not value improvisation
(C) discouraged solo performances
(D) used written arrangements
20. Which of the following phrases would be LEAST likely to be applied to Dixieland jazz'
(A) Relatively complex
(B) Highly improvisational
(C) Rhythmic and melodic
(D) Carefully planned
21. According to the passage, who were the Wolverines?
(A) A band that played in large dance halls
(B) A New York group
(C) A Swing band
(D) A small group
22. The author provides the most detailed description of early jazz music in the
(A) first paragraph
(B) second paragraph
(C) third paragraph
(D) fourth paragraph
@,i,';'(,ilUjU4:J i ¥t-.
23. The paragraph following this one most likely deals with
(A) the music of small bands
(B) the Swing era
(C) music that influenced Dixieland Jazz
(D) other forms of music popular in the 1920's
Questions 24-32
A pioneering study by Donald Appleyard made the astounding

discovery that a sudden increase in the volume of traffic through
an area affects people in the way that a sudden increase in crime
(line) does. Appleyard observed this by finding three blocks of houses
(5) in San Francisco that looked much alike and had the same kind of
middle-class and working-class residents, with approximately the
same ethnic mix. The difference was that only 2,000 cars a day
ran down Octavia Street (LIGHT street, in Appleyard's
terminology) while Gough Street (MEDIUM street) was used by 8,000
(10) cars daily, and Franklin Street (HEAVY street) had around 16,000
cars a day. Franklin Street often had as many cars in an hour as
Octavia Street had in a day.
Heavy traffic brought with it danger, noise, fumes, and soot,
directly, and trash secondarily. That is, the cars didn't bring
(15) in much trash, but when trash accumulated, residents seldom
picked it up. The cars, Appleyard determined, reduced the amount
of territory residents felt responsible for. Noise was a constant
intrusion into their homes. Many Franklin Street residents
covered their doors and windows and spent most of their
(20) time in the rear of their houses. Most families with children had
already left.
Conditions on Octavia Street were much different. Residents
picked up trash. They sat on their front steps and chatted with
neighbors. They had three times as many friends and twice
(25) as many acquaintances as the people on Franklin.
On Gough Street, residents said that the old feeling of
community was disappearing as traffic increased. People were
becoming more and more preoccupied with their own lives. A
number of families had recently moved, and more were conSidering
(30) it. Those who were staying expressed deep regret at the
destruction of their community.
24. The word "astounding" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) startling
(B) disappointing
(C) dubious
(D) alternative
@.i.U'i.'jUj,JM'W$t-.
464 Practice Test 2
25. The three streets mentioned in this passage are different in that
(A) they are in different cities
(B) the residents are of different ethnic backgrounds
(C) they have varying amounts of traffic
(D) the income levels of the residents vary considerably
26. Approximately how many cars use Fntnklin Street daily?
(A) 2,000
(13) 8,000
(C) 16,000
(D) 20,000
27. All of the following are direct results of heavy traffic EXCEPT
(A) increased amounts of trash
(B) greater danger to residents
(C) more pollution
(D) more vibrations
28. The author's main purpose in the second paragraph is to
(A) discuss the problems of trash disposal
(B) point out the disadvantages of heavy traffic
(C) propose an alternate system of transportation
(D) suggest ways to cope with trafflc problems
29. On which street is there the most social interaction?
(A) Octavia Street
(B) Gough Street
(C) Franklin Street
(D) There is no significant social interaction on any of the three streets.
30. The word "chatted" in line 23 is closest in meaning to
(A) joked
(13) talked
(C) argued
(D) walked
31. Which of the following is NOT a statement you would expect from a resident of Gough Street?
(A) People on this street are unhappy because the neighborhood is deteriorating.
(13) People on this street think mostly of themselves.
(C) People on this street have more and more space for which they feel responsible.
(D) A number of people are preparing to leave this street.
32. In what order does the author present detailed discussions of the three streets?
(A) LIGHT, MEDIUM, HEAVY
(B) HEAVY, MEDIUM, LIGHT
(C) HEAVY, LIGHT, MEDIUM
(D) LIGHT, HEAVY, MEDIUM
@.i.",t.',UjU43 i ¥t-.
Questions 33-42
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania.

She studied biology at college, and zoology at Johns Hopkins
University, where she received her master's degree in 1933. In
(line) 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where
(5) she worked most of her life.
Carson's first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in
1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until
it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea
Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean's
(10) surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine
biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson
consulted no fewer than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous
correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the
field. However, she always realized the limitations of her
(15) non-technical readers.
In 1962 Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked
considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by
the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how
they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and
(20) contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical
industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued
propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However,
her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President's
Science Advisory Committee.
33. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson's work
(A) as a researcher
(B) at college
(C) at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
(D) as a writer
34. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
(A) Oceanography
(ll) History
(C) Literature
(D) Zoology
35. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
(A) 26
(B) 29
(C) 34
(D) 45
@"""t.'Uti.t§!i'WU-.
466 Practice Test 2
36. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson's book Under the Sea Wind
(A) was outdated
(B) became more popular than her other books
(C) was praised by critics
(D) sold many copies
37. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The
Sea Around Us?
(A) Printed matter
(B) Talks with experts
(C) A research expedition
(D) Letters from scientists
38. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us?
(A) Highly technical
(B) Poetic
(C) Fascinating
(D) Well-researched
39. The word "reckless" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) unnecessary
(B) limited
(C) continuous
(D) irresponsible
40. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily
(A) an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
(B) a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply
(C) a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
(D) an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
41. The word "flawed" in line 22 is closest in meaning to
(A) faulty
(B) deceptive
(C) logical
(D) offensive
42. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President's Science Advisory
Committee (lines 23-24)?
(A) To provide an example of government propaganda
(B) To support Carson's ideas
(C) To indicate a growing government concern with the environment
(D) To validate the chemical industry's claims
@.i.,;,t.,,;@U43 i ¥(. •
Questions 43-50
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general,

these are all the natural, man-made, and human resources that go
into the production of goods and services. This obviously covers
(line) a lot of ground: factories and farms, tools and machines,
(5) transportation and communication facilities, all types of natural
resources, and labor. Economic resources can be broken down into
two general categories: property resources-land and capital-
and human resources-labor and entrepreneurial skills.
What do economists mean by land? Much more than the non-
(10) economist. Land refers to all natural resources that are usable
in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil
deposits, and so on. What about capital? Capital goods are all
the man-made aids to producing, storing, transporting, and
distributing goods and services. Capital goods differ from
(15) consumer goods in that the latter satisfy wants directly, while
the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of
consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here
does not refer to money. Money, as such, produces nothing.
The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of
(20) humans used to produce goods or services (with the exception of a
certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skiIIs, which will
be considered separately because of their special significance).
Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a
ballet dancer or an astronaut all fall under the general heading of labor.
43. What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?
(A) To explain the concept of labor
(B) To criticize certain uses of capital
(C) To contrast capital goods and consumer goods
(D) To define economic resources
44. In lines 3-4, the author uses the expression "This obviously covers a lot of ground ..." to
indicate that
(A) the factories and farms discussed in the passage are very large
(B) economic resources will be discussed in great depth
(C) the topic of economic resources is a broad one
(D) land is an important concept in economics
45. When non-economists use the term "land," its definition
(A) is much more general than when economists use it
(B) is much more restrictive than when economists use it
(C) changes from place to place
(D) includes all types of natural resources
'St""I' t."1M' ,t*I'¥'.

468 Practice Test 2
46. The word "arable" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) dry
(B) fertile
(C) developed
(D) open
47. The phrase "the latter" in line 15 refers to

(A) economists
(B) non-economists
(C) capital goods
(D) consumer goods
48. Which of the following could be considered a capital good as defined in the passage?
(A) A railroad
(B) Money
(C) A coal deposit
(D) Human skills
49. The word "heading" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) direction
(B) practice
(C) category
CD) utility
50. The skills of all the following could be considered examples of labor, as defined in the passage,
EXCEPT
(A) artists and scientists
(B) workers who produce services, not goods
(C) office workers
(D) entrepreneurs
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CAll.ED,
GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY.

Practice Test 3
469
Practice Test 3
469
470 Practice Test 3
Listening Comprehension
Part A
Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
the onc-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer

(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(0) Take a seat.
(B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (n) on your answer sheet.
8
mmmmmmmmmmmm
1. (A) She broke the window herself. 10. (A) He's speaking a language they don't
(B) She repaired the broken window. know.
(C) She was able to get the widow open. (B) He doesn't have a microphone.
(D) She hurt herself on the broken glass. (C) He's speaking much too quickly.
(0) He's using a defective microphone.
2. (A) The golf tournament made it famous.
(B) It's grown a lot lately. 11. (A) It's near the elevator.
(C) It can't be found without a map. (B) He doesn't know where it is.
(D) Very few people there play golf. (C) It's on another floor.
(D) The directory doesn't list it.
3. (A) Where she got her information.
(B) How the copy was made. 12. (A) She's heard it only a few times.
(C) Who painted the picture. (B) She doesn't get to listen to it very
(D) Why the copy was made. often.
(C) She once liked it, but she's heard
4. (A) Groceries.
enough.
(B) A used car.
(D) She enjoys it very much.
(C) Gasoline.
(D) Medicine. 13. (A) It's no wonder that she had to work.
(B) It wasn't busy because of the weather.
5. (A) She read it again and again.
(C) She was very busy at work.
(B) She covered it up.
(0) The snow made her late for work.
(C) She read every page of it.
(D) She ripped its cover off. 14. (A) He doesn't have any money left either.
(B) The club is looking for some new
6. (A) He can no longer play.
members.
(B) He's played every day for years.
(C) He can lend the woman some money.
(C) His playing has improved.
(0) It doesn't cost much to join the club.
(D) He played quite well.
15. (A) He doesn't enjoy receptions.
7. (A) He needs to get more camping
(B) He uses his computer a lot.
equipment.
(C) His computer isn't working.
(B) He is an experienced camper.
(0) He will defmitely attend.
(C) He is taking too much equipment.
(D) He shouldn't go camping for such a 16. (A) Only one person in the group is older
long time. than he.
(B) His group is almost the oldest.
8. (A) Try to get elected mayor.
(C) He's the youngest person in the group.
(B) Attend a class.
(D) He appears only in the second
(C) Interview the mayor.
photograph.
(D) Apply for a job.
17. (A) Pancakes are not his favorite dish.
9. (A) She was mistaken about Professor
(B) His pancakes don't taste very good.
Leguin.
(C) He never makes enough pancakes.
(B) She just returned from San Francisco.
(D) He can't cook many dishes.
(C) She doesn't know what the professor
looks like.
(D) She's an admirer of Professor Leguin.
l§.i.';'i.ijUjU§!iiijWt-.
472 Practice Test 3
18. (A) She thinks Professor Bryant is unfair. 25. (A) When she will answer the questions.
(B) She doesn't know Professor Bryant. (B) Where she drove.
(C) She agrees with the man. (C) What kind of car she has.
(D) She doesn't understand the man's (D) Why she asked so many questions.
remark.
26. (A) He thinks it will be better than the old
19. (A) In a few days. one.
(B) Before they eat. (B) He's anxious for it to be completed.
(C) During lunch. (C) He's worried that it's not long enough.
(D) When lunch is over. (D) He feels that it shouldn't have been
built.
20. (A) The woman would enjoy the mountain
scenery. 27. (A) Where he's studying.
(B) The weather has been hot this month. (B) What subject he's studying.
(C) The weather in the mountains is (C) How long he's been in Europe.
unusual. (D) When he's returning.
(D) The woman probably doesn't like cool
28. (A) Charlotte wouldn't be attending
weather.
graduate school.
21. (A) It has exceptionally good service. (B) Charlotte had gotten a scholarship.
(B) It has excellent food. (C) Graduate school wouldn't start until
(C) The service there is disappointing. September.
(D) Everything there is great. (D) Scholarships were easy to get.
22. (A) If his name sounds familiar. 29. (A) He paid it today for the flrst time.
(B) If she's spoken to him on the phone. (B) He pays it on the last day of the month.
(C) If he's a musician. (C) He pays it after it's due.
(D) If she likes his name. (D) He's planning to pay it tomorrow.
23. (A) He thought other science courses 30. (A) The debate involved only a few issues.
would be harder. (B) Many people changed their plans.
(B) It's a required class for all students. (C) A lot of people attended.
(C) He's studied geology before. (D) The debate lasted longer than
(D) It was the only science course open to expected.
him.
24. (A) He's never been to the zoo.
(B) He's seen only one bear.
(C) He's never seen a bear in the wild.
(D) There weren't any bears at that zoo.
@.i.,,'i·"Uj h43 i @t-.

Part B
inferred. Then flll in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you
have selected.
8
474 Practice Test 3
[I] [I] [IJ[I][I][I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I]

31. (A) Because it was cheap. 35. (A) To attend a conference.
(B) Because it is in such good condition. (B) To see the planetarium.
(C) Because it is a collector's item. (C) To change planes.
(D) Because he can re-sell it at a high price. (D) To go sightseeing.
32. (A) In the 1930's. 36. (A) She recently went there.
(B) In the 1940's. (B) It's not a very good one.
(C) In the 1950's. (C) There's one in her hometown.
(D) In the 1960's. (D) It will be closed when she's free.
33. (A) Replace its engine. 37. (A) On foot and by boat.
(B) Enter it in some shows. (B) By car and on foot.
(C) Take it on a long drive. (C) By air and by car.
(D) Re-seU it for more money. (D) By car and by bus.
34. (A) At a conference hall.

(B) At an art gallery.
(C) At an airport.
(D) At a hotel.
lij.i.';it.',;Uj U43 i @t. •

Part C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After
each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only
once, and the questions are not written out.
have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer

(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer
You will read: (A) The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon.
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
(C) The moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.
From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun and
the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice that best answers the
question, "According to the speaker, which of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is (A),
"The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."
8
476 Practice Test 3
38. (A) Tourists. 45. (A) In the spring.

(B) Professional dancers. (B) In the summer.
(C) Students. (C) In the fall.
(D) Traditional musicians. (D) In the winter.
39. (A) It will be different from the ones 46. (A) New theories about the origin of
performed in Hawaii today. language.
(B) It will involve women wearing grass (B) How to teach grammar to children.
skirts. (C) Mistakes children sometimes make.
(C) It will involve only male dancers. (D) The stages of children's language
(0) It was once performed for great learning.
Hawaiian leaders.
47. (A) "Koo, Koo."
40. (A) They prohibited it. (B) "Da-da."
(B) They sponsored it. (C) "More milk!"
(C) They proposed some small changes (D) "Na-na."
in it.
48. (A) Between four and eight months.
(D) They exported it to other islands.
(B) Between one year and eighteen
41. (A) Attend a live performance. months.
(B) Go on a tour. (C) Between two and three years.
(C) Perform a dance. (0) Between three and four years.
(D) Watch a DVD.
49. (A) They are the same in all languages.
42. (A) To discuss a weather phenomenon. (B) They are often misinterpreted.
(B) To explain how to drive during storms. (C) They are learned by imitation.
(C) To describe supercooled water. (D) They are quite logical.
(D) To warn gardeners of the danger of
50. (A) They are too complicated.
hail.
(B) She doesn't have time to talk about
43. (A) Because of its size. them today.
(B) Because of its color. (C) The class didn't have a chance to read
(C) Because of its layers. about them.
(D) Because of its weight. (D) She doesn't agree with them.
44. (A) As a drop of supercooled water.
(B) As a snowflake.
(C) As a particle of dust.
(D) As a ball of ice.
TIllS IS THE END OF SECTION 1, LISTENING COMPREHENSION.
~TO' ~TO'
~ Structure and Written Expression

Time: 25 minutes
This section tests your ability to recognize grammar and usage suitable for standard written
Structure
are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that
CD"COC[)
in digestion.
(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being
CD CD CO . .
(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
(D) No
Carolina." You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
@.i·"'(·"UjUM.@t-.
478 Practice Test 3
eeeeeeeeeeee
1. Ellen Swallow Richards became the flrst woman to enter, graduate from, and _ _ _ _ __
at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
(A) teach
(B) a teacher
(C) who taught
(D) to teach
2. Coins last approximately twenty times _ _ _ _ _ _ paper bills.
(A) longer
(B) as long
(C) long
(D) longer than
3. It has been estimated that _ _ _ _ _ _ species of animals.
(A) more than a million
(B) it is a million or more
(C) there are over a million
(D) are over a million of
4. Dr. Seuss, was Theodore Seuss Geisel, wrote and illustrated delightfully
humorous books for children.
(A) his real name
(B) who had as his real name
(C) with his real name
(D) whose real name
5. American landscape architects was Hideo Sasaki.
(A) The most famous one of
(B) One of the most famous
(C) Of the one most famous
(D) The one most famous of
6. Most young geese leave their nests at an early age, and young snow geese are _ _ _ _ __
exception.
(A) not
(B) no
(C) none
(D) never
7. Vancouver, British Columbia, has a temperate climate for a city situated _ _ _ _ _ _ far
north.
(A) as
(B) so
(C) very
(D) by
lij.i.",t.ilUJUtii!Wt. •
8.
•••••••••••• in 1849, Manuel A. Alonso recorded the customs, language, and songs of the
people of Puerto Rico in his poetry and prose.
(A) Beginning
(B) He began
(C) Having begun
(D) The beginning was
9. the sails of a distant ship are visible before the body of the ship.
(A) The curve of the Earth makes
(B) The Earth, in that it curves, makes
(C) Because the curve of the Earth,
CD) Because of the curve of the Earth,
10. Printing ink is made _ _ _ _ _ _ of a paste, which is applied to the printing surface with
rollers.
(A) to form
(B) the form
(C) in the form
(D) so that it forms
11. Although cold climates, they can thrive in hot, dry climates as well.
(A) sheep adapted well
(B) well-adapted sheep
(C) sheep, well adapted to
(D) sheep are well adapted to
12. Not only as a shade tree, but it also produces wood used for boxes and
furniture.
(A) the Linden tree is of value
(B) the value of the Linden tree is
(C) is the Linden tree valuable
(D) the valuable Linden tree is used
13. one of Laura Ingalls Wilder's many books about the American frontier are based
on her own childhood experiences.
(A) Except
(B) All but
(C) Without
(D) Not any
14. One of the ftrst industries to be affected by the Industrial Revolution _ _ _ _ __
(A) was the textile industry
(B) the textile industry
(C) in the textile industry
(D) the textile industry was
15. the outer rings of a gyroscope are turned or twisted, the gyroscope itself
continues to spin in exactly the same position.
(A) However
(B) Somehow •
(C) Otherwise @.'.U,t.ihtjU=tii@t-
(D) No matter
480 Practice Test 3
Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C), and (D).
correct. Then fmd the number of the question on your answer sheet and fill in the space
Lenses may to have either concave or

ABC
convex shapes.
--D-
CD-'CDCD
When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint
--A-- B
directly to the damp plaster of a wall.
e D
plaster of a wall." You should therefore select answer (B).
@.i.".t.',UjlI§3 i @t--'
16. The rock formations in the Valley of Fire in Nevada has been worn into many strange shapes
A -B- C
by the action of wind and water.

o
17. The author Susan Glaspell won a Pulitzer Prize in 1931 for hers play, Alison's House.
--A- -B- Cl)
18. Haywood Broun was a read widely newspaper columnist who wrote during the 1920's and
A B C --0-
1930's.
19. Researches in economics, psychology, and marketing can help businesses.

A B C I)
20. Because of their color and shape, seahorses blend so well with the seaweed in which they live
A B C
that it is almost impossible to see themselves.

o
21. Although the social sciences different a great deal from one another, they share a common
A B C
interest in human relationships.

o
22. Herman Melville's novel Moby-Dick describes the dangers, difficult, and often violent life
-A-- B C
aboard a whaling ship.
--0--
23. Near equator, the slant of the sun's rays is never great enough to cause temperatures to fall
A B --c--
below the freezing point.
o
24. Stephen Hopkins was a cultural and political leadership in colonial Rhode Island.
~ B C D
25. A mousebird's tail is double as long as its body.

ABC 0
lij.i·",t."UjUii .@.
482 Practice Test 3
eeeeeeeeeeee
26. The Uinta Mountains of northeastern Utah are the only range of mountains in North America
A
that runs from east and west for its entire length.
B c- --0-
27. The tools used most often by floral designers are the knives, scissors, and glue gun.
A B -C- -0-
28. Most types of dolphins live at less 25 years, and some species may reach 50 years of age.
-A- --B- -C- -0-
29. Isle Royale National Park in Lake Superior can only be reached by the boat.
A 13 C 0
30. The main divisions of geologic time, called eras, are subdivided to periods.
A -B- --C- 0
31. All root vegetables grow underground, and not all vegetables that grow underground are
~ -B- c- --0
roots.
32. The process of fermentation takes place only in the absent of oxygen.
A B C --0-
33. In about 1920, experimental psychologists have devoted more research to learning than to
A B C
any other topic.
o
34. Transfer taxes are imposed on the sell or exchange of stocks and bonds.
A 13" C ----n-
35. One of the greatest of mountains climbers, Carl Blaurock was the ftrst to climb all of the
A B C
mountains higher than 14,000 feet in the United States.

----r>
36. Biochemists have solved many of the mysteries about photosynthesis, the process which
A B C
plants make food.

o
@.i.,;,t·"UjUiii@t-.
37. Oceanic islands have been separated from the mainland for too long that they have evolved
--A- 1B C
distinctive animal populations.
D
38. Certain species of penicillin mold are used to ripe cheese.

A B -----c: - D -
39. Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is wood pulp,
A B C
which is used in paper-making.
D
40. Not longer are contributions to the advancement of industry made primarily by individuals.
A B C -D-

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

484 Practice Test 3
00 Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes

like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A
CDCDCD'-
What is the main topic of this passage?
(B) Birds' mating habits
The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in CD) on your answer sheet.
According to the passage, male birds defend their

territory primarily against
(A) female birds
(D) mammals
Questions 1-11
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children's tale to

rank with Alice's Adventures in Wonderland and the works of Mark
Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery's Anne of Green Gables.
(line) Lucy Maud Montgomery was born in Clinton, Prince Edward Island.
(5) Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to
Saskatchewan to assume a business position, she moved in with her
grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward Island. There she went
to school, and later qualified to be a teacher.
Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and
(10) helping her grandmother at the post office. The fIrst of the
books, Anne of Green Gables, was published in 1908, and in the
next three years she wrote two sequels. Like Montgomery, the
heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who live in
the fictional town of Avonlea, and Montgomery incorporated many
(15) events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Ewan MacDonald, and the couple soon
moved to Ontario, where she wrote many other books. However, it
was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne
books are still read all around the world. Her novels have
(20) helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island's special
character. Several movies, a television series, and a musical
play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the
island for locations described in the book.
1. The main purpose of this passage is to
(A) introduce Montgomery and her Anne books
(B) contrast Canadian children's literature with that of other countries
(C) provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island
(0) show the similarities between Montgomery's life and that of her fictional character Anne.
2. The word "this" in line 3 refers to

(A) Canada
(B) the work of Mark Twain
(C) Alice's Adventures in Wonderland
(0) a Canadian children's classic
3. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily

(A) in an orphanage
(B) by her grandparents
(C) by her mother
(D) by her father
@.i·';'(·"ltjlIiii@t-.
486 Practice Test 3
4. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of
Green Gables?
(A) From 1874 to 1908
(B) From 1908 to 1911
(C) From 1911 to 1913
(D) From 1913 to 1918
5. The word "elderly" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) kindly
(B) old
(C) friendly
(D) sly
6. In the Anne books, the main character lives in
(A) the town of Cavendish
(B) Saskatchewan
(C) the town of Avonlea
(D) Ontario
7. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about the Anne books?
(A) They were at least partially autobiographical.
(B) They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain.
(C) They were not as successful as Montgomery's later works.
(D) They were not popular until after Montgomery had died.
8. The word "prominence" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) reputation
(B) excellence
(C) effort
(D) permanence
9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "character" in line 21?
(A) A person in a novel
(B) Nature
(C) A written symbol
(D) Location
10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT
(A) a television series
(B) movies
(C) a play
(D) a ballet
11. In line 22, the word "scour" could be replaced by which of the following without changing the
meaning of the sentence?
(A) Cleanse
(B) Admire
(C) Search
(D) Request
lij.i.,;,t,',UjUWi@t-.
Questions 12-23
Certain animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know

without analysis the difference between a number of objects and a
smaller number. In his book The Natural History of Selbourne
(line) (1786), the naturalist Gilbert White tells how he surreptitiously
(5) removed one egg a day from a plover's nest, and how the mother
laid another egg each day to make up for the missing one. He
noted that other species of birds ignore the absence of a single
egg but abandon their nests if more than one egg has been
removed. It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain
(10) type of wasp always provides five-never four, never six-
caterpillars for each of their eggs so that their young have
something to eat when the eggs hatch. Research has also shown
that both mice and pigeons can be taught to distinguish between
odd and even numbers of food pieces.
(15) These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that
creatures other than humans can actually count. They also point
to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions
with the correct number of barks, or to horses that seem to solve
arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves the proper number of
(20) times.
Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to
survival as a species-as in the case of the eggs-or survival as
individuals-as in the case of food. There is no transfer to
other situations or from concrete reality to the abstract notion
(25) of numbers. Animals can "count" only when the objects are present
and only when the numbers involved are small-no more than seven
or eight. In lab experiments, animals trained to "count" one kind
of object were unable to count any other type. The objects, not
the numbers, are what interest them. Animals' admittedly
(30) remarkable achievements simply do not amount to evidence of
counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refmed
by the genes of successive generations, or the results of clever,
careful conditioning by trainers.
12. What is the main idea of this passage?
(A) Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers.
(B) Animals cannot "count" more than one kind of object.
(C) Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best.
(D) Although some animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count.
@.i.",t·",t:i U43 i @t-.

488 Practice Test 3
13. Why does the author refer to Gilbert White's book in line 3?
(A) To show how attitudes have changed since 1786
(B) To contradict the idea that animals can count
(C) To provide evidence that some birds are aware of quantities
(D) To indicate that more research is needed in this field
14. The word "surreptitiously" in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) quickly
(B) secretly
(C) occasionally
(D) stubbornly
15. The word "abandon" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) vacate
(B) rebuild
(C) move
(D) guard
16. The word "odd;' as used in line 14, refers to which of the following?
(A) Unusual numbers
(B) Numbers such as 1, 3, 5, and so on
(C) Lucky numbers
(0) Numbers such as 2, 4, 6, and so on
17. The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some way EXCEPT
(A) plovers
(B) mice
(C) caterpillars
(D) wasps
18. The word "accounts" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) invoices
(B) reasons
(C) reports
(D) deceptions
19. According to information in the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a
result of animals' intuitive awareness of quantities?
(A) A pigeon is more attracted by a box containing two pieces of food than by a box
containing one piece.
(B) When asked by its trainer how old it is, a monkey holds up five fingers.
(C) When one of its four kittens crawls away, a mother cat misses it and searches for the
miSSing kitten.
(D) A lion follows one antelope instead of a herd of antelopes because it is easier to hunt a
single prey.
@.i.';'i.',UjUtii@t. •
20. How would the author probably characterize the people who are mentioned in line 15?
(A) As mistaken
(B) As demanding
(C) As clever
(D) As foolish
21. The word "admittedly" in line 29 is closest in meaning to
(A) improbably
(B) arguably
(C) apparently
CD) undeniably
22. In line 31, the word "they" refers to
(A) numbers
(B) animals
(C) achievements
(D) genes
23. Where in the passage does the author mention research that supports his own view of animals'
inability to count?
(A) Lines 3-6
(B) Lines 12-14
(C) Lines 15-16
(D) Lines 27-28
Questions 24-33
It would be hard to cite a development that has had more

impact on American industry than the Bessemer process of making
steel. It made possible the production of low-cost steel and
(line) established the foundation of the modern steel industry. In many
(5) ways it was responsible for the rapid industrialization of the
United States that took place in the formative period of the late
1800's.
The first Bessemer plant in the United States was built in
Wyandotte, Michigan, in 1864, near the end of the Civil War. It
(10) was capable of producing only 2 tons of steel ingots at a time.
The ingots were rolled into rails-the first steel rails made in
the United States. Acceptance of the process was initially slow.
By 1870, the annual output of Bessemer steel was a mere 42
thousand tons. Production grew rapidly after about 1875, rising
(15) to 1.2 million tons in 1880, when it exceeded that of wrought
iron for the first time.
Id.i.';it.ilUj U4:J i UW t- .
490 Practice Test 3
The rise of the US. steel industry in the last quarter of the
19th century was brought about largely by the demand for Bessemer
steel rails for the nation's burgeoning rail network. Steel rails
(20) were far more durable than those made of iron. Spurred by this
demand, the us. steel industry became the largest in the world
in 1886, when it surpassed that of Great Britain.
The Bessemer Process was the chief method of making steel until
1907, when it was overtaken by the open-hearth process. By the
(25) 1950's, the Bessemer Process accounted for less than 3% of the
total U.S. production.
24. With what topic is this passage mainly concerned?
(A) The history of metal-working
(B) A comparison of the US. and British steel industries in the nineteenth century
CC) The technical details of the Bessemer process
CD) The effects of one method of making steel
25. According to the passage, the Bessemer process contributed to all of the following EXCEPT
(A) the establishment of the modern steel industry in the United States
CB) the manufacture of weapons during the Civil War
CC) lowered costs for steel
CD) industrial development in the United States during an important period
26. What can be inferred from the passage about wrought iron?
(A) At one time, more of it was produced than Bessemer steel.
(B) It is a by-product of the Bessemer process.
(C) It was once primarily imported from Great Britain.
CD) It later became a more important product than Bessemer steel.
27. The word "burgeoning" in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) overpowering
(B) planned
(C) expanding
CD) vital
28. According to the passage, why were Bessemer steel rails used in place of iron rails?
(A) They lasted longer.
(B) They did not have to be imported.
(C) They could be installed faster.
(D) They provided a smoother ride for passengers.
29. The word "Spurred" in line 20 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Driven
CB) Challenged
(C) Dominated
(D) Broken
lij.i.",t.',UjUY:'i@t-.
30. According to the passage, in what year did the steel industry of the United States begin to
produce more steel than that of Great Britain did?
(A) 1864
(B) 1875
(C) 1880
(D) 1886
31. What can be inferred about the steel industry in the United States during the 1950's?
(A) It had begun producing many new types of products.
(B) It was in a period of severe decline.
(C) It primarily involved methods of production other than the Bessemer Process.
(D) It was becoming more and more important.
32. The paragraph following this one probably concerns
(A) innovations in the railroad industry
(B) the open-hearth method of making steel
(C) industrialization in the twentieth century
(D) new methods of making wrought iron
33. The author first begins to discuss the growth of the Bessemer Process in
(A) lines 3-4
(B) lines 8-9
(C) lines 14-16
(D) lines 23-24
Questions 34-41
Nearly 515 blocks of San Francisco, including almost all of Nob

Hill, were destroyed by the 1906 earthquake and fires. Many of
San Francisco's "painted ladies" -its gaudy, nineteenth century
(line) Victorian houses-were lost in the disaster. Today, some 14,000
(5) surviving houses have been preserved, particularly in the Cow
Hollow, Mission, Pacific Heights, and Alamo Square districts.
Distinguished by their design characteristics, three styles of
San Franciscan Victorians can be found today. The Italianate,
which flourished in the 1870's, is characterized by a flat roof,
(10) slim pillars flanking the front door, and bays with windows that
slant inward. The ornamentation of these narrow row houses was
patterned after features of the Roman Classical styles. The
Stick style, which peaked in popularity during the 1880s, added
ornate woodwork outlines to the doors and windows. Other
(15) additions included the French cap, gables, and three-sided bays.
Designs changed dramatically when the Queen Anne style became
the rage in the 1890's. Turrets, towers, steep gabled roofs, and
glass art windows distinguished Queen Anne houses from their
predecessors.
(ij.i.,;,(.ilUjU§iii@[-.
492 Practice Test 3
(20) In the period after the earthquake, the Victorians came to be

regarded as impossibly old-fashioned, but beginning around 1960,
owners began peeling off stucco, tearing off false fronts,
reapplying custom woodwork, and commissioning multi-hued paint
jobs. Before long, many of these houses had been restored to
(25) their former splendor.
34. Which of the following is NOT one of the author's purposes in writing the passage?
(A) To talk about the restoration of Victorian houses in San Francisco in the 1960's
(B) To discuss housing problems in San Francisco today
(C) To briefly trace the history of Victorian houses in San Francisco
(D) To categorize the three types of Victorian houses found in San Francisco
35. The word "gaudy" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) showy
(B) enormous
(C) antiquated
(D) simple
36. According to the passage, in what district of San Francisco are authentic Victorian houses
LEAST likely to be found today?
(A) Cow Hollow
(B) Pacific Heights
(C) The Mission
(D) Nob Hill
37. According to the passage, which of the following styles of architecture was the last to become
fashionable in San Francisco?
(A) Roman Classical
(B) Italianate
(C) Stick
(D) Queen Anne
38. As used in the second paragraph, the word "bays" refers to
(A) bodies of water
(B) colors
(C) architectural features
(D) trees
39. Which of the following is most likely to be seen only on a Queen Anne style house?
(A) A flat roof
(B) A tower
(C) A French cap
(D) Gables
@.i.,;,t.',Uj,t§!i.@t. •
40. During which of the following periods were San Francisco's Victorian houses generally thought
of as old-fashioned?
(A) From 1870 to 1890
(B) During the 1890's
(C) From 1907 to 1960
(D) During the 1960's
41. What can be inferred from the passage about Victorian houses after they had been restored?
(A) They were painted in many colors.
(B) They looked exactly like modern houses.
(C) They were covered with new fronts made of stucco.
(D) They were more attractive than the original houses.
Questions 42-50
Sea otters dwell in the North Pacific. They are the largest of
the mustelids, a group which also includes freshwater otters,
weasels, and badgers. They are from four to five feet long, and
most weigh from 60 to 85 pounds. Large males may weigh 100 pounds
(5) or more.
Unlike most marine mammals, such as seals or dolphins, sea
otters lack a layer of blubber, and therefore have to eat up to
30% of their body weight a day in clams, crabs, fish, octopus,
squids, and other delicacies to maintain body heat. Their
(10) voracious appetites do not create food shortages, though, because
they are picky eaters, each animal preferring only a few food
types. Thus no single type of food source is exhausted. Sea
otters play an important environmental role by protecting forests
of seaweed called kelp, which provide shelter and nutrients for
(15) many species. Certain sea otters feast on invertebrates like sea
urchins and abalones that destroy kelp.
Sea otters eat and sleep while floating on their backs, often
on masses of kelp. They seldom come on shore. Sea otters keep
warm by means of their luxuriant double-layered fur, the densest
(20) among animals. The soft outer fur forms a protective cover that
keeps the fme underfur dry. One square inch of underfur contains
up to 1 million hairs. Unfortunately, this essential feature
almost led to their extinction, as commercial fur hunters drastically
reduced their numbers.
(25) Under government protection, the sea otter population has
recovered. While elated by the otters return, scientists are
concerned about the California sea otter population growth of 5%
a year, lagging behind the 18% a year rate among Alaska otters.
Sea otters are extremely sensitive to pollution. In 1989 up to
(30) 5,000 sea otters perished when the Exxon Valdez spilled oil in
Prince William Sound, Alaska.
494 Practice Test 3
42. According to the passage, what are mustelids?

(A) A family of marine mammals that have blubber
(B) A type of sea otter
(C) A group of mammals that contains sea otters
(D) A kind of sea animal that includes clams, crabs, and many other creatures
43. It can be inferred from that passage that, if a large male sea otter weighs 100 pounds, it must
eat approximately how many pounds of food a day to maintain its body heat?
(A) 5 pounds
(B) 15 pounds
(C) 30 pounds
(D) 60 pounds
44. The author refers to sea otters as "picky eaters" Oine 11) because
(A) all sea otters eat many types of food
(B) each sea otter eats only one type of food
(C) all sea otters have voracious appetites
(D) each sea otter eats only a few kinds offood
45. The word "exhausted" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) needed
(B) used up
(C) desired
(D) tired out
46. According to the passage, which of the following best describes sea otters' relationship with
kelp forests?
(A) The kelp serves as food for the otters.
(B) The otters protect the kelp by eating animals that destroy it.
(C) The otters eliminate the kelp's source of nutrients.
(D) The kelp is destroyed when the otters build shelters.
47. Which of the following could best replace the word "luxuriant" in line 19?
(A) Expensive
(B) Soft
(C) Abundant
(0) Attractive
48. According to the passage, the outer fur of sea otters

(A) keeps the underfur from getting wet
(B) seems finer than the underfur
(C) is more desirable to hunters than the underfur
(D) is not as soft as the underfur
49. The word "elated" in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) disappointed
(B) shocked
(C) concerned
(D) overjoyed
li.i·'lit,"IUiUMiQWt-.
50. According to the passage, why are scientists concerned about the population of California sea
otters?
(A) It has been growing at too fast a rate.
(B) Its growth rate has been steadily decreasing.
(C) Its growth rate is not as fast as that of the Alaska sea otters.
(D) It has been greatly reduced by oil spills and other forms of pollution.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CAllED,
GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN TIllS SECTION ONLY.
~TO~ ~TO~ ~TO~ ~TO' ~TO~ ~TO'

The Complete Guide To The TOEFL Test PBT - Tests 1 - 3 PDF

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The Complete Guide To The TOEFL Test PBT - Tests 1 - 3 PDF

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414 Practice Test 1

[IJ Listening Comprehension

You will read: (A) Open the window.

Now here is a sample question.

You will read: (A) Philosophy.

TInS IS THE END OF SECTION 1, USTENING COMPREHENSION.

STOP WORK ON SECTION 1.

~TO' ~TO' ~TO' ~TO' ~TO' ~TO'

[I] Structure and Written Expression

Pepsin ____ an enzyme used

@.i.",t.',Uj U43 i ¥t--'

IU.i.';'i.',Uj U43 i @t.-'

Lenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.

/<'xample II Sample Answer

18. Mold is extremely destruction to books in a library.

19. Sidney Lanier achieved fame both as a poet or as a symphony musician.

probably did not think of them as artists.

and control nature-they are very similar.

25. It was in a cave near Magdalena, New Mexico, when the -

32. The wood of the rosewood tree -

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

~TO' ~TO' ~TO' ~TO' ~TO' ~TO'

Read the following passage:

What is the main topic of this passage?

According to the passage, male birds defend their

The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by

lfi.i.];. &11 hjh§!; i@(. •

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun

7. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be

9. The phrase "throw off" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

10. The word "there" in line 23 refers to

It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize

13. The word "feasibility" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

It's a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree

lij.i.,;,t.ilUj U4:J i ¥t-.

insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the

27, The word "plight" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

The concepts of analogy and homology are probably easier to

36. The word "rigid" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

Probably the most famous film commenting on twentieth century

Id·i .,,'i.ilUj U43.@t-.

to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or

lij.i·';'&11 Uj U43 i @t--'

THIS IS THE END OF THE SAMPLE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY.

~TO~ ~TO~ ~TO~ ~TO' ~TO' ~TO~

[}] Listening Comprehension

You will read: (A) Open the window.

You will read: (A) Open the window.

@,i""al UjU§3 i @t. •

[IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ [IJ[IJ [IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ[IJ

Now here is a sample question.

You will read: (A) Philosophy.

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1, liSTENING COMPREHENSION.

STOP WORK ON SECTION 1.

~ Structure and Written Expression

Pepsin ____ an enzyme used

____ large natural lakes are found

1. Sharp knives are actually safer to use _ _ _ _ __

Lenses may to have either concave or

When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint