Insights Ias - Insightsonindia: Series - 3: Solutions (Days 9-12)

Insights IAS | InsightsonIndia
SERIES – 3 : SOLUTIONS (Days 9-12)
1. Solution: d
Answer Justification:
INSIGHTS IAS REVISION TESTS FOR UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM – 2018
 In 2016, Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAMPA), 2016 was passed by Parliament
to ensure expeditious and transparent utilization of compensatory levies realized in lieu of
forest land diverted for non-forest purpose, which presently is of the order of about Rs.
49,000 crore.
Therefore statement 1 is correct.
Source: MoEF Report
http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/press-releases/Final%20Printed%20Book.pdf
Highlights of the CAMPA act:
 The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public
Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account
of each state.
 These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present
value of forest (NPV), and (iii) other project specific payments. The National Fund will
receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%.
 These Funds will be primarily spent on afforestation to compensate for loss of forest cover,
regeneration of forest ecosystem, wildlife protection and infrastructure development.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
 The Bill also establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds.
Therefore, statement 3 is correct
Source:
http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-compensatory-afforestations-fund-bill-2015-3782/
2. Solution: b
From the below source refer the guidelines (as per the sections provided in the document).
GUIDELINES FOR ECOTOURISM
2.1.3. No new tourist facilities are to be set up on forest lands. This is in compliance with the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and the directives of the Honourable Supreme Court.
Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
2.1.5. The State Forest Department should be the arbiter in case of any dispute regarding the
ecological advisability of any tourism plans, whether Protected Area Management, private
entity, temple board or community, as the welfare of wildlife and Protected Areas/ biodiversity
takes precedence over tourism.
Therefore statement 2 is correct.
Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-
information/Draft%20Ecotourism%20Guidelines%202%20June.pdf
www.insightsias.com 1 www.insightsonindia.com
3. Solution: a
 CoP-10 to the CBD in October 2010 had adopted a Strategic Plan for Biodiversity for 2011-
2020, with five goals and 20 Aichi Targets, as an ambitious plan developed with the purpose
of inspiring broad-based action in support of biodiversity over the decade by all countries
and stakeholders. The Strategic Plan and Aichi Targets are the overarching framework on
biodiversity not only for CBD and biodiversity related conventions, but for the entire UN
system.
 The UN General Assembly vide a resolution has declared 2011-2020 as the UN Decade on
Biodiversity, coinciding with the duration of the Strategic Plan.
 Accordingly, India through an extensive consultative process, has developed 12 national
biodiversity targets along with indicators for monitoring, using Aichi targets as a
framework, and brought out a National Biodiversity Action Plan Addendum 2014 to NBAP
2008.
Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
 All targets don’t have 2020 as a target year.
Example:
 Target 9: By 2015, Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of
Benefits Arising from their Utilization as per the Nagoya Protocol are operational,
consistent with national legislations.
Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Sources:
http://www.moef.nic.in/division/convention-biological-diversity-cbd
http://www.cbd.int/countries/?country=in
http://envfor.nic.in/sites/default/files/NBAP%20Addendum%202014.pdf
4. Solution: a
Amur falcon (eastern red-footed falcon)
 Raptor
 It breeds in south-eastern Siberiaand Northern China before migrating in large flocks
across India and over the Arabian Sea to winter in Southern Africa.
 Amur falcons come to roost at Nagaland (Doyang Lake) during their flight from
Mongolia to Africa.
Amur Falcon Conservation:
 Migratory Amur Falcons visiting Nagaland were hunted. With support of people in the
region, the Government was successful in drastically reducing the hunting of the birds.
The birds have also been satellite tagged and movement tracked.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the hunting was observed in Nagaland as per the report.
Source:
5. Solution: d
Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017.
Restrictions of activities in wetlands.
(1) The wetlands shall be conserved and managed in accordance with the principle of ‘wise
use’ as determined by the Wetlands Authority.
(2) The following activities shall be prohibited within the wetlands,
(i) Conversion for non-wetland uses including encroachment of any kind.
(ii) Setting up of any industry and expansion of existing industries.
(iii) Manufacture or handling or storage or disposal of construction and demolition
waste, hazardous substances, electronic waste.
(iv) Solid waste dumping.
(v) Discharge of untreated wastes and effluents from industries, cities, towns, villages
and other human settlements.
(vi) Any construction of a permanent nature except for boat jetties within fifty metres
from the mean high flood level observed in the past ten years calculated from the
date of commencement of these rules.
(vii) Poaching.
All 3 statements are correct.
http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Wetlands%20(C&M)%20Rules,%202017.pdf
6. Solution: d
 In a major success in the fight against wildlife crime, Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB),
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, coordinated “OPERATION THUNDER
BIRD” in India, from January 30-February 19, 2017. Operation Thunderbird is the
codename for INTERPOL’s multi-national and multi-species enforcement operation.
 The operation is not species-specific. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.
 The operation is co-ordinated by WCCB, not AWBI. So, statement 2 is too incorrect.
7. Solution: c
 To encounter the menace of the illegal trade through e-commerce platform, WCCB
organized and coordinated an enforcement operation named “Operation Wildnet” to
tackle illegal Wildlife trade through internet using Social Media Platforms such as
Facebook, Twitter, Whatsapp, Wechat etc. apart from various online classified sites and
trade portals, websites and Blog Spots.
Source:
http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Wetlands%20(C&M)%20Rules,%202017.pdf
8. Solution: b
 In 1972 there were an estimated 1827 tigers. Now the figure stands at 2226 in 2016. The
number of tiger reserves has increased to 50 from 9 in 1973. We have 2/3rd of wild tigers
of the world in our country.
 Tiger is at the apex of the forest ecosystem and depicts the health of our jungles. That is
why tigers are called indicator species.
 There are 2/3rd of wild tigers of the world in India, not 1/3rd.
So, statement 1 is incorrect. Other statements are correct.
 Being the dominant predators of the ecosystem (So, statement 2 is correct), they ensure
that the numbers of herbivores like deer are kept balanced. A steep fall in tiger population
could lead to a rise in herbivore population, which could potentially destroy forests by
consuming the trees and plants
So, statement 3 is correct
Source:
9. Solution: c
 Coral Reef Restoration at Gulf of Kachchh by ZSI is a successful and first of its kind attempt
in the world to restore coral species which have become extinct at Gulf of Kachchh about
10 thousand years ago. Significant area of degraded reefs has been restored with
branching coral species belonging to family Acroporidae, which are the dominant reef
contributors in all world reefs. Coral Sanatorium for Global warming affected corals (coral
refugia), coral spawning and discovery of dugong are some of the outcomes of the project.
So, both statements are correct.
Source:
10. Solution: c
 A pilot initiative of electronic surveillance (“e-Eye”), using long range, intelligent thermal
and infrared cameras, has been implemented in the southern part of the Corbett Tiger
Reserve for round the clock surveillance. This facility would be extended to other Tiger
Reserves.
 It is used for surveillance not just in low vision but round the clock. So, Statement 2 is
incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct.
 The e-surveillance cameras can scan 360 degrees and track animal and human movement.
It is an excellent tool for checking poaching as well as studying the migratory route of the
big jumbos.
Statement 3 is also correct.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/an-eeye-for-
corbett/article3483640.ece
11. Solution: c
Green India Mission has a goal inter alia:
 To improve/enhance eco-system services like carbon sequestration and storage (in forests
and other ecosystems), hydrological services and biodiversity; along with provisioning
services like fuel, fodder, and timber and non-timber forest produces (NTFPs).
 The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) report 2005 defines Ecosystem services as
benefits people obtain from ecosystems and distinguishes four categories of ecosystem
services i.e. Supporting services, Provisioning services, Regulating services and Cultural
services. Regulating services include carbon sequestration and climate regulation, waste
decomposition and detoxification, purification of water and air, pest and disease control.
Source:
http://www.moef.nic.in/division/introduction-22
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem_services
12. Solution: a
 It is the first attempt in India to protect and restore a sinking island. Deployment of artificial
reefs parallel to the sinking island in the seaward side reduces the effect of currents and
waves, enhances fish habitats for higher fish production and protection of fish diversity.
Natural corals get attached to artificial reefs over time and start regeneration.
 Statements 1 and 2 are correct whereas statement 3 is incorrect as the deployment of
artificial reefs protect fish diversity.
Source:
http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/tamil-nadu-deploying-artificial-reefs-to-save-sinking-
islands-58392
13. Solution: c
NAFCC
 Launched in 2015 to provide 100% central grant to the State Governments for
implementing climate change adaptation projects. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 objective — assist states/UTs that are particularly vulnerable to adverse effects of climate
change in meeting the cost of adaptation. Union Government encourages States to come
up with innovative and scalable projects to develop resilience against climate change and
mainstream it in the planning processes.
 The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is National
Implementing Entity (NIE) for NAFCC. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Source:
http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Environment%20AR%20English%202016-
2017.pdf
14. Solution: d
Explanation:
 The Department of Biotechnology (DBT), under the Ministry of Science and Technology,
convened the Smart Agriculture Conclave in New Delhi from August 29 – 31 2017, in
partnership with the UK’s Biotechnology and Biological Sciences Research Council (BBSRC)
and Research Councils UK (RCUK) India.
 The objective of this conclave was to set the stage for “FarmerZone” – a collective open-
source data platform for smart agriculture which will use biological research and data to
improve the lives of small and marginal farmers. It is envisaged that “FarmerZone” will help
cater to all needs of the farmer, from dealing with climate change, weather predictions
and soil, water, and seed requirements to providing market intelligence.
Source:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170426
15. Solution: c
Statement 1 : Growing trees convert carbon dioxide to woody biomass and decomposing trees
release carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere. Whether trees naturally decompose or burn,
carbon dioxide is emitted back into the atmosphere, replacing what was just taken out. Hence
wood is considered as carbon-neutral material. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2:
 Plastic making process contributes to the global GHG emission during transportation of oil
or petroleum products (rawmaterial for resin) and manufacturing process that involves
heating resin at high temperature to breakdown larger hydrocarbons into smaller one that
releases CO2 as by product.
 Steel making process involves heating iron ore — which is mostly iron oxide —with carbon;
the process forms carbon dioxide as a byproduct. Production of a ton of steel generates
almost two tons of CO2 emissions, accounting for as much as 5 percent of the world’s total
greenhouse-gas emissions.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Learning:
 The government has launched “Wood is Good” Campaign under the Partnership for Land
Use Science (Forest-Plus), a partnership between USAID and India’s environment ministry.
 The idea is to promote wood as a climate-friendly resource and a substitute to materials
like plastic and steel because it is carbon neutral unlike the others while they leave a carbon
footprint in their production.
Source:
16. Solution: a
 Tiger range countries (TRCs) are those where the big cats roam freely.
 The 13 tiger range countries include Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India,
Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand, and Vietnam.
Statement 2 is incorrect as India’s all neighbours are not Tiger Range Countries. Eg: Pakistan
Source:
https://www.livemint.com/Politics/yTxetwY5x1He7AFnd7EcfL/Over-a-third-of-protected-
areas-surveyed-are-at-risk-of-losi.html
17. Solution: c
 The SECURE – securing livelihoods, conservation, sustainable use and restoration of high
range Himalayan ecosystems – is meant for specific landscapes.
It includes:
 Changthang (Jammu and Kasmir),
 Lahaul – Pangi and Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh),
 Gangotri – Govind and Darma – Byans Valley in Pithoragarh (Uttarakhand) and
 Kanchenjunga – Upper Teesta Valley (Sikkim).
Arunachal Pradesh is not covered under the project.
Therefore, option (c) is correct.
18. Solution: d
 India Forest Amendment act that amends clause (7) of section 2 of The Indian Forest Act,
1927.
 The word “bamboos” is omitted from the definition of tree, in order to exempt bamboos
grown on non-forest area.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 Consequent to the amendment, felling or transportation of bamboos growing in non-forest
areas will not require any permits.
 Since, Parliament was not in session and immediate action was required to be taken, the
Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 was promulgated by the President on the
23rd day of November, 2017.
 Accordingly, the Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 replaces the Indian Forest
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2017.
Source:
http://164.100.24.219/BillsTexts/LSBillTexts/asintroduced/208_2017_LS_Eng.pdf
http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-indian-forest-amendment-bill-2017-5001/
19. Solution: c
 Mangroves for the future (MFF) is being coordinated by International Union for
Conservation of Nature, IUCN covering, initially, six Tsunami affected countries namely
India, Indonesia, Maldives, Seychelles, Srilanka and Thailand. India has agreed to
participate in the IUCN- MFF Initiative.
 New members: Bangladesh, Cambodia, Myanmar, Pakistan and Vietnam.
 MFF in India works at the national level by networking, influencing policy issues,
conducting training missions and through regional coordination activities. At the local level
community networking, experience sharing and site-specific actions are at the core of
MFF’s activities.
 For execution of MFF projects, five States in India were identified as priority areas.
Selection of the five States was accomplished with seven categories in mind, which include:
human pressure, pollution, degradation, cyclone, climate change and sea level rise,
seascape setting and unique features.
Both the statements are correct.
Source:
https://www.mangrovesforthefuture.org/countries/members/india/
20. Solution: a
 The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development is a regional
intergovernmental learning and knowledge sharing centre serving the eight regional
member countries of the Hindu Kush Himalayas – Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China,
India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan – based in Kathmandu.
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
 It is not based in New Delhi.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
21. Solution: d
Apart from above mentioned uses, it has many other applications. It was in news in AUgust
2017(following link)
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/08/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-01-aug-2017/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liquid_nitrogen#Uses
22. Solution: c
 Ahead of the festive seasons of Dussehra and Deepavali, the Supreme Court has prohibited
the use of five chemicals, labelled as toxic by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB),
in the manufacture of firecrackers.
 The banned chemicals include antimony, lithium, mercury, arsenic and lead in any form
whatsoever.
 The responsibility to ensure compliance particularly in Sivakasi is given to the Petroleum
and Explosive Safety Organisation (PESO).
23. Solution: a
 The Ratle Hydroelectric Plant is a run-of-the-river hydroelectric power station currently
under construction on the Chenab River, downstream of the village of Ratle, near
Drabshalla in Kishtwar district of the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir. The project
includes a 133 m (436 ft) tall gravity dam and two power stations adjacent to one another.
 Run-of-river hydroelectricity (ROR) or run-of-the-river hydroelectricity is a type of
hydroelectric generation plant whereby little or no water storage is provided.
 Run-of-the-river power plants may have no water storage at all or a limited amount of
storage, in which case the storage reservoir is referred to as pondage.
 A plant without pondage is subject to seasonal river flows, thus the plant will operate as
an intermittent energy source.
 Conventional hydro uses reservoirs, which regulate water for flood control and
dispatchable electrical power.
24. Solution: c
Statement – 2: It can provide credit to MSMEs (see below)
As per National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (Amendment) Bill, 2017 , which
is passed by the parliament, following are the changes brought in NABARD.
 Increase in capital of NABARD: Under the 1981 Act, NABARD may have a capital of Rs 100
crore. This capital can be further increased to Rs 5,000 crore by the central government in
consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
 The Bill allows the central government to increase this capital to Rs 30,000 crore. The
capital may be increased to more than Rs 30,000 crore by the central government in
consultation with the RBI, if necessary.
 Transfer of the RBI’s share to the central government: Under the 1981 Act, the central
government and the RBI together must hold at least 51% of the share capital of NABARD.
The Bill provides that the central government alone must hold at least 51% of the share
capital of NABARD. The Bill transfers the share capital held by the RBI and valued at Rs 20
crore to the central government. The central government will give an equal amount to the
RBI.
 Micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME): The Bill replaces the terms ‘small-scale
industry’ and ‘industry in the tiny and decentralised sector’ with the terms ‘micro
enterprise’, ‘small enterprise’ and ‘medium enterprise’ as defined in the MSME

Development Act, 2006. Under the 1981 Act, NABARD was responsible for providing credit
and other facilities to industries having an investment of upto Rs 20 lakh in machinery and
plant. The Bill extends this to apply to enterprises with investment upto Rs 10 crore in the
manufacturing sector and Rs five crore in the services sector.
 Under the 1981 Act, experts from small-scale industries are included in the Board of
Directors and the Advisory Council of NABARD. Further, banks providing loans to small-
scale, tiny and decentralised sector industries are eligible to receive financial assistance
from NABARD. The Bill extends these provisions to the micro, small, and medium
enterprises.
25. Solution: d
What gives colour to the firecrackers?
 Red: Strontium salts (Nitrates, carbonates and sulphates of strontium).
 Orange: Calcium salts (Carbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium).
 Yellow: Sodium salts ( Nitrates and oxalates of sodium).
 Green: Barium salts (Nitrates, carbonates, chlorides and chlorates of barium).
 Blue: Copper salts (Carbonates and oxides of copper).
 Purple: A combination of copper and strontium compounds.
 White: The burning of metals like magnesium, aluminium and titanium).
26. Solution: a
 The Siberian crane (Leucogeranus leucogeranus), also known as the Siberian white crane
or the snow crane, is a bird of the family Gruidae, the cranes.
 They are distinctive among the cranes, adults are nearly all snowy white, except for their
black primary feathers that are visible in flight and with two breeding populations in the
Arctic tundra of western and eastern Russia.
 The eastern populations migrate during winter to China while the western population
winters in Iran and formerly, in India and Nepal. Among the cranes, they make the longest
distance migrations.
 Their populations, particularly those in the western range, have declined drastically in the
20th century due to hunting along their migration routes and habitat degradation.
Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siberian_crane
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_endangered_animals_in_India
27. Solution: c
Uses of Sundari Trees:
 The timber has many uses; in bridge building, house construction, boat building and
joinery, as utility poles and tool handles, making hardboard and as firewood.
 The tree is grown commercially in plantations.
 The bark of H. fomes is rich in procyanidins. The ethanol extract has been shown to have
antioxidant properties.
 It also shows antimicrobial activities against Kocuria rhizophila, Staphylococcus aureus,
Bacillus subtilis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa and is non-toxic in brine shrimp toxicity
tests.
All the statements are correct.

Source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heritiera_fomes
28. Solution: c
Statement 1 : At a height between 1500m and 2500m there is high snowfall causing snow to
snow accumulate on branches and leaves or needles. The conical shape of conifer trees
(mountain) prevents as much accumulation of snow as there would be on a wider shaped tree.
The conical shape of the tree also helps to get the snow to fall off the tree quickly and to get
the sunlight. Hence statement 1 is correct
Statement 2 : The Pinophyta, also known as Coniferophyta or Coniferae, or commonly as
conifers, are a division of vascular land plants containing a single extant class, Pinopsida.
 They are gymnosperms, cone-bearing seed plants.
 All extant conifers are perennial woody plants with secondary growth. Hence statement 2
is correct. The great majority are trees, though a few are shrubs.
29. Solution: d
Statement 1 is incorrect because the trees in Tropical Rain Forests shed their leaves at different
times of the year. Therefore, they always appear green.
Statement 2 is incorrect because teak and shisham are found in tropical deciduous forests.
Statement 3 is also incorrect because these forests are found in a narrow strip of the Western
slope of Western Ghats.
Source:
NCERT Class VI Geography.
30. Solution: c
 The altitude in Ladakh varies from about 3000m in Kargil to more than 8,000m in the
Karakoram. Due to its high altitude, the climate is extremely cold and dry. The air at this
altitude is so thin that the heat of the sun can be felt intensely. Hence Statement 1 in
correct
 The day temperatures in summer are just above zero degree and the night temperatures
well below –30°C. It is freezing cold in the winters when the temperatures may remain
below –40°C for most of the time. As it lies in the rain shadow of the Himalayas, there is
little rainfall, as low as 10 cm every year. The area experiences freezing winds and burning
hot sunlight. One will be surprised to know that if you sit in the sun with your feet in the
shade, you may suffer from both sunstroke and frost bite at the same time. Hence
Statement 2 is correct
Source:
NCERT Geography Class VII chapter 10.
31. Solution: b
 In recent years, they have become endangered due to poaching.
 They are hunted for their soft and warm wool which is usually obtained after death. This
wool is known as shahtoosh and is used to weave shawls.
 At present, international trade in their products is strictly prohibited. Recently, its IUCN
Red List of Threatened Species ranking was raised to Near Threatened.
Source:
NCERT Class VI chapter 8.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tibetan_antelope
32. Solution: a
 Warm currents bring about warm temperature over land surface. The areas where the
warm and cold currents meet provide the best fishing grounds of the world. Seas around
Japan and the eastern coast of North America are such examples.
So Statement 1 is correct.
 The areas where a warm and cold current meet also experience foggy weather making it
difficult for navigation.
So Statement 2 is incorrect.
Source: NCERT Geography VII Chapter 5.
33. Solution: c
 The west and south west margins of the continents have Mediterranean vegetation is
mostly found in the areas around the Mediterranean Sea in Europe, Africa and Asia, hence
the name. So statement 1 is correct
 This kind of vegetation is also found outside the actual Mediterranean region in California
in the USA, south west Africa, south western South America and South west Australia.
These regions are marked for hot dry summers and mild rainy winters.
 Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated here because
people have removed the natural vegetation in order to cultivate what they want to. So
statement 2 is correct.
 There isn’t much wildlife here.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Source: NCERT Class VII Chapter 6.
34. Solution: b
 The temperate grasslands of North America are known as the Prairies.
 It is a region of flat, gently sloping or hilly land. For the most part, prairies are treeless but,
near the low lying plains, flanking river valleys, woodlands can be found.
 Tall grass, up to two metres high, dominates, the landscape. It is actually a “sea of grass.”
Source: NCERT Geography Class VII Chapter 9.
35. Solution: c
 You will be surprised to know that present day Sahara once used to be a lush green plain.
Cave paintings in Sahara desert show that there used to be rivers with crocodiles.
Elephants, lions, giraffes, ostriches, sheep, cattle and goats were common animals. But the
change in climate has changed it to a very hot and dry region. So statement 1 is correct.
People of Sahara:
 The Sahara desert despite its harsh climate has been inhabited by various groups of people,
who pursue different activities. Among them are the Bedouins and Tuaregs. These groups
are nomadic tribes rearing livestock such as goats, sheep, camels and horses. These
animals provide them with milk, hides from which they make leather for belts, slippers,
water bottles; hair is used for mats, carpets, clothes and blankets.
 They wear heavy robes as protection against dust storms and hot winds. So statement 2 is
correct
Source: NCERT Geography class VII chapter 10.
36. Solution: d
Important Bird Areas
 Important for the conservation of bird populations
 identified by BirdLife International
 These sites are small enough to be entirely conserved and differ in their character,
habitat or ornithological importance from the surrounding habitat.
From the table of Important Bird Areas (IBAs) in India
IBA Final
S. No. Site Name PA Status
Criteria Code
BhagwanMahavir Wildlife Sanctuary A1, A2,
35 WLS IN174
(including Molem) A3
From the table of Potential Important Bird Areas (IBAs) in India

Potential or
Stat
S. No Site Name New IBAs
e
Codes
23 Bondla Goa IN-GA-05
25 Netravali Goa IN-GA-07
Source: http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/IBA_8463.aspx
37. Solution: b
 The Nilgiri tahr inhabits the open montane grassland habitats at elevations from 1200 to
2600 m (generally above 2000 m) of the South Western Ghats.
 Their range extends over 400 km from north to south.
 Eravikulam National Park is home to the largest population.
Hence Statement 2 is correct.
 The other significant concentration is in the Nilgiri Hills, with smaller populations in the
Anamalai Hills, Periyar National Park, Palni Hills and other pockets in the Western Ghats
south of Eravikulam, almost to India’s southern tip.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect as the species’ habitat is spread outside Nilgiri hills also.
Source:
https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/threatened_species/nilgiri_tahr2/
38. Solution: b
 The preferred habitat of an Indian rhinoceros is alluvial flood plains and areas containing
tall grasslands along the foothills of the Himalayas. Formerly, extensively distributed in the
Gangetic plains, today the species is restricted to small habitats in Indo-Nepal terai and
northern West Bengal and Assam. In India, rhinos are mainly found in Kaziranga NP,
Pobitara WLS, Orang NP, Manas NP in Assam, Jaldapara NP and Garumara NP in West
Bengal and Dudhwa TR in Uttar Pradesh.
https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/greater_one_horned_rhino/about_o
ne_horned_rhino/
 The one horned rhinoceros of Asia is the second largest of the five species of rhino. The
African white rhino is the largest and the African black rhino is third, followed by the
Sumatran rhino and the Javanese rhino.
Hence Statement 2 in incorrect.
http://factsanddetails.com/asian/cat68/sub433/item2458.html
 Rhino translocations began in April 2008, under IRV 2020 moved 18 Indian rhinos from
Pabitora Wildlife Sanctuary and Kaziranga National Park to Manas National. An additional
eight rhinos were moved to Manas by the Centre for Wildlife Rehabilitation and
Conservation.
https://rhinos.org/where-we-work/indian-rhino-vision-2020/
39. Solution: b
 The critically endangered species of IUCN Red List face an extremely high risk of extinction
in the immediate future.
 CITES Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of these
species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances. Appendix II includes species not
necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled in order to
avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
Source:
Extensive list: http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/ScheduleSpeciesDatabase_7969.aspx
40. Solution: c
 Though Keoldeo National Park and Chilika Lake were designated the status of Ramsar site
on the same day but Chilka lake is the first Ramsar Site.
 The lake was included in the Montreux Record (Threatened list) in 1993 by Ramsar
Secretariat due to the change in the ecological character of the lake ecosystem.
Susequently, however, due to successful restoration of the lake ecosystem by Chilika
Development Authority it was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002 (first site from
Asia).
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
 Chilika Lake is the largest brackish water lake with estuarine character that sprawls along
the east coast of India.
 It is considered to be the largest lagoon in India and counted amongst the largest lagoons
in the world.
 The lake is a unique habitat that comprises of Marine, brackish and freshwater ecosystem
and supports any biodiversity comprising of birds and aquatic animals.
Source: http://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5896/
41. Solution: a
 Great hornbills are found in the forests of India, Bhutan, Nepal, Mainland Southeast Asia
and Indonesian Island of Sumatra and North eastern region of India.
 The distribution of the species is fragmented over its range in the Indian subcontinent and
Southeast Asia.
 In the subcontinent they are found in a few forest areas in the Western Ghats and in the
forests along the Himalayas.
 Their distribution extends into Thailand, Burma, Malaya, and Sumatra. A small feral
population is found in Singapore.
 Their habitat is dense old growth (unlogged) forests in hilly regions. They appear to be
dependent on large stretches of forest, unlike many of the smaller hornbills.
 Tribal peoples threaten the great Indian hornbill by hunting it for its various parts. The
beaks and head are used in charms and the flesh is believed to be medicinal. Young birds
are considered a delicacy.
 The Hornbill Festival is a celebration held every year from 1 – 10 December, in Nagaland
to revive, protect, sustain, and promote the richness of the Naga heritage and traditions.
42. Solution: b
 According to the Convention for Biological Diversity, invasive alien species are the second
largest cause of biodiversity loss in the world (Hence Statement 1 in incorrect) and impose
high costs to agriculture, forestry, and aquatic ecosystems.
 In fact, introduced species are a greater threat to native biodiversity than pollution,
harvest, and disease combined. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)
Source: http://www.bsienvis.nic.in/Database/Invasive_Alien_species_15896.aspx
43. Solution: d
As per the provisions of the act. (Clause wise)
17A. Prohibition of picking, uprooting, etc., of specified plants.
No person shall –
(a) willfully pick, uproot, damage destroy, acquire or collect any specified plant from any
forest land and area specified, by notification, by the Central Government, (Hence
Statement 1 in incorrect)
(b) possess, sell, other for sale, or transfer by way of gift or otherwise, or transport any
specified plant, whether alive or dead, or part or derivative thereof.
17C. Cultivation of specified plants without licence prohibited.
No person shall cultivate a specified plant except under, and in accordance with a licence
granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden or any other officer authorised by the State
Government in this behalf. (Hence Statement 2 in incorrect)
http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife1c3a.pdf
44. Solution: c
 The Snow Leopard is assessed as Vulnerable because the global population is estimated to
number more than 2,500 but fewer than 10,000 mature individuals, and there is an
estimated and projected decline of at least 10% over 22.62 years (3 generations).
Statement 1 is about Snow Leopard.
http://www.iucnredlist.org/details/22732/0
For statements 2 and 3, refer Insights Exclusive Environment module.
45. Solution: b
 The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those
specified in Sch. I and part 11 of Sch H to be vermin for any area and for such period as
may be specified therein and so long as such notification is in force, such wild animal shall
be deemed to have been included in Sch.V.
46. Solution: c
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) would soon no longer be the sole collector and custodian
of financial data as the Law Ministry has approved a revised Cabinet proposal on the
creation of the Financial Data Management Centre (FDMC) that would subsequently
collect raw data directly.
 “FDMC will collect data in electronic format from the (financial) regulators. Over time, it
will gradually build capacity to collect data from the regulated entities i.e. Financial Service
Providers,” says the revised proposal which accepts that the data warehouse could be set
up only through an Act.
 Initially, FDMC was to be a non-statutory body to collect data from financial sector
regulators, standardise and analyse them on issues relating to financial stability for onward
decisions by the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC). It was also to provide
regular access to the data. However, the Department of Legal Affairs turned down the
initial Cabinet proposal saying that a non-statutory FMDC would find it difficult to acquire
data from the regulators, majority of which were statutory.
First statement is correct because it says “IT SEEKS to…”
47. Solution: c
Highlights of Agriculture Census 2010-11
 Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare has released Agriculture
Census 2010-11(Phase-II). Highlights of the Census are:
Highlights -
As per Agriculture Census 2010-11,
 Total number of operational holdings were estimated as 138.35 million.
 The total operated area was 159.59 million hectare.
 The average size of the holding has been estimated as 1.15 hectare. The average size of
holdings has shown a steady declining trend over various Agriculture Censuses since, 1970-
71.
http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/nearly-70-percent-of-indian-farms-
are-very-small-census-shows-115120901080_1.html
48. Solution: b
Statement-1: We have changed the number here, so that you remember it well (it’s an
important fact to remember).
 Preterm is defined as babies born alive before 37 weeks of pregnancy are completed. There
are sub-categories of preterm birth, based on gestational age:
 extremely preterm (less than 28 weeks)
 very preterm (28 to 32 weeks)

 moderate to late preterm (32 to 37 weeks).
 Induction or caesarean birth should not be planned before 39 completed weeks unless
medically indicated.
Statement- 2:

Every year, an estimated 15 million babies are born preterm (before 37 completed weeks
of gestation), and this number is rising.
 Preterm birth complications are the leading cause of death among children under 5 years
of age, responsible for approximately 1 million deaths in 2015 (1).
 Three-quarters of these deaths could be prevented with current, cost-effective
interventions.
 Across 184 countries, the rate of preterm birth ranges from 5% to 18% of babies born.
49. Solution: c
Melbourne has been named ‘The World’s Most Liveable City’ for the seventh consecutive year
by the annual Economist Intelligence Unit’s (EIU) Global Liveability Index.
Background:
 The EIU’s Liveability Ranking assesses living conditions in 140 cities across the globe by
assigning a rating across five broad categories.
 The rating quantifies the challenges that might be presented to an individual’s lifestyle in
any given location, and allows for direct comparison between locations.
 Every city is assigned a rating of relative comfort for over 30 qualitative and quantitative
factors across five broad categories – stability, healthcare, culture and environment,
education and infrastructure.
Top five most liveable cities:
 Melbourne
 Vienna
 Vancouver
 Toronto
 Adelaide, Calgary.
50. Solution: d
 The Turkmenistan–Afghanistan–Pakistan–India Pipeline (TAPI), also known as Trans-
Afghanistan Pipeline, is a natural gas pipeline being developed by the Galkynysh – TAPI
Pipeline Company Limited with participation of the Asian Development Bank.
 The pipeline will transport natural gas from the Galkynysh Gas Field in Turkmenistan
through Afghanistan into Pakistan and then to India. Construction on the project started
in Turkmenistan on December 13th, 2015.
 The pipeline is expected to be operational by 2019.
 The abbreviation TAPI comes from the first letters of those countries. Proponents of the
project see it as a modern continuation of the Silk Road.
51. Solution: c
AQI Category PM10 (24h PM2.5 (2 NO2 (24 O3 ( CO SO2 (2 NH3 (24 Pb
(Range) r) 4hr) hr) 8hr) (8hr) 4hr) hr) (24hr)
0–
Good (0–50) 0–50 0–30 0–40 0–1.0 0–40 0–200 0–0.5
50
Satisfactory 51–
51–100 31–60 41–80 1.1–2.0 41–80 201–400 0.5–1.0
(51–100) 100
Moderately 101
81–
polluted (101– 101–250 61–90 81–180 – 2.1–10 401–800 1.1–2.0
380
200) 168
169
381– 801–
Poor (201–300) 251–350 91–120 181–280 – 10–17 2.1–3.0
800 1200
208
209
Very poor 801– 1200–
351–430 121–250 281–400 – 17–34 3.1–3.5
(301–400) 1600 1800
748
Severe (401– 748
430+ 250+ 400+ 34+ 1600+ 1800+ 3.5+
500) +
Source:
http://cpcb.nic.in/displaypdf.php?id=bmF0aW9uYWwtYWlyLXF1YWxpdHktaW5kZXgvQWJvd
XRfQVFJLnBkZg==
https://app.cpcbccr.com/AQI_India/
52. Solution: d
Statement 1: “First-generation” or conventional biofuels are biofuels made from food crops
grown on arable land. With this biofuel production generation, food crops are thus explicitly
grown for fuel production, and not anything else. The sugar, starch, or vegetable oil obtained
from the crops is converted into biodiesel or ethanol, using trans-esterification, or yeast
fermentation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 : Second generation biofuels are fuels manufactured from lignocellulosic biomass
or woody crops, agricultural residues or waste plant material (from food crops but they have
already fulfilled their food purpose). Biomass is a wide-ranging term meaning any source of
organic carbon that is renewed rapidly as part of the carbon cycle. Biomass is derived from
plant materials, but can also include animal materials. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biofuel
53. Solution: d
 Earth Overshoot Day marks the date when humanity has exhausted nature’s budget for
the year. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
 For the rest of the year, we are maintaining our ecological deficit by drawing down local
resource stocks and accumulating carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. We are operating in
overshoot. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
 Ecological Footprint accounting measures the demand on and supply of nature.
 On the demand side, the Ecological Footprint measures the ecological assets that a given
population requires to produce the natural resources it consumes (including plant-based
food and fiber products, livestock and fish products, timber and other forest products,
space for urban infrastructure) and to absorb its waste, especially carbon emissions.
 The Ecological Footprint tracks the use of six categories of productive surface areas:
cropland, grazing land, fishing grounds, built-up land, forest area, and carbon demand on
land.
 On the supply side, a city, state or nation’s bio capacity represents the productivity of its
ecological assets (including cropland, grazing land, forest land, fishing grounds, and built-
up land). These areas, especially if left unharvest, can also absorb much of the waste we
generate, especially our carbon emissions.
Source: https://www.footprintnetwork.org/resources/glossary/
54. Solution: d
All are rightly matched.
Factual information:
 World Ozone Day – September 16.
 World Day to combat Desertification and Drought 2017 – June 17.
 World Environment Day – June 5.
55. Solution: a
 Light Pollution has a disruptive effect on natural cycles and inhibits the observation of stars
and planets. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
 Light Pollution disturbs the reproductive cycles of some animals and disturbs migration of
birds that navigate using stars. Eg., sea turtles. Artificial lights discourage females from
nesting. If a female fails to nest after multiple false crawls, she will resort to less-than-
optimal nesting spots or deposit her eggs in the ocean. In either case, the survival outlook
for hatchlings is slim. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
 In humans, it disturbs circadian rhythms that regulate hormones and other bodily
functions. Excessive blue light emitted from LEDs directly affect the sleep pattern in Human
by suppressing the production of the hormone melatonin, which mediates the sleep-wake
cycle in humans. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Source: https://www.livescience.com
56. Solution: d
 Blue carbon is the carbon stored in coastal and marine ecosystems. The Blue Carbon
Initiative currently focuses on carbon in coastal ecosystems – mangroves, tidal marshes
and seagrasses which are found on every continent except Antarctica. These ecosystems
sequester and store large quantities of blue carbon in both the plants and the sediment
below. For example, over 95% of the carbon in seagrass meadows is stored in the soils.
 Projects are being developed at sites globally to protect and restore coastal ecosystems
for their “blue” carbon value.
 Research into the sequestration, storage and loss of carbon from blue carbon systems is
ongoing.
All statements are correct.
57. Solution: b
Species Habitat
1) Non-venomous snake Aquatic Rhabdops Wetern Ghats
2) Rock gecko Hemidactylus kangerensis Eastern Ghats
3) Moth Zygaenid Apatani Glory Arunachal Pradesh
4) Wild banana Musa Paramjitiana Andaman Nicobar Islands
Correctly matched species and habitats.

Refer Insights Exclusive Environment Module.
58. Solution: d
 Mulching is the process of covering the topsoil with plant material such as leaves, grass,
twigs, crop residues, straw etc. In some places, materials such as plastic sheets or even
stones are used for covering the soil. However, in organic agriculture the term ‘mulching’
refers only to the use of organic, degradable plant materials.
Uses of mulching
– Protecting the soil from wind and water erosion
– Improving the infiltration of rain and irrigation water
– Keeping the soil moist by reducing evaporation
– Feeding and protecting soil organisms
– Suppressing weed growth
– Preventing the soil from heating up too much
– Providing nutrients to the crops
– Increasing the content of soil organic matter
Source: http://teca.fao.org/read/8365
59. Solution: d
 Biological weathering is the weakening and subsequent disintegration of rock by plants,
animals and microbes.
 Growing plant roots can exert stress or pressure on rock. Although the process is physical,
the pressure is exerted by a biological process (i.e., growing roots). Biological processes
can also produce chemical weathering, for example where plant roots or microorganisms
produce organic acids which help to dissolve minerals.
 Microbial activity breaks down rock minerals by altering the rock’s chemical composition,
thus making it more susceptible to weathering. One example of microbial activity is lichen;
lichen is fungi and algae, living together in a symbiotic relationship. Fungi release chemicals
that break down rock minerals; the minerals thus released from rock are consumed by the
algae. As this process continues, holes and gaps continue to develop on the rock, exposing
the rock further to physical and chemical weathering.
 Burrowing animals can move rock fragments to the surface, exposing the rock to more
intense chemical, physical, and biological processes and so indirectly enhancing the
process of rock weathering.
 Although physical, chemical, and biological weathering are separate processes, some or all
of the processes can act together in nature.
Source:
http://passel.unl.edu/pages/informationmodule.php?idinformationmodule=1124303183&to
picorder=5&maxto=6
60. Solution: c
 Natural vegetation refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human
aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. (Hence Statement 1 and 2
are correct) This is termed as virgin vegetation. Thus, cultivated crops and fruits, orchards
form part of vegetation but not natural vegetation (Hence Statement 3 is incorrect).
 The virgin vegetation, which are purely Indian are known as endemic or indigenous species
to India (Hence Statement 4 is correct) but those which have come from outside India are
termed as exotic plants for India.
Source: NCERT Geography Class IX chapter 5.
61. Solution: a
 A medium-sized, evergreen tree, up to 18 m tall; a semi root-parasitic at its earlier growth
stage. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)It requires host plants to partner with. It is dependent
on these host plants for its nutrients and water demands to achieve and sustain healthy
growth.
 Sandal wood tree is probably native to peninsular India. It is distributed in India, parts of
Malesia, Australia, New Zealand and Polynesia, extending to the Hawaiian Archipelago and
Juan Fernonduos Islands (Chile). In India it is found in the peninsular region. The tree occurs
mainly in the open scrub forests. (Hence Statement 3 is correct). The principal natural
tracts of sandal trees are confined to parts of Mysore in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. (Hence
Statement 2 is correct)
 Santalum antalum antalum album has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN.
(Hence Statement 4 is incorrect).
http://bsienvis.nic.in/State_trees/Karnataka%20State%20Tree%20-%20Final%20-
%209.12.2013.pdf
62. Solution: a
 India is the only country in the world that has both tigers and lions. (Hence Statement 1 is
correct). The natural habitat of the Indian lion is the Gir forest in Gujarat. Tigers are found
in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan
region. Leopards too are members of the cat family. They are important among animals of
prey. The Gir Forest is the last remaining habitat of the Asiatic lion. (Hence Statement 2 is
correct)
Source: NCERT Class IX chapter 5.
 In the 1950s, biologists advised the Indian government to re-establish at least one wild
population in the Asiatic lion’s former range to ensure the population’s reproductive health
and to prevent it from being affected by an outbreak of an epidemic. In 1956, the Indian
Board for Wildlife accepted a proposal by the Government of Uttar Pradesh to establish a
new sanctuary for the envisaged reintroduction, that is Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary,
covering 96 km2 (37 sq mi) in eastern Uttar Pradesh, where climate, terrain and vegetation
is similar to the conditions in the Gir Forest. In 1957, one male and two female wild-caught
Asiatic lions were set free in the sanctuary. This population comprised 11 animals in 1965,
which all disappeared thereafter.
(Hence Statement 3 is incorrect).
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asiatic_lion#India
63. Solution: b
 The Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallachiana) is a medicinal plant found in various parts of
Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh. (Not all Himalayan states. Hence Statement 1
is inorrect)
 A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of
this tree, and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers – the drug is now the
biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)
 The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation. In the last one decade,
thousands of yew trees have dried up in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal
Pradesh. It denotes downtrend not uptrend. (Hence Statement 3 is incorrect)
64. Solution: d
 Farmers and citizen’s groups like the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya have
shown that adequate levels of diversified crop production without the use of synthetic
chemicals are possible and economically viable.
Source: NCERT Class X Geography Chapter 2.
 This movement has not only resulted in higher yields but also improved the soil fertility
and agro-biodiversity.
Hence all statements are correct.
Source: http://www.euttarakhand.com/beej-bachao-andolan
65. Solution: a
 The objective of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project is to assist
Government of India (GoI) in building national capacity for implementation of
comprehensive coastal management approach in the country, and piloting the integrated
coastal zone management approach in states of Gujarat, Orissa and West Bengal.
 There are four components to the project, the first component being national ICZM
capacity building. The national component will include mapping, delineation and
demarcation of the hazard lines, and delineation of coastal sediment cells all along the
mainland coast of India. The second component is the piloting ICZM approaches in Gujarat.
This component will support capacity building of the state level agencies and institutions,
including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cell that includes the Gulf
of Kachchh, and pilot investments. The third component is the piloting ICZM approaches
in Orissa. This component will include capacity building of the state level agencies and
institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cells that
include the stretches of Paradip-Dhamra and Gopalpur-Chilika, including a regional coastal
process study, and pilot investments. Finally, the fourth component is the piloting ICZM
approaches in West Bengal.
 Kerala and Tamilnadu are not covered.
Source:
http://projects.worldbank.org/P097985/integrated-coastal-zone-management?lang=en
66. Solution: a
The e-Green Watch is a web-based and user friendly application that is transparent, reliable
and accountable. It is an integrated e-governance portal that enables the temporal change
detection for the effective online monitoring and evaluation of works in forestry sector
undertaken by State CAMPA. (Hence the answer is a)
Refer Insights MoEF concise report.
67. Solution: c
Other two BRs are not in MAB list.
Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/BR%20List.pdf
Date of
No Area (in
Name entry into Location (State)
. sq.km)
MAB
Neyyar, Peppara and
13 Agasthyamalai 2016 1828 Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and
their adjoining areas in Kerala.
Covers parts of Anupur and Dindori
Achanakamar
14 2012 3835.51 districts of M.P. and parts of Bilaspur
– Amarkantak
districts of Chhattishgarh State.
68. Solution: c
Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats
 The Government of India provides financial and technical assistance to the State/UT
Governments for activities aimed at wildlife conservation through the Centrally
Sponsored Scheme viz. ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats’.
Support to Protected Areas:
Eligible PAs:
 National Parks
 Wildlife Sanctuaries
 Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves, other than those availing central
assistance under the CSS- Project Tiger, which are duly notified under the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972 and are under the control of the Chief Wildlife Wardens.
Tiger reserve do not come under the scheme.
69. Solution: a
 Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve has the highest number of tigers among all tiger reserves with
208. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)
 It’s Karnataka that has hihest number of tigers. Uttarakhand has the second highest
number of tigers. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect)
 Bandipur TR has 109.
 Nagarhole TR has 93.
Source:
http://www.walkthroughindia.com/wildlife/top-10-tiger-reserves-in-india-with-maximum-
tiger-population/
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Indian_states_by_wildlife_population
70. Solution: d
The Animal Welfare Board of India
 The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws
and promotes animal welfare in the country.
 It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,
1960.
 It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known
humanitarian.
 It ensures that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed.
 It provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations.
 It advises the Government of India on animal welfare issues.

71. Solution: c
 Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme for unorganised sector workers such as
personal maids, drivers, gardeners etc, was launched in June 2015 by the government. This
social security scheme was introduced as a replacement to previous government’s
Swavalamban Yojana NPS Lite, which wasn’t well accepted by people.
 APY aims to help these workers save money for their old age while they are working and
guarantees returns post retirement. The scheme also promises a co-contribution by a
worker, up to Rs. 1000 per annum, but only to those who joined APY before 31.12.2015.
Further, this co-contribution would be made only for 5 years, from FY 2015-16 to 2019-20
in the eligible cases subject to conditions mentioned below.
You are eligible for the Atal Pension Yojana if you are:
1. An Indian citizen
2. Have a valid bank account
3. Are between 18 and 40 years of age.
72. Solution: c
 Bagan in central Burma is one of the world’s greatest archeological sites. The Ayeyarwady
(Irrawaddy) River drifts past its northern and western sides. From the 9th to 13th centuries,
the city was the capital of the Pagan Kingdom, the first kingdom that unified the regions
that would later constitute modern Myanmar. During the kingdom’s height between the
11th and 13th centuries, over 10,000 Buddhist temples, pagodas and monasteries were
constructed in the Bagan plains alone.
73. Solution: d
 Kazakhstan is all set to open the world’s first Low Enriched Uranium Bank in Oskemen. The
International Atomic Energy Agency launched the project in 2010.
 The bank will hold 90 tons of uranium—enough to power a large reactor for three years—
and member states that withdraw from the bank will cover the cost of restocking.
 To ensure transport, the IAEA signed an agreement with Russia in 2015 to allow the
material to travel through the country.
74. Solution: b
 Gobindobhog rice, a speciality from Burdwan district of West Bengal, has got the
geographical indication (GI) status.
Significance of this move:
 As a result of getting the GI tag, as the certification is also called, rice from other regions
or rice of other varieties cannot be branded as ‘Gobindobhog’. Hence, the marketability of
the rice would be strengthened, for the local, national and international markets.
About Gobindobhog rice:
 Gobindobhog is a rice cultivar from West Bengal. It is a short grain, white, aromatic, sticky
rice having a sweet buttery flavor.
 It derives its name from its usage as the principal ingredient in the preparation of the
offerings to Govindajiu, the family deity of the Setts of Kolkata.
 The rice has several advantages. It is cultivated late and therefore not much affected by
rains. It is less prone to pests as well. The productivity per area is high and farmers get
better prices for Gobindobhog rice
75. Solution: a
 Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) was first constituted on May 28, 1990
and it was last re- constituted on March 11, 2013 for a period of three years. Subsequently,
with the approval of the competent authority, the tenure of the committee has been
extended till re-constitution of the new committee.
 The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the
Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export
and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells
1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
 The GEAC is also responsible for approval of proposals relating to release of genetically
engineered organisms and products into the environment including experimen-tal field
trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II).
76. Solution: c
 During the course of millions of years of their existence, many species would have evolved
a relatively constant internal (within the body) environment that permits all biochemical
reactions and physiological functions to proceed with maximal efficiency and thus,
enhance the overall ‘fitness’ of the species. This constancy, for example, could be in terms
of optimal temperature and osmotic concentration of body fluids. Ideally then, the
organism should try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment (a process called
homeostasis) despite varying external environmental conditions such as temperature that
tend to upset its homeostasis.
 Evolutionary biologists believe that the ‘success’ of mammals is largely due to their ability
to maintain a constant body temperature and thrive whether they live in Antarctica or in
the Sahara desert.
So statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 can be inferred from statement 1.
So, both the statements are correct.
Source: NCERT class XII Chapter 13.1.2
77. Solution: b
 While considering the various alternatives available to organisms for coping with extremes
in their environment, we have seen that some are able to respond through certain
physiological adjustments while others do so behaviourally (migrating temporarily to a less
stressful habitat).
 These responses are also actually, their adaptations. So, we can say that adaptation is any
attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, behavioral) that enables the
organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.
 Some desert plants like Opuntia, have no leaves – they are reduced to spines–and the
photosynthetic function is taken over by the flattened stems. Mammals from colder
climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. (This is called the
Allen’s Rule.)
 In the polar seas aquatic mammals like seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their
skin that acts as an insulator and reduces loss of body heat.
Source: NCERT class XII Chapter 13.1.3
78. Solution: c
Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Table 13.1

79. Solution: a
 In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright, i.e.,
producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores are more
in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also energy at a lower trophic level is always
more than at a higher level.
There are exceptions:
 The pyramid of number of insects feeding on a big tree is inverted. The pyramid of biomass
in sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of
phytoplankton. Hence statement 1 is correct and 3 is incorrect.
 Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows
from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat
at each step. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Chapter 14.5
80. Solution: d
 In situ conservation are biosphere reserves, 90 national parks, > 450 wildlife sanctuaries
and many sacred groves. Ex situ conservation methods include protective maintenance of
threatened species in zoological parks and botanical gardens.
 In recent years ex situ conservation has advanced beyond keeping threatened species in
enclosures. Now gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile
condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques, eggs can be fertilised in vitro,
and plants can be propagated using tissue culture methods. Seeds of different genetic
strains of commercially important plants can be kept for long periods in seed banks.
 All given methods are ex situ conservation methods.
Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Chapter 15.2.2
81. Solution: d
 Noise is undesired high level of sound. We have got used to associating loud sounds with
pleasure and entertainment not realising that noise causes psychological and physiological
disorders in humans. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 The bigger the city, the bigger the function, the greater the noise!! A brief exposure to
extremely high sound level, 150 dB or more generated by take-off of a jet plane or rocket,
may damage ear drums thus permanently impairing hearing ability. Even chronic exposure
to a relatively lower noise level of cities may permanently damage hearing abilities of
humans. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Noise also causes sleeplessness, increased heartbeat, altered breathing pattern, thus
considerably stressing humans. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Chapter 16.1
82. Solution: c
 Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
 Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from the industries and homes can radically
accelerate the aging process. This phenomenon has been called Cultural or Accelerated
Eutrophication. Hence statement 2 is correct.
83. Solution: b
 The fruits of the cotton plant (cotton bolls) are about the size of a lemon. After maturing,
the bolls burst open and the seeds covered with cotton fibres can be seen. Then, the cotton
is obtained.
 The jute plant is normally harvested when it is at flowering stage. The stems of the
harvested plants are immersed in water for a few days. The stems rot and fibres are
separated by hand.
Source: NCERT Class VI Science
84. Solution: d
 Green Growth means fostering economic growth and development, while ensuring that
natural assess continue to provide the resources and environmental services on which our
well-being relies.
 Green growth policies need to be founded on a good understanding of the determinants
of green growth and need to be supported with appropriate indicators to monitor
progress. This book presents a selection of updated and new indicators that illustrate the
progress that OECD and G20 countries have made since the 1990s. It updates the 2014
edition.
Source:
http://www.oecd.org/environment/green-growth-indicators-2017-9789264268586-en.htm
85. Solution: b
 A consortium of 12 Indian and British universities, including Oxford and Cambridge, has
received a £7 million grant from the U.K. government to build self-sufficient solar-powered
buildings in remote Indian villages.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
 The grant is part of a new solar project called ‘SUNRISE’ aimed at developing printed
photovoltaic cells and new manufacturing processes which can be used to make solar
energy products in India.
 These will then be integrated into buildings in at least five villages of India, allowing them
to harness solar power to provide their own energy and go off-grid.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/putting-the-sun-to-
work/article19458995.ece
86. Solution: c
 After Parliament/Cabinet approval the formal Instrument of ratification needs to be
deposited with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), Government of India (GoI). The
instrument of ratification may be forwarded along with a formal Note Verbale to MEA
which in case of ISA is the formal depository.
Source: http://isolaralliance.org/docs/ISA%20FA%20Ratification%20Steps.pdf
 Neither China nor USA has signed the ISA Framework Agreement.
Hence statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is incorrect.
Refer the tables provided in the source below.
http://isolaralliance.org/MemberCont.aspx
 International Solar Alliance (ISA) is conceived as a coalition of solar resource rich countries
to address their special energy needs and will provide a platform to collaborate on
addressing the identified gaps through a common, agreed approach. It will not duplicate
or replicate the efforts that others (like International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA),
Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Partnership (REEEP), International Energy Agency
(IEA), Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century (REN21), United Nations
bodies, bilateral organizations etc.) are currently engaged in, but will establish networks
and develop synergies with them and supplement their efforts in a sustainable and focused
manner.
87. Solution: d
 Studies on the biodiversity of five uninhabited islands — Bangaram, Thinnakara, Parali I, II
and III, of which Parali I reveal that these are inundated.
 All these are in Lakshadweep archipelago.
 Percentage of inundation:

Parali I (100%),Parali II (80%), followed by Thinnakara (14.38%), Parali III (11.42%) and
Bangaram (9.968%)
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-life/lakshadweep-island-parali-i-has-
vanished/article19633348.ece
88. Solution: b
 The Basel Convention on the Control of Trans-boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes
and their Disposal was adopted on 22 March 1989.
 Rotterdam Convention was adopted on Pesticides and industrial chemicals on 10
September 1998.
 The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants was adopted on 22 May 2001.
Pairs 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Source: http://www.pic.int/
89. Solution: d
All the statements are correct.
 EESL is a joint venture of four National Public Sector Enterprises – NTPC Limited, PFC, REC
and POWERGRID, and was set up under Ministry of Power. EESL is a Super Energy Service
Company (ESCO). Hence statement 1 is correct.
 EESL is creating a new normal through large-scale transformation through the following
programmes.
 UJALA, AgDSM, Solar AgDSM, SLNP, AJAY, Energy Efficient Buildings, MEEP, Energy Efficient
ACs, Smart Meters, Fin. Asst. Programmes, Solar Study Lamp and e-Vehicles.
Hence statement 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Source: https://www.eeslindia.org/
90. Solution: d
 The State Government of Goa over a year after de-classifying the coconut palm as a tree,
passed an amendment restoring the coconut palm in the list of trees and also according it
the status of State tree.
 The State government has decided to include coconut palm as tree in the Goa, Daman and
Diu (Preservation) Trees Act, 1984 to regulate felling of coconut trees under this Act.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/coconut-palm-declared-state-tree-
of-goa/article19409874.ece
91. Solution: d
 The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) and the United Nations Economic and
Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) started the tropical cyclone naming
system in 2000. Tropical cyclone are named to provide ease of communication between
forecasters and the general public regarding forecasts, watches, and warnings.
 The Cyclones worldwide are named by 9 regions — North Atlantic, Eastern North Pacific,
Central North Pacific, Western North Pacific, North Indian Ocean, South West Indian
Ocean, Australian, Southern Pacific, South Atlantic.
 Cyclones in the North Indian Ocean basin are named by the Indian Meteorological
Department and the first tropical cyclone was named in 2004 as Onil (given by Bangladesh).
 The name Ockhi was given by Bangladesh which in Bengali means ‘eye’.
 Eight north Indian Ocean countries — Bangladesh, India, the Maldives, Myanmar, Oman,
Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand, gave eight names each which was combined into a list of
64 names. One name from each country is picked in an order to name the cyclones.
 The previous storm Mora that caused severe flooding across Northeast India in May was
named by Thailand. Mora is the name of one of the healing stones and also means star of
the sea. The next cyclone will be named Sagar — a name given by India.
All 3 statements are incorrect.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/how-cyclone-ockhi-got-its-
name/article21218647.ece
92. Solution: a
 The salient features of Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management & Trans boundary
Movement) Rules, 2016 incorporates Waste Management hierarchy in the sequence of
priority of prevention, minimization, reuse, recycling, recovery, co-processing; and safe
disposal.
Refer Insights MoEF concise report
93. Solution: d
The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
 Increase minimum thickness of plastic carry bags from 40 to 50 microns and stipulate
minimum thickness of 50 micron for plastic sheets also to facilitate collection and recycle
of plastic waste. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 Expand the jurisdiction of applicability from the municipal area to rural areas, because
plastic has reached rural areas also; Hence statement 2 is correct.
 To bring in the responsibilities of producers and generators, both in plastic waste
management system and to introduce collect back system of plastic waste by the
producers/brand owners, as per extended producers’ responsibility;
 To introduce collection of plastic waste management fee through pre-registration of the
producers, importers of plastic carry bags/multi layered packaging and vendors selling the
same for establishing the waste management system;
 To promote use of plastic waste for road construction as per Indian Road Congress
guidelines or energy recovery, (Hence statement 3 is correct). or waste to oil etc. for
gainful utilization of waste and also address the waste disposal issue; to entrust more
responsibility on waste generators, namely payment of user charge as prescribed by local
authority, collection and handing over of waste by the institutional generator, event
organizers.
94. Solution: c
Eco-Development Forces scheme

 The Scheme was initiated by the Ministry of Defence in 1982 with a view to securing
involvement of ex-servicemen (Hence statement 1 is correct) in afforestation and eco-
development in remote and difficult areas (Hence statement 2 is correct.) to undertake
restoration of degraded ecosystems through afforestation, soil conservation and water
resource management techniques.
 The scheme also serves as a mechanism to rehabilitate the ex-servicemen for productive
work and to create employment for retired army personnel mainly in the rural areas. The
Scheme has been in operation for last four Five Year Plans. Therefore, the basic
requirements with regard to procedural and financial aspects stand fulfilled.
 Eco task force (ETF) battalions work under the scheme.
 The progress of the Eco- Task Force (ETF) Battalions is being closely reviewed jointly by
Ministry of Defence and MoEFCC.
95. Solution: a
Ecosystems Service Improvement Project
 Green India Mission Division intends to take up a World Bank aided “Ecosystem Services
Improvement Project” (ESIP) in selected landscapes of Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
States which has been designed to enhance the outcomes of the GIM.
 The project proposes to improve forest quality and productivity along with interventions
aimed at reforestation, reducing land degradation, institutional capacities building and
enhancing NTFP trade and improve the livelihoods of forest dependent communities in
Central Indian Highlands.
96. Solution: b
 Nuakhai or Nuankhai is an agricultural festival mainly observed by people of Western
Odisha in India. Nuakhai is observed to welcome the new rice of the season.
 According to the calendar it is observed on panchami tithi (the fifth day) of the lunar
fortnight of the month of Bhadrapada or Bhaadra (August–September), the day after the
Ganesh Chaturthi festival. This is the most important social festival of Western Odisha and
adjoing areas of Simdega in Jharkhand.
97. Solution: c
 Bharat Bill Payment System eases the payment of bills and improves the security & speed
of bill pay.
 The service is available in multiple payment modes, online and through a network of
agents. An instant confirmation is generated for the bill payments.
 The BBPS will transform the society from cash to electronic payment system, making it less
dependent on cash.
 Currently you can pay bill for Utility (Gas, electricity, water, DTH) and Telecom billers.
98. Solution: b
 The Mechi River is a trans-boundary river flowing through Nepal and India. It is a tributary
of the Mahananda River. The Mechi originates in the Mahabharat Range in Nepal. It flows
through Nepal, forms the boundary between India and Nepal and then flows through the
Indian state of Bihar to join the Mahananda in Kishanganj district.
 In August 2017, MoU was signed between India and Nepal for laying down implementation
arrangement for construction of a new Bridge over Mechi River at Indo-Nepal border.
99. Solution: b
 A bioindicator is any species (an “indicator species“) or group of species whose function,
population, or status can reveal the qualitative status of the environment. For example,
copepods and other small water crustaceans that are present in many water bodies can be
monitored for changes (biochemical, physiological, or behavioural) that may indicate a
problem within their ecosystem. Bioindicators can tell us about the cumulative effects of
different pollutants in the ecosystem and about how long a problem may have been
present, which physical and chemical testing cannot.
 A biological monitor, or biomonitor, can be defined as an organism that provides
quantitative information on the quality of the environment around it. Therefore, a good
biomonitor will indicate the presence of the pollutant and also attempt to provide
additional information about the amount and intensity of the exposure.
https://www.nature.com/scitable/knowledge/library/bioindicators-using-organisms-to-
measure-environmental-impacts-16821310
100. Solution: b
 The Namdroling Nyingmapa Monastery is the largest teaching center of the Nyingma
lineage of Tibetan Buddhism in the world. Located in Bylakuppe, part of the Mysuru district
of the state of Karnataka, the monastery is home to a sangha community of over five
thousand lamas (both monks and nuns)
 Sanchi is located south of Vindhya’s going by the following map:

 Tabo Monastery (or Tabo Chos-Khor Monastery) is located in the Tabo village of Spiti
Valley, Himachal Pradesh, northern India. It was founded in 996 CE in the Tibetan year of
the Fire Ape
 As you know Dharamshala is in Himachal Pradesh.
*****

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SERIES – 3 : SOLUTIONS (Days 9-12)

enterprise’, ‘small enterprise’ and ‘medium enterprise’ as defined in the MSME

All the statements are correct.

From the table of Potential Important Bird Areas (IBAs) in India

 very preterm (28 to 32 weeks)

Correctly matched species and habitats.

 It advises the Government of India on animal welfare issues.

Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Table 13.1

Eco-Development Forces scheme

 Sanchi is located south of Vindhya’s going by the following map:

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