Reference Guide For Pharmacy Technician Exam: Manan Shroff

Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Krisman
REFERENCE GUIDE
FOR PHARMACY
TECHNICIAN EXAM
SECOND EDITION 2010-2011
MANAN SHROFF
www.pharmacyexam.com 1
This reference guide is not intended as a substitute for the advice of a physician. Students or readers must
consult their physicians about any existing problem. Do not use any information in this reference guide for
any kind of self treatment. Do not administer any dose of mentioned drugs in this reference guide without
consulting your physician. This is only a review guide for preparation for the pharmacy technician board
exam.
The author of this reference guide is not responsible for any kind of misinterpreted, incorrect or misleading
information or any typographical errors in this guide. Any doubtful or questionable answers should be
checked in other available reference sources.
All rights reserved.
No part of this guide may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronically photo-
copied, recorded or otherwise, without prior written permission of the publisher.
RXEXAM is a registered trademark of Pharmacy Exam of Krishna Publication Inc. Any unauthorized
use of this trademark will be considered a violation of law.
This reference guide is in no way authorized by or sponsored by the Pharmacy Technician Certification
Boards, Inc.
PREFACE
Today, the pharmacy is considered a very fast growing field. The jobs done by pharmacists
yesterday have completely changed today. Today’s pharmacist is not merely a machine to dispense
drugs, he or she can counsel the patients, keep an eye on important interactions, and practice more
towards the clinical side of the field of pharmacy.
However, this requires a great amount of time and patience. By considering all of these factors, in
1995 PTCB was introduced. By certifying pharmacy technicians, pharmacists can spend more
time on patient counseling and other patient oriented jobs.
To prepare a pharmacy technician to take over some of the responsibilities of pharmacists, such as
discovering duplicated therapy, wrong doses and directions, and the knowledge of drug indications
and interactions, the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam was introduced in 1995.
This exam will test pharmacy technicians on three major areas:

1. Assisting the pharmacist in serving patients.
2. Maintaining medications and inventory control systems.
3. Participating in administration and management of the pharmacy practice.
This reference guide has more than 500 questions that allow you to practice tackling the
actual exam.
We have also included more than 40 chapters that will give you knowledge of drug trade names,
generic names, indications and major adverse reactions.
The PTCB exam puts more emphasis on calculations; therefore, all efforts were made to include
calculations in the tutorial.
The practice test at the end of the reference guide will ensure that you understand the material
provided for you in this reference guide. All suggestions from you are always welcome.
Best of luck.
MANAN SHROFF
TABLE OF CONTENTS
SECTION -I
1 INOTROPIC AGENTS 7
2 ANTIARRHYTHMIC AGENTS 7
3 BETA-BLOCKERS 8
4 CENTRALLY ACTING ANTIHYPERTENSIVE 9
5 CA-CHANNEL BLOCKERS 10
6 ACE INHIBITORS 11
7 VASODILATORS 12
8 ANTIPLATELET AGENTS 12
9 CORONARY VASODILATORS 13
10 THROMBOLYTIC AGENTS 14
11 DIURETICS 14
12 SPECIFIC ALPHA-1 BLOCKERS 16
13 ANTIHYPERLIPIDEMIC AGENTS 17
14 TRANQUILIZERS 18
15 ANTIEPILEPTICS 20
16 ANTIDEPRESSANTS 21
17 ANTI PARKINSON’S 25
18 ATTENTION DEFICIT DISORDER 28
19 ANTI NEUROLEPTICS 30
20 ANTIBIOTICS 32
21 ANTI-AIDS 44
22 ACNE PRODUCTS 46
23 PEPTIC ULCER 47
24 ANTIHISTAMINES 49
25 ARTHRITIS 50
26 ASTHMA 51
27 BPH 53
28 COLONY and ERYTHROCYTE STIMULATING FACTORS 54
29 HEMATINIC AGENTS 54
30 HYPERURICEMIA and GOUT 55
31 IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS 56
32 MIGRAINE 57
33 NAUSEA MEDICATIONS 59
34 NSAIDs 61
35 OPIOIDS ANALGESIC 62
36 OSTEOPOROSIS and HYPOCALCEMIA 65
37 ANTI PLATELETS and ANTI COAGULANTS 67
38 SMOKING CESSATION AIDS AGENTS 69
39 THYROID 69
40 ULCERATIVE COLITIS 70
41 DIABETES-RELATED DRUGS 71
42 PHARMACY LAW 75
43 PHARMACEUTICAL CALCULATIONS 86
SECTION-II
44 QUESTIONS 92
45 ANSWERS 136
46 PRACTICE TEST 177
47 ANSWERS 189
SECTION -I
1-INOTROPIC AGENTS
Brand Generic Adverse Effects
Lanoxin Digoxin anorexia, nausea
Primacor Milrinone thrombocytopenia
Inocor Amrinone ventricular arrhythmia
Therapeutic uses of inotropic agents:
* Congestive heart failure (CHF)
Terminology:
Anorexia: Appetite loss.

Thrombocytopenia: A low platelets count in blood.
Ventricular arrhythmia: Irregular movements of left ventricles of the heart.
2-ANTIARRHYTHMIC AGENTS
M/A: This class of agents is indicated for the treatment of an irregular heart rhythm.
Cordarone Amiodarone pulmonary toxicity
Norpace Disopyramide dry eyes, blurred vision, negative inotropic effect
Tambocor Flecainide A.V. node suppression
Ethmozine Moricizine A.V. node suppression
Xylocaine Lidocaine CNS stimulation, seizure
Tonocard Tocainide pulmonary toxicity
Dilantin Phenytoin gingival hyperplasia, ataxia

Cerebyx
Procanbid Procainamide S.L.E, blood dyscrasia
Quinidine Quinidine diarrhea
Therapeutic uses of antiarrhythmic agents:
* Arrhythmia
Terminology:
Pulmonary toxicity: Lung toxicity.

Gingival hyperplasia: Gum inflammation and bleeding.
Ataxia: Lack of coordination of muscle movements.
Nystagmus: Rapid involuntary movement of eyes that may be from side to side, up and down, or
rotatory.
S.L.E.: Systemic lupus erythematosus (chronic inflammatory disease of connective tissues).
Blood dyscrasia: Abnormality in blood.
A.V. node suppression: Slowing down in conduction velocity of heart.
Negative inotropic effects: Reducing the force of muscle contraction of heart.
3-BETA-BLOCKERS
M/A: They block Beta-1 receptors in cardiac tissues. They reduce the oxygen requirement of the heart by
decreasing the heart rate and force of contraction of the heart associated with an exercise.
Tenormin Atenolol bradycardia
Lopressor Metoprolol bradycardia

Toprol XL
Inderal Propranolol bradycardia
Corgard Nadolol bradycardia
Zebeta Bisoprolol bradycardia
Normodyne Labetalol bradycardia

Trandate
Sectral Acebutolol bradycardia
Coreg Carvedilol bradycardia
Brevibloc Esmolol bradycardia
Levatol Penbutolol bradycardia
Therapeutic uses of beta-blockers:
* Hypertension and angina
Do not use beta-blockers for:
1. CHF patients: May cause fatal heart failure.

2. Diabetic patients: May mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
3. Asthma patients: May constrict the bronchial smooth muscles by blocking beta-2 receptors.
Terminology:
Bradycardia: Slowing down of heart rate.

Hypoglycemia: Low blood glucose level.
Bronchial muscles: Smooth muscles of lungs.
Angina: Heart disorder with sharp pain in heart.
4-CENTRALLY ACTING ANTIHYPERTENSIVE AGENTS
M/A: Agents of this class generally inhibit the secretion of nor-adrenaline from the brain, which is
responsible for causing hypertension.
Aldomet Methyldopa hemolytic anemia
Catapres Clonidine hypotension
Tenex Guanfacine hypotension
Wytensin Guanabenz hypotension
Therapeutic uses:
* Hypertension
Terminology:
Hemolytic anemia: In hemolytic anemia, due to a premature destruction of RBCs, there are not enough
red blood cells in blood.
Hypertension: Elevation of arterial blood pressure above the normal range.
Hypotension: Condition in which arterial blood pressure is abnormally low.
5-CA-CHANNEL BLOCKERS
M/A: They produce the dilation of coronary arteries, and thereby increase the blood flow to the heart.
Adalat Nifedipine hypotension

Procardia
Calan Verapamil hypotension, constipation

Isoptin
Verelan
Cardizem Diltiazem hypotension
Norvasc Amlodipine hypotension
Plendil Felodipine hypotension
Cardene Nicardipine hypotension
DynaCirc Isradipine hypotension
Vascor Bepridil hypotension
Nimotop Nimodipine hypotension
Sular Nisoldipine hypotension
Therapeutic uses:
* Hypertension
Terminology:
Hypertension: Elevation of arterial blood pressure above the normal range.

Hypotension: Condition in which arterial blood pressure is abnormally low.
6-ACE INHIBITORS
M/A: They inhibit the enzymatic conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are known as angio-
tensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors).
Vasotec Enalapril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia
Zestril Lisinopril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia

Prinivil
Capoten Captopril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia
Altace Ramipril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia
Lotensin Benazepril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia
Accupril Quinapril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia
Monopril Fosinopril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia
Mavik Trandolapril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia
ANGIOTENSIN II RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS
M/A: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists, also known as angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), are medi-
cations that block the action of angiotensin II by preventing angiotensin II from binding to angiotensin II
receptors on blood vessels.
Cozaar Losartan hyperkalemia
Diovan Valsartan hyperkalemia
Avapro Irbesartan hyperkalemia
Atacand Candesartan hyperkalemia
Micardis Telmisartan hyperkalemia
The advantage of ACE II receptor antagonists over ACE inhibitors is that they do not produce dry cough.
Therapeutic uses:
* Hypertension
Terminology:
Dysgeusia: Loss of taste.

Hyperkalemia: An elevated concentration of potassium in blood.
7-VASODILATORS
M/A: As the name suggests, this class of agents generally causes dilation of blood vessels.
Apresoline Hydralazine S.L.E., tachycardia, peripheral neuritis
Loniten Minoxidil hypertrichosis, tachycardia

Rogaine
Hyperstat Diazoxide edema, tachycardia
Therapeutic uses:
* Hypertension
Terminology:
Tachycardia: It typically refers to a heart rate that exceeds the normal range for a resting heartrate (heartrate
in an inactive or sleeping individual).
Edema: An excessive accumulation of fluid in body tissues.
Hypertrichosis: An excessive hair growth on the body.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): It is a chronic, inflammatory autoimmune disorder. It may affect
the skin, joints, kidneys and other organs.
Peripheral neuritis: It is a problem with the nerves that carry information to and from the brain and spinal
cord. This can produce pain, loss of sensation and an inability to control muscles.
8-ANTIPLATELET AGENTS
M/A: They generally inhibit the aggregation of platelets and make blood thinner in order to reduce heart
strokes.
Ecotrin Aspirin GI ulcer, bleeding
Ticlid Ticlopidine bleeding, agranulocytosis
Persantine Dipyridamole bleeding
Plavix Clopidogrel bleeding
Aggrenox Aspirin + bleeding

Dipyridamole
Effient Prasugrel bleeding
Therapeutic uses:
* Heart strokes prevention.
Terminology:
Agranulocytosis: A disorder in which there is an acute deficiency of granulocytes in blood.
9-CORONARY VASODILATORS
M/A: Agents of this class generally dilate the blood vessels of the heart, thereby help controlling hyper-
tension and preventing an angina.
Isordil Isosorbide- lightheadedness, hypotension, severe headaches

dinitrate
Sorbitrate
Iso-bid
Dilatrate
Nitrostat Nitroglycerine lightheadedness, hypotension, severe headaches

Nitro dur
Nitro-bid
Deponit
Nitrolingual
Imdur Isosorbide- lightheadedness, hypotension, severe headaches

ISMO mononitrate
Monoket
Therapeutic uses:
* Angina
Terminology:
Lightheadedness: Dizziness (lightheadedness) is often caused by a decrease in blood supply to the brain.
Hypotension: Condition in which an arterial blood pressure is abnormally low.
26-ASTHMA
Definition: Bronchial asthma is a chronic disorder characterized by an increased responsiveness of trachea

and bronchi to a various stimuli, and narrowing of airways. It is associated with shortness of breath, chest
tightness, wheezing and coughing.
A. Beta-2 agonists:
Brand Generic Brand Generic
Proventil Albuterol Alupent Metaproterenol
Brethine Terbutaline Isuprel Isoprenaline
Maxair Pirbuterol Tornalate Bitolterol
Serevent Salmeterol Foradil Formoterol

Perforomist
Brovana Arformoterol
B. Acetylcholine antagonists:
Atrovent Ipratropium Spiriva Tiotropium
C. Bronchodilators combination:
Advair Fluticasone/Salmeterol DuoNeb Albuterol/Ipratropium
Symbicort Budesonide/Formoterol Combivent Albuterol/Ipratropium
D Drugs that prevent mast cell degranulation:
Intal Cromolyn
Nasalcrom
Tilade
E. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroidal agents:
AeroBid Flunisolide Pulmicort Budesonide

Nasalide Rhinocort
Azmacort Triamcinolone Alvesco Ciclesonide
Flonase Fluticasone Vanceril Beclomethasone

Flovent Qvar
Asmanex Mometasone
F. Leukotriene receptor antagonists:
Accolate Zafirlukast Singular Montelukast
G. An inhibition of the enzyme that is required for a production of Leukotrienes:
Zyflo Zileuton
H Xanthine derivatives:
Theo-dur Theophylline
* Only short-acting beta-2 receptor agonists, such as Albuterol, Metaproterenol, Bitolterol and
Pirbuterol, are indicated for the treatment of an acute attack of asthma. Salmeterol, Formoterol and
Arformoterol are long-acting beta-2 agonists useful only for the maintenance treatment of asthma.
* Agents other than short-acting beta-2 agonists are indicated for prophylaxis treatment of asthma.
Adverse Effects:
* Headaches, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
27- B.P.H.
Definition: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is defined as an enlargement of the prostate gland, which
is often associated with urinary symptoms, and a decrease in urine flow.
A 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors:
Proscar Finasteride Avodart Dutasteride
Jalyn Dutasteride/Tamsulosin
B Alpha-adrenoreceptor antagonists:
Minipress Prazosin Hytrin Terazosin
Cardura Doxazosin Rapaflo Silodosin

Cardura Xl
Uroxatral Alfuzosin
C Alpha-1-A adrenoceptors antagonists in the prostate:
Flomax Tamsulosin
* Proscar (Finasteride) and Avodart (Dutasteride) are contraindicated to use in women who are preg-
nant or planning to become a pregnant. Because of the ability of Type II 5-alfa-reductase inhibitors to
inhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), Finasteride and Dutasteride may cause
abnormalities of the external genitalia of a male fetus of a pregnant woman who receives these drugs. If
these drugs are used during pregnancy, or if pregnancy occurs while taking these drugs, the pregnant
woman should be apprised of the potential hazard to the male fetus. Therefore, Proscar and Avodart should
not be handled by pregnant women.
* Women (pharmacy technicians) should not handle crushed or broken Proscar tablets when they are
pregnant or may potentially be pregnant because of the possibility of absorption of Finasteride and the
subsequent potential risk to a male fetus. Similarly, Avodart capsules should not be handled by a woman
who is pregnant or who may become pregnant. Dutasteride is absorbed through the skin and could result in
unintended fetal exposure. If a woman who is pregnant or who may become pregnant comes in contact
with leaking Dutasteride capsules, the contact area should be washed immediately with soap and water.
Both Proscar (Finasteride) and Avodart (Dutasteride) are classified under pregnancy category X.
* The major side effects of alpha-adrenoreceptor antagonists are syncope (sudden loss of conscious-
ness) and hypotension.
28-COLONY and ERYTHROCYTES STIMULATING FACTORS
Brand Generic Use
Neupogen Filgrastim Severe chronic neutropenia
Epogen Epoetin alfa Treatment of anemia associated with a chronic renal failure,
Zidovudine-induced anemia and anemia in patients due to
a cancer chemotherapy
Leukine Sargramostim Bone marrow transplantation
Neulasta Pegfilgrastim Severe chronic neutropenia
Terminology:
Neutropenia: A decrease in neutrophils counts.

Edema: It is swelling that is caused by fluid trapped in the body’s tissues. An edema happens most often in
the feet, ankles and legs.
Thrombocytopenia: A decrease in thrombocytes counts.
29-HEMATINIC AGENTS
Feosol Ferrous sulfate Fergon Ferrous gluconate

Slow Fe Simron
Fer in sol
Ferra TD Femiron Ferrous fumarate
Niferex 150 Iron polysaccharide InFeD Iron dextran
Ferro-folic Folic acid Vit B 12 Cyanocobalamin
Therapeutic uses: Adverse Effects:
* Anemia Constipation
* Megaloblastic anemia (only folic acid and vitamin B12)
Terminology:
Anemia: Anemia is a condition in which the body does not have enough healthy red blood cells. The iron
deficiency is responsible for anemia.
Megaloblastic anemia: Megaloblastic anemia is a blood disorder in which there is anemia with larger than
normal red blood cells. The deficiency of Folic acid and vitamin B12 may be responsible for this type of
anemia.
30-HYPERURICEMIA and GOUT
Definition: Gout is a metabolic disease in which an overproduction or an under excretion of uric acid leads
to a deposition of urate crystals in synovial joints. This will lead to intermittent attacks of arthritis.
ColBenemid Colchicine + severe diarrhea

Probenecid
Benemid Probenecid hemolytic anemia, hepatic necrosis
Anturan Sulfinpyrazone blood dyscrasia
Lopurin Allopurinol rash, hepatitis, hematological disorder

Zyloprim
Uloric Febuxostat liver toxicity
Krystexxa Pegloticase anaphylaxis and infusion reactions
Terminology:
Hemolytic anemia: It is a condition in which there are not enough red blood cells in the blood, due to the
premature destruction of red blood cells.
Hepatic necrosis: A severe and rapidly progressive form of hepatitis accompanied by hepatocellular death,
and the signs and symptoms of hepatic failure.
Blood dyscrasia: A general term that is used to describe any abnormality in the blood or bone marrow’s
cellular components, such as low white blood cells count, low red blood cells count or low platelets count.
Anaphylaxis: It is a life-threatening type of an allergic reaction.
Hepatitis: It is an inflammation of the liver.
31 - IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS
Definition: They are indicated for the treatment of liver, kidney and heart transplantation.
Imuran Azathioprine Neoral Cyclosporin

Sandimmune
Gengraf
Prograf Tacrolimus CellCept Mycophenolate
Rapamune Sirolimus Myfortic Mycophenolic acid
Amevive Alefacept Arcalyst Rilonacept
Zenapax Daclizumab Afinitor Everolimus

Zortress
Ilaris Canakinumab Simulect Basiliximab
Therapeutic uses:
* Severe chronic plaque psoriasis (Amevive)

* Kidney, liver and heart transplantation (Sandimmune, Neoral, Gengraf, CellCept, Prograf)
* Kidney transplantation (Rapamune, Zortress, Myfortic, Imuran, Afinitor, Simulect, Zenapax)
Adverse Effects:
* Kidney and liver toxicities, bone marrow suppression, nausea and vomiting
Terminology:
Bone marrow suppression: Suppression of bone marrow activity, resulting in reduction in the number of
platelets, red blood cells and white blood cells.
What is a generic name and use of the following drugs?

1. Precose 51. Miacalcin 101. Benadryl 151. Apresoline
2 Sectral 52. Capoten 102. Lomotil 152. Lortab
3. Diamox 53. Tegretol 103. Antabuse 153. Lorcet
4. Mucomyst 54. Soma 104 Depakote 154. Vicodin
5. Zovirax 55. Coreg 105. Depakene 155. Dilaudid
6. Proventil 56. Pericolace 106. Colace 156. Atarax
7. Fosamax 57. Duricef 107. Aricept 157. Vistaril
8. Xanax 58. Ancef 108. Trusopt 158. Motrin
9. Symmetrel 59. Kefzol 109. Cardura 159. Tofranil
10. Midamor 60. Rocephin 110. Sinequan 160. Plaquenil
11. Cordarone 61. Keflex 111. Vasotec 161. Lozol
12. Norvasc 62. Velocef 112. Lovenox 162. Crixivan
13. Elavil 63. Baycol 113. Procrit 163. Indocin
14. Lotrel 64. Zyrtec 114. Epogen 164. Atrovent
15. Asendin 65. Leukeran 115. Ilosone 165. Isordil
16. Zyloprim 66. Librium 116. Climara 166. ISMO
17. Moduretic 67. Diuril 117. Estrace 167. IMDUR
18. Trimox 68. Thorazine 118. Myambutol 168. Accutane
19. Augmentin 69. Questran 119. Zarontin 169. Nizoral
20. Fungizone 70. Tagamet 120. Lodine 170. Toradol
21. Principen 71. Cipro 121. Didronel 171. Trandate
22. Auralgan 72. Propulsid 122. Famvir 172. Normodyne
23. Hismanal 73. Biaxin 123. Pepcid 173. Cephulac
24. Tenormin 74. Tavist 124. Plendil 174. Chronulac
25. Lipitor 75. Cleocin 125. Duragesic 175. Epivir
26. Mepron 76. Risperdal 126. Feosol 176. Lamictal
27. Imuran 77. Epivir 127. Allegra 177. Prevacid
28. Zoloft 78. Klonopin 128. Neupogen 178. Xalatan
29. Beclovent 79. Catapres 129. Proscar 179. Levaquin
30. Vanceril 80. Tranxene 130. Diflucan 180. Synthroid
31. Lotensin 81. Lotrimin 131. AeroBid 181. Levoxyl
32. Depakote 82. Mycelex 132. Procardia 182. Cytomel
33. Paxil 83. Clozaril 133. Prozac 183. Eskalith
34. Calan 84. Colestid 134. Prolixin 184. Prinivil
35. Urecholine 85. Flexeril 135. Dalmane 185. Zestril
36. Artane 86. Intal 136. Flonase 186. Imodium
37. Dulcolax 87. Cytoxan 137. Flovent 187. Claritin
38. Zebeta 88. Neoral 138. Lescol 188. Ativan
39. Blenoxane 89. Sandimmune 139. Luvox 189. Cozaar
40. Ziac 90. Periactin 140. Lasix 190. Hyzaar
41. Parlodel 91. Ritalin 141. Monopril 191. Mevacor
42. Cogentin 92. Dantrium 142. Neurontin 192. Antivert
43. Pulmicort 93. Rescriptor 143. Cytovene 193. Provera
44. Bumex 94. Valium 144. Amaryl 194. Megace
45. Wellbutrin 95. Bentyl 145. Glucotrol 195. Demero
46. Zyban 96. Dolobid 146. DiaBeta 196. Asacol
47. BuSpar 97. Lanoxin 147. Micronase 197. Pentasa
48. Myleran 98. Cardizem 148. Kytril 198. Glucophage
49. Xalatan 99. Tiazac 149. Fulvicin 199. Serentil
50. Sonata 100. Dilacor XR 150. Haldol 200. Desoxyn
What is a generic name and use of the following drugs? What do the following abbreviations mean?
201. Robaxin 251. Cylert 1. a.c. 26. os
202. Tapazole 252. Bicillin LA 2. AIDS 27. pc
203. Aldomet 253. Pen Vee k 3. ADHD 28. OTC
204. Rheumatrex 254. Pentam 4. as 29. po
205. Ritalin 255. Talwin Comp 5. au 30. pr
206. Medrol 256. Trental 6. b.i.d. 31. NR
207. Reglan 257. Permax 7. CHF 32. q.o.d.
208. Zaroxolyn 258. Triavil 8. CBC 33. REM
209. Toprol 259. Pyridium 9. CNS 34. RBC
210. Lopressor 260. Nardil 10. CSF 35. q.i.d
211. Flagyl 261. Entex 11. ECG 36. S.L.
212. Remeron 262. Mephyton 12. FDA 37. stat
213. Cytotec 263. Dilantin 13. DEA 38. ss
214. Minocin 264. Feldene 14. GI 39. t.i.d.
215. Moban 265. Zosyn 15. hs 40. WBC
216. Ms Contin 266. Klor-Con 16. I.M. 41. P.R.N
217. Roxanol 267. Slow-K 17. INR 42. RDA
218. CellCept 268. K-lor 18. I.V. 43. IV
219. Corgard 269. Minipress 19. MAO 44. g
220. Anaprox 270. Pravachol 20. mcg 45. S.Q.
221. Naprosyn 271. Mysoline 21. meq 46. I.D.
222. Serzone 272. Benemid 22. mg 47. ACE
223. Viracept 273. Procan 23. NSAID 48. q4h
224. Viramune 274. Compazine 24. od 49. MI
225. Cardene 275. Rhythmol 25. ou 50. os
226. Nicobid 276. Phenergan
227. Niaspan 277. Darvon Fill in the corresponding quantities.
228. Nicoderm 278. Inderal
229. Nicorette 279. Darvon Compound
230. Adalat 280. Accupril 1. 1 tsp____________ ml
231. Precordia 281. Altace 2. 1 tbsp___________ ml
232. Macrobid 282. Risperdal 3. 1 tbsp___________ tsp
233. Nitrobid 283. Serevent 4. 1 pint___________ ml
234. Nitrostat 284. Disalcid 5. 1 gm____________ mg
235. Deponit 285. Norvir 6. 1 mcg___________ mg
236. Axid 286. Invirase 7. 1 mg____________ mcg
237. Noroxin 287. Rimactane 8. 1 quart__________ pints
238. Pamelor 288. Tigan 9. 1 fl oz___________ ml
239. Floxin 289. Depakene 10. 16 fl oz__________ ml
240. Zyprexa 290. Diovan 11. 1 grain__________ mg
241. Prilosec 291. Effexor 12. 1 Kg____________ mg
242. Zofran 292. Calan 13. 1 gallon__________ quarts
243. Ditropan 293. Isoptin 14. 1 cc_____________ drops
244. OxyContin 294. Verelan 15. 1 fluid drum_______ ml
245. Roxicodone 295. Coumadin
246. Roxicet 296. Plavix
247. Percodan 297. Accolate
248. Taxol 298. Ambien
249. Pancrease 299. Zyflo
250. Paxil 300. Ticlid
ANSWERS should notify a pharmacist about therapeutic du-

plication.
1 (b) Methylphenidate is a Schedule II con-
trolled drug. It is indicated for the treatment of 4 (d) Aspirin is a blood thinning agent indicated
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). for the prevention of heart strokes. It should be
It cannot be refilled under any circumstances. A carefully prescribed with other blood thinning
list of other Schedule II controlled drugs is as fol- agents because of a risk of a severe bleeding.
lows: Lovenox (Enoxaparin), Coumadin (War-
farin), Heparin, Plavix (Clopidogrel), Ticlid
For ADHD For Pain (Ticlopidine), Depakene (Valproic acid),
Persantine (Dipyridamole), Mandol
Adderall MS Contin (Cefamandole), Cefotan (Cefotetan), Cefobid
Ritalin RMS (Cefoperazone) and Moxam (Moxalactam) may
Dexedrine Roxicodone increase the bleeding tendency in patients and
Desoxyn Methadone should be carefully prescribed with other blood
Concerta Demerol thinning agents.
Focalin Dilaudid
Codeine 5 (a) An overdose of Coumadin can be treated
by administering vitamin K1 (Mephyton).
2 (b) 1050cc. In this type of calculation we first
calculate a number of cc required for a 1-day. 6 (a) Compazine (Prochlorperazine) is indicated
for the treatment of nausea and vomiting. It is clas-
1050cc. In this type of calculation we first need sified as an anti-emetic (an agent that prevents
to find out the number of cc required for 1 day. nausea and vomiting).
Morning dose: 7 (b) 21 capsules.
Drug ml of solution 8 (b) The cost for 100 tablets of Olanzapine is

250 mg present in 5 cc of solution $420; therefore, the cost for a single tablet of
1000 mg ? Olanzapine should be $420/100 = $4.20.
1000x5cc/250 = 20 cc of solution. The % mark-up on a prescription is 15.
Evening dose: Cost for Olanzapine mark-up on rx

$100 $15
Drug ml of solution $4.20 ?
250 mg present in 5 cc of solution
750 mg ? 15x4.20/100 = $0.63, therefore a dispensing cost
of each tablet of Olanzapine should be $4.20 +
750x5cc/250 = 15 cc of solution. $0.63 = $4.83.
For a 30-day supply: The cost for dispensing 30 tablets should be $4.83
x 30 = $145.
[20cc (am) + 15cc (pm)] x 30 = 1050cc.
9 (b) 33 grams. For calculations of this type,
3 (b) Glyburide and Chlorpropamide are sul- an allegation method is very useful. We should
fonylurea agents indicated for the treatment of mix 3% Salicylic acid powder with a talc powder
Type II diabetes mellitus. A pharmacy technician
(0 % Salicylic acid) in such a way that the final 12 (b) A prescription for Schedule II controlled
mixture would give us 500 grams of 0.2% Sali- drugs should be dispensed with an exact dispens-
cylic acid powder. ing quantity mentioned on the prescription by a
prescribing physician. MS-Contin is a Schedule
II controlled drug. The correct dispensing quan-
tity should be 60.
13 (b) A prescription for Schedule III and IV

controlled drugs cannot be refilled more than 5
times within a period of six months from the date
the prescription was issued. A patient must bring
a new prescription since all the allowable refills
Total parts of 0.2% acid Parts of 3 % acid were executed.
3 parts 0.2 parts
500 ? 14 (c) Otocort otic solution is intended for ear
use only. It should not be applied to eyes. An aux-
500x0.2/3 = 33 grams of 3% salicylic acid. iliary label, “for ear use only”, should be placed
on the dispensing container.
Therefore, if we mix 33 grams (3% Sali-
cylic acid) with 467 grams talc powder (500 grams 15 (c) Tamsulosin is a generic name for Flomax.
- 33 grams = 467 grams), we will get 500 grams It is indicated for the treatment of Benign pros-
of 0.2% Salicylic acid. tatic hyperplasia (BPH). All other choices are
colony stimulating agents. They generally help
10 (b) Plavix (Clopidogrel) is a blood thinning stimulating the production of erythrocytes and
agent. Agents of this class generally act by inhib- granulocytes in patients receiving chemotherapeu-
iting aggregation of platelets, which is thought to tic agents.
be the primary mechanism of blood clotting. It is
indicated for prevention of heart strokes in patients 16 (d) 150 cc. Lanoxin is available as 0.05mg/
with congestive heart failure (CHF). ml. A patient is taking 0.25 mg per day. There-
fore:
11 (b) Asthma is characterized by increased re-
sponsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to vari- Lanoxin ml of solution
ous stimuli and narrowing of airways. It is associ- 0.05 mg present in 1 ml
ated with shortness of breath, chest tightness, 0.25 mg ?
wheezing and coughing. The stimulation of beta-
2 receptors dilates the bronchial smooth muscles 0.25x1/0.05 = 5ml,
and helps controlling symptoms associated with For 30 days supply = 30x5ml = 150 ml
asthma.
Beta-2 receptors blockers may constrict the 17 (c) Diflucan and Biaxin suspensions should
smooth muscles of bronchi and even aggravate be stored at room temperature once they are re-
asthma. constituted with water. All other suspensions (ex-
Metoprolol is a beta receptor blocker in- cept Biaxin and Diflucan) are required to be stored
dicated for the treatment of hypertension. It should in a refrigerator once they are reconstituted with
be carefully prescribed to patients suffering from water.
asthma. The other choices, such as Accolate and
Atrovent, are indicated for the treatment of asthma. 18 (b) Hytrin.
19 (a) An anti-psychotic. 27 (a) A one grain is equal to 65 milligrams;

therefore, a half grain of Phenobarbital is equal to
20 (c) Mevacor (Lovastatin) is indicated for the 32.5 milligrams.
treatment of elevated lipid levels. It is not indi-
cated for the treatment of epilepsy. 28 (b) Miacalcin (Calcitonin Salmon) is indicated
for the treatment of osteoporosis. It is generally
21 (b) All drugs mentioned in a question are in- administered via nasal route. It should be stored
dicated for the treatment of hypertension; there- in a refrigerator. A list of drugs that are adminis-
fore, the patient is most likely suffering from hy- tered via a nasal route includes:
pertension.
Astelin = Azelastine
22 (b) Aspirin is classified as an NSAID (Non Beconase = Beclomethasone
Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug). If a patient Vancenase = Beclomethasone
were allergic to aspirin, he might have an allergic Rhinocort = Budesonide
reaction to drugs that fall into the same class. Nasalide = Flunisolide
Naproxen is also classified as an NSAID and there- Flonase = Fluticasone
fore the correct choice should be “b.” Naphcon = Naphazoline
Afrin = Oxymetazoline
23 (d) A patient with a “sulfa” allergy should Tyzine = Tetrahydrazoline
avoid thiazide diuretics (HCTZ), oral sulfonylurea Otrivin = Xylometazoline
agents (Glyburide) and sulfa drugs (Sulfadiazine) Nasacort = Triamcinolone
since these classes of drugs have a sulfa group in
their chemical structures. 29 (b) A regular Insulin, Novolin R has the fast-
Cylert (Pemoline) is a Schedule III con- est onset of action among the given choices. A new
trolled drug indicated for the treatment of ADHD. Insulin Lispro has an even faster onset of action
It is not structurally related to sulfa drugs. compared to Novolin R.
24 (b) An inventory of Schedule II controlled 30 (b) The application of an alligation method

drugs should be strictly followed. Amphetamine is required to solve this kind of a problem.
is a Schedule II controlled drug and therefore the
correct choice should be “b.”
25 (b) Fosamax is indicated for the treatment of

osteoporosis and Paget’s disease of the bone. It
should be taken with a full glass of plain water
only.
A patient should not take Fosamax with
mineral water, coffee, tea or orange juice. After
taking Fosamax, the patient should not lie down
for 30 minutes in order to avoid irritation of the First, we need to subtract 70 from 100, which will
esophagus; the patient should wait at least 30 min- give us 30 parts (0% alcohol or water), and 0 from
utes before eating his/her first food, beverages or 70, which will give us 70 parts (100% alcohol).
other medications of the day. Thus, 100 parts (70% alcohol) consist of
70 parts (100% alcohol) and 30 parts (0% alcohol
26 (b) The partial supply of Schedule II con- or water). If we mix in this proportion then we
trolled drugs should be filled within 72 hours from will get 70% alcohol. Since we want to prepare
their initial filling. 1000 cc, 70% alcohol:
70% alcohol 100% alcohol 36 (b) A patient is taking 200mg of Phenytoin in

100 parts 70 parts the morning and 500mg at bedtime. Phenytoin
1000 cc ? suspension is available as 125mg/5cc; therefore,
to dispense 200mg of Phenytoin: 200mg x 5cc/
1000x70/100 = 700cc, 100 % alcohol. 125mg = 8cc are required.
Similarly to dispense 500mg of Phenytoin:
We can also find the amount of water required by 500mg x 5cc/125mg = 20cc are required.
simply subtracting 700cc from the total of 1000cc Therefore, the total daily dose in cc should be 28cc.
= 1000cc-700cc
= 300cc water. 37 (b) First, we need to calculate the amount of
potassium permanganate present in a 0.125%,
Thus, if we mix 700cc, 100% alcohol with 300cc 250cc solution.
of plain water, we will get 1000cc, 70% alcohol.
ml Grams of KMNO
4
31 (b) Nifedipine extended release tablet. 100cc solution contain 0.125gm
250cc ?
32 (c) 3 drops in each ear three times a day for 7
days. 250cc x 0.125gm/100cc = 0.312gm KMNO
4
33 (c) Aerobid (Flunisolide) is a steroidal agent Similarly, the amount of potassium permangan-
indicated for the treatment of asthma. All other ate present in a a 2.5%, 500cc KMNO solution?
4
choices are beta-2 receptor stimulating
bronchodilators. ml Grams of KMNO
4
34 (c) 18.46% 100cc solution contain 2.5grams
500cc solution will contain ?
Ferrous sulfate Elementary iron
325mg contain 60mg 500cc x 2.5gm/100 = 12.5grams.
100 ?
A total KMNO in 750cc solution (500cc +
4
100x60/325 = 18.46% 250cc):
= 12.5gm + 0.312gm
35 (c) 32cc. Permapen is available as a prefilled = 12.81gm
syringe (1.2MU/2cc). A prescription requires = 12812mg (1gram = 1000mg)
2.4MU, and therefore:
Therefore, one can say that 12812 milligrams of
MU ml KMNO are present in 750cc of solution.
4
1.2 2cc
2.4 ? Therefore, the concentration of KMNO in the
4
final solution should be:
2.4x2cc/1.2 = 4cc = 12,812mg/750cc
= 17.08mg per ml of a solution.
A patient is using it twice a week and therefore a
one week supply should be = 4cc x 2 = 8cc. 38 (a) Novolin N solution is available as 10 units/
A 30-day (4 weeks) supply would be 8cc x 4 = cc, 10cc. Therefore, the total units of the drug in
32cc. 10cc should be 100 units. A patient is using a total
of 50 units of the drug per day; therefore, a vial of
Novolin N is only going to last for 2 days. The schizophrenia. The other choices, such as Zoloft
correct choice should be “time to refill.” (Sertraline), Sinequan (Doxepin) and Desyrel
(Trazodone), are indicated for the treatment of de-
39 (b) Valproic acid. pression.
.
40 (a) Daily. 47 (c) The generic name for Provera is Medroxy
progesterone; therefore, it can be found under “M”
41 (b) A patient with hypersensitivity to penicil- alphabet.
lin may develop an allergic reaction to the cepha-
losporin group of antibiotics. Cephalexin belongs 48 (c) Wycillin (Penicillin G Procaine) is a de-
to the cephalosporin group of antibiotics; there- rivative of penicillin. It should be avoided by pa-
fore, the correct choice should be “b”. tients hypersensitive to the penicillin group of
antibiotics.
42 (b) The quantity of folic acid should be lim-
ited to 0.4mg in over-the-counter folic acid prod- 49 (b) Zantac (Ranitidine) belongs to the same
ucts. The use of folic acid is severely contraindi- class as Tagamet (Cimetidine) does. Agents of this
cated in a patient suffering from pernicious ane- class are generally known as Histamine H recep-
2
mia. It is the principal reason to limit its quantity tor antagonists.
to 0.4mg in an OTC product. They are indicated for the treatment of G.I.
ulcers associated with hypersecretion of hydro-
43 (b) The generic name for Tygacil is chloric acid. Other agents from this class are
Tigecycline. It is a tetracycline derivative (a Pepcid (Famotidine) and Axid (Nizatidine).
glycylcycline) for intravenous infusion. Each
Tygacil vial contains 50 mg of Tigecycline lyo- 50 (c) Please remember that a 15% acetic acid
philized powder for an intravenous infusion. can be interpreted as 15 grams of acetic acid
present in 100 grams of a final mixture. Similarly,
44 (c) Claritin (Loratadine), Clarinex a 10%, 100 grams of acetic acid can be interpreted
(Desloratadine) and Zyrtec (Cetirizine) are non- as 10 grams of acetic acid present in 100 grams of
sedative antihistamines. They produce less or no a final mixture.
sedation compared to traditionally available anti-
histamines. 15gm acetic acid present in 100gm of a mixture
They are more preferable over other anti- To prepare 10gm of acetic acid ?
histamines to use in a daytime to avoid drowsi-
ness and dizziness. Brompheniramine, = 10x100/15
Chlorpheniramine and Diphenhydramine are clas- = 66.67 grams of 15% acetic acid will be required.
sified as sedative antihistamines since they pro-
duce significant amount of sedation and drowsi- 51 (a) 30 milligrams.
ness.
100 gm of ointment contain 0.05 gm
45(b) Nasal decongestants such as pseudoephe- 60 gm of ointment will contain ?
drine and phenylpropanolamine have a tendency
to extravagate hypertension. Therefore, a phar- 0.05x60/100 = 0.03 grams = 30 milligrams.
macy technician should recommend the patient to
seek counseling from a pharmacist before buying 52 (c) Amphetamine has a CNS stimulation prop-
Sudafed syrup. erty. It is indicated for the treatment of ADHD
(Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder). The
46 (c) Risperdal (Risperidone) is classified as an other choices, such as Valium (Diazepam), Xanax
antipsychotic drug indicated for the treatment of
(Alprazolam) and Ambien (Zolpidem), are ben- 57(b) Erythromycin is a member of the mac-
zodiazepines indicated for the treatment of insom- rolide group of antibiotics and therefore the cor-
nia. rect choice would be “b.”
53 (a) 0.325 mg. 1 grain = 65 milligrams, there- 58 (b) In Tylenol no. 3, three (3) generally indi-
fore cates the amount of Codeine in milligrams. Tylenol
1/200 grains = 1/200 x 65 mg = 0.325 mg. no.3 contains 30 milligrams of Codeine.
54 (b) 2%. The amount of Hydrocortisone (HC) 59 (b) Ilotycin is a brand name for Erythromycin
in 60 grams of 2.5% ointment: ophthalmic ointment.
100 grams contain 2.5 gram HC 60 (b) Darvocet (Propoxyphene + Acetami-

60 grams will contain ? nophen) is classified as an opioid analgesic. A
patient with hypersensitivity to an opioid should
2.5x60/100 = 1.5 grams Hydrocortisone. avoid Darvocet.
The amount of Hydrocortisone in 30 grams of 1% 61 (c) Lescol (Fluvastatin) is indicated for the
cream: treatment of atherosclerosis. It is classified as a
lipid lowering drug. It is classified under HMG-
100 grams contain 1 gm of HC COA inhibitors. The other drugs in the same class
30 grams will contain ? are Pravachol (Pravastatin), Mevacor (Lovastatin),
Zocor (Simvastatin), Lipitor (Atorvastatin) and
30x1/100 = 0.3 grams Hydrocortisone. Baycol (Cerivastatin).
Total amount of Hydrocortisone in 90 grams (60 62 (c) Disulfiram-like reactions resemble reac-
gm + 30 gm) of cream will be 1.8 grams (1.5 gm tions in a patient who is on an alcohol withdrawal
+ 0.3 gm). therapy with Antabuse (Disulfiram). When Dis-
ulfiram is taken with alcohol by a patient, he/she
The amount of Hydrocortisone in % w/w in a fi- suffers from reactions that are usually character-
nal mixture: ized by severe throbbing headaches, nausea and
vomiting. These unpleasant side reactions discour-
90 grams contain 1.8 grams of HC age the patient to consume alcohol.
100 grams will contains ? There are several other drugs that may pro-
duce the same reactions when used with alcohol;
= 1.8x100/90 = 2% w/w Hydrocortisone. therefore, their interactions with alcohol are known
as disulfiram-like reactions. A list of drugs that
55 (c) Xalatan (Latanoprost) is indicated for the produces disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol is
treatment of glaucoma. It should be found under as follows:
the eye section of a pharmacy. It should be stored
in a refrigerator. Flagyl = Metronidazole
Diabinese = Chlorpropamide
56 (b) Acetaminophen no. 3 is a combination Mandol = Cefamandole
product of Acetaminophen and Codeine. The pa- Cefotan = Cefotetan
tient is allergic to Codeine and therefore the cor- Cefobid = Cefoperazone
rect choice should be “b.” Moxam = Moxalactam
Most oral sulfonylurea agents also cause disul- Talwin NX is very little and does not produce any
firam-like reactions when taken with alcohol. Al- withdrawal symptoms when used orally; however,
cohol should be strictly avoided with all the above when used parenterally, it produces profound nar-
mentioned agents. cotic withdrawal symptoms.
63 (c) An elixir, by definition, contains 5 to 40 67 (b) The validity of a DEA number written by
percent alcohol. When dispensing any drug in an a prescriber can be checked as follows:
elixir form, one must keep in mind that a patient
should NOT be on any disulfiram-like reactions- 1. The DEA number consists of 9 letters. The first
producing drugs. letter is generally designated by “A” or “B.” It
means dispensing.
64 (b) Ultram (Tramadol) is a centrally-acting an-
algesic indicated for the treatment of moderate to 2. The second letter is generally designated by the
severe pain. It is not structurally related to opioid last name of the prescribing physician.
agents. The risk of seizure increased when Ultram
is taken with alcohol or MAO inhibitors. 3. The rest consists of seven numbers.
65 (b) The wholesale price for 100 tablets of 4. First do a sum of the 1st, 3rd and 5th numbers
Cipro is $350; therefore, the price for one tablet followed by a separate sum of the 2nd, 4th and
should be: 6th numbers. Multiply the second sum by a factor
of 2. Now add this resultant sum to the first sum.
$3.50 ($350/100 = $3.50). The last number of the resultant sum should match
the last number of the DEA number.
The percentage mark-up on the prescription is 15.
5. In the above question, the prescriber’s last name
Wholesale price % mark-up is Scott; therefore, the first two letters of his DEA
$ 100 $ 15 number should be either “BS” or “AS.”
$ 3.50 ?
6. A sum of the 1st, 3rd and 5th numbers should
= 15X3.50/100 = $0.53 be:
= 3 + 5 + 7 = 15
The retail cost for a one tablet should be:
= $3.50 + $0.53 7. A sum of the 2nd, 4th and 6th number should
= $4.03 be:
= 4 + 2 + 6 = 12.
The retail cost for 30 tablets should be:
= 30 x $4.03 8. Multiplying the second sum with a factor of 2:
= $120.90 = 12x2 = 24
Dispensing cost = retail costs + dispensing fees 9. The addition of 24 to the sum of the 1st, 3rd
= $120.9 + $4.00 and 5th numbers:
= $ 124.90 = 15 + 24 = 39.
66 (b) The NX in Talwin NX indicates the name The last number of the prescriber’s DEA number
of an active ingredient, Naloxone. It is an opioid must be 9. Therefore, the correct choice should be
antagonist. It is indicated for prevention of abuse BS3452769.
of controlled drugs. The quantity of Naloxone in
68 (d) A drug recall generally requires: 75 (b) The principal adverse effect of Hydrala-
zine is Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, briefly
* Name of the drug, called S.L.E.
* Lot number of the drug,
* Strength of the drug and 76 (b) A 1 milligram is equal to 1000 micro-
* Name of the manufacturer. grams. A patient is using 100 micrograms of Cy-
anocobalamin every week, and therefore the vial
69 (b) Atenolol is classified as a beta-blocker in- (1mg/ml) is supposed to last for 10 weeks.
dicated for the treatment of hypertension. The beta-
blocker is contraindicated to use in a patient suf- 77 (b) Depakene (Valproic acid) is indicated for
fering from diabetes, asthma or congestive heart the treatment of epilepsy.
failure (CHF).
78 (b) The principal adverse effect of Clozaril is
70 (c) The compounding of cytotoxic (cancer) agranulocytosis. This can be monitored by regu-
agents should be done by wearing a protective larly checking the white blood cell (WBC) counts
mask and gloves to avoid the adverse or toxic ef- of a patient. The patient should present his/her
fects of cytotoxic drugs. current blood report every week before receiving
Bleomycin is a cytotoxic agent indicated Clozaril.
for the treatment of testicular cancer and carci-
noma of squamous cells. It should be prepared by 79 (b) If Lithium carbonate were administered to
wearing a protective mask and gloves. a pregnant woman during the first trimester of a
pregnancy, it would cause a congenital abnormal-
71 (b) Pentam (Pentamidine), Bactrim DS ity. Other drugs that may cause harm to a devel-
(Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim) and Mepron oping fetus are: Tetracycline, Finasteride, cyto-
(Atovaquone) are indicated for the treatment of P. toxic agents, Isotretinoin and Warfarin.
Carinii. Pneumonia. Nafcillin is not indicated for
the treatment of P. Carinii. Pneumonia. 80 (b) Erythromycin 2% topical solution.
72 (a) Prozac (Fluoxetine) should not be admin- 81 (b) The SR is generally recognized as “Sus-
istered in the late afternoon or at bedtime, in order tained Release.” The drug with “SR” designation
to prevent insomnia. It should be administered has a prolonged duration of action.
early in the morning or before noon.
82 (c) The correct choice should be “c.” The pre-
73 (b) The active ingredients of Augmentin are scription is written to be taken via gastro-intesti-
Amoxicillin and Potassium clavulanate. nal tube. Therefore, it can’t be taken orally.
One can’t crush or dissolve a tablet of K-DUR
74 (b) Calan (Verapamil) has a negative chrono- since it may cause high irritation to the G.I. tract
tropic effect, by slowing down the conduction of and may also destroy the prolonged releasing ac-
the heart, which may cause bradycardia (an ab- tion of the drug.
normally a low heart rate).
Tenormin (Atenolol) also has a negative 83 (b) 17% Salicylic acid solution. It is indicated
chronotropic effect. It may worsen or extravagate for the treatment of warts.
a patient’s heart condition. The simultaneous ad-
ministration of both agents requires careful super- 84 (b) Via sublingual route. Nitrostat is indicated
vision. for the treatment of an acute attack of angina (chest
pain).
85 (b) Atarax. 93 (b) NebuPent is the brand name for Pentami-

dine isethionate. It is administered via an inhala-
86 (c) D5W solution is generally interpreted as tion route. An I.V. Pentamidine is available under
5% Dextrose in water. the brand name of Pentam. Pentamidine is indi-
cated for the treatment of P.Carinii.Pneumonia.
100cc solution contain 5 gm of Dextrose.
500cc solution will contain? 94 (c) P.P.D. It is described as a Purified Protein
Derivative. It is indicated for the tuberculosis test.
5x500/100 = 25 grams of Dextrose. It requires to be stored in a referigerator.
87 (a) The solution of multivitamins should be 95 (b) Videx (Didanosine) is indicated for the
added last, when preparing a TPN, to prevent in- treatment of HIV. It is easily degraded in the pres-
stability of the final solution. ence of stomach acid.
Each Videx tablet is buffered with sodium
88 (b) A DAW indicates “Dispense As Written.” bicarbonate (buffering agent). An adult patient
should take two tablets at each dose to achieve an
89 (b) Insulin is administered via the subcutane- adequate buffering to reduce a gastric acid degra-
ous route since it absorbs very slowly through this dation of the drug.
route. This will help reduce the chances of severe Therefore, to provide 200 milligrams of a
hypoglycemia. dose, two tablets each of 100 milligrams would
be more preferable over a single tablet of 200 mil-
90A (b) 2880 scoops. ligrams.
50 mg powder present in 1 scoop. 96 (c) A Milk of magnesia contains magnesium

144000 mg powder present in ? ions, which form a chelation with Tetracyclines
and reduce their absorption through the G.I. tract.
144000x1/50 = 2880 scoops. The concurrent use should be avoided.
90B (b) A patient were taking 1250 milligrams of 97 (b) A thiazide diuretic may increase the tox-
a drug twice a day; therefore, the total quantity of icity of lithium by facilitating the reabsorption of
the drug required to fill a whole day supply would lithium from the renal tubules.
be 2500 milligrams. Normally, lithium and sodium in an ion-
ized form do compete for the renal tubular reab-
50 mg of the drug require 1 scoop. sorption. By increasing the renal excretion of so-
2500 mg of the drug require ? dium, thiazide diuretics facilitate the renal tubu-
lar reabsorption of lithium. The concurrent use
2500x1/50 = 50 scoops per day. should be strictly avoided.
91 (b) Methicillin is a member of the penicillin 98 (b) 5.6cc. A patient is using 2 milligrams of
group of antibiotics, and therefore the correct Morphine every 3 hours; therefore, 16 milligrams
choice would be “b.” of Morphine will be consumed by the patient ev-
ery day (24 hours).
92 (b) Pyridium (Phenazopyridine) is indicated
as a urinary analgesic agent for the treatment of For a 7-day supply of the drug:
urinary tract infections. It causes a discoloration = 16mg x 7days = 112 milligrams of Morphine
of urine to orange-red and requires the auxiliary
label “May discolor the urine” on the dispensing
container.
Morphine sulfate is a concentrated solution avail- Therefore, we can say:

able in 20mg/cc strength.
100cc contain 0.05 gm
20 mg require 1cc 0.2cc (1 drop) contains?
112 mg will require ?
= 0.05x0.2/100
112x1/20 = 5.6cc of Morphine concentrated solu- = 0.0001gm of Timolol
tion. = 0.1 mg of Timolol (**1 gram = 1000 mg**)
99 (c) Amphotericin -B is an antifungal agent 103 (b) 1:1000 is generally interpreted as a one
indicated for the treatment of various fungal in- gram of a drug present in 1000cc of a solution.
fections. Reglan (Metoclopramide), Zofran Similarly, 1:100 is interpreted as a one gram of a
(Ondansetron) and Compazine (Prochlorperazine) drug present in 100cc of a solution.
are classified as antiemetic agents. They are indi-
cated for the treatment of nausea and vomiting. 1000cc contain 1 gm Heparin.
100cc will contain ?
100 (a) A sustained release preparation cannot be
crushed since it may lose its special coating and 100x1/1000 = 0.1% w/v
disturb its prolonged duration of action. Also, the
crushing of such preparation may increase the 104 (d) To solve this type of a calculation, first
toxic effects of the drug. Therefore, the correct we need to find out the quantity of Mannitol
choice would be “a,” consult a pharmacist. present in a 50cc, 25% Mannitol solution.
101 (c) The wholesale price for 500 capsules of 100 cc of solution contains 25 gm of Mannitol.
Amoxicillin 500 milligrams is $45. 50 cc of solution contains?
A number of capsules wholesale price 25x50/100 = 12.5 grams of Mannitol.

500 $45
1 ? Now this 50cc, 25% of Mannitol is diluted with
water up to 900 cc. Therefore, we can say that
1x45/500 = $0.09. 12.5 grams of Mannitol are now present in 900cc
of solution.
The percentage mark-up on a prescription is 30.
Therefore, 50cc, 25% Mannitol 900 cc
(12.5 gm Mannitol) (12.5 gm Mannitol)
Cost of the drug Mark-up
$100 $30 900cc of solution contains 12.5 gm of Mannitol.
$0.09 ? 100cc of solution contains ?
30x0.09/100 = $0.03 12.5x100/900 = 1.39% w/v.
Therefore, the retail price for each capsule should 105 (b) Nadolol is a generic name for Corgard. It
be: $0.09 + $0.03 = $0.12 = 12 cents. is classified as a beta-blocker. It is indicated for
the treatment of hypertension.
102 (b) A Timolol ophthalmic solution is avail-
able as 10 cc, 0.05% solution. 106(b) Each Zyprexa 5mg tablet costs $4.20. A
percentage mark-up on each tablet is 8. Therefore,
the mark-up on each tablet should be:
$100 cost of the drug $8 mark-up 112 (a) An anti-parkinson. Bromocriptine is a

$4.20 cost of the drug ? dopamine receptor agonist indicated for the treat-
ment of Parkinsonism. The prolonged use of
4.20x8/100 = $0.336 Bromocriptine may cause severe pulmonary tox-
icity.
The retail price for each tablet = $4.20 + $0.336
= $4.53 113 (d) Prozac (Fluoxetine) has a prolonged half-
The retail price for 30 tablets = $4.53 x 30 life. It remains for a long time in the body after
= $136.08 discontinuation.
When it is administered simultaneously
107(a) The weight of a patient is 180 lbs. The with MAO inhibitors such as Parnate (Tranyl-
weight of the patient in kg should be: cypromine), Nardil (Phenelzine) and
Isocarboxazid, it produces a life-threatening hy-
= 180/2.2 = 82 kg **2.2 lbs = 1kg** pertensive crisis.
The simultaneous use of Prozac with MAO
The recommended dose of Theophylline should inhibitors should be strictly avoided. It is advis-
be 10mg/kg. Therefore the patient should receive: able not to administer Prozac for at least 5 weeks
after discontinuing MAO inhibitors.
= 82kg x 10mg = 820 milligrams of Theophyl-
line. 114(d) Pravastatin (Pravachol) is indicated for the
treatment of an elevated lipid level. It reduces the
The patient is taking the drug every 6 hours; there- risk of atherosclerosis in a patient with an elevated
fore, a total daily dose of Theophylline: cholesterol level.
Lamictal (Lamotrigine), Cerebyx
= 820mg x 4 **24 hours = 1 day** (Fosphenytoin) and Tegretol (Carbamazepine) are
= 3280 mg per day classified as antiepileptic agents.
108(b) The 100 mg of Aminophylline contain ap- 115 (d) All of the above.
proximately 80 mg of Theophylline, therefore:
116 (b) The reconstituted products are generally
Theophylline Aminophylline good for 14 days from the date of reconstitution;
To get 80mg 100mg required therefore, the correct stop date should be 12/14/
To get 400mg ? 00.
400x100/80 = 500 mg of Aminophylline 117 (b) Proscar (Finasteride) is indicated for the
treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
109(c) Vicoprofen is a combination product of (B.P.H.). It should not be touched by pregnant
Hydrocodone and Ibuprofen. The patient is aller- women since it may cause harm to a developing
gic to Codeine, and Hydrocodone belongs to the fetus. Proscar should always be filled while wear-
same class as Codeine does. Therefore the correct ing protective gloves.
choice should be “c.”
118 (c) Cipro HC otic solution is indicated for the
110 (a) Norvir needs to be stored in a refrigerator. treatment of an ear infection. The direction on a
prescription indicates one should administer the
111 (a) The administration of Heparin via an in- drug into the eyes. Therefore, a pharmacy techni-
tramuscular route produces hematoma and ex- cian should immediately notify a pharmacist about
treme pain at the injection site. Its administration the “wrong direction.”
needs to be avoided via this route.
119 (b) Simvastatin. 15x100/5 = 300 milligrams of Robitussin
120 (b) Benadryl (Diphenhydramine) elixir is Since the patient is taking one tablespoon of syrup
available as 12.5mg/5cc. four times a day, the total amount of the drug per
day taken by the patient should be:
12.5 mg require 5cc elixir
50 mg dose will require = 300mg x 4 = 1200 milligrams of Robitussin
50mg x 5cc/12.5cc = 20cc. 125 (b) Isotretinoin should be dispensed with com-
plete patient leaflet information. The other drugs
121 (c) For this type of calculation, we need to that require the complete patient leaflet informa-
use an alligation method. tion or Patient Package Insert (PPI) are:
We have 10% Mannitol solution and we want to 1. Intrauterine devices.

make 7.5% Mannitol solution from it. 2. Oral contraceptives.
3. Estrogen-containing products.
4. Progesterone-containing products.
5. Isoproterenol inhalation products.
126 (b) The rate of TPN infusion is 2cc per minute.
2cc solution require 1 minute.

1000cc solution will require ?
1000x1/2 = 500 minutes.

7.5 % Mannitol 10 % Mannitol
To prepare 10 parts 7.5 parts required A number of hours = 500/60 = 8.33 hours.
To prepare 500cc ?
127 (b) 250 milligrams or 0.25 grams of Rocephin
500x7.5/10 = 375cc of 10% Mannitol solution powder are mixed with 250cc, 0.9% normal sa-
required. line.
122 (c) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (B.P.H.). 250cc contain 0.25gm drug.
100cc will contain ?
123 (b) 1 milligram is equal to 1000 micrograms.
Therefore, 1 microgram is equal to 0.001 milli- 0.25x100/250 = 0.1% w/v.
grams.
128 (b) Dexacidin is a combination product of
124 (c) Robitussin cough syrup is available in 100 Neomycin, Polymyxins and Dexamethasone.
mg/5cc strength. A patient is taking 1 tablespoon
(15cc) of syrup four times a day. 129 (c) 125 grams or 125,000 milligrams of Dex-
trose are dissolved into 500cc of water. Therefore,
The amount of Robitussin present in a one table- the concentration of Dextrose in milligrams/cc
spoon of syrup: should be 125000mg/500cc = 250 mg/cc.
5cc syrup contain 100 mg 130 (b) Glynase Press tablet is the brand name for
15cc syrup will contain ? Micronized Glyburide. It is indicated for the treat-
ment of Type II diabetes mellitus.
131 (b) Theo-dur is the brand name for Theophyl- Ritalin = Methylphenidate
line. A patient hypersensitive to theophylline needs Dexedrine = Dextroamphetamine
to avoid drugs containing theophylline as an ac- Adderall = Amphetamine +
tive ingredient. Dextroamphetamine
Ms Contin = Morphine sulfate
132 (b) Ketorolac tromethamine is a generic name Concerta = Methylphenidate
for Toradol. It is indicated for the treatment of OxyContin = Oxycodone
moderate to severe pain. It is only useful for the Oxy IR = Oxycodone
management of short-term pain due to its severe MS IR = Morphine sulfate
adverse effects profile. The use of Ketorolac for Roxanol = Morphine sulfate
more than 5 days requires close supervision of a Roxicet = Oxycodone + APAP
patient. Percocet = Oxycodone + APAP
Demerol = Meperidine
133 (c) Lisinopril is classified as an angiotensin Dilaudid = Hydromorphone
converting enzyme inhibitor. It is NOT an angio- Dolophine = Methadone
tensin II receptor antagonist. The new generation Talwin = Pentazocine
angiotensin II receptor antagonists are Cozaar Duragesic = Fentanyl
(Losartan), Avapro (Irbersartan), Benicar RMS Uniserts = Morphine sulfate
(Olmesartan), Micardis (Telmisartan), Atacand
(Candesartan) and Diovan (Valsartan). The prin- When dispensing a Schedule II controlled drug:
cipal advantage of angiotensin II receptor antago-
nists over ACE inhibitors is that the former do not * A patient needs to provide a valid identity
produce a dry cough, which is a very common before receiving this class of drugs. The prescrip-
complication associated with ACE inhibitors tion for a Schedule II controlled drug must have a
therapy. printed prescriber’s name with a valid signature
and the DEA number.
134 (b)Tubex: Prefilled syringe
MDV: Multi dose vial * An inventory of Schedule II controlled
SDV: Single dose vial drugs should be strictly followed.
AMP: Ampoule
* The theft of Schedule II controlled drugs
135 (b) Pepcid (Famotidine) is classified as an H should be immediately reported to the DEA. It
2
receptor antagonist. The other H receptor antago- should be reported on DEA form 106.
2
nists are Tagamet (Cimetidine), Axid (Nizatidine)
and Zantac (Ranitidine). They are indicated for * To destroy Schedule II controlled drugs,
the treatment of G.I. ulcer and heartburn. one needs to follow the procedure outlined by the
DEA. The request should be made on DEA form
136 (b) Maxzide is a combination product of 41.
Triamterene and Hydrochlorothiazide. The addi-
tion of Hydrochlorothiazide to the therapeutic regi- * In case of an emergency, a pharmacist may
men is considered a therapeutic duplication. dispense a Schedule II controlled drug upon re-
ceiving an oral authorization from a prescriber if
137 (b) The Schedule II controlled drugs require the following conditions are met:
the DEA 222 form to order drugs from a whole-
saler. A list of controlled II drugs is: 1 The prescriber must deliver a written pre-
scription, within 7 days of an emergency call, to a
dispensing pharmacy.
2 The dispensing quantity of a Schedule II 100 gm contain 0.05 gm drug.

controlled drug should be limited to cover an emer- 15 gm will contain ?
gency situation.
15x0.05/100 = 0.007 gm of Triamcinolone.
138 (b) A 2% Lidocaine solution is interpreted as:
A total amount of Triamcinolone present in (80gm
100cc contain = 2 gm Lidocaine + 15gm = 95gm) of cream should be (0.020gm +
= 2000 mg of Lidocaine 0.007gm = 0.027gm).
139 (b) Doxycycline is classified as an antibacte- The percentage of Triamcinolone in the final mix-
rial agent. ture should be:
140 (b) 0.15 mg. Since 1 milligram is equal to 95 gm contain 0.027 gm drug.
1000 micrograms, 150 micrograms are equal to 100 gm will contain ?
0.15 milligrams.
100 x0.027/95 = 0.028% w/w Triamcinolone.
141 (b) Docusate Na and Casanthranol.
146 (b) $1.25.
142(d) Certain Cephalosporins and oral sulfony-
lurea agents may produce disulfiram-like reactions 147 (b) Cortef is the brand name for Hydrocorti-
when taken with alcohol. The simultaneous use sone.
of alcohol with the above classes of drugs is strictly
prohibited. The use of benzodiazepines with al- 148 (b) Phenobarbital enhances the metabolism
cohol may produce severe drowsiness and dizzi- of theophylline and reduces its pharmacological
ness. effects. The other choices, such as Erythromycin,
Cimetidine and Ciprofloxacin, inhibit the metabo-
143 (a) Chlorpheniramine. lism of theophylline and increase its toxicity and
adverse effects.
144 (b) 1200 milligrams.
149 (d) All of the above. Anticholinergics and
100 gm ointment contain 2 gm Menthol. antihistamine agents may cause urinary retention
60 gm ointment will contain ? that may extravagate the condition of Benign Pro-
static Hyperplasia (BPH).
2x60/100 = 1.2 gm = 1200 milligrams. The sympathomimetic amine drugs may
extravagate symptoms of BPH by stimulating al-
145 (b) 0.028% pha adrenergic receptors.
All the above mentioned agents should be
The amount of Triamcinolone present in 80 grams carefully prescribed to a patient suffering from an
of 0.025% cream. enlargement of the prostate gland or B.P.H.
100 gm contain 0.025 gm drug 150 (c) 15 cc.

80 gm will contain ?
10 mg Doxepin require 1 cc.
80x0.025/100 = 0.020 gram Triamcinolone. 150 mg Doxepin will require ?
The amount of Triamcinolone present in 15 grams 150x1/10 = 15cc of solution.

of 0.05% cream:
a. A calcium gluconate should precede the 49 Dilaudid (Hydromorphone) is indicated for

potassium phosphate. the treatment of which of the following?
b. A potassium phosphate should precede the
calcium chloride. a. Hypertension
c. A potassium phosphate should precede the b. Pain
calcium gluconate. c. Edema
d. A calcium chloride should precede the d. Arthritis
potassium phosphate.
50 A Floxin otic solution is generally found
45 Which of the following ingredients should under which of the following sections of a phar-
be added last due to stability problems when pre- macy?
paring a TPN?
a. Ear section
a. MVI b. Eye section
b. Insulin c. Over the counter
c. Amino acid d. Topical cream
d. Lipids
51 A generic name for Glucotrol is which of
46 Which of the following ingredients should the following?
be added last to prevent a fatal error when prepar-
ing a TPN? a. Glipizide
b. Glyburide
a. Insulin c. Metformin
b. Lipid d. Prednisone
c. Aminoacid
d. Dextrose 52 How many cc of 15% calcium carbonate
solution are required to prepare a 10%, 300cc of
47 A patient with a history of hypersensitiv- calcium carbonate solution?
ity reactions to Aspirin needs to avoid which of
the following? a. 100cc
b. 200cc
a. Darvocet c. 50cc
b. Talwin compound d. 150cc
c. Vistaril
d. Zyprexa 53 If a prescription for Compazine reads “1
suppo pr q4h PRN N and V,” the correct interpre-
48 If 500 tablets of Ibuprofen 200 mg cost tation of it should be which of the following?
$250 and the percentage mark-up on a prescrip-
tion is 15, what will be the retail cost of 30 tablets a. 1 tablet by mouth every 4 hours as needed
of Ibuprofen? for nausea and vomiting.
b. 1 suppository per rectum every 4 hours as
a. $20.21 needed for nausea and vomiting.
b. $15.75 c. 1 tablet by mouth as needed for nausea and
c. $25.25 vomiting.
d. $17.25 d. 1 suppository per vagina every 4 hours as
needed for nausea and vomiting.
54 Pamelor (Nortriptyline) is indicated for the a. 5

treatment of which of the following? b. 15
c. 10
a. Hypertension d. 20
b. Depression
c. Edema 60 A prescription for an opium tincture (1%
d. ADHD solution of an opium alkaloid) reads “0.6cc by
mouth four times a day.” What will be the dose of
55 If a prescription for Benadryl Elixir the drug in mg?
(12.5mg/5cc) reads “1 tsp po qhs,” what will be
the dose of Benadryl at bedtime? a. 10mg
b. 12mg
a. 25mg c. 6mg
b. 50mg d. 3mg
c. 12.5mg
d. 75mg 61 If a 2%, 60 gram Clindamycin topical
cream is mixed with two capsules of Clindamycin
56 An auxiliary label, “Shake well before each weighing 150 mg, what will be the percent-
use”, is required before dispensing which of the age of the drug in the resultant mixture?
following?
a. 1.25% w/w
a. An injection of Ativan. b. 2.50%w/w
b. A tablet of Chlorpromazine. c. 5%w/w
c. A solution of Phenobarbital. d. 7.5%w/w
d. Milk of Magnesia.
62 The products meeting necessary bio-
57 If a prescription for Maalox plus reads “1 equivalency requirements can be found under
tbsp po tid PRN for heartburn X 10 days,” what which of the following?
will be the dispensed quantity of the drug in cc?
a. AA
a. 150cc b. AB
b. 200cc c. AT
c. 450cc d. AO
d. 100cc
63 Which of the following FDA categories
58 If a patient has an allergy history that sug- shows the highest risk to a developing fetus?
gests the patient is allergic to Aspirin and Cephal-
exin, a pharmacy technician will notify a pharma- a. A
cist before filling which of the following? b. B
c. D
a. Augmentin d. X
b. Flagyl
c. Biaxin
d. All of the above
59 How many vials of Ativan (2 mg/cc, 2 cc)

are required to fill a prescription order requesting
20cc?
64 An overdose of Coumadin can be treated a. 100 cc

by which of the following? b. 180 cc
c. 150 cc
a. Vitamin K1 d. 120 cc
b. Protamine
c. Naloxone 70 What is a generic name for Avapro?
d. Acetylcysteine
a. Valproic acid
65 If a patient takes a 5%, 5cc Ciprofloxacin b. Metoprolol
solution (120cc), what will be the dose of the drug c. Irbesartan
in milligrams? d. Ramipril
a. 500 mg 71 How many grams of Lactulose are present

b. 875 mg in 946cc, 10gm/15cc Lactulose solution?
c. 250 mg
d. 125 mg a. 405 grams
b. 631 grams
66 The theft of controlled drugs should be c. 121 grams
reported on which of the following? d. 235 grams
a. DEA 222 Form 72 If a 1 gm of Cefazolin is diluted with 10cc

b. DEA 106 Form of 0.9 % normal saline, and then the resultant mix-
c. DEA 41 Form ture is diluted up to 100cc mark with a 5% dex-
d. DEA 99 Form trose solution, what will be the concentration of
Cefazolin in mg/ml in the final solution?
67 How many milligrams of Potassium chlo-
ride are required to prepare 1 quart of 1 in 40 so- a. 25 mg/ml
lution? b. 15 mg/ml
c. 10 mg/ml
a. 24 grams d. 7.5 mg/ml
b. 48 grams
c. 12 grams 73 OxyContin is considered as which of the
d. 30 grams following?
68 If 10cc of Lidocaine 1% solution were a. C III controlled drug

added to 250mg of Rocephin powder, what would b. C II controlled drug
be the strength of Rocephin in mg/ml in 12cc fi- c. C IV controlled drug
nal solution? d. C V controlled drug
a. 20.83 mg/ml 74 Which of the following should be consid-

b. 31.00 mg/ml ered as a therapeutic duplication?
c. 44.23 mg/ml
d. 15.63 mg/ml a. Atenolol/Verapamil
b. Glyburide/Metformin
69 If a patient takes 0.25mg of Lanoxin per c. Diazepam/Lorazepam
day, what will be the dispensed quantity of d. Norfloxacin/Amphotericin
Lanoxin elixir (50 mcg/ml) in mLs for a 30-day
supply?
75 Cylert (Pemoline) is indicated for the treat- 81 A patient with hypersensitivity to Heparin
ment of which of the following? should avoid which of the following?
a. ADHD a. Coumadin
b. Hypertension b. Lovenox
c. Diabetes c. Haldol
d. Asthma d. Zithromax
76 Duragesic (Fentanyl) transdermal patch 82 Ciprofloxacin allergy should be listed un-

should be changed how often? der which of the following?
a. Every week a. Macrolide group of antibiotics

b. Every 15 days b. Quinolone group of antibiotics
c. Every 72 hours c. Imidazole group of antibiotics
d. Every day d. NSAID
77 A 50%, 50cc dextrose solution contain 83 Imitrex (Sumatriptan) is indicated for the
how many grams of dextrose? treatment of which of the following?
a. 25 grams of Dextrose a. Hypertension

b. 50 grams of Dextrose b. Edema
c. 75 grams of Dextrose c. Migraine headaches
d. 100 grams of Dextrose d. Nausea and vomiting
78 If 30 cc of Heparin (100 units/cc) are 84 The major adverse effect of Tylenol (Ac-
mixed with 5 cc of Heparin (5000 units/cc), how etaminophen) is what?
many units of Heparin will be present in a 1 cc of
the final solution? a. Renal toxicity
b. Hepatic toxicity
a. 1000 units/cc c. Ulcer
b. 500 units/cc d. G.I. Bleeding
c. 800 units/cc
d. 750 units/cc 85 How many grams of 5% Salicylic acid are
required to prepare 80 grams of 3% Salicylic acid?
79 What is a generic name for Cytotec?
a. 48 grams
a. Finasteride b. 28 grams
b. Misoprostol c. 50 grams
c. Nitroglycerine d. 21 grams
d. Clonidine
86 Zofran (Ondansetron HCL) is indicated for
80 Catapres (Clonidine) is indicated for the the treatment of which of the following?
treatment of which of the following?
a. Pain
a. Asthma b. Nausea and vomiting
b. Hypertension c. Asthma
c. Arthritis d. Arthritis
d. Depression
87 A prescription says to infuse 14 mg/kg/day c. 1000 mcg

of Cipro for a patient weighing 154 lbs for the d. 500 mcg
treatment of a UTI. How many bags of Cipro
(250mg/100cc) are required to fill the above or- 93 How many cc of Augmentin 250mg/5cc
der? are required to fill the following prescription?
“Augmentin 875 mg by mouth twice a day for 7
a. 1 bag days.”
b. 4 bags
c. 3 bags a. 120 cc
d. 2 bags b. 140 cc
c. 155 cc
88 Ranitidine is indicated for the treatment of d. 245 cc
which of the following?
94 What is a generic name for Vasotec?
a. Hypertension
b. Seizure a. Atenolol
c. Heartburn b. Dicyclomine
d. Schizophrenia c. Enalapril
d. Rofecoxib
89 Which of the following drugs is adminis-
tered via nasal route? 95 If a patient receives 2 teaspoons of 20%
KCl solution, how many grams of KCl would the
a. Mesalamine patient receive with each dose?
b. Sumatriptan
c. Doxycycline a. 2 grams
d. Atenolol b. 6 grams
c. 8 grams
90 What is a generic name for Azmacort? d. 3 grams
a. Betamethasone 96 Dr. Bogha, Raj has prescribed Meth-

b. Beclomethasone ylphenidate for one of his patients. Which of the
c. Triamcinolone following is the correct DEA number for Dr.
d. Fluticasone Bogha?
91 Which of the following drugs should be a. AB 4562149

classified as a cox-2 inhibitor? b. BB 5472185
c. BB 3245532
a. Naproxen d. AB 4246312
b. Celecoxib
c. Metoprolol 97 How many milligrams of Lidocaine are
d. Ibuprofen required to prepare 30cc, 1:10000 solution?
92 How many micrograms are equal to 1 mil- a. 30 mg

ligram? b. 33 mg
c. 3 mg
a. 10 mcg d. 333 mg
b. 100 mcg
98 What is a normal serum concentration of 103 Protective gloves and masks are required
hemoglobin in an adult man? when preparing which of the following?
a. 7 to 8 gm/dl a. Cipro I.V.

b. 4 to 10 gm/dl b. Levaquin I.V.
c. 13 to 15 gm/dl c. Cisplatin I.V.
d. 25 to 50 gm/dl d. Pepcid I.V.
99 All of the following drugs are contraindi- 104 Which of the following drugs is a Sched-
cated to use by a patient suffering from hyperten- ule II controlled substance?
sion EXCEPT:
a. Alprazolam
a. Pseudoephedrine b. Pemoline
b. Phenylpropanolamine c. Methadone
c. Phenylephrine d. Clonazepam
d. Diphenhydramine
105 An I.V. preparation of which of the fol-
100 If a bottle of antacid costs $3.25, what is lowing drugs should be prepared under the verti-
the retail price for 12 bottles? cal laminar flow?
a. $25.10 a. Ceftriaxone
b. $51.20 b. Cisplatin
c. $39 c. Cimetidine
d. $45 d. Erythromycin
101 A prescription for Tobramycin ophthalmic 106 How many cc of 5% glacial acetic acid are
solution reads as follows: “1 drop od q3 hours x 5 required to prepare a 3%, 500cc glacial acetic acid
days.” If a bottle of Tobramycin solution contains solution?
5cc, how long will it take to finish the whole
bottle? (Assume 15 drops are equal to 1 cc.) a. 300cc
b. 200cc
a 30 days c. 450cc
b 5 days d. 150cc
c 10 days
d 2 days 107 If a 1% of 30 grams of Hydrocortisone
were mixed with a 2.5% of 45 grams of Hydro-
102 A prescription for Zithromax reads: cortisone, what would be the percentage of Hy-
“1200mg po biw.” How many tablets of Zithromax drocortisone in the final mixture?
600 mg are required to fill a 30-day order?
a. 2.5% w/w
a. 2 b. 1.9% w/w
b. 30 c. 1.25% w/w
c. 16 d. 0.85% w/w
d. 60
108 What is a generic name for Glucophage? a. 480 cc

b. 960 cc
a. Ramipril c. 600 cc
b. Metformin d. 120 cc
c. Risperdal
o
d. Valproic acid 114 Convert 25 C into Fahrenheit.
0
109 The DEA 222 order form is required to or- a. 50
0
der which of the following? b. 77
0
c. 35
0
a. Propoxyphene d. 65
b. Dextroamphetamine
c. Zolpidem 115 The middle set of digits in the National
d. Alprazolam Drug Code number (NDC) represents which of
the following?
110 Which of the following drugs is contrain-
dicated to use by a pregnant woman? a. Manufacturer
b. Product size
a. Nifedipine c. Cost
b. Misoprostol d. Product strength and dosage form
c. Metoprolol
d. Diphenhydramine 116 An expiration date on a bottle of Cipro
states 04/99. When does this drug expire?
111 An active ingredient Simethicone, in
Maalox Plus, helps relieving which of the follow- a. Midnight 3/31/99
ing? b. Midnight 4/1/99
c. Midnight 4/30/99
a. Blood pressure d. Midnight 5/1/99
b. Cough
c. Gas 117 The third copy of a triplicate DEA 222
d. Vomiting Form goes to:
112 To prepare a 2%, 240cc Cleocin topical gel, a. Purchaser

how many 150mg capsules of Clindamycin are b. Supplier
required? c. DEA
d. FDA
a. 10
b. 20 118 The partial supply on a DEA 222 order
c. 25 form should be filled within what time period?
d. 32
a. 7 days from an execution date.
113 A prescription reads: “Diphenhydramine b. 60 days from an execution date.
50 mg po hs.” How many cc of Diphenhydramine c. 90 days from an execution date.
(12.5mg/5cc) are required to dispense a 30-day d. 120 days from an execution date.
supply?
119 Which of the following acts defined two a. 5 drops/minute

specific categories for medications, legend (pre- b. 7 drops/minute
scription) and over-the-counter (OTC)? c 14 drops/minute
d. 3.5 drops/minute
a. Durham Humphrey Amendment
b. Kefauver Harris Amendment 125 What is a generic name for Serevent?
c. ORPHAN Drug Act
d. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act a. Albuterol
b. Salmeterol
120 What is the dose for a child with a body c. Nifedipine
2
surface area of 80 mm if an adult dose of the d. Astemizole
drug is 500 mg?
a. 600 mg
b. 750 mg
c. 231 mg
d. 150 mg
121 Which of the following drugs is exempt

from the Poison Prevention Package Act?
a. Risperidone
b. Nitroglycerine
c. Olanzapine
d. Furosemide
122 Which of the following is the correct DEA

number for the prescriber Shroff, Harin?
a. AC3564782
b. AB3459871
c. AS2435786
d. BH2456498
123 To get a permit to destroy controlled drugs,

one should fill out:
a. DEA form 222

b. DEA form 41
c. DEA form 106
d. DEA form 91
124 An I.V. order for Ciprofloxacin 750 mg/

250cc is given every 12 hours. If an I.V. set deliv-
ers 20 drops per ml, what is the rate of flow?
ANSWERS
1 B 43 B 85 A
2 B 44 C 86 B
3 A 45 A 87 B
4 C 46 B 88 C
5 D 47 B 89 B
6 C 48 D 90 C
7 B 49 B 91 B
8 B 50 A 92 C
9 A 51 A 93 D
10 B 52 B 94 C
11 C 53 B 95 A
12 B 54 B 96 C
13 B 55 C 97 C
14 D 56 D 98 C
15 B 57 C 99 D
16 B 58 A 100 C
17 C 59 C 101 C
18 B 60 C 102 C
19 A 61 B 103 C
20 C 62 B 104 C
21 B 63 D 105 B
22 B 64 A 106 A
23 C 65 C 107 B
24 C 66 B 108 B
25 B 67 A 109 B
26 A 68 A 110 B
27 C 69 C 111 C
28 C 70 C 112 D
29 C 71 B 113 C
30 B 72 C 114 B
31 C 73 B 115 D
32 B 74 C 116 C
33 C 75 A 117 A
34 B 76 C 118 B
35 D 77 A 119 A
36 C 78 C 120 C
37 C 79 B 121 B
38 C 80 B 122 C
39 C 81 B 123 B
40 B 82 B 124 B
41 B 83 C 125 B
42 B 84 B
DISULFIRAM REACTIONS PRODUCING DRUGS
* Metronidazole
* Chlorpropamide
* Cefotetan
* Cefoperazone
* Moxalactam
* Cefamandole
* Tolbutamide
* Acetohexamide
* Glyburide
* Glipizide
* Disulfiram
DRUGS THAT PRECIPITATE DISULFIRAM-LIKE REACTIONS
* Alcohol
* Benadryl Elixir
* Digoxin Elixir
* Lanoxicaps
PLATELETS AGGREGATION INHIBITORS
* Cefamandole
* Cefoperazone
* Moxalactam
* Cefotetan
* Plicamycin
* Ketorolac
* Aspirin
* Ticlid
* Plavix
URINE DISCOLORATION PRODUCING DRUGS
* Phenazopyridine
* Senna
* Rifampin
* Phenolphthalein
* Levodopa
* Sulfasalazine
DRUGS THAT REQUIRE A PATIENT PACKAGE INSERT
* Isotretinoin
* Oral contraceptives
* Isoproterenol
* Ticlid
* Progesterone
* Estrogen
* Intrauterine devices
DRUGS CONTRAINDICATED DURING PREGNANCY
* Isotretinoin
* Tetracycline
* Chloramphenicol
* Sulfonamide
* Misoprostol
* Finasteride
* Methimazole
* Coumadin
* Metronidazole
* Valproic acid
* Lithium carbonate
* Alcohol
DRUGS THAT CAUSE PHOTOSENSITIVITY REACTIONS
* Accutane * Cipro * Rheumatrex

* Micronase * DiaBeta * Sulfonamide
* Retin-A * Doxycycline * Tetracycline
* Bactrim * Griseofulvin * Thiazide diuretic
* Carbamazepine * Methotrexate * Tricyclic antidepressant
* Sulfonylureas * Noroxin * Glucotrol
Abbreviations
* aa of each * D.A.W. dispense as written
* N and V nausea and vomiting * gtt drop
* a.c. before meals * a.m. morning
* p.c. after meals * p.m. evening
* a.d. right ear * h.s. at bedtime
* a.s. left ear * o.d. right eye
* a.u. both ears or each ear * o.s. left eye
* q.d daily * o.u. both eyes or each eye
* b.i.d. twice daily * o2 both eye
* t.i.d. three times daily * p.o. by mouth
* q.i.d. four times daily * pr per rectum
* q.o.d every other day * q.6h every 6 hours
* pt. pint * prn as needed
DRUGS THAT CAUSE AN ENZYME INDUCTION
* Rifampin * Phenytoin
* Carbamazepine * Nicotine
* Phenobarbital * Omeprazole
* Troglitazone * Rifabutin
DRUGS THAT CAUSE AN ENZYME INHIBITION
* Cipro * Clopidogrel
* Cimetidine * Ritonavir
* Erythromycin * Fluvoxamine
* Ketoconazole * Nelfinavir
STOOL DISCOLOR- PRODUCING DRUGS
Drug Color Drug Color
Rifampin Red-orange Kao-pectin Black

Phenolphthalein Red Iron salt Black-brown
Pyridium Red Warfarin Black
Antacid White
DRUGS THAT ARE REQUIRED TO BE STORED IN A REFRIGERATOR
Calcimar Wycillin (Injection)

Xalatan (ophthalmic solution) Bicillin (Injection)
Viroptic (ophthalmic solution) Permapen (Injection)
Ophthetic (ophthalmic solution) Intron-A (Injection)
Fluoracaine (ophthalmic solution) Epogen (Injection)
Ocusert Pilo Neupogen (Injection)
Phospholine Iodine (ophthalmic solution) Hyperstat (Injection)
Erythromycin Ethyl Succinate Suspension Sandostatin (Injection)
Promethazine suppository Novolin (Injection)
Fosphenytoin (Injection) Humulin (Injection)
Bicillin-LA (Injection) Regranex (Cream)
Moose (Injection) MMR vaccine
Havrix-A (Injection) Diltiazem injection
Neupogen (Injection) Pepcid injection
Thyrolar Urokinase
Mycostatin pastilles Sus-Phrine (injection)
Fortovase capsules Dornase-alfa
Norvir Capsules Tetanus Toxoid
Calcitonin Salmon (Injection, nasal spray) Hepatitis-A
Bacid (dietary supplement)
Lactinex (dietary supplement)
Sterile Bacitracin powder
Calculations
1 kilogram = 1000 grams 1 tea cup = 120cc

1 gram = 1000 milligrams 1 teaspoon = 5cc
1 milligram = 1000 micrograms 1 tablespoon = 15cc
1 kg = 2.2 lbs 1 fluid dram = 4cc
1 grain = 65 milligrams
1 fl oz = 30cc
1 pint = 480cc = 16 fl oz
1 quart = 960cc = 2 pints
1 gallon = 3840cc = 4 quarts = 8 pints
1 pound = 454 grams
PANCREATIC ENZYME SUPPLEMENT PRODUCTS
Ku-Zyme-HP
Viokase
Creon
Cotazym
Ilozyme
Festal
DRUGS THAT SHOULD NOT BE USED BY PATIENTS HYPERSENSITIVE TO BELLADONNA

ALKALOIDS OR PHENOBARBITAL
Barbidonna
Kinesed
Spasmophen
Donnapine
Hyosophen
Spaslin
Spasmolin
Relaxadon
Malatal
DRUGS THAT ARE AVAILABLE IN DEPOT PREPARATIONS
Haloperidol Decanoate = Haldol

Fluphenazine Decanoate = Prolixin
Methylprednisolone = Depo Medrol
Medroxyprogesterone = Depo Provera
Estradiol = Depo Estradiol
Leuprolide = Lupron Depot
DRUGS THAT SHOULD NOT BE USED BY PATIENTS HYPERSENSITIVE TO SULFA DRUGS
Sulfonamide
Oral sulfonylurea
Thiazide diuretics
Dapsone
DRUGS THAT SHOULD NOT BE USED BY PATIENTS HYPERSENSITIVE TO AN TCA ALLERGY
Tricyclic antidepressants
Carbamazepine
Cyclobenzaprine
NEOPLASTIC AGENTS (REQUIRE GLOVES AND PROTECTIVE MASKS FOR PREPARATION)
* Busulfan = Myleran
* Carmustine = BiCNU
* Chlorambucil = Leukeran
* Cisplatin = Platinol
* Cyclophosphamide = Cytoxan
* Ifosfamide = Ifex
* Lomustine = CeeNU
* Carboplatin = Paraplatin
* Cytarabine = Cytosar
* Fluorouracil = Efudex
* Hydroxyurea = Hydrea
* Methotrexate = Methotrexate
* Mercaptopurine = Purinethol
* Bleomycin = Blenoxane
* Mitomycin = Mutamycin
* Daunorubicin = Cerubidine
* Dactinomycin = Cosmegen
* Plicamycin = Mithramycin
* Pentostatin = Nipent
* Doxorubicin = Adriamycin
* Tamoxifen = Nolvadex
* Megestrol = Megace
* Taxol = Paclitaxel
* Taxotere = Docetaxel
Antidote of drugs Drugs
Naloxone=Narcan Opioid
Nalmefene=Revex Opioid
Naltrexone== ReVia Opioid
Digoxin Fab=Digibind Digoxin, Digitoxin
Leucovorin = Wellcovorin Methotrexate, Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine
Mesna = Mesnex Cyclophosphamide, Ifosfamide
Vitamin K Coumadin
Protamine sulfate Heparin
Deferoxamine mesylate= Desferal Iron
Dimercaprol Arsenic, Gold
Sodium thiosulfate Cyanide
Flumazenil=Romazicon Benzodiazepine
Physostigmine=Antilirium Atropine, Anticholinergic
Acetylcysteine= Mucomyst Acetaminophen
Dexrazoxane=Zinecard Doxorubicin
Pralidoxime = Protopam cl Organophosphorus compound
Glucagon Insulin
Edetate disodium Digitalis toxicity, hypercalcemia
Edetate calcium disodium Lead
Atropine Acetylcholine, Cholinergic agent
Hydroxocobalamin Cyanide

Reference Guide For Pharmacy Technician Exam: Manan Shroff

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Reference Guide For Pharmacy Technician Exam: Manan Shroff

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Reference Guide for Pharmacy Technician Exam-Second Edition Krisman

SECOND EDITION 2010-2011

All rights reserved.

This exam will test pharmacy technicians on three major areas:

Brand Generic Adverse Effects

Lanoxin Digoxin anorexia, nausea

Primacor Milrinone thrombocytopenia

Inocor Amrinone ventricular arrhythmia

Therapeutic uses of inotropic agents:

* Congestive heart failure (CHF)

Anorexia: Appetite loss.

Brand Generic Adverse Effects

Cordarone Amiodarone pulmonary toxicity

Norpace Disopyramide dry eyes, blurred vision, negative inotropic effect

Tambocor Flecainide A.V. node suppression

Ethmozine Moricizine A.V. node suppression

Xylocaine Lidocaine CNS stimulation, seizure

Tonocard Tocainide pulmonary toxicity

Dilantin Phenytoin gingival hyperplasia, ataxia

Procanbid Procainamide S.L.E, blood dyscrasia

Quinidine Quinidine diarrhea

Therapeutic uses of antiarrhythmic agents:

Pulmonary toxicity: Lung toxicity.

Brand Generic Adverse Effects

Tenormin Atenolol bradycardia

Lopressor Metoprolol bradycardia

Inderal Propranolol bradycardia

Corgard Nadolol bradycardia

Zebeta Bisoprolol bradycardia

Normodyne Labetalol bradycardia

Sectral Acebutolol bradycardia

Coreg Carvedilol bradycardia

Brevibloc Esmolol bradycardia

Levatol Penbutolol bradycardia

Therapeutic uses of beta-blockers:

* Hypertension and angina

Do not use beta-blockers for:

1. CHF patients: May cause fatal heart failure.

Bradycardia: Slowing down of heart rate.

4-CENTRALLY ACTING ANTIHYPERTENSIVE AGENTS

Brand Generic Adverse Effects

Aldomet Methyldopa hemolytic anemia

Catapres Clonidine hypotension

Tenex Guanfacine hypotension

Wytensin Guanabenz hypotension

Brand Generic Adverse Effects

Adalat Nifedipine hypotension

Calan Verapamil hypotension, constipation

Cardizem Diltiazem hypotension

Norvasc Amlodipine hypotension

Plendil Felodipine hypotension

Cardene Nicardipine hypotension

DynaCirc Isradipine hypotension

Vascor Bepridil hypotension

Nimotop Nimodipine hypotension

Sular Nisoldipine hypotension

Hypertension: Elevation of arterial blood pressure above the normal range.

Brand Generic Adverse Effects

Vasotec Enalapril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia

Zestril Lisinopril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia

Capoten Captopril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia

Altace Ramipril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia

Lotensin Benazepril hypertension, dry cough, dysgeusia, hyperkalemia