QUIZ CHAPTER 5

1. An IPv6 address is made up of how many bits?

a. 32
b. 48
c. 64
d. 128
e. 256
2. Which Application-layer protocol provides remote access to a Windows computer via a
GUI?
a. Telnet
b. RDP
c. SSH
d. FTP
3. If a protocol is routable, which TCP/IP layer does it operate at?
a. Network access
b. Internetwork
c. Transport
d. Application
4. Which Application-layer protocol is used to monitor and manage network devices, and
what Transport-layer protocol does it use?
a. SMTP, UDP
b. SNMP, TCP
c. SMTP, TCP
d. SNMP, UDP
5. Which TCP/IP model layer takes a large chunk of data from the Application layer and
breaks it into smaller segments?
a. Network access
b. Internetwork
c. Transport
d. Application
6. Which of the following protocols resolves logical addresses to physical addresses?
a. DHCP
b. TCP
c. IP
d. DNS
e. ARP
7. Which of the following protocols provides connectionless service? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. IP
b. UDP
c. TCP
d. HTTP
8. If you want to design an Application-layer protocol that provides fast, efficient communication
and doesn’t work with large amounts of data, what Transport-layer protocol
would you design it to use?
Ans: UDP
9. Which of the following is the term for identifying packets used by TCP to establish a
connection?
a. Port number indicators
b. Multiwindow agreement
c. Three-way handshake
d. Sequencing establishment
10. What element of a DHCP server uses the client MAC address to ensure that the client is
leased the same address each time it requests an IP address?
a. IP address scope
b. Address exclusion
c. Reservation
d. ARP mapping
11. Which of the following is the first packet sent when a computer wants to lease an IP
address?
a. DHCPAck
b. DHCPDiscover
c. DHCPRequest
d. DHCPOffer
12. Which of the following IPv6 features is an enhancement to IPv4? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. Larger address space
b. Works at the Internetwork and Transport layers
c. Built-in security
d. Connectionless communication
13. Which protocol can configure a computer’s IP address and subnet mask automatically?
a. TCP
b. IP
c. ARP
d. DNS
e. DHCP
14. What type of packets are transmitted between DHCP client and server when a client is
initially leasing an IP address?
a. Broadcast
b. Multicast
c. Unicast
d. Anycast
15. Which of the following accurately describes the .edu in the FQDN www.yc.edu?
a. Fully qualified domain name
b. Top-level domain
c. Root domain
d. Second-level domain
16. What’s another name for a DNS client?
a. Alias
b. Reservation
c. DDNS
d. Resolver
17. What type of resource record is an alias for another record?
 a. MX
b. AAAA
c. CNAME
d. PTR
18. When a Windows computer is configured to use DHCP but no DHCP server is available,
what type of address is configured automatically for it?
a. PAT
b. APIPA
c. NAT
d. Static
19. Where does a DNS server look when it can’t resolve a query from its zone records or
cache?
a. Root hints
b. Alternate server
c. Top-level domain
d. BIND
20. What does the Transport layer use to identify source and destination Application-layer
protocols?
a. Checksum
b. TCP address
c. Port number
d. Root hints
21. Which of the following Application-layer protocols typically uses the UDP Transportlayer
protocol? (Choose all that apply.)
a. HTTP
b. DNS
c. DHCP
d. FTP
22. Which is the correct order of headers, from left to right, in a completed frame?
a. Frame, TCP, IP
b. UDP, frame, IP
c. TCP, IP, frame
d. Frame, IP, UDP
23. Which of the following is a task performed by the Network access layer? (Choose all
that apply.)
a. Verifies that incoming frames have the correct destination MAC address
b. Defines and verifies IP addresses
c. Transmits and receives bit signals
d. Resolves MAC addresses by using IP addresses
e. Delivers packets efficiently
24. What field of the IP header does the tracert program use to get the IP address of
routers in the path?
a. Version
b. TTL
c. Checksum
d. Protocol
25. Which of the following is not found in a connectionless Transport-layer protocol?
(Choose all that apply.)
 a. Three-way handshake
b. Port numbers
c. Checksum
d. Acknowledgements

QUIZ CHAPTER 6

1. The original commercial version of Ethernet supported 10 Mbps bandwidth; the version
introduced in the early 1990s supports 100 Mbps; and in 1998, Gigabit Ethernet was
introduced. All versions use the same data frame formats, with the same maximum PDU
sizes, so they can interoperate freely. Given this information and what you know of layered
technologies, which of the following statements is true? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Ethernet works at the Data Link and Physical layers of the OSI model, and
upgrades to newer, faster versions of Ethernet can be made by changing only the
components that work at these layers.
b. Ethernet spans several layers and requires a new protocol stack to upgrade to new versions.
c. Changes in technology at one layer of the OSI model don’t usually affect the operation
of other layers.
d. Ethernet isn’t considered a scalable technology.
2. The addition of information to a PDU as it’s passed from one layer to the next is called
which of the following?
a. PDI transforming
b. Encapsulation
c. Deencapsulation
d. Converting
3. Layers acting as though they communicate directly with each other across the network
are called which of the following?
a. Partners
b. Synchronous
c. Interchangeable
d. Peers
4. Place the following letters in the correct order to represent the OSI model from Layer 7
to Layer 1:
E. Application
A. Presentation
C. Session
F. Transport
G. Network
B. Data Link
D. Physical

5. Which OSI layer creates and processes frames?

Data Link

6. Which OSI layer handles flow control, data segmentation, and reliability?
 a. Application
b. Physical
c. Transport
d. Data Link
7. Which OSI layer governs how a NIC is attached to the network medium?
Physical
8. Which OSI layer determines the route a packet takes from sender to receiver?
a. 7
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
9. Which OSI layer is responsible for setting up, maintaining, and ending ongoing information
exchanges across a network?
a. 6
b. 3
c. 2
d. 5
10. Which of the following elements might the Data Link layer add to its PDU? (Choose all
that apply.)
a. Physical addresses
b. Logical addresses
c. Data
d. CRC
11. When and how many times is a CRC calculated?
a. Once, before transmission
b. Once, after receipt
c. Twice, once before transmission and again on receipt
d. At the source and destination and at each intermediary device
12. Which layer of the OSI model does Project 802 divide into two sublayers?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Session
13. What are the names of the sublayers specified as part of Project 802? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. Data Link Control (DLC)
b. Logical Link Control (LLC)
c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
d. Media Access Control (MAC)
14. Which term refers to stripping header information as a PDU is passed from one layer to
a higher layer?
a. Deencapsulation
b. Encapsulation
c. PDU stripping
d. Packetization
15. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to Ethernet?
a. 802.2
b. 802.3
 c. 802.4
d. 802.5
e. 802.11
16. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to wireless LANs?
a. 802.2
b. 802.3
c. 802.4
d. 802.5
e. 802.11
17. What’s the name of the PDU at the Transport layer?
a. Bit
b. Packet
c. Segment
d. Data
18. At which OSI layer does the PDU contain sequence and acknowledgement numbers?
a. Application
b. 4
c. Data Link
d. 6

19. Which of the following is an example of software found at the Application layer?
(Choose all that apply.)
a. FTP
b. TCP
c. HTTP
d. ICMP
20. At which Data Link sublayer does the physical address reside?
a. Media Access Control (MAC)
b. Logical Link Control (LLC)
c. Data Access Control (DAC)
d. Network Access Control (NAC)
21. Which of the following problems can occur at the Physical layer?
a. NIC driver problems
b. Incorrect IP addresses
c. Signal errors caused by noise
d. Incorrect segment

QUIZ CHAPTER 8
1. Which of the following is an objective of a file system? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Organize space on a drive.
b. Organize files hierarchically.
c. Schedule access to applications.
d. Secure access to files.
2. A cluster is composed of which of the following?
a. One or more 512-bit blocks
b. Two or more 2K-byte sectors
 c. One or more 512-byte sectors
d. One or more 2K-byte blocks
3. Large cluster sizes can result in which of the following on a disk drive?
a. Faster performance for large files, more wasted space for small files
b. Faster performance for small files, less wasted space for small files
c. More fragmentation, faster performance for large files
d. Less fragmentation, more wasted space for large files
4. Which of these file systems includes file and folder permissions? (Choose all that apply.)
a. FAT32
b. FAT16
c. NTFS
d. Ext3
5. What feature of a file system makes it possible to find a file based on keywords in it?
Indexing
6. Which of the following is best described as a program loaded into memory that has no
user interface but communicates with other programs?
a. Process
b. Task
c. Service
d. Application
7. The DNS function is built into most applications. True or False?

8. Which best describes context switching?

a. Dividing computing cycles equally among processes
b. The OS suspending the running process and activating another process
c. Cooperative multitasking
d. Changing from one OS to another in a virtual environment
9. The most common form of multitasking in current OSs is cooperative multitasking.
True or False?

10. Which OS component schedules processes to run?

a. File system
b. User interface
c. Memory manager
d. Kernel
11. Which best describes a thread?
a. A process you can view in Task Manager
b. The smallest schedulable unit of software
c. A process in a preemptive multitasking OS
d. A multiprocessing computer
12. Which of the following is true about the kernel?
a. The kernel is positioned just above the hardware.
b. The kernel provides the user interface.
c. The kernel sets user permissions.
d. The kernel is an optional part of the OS.
13. Which component of a file-sharing client intercepts requests to determine whether the
requested resource is local or remote?
a. Disk sector
 b. NTFS
c. Redirector
d. SMB
14. Which of the following is a high-speed network storage solution that can replace locally
attached storage on a server?
a. NAS
b. SAN
c. Cloud-based
d. SMB
15. What should you use to provide fault tolerance so that if one server fails, the other
immediately takes over its functions with no or little downtime?
a. Failover cluster
b. Storage area network
c. Round-robin load balancing
d. Load-balancing cluster
16. Which is the correct syntax for mapping drive letter W to a shared folder named
Accounting on the Finance server?
a. net use W: \\Finance\Accounting
b. net share W: \\Accounting\Finance
c. net use W: \\Accounting\Finance
d. net share W: \\Finance\Accounting
17. A text file containing a list of commands is called which of the following?
a. Logon process file
b. Service file
c. Task file
d. Batch file
18. The default protocol Windows uses to share folders is which of the following?
a. NFS
b. SMB
c. WPA
d. FTP
19. Which of the following refers to a Windows server with Active Directory installed?
a. Member server
b. NIS server
c. Domain controller
d. LDAP controller
20. Which of the following best describes an NAS?
a. A dedicated device designed to provide shared storage for network users
b. A high-speed network storage solution that can replace locally attached drives on
servers
c. A storage solution in which some or all data is stored on offsite servers
d. A SATA or SCSI drive connected to a server
21. Which of the following is a partial copy of a VM made at a particular moment that
enables you to restore the VM’s state?
a. Incremental backup
b. Virtual disk
c. Load balancing
d. Snapshot
22. If you want to configure disks on a server so that data is preserved if a disk fails, what
should you use?
a. RAID
b. Failover cluster
c. Redundant array of servers
d. Load-balancing disk system
23. Software that creates and monitors the virtual hardware environment is called what?
a. Host computer
b. Hypervisor
c. Snapshot
d. Guest OS
24. Bare-metal virtualization is best for desktop virtualization. True or False?

25. If you want your virtual machine to have direct access to the physical network, which
virtual network option should you configure?
a. Bridged
b. NAT
c. Host-only
d. Internal