Article 311 safeguards civil servants

Answer with Explanation
Date 16/05/2018
1 Article 311 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
(A) Tenure of office of the civil servants

(B) Safeguards to civil servants
(C) Recruitment and service conditions of the civil servants
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
Explanation:
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Article 311 places two restriction on the above ‘doctrine of pleasure’. In other words, it
provides two safeguards to civil servants against any arbitrary dismissal from their posts:
(a) A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that

by which he was appointed.  
(b) A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an
inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges against him and given a
reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.  
The above two safeguards are available only to the members of the civil services of the
Centre, the all-India services, the civil services of a state or to persons holding civil posts
under the Centre or a state and not to the members of defence services or persons
holding military posts.
2 With reference to the Administrative Tribunals, consider the following statements:
1. Article 323-A empowers the Central government to establish the State Administrative
Tribunals
2. Under Article 323A there is no hierarchy of tribuals while the same can be there
under Article 323-B
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the Central
government to establish the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) on specific request of
the concerned state governments.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for
each state or two or more states may be established. There is no question of hierarchy of
tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
3 Which of the following is not a condition for recognition of a political party as a

National Party?
(A) If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general
election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly
(B) If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these
candidates are elected from four states
(C) If it is recognised as a state party in four states
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
Explanation:
If a political party wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and
these candidates are elected from three states, it can be recognized as a national party.
4 With reference to the Anti-Defection law, consider the following statement:
1. In case of defection, the deciding authority is the presiding officer of the house
2. A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the

House if he joins any political party after the expiry of three months from the date on
which he takes his seat in the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is

to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. Originally, the act provided that the
decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However,
in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this provision as
unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court and the high courts. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question
under the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other
tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc. But, the
court rejected the contention that the vesting of adjudicatory powers in the presiding
officer is by itself invalid on the ground of political bias.
Statement 2 is correct: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being

a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from
the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any
political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this
disqualification.
5 What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by Rajya Sabha?
(A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(B) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(C) The Lok Sabha may send the bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(D) The President may call for a joint sitting of the bill
Ans: (A)
Explanation:
The final authority in case of money bill, lies with the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has
restricted powers with regard to a money bill. It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It
can only make the recommendations. It must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14
days, wither with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha can either accept or
reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
6 Which of the following states have a bicameral legislature?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Jammu & Kashmir
3. Telangana
4. Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (C)
Explanation:
Seven Indian States, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Jammu &

Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh, have bicameral Legislatures.
7 How many languages were officially present in the 8th schedule of the constitution
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 22
(D) 18
Ans: (B)
Explanation:
Originally the constitution listed 14 languages in the 8th schedule. The last has been
further extended thrice from time to time and presently, there are 22 languages that
come under the purview of 8th schedule.
8 The term ‘Budget’ is mentioned in which article of the Indian constitution
(a) Article 110

(B) Article 112
(C) Article 109
(D) None of these
Ans: (D)
Explanation:
The term ‘Budget’ is not mentioned anywhere in the constitution. Article 112 mentions
the term ‘Annual Financial Statement’ and not Budget.
9 Consider the following statements.
1. Article 370 gives autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir.
2. Article 35A was added to the Constitution by a Presidential order in 1954 and it
empowers the State legislature to define the State’s “permanent residents” and their
special rights and privileges.
Select the correct statements
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)
10 Consider the following about recently passed IIM Bill
1. IIMs can now grant degrees instead of post-graduate diplomas.
2. The Bill also allows students to acquire doctoral degrees from the IIMs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
11 One of India’s INDCs is to increase the share of non-fossil fuels in total installed
capacity to 40% by 2030. Which of the following are the benefits of switching to
renewable energies?
1. Greater employment opportunities

2. Better health outcomes
3. Lower import cost
4. Mitigate climate change
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
Explanation:
Renewable energy sources are a strategic national resource. Harnessing these sources
will put India on the path to a cleaner environment, energy independence and, a stronger
economy. The renewable energy technologies contribute to better air quality( leads to
better health outcomes), reduce reliance on fossil fuels(reduces import bill) , curb global
warming(mitigate climate change), add jobs to the economy and, protect environmental
values such as habitat and water quality.Hence all statements are true .
12 Consider the following statements:
1. UV(Ultraviolet)-A is absorbed by the ozone layer and does not reach the earth.
2. UV-C rays account for up to 95% of the UV radiation reaching the Earth’s surface
3. UV-B rays are responsible for causing most skin cancers.
Choose the correct option:
(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 only
Ans: (C)
Explanation:
Ultraviolet or UV radiation is part of the electromagnetic (light) spectrum that reaches

the earth from the sun. It has wavelengths shorter than visible light, making it invisible to
the naked eye. These wavelengths are classified as UVA, UVB, or UVC. With even shorter
rays, most UVC is absorbed by the ozone layer and does not reach the earth, hence
statement 1 is incorrect . Both UVA and UVB, however, penetrate the atmosphere and
play an important role in conditions such as premature skin aging. By damaging the skin’s
cellular DNA, excessive UV radiation produces genetic mutations that can lead to skin
cancer.
UVA rays account for up to 95% of the UV radiation reaching the Earth’s surface. They
pass through the ozone layer and reach the earth. Hence statement 2 is incorrect . UVB
rays are responsible for causing most skin cancers hence statement 3 is correct
13 A black hole is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out .
This property is due to its
(A) Very low density

(B) Very high density
(C) Very large size
(D) None of these.
Ans: (B)
Explanation:
A black hole possesses a gravitational field so powerful that not even light can escape. A
black hole generally forms after a star dies in a titanic explosion known as a supernova,
which crushes the remaining core into dense lumps.A maddening enigma called a
singularity -- a region of infinite density -- lies at the heart of each black hole, according
to general relativity, the modern theory of gravity. The infinite nature of singularities
means that space and time as we know them cease to exist there.
14 Which of the following is/are the targets set under foreign trade policy:
1. Double the exports by 2020

2. To achieve 10% share of world exports by 2020
Choose the correct answer from the given code:
(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Explanation:
Targets under Foreign trade policy:

Doubling the export (both Merchandise and Service) to $900 million and achieve 3.5%
share of world export by 2019- 20.
It introduces two new schemes, namely ‘Merchandise Exports from India Scheme
(MEIS)’ for export of specified goods to specified markets and ‘Services Exports from
India Scheme (SEIS)’ for increasing exports of notified services.
15 Which of the following are the benefits of Millets?
1. Less water requirement and a shorter growing period.

2. Less affected by diseases and pests, rising temperature and climate change.
3. Used as food and fodder—in mixed farming systems.
4. Beneficial to gluten intolerant and high diabetic people.
Choose the correct answer from the given code:
(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1,2 and 3 only
(D) 1,2,3, and 4
Ans: (D)
Explanation:
Recently, government has approved 2018 as the ‘National Year of Millets’ to boost the
agro-industry and production of the cereal.
Benefits of millets:
1. Less water requirement and a shorter growing period.
2. Less affected by diseases and pests, rising temperature and climate change.
3. Used as food and fodder—in mixed farming systems.
4. Intercropped with wide variety of vital crops.
5. Millets are rich in vitamins, calcium, iron, potassium, magnesium, zinc, and has low-
GI (Glycemic index) which can reduce the malnourishment and hunger problem in
India.
6. Beneficial to gluten intolerant and high diabetic people.
7. It has good ability to sequester carbon

Article 311 safeguards civil servants

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Answer with Explanation

(A) Tenure of office of the civil servants

(a) A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that

2 With reference to the Administrative Tribunals, consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

3 Which of the following is not a condition for recognition of a political party as a

(C) If it is recognised as a state party in four states

(D) None of these

2. A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is correct: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is

Statement 2 is correct: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being

5 What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by Rajya Sabha?

6 Which of the following states have a bicameral legislature?

2. Jammu & Kashmir

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

Seven Indian States, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Jammu &

8 The term ‘Budget’ is mentioned in which article of the Indian constitution

(a) Article 110

9 Consider the following statements.

1. Article 370 gives autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir.

Select the correct statements

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

10 Consider the following about recently passed IIM Bill

1. IIMs can now grant degrees instead of post-graduate diplomas.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Greater employment opportunities

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

12 Consider the following statements:

Choose the correct option:

(A) 1 and 2 only

Ultraviolet or UV radiation is part of the electromagnetic (light) spectrum that reaches

(A) Very low density

1. Double the exports by 2020

Choose the correct answer from the given code:

Targets under Foreign trade policy:

15 Which of the following are the benefits of Millets?

1. Less water requirement and a shorter growing period.

Choose the correct answer from the given code:

(A) 1 and 3 only

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