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Let Module 1 Professional Education
Let Module 1 Professional Education
PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION
ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING
1. Teacher Lorraine wants to test her students’ ability to organize ideas. Which of the following she will use?
A. Matching type C. True or false
B. Multiple-choice D. Essay
2. Emil Renz obtained a score of 89 out of 100 in multiple choice tests in Geometry.
A. He answered 89 items in the test correctly.
B. He obtained a rating of 89.
C. His performance is 11% better than the group.
D. He answered 89% of the test item correctly.
3. Teacher Marivic wants to develop periodic test in her English classes, what is the first thing she will
accomplish?
A. Develop table of specification.
B. Go back to the instructional objectives.
C. Select the type of test items to use.
D. Decide on the length of the test.
4. Marie obtained a percentile rank of 94 in National Assessment Test. This means that ________.
A. She answered 94 items correctly.
B. She surpassed in performance 6% of his fellow examinees.
C. She surpassed in performance 94% of his fellow examinees.
D. She got a score of 94.
5. Which of the following objectives is the highest level in Bloom’s taxonomy?
A. List the parts of a tree
B. Explain how a tree functions in relation to the ecosystem.
C. Rate three different methods of controlling tree growth.
D. Explain how trees receive nutrients.
6. Which measure of central tendency easily affected by extreme scores?
A. Mean and mode C. Mode
B. Mean D. Median
7. Palma Scholarship Foundation conducted examinations for scholarship for three batches. The results are
the following: Batch I: average = 89.75 with 15 takers. Batch II: average = 94.25 with 10 takers. Batch III:
average = 96.75 with 25 takers. What is the overall average of the test takers?
A. 93.58 C. 95.15
B. 94.15 D. 95.58
8. Teacher jenny is taking about ”grading on the curve” in a teacher’s conference at the First District of
Cagayan. This means that she’s referring to what type of grading system?
A. Criterion-referenced grading C. norm-referenced grading
B. Cumulative grading system D. averaging method
9. Julie’s scores in Biology quizzes are as follows: 92, 87, 72, 67, 99, 80. What is the meaning of these scores?
A. 81.83 C. 83.17
B. 82.83 D. 84.17
10. Which of the following statements is COORECT about standard deviation?
A. The smaller the standard deviation the more spreads the scores are.
B. The larger the standard deviation the less spread the scores are.
C. It is a measure of central tendency
D. The larger the deviation the more spread the scores are.
11. Teacher Mod conducted a quiz after discussing his topic “ Normal Distribution” to test whether his
students learned the lesson and not for grading purposes. Which type of test he conducted?
A. Placement C. Diagnostic
B. Formative D. Summative
12. In a normal curve distribution, about how many percent of the scores fall between-1SD to + 1SD?
A. 68.26% C. 3.4.13%
B. 58.75% D. 30.86%
13. Teacher Renz conducted a chapter test in Algebra. In which competency did his students find the
greatest difficulty? In the item with difficulty index of___________.
A. 0.50 C. 0.75
B. 0.45 D. 0.88
14. Which of the following statement is TRUE about normal curve distribution?
A. There are more high scores that low scores
B. The scores are normally distributed
C. Most of the scores are low.
D. There are more low scores than high scores.
15. Teachers Dominic gave a 100 item test in Biology where the mean performance of the class is 75 with a
standard deviation of 4. Joseph got score of 87. What description rating should teacher Dominic give to
Joseph?
A. Poor C. Average
B. Outstanding D. Above Average
16. The graphical presentation of the scores of Teacher Ace in TLE is represented by positively skewed
distribution. This means that___________.
A. The mean is less than the median.
B. The mean is greater that median.
C. The mean is equal to median.
D. The scores are normally distributed.
17. In the parlance of test construction, what does TOS mean?
A. Test of Specifics C. Table of Specification
B. Team of Specifications D. Table of Specific Item test
18. Given two sets of data:
Distribution A 8 12 15 16 18 19 23 25
Distribution B 12 13 15 17 18 20 21 25
Which statement best described both distribution of data?
A. The range of distribution A is 17.
B. The range of distribution B is 14.
C. The scores of distribution A is more spread out than the scores of distribution B.
D. The scores of distribution B is more spread out than the scores of distribution A.
19. Which of the following measures of variation easily affected by the extreme scores?
A. Range C. Variance
B. Inter-quartile range D. Standard Deviation
20. Teacher Roland gave a test in Chemistry. The facility index of item No. 10 is 82%. The best way to
describes item number 10 is ____________.
A. Moderately difficult item C. Very Difficult Item
B. Difficult item D. Very easy item
21. Teacher Daryl gave a test in Physics Item number 5 has a difficulty index of 0.85 and discrimination index
of -0.10. What should teacher Daryl do?
A. Retain the item
B. Make the item bonus
C. Reject the item
D. Reject it and make the item bonus
22. Paul John is one-half standard deviation below mean of his group in Science and one standard
deviation below English. What does this mean?
A. He did not excel both in Science and in English
B. He is better in Science than in English.
C. He does not excel in English nor in Science.
D. He is better in English than in Science
23. Which of the following statement is/are important in developing rubrics?
I. Description of each criteria to serve as standard
II. Very clear descriptions of performance in each level
III. Rating scale
IV. Mastery levels of achievement
A. I only C. I and II
B. I, II, III D. I, II, III,IV
24. What error committed by the teacher if he overate the performance of his students?
A. Ogical error C. Generosity error
B. Severity error D. central tendency error
25. Which of the following can measure awareness of values?
A. Rating scales C. Role Playing
B. Projective technique D. Moral dilemma
26. Teacher Manny conducted examination in his Filipino class. The difficulty index of a test tem number 15
is 1. What does this mean?
A. The test is very difficult C. the test item is quality item
B. The test is very easy D. Nobody got the item correctly
27. In his second item analysis. Teacher Vince found out that more from the upper group got the test item
#12 correctly. This means that the test item ________.
A. Has a negative discriminating power
B. Has a lower validity
C. Has a positive discriminating power
D. Has a high reliability
28. Which is the most reliable tool for seeking the development in your pupil’s ability to write?
A. Interview of pupils C. Scoring rubric
B. Self-assessment D. Portfolio assessment
29. The score distribution of the students of Teacher Ruel in Statistics test is a positively skewed distribution.
This means that______________.
A. The mean, the median and the mode are equal
B. Most of the scores are high
C. The mode is high
D. Most of the scores are below the mean
30. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group when we wre talking about projective personality
test?
A. Sentence completion C. Interview
B. Word association test D. Thematic Apperception Test
31. Teacher Kae wrote of Jiro: When Jiro came to class this afternoon, he seemed very tired and slouched
into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed to have no interest in what was being
discussed. This was very unusual for he has been eager to participate and often monopolizes the class
discussion. What teacher Kae wrote is an example of a/an_____.
A. Incidence report C. Personality report
B. Observation report D. Anecdotal Report
32. Counselor Gary shows the secrets of his counselee with other members of the faculty.
The counselor violates the principle of?
A. Secrecy C. Ethics
B. Confidentiality D. Promise
33. This is the pre-panned collection of sample of student works, assessed results and other output
produced by the students.
A. Diary C. Portfolio
B. Observation report d. Anecdotal Report
34. Teacher Crystal conducted a pretest before she will discuss chapter about “Liner equation” and most of
her students passed the pretest, what should teacher Crystal do?
A. Go on to the next unit
B. Go through the lesson quickly in order not to skip any.
C. Go through the unit as usual because it is part of the syllabus
D. Administer the post test.
35. Which much go with self-assessment for it to be effective?
A. Consensus of evaluation results from teacher and student
B. Scoring Rubric
C. External Monitor
D. Public Display of results o self-evaluation
36. Which of the following statement is NOT included in developing table of specification?
A. Decide the number of test item per content.
B. Decide the content areas to be included.
C. Decide the number of answer sheet needed.
D. Decide the competencies to measure in each content.
37. The main objective of testing in teaching is ______________.
A. To assess the effectiveness of the teaching method.
B. To assess the effectiveness of instruction and students learning.
C. To evaluate the performance to the teacher
D. To evaluate the instructional materials
38. The instructional objectives is very important in the test construction when they are stated in terms
of____________.
A. Learning activities C. student performance
B. Teacher activities D. general terms
39. Why should negative words be avoided in constructing multiple-choice test?
A. More difficult to construct C. it makes the stem longer
B. Increase the difficulty of the item D. it might be overlooked
40. Which of the following statement is an advantage of multiple-choice test items over essay questions?
A. Provides more extensive sampling of the content area.
B. Provides assessment of more complex learning outcomes.
C. It emphasizes more on the higher level of thinking skills.
D. Requires less time in preparing test items.
41. Teacher Emely wants establish the reliability of her test in English. Which of the following he will do?
I. Construct an easy test
II. Administer a parallel test
III. Split the test
IV. Develop a difficult test
A. I only C. IV only
B. II and III D. III and IV
42. Teacher JM gives 40-item test in Mathematics where the mean performance of the group is 35 and the
standard deviation is 4. Christopher obtained a score of 37. Which of the following best described his
performance?
A. Below average C. Above average
B. Average D. excellent
43. Teacher Mae conducted a test in Science, in her item 1 it is to be non discriminating. What can be said
about this item?
I. Teaching and learning is very effective
II. The item is very easy, all students got the correct answer.
III. The item is very difficult, only 4% go the correct answer.
A. I only C. I and II
B. II only D. II and III
44. All of the statements below are the best practices of preparing multiple choice test items EXCEPT.
A. Use the stem as short as possible.
B. Shorten the stem so that alternatives can be written longer.
C. Stem should be stated in positive form
D. Underline words or phrase in the stem that give emphasis.
Situation A. Study this group of test which was administered to a class to whom Ian belongs, then answer the
questions (45-47):
Situation B. Study the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on
the results of a try-out test in Science. The letter marked with an asterisk is the correct answer. (49-50)
Item No.1 A B* C D
Upper 27% 2 6 4 3
Lower 27% 5 4 2 4
ANSWER KEY
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. B
38. B
39. C
40. A
41. A
42. C
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. A
EDUCATIONAL TECHNOLOGY
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. C
21. A
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. A
ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. D
21. C
22. B
23. D
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. D
32. B
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. B
38. C
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. B
45. B
46. B
47. C
48. A
49. A
50. A