Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region VII, Central Visayas
DIVISION OF BOHOL
City of Tagbilaran

PRETEST/POSTTEST IN EARTH AND LIFE SCIENCE

GENERAL DIRECTIONS:
Read and analyze each item carefully. Each item has a corresponding set of circles on your Answer Sheet. Fill in circles completely
with black ink or pencil. Choose the best answer to each question.

1. Which of the following theories states that the universe has been present ever since, no beginning and no end, expanding
constantly, and the density of matter remains unchanged due to continuous creation of matter?
A. Big Bang Theory C. Pulsating Universe Theory
B. Light Theory D. Steady State Theory
2. Which of the following theories emphasizes that the space was entirely filled with matter, whirling around the sun like a vortex?
A. Laplace’s Theory C. Steady Theory
B. Nebular Hypothesis D. Theory of Vortices
3. Which of the following planets in the solar system can support life?
A. Earth C. Mercury
B. Jupiter D. Saturn
4. Which of the following Earth’s subsystems contains essential gases for humans and animals to breathe & survive?
A. Atmosphere C. Geosphere
B. Biosphere D. Hydrosphere
5. What planet in the solar system lies in the Kuiper Belt that is very small and only about half the width of the United States of
America?
A. Andromeda C. Ganymede
B. Ceres D. Pluto
6. Which of the following hypotheses developed by James Lovelock and Lynn Margulis postulates that the biosphere is a self-
regulating system and is capable of controlling its physical and chemical environment?
A. Biosphere Hypothesis C. Nebular Hypothesis
B. Gaia Hypothesis D. None of these
7. What Earth’s cover contains solid rocks and minerals that measures 40 km deep and divided into oceanic and continental?
A. Crust C. Mantle
B. Inner core D. Outer core
8. What is the second largest layer of the Earth that has a thickness of 2,200 km and composed of superheated liquid iron and nickel?
A. Crust C. Mantle
B. Inner core D. Outer core
9. Which of the following properties of common rock-forming minerals implies brilliance, sparkle, radiance and gloss?
A. Color C. Luster
B. Hardness D. Streak
10. Which of the following rocks derived from limestone and widely sourced from the province of Romblon?
A. Marble C. Sandstone
B. Quartzite D. Slate
11. Which of the following processes best describes the breakdown of rocks without changing its composition?
A. Carbonic Weathering C. Hydro Weathering
B. Chemical Weathering D. Physical Weathering
12. What driving force that gives water the energy to erode & carry away rock materials during erosion?
A. Energy C. Pressure
B. Gravity D. Wind
13. Which of the following refers to the downslope movement of bedrock & other debris caused by separation of a slope section along
a plane of least resistance or slip surface?
A. Creep C. Landslide
B. Earthflow D. Slump
14. Which of the following Earth’s internal source of heat comes from its early stages of formation?
A. Fossil fuel C. Primordial heat
B. Organic compounds D. Radioactive heat
15. Which statement about magma is correct?
A. Magma forms when rocks melt. C. Magma always comes from the lower mantle.
B. Magma never contains dissolved gases. D. Typical magma temperatures exceed 10,000 degrees Celsius
16. What does it indicate in increased number of small earthquakes on a fault indicate?
A. It is difficult to tell.
B. A strong earthquake is coming
C. another weak earthquake is coming
D. No more danger of having earthquake
17. What do you call the mineral particles in soil come from bits of rocks?
A. Parent material C. Subsoil
B. Plant food D. Topsoil
18. Which is not an intrusive rock type?
A. Andesite C. Gabbro
B. Diorite D. Granite
19. Which of the following stresses results to cracks in the crust?
A. Compression C. Tension
B. Shearing D. None of these
20. Which of the following statement is NOT True?
A. Continental crust is made of granite C. Continental crust is thicker than the oceanic crust
B. Continental crust is less than the oceanic crust D. Continental crust is younger than the oceanic crust
21. Which of the following best describes the continental drift t theory?
A. Fossils are formed everywhere C. Earth’s surface is broken to many pieces
B. Continents move over the ocean floor D. A new crust is formed over the ocean floor
22. What do you call the break in the rock where there is considerable movement on the fracture surface?
A. Fold C. Joint
B. Fault D. Convergent boundary
23. Which process continually adds new material to the ocean floor while pushing older rocks away from the ridge?
A. Continental crust formation C. Period of reverse magnetism
B. Period of normal magnetism D. Sea floor spreading
24. Which of the following best describes a flat, low-lying land adjacent to a seacoast?
A. Coastal plain C. Continental shelf
B. Continental break D. Continental slope
25. Which of the following processes occurs in most sedimentary rocks and in those igneous rocks formed at the surface of the Earth?
A. Erosion C. Stratification
B. Deposition D. Weathering
26. The following are the principles of relative dating, EXCEPT?
A. Law of Superposition C. Principle of Original Horizontality
B. Principle of Cross Cutting Relationship D. Principle of Reclusions
27. Which of the following would give an estimate of the actual age of rocks?
A. Absolute Dating C. Radiocarbon Dating
B. Index Fossil D. Relative Dating
28. Which of the following helps to match rocks at the same age?
A. Absolute Dating C. Radiocarbon Dating
B. Marker Fossils D. Relative Dating
29. Which of the following era represents 80% of the Earth’s history?
A. Cenozoic era C. Paleozoic era
B. Mesozoic era D. Precambrian era
30. Which of the following instruments used to measure earthquake?
A. Quake graph C. Seismograph
B. Quake meter D. Typanicgraph
31. Which of the following refers to the tremors that have occurred in Earth's crust?
A. Bed eruptions C. Volcanic eruptions
B. Earthquakes D. Volcano-Earth Quake
32. Which of the following is NOT a landslide mitigating practices?
A. Making the slope more manageable by dividing into several smaller and less steep slopes reinforced by retaining walls
B. Overlapping sheet piles driven into the ground to act as walls.
C. Filling an area with sediments and rocks for reclamation purposes
D. Use of plants and vegetables for slope stabilization
33. Which of the following is a human activity that triggers landslides?
A. Blasting C. Erosion.
B. Earthquakes D. Volcano
34. Which of the following prevent landslide by cultivating the sloppy region in which the roots provide effect?
A. Coherent C. Erosion
B. Cohesion D. Flood
35. Which processes of atmospheric, hydrological or oceanographic nature that may cause the loss of life or injury, property damage,
social and economic disruption or environmental degradation?
A. Biohazards C. Intertropical Convergence Zone
B. Hydrometeorological Hazards D. Tornado
36. Which refers to high resolution visual guide for flooding that indicates the areas that are most vulnerable to flooding by the
intensities of color?
 A. Flood Information Network C. Weather Hazard Information
B. Light Detection and Ranging D. Three-Dimension (3D) Hazard Map
37. The following are the “what to do” before, during and after the occurrence of the hydrometeorological hazard EXCEPT
A. Make a disaster plan.
B. Be calm when hazard strikes and carry out the disaster plan.
C. Continue practicing safety procedures even after the disaster.
D. Frequently listen to the radio to calm one self.
38. Which of the following coastal processes results as the wearing away of rocks at crust caused by the wave action and tidal wave
currents which dissolve chemicals in rocks?
A. Coastal Erosion C. Salt Intrusion
B. Coastal Movement D. Submersion of low coastal zone
39. Who are the first persons responsible in identifying the hazard areas in a coastal zone?
A. Barangay Officials C. Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
B. Department of Health D. Local Government Unit
40. Which is the practical way of maintaining natural topography of the coasts by planting trees, shrubs and grasses?
A. Beach Nourishment C. Coastal Revegetation
B. Building sand dunes D. Constructing groins and jetties.
41. Which of the following does NOT mitigate coastal processes?
A. Proper waste disposal
B. Construction of landfills
C. Regulated mining and quarrying
D. Construction works should be at a safe and acceptable distance from shoreline.
42. What is the estimated age of the Earth?
A. 2000 Years C. 4. 5 Billion Years
B. 10 Million Years D. 2 Quadrillion Years
43. How did Mller and Urey verify the Primordial Soup Theory?
A. They use a mixture of pure, dry, amino acids and subjected the mixture to heat to form protenoid microspheres.
B. They use a nucleic acid genome to transmit the genetic information and a lipid sac to let itself grow and divide.
C. They confined methane, ammonia, water, and hydrogen in a close system and applied continuous electrical sparks.
D. They stimulated the formation of organic molecules on the early earth using the energy from lightning to form amino
acids.
44. Which of the following statements best describes adaptation?
A. Interaction between living and non-living things
B. An organize group of related parts that interact to form as a whole.
C. Keeping things constant not just a characteristic of living things that applies to nature as a whole.
D. Process of changing to fit some purpose or adjustment to environmental condition.
45. In the light-independent reaction, which of the following compounds together with carbon dioxide are needed to form glucose?
A. Ribulose Biphosphate (RuBP) and Adenosine Triphospate (ATP)
B. Adenosine Triphospate (ATP) and Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide (FAD)
C. Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide (FAD) and Ribulose Biphosphate (RuBP)
D. Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide An H ions (NADPH) and Adenosine Triphospate (ATP)
46. Energy coming from the sun is the energy needed by plants to survive. Why?
A. The energy from the sun helps in the process of photosynthesis.
B. The energy from the sun comes naturally, therefore it is not harmful to the plant.
C. The energy from the sun can provide heat that is necessary for the plant to survive.
D. The energy from the sun contains minerals and nutrients needed for the survival of the plants.
47. How energy is transferred from the environment to the cells of organisms?
A. Sun →plant → consumers (where digestion occurs) → digested food enters the cell → energy is released with the
help of oxygen in the cell.
B. Sun → plants → consumers (where digestion occurs) → energy is released with the help of oxygen in the cell →
digested food enters the cells.
C. Sun → plants → digested food enters the cell → consumers (where digestion occurs) → energy is released with the
help of oxygen in the cell.
D. Sun → consumers (where digestion occurs) → plants → digested food enters the cell → energy is released with the
help of oxygen in the cell.
48. All of the following statements are not true, EXCEPT
A. Only animals undergo photosynthesis
B. Only plants undergo photosynthesis
C. Animals undergo photosynthesis in a certain condition.
D. Both animals and plants undergo the process of photosynthesis
49. Energy coming from the sun is the energy needed by plants to survive. Why?
A. The energy from the sun contains minerals for plant growth.
B. The energy from the sun helps in the process of photosynthesis.
C. The energy from the sun comes naturally, therefore it is not harmful to plant.
D. The energy from the sun can provide heat that is necessary for the plant to survive.
50. Which of the following types of pollination occurs when pollen grains are transferred to the stigma of a different plant?
A. Autogamy C. Germination
 B. Geitonogamy D. Xenogamy
51. In a flower, what most likely happens when pollen from the stamen gets into the ovary?
A. Plant dies C. Seed develops
B. Flower closes D. Sepals fall off
52. Sea stars and some echinoderms can reproduce by regeneration. What is regeneration?
A. An exact copy of its parent C. A parent and offspring is completely different.
B. When an animal develops from an egg D. A whole animal develops from a part of the original
53. Why is DNA important in the inheritance of trait?
A. It acts as an enzyme C. It regulates cell processes
B. It controls lipid synthesis D. It acts as a guide in creating proteins
54. If you engineer the gene producing a toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis into a tomato plant, what would be the resulting plant?
A. Plant cells of tomatoes will die.
B. Humans cannot eat the tomatoes.
C. Tomatoes will have bacillus infection
D. Tomatoes will be toxic to certain insects.
55. The following are uses of GMO’s
I. Agriculture: GM foods IV. Experimental medicine (gene therapy and vaccines)
II. Produced variety of goods V. Used in biological and medical research
III. Production of pharmaceutical drugs
A. Only I and II are correct C. Only I and IV are correct
B. Only I and III are correct D. All are correct
56. The following are disadvantages of genetically modified crops EXCEPT
A. Allergic reactions
B. High cost of GM seeds
C. Destruction of weed species
D. Reduced biodiversity of natural enemies
57. Which organ system that releases hormones for metabolic processes?
A. Cardiovascular system C. Endocrine glands
B. Digestive system D. Nervous system
58. Which of the following organ which serves as mouth and anus by some invertebrates animals?
A. Coelem C. Nematocyst
B. Gastrovascular cavity D. Spicules
59. Which process that maintains the internal condition of animals so that the body can work at optimum level?
A. Anabolism C. Homeostasis
B. Catabolism D. Metabolism
60. Which region in plants where growth in plants occurs?
A. Epidermis C. Ovules
B. Meristems D. Root cap and leaves
61. Hormones influence plant growth and development, which among the hormones promote cell division?
A. Auxins C. Ethylene
B.Cytokinins D. Gibberillins
62. It is evident that all organisms have DNA as their genetic material, which of the following statements is supported by this evidence?
A. Natural selection occurred
B. Genetic resistance rarely occurs
C. Organisms have adapted to their environment
D. All organisms descended from a common ancestor
63. What characteristics of living things that changes over time?
A. Evolution C. Humanization
B. Fossils D. Missing link
64. How does a cladogram help scientists classify organisms?
A. It indicates a common ancestor
B. It illustrates differences among organisms
C. It shows the complexity in structures among organisms
D. It shows the evolutionary relationships among the major divisions of organisms
65. When can an ecosystem diversity increases?
A. Latitude increases C. Ecosystem size increases
B. Species become extinct D. Humans change natural ecosystems
66. Which of the following organisms will have the highest biotic potential assuming that they are all found in the same environment?
A. Elephants C. Moths
B. Lions D. Zebras
67. Which explains why a particular species can better survive changing conditions in their habitats?
A. Their ability to adapt C. Their reproductive ability
B. The presence of food D. Their ability to obtain food

GOOD LUCK AND GOD BLESS US ALL

BIBACASIPI/DISELOLO SH TEACHERS
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