IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

1. A committee of 4 is to be formed from among 4. If f  z  has a pole of order n at z=a, then

4 girls and 5 boys. What is the probability Residue of function f (z) at a is
that the committee will have number of boys (A) Res f  a  

less than number of girls?

1  d n 1
 
 n 1  z  a  f  z  
 n !  dz
n 1

z  a

2
(A) (B) Res f  a  
9
(B)
4 1
 1!
n 
 d n 1
 dz
 
 n 1  z  a  f  z  
n 1

z  a

9
4 (C) Res f  a  
(C)
 d n 1
 

5 1
 n 1  z  a  f  z  
n

(D)
1  n !  dz z  a
6
(D) Res f  a  
Key: (A)
1
 n  1!
 d n 1
 
 n 1  z  a  f  z  
 dz
n

z  a

2. The solution of initial value problem: Key: (D)
u u
 2  u, where u  x, 0  6e3x is
x t 5. Consider following diagram: AC is a diameter
3x  t
(A) u  6e of the large circle and AB=BC.
(B) u  6e 
 2x  2t 

A B
(C) u  6e 
 3x  2t 

D 2
D 2
(D) u  6e 
 3x  2t 

Key: (C)

D C
3. Polar form of the Cauchy-Riemann equations
is The ratio of areas of the large circle to the
u v v u small circle of a square is
(A) r and  r
r  r  (A) 4 : 1
u 1 v v 1 u (B) 1 : 4
(B)  and 
r r  r r 
(C) 2 :1
u 1 v v u
(C)  and  r (D) 1 :2
r r  r 
Key: (C)
u v v 1 u
(D) r and 
r  r r 
6. Which term refers to a single person having
Key: (B)
authority to oversee all aspects of a product's
production scheduling, inventory, dislocation
and sales?

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1
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

(A) Project management Select the correct answer using the codes
(B) Product management given below:
(C) Commercial management (A) 2 and 3 only
(D) Venture management (B) 1 and 3 only
Key: (B) (C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
7. The lowest Eigen value of the 2 × 2 matrix Key: (D)
 4 2
1 3 is 10. Consider the following Repeat Unit Structure:
 
(A) 1 H H

(B) 2 C C
(C) 3 H CN
(D) 5 What is the above polymer ?
Key: (B) (A) Poly(amide-imide)
(B) Polyacrylonitrile
8. Consider the following statements: (C) Polybutadiene
1. Mobile cranes are sophisticated machines (D) Polyethylene
which are designed for lifting efficiently Key: (B)
2. Mobile cranes are a versatile and reliable
means of lifting on site 11. Which of the following measures is/are
Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct for using Mobile Equipment Working
(A) 1 only Platform (MEWP)?
(B) 2 only 1. Tyres are properly inflated and air filled
(C) Both 1 and 2 2. SWL to be marked in platforms as
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 identification for carrying loads
Key: (B (A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
9. Which of the following statements are correct (C) Both 1 and 2
for portable step-ladders? (D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Used on working platforms to gain height Key: (C)
above the protected edge
12. Ozone layer present in the atmosphere
2. Used in the fully opened position
protects life on earth by not permitting
3. Should be of a length that ensures a
harmful radiations present in the sunlight to
person's feet are not positioned any
penetrate through it. Ozone layer is formed
higher than the second top rung
by the reaction of

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2
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) on oxygen (A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(O2) (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) Chlorine (Cl) on oxygen (O2) (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) Solar Ultraviolet rays on Oxygen (O2) (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) Chlorine nitrate (ClNO3) on oxygen (O2) Key: (A)
Key: (C)
16. Consider the following statements:
13. The insert command is used in 'Auto CAD to 1. Greenfield Privatization or Incremental
insert Privatization denotes encouragement to
(A) Objects in the current life private sector in areas hitherto reserved
(B) Objects in any life for Public Enterprises
(C) Blocks in any drawing file 2. Cold Privatization refers to measures
(D) Blocks and wblocks in the current taken to distance Public Enterprises from
drawing the Government
Key: (D) Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
14. A cone resting on its base in horizontal plane (B) 2 only
(HP) is cut by a plane inclined to the axis and (C) Both 1 and 2
parallel to one of its generators, the sectional (D) Neither 1 nor 2
view will be Key: (A)
(A) Ellipse
(B) Parabola 17. Which of the following steps are involved in
(C) Hyperbola the product improvement cycle?
(D) Circle 1. Sell it in the market
Key: (B) 2. Determine quality of performance
3. Design the product based on customer
15. Consider the following components: needs
1. Knowledge of psychology 4. Test it in the laboratory
2. Knowledge of the theory of variation Select the correct answer using the codes
3. Knowledge of process given below:
4. Knowledge of the system and the theory (A) 1 and 3 only
of optimization (B) 2 and 4 only
Which of the above components comprise the (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
basis of Deming’s Systems of Profound (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Knowledge? Key: (D)

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3
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

18. Who is responsible for establishing, 21. Which one of the following is a viable
documenting and maintaining procedures for alternative to term-loans and are instruments
post-production handling functions such as for raising debt finance by large publicly
storage, packaging and delivery? traded firms?
(A) Production Manager (A) Shares
(B) Marketing Manager (B) Debentures
(C) Vendor (C) Asset loans
(D) Quality Supervisor (D) Gold loans
Key: (C) Key: (B)

22. Which one of the following makes the design,

19. A unit produces packing boxes. Out of hourly
assembly and operation of complex systems
production of 4,000 boxes, 20 were found to
feasible and practical?
be non-conforming. If the inspector randomly
(A) System Architecture
chooses a box from an hour's production, the
(B) Modularization
probability of it being non-conforming is
(C) Standardization
(A) 0.02
(D) Composition
(B) 0.10
Key: (B)
(C) 0.005
(D) 0.05 23. Which one of the following schedules shows
Key: (C) the specific activities necessary to complete
an activity or work package?
20. Which of the following are relevant factors (A) Project schedule
regarding quality in service sector? (B) Master schedule
1. Timeliness of service (C) Task schedule
2. Customer participation (D) Internal schedule
3. Company personnel motivation Key: (A)
4. Company culture
Select the correct answer using the codes 24. In stable ceramic crystal structure, a cation is
given below: surrounded by three anions in the form of a
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only planar equilateral triangle. The ratio of the
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only cation-anion radius for the crystal is nearly
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (A) 0.16
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 0.24
Key: (C) (C) 0.32
(D) 0.41
Key: (A)

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4
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

25. During tensile testing of a material, if cross- (A) 1 and 2 only

sectional area of the specimen is doubled, the (B) 1 and 3 only
load required to produce the same elongation (C) 2 and 3 only
shall be (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) Double Key: (D)
(B) Half
(C) Same 29. A state for ionic compounds wherein there is
(D) Four times the exact ratio of cations to anions as
Key: (A) predicted by the chemical formula is
(A) Electroneutrality
26. When two or more chemically different (B) Stoichiometry
monomers are polymerized to form a cross (C) Equiliometry
link polymer along with some byproduct such (D) Frankel defect
as water, the process is known as Key: (B)
(A) Crystallographic Polymerization
(B) Addition polymerization 30. The capacity of a material to absorb energy
(C) Copolymerization when it is deformed elastically and then, upon
(D) Condensation polymerization unloading, to have this energy recovered is
Key: (D) called
(A) Ductility
27. The number of atoms per unit length whose (B) Tensile strength
centres lie on the direction vector for a (C) Elasticity
specific crystallographic direction is called (D) Resilience
(A) Linear density Key: (D)
(B) Theoretical density
(C) Atomic density 31. In which one of the following phase
(D) Avogadro number transformations, there are no compositional
Key: (A) alternations?
(A) Incongruent transformations
28. Which of the following features of atoms (B) Congruent transformations
determine the degree to which the solute (C) Non-equilibrium transformations
atoms dissolve in the solvent atoms? (D) Equilibrium transformations
1. Atomic size factor Key: (B)
2. Crystal structure
3. Electronegativity

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5
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

32. In a simple cubic structure, atomic power 36. The Pre-echo PE distortions in audio signal
factor is nearly represents the
(A) 0.9 (A) Theoretical limit on compressibility of
(B) 0.7 particular signals
(C) 0.5 (B) Imaginary components of a signal
(D) 0.3 (C) Critical band analysis of a signal
Key: (C) (D) Histogram of the signals
Key: (A)
33. Which of the following are the advantages of
coding audiovisual objects? 37. In a computer network, a point-to-point
1. It allows interaction with the content transmission, with one sender and one
2. It improves reusability and coding the receiver is called
content (A) Unicasting
3. It allows content-based scalability (B) Multicasing
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) Broadcasting
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) Internetworking
(C) 2 and 3 only Key: (A)
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Key: (D) 38. The Protocol (http), the DNS name of the
host, and the file name is identified through
34. The transmission of real-time streams across (A) Uniform Resource Locator
networks uses Bandwidth Allocation (B) Web Browser
Mechanism (BAM), which is based on (C) Web Server
(A) Stream peak rate (D) IP address
(B) Bucket rate Key: (A)
(C) Token bucket depth
(D) Packet size 39. The traditional way to handle forms and other
Key: (D) interactive Web pages is a system called
(A) Graphical User Interface
35. The quality of service provided in a computer (B) Common Gateway Interface
network is (C) Text Based User Interface
(A) Presentation layer issue (D) Command Line Interface
(B) Session layer issue Key: (A)
(C) Network layer issue
(D) Data link layer issue
Key: (D)

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6
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

40. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) which encrypts 44. Consider the following statements regarding
the data by using a block cipher is used in ‘Engineering Ethics’
(A) FTP security 1. It is the activity of understanding moral
(B) e-mail security values
(C) Browser security 2. It resolves the moral issues and justifies
(D) Bluetooth security moral judgments
Key: (B) 3. It would refer to the set of specifically
moral problems and issues related to
41. The core elements of high-level programming Engineering.
languages are Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) Keywords, Expression and Punctuation (A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Functions, Keywords and Operators (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) Keywords, Operators and Punctuation (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) Functions, Expressions and Operators (D) 2 and 3 only
Key: (B) Key: (D)

42. The philosophical study of beliefs and 45. A situation where very high prices are
knowledge is better known as charged from customers for a limited period
(A) Ontology of time is known as
(B) Epistemology (A) Gouging
(C) Entomology (B) Zipping
(D) Etymology (B) Bamboozing
Key: (B) (D) Hoodwinking
Key: (A)
43. One branch of ethical philosophy claims that
is possible to know right from wrong or good 46. Consider the following steps for an individual
from bad in a very clear and objective regarding preparation for disclosure of
manner, is called unethical behavior:
(A) Non-Cognitivism 1. Study and document the facts and
(B) Ethical Pluralism formulate a plan for an appeal
(C) Cognitivism 2. Take up the matter with higher
(D) Utilitarianism management
Key: (B) 3. Discuss the matter with immediate
supervisor
4. If the internal appeal does not resolve the
conflict, then he should notify the

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7
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

company that he intends to continue with 3. Competence

an external review of the problem. 4. Discretion-care with communications
What is the correct sequence of order of the Select the correct answer using the codes
above steps? given below:
(A) 2, 3, 1 and 4 (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3, 2, 4 and 1 (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 only
Key: (B) Key: (A)

47. Which of the following are the attributes of a 49. When should whistle blowing be attempted?
profession? 1. There must be a clear and great harm that
1. The work requires sophisticated skills, can be avoided
use of judgment and exercise of 2. The whistleblower must be in a clear
discretion position to report on the problem
2. Membership in the profession does not 3. The whistleblower must have a
require extensive formal education as reasonable chance of success in stopping
well as practical training the harmful activity
3. There are set standards for admission to 4. The whistleblower feels that all other
the profession and conduct for members lines of action within the context of the
4. Significant public good results from organization have been explored and shut
practice of the profession. off
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only
Key: (C) Key: (B)

48. What are the core qualities of a professional 50. Which of the following are the salient features
practitioner? of the patent Act 1970?
1. Integrity both with themselves and with 1. It codifies inventors which are not
others patentable
2. Independent to be free of secondary 2. It provides for endorsement of patent
interests with other parties with the words ‘license of right’

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8
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

3. It provides for revocations of patents in 51. Statement. (I): All projects have constraints
public interest or limitations that inhibit their ability to reach
4. It has provision for validity period also goals and objectives.
for the patents Statement (II): Time and money are
Select the correct answer using the codes universal constraints m projects.
given below: Key: (A)
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only 52. Statement (I): Training should be conducted
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only among the line and low management for
(D) 2 and 3 only ensuring the importance of environmental
Key: (A) protection plan.
Statement (II): Environmental science is a
Directions: developing subject and the people
Each of the next Ten (10) items consists implementing environment strategies should
of two statements, one labelled as the remain up to date with the environmen-
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement tal control processes.
(II)’. Key: (A)
You are to examine these two statements
carefully and select the answers to these items 53. Statement (I): Metals having same
using the codes given below: crystal structure will have greater solubility.
Codes: Statement (II): Differences in crystal
(A) Both, Statement (I) and Statement (II) structure limits the solid solubility.
are individually true and Statement (II) Key: (A)
is the correct explanation of Statement
(I) 54. Statement (I): The tie line is constructed
(B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) across the two-phase region at the temperature
are individually true but Statement (II) of the alloy.
is not the correct explanation of Statement (II): The overall alloy
Statement (I) composition is located on the tie line.
(C) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is Key: (B)
false
(D) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is 55. Statement (I): Cross linked polymers may
true be synthesized in which side-branch chains
are connected to the main ones.

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9
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

Statement (II): Linear polymers are 59. Statement (I): Agency-loyalty is acting to
those in which the repeat units are joined fulfill one’s contractual duties to an employer.
together end to end in single chains. Statement (II): Agency-loyalty is entirely a
Key: (B) matter of actions, whatever its motives.
Key: (C)
56. Statement (I): Abrasive ceramics are
used to wear, grind, or cut away other 60. Statement (I): An EIA is a study of the
material, which necessarily is softer. probable changes in socio-economic and bio
Statement (II): The prime requisite for physical characteristics of the environment
abrasive ceramic group of materials is that may result from a proposed action.
hardness or wear resistance and a high degree Statement (II): The purposes of an EIA is to
of toughness is essential to ensure that the help design projects, which do not disturb the
abrasive particles do not easily fracture. quality of the environment by examining
Key: (D) alternatives.
Key: (B)
57. Statement (I): The prevention cost increase
with the introduction of a quality system and 61. Which one of the following is not a
may be a significant proportion of the total component of ‘Capital Receipts’?
quality costs. (A) Market borrowing including special
Statement (II): Costs associated with bonds
education and training are not included in (B) External loans raised by the Central
prevention costs. government from abroad
Key: (D) (C) Receipts from taxes on property and
capital transactions
58. Statement (I): An emulator is not a mixture (D) Provident Funds (State Provident Funds
of hardware and software and it cannot be and Publics Provident Fund)
used to test and debug the hardware and Key: (C)
software of an external system.
Statement (II): Part of the hardware of an 62. Which one of the following statement is
emulator is multiwire cable which connects correct with respect to the ‘societal
the host system to the system being development’?
developed. (A) Behaviour grows into habits, .habits into
Key: (D) tradition and 'tradition he comes custom
(B) Customs grow into mores and mores
grow into custom

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10
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

(C) Behaviours grow into customs and (A) Public issues through prospectus method
customs grow into traditions (B) Offer for sale method
(D) Folkways grow into tradition and (C) Rights issue
traditions grow into customs (D) Subscription by inside coterie method
Key: (A) Key: (C)

63. Which one of the following statements is 66. ‘Fiscal policy’ means
correct with respect to ‘the convergence (A) Balancing the revenue between and
theory’ on social change? expenditure
(A) The societal adaptive culture is changing (B) Establishing equilibrium between demand
more slowly and supply of goods and services
(B) As societies become modernized, they (C) Use of taxation, public borrowing and
begin to resemble one another more public expenditure by Government for
closely purposes of ‘stabilization’ or ‘development’
(C) The developed countries shows more (D) Deficiency as an instrument of growth
growth in social changes than the less Key: (C)
developed countries
(D) Strong opposition by old people retards 67. Which of the following come under the
the social change offerings of ‘MUDRA’ Bank?
Key: (B) 1. Portfolio Credit Guarantee
2. Credit for large industries
64. With respect to the conduct and performance 3. MUDRA Card
of a company, ‘perfect competition’ refers to 4. Credit Enhancement
(A) Large numbers of small firms producing Select the correct answer using the codes
differentiated products given below:
(B) Complete freedom in economic life and (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
absence of rivalry among firms (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) Many companies selling similar products (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
with free entry (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) Sole producer selling a distinct product Key: (B)
Key: (B)
68. Which of the following is/are the key reasons
65. The cheapest method of marketing of for encouraging start up Entrepreneurship?
securities with the only cost incurred being on 1. Innovations
sending ‘letters of rights’ to existing holders is 2. Focusing on service industry

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11
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

3. Bringing the values of proactively into 71. A student purchases some books for Rs. 1600.
the society If he had bought 8 more books for the same
Select the correct answer using the codes amount, each book would cost Rs 10 less. The
given below: number of books he buys is
(A) 1 only (A) 30
(B) 2 only
(B) 32
(C) 1 and 3 only
(C) 34
(D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 36
Key: (D)
Key: (B)
69. Which of the following are the main
objectivities of Gold Monetization Scheme 72. A hemisphere depression is cut out from one
launched in the country? face of the cubical wooden block such that the
1. To monetize gold holdings in the country radius ‘r’ of the hemisphere is equal to half of
2. To increase export of gold from the the edge of the cube. What will be the surface
country area of the remaining solid?
3. To reduce India’s import bill (A) 2r 2    24
(B) r 2    24
4. To meet the targets of reduction in fiscal

(C) 2r 2    36
deficit
Select the correct answer using the codes
(D) r 2    36
given below:
Key: (B)
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only 73. A rod of length is to be divided into two
(C) 2 and 3 only parts, such that if 5 times the smaller portion
(D) 1 and 3 only
is added to half of the larger portion, it will
Key: (A)
always be less than . This can be achieved
70. A person travelled by car 70 km towards north by taking length of the larger portion more
to A then covered 30 km turning left to B. than
Again he turned towards left and travelled 110 9
(A)
km to C. Then the cycled at the rate of 10 10
km/hour towards the starting point. The time 7
(B)
8
taken by him to reach the starting point from
6
C will be (C)
7
(A) 3 hours 5
(D)
(B) 5 hours 6
(C) 7 hours Key: (A)
(D) 21 hours
Key: (B)

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12
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

74. Which of the following conditions hold good (C) 60 cm

for a train which crosses the bridge of length (D) 70 cm
in time t1 and crosses another bridge of Key: (A)

length in time t 2 ?
2 77. A man sold a chair and a table together for Rs.
t1 7,600, thereby making a profit of 25% on the
1. t2 
2 chair and 10% on the table. By selling them
2. 2t 2  t1
together for Rs. 7,500 he would make a profit
t
3. t2  1 of 10% on the chair and 20% on the table.
2
Then the cost price of chair and table will be
4. Speed of train is if t1  t 2  5
10 (A) Rs. 3000 and Rs. 4000
Select the correct answer using the codes
(B) Rs. 3500 and Rs. 4000
given below:
(C) Rs. 3000 and Rs. 3500
(A) 1 and 4 only
(D) Rs. 3500 and Rs.3500
(B) 2 and 4 only
Key: (C)
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
78. In two concentric circles, a chord length 80
Key: (A)
cm of larger circle becomes a tangent to the
smaller circle whose radius is 9 cm. The
75. A tourist covers half of his journey by train at
radius of the larger circle will be
60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30
(A) 13 cm
km/h and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h.
(B) 41 cm
Average speed of the tourist during the
(C) 52 cm
journey is
(D) 75 cm
(A) 36 km/h
Key: (B)
(B) 33 km/h
(C) 24 km/h
79. Professional who breach the ‘duty of care’ are
(D) 18 km/h
liable for injuries their negligence causes.
Key: (C)
This liability is commonly referred to as

76. In a lake, the tip of a bud of lotus is seen 10 (A) Professional offense

cm above the surface of water. Forced by the (B) Professional negligence

wind, it gradually moved, and just submerged (C) Professional misdeed

at a distance of 30cm. The depth of water at (D) Professional malpractice

the root of the lotus plant will be Key: (B)

(A) 40 cm
(B) 50 cm

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13
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

80. Information used in a business, generally 83. What is the break-even sale for the following
unknown to the public, that the company has products?
taken strong measures to keep confidential is Products
called A B C
(A) A patient Sales (Units) 5,000 6,000 4,000
(B) A copyright Unit selling price
10 15 18
(Rs.)
(C) A trade secret Unit variable price
6 4 13
(D) A trade mark (Rs.)
Fixed cost of the product is (Rs. 20, 000)
Key: (C)
(A) Rs. 90,000
81. Which one of the following tests can be (B) Rs. 80,000
resorted to in order to check the structural (C) Rs. 60,000
soundness conformance to the specified (D) Rs. 40,000
standards, when all other tests fail? Key: (A)
(A) Destructive
(B) Non-destructive 84. Which of the following approaches are correct
(C) Full scale load regarding total quality?
(D) Masonry 1. Opportunity to improve
Key: (C) 2. Adoption requires little change
3. React to competitive threats
82. Which of the following are the sources of Select the correct answer using the codes
variation in quality control process in given below.
construction? (A) 1 and 2 only
1. Material (B) 1 and 3 only
2. Operator (C) 2 and 3 only

3. Inspection activity (D) 1, 2 and 3

Key: (D)
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
85. Which of the following are constraints to the
(A) 1, 2 and 3
use of TQM in construction process?
(B) 1 and 2 only
1. A transient labour force
(C) 1 and 3 only
2. The construction process is
(D) 2 and 3 only
relatively short in duration
Key: (A) 3. Hierarchical and vertical
organization structure
4. The construction process has not focused
on the detailed needs of the customer

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14
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

Select the correct answer using the codes 89. Which one of the following is a terrestrial
given below. type of ecosystem?
(A) 1 and 4 only (A) Limnetic
(B) 2 and 3 only (B) Estuary
(C) 1 and 2 only (C) Prairie
(D) 3 and 4 only
(D) Reefs
Key: (A)
Key: (C)

86. BOD of a waste water sample is estimated to

90. What are the limitations of solar energy?
be 180 mg/1. Assuming 4 mg/1 BOD can be
1. Collecting solar energy over large areas
consumed in the BOD bottle, the volume of
and converting it to other forms that can
undiluted sample to be added to a 300 ml
be conveniently transported, stored and
bottle is nearly
used in existing equipment is not
(A) 6.7 ml
economical
(B) 5.6 ml
2. Low density of solar energy as compared
(C) 4.4 ml
to coal, oil and gas
(D) 3.3 ml
3. Its major applications are photo thermal
Key: (A)
conversion, solar water heating, green
housing technology and photo voltaic
87. Venturi scrubber, a device used to remove
conversion
particulate matter from the atmosphere, works
Select the correct answer using the codes
on the principle of
given below:
(A) Settling by gravitational force
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Removal by centrifugal force
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) Removal by electrically charged
(C) 1 and 3 only
particles
(D) 2 and 3 only
(D) Removal by atomized water
Key: (B)
vapour
Key: (D)
91. Acid rain results when gaseous emissions of

88. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is

sulfur oxides SOx  and nitrogen oxides

aimed to help  NOx  interact with water vapour and

(A) Moonlight, and are chemically converted
(A) Estimate future needs of the society
to strong acidic compounds such as
(B) Smooth implementation of a project
sulfuric acid  H2SO4  and nitric acid
(C) Cope with rapid increase in population
 HNO3 
(D) Resource conservation
Key: (B)
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15
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

(B) Sunlight, and are chemically (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

converted to strong acidic (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
compounds such as sulfuric acid (C) 1, 3 and 4 only

 H2SO4  and nitric acid  HNO3  (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Key: (A)
(C) Moonlight, and are chemically
converted to weak acidic
94. Consider the following data for a domestic
compounds such as sulfuric acid
biogas plant:
 H2SO4  and nitric acid  HNO3 
Number of cows = 5
(D) Sunlight, and are chemically
Retention time = 20 days
converted to weak acidic
Temperature = 30°C
compounds such as sulfuric acid
Dry matter consumed = 2 kg/day
 H2SO4  and nitric acid  HNO3  Biogas yield = 0.24 m3 kg
Key: (B)
Efficiency of burner = 60%
Methane proportion = 0.8
92. The ‘Minamata Tragedy’ was caused by the
Heat of combustion of Methane  28MJ m3
eating of fish growing in the Minamata Bay
contaminated with Density of dry material in fluid  50 kg m 3
(A) Peroxy alylnitrate The power available from the digester will be
(B) Methyl isocyanate nearly
(C) Potassium cyanide (A) 16.2 MJ day
(D) Methylmercury
(B) 24.3MJ day
Key: (D)
(C) 32.3MJ day

(D) 48.6MJ day

93. What are the advantages of Biomass as a
source of energy? Key: (C)

1. Its storage and transportation is

possible 95. The best tool to ensure that there is neither

2. It is ecologically safe and is piling up of stocks nor shortage of materials in

inoffensive a project to run it economically is

3. Can be developed with present (A) Economic order quantity

man and material abilities (B) ABC Analysis

4. Low capital input required (C) Inventory Control and

Select the correct answer using the codes Management

given below: (D) Gantt Chart Method

Key: (A)

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16
 IES Paper-I [Set-C] |General Studies|

96. A machine is expected to generate cash saving 99. In progress of a project, the percentage of
(after-tax) of Rs. 50,000 per annum over a error will be less in
period of 5 years. Salvage value of machine is (A) Definitive cost estimate
40% of the original cost. If accounting rate of (B) Detailed estimate
return is 20%, cost of two such machines will be (C) Preliminary estimate
(A) Rs. 78,125 (D) Study estimate
(B) Rs.1,56,250 Key: (B)
(C) Rs. 3,12,500
(D) Rs. 6,25,000 100. In principle, the network should not be made
Key: (B) complex. No control system, for that matter,
can operate unless it is kept simple. This
97. It is expected to receive Rs. 5,000 annually for principle is called
3 years with each receipt occurring at the end (A) CPM
of the year. With a discount rate of 10%, the (B) PERT
present value of the annuity will be nearly (C) KISS
(A) Rs. 12,435 (D) GERT
(B) Rs. 9,945 Key: (C)
(C) Rs. 4,975
(D) Rs. 2,487
Key: (D)

98. In a project life cycle, the maximum

percentage of effort is done in
(A) Concept phase
(B) Definition phase
(C) Planning and organizing phase
(D) Implementation phase
Key: (D)

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17