NTSE

National Talent Search Examination

NTSE Important Information

Sample Paper
 INDEX

Topic Page No
 About NTSE 2
 Scheme 2
 Medium 2
 Stage 2-3
 Paper Pattern 3
 Eligibility 3-4
 Reservation Criteria 4
 NTSE Highlights 4
 Important Dates 5
 Exam Pattern 5
 Minimum Qualifying Marks 5
 Scholarships to NTSE 5
 Quota Allotted For State/UTs 6
 Contact Details 7
 Sample Paper & Solutions 8-41

1
 National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
NTSE: The purpose of the scheme was to identify talented students and nurture their talent.
The scheme, therefore, covers areas like Sciences, Social Sciences, Engineering, Medicine,
Management and Law. It honors and helps talented students by providing financial assistance
in the form of a monthly scholarship.
For the courses in Basic Sciences, Social Sciences and Commerce, this assistance is provided
up to Ph.D. level. For professional courses like Engineering, Medicine, Management and Law
this assistance is given only up to Post Graduation.

Present Scheme: 15% scholarships will be reserved for students belonging to the SC, 7.5
for ST category, and 4% for Physically Challenged Group of Students.

Medium: The tests will be available in the following languages: Asamiya, Bangla,
English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.

The candidate has to mention his option regarding the language in which he/she want to
take the test in the application form. Accordingly, the question booklet in that language shall
be made available to the candidate at the centre. After exercising this option, no request for
the change of medium will be entertained.

Stage: There are Two stages in NTSE. Stage - 1 and Stage – 2.

Students need to qualify both the stages of examination for achieving award of this prestigious
scholarship scheme.
The first stage of NTSE is the state level examination which has two parts

 Part – I : Mental Ability Test (MAT)

 Part – II : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) (with questions on History, Civics, Geography,
Economics, Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.)

The Second stage of NTSE selection at the national level is carried out by the NCERT.

2
Syllabus: Available on the NCERT website www.ncert.nic.in

Eligibility Criteria:
For Stage 1 -

 Candidates must be an Indian national.

 Class X students can also apply for Stage 1.
 A minimum of 60% marks Class IX is required. SC, ST and PH candidates will need 55%
marks in Class IX.
 Candidate must be studying in a recognized school in their respective State or Union
Territory.
 Those who are registered in Open Distance Learning (ODL) program will also be
considered eligible if they are below 18 years of age (as on July 1, 2018) and are not
employed when they appear for Class X exam.

For Stage 2 –

 Candidates will need 80% marks or above in the State level exam, to be considered
eligible.

 Every student who secures the minimum required marks in Stage II will be eligible for
the scholarship program.

NTSE Reservation Criteria:

1. 15% for students belonging to SC category.

2. 7.5% for students belonging to ST category.
3. 4% for Physically Challenged group of students, with benchmark disabilities of which
– 1% each will be reserved for persons with benchmark disabilities under clauses –

 Blindness and low vision

 Deaf and hard of hearing
 Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack
victims and muscular dystrophy.

3
NTSE Highlights:

Conducting Body NCERT (National Council of Education Research and Training)

Mode of Exam Offline

Medium of Exam English and Hindi

Duration of Exam 120 Minutes ( For each part)

Type of Questions Objective Type Questions

Sections 2 (Mental Ability Test and Scholastic Ability Test)

NTSE Important Dates:

Event Date

Second week of September

NTSE Application Forms for Stage 1
Month
NTSE Stage 1 Admit Card October Month
NTSE Stage 1 Exam Dates
Examination in Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Andaman
November (1st Saturday)
and Nicobar Island
Examination in all other States and Union Territories except
November (1st Sunday)
West Bengal
West Bengal November (2nd Sunday)

NTSE Stage 2 Exam Date May (2nd Sunday)

NTSE Exam Pattern: There are two stages in NTSE. Stage - 1 and Stage – 2.
Students need to qualify both the stages of examination for achieving award of this prestigious
scholarship scheme.
The first stage of NTSE is the state level examination which has two parts

 Part – I : Mental Ability Test (MAT)

 Part – II : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) (with questions on History, Civics, Geography,
Economics, Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.)

The Second stage of NTSE selection at the national level is carried out by the NCERT.

4
Paper Pattern:

NTSE Stage-I
No. of No. of Duration
Paper Test Subject
Question Marks (in min)
Paper - 1 Mental Ability Test (MAT) Mental Ability 100 100 120
Maths 20
Physics 13
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Paper - 2 Chemistry 13 100 120
(SAT)
Biology 14
Social Science 40
Qualifying Marks: Qualifying marks for candidates from SC /ST / PH category
is 32% in each paper and for others (General / OBC) categories it is 40% each
paper.
No Negative Marking

Section No of Questions No. of Marks Time Duration

MAT 100 100 120 Minutes

Stage 1
SAT 100 100 120 Minutes

MAT 100 100 120 Minutes

Stage 2
SAT 100 100 120 Minutes

NTSE Minimum Qualifying Marks:

Category Cut off

General 40

OBC 40

SC 32

ST 32

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Rates of Scholarship:
The rates of scholarship at different stages are given as under:

S.No Stage Scholarship

1 Higher Secondary level Rs. 1250/- p.m.

2 Graduate and Post Graduate Rs. 2000/- p.m.

3 For Ph.D. degree (four years) As per UGC norms

6
QUOTA ALLOTTED FOR STATES/UTs (2018-2019 & 2019-2020)

S.No. States/UTs Quota*

Andaman & Nicobar Islands 20
Andhra Pradesh 263
Arunachal Pradesh 50
Assam 202
Bihar 691
Chandigarh 20
Chhattisgarh 195
Dadra & Nagar Haveli 20
Daman & Diu 20
Delhi 153
Goa 50
Gujarat 360
Haryana 186
Himachal Pradesh 51
Jammu & Kashmir 64
Jharkhand 142
Karnataka 371
Kerala 220
Lakshadweep 20
Madhya Pradesh 530
Maharashtra 774
Manipur 50
Meghalaya 50
Mizoram 50
Nagaland 50
Odisha 259
Puducherry 20
Punjab 183
Rajasthan 485
Sikkim 50
Tamil Nadu 466
Telangana 216
Tripura 50
Uttar Pradesh 1408
Uttarakhand 79
West Bengal 569
TOTAL 8387

Quota is revised after every three years

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Contact Details:

For NTS National Level Examination Inquiry:

Phone No: 011-26560464 (Timings 2.30 PM to 4.30 PM only)

E-mail : ntsexam.ncert@gov.in

For State Level NTS Examination Enquiry : Contact the Liaison Officer of your State

For NTS Scholarship disbursement Inquiry:

Phone No : 011-26562704, 011-26567401, 011-26567402(Timings 2.30 PM to

4.30 PM only)
E-mail : scholarship.nts@gov.in

For Nurturance programme for NTS Awardees:

E-mail : nurturance.nts@gov.in

8
 Pre-foundation Career Care Programmes (PCCP) Division

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (NTSE)

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

CLASS –X
MENTAL APTITUDE TEST (MAT)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE

Time: 2 Hrs. Max. Marks: 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. The question paper contains 100 questions. Each carries one mark.
2. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.

INVIGILATOR
 MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
Straight Objective
This section contains 100 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

1. How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'HORIZON' which have as many letters between them in
the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) More than three

2. If the first and second letters in the word ‘COMMUNICATIONS’ were interchanged, also the third and the
fourth letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which letter would be the tenth letter counting from your
right ?
(A) N (B) A (C) T (D) U

3. If RESCUE is coded as SDTBVD then EROSION would be ?

(A) FSPTJMO (B) FQPRJNO (C) DSRPHPM (D) FQPRJPM

Directions : (4) The capital letters in each of the following words are coded and written in small letters on the
right side of each word. But these letters are not in order. Find out the codes for letters and answer the
questions.
Column I Column II
PROBLEM grcatsd
ROMAN cftxs
LAME fgat
BOLD gcdz

4. What is the code for letter A ?

(A) t (B) g (C) f (D) a

Direction : (5 to 7) Find the missing term.

5. 512, 64, 16, 8, 8, 16, ?
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 64

6. BASTU, ?, DCUVW, EDVWX, FEWXY, GFXYZ

(A) CBTUT (B) CBRUV (C) CBTUV (D) BCTVU

7. ?, fdb, ljh, rpn

(A) ywv (B) ayv (C) zxv (D) lzx

Direction : (8) Find the wrong term.

8. 2, 3, 6, 16, 42, 123

(A) 6 (B)16 (C) 42 (D) 123

Directions : (9 to 10) Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will
complete the given letter series ?

9. a–baa–aa––ab
(A) a a a a (B) b a a a (C) b b a a (D) a b b a

10. –aabb–a–ab–b
(A) b b a a (B) b a b a (C) b a a b (D) a b a b
Direction (11 to 12) Find the missing number.

11.

(A) 169 (B) 168 (C) 85 (D) 706

1 7 6
12. 3 3 ?
5 4 8
35 74 104
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

13. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘–’, then what will be the value of
16 ÷ 64 – 4 × 4 + 3 = ?
(A) 20 (B) 52 (C) 12 (D) None of these

Direction : (14) In the following questions, which of the following interchanges of sign/signs would make the
following equation correct ?

14. 6×4–8=6÷3
(A) – and × (B) × and ÷ (C) – and ÷ (D) = and ×

15. Rakesh Started from his house, walked 4 km towards East, then 3 km towards North then 6 km towards
South. How far away from his house was he then ?
(A) 2 kms (B) 3 kms (C) 4 kms (D) 5 kms

16. A man is facing South. He turns 135º in the anticlockwise direction and then 180º in the clockwise
direction. Which direction is he facing now ?
(A) North-East (B) North-West (C) South-East (D) South-West

Directions : (17 to 19) Six girls are sitting in a circle. Sonia is sitting opposite to Radhika. Poonam is sitting right
of Radhika but left of Deepti. Monika is sitting left of Radhika. Kamini is sitting right of Sonia and left of
Monika. Now Deepti and Kamini, Monika and Radhika mutually exchange their positions.

17. Who will be opposite to Sonia ?

(A) Radhika (B) Monika (C) Kamini (D) Sonia

18. Who will be sitting left of Kamini ?

(A) Poonam (B) Deepti (C) Radhika (D) Sonia

19. Who will be sitting left of Deepti ?

(A) Sonia (B) Monika (C) Radhika (D) Poonam

20. The positions of how many digits in the number 423157698 will remain unchanged after the digits within
the number are arranged in ascending order ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

21. There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. A is shorter than B but taller then E, C is tallest, D is little shorter
than B and little taller than A. If they are standing in the order of their heights who will be in the middle ?
(A) D (B) C (C) A (D) B
22. Pointing to a man in the photograph a woman says, 'He is the son of my brother's grandfather's only son".
How is the man related to the woman ?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father (D) Brother in law

23. If A is B's brother, B is C's sister and C is D's father then D is A's.
(A) Brother (B) Sister (C) Nephew (D) Data inadequate

Directions : (24 to 26) Three brothers are married to three sisters. The brothers are Bhimsingh, Ramsingh and
Mansingh. The sisters are Aparna, Bharti and Chandra.
I. Chandra is the only sister having short hair.
II. One of the sisters, who is a dancer, lives in Kolkata.
III. Bhimsingh’s wife is not a dancer.
IV. The sister with short hair does not like to write letters.
V. Aparna rings her dancer sister every Saturday.
VI. The only sister who does not like to write letters lives in New Delhi.
VII. Chandra receives a letter from kolkata once a week.
VIII. Ramsingh is married to the dancer.
IX. The sister in Mumbai is married to Mansingh.

24. Who is the dancer ?

(A) Aparna (B) Bharti (C) Chandra (D) Cannot be determined

25. Which sister lives in Mumbai ?

(A) Aparna (B) Bharti (C) Chandra (D) None of these

26. Who is chandra’s husband ?

(A) Bhimsingh (B) Ramsingh (C) Mansingh (D) None of these

Directions : (27 to 28) Which of the Venn diagrams given in the alternatives best represents the relation between
the given objects ?

27. Animals, Cows, Grass-eating animals

(A) (B) (C) (D)

28. Mammals, Tigers, Cows

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (29 to 30) : In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

29. Statements : All aeroplane are trains. Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions : I. Some aeroplane are chairs. II. Some chairs are aeroplane.
III. Some chairs are trains. IV. Some trains are aeroplane.

(A) None follows (B) Only I and II follow

(C) Only II and III follow (D) Only III and IV follow

30. Statements : Some bottles are drinks. All drinks are cups.
Conclusions : I. Some bottles are cups. II. Some cups are drinks.
III. All drinks are bottles. IV. All cups are drinks.
 (A) Only I and II follow (B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II and IV follow (D) Only III and IV follow

31. ‘Eye’ is to ‘See’ in the same way as ‘Ear’ is to

(A) Ring (B) Sound (C) Hear (D) Smell

Direction (32) : Find the group of letters in the place of ‘?’

32. EGIK : HJLN : : SUWY : ?

(A) VXZB (B) VXBZ (C) VBXZ (D) VZXB

Direction : (33 to 34) Find the odd one.

33. (A) Silk (B) Milk (C) Leather (D) Rubber

34. (A) 7 (B) 15 (C) 24 (D) 35

35. If on 14th day after 5th March be Wednesday, what day of the week will fall on 10th December. of the
same year ?

(A) Friday (B) Wednesday (C) Thursday (D) Tuesday

36. If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow ?

(A) Friday (B) Thursday (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday

37. The number opposite to 3 is

6 5 3 2
3 1 2 4 5 1 3 6
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

Direction (38) : Choose the dice from the options that will unfold to give the figure (x).

C
A B
38.
F
D E
(X)

A D A
C E B A B C
(a) (c) (d)

(A) d only (B) b and d only (C) a and c only (D) c only

39. how many cubes are there in the diagram?

(A) 64 (B) 72 (C) 80 (D) 88

40. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 16 minutes past 12?
(A) 88º (B) 86º (C) 84º (D) 87º

41. What is the number of triangles in this figure ?

(A) 12 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 24

42. How many quadrilateral there in the following figure ?

(A) 11 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 4

Directions : (43) In each of the following quetions, you are given a combination of letters or group of numbers
followed by four alternatives (A) (B) (C) and (D). Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the
mirror image of the given combination.

Position of Mirror like This

43. 1 9 5 6 I N D O PA K
(A) A O I (B) P A K I N D O 19 6 5
(C) K A O D N I5 6 9 1 (D) A O I
Direction : (44) In the following questions, you have to visualize the image of the item Letter/word/number/figure)
in the water. The water source is below the item. Choose the water image from the alternatives.

44.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Direction (45) : Find the next figure in the given figure series.

45. Problem figures

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Answer figure
Answer figures

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Direction (46): Find the figure in the place of ‘?’

46.
: :: :?
 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (47) : Find the odd figure out.

47.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Direction : (48) The question shows a sheet of paper when folded and then cut like the fig. X, Y, Z. On unfolding
the sheet, the sheet will appear like which alternative.

48. X Y Z

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (49) In the following question, complete the missing portion of the given pettern by selecting from
the given alternatives.

49.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Direction (50): Find the figure in which the figure (x) is embedded.

50.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

51. Arrange the given words in the order they occur in dictionary.

1. SIGN 2.SOLID 3. SCENE 4. SIMPLE

(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

52. If in a code language REMOTE is coded as ROTEME, which word would be coded as PNIICC?

(A) PNIICC (B) PICCNI (C) PINCIC (D) PICNIC

53. If CLOTH is called GOLD and GOLD is called PAPER and PAPER is called CAKE, then JEWELLERY
would be made up of?

(A) Gold (B) Cloth (C) Cake (D) Paper

Direction (54 to 57) : Find the missing term

54. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, ?

(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 36 (D) 37

55. 1, 4, 27, 16, 125, 36, ?

(A) 216 (B) 343 (C) 64 (D) 49

56. AD, EH, IL, ?, QT

(A) LM (B) MN (C) MP (D) OM

57. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?

(A) Y17O (B) X17M (C) X17O (D) X16O

Directions : (58 to 59) Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will complete the
given letter series ?

58. ab _ b _ ba _ a _ ab

(A) abba (B) abab (C) baab (D) aabb

59. a–ab–ba–a–ab

(A) babb (B) abba (C) baba (D) aabb

Direction : (60 to 61) Find the missing term.

3 4 3
5 7 5
60. 39 51 ?
6 5 5
3 4 4
(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 45 (D) 47

4 9 9 16 16 ?
61.

6 12 20
(A) 60 (B) 50 (C) 21 (D) 25

62. If ‘@’ means ‘×’, ‘  ’ means ‘÷’, ‘$’ means ‘+’ and ‘<’ means ‘–’, then what will be the value of
78  13 $ 6 @ 4 < 30 =?

(A) 16 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) None of these

Directions : (63) Correct the following equations by interchanging two signs :

63. 4 × 2 + 6 ÷ 2 – 12 = 2

(A) ÷ and × (B) + and – (C) × and + (D) ÷ and –

64. Vijayan started walking towards South. After walking 15 metres, he turned to the left and walked 15
metres. He again turned to his left and walked 15 metres. How far is he from his original position and in
which direction ?

(A) 15 metres, North (B) 15 metres, South (C) 30 metres, East (D) None of these

65. Rahim started from Point X and walked straight 5 km. West, then turned left and walked straight 2 km.
and again turned left and walked straight 7 km. In which direction is he from the point X ?

(A) North-East (B) South-West (C) South-East (D) North-West

Direction: (66 to 67): Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below
(i) A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a circle facing towards the centre.
(ii) C is next to the left of E.
(iii) A is exactly between D and E.

66. Who is next to the left of C ?

(A) E (B) A (C) D (D) B

67. Who is next to the left of D ?

(A) E (B) B (C) A (D) D

68. How many 9's are there in the following number series which are immediately preceded by 3 and
followed by 6 ?

39693939396363956956939639

(A) Nil (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4

69. Bittoo is 14th in a queue which has 60 people. The number of gents in the queue is double the number of
ladies. If 5 men are infront of Bittoo , how many ladies are behind him ?

(A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 9

70. Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, “His mother is the only daughter of your father. “How is Neha
related to that person ?

(A) Aunt (B) Mother (C) Daughter (D) Wife

71. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’. ‘P – Q means P is the mother of Q and ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the
sister of Q’. Which of the following means that M is the maternal uncle of R ?

(A) M – R + K (B) M + K – R (C) M + K × Q (D) None of these

Directions : (72 to 73) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it by selecting
the correct option from the given alternatives.

Five students K, L, M, N and O study in a class of these

(i) K and L Read Newspaper and Magzine
(ii) M and L Read Newspaper and Diary
 (iii) N and K Read Novel and Magzine
(iv) O and L Read Story and Fiction
(v) O and N Read Magzine and Diary

72. Who read newspaper, magzine, novel ?

(A) O (B) N (C) L (D) K

73. Who read magazine, diary,story, fiction?

(A) O & L (B) N & O (C) K & L (D) M & O

74. In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, square represents sports-persons and circle represents
coaches. Which portion of the figure represents girls who are sports persons but not coaches ?

A
F
BC
E
D
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

75. Which one of the following four logical diagrams represents correctly the relationship between Vegetable,
Apple, Spinach.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (76 to 77) : In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(A) if only conclusion I follows
(B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow.

76. Statements : No magazine is cap. All caps are cameras.

Conclusions : I. No camera is magazine. II. Some cameras are magazines.

77. Statements : All cars are cats. All fans are cats.
Conclusions : I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.

Directions (78) : In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by three or four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

78. Statements : All politicians are honest. All honest are fair.
Conclusions : I. Some honest are politician. II. No honest is politician.
III. Some fair are politician. IV. All fair are politician.

(A) None follows (B) Only I follows

(C) Only I and II follow (D) Only I and III follow
79. ‘Braille’ is related to ‘Blindness’ in the same way as ‘Sign language’ is related to

(A) Exceptional (B) Touch (C) Deafness (D) Presentation

Directions (80) : Two groups of letters to the left side of the sign :: are associated with each other
following same rule. You have to select one group of letters from the given alternative that will
replace the sign : and form the same associationship with the group given to the right of sign ::

80. 01 : 08 : : 16 : ?
(A) 25 (B) 125 (C) 64 (D) 27

Directions : (81) Choose the odd numerical pair/group in each of the following questions.

81. (A) 4 -4 (B) 9 - 3 (C) 6 - 2 (D) 7 – 3

82. Which of the following is not a leap year ?

(A) 896 (B) 1900 (C) 1224 (D) 2000

83. If Sripal’s birthday falls on Thursday 20th March, 2000, then on which day of the week his birthday falls in
the year 2001 ?

(A) Wednesday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday

84. Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface to the symbol ‘x’ ?

÷
= O
(i) (ii)

(A) ÷ (B) = (C) (D) O

85. Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice given below ?

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) Can’t be determined

Directions : (86) A cube is coloured red on all faces.It is then cut into 64 smaller pieces.

86. How many smaller cubes are uncoloured on all the faces ?

(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 16 (D) 10

87. How many times are the hands of a clocks are perpendicular to each other from 1 : 00 pm to 4 : 00 pm ?

(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4

88. How many triangles does the following figure contain ?

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 10

Direction : (89) Find the mirror image.

89.
(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Direction : (90) Find the water image

90. VAYU8436

(A) (B) 4 (C) VAYU8436 (D)

Directions : (91) A sheet has been folded in the manner as shown in X, Y and Z respectively and punched.
You have to choose from the alternatives how it will look when unfolded.

91.

X Y Z
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (92) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which the
question figure (X) is embedded.

92.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (93) : In each of the following, there are some figure which have some particular series. Find out the
next figure ?

93.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

94. Which figure should come on place of ‘?’

?
1 2 3 4

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (95 to 96) : In each of the following questions there is a specific relationship between the first and
second figure. The same relationship exists between the third and fourth figure which will replace the
question mark. Select the correct term from the alternatives given.

95.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

96.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (97 to 98) : Find the odd figure out.

97.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

98.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

99. A man is facing East. He turns 180º in the clockwise direction and then 45º in the anticlockwise direction.
Which direction is he facing now ?

(A) North-East (B) North-West (C) South-East (D) South-West

Directions : (100) Each question below contains three groups of things. You are to choose from the
following five numbered diagrams, the diagram that depicts the correct relationship among the
three groups of things in each question.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

100. Zinc, Copper, Iron

 Pre-foundation Career Care Programmes (PCCP) Division

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (NTSE)

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

CLASS –X

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

Time: 120 Min. Max. Marks: 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Questions from Science (1-40),
20 Questions from Mathematics (41-60), 40 Question from Social Science
(61-100), each carries one mark.

2. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.
 SCIENCE
Straight Objective
This section contains 40 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. When the path of current, starting from one terminal of cell, ends at the other terminal of the cell is broken
at some point, then such a circuit is called :
(A) closed or complete circuit (B) open or incomplete circuit
(C) either (A) or (B) (D) none of these

2. The south pole of the earth’s magnetic field points to the:

(A) magnetic north (B) geographic South
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct (D) geographic North

3. R.. of glass w.r.t. air is 3 , then the R.. of air w.r.t. glass is–
2
2 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 3
3 4 3
4. An object is moving with constant velocity of 10 m/s upto 10s then its acceleration is :
(A) 1 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 10 m/s2 (D) Zero

5. The resistance of a conductor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so the heating effects in the
conductor will become :
(A) half (B) one-fourth (C) double (D) four times

6. The device used for producing current is called :

(A) Galvanometer (B) Generator (C) Ammeter (D) Voltmeter

7. Energy available from the oceans is :

(A) OTE (B) Sea-waves energy (C) Tidal energy (D) All of the above

8. When a wave travels from one medium to another, the quantity which will not change is its :
(A) frequency (B) velocity (C) amplitude (D) intensity

9. When a bus starts suddenly the passengers standing on it, lean backwards in the bus. This is an example
of :
(A)Newton’s third law (B) Newton’s second law
(C) Newton’s first law (D) none of Newton’s law

10. Law of gravitation is applicable for :

(A) heavy bodies only (B) medium sized bodies only
(C) small sized bodies only (D) bodies of any size

11. A cyclist comes to a skidding stop in 10 m. During this process, the force on the cycle due to the road is
200 N and is directly opposite to the motion. The work done by road on cycle will be:
(A) – 2500 J (B) – 2000 J (C) 2000 J (D) – 250 J

12. Near point of an eye, suffering from long-sightedness is :

(A) 25 cm (B) Less than 25 cm (C) At infinity (D) Greater than 25 cm
13. The distance between two consecutive compressions is 1.4 m. The wavelength of the wave is
(A) 2.8 m (B) 0.7 m (C)1.4 m (D) 4.2 m

14. Boiling point of a substance -

(A) Decreases with decreasing the pressure (B) Decreases with increasing the pressure
(C) Increases with decreasing the pressure (D) All of these

15. AgNO3 (aq.) + NaCl (aq.)  AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq.) Above reaction is a
(A) Precipitation reaction (B) Double displacement reaction
(C) Combination reaction (D) (A) and (B) both

16. For which of the following species, Bohr theory does not apply ?
(A) H (B) H+ (C) He+ (D) Li+2
17. The difference between ions and atoms is of -
(A) Relative size (B) Configuration (C) presence of charge (D) All of these

18. Which of the following statement is not correct about true Solution?
(A) It can pass through filter paper
(B) It is homogeneous in nature
(C) At constant temperature, particles of solute settle down.
(D) From a true solution, the solute can easily be recovered by evaporation or crystallisation

19. Which of the following aqueous solutions has highest pH value?

(A) Sodium chloride (B) Potassium carbonate
(C) Copper sulphate (D) Ammonium chloride

20. An element X contains 2 electrons in its outermost orbit, while Y contains 6 electrons in its outermost
orbit. Which of the following bond will be formed between X and Y ?
(A) Coordinate bond (B) Covalent bond (C) Electrovalent bond (D) None of these

21. Methane is insoluble in -

(A) Ether (B) Water (C) Alcohol (D) Carbon tetrachloride

22. Empirical formula of oxalic acid is -

(A) C2H4O2 (B) C2H4O (C) CH2O (D) CHO2

23. Which of the following sets does not belong to a group?

(A) Li, Na, K (B) N, O, F (C) Be, Mg, Ca (D) He, Ne, Ar

24. Which of the following sample contains the maximum number of atoms -
(A) 1 mg of C4H10 (B) 1 mg of N2 (C) 1 mg of Na (D) 1 mL of water

25. While moving in a period from left to right –

(A) Atomic size decreases (B) Nuclear charge increases
(C) I.E. increases (D) All of the above

26. In fire extinguishers, the reaction between sodium bicarbonate and sulphuric acid gives the gas –
(A) Hydrogen (B) Chlorine (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Oxygen.

27. Aleuroplst stores -

(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C) Fat (D) All

28. Which one of the following is a fluid connective tissue ?

(A) Areolar tissue (B) Cartilage (C) Blood (D) Ligaments

29. Which of the following is an example of Insectivorous plant -
(A) Cuscuta (B) Rafflesia (C) Drosera (D) Tulsi

30. Vermicomposting involves

 (A) leech (B) cockroach (C) earthworm (D) roundworm

31. Planaria is kept in which group –

(A) Coelentrata (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Nematoda (D) Annelida

32. Which of the following gases makes the most stable combination with the haemoglobin of red blood cells?
(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) O2 (D) N2

33. How many chambers are present in human heart ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

34. The deficiency of vitamin D causes

(A) beri-beri (B) rickets (C) anaemia (D) goitre

35. Lichens indicate pollution by :

(A) O3 (B) SO2 (C) NO2 (D) CO

36. Excess bile pigments in urine indicate :

(A) Anaemia (B) Diabetes insipidus (C) Jaundice (D) All of these

37. Ethylene is a
(A) solid hormone (B) gaseous enzyme (C) gaseous hormone (D) liquid gas mixture

38. Menopause is the stage in female when

(A) Menstruation starts (B) Puberty
(C) Reproduction capacity arrested (D) Ovaries enlarges

39. What is the seientific name of 'Man' ?

(A) Adam Adam (B) Canis familiaris (C) Adam domesticus (D) Homosapiens

40. Physical appearance of an individual is called

(A) Phenotype (B) Genotype (C) Monohybrid cross (D) None of these

MATHEMATICS

Straight Objective
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. The figure shows a rectangle ABCD with a semi-circle and a circle inscribed inside it as shown. What is
the ratio of the area of the circle to that of the semi-circle ?
B

D C

(A)  2  1
2

(B) 2 2  1 
2
(C)  2  1 / 2
2
(D) None of these

42. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting at least one head.

1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
4 2 4
43. P(x, y), A(3, 4) and B(5, – 2) are the vertices of triangle PAB such that |PA| = |PB| and area of the PAB
= 10 sq. units, then PA = k 5 units. Find k.

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7

44. If px + qy = 2, qx – py = 3 and x2 + y2 =1, the value of p2 + q2 is :

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 15

3 6 9
45. The ascending order of the surds 2, 3, 4 is
9 6 3 9 3 6 3
(A) 4, 3, 2 (B) 4 , 2, 3 (C) 2, 6 3 , 9 4 (D) 6
3, 9 4, 3 2

46. What are the remaining two zeroes of the polynomial x4 – 5x3 + 2x2 + 10x – 8, if two of its zeroes are 2
and  2 .
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and – 4 (C) – 1 and – 4 (D) – 1 and 4

47. The value of ‘a’ for which the lines x = 1, y = 2 and a2x + 2y – 20 = 0 are concurrent is
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) –1 (D) –2

48. Find the least positive value of k for which the equation x2 + kx + 4 = 0 has real roots.
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

49. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle and BC is diameter the value of x is.
c

o
x
36º
A

B
(A) 36º (B) 18º (C) 54º (D) 68º

50. In the given figure O is the center of the circle & pentagon ABCDE, AB = BC = CD = DE = AE. The value
of x is
E

x D
A

B C

(A) 36° (B) 54° (C) 72° (D) 108°

1
51. The ratio of areas of two similar triangles is 2 : 1. If the perimeter of large triangle is 36 cm, then find
4
the perimeter of smaller triangle.
(A) 16 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 24 cm

5xº 7xº
52. A quadrilateral ABCD has four angles xº, 2xº, and respectively. What is the difference between
2 2
the value of biggest and the smallest angles.
(A) 40º (B) 100º (C) 80º (D) 20º

53. Find the value of x : sin 2x = sin 60º cos 30º – cos 60º sin 30º.
(A) 60° (B) 45° (C) 30° (D) 15°
54. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is 30º. After walking 200 m
towards the tower, the angle of elevation becomes 60º. The height of the tower is

(A) 100 3 m (B) 200 3 m (C) 100 m (D) 200 m

55. If 9, a, b, – 6 are in Arithmetic progression, then a + b =

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 3

56. A right circular cone is cut by two planes parallel to the base and trisecting the altitude. What is the ratio
of the volumes of the three parts : top, middle, bottom respectively :
(A) 1 : 7 : 19 (B) 1 : 2 : 3 (C) 1 : 8 : 27 (D) 1 : 7 : 18

57. In the given diagram, PQ and RS are common tangents to the two circles with centres C and D. Find the
area of trapezium RSDC.
Q
P
13cm D
C
4cm 9cm
S
(A) 84 cm2 (B) 68 cm2 (C) 92 cm2 (D) 78 cm2

58. When the positive integer n is divided by 6 leave the remainder 4. Find the remainder when n2is divided
by 6.
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) B and C both

59. The mean of 20 numbers is 43. If 6 is subtracted from each of the numbers, what will be the new mean?
(A) 37 (B) 50 (C) 43 (D) 40

60. The perimeter of a triangle is :

(A) greater than the sum of its altitudes (B) less than the sum of its altitudes
(C) equal to the sum of its altitudes (D) none of these
 SOCIAL SCIENCE

Straight Objective
This section contains 40 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Match the following and choose the answer form the codes given below:
Column I Column II
A) Dietrich Brandis i) A rebel of Java against Dutch rule
B) Bhondia Majhi ii) First Inspector General of Indian forest
C) Gunda Dhar iii) A rebel of Bastar rebellion in India
D) Surontiko Samin iv) A leader of Dhurws tribe in Chhatisgarh
(A) A –ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (B) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (C) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (D) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

62. The Great Depression in Germany gave Nazism a new Lease of Life because
(A) during the Great Depression Nazi propaganda stirred hopes of better future among people.
(B) Nazi party earned huge fortunes in election.
(C) Hitler became a force to reckon with.
(D) Nazis were favoured by the people of Germany.

63. Read the statement in I and its explanations in II. Choose the correct answers from the options given
below:
I. Dhangars is a pastrol community of Maharastra, which was welcomed by Konkani peasants during the
monsoon.
II. Konkani peasants welcomed them because Dhangars’ cattle ate away stubble from the soil and they
supplied rice to them in turn.
(A) I and II are correct and II is correct explanation of I
(B) I is right II is wrong
(C) I is right but II is not the correct explanation of I
(D) I is wrong II is right

64. The socialist ideology lay emphasis on

(A) private ownership. (B) monarchical government.
(C) property controlled by society. (D) democratic government.

65. The theory that tries to make awareness of women’s rights and interests based on the belief of the social,
economic and political equality of the genders is known as
(A) Humanism (B) Feminism (C) Post modernism (D) Culturalism

66. Role of women in the Vietnamese movement is considered important because

(A) Women came out as warriors.
(B) Women supported their husbands and sons emotionally.
(C) Women remained as good housewives.
(D) Most of the nationalist leaders were women.

67. ‘Vande Mataram’ as hymn to the motherland was written by

(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore. (B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Abanindranath Tagore. (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
68. In America, the mines of silver have been found in
(A) Columbia and Sao Gabile. (B) Hawaii and Alaska.
(C) Panama and San Francisco. (D) Peru and Mexico.

69. The elections are considered essential for democracy because of

(A) influence of political parties (B) role of independent candidates
(C) people’s participation (D) dominance of malpractices.

70. Which of the following two problems were faced by cotton weavers in India?
(A) Short supply and decline in demand
(B) Decline in production and rise in cost
(C) Export market collapsed and local market shrank
(D) Company officials’ treatment and governments’ apathy

71. Which one of the following is a correct explanation of the view given by Andrew Mearns on child labour in
London?
(A) They were pushed into low-paid work by their parents.
(B) They had to do hard labour.
(C) Many of them wanted to become petty criminals or thieves instead of labourers.
(D) Many children revolted against their conditions.

72. The term, ‘Vellum’ refers to the

(A) paper made from wood (B) parchment made from the skin of animals
(C) parchment made of leaves (D) wood-pulp material

73. Theme of Emile Zola’s novel Germinal is

(A) life of peasants in France (B) life of workers in France
(C) life of a young miner in France (D) life of children in railways

74. Match the following:

State Neighbouring Country
A. Uttaranchal i. Myanmar
B. Rajasthan ii. Pakistan
C. Meghalaya iii. China
D. Nagaland iv. Bangladesh
(A) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (B) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (C) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (D) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

75. An appropriate reason to the fact that in Tibet, Brahmaputra does not create devastation by floods is that it
(A) carries large volume of water.
(B) carries smaller volume of water and less silt.
(C) is very cold in this region and it remains frozen most of the year.
(D) is very small stream in this area.

76. ‘October-heat’ is due to

(A) very low temperature. (B) high temperature and humid conditions.
(C) low pressure over Andaman Sea. (D) widespread rain.

77. Natural vegetation grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by the humans for a
long time is called as
(A) endemic vegetation. (B) virgin vegetation.
(C) flora. (D) endangered.
78. The census describes
(A) only counts of number of people.
(B) only migration in states.
(C) holistic approach towards counting, professions, economic and social conditions of people.
(D) only deaths in a population of country.

79. Another name for shifting agriculture in north-eastern states like Assam is
(A) Jhumming cultivation. (B) Commercial farming.
(C) Plantation agriculture. (D) Pisciculture.

80. State of forest report fails to deliver accurate information about actual loss of natural forest because it does
not differentiate between plantation and
(A) protected forest. (B) unclassed forest. (C) reserved forest. (D) natural forest.

81. The common factor among cotton textile industry, sugar industry and jute industry is that all are
(A) mineral-based industries. (B) agro-based industries.
(C) information technology industries. (D) privately owned industries.

82. Another name for the National Highway No. 1 is __________.

(A) Mahatma Gandhi Marg (B) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(C) Golden Quadrilateral (D) Jawaharlal Nehru road

83. Off-shore drilling is

(A) drilling in the shallow sea. (B) drilling in the deep sea.
(C) drilling in the land area. (D) drilling in the mountain region.

84. Ploughing along the places of same elevation is known as

(A) terrace farming. (B) strip cropping. (C) contour ploughing (D) plantation farming.

85. Water in atmosphere is recharged through which one of the following process ?
(A) Carbon cycle (B) Nitrogen cycle (C) Hydrological cycle (D) Hydrogen cycle

86. Pakistan under General Musharraf should not be called a democracy because
(A) army officials are elected by the people.
(B) elected representatives are not the real rulers.
(C) real power is with the army officials.
(D) people have direct control over the government.

87. The office of the chief election commissioner has been created by the
(A) Union Government. (B) Law passed by the Parliament.
(C) Constitution. (D) Order of the Cabinet.
88. “Indira Sawhnay and others vs Union of India’’ case was related to the
(A) Centre and state relations (B) Reservations of OBCs
(C) Electoral Reforms (D) Economic Policies

89. The freedom that is not available to Indian citizens is

(A) freedom to criticize the government. (B) participate in armed rebellion.
(C) practice any religion. (D) freedom to form associations.

90. The role played by the ‘pressure groups’ in politics is to

(A) influence policies and decisions. (B) launch political struggles.
(C) finance and mobilize political parties . (D) organize armed struggle.

91. Mark the correct statement

(A) Gandhiji advocated the cause of violence.
(B) Human rights groups create problems for religious minorities.
(C) Communalism is unhealthy for the society and country.
(D) Status of women has deteriorated over the years.

92. The main concern of the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) is

(A) cultural nationalism. (B) support to SCs and OBCs.
(C) higher posts for natural born citizens. (D) full territorial recognition of Jammu and Kashmir.

93. Match the list (I) and (II)

List I List II
A.South Africa 1. Suu Kyi
B.Pakistan 2.Nkrumah
C.Myanmar 3.Musharraf
D.Ghana 4.Mbeki
(A) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (B) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 (C) A-2, B-3; C-4; D-1 (D) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

94. Large population can be turned into a productive asset through

(A) industrialisation. (B) urbanisation.
(C) education and health for all. (D) migration of people to urban areas.

95. Environmental degradation and fall in the water level, threatening the sustainability of the agricultural
development in some states is due to
(A) intensive utilization of water in cultivation of wheat.
(B) intensive utilization of water in cultivation of rice.
(C) intensive utilization of water in cultivation of cotton.
(D) intensive utilization of water in cultivation of jute.

96. The Human Development Report ranks countries on the following basis:
(A) Income, health and education (B) Income, health and death rate
(C) Income, population and education (D) Infant mortality rate, health and education
97. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of
(A) employment conditions. (B) the nature of economic activity.
(C) ownership of enterprises. (D) members of workers employed in the firm.

98. Paper notes and coins are accepted as a medium of exchange because they are
(A) light in weight. (B) easy to carry.
(C) authorised by the government. (D) issued by the Resrve Bank of India.

99. Companies that own and control production in more than one country are called
(A) Multiple National Companies (B) Multiple Nation Companies
(C) Multi National Corporations (D) Multiple Nation Corporations

100. What is the full form of BSI?

(A) Bureau of Investigation (B) Bureau of Indian Standards
(C) Bureau of Indian Statistics (D) Bureau of International Standards
 ®

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

MAT Answer-key
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D A B C D C C B D D B B A C D
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D B A A D A A D B A A C D D A
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C A D A B C C A B A C A D D D
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B A D A B B D D B B C C D A B
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. D B A D C D C B A B B D A B D
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. C C D C B D B B D C A C B C D
Ques. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. A D D B A B A B D B

1. HORIZON
HN, NO, NR, OR

3. R E S C U E

S D T B V D
+1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1

512 64 16 8
5. = 64, = 16, = 8, = 8,
8 4 2 1
8 × 2 = 16,
16 × 4 = 64

1 1 1 1 1
6. B  C  D  E  F  G
1 1 1 1 1
A  B  C  D  E  F
1 1 1 1 1
S  T  U  V  W  X
1 1 1 1 1
T  U  V  W  X  Y
1 1 1 1 1
U  V  W  X  Y  Z
 6 6 6
7. Z   F   L   R
6 6 6
X   D   J   P
6 6 6
V   B   H   N

8. 2, 3, 6, 16, 42, 123

2×3–3=3
3×3–3=6
6 × 3 – 3 = 15
15 × 3 – 3 = 42
42 × 3 – 3 = 123

9. aab, aab, aab, aab

10. aaa, bbb, aaa, bbb

11. (5 + 4)2 –1 = 80, (2 + 8)2 –1, (7 + 1)2 – 1, (7 + 6)2 –1

12. 12 + 32 + 52 = 34, 72 + 32 + 42 = 74
62 + x2 + 82 = 104

13. 16 + 64 ÷ 4 – 4 × 3 =
16 + 16 – 12
32 – 12 = 20

14. 6×4÷8=6–3
1
6× =3
2
3=3

15.
4
3
5

Poonam Radhika

(17-19) Deepti Monika

Sohan Kamini
20. 4 2 3 1 5 7 6 9 8

21. E<A<D<B<C

22. +

Woman man

23.
+ – +
A B C

Aaeroplane

29. Train
Chair

Bottles

30. Drinks

Cups

E G I K : H J L N S U W Y : V X Z B
32. +3 +3
+3 +3
+3 +3
+3 +3

52. R E M O T E P N I I C C

R O T E M E P I C N I C
54. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, ?

12 +1 22 –1 32 +1 42 –1 52 +1 62 – 1

55. 1, 4, 27, 16, 125, 36, ?


13 22 33 42 53 62 72

56. A D E H, I L, M P, QT
+4 +4
+4 +4

57. P 3 C , R 5 F, T 8 I, V 12 L, ?

+2 +2 +2
+3 +3 +3
2 2 2 2
P  R  T  V  X
2 3 4 5
3  5  8  12  17
3 3 3 3
C  F    L  O

58. aba bab aba bab

59. ab ab ab ab ab ab

60. (6 × 5) + (3 × 3) = 39
(5 × 7) + (4 × 4) = 51
(5 × 5) + (3 × 4) = 37

61. 4 = 22 9 = 32 / 16 = 42 25 = 52
6 = 2× 3 20 = 4 × 5

62. 78 ÷ 13 + 6 × 4 – 30
6 + 24 – 30 = 0

63. By interchanging ÷ and ×

4 2 + 6 × 2 – 12 = 2
2 + 12 – 12 = 2
14 – 12 = 2
2=2

15 M East

15 M 15 M
64.

15 M
 5 X

65.
2

7
D

66-67. B A

C E

68. 39693939396363956939639

13
14
69. Bittoo
Gents Ladies
5 8

Neha
70.

Rohit

71.
News
Magzine Diary Novel Story Fiction
Paper
K X X X
L X
M X X X X
N X X X
O X X

Magzine Cap

76.
Camera
 Cars

77.
Cats Fan

Politician

78.
Honest

Fair

80. 01 : 08 : : 16 : 125

12 23 42 53
 ®

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

SAT Answer-key
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B D A D C B D A C D B D C A D
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B D C B C B D B D D C A C C C
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B B C B B C C C D A D C A C A
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. A B B B B D B D A D A D C A A
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. A A A C B A B D C C A B C B B
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. B B C A D B B B C C C C B B A
Ques. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. C C D C B A C C C B

41. If the radius of the semi circle is R and that of the circle is r, then from the figure given below
B

D C
E
2R

EB = R 2 = R + r + r 2
r 2 1
 = = 32 2
R 2 1
So, the ratio of circle to the semi-circle is
2
r 2 r
 2
= 2  = 2 3  2 2
R
 
2

= 2 17  12 2 . 
R
2

42. S = {HH, HT, TH, TT }

3
Req. probability =
4
43. We have given |PA| = |PB|
P(x, y)

A(3, 4) B(5, –2)

 PA2 = PB2
 (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = (x – 5)2 + (y + 2)2
 x2 – 6x + 9 + y2 – 8y + 16 = x2 – 10x + 25 + y2 + 4y + 4
 4x – 12y = 4
 x – 3y = 1 ………(i)
1
area of PAB = |x (4 + 2) + 3(– 2 – y) + 5(y – 4)|
2
1
 10 = |6x – 6 – 3y + 5y – 20 |
2
 20 = | 6x + 2y – 26 |
 6x + 2y – 26 = 20 or 6x + 2y – 26 = – 20.
 6x + 2y = 46 or 6x + 2y = 6
3x + y = 23 ……….(ii)
or 3x + y = 3 ……….(iii)
Solving (1) and (2), we get
x = 7, y = 2
and solving (1) and (3), we get
x = 1, y = 0
 Coordinate of P is (7, 2) and (1, 0)
Length of PA = ( 7  3 )2  ( 2  4 )2 = 16  4 = 2 5
 2 5 = k 5  k = 2.

44. px + qy = 2
squaring on both side
p2x2 + q2y2 + 2pqxy = 4 ... (1)
qx – py = 3
q2x2 + p2y2 – 2pqxy = 9 ... (2)
Add (1) and (2)
(p2 + q2) (x2 + y2) = 13
(p2 + q2) (1) = 13  p2 + q2 = 13

47. Since x = 1, y =2 and a2x + 2y – 20 = 0 are concurrent i.e. x = 1, y = 2 lie on a2x + 2y – 20 = 0

So x = 1, y = 2 is a solution of given equation
 a2.1 + 2.2 – 20 = 0 a2 – 16 = 0
 a2 = 16 a = –4, 4

48. x2 + kx + 4 = 0 has real roots.

 D0
 k2 – 4·4·1  0
 k2 – 16  0
 k2  16. Least positive value satisfying this is 4.

1
49. BCA =  36° = 18° 
2
OCA = OAC = 18° = x
51. Let perimeter of smaller triangle is x cm
If  are similar ratio of area = (ratio of perimeter)2
1
2 2
4 =  36  x = 24 cm.
1  x 
52. Sum of all angle of quadrilateral = 360
5xº 7xº
 xº + 2xº + + = 360º
2 2
2x  4xº 5xº 7xº
 = 360º
2
18x
 = 360º
2
360
 x= × 2 = 40
18
Angles will be 40º , 80º , 100º , 140º
Difference b/w biggest and the smallest angle = 140º – 40º = 100°.

3 3 1 1
53. sin 2x = sin 60º cos 30º – cos 60º sin 30º =   
2 2 2 2
3 1
 sin 2x = 
4 4
3 1
 sin 2x =
4
1
 sin 2x =
2
 sin 2x = sin 30º
 2x = 30º
30º
 x=  x = 15º.
2

55. 9, a, b, – 6 are in A.P.

a–9=b–a=–6–b
by a – 9 = – 6 – b
a+b=3

h
56. AD = DF = FB =
3
ADE ~ ABC
DE h/3 r
=  DE =
r h 3
AFG ~ ABC
FG 2h / 3 2r
=  FG =
r h 3
2
1 r h  r 2h
Volume of  =    =
3 3 3 81
2
1  2r   2h  8  r 2h  r 2h 7  r 2h
Volume of  =      – vol of .= – =
3 3  3  81 81 81
2
1 2 1  2r   2h   r 2h 8  r 2h 27 r 2h  8r 2h 19 r 2h
Volume of  rh–      = – = =
3 3 3  3  3 81 81 81
Vol.  : Vol  : Vol 
 r 2h 7  r 2h 19 r 2h
81 81 81
1 : 7 : 19.
57. We have CR = 4 cm,
Q
P
13cm D
C A
4cm
S
DS = 9 cm and CD = 13 cm
DA = DS – SA [SA = CR]
DA = 9 – 4 = 5 cm.
In CAD right angled at D
CA2 = CD2 – DA2 = 132 – 52 = 144
CA = 144 = 12 cm
CA = RS = 12 cm
CR || DS
So CRSD is a trapezium.

Area of trapezium.
1
= × (Sum of parallel sides) × height
2
1 1
= (CR + DS) × RS = (9 + 4) × 12 = 13 × 6 = 78 cm2.
2 2

58. n = 6q + 4
n2= 36q2 + 48q + 16 = 6 (6q2 + 8q + 2) + 4
So when n2 divided by 6 it leave the remainder 4.

59. Mean of 20 numbers = 43

Their sum total = 43 × 20 = 860
6 is subtracted from each number.
So, total of numbers subtracted = 6 × 20 = 120
So, new sum total = 860 – 120 = 740
740
Hence, New mean = 37
20
In other words, the new man will be 6 less than the original mean

60. Here AB > AD

BC > DE
AC > CF
 AB + BC + AC > AD + DE + CF
A

F E

B D C
Perimeter > sum of altitudes.
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