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TEST BOOKLET
ELECTRI CAL ENGINEE RING
Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTION S
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepa ncy will r ender the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection. ·
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four r esponses (answer s). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is
more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose
ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in t he Test Booklet,.
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examina tion has
concluded, you should hand over t"o the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet . You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end .
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by th e candidate, one-third (0·33) of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more th an one answer , it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and ther e will be.same penalty as above to tha t question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, t here will be no p enalty fo r that
question. ·
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
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1. What are the values of k for which the system 4. The solution of the differential equation
of equations
2 d 2y dy
(3k - 8)x + 3y + 3z = 0 X -- - X - + y = log X is
dx2 dx
3x -+' (3k- 8)y + 3z = 0
(a) y = (c1 + c2x) log x + 2 log x + 3
3x + 3y + (3k- 8)z =0
(b) Y = (cl + c2x2) log x +log x + 2
has a non-trivial solution ?
(c) y = (c1 + c2x ) log x +log x + 2
(a) ォ ] セ@ 11 10
3' 3' 3 (d) y = (c1 + c2 log x) x +log x + 2
(b) k ]セ@ 10 11
3' 3' 3
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7. The solution of the partial differential 11. If X is a discrete random variable that follows
equation Binomial distribution , . then which one of the
following response r elations is correct ?
20z 20Z
x - +y - = (x + y ) z is
Ox Oy n-r
(a) P (r + 1) =- - P (r )
(b) P (r + 1) = £. P (r )
セ@
q
(b ) f ( X:)
' =0
n+rp
(c) P (r + 1) = - - - P (r )
セ@ - セ L@ xyz)- 0
r +1 q
(c) f (
n-rp
(d) P (r + 1) = - - - P (r )
(d ) r +1 q
R@
(a) -1 ( COS . • -
-1t + 1Sill 1t) what is the probability that out of 2000
2 4 4 individuals , more than 2 individuals will
(b ) 1(
2
1t
COS 2 + 1Sill2
• . 1t) suffer a bad r eaction ?
(a)
(c) -
1 (COS . .
1t + 1 S ill 1t
)
2
5
(d )
(b ) 1· 2 - -
e2
5
n . n 7t (d)
(a) 2 sm -
6
セ@
n ll7t
(b) 2 cos -
6 13. Materials in which the atomic order extends
n+1 n 7t uninter r upted over the entirety of the
(c) 2 cos -
6
specimen; under som e circumstan ces, they
· n7t ·
(d ) 2 n + 1 sm - may h ave flat faces and regular geometric
6
shapes, are called
10. The nature of singularity of function
1 (a) Anisotropy
fl:z) = - - - - at z = 2: is
cos z- sin z 4
(b) Crystallogr aphy
(a) Removable s ingularity
(b) Isolated singularity (c) Single crystals
(c) Simple pole
(d ) Crystal system
(d) E ssential singularity
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14. Which material possesses the following 17. The saturation flux density for Nickel having
properties ? density of 8·90 g/cm3, atomic number 58·71
• Shining white colour with lustre and net magnetic moment per atom of
• Soft, malleable and can be drawn into 0·6 Bohr magnetons is nearly
wires (a) 0·82 tesla
• Poor in conductivit y and tensile (b) 0·76 tesla
strength
(c) 0·64 tesla
• Used in making alloys with lead and
(d) 0·52 tesla
copper
• Used for fuses and cable sheathing
18. The temperatur e at which iron ceases to be
(a) Silver
ferromagne tic and becomes paramagne tic is
(b) Tin
(a) Curie-Weis s point
(c) Nickel
(d) Aluminium (b) Thermo-ma gnetic point
(c) Ferro-param agnetic point
15. The saturation magnetizat ion for Fe 0 , (d) Curie point
3 4
given that each cubic unit cell contains
19. Fick's laws refer to
8 Fe2+ and 16 Fe3+ ions, where Bohr
(a) Finding whether a semiconduc tor is nor
magneton is 9·274 x I0-24 A.m 2 and that the
ptype
unit cell ・、ァセ@ length is 0·839 nm, will be
(b) Diffusion
(a) 1·25 x 105 Aim (c) Crystal imperfectio ns ·.
(b) 5 x 105 Aim (d) Electric breakdown
(c) 10 x 105 Aim 20. A magnetic field applied perpendicu lar to the
(d) · 20 x 105 Aim direction of motion of a charged particle
exerts a force on the particle perpendicu lar to
16. Consider the following application s of the both the magnetic field and the direction of
materials : motion of the particle. This phenomeno n
results in
• Bismuth strontium calcium copper
oxide used as a high temperatur e (a) Flux effect
supercondu ctor (b) Hall Effect
• Boron carbide used in helicopter and (c) Magnetic field effect
tank armour (d) fゥセャ、@ effect
• Uranium oxide used as fuel in nuclear
reactors 21. An electric kettle is marked 500 W, 230 V and
• Bricks used for constructio n is found to take 15 minutes to bring 1 kg of
The materials used in these application s can water at 15°C to 100°C. If the specific heat of
be classified as water is 4200 J/kg/°C, the heat efficiency of
the kettle will be
(a) Ceramic
(a) 87·3%
(b) Constantan
(b) 83·6%
(c) Manganin
(c) 79·3%
(d) Tantalum (d) 75·6%
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22. With refer ence to nano materials, the pr efix 26. Thevenin's equivalent circuit consist s of
nano stands for (a) Current source and series impedance
(a) N ano centimetre (b) Voltage source and series impedance
(b) N anometre (c) Voltage source a nd shunt impedance
Which one of the following materials will be 28. The maximum power is d elivered from a
u sed for these applications ? source to a load whe n the source r esistance
(a) Zirconia is
(a) Greater than the load re sistance
(b ) Alumina
(b) Equal to zero
(c) Cer a mic
(c) Less than the load r esistance
(d ) Silicon carbide
(d) Equal t o the loa d resistance
25. If the voltage across an element in a circuit is 30. The imped ance of a parallel circuit is
linearly proportional t o the current through (10 - j 30) n a t 1 MHz. The v alues of circuit
it, t hen it is a elements will be
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31. 'fhe defining equations for V1 and V2 35. Consider the following statements :
analyzing a two-port network in terms of its 1. Mutual inductance describes the voltage
impedance parameters are respectively induced at the ends of a coil due to the
magnetic field generated by a second coil.
(a) z1211 + z1212 and z2111 + z2112
2. · The dot convention allows a sign to be
(b) · Z 11 I 1 + Z12I 2 and Z21I 1 + Z22I 2 assigned to the voltage induced due to
mutual inductance term.
(c) Z21I 1 + Z21I 2 and Z 12 I 1 + Z 12I 2 3. The coupling coefficient is given by
M
(d) z1211 + z1212 and z2211 + z2212 k = ---c==:::=-
JLl +L2
Which of the above statements are correct ?
32. A" filter that allows high and low
frequencies to pass but attenuates any signal (a ) 1, 2 and 3
with a frequency between two corner (b) 1 and 3 only
frequencies is a
(c) 1 and 2 only
(a) Notch filter
(d ) 2 and 3 only
(b) Band pass filter
(c) Band stop filter 36. Consider the following statements :
(d) 1. The rules for series and parallel
Multiband filter
combinations of capacitors are opposite
to those for resistors.
33. When a number of two-port networks are 2. The rules for series and parallel
cascaded then combinations of inductors are セ。イョ・@ as
those for resistors.
(a ) z-parameters are added up 3. An inductor is a short circuit to de
(b) y-parameters are added up currents.
(c) h-parameters are multiplied Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) ABCD-parameters are multiplied
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
34. A 3-phase star-connected 1000 volt alternator (d) 1, 2 and 3
supplies power to· a 500 kW delta-connected
induction motor. If the motor power factor. is 37. The standard resistor is a coil of wire of some
0 ·8 lagging and its efficiency 0·9, then the alloy having the properties of
current in each alternator and motor phase (a) Low electrical resistivity and high
temperature coefficient of resistance
respectively are nearly
(b) High electrical resistivity and high
(a ) 321 A and 231·5 A temperature coefficient of resistance
(b) 401 A and 231·5 A (c) Low electrical resistivity and low
temperature coefficient of resistance
(c) 321 A and 185·4 A
(d) High electrical resistivity and low
(d ) 401 A and 185·4 A temperature coefficient of resistance
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38. Which one of the following materials is used 42. There will be serious errors if power factor of
for the swamping resistance of moving coil non-sinusoidal waveform is measured by
instruments ? electrodynamome ter power factor meter. This
is true for
(a) Carbon
(c)
20 pF
30 pF
resistance temperature coefficient. The meter
has a resistance of 320 n a t 20°C. After (d ) 40 pF
carrying a steady current of 100 rnA for a long
time, the resistance of the coil increases to 45. Vertical delay line in CRO
369 n due to self heating. When a voltage of
(b)
Gives proper time
emission of electrons
for thermionic
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46. A 0 - 150 V voltmeter has a guaranteed 51. Convert decimal 41·6875 into equivalent
accuracy of 1%, full scale reading. The voltage binary:
measured by this instrument is 83 V. The
(a ) 100101·101 1
limiting error will be nearly
(a) 1·2% (b) 100101·110 1
(b) 1·8% (c) 101001·101 1
(c) 2·4% (d) 101001·110 1
(d) 3·2%
52. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) consists
47. The variations in the measured quantity due of
to sensitivity of transducer to any plane other (a) ALU and Control unit only
than the required plane is
(b) ALU, Control unit and Registers only
(a) Cross sensitivity
(c) ALU, Control unit and System bus only
(b) Sensitivity
(c) (d) ALU, Control unit, Registers and
Interferenc e
Internal bus
(d) Distributed sensitivity
53. When enough total memory space exists to
48. A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor satisfy a request, but it is not contiguous, then
of 2 is fastened to a steel member subjected to this problem is known as
a stress of 1050 kg/cm2. The modulus of
elasticity of steel is 2·1 x 106 kg/cm2. The (a) Internal Fragmenta tion
change in resistance セ@ of the strain gauge (b) External Fragmenta tion
element due to the applied stress will be
(c) Overlays
(a ) 0·1%
(d) Partitionin g
(b) 0·2%
(c) 0·3% 54. The total average re ad or write time T total
(d) 0·4% is
1 b
49. In which one of the following classes of (a ) T5 +-+ -
computers, is the relationship between 2r N
architectur e and organizatio n very close ? 1 b
(b) T5 + - + -
(a) Microcomp uters 2r rN
(b) Mini computers T b
(c) -5+ -
(c) Mainframe computers rN N
(d) Super computers b
(d) Ts +2r + -
· rN
50. The decimal equivalent of binary number
1001·101 is where,
T5 =average seek time
(a) 9·750
(b) 9·625 b =number of bytes to be transferred
(c) 10·750 N =number of bytes on a track
(d) 10·625 r = rotation speed, in r evolutions per second
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55. If a cache has 64-byte cache lines, how long 58. The decimal value of signed binary number
does it take to fetch a cache line if the main 11101000 expressed in 1's complement is
memory takes 20 cycles to respond to each
(a) -223
memory request and returns 2 bytes of data in
response to each request ? (b) - 184
(a) 980 cycles (c) - 104
(b) 640 cycles (d) -23
•' (c) 320 cycles
(d) 160 cycles
57. Features of solid state drives (SSDs) are 60. Which of the following instructions of 8085
1. High-performance in input/output are the examples of implied addressing ?
operations per second
1. CMA
2. More power consumption than
comparable size HDDs 2. IN byte
3. Lower access times and latency rates 3. RET
4. More susceptible to physical shock and
vibration
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(a ) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
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61. The important fact about the collector current 65. Which one of the following conditions will be
is satisfied for an impedance matched system ? .
(a) It is greater than emitter current (a) The decibel power gain is equal to twice
(b) It equals the base current divided by the the decibel voltage gain
current gain (b) The decibel power gain is equal to the
decibel voltage gain
(c) It is small
(c) The decibel power gain is half the
(d) It approximately equals the emitter decibel voltage gain
current (d) The decibel power gain is equal to thrice
the decibel voltage gain
62. What is Shockley's equation of a
semiconducto r diode in the forward bias 66. For most FET configurations and for
regions ? common-gate configurations , the input
impedances are respectively
(a) High and high
( a)
(b) High and low
(c) Low and low
(b)
(d) Low and high
(c) 23 mV v
Av = __Q_
(d ) 26 mV v.I
64. The disadvantage of a typical MOSFET as 69. For an op-amp having a slew rate of 2 V/11s, if
compared to BJT is the input signal varies by 0·5 V in 10 11s, the
(a) Increased power-handling levels maximum closed-loop voltage gain will be
(a) 50
(b) Reduced power-handlin g levels
(b) 40
(c) Increased voltage-handl ing levels
(c) 22
(d) R educed voltage-handl ing levels (d) 20
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I
70. A negative feedback amplifier where an 75. An analog output voltage for the input 1001 to
input current controls an output voltage is a 4 bit D/A converter for all pos sible inputs
called assuming the proportionality factor K = 1 will
(a ) Current amplifier be
(b) Transconductance amplifier (a) 9
(c) Transresistance amplifier (b) 6
(d) Voltage amplifier (c) 3
71. In emergency lighting system, the component (d) 1
used for maintaining the charge on the
battery is 76. In microprocessor interface, the concept of
(a) LED detecting some error condition such as 'no
(b) Shockley diode match found' is called
(c) Thermistor (a) Syntax error
(d) SCR (b) Semantic error
72. For RC phase shift oscillator using FET, the (c) Logical error
gain of the amplifier stage must be practically (d) Error trapping
somewhat greater than
(a) 27 77. The maximum number of input or output
(b) 28 devices that can be connected to
(c) 29 8085 microprocessor are
(d) 30 (a) 8
73. The time delay in a look-ahead carry adder is (b) 16
independent of (c) 40
(a) Number of operands only (d) 256
(b) Propagation delay only
(c) Number of bits in the operand only 78. The contents of the accumulator and register
(d) Bits in the operand, number of operands C are 2EH and 6CH respectively. The
and propagation delay instruction ADD C is used. The values of AC
74. The time delay セエ@ introduced by a SISO shift . and P flags are
register in digital signals is given by . (a) 0 and 0
(b) 1 and 1
(a ) N2 X _!_
fc (c) 0 and 1
(d) 1 and 0
2
(b) N x fc
79. When an information signal is multiplied by
(c) fc
an auxiliary sinusoidal signal to translate its
N
frequency, the modulation is called
1
(d ) Nx - (a ) Phase modulation
fc
(b) Frequency modulation
where
N is the number of stages (c) Amplitude modulation
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80. The transmission power efficiency for a tone 84. If'N' signals are multiplexed using PAM band
modulated signal with modulated index of 0·5 limited to fM, the channel bandwidth need not
will be nearly be larger than
(a) . 6 ·7% f
(a) N·__M_
(b ) 11·1% 2
(c) 16·7% (b) N·fM
(d) 21·1% (c) 2N·f
M
81. For practical purposes, the signal to noise (d) N 2 ·fM
ratio for acceptable quality transmission of
analog signals and digital signals respectively
are 85. A linear discrete-time system is characterized
by its response hk(n) = (n - k)u(n - k) to a
(a) 10- 30 dB a nd 05 - 08 dB delayed unit sample 8(n - k ). The system will
(b) 40 - 60 dB and 10 - 12 dB be
(c) 60-80 dB and 20 - 24 dB (a) Shift invariant
(d ) 70 - 90 dB and 30-36 dB (b) Shift variant
(c) Scale invariant
82. The discrete samples of an analog signal are
to be uniformly quantized for PCM system. If (d) Scale variant
the maximum value of the analog sample is to
be represented within 0·1% accuracy, then 86. Consider the analog signal
minimum number of binary digits r equired Xa(t) = 3 COS 100 7tt.
will be n early
The minimum sampling r ate F 8 required to
(a) 7
avoid aliasing will be
(b) 9
(a) 100Hz
(c) 11
(b) 200Hz
(d) 13
(c) 300Hz
83. A signal : (d) 400Hz
m (t ) = 2 cos 6000 1tt + 4 cos 8000 7tt +
6 cos 10000 7tt 87. The response of the system y(n) = x(n) to the
is to be truthfully represented by its samples. following input signal
The minimum sampling rate using band pass
In I, MS セ iゥ セ S@
con sideration will be x(n) =
{ 0, othetwise
(a) 5,000 Hz
(a) Is delayed from input
(b) 10,000 Hz
(b) Is exactly same as the input
(c) 15,000 Hz
(c) Leads the input
(d) 20,000 Hz
(d) Varies with signal
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88. The complex exponentia l Fourier 91. Consider the discrete-tim e sequence
representat ion for the signal
x(t) = cos c:.o0t is
x(n) = cos ( セョI@ .
When sampled at frequency f 8 = 10kHz, then
f0, the frequency of the sampled continuous
time signal which produced this sequence will
at least be
{a) 625Hz
(b) 575Hz
(c) (c) 525Hz
(d) 475Hz
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95. If the 」ッューャ・セ@ multiply operatio n takes 1 J..lS, 99. The system sensitiv ity of open loop and
the time taken to compute 1024-po int DFT closed loop system are respecti vely
directly will be nearly
(a) 3·45 s (a) 1
land
(b) 2·30 s l+GH
(c) 1·05 s 1
(b) G and 1
(d) 0·60 s 1+ H
96. Conside r the following data to design a
(c) 1
low-pass filter - andl
GH
1t
Cu t -off frequ ency roc = 2" ,
(d) 1
land-
Stop band ripple 85 = 0·002, GH
Transiti on bandwid th no larger than O· l1t. lOO. The steady state error of a type-1 system to a
Kaiser window paramet ers セ@ and N unit step inpu t is
respecti vely are
(a) 2·99 and 45 1
(a)
(b) 4·99 and 45 (l+Kp )
(c) 2·99 and 65
(b) 0
(d) 4·99 and 65
(c) 00
(c) K>3
(d )
(d) K < 0·3
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103. The lag syst em of a 'lag-lead compensatqr' has 107. The 'closed-loop response of a system subjected
one pole and one zero. Then pole and zero are to a unit step input is
(a ) Real and pole is to the left of zero c(t ) = 1 + 0·2 e-60 t - 1·2 e-10 t .
(b) Real and pole is to the right of zero The expression for the closed loop transfer
(c) Imagina ry and pole is above zero function is
(d ) Imaginary and pole is below zero 100
(a)
(s + 60) (s + 1 0)
104. A system with characteristic equation
600
F (s) = s4 + 6s3 + 23s2 + 40s + 50 (b)
(s + 60) (s + 10)
will have closed loop poles such that
60
(a) All _poles lie in the left half of エセ@ (c)
(s + 60) (s + 10)
s-plane and no pole lie s on imaginary
axis 10
(d)
(b) Two poles lie symmetrically on the (s + 60) (s + 10)
imaginary axis of the s-plane
(c) All four poles lie on the imaginary axis 108. If it is possible to transfer the system state
ofthe s-plane x(t 0) to any desired state x(t) in specified
(d) All four poles lie in the right half of the finite time by a control vector u (t ), then the
s-plane · system is said to be
(a) Completely observable
105. A unity feedback (negative) system has
open loop transfer .function (b) Complet ely state controllable
K. (c) Random state syst em
G{s) = - -
s(s + 2) (d ) Steady s tate contr olled system
The closed loop system has a steady-state unit
@・ of gain K should 109. Consider the following statements regarding
r amp error of 0 ·1. The セ。ャオ
parallel connection of 3-phas e transformers :
be
1. The secondaries of all transformers
(a) 20 :• must have the same phase sequence.
(b ) 30 2. The phase . displa cement between
primary and secondary line voltages
(c) 40 must be the same for all transformers
(d) 50 which a re to be operated in parallel.
3. The primaries of a ll transformer s mus t
106. Tran sfer function of discr ete time syst em have the s ame magnitude of line
derived from st at e model is given by voltage .
Which of the above s tatem ents ar e correct?
(a) C(zi - A )-1 B + D
(a ) 1,2 a nd 3
(b) C(zi- A )-1 D + B
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) B (zi - A )-1 D + C
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d ) D (zi - A )-1 B + C
(d ) 2 and 3 only
'·.
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110. A 500 kVA transformer has an efficiency of 114. A 500 kW, 500 V, 10-pole, de generator has a
95% at full load and also at 60% of full load, lap wound armature with 800 conductors. If
both at upf. The efficiency 11 of the the pole face covers 75% of pole pitch, the
transformer at セ@ th full load will be nearly number of pole-face conductors in each pole of
a compensating winding will be
(a) 98% (a) 12
(b) 95% (b) 10
(c) 92% (c) 8
(d ) 87% (d) 6
111. What is the condition of retrogressive winding 115. Cogging in an induction motor is caused
in de machines ? (a) If the number of stator slots are
(a) Yb > Yr unequal to number of rotor slots
(b ) If the number of stator slots 。イセ@ an
(b) Yb < Yr
integral multiple of rotor slots
(c) Yb=Yr (c) If the motor is running at fraction of its
(d) Yb = 0·5 Yr
rated speed
(d) Due to 5th harmonic
112. What is the useful flux per pole on no load of a
250 V, 6-pole shunt motor having a wave 116. A 500 hp, 6-pole, 3-phase, 440 V, 50 Hz
connected armature winding with 110 turns, induction motor has a speed of 950 rpm on
armature resistance of 0·2 n and armature full-load. The full load slip and the number of
current 13·3 A at no load speed of 908 rpm ? cycles the rotor voltage makes per minute will
be respectively
(a) 12·4mWb
(a) 10% and 150
(b) 22·6mWb
(b) 10% and 125
(c) 24·8 mWb
(c) 5% and 150
(d) 49·5 mWb
(d) 5% and 125
113. The cross-magnetizing effect of the armature 117. Effective armature resistance R 8 (eft) of a
reaction can be reduced by synchronous machine is
(a) Making pole shoes flat faced Short circuit load loss (per phase)
(a)
(b) Making the main field ampere-turns (Short circuit armature current) 2
larger compared to the
armature-ampere turns Short circuit load loss (per phase)
(b )
(c) Increasing the flux density under Short circuit load current
one half of the pole Total short circuit load loss
(c)
(d) Keeping the direction of rotation of Short circuit armature current
generator in the same direction as
motor Total short circuit load loss
(d )
Short circuit load current ..
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118. A 3-phase synchronous motor has 12-poles 121. Consider the following statements for a large
and operates from 440 V, 50 Hz supply. If it national interconnected grid :
takes a line current of 100 A at 0·8 power 1. Better load frequency control
factor leading, its speed and torque are 2. Same total installed capacity can meet
nearly lower demands
3. Better h ydro I thermal I nuclear I
(a) 500 rpm and 1165 N-m r enewable co-ordination and energy
conservation
(b) 1000 rpm and 2330 N-m
Which of the above s tatements are correct ?
(c) 500 rpm and 2330 N-m (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d ) 1000 rpm and 1165 N-m
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
119. Which of the following are the advantages of 122. A single-phase transformer is rated
using a stepper motor? 1101440 V, 2·5 kVA. Leakage reactance
measured from the low-tension side is 0·06 n .
(a) Compatibility with transformers and The per unit leakage reactance will be
sen sors needed for position sensing
(a) 0·00621unit
(b) Compatibility with digital systems and (b) 0·01241unit
sensors are not required for position and (c) 0·04961unit
speed sensing
(d ) 0·19831unit
(c) Resonance effect often exhibited at low
123. A concentric cable has a conductor diameter of
speeds and decreasing torque with
1 em and an insulation thickness of 1·5 em.
increasing speed When the cable is subjected to" a test pressure
of 33 kV, the maximum field strength will be
(d) Easy to operate at high speeds and nearly
compatible with analog systems
(a) 41,000 V
(b) 43,200 v
(c) 45,400 V
120. The disadvantage of hunting in synchronous
(d) 47,600 v
machines is
(a) Fault occurs in the supply system 124. Radio influence voltage (RIV) generated on a
transmission line conductor surface is not
(b ) Causes sudden change in inertia affected by
(a) System voltage
(c) Causes large mechanical stresses and
(b) Corona 、ゥ ウ」 ィセイァ・ウ@ on the conductors
fatigue in the rotor shaft
(c) Ra in
(d ) Causes h armonics (d) Nearby radio receivers
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125. Consider the following propertie s r egarding 130. In a 3-phase, 60 Hz, 500 MVA, 15 kV, 32-pole
insulation for cables : hydroelec tric generatin g unit, the values of
1. A low specific resistanc e rosyn and romsyn will be nearly
2. High temperat ure withstand (a) 754 rad/s and 47·6 radls
3. High dielectric strength (b) 377 radls and 46·7 rad/s
Which of the above propertie s of insulation (c) 377 rad/s and 23·6 radls
are correct while using cables ?. (d) 754 rad/s and 23·6 rad/s
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only 131. The methods adopted for improvin g the
(c) 2 and 3 only steady state stability of power system are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Quick response excitation system
2. Higher excitation voltages
126. Which one of the following faults occurs more 3. Maximum power transfer by use of
frequentl y in a power system ? series capacitor or reactor
(a) Grounded star-delta (a ) 1 and 2 only
(b) Double line faults (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) LLG faults (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Single line-to-gr ound (LG) faults (d) 1, 2 and 3
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135. The ig-vg characteristics of a thyristor is a 139. Consider the following statem ents r egarding
straight line passing through origin with a ac drives:
gradient of 2·5 x 103. If P g = 0·015 watt, the 1. For the same kW rating, ac motors are
20% to 40% light weight as compared to
value of gate voltage will be nearly de motors.
(a ) 5·0 V 2. The ac motors are more expensive as
(b ) 6·1 v compared to same kW rating de motors.
(c) 7·5 V 3. The ac motors have low m a inten ance as
compared t o de motors.
(d) 8·5 v Which of the above s tatements are correct ?
136. A single-phase 220 V, 1 kW heater is (a) 1 and 2 only
connected to half wave controlled r ectifier and (b) 2 and 3 only
is fed from a 220 V, 50 H z ac supply. When (c) 1 and 3 only
the firing a ngle a = 90°, the powe r absorbed (d) 1, 2 and 3
by the heater will be nearly 140. A 3-phase induction motor drives a blower
(a) 1000 W where load torque is directly proportional to
(b) 750 w speed squared. If the motor operates at
1450 rpm, the maximum current in t erms of
(c) 500 W
rated current will be nearly
(d ) 250 w (a) 2·2
137. When we compare the half bridge converter (b ) 3·4
and full bridge converter (c) 4·6
The maximum collector current of a full (d) 6·8
1.
bridge is only double that of the half 141. Consider the following statement s:
bridge. 1. SMPS generates both the electromagnetic
2. Full bridge uses 4-power switches and radio frequency interfer e nce due to
instead of 2, as in the double bridge. high switching frequency.
2. SMPS h as high ripple in output voltage
3. Output power of a full bridge is twice
and its regulation is poor.
tha t of a half bridge with the same
3. The output voltage of SMPS is less
input voltage and cu rrent.
sensitive with respect t o input voltage
Which of the above s tatem ents are correct ? variation.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above statements are correct ?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 3 only
1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c)
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d ) 2 a nd 3 only
(d ) 1, 2 and 3
138. A single-phase fully controlled bridge 142. Consider the following features with r espect
converter is connected with RLE load to the flyback converter s :
where R = 5 n, L = 4 mH and E = 50 V. This 1. It is u sed mostly in application below
converter circuit is supplied ·from 220 V , 100W.
50 H z ac supply. When the firing angle is 60°, 2. It is widely used for high-out put
the average valu e of the load current will be voltage.
ne arly 3. It has low cost a nd is simple .
(a) 12·2 A Which of the above statem e n ts are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b ) 9·8 A
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 6·4 A (c) 1 and 3 only
(d ) 4·2 A (d) 2 and 3 only
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143. Consider the following statements regarding 145. Statement aJ :
the function of de-de converter in a de motor : Soft iron does not retain magnetism
1. It acts as a regenerative brake. permanently.
2. It controls the speed of motor. Statement (II) :
Soft iron has no retentivity.
3. It controls the armature voltage of a de
motor. 146. Statement (!) :
Which of the above statements are correct ? Reaction turbines are generally used for sites
with high head and low flow.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Statement (II) :
(b) 1 and 3 only
Kaplan and Francis turbines are reaction
(c) 2 and 3 only turbines.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 147. Statement (I) :
One can formulate problems more efficiently
144. The power supplies which are used in a high-level language and need not have a
extensively in industrial applications are ·precise knowledge of the architecture of the
required to meet computer.
1. Isolation between the source and the Statement (II) :
load High level languages permit programmers to
2. High conversion efficiency describe tasks in a form which is problem
oriented than computer oriented.
3. Low power density for reduction of size
and weight 148. Statement (!) :
4. Controlled direction of power flow Sign magnitude representation is generally
used in implementing the integer portion of
Which of the above specifications ·are. correct ?
theALU.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Statement (II) :
(b) 1, 3and 4 only In sign magnitude representation there are
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only two representations of 0.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 149. Statement (I) :
When a non-linear resistor, in series with a
Directions : Each of the next six (06) items consists linear resistor, both being non-inductive, is
of two statements, one labelled as 'Statement (I)' and connected to a voltage source, the current in
-the other as 'Statement (II)'. You are to examine the circuit cannot be determined by using
these two statements carefully and select the answers Ohm's law.
Statement (II) :
to these items using the codes given beldw :
If the current-voltage characteristic of the
Codes: non-linear resistor is known, the
current-voltage characteristic of the series
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are circuit can be obtained by graphical solution.
individually true and Statement (II) is the
150. Statement (!) :
correct explanation of Statement (I). Soft magnetic materials, both metallic and
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are ceramic are used for making transformers
individually true, but Statement (II) is not core, whereas, hard magnetic materials both
metallic and ceramic are used for making
the correct explanation of Statement (1).
permanent magnets.
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is Statement (II) :
false. Magnetic materials, both metallic and
ceramic are classified as soft or hard
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is according to the magnetic hysteresis loop
true. being narrow or broad.
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