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Telegram PT Group Discussion 2019 (Geography) : Apti Plus Academy For Civil Services
Telegram PT Group Discussion 2019 (Geography) : Apti Plus Academy For Civil Services
Q: The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India are roughly about 30 degrees but the distance
measured from North to South is much more than distance measured from East to West. Why?
(a) Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two
latitudes decreases towards the pole.
(b) Distance between two longitudes increases towards the poles whereas the distance between two
latitudes remains almost the same everywhere.
(c) Distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two
latitudes remains almost the same everywhere.
(d) While latitudes vary from 0 to 90 degree North and South, longitudes vary from 0 to 180 degree East
and West.
Answer: C
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India, are roughly about 30 degrees, whereas the actual
distance measured from north to south extremity is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933
km. This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the
poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains almost the same everywhere.
Answer: C
o Cities located south of Tropic of Cancer will observe an overhead sun, twice a year.
o Udaipur and Jhansi are located north of Tropic of Cancer. Also, Jhansi can be eliminated because
Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Uttar Pradesh.
o Nagpur and Bhubneshwar are located south of Tropic of Cancer. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Q: You are walking along the McMohan Line from west to east
1. If you jump back to the Indian side, you will find yourself in Sikkim.
2. The latitude passing from your location will cut through Nagaland and Rajasthan.
3. At the end of your journey along the line you may end up in Myanmar.
Which of the of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Answer: d
The McMohan Line runs from the -junction
tri of India, Bhutan and China to the tri-junction of India,
China and Myanmar. It's eastern sector of the international border between India and China along the
state of Arunachal Pradesh.
o Statement 1 is incorrect: If you jump back to the Indian side, you will find yourself in Arunachal
Pradesh.
o Statement 2 is incorrect: The latitude passing from your location will cut through Rajasthan but not
Nagaland.
o Statement 3 is correct: At the end of the line there is tri-junction of India, China and Myanmar
Answer: B
Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Bihar. It passes through Mizoram, Tripura, West Bengal,
Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Q: Indian Standard Meridian passes through which of the following states in India?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Orissa
4. Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
1, 2 and 3 are correct. India standard Meridian (82o30 E meridian) passes through UP,
MP, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh.
Answer: c
Lakshadweep group separated from Maldives by Eight Degree Channel
Q 7: Arrange the following countries in the decresing order of length of India's border shared with
them:
1. Bangladesh
2. China
3. Myanmar
4. Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 1-3-2-4
c. 2-1-4-3
d. 2-1-3-4
Answer: a
Statement 1 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar is a large shallow bay forming part of the Laccadive Sea in
the Indian Ocean. It lies between the southeastern tip of India and the west coast of Sri Lanka, in the
Coromandel Coast Region.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bomdila Pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa (the capital of Tibet). This
‘mountain pass’ is situated to the east of Bhutan in the Greater Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh at an
elevation of about 2217 mabove sea level. Owing to the snowfall and adverse weather in the winter
season it remains closed.
Statement 3 is correct. Nepal shares its boundary with two countries i.e. India and China. Out of
that Nepal has largest border with India, as compared to China. Hence, the statement 3 is correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Kashmir Valley lies between Pir Panjal range and Great Himalayan range .
Ladakh range lies further north of Great himalayan range.
Statement 2 is correct : Jhelum, one of the main tributaries of Indus flows through Kashmir valley.
Statement 3 is correct: Both Tsomoriri and Pangong Tso are salt water lakes found in Ladakh region of
Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer: B
Statement 1 is not correct. Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials
embedded with moraines.
Statement 2 is correct. Karewa formations are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of
saffron in the Kashmir Himalayas.
Answer: D
The correct arrangement is as follows
1. Shipki La pass Himachal Pradesh
2. Niti Pass Uttarakhand
3. Thang La Uttarakhand
Answer: D
Valley of Flowers is famous national park situated in Uttarakhand Himalayas.
Duns are longitudinal valleys and many such Duns like Dehradun,Nalaagarh Dun, Kalka Dun are found
here.
Lesser Himalayas are called Nagtibba hills in Uttarakhand.
Q: Consider the following statements with regard to eastern and western Himalayas:
1. Eastern Himalayas receive more rainfall than Western Himalayas.
2. Western Himalayas have thick evergreen forests and eastern Himalayas are devoid of it.
3. The Himachal and Shiwalik ranges of western Himalayas merge into single range in eastern Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Eastern Hills (Purvanchal ranges)?
1. Its general alignment is from South east to North west.
2. Barak and Lohit rivers originate from these ranges.
3. Loktak Lake is located in this region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect: General Alignment of Purvanchal ranges are from North to South. These are
Patkai Bum Naga hills , Mizo hills.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Barak, Dhansari, Dhikhu are important rivers which originate from
Purvanchal
range. Lohit originates from Tibet hImalayas
Statement 3 is correct: Loktak lake is located in Manipur which is part of Purvanchal ranges.
Answer: D
Statement 1 is correct. It is a strange terrain, an area consisting of marshy underground seepage. It is
formed when water from the Bhabhar areas seep down in the soil and suddenly appear, when the flat
plains begin. It thus creates a swampy area.
Stat ement 2 is correct as the region is heavily forested and covered with thick vegetation.
Statement 3 is correct as Terai region is more widespread in the east as compared to the west
because
eastern Himalayas get more rainfall than the Western Himalayas.
Q: Which of the following statements regarding the Northern plains of India is/are correct?
1. It was originally developed as geo- synclinal depression.
2. These plains are formed by alluvial deposits brought by the river systems of Indus and Ganga only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
Statement 1 is correct. Plains are formed by the river Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
Originally, it was a geo-synclinal depression which attained its maximum development during
the third phase of the Himalayan mountain formation approximately about 64 million years ago.
Statement 2 is not correct. The northern plains are formed by the alluvial deposits brought by
the rivers - the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
Q: Syntaxial bend is associated with which of the following geographical features in India?
(a) Northern plains
(b) Himalayas
(c) Deccan Plateau
(d) Central highlands
Answer: b
The general east-west trend of the Himalayas terminates suddenly at its western and eastern
extremities and the ranges are sharply bent southward in deep knee-bend flextures which are called
Explantion:
States of Haryana and Delhi form the water divide between Indus and Ganga river system. Hence,
statement 4 is incorrect.
Q: Which among the following are the right bank tributaries of Yamuna?
1. Chambal
2. Betwa
3. Ken
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
All the above mentioned rivers are right bank tributaries of Yamuna.
Other Right bank tributaries of Yamuna are –Chambal , Sindh , Betwa , Ken Left Bank tributaries are
Hindan , Rind , Sengar , Varuna etc.
Answer: D
Abor, Mishmi, Dafla, Miri are the names of tribes inhabiting in Arunachal ranges. Hills of Lesser
Himalayas present in this region are also named on the name of major tribe inhabiting this hills and thus
Q:Which of the following statements regarding the Meghalaya plateau is/are correct?
1. It is an extension of the Peninsular plateau.
2. It is rich in of coal, iron ore and uranium.
3. It receives maximum rainfall from Arabian sea branch of South west monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Statement 1 is correct as at the time of Himalayan formation, the north-eastward movement of the
Indian plate caused a huge fault between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Thus the north
eastern plateau comprising the Meghalaya plateau and the Karbi-Anglong hills got separated.
Statement 2 is correct as the composition of rocks in the Meghalaya plateau is similar to the
Chhotanagpur plateau. Thus, they are also rich in minerals like coal, iron ore, uranium, silimanite etc.
Statement 3 is not correct as the Meghalaya Plateau receives rainfall from the Bay of bengal branch of
South west monsoon.
Q: Which of the following statements regarding the Central Highlands of Peninsular Plateau is/are
correct?
1. It slopes towards south and southeastern directions.
2. It is marked by the presence of metamorphic rocks.
3. Many tributaries of the river Yamuna have their origin in this region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
o Statement 1 is incorrect as the general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700-1,000
m above the mean sea level and it slopes towards the north and northeastern directions.
o Statement 2 is correct as this region has undergone metamorphic processes in its geological history,
which can be corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc.
o Statement 3 is correct as most tributaries of the river Yamuna is from Vindhyas and Kaimur ranges
Answer: d
Statement 1 is correct: The Deccan Traps are one of the largest volcanic provinces in the world.
It consists of more than 6,500 feet of flat-lying basalt lava flows and covers an area of nearly
200,000 square miles (500,000 square km) in west-central India.
Statement 2 is correct: In Western and Central India, Deccan trap is exposed mainly in the states
of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh and also has its
nominal presence in southern parts of Uttar Pradesh and eastern parts of Rajasthan. Based on
the area of occurrence, the Deccan Lavas have been further classified into four classes viz.
Malwa Trap: occurring in Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh, Mandla Traps: occurring in Mandla
region of Madhya Pradesh, Saurashtra Trap: occurring in Saurashtra region of Gujarat and Main
Deccan plateau: occurring in States of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct: This region is deficient in ground water due to a 1,200 meter thick
covering of basalt which obstructs percolation.
Q: Which among the following statement is incorrect about the peninsular plateaus?
a) The general elevation of Peninsular plateau is from the east to the west, slopping westwards.
b) Delhi Ridge is the northwest extension of the peninsular plateau.
c) The north-eastern extension of peninsular plateau is separated by Malda fault.
d) Ravines of Madhya Pradesh are relief features of Peninsular plateau.
Answer: a
Explanation:
General elevation of peninsular plateau is from west to east. That is why most rivers in peninsular
India flow towards Bay of Bengal . Hence , statement a is incorrect.
Karbi Anglong and Shillong are North eastern Extension of peninsular plateau .
The Ravines of Chambal , Bhind and Morena are a part of Peninsular plateau.
o Broadly, Zone-V comprises of entire northeastern India, parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, part of North Bihar and Andaman & Nicobar islands.
o Zone-IV covers remaining parts of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, Union Territory of Delhi,
Sikkim, northern parts of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal, parts of Gujarat and small portions of
Maharashtra near the west coast and Rajasthan.
o Zone-III comprises of Kerala, Goa, Lakshadweep islands, remaining parts of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat and
West Bengal, parts of Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra,
Orissa, parts of Telangana, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu and Karnataka.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Mango Showers, or ‘mango rains’, is a pre-monsoon rainfall. These rains occur Kerala, Karnataka and
Konkan and Goa. They help in the early ripening of mangoes, and often referred to as 'mango showers.
In Karnataka pre-monsoon rainfalls are called cherry ‘blossoms shower’ due to their effect on the coffee
plantations.
Nor-westers or the Kalbaishakhi is a local thunderstorm which occurs in Bengal.
The Loo is a strong, hot and dry summer afternoon wind from the west which blows over the
western Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India and Pakistan.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain.
Statement 2 is not correct because of the submergence of western coastal plains, it is a narrow belt
and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Because of emergent
nature of Eastern coastal plains, it has less number of ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends
up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours.
Statement 3 is not correct as compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is
broader and is an example of an emergent coast.
Answer: C
Statement 1 is correct as the Eleven degree channel divides the island into 2 parts with Amindivi
islands in the north and Cannanore in the south.
Statement 2 is incorrect as the entire island group is built of coral deposits and not volcanic deposits.
Statement 3 is correct as the Minicoy is the largest among 36 islands in the group.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q: Majuli, one of the largest riverine island in the world, is located on which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Manas
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Padma
Answer: C
Majuli, one of the largest riverine island in the world, is located on the Brahmaputra River, Assam.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Andaman and Nicobar islands?
1. Saddle peak is the highest point of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
2.The Barren island, India’s only active volcano, is situated here.
3. The nine degree channel separates the Andaman islands in the north and Nicobar islands in the south.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct. Saddle peak is the highest point of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
Statement 2 is correct as the Barren Island which is situated in the Nicobar islands, is India's only
active volcano.
Statement 3 is not correct it is the ten de
gree channel which separates the Andaman in the north and
Nicobar in the south. Nine degree channel is a channel in the Indian ocean which separates Minicoy
island from Lakshadweep island group.
Answer: c
Sir Creek is a 96 km (60 mi) tidal estuary on the border of India and Pakistan. The creek, which
opens up into the Arabian Sea, divides the Gujarat state of India from the Sindh province of
Pakistan.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
It is believed that during Mesozoic era, north west of Aravali was under the sea. Which can be
corroborated by the evidence available at wood fossil park at Aakal and marine deposits around
Brahmsar near Jaisalmer. Hence , statement d is incorrect. Indian desert is also part of the peninsular
plateau.
Q: West flowing rivers of peninsular India do not form deltas but form only estuaries.
Which of the following reasons can be attributed to this phenomenon?
1. Passage through hard rocks.
2. Non-perennial flow of water.
3. Less rainfall in western part of peninsular India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The west flowing rivers of India do not form delta because they passes
through hard rocks. This means that these are devoid of sediments which are essential for
formation of delta.
Statement 2 is not correct. Non-perennial flow of water is characteristic of Peninsular rivers,
including the east flowing rivers which form deltas.
Statement 3 is not correct: Western part of the peninsular India receives higher rainfall because
of the presence of Western ghats. Statement 3 is not a reason.
Answer: b
Q: Why Jhelum forms meanders in its youth stage, a feature associated with the mature stage of the
rivers?
(a) Due to low gradient of flow in its youth stage reducing its Kinetic Energy.
(b) Due to large number of pebble rocks present in its path significantly reducing its speed.
(c) Due to local base level provided by the erstwhile larger lake.
(d) Due to large number of dams constructed reducing the volume of water.
Answer: C
Explanation
Rivers generally form meanders in its mature stage but Jhelum, flowing through the Kashmir valley,
forms meanders in its youth stage.
About 2 million years ago when the Kashmir valley, surrounded by Great Himalayan Range in north-east
and Pir Panjal Range in southeast, was submerged under water. Due to tectonic upliftment of Pir Panjal
range, drainage of the region was impounded and a big lake of about 5000 sq km area was formed.
Because of endogenic forces, Baramullah Gorge was created and this vast lake was drained through this
gorge leaving behind sediments and these deposits are called Karewas. ("Karewa" in Kashmiri means
"elevated table-land River Jhelum: So, meanders are formed by Jhelum river due to these local base
levels of Karewas, provided by that formerly existing large lake which drained leaving behind finer
sediments. It gets silt and sediments to deposit when it is in its upper course or youth stage.
Answer: C
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Jhelum, an important tributary of the Indus, rises from a spring at
Verinag situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the south-eastern part of the valley of Kashmir. It
flows through Srinagar and the Wular lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow
gorge.
Statement 2 is correct: The Satluj originates in the Rakas lake near Mansarovar at an altitude of
4,555 m in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus
Answer: B
Luni and Sabarmati rivers originate from the Aravallis. Mahi, on the other hand, originates from
Vindhyachal Hills. Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct. The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as
dendritic. The examples of which are the rivers of northern plain.
Statement 2 is not correct. The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range present a good
example of radial pattern.
Answer: B
Statement 1 is correct. River Krishna acts as a geographical divide between Telangana and
Andhra Pradesh.
Answer: B
o There are a number of rivers which flow through the state. Some of the rivers which are majorly part
of the country of Bangladesh but passes through the state of Mizoram also are Thega River and the
Surma- Meghna river system (Barak River).
o Tiau River, Tlawng, Barak, Kaladan, Karnaphuli are some major rivers of Mizoram.
Answer: C
The Ganga river is shared by :
Uttaranchal (110 km)
Uttar Pradesh (1,450 km),
Bihar (445
km)
West Bengal (520 km).
However it touches the border of Jharkhand as well.
Q: The river originates from the Bokhar Chu glacier. In tibet it is known as Singi Khamban or Lion's
mouth. It forms spectacular gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the following rivers is described above?
(a) Chenab
(b) Jhelum
(c) Satluj
(d) Indus
Q: Which among the following rivers drain into the Arabian Sea?
1. Subarnarekha
2. Periyar
3. Baharatpuzha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Subarnarekha River flows through the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha. It drains into Bay
of Bengal.
The Periyar is the second largest river of Kerala. It drains into Arabian Sea.
The longest river of Kerala, Bharathapuzha rises near Annamalai hills. It is also known as Ponnani. It
drains into Arabian Sea.
Answer: B
Barak river is part of Surma Meghna river system and originates in Manipur hills and flows through
Manipur, Mizoram and Assam.
Dihang, Dibang, Dhansiri, Tista, Lohit and Manas are the tributaries of Brahmputra in India
Answer: c
Shipra is a river in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. The river rises in the ujjaini situated in
Indore district, and flows north across the Malwa Plateau to join the Chambal River at the MP-
Rajasthan boundary in Mandsaur district. It is one of the sacred rivers in Hinduism. The holy city of
Ujjain is situated on its east bank.
The Mahanadi is one of the largest Indian peninsular rivers that drains into the Bay of Bengal. The
857 km long river originates in Raipur district of the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh and
flows through the eastern state of Orissa before meeting the sea. The famous city of Puri is located
on its banks.
Tungabhadra is a major river in the south Indian peninsula. Hampi is located on the south bank of
this river.
Answer: d
Statement 1 is not correct: The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point
of view of its basin and cultural significance. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh
(3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi. The
Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which
meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag. The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins
it at Karna Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Son is Ganga's major right bank tributary. The important left
bank tributaries are the Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi and the
Mahananda.
Answer: b
The correct sequence is: Ganga- Indus- Brahmaputra-Kaveri. Their respective catchment areas in
India are: Ganga: 86,452 sq.km, Indus: 321,289 sq.km, Brahmaputra: 194,413 sq.km, Kaveri:
81,155 sq.km
Q: Which of the following sub-branches of the Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon merges with
the Bay of Bengal branch?
1. Branch crossing Western Ghats and passing through Narmada and Tapi valley.
2. Branch traveling parallel to the Aravallis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. This branch after crossing Narmada and Tapi valleys causes rainfall in
Chotanagpur Plateau. After that, it enters the Ganga plains and merges with the Bay of bengal branch.
Statement 2 is correct. This branch merges with bay of bengal branch near Punjab and Haryana plains
and then move towards Western Himalayas.
Q: Which among the following is/are the effects of tropical cyclones brought by easterly jet streams into
India during summer season?
1. They affect the distribution of monsoon rainfall in India.
2. They reduce the amount of monsoon rainfall in India.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Statement 2 is not correct. They do not reduce the amount of monsoon rainfall in India. The tracks of
these depressions are the areas of highest rainfall in India.
Answer: d
Statement 1 is correct. The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian subcontinent from
the west and the northwest during the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean Sea.
Statement 2 is correct. They are brought into India by theesterly
w jet stream.
Statement 3 is correct. An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance
in the arrival of these cyclones disturbances.
Answer: D
All the give phenomena are influenced by relief of a place. The physiography or relief affects the
temperature, air pressure, direction and speed of wind and the amount and distribution of rainfall. For
example. The windward sides of Western Ghats and Assam receive high rainfall during June-September
whereas the southern plateau remains dry due to its leeward situation along the Western Ghats.
Answer: B
Statement 1 is Incorrect. A var iability of less than 25 per cent exists on the western coasts, Western
Ghats, northeastern peninsula, eastern plains of Ganga, northeastern India, Uttaranchal and Himachal
Pradesh and south-western part of Jammu and Kashmir. These areas have an annual rainfall of over 100
cm.
Statement 2 is Correct. A variability of over 50 per cent exists in the western part of Rajasthan,
northern part of Jammu and Kashmir and interior parts of the Deccan plateau. These areas have an
annual rainfall of less than 50 cm. Rest of India have a variability of 25-50 per cent and these areas
receive an annual rainfall between 50 -100 cm.
Q: With reference to Koeppen's scheme of climate classification, consider the following pairs:
Type of Climate: Associated Region
1. As : West Coast of India
2. E : Jammu and Kashmir
3. Aw : Extreme western Rajasthan
4. Cwg : Gangetic Plains
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Type of Climate as per Koeppen's scheme of climate classification:
o Amw (Monsoon with short dry season)- West coast of India south of Goa
o As (Monsoon with dry summer) - Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
o Aw (Tropical savannah) - Most of the Peninsular plateaus, south of the Tropic of Cancer
o Bwhw (Semi-arid steppe climate) - North-western Gujarat, some parts of western Rajasthan and
Punjab
o Bwhw (Hot desert) - Extreme western Rajasthan
o Cwg (Monsoon with dry winter) - Ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan, northern Madhya Pradesh, most of
North-east India
o Dfc (Cold humid winter with short summer) - Arunachal Pradesh
o E (Polar type) - Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttaranchal
Answer: C
o Statement 1 is correct. The tropical areas being close to the equator experiences high temperature
throughout the year with small daily and annual range. Andaman and Nicobar Islands fall in this zone.
o Statement 2 is correct. North West India experiences very hot summers and equally harsh winters. In
fact in a single day the temperature varies a great deal. For example, in the Thar desert, if the day
temperature is around 50 degree celcius, it might drop to 15-20 degree at night.
Answer: A
Explanation
Kalbaisakhi They bring rainfall in West Bengal, Assam and Orissa before monsoon season and are
beneficial for jute and rice cultivation.
Loo they are strong and dusty summer winds in north India. They are not beneficial for any crop
cultivation.
Mang o showers - They cause rainfall along Karnataka coast during pre-monsoon period and hence are
beneficial for early ripening of mangoes.
Loo they are strong and dusty summer winds in north India. They are not beneficial for any crop
cultivation.
Cherry blossom cause rainfall along Kerela and Karnataka coast during pre-monsoon period and
hence are beneficial for Coffee cultivation in this area.
Answer: B
Statement 1 is Incorrect. The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons.
By the end of September, the southwest monsoon becomes weak as the low pressure trough of the
Ganga plain starts moving southward in response to the southward march of the sun. The monsoon
retreats from the western Rajasthan by the first week of September.
Statement 2 is Correct. The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in
temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the
weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’.
Statement 3 is Correct . The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is
associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula. Here, October and November are the rainiest
months of the year.
Q: Which one of the following phenomenon happens in India when the sun shines vertically over the
Tropic of Capricorn?
(a) High pressure develops over Northwestern India.
(b) Low pressure develops over Ganga plain.
(c) Peninsular India under the influence of south west trade winds.
(d) Easterly jet stream over Himalayas
Answer: A
By the end of December (22nd December), the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in
the southern hemisphere. The weather in this season is characterised by feeble high pressure conditions
over the northern plain.
Answer: d
Statement 1 is correct. The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian subcontinent from
the west and the northwest during the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean Sea.
Statement 2 is correct. They are brought into India by the westerly jet stream.
Statement 3 is correct. An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance
in the arrival of these cyclones disturbances.
Answer: C
Type of Climate as per Koeppen's scheme of climate classification:
o Amw (Monsoon with short dry season)- West coast of India south of Goa
o As (Monsoon with dry summer) - Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
o Aw (Tropical savannah) - Most of the Peninsular plateaus, south of the Tropic of Cancer
o Bwhw (Semi-arid steppe climate) - North-western Gujarat, some parts of western Rajasthan and
Punjab
o Bwhw (Hot desert) - Extreme western Rajasthan
o Cwg (Monsoon with dry winter) - Ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan, northern Madhya Pradesh, most of
North-east India
o Dfc (Cold humid winter with short summer) - Arunachal Pradesh
o E (Polar type) - Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttaranchal
Q: Which of the following areas receive annual rainfall of more than 200 cm?
1. Western slopes of Western Ghats
2. Western Himalayas
3. Northern Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Areas receiving more than 200cm of rainfall annually are :
Western slopes of western ghats, Meghalaya hills, southern slopes of Eastern himalayas, Assam,
Arunachal pradesh.
Western Himalayas are arid and receive less than 100 cm of rainfall.
Northe rn Tamil Nadu receives a rainfall of nearly 50-100 cm annually.
Q: With reference to Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), consider the following statements:
1. It is a high pressure zone located at the equator.
2. Upward shift of ITCZ in summer season causes onset of southwest monsoon.
3. Onset of north east monsoon is independent of shifting of ITCZ.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Answer: B
Statement 1 is not correct. ITCZ is a low pressure zone located at the equator where trade winds
converge and so it is a zone where air tends to ascend.
Statement 2 is correct. In July, the ITCZ is located around 20°N
-25°N latitudes (over the Gangetic
plain), sometimes called the monsoon trough. This monsoon trough encourages the development of
thermal low over north and northwest India. Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern
hemisphere cross the equator between 40° and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from southwest to
northeast due to the Coriolis force. It becomes southwest monsoon.
Statement 3 is not correct. In winter, the ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from
northeast to south and southwest, takes place. They are called northeast monsoons.
Answer: D
La Nina - Occurrence of La Nina and El Nino affects the South west monsoon and rainfall pattern
across
India.
Westerly jet streams - They are prevalent over north India during winters and are also responsible for
winter rains in North west region.
Tibetan plateau - Tibetan plateau is the main reason for change of pressure system across India and it
influences the occurrence of monsoon as well.
Indian Ocean - India is surrounded by Indian ocean, bay of bengal and arabian sea. This acts as the
major source of moisture for south west and north east monsoon.
Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct. Bay of bengal branch is deflected towards India from Arakan hills of Mayanmar
which are part of Purvanchal ranges. Great Himalayas are only found till diphu pass of Arunachal
pradesh.
Statement 2 is not correct. Coromandal cost i.e. Tamilnadu coast is parallel to Bay of bengal branch of
monsoon, hence it does not receive rainfall from it. It receives rainfall from the north east monsoon.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Tropical Thorn Forests: Important species found are babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem,
khejri, palas, etc. Tropical thorn forests occur in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm.
Tropical Evergreen and Semi Evergreen Forests: Speci es found in these forests include rosewood,
Answer: d
Mangroves forest comes under littoral and swamp forests. They support saline resistant vegetation
like sundari tree. They are found in the deltas of: Ganga-brahamaputra, Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna
etc. Apart from these deltas, they are found in Andaman and Nicobar and Gujarat.
Q: Which among the following are found in the state of Tamil Nadu?
1. Tropical dry evergreen Forests.
2. Tropical deciduous Forests.
3. Littoral and swamp forests.
4. Montane forests.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
All the given four vegetation types are found in Tamil Nadu:
1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
3. Littoral and Swamp forests
4. Montane forests
Q: Which of following are the characteristic features of Tropical Evergreen forests of India?
1. They are multilayered forests with dense canopy.
2. Trees reach great heights.
3. Trees shed their leaves during specific season.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
Answer: B
Statement 1 is Correct. They are multilayered forests with dense canopy. They also have a dense layer
of herbs and grasses, however due to dense canopy they do not grow much.
Statement 2 is Correct. They reach great heights of over 60m.
Statement s3 Incorrect.
i They do not have fixed season to shed their leaves, to flower or fruition.
That is why they appear to be green all-year round.
Q: According to National Commission on Agriculture, Social Forestry includes which of the following?
1. Urban Forestry
2. Rural Forestry
3. Farm Forestry
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories.
These are Urban forestry, Rural forestry and Farm forestry.
Urban forestry pertains to the raising and management of trees on public and privately owned lands in
and around urban centres such as green belts, parks, roadside avenues, industrial and commercial green
belts, etc.
Rural forestry lays emphasis on promotion of agro-forestry and community-forestry.
Farm forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees for commercial and non-
commercial purposes on their farm lands.
Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
At 1,500 m above the sea level, vegetation is temperate in the higher regions, and subtropical on the
lower regions of the Western Ghats, specially in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. The temperate
Q: Which among the following trees are example of Tropical Deciduous vegetation?
1. Mulberry
2. Sisham
3. Rosewood
4. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: A
Types of trees found in Moist Decidous forests: sal, teak, shisham, sandalwood, mahua, mulberry,
palas, semul etc.
Types of tree s found in Dry Decidous forests: sal, teak, tendu, palas, amaltas, khair etc.
Answer: d
Statement 1 is not correct. Red soils are generally shallow but have pH values between 6.6 to 8.0, so
they are slightly alkaline.
Statement 2 is not correct as the red soils are poor in nitrogen, potash, phosphorous and organic
matter.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the characteristics of alluvial soil?
1. It is confined only to the northern plains of India.
2. It is deficient in humus except the Ganga delta which is rich in humus.
3. The alluvial soils are more alkaline in drier areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Statement 1 is not correct as the alluvial soils are found in all the river plains across India including
coastal plains.
Statement 2 is correct as the alluvial soil is deficient in humus except the Ganga delta which is rich in
humus.
Statement 3 correct
is as the alluvial soils are alkaline in drier areas.
Answer: C
Statement 1 is correct. Laterite soild develop in the areas of high temperature and high precipitation.
Statement 2 is correct as laterite soils are coarse textured and can't retain moisture. Apart from this
they are also devoid of most of minerals and humus, so they are not fertile. Thus only special crops like
tea, coffee , tapioca, cashewnuts etc are grown.
Answer: B
o Statement 1 is correct because red soil is found all over the peninsular plateau, forming a circle around
the black soil regions.
o Statement 2 is not correct because red soil gets its red colour from iron oxides.
o Statement 3 is correct because the red soil looks yellowish on being wet due to hydration of the salts
present in it.
Answer: A
The black soil is very deep. These soils are also known as the Regur Soil or the Black Cotton Soil. The
black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and
shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of
self-ploughing.
Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture
for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry
season.
Black soils are formed by the denudation of volcanic rocks. Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime,
iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and
organic matter. The colour of the soil ranges from deep black to grey.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Western Ghats also known as Sahyadri (Benevolent Mountains) is a mountain range that runs parallel to
the western coast of the India peninsula, located entirely in India. It is a UNESCO World Heritage
Site and is one of the eight “hottest hot-spots” of biological diversity in the world
The area is one of the world’s ten Hottest biodiversity hotspots and it is well known for its rich and
unique flora and fauna.
Q: With reference to “Nilgiri tahr”, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. It is the state animal of Kerala, locally known as the Nilgiri ibex or ibex.
2. The Nilgiri tahr is fully protected (Schedule I) by the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
3. It is listed under critically endangered category in IUCN Red list.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Nilgiri tahr known locally as the Nilgiri ibex or simply ibex, is an ungulate
that is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats in the states of Tamil
Nadu and Kerala in Southern India. It is the state animal of Tamil Nadu, locally known as the Nilgiri
ibex or ibex.
Statement 2 is correct: The Nilgiri tahr is fully protected (Schedule I) by the Indian Wildlife (Protection)
Act of 1972.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is listed under endangered category in IUCN Red list.
Answer: A
Linear pattern: In such settlements houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge of a
valley or along a levee.
Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas or wide inter
montane valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.
Circular pattern: Circular villages develop around lakes, tanks and sometimes the village is planned in
such a way that the central part remains open and is used for keeping the animals to protect them from
wild animals.
Therefore, pairs 1 and 2 are incorrectly matched.
Q: Which of the following migration streams is the most dominant one in India?
(a) Rural to rural
(b) Rural to urban
(c) Urban to rural
(d) Urban to urban
Answer: A
Among the four migration streams, the rural to rural migration is the most dominant one which
majorly consists of female migrants who migrate after marriage.
Answer: C
Clustered Settlements is a compact or closely built up area of houses. In this type of village the general
living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. Such settlements
are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. Sometimes, people live in
compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and
in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum
utilisation of available water resources.
Hamleted Settlements is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a
common name. Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain,
Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the Himalayas.
Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few
huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Many areas of Meghalaya,
Uttaranchal, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement.
Answer: b
Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any area.
The theory tells us that population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births
and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate
society. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.
Hence, Option-b should be the answer
Answer: B
Demographic transition theory tells us that population of any region changes from high births and
high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban
industrial and literate society.
The first stag e has high birth rate and high death rate because people reproduce more to compensate
for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply.
Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied
by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality.
In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or
grows slowly.
Therefore,-1-3 2 is the correct sequence.
Answer: D
Statement 1 is correct as countries with more youth population like India has more birth rate.
A population pyramid is used to show age -sex structure of population. Statement 2 is correct as
triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries. These have larger
populations in lower age.
Statement 3 is correct. When age -sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapers towards top then birth and
death rate is almost equal tending to constant population.
Answer: B
Statement 1 is correct. In the first stage of demographic transition, the population goes through a low
growth because of high mortality leading to high death rate.
Statement 2 is not correct. Population is stable in the third stage and not the second stage. Fertility
remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. Improvements in sanitation and
health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.
Statement 3 is correct. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The
population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanised, literate and has high
technical knowhow and deliberately controls the family size.
Answer: A
Expanding Populations:
The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria for example is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is
typical of less developed countries. These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth
rates.
Ex: Bangladesh and Mexico etc.
Constant Population:
In the case of Australia age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows birth
and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.
Declining Populations:
The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The
population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative.
Q: The ‘Pemberton Line’ and the ‘Johnstone Line’ are related to the boundary between India and
a. Srilanka
b. Pakistan
c. Myanmar
d. Bangladesh
Answer: c
In the medieval ages, Manipur and Burmese kings often wrested the valley from each other until the
British defeated the Burmese and signed the Treaty of Yandaboo in 1826. But the valley was returned to
Burma in the second treaty and a boundary line between British India and Burma was drawn by Captain
Q: Consider the following statements regarding The World Customs Organisation (WCO)
1. Was established as an associate body to the World Trade Organisation.
2. Has divided its membership into six regions, with India presently being one of the regional
heads.
3. Represents 193 customs administrations across the globe that collectively process
approximately 98% of world trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
The WCO, established in 1952 as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC) is an independent
intergovernmental body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of
customs administrations.
The CCC was intially a Customs Committee set up by a group of a few European Governments
based on the principles of the GATT. The name ‘WCO’ was adopted in 1994 to reflect its status
as a truly global intergovernmental institution.
Today, the WCO represents 182 Customs administrations across the globe that collectively
process approximately 98% of world trade.
India’s Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is the nodal body for the WCO; India
recently became the vice-chair (regional head) of the Asia-Pacific region.
Answer: c
Fifty new national corridors will be built; the programme will help connect 550 districts in the country
through NH linkages; National corridors, feeder routes, economic corridors, coastal roads, greenfield
expressways and border roads will be constructed. Deadline for the first phase of the scheme is 2022.
Solution: a.
Cape Horn refers to the steep rocky headland on Hornos Island, Tierra del Fuego Archipelago in
southern Chile. It is located off the southern tip of mainland South America.
Cape Leeuwin is the most south-westerly mainland point of the Australian continent, in the
state of Western Australia.
Answer: c
Assistance for Deep-Sea Fishing’ under ‘Blue-Revolution’:
Under this, the traditional fishermen and their societies / associations can avail financial
assistance to the extent of Rs. 40 lakh per vessel for purchase of deep sea fishing vessel
including equipments to increase fish production.
Fish production in India is estimated at 11.4 million tonnes, out of which 68% is registered from
inland fisheries sector and the remaining 32% from marine sector. It is expected that the
indigenous fish requirement by 2020 would be 15 million tonnes as against the production of
11.4 million tonnes. This gap of 3.62 million tonnes is expected to be made up by Inland
Aquaculture and also through mariculture.
Answer: d
The number of women and men in a country is an important demographic characteristic.
The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the Sex Ratio.
In some countries it is calculated as the number of males per thousand females.
In India, the sex ratio is worked out as the number of females per thousand males.
The sex ratio is an important information about the status of women in a country.
Hence, none of the statements are incorrect.
Answer: a
The census of India, 1991 defines urban settlements as“All places which have municipality, corporation,
cantonment board or notified town area committee and have a minimum population of 5000 persons,
at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits and a density of population
of at least 400 persons per square kilometers are urban.
Answer: d
Statement 1 wrong: there is fluctuation in the sex ratio in India since independence.
Statement 2 wrong: Kerala had highest sex ratio of 1048.
Q: Which of the following components are used in calculating Human Development Index (HDI) by
UNDP?
1. Life expectancy at birth
2. Mean years of schooling
3. Expected years of schooling
4. Gross Domestic Product per capita
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: A
Approaches to Human Development:
Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development
is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an
individual enjoys. Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development.
Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all
development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health,
social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients.
The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure
on welfare.
Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation
(ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified.
The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined
sections.
Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities
in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.
Statement 1 correct: The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed in 2010 by
the Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development
Program. It replaced the previous Human Poverty Index. The global MPI is released annually by OPHI
and the results published on its website.
Statement 2 correct: The index uses the same three dimensions as the Human Development Index:
health, education, and standard of living. These are measured using ten indicators.
Q: Who among the following economists introduced the term Human Development?
a. Mehbub Al Haque
b. Amartya Sen
c. Adam Smith
d. Both a and b
Answer: d
Explanation: In 1990 two economists - Prof. Mehbub Al Haque and Prof. Amartya Sen introduced the
concept of Human Development. From 1990 onwards, United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP), each year calculate Human Development Index (HDI) and publish as a report which is known as
Human Development Report (HDR).
Answer (d)
The first population census in India was conducted in 1872 but its first complete census was conducted
only in 1881. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.
India has a highly uneven pattern of population distribution. Therefore, statement 2 is also not correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option (d)
Q: He was the first nationalist leader who sought close contact with the masses and was in this respect a
forerunner of Gandhiji. He was the first Congress leader to suffer several terms of imprisonments for the
sake of the country. During the initial stages of the First World War, he urged people to cooperate with
the British Government. He authored the books ‘The Arctic Home of the Vedas’ and ‘Gita Rahasya’.
These statements refer to
a. Madan Lal Dhingra
b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Savarkar
d. Pherozeshah Mehta
Answer: b
Answer: D
1 is correct as rice is the most characteristic crop of monsoonal land.
2 is correct as wide range of cash crops are cultivated in the lowland tropical region for export like
sugarcane, jute etc.
3 is correct as colonization gave rise to cultivation
of certain plantation crops. Tropical upland forests
were cleared for tea and coffee plantation.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Shifting Cultivation?
1. The ashes left by burning of vegetation add to the fertility of the soil.
2. Mechanized tools like tractors are used in patches for cultivation
3. It is primarily prevalent in the temperate regions of the world.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Shifting agriculture is a form of agriculture, in which an area of ground is cleared of vegetation by
burning and cultivated for a few years and then abandoned for a new area until its fertility has been
naturally restored.
Statemen t 1 correct. The ashes after burning of vegetation increase the fertility of soil for temporary
period.
Statement 2 incorrect. It is a primitive form of agriculture in which primitive tools like sticks and hoes
are used.
Statement 3 incorrect. It isrgely
la prevalent in tropical regions. Locally it is known by different names
such as: Jhuming in NE India, Jadang in Indonesia and Malaysia, Milpa in Central America and Mexico.
Q: The proportion of which of the following land use categories have increased since independence?
1. Forest
2. Area under non agricultural use
3. Barren and waste land
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Q: The distinct crop seasons - kharif, rabi and zaid- does not exist in southern parts of the country.
Which of the following is primarily responsible for this?
(a) Conducive climatic conditions all through the year.
(b) Greater than 90 per cent irrigation cover in all the states.
(c) Well-targeted government procurement programmes.
(d) Well established networks of Mega Food Parks.
Answer: A
There are three distinct crop seasons in the northern and interior parts of country, namely kharif, rabi
and zaid. However, this type of distinction in the cropping season does not exist in southern parts of the
country. Here, the temperature is high enough to grow tropical crops during any period in the year
provided the soil moisture is available. Therefore, in this region same crops can be grown thrice in an
agricultural year provided there is sufficient soil moisture. Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Q: Which of the following names of shifting agriculture and the region they are practiced in is/are
correctly matched?
1. Jhum- Manipur
2. Pamlou- Mizoram
3. Dipa- Chhattisgarh
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: c
Jhumming - Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Pamlou - Manipur
Dipa - Chhattisgarh and Andaman and Nicobar Island.
Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to cotton cultivation in India?
1. It is a tropical crop grown in Kharif season.
2. It requires clear sky during flowering stage.
3. Per hectare output is higher in north west region than black soil region of south.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Cotton is a tropical crop grown in kharif season in semi-arid areas of the country. Cotton requires
clear sky during flowering stage. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is correct. Per hectare output of cotton is high under irrigated conditions in north -
western region of the country. Its yield is low in Maharashtra where it is grown under rainfed conditions.
Q: Arabica, Robusta and Liberica varieties are associated with which of the following crops?
(a) Tea
(b) Pulses
(c) Coffee
(d) Oilseeds
Answer: c
There are thre e varieties of coffee i.e. arabica, robusta and liberica. India mostly grows superior
quality
coffee, arabica, which is in great demand in International market.
Q: Consider the following statements regarding North Indian Sugar Industry and Peninsular Indian Sugar
Industry:
1. The yield per hectare is lower in North Indian Sugar Industry than Peninsular Indian Sugar Industry.
2. The production period is longer in North Indian Sugar Industry than Peninsular Indian Sugar Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q: Which of the following varieties of silk accounts for majority of the total natural silk produced in
India?
(a) Mulberry
(b) Eri
(c) Tasar
(d) Muga
Answer: A
Mulberry account s for about 90 per cent of the total natural silk produced in India.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Q: Which of the following oil refineries is/are not located along the coast?
1. Barauni
2. Tatipaka
3. Numaligarh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Q: Khetri, Alwar and Bhilwara are regions associated with which of the following minerals?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Copper
(c) Iron Ore
(d) Coal
Answer: B
All theiveng regions are associated with copper mining. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Q: In India, systematic surveying, prospecting and exploration for minerals is undertaken by which of the
following agencies?
1. Geological Survey of India
2. Oil and Natural Gas Commission
3. National Mineral Development Corporation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
In India, systematic surveying, prospecting and explorationorf minerals is undertaken by the
Geological
Survey of India (GSI), Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC), Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd.
(MECL), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM), Bharat
Gold Mines Ltd. (BGML), Hindustan Copper Ltd. (HCL), National Aluminium Company Ltd. (NALCO)
and the Departments of Mining and Geology in various states.
Q: Which of the following pairs of Nuclear Power Projects and its associated location is not correctly
matched?
(a) Tarapur - Maharashtra
(b) Narora - Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kaiga - Karnataka
(d) Kakarapara - Tamil Nadu
Answer: D
The important nuclear power projects are:
Tarapur (Maharashtra)
Rawatbhata near Kota (Rajasthan)
Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu)
Narora (Uttar Pradesh)
Kaiga (Karnataka)
Kakarapara (Gujarat)
Q: Which of the following Industrial Regions are classified as Major Industrial Regions?
1. Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region
2. Jaipur-Ajmer Region
3. Amritsar-Ludhiana Region
4. Hugli Region
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Hugli Region and Bengaluru -Tamil Nadu Region are classified as Major Industrial Regions
Answer: B
Option (b) is the correct answer. Chotanagpur Region -This region owes its development to the
discovery of coal in the Damodar Valley and metallic and non-metallic minerals in Jharkhand and
northern Orissa.
Six large integrated iron and steel plants at Jamshedpur, Burnpur- Kulti, Durgapur, Bokaro and Rourkela
are located within this region.
Answer: D
Statement 1 is correct. Many industries benefit from nearness to a leader industry and other
industries.
Savings are derived from the linkages which exist between different industries.
Statement 2 is correct. Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the energy
supply such as the aluminum industry.
Q: Woolen industry in India is not as developed as cotton textiles. Which of the following reasons is/are
responsible?
1. Tropical climate
2. Poor quality of indigenous wool
3. Growing competition from synthetic fibres
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
The woolen industry is not developed in India due to the following reasons:
India being a tropical county, woolen clothes are required only in northern India during the winter
months, hence there is not much demand.
Good quality of wool has to be imported due to the poor quality of indigenous wool.
Growing competition from synthetic fibres. They are gradually replacing the woolen industry.
Other reasons include - woolen mills are scattered all over the country. So the mill owners are unable
to work jointly for its improvement.
Answer: A
Cotton textile industry has three sub -sectors i.e. handloom, powerloom and mill sectors.
Handloom sector is labour -intensive and provides employment to semi-skilled workers. It requires
small capital investment. The power loom sector introduces machines and becomes less labour
intensive.
Therefore, statement 2 is not correct.
Cotton textile mill sector is highly capital intensive and produces fine clothes in bulk. Therefore,
statement 1 is correct.
Answer: D
Pittsburgh is a city in Pennsylvania in the United States .It is known for iron and steel industry, this
region has also shifted to high technology, robotics, health care, nuclear engineering, tourism,
biomedical technology, finance, education, and services.
Manchester of United kingdom is known for cotton textile manufacture since the Industrial
Revolution.
Detro it area emerged as a significant metropolitan region within the United States due to its
emergence as a major automobile industry. Automobiles companies like Chevrolet has their
headquarter in Detroit.
Answer: b
Footloose industries are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. The
important factor in their location is accessibility by road network. ex. Computer chip industries,
assembling of components and parts.
Answer: b
Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region: Cotton Textile
Hugli Industrial Region: Jute Industry
Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region: Plantation agriculture & Hydropower
Chotanagpur Region: Heavy Metallurgical Industries
Answer: D
Kochchi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as the 'Queen of the Arabian
Sea', is also a natural harbour. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-Colombo
route. It caters to the needs of Kerala, southern-Karnataka and south western Tamil Nadu.
Answer: B
Pair 1 is correctly matched. NW 1 (Allahabad -Haldia stretch (1,620 km))- It is one of the most
important waterways in India, which is navigable by mechanical boats up to Patna and by ordinary boats
up to Haridwar. It is divided into three parts for developmental purposes- (i) Haldia-Farakka (560 km), (ii)
Farakka- Patna (460 km), (iii) Patna- Allahabad (600 km).
Pair 2 is correctly matched. NW 2 (Sadiya -Dhubri stretch (891 km))- Brahmaputra is navigable by
steamers up to Dibrugarh (1,384 km) which is shared by India and Bangladesh.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. NW 3 (Kottapuram -Kollam stretch (205 km))- It includes 168 km of west
coast canal along with Champakara canal (23 km) and Udyogmandal canal (14 km).
Q: Arrange the following sea ports of India in the order of their location from north to south.
1. Paradip
2. Haldia
3. Marmagao
4. Chennai
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2-1-4-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 3-2-1-4
Answer: B
The correct order is: Haldia (west bengal) - Paradip (odisha) - Marmagao (Goa) - Chennai (Tamil nadu)
Answer: B
The distribution of roads is not uniform in the country. Nature of terrain and the level of economic
development are the main determinants of density of roads. Therefore, both 1 and 2 are correct.
Predominance of agricultural activities is not the reason behind varying density or low density of
roads.
In fact it should have led to more density of roads.
Q: Which of the following roads constitute the maximum length of roads in India?
(a) National Highways
(b) State Highways
(c) District Roads
(d) Rural Roads
Answer; D
Rural or Village roads account for over 58 per cent of the total length of roads in the country.
National Highways - 2 per cent
State Highways - 3.5 per cent
Q: Pipelines are one of the modes of transportation of various goods. Which of the following goods
is/are transported through pipelines?
1. Natural Gas
2. Coal
3. Iron Ore
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
Pipelines are one of the modes of transportation along with land, water and air. Other than
passengers they carry majority of items in liquified forms like:
Crude oil, natural gas and petroleum
Coal (in liquified form)
Ores (like iron, copper, Bauxite etc) through slurry pipeline
Q: Which of the following can be developed for navigation through inland waterways?
1. Rivers
2. Canals
3. Lakes
4. Coastal areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
o Rivers, canals, lakes and coastal areas are all used as waterways , provided they have adequate depth
,width and river flow for navigability.
o Rivers are the only means of transport in dense forest like Congo etc.
o Lakes like Huron and Erie supports forward and backward linkages of prairies through waterways over
it. This has substantially reduced the cost of transportation of cereals in the region.
o Coastal areas also helps in transportation of goods to adjacent regions.
Answer: d
The length of highways or roads follow the order: Panchayati roads>urban roads> state highway>
national highway
Answer: c
Statement 1 correct:
Statement 2 Correct: National Highway 7 is 2,369 km long road is the longest National Highway of India
and one of the major road network between south and north India. The National Highway 7 cross 6
Indian states and connects major
Indian cities like Varanasi,Nagpur, Hyderabad,Bangalore and Madurai. Some of the part of NH7 is
selected as North-South Corridor and Golden Quadrilateral highway projects.
Q:Inland Ports are located away from the sea coast and are linked to the sea through a river or a canal.
Which of the following port is an example of "Inland port"?
(a) Abadan Port
(b) Singapore Port
(c) Kolkata Port
(d) Rotterdam Port
Answer: C
Inland Ports are located away from the sea coast. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal.
Memphis located on the river Mississippi, Mannheim and Duisburg on Rhine in Germany and Kolkata
located on the river Hoogli are some of the inland ports. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Q: Activities that focus on the creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas,
data interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies are known as:
(a) Secondary activities
(b) Quinary activities
(c) Tertiary activities
(d) Primary activities
Q: Which of the following are classified as Tertiary activities under service sector?
1. Trade
2. Decision Making
3. Policy formulation
4. Communication
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Activities under Services Sector-
Tertiary activities- Trader and commerce, Transport, Communication.
Quaternary activities - Information based, R&D based.
Quinary activities - specialists, decision makers, consultant, policy formulation.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Q. The sea coast of which one of the following states has become famous as a nesting place for the giant
Olive Ridley turtles from South America? [2002]
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Orissa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer(c)
Q. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what
possible reason/reasons is this is attributable?[2010]
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Both the statements are correct
Q.Which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal? [2013 - I]
1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature
Q. The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary
Measures' and 'Peace Clause' appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the [2015-I]
(a) Food and Agriculture Organization
(b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) United Nations Environment Program
Answer: (c)
'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures' and
'Peace Clause' are related to World Trade Organisation
Q: With reference to the Quaternary activities, which of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. Unlike the tertiary activities, quaternary activities cannot be outsourced.
2. Quaternary activities are tied to resources and are not affected by the environment or localised
market.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Both the statements are incorrect with reference to quaternary activities.
Like some of the tertiary fun ctions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced. Because they are not
tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.