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(Good read:
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=GDP_/_National_Accounts_Revised_S
eries_with_2011-12_as_base_year)
In a four-sector model,
Y=C+I+G+NX……………………………………… (1)
Yd=C+S OR C=Yd-S
Also, by definition, Yd=Y+Tr-Ta
Y= Y+Tr-Ta-S+ I+G+ NX
S-I= (G+Tr-Ta) + NX
If S=I, then G+Tr-Ta = Public savings/Budget Deficit will be equal to –NX (i.e. M-
X)= Current Account Deficit
OR in other words,
S- (Ta- G-Tr) –(M-X)= I
That is, the sum total of private, public and external savings= Invt.
If domestic savings falls short of the required invt, the country will run a CAD.
We also know that (in the ex post sense) in a closed economy Investment
equals Savings (S).
So, I = S.
The final equation says that this growth rate equals s/ v or savings rate divided
by the ICOR.
The higher the ICOR, the lower is the rate of growth of GDP or the economy.
The lower the ICOR the higher will be the economy's growth rate measured by
the rate of growth of GDP or income.
This is so simple intuitively: given the savings rate, the lower the additional
capital required to produce an additional unit of GDP, higher will be the
additional GDP generated from the given investment and hence higher the
growth rate. This is a simplistic version of the Harrod Domar growth model.)
a) Look at the GDP growth rates, Invt rates and work out the ICORs. What do
you notice- the ICOR has dropped. Why? What is its implication?
b) Given the relationship between growth, invt and ICOR, as also S and I, how
will the S-I gap be bridged? Through higher CAD.
Note, every year, the S-I difference is nothing but CAD.
So, as our savings rates falls and I falls lesser, what is the implication for growth?-
To sustain higher growth, we shall have to incur high CAD with its repercussions.