Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

Section­I
Intelligence and Critical Reasoning

1. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a week day. Next day, he 
forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk put up
the application to the desk officer next day in the evening. The desk officer studied the 
application and disposed off the matter on the same day, ie Friday. The application was received 
by the inward clerk on
1) Monday
2) Wednesday
3) Tuesday
4) Previous week's Saturday

2. In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and Mona is sixth from the right. When they
interchange their places among themselves, Kashish becomes thirteenth from the left. Then,
what will be Mona's position from the right?
1) 4th
2) 14th
3) 8th
4) 15th

3. If the numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in ascending order,

minimum number being on the top, then which number would come at the ninth place from the 
top?
1) 18
2) 24
3) 21
4) 27

4. Which letter should be the ninth letter to the left of the ninth letter from the right, if the first

half of the alphabets of English are reversed?
1) D
2) F
3) E
4) I

5. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his 

daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is 9 years younger to her husband
and the brother is seven years older to his sister. What is the age of the mother?

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1) 40 years
2) 50 years
3) 45 years
4) 60 year
6. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs 96 on eatables. Four of
them did not turn up. As a consequence, each of the remaining ones had to contribute Rs 4
extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was
1) 8
2) 16
3) 12
4) 24

7. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments ––– guitar, violin
and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the
above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is 
the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?
1) 30
2) 44
3) 38
4) 45

8. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and

some can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of 
students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can
speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
1) 39, 29 and 11 respectively
2) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
3) 37, 27 and 13, respectively
4) 21, 11 and 29 respectively

9. The letters of the name of a vegetable are I, K, M, N, P, P, U. If the letters are rearranged 

correctly, then what is the last letter of the word formed?
1) M
2) N
3) K
4) P

10. At a farm, there are hens, cows and bullocks, and keepers to look after them. There are 69

heads less than legs; the number of cows is double than that of the bullocks; the number of

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cows and hens is the same and there is one keeper per ten birds and cattle. The total number of 

hens plus cows and bullocks and their keepers does not exceed 50. How many cows are there?
1) 10
2) 14
3) 12
4) 16
Directions for question 11 to 15:
In each of these questions, there is given a Statement followed by two Assumptions numbered I
and II. Consider the Statement and the following Assumptions to decide which of the Assumptions
is implicit in the Statement:

Mark your answer as
1. If only Assumption I is implicit;
2. If either Assumption I or II is implicit;
3. If only Assumption II is implicit;
4. If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

11. Statement:
Like a mad man, I decided to follow him.
Assumptions:
I. I am not a mad man.
II. I am a mad man.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

12. Statement:
If it is easy to become an engineer, I don't want to be an engineer.
Assumptions:
I. An individual aspires to be professional.
II. One desires to achieve a thing which is hardearned.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

13. Statement:

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All the employees are notified that the organisation will provide transport facilities at half  the cost

from the nearby railway station to the office except those who are being provided with travelling
allowance.
Assumptions:
I. Most of the employees will travel by the office transport.
II. Those who are provided with travelling allowance will not read such notice.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

14. Statement:
An advertisement of a Bank, "Want to open a bank account! Just dial our 'room service' and we
will come at your doorsteps".
Assumptions:
I. There is a section of people who require such services at their home.
II. Nowadays banking has become very competitive.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

15. Statement:
I can take you quickly from Kanpur to Lucknow by my cab but then you must pay me double the 
normal charges.
Assumptions:
I. Normally, it will take more time to reach Lucknow from Kanpur.
II. People want to reach quickly but they will not pay extra money for it.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Directions for question 16 to 20:
In each of these questions, various terms of a series are given with one term missing as shown by
(?). Choose the missing term.
16. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, (?)
1) XVZ
2) YXW
3) ZYA

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4) VWX

17. 19, 2, 38, 3, 114, 4, (?)

1) 228
2) 352
3) 256
4) 456

18. YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, (?)

1) QOL
2) TOL
3) QGL
4) QNL

19. AZ, CX, FU, (?)

1) IR
2) JQ
3) IV
4) KP

20. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, (?)

1) 27U24
2) 45U15
3) 47U15
4) 27V14
Directions for question 21 to 25: Read the information given below carefully to answer these
questions.
From a group of six boys M, N, O, P, Q, R and five girls G, H, I, J, K; a team of six is to be selected.
Some of the criteria of selection are as follows:
M and J go together.
O cannot be placed with N.
I cannot go with J.
N goes with H.
P and Q have to be together.
K and R go together.
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are applicable to all the below questions:

21. If the team consists of two girls and I is one of them, then the other members are

1) GMRPQ

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2) KOPQR
3) HNOPQ
4) KRMNP

22. If the team has four boys including O and R, then the members of the team other than O and R 

are
1) HIPQ
2) GJPQ
3) GKPQ
4) GJMP

23. If four members are boys, then which of the following cannot constitute the team?

1) GJMOPQ
2) JKMNOR
3) HJMNPQ
4) JKMPQR

24. If both K and P are members of the team and three boys in all are included in the team, then the
members of the team other than K and P are
1) GIRQ
2) HIRQ
3) GJRM
4) IJRQ

25. If the team has three girls including J and K, then the members of the team other than J and K 

are
1) GHNR
2) MORG 
3) MNOG
4) NHOR
Directions for question 26 to 30:
These questions are based on the diagram given below showing four persons stationed at the four 
corners of a square piece of a plot as shown:

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26. A starts crossing the plot diagonally. After walking half the distance, he turns right, walks some 

distance and turns left. Which direction is A facing now?
1) North­east
2) North
3) North­west
4) South­east

27. From the original position given in the above figure, A and B move one arm length clockwise and
then cross over to the corners diagonally opposite; C and D move one arm length anti­clockwise 
and cross over to the corners diagonally opposite. The original configuration ABCD has now 
changed to
1) CBDA
2) DACB
3) BDAC
4) ACBD

28. From the original position, B and D move one and a half length of sides clockwise and

anticlockwise respectively. Which one of the following statements is true?
1) B and D are both at the midpoint between A and C.
2) B is at the midpoint between A and C and D is at the corner originally occupied by A.
3) D is at the midpoint between A and C and B is at the corner originally occupied by C.
4) B and D are both at the midpoint between A and D.
29. From the positions in the original figure, C and A move diagonally to opposite corners and then 
one side each clockwise and anti­clockwise respectively. B and D move two sides each clockwise 
and anti­clockwise respectively. Where is A now?
1) At the north­west corner
2) At the south­east corner
3) At the north­east corner
4) At the south­west corner

30. After the movements given in the above question, who is at the north­west corner?

1) A
2) C
3) B
4) D

Directions for question 31 to 35:

In each of these questions, a statement is followed by three Courses of Action numbered I, II and
III. Assume everything in the statement to be true to decide which of the three given suggested
Courses of Action logically follows for pursuing.
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31. Statement :
In one of the worst accidents on a railway level crossing, fifty people died when a bus carrying
them collided with a running train.
Courses of Action:
I. The train driver should immediately be suspended.
II. The driver of the bus should be tried in court for negligence on his part.
III. The railway authorities should be asked to man all its level crossings.
1) None follows
2) Only III follows
3) Only I and II follow
4) Only II and III follow

32. Statement:
There was a spurt in criminal activities in the city during the recent festival season.
Courses of Action:
I. The police should immediately investigate into the causes of this increase.
II. In future, the police should take adequate precautions to avoid recurrence of such a 
situation during festivals.
III. The known criminals should be arrested before any such reason.
1) None follows
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and II follow
4) All follow

33. Statement:
A mass mortality of shrimps in ponds on entire Andhra coast has recently been reported due to
the presence of a virus.
Courses of Action:
I. The water of the ponds affected should immediately be treated for identifying the nature of
the virus.
II. The catching of shrimps from the ponds should temporarily be stopped.
III. The fisherman should be asked to watch for the onset of such phenomenon in nature.
1) Only I follows
2) All follow
3) Only I and II follow
4) Only II and III follow

34. Statement:
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The weather bureau has through a recent bulletin forecast heavy rainfall during the next week
which may cause water logging in several parts of the city.
Courses of Action:
I. The bulletin should be given wide publicity.
II. The civic authority should keep in readiness the pumping system for removal of water from
these parts.
III. The people should be advised to stay indoors during the period.
1) None follows
2) Only II follows
3) Only I and II follow
4) Only II and III follow

35. Statement :
The world will have to feed more than 10 billion people in the next century, of whom half will be 
in Asia and will eat rice as their staple food.
Courses of Action:
I. More funds should immediately be allocated for rice research to help ensure adequate 
supplies.
II. The people in Asia should be encouraged to change their food habits.
III. The rice should be grown in countries outside Asia to meet the demand.
1) Only I and II follow
2) All follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) Only I and III follow

Directions for question 36 to 40:

Read the following passage to examine each inference given against below Questions in the
context of this passage.
Mark your answer as:
1. If the inference is 'definitely true'
2. If the 'data provided is inadequate'
3. If the inference is 'probably true'
4. If the inference is 'definitely false'

The space exploration has been done mainly by using unmanned satellites called spaceprobes 

containing a large variety of latest scientific instruments on board. These space probes have 
provided us the close­up pictures and other data about planets and other bodies in the outer space.
The climax of the intensive American space programme came when Neil Armstrong became the first
man to set foot on the moon on July 20, 1969. Originally, the artificial satellites were launched for 
studying the upper atmosphere of the earth.
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36. The space probes have increased our knowledge about space and the bodies in it.

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

37. Space probes are meant to study the upper atmosphere of the earth only.

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

38. Neil Armstrong was the first man to go into space.

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

39. Space probes are provided with computers.

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

40. Moon has been explored by man.

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

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Section­II
Language Comprehension
PASSAGE 1

The  National Institute  of  Oceanography (NIO)  in Goa  has  developed  a  real­time  reporting and
Internet­accessible coastal sea­level monitoring system and it has been operational at Verem jetty in
the Mandovi estuary in Goa since September 24, 2005. The gauge uses a cellular modem to put on
the  Internet real­time  sea­level data, which can be accessed by authorised  personnel. By  using a 
cellular phone network, coastal sea­level changes are continuously updated on to a web­server. The
sea­level gauge  website  can be  made  available  to television channels  to broadcast real­time 
visualisation of the coastal sea level, particularly during oceanogenic hazards such as storm surges or
a tsunami. A network  of such gauges along the coast and the islands that lie on either  side  of the 
mainland would provide data to disaster management agencies to disseminate warnings to coastal
communities and beach tourism centres.
The  gauge incorporates  a bottom pressure transducer as the  sensing element. The  sea unit of the
gauge, which houses  the  pressure  transducer, is  mounted  within a  cylindrical protective  housing,
which in turn is rigidly held within a mechanical structure. This structure is secured to a jetty. The
gauge is powered by a battery, which is charged by solar panels. Battery, electronics, solar panels,
and cellular modems are mounted on the top portion of this structure. The pressure sensor and the 
logger are continuously powered on, and their electrical current Consumption is 30 mA and 15 mA
respectively. The  cellular  modem consumes  15 mA and 250 mA during standby and data
transmission modes, respectively. The  pressure  sensor  located  below  the  low­tide  level measures 
the  hydrostatic pressure  of  the  overlying water  layer. An indigenously designed  and developed
microprocessor  based  data logger interrogates  the pressure  transducer  and acquires  the pressure 
data at the rate of two samples a second. The acquired pressure data is averaged over an interval of
five minutes to remove high­frequency wind­waves that are superimposed on the lower frequency
tidal cycle. This  averaged  data  is  recorded  in a  multimedia  card. The  measured water  pressure  is
converted to water level using sea water density and acceleration owing to the earth's gravity. The 
water  level so estimated  is  then  referenced  to chart datum (CD), which is  the  internationally
accepted reference level below which the sea­level will not, fall. The data received at the Internet
server is presented in graphical format together with the predicted sea­level and the residual. The 
residual sea level (that is, the measured minus the predicted sea level) provides a clear indication of 
sea­level oscillation and a quantitative estimate  of the  anomalous behaviour, the  driving force  for 
which could be atmospheric forcing (storm) or physical (tsunami).
A network  of  sea­level gauges  along the  Indian coastline  and islands  would also provide  useful
information to mariners  for  safe  navigation in shallow  coastal waters  and contribute  to various
engineering projects associated with coastal zone management, besides dredging operations, port
operations  and manwater  treaties  with greater  transparency. Among the  various  communication
technologies used for real­time transmission of sea­ level data are the wired telephone connections,
VHF/UHF  transceivers, satellite  transmit terminals  and cellular  connectivity. Wired  telephone
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connections are severely susceptible  to loss of connectivity during natural disasters  such as storm

surges, primarily because of telephone  line  breakage. Communication via VHF/UHF transceivers is 
limited by line­of­ sight distance  between transceivers and normally offer only point­to­point data 
transfer. Satellite  communication via  platform transmit terminals  (PTTs)  has  wide  coverages  and,
therefore, allows  data  reception from offshore  platforms. However, data  transfer  speeds  are 
limited. Further  many satellites  (for  example, GOES, INSAT)  permit data  transfer  only predefined
time­slots, thereby inhibiting continuous  data  access. Technologies  of  data  reporting via  satellites
have undergone a sea change recently in terms of frequency of reportage, data size, recurring costs 
and so forth. Broadband technology has been identified as one that can be used optimally for real­
time reporting of data because of its inherent advantages such as a continuous two­day connection
that allows  high­speed data  transfer  and near real­time  data  reporting. While  satellite 
communication is  expensive, wireless  communication infrastructure  and the  ubiquity of  cellular
phones  have  made  cellular  communication affordable. Low  initial and recurring costs  are  an
important advantage of cellular communication. A simple and cost­effective methodology for real­
time reporting of data is the cellular­based GPRS technology, with has been recently implemented at
the NIO for real­time reporting of coastal sea level data.

41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is not true?

1) Network  of  gauges  along the  coast and the islands  would help disaster  management
agencies to disseminate warnings.
2) Cellular­based GPRS  technology is not a  simple and cost effective  method for  real­time 
reporting of data.
3) Disadvantage of wired telephone connection is the loss of connectivity during disasters due 
to line breakages.
4) Data  reporting via  satellites  has  undergone  changes  in terms  of  frequency, data  size,
recurring cost, etc.

42. What is the outermost part of the sea unit of the gauge?

1) Pressure transducer
2) Mechanical structure
3) Cylindrical protective housing
4) Sensing element

43. What is the limitation of satellite communication via platform transmit terminals?

1) Coverage
2) Offshore platforms
3) Data transfer speed
4) None of these

44. Which one of the following relationships is correct as per the passage?

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1) Predicted sea level is a product of measured sea level and residual sea level.

2) Predicted sea level is the sum of measured sea level and residual sea level.
3) Predicted sea level is the sum of predicted sea level and measured sea level.
4) Predicted sea level is obtained by dividing measured sea level and residual sea level.

PASSAGE 2

The  World Trade  Organisation (WTO) Ministerial Conference, which commenced in Hong Kong on
December  13, 2005 adopted  a  declaration on December  18, 2005 after  six days of acrimonious
negotiations between developed and developing countries. Although initially there  was  a show  of 
unity among developing countries especially on the issue of agriculture, which was reflected in the
formation of the G­110, the final outcome of the Ministerial Declaration has been thoroughly anti­
development. The Ministerial Declaration has not only failed to address substantially the concerns
of  developing countries  but has  actually paved  the  way for  an eventual trade  deal by the  end of
2006, which is going to be severely detrimental to their interests. It is clear by now that the so­called 
"Development Round" launched  in Doha  in 2001 has  been manipulated  by developed  countries,
especially the  United  States  and the  members  of  the  European  Union, to push for  further  trade
liberalisation in developing countries while they continue  to protect their economies through high
subsidies and non­tariff barriers. Far from redressing the asymmetries of the global trading system,
the  Doha  round seems  to be  heading for  another catastrophe  for the  developing world. The  EU
stuck to its intransigent position on the deadline of 2013 for the elimination of export subsidies and
developing countries  gave  up their  demand for an earlier end date  despite  the  initial collective
efforts of the  G­110. The  gross inadequacy of  this so­called "concession" can be  understood from
the  fact that export subsidies  comprise  less  than 2 per  cent of  the  total farm  subsidies  in the 
developed world. There  has been no concrete commitment on the  reduction of domestic support
other  than export subsidies. The EU can continue  to subsidise agriculture  to the  tune  of 55 billion
euros  a  year. The  EU budget adopted  recently ensures  that nothing can be  touched  in the
agriculture budget till at least 2013. The US budget reconciliation process and the final vote in the 
Congress  are  set to extend domestic support to agriculture  and counter­cyclical support to
commodities up to around 2011. Even in the case of cotton, the agreement to eliminate subsidies by
2006 is restricted to export subsidies  only and does  not include  other forms of domestic support.
The US refused to give duty­free access to exports from Least­Developed Countries (LDCs) for 99.9
per cent of product lines and the final agreement was on 97 per cent of them, which would enable
the US and Japan to deny market access to LDCs in product lines such as rice and textiles. Much of
the  Aid for  Trade  for  LDCs, which is  being showcased  by developed  countries  as  a  "development
package", is disguised in conditional loan packages that are contingent upon further opening up of
their  markets. India's  prime interest in agriculture  was  to ensure  the  protection of  its  small and
marginal farmers  from the  onslaught of  artificially low­priced  imports  or  threats  thereof. The
proposals for agricultural tariff cuts, which are already on the table, are quite ambitious and the G­
20 has already committed itself to undertake cuts to the extent of two­thirds of the level applicable 
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to developed countries. Moreover, India has 100 per cent tariff lines bound in agriculture with the 

difference in the applied level and the bound level not very marked in many lines. In this context,
the systemic problem face by India's small and marginal farmers practising subsistence agriculture
will only get aggravated as a result of the impending tariff cuts that have  been agreed upon. The
government claims  that the  right to designate  a number  of  agricultural product lines as  special
products  based  upon the  consideration of  food and livelihood security and to establish  a  special
safeguard mechanism based on import quantity and price triggers, which have been mentioned in
the Ministerial Text, adequately addresses the concerns of Indian farmers. The claim is questionable
since the nature as well as the extent of protection under the category of special products remains 
restricted and the special safeguard mechanism, admittedly, is a measure to deal with an emergency
and is  of  "a  temporary nature". Therefore, seen in the  light of  the  insignificant reductions  in
domestic farm  subsidies by developed  countries, tariff  reduction commitments  by developing
countries  seem to be  totally unjustifiable. Developing countries  have  also agreed  on the Swiss 
formula for tariff cuts under Non­Agricultural Market Access (NAMA). Although the coefficients will
be  negotiated  later, it is  unlikely that developed  countries  will agree upon sufficiently large
coefficients  for  the  formula  that would ensure adequate  policy space for  developing countries  in
future to facilitate development of different sectors of their industries. The Ministerial Text's ritual
references to "less than full reciprocity" and "special and differential treatment" fails to conceal the 
fact that the flexibilities provided by the July framework regarding the nature of the tariff reduction
formula, product coverage, the extent of binding and the depth of cuts have been done away with.
Moreover, no concrete commitment has been obtained in the  Ministerial Text for the  removal of
the Non­Tariff barriers by developed countries, which is their principal mode of protection, despite
developing countries making such major concessions on industrial tariff cuts. The fact of the matter
is that developing countries  have  committed themselves  to cuts in both agricultural and industrial
tariffs, without getting anything substantial in return from developed  countries. And India  has 
facilitated  the  adoption of  this  bad deal in the  backdrop of  an acute  crisis  faced  by Indian
agriculture. Unfortunately, developing countries have lost the opportunity to rework fundamentally
the  iniquitous Agreement on Agriculture and protect the  domestic policy space vis­à­vis industrial
protection by developing countries, which could have been achieved by galvanising the unity of the
G­110.

45. What was/were the flexibility/flexibilities envisaged by the July framework?

1) Depth of cuts
2) Product coverage
3) Tariff reduction formula
4) All of the above

46. Which one of the following statements is not correct as per the passage?

1) Aid which is given for the Least Developed Countries (LDCs) by the developed countries in
the form of 'developed package' is conditioned upon further opening of their market.
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2) Reduction in the domestic farm subsidies by the developed countries is insignificant and the

commitment made by the developing countries for tariff reduction is unjustifiable.
3) India's main interest in agriculture is to protect its small and marginal farmers from the 
onslaught of artificially low­priced imports or threats of such nature.
4) Developed countries have given commitment to the Ministerial Text on the removal of Non­
Tariff barriers.

47. Which claim of the Indian Government is questionable?

1) Right to designate agriculture product lines as special products considering food and
livelihood security.
2) India has facilitated the adoption of a beneficial deal for agriculture at WTO.
3) Formation of G­110 proves unity among developing countries.
4) Developing countries can negotiate large coefficient on the Swiss formula for tariff cuts.

48. Why is it that the imbalances of the global trading system appear to be catastrophic?

1) EU has not moved away from its declared position
2) US refused to give duty free access to exports from LDCs
3) The collective efforts of G­110 failed
4) All of the above

PASSAGE 3

It is easy to accept Freud as an applied scientist, and, indeed he is widely regarded as the twentieth
century's  master  clinician. However, in viewing Marx  as  an applied  social scientist, the  stance 
needed is that of a Machiavellian operationalism. The objective is neither to bury nor to praise him.
The  assumption is  simply that he is better  understood for being understood as  an applied 
sociologist. This is in part the clear implication of Marx's Theses on Feurbach, which culminate in the
resounding 11th thesis: "The  philosophers have  only interpreted  the  world in different ways; the
point, however, is to change it". This would seem to be the tacit creed of applied scientists every­
where. Marx was no Faustian, concerned solely with understanding society, but a Promethean who
sought to understand it well enough to influence and to change it. He was centrally concerned with
the  social problems  of  a  lay  group, the  proletariat, and there  can be  little  doubt that his  work  is
motivated by an effort to reduce, their suffering, as he saw it. His diagnosis was that their increasing
misery and alienation engendered  endemic class  struggle; his  prognosis claimed  that this  would
culminate  in revolution; his  therapeutic prescription was  class consciousness  and active  struggle.
Here, as in assessing Durkheim or Freud, the issue is not whether this analysis is empirically correct
or scientifically adequate. Furthermore, whether or not this formulation seems to eviscerate Marx's 
revolutionary core, as critics on the left may charge, or whether the formulation provides Marx with
a new veneer of academic respectability, as critics on the right may allege, is entirely irrelevant from
the present standpoint. Insofar  as  Marx's  or  any other  social scientist's  work  conforms  to a
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generalised model of applied social science, insofar as it is professionally oriented to the values and

social problems of laymen in his society, he may  be  treated as an applied social scientist. Despite
Durkheim's  intellectualistic proclivities  and rationalistic pathos, he was  too much the  product of
European  turbulence  to turn his  back  on the  travail of  his culture. "Why  strive  for  knowledge  of 
reality, if this knowledge cannot aid us in life", he asked. "Social science", he said, "can provide us
with rules of action for the future". Durkheim, like Marx, conceived of science as an agency of social
action, and like him was professionally oriented to the values and problems of laymen in his society.
Unless  one sees  that Durkheim was  in some  part an applied  social scientist, it is  impossible  to
understand why  he  concludes  his  monumental study of  Suicide  with a  chapter  on "Practical
Consequences", and why, in the  Division of  Labour, he  proposes  a  specific remedy  for anomie.
Durkheim is today widely regarded as a model of theoretic and methodologic sophistication, and is
thus usually seen only in his capacity as a pure social scientist. Surely this is an incomplete view of 
the  man who regarded the  practical effectiveness of a science as  its  principal justification. To be 
more  fully understood, Durkheim also needs  to be  seen as  an applied  sociologist. His  interest in
religious beliefs and organisation, in crime and penology, in educational methods and organisation,
in suicide and anomie, are not casually chosen problem areas. Nor did he select them only because
they provided occasions for the development of his theoretical orientation. These areas were in his 
time, as they are today, problems of indigenous interest to applied sociologist in Western Society,
precisely because of their practical significance.

49. Which of the following best describes the author's conception of an applied social scientist?

1) A professional who listens to people's problems
2) A student of society
3) A professional who seeks social action and change
4) A proponent of class struggle

50. According to the author, which of the following did Marx and Durkheim have in common?
1) A belief in the importance of class struggle
2) An interest in penology
3) A desire to create a system of social organization
4) Regard for the practical application of science

51. It may be inferred from the passage that the applied social scientist might be interested in all of 
the following subjects except
1) The theory of mechanism
2) Rehabilitation of juvenile delinquents
3) How to make workers more efficient
4) Reduction of social tensions

52. Which of the following best summarises the author's main point?

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1) Marx and Durkheim were similar in their ideas.

2) Philosophers, among others, who are regarded as theoreticians can also be regarded as 
empiricists.
3) Freud, Marx and Durkheim were all social scientists.
4) Marx and Durkheim were applied social scientists because they were concerned with the 
solution of social problems.

PASSAGE 4
Unemployment is an important index of economic slack  and lost output, but it is muchmore  than
that. For the unemployed person, it is often a damaging affront to human dignity and sometimes a 
catastrophic blow to family life. Nor is this cost distributed in proportion to ability to bear it. It falls 
most heavily on the  young, the  semiskilled and unskilled, the black  person, the  older  worker, and
the underemployed peeson in a low income rural area who is  denied the option of securing more 
rewarding urban employment.
The  concentrated incidence  of unemployment among specific groups in the  population means far
greater  costs to society that can be  measured simply in hours of involuntary idleness  of dollars of 
income  lost. The  extra costs include  disruption of the  careers of young people, increased juvenile 
delinquency, and perpetuation of conditions which breed racial discrimination in employment and
otherwise  deny  equality of  opportunity. There  is  another  and more subtle  cost. The  social and
economic strains of prolonged underutilisation create strong pressures for cost­increasing solutions.
On the  side  of  labour, prolonged  high unemployment leads  to "share­the­work" pressures  for
shorter  hours, intensifies  resistance  to technological change  and to rationalisation of  work  rules,
and, in general, increases incentives for restrictive and inefficient measures to protect existing jobs.
On the  side  of  business, the  weakness  of  markets  leads  to attempts  to raise  prices  to cover  high
average overhead costs and to pressures for protection against foreign and domestic competition.
On the side of agriculture, higher prices are necessary to achieve income objectives when urban and
industrial demand for  foods  and fibers  is depressed and lack  of  opportunities  for  jobs  and higher
incomes in industry keep people on the farm. In all these cases, the problems are real and the claims
understandable. But the solutions suggested raise costs and promote inefficiency. By no means the 
least of  the  advantages  of  full utilisation will be  a  diminution of  these pressures. They will be
weaker, and they can be  more  firmly resisted  in good conscience, when  markets  are generally
strong and job opportunities are plentiful. The demand for labour is derived from the demand for
the goods and services which labour participates in producing. Thus, unemployment will be reduced 
to 4 per  cent of  the  labour  force  only when  the  demand for  the  myriad of  goods  and
services―automobiles, clothing, food, haircuts, electric generators, highways, and so on––is
sufficiently great in total to require the productive efforts of 96 per cent of the civilian labour force.
Although, many goods are initially produced as materials or components to meet demands related
to the further production of other goods, all goods (and services) are ultimately destined to satisfy
demands that can, for convenience, be classified into four categories; consumer demand, business
demand for  new plants  and machinery and for additions  to inventories, net export demand of
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foreign buyers, and demand of  government units, federal, state  and local. Thus  gross  national
product (GNP), our  total output, is  the  sum  of  four  major  components  of  expenditure; personnel
consumption expenditures, gross  private domestic investment, net exports  and government
purchases of goods and services. The primary line of attack on the problem of unemployment must
be  through measures which will expand one  or  more  of  these components  of  demand. Once  a
satisfactory  level of  employment has  been achieved in a  growing economy, economic stability
requires  the  maintenance  of  a  continuing balance between  growing productive capacity and
growing demand. Action to expand demand is called  for  not only when  demand actually declines
and recession appears but even when the rate of growth of demand falls short of the rate of growth
of capacity.

53. According to the passage, unemployment is an index of

1) Over­utilisation of capacity
2) Diminished resources
3) Economic slack and lost output
4) The employment rate

54. Serious unemployment leads labour groups to demand

1) More jobs by having everyone work shorter hours
2) "No fire" policies
3) Higher wages to those employed
4) Cost­cutting solutions

55. According to the passage, a typical business reaction to a recession is to press for

1) Higher unemployment in­surance
2) Government action
3) Protection against imports
4) Restrictive business practices

56. The demand for labour is

1) A derived demand
2) About 4 per cent of the total work force
3) Declining
4) Dependent upon technology

Pick out the effective pair of words from the given choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) in each of these

questions to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

57. Part of the confusion in our societies _______ from our pursuit of efficiency and economic

growth, in the _______ that these are the necessary ingredients of progress.

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1) Stems — conviction
2) Derives — evaluation
3) Emerges — consideration
4) Extends — planning

58. The problem of housing shortage _______ with the population explosion has also been ______

by this policy.
1) Projected — discussed
2) Dispensed — acknowledged
3) Threatened — manifested
4) Compounded — addressed

59. The quality of _______ between individuals and the organisation for which they work can be

________ to the benefit of both parties.
1) Life — conceptualized
2) Interaction — improved
3) Service — evaluated
4) Sophistication — developed

60. Handicrafts constitute an important _______ of the decentralised sector of India's economy and

_______ employment to over six million artisans.
1) Factors — aims
2) Extension — plants
3) Segment — provides
4) Period — projects

In each of these questions, there are three sentences given as (A), (B) and (C). Find out which two or
three sentences convey the same meaning.

61. (A) The manager would like you to help him locate the fault.

(B) If you help him locate the fault, the Manager would like you.
(C) The Manager desires that you should provide him the necessary assistance to locate the 
fault.
1) (A) and (B)
2) (A) and (C)
3) (B) and (C)
4) All of these

62. (A) Although the strike of transporters continues, I shall come.

(B) I shall come if the strikes of transporters continues.
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(C) Even though I come, the strike of transporters is going to continue.

1) (A) and (B)
2) (A) and (C)
3) (B) and (C)
4) None of these

63. (A) Should you need a visa, you must submit an application along with your passport and a copy
of income tax returns.
(B) Unless you do not submit an application along with your passport and a copy of income tax 
return, you will not get visa.
(C) If you submit your application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns,
you do not need visa.
1) (A) and (B)
2) (A) and (C)
3) (B) and (C)
4) None of these

64. (A) The judge remarked that not all the accused were really guilty.

(B) The judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty while others were not.
(C) The judge remarked that all those who were accused included some who were not really
guilty.=
1) (A) and (B)
2) (A) and (C)
3) (B) and (C)
4) All of the above

In each of these questions, four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or 

opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning
and mark the number of the correct letter combination as your answer.

65. (A) Affected (B) Desolate (C) Anxious (D) Lonely
1) B – D
2) A – C
3) B – C
4) A – D

66. (A) Disruption (B) Largesse (C) Affection (D) Meanness

1) B – D
2) B – C
3) C – D
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4) A – C

67. (A) Awful (B) Envious (C) Pleasant (D) Fair

1) A – B
2) A – C
3) B – C
4) B – D

68. (A) Serene (B) Jealous (C) Identical (D) Calm

1) A – B
2) A – D
3) A – C
4) B – C

In each of these questions, you are given a sentence a part of which is underlined. This is followed

by four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the version that best rephrases the underlined 
part.

69. Teachers and parents alike should realise that to say a particular child is better than the other is 
doing a great injustice to both the children.
1) Say a particular child is better than the other is doing a great injustice to the former.
2) Say a particular child is better than the other is doing a great injustice to both of them.
3) Say a particular child is better than the other is to do a great injustice to both the children.
4) Say a particular child is good than the other is doing a great injustice to both the children.

70. He sailed for New York on Monday, arriving there on Saturday for the much­awaited 

inauguration of the new hospital.
1) And arrived there on Saturday for the much­awaited inauguration of the new hospital.
2) Arriving there on Saturday for the inauguration of the much­awaited new hospital.
3) Arriving there for the inauguration of the much­awaited new hospital on Saturday.
4) And arrived here on Saturday for the long­awaited inauguration of the new hospital.

71. After trying to convince him for a long time. I realised that he was one of those people who

never listens to reason.
1) He was one of those people who never listen to reason.
2) He was one of those people who never listen to reasoning.
3) He is one of those people who never listen to reason.
4) He is one of those people who never listens to reason.

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72. The number of children seeking admission to this college has risen sharply this year, even 

though it may be only temporarily.
1) Even though the rise may be only temporary.
2) But it may be a temporary rise only.
3) But the rise may be only temporary.
4) But such a rise may only be a short­lived one.

Each of these questions contains a small paragraph. Read the paragraph carefully to complete the 

sentence given below each.

73. The consumption of harmful drugs by the people can be prevented not only by banning their 

sale in the market but also by instructing users about their dangerous effects which they must
understand for their safety. Also the drug addicts may be provided with proper medical facilities 
for their rehabilitation. This will help in scaling down the use of drugs.
The passage best supports the statement that consumption of harmful drugs.
1) Is on increase in the society.
2) Is due to lack of medical facilities.
3) Can always be reduced.
4) Can be eliminated with the help of banning their sale.

74. The school has always been the most important means of transferring the wealth of tradition

from one generation to the next. This applies today in an even higher degree than in former 
times for, through the modern development of economy, the family as bearer of tradition and
education has become weakened.
This passage best supports the statement that for transferring the wealth of tradition from one 
generation to the next
1) There are means other than the school.
2) Economic development plays a crucial role.
3) Several different sources must be tried.
4) Modern technology must be put to use.

75. One of the important humanitarian by­products of technology is the greater dignity and value 

that it imparts to human labour. In a highly industrialised society, there is no essential difference 
between Brahmin and Dalit, Muslim and Hindu; they are equally useful and hence equally
valuable, for in the industrial society, individual productivity fixes the size of the pay cheque and
this fixes social status.
The passage best supports the statement that
1) Technology decides individual's social status.
2) Human labour has dignity and value.
3) Castes and religions are man­made.
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4) All individuals, irrespective of caste and creed, are born equal.

76. There is a shift in our economy from a manufacturing to a service orientation. The increase in

service­sector will require the managers to work more with people rather than with objects and
things from the assembly line.
This passage best supports the statement that
1) Managers should have a balanced mind.
2) Interpersonal skills will become more important in the future work place.
3) Assembly line will exist in service organisations.
4) Manufacturing organisations ignore importance of people.

In each of these questions, four sentences are given, denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). By using all
these four sentences, you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. Choose the correct order of the 
sentences from the four alternatives.

77. (A) You would be very surprised indeed to find it hot.

(B) Cold, of course.
(C) Any yet that was what I found when I visited North Island, the northern part of New Zealand.
(D) When you go bathing in a river or a pond, do you expect the water to be hot or cold?
1) ACBD
2) CABD
3) ACDB
4) DBAC

78. (A) Because, if the manager's subordinates are inefficient and ineffective and are not helped to

increase their efficiency and effectiveness, the task may not be achieved.3
(B) This must be just as true as the responsibility for achieving his prescribed tasks.
(C) If it is achieved, it is at too great a cost, or at the risk of other effects, many of which are less 
obvious.
(D) It is often said that one of the prime responsibilities of a manager is the training and 
development of his staff.
1) ADBC
2) CABD
3) BDAC
4) DBAC

79. (A) Modern research, however, has proved that there were invaders even before the Aryans 

poured into this land.
(B) It was thought that they came to a country which was uncivilised and barbarian.

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(C) They had evolved a civilisation higher than that of the Aryans hordes who came in their 

wake.
(D) Till recently the Aryans were regarded as the earliest invaders of the land.
1) ABCD
2) BCAD
3) BDAC
4) DBAC

80. (A) Organisations today are becoming increasingly populated by youthful, highly­skilled, highly­

educated workers.
(B) Two of the most prevalant and provocative organisational dynamics of our time are the 
themes of participation and change.
(C) These demands for participation are creating pressures for internal organizational change 
which are matched only by external environmental pressures for organizational change.
(D) These young, skilled and educated workers bring with them demands for a voice in the
determination of their own organisational destiny – a chance to participate in those decisions 
which affect their organisational lives.
1) ABDC
2) BADC
3) ABCD
4) BCDA

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Section­III
Mathematical Skill

81. There are 4 candidates for the post of a lecturer in Mathematics and one is to be selected by

votes of 5 men. The number of ways in which the votes can be given is
1) 1048
2) 1072
3) 1024
4) None of these

82. The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine at a round table if no two women
are to sit together is given by
1) 6! × 5!
2) 5! × 4!
3) 30
4) 7! × 5!

83. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose at
least 4 from the first five questions. The number of choices available to him is
1) 140
2) 280
3) 196
4) 346

84. A club consists of members whose ages are in AP, the common difference being 3 months. If the 

youngest member of the club is just 7 years old and the sum of the ages of  all the members is 
250 years, then the number of members in the club are
1) 15
2) 20
3) 25
4) 30

85. A metal cube of edge 12 cm is melted and formed into three smaller cubes. If the edges of two 

smaller cubes are 6 cm and 8 cm, then find the edge of the third smaller cube.
1) 10 cm
2) 14 cm
3) 12 cm
4) 16 cm

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86. A well 22.5 deep and of diameter 7m has to be dug out. Find the cost of plastering its inner 
curved surface at Rs 3 per sq metre.
1) Rs 1465
2) Rs 1485
3) Rs 1475
4) Rs 1495

87. Water flows out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 6 metres 

per second into a cyclindrical tank, the radius of whose base is 60 cm. By how much will the level
of water rise in 30 minutes?
1) 2 m
2) 4 m
3) 3 m
4) 5 m

88. A ladder 15 m long reaches a window which is 9 m above the ground on one side of a street.

Keeping its foot at the same point, the ladder is turned to the other side of the street to reach a
window 12 m high. Find the width of the street.
1) 19 m
2) 21 m
3) 20 m
4) 22 m

89. The horizontal distance between two trees of different heights is 60 m. The angle of depression

of the top of the first tree when seen from the top of the second tree is 45°. If the height of the 
second tree is 80 m, then find the height of the first tree.
1) 20 m
2) 22 m
3) 18 m
4) 16 m

90. The number of ways in which a committee of 3 ladies and 4 gentlemen can be appointed from a 

meeting consisting of 8 ladies and 7 gentlemen, if Mrs X refuses to serve in a committee if Mr Y
is its member, is
1) 1960
2) 3240
3) 1540
4) None of these

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91. An aeroplane flying at a height of 300 metres above the ground passes vertically above another 

plane at an instant when the angles of elevation of the two planes from the same point on the 
ground are 60° and 45°, respectively. Then the height of the lower plane from the ground, in
metres, is
1) 100√3
2) 50
3) 100/√3
4) 150(√3 + 1)

92. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree 

on the opposite bank of the river is 60° and when he retires 40 metres away from the tree, the 
angle of elevation becomes 30°. The breadth of the river is
1) 40 m
2) 20 m
3) 30 m
4) 60 m

93. A room has 3 lamps. From a collection of 10 light bulbs of which 6 are not good, a person selects
3 at random and puts them in a socket. The probability that he will have light is
1) 5/6
2) 1/2
3) 1/6
4) None of these

94. Out of 13 applicants for a job, there are 5 women and 8 men. It is desired to select 2 persons for 
the job. The probability that atleast one of the selected persons will be a woman is
1) 25/39
2) 5/13
3) 14/39
4) 10/13

95. The probability that a certain electronic component fails when first used is 0.10. If it does not fail
immediately, then the probability that it lasts for one year is 0.99. The probability that a new
component will last for one year is
1) 0.891
2) 0.92
3) 0.692
4) None of these

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96. A circular grassy plot of land, 42 m in diameter, has a path 3.5 m wide running around it outside.

The cost of gravelling the path at Rs 4 per square metre is
1) Rs 1002
2) Rs 3002
3) Rs 2002
4) Rs 1802

97. A plot of land in the form of a rectangle has a dimension 240 m × 180 m. A drainlet 10m wide is 
dug all around it (outside) and the earth dug out is evenly spread over the plot, increasing its 
surface level by 25 cm. The depth of the drainlet is
1) 1.225 m
2) 1.229 m
3) 1.227 m
4) 1.223 m

98. A rectangular tank is 225 m by 162 m at the base. With what speed must water flow into it

through an aperture 60 cm by 45 cm that the level may be raised 20 cm in 5 hours?
1) 5000 m/hr
2) 5400 m/hr
3) 5200 m/hr
4) 5600 m/hr

99. An iron pipe 20 cm long has exterior diameter equal to 25 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1

cm, then the whole surface of the pipe is
1) 3068 cm 2
2) 3268 cm 2
3) 3168 cm 2
4) 3368 cm 2

100. At a point on level ground, the angle of elevation of a vertical tower is found to be such that its 
tangent is 5/12. On walking 192 metres towards the tower, the tangent of the angle of elevation
is 3/4. The height of the tower is
1) 160 m
2) 180 m
3) 170 m
4) 190 m

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101. A man on the top of a vertical tower observes a car moving at a uniform speed coming directly

towards it. If it takes 12 minutes for the angle of depression to change from 30° to 45°, then 
how soon, after this, will the car reach the tower?
1) 14 minutes 23 seconds
2) 16 minutes 23 seconds
3) 15 minutes 23 seconds
4) 17 minutes 23 seconds

102. A school has 4 sections of Chemistry in Class X having 40, 35, 45 and 42 students. The mean 
marks obtained in Chemistry test are 50, 60, 55 and 45 respectively for the 4 sections.
Determine the overall average of marks per student.
1) 50.25
2) 52.25
3) 51.25
4) 53.25

103. The average score of boys in an examination of a school is 71 and that of girls is 73. The average 

score of the school in that examination is 71.8. Find the ratio of the number of boys to the 
number of girls that appeared in the examination.
1) 2 : 2
2) 4 : 2
3) 3 : 2
4) 1 : 2

104. Company C sells a line of 25 products with an average retail price of Rs 1,200. If none of these

products sells for less than Rs 420 and exactly 10 of the products sell for less than Rs 1,000, then 
what is the greatest possible selling price of the most expensive product?
1) Rs 2,600
2) Rs 7,800
3) Rs 3,900
4) Rs 11,800

105. A sink contains exactly 12 litres of water. If water is drained from the sink until it holds exactly 6

litres of water less than the quantity drained away, then how many litres of water were drained 
away?
1) 2
2) 6
3) 3
4) 9

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106. A chemist has 10 litres of a solution that is 10 per cent nitric acid by volume. He wants to dilute 
the solution to 4 per cent strength by adding water. How many litres of water must he add?
1) 5
2) 20
3) 18
4) 25

107. A company received two shipments of ball bearings. In the first shipment, 1 per cent of the ball

bearings were defective. In the second shipment, which was twice as large as the  first, 4.5 per 
cent of the ball bearings were defective. If the company received a total of 100 defective ball
bearings, then how many ball bearings were there in the first shipment?
1) 990
2) 2,000
3) 1,000
4) 3,000

108. In a certain laboratory, chemicals are identified by a colour­coding system. There are 20

different chemicals. Each one is coded with either a single colour or a unique two­colour pair. If 
the order of colours in the pair doesn't matter, then what is the minimum number of different
colours needed to code all the 20 chemicals with either a single colour or a unique pair of 
colours?
1) 5
2) 7
3) 6
4) 20

109. Population of a district is 2,96,000 of which 1,66,000 are males. 50% of the population is literate.

If 70% males are literate, then the number of women who are literate, is
1) 32,200
2) 31,800
3) 66,400
4) 48,000

110. A train covers 180 km distance in 4 hours. Another train covers the same distance in 1 hour less.

What is the difference in the distances covered by these trains in one hour?
1) 45 km
2) 9 km
3) 40 km

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4) None of these

111. Speed of a speed­boat when moving in the direction perpendicular to the direction of the 

current is 16 km/hr. Speed of the current is 3 km per hour. So the speed of the boat against the
current will be (in km/hr)
1) 22
2) 9.5
3) 10
4) None of these

112. R and S start walking each other at 10 AM at the speeds of 3 km per hour and 4 km per hour

respectively. They were initially 17.5 km apart. At what time do they meet?
1) 2 : 30 PM
2) 11 : 30 AM
3) 1 : 30 PM
4) 12 : 30 PM

113. A shopkeeper marks up his goods to gain 35%. But he allows 10% discount for cash payment. His 
profit on the cash transaction therefore, in percentage, is
1) 13(1/2)
2) 25
3) 21(1/2)
4) 31(1/2)

114. A can do 50% more work as B can do in the same time. B alone can do a piece of work in 20

hours. A, with help of B, can finish the same work in how many hours?
1) 12
2) 8
3) 13(1/2)
4) 5(1/2)

115. Profits of a business are distributed among three partners A, B and C in such a way that 4 times 

the amount received by A is equal to 6 times the amount received by B and 11 times the amount
received by C. The ratio in which the three received the amount is
1) 4 : 6 : 11
2) 11 : 6 : 4
3) (1/4) : (1/6) : (1/11)
4) 66 : 44 : 24

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116. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train had been 6 km/hr faster, then 
it would have taken 4 hours less than the scheduled time. And, if the train were slower by 6
km/hr, then the train would have taken 6 hours more than the scheduled time. The length of 
the journey is
1) 700 km
2) 740 km
3) 720 km
4) 760 km

117. Students of a class are made to stand in rows. If 4 students are extra in each row, then there 
would be 2 rows less. If 4 students are less in each row, then there would be 4 more rows. The 
number of students in the class is
1) 90
2) 94
3) 92
4) 96

118. A part of monthly expenses of a family is constant and the remaining varies with the price of 

wheat. When the rate of wheat is Rs 250 a quintal, the total monthly expenses of the family are 
Rs 1000 and when it is Rs 240 a quintal, the total monthly expenses are Rs 980. Find the total
monthly expenses of the family when the cost of wheat is Rs 350 a quintal.
1) Rs 1000
2) Rs 1400
3) Rs 1200
4) Rs 800

119. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach the destination 1500

km away in time, it had to increase the speed by 250 km/hr from the usual speed. Find its usual
speed.
1) 720 km/hr
2) 740 km/hr
3) 730 km/hr
4) 750 km/hr

120. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 cm × 36 cm. From each one of its 
corners, a square of 8 cm is cut off. An open box is made of the remaining sheet. Find the 
volume of the box.
1) 5110 cm 3
2) 5130 cm 3

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 Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

3) 5120 cm 3
4) 5140 cm 3

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 Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

Section­IV
Indian and Global Environment

121. Which bank projects itself as "Indian International Bank"?

1) State Bank of India
2) Indian Bank
3) Bank of Baroda
4) Bank of India

122. The tagline "Everyday Solutions" is associated with which company?

1) Philips
2) Crompton Greaves
3) Usha
4) Nokia

123. "Servo" lubricant is a product from which oil company?

1) Bharat Petroleum
2) Reliance Petroleum
3) Hindustan Petroleum
4) Indian Oil

124. Which of the following companies is the world's largest maker of computer chips?

1) Microsoft
2) Intel
3) AMD
4) Future Soft

125. Which airline is India's largest private sector passenger carrier?

1) Sahara Air
2) Air Deccan
3) Jet Airways
4) Kingfisher

126. The term CRM stands for

1) Care and Relationship Management
2) Customer Relationship Methods
3) Customer Retaining Methods
4) Customer Relationship Management

127. Which of the following is not a private Indian Bank?

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1) Canara Bank
2) IDBI Bank Ltd
3) HDFC Bank Ltd
4) Bank of Rajasthan

128. Peter Drucker was a famous
1) Economist
2) Management Theorist
3) Environmentalist
4) Industrialist

129. Which is the world's single largest manufacturing industry in terms of revenue and

employment?
1) Textile
2) Steel
3) Automobile
4) None of these
130. What does SEZ stand for
1) Southern Economic Zone
2) Special Economic Zone
3) Single Economic Zone
4) South European Zone

131. SIDBI stands for

1) Small Investment and Development Bank of India
2) Small Industries Development Bank of India
3) Savings Investment and Development Bank of India
4) South Indian Deposit Bank of India

132. Which passenger car major has recently decided to locate its plant near Chennai?

1) Ford
2) Hyundai
3) BMW­GP
4) All of these

133. Which company has launched the car model Laura?

1) Honda
2) Skoda Auto
3) Maruti­Suzuki

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4) Toyota

134. When did the Central Right to Information Act become effective?

1) October 2005
2) December 2004
3) January 2005
4) November 2005

135. Which country has been facilitating talks between the LTTE and Sri Lankan government to reach
peaceful solution of the ethnic in Sri Lanka?
1) France
2) Norway
3) Iran
4) Australia

136. Which of the following bodies certifies the circulation figures of newspapers?

1) ISI
2) AINEC
3) FTI
4) ABC

137. The gas which had leaded out of Union Carbide factory in Bhopal was

1) Sulphur dioxide
2) Carbon monoxide
3) Chlorine
4) Methyl isocyanate

138. India has a
1) Socialistic economy
2) Mixed economy
3) Gandhian economy
4) Free economy

139. The headquarters of the International Olympic Committee is at

1) Lausanne (Switzerland)
2) Los Angeles
3) Moscow
4) New York

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140. Siachen is a
1) Frontier zone between China and India
2) Glacier frontier zone between India and Pakistan
3) Frontier zone between India and Myanmar
4) Desert frontier between Pakistan and India

141. Match the following:

1) A­1 B­3 C­4 D­2

2) A­3 B­4 C­2 D­1
3) A­3 B­4 C­1 D­2
4) A­4 B­3 C­1 D­2

142. Who has the Constitutional authority to decide the tax share of States?

1) Finance Minister
2) Planning Commission
3) Finance Commission
4) Union Cabinet

143. Which of the following is the publisher of 'Employment News'?

1) Indian Express Group
2) Professional Management Group
3) Times of India Group
4) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

144. Panchayati Raj is based on the ideology of

1) Democratic decentralization
2) People's participation in government
3) Community cooperation and development
4) Cultivating political awareness in the rural masses

145. The difference between a bank and a non­banking financial institution (NBFI) is that

1) A bank interacts directly with the customers while an NBFI interacts with banks and
governments.

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 Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

2) A bank deals with both internal and international customers while an NBFI is mainly

concerned with the finances of foreign companies.
3) A bank indulges in a number of activities relating to finance with a range of customers, while 
an NBFI is mainly concerned with the term loan needs of large enterprises.
4) A bank's main interest is to help in business transactions and savings/investment activities 
while an NBFI's main interest is in the stabilisation of the currency.

146. Wimbledon, known for lawn tennis courts, is in

1) London
2) New York
3) Washington DC
4) Rome.

147. May 8 is observed as

1) World Standards Day
2) World Telecommunication Day
3) World Red Cross Day
4) Commonwealth Day

148. CIS consists of the republics of former
1) Czechoslovakia
2) Indo­China
3) Yugoslavia
4) Soviet Union

149. The per capita income is obtained by

1) Summing up the income of all the citizens of the country
2) Estimating the minimum income of individual citizens
3) Dividing national income by the population
4) Dividing the total national capital with the profit earned

150. Antyodaya programme was chiefly aimed at the upliftment of

1) Industrial Workers
2) Rural poor
3) Labourers
4) Farmers

151. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken 

from

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 Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

1) Ramayana
2) Rigveda
3) Mundaka Upanishad
4) Satpath Brahmana

152. 'Agenda­21' refers to

1) UN Secretary General's Report to the Security Council
2) Charter of Demands of the developing countries
3) Rio Earth Summit's document
4) India's modernisation pro­gramme to usher in the 21st century

153. Which of the following European countries is the first buyer of Maruti cars?

1) Hungary
2) England
3) Belgium
4) Spain

154. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is located at which of the 

following places?
1) Vienna
2) Paris
3) Rome
4) Geneva

155. The cause of inflation is

1) Increase in money supply
2) Increase in money supply and fall in production
3) Fall in production
4) Decrease in money supply and fall in production

156. Which organ of the UNO considered as the World Parliament?

1) General Assembly
2) International Court of Justice
3) Security Council
4) Trusteeship Council

157. Which of the following organisations keeps a check on prices of essential commodities?

1) Indian Bureau of Standards
2) MRTP Commission

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 Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

3) Merchants Chamber of Commerce
4) Ministry of Food and Civil Supplies

158. Which of the following pairs books and authors is correct?

1) 'My India' — VV Giri
2) 'My Truth' — Raj Mohan Gandhi
3) 'Dark Room' — RK Narayan
4) 'Guide' — Mulk Raj Anand

159. Where are the headquarters of Oil and Natural Gas Commission located?

1) Mumbai
2) Vadodara
3) Dehradun
4) Digboi

160. The oldest democratic system the world is in

1) USA
2) Britain
3) France
4) Denmark

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Section­V
Data Interpretation and Sufficiency

Directions for question 1 to 5:

In each of these problems, two statements containing certain data follow a question. Determine
whether the data provided by the statements are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose
the correct answer based upon the statements’ data, your knowledge of mathematics, and your
familiarity with everyday facts.

Mark your answer as
1. if statement (A) by itself is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement (B) by itself is 
not;
2. if statements (A) and (B) taken together are sufficient to answer the given question, even 
though neither statement by itself is sufficient;
3. if statement (B) by itself is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement (A) by itself is 
not;
4. if either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the given question;

161. Does rectangle A have a greater perimeter than rectangle B?

i. The length of a side of rectangle A is twice the length of a side of rectangle B.
ii. The area of rectangle A is twice the area of rectangle B.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

162. If there is an average of 250 words on each page, then how many pages can Michael read in an
hour?
1. There is an average of 25 ten­word lines on each page.
2. Michael can read 30 ten­word lines per minute.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

163. If he did not stop along the way, then what speed did Bill average on his 3­hour trip?
1. He travelled a total of 120 miles.
2. He travelled half the distance at 30 miles per hour and half the distance at 60 miles per hour
1) 1
2) 2

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 Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

3) 3
4) 4

164. On a certain construction crew, there are 3 carpenters for every 2 painters. What per cent of the 
entire crew are carpenters or painters?
A. Eighteen per cent of the crew are carpenters.
B. Twelve per cent of the crew are painters.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

165. Are at least 30 per cent of the people in City H who are 30 years old or older bilingual?
A. In City H, 30 per cent of the population is at least 30 years old.
B. In City H, of the population 30 years old or older, 18 per cent of the women and 17 per cent
of the men are bilingual.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Directions for question 6 to 10:

The forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 2005, 2010 and 2020 are given
in the following table. The demand is given million barrels per day crude oil equivalent.

166. Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will increase continuously over 
the period 2005­2020 in Asia?
1) Natural Gas
2) Both Natural Gas and Hydropower
3) Hydropower

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4) Nuclear

167. Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will remain unaltered from 2005
to 2010 in Asia?
1) Petroleum
2) Solid fuels
3) Natural Gas
4) Nuclear

168. For which source of energy is the demand in 2020 as a ratio of demand in 2005 in the Asian
region the greatest?
1) Natural Gas
2) Nuclear
3) Solid fuels
4) Hydropower

169. Which is the fuel for which demand in the rest of the world (excluding Asia) as a proportion of 
total energy demand of the world (including Asia) shows continuous decrease over the period?
1) Solid fuels and Natural Gas
2) Hydropower and Petroleum
3) Solid fuels and Hydropower
4) None of these

170. Over 2005­2020, which two fuels meet more than 60 per cent of the total energy demand of the 
World and Asia both?
1) Nuclear and Hydropower
2) Nuclear and Solid fuels
3) Hydropower and Solid fuels
4) None of these
Directions for question 11 to 15:
Study the following line graphs showing the production (in '0000) and percentage exported of
scooters, motorbikes and cars respectively over the years.

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 Solved Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2006 Paper

171. In which of the following years was the production of cars more than 50% of the total

production?
1) 2000
2) 2001
3) 1998
4) 1996

172. Find the total number of automobiles exported in the year 1999.

1) 227600
2) 207600
3) 217600
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4) 220000

173. Find the ratio of cars, scooters and motorbikes exported in 1996.

1) 25 : 16 : 19
2) 16 : 25 : 19
3) 19 : 16 : 25
4) 6:5:1

174. If the ratio of export prices of a car, scooter and motorbike was 2 : 1 : 1.5 in 1998, then what
was the proportion of their export earnings?
1) 4 : 2 : 3
2) 6 : 1 : 21
3) 30 : 16 : 21
4) Cannot be determined

175. In which of the following years was the production of motorbikes exactly 40% of the total

production of automobiles in that year?
1) 1997
2) 2000
3) 1999
4) 1996

Directions for question 16 to 20:

A survey was conducted in five cities, viz Pune, Kanpur, Raisen, Surat and Trivandrum; for the
percentage of people using T (trains), B (buses), C (cars); as modes of transport. The number of 
persons surveyed in the cities; Pune, Kanpur, Raisen, Surat and Trivandrum are 2000, 4000, 6000,
3000 and 8000 respectively. Refer to the data in the following triangular bar diagram to answer 
these questions.

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176. The city where the least number of persons use buses is

1) Surat
2) Raisen
3) Kanpur
4) Pune

177. The average number of persons using trains for transportation in Pune, Kanpur, Raisen, and

Trivandrum is
1) 1880
2) 1750
3) 1950
4) None of these

178. The mode of transport used by the least number of persons in all the given cities is

1) Trains
2) Buses
3) Cars
4) Cars and Buses

179. Among the given five cities, the cities where less than 30% of the people use cars for transport

are
1) Kanpur and Trivandrum
2) Pune, Kanpur and Raisen
3) Pune and Raisen
4) Pune, Kanpur and Surat

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180. Which of the following statements is not true?

1) 50% of the people use trains for transport in the cities Kanpur and Raisen.
2) In Trivandrum, more than 50% of the people use cars for transport.
3) More percentage of people use buses for transport in Surat than in Pune.
4) In Raisen, there are more percentage of people using trains for transport than buses.

Study the following graphs showing the seats won and the percentage of valid votes polled for 

different political parties in Gujarat over the years.

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181. If the total number of valid votes in 2002 Gujarat elections was 5 crore, then find the average 
number of votes for winning one seat for other political parties.
1) 11 lakh
2) 1.10 lakh
3) 1.10 crore
4) Data is inadequate

182. In which of the following years was the number of seats won by BJP maximum with respect to

the previous given year?
1) 1998
2) 1995
3) 2002
4) 1995 and 2002

183. In 1998, if 2.24 crore votes were valid for BJP, whereas in 1990 there were 1.228 crore votes 

valid for Congress, then by what per cent was the number of valid votes less in 1990 with
respect to that in 1998?
1) 20%
2) 24%
3) 30%
4) 25%

184. In which of the following years did the BJP secure more than 66(2/3)% of the total seats?
1) 1990
2) 1998
3) 1995
4) 2002

185. In which of the following years, was the difference in the number of valid votes for any two 

political parties the maximum?
1) 1990
2) 1998
3) 1995
4) Cannot be determined

Study the following graphs showing the number of workers of different categories of a factory for 

two different years. The total number of workers in 1998 was 2000 and in 2000 was 2400.

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186. In which of the categories is the number of workers same in both the years?

1) P
2) S
3) R
4) T

187. Find the percentage increase in the number of workers in category U in 2000.

1) 25%
2) 33(1/3)%
3) 50%
4) 66(2/3)%
188. What is the total number of increased workers for the categories in which the number of 
workers has been increased?
1) 468
2) 382
3) 408

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4) 168

189. Which of the following categories have shown decrease in the number of workers from 1998 to

2000?
1) P
2) Q
3) R
4) T

190. Find the Maximum difference between the number of workers of any two categories taken 

together for any one year and that of any two for the other year.
1) 660
2) 416
3) 636
4) 502

The scatter diagram shows the number of students passing in the high school examination in the 

given years from the four houses of a Public School.

191. The average number of students for each house who have passed in the given years is

1) 59
2) 63
3) 52
4) 56

192. The performance for which of the following houses is the best?

1) Pearl

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2) Ruby
3) Topaz
4) Sapphire

193. For which of the following houses is the percentage change in the results maximum for any year 

over the previous year?
1) Topaz
2) Pearl
3) Sapphire
4) Ruby

194. If the trend observed between 1999 and 2000 continues during the next year, then what will be 
the number of students passing the exam in 2001?
1) 245
2) 237
3) 263
4) 255

195. The number of students keeps on increasing by 50 every year. In 1998, there were 250 students.

For which of the following years is the performance best in the school?
1) 1998
2) 2000
3) 1999
4) Cannot be determined

Directions for question 36 to 40:

In each of these questions, there is given a Statement followed by two Assumptions. Consider the
Statement and both the Assumptions to decide which of the Assumptions is implict in the
Statement. Give your answer as
1. if only Assumption X is implicit.
2. if only Assumption Y is implicit.
3. if both the Assumptions X and Y are implicit, and
4. if neither Assumption X nor Y is implicit.

196. Statement :
Man is born free.
Assumptions:
X : Freedom is the birth right of man.
Y : All humans have human rights.
1) 1
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2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

197. Statement:
Laugh and the world will laugh with you.
Assumptions:
X : People generally laugh.
Y : Laughter symbolises happiness.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

198. Statement:
There is no need to open a school here.
Assumptions:
X : Children in this area do not study.
Y : There are already many schools in this area.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

199. Statement:
Owing to stress and fast pace of life, your digestive system is attacked.
Assumptions:
X : There is stress in life.
Y : Digestive system has no defence.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

200. Statement:
Barking dogs seldom bite.
Assumptions:
X : Dogs always bark.
Y : Some dogs bite.

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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

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ANSWERS KEY

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