NEET ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

Seat No. N C

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session 2020-21)

ADMISSION TEST FOR NEET

[ FOR XITH MOVING STUDENT ]

26 January 2020

BASED ON C.B.S.E. SYLLABUS

Time : 02 Hrs. Max. Marks : 100

PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY :

1. The duration of the Test is 2 Hours and Question Paper contains 100 Questions. The total marks are 100.
2. The questions appearing in the paper are based on I.T (20 Q.), PHYSICS (25 Q.),
CHEMISTRY (25 Q.) & BIOLOGY (30 Q.)
3. Students can not use calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Students must follow the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure whether it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
6. A candidate has to write his/her answers in the O.M.R. sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct(s) of the question attempted.
7. Use of Pencil and whitener is strictly prohibited.
8. Total Questions to be Attempted 100.

9. Marking Scheme :
a] If darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 1 Mark.
b] If no bubble is darkened in any question : No Mark.
c] No negative marking scheme.

Success is a journey not a destination

INTELLIGENT TEST Questions : 1 - 20

1. Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road, 150 kms apart. The first bus runs for 25 kms
and takes a turn right and runs for 15 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and takes the
direction back to reach the main road, In the meantime, due to a minor breakdown, the other bus has
run only 35 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two buses at this point?
1) 65 kms 2) 75 kms 3) 80 kms 4) 85 kms
2. If a code language, ORGANISATION is written as CBDWLQJWYQCL and OPERATION is written
as CXFBWYQCL, then how is SEPARATION coded?
1) EJXEBEYQCL 2) JFQYWBCXQL 3) JFXWBWYQCL 4) QCLYWBFXJE
3. Five persons are standing in a line. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the
other a businessman-. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the
businessman. The student is standing between the professor and the advocate. Counting from the left
the advocate is at which place?
1) 1st 2) 2nd 3) 3rd 4) 5th
4. In a shop, there were 4 dolls of different heights A, B, C and D. D is neither as tall as A nor as short
as C. B is shorter than D but taller than C. If Mani wants to purchase the tallest doll, which one should
she purchase ?
1) Only A 2) Only D 3) Either B or D 4) None of these
Q. 5 – 6 : These questions are based on the following information.
Five men A, B, C, D and E read a newspaper. The one who reads first gives it to C. The one who reads
last had taken from A. E was not the first or last to read. There were two readers between B and A.
5. B passed the newspaper to whom?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) E
6. Who reads the newspaper last?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
7. In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for Go, 4 stands
for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence were continued, which instruction will come next?
4 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3 1 4 5 3 1 2 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3
1) Wait 2) Sit 3) Go 4) Run
8. In a row of 21 girls, when Monika was shifted by four places towards the right, she became 12th from
the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end of the row ?
1) 9th 2) 10th 3) 11th 4) 14th

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1 | NC

9. If Tuesday falls on the fourth of the month, then which day will fall three days after the 24th?
1) Monday 2) Tuesday 3) Thursday 4) Friday
10. If P denotes , Q denotes , R denotes+ and S denotes –, then what is the value of
18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 ?
1) 53 2) 59 3) 63 4) 65
11. At a farm, there are hens, cows and bullocks, and keepers to look after them. There are 69 heads less
than legs; the number of cows is double of that of the bullocks; the number of cows and hens is the
same and there is one keeper per ten birds and cattle. The total number of hens plus cows and bullocks
and their keepers does not exceed 50. How many cows are there?
1) 16 2) 14 3) 12 4) 10
12. A monkey climbs 30 feet before at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips back
20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent at 8.00
a.m, at what time will he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground?
1) 4 p.m. 2) 5 p.m. 3) 6 p.m. 4) None of these
13. Find the missing character in the following figure.

1) 262 2) 622 3) 631 4) 824

Directions (14-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A Business School with six Professors L, M, N, O, P and Q, has decided to implement a new scheme
of course management. Each Professor has to coordinate one course and support another course. This
semester, O’s support course is Finance, while three others have it in coordinator’s role. P and Q have
Marketing as one of their subjects. Q coordinates Operations, which is a support course for both N and
P. Finance and IT are L’s subjects. Both L and O have same subjects. Strategy is a support course for
only one of the Professors.
14. Who among the following are coordinating the Finance course ?
1) L and N 2) N and O 3) L, M and N 4) M, N and O
15. Which course has only one coordinator and one support Professor ?
1) Strategy 2) Marketing 3) Operations 4) Finance
16. If GO = 32, SHE = 49, then SOME will be equal to ?
1) 56 2) 58 3) 62 4) 64

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 2 | NC

17. A man walks 1 km towards East and then the turns to South and walks 5 km. again he turns to East
and walks 2 km, after this he turns to North and walks 9 km. Now, how far is he from his starting
point?
1) 3 km 2) 4 km 3) 5 km 4) 7 km
18. Find out this trend and choose the missing character from the given alternatives.

1) 25 2) 27 3) 32 4) 37
19. E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C. C is B’s daughter. How is D related to E ?
1) Brother 2) Uncle 3) Father – in – law 4) Brother – in – law
20. Below are depicted the three different positions of a dice. Find the number of dots on the face opposite
to the face with one dot.

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6

PHYSICS Questions : 21 -45

21. Rays from sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be
placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object.
1) 15 cm in front of mirror
2) 30 cm in front of mirror
3) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of mirror
4) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror.
22. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon its
1) length 2) thickness 3) shape 4) nature of material
23. When alternating current passed through spring then it is
1) contract 2) expand 3) oscillate 4) unchanged
24. DC Ammeter works on the principle related to
1) Ohm’s law 2) Joule’s law 3) Faraday’s law 4) Orested’s law

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 3 | NC

25. Acid rain happens because
1) Sun leads to heating of upper layer of atmosphere
2) burning of fossil fuels release oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere.
3) Electrical charges are produced due to fraction amongst clouds
4) earth atmosphere contains acids
26. Two thin lenses of power +10D and -6D are combined together. Their equivalent focal length is,
1) 12.5 cm 2) 25 cm 3) 16.6 cm 4) 8.33 cm
27. The magnetic field due to a long straight conductor carrying current is independent of.
1) the current 2) length of conductor
3) distance of the conductor from the point 4) None of these
28. A virtual image larger than object can be obtained by
1) concave mirror 2) convex mirror 3) plane mirror 4) concave lens
29. A convex mirror has focal length f. A real object is placed at a distance f in front of it from the pole
produces an image at
1) infinity 2) f 3) f/2 4) 2f
30. Most of sources of energy we use, represent stored solar energy, which of the following is not
ultimately derived from the sun’s energy.
1) fossil fuels 2) geothermal energy 3) bio-mass 4) wind energy
31. What is the % of methane in biogas.
1) 65% 2) 78% 3) 75% 4) 55%
32. The length of wire is doubled and the radius is doubled. By what factor does the resistance change.
1) 4 times as large 2) twice as large 3) half as large 4) unchanged
33 The voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to current flowing across it under constant
condition of
1) temperature 2) pressure 3) humidity 4) density
Answer the following questions (Q.34 & 35) is based on the given circuit.

34. The potential drop across 3Ω resistor is,

1) 1 V 2) 1.5 V 3) 2 V 4) 3 V

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 4 | NC

35. The current flowing through the given circuit is,
1) 0.5 A 2) 1.5 A 3) 6 A 4) 3 A
36. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire:
1) the field consist of straight lines perpendicular to the wire
2) the field consist of straight lines parallel to the wire
3) the field consist of radial lines originating from the wire
4) the field consist of concentric circles centered on the wire
37. For normal eye, the least distance of distinct vision is,
1) 2.5 m 2) 25 m 3) 0.25 m 4) infinity
38. A man can see the objects up to a distance of 1 m from his eyes, for correcting his eye sight so that he
can see an object at infinity, he required a lens whose power is
1) +0.5 D 2) +1.0 D 3) +2.0 D 4) -1.0 D
39. A light has frequency of 4 × 1014 Hz and wavelength of 5 × 10-7 m in a medium. The refractive index
of medium is
1) 1.33 2) 1.5 3) 1 4) 0.667
40. Refractive index of a substance for which critical angle is 45˚ is,
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2 2
41. 1 erg = …….. joule
1) 105 2) 107 3) 10-7 4) 10-3
42. The relation between momentum (P) and Kinetic energy (E) is, ( is velocity)
1
1) E  p 2) P  2mE 3) 2p=E 4) both 1 & 2
2
43. A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 ms-2, the velocity
with which it hits the ground is
1) 10.0 m/s 2) 20.0 m/s 3) 40.0 m/s 4) 5.0 m/s
44. The density of the medium increases, then speed of sound …..
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) both 1 & 2
45. The ratio units of G/g is

m2 Nms2 Nm2
1) 2) 3) 4) both 1 & 2
Kg Kg2 Kg

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 5 | NC

CHEMISTRY Questions : 46 - 70

46. How many liters of CO2 will be formed on complete combustion of 0.5 moles of Butane gas?
1) 44.8 Lit. 2) 4.48 Lit. 3) 89.6 Lit. 4) 8.96 Lit.
47. After bombarding on tungsten metal cathode rays produces ___
1) Gamma rays 2) U.V. rays 3) Cosmic rays 4) X-rays
48. Which of the following is a displacement reaction?
1) CaO+H 2 O  Ca(OH) 2 2) MgCO 3  MgO+CO 2

3) 2Na+2H2O  2NaOH +H2 4) H 2 + C l 2  2 H C l

49. In the balanced equation aFe2O3 +b H2  cFe+d H2O . The value of a, b, c and d are the respectively:

1) 1,1,2,3 2) 1,1,1,1 3) 1,3,2,3 4) 1,2,2,3

50. In the reaction : CuO+H 2  Cu+H 2 O Which substance is reduced?

1) CuO 2) Cu 3) H2 4) H2O
51. Which of the following are exothermic processes?
1. Reaction of water with quick lime 2. Dilution of an acid
3. Evaporation of water 4. Sublimation of camphor crystals
1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3 3) 1 and 4 4) 3 and 4
52. The formula of rust is

1)
Fe3O4 2)
FeSO4 .7H2O 3) F e C l 3 . x H 2 O 4) Fe 2 O 3 . x H 2 O
53 The following solutions were tested for their pH value by using pH paper. The solutions which would
show a value of pH less than 7 would be.

1) I,III 2) II, IV 3) I, IV 4d) II, III

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 6 | NC

54. Two test tubes containing 2 ml. of dilute HCl are taken. Zinc granules are added to test tube (A) and
solid sodium carbonate is added to test tube (B) as shown.

The correct observation would be :

1) Slow reaction in (A) and rapid reaction in (B)
2) Rapid reaction in (A) but a slow reaction in (B)
3) Rapid reaction in both the test tubes.
4) No reaction in any of the tubes.
55. A student was provided with four samples of solutions as shown in figures (I), (II), (III), and (IV). He
determined pH value of each solution by using pH paper. The correct sequence of colour change of
pH paper observed by the student will be:

1) indigo light red green red 2) red indigo green light red
3) indigo red green yellow 4) green red yellow indigo

56. The common salt is

1) NaOH 2) KCl 3) Na2CO3 4) NaCl
57. The pH of 0.1 M NaOH is :
1) 13 2) 12 3) 11 4) 10

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 7 | NC

58. A student performed the following four experiments.

The experiments in which solid deposition on the metal plate will be observed are :
1) I and II 2) I, II and III 3) II and III 4) II, III and IV
59. The composition of aqua-regia is
1) Dil.HCl : Conc. HNO3 2) Conc.HCl : Dil. HNO3
3 : 1 3 : 1
3) Conc.HCl : Conc. HNO3 4) Dil.HCl : Dil.HNO3
3 : 1 3 : 1
60. Chemical formula of cryolite is
1) Al2O32H2O 2) Na3AIF6 3) Na2AIF6 4) NaAIF3
61. An essential element of amalgam is:
1) Sodium 2) Silver 3) Mercury 4) Aluminium
62. 10 mL each of acetic acid and water are mixed together and shaken in different test tubes as given
below:

The resulting mixture after standing would appear as shown in test tube.
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) IV
63. Which of the following are correct structural isomers of butane?

1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iv) 3) (i) and (ii) 4) (iii) and (iv)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 8 | NC

64. Which of the following is the correct representation of electron dot structure of nitrogen?
 
1) N:N:  
2) N:N:   N:
3) N  4) :N  N:
65. Petane has the molecular formula C5 H12. It has
1) 5 covalent bonds 2) 12 covalent bonds 3) 16 covalent bonds 4) 17 covalent bonds
66. Which of the following does not belong to the same homologous series?
1) CH4 2) C2H6 3) C3H8 4) C4H8
67. Identify the functional group present in the following compound:

1) Aldehyde 2) Bromino 3) Carboxyl 4) Both bromo and carboxyl group

68. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of the atomic radii of O, F and N?
1) O, F, N 2) N, F, O 3) O, N, F 4) F, O, N
69. Which of the following set of elements is written in order of their increasing metallic character?
1) Be Mg Ca 2) Na Li K 3) Mg Al Si 4) CON
70. Which of the following sets of elements do not belong to the same group?
1) F, Cl, Br 2) Na, K, Rb 3) P, S, Cl 4) C, Si, Ge

BIOLOGY Questions : 71 - 100

71. The path of water from soil up to secondary xylem is

1) Soil → Root hair cell wall → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Protoxylem → Metaxylem
2) Cortex → Root hair → Endodermis → Pericycle → Protoxylem → Metaxylem
3) Pericycle → Soil → Root hair → Cortex → Endodermis → Protoxylem → Metaxylem
4) Soil → Root hair cell wall → Cortex → Pericycle → Endodermis → Protoxylem → Metaxylem
72. When the contents of a cell are in the shrinkage state the process is called
1) Hypotonic 2) Osmosis 3) Endosmosis 4) Plasmolysis
73. The assimilatory power in photosynthesis is
1) ATP 2) ATP and NADPH2
3) NADPH 4) ATP, NADPH and CO2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 9 | NC

74. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from
1) Water 2) Oxygen in air
3) Both from water and carbon dioxide 4) Carbon dioxide
75. How many molecules of ATP are gained during anaerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose?
1) 36 2) 2 3) 38 4) 4
76. The common phase between aerobic and an-aerobic respiration is called
1) Glycolysis 2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
3) Oxydative phosphorylation 4) Krebs cycle
77. The given diagram shows different stages of seed germination.
Identify A, B, C and D and select the correct option.

A B C D
1) Plumule Cotyledons Epicotyl Hypocotyl
2) Radicle Cotyledons Epicotyl Hypocotyl
3) Mesocotyl Cotyledons Epicotyl Hypocotyl
4) Root hair Cotyledons Hypocotyl Epicotyl
78. Match Column – I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column -I Column -II

A. Auxins (i) Breaking seed dormancy
B. Gibberellins (ii) Inducing fruit ripening
C. Cytokinins (iii) Formation of abscission layer
D. Ethylene (iv) Root initiation
(v) Chloroplast development in leaves

1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(v), D-(ii) 2) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(i)

3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) 4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(v)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 10 | NC

79. Which one of the following is the matching set of the gland and its secretion?
1) Pituitary gland – thyroxin 2) Salivary gland – amylase
3) Adrenal cortex – vasopressin 4) Islets of Langerhans – secretin
80. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column -I Column -II
A. Salivary amylase (i) Proteins
B. Bile salts (ii) Milk proteins
C. Rennin (iii) Starch
D. Pepsin (iv) Lipids

1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) 2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) 4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
81. The given figure shows the diagrammatic view of human respiratory system. Identify A, B, C and D

1) A – Epiglottis, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm

2) A – Epiglottis, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchioles, D - Diaphragm
3) A – Soundbox, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm
4) A – Soundbox, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchioles, D - Diaphragm
82. Lungs are not affected by the disease
1) Pneumonia 2) Bronchitis 3) Polio 4) Asthma
83. Thromoboplastin required in blood clotting is secreted by
1) Monocytes 2) Lymphocytes 3) Erythrocytes 4) Platelets
84. Oxygenated blood is carried by
1) Pulmonary vein 2) Pulmonary artery 3) Hepatic portal vein 4) Renal vein
85. Covering of heart
1) Pericardium 2) Perineurium 3) Pewriosteum 4) Peritoneum

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 11 | NC

86. Refer the given figure of human urinary system and select the option that correctly identifies the
labelled parts A to E.

A B C D E
1) Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava Dorsal aorta Urethra Pelvis
2) Alveolar sac Superior vena cava Dorsal aorta Urinary Cortex bladder
3) Ureter Inferior vena cava Dorsal aorta Urinary bladder Pelvis
4) Dorsal aorta Inferior vena cava Superior vena Urinary Cortex bladder
cava
87. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes mainly as uric acid by birds is helpful for
1) Conserving body water 2) Eliminating excess body water
3) Eliminating excess body heat 4) Conserving body heat
88. Axon is characterized by
1) Transformation of energy 2) Receiving the impulse
3) Providing energy for impulse 4) Conduction of impulse
89. Power of regeneration is lowest in
1) Liver cell 2) Bone cell
3) Muscle cell 4) Brain cell
90. Which one is NOT secreted by pituitary?
1) Thyroxine 2) FSH 3) GH 4) ACTH
91. Match the columns :
I II
a. Hypothalamus p Relaxin
b. Anterior pituitary q Estrogen
c. Testis r FSH-and LH
d. Ovary s Androgens
t Gonadotropin releasing hormone
1) a – p, b – q, c-s, d – r 2) a – r, b – t, c-s, d – q
3) a – t, b – r, c-s, d – q 4) a – t, b – r, c-q, d - s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 12 | NC

92. Refer the given figures which show three different types of fission. Select the option which correctly
matches them with the organism in which they occur.

(i) (ii) (iii)

1) Euglena Plasmodium Amoeba
2) Plasmodium Paramecium Euglena
3) Euglena Paramecium Escherichia
4) Euglena Paramecium Amoeba

93. Pollen tube at the time of entering embryo sac has

1) Three male gametes
2) Two male gametes
3) One gamete nucleus
4) Four male gametes
94. The sequence of development of embryo sac is
1) Archesporium →Megaspore → Megasporophyte→Embryo sac
2) Archesporium→Megaspore→ Megaspore mother cell → Embryo sac
3) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac
4) Archesporium → MMC → Embryo sac → Megaspore
95. When a mature egg leaves the ovary, it enters the
1) Follicle
2) Endometrium
3) Interstitial cells
4) Oviduct
96. In 28-day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on
1) day 1
2) day 10
3) day 14
4) day 28

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 13 | NC

97. Given below is an incomplete flowchart showing the influence of horomones on gametogenesis in
human females. Study it carefully and identify A, B, C and D.

A B C D
1) FSH LH Ovary Progesterone
2) GnRH FSH and LH Ovary Oestrogen and progesterone
3) GNRH FSH Testis Testosterone
4) LH FSH Testis Testosterone

98. If a couple has three daughters, what are the chances that the fourth child will be a son?
1) 100% 2) 75% 3) 50% 4) 0%
99. Vestigial pelvic girdle and bone remnants of hind limbs are characteristic of
1) Shark 2) Seal 3) Whale 4) Dolphin
100. Montreal Protocol refers to
1) Biosafety of genetically modified organisms
2) Substances that deplete ozone layer
3) Persistent organic pollutants
4) Global warming and climate change

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 14 | NC

 ANSWER KEY
NEET CBSE – SET-44 : 26 January 2020

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 3 4 2 3

Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 1 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 3 3 2

Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 4 4 2 2

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. 3 4 4 3 4 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 4

Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 4 4 2 1