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Electronics & Telecommunication


Engineering

SET - B

1. The peak-to-peak ripple voltage for a half- 2. The components of full-wave voltage doubler
wave rectifier and filter circuit operating at circuit are
60 Hz, which has a 680 F reservoir (a) 2 diodes and 1 capacitor
capacitor, an average output of 28 V and
(b) 4 diodes and 1 capacitor
200  load resistance, will be nearly.
(c) 2 diodes and 2 capacitors
(a) 2.5 V (b) 3.4 V
(d) 4 diodes and 2 capacitors
(c) 4.3 V (d) 5.2 V
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Sol.
Voltage doubler circuit
Peak to peak ripple voltage (Vr) = ?
C1 D2
f = 60 Hz, C = 680 µF, VDC = 28 V
+ +
RL = 200
D
+ + Vi D1 C2 V0

Vi C RL V0 – –
2 diodes and 2 capacitors

– – 3. An amplifier has a signal input voltage Vi


of 0.25 V and draws 1 mA from the source.
Idc Vdc
Vr = = fCR If the amplifier delivers 8 V to a load of 10
fC L mA, the power gain is
28 (a) 340 (b) 320
Vr = 6
60  680  10  200 (c) 250 (d) 150
Vr  3.43 volt Ans. (b)

Output of HWR with C filter Sol.


1mA 10mA
V0
+
Vi Amplifier RL 8V
Vm
VDC Vr –
Vmin
Power gain
t Output Power V0 I0
Ap = 
Input power Vi Ii

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8  10 (a) 26.0 V (b) 16.3 V
Ap =
0.25  1 (c) 10.3 V (d) 8.1 V
A p  320 Ans. (d)
Sol.
4. Three amplifiers of gain Output (V0)
A  1 1  24  1  23  0  22  1 21  0  20  10V
A   0    60 =
 2  2n

R
are connected in tandem. The feedback loop 1 
= 16  8  2  10

R
is closed through a positive gain of 0.008 :
25

TTEE
A A A 26
=  10
32
= 8.125 V
0.008
6. An 8-bit D/A converter has step size of 20
The magnitude of A0 for the system to be mV. The full-scale output and the resolution
ASS
oscillatory will be will be nearly.
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.1 (a) 5.1 V and 0.3%
MA
(c) 5.0 (d) 10.0 (b) 4.6 V and 0.4%
Ans. (d) (c) 4.1 V and 0.4%
Sol. (d) 4.6 V and 0.3%
S M

A A A Ans. (a)
Sol. n = 8
Full scale output
0.008
IEIES

V0 = (2n – 1) × 20 mV
For the system to be oscillatory, system = (28 – 1) × 20 mV
should satisfy Barkhausen criterion = 257 × 20 mV
1 = 5.14 V
|AB| = 1  |A| =
B
Step size
Resolution =  100%
   A 0 3 A 03 Full scale
|A| = A  A  A    
 2  8 20  10 3
=  100%
B = 0.008 5.14

 8 
13 = 0.389%
A0 =   10
 0.008  7. For 555 astable multivibrator, if C = 0.1
5. The output voltage from a 5-bit ladder type F, R A  10 k, R B  50k, the frequency
DAC that has a digital input of 11010, and and the duty cycle will be nearly.
by assuming 0 = 0 V and 1 = + 10 V, is
nearly.

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(a) 1.6 kHz and 54.5% (a) A + B (b) A  B
(b) 1.3 kHz and 54.5% (c) (A + B)(A.B) (d) A.B
(c) 1.6 kHz and 46.5% Ans. (d)
(d) 1.3 kHz and 46.5% Sol. Simplifying the expression:
Ans. (b)
ABCD  ABCD  ABCD  ABCD  ABCDE
Sol.
ABCDE  ABCDE
555 timer as astable multivibrator.
VCC
= ABC  ABC  ABDE  ABCDE

R
 C  C  1
8 4
= AB  ABDE  ABCDE

TE
RA
O/P  1  CDE  1
7 3
RB
= AB + ABDE  1  DE  1
6
= AB
2 1 5
C 0.01F 9. An electric power generating station
AS
supplies power to three loads A, B and C.
1.44 Only a single generator is required when
frequency, f =  R  2R  C any one load is switched on. When more
A B
than one load is on, an auxiliary generator
1.44 must be started. The Boolean equation for
f = the control of switching of the auxiliary
10  2  50   103  0.01  10 6
M

generator will be
f  1.3 kHz (a) AA + BB + CC
R A  RB (b) ABC + BCA + CAB
Duty cycle D = R  100%
A  2R B (c) AB + AC
S

10  50 (d) AB + AC + BC
D =  100
10  2  50 Ans. (d)
IE

60 Sol.
=  100%
110 A B C Y
D  54.54% 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
8. Consider the following expression :
0 1 0 0
A.B.C.D  A.B.C.D  A.B.C.D 0 1 1 1
 A.B.C.D  A.B.C.D.E 1 0 0 0
1 0 1 1
 A.B.C.D.E  A.B.C.D.E
1 1 0 1
The simplification of this by using theorems
1 1 1 1
of Boolean algebra will be

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12. The number of flip-flops required to
BC
A –– – – construct an 8-bit shift register will be
BC BC BC BC
(a) 32 (b) 16

A 0 0 1 0 (c) 8 (d) 4
0 1 3 2
Ans. (c)
A 0 1 1 1 Sol. n number of flip-flops required to construct
4 5 7 6
n-bit shift register.

R
Y = AB + BC + CA
13. Which one of the following specifications
10. Which one of the following types of does not fit for a single-mode fiber ?

R
instructions will be used to copy from the

TTEE
(a) The bandwidth is 1 GHz/km.
source to the destination location ?
(b) The digital communication rate is excess
(a) Arithmetic instructions
of 2000 Mbytes/s.
(b) Data transfer instructions
(c) More than 100000 voice channels are
(c) Logical instructions available.
ASS
(d) Machine control instructions (d) The mode field diameter (MFD; spot
Ans. (b) size) is larger than the core diameter.
Sol. Data transfer instruction is used to copy Ans. (a)
MA

data from source register to the destination


location 14. For a binary FSK signal with a mark
frequency of 49 kHz, a space frequency of
for example (1) MOV B, A 51 kHz and an input bit rate of 2 kbps, the
S M

Data from A is copied to register B peak frequency deviation will be

BA (a) 0.5 kHz (b) 1.0 kHz

(2) MOV A, M (c) 2.0 kHz (d) 4.0 kHz


Ans. (c)
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A  M HL
Sol. In Binary FSK signal
11. A cascaded arrangement of flip-flops, where Mark frequency is fL = 49 kHz
the output of one flip-flop drives the clock
Space frequency is fH = 59 kHz
input of the following flip-flop, is known as
Maximum frequency deviation
(a) Synchronous counter
(b) Ripple counter f = fH – fL
= (51 – 49) kHz
(c) Ring counter
f = 2 kHz
(d) Up counter
Ans. (b) 15. A random process X(t) is defined as
Sol. A ripple counter is a cascaded arrangement X  t   2 cos  2t  Y 
of flip flops where the output of one flip flop
where Y is a discrete random variable with
drives the clock input of the following flip
flop. 1   1
P  Y  0   and P  Y    . The mean
2  2 2

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x 1  is  1   1 
= P  A  log 2    P  B  log 2  
1 1  PA    P  B 
(a) (b)
4 3  1 
P  C  log 2 
1  P  C  
(c) (d) 1  
2
1 1 1
Ans. (d) = log 2  2   log 2 4  log 2 4
2 4 4
Sol. Random process x(t) = 2 cos  2t  y  1 2 2
=  

R
x(t = 1) = 2 cos  2  y  2 4 4

= 2 cos y 3 1
=  1 bits/symbol.
2 2
Mean of random process at t = 1.

TE
17. An AM wave with modulation index 0.8 has
x 1  = x  y  0  P  y  0 
total sideband power of 4.85 kW. The carrier
    power and the total power radiated will be
x  y   P  y   nearly.
 2   2 
(a) 12.2 kW and 20 kW
AS
1  1
= 2 cos  0  . 2  2cos  2   2 (b) 15.2 kW and 20 kW
 
(c) 12.2 kW and 25 kW
1 1
= 2 1   2  0  (d) 15.2 kW and 25 kW
2 2
Ans. (b)
x 1  = 1
Sol. For AM wave
M

16. A source produces three symbols A, B and Side band power = 4.85 kW
1 1
C with probabilities P(A) = , P(B) = 2
2 4 Side band power Pside = Pc .
1 2
and P(C) = . The source entropy is
S

4
4.85 kW = Pc
 0.8 2
1 2
(a) bit/symbol (b) 1 bit/symbol
2 4.85  2
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Pc =
1 1 0.64
(c) 1 bit/symbol (d) 1 bit/symbol
4 2 Pc = 15.156 kW
Ans. (d) Total transmitted power
1 1 1 = Pc + Pside
Sol. P(A) = , P(B) = and P(C) =
2 4 4 = 15.156 + 4.85
Entropy of source = 20 kW

1  18. A 360 W carrier is simultaneously


=  Pi log 2  P  modulated by two audio waves with
i  i 
modulation percentage of 55 and 65

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respectively. The effective modulation index = 60 W
and the total power radiated are Given  = 1
(a) 0.85 and 490.5 W for AM modulation
(b) 0.65 and 490.5 W
 2 
(c) 0.85 and 450.5 W Pt = Pc 1  
 2 
(d) 0.65 and 450.5 W
Ans. (a)  1
60 = Pc 1  

R
 2
Sol. Carrier power Pc = 360 W

R
Modulation index for 1 st audio signal 2
Pc = 60 
3

TTEE
1  0.55
Modulation index for 2 nd audio signal Carrier power
2  0.65 Pc = 40 W
Total modulation index 20. For an FM receiver with an input signal-to-
noise ratio for 29 dB, a noise figure of 4 db
t = 12  22
ASS
and an FM improvement factor of 16 dB,
the pre-detection and post-detection signal-
t = 0.552   0.652 to-noise ratios are
MA

t = 0.8514 (a) 25 dB and 41 dB


Total radiated power (b) 30 dB and 49 dB
(c) 25 dB and 49 dB
S M

 2 
Pt = Pc 1  t  (d) 30 dB and 41 dB
 2 

Ans. (a)

1 
 0.852  21. For Gaussian and White channel noise, the
= 360  2 
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  capacity of a low-pass channel with a usable


= 360 × 1.3625 S
bandwidth of 3000 Hz and  103 at the
N
= 490.5 W channel output will be
19. An amplitude modulated amplifier has a (a) 15000 bits/s (b) 20000 bits/s
radio frequency output of 50 W at 100% (c) 25000 bits/s (d) 30000 bits/s
modulation. The internal loss in the
modulator is 10 W. The unmodulated carrier Ans. (d)
power is Sol. Usable Bandwidth = 300 Hz
(a) 40 W (b) 50 W S
= 103
(c) 60 W (d) 80 W N
Ans. (a) Channel capacity
Sol. Total Power at modulator output  S
C = B log 2 1   bits / sec.
= P0 + PL  N
= 50 W + 10 W = 3000 log2(1 + 103) bits/sec.

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= 3000 × 9.96 = 29901.67 Ans. (a)
 30000 Sol. In DPCM, the difference between two
adjacent samples is quantized. Because two
22. For a PM modulator with a deviation adjacent samples are highly correlated, their
sensitivity K = 2.5 rad/V and a modulating difference has small variations and
signal v m  t   2 cos  22000t  , the peak therefore, to achieve a certain level of
phase deviation m will be performance fewer bits are required to
(a) 1.25 rad (b) 2.5 rad quantize it. This means that DPCM can
achieve performance levels compared to
(c) 5.0 rad (d) 7.5 rad PCM at lower bit rate.

R
Ans. (c)
25. For the given transfer function
Sol. Given phase sensitivity Kp = 2.5 rad/V
Y s 1
Modulating signal vm(t) = 2 cos  2  2000 t  G s   

TE
2
R s s  3s  2
Max. phase deviation
The response y(t) for a step input r(t) =
m = Kp(vm(t))|max 5u(t) will be
= 2.5 × 2
5 t 5 2t 
= 5 rad (a)  2  5e  2 e  u  t 
AS
 
23. In a PCM system, non-uniform quantization 5 t 
leads to (b)  2  5e  u  t 
 
(a) Increased quantizer noise
 5 5 2t 
(b) Simplification of the quantization (c)  2  2 e  u  t 
process  
M

(c) Higher average SNR  t 5 2t 


(d)  5e  2 e  u  t 
(d) Increased bandwidth  
Ans. (c) Where u(t) is a unit step input.
Sol. Non - uniform quantization minimizes the Ans. (a)
S

distortion with same no of levels. Hence


bandwidth requirement is same. Y(s) 1
Sol. Given G(s) =  2 …(1)
R(s) s  3s  2
IE

Non - uniform quantizer has higher average


SNR than uniform quantization if r(t) = 5u(t), then y(t)=?
r(t) = 5u(t)
24. The bandwidth required in DPCM is less
than that of PCM because 5
 R(s) 
(a) The number of bits per code is reduced s
resulting in a reduced bit rate 1
from (1) Y(s) =  R(s)
(b) The difference signal is larger in s2  3s  2
amplitude than actual signal.
5
=
(c) More quantization levels are needed 2
s(s  3s  2)
(d) The successive samples of signal often
differ in amplitude

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5 One gets,
=
s(s  1)(s  2)
K
5 5 5 G(s)H(s) = s  s  1 s  2 
=  
2s s  1 2(s  2)
Hence, no. of poles, P = 3
Taking Inverse Laplace Transform
no. of zeros, z = 0
5 t 5 2t
y(t) = u(t)  5e u(t)  e u(t) Number of Asymptotes = P – Z = 3
2 2

R
5 t 5 2t   2n  1  ,
=   5e  e  u(t) Angle of Asymptotes =

R
2 2  PZ

TTEE
26. The price for improvement in sensitivity by n = 0, 1, 2 .... (|P – Z| – 1)
the use of feedback is paid in terms of
2n  1   60, 180, 300
(a) Loss of system gain =
3
(b) Rise of system gain
28. If the characteristic equation of a feedback
ASS
(c) Improvement in transient response,
delayed response control system is given by
(d) Poor transient response s4  20 s3  15s2  2s  K  0
MA

Ans. (a) then the range of values of K for the system


Sol. With the use of negative feedback, to be stable will be
sensitivity of system is improved but gain (a) 1 < K < 2.49
S M

is decreased.
(b) 0 < K < 1.49
27. Consider a feedback system with the (c) 1 < K < 4.49
characteristic equation
(d) 0 < K < 3.49
1
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1 K 0 Ans. (b)
s  s  1  s  2 
Sol. Given characteristic eqn. is
The asymptotes of the three branches of root
locus plot of this system will form the s4 + 20s3 + 15s2 + 2s + k = 0
following angles with the real axis. from Routh’s table
(a) 60°, 120° and 300° s
3
1 15 k
(b) 60°, 120° and 180° s 3
20 2
(c) 60°, 180° and 300° 298
s2 k
(d) 40°, 120° and 200° 20
Ans. (c) 298
 20k
s
1 10
Sol. Characteristic equation is given as, 298
1 20
0
1 + K s s 1 s  2 = 0 s k
  
For stability, all poles should lie on left side
Compare it with, 1 + G(s)H(s) = 0 of s plane

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Hence 3. Laplace transform of unit parabolic
298 1
 20k function is 3 .
10 s
> 0& k > 0
298 Which of the above statements are correct?
20 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
298 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  20k  0 & k > 0
10
Ans. (c)
298 Sol. (1) Unit Ramp function r(t) = tu(t)
k &k >0
200

R
2
t
 k < 1.49 & k > 0 Unit parabolic function, f(t) = u(t)
2
Hence 0 < k < 1.49 Parabolic function grows faster than ramp

TE
29. For a type-2 system, the steady-state errors junction by 1 degree
for unit step and unit ramp input are (1) is true.
(a) 0 and  (b)  and 0 (2) is true
(c) 0 and 0 (d)  and  t2 1
(3) Laplace transform of u(t)  3 is
Ans. (c) 2 s
AS
true.
A
Sol. For Type-2 system, G(s) H(s) = 2 Hence all statements are true.
s
1 31. Consider the following open-loop transfer
e ss  for unit step input
Kp function :
K s  2
M

1
 for unit ramp input G =
Kv  s  1s  4 
A The characteristic equation of the unity
where K p  lim G  s  H(s)  lim 2 negative feedback will be
s 0 s 0
s
(a) (s + 1) (s + 4) + K (s + 2) = 0
S

A
and K v  lim sG  s  H(s)  lim (b) (s + 2) (s + 1) + K (s + 4) = 0
s 0 s 0 s
=  (c) (s + 1) (s – 2) + K (s + 4) = 0
IE

Hence ess = 0 for unit step input (d) (s + 2) (s + 4) + K (s + 1) = 0


= 0 for unit ramp input Ans. (a)
30. Consider the following statements regarding Sol. Given open loop transfer function
a parabolic function :
k(s  2)
1. A parabolic function is one degree faster a=
(s  1)(s  4)
than the ramp function.
with unity feedback, H(s) = 1
2. A unit parabolic function is defined as
Characteristic equation : 1 + GH = 0
 t2
 , for t  0 k(s  2)
f t    2 1 0
 0, otherwise (s  1)(s  4)

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 (s+1) (s+4) + k (s + 2) = 0 Sol. In frequency response, magnitude attains
/ 12
32. The magnitude and phase relationship maximum value, MP = e at   r ;
between the sinusoidal input and the where r is resonant frequency.
steady-state output of a system is called as
35. For a lead compensator having transfer
(a) Magnitude response function
(b) Transient response
 1
(c) Steady-state response  s  zc  s   

R
  
(d) Frequency response Gc(s) =  s  pc   1 
 s   

R
Ans. (d)  

TTEE
Sol. Frequency response of a system defines the zc zc
1.  1 2.  1
magnitude response and phase response at pc pc
steady state for a sinusoidal input.
3. 0 4. 0
33. A transfer function having all its poles and Which of the above are correct ?
zeros only in the left-half of the s-plane is
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
ASS
called
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
(a) a minimum-phase transfer function
Ans. (b)
(b) a complex transfer function
MA

Sol. For a lead compensator,


(c) an all-pass transfer function
zero
(d) a maximum-phase transfer function  should be less than 1 and poles
poles
S M

Ans. (a) should lie on left side of s-plane.


Sol. A minimum phase TF has poles & zeros on
Zc
left half of s-plane. So,    1 and  >0
Pc
A maximum phase TF has poles & zeros on
Hence (b) Ans.
IEIES

right half of s-plane.


An all pass TF has poles & zeros 36. The attenuation (magnitude) produced by a
symmetrically located w.r.t. j axis. lead compensator at the frequency of
A complex TF has complex poles & zeros, maximum phase lead m  ab is
not necessarily on a particular half.
b
(a) (b) ab
34. The frequency where magnitude M has a a
peak value in frequency response is known
as a
(c) ba (d)
b
(a) normalized frequency
Ans. (d)
(b) resonant frequency
sa
(c) peak frequency Sol. Let GC(s) =
sb
(d) tuned frequency
2 2
Ans. (b)  a
then G c ()  2 2
 b

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Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering

at n  ab A file occupies 5 adjacent tracks.


To read the first track seek time is required.
2
ab  a a Time required to read first track:
G c ( m )  2

ab  b b
Average seek ime + rotational delay + time
a require to read 500 sector.
Hence, attenuation provided will be .
b Given rotation speed = 15000 rpm
37. Consider the following statements : 15000 round completed in 60 sec.
1. A computer will have a multiply 60
1 round completed in sec.

R
instruction. 15000
2. Multiply instruction will be 60
implemented by a special multiply unit. so, first track can be read in sec =
15000

TE
Which of the following is correct ? 4 msec.

(a) Both 1 and 2 are not architectural Time required to read first track
design issues. = 4 msec + 2 msec + 4 msec
(b) Both 1 and 2 are not organizational = 10 msec
issues. Time required to read remaining four track
AS
(c) 1 is an architectural design issue while = 4 × (Rotational delay + time required to
2 is an organizational issue. read 500 sector)
(d) 1 is an organizational issue while 2 is = 4 × (2 + 4)
an architectural design issue.
= 24 msec
Ans. (c)
Time required in sequential organization to
M

38. Consider a disk with an average seek time transfer the file = 10 mec + 24 msec
of 4 ms, rotational delay of 2 ms, rotation = 34 msec
speed of 15000 r.p.m. and 512-byte sector
= 0.034 sec Ans.
with 500 sectors per track. A file occupies
all of the sectors on 5 adjacent tracks. After 39. Add 8 and 9 in BCD code.
S

reading the first track, if remaining tracks


can be read with no seek time, then the (a) 00010111 (b) 00010001
time required in sequential organization to (c) 01110111 (d) 10001001
IE

transfer the file will be nearly. Ans. (a)


(a) 0.01 second (b) 0.034 second
(8)10
(c) 0.34 second (d) 3.4 seconds
 (9)10
Sol.
Ans. (b) 17 10   00010111BCD
Sol. Given disk with average seek time = 4 msec.
40. Convert the binary number to Gray code.
Rotational delay = 2 msec.
(a) 00100101 (b) 10100100
Rotation speed = 15000 r.p.m.
(c) 11100110 (d) 10100101
No. of sectors = 500 sectors/track
Ans. (d)
Size of sector = 512 byte

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Engineering
43. In a cache with 64-byte cache lines, how
1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 many bits are used to determine which byte
Sol. within a cache line an address points to ?
1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1
(a) 16 (b) 8
41. The decimal value of the signed binary
(c) 6 (d) 3
number 10101010 expressed in 2’s
complement will be Ans. (c)
(a) –42 (b) –86 Sol. Cache size = 64 bytes

R
(c) –116 (d) –170 26 = 64
6-bits are used.

R
Ans. (b)

TTEE
Sol. Since the MSB bit is 1, therefore the number 44. A system has 64-bit virtual addresses and
is negative. 43-bit physical addresses. If the pages are
10101010 1's complement 8 kB in size, the number of bits required
–01010101 for VPN and PPN will be respectively
+1
2's (a) 51 bits and 30 bits
(01010110)2 = (86)10
ASS
complement (b) 30 bits and 51 bits
42. Which of the following statements is/are (c) 51 bits and 13 bits
correct ? (d) 30 bits and 13 bits
MA

1. An address generated by the CPU is Ans. (a)


commonly referred to as a physical
Sol. Virtual address = 64 bit
address.
S M

Virtual address space = 264 bytes


2. An address seen by the memory unit is
commonly referred to as a logical Physical address = 43 bit
address. Physical address space = 243 bytes
3. The run-time mapping from virtual to Page size = 8 KB = 213 byte
IEIES

physical address is done by the memory


management unit (MMU). 264
Virtual page number (VPN) =  251
Select the correct answer using the code 213
given below. 243
Physical page number (PPN) = 13
 230
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 51-bits required for VPN, 30-bits required
for PPN.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Explanation: 45. A soft error is a
1. An address generated by the CPU is (a) Regular-nondestructive event
commonly referred as logical address. (b) Random-nondestructive event
2. An address seen by the memory unit is (c) Random-destructive event
commonly referred as physical address.
(d) Regular-destructive event
3. Memory Management Unit (MMU) is
responsible for run time mapping from Ans. (a)
virtual to physical address.

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Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering
Sol. Soft errors are caused by events. It is non 48. Which of the following statements are
destructive because rebooting resolved the correct ?
issue. 1. A pseudoinstruction is a machine
instruction.
46. A main memory can hold 3 page frames
and initially all of them are vacant. Consider 2. A pseudoinstruction is an instruction to
the following stream of page requests : the assembler.
2, 3, 2, 4, 6, 2, 5, 6, 1, 4, 6 3. The ORG (origin) is an example of
pseudoinstruction.
If the stream uses FIFO replacement policy,
the hit ratio h will be 4. It is not possible to use ORG more than

R
once in a program.
11 1
(a) (b) Select the correct answer using the code
3 11
given below.

TE
3 2
(c) (d) (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
11 11
Ans. (d) (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

Sol. Explanation: A main memory can hold 3 Ans. (b)


pages frames. Stream of page requests are Sol. Pseudoinstruction is an instruction to the
given below: assembler. It is just a way of asking for the
AS
2, 3, 2, 4, 6, 2, 5, 6, 1, 4, 6 same instruction by using a mnemonic.
Assembler translates the pseudoinstruction
2 3 2 4 6 2 5 6 1 4 6
into the appropriate basic assembly
2 2 2 6 6 6 1 1 1 instruction. The example given below is
3 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 pseudoinstruction.
4 4 4 5 5 5 6 MOVE R1, R2
M

No. of hits = 2 It means copy the content of the source


register R2 to the destination register R1
2
Hit ratio = ORG is the pseudoinstruction, it sets the
11
location counter of the current segment to
S

47. Which one of the following is an advantage the value <expr>


of assembly language over high-level Example : ORG 08000H
language ?
When ORG is encountered, the assembler
IE

(a) Assembly language program runs faster. resets its location counter to the specified
(b) Writing of assembly language value.
programming is easy.
49. The vector RAB extends from A(1, 2, 3) to B.
(c) Assembly language program is portable. If the length of RAB is 10 units and its
(d) Assembly language program contains direction is given by
less instruction. a  0.6a x  0.64 a y  0.48 az
Ans. (a)
the coordinates of B will be
Sol. Assembly language programs are computer
time efficient. So, they run faster. (a) 7a x  4.8a y  4.8 az

(b) 6a x  6.4a y  4.8az

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Engineering
(c) 7ax  8.4a y  7.8 az = 2 × Volume
= 2 × 10–9C
(d) 6a x  8.4a y  7.8a z
Ans. (c) Q  2nC

Sol. A 1,2,3   B  x, y, z  51. The unit vector extending from origin


so unit vector will be towards the point G(2, –2, –1) is

 x  1 ax   y  2  a y   z  3  az 2 2 1

R
(a) ax  a y  az
= 3 3 3
10
2 2 1

R
= 0.6 ax + 0.64 ay + 0.48 az (b)  ax  a y  az
3 3 3

TTEE
(x – 1)ax + (y – 2)ay + (z – 3)az
2 2 1
= 6ax + 6.4ay + 4.8az (c) ax  a y  az
3 3 3
comparing we get
2 2 1
x = 7 y = 8.4 and z = 7.8 (d)  a x  a y  az
3 3 3
ASS
 B = 7ax + 8.4ay + 7.8az Ans. (c)

50. What is the value for the total charge Sol.  0,0,0   G  2, 2, 1 
enclosed in an incremental volume of 10–9
MA
unit vector will be
m3 located at the origin if
2ax  2a y  az
De x
sin y a x  e x
cos y a y  2za z C/m2 ? =
4  4 1
S M

(a) 8 nC (b) 4 nC 2 2a y az
= ax  
(c) 2 nC (d) 1 nC 3 3 3
Ans. (c) 52. Ground waves progress along the surface of
the earth and must be polarized
IEIES

Sol. Total charge Q = v dv  ...(1)


(a) Horizontally (b) Circularly

Where v = .D (c) Elliptically (d) Vertically
Dx Dy Dz Ans. (d)
v =  
x y z Sol. Ground waves are mostly vertically
polarised as they are subjected to less
  ex sin y    ex cos y    2z  attenuation than any other polarization
=  
x y z
53. For a lossless line terminated in a short
v  ex sin y  ex sin y  2  2 ...(3) circuit, the stationary voltage minima and
maxima are separated by
Charge density at origin is 2 c/m3
 
(a) (b)
 c  8 2
so total charge enclosed =  2 3
m
  dv
  
(c) (d)
3 4

= 2 dv

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Ans. (d)
z0 = 300 z0 200
Sol. In standing waves voltage maxima are 
separated by  2

Similarly voltage minima are separated by 4

2 z0 = z0zL
So voltage maxima and voltage minima are
z0 = 300  200 = 100 6
separated by  4
z0 = 244.9 

R
54. The characteristic impedance of an 80 cm
long lossless transmission line having 56. For a standard rectangular waveguide
L = 0.25 H / m and C = 100 pF/m will be having an aspect ratio of 2:1, the cutoff

TE
(a) 25 (b) 40 wavelength for TM1,1 mode will be nearly

(c) 50 (d) 80 (a) 0.9a (b) 0.7a

Ans. (c) (c) 0.5a (d) 0.3a


Ans. (a)
L
Sol. z0 = a 2
AS
C Sol. Aspect ratio= 
b 1
0.25  10 6 so a = 2b
=
100  1012
2 2
c m n
25 We know fc =    
=  104 2  a   b
100
M

2 2
z0  50  c 1  1 
= 2  a    a 
 2
55. It is required to match a 200  load to a
300  transmission line to reduce the SWR c 1 4
=  2
S

along the line to 1. If it is connected directly 2 a 2


a
to the load, the characteristic impedance of
the quarterwave transformer used for this c c
fc = 5
2a 
IE

purpose will be
(a) 275  (b) 260  2a
 =  0.894 a
(c) 245  (d) 230 5

Ans. (c) 57. The irises in the rectangular metallic


waveguide may be
1  L
Sol. SWR = 1 = 1   1. inductive
L
2. resistive
so L = 0
3. capacitive

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Engineering
Select the correct answer using the code 2
cos  = 1   0.75 
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 cos  = 0.6614

(b) 1 and 2 only 59. In TEm,n mode, m and n are integers


(c) 1 and 3 only denoting the number of

(d) 2 and 3 only 1


(a) the wavelengths of intensity between
2
Ans. (a)

R
each pair of walls
Sol. At the resonance frequency, the iris acts as
1
a high shunt resistance. Above or below

R
(b) the wavelengths of intensity between
resonance, the iris acts as a capacitive or 3

TTEE
each pair of walls
inductive reactance.
1
58. A 10 GHz signal is propagated in a (c) the wavelengths of intensity between
4
waveguide whose wall separation is 6 cm. each pair of walls
The greatest number of half-waves of
1
electric intensity will be possible to establish (d) the wavelengths of intensity between
ASS
between the two walls. The guide 8
each pair of walls
wavelength for this mode of propagation
will be Ans. (a)
MA

(a) 6.48 cm (b) 4.54 cm Sol. TEm,n mode :


(c) 2.48 cm (d) 1.54 cm
 m, n stands for feed connection
S M

Ans. (b) machanism & positioning of feed.


Sol. Give f = 10 GHz    3cm   m & n are determined by no. of feed
mc connection
fc = so they also define no. of Half cycle between
2a
IEIES

guide walls
for propagation fc  f
60. Consider the following statements with
mc reference to dipole arrays:
 10GHz
2a
1. In broadside array, all the dipoles are
10  109  2  6  10 2 fed in the same phase from the same
m
2  108 source.
m  4 [ at m = 4 standing wave formation] 2. In end-fire array, the magnitude of the
current in each element is same and
so for m = 3, fc = 7.5 GHz
there is no phase difference between
 3 these currents.
guided = 
cos  cos  Which of the above statements is/are
3 correct?
g   4.535cm
0.661 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2
f 
 cos  = 1 c  Ans. (a)
f 

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Sol. Broadside array  = 0 1
r =
2 4 3f RC
Endfire array  =  d
 = 0.028
so only statement 1 is correct
63. The effect of reduction in effective base
61. Consider a common-emitter current gain of width due to increase in reverse voltage of
  150 and a base current of iB = 15A . If BJT is
the transistor is biased in the forward active (a) Hall effect (b) Early effect
mode, the collector and emitter current will (c) Zener effect (d) Miller effect
be

R
Ans. (b)
(a) 2.25 mA and 2.27 mA
Sol. Early effect is the variation in the effective
(b) 3.25 mA and 2.27 mA
width of the base in a bipolar junction

TE
(c) 2.25 mA and 1.37 mA transistor (BJT) due to a variation in the
(d) 3.25 mA and 1.37 mA applied base to collector voltage.

Ans. (a) 64. What is the drain current for a D-MOSFET


Sol. iB = 15A having the characteristic values I DSS of 10
mA, VGS(off) of –4 V and VGS of + 2 V?
AS
iC = i B
(a) 22.5 mA (b) 17.5 mA
= 15 × 10–6 × 150 (c) 12.5 mA (d) 2.5 mA
= 2.25 mA Ans. (a)
iE = iB + iC 2
 VGS 
= (2.25 + 0.015) mA Sol. ID = IDSS 1  V 
M

= 2.265 mA  GS off  

2
= 2.27 mA  2 
= 10 1  
 4 
62. The input to a bridge rectifier is 230 V
(r.m.s), 50 Hz. The d.c. output voltage and = 10(1.5)2
S

the ripple factor with RL of 100 and = 22.5 mA


capacitor filter of 1000F are
65. In the Wien bridge oscillator, the 0° phase-
IE

(a) 207 V and 0.028 shift is met by using lead-lag network and
(b) 325 V and 0.028 by using
(c) 207 V and 0.020 (a) inverting op-amp
(d) 325 V and 0.020 (b) non-inverting op-amp
Ans. (b) (c) feedback op-amp
Sol. DC output voltage = Vmax (d) high-gain op-amp
= Ans. (b)
2  230
= 325.26 V Sol. Non inverting configuration op-Amp is used
to meet 0° phase shift.
ripple factor

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66. What is the frequency of oscillation for an Sol. Characteristics of ideal op amp:
RC phase-shift oscillator with R of 10 k Infinite voltage gain
and C of 0.001 F in each of its three RC
Infinite input impedance
section?
Zero output impedance
(a) 5.0 kHz (b) 5.5 kHz
Infinite CMRR
(c) 6.0 kHz (d) 6.5 kHz
Infinite Band width
Ans. (d)

R
Sol. Frequency of oscillation 70. A d.c. voltage supply provides 60 V when
the output is unloaded. When connected to
1

R
f0 = a load, the output drops to 56 V. The value
2RC 6

TTEE
of the voltage regulation is
1 (a) 3.7% (b) 5.7%
f0 = 3 6
210  10  0.001  10  6 (c) 7.1% (d) 9.1%
f0  6.5 kHz Ans. (c)
67. When there is no clock signal applied to
ASS
VNL  VFL
CMOS logic circuits, they are referred to as Sol. Voltage regulation = × 100%
VFL
(a) complex CMOS logic circuits
VNL = no load voltage
MA
(b) static CMOS logic circuits
VFL = Full load voltage
(c) NMOS transmission gates
(d) random PMOS logic circuits 60  56
S M

=
56
Ans. (b)
1
68. One form of NMOS circuit logic that =
14
minimizes power dissipation and maximizes
= 7.14%
device density is called
IEIES

(a) pass transistor logic 71. In optical communication, the maximum


angle in which external light rays may
(b) sequential logic circuit
strike the air/glass interface and still
(c) NMOS SRAM cell propagate down the fiber is called as
(d) NMOS transmission gate (a) critical angle
Ans. (c) (b) numerical aperture
69. The ideal op-amp has (c) angle of refraction
(a) infinite voltage gain and zero input (d) acceptance angle
impedance Ans. (d)
(b) infinite voltage gain and infinite Sol. Acceptance Angle: It is the maximum
bandwidth angle made by the light ray with the fiber
(c) zero voltage gain and infinite CMRR axis, so that light can propagate through
the fiber after total internal reflection
(d) zero output impedance and zero CMRR
Ans. (b)

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cladding
Current through unknown resistance R.
90
 Core I2 = A
R
So, current through voltage source,
cladding
 90 
Acceptance angle I = I1  I2   3  A
 R 
72. The light intensity 3 m from a lamp that Total power disspated in the circuit
emits 25 W of light energy will be = total power delivered by

R
(a) 243 mW/m2 (b) 232 mW/m2 voltage source
(c) 221 mW/m2 (d) 210 mW/m2  450 = 90 × I
Ans. (c)  90 

TE
 450 = 90 ×  3  R 
Sol. The light intensity (in W/m2)
at a distance  
of d meter from the light source is given by
90
 3 = 5
P R
I …(1)
4 r 2 90
 = 2
AS
Put P = 25 W R
r = 3m 90
 R =  45 
2
25 25 2
I    221 mW/m i.e. option (a)
4   9 36
74. An electric kettle contains 1.5 kg of water
M

73. Two resistances, one of 30 and another of at 15°C. It takes 15 minutes to raise the
unknown value, are connected in parallel. temperature of water to 95°C. If the heat
The total power dissipated in the circuit is loss due to radiations and heating the kettle
450 W when the applied voltage is 90 V. is 15 kcalories and the supply voltage is
The unknown resistance is 100 V, the current taken will be
S

(a) 45  (b) 35  (a) 8.0 A (b) 7.1 A


(c) 30  (d) 20  (c) 6.3 A (d) 5.4 A
IE

73 Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) Sol. Energy produced by electric kettle
Sol. = (Energy consumed by water) + (heat loss
due to radiation and heating the kettle)
I I1 I2
= mST   heat loss 
90V 30 R
= [(1.5 × 103) × 1 × (95 – 15°] + 15 × 103;
calorie
Current through 30 resistance = (1.5 × 103 × 1 × 80) + (15 × 103) calorie

90 = 135 × 103 calorie


 I1 = = 3A
30

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= 135 × 4.2 × 103 Joule (a) 2.6 mV (b) 2.2 mV
and, energy produced by electric kettle (c) 1.6 mV (d) 1.2 mV
= V.I.t Ans. (c)
So, V.I.t = 135 × 4.2 × 103 2m

135  4.2  103 Sol.


 I = 100  15  60
 

R
 I = 6.3 A Given,
i.e. current taken by electric kettle = 6.3 A V = 72 km/h

R
i.e. option (c) 72  103

TTEE
= m s = 20 m/s
60  60
75. A heater element is made of nichrome wire
having resistivity equal to 100 × 10–8 m So, emf generator in the axle.
and diameter of 0.4 mm. The length of the e = Blv sin 
wire required to get a resistance of 40 
will be nearly
= B lv    90
ASS
(a) 9 m (b) 7 m = 40×10–6×2×20

(c) 5 m (d) 3 m = 16×10–4


MA

Ans. (c) = 1.6×10–3

Sol. = 1.6 mV
i.e. option (c)
S M

Resistivity    = 100  108   m


77. In a telephone receiver, the size of each of
Diameter (D) = 0.4 × 10–3 m the two poles is 1.2 cm × 0.2 cm and the
Resistance is given by flux between each pole and the diaphragm
is 3 × 10–6 Wb. The force attracted to the
D2 
IEIES

l  poles will be nearly


R =   A  
A  4  (a) 0.15 N (b) 0.20 N
  resistivity  (c) 0.30 N (d) 0.40 N
4l  
R = l  length  Ans. (a)
D2
 A  area 
Sol. Force attracted on the poles is given by
RD2 40    0.16  10 6
l = = B2 A
4 4  100  108 F =
20
,
l = 10  0.16 where B = magnetic flux density
l  5.02 meter
 
 B  A  , A = Area,  0 = Permeability
76. A car is travelling at 72 km/h. If the length
of an axle is 2 m and the vertical component 2
of the earth’s magnetic field is 40 Wb / m , 2 F =
2A0
the e.m.f. generated in the axle of the car
is

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Engineering
to be placed in series for an armature
3  106 2
F = current of 50A is nearly
2  1.2  0.2  10 4  4  107
(a) 0.82  (b) 1.14 
F  0.149 N (c) 1.24  (d) 1.34 

78. An inductor of 0.5 H inductance and 90  Ans. (b)


resistance is connected in parallel with a Sol.
20 µF capacitor. A voltage of 230V at 50 Hz
is maintained across the circuit. The total
power taken from the source is nearly 240V Ra = 0.1 

R
(a) 588 W (b) 145 W
(c) 135W (d) 125 W
Case-I
Ans. (b)

TE
Vt = 240 V, Ia1 = 70 A,
Sol.
n1(speed) = 850 rpm
I I1 I2 R1 = 0.1

0.5H Back emf Ea1 ;


230V 20F
AS
50 Hz Ea1 = V1 – Ia1 Ra
90 
= 240 – 70 × 0.1
Total power taken from soruce is sum of
power taken by each branch. Ea1  233V

Branch 2 does not dissipate any real power Case II


M

being capacitive.
n2 = 850 rmp, Ia2  50A
So Power taken from source = I12 R1
 Ea  m
2
 V  Ea  n    constant 
P =  Z  R1
S

 1  Ea2 n2
 Z1 = R1 + jX1 Ea1 = n
1
IE

where Z1 = 90  j0.5  2  50 650


Ea2   233  178.176V
Z1 = 90  j50 850
Let external resistance Rext
V2  230 2
R1  90
P = 2 = Ea2 = Vt – Ia2 (Ra+ Rext)
Z1 902  25002
178.176 = 240 – 50 (0.1 + Rext)
P  145.26 watts
 R ext  1.14
79. A 240 V shunt motor with the armature
resistance of 0.1  runs at 850 r.p.m. for 80. A 200 V d.c. shunt motor with armature
an armature current of 70 A. If its speed is resistance of 0.2  and carrying a current
to be reduced to 650 r.p.m., the resistance

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of 50A is running at 960 r.p.m. If the flux n 2  1060.4 rpm

is reduced by 10% at constant torque and
with negligible iron and friction losses, the 81. Which of the following statements are
speed will be nearly correct for d.c. shunt motor?
(a) 1280 r.p.m. 1. Speed of a shunt motor is sufficiently
(b) 1170 r.p.m. constant.
(c) 1100 r.p.m. 2. For the same current input, its starting

R
(d) 1060 r.p.m. torque is not as high as that of a series
motor.
Ans. (d)

R
3. The motor can be directly coupled to a
Sol.

TTEE
load such as a fan whose torque
Ia1 = 50A, n1 = 960 rmp, increases with speed.

Ra = 0.2,   1 Select the correct answer using the code


given below.
Back emf Ea1 = Vt  Ia1 Ra
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
ASS
= 200V – 50 × 0.2
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ea1  190V Ans. (c)
MA
Sol. Statement-I is correct, as in a dc shunt
 Ea  m motor.
Ea  n
V
S M

Ea2 2 n 2 Ish = R
sh
 Ea1 = n …(i)
1 1
I Ia Ish
2 = 0.91 ...(ii)
V E Rsh
IEIES

given Torque T = ka  Ia = constant

 1Ia1 = 2Ia2

1 If, terminal voltage V is constant, then Ish


 Ia2 = I
0.91 a1 is also constant. Hence, the flux is also
constant at no load. Due to armature
50 reaction, when on load, the flux decreases
Ia2   55.55A
0.9 slightly.
Ea2 = Vt  Ia2 Ra  Speed of the motor,

= 200 – 55.53 × 0.2 V  Ia Ra


N 

Ea2  188.88
If,  is constant and as IaRa is a small drop
from eqn (1)
(Ra being very small). Also, decrease in N
188.88 0.9 1 n2 due to IaRa is partially compensated by
= 
190 1 960

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reduction in  due to armature reaction. positive electrode is composed of lead dioxide


(PbO2)
Hence, N is almost constant.
N Active materials
of lead-acid Battery

Speed

Electrolyte Positive Negative


(H 2SO4) electrode electrode
Armature (Ia) current (Dilute) (PbO2) (Pb)
(DC shunt motor)

R
Statement-2 is also correct as for a dc series 83. Which of the following statements are
motor the starting torque is very high. correct for a fully charged lead-acid cell?
1. Gassing occurs at both electrodes.

TE
N 2. The terminal voltage is 2.6 V.
3. The specific gravity of the electrolyte is
1.21.

Select the correct answer using the code


Ia
given below.
AS
(DC series motor)
Statement-3 is incorrect fro the above two (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
figures as in case of fan load the DC motor (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
torque does not increase with speed. (Rather
Ans. (d)
DC series motor is used for this purpose)
Sol. Gassing - The charging reaction converts
82. Consider the following materials: the lead sulphate at the negative electrode
M

1. Lead peroxide to lead. At the positive terminal the reaction


converts the lead to lead oxide. The charging
2. Sponge lead current electrolyzes the water from the
3. Dilute sulphuric acid electrolyte and both hydrogen and oxygen
gas are evolved, this process is known as
S

Which of the above are active materials of gassing.


a lead-acid battery?
It raises safety concerns due to explosive
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only nature of hydrogen produced.
IE

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 It causes shedding of active material causing
Ans. (c) permanent damage to the battery capacity.
Sol. The active materials in a battery are those Hence, statement-1 is true as gassing occurs
that participate in the electrochemical at both the electrodes.
charge/discharge reaction. These materials Also, statement-2 and statement-3 are
include the electrolyte and positive/negative correct as there are standard values for a
electrode. fully charged lead-acid battery.
In lead-acid battery, the electrolyte is a
dilute solution of sulfuric acid (H2SO4). The 84. Which of the following statements are
negative electrode of a fully charged battery correct for synchronous motors?
is composed of sponge lead (Pb) and the

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1. Synchronous motors are well-suited for
direct connection to reciprocating 
compressors.
2. Over-excited synchronous motors are
not commonly used for power factor c

improvements. a 

3. Synchronous motors are generally used b


for current regulation of long Six parameters are : a, b, c, , , 

R
transmission lines.
86. The minimum cation-to-anion radius ratio

R
Select the correct answer using the code
for the coordination number 3 is

TTEE
given below.
(a) 0.175 (b) 0.155
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 0.135 (d) 0.115
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Sol. For a CN = 3, the type of void is triangular
Sol. Synchronous motors are well suited for
ASS
planar.
direct connection to reciprocating
compressors due to highly variable load Let ra = radius of anion
characteristic. rc = radius of cation
MA

Hence, statement-1 is correct. Over-excited The geometry of triangular planar is


synchronous motors work as synchronous
anion
condenser as they draw leading current or A
S M

improves the power factor of the system. cation


30°
For an over-excited synchronous motor, 
O
|E|cos  > |V|
where  is the machine angle/torque angle.
IEIES

From the figure.


Hence, statement-2 is correct.
AO = ra + rc ...(i)
Due to the above explanation, synchronous
motors are also used for improving voltage ra = OA cos 30°
regulation of long transmission lines (not
current regulation) 3
 ra = OA. ...(ii)
Hence, statement-3 is incorrect. 2
(ii)/(i) gives,
85. Which crystal system requires six lattice
parameters to fully specify its unit cell? ra 3
.OA
= 2 3
(a) Triclinic (b) Monoclinic ra  rc 
OA 2
(c) Cubic (d) Hexagonal
 2ra = 3  ra  rc 
Ans. (a)
Sol. Triclinic system requires six lattice
parameters to fully specify its unit cell.

ra 2  3  = 3 rc

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rc 2 3 (a) 3.2 × 1020 (b) 3.2 × 1025


 ra = (c) 2.2 × 1020 (d) 2.2 × 1025
3
Ans. (d)
rc
  0.155
ra NA 
Sol. Number of atoms, N = ;
m
Cation-to-anion radius ratio :
 = density
Radius Ratio Coordination Number
m = atomic weight
1 0.155  0.225 3
NA = Avogadro’s number
2 0.225  0.414 4

R
3 0.414  0.732 6 6.023  1023  8.4  106
 N =
4 0.732  1.000 8 63.5
= 7.96 × 1028

TE
87. Which of the following materials are
categories of ceramic materials?  8 × 1028
1. Oxides–alumina, Zirconia  Number of vacanices at 1000°C (  1273
K) is given as
2. Non-oxides—Carbides, Borides, Nitrides
Evaccancy
and Silicides
Nvaccancies = N e 
AS
kT
3. Composites—Particulate reinforced
combinations of oxides and non-oxides. 0.9

= 8 × 1028 × 8.6210 5 1273
e
Select the correct answer using the code
25
given below.  N vaccancies  2.2  10
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
M

89. Which of the of following are electrical


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 insulating materials?
Ans. (d) 1. Lucite
Sol. All the three types of materials are 2. Mica
categories of ceramic materials :
3. Bakelite
S

1. Oxides : Alumina, Zirconia;


2. Non - oxides : Carbides, Borides, Select the correct answer using the code
Nitrides and Silicides given below.
IE

3. Composites : Particulate reinforced (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only


combinations of oxides and non-oxides. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following data for copper: Ans. (d)

Energy for vacancy formation is 0.9 eV/atom Sol. 9


Bakelite   10   m 
Atom weight is 63.5 g/mol  13
Mica   10   m 
Density is 8.4 g/cm3 at 1000 °C  13
Lucite   10   m  are having high
The equilibrium number of vacancies per resistivity
cubic meter at 1000 °C will be

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Hence these are insulating materials. 1. Smaller diffusion capacitance
Some other electrical insulating materials 2. Lower parasitic delay
are: Porcelain, glass, pressboard, paper, 3. Lower threshold voltage.
varnished paper, asbestos, Rubber, Resin
etc. 4. Lower dynamic power consumption.

90. The magnitude of the energy gap for an 92. The finite state machine in which
insulator is 1. the output is a function of the current

R
(a) less than 1 eV state and inputs

(b) between 2 eV to 3 eV 2. the output is a function of only the

R
current state
(c) more than 3 eV

TTEE
(d) between 1 eV to 2 eV Which of the following machines are
respectively correct for these styles?
Ans. (c)
(a) Mealy machine and Moore machine
Sol. The conduction band and valence band gets
overlapped in conductor i.e. Eg = 0 ev. (b) Moore machine and Mealy machine
(c) State machine and Mealy machine
ASS
In semiconductor. the energy gap is
mormally 1 eV at room temperature. (d) State machine and State machine
In insulator, the energy gap is approximtely Ans. (a)
MA

6 eV and hence electrons do not jump from


the valence band to conduction band. 93. In EPROMs, applying a high voltage to the
upper gate causes electrons to jump through
S M

conduction conduction the thin oxide onto the floating gate through
conduction band band the process known as
band
Eg = 1ev Eg 6ev (a) mask programming
Valence Valence Valence (b) one-time programming
band band band
(c) avalanche injection or Fowler-Nordheim
IEIES

tunneling
91. Which of the following are the advantages
(d) erasing
of Silicon over Insulator (SOI)?
Ans. (c)
1. Lower diffusion capacitance
2. Smaller parasitic delay and lower 94. What is the range of values of a and b for
dynamic power consumption which the linear time-invariant system with
impulse response
3. Lower threshold voltages
n
a , n  0
Select the correct answer using the code h(n)   n
given below. b , n  0

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only is stable?


(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (a) Both |a| < 1 and |b| > 1 are satisfied
Ans. (a) (b) Both |a| > 1 and |b| < 1 are satisfied
Sol. Advantages of Silicon-Over-Insulator (SOI): (c) Both |a| > 1 and |b| > 1 are satisfied
(d) Both |a| < 1 and |b| < 1 are satisfied

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Ans. (a) 96. The two advantages of FIR filters over IIR
Sol. filters are

For LTI system we have given its impulse (a) they are guaranteed to be stable and
response as non-linear
(b) they are marginally stable and linear
h(n) = an, n  0
(c) they are guaranteed to be stable and
= bn, n < 0
may be constrained to have linear phase
we know that for stability h(n) must be
(d) they are marginally stable and non-
absolute summable.
linear

R

2
Ans. (c)
i.e.  h(n)

 …(1)
Sol. (i) FIR filter are always stable
 1
2 2
(ii) FIR filter can have exactly linear phase

TE
  h(n)   h(n)  
n 0 n  response.
 2 1 2
  an   bn  …(2) 97. The frequency response and the main lobe
n 0 n  width for rectangular window are
In equation (2), first and second term will N N
be absolute cummable for |a| < 1 and |b| sin sin
AS
(a) 2 and 4  (b) 2 and 
> 1 respectively.  
N N
sin
95. The special case of a finite-duration 2 2
sequence is given as  N
sin sin
x(n)  {2, 4, 0, 3} (c) 2 and 2 (d) 2 and 8
 N N  N
sin sin
M

The sequence x(n) into a sum of weighted 2 2


impulse sequences will be Ans. (a)
(a) 2(n  1)  4(n)  3(n  2) Sol. Rectangular Window
(b) 2(n)  4(n  1)  3(n  3)   N –1  N –1 
1, –  n
S


(c) 2(n)  4(n  1)  3(n  2) WR(n) =   2   2 
0, Otherwise
(d) 2(n  1)  4(n)  3(n  1) 
IE

Ans. (a) WR (n)


Sol.
x(n)  {2, 4, 0, 3}

x(n)
n
4 N  1 N  1
2 3 
2 2
 N–1 
n  
 2 
–2 –1 1 2
WR  e j  =  1e– jn
x(n)  2(n  1)  4(n)  3(n  2)  N–1 
n –  
 2 

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Put, Ans. (a)
 N 1  Sol. DMA controller sends HOLD signal to the
m = n 
 2  micro processor and microprocessor free its
N–1 – jm–  N–1  
bases to be used by DMA controller to
WR  e j  = e   2  transfer data directly between source and
m 0 destination bypassing the microprocessor.
 N–1  N–1
j 
WR  e j  = e  2 
 e– jm 99. A 2-byte instruction which accepts the data

R
m0 from the input port specified in the second
 N–1  byte and loads into the accumulator is
j  1 – e – jN 

R
= e  2    (a) OUT <8-bit port address>
 1 – e – j 

TTEE
(b) IN <8-bit port address>
N
 j N – j N 
 N–1  – j
j  e e 2 – e 2 
2 (c) OUT R <8-bit port address>
= e  2 
– j  j – j  (d) IN R <8-bit port address>
e 2 e 2 – e 2 
Ans. (b)
 N  Sol. IN (8-bit port address)
ASS
 N –1   N –1  sin  
j  – j 
 2   2   2 
= e e  1 byte is for opcode

sin  
2  1 byte for 8 bit port address
MA

so it is a 2 Byte instruction
 N 
sin  
j  2  and this instruction is used to accept the
WR (e ) 
data from the inport port and load this
S M

 
sin   data into accumulator.
2
100. Consider the following instruction:
WR (e j )
EI
IEIES

1 Main lobe MVI A, 08H


SIM
 It means
2 2
N N (a) disable all interrupts
4 (b) enable all interrupts
ApproximateTransmission width of mainlobe 
N (c) disable RST 7.5 and 6.5

98. A controller that takes control of the buses (d) enable RST 7.5 and 6.5
and transfers data directly between source Ans. (b)
and destination bypassing the Sol.
microprocessor is known as
D7 D6 D5 D4 D3 D2 D1 D0
(a) DMA controller SOD SDE RST 7.5 X MSE M7.5 M6.5 M5.5

(b) read-write controller


0 Make interrupt
(c) high-speed controller Mask set
available
enable
(d) master-slave controller 1 Make interrupt
mask

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EI  Microcontroller is selected as
MVI A, 08H controlling device

SIM  Language is selected to write the


program (software) without difficulties.
A = 00001000
 Partioning the tasks between hardware
D7 D6 D5 D4 D3 D 2 D1 D0 and software to optimize the case.
0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
103. Which one of the following is the correct
Hence combination for a layer providing a service
All interrupts RST 7.5, RST 6.5 and RST by means of primitives in an open system

R
5.5 are available. interconnection?
(a) Request, Indication, Response and
101. The instruction BC 0x15 means Confirm.

TE
(a) jump 15 bytes relative to the program (b) Request, Inform, Response and Service
counter
(c) Request, Command, Response and
(b) copy and load 15 words in reverse Action
direction to the program counter
(d) Request, Confirm, Indication and Action
(c) move to a location by 15 bits to the
Ans. (a)
AS
program counter
(d) redirect (jump) to a location by 15 words Sol. Four types of primitives are:
relative to the program counter 1. Request
Ans. (*) 2. Indication

102. Which of the following constraints are to be 3. Response


M

considered by the designer while designing 4. Confirm


an embedded system? In same order Primitive used for data
1. Selecting the microcontroller as a communication in OSI model.
controlling device
104. A network uses a fully interconnected mesh
2. Selecting the language to write the
S

topology to connect 10 nodes together. The


software number of links required will be
3. Partitioning the tasks between (a) 35 (b) 40
IE

hardware and software to optimize the


cost (c) 45 (d) 50
Ans. (c)
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Sol. In a fully interconnected mesh topology
having n-nodes the total number of required
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only links is given by
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
n
Ans. (a) l  C2

Sol. When designer designs an embedded system


n(n  1)
he considers: or l 
2

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given, n = 10 900 – 26 = 874 bits
5
10  9 Hence, the transport layer data is
Hence l  encapsulated into three packets.
2
First packet size = 874 bits
l  45
Remaining size = 2550 – 874 = 1676 bits
105. Which of the following are the advantages Second packet size = 874 bits; remaining
of packet switching? size = 1676 – 874 = 802 bits

R
1. Greater link efficiency than circuit Third packet size = 802 bits.
switching The first and second packet size is (874 +

R
2. Connections are not blocked when traffic 26) bits = 900 bits

TTEE
congestion occurs Third packet size = 802 + 26 = 828
3. Direct channel established between And all three packets has a 26-bit header
transmitter and receiver appended for use by the intermediate
4. No time is taken to establish connection network. So total number of bits delivered
to the destination network is :
ASS
Select the correct answer using the code
900 + 900 + 828 + 3 × 26 = 2706 bits
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 107. In a communication network, 4 T1 streams
MA

are multiplexed to form 1 T2 stream and 7


(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
T2 streams are multiplexed to form 1 T3
Ans. (b) stream. Further 6 T3 streams are
S M

multiplexed to form 1 T4 stream. If each T1


106. A message consisting of 2400 bits is to be
stream is of 1.544 Mbps, the data rate of 1
passed over an internet. The message is
T4 stream should be
passed to the transport layer which appends
a 150-bit header, followed by the network (a) 211.8 Mbps (b) 232.6 Mbps
layer which uses a 120-bit header. Network (c) 243.4 Mbps (d) 274.2 Mbps
IEIES

layer packets are transmitted via two


Ans. (d)
networks, each of which uses a 26-bit
header. The destination network only 108. Which of the following statements are
accepts up to 900 bits long. The number of correct regarding CDMA?
bits, including headers delivered to the
1. It is similar to GSM.
destination network, is
2. It allows each station to transmit over
(a) 2706 bits (b) 2634 bits
the entire frequency spectrum all the
(c) 2554 bits (d) 2476 bits time
Ans. (a) 3. It assumes that multiple signals add
Sol. The transport layer appended 150 bit header linearly.
to the message, then total length of message
will be (2400 + 150) = 2550. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
The message size 2550 bits are passed to
the network layer. The data field of each (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
network layer packet is , (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Ans. (c) Sol. There are 43,200 seconds in 12 hours and
Sol. GSM uses both FDM and TDM technique therefore
whereas CDMA uses CDM technique so both n = 2 / 43200  1.45444  10 4 rad/s.
are not similar.
From Kepler’s third law:
 Option 1 is wrong.
The semimajor axis
109. Which of the following regarding cellular
a = [(3.99 × 1014)/(1.45444 × 10–4)2]1/3
systems with small cells are correct?
1. Higher capacity and robustness  26,610 km

2. Needless transmission power and have 111. A single-mode optical fiber has a beat length

R
to deal with local interference only of 8 cm at 1300 nm. The value of
birefringence Bf will be nearly
3. Frequency planning and infrastructure
(a) 1.6×10–5 (b) 2.7×10–5

TE
needed
4. These require both circuit switching and (c) 3.2×10–5 (d) 4.9×10–5
packet switching Ans. (a)
Select the correct answer using the code Sol. Birefringence
given below. 
AS
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Bf =
L  beat length
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 1300  10
7

=
Ans. (b) 8
Sol. In cellular system with small cells we = 1.62 × 10–5
obtain:
112. Which one of the following instruments is
M

 High capacity and robustness of the useful while measuring the optical power
system. as a function of wavelength?
 Since number of cells will increase (a) Optical power attenuator
therefore frequency planning and
infrastructure will require. (b) Optical power meter
S

 Packet switching is used for providing (c) Optical spectrum analyzer


internet services and circuit switching (d) Optical return loss tester
IE

is used for voice calls.


Ans. (c)
110. A satellite is orbiting in the equatorial plane Sol. A system called the optical spectrum
with a period from perigee to perigee of 12 analyzer (OSA) is used to measure the
h. I f the eccentricity = 0.002, i = 0°, K 1 = spectral characteristics of the light. The OSA
66063.17 km2, µ = 3.99×1014 m3/s2 and the displays the optical power as a function of
earth’s equatorial radius = 6378.14 km, the wavelength.
semi-major axis will be
113. The optical performance monitoring involves
(a) 34232 km (b) 30424 km
(a) transport layer monitoring, optical
(c) 26612 km (d) 22804 km signal monitoring and protocol
Ans. (c) performance monitoring

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(b) physical layer, network layer and 115. Statement (I): Sign-magnitude
application layer monitoring representation is rarely used in
(c) data-link layer, presentation layer and implementing the integer portion of the
session layer monitoring ALU.

(d) transport layer, session layer and Statement (II): There are two
application layer monitoring representations of zero in sign-magnitude
Ans. (a) representation.

R
Ans. (a)
114. An earth station at sea level communicates
at an elevation angle of 35° with GEO Sol. In sign-magnitude format, MSB decides the

R
satellite. The vertical height of the sign. If MSB is 0 then sign is positive and

TTEE
stratiform rain is 3 km. The physical path if MSB is 1, then sign is negative (i.e.
length L through the rain will be nearly number is negative)
(a) 6.3 km (b) 5.2 km e.g. For 3 bit sign magnitude representation
(c) 4.1 km (d) 3.0 km 000  0
Ans. (b) 100  0
ASS
Sol. Given : hr = 3 kms Hence statement (II) is correct explanation
of statement (I).
The physical pathlength, L, through the rain
MA
is given by 116. Statement (I): Dynamic loading gives better
memory-space utilization.
L = hr/ sin 
= 3/(sin 35°) Statement (II): In dynamic loading, an
S M

unused routine is never loaded.


= 5.23 km
Ans. (a)
Directions:
Sol. The dynamic loading is the process to load
The following six (6) items consist of two the dependent library or routine on demand
IEIES

statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the or at run time.


other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these It doesn’t load all the dependencies at load
two statements carefully and select the answers time together with the main program. So it
to these items using the code given below: gives better memory space utilization and
Code: unused routine is never loaded.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 117. Statement (I): SRAM is used for cache
individually true and Statement (II) is the memory and DRAM is used for main
correct explanation of Statement (I). memory.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the Statement (II): SRAM is somewhat faster
correct explanation of Statement (I). than DRAM.
Ans. (a)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is Sol. Static RAM (SRAM) is faster than dynamic
RAM (DRAM), so SRAM is used for cache
true
memory and DRAM is used for main
memory.

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118. Statement (I): In a multiuser system, each Ans. (*)
user is assigned a section of usable memory
area and is not allowed to go out of the 122. A transformer core is wound with a coil
assigned memory area. carrying an alternating current at a
frequency of 50 Hz. The hysteresis loop has
Statement (II): In multiuser system, there an area of 60000 units, when the axes are
is a software mechanism to prevent drawn in units of 10–4 Wb m–2 and 102 A
unauthorized access of memory by different m –1 . If the magnetization is uniform
users.
throughout the core volume of 0.01m3, then
Ans. (a) the hysteresis loss will be
Sol. Time sharing system is multiuser system. (a) 200 W (b) 230 W

R
CPU executes multiple jobs by switching (c) 270 W (d) 300 W
among them. The time slice is defined for
each job. When time slice is expired for one Ans. (d)

TE
job another job get CPU. Sol. Energy loss during each cycle
So each job resides in seperate memory area. = Area of the loop
And one job can’t interfere to the other job. = 60000 × (10–4 wb/m2) × (102 A/m)

119. Statement (I): The external surface of a = 600 J/m3


AS
crystal is an imperfection in itself as the  Volume of the transformer core
atomic bonds do not extend beyond the = 0.01 m3
surface.
hence, energy lost in core in each cycle
Statement (II): The external surfaces have = (600 J/m3) × (0.01 m3) = 6J
surface energies that are related to the
number of bonds broken at the surface. Total hysteresis loss = 6J × 50
M

Ans. (b) = 300 W

120. Statement (I): By organizing various ‘optical 123. The process of evaporating a metal in an
functions’ into an ‘array structure’ via nano- inert atmosphere and allowing it to
pattern replication, ‘spatial integration’ is condense on the surface of a cold finger,
S

established. which is kept at liquid nitrogen temperature


of 77K, is known as
Statement (II): By adding a nano-optic layer (a) d.c. arc method
IE

or layers to function optical materials, the


(b) gas-phase condensation
‘hybrid integration’ is possible to be
achieved. (c) sonohydrolysis
Ans. (a) (d) flame pyrolysis
Ans. (b)
121. In a 440V, 50 Hz transformer, the total iron
loss is 3700 W. When the applied voltage is 124. Which one of the following materials is
220 V at 25 Hz, the total iron loss is 750 W. having the highest electrical conductivity
The eddy current loss at the normal voltage at room temperature?
and frequency will be
(a) Silver (b) Copper
(a) 1000W (b) 1200W
(c) Gold (d) Platinum
(c) 1400W (d) 1850W

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Ans. (a) (a) Curie effect
Sol. Silver has the highest electrical conductivity (b) Faraday’s effect
of all metals. In fact, the conductivity of all (c) Maxwell’s effect
other metals are compred against it.
(d) Meissner effect
Electrical resisitivty (  ) of some metals at
Ans. (d)
20°C:
Sol. According to Meissner’s effect, the
Platinum = 106  109 .m superconductor spontaneously expell all

R
magnetic flux when cooled through the
Aluminium = 28.3  109 .m
superconducting transition. Hence, Lenz law

R
Gold = 24.4  10 9 .m does not apply to the superconductor below

TTEE
critical temperature, Tc.
Copper = 17.2  109 .m

Silver = 15.9  109 .m Superconductor


material
Since, conductivity is inverse of resisitivty.
ASS
1
i.e.  =

Hence, conductivity order is,
MA
T > Tc
Silver > copper > Gold > Aluminium > T < Tc
Fig.1
Platinum. Fig.2
S M

i.e. highest conductive metal among these Where, Tc = transition temperature.


metals is silver.

125. Consider the following processes: 127. A null type of instrument as compared to a
1. Sol-gel process deflection type of instrument
IEIES

2. Electrodeposition (a) has a higher accuracy


3. Plasma-enhanced vapour decomposition (b) is less sensitive
4. Gas-phase condensation (c) is more rugged
5. Sputtering technique (d) is faster in response
The above processes are related to Ans. (a)
(a) analysis of nano-powders Sol. A null-type of instrument as compared to a
(b) sintering of nano-powders deflection type of instrument has a higher
accuracy. Because, in null-type instrument,
(c) synthesis of nano-powders the opposing effect is calibrated with the
(d) microwave sintering of nano-powders help of standards which have very high
Ans. (c) accuracy. However, in deflection type
instrument, the caliberation depends upon
126. In the superconducting state, the flux lines the instrument contacts which are generally
of a magnetic field are ejected out of the not known to a high degree of accuracy.
superconductor as per i.e. option (a)

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128. A Wheatstone bridge requires a change of between a and b keeping galvanometer
7  in the unknown resistance arm of the circuit open circuited.
bridge to produce a change in deflection of R0
3 mm of the galvanometer. The sensitivity a
and the deflection factor will be nearly R + R P Ig
+
(a) 0.23mm/ and 2.3  /mm
 E0 G
a b –
(b) 0.43mm/ and 2.3  /mm
S Q
(c) 0.23mm/ and 1.3  /mm
b
Fig. Wheatstone bridge Fig. Thevenin’s

R
(d) 0.43mm/ and 1.3  /mm
equivalent circuit
Ans. (b)
Thevenin equivalent resistance of bridge,
Sol. Sensitivity of wheatstone bridge

TE
RS PQ
change in deflection in galvanometer R0 =  [Taking R  R ]
= RS PQ
change in resistance in arm
Here, P = Q = R = S = 1k
3
= mm  then, R0 = R = 1k
7
Output voltage of bridge due to unbalance,
AS
= 0.43mm 
R R
1 E0 = E  = 20  = 5  10 3 R
Deflection factor = 4R 4  1000
sensitivity
 Current through the galvanometer, Ig =
1 E0
= 37
  R0
M

7
=  2.3  mm 5  103 R
3  0.1×10–9 =
1000
i.e. option (b)
0.1  109  1000
129. The galvanometer used in a Wheatstone  R =
S

5  103
bridge as a detector can detect a current as
low as 0.1 nA and its resistance is negligible 100
= 
compared to internal resistance of the 5
IE

bridge. Each arm of the bridge has a = 20 


resistance of 1k . The input voltage
i.e. option (b)
applied to the bridge is 20V. The smallest
change in the resistance that can be detected 130. The inductance of a 25 A electrodynamic
is ammeter changes uniformly at the rate of
(a) 10  (b) 20  0.0035µH/degree. The spring constant is
10–6 Nm/degree. The angle of deflection at
(c) 30  (d) 40  full scale will be
Ans. (b) (a) 135° (b) 125°
Sol. The current through the galvanometer can (c) 115° (d) 105°
be obtained by thevenin equivalent circuit

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Ans. (b) R
eRV =  ev
Sol. For an electrodynamometer ammeter, V

2 dM ev 12
Td = I  = =  = 1.2 
d I 10
and, weighted probable error in resistance
2 dM
 K   = I d due to current is,
R
I2 dM

R
eRI =  eI
  =  I
K d

R
V 100
dM =  eI =   2 
Given, = 0.0035 µH/degree 10 2

TTEE
2
d I
= 2 
0.0035  106 H
= Hence, priobable errror in computed
  180  rad
resistance,
H
6
= 0.2  10 2 2
 eRV    eRI 
ASS
rad rR =
Hence, full-scale deflection
= 1.2 2   22
I2 dM
MA

 =  =
K d 1.44  4

 25 2 = 5.44
 0.2  10 6
S M

=
10 6 = 2.33 
= 625 × 0.2 i.e. option (c)
= 125° 132. A temperature-sensing device can be
i.e. option (b) modeled as a first-order system with a time
IEIES

constant of 6s. It is suddenly subjected to a


131. A resistance is determined by voltmeter- step input of 25 °C – 150 °C. The indicated
ammeter method. The voltmeter reads 100V temperature in 10 s after the process has
with a probable error of 12V and the started will be
ammeter reads 10 A with a probable error
of 2A . The probable error in the computed (a) 118.2 °C (b) 126.4 °C
value of the resistance will be nearly (c) 134.6 °C (d) 142.8 °C
(a) 0.6  (b) 1.3  Ans. (b)
(c) 2.3  (d) 3.6  Sol. Given,

Ans. (c) Final temperature (or, steady-state


temperature)
V
Sol. Since, R = 2 = 150°C
I
So, weighted probable error in resistance Initial temperature, 1 = 25°C
due to voltage is, time constant,  = 6 sec.

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Since,   2   1  2  e t  134. A 0–150 V voltmeter has a guaranteed


accuracy of 1% of full-scale reading. The
hence, temperature after 10sec. will be, voltage measured by this instrument is 75V.
 = 150 + (25 – 150).e–(10/6) The limiting error will be
= 150 – 125.e–(10/6) (a) 5% (b) 4%
= 126.4°C (c) 3% (d) 2%
i.e. option (b) Ans. (d)
Sol. Absolute accuracy of (0–150)V voltmeter
133. In a parallel circuit having two branches,
the current in one branch is I1  100  2A 1

R
= 150 
and in the other is I2  200  5A . 100
Considering errors in both I1 and I2 as = 1.5V
limiting errors, the total current will be

TE
So, while measuring 75V from the (0–150)V
(a) 300  5A (b) 300  6A voltmeter, it may indicate  75  1.5 V .
(c) 300  7A (d) 300  8A 1.5
Hence, limiting error =  100 = 2%
Ans. (c) 75
I1 i.e. option (d)
AS
135. A quartz piezoelectric crystal having a
I thickness of 2 mm and voltage sensitivity
Sol. of 0.055 V m/N is subjected to a pressure of
1.5 MN/m2. The voltage output will be
(a) 165 V (b) 174 V
M

I2 (c) 183 V (d) 192 V


Where, Ans. (a)
I1 = 100  2A = 100  0.02% Sol. Output voltage of Quartz,
I2 = 200  5A = 200  0.025% E0 = g.tP
S

According to Kirchoff’s current law, where, g = voltage sensitivity,


I = I1 + I2 = 100 + 200 = 300 t = thickness;
IE

I  I1 I1 I2 I2  and, P = pressure;


=  I  I  I  I 
I  1 2  E0 = 0.055 × 2 × 10–3 × 1.5 × 106
I 100 200  = 165V
=   0.02   0.025
I  300 300  i.e. option (a)
I 0.07 136. A resistance wire strain gauge with a gauge
= 
I 3 factor of 2 is bonded to a steel structural
0.07 0.07 member subjected to a stress of 100 MN/
 I =  I =   300 = 7  m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel is 200
3 3
GN/m2. The change in the value of gauge
So, total current I = 300  7A resistance due to the applied stress will be
i.e. option (c)

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(a) 0.05% (b) 0.10% 138. A capacitance of 250 pF produces resonance
(c) 0.30% (d) 0.60% 2 6
with a coil at a frequency of    10 Hz,
Ans. (b) 
stress while at the second harmonic of this
Sol. Since, Modulus of elasticity = frequency, resonance is produced by a
strain
capacitance of the coil will be nearly
Stress
 Strain = Modulus of elasticity (a) 16.7 pF (b) 20.5 pF

R
(c) 24.3 pF (d) 28.1 pF
100  106 Ans. (a)

R
=
200  109
Sol. At frequency f, the circuit is in resonance,

TTEE
= 5 × 10–4
1
Now, Gauge factor, i.e. f =
2 L  C1  Cd 
R R R R
Gf = l l = At the second harmonic frequency i.e. 2f,
Strain
the circuit produces resonance,
ASS
 R R  1
 2 =
5  104 i.e. 2f =
2 L  C 2  C d 
MA
 R R = 10–3 = 0.001
2f C1  Cd
i.e. percentage in resistance = 0.1% then, =
f C 2  Cd
i.e. option (b)
S M

C1  Cd
137. The applications of photomultiplier are seen  4 = C C
2 d
in
 4C2 + 4Cd = C1 + Cd
(a) night vision equipment, medical
equipment  3Cd = C1 – 4C2
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(b) mechanical counters, timers C1  4C2


 Cd =
(c) translational, optical instruments 3
(d) ultrasonic transducer, infrared imaging 250   4  50 
=
Ans. (a) 3
Sol. Applications of photomultiplier are : 250  200
=
 Night vision equipment 3

 Measurement of intensity and 50


= = 16.67 pF
spectrum of light emitting materials. 3
 Medical equipment for blood analysis i.e. Self-capacitance of the coil,
and for medical imaging. Cd = 16.7 pF
 To detect nuclear and particle radiation i.e. option (a)
physics experiments.
139. Consider the following data for twigs and
links:

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N = Number of nodes V1
L = Total number of links where A = V = Reverse voltage
2 I2 0
B = Total number of branches ratio
The total number of links associated with a
tree is I1
C = V = Reverse transfer
(a) B – N + 1 (b) B – N – 1 2 I2 0
admittance
(c) B + N + 1 (d) 2B – N + 1
So answer (d)
Ans. (a)
Sol. In graph theory (Network topology) 141. A coil having resistance of 10  and

R
inductance of 1 H is switched on to a direct
B = Total no. of branches of network
voltage of 100V. The steady-state value of
N = total no. of principle nodes of network the current will be

TE
Tree : It connects all the nodes of network (a) 10A (b) 15A
but does not consist any closed path. (c) 20A (d) 25A
Total no. of tree branches = N – 1 Ans. (a)
The remaining branches are known as links Sol. R = 10
[chords]
AS
L = 1H
so total links in tree = B – (N – 1)
links (L) = B – N + 1
10
140. In ABCD parameters, A and C are called 100V
1H
(a) reverse current ratio and transfer
M

admittance
At steady state inductor behaves as short
(b) reverse voltage ratio and transfer
circuit
impedance
(c) reverse current ratio and transfer 100
so current I = = 10 amp.
impedance 10
S

(d) reverse voltage ratio and transfer Answer (a)


admittance
142. A coil has R  10  and L = 15H. The
IE

Ans. (d) voltage at the instant when the current is


I1 I2 10A and increasing at the rate of 5 A/s will
be
Sol. V1 V2
(a) 125V (b) 150V
(c) 175V (d) 200V
V1 = AV2 – BI2
Ans. (c)
I1 = CV2 – DI2
Sol. Current in R-L circuit is given
 V1   A B   I1 
  =   
 I1   C D   I2 

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Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering
The response of the circuit i(t) will be
R = 10 t t
E q   q0  RC
V (a)   0  e RC (b)  e
L = 15H  R RC  RC
t t
E  RC E q  
(c) e (d)   0  e RC
I(t) =
V 
1e

t
L R  R  R RC 
R 143.

R
I(t) =
V 
1e

t
1.5   10A ...(1)
Ans. (a)
Sol. Initial voltage at capacitor
R

R
TTEE
t q
dI  t  V  R  L R  Vc  0   =
=  0  e  C
dt R L 
So circuit diagram will be
t
dI  t  V 1.5
= e 5 R I(t)
dt L
C
ASS
t

Ve 1.5
= 75 q/C
V  
t
  10
MA
 I(t) = 1  e 1.5
10 E

V  
t
1  e 1.5  = 100  q
This can be considered as battery  E  
S M

 C 

t and a R-C circuit with uncharged capacitor
1.5 = 100
V  Ve t
 q 

t so, Vc(t) =  E   e RC
V = 100  Ve 1.5  C
IEIES

V = 100 + 75 [  V c (t) = voltage across uncharged


capacitor]
V  175
dVc  t 
So current I = C
143. Consider the following RC circuit. The dt
capacitor has an initial charge q0 such that t
it opposes the flow of charging current: C  q 
I =   E   e RC
RC  C
R
t
 E q   RC
I =   e
 R RC 
(–) is due to current flow in opposite
C direction.
Answer (a).
+ – 144. In the following circuit, switch K is thrown
from position A to position B at time t = 0,
E

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Engineering
the current having previously reached its 
t
steady state: = 1  0  e L R
0
A Rt

= e L
K 5
I(t) = e–t5 = e–5t
B
Answer (d)
5V
5 2H 145. What is the condition for reciprocity and
symmetry in Y-parameter representation?

R
(a) Y21 = Y11 and Y22 = Y21
The current i(t) after switching will be (b) Y21 = Y12 and Y11 = Y22
(a) 5e–5t (b) 4e–5t (c) Y21 = Y22 and Y11 = Y22

TE
(c) 3e–5t (d) e–5t (d) Y11 = Y22 and Y21 = Y22
144. Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) Sol.
Sol. At t = 0– I1 I2
AS
A

V1 y11 V2y12 y22 V1


5
y21V1
B
I2
5V
5 2H I1 = V1y11 + V2y12
M

I2 = V1y21 + V2y22
For reciprocity y12 = y21
At t = 0+ For symmetry y11 = y22
A Answer (b)
S

5 146. In hybrid parameter, h11 and h21 are called


B as
IE

I2(t)
(a) input impedance and forward current
5V
5 2H gain
(b) reverse voltage gain and output
admittance
(c) input impedance and reverse voltage
IL(0+) = 1A
gain
IL    = 0A (d) output impedance and forward current
gain
Current in R-L circuit is given by
146.
t

IL(t) =  I  0   I     e L R
 IL    Ans. (a)
 L L 

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Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering
Sol. resistor be 400W at 160V, the value of the
I1 I2 capacitor C will be nearly
(a) 30.5 µF (b) 41.5 µF
h11
(c) 64.0 µF (d) 76.8 µF
V1 h 21I1 h22 V1
+
– h12V2 Ans. (b)
Sol. .
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 VR = 160 V VC

R
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2
R C

R
V
 1

TTEE
h11
I1 = Input impedance
V2 0

I2
h 21  250 V, 50 Hz
I1 = Forward current gain
V2 0

Answer (a) 250 = VR2  VC2


ASS
147. Consider the following equations: (250)2 = (160)2 + VC2
V1 = 6V2 – 4I2 VC = 192.09 V …(1)
MA

2
I1 = 7V2 – 2I2 2
VR 160 
 400  R   64 …(2)
A, B, C and D parameters are R 400
S M

(a) 6, 4  , 7 mho and –2 VR 160


I =  …(3)
R 64
(b) 6, 4  , 7 mho and 2
160 1
(c) –6, 4  , –7 mho and 2 VC = IX c  192.09 
64 C
(d) 6, 4  , –7 mho and –2
IEIES

160
C
Ans. (b) 64  192.09  2  50
Sol. ABCD parameters of 2 port network are
C  41.4F
defined by equations
V1 = AV2 – BI2 149. A 50 Hz sinusoidal voltage V  311sin t
I1 = CV2 – DI2 is applied to an RL series circuit. If the
magnitude of resistance is 5  and that of
Given: V1 = 6V2 – 4I2
the inductance is 0.02 H, the r.m.s. value of
I1 = 7V2 – 2I2 the steady-state current and the relative
on comparing we get phase angle are nearly
A= 6 B= 4 (a) 19.6 A and 51.5°
C= 7 D = 2 (b) 27.4 A and –51.5°
(c) 19.6 A and –51.5°
148. A supply of 250V, 50Hz is applied to a series
RC circuit. If the power absorbed by the (d) 27.4 A and 51.5°
Ans. (b)

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Detailed Solution
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Engineering
Sol. (a) 172.7 V (b) 184.5 V
R L (c) 196.3 V (d) 208.1 V
Ans. (c)
I 5 0.02H
Sol.
10 25nF

R C
V = 311 sin t
50 Hz

R
Vrms = 220 V
Vrms 220 220
  50 MHz
Irms = Z R X
2 2
25  L 
2 2

TE
L R = 10
220
Irms = 1 1
25  (0.02  2  50)2 XC = 
C 2  50  10 6  25  10 9
220
Irms =  27.39A 1000 10 2
2
25  4 
AS
XC =   
2  50  25 25 5
Irms  27.39 A Ans.
VC max = IC max XC
Due to inductor current will lag the voltage
2.5
by phase angle IC max =  5  5.25A
2
1  X L  1  L 
M

 = – tan     tan   so VR max = IC max R = 6.25  10


 R   R 
VR max = 196.3 V
 2 
1
=  tan  
 5  Vmax = 2 2
VR max  VC max
  51.48
S

Vmax = 196.34 2  2.52


150. In a series RC circuit, the values of R  10 
and C = 25 nF. A sinusoidal voltage of 50 Vmax  196.36 volt
IE

MHz is applied and the maximum voltage


across the capacitance is 2.5V. The
maximum voltage across the series
combination will be nearly

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