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ESE 2019 Prelims Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering Detailed Solution SET B PDF
ESE 2019 Prelims Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering Detailed Solution SET B PDF
SET - B
1. The peak-to-peak ripple voltage for a half- 2. The components of full-wave voltage doubler
wave rectifier and filter circuit operating at circuit are
60 Hz, which has a 680 F reservoir (a) 2 diodes and 1 capacitor
capacitor, an average output of 28 V and
(b) 4 diodes and 1 capacitor
200 load resistance, will be nearly.
(c) 2 diodes and 2 capacitors
(a) 2.5 V (b) 3.4 V
(d) 4 diodes and 2 capacitors
(c) 4.3 V (d) 5.2 V
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Sol.
Voltage doubler circuit
Peak to peak ripple voltage (Vr) = ?
C1 D2
f = 60 Hz, C = 680 µF, VDC = 28 V
+ +
RL = 200
D
+ + Vi D1 C2 V0
Vi C RL V0 – –
2 diodes and 2 capacitors
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8 10 (a) 26.0 V (b) 16.3 V
Ap =
0.25 1 (c) 10.3 V (d) 8.1 V
A p 320 Ans. (d)
Sol.
4. Three amplifiers of gain Output (V0)
A 1 1 24 1 23 0 22 1 21 0 20 10V
A 0 60 =
2 2n
R
are connected in tandem. The feedback loop 1
= 16 8 2 10
R
is closed through a positive gain of 0.008 :
25
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A A A 26
= 10
32
= 8.125 V
0.008
6. An 8-bit D/A converter has step size of 20
The magnitude of A0 for the system to be mV. The full-scale output and the resolution
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oscillatory will be will be nearly.
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.1 (a) 5.1 V and 0.3%
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(c) 5.0 (d) 10.0 (b) 4.6 V and 0.4%
Ans. (d) (c) 4.1 V and 0.4%
Sol. (d) 4.6 V and 0.3%
S M
A A A Ans. (a)
Sol. n = 8
Full scale output
0.008
IEIES
V0 = (2n – 1) × 20 mV
For the system to be oscillatory, system = (28 – 1) × 20 mV
should satisfy Barkhausen criterion = 257 × 20 mV
1 = 5.14 V
|AB| = 1 |A| =
B
Step size
Resolution = 100%
A 0 3 A 03 Full scale
|A| = A A A
2 8 20 10 3
= 100%
B = 0.008 5.14
8
13 = 0.389%
A0 = 10
0.008 7. For 555 astable multivibrator, if C = 0.1
5. The output voltage from a 5-bit ladder type F, R A 10 k, R B 50k, the frequency
DAC that has a digital input of 11010, and and the duty cycle will be nearly.
by assuming 0 = 0 V and 1 = + 10 V, is
nearly.
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(a) 1.6 kHz and 54.5% (a) A + B (b) A B
(b) 1.3 kHz and 54.5% (c) (A + B)(A.B) (d) A.B
(c) 1.6 kHz and 46.5% Ans. (d)
(d) 1.3 kHz and 46.5% Sol. Simplifying the expression:
Ans. (b)
ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCDE
Sol.
ABCDE ABCDE
555 timer as astable multivibrator.
VCC
= ABC ABC ABDE ABCDE
R
C C 1
8 4
= AB ABDE ABCDE
TE
RA
O/P 1 CDE 1
7 3
RB
= AB + ABDE 1 DE 1
6
= AB
2 1 5
C 0.01F 9. An electric power generating station
AS
supplies power to three loads A, B and C.
1.44 Only a single generator is required when
frequency, f = R 2R C any one load is switched on. When more
A B
than one load is on, an auxiliary generator
1.44 must be started. The Boolean equation for
f = the control of switching of the auxiliary
10 2 50 103 0.01 10 6
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generator will be
f 1.3 kHz (a) AA + BB + CC
R A RB (b) ABC + BCA + CAB
Duty cycle D = R 100%
A 2R B (c) AB + AC
S
10 50 (d) AB + AC + BC
D = 100
10 2 50 Ans. (d)
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60 Sol.
= 100%
110 A B C Y
D 54.54% 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
8. Consider the following expression :
0 1 0 0
A.B.C.D A.B.C.D A.B.C.D 0 1 1 1
A.B.C.D A.B.C.D.E 1 0 0 0
1 0 1 1
A.B.C.D.E A.B.C.D.E
1 1 0 1
The simplification of this by using theorems
1 1 1 1
of Boolean algebra will be
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12. The number of flip-flops required to
BC
A –– – – construct an 8-bit shift register will be
BC BC BC BC
(a) 32 (b) 16
–
A 0 0 1 0 (c) 8 (d) 4
0 1 3 2
Ans. (c)
A 0 1 1 1 Sol. n number of flip-flops required to construct
4 5 7 6
n-bit shift register.
R
Y = AB + BC + CA
13. Which one of the following specifications
10. Which one of the following types of does not fit for a single-mode fiber ?
R
instructions will be used to copy from the
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(a) The bandwidth is 1 GHz/km.
source to the destination location ?
(b) The digital communication rate is excess
(a) Arithmetic instructions
of 2000 Mbytes/s.
(b) Data transfer instructions
(c) More than 100000 voice channels are
(c) Logical instructions available.
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(d) Machine control instructions (d) The mode field diameter (MFD; spot
Ans. (b) size) is larger than the core diameter.
Sol. Data transfer instruction is used to copy Ans. (a)
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A M HL
Sol. In Binary FSK signal
11. A cascaded arrangement of flip-flops, where Mark frequency is fL = 49 kHz
the output of one flip-flop drives the clock
Space frequency is fH = 59 kHz
input of the following flip-flop, is known as
Maximum frequency deviation
(a) Synchronous counter
(b) Ripple counter f = fH – fL
= (51 – 49) kHz
(c) Ring counter
f = 2 kHz
(d) Up counter
Ans. (b) 15. A random process X(t) is defined as
Sol. A ripple counter is a cascaded arrangement X t 2 cos 2t Y
of flip flops where the output of one flip flop
where Y is a discrete random variable with
drives the clock input of the following flip
flop. 1 1
P Y 0 and P Y . The mean
2 2 2
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x 1 is 1 1
= P A log 2 P B log 2
1 1 PA P B
(a) (b)
4 3 1
P C log 2
1 P C
(c) (d) 1
2
1 1 1
Ans. (d) = log 2 2 log 2 4 log 2 4
2 4 4
Sol. Random process x(t) = 2 cos 2t y 1 2 2
=
R
x(t = 1) = 2 cos 2 y 2 4 4
= 2 cos y 3 1
= 1 bits/symbol.
2 2
Mean of random process at t = 1.
TE
17. An AM wave with modulation index 0.8 has
x 1 = x y 0 P y 0
total sideband power of 4.85 kW. The carrier
power and the total power radiated will be
x y P y nearly.
2 2
(a) 12.2 kW and 20 kW
AS
1 1
= 2 cos 0 . 2 2cos 2 2 (b) 15.2 kW and 20 kW
(c) 12.2 kW and 25 kW
1 1
= 2 1 2 0 (d) 15.2 kW and 25 kW
2 2
Ans. (b)
x 1 = 1
Sol. For AM wave
M
16. A source produces three symbols A, B and Side band power = 4.85 kW
1 1
C with probabilities P(A) = , P(B) = 2
2 4 Side band power Pside = Pc .
1 2
and P(C) = . The source entropy is
S
4
4.85 kW = Pc
0.8 2
1 2
(a) bit/symbol (b) 1 bit/symbol
2 4.85 2
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Pc =
1 1 0.64
(c) 1 bit/symbol (d) 1 bit/symbol
4 2 Pc = 15.156 kW
Ans. (d) Total transmitted power
1 1 1 = Pc + Pside
Sol. P(A) = , P(B) = and P(C) =
2 4 4 = 15.156 + 4.85
Entropy of source = 20 kW
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respectively. The effective modulation index = 60 W
and the total power radiated are Given = 1
(a) 0.85 and 490.5 W for AM modulation
(b) 0.65 and 490.5 W
2
(c) 0.85 and 450.5 W Pt = Pc 1
2
(d) 0.65 and 450.5 W
Ans. (a) 1
60 = Pc 1
R
2
Sol. Carrier power Pc = 360 W
R
Modulation index for 1 st audio signal 2
Pc = 60
3
TTEE
1 0.55
Modulation index for 2 nd audio signal Carrier power
2 0.65 Pc = 40 W
Total modulation index 20. For an FM receiver with an input signal-to-
noise ratio for 29 dB, a noise figure of 4 db
t = 12 22
ASS
and an FM improvement factor of 16 dB,
the pre-detection and post-detection signal-
t = 0.552 0.652 to-noise ratios are
MA
2
Pt = Pc 1 t (d) 30 dB and 41 dB
2
Ans. (a)
1
0.852 21. For Gaussian and White channel noise, the
= 360 2
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= 3000 × 9.96 = 29901.67 Ans. (a)
30000 Sol. In DPCM, the difference between two
adjacent samples is quantized. Because two
22. For a PM modulator with a deviation adjacent samples are highly correlated, their
sensitivity K = 2.5 rad/V and a modulating difference has small variations and
signal v m t 2 cos 22000t , the peak therefore, to achieve a certain level of
phase deviation m will be performance fewer bits are required to
(a) 1.25 rad (b) 2.5 rad quantize it. This means that DPCM can
achieve performance levels compared to
(c) 5.0 rad (d) 7.5 rad PCM at lower bit rate.
R
Ans. (c)
25. For the given transfer function
Sol. Given phase sensitivity Kp = 2.5 rad/V
Y s 1
Modulating signal vm(t) = 2 cos 2 2000 t G s
TE
2
R s s 3s 2
Max. phase deviation
The response y(t) for a step input r(t) =
m = Kp(vm(t))|max 5u(t) will be
= 2.5 × 2
5 t 5 2t
= 5 rad (a) 2 5e 2 e u t
AS
23. In a PCM system, non-uniform quantization 5 t
leads to (b) 2 5e u t
(a) Increased quantizer noise
5 5 2t
(b) Simplification of the quantization (c) 2 2 e u t
process
M
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5 One gets,
=
s(s 1)(s 2)
K
5 5 5 G(s)H(s) = s s 1 s 2
=
2s s 1 2(s 2)
Hence, no. of poles, P = 3
Taking Inverse Laplace Transform
no. of zeros, z = 0
5 t 5 2t
y(t) = u(t) 5e u(t) e u(t) Number of Asymptotes = P – Z = 3
2 2
R
5 t 5 2t 2n 1 ,
= 5e e u(t) Angle of Asymptotes =
R
2 2 PZ
TTEE
26. The price for improvement in sensitivity by n = 0, 1, 2 .... (|P – Z| – 1)
the use of feedback is paid in terms of
2n 1 60, 180, 300
(a) Loss of system gain =
3
(b) Rise of system gain
28. If the characteristic equation of a feedback
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(c) Improvement in transient response,
delayed response control system is given by
(d) Poor transient response s4 20 s3 15s2 2s K 0
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is decreased.
(b) 0 < K < 1.49
27. Consider a feedback system with the (c) 1 < K < 4.49
characteristic equation
(d) 0 < K < 3.49
1
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1 K 0 Ans. (b)
s s 1 s 2
Sol. Given characteristic eqn. is
The asymptotes of the three branches of root
locus plot of this system will form the s4 + 20s3 + 15s2 + 2s + k = 0
following angles with the real axis. from Routh’s table
(a) 60°, 120° and 300° s
3
1 15 k
(b) 60°, 120° and 180° s 3
20 2
(c) 60°, 180° and 300° 298
s2 k
(d) 40°, 120° and 200° 20
Ans. (c) 298
20k
s
1 10
Sol. Characteristic equation is given as, 298
1 20
0
1 + K s s 1 s 2 = 0 s k
For stability, all poles should lie on left side
Compare it with, 1 + G(s)H(s) = 0 of s plane
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Hence 3. Laplace transform of unit parabolic
298 1
20k function is 3 .
10 s
> 0& k > 0
298 Which of the above statements are correct?
20 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
298 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
20k 0 & k > 0
10
Ans. (c)
298 Sol. (1) Unit Ramp function r(t) = tu(t)
k &k >0
200
R
2
t
k < 1.49 & k > 0 Unit parabolic function, f(t) = u(t)
2
Hence 0 < k < 1.49 Parabolic function grows faster than ramp
TE
29. For a type-2 system, the steady-state errors junction by 1 degree
for unit step and unit ramp input are (1) is true.
(a) 0 and (b) and 0 (2) is true
(c) 0 and 0 (d) and t2 1
(3) Laplace transform of u(t) 3 is
Ans. (c) 2 s
AS
true.
A
Sol. For Type-2 system, G(s) H(s) = 2 Hence all statements are true.
s
1 31. Consider the following open-loop transfer
e ss for unit step input
Kp function :
K s 2
M
1
for unit ramp input G =
Kv s 1s 4
A The characteristic equation of the unity
where K p lim G s H(s) lim 2 negative feedback will be
s 0 s 0
s
(a) (s + 1) (s + 4) + K (s + 2) = 0
S
A
and K v lim sG s H(s) lim (b) (s + 2) (s + 1) + K (s + 4) = 0
s 0 s 0 s
= (c) (s + 1) (s – 2) + K (s + 4) = 0
IE
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(s+1) (s+4) + k (s + 2) = 0 Sol. In frequency response, magnitude attains
/ 12
32. The magnitude and phase relationship maximum value, MP = e at r ;
between the sinusoidal input and the where r is resonant frequency.
steady-state output of a system is called as
35. For a lead compensator having transfer
(a) Magnitude response function
(b) Transient response
1
(c) Steady-state response s zc s
R
(d) Frequency response Gc(s) = s pc 1
s
R
Ans. (d)
TTEE
Sol. Frequency response of a system defines the zc zc
1. 1 2. 1
magnitude response and phase response at pc pc
steady state for a sinusoidal input.
3. 0 4. 0
33. A transfer function having all its poles and Which of the above are correct ?
zeros only in the left-half of the s-plane is
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
ASS
called
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
(a) a minimum-phase transfer function
Ans. (b)
(b) a complex transfer function
MA
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R
instruction. 15000
2. Multiply instruction will be 60
implemented by a special multiply unit. so, first track can be read in sec =
15000
TE
Which of the following is correct ? 4 msec.
(a) Both 1 and 2 are not architectural Time required to read first track
design issues. = 4 msec + 2 msec + 4 msec
(b) Both 1 and 2 are not organizational = 10 msec
issues. Time required to read remaining four track
AS
(c) 1 is an architectural design issue while = 4 × (Rotational delay + time required to
2 is an organizational issue. read 500 sector)
(d) 1 is an organizational issue while 2 is = 4 × (2 + 4)
an architectural design issue.
= 24 msec
Ans. (c)
Time required in sequential organization to
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38. Consider a disk with an average seek time transfer the file = 10 mec + 24 msec
of 4 ms, rotational delay of 2 ms, rotation = 34 msec
speed of 15000 r.p.m. and 512-byte sector
= 0.034 sec Ans.
with 500 sectors per track. A file occupies
all of the sectors on 5 adjacent tracks. After 39. Add 8 and 9 in BCD code.
S
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43. In a cache with 64-byte cache lines, how
1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 many bits are used to determine which byte
Sol. within a cache line an address points to ?
1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1
(a) 16 (b) 8
41. The decimal value of the signed binary
(c) 6 (d) 3
number 10101010 expressed in 2’s
complement will be Ans. (c)
(a) –42 (b) –86 Sol. Cache size = 64 bytes
R
(c) –116 (d) –170 26 = 64
6-bits are used.
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Ans. (b)
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Sol. Since the MSB bit is 1, therefore the number 44. A system has 64-bit virtual addresses and
is negative. 43-bit physical addresses. If the pages are
10101010 1's complement 8 kB in size, the number of bits required
–01010101 for VPN and PPN will be respectively
+1
2's (a) 51 bits and 30 bits
(01010110)2 = (86)10
ASS
complement (b) 30 bits and 51 bits
42. Which of the following statements is/are (c) 51 bits and 13 bits
correct ? (d) 30 bits and 13 bits
MA
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Sol. Soft errors are caused by events. It is non 48. Which of the following statements are
destructive because rebooting resolved the correct ?
issue. 1. A pseudoinstruction is a machine
instruction.
46. A main memory can hold 3 page frames
and initially all of them are vacant. Consider 2. A pseudoinstruction is an instruction to
the following stream of page requests : the assembler.
2, 3, 2, 4, 6, 2, 5, 6, 1, 4, 6 3. The ORG (origin) is an example of
pseudoinstruction.
If the stream uses FIFO replacement policy,
the hit ratio h will be 4. It is not possible to use ORG more than
R
once in a program.
11 1
(a) (b) Select the correct answer using the code
3 11
given below.
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3 2
(c) (d) (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
11 11
Ans. (d) (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(a) Assembly language program runs faster. resets its location counter to the specified
(b) Writing of assembly language value.
programming is easy.
49. The vector RAB extends from A(1, 2, 3) to B.
(c) Assembly language program is portable. If the length of RAB is 10 units and its
(d) Assembly language program contains direction is given by
less instruction. a 0.6a x 0.64 a y 0.48 az
Ans. (a)
the coordinates of B will be
Sol. Assembly language programs are computer
time efficient. So, they run faster. (a) 7a x 4.8a y 4.8 az
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(c) 7ax 8.4a y 7.8 az = 2 × Volume
= 2 × 10–9C
(d) 6a x 8.4a y 7.8a z
Ans. (c) Q 2nC
x 1 ax y 2 a y z 3 az 2 2 1
R
(a) ax a y az
= 3 3 3
10
2 2 1
R
= 0.6 ax + 0.64 ay + 0.48 az (b) ax a y az
3 3 3
TTEE
(x – 1)ax + (y – 2)ay + (z – 3)az
2 2 1
= 6ax + 6.4ay + 4.8az (c) ax a y az
3 3 3
comparing we get
2 2 1
x = 7 y = 8.4 and z = 7.8 (d) a x a y az
3 3 3
ASS
B = 7ax + 8.4ay + 7.8az Ans. (c)
50. What is the value for the total charge Sol. 0,0,0 G 2, 2, 1
enclosed in an incremental volume of 10–9
MA
unit vector will be
m3 located at the origin if
2ax 2a y az
De x
sin y a x e x
cos y a y 2za z C/m2 ? =
4 4 1
S M
(a) 8 nC (b) 4 nC 2 2a y az
= ax
(c) 2 nC (d) 1 nC 3 3 3
Ans. (c) 52. Ground waves progress along the surface of
the earth and must be polarized
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Ans. (d)
z0 = 300 z0 200
Sol. In standing waves voltage maxima are
separated by 2
Similarly voltage minima are separated by 4
2 z0 = z0zL
So voltage maxima and voltage minima are
z0 = 300 200 = 100 6
separated by 4
z0 = 244.9
R
54. The characteristic impedance of an 80 cm
long lossless transmission line having 56. For a standard rectangular waveguide
L = 0.25 H / m and C = 100 pF/m will be having an aspect ratio of 2:1, the cutoff
TE
(a) 25 (b) 40 wavelength for TM1,1 mode will be nearly
2 2
z0 50 c 1 1
= 2 a a
2
55. It is required to match a 200 load to a
300 transmission line to reduce the SWR c 1 4
= 2
S
purpose will be
(a) 275 (b) 260 2a
= 0.894 a
(c) 245 (d) 230 5
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Select the correct answer using the code 2
cos = 1 0.75
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 cos = 0.6614
R
each pair of walls
Sol. At the resonance frequency, the iris acts as
1
a high shunt resistance. Above or below
R
(b) the wavelengths of intensity between
resonance, the iris acts as a capacitive or 3
TTEE
each pair of walls
inductive reactance.
1
58. A 10 GHz signal is propagated in a (c) the wavelengths of intensity between
4
waveguide whose wall separation is 6 cm. each pair of walls
The greatest number of half-waves of
1
electric intensity will be possible to establish (d) the wavelengths of intensity between
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between the two walls. The guide 8
each pair of walls
wavelength for this mode of propagation
will be Ans. (a)
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guide walls
for propagation fc f
60. Consider the following statements with
mc reference to dipole arrays:
10GHz
2a
1. In broadside array, all the dipoles are
10 109 2 6 10 2 fed in the same phase from the same
m
2 108 source.
m 4 [ at m = 4 standing wave formation] 2. In end-fire array, the magnitude of the
current in each element is same and
so for m = 3, fc = 7.5 GHz
there is no phase difference between
3 these currents.
guided =
cos cos Which of the above statements is/are
3 correct?
g 4.535cm
0.661 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2
f
cos = 1 c Ans. (a)
f
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Sol. Broadside array = 0 1
r =
2 4 3f RC
Endfire array = d
= 0.028
so only statement 1 is correct
63. The effect of reduction in effective base
61. Consider a common-emitter current gain of width due to increase in reverse voltage of
150 and a base current of iB = 15A . If BJT is
the transistor is biased in the forward active (a) Hall effect (b) Early effect
mode, the collector and emitter current will (c) Zener effect (d) Miller effect
be
R
Ans. (b)
(a) 2.25 mA and 2.27 mA
Sol. Early effect is the variation in the effective
(b) 3.25 mA and 2.27 mA
width of the base in a bipolar junction
TE
(c) 2.25 mA and 1.37 mA transistor (BJT) due to a variation in the
(d) 3.25 mA and 1.37 mA applied base to collector voltage.
2
= 2.27 mA 2
= 10 1
4
62. The input to a bridge rectifier is 230 V
(r.m.s), 50 Hz. The d.c. output voltage and = 10(1.5)2
S
(a) 207 V and 0.028 shift is met by using lead-lag network and
(b) 325 V and 0.028 by using
(c) 207 V and 0.020 (a) inverting op-amp
(d) 325 V and 0.020 (b) non-inverting op-amp
Ans. (b) (c) feedback op-amp
Sol. DC output voltage = Vmax (d) high-gain op-amp
= Ans. (b)
2 230
= 325.26 V Sol. Non inverting configuration op-Amp is used
to meet 0° phase shift.
ripple factor
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66. What is the frequency of oscillation for an Sol. Characteristics of ideal op amp:
RC phase-shift oscillator with R of 10 k Infinite voltage gain
and C of 0.001 F in each of its three RC
Infinite input impedance
section?
Zero output impedance
(a) 5.0 kHz (b) 5.5 kHz
Infinite CMRR
(c) 6.0 kHz (d) 6.5 kHz
Infinite Band width
Ans. (d)
R
Sol. Frequency of oscillation 70. A d.c. voltage supply provides 60 V when
the output is unloaded. When connected to
1
R
f0 = a load, the output drops to 56 V. The value
2RC 6
TTEE
of the voltage regulation is
1 (a) 3.7% (b) 5.7%
f0 = 3 6
210 10 0.001 10 6 (c) 7.1% (d) 9.1%
f0 6.5 kHz Ans. (c)
67. When there is no clock signal applied to
ASS
VNL VFL
CMOS logic circuits, they are referred to as Sol. Voltage regulation = × 100%
VFL
(a) complex CMOS logic circuits
VNL = no load voltage
MA
(b) static CMOS logic circuits
VFL = Full load voltage
(c) NMOS transmission gates
(d) random PMOS logic circuits 60 56
S M
=
56
Ans. (b)
1
68. One form of NMOS circuit logic that =
14
minimizes power dissipation and maximizes
= 7.14%
device density is called
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cladding
Current through unknown resistance R.
90
Core I2 = A
R
So, current through voltage source,
cladding
90
Acceptance angle I = I1 I2 3 A
R
72. The light intensity 3 m from a lamp that Total power disspated in the circuit
emits 25 W of light energy will be = total power delivered by
R
(a) 243 mW/m2 (b) 232 mW/m2 voltage source
(c) 221 mW/m2 (d) 210 mW/m2 450 = 90 × I
Ans. (c) 90
TE
450 = 90 × 3 R
Sol. The light intensity (in W/m2)
at a distance
of d meter from the light source is given by
90
3 = 5
P R
I …(1)
4 r 2 90
= 2
AS
Put P = 25 W R
r = 3m 90
R = 45
2
25 25 2
I 221 mW/m i.e. option (a)
4 9 36
74. An electric kettle contains 1.5 kg of water
M
73. Two resistances, one of 30 and another of at 15°C. It takes 15 minutes to raise the
unknown value, are connected in parallel. temperature of water to 95°C. If the heat
The total power dissipated in the circuit is loss due to radiations and heating the kettle
450 W when the applied voltage is 90 V. is 15 kcalories and the supply voltage is
The unknown resistance is 100 V, the current taken will be
S
73 Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) Sol. Energy produced by electric kettle
Sol. = (Energy consumed by water) + (heat loss
due to radiation and heating the kettle)
I I1 I2
= mST heat loss
90V 30 R
= [(1.5 × 103) × 1 × (95 – 15°] + 15 × 103;
calorie
Current through 30 resistance = (1.5 × 103 × 1 × 80) + (15 × 103) calorie
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= 135 × 4.2 × 103 Joule (a) 2.6 mV (b) 2.2 mV
and, energy produced by electric kettle (c) 1.6 mV (d) 1.2 mV
= V.I.t Ans. (c)
So, V.I.t = 135 × 4.2 × 103 2m
R
I = 6.3 A Given,
i.e. current taken by electric kettle = 6.3 A V = 72 km/h
R
i.e. option (c) 72 103
TTEE
= m s = 20 m/s
60 60
75. A heater element is made of nichrome wire
having resistivity equal to 100 × 10–8 m So, emf generator in the axle.
and diameter of 0.4 mm. The length of the e = Blv sin
wire required to get a resistance of 40
will be nearly
= B lv 90
ASS
(a) 9 m (b) 7 m = 40×10–6×2×20
Sol. = 1.6 mV
i.e. option (c)
S M
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to be placed in series for an armature
3 106 2
F = current of 50A is nearly
2 1.2 0.2 10 4 4 107
(a) 0.82 (b) 1.14
F 0.149 N (c) 1.24 (d) 1.34
R
(a) 588 W (b) 145 W
(c) 135W (d) 125 W
Case-I
Ans. (b)
TE
Vt = 240 V, Ia1 = 70 A,
Sol.
n1(speed) = 850 rpm
I I1 I2 R1 = 0.1
being capacitive.
n2 = 850 rmp, Ia2 50A
So Power taken from source = I12 R1
Ea m
2
V Ea n constant
P = Z R1
S
1 Ea2 n2
Z1 = R1 + jX1 Ea1 = n
1
IE
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of 50A is running at 960 r.p.m. If the flux n 2 1060.4 rpm
is reduced by 10% at constant torque and
with negligible iron and friction losses, the 81. Which of the following statements are
speed will be nearly correct for d.c. shunt motor?
(a) 1280 r.p.m. 1. Speed of a shunt motor is sufficiently
(b) 1170 r.p.m. constant.
(c) 1100 r.p.m. 2. For the same current input, its starting
R
(d) 1060 r.p.m. torque is not as high as that of a series
motor.
Ans. (d)
R
3. The motor can be directly coupled to a
Sol.
TTEE
load such as a fan whose torque
Ia1 = 50A, n1 = 960 rmp, increases with speed.
Ea2 2 n 2 Ish = R
sh
Ea1 = n …(i)
1 1
I Ia Ish
2 = 0.91 ...(ii)
V E Rsh
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1Ia1 = 2Ia2
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Speed
R
Statement-2 is also correct as for a dc series 83. Which of the following statements are
motor the starting torque is very high. correct for a fully charged lead-acid cell?
1. Gassing occurs at both electrodes.
TE
N 2. The terminal voltage is 2.6 V.
3. The specific gravity of the electrolyte is
1.21.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 It causes shedding of active material causing
Ans. (c) permanent damage to the battery capacity.
Sol. The active materials in a battery are those Hence, statement-1 is true as gassing occurs
that participate in the electrochemical at both the electrodes.
charge/discharge reaction. These materials Also, statement-2 and statement-3 are
include the electrolyte and positive/negative correct as there are standard values for a
electrode. fully charged lead-acid battery.
In lead-acid battery, the electrolyte is a
dilute solution of sulfuric acid (H2SO4). The 84. Which of the following statements are
negative electrode of a fully charged battery correct for synchronous motors?
is composed of sponge lead (Pb) and the
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1. Synchronous motors are well-suited for
direct connection to reciprocating
compressors.
2. Over-excited synchronous motors are
not commonly used for power factor c
improvements. a
R
transmission lines.
86. The minimum cation-to-anion radius ratio
R
Select the correct answer using the code
for the coordination number 3 is
TTEE
given below.
(a) 0.175 (b) 0.155
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 0.135 (d) 0.115
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Sol. For a CN = 3, the type of void is triangular
Sol. Synchronous motors are well suited for
ASS
planar.
direct connection to reciprocating
compressors due to highly variable load Let ra = radius of anion
characteristic. rc = radius of cation
MA
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R
3 0.414 0.732 6 6.023 1023 8.4 106
N =
4 0.732 1.000 8 63.5
= 7.96 × 1028
TE
87. Which of the following materials are
categories of ceramic materials? 8 × 1028
1. Oxides–alumina, Zirconia Number of vacanices at 1000°C ( 1273
K) is given as
2. Non-oxides—Carbides, Borides, Nitrides
Evaccancy
and Silicides
Nvaccancies = N e
AS
kT
3. Composites—Particulate reinforced
combinations of oxides and non-oxides. 0.9
= 8 × 1028 × 8.6210 5 1273
e
Select the correct answer using the code
25
given below. N vaccancies 2.2 10
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
M
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Hence these are insulating materials. 1. Smaller diffusion capacitance
Some other electrical insulating materials 2. Lower parasitic delay
are: Porcelain, glass, pressboard, paper, 3. Lower threshold voltage.
varnished paper, asbestos, Rubber, Resin
etc. 4. Lower dynamic power consumption.
90. The magnitude of the energy gap for an 92. The finite state machine in which
insulator is 1. the output is a function of the current
R
(a) less than 1 eV state and inputs
R
current state
(c) more than 3 eV
TTEE
(d) between 1 eV to 2 eV Which of the following machines are
respectively correct for these styles?
Ans. (c)
(a) Mealy machine and Moore machine
Sol. The conduction band and valence band gets
overlapped in conductor i.e. Eg = 0 ev. (b) Moore machine and Mealy machine
(c) State machine and Mealy machine
ASS
In semiconductor. the energy gap is
mormally 1 eV at room temperature. (d) State machine and State machine
In insulator, the energy gap is approximtely Ans. (a)
MA
conduction conduction the thin oxide onto the floating gate through
conduction band band the process known as
band
Eg = 1ev Eg 6ev (a) mask programming
Valence Valence Valence (b) one-time programming
band band band
(c) avalanche injection or Fowler-Nordheim
IEIES
tunneling
91. Which of the following are the advantages
(d) erasing
of Silicon over Insulator (SOI)?
Ans. (c)
1. Lower diffusion capacitance
2. Smaller parasitic delay and lower 94. What is the range of values of a and b for
dynamic power consumption which the linear time-invariant system with
impulse response
3. Lower threshold voltages
n
a , n 0
Select the correct answer using the code h(n) n
given below. b , n 0
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Ans. (a) 96. The two advantages of FIR filters over IIR
Sol. filters are
For LTI system we have given its impulse (a) they are guaranteed to be stable and
response as non-linear
(b) they are marginally stable and linear
h(n) = an, n 0
(c) they are guaranteed to be stable and
= bn, n < 0
may be constrained to have linear phase
we know that for stability h(n) must be
(d) they are marginally stable and non-
absolute summable.
linear
R
2
Ans. (c)
i.e. h(n)
…(1)
Sol. (i) FIR filter are always stable
1
2 2
(ii) FIR filter can have exactly linear phase
TE
h(n) h(n)
n 0 n response.
2 1 2
an bn …(2) 97. The frequency response and the main lobe
n 0 n width for rectangular window are
In equation (2), first and second term will N N
be absolute cummable for |a| < 1 and |b| sin sin
AS
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and
> 1 respectively.
N N
sin
95. The special case of a finite-duration 2 2
sequence is given as N
sin sin
x(n) {2, 4, 0, 3} (c) 2 and 2 (d) 2 and 8
N N N
sin sin
M
(c) 2(n) 4(n 1) 3(n 2) WR(n) = 2 2
0, Otherwise
(d) 2(n 1) 4(n) 3(n 1)
IE
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Put, Ans. (a)
N 1 Sol. DMA controller sends HOLD signal to the
m = n
2 micro processor and microprocessor free its
N–1 – jm– N–1
bases to be used by DMA controller to
WR e j = e 2 transfer data directly between source and
m 0 destination bypassing the microprocessor.
N–1 N–1
j
WR e j = e 2
e– jm 99. A 2-byte instruction which accepts the data
R
m0 from the input port specified in the second
N–1 byte and loads into the accumulator is
j 1 – e – jN
R
= e 2 (a) OUT <8-bit port address>
1 – e – j
TTEE
(b) IN <8-bit port address>
N
j N – j N
N–1 – j
j e e 2 – e 2
2 (c) OUT R <8-bit port address>
= e 2
– j j – j (d) IN R <8-bit port address>
e 2 e 2 – e 2
Ans. (b)
N Sol. IN (8-bit port address)
ASS
N –1 N –1 sin
j – j
2 2 2
= e e 1 byte is for opcode
sin
2 1 byte for 8 bit port address
MA
so it is a 2 Byte instruction
N
sin
j 2 and this instruction is used to accept the
WR (e )
data from the inport port and load this
S M
sin data into accumulator.
2
100. Consider the following instruction:
WR (e j )
EI
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98. A controller that takes control of the buses (d) enable RST 7.5 and 6.5
and transfers data directly between source Ans. (b)
and destination bypassing the Sol.
microprocessor is known as
D7 D6 D5 D4 D3 D2 D1 D0
(a) DMA controller SOD SDE RST 7.5 X MSE M7.5 M6.5 M5.5
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EI Microcontroller is selected as
MVI A, 08H controlling device
R
5.5 are available. interconnection?
(a) Request, Indication, Response and
101. The instruction BC 0x15 means Confirm.
TE
(a) jump 15 bytes relative to the program (b) Request, Inform, Response and Service
counter
(c) Request, Command, Response and
(b) copy and load 15 words in reverse Action
direction to the program counter
(d) Request, Confirm, Indication and Action
(c) move to a location by 15 bits to the
Ans. (a)
AS
program counter
(d) redirect (jump) to a location by 15 words Sol. Four types of primitives are:
relative to the program counter 1. Request
Ans. (*) 2. Indication
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given, n = 10 900 – 26 = 874 bits
5
10 9 Hence, the transport layer data is
Hence l encapsulated into three packets.
2
First packet size = 874 bits
l 45
Remaining size = 2550 – 874 = 1676 bits
105. Which of the following are the advantages Second packet size = 874 bits; remaining
of packet switching? size = 1676 – 874 = 802 bits
R
1. Greater link efficiency than circuit Third packet size = 802 bits.
switching The first and second packet size is (874 +
R
2. Connections are not blocked when traffic 26) bits = 900 bits
TTEE
congestion occurs Third packet size = 802 + 26 = 828
3. Direct channel established between And all three packets has a 26-bit header
transmitter and receiver appended for use by the intermediate
4. No time is taken to establish connection network. So total number of bits delivered
to the destination network is :
ASS
Select the correct answer using the code
900 + 900 + 828 + 3 × 26 = 2706 bits
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 107. In a communication network, 4 T1 streams
MA
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Ans. (c) Sol. There are 43,200 seconds in 12 hours and
Sol. GSM uses both FDM and TDM technique therefore
whereas CDMA uses CDM technique so both n = 2 / 43200 1.45444 10 4 rad/s.
are not similar.
From Kepler’s third law:
Option 1 is wrong.
The semimajor axis
109. Which of the following regarding cellular
a = [(3.99 × 1014)/(1.45444 × 10–4)2]1/3
systems with small cells are correct?
1. Higher capacity and robustness 26,610 km
2. Needless transmission power and have 111. A single-mode optical fiber has a beat length
R
to deal with local interference only of 8 cm at 1300 nm. The value of
birefringence Bf will be nearly
3. Frequency planning and infrastructure
(a) 1.6×10–5 (b) 2.7×10–5
TE
needed
4. These require both circuit switching and (c) 3.2×10–5 (d) 4.9×10–5
packet switching Ans. (a)
Select the correct answer using the code Sol. Birefringence
given below.
AS
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Bf =
L beat length
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 1300 10
7
=
Ans. (b) 8
Sol. In cellular system with small cells we = 1.62 × 10–5
obtain:
112. Which one of the following instruments is
M
High capacity and robustness of the useful while measuring the optical power
system. as a function of wavelength?
Since number of cells will increase (a) Optical power attenuator
therefore frequency planning and
infrastructure will require. (b) Optical power meter
S
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(b) physical layer, network layer and 115. Statement (I): Sign-magnitude
application layer monitoring representation is rarely used in
(c) data-link layer, presentation layer and implementing the integer portion of the
session layer monitoring ALU.
(d) transport layer, session layer and Statement (II): There are two
application layer monitoring representations of zero in sign-magnitude
Ans. (a) representation.
R
Ans. (a)
114. An earth station at sea level communicates
at an elevation angle of 35° with GEO Sol. In sign-magnitude format, MSB decides the
R
satellite. The vertical height of the sign. If MSB is 0 then sign is positive and
TTEE
stratiform rain is 3 km. The physical path if MSB is 1, then sign is negative (i.e.
length L through the rain will be nearly number is negative)
(a) 6.3 km (b) 5.2 km e.g. For 3 bit sign magnitude representation
(c) 4.1 km (d) 3.0 km 000 0
Ans. (b) 100 0
ASS
Sol. Given : hr = 3 kms Hence statement (II) is correct explanation
of statement (I).
The physical pathlength, L, through the rain
MA
is given by 116. Statement (I): Dynamic loading gives better
memory-space utilization.
L = hr/ sin
= 3/(sin 35°) Statement (II): In dynamic loading, an
S M
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118. Statement (I): In a multiuser system, each Ans. (*)
user is assigned a section of usable memory
area and is not allowed to go out of the 122. A transformer core is wound with a coil
assigned memory area. carrying an alternating current at a
frequency of 50 Hz. The hysteresis loop has
Statement (II): In multiuser system, there an area of 60000 units, when the axes are
is a software mechanism to prevent drawn in units of 10–4 Wb m–2 and 102 A
unauthorized access of memory by different m –1 . If the magnetization is uniform
users.
throughout the core volume of 0.01m3, then
Ans. (a) the hysteresis loss will be
Sol. Time sharing system is multiuser system. (a) 200 W (b) 230 W
R
CPU executes multiple jobs by switching (c) 270 W (d) 300 W
among them. The time slice is defined for
each job. When time slice is expired for one Ans. (d)
TE
job another job get CPU. Sol. Energy loss during each cycle
So each job resides in seperate memory area. = Area of the loop
And one job can’t interfere to the other job. = 60000 × (10–4 wb/m2) × (102 A/m)
120. Statement (I): By organizing various ‘optical 123. The process of evaporating a metal in an
functions’ into an ‘array structure’ via nano- inert atmosphere and allowing it to
pattern replication, ‘spatial integration’ is condense on the surface of a cold finger,
S
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Ans. (a) (a) Curie effect
Sol. Silver has the highest electrical conductivity (b) Faraday’s effect
of all metals. In fact, the conductivity of all (c) Maxwell’s effect
other metals are compred against it.
(d) Meissner effect
Electrical resisitivty ( ) of some metals at
Ans. (d)
20°C:
Sol. According to Meissner’s effect, the
Platinum = 106 109 .m superconductor spontaneously expell all
R
magnetic flux when cooled through the
Aluminium = 28.3 109 .m
superconducting transition. Hence, Lenz law
R
Gold = 24.4 10 9 .m does not apply to the superconductor below
TTEE
critical temperature, Tc.
Copper = 17.2 109 .m
125. Consider the following processes: 127. A null type of instrument as compared to a
1. Sol-gel process deflection type of instrument
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128. A Wheatstone bridge requires a change of between a and b keeping galvanometer
7 in the unknown resistance arm of the circuit open circuited.
bridge to produce a change in deflection of R0
3 mm of the galvanometer. The sensitivity a
and the deflection factor will be nearly R + R P Ig
+
(a) 0.23mm/ and 2.3 /mm
E0 G
a b –
(b) 0.43mm/ and 2.3 /mm
S Q
(c) 0.23mm/ and 1.3 /mm
b
Fig. Wheatstone bridge Fig. Thevenin’s
R
(d) 0.43mm/ and 1.3 /mm
equivalent circuit
Ans. (b)
Thevenin equivalent resistance of bridge,
Sol. Sensitivity of wheatstone bridge
TE
RS PQ
change in deflection in galvanometer R0 = [Taking R R ]
= RS PQ
change in resistance in arm
Here, P = Q = R = S = 1k
3
= mm then, R0 = R = 1k
7
Output voltage of bridge due to unbalance,
AS
= 0.43mm
R R
1 E0 = E = 20 = 5 10 3 R
Deflection factor = 4R 4 1000
sensitivity
Current through the galvanometer, Ig =
1 E0
= 37
R0
M
7
= 2.3 mm 5 103 R
3 0.1×10–9 =
1000
i.e. option (b)
0.1 109 1000
129. The galvanometer used in a Wheatstone R =
S
5 103
bridge as a detector can detect a current as
low as 0.1 nA and its resistance is negligible 100
=
compared to internal resistance of the 5
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Electronics & Telecommunication
Engineering
Ans. (b) R
eRV = ev
Sol. For an electrodynamometer ammeter, V
2 dM ev 12
Td = I = = = 1.2
d I 10
and, weighted probable error in resistance
2 dM
K = I d due to current is,
R
I2 dM
R
eRI = eI
= I
K d
R
V 100
dM = eI = 2
Given, = 0.0035 µH/degree 10 2
TTEE
2
d I
= 2
0.0035 106 H
= Hence, priobable errror in computed
180 rad
resistance,
H
6
= 0.2 10 2 2
eRV eRI
ASS
rad rR =
Hence, full-scale deflection
= 1.2 2 22
I2 dM
MA
= =
K d 1.44 4
25 2 = 5.44
0.2 10 6
S M
=
10 6 = 2.33
= 625 × 0.2 i.e. option (c)
= 125° 132. A temperature-sensing device can be
i.e. option (b) modeled as a first-order system with a time
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R
= 150
and in the other is I2 200 5A . 100
Considering errors in both I1 and I2 as = 1.5V
limiting errors, the total current will be
TE
So, while measuring 75V from the (0–150)V
(a) 300 5A (b) 300 6A voltmeter, it may indicate 75 1.5 V .
(c) 300 7A (d) 300 8A 1.5
Hence, limiting error = 100 = 2%
Ans. (c) 75
I1 i.e. option (d)
AS
135. A quartz piezoelectric crystal having a
I thickness of 2 mm and voltage sensitivity
Sol. of 0.055 V m/N is subjected to a pressure of
1.5 MN/m2. The voltage output will be
(a) 165 V (b) 174 V
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(a) 0.05% (b) 0.10% 138. A capacitance of 250 pF produces resonance
(c) 0.30% (d) 0.60% 2 6
with a coil at a frequency of 10 Hz,
Ans. (b)
stress while at the second harmonic of this
Sol. Since, Modulus of elasticity = frequency, resonance is produced by a
strain
capacitance of the coil will be nearly
Stress
Strain = Modulus of elasticity (a) 16.7 pF (b) 20.5 pF
R
(c) 24.3 pF (d) 28.1 pF
100 106 Ans. (a)
R
=
200 109
Sol. At frequency f, the circuit is in resonance,
TTEE
= 5 × 10–4
1
Now, Gauge factor, i.e. f =
2 L C1 Cd
R R R R
Gf = l l = At the second harmonic frequency i.e. 2f,
Strain
the circuit produces resonance,
ASS
R R 1
2 =
5 104 i.e. 2f =
2 L C 2 C d
MA
R R = 10–3 = 0.001
2f C1 Cd
i.e. percentage in resistance = 0.1% then, =
f C 2 Cd
i.e. option (b)
S M
C1 Cd
137. The applications of photomultiplier are seen 4 = C C
2 d
in
4C2 + 4Cd = C1 + Cd
(a) night vision equipment, medical
equipment 3Cd = C1 – 4C2
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N = Number of nodes V1
L = Total number of links where A = V = Reverse voltage
2 I2 0
B = Total number of branches ratio
The total number of links associated with a
tree is I1
C = V = Reverse transfer
(a) B – N + 1 (b) B – N – 1 2 I2 0
admittance
(c) B + N + 1 (d) 2B – N + 1
So answer (d)
Ans. (a)
Sol. In graph theory (Network topology) 141. A coil having resistance of 10 and
R
inductance of 1 H is switched on to a direct
B = Total no. of branches of network
voltage of 100V. The steady-state value of
N = total no. of principle nodes of network the current will be
TE
Tree : It connects all the nodes of network (a) 10A (b) 15A
but does not consist any closed path. (c) 20A (d) 25A
Total no. of tree branches = N – 1 Ans. (a)
The remaining branches are known as links Sol. R = 10
[chords]
AS
L = 1H
so total links in tree = B – (N – 1)
links (L) = B – N + 1
10
140. In ABCD parameters, A and C are called 100V
1H
(a) reverse current ratio and transfer
M
admittance
At steady state inductor behaves as short
(b) reverse voltage ratio and transfer
circuit
impedance
(c) reverse current ratio and transfer 100
so current I = = 10 amp.
impedance 10
S
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The response of the circuit i(t) will be
R = 10 t t
E q q0 RC
V (a) 0 e RC (b) e
L = 15H R RC RC
t t
E RC E q
(c) e (d) 0 e RC
I(t) =
V
1e
t
L R R R RC
R 143.
R
I(t) =
V
1e
t
1.5 10A ...(1)
Ans. (a)
Sol. Initial voltage at capacitor
R
R
TTEE
t q
dI t V R L R Vc 0 =
= 0 e C
dt R L
So circuit diagram will be
t
dI t V 1.5
= e 5 R I(t)
dt L
C
ASS
t
Ve 1.5
= 75 q/C
V
t
10
MA
I(t) = 1 e 1.5
10 E
V
t
1 e 1.5 = 100 q
This can be considered as battery E
S M
C
t and a R-C circuit with uncharged capacitor
1.5 = 100
V Ve t
q
t so, Vc(t) = E e RC
V = 100 Ve 1.5 C
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the current having previously reached its
t
steady state: = 1 0 e L R
0
A Rt
= e L
K 5
I(t) = e–t5 = e–5t
B
Answer (d)
5V
5 2H 145. What is the condition for reciprocity and
symmetry in Y-parameter representation?
R
(a) Y21 = Y11 and Y22 = Y21
The current i(t) after switching will be (b) Y21 = Y12 and Y11 = Y22
(a) 5e–5t (b) 4e–5t (c) Y21 = Y22 and Y11 = Y22
TE
(c) 3e–5t (d) e–5t (d) Y11 = Y22 and Y21 = Y22
144. Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) Sol.
Sol. At t = 0– I1 I2
AS
A
I2 = V1y21 + V2y22
For reciprocity y12 = y21
At t = 0+ For symmetry y11 = y22
A Answer (b)
S
I2(t)
(a) input impedance and forward current
5V
5 2H gain
(b) reverse voltage gain and output
admittance
(c) input impedance and reverse voltage
IL(0+) = 1A
gain
IL = 0A (d) output impedance and forward current
gain
Current in R-L circuit is given by
146.
t
IL(t) = I 0 I e L R
IL Ans. (a)
L L
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Sol. resistor be 400W at 160V, the value of the
I1 I2 capacitor C will be nearly
(a) 30.5 µF (b) 41.5 µF
h11
(c) 64.0 µF (d) 76.8 µF
V1 h 21I1 h22 V1
+
– h12V2 Ans. (b)
Sol. .
V1 = h11 I1 + h12 V2 VR = 160 V VC
R
I2 = h21 I1 + h22 V2
R C
R
V
1
TTEE
h11
I1 = Input impedance
V2 0
I2
h 21 250 V, 50 Hz
I1 = Forward current gain
V2 0
2
I1 = 7V2 – 2I2 2
VR 160
400 R 64 …(2)
A, B, C and D parameters are R 400
S M
160
C
Ans. (b) 64 192.09 2 50
Sol. ABCD parameters of 2 port network are
C 41.4F
defined by equations
V1 = AV2 – BI2 149. A 50 Hz sinusoidal voltage V 311sin t
I1 = CV2 – DI2 is applied to an RL series circuit. If the
magnitude of resistance is 5 and that of
Given: V1 = 6V2 – 4I2
the inductance is 0.02 H, the r.m.s. value of
I1 = 7V2 – 2I2 the steady-state current and the relative
on comparing we get phase angle are nearly
A= 6 B= 4 (a) 19.6 A and 51.5°
C= 7 D = 2 (b) 27.4 A and –51.5°
(c) 19.6 A and –51.5°
148. A supply of 250V, 50Hz is applied to a series
RC circuit. If the power absorbed by the (d) 27.4 A and 51.5°
Ans. (b)
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Sol. (a) 172.7 V (b) 184.5 V
R L (c) 196.3 V (d) 208.1 V
Ans. (c)
I 5 0.02H
Sol.
10 25nF
R C
V = 311 sin t
50 Hz
R
Vrms = 220 V
Vrms 220 220
50 MHz
Irms = Z R X
2 2
25 L
2 2
TE
L R = 10
220
Irms = 1 1
25 (0.02 2 50)2 XC =
C 2 50 10 6 25 10 9
220
Irms = 27.39A 1000 10 2
2
25 4
AS
XC =
2 50 25 25 5
Irms 27.39 A Ans.
VC max = IC max XC
Due to inductor current will lag the voltage
2.5
by phase angle IC max = 5 5.25A
2
1 X L 1 L
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