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IMPORTANT
You will find a list of Practice Questions, at the end of each chapter. There are two
objectives of these questions:
1. To assess your understanding of the topic.
2. To understand the various types of questions which can be asked from this topic.

Please note that, we also provide a bigger question bank on our Online Test Platform.
Each question on the online test platform includes the answer as well as detailed
explanation. ALL previous years’ questions are covered. ln addition, there are new
questions as well.

After covering the syllabus from booklets, it is EQUALLY IMPORTANT to go through


the questions on the Online Test Platform. This will give you confidence of absolute
coverage and ability to face any possible question on the exam day.

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Table of Content

1. People, Development and Environment ................................................................................. 5


Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ........................................................................................ 5
Constitutional Framework ................................................................................................... 5
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986..................................................................................... 5
Global Efforts for Environment ................................................................................................ 7
Rio Summit ......................................................................................................................... 7
Kyoto Protocol .................................................................................................................... 9
Paris Agreement ................................................................................................................. 9
Montreal Protocol and Kigali Amendment ..........................................................................10
India role in Climate Change ..............................................................................................11
Convention on Biological Diversity .....................................................................................12
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification ........................................................13
International Solar Alliance ................................................................................................14
Millenium and Sustainable Development Goals .................................................................14
Environmental Pollution .........................................................................................................16
Air Pollution........................................................................................................................16
Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming ............................................................................17
Water Pollution ..................................................................................................................19
Solid Waste........................................................................................................................21
Soil Pollution ......................................................................................................................22
Noise Pollution ...................................................................................................................22
Natural and Energy Sources..................................................................................................23
Conventional Sources of Energy ........................................................................................24
Improvements in the Technology for using Conventional Sources .....................................25
Non-Conventional Sources of Energy ................................................................................26
Energy from the Sea ..........................................................................................................26
Geothermal Energy ............................................................................................................26
Nuclear Energy ..................................................................................................................27
Natural Hazards & Disaster Management..............................................................................27
Types of Disasters .............................................................................................................28
Institutional Framework for DM in India ..............................................................................30
Hazard Mitigation ...............................................................................................................34

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2. Logical Reasoning.................................................................................................................39
Arguments .............................................................................................................................39
Analogies- Analogical Argument ............................................................................................40
Inductive and Deductive Reasoning ......................................................................................42
Square of Opposition .............................................................................................................45
Categorical Propositions, Mood and Figure ...........................................................................47
Categorical Propositions .......................................................................................................49
Mood and Figure..................................................................................................................49
Formal and Informal Fallacies ...............................................................................................51
Testing Validity Using Venn Diagram ....................................................................................56
Uses of language in logic ......................................................................................................58
Concept and Term .............................................................................................................58
Definitions- Denotation and Connotation ...............................................................................60
3. Indian Logic and Knowledge .................................................................................................68
Indian Philosophy ..................................................................................................................68
Nyaya School ........................................................................................................................69
Pramanshastra ......................................................................................................................69
Perception – Pratyaksha ....................................................................................................69
Anumana - Inference .........................................................................................................70
Upamana- Comparison ......................................................................................................71
Shabda - Verbal Testimony ................................................................................................72
Mimansa Philosophy .............................................................................................................73
Arthapatti –Postulation (Hypothesis) ..................................................................................74
Anupalabdhi– Non-Apprehension ......................................................................................74
Hetvabhasa (Fallacies of Inference) ......................................................................................75

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1. People, Development and Environment

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986


Constitutional Framework
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 defines environment as “environment includes water, air and land and
the interrelationship which exists among and between air, water and land and human beings, other living
creatures, plants, micro-organism and property”.

The chapter on fundamental duties of the Indian Constitution clearly imposes duty on every citizen to protect
environment.
Article 51-A (g), says that “It shall be duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural
environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.”
The Directive principles under the Indian constitution directed towards ideals of building welfare state. Healthy
environment is also one of the elements of welfare state.
Article 47 provides that the State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of
its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties. The improvement of public health
also includes the protection and improvement of environment without which public health cannot be assured.
Article 48 deals with organization of agriculture and animal husbandry. It directs the State to take steps to
organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. In particular, it should take steps for
preserving and improving the breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and
draught cattle.
Article 48 -A of the constitution says that “the state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and
to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country”.

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986


The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted after the United Nations Conference on the Human
Environment held at Stockholm in June, 1972, in which India participated, to take appropriate steps for the
protection and improvement of human environment. It extends to the whole of India.

DEFINITIONS
 Environment includes water, air and land and the inter-relationship which exists among and between
water, air and land, and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism and property.
 Environmental pollutant means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration
as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment.
 Hazardous substance means any substance or preparation which, by reason of its chemical or physico-
chemical properties or handling, is liable to cause harm to human beings, other living creatures, plants,
micro-organism, property or the environment.
 Occupier, in relation to any factory or premises, means a person who has control over the affairs of the
factory or the premises and includes, in relation to any substance, the person in possession of the
substance.

POWER OF CENTRAL GOVERNMENT TO PROTECT AND IMPROVE ENVIRONMENT


The Central Government shall have the power to protect and improve the quality of the environment. It will
include:
(i) co-ordination of actions by the State Governments, officers and other authorities
(ii) prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution
(iii) laying down standards for the quality of environment in its various aspects
(iv) laying down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants

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(v) restriction of areas in which any industries, operations or processes shall not be carried
(vi) laying down safeguards for prevention of accidents which may cause environmental pollution
(vii) laying down procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances
(viii) examination of such manufacturing processes, materials likely to cause environmental pollution
(ix) investigations and research relating to problems of environmental pollution;
(x) inspection of any premises, plant, equipment, machinery, manufacturing or other processes, materials (xi)
establishment or recognition of environmental laboratories and institutes
(xii) collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to environmental pollution;
(xiii) preparation of manuals, codes or guides for environmental pollution;

The Central Government may, constitute an authority or authorities for the purpose of exercising and performing
such of the powers and functions.

APPOINTMENT OF OFFICERS AND POWER TO GIVE DIRECTIONS


The Central Government may appoint officers. The Central Government may issue directions to any person,
officer or any authority. The Powers of Officers include:
(a) the closure, prohibition or regulation of any industry, operation or process; or
(b) stoppage or regulation of the supply of electricity or water or any other service.

RULES TO REGULATE ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION


The Central Government may, make rules in respect of all or any of the matters referred above. Such rules may
provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:
(a) standards of quality of air, water or soil for various areas and purposes;
(b) maximum allowable limits of various environmental pollutants (including noise) for different areas;
(c) procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances;
(d) prohibition and restrictions on the handling of hazardous substances in different areas;
(e) prohibition and restrictions on the location of industries and the carrying on of processes.
(f) procedures and safeguards for the prevention of accidents which may cause environmental pollution.

PREVENTION, CONTROL AND ABATEMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION


No person shall discharge any environmental pollutant in excess of such standards as may be prescribed. No
person shall handle any hazardous substance except in accordance with such procedure and safeguards. If
discharge of any environmental pollutant is in excess of the prescribed standards, the person shall
(a) intimate the fact of such occurrence to prescribed authority
(b) be bound, if called upon, to render all assistance,
The prescribed authority may direct remedial measures. All expenses of remedial measures to be borne by the
person.

The Central Government or any officer will have powers to entry and inspection in any industrial process. Further
the officer shall have powers to examine and test any equipment, record, register, document etc.

If any person wilfully obstructs the officer, he shall be guilty of an offence under this Act.

The Central Government or any officer shall have power to take, samples of air, water, soil or other substance
from any factory, premises or other place. The result of any analysis of a sample shall not be admissible in
evidence in any legal proceeding unless:
(a) The officer taking sample serve on the occupier a notice.
(b) The officer collect a sample for analysis in presence of occupier.
(c) Sample to be placed in a container, sealed and shall also be signed both by Officer and Occupier.
(d) send sample without delay to the laboratory.

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If the occupier wilfully absents himself, the officer shall collect the sample and sign it and send it to the
laboratory. The officer shall inform the Government Analyst appointed about the wilful absence of the occupier
or his refusal to sign the container.

The Central Government may, establish one or more environmental laboratories. Further the Government may
make rules specifying (a) the functions of the environmental laboratory; (b) the procedure for the submission of
samples and form of the report thereon and fees payable for such report.

The Central Government may, appoint “Government Analysts” for the purpose of analysis of samples.

Penalty for contravention of the provisions of the Act and the rules, orders and directions - Imprisonment up to
5 years or fine upto Rs 1 lakh rupees, or with both.
In case the failure or contravention continues- additional fine upto Rs 5000 for every day.
If the failure or contravention continues beyond a period of 1 year after the date of conviction- Imprisonment
may extend to 7 years.

POWER TO MAKE RULES


The Central Government may, make rules for:
(a) standards in excess of which environmental pollutants shall not be discharged.
(b) safeguards in compliance with which hazardous substances
(c) authorities/agencies to which intimation shall be given by occupier or other person for any excess.
(d) manner in which samples shall be taken
(e) form of notice of intention to have a sample analysed shall be served.
(f) functions/procedures/fees of the environmental laboratories
(g) qualifications of Government Analyst
(h) manner in which notice of the offence or complaint can be made to Central Government.

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was last amended in year 1991.

Global Efforts for Environment


Rio Summit
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international
environmental treaty adopted on 9 May 1992 and opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro
from 3 to 14 June 1992. It is also called the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(UNCED), the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, the Rio Summit, and the Earth Summit.

The Summit resulted in the following documents:


• Rio Declaration on Environment and Development- The Rio Declaration consisted of 27 principles
intended to guide countries in future sustainable development. It includes formulations of the
precautionary principle (principle 15) and of the polluter pays principle (principle 16).
• Agenda 21- It is an environmental action plan for the next century. It is not legally binding but forms
the basis for a new international partnership for sustainable development and environmental protection
worldwide.
• Forest Principles- The Earth Summit did not produce the convention on world forest management. It
did agree on a declaration of principles for future progress

Moreover, important legally binding agreements (Rio Convention) were opened for signature:
• Convention on Biological Diversity
• Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

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• United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

It then entered into force on 21 March 1994, after a sufficient number of countries had ratified it. The UNFCCC
objective is to "stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous
anthropogenic interference with the climate system". The framework sets non binding limits on greenhouse gas
emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms. Instead, the framework outlines
how specific international treaties (called "protocols" or "Agreements") may be negotiated to specify further
action towards the objective of the UNFCCC.

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is an intergovernmental body of the United Nations,
dedicated to provide the world with an objective, scientific view of climate change and its political and economic
impacts. It was established in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP), and later endorsed by the United Nations General Assembly. Membership is
open to all members of the WMO and UN. The IPCC produces reports that contribute to the work of the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the main international treaty on climate change.
Within the overarching framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), parties negotiated three climate deals—Kyoto Protocol, Cancun Agreements, and the Paris
Agreement. While under the Kyoto Protocol, only developed countries committed to quantified emission-
reduction targets, both developed and developing countries pledged voluntary climate targets under the Cancun
and Paris Agreements.

The parties to the convention have met annually from 1995 in Conferences of the Parties (COP) to assess
progress in dealing with climate change. In 1997, the Kyoto Protocol was concluded and established legally
binding obligations for developed countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions in the period 2008–2012.

The 2010 United Nations Climate Change Conference produced an agreement stating that future global warming
should be limited to below 2.0 °C (3.6 °F) relative to the pre-industrial level. The Protocol was amended in 2012
to encompass the period 2013–2020 in the Doha Amendment, which as of December 2015 had not entered into
force. In 2015 the Paris Agreement was adopted, governing emission reductions from 2020 on through
commitments of countries in Nationally Determined Contributions, lowering the target to 1.5 °C.

Ten years later, the World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD), also called Earth Summit 2002
informally nicknamed Rio+10 was held in Johannesburg, South Africa with the goal of again bringing together
leaders from government, business and NGOs to agree on a range of measures toward similar goals. At Rio+10,
sustainable development was recognized as an overarching goal for institutions at the national, regional and
international levels. Major outcomes of that conference include the Johannesburg Declaration and almost 300
international partnership initiatives meant to help achieve the Millennium Development Goals.

Twenty years later, the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD), also known as
Rio 2012, Rio+20 or Earth Summit 2012 was the third international conference on sustainable development.
Hosted by Brazil in Rio de Janeiro in 2012, it was a 20-year follow-up to the 1992 United Nations Conference
on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in the same city, and the 10th anniversary of the 2002 World
Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD) in Johannesburg. The outcome was the development of
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), a set of measurable targets aimed at promoting sustainable
development globally. It is thought that the SDGs will pick up where the Millennium Development Goals leave
off. Further the nations agreed to explore alternatives to GDP as a measure of wealth that take environmental
and social factors into account in an effort to assess and pay for 'environmental services' provided by nature,
such as carbon sequestration and habitat protection.

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Sustainable development can be defined as development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations.

Kyoto Protocol
The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the
scientific consensus that (a) global warming is occurring and (b) it is extremely likely that human-made CO2
emissions have predominantly caused it.
The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on 11 December 1997 and entered into force on 16 February
2005. There are currently 192 parties (Canada withdrew from the protocol, effective December 2012) to the
Protocol.
The Kyoto Protocol applies to the six greenhouse gases listed in Annex A: Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane
(CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and Sulphur hexafluoride
(SF6).
The Protocol is based on the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities: it acknowledges that
individual countries have different capabilities in combating climate change, owing to economic development,
and therefore puts the obligation to reduce current emissions on developed countries on the basis that they are
historically responsible for the current levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
The Protocol's first commitment period started in 2008 and ended in 2012 (up to 2020). A second commitment
period was agreed in 2012, known as the Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol. As of November 2018, 122
states have accepted the Doha Amendment, while entry into force requires the acceptances of 144 states (three
fourths members (0.75×192=144)

In Aug 2017, India ratified the second commitment period (2012-2020) of the Kyoto Protocol that commits
countries to contain the emission of greenhouse gases, reaffirming its stand on climate action.
Negotiations were held in the framework of the yearly UNFCCC Climate Change Conferences on measures to
be taken after the second commitment period ends in 2020. This resulted in the 2015 adoption of the Paris
Agreement, which is a separate instrument under the UNFCCC rather than an amendment of the Kyoto Protocol.

Paris Agreement
The Paris Agreement is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), dealing with greenhouse-gas-emissions mitigation, adaptation, and finance, starting in the year
2020.
As of November 2018, 195 UNFCCC members have signed the agreement, and 184 have become party to it.
The Paris Agreement's long-term goal is to keep the increase in global average temperature to well below 2 °C
above pre-industrial levels; and to limit the increase to 1.5 °C, since this would substantially reduce the risks and
effects of climate change.
Under the Paris Agreement, each country must determine, plan, and regularly report on the contribution that it
undertakes to mitigate global warming. No mechanism forces a country to set a specific target by a specific date,
but each target should go beyond previously set targets.
Contributions each individual country should make to achieve the worldwide goal are determined by all countries
individually and are called nationally determined contributions (NDCs). Article 3 requires them to be
"ambitious", "represent a progression over time" and set "with the view to achieve the purpose of this
Agreement". The contributions should be reported every 5 years and are to be registered by the UNFCCC
Secretariat. Each further ambition should be more ambitious than the previous one, known as the principle of
'progression'. Countries can cooperate and pool their nationally determined contributions.
The level of NDCs set by each country will set that country's targets. However the 'contributions' themselves are
not binding as a matter of international law. Furthermore, there will be no mechanism to force a country to set a
target in their NDC by a specific date and no enforcement if a set target in an NDC is not met. There will be only
a "name and shame" system.

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Nuclear Energy
In a process called nuclear fission, the nucleus of a heavy atom (such as uranium, plutonium or thorium), when
bombarded with low-energy neutrons, can be split apart into lighter nuclei. When this is done, a tremendous
amount of energy is released if the mass of the original nucleus is just a little more than the sum of the masses
of the individual products.
A nuclear reactor designed for electric power generation, such nuclear ‘fuel’ can be part of a selfsustaining
fission chain reaction that releases energy at a controlled rate. The released energy can be used to produce steam
and further generate electricity.

In a nuclear fission, the difference in mass, Δ m, between the original nucleus and the product nuclei gets
converted to energy E at a rate governed by the famous equation,
E= Δmc
It was first derived by Albert Einstein in 1905, where c is the speed of light in vacuum. In nuclear science, energy
is often expressed in units of electron volts (eV): 1 eV = 1.602 × 10 joules. It is easy to check from the above
equation that 1 atomic mass unit (u) is equivalent to about 931 mega electron volts (MeV) of energy.

Nuclear power reactors located at Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rana Pratap Sagar (Rajasthan), Kalpakkam (Tamil
Nadu), Narora (UP), Kakrapar (Gujarat) and Kaiga (Karnataka) have the installed capacity of less than 3% of
the total electricity generation capacity of our country.

The major hazard of nuclear power generation is the storage and disposal of spent or used fuels – the uranium
still decaying into harmful subatomic particles (radiations). Improper nuclear-waste storage and disposal result
in environmental contamination. Further, there is a risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation. The high cost
of installation of a nuclear power plant, high risk of environmental contamination and limited availability of
uranium makes large-scale use of nuclear energy prohibitive.

Currently all commercial nuclear reactors are based on nuclear fission. But there is another possibility of nuclear
energy generation by a safer process called nuclear fusion. Fusion means joining lighter nuclei to make a heavier
nucleus, most commonly hydrogen or hydrogen isotopes to create helium, such as
2
H + 2H →3He (+ n)
It releases a tremendous amount of energy, according to the Einstein equation, as the mass of the product is little
less than the sum of the masses of the original individual nuclei.

Such nuclear fusion reactions are the source of energy in the Sun and other stars. It takes considerable energy to
force the nuclei to fuse. The conditions needed for this process are extreme – millions of degrees of temperature
and millions of pascals of pressure.

The hydrogen bomb is based on thermonuclear fusion reaction. A nuclear bomb based on the fission of
uranium or plutonium is placed at the core of the hydrogen bomb. This nuclear bomb is embedded in a substance
which contains deuterium and lithium. When the nuclear bomb (based on fission) is detonated, the temperature
of this substance is raised to 10 K in a few microseconds. The high temperature generates sufficient energy for
the light nuclei to fuse and a devastating amount of energy is released.

Natural Hazards & Disaster Management


India, due to its unique geo-climatic and socio-economic conditions, is vulnerable, in varying degrees, to floods,
droughts, cyclones, tsunamis, earthquakes, urban flooding, landslides, avalanches and forest fires. Out of 36
States and Union Territories (UTs) in the country, 27 are disaster prone. 58.6% landmass is prone to earthquakes
of moderate to very high intensity; 12% land is prone to flood and river erosion; out of 7,516 km coastline, 5,700

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km is prone to cyclones and tsunamis; 68% of the cultivable land is vulnerable to drought, hilly areas are at risk
from landslides and avalanches, and 15% of landmass is prone to landslides. A total of 5,161 Urban Local Bodies
(ULBs) are prone to urban flooding. Fire incidents, industrial accidents and other manmade disasters involving
chemical, biological and radioactive materials are additional hazards, which have underscored the need for
strengthening mitigation, preparedness and response measures.

The list of Cyclones, which hit India, in recent years, is:


Phaillin- 2013 - Odisha
Lehar-2013- Andhra Pradesh
Madi- 2013- TN
Hudhud-2014 - Andhra Pradesh, Odisha
Kyant-2016- TN, Andhra Pradesh
Komen- 2015 - WB
Roanu-2016 - TN, WB
Nada- 2016- TN
Vardah- 2016- TN
Mora-2017- WB
Ockhi- 2017- TN
Gaja- 2018- TN, Andhra Pradesh
Titli- 2018- Odisha, Andhra Pradesh
Sagar, Phethai and Mekunu - 2018- Odisha, Andhra Pradesh
Fani- 2019- Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, WB
Vayu- 2019- Gujarat

The 1999 Orissa cyclone (named BOB 06) is the strongest storm to hit the Indian coast, as well as the strongest
in the basin till date, with a minimum central pressure of 912 mbar (26.93 inHg). The cyclones are measured in
mbar.

The United Nation International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (UNISDR, 2009) defines disaster as:
“A serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society involving widespread human, material,
economic or environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of the affected community or society
to cope using its own resources.”

The Disaster Management Act, 2005 uses the following definition for disaster:
“Disaster means a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence in any area, arising from natural or
manmade causes, or by accident or negligence which results in substantial loss of life or human suffering or
damage to, and destruction of, property, or damage to, or degradation of, environment, and is of such a nature
or magnitude as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community of the affected area.”

The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (under which UNISDR is established) was created in
December 1999. The UNISDR is part of the United Nations Secretariat and its functions span the social,
economic, environmental as well as humanitarian fields. UNISDR supports the implementation, follow-up and
review of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction adopted by the Third UN World Conference
on Disaster Risk Reduction on 18 March 2015 in Sendai, Japan. The Sendai Framework is a 15-year voluntary,
non-binding agreement that maps out a broad, people-centred approach to disaster risk reduction, succeeding the
2005-2015 Hyogo Framework for Action.

Types of Disasters
Primarily disasters are triggered by natural hazards or human-induced, or result from a combination of both. In
particular, human-induced factors can greatly aggravate the adverse impacts of a natural disaster. Even at a larger

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development activities. The central and state governments will have to set up necessary institutional support for
enforcement, monitoring, and compliance.
5. Capacity Development
Capacity development is a theme in all the thematic areas for action. The Sendai Priority-2 (Strengthening DRR
governance to manage DR) and Priority-3 (Investing in DRR for resilience) are central to capacity development.
The capacity development includes training programs, curriculum development, large-scale awareness creation
efforts, and carrying out regular mock drills and disaster response exercises. The capability to implement,
enforce, and monitor various disaster mitigation measures has to be improved at all levels from the local to the
higher levels of governance. It is also strengthening the DRR governance at all levels to better manage risk and
to make the governance systems more responsive.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.) The Environment (Protection) Act was adopted (D) Russia


in the year ____ .
(A) 1982 6.) When did Montreal Protocol come into force?
(B) 1985 (A) 1982
(C) 1986 (B) 1985
(D) 1988 (C) 1987
(D) 1989
2.) United Nations Conference on Environment,
also termed as Earth Summit, was held in 1992 in 7.) Which of the following is not one of eight
which city? missions of National Action Plan on Climate
Change?
(A) Rio de Janeiro
(A) National Solar Mission
(B) Kyoto (B) National Mission for Enhanced Energy
(C) Stockholm Efficiency
(D) Copenhagen (C) National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
(D) All of the above
3.) According to IPCC, as per the Paris Agreement,
2015 the future global warming target of 8.) Cartagena Protocol came into force in the year
greenhouse gas emission was lowered from 2.0 °C ____.
(A) 1990
to ___ .
(B) 1993
(A) 1.0°C (C) 1995
(B) 1.25°C (D) 1997
(C) 1.5°C
(D) 1.75°C 9.) Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?
(A) Thermal power plants
4.) The Kyoto Protocol was adapted at which (B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
convention?
(D) Fertilizers
(A) United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) 1992 10.) The Disaster Risk Management Act was
(B) Convention on the Trans boundary Effects of implemented in year____.
Industrial Accidents (A) 2000
(C) Convention on Biological Diversity (B) 2002
(D) Third conference of the UNFCC in 1997 (C) 2005
(D) 2007
5.) Which country has opted out of Paris Agreement
on climate change in 2017? 11.) Which of the following areas is/are covered
(A) USA under planning framework for Disaster Risk
(B) Canada Reduction?
(C) Australia (A) Understanding Risk

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(B) Inter-Agency Coordination (C) 1990


(C) Investing in DRR – Structural Measures (D) 1992
(D) All of the above
17.) Which of the following is the largest source of
12.) March the following water pollution in major rivers of India?
Set – I (Pollution Type) (A) Untreated sewage
(a) Air (B) Agriculture run-off
(b) Land (C) Unregulated small scale industries
(c) Water (D) Religious practices
(d) Noise
Set – II (Source) 18.) In the recently launched Air Quality Index in
(i) Point and non – point source such as discharges India, which of the following pollutants is not
from industries etc. included?
(ii) Industries thermal power plants and motor (A) Carbon monoxide
vehicles emissions. (B) Fine particulate matter
(iii) Roadway, aircraft, industrial as well as high (C) Ozone
intensity sonar. (D) Chlorofluorocarbons
(iv) Over use of chemical fertilizers.
Options: 19.) Which of the following is a renewable natural
(a) (b) (c) (d) resource?
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (A) Geothermal
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) Nuclear power
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (C) Natural gas
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) Coal

13.) Which of the following provisions are directly 20.) Indian government’s target of producing power
covered in the Environment Protection Act, 1986? from biomass by the year 2022, is
(A) Protection and conservation of forest and (A) 50 GW
matters connected therewith (B) 25 GW
(B) Protection and safety of wild animals, birds, and (C) 15 GW
plants and for matters connected therewith (D) 10 GW
(C) Protection and improvement of quality
environment and preventing, controlling, and 21.) Indian government’s target for power
abating environmental pollution production from small hydro projects by the year
(D) Prevention and control of water pollution 2022 is
(A) 1 Giga-Watt
14.) Which of the following gases initiates a chain (B) 5 Giga-Watt
reaction that breaks-down ozone in the upper (C) 10 Giga-Watt
atmosphere? (D) 15 Giga-Watt
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Nitrogen Dioxide 22.) Which of the following phenomena is not a
(C) Hydrogen sulphide natural hazard?
(D) Chlorine (A) Wildfire
(B) Lightning
15.) In mega cities of India, the dominant source of (C) Landslide
air pollution is (D) Chemical contamination
(A) transport sector
(B) thermal power 23.) Which of the following is a meteorological
(C) municipal waste hazard?
(D) commercial sector (A) Avalanche
(B) Coastal erosion
16.) The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the (C) Landslide
year (D) Blizzard
(A) 1986
(B) 1988

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Part-C: Paper-1

remain unchanged, or if the claim remains unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater
frailty.

Inductive and Deductive Reasoning


Deductive Argument
A Deductive argument is one that attempts to follow a certain logical form such that if the premises are true,
the conclusion must be true.
If premises are True, it is IMPOSSIBLE for the conclusion to be FALSE. You will find that the sense of
Conclusion is Definitely, Certainly, Absolutely (there is 100% confidence that the Conclusion is True).
Consider Following example:
All people of India are Good Looking (Premises)
Rahim is Indian (Premises)
Therefore, Rahim is Good Looking (Conclusion)
In this example, whatever you do, but if Premises are True, we can say with 100 % confidence that, the
Conclusion will also be true.

Please note another thing. Initially we started with “All People of India” and then we concluded something
about “Rahim (one person). Thus Deductive Arguments always move from Universal Premises to Specific
Conclusion.

Another example can be:


All dolphins are kites (Premises)
All kites have kidneys (Premises)
Therefore, all dolphins have kidneys (Conclusion)

Another example can be:


All numbers ending in 0 is divisible by 10 (Premises)
The number 40 ends with a 0 (Premises)
So, it must be divisible by 10 (Conclusion)

Inductive arguments
An Inductive argument is such that if the premises are true, then the conclusion is “likely” to be true. Thus, we
do not have 100 % confidence in Conclusion but a Probability.
If premises are True, it is IMPROBABLE for the conclusion to be FALSE. You will find that the sense of
Conclusion is Probably, Reasonably, Possibly, most likely (but not 100% confidence that the Conclusion is
True).

Consider Following example:


My wife is Gujrati (Premises)
She has blond hair (Premises)
Therefore, everyone from Gujrat has blond hair (Conclusion)

In this example, the Conclusion may be true or may not be true. Thus these is Probabilistic element in
Conclusion.

Please note another thing. Initially we started with “My Wife” and then we concluded something about
“Everyone from Gujrat". Thus Inductive Arguments always move from Specific Premises to Universal
Conclusion.

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Part-C: Paper-1

Another example can be:


Mohan is Infosys employee (Premises)
He is happy (Premises)
All Infosys employees are happy (Conclusion)

We generally assess Deductive Arguments with Validity and Soundness and we assess Inductive Arguments
with Strength and Cogency.

Validity and Soundness of Deductive Arguments


An argument is VALID if the truth of the "Premises" logically guarantees the truth of the "Conclusion". It is
Impossible for the Premises to be true and the Conclusion to be False.

Consider following Argument:


Mohan owns either a Honda or a Maruti (Premises)
Mohan does not own a Honda (Premises)
Therefore, Mohan owns a Maruti (Conclusion)
In this case, it is impossible for Conclusion to be False. Therefore it is Valid Argument.

Now consider another example:


All basketballs are round (Premises)
The Earth is round (Premises)
Therefore, the Earth is a basketball (Conclusion)
In this case, although Premises are True, still the Conclusion is False. Hence, it is Invalid Argument.

Important:
1. If Conclusion is False and we still see that all Premises are True, then it will necessarily be Invalid
Argument.
2. If Conclusion is True and Premises are True, it can be both Valid or Invalid Argument.
3. If Conclusion is False and Premises are False, it can be both Valid or Invalid Argument.
4. If Conclusion is True and Premises are False, it can be both Valid or Invalid Argument.

An argument is Sound if it is not only Valid, but begins with premises that are actually True.

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Part-C: Paper-1

Consider Following example:


No convicted criminals are eligible to vote (Premises)
Some murderers are convicted criminals (Premises)
Therefore, some murderers are not eligible to vote (Conclusion)
This Argument is Sound because not only it is Valid, but also, its Premises are True.

Now Consider another example:


All dogs are green (Premises)
Anything that is green is a fish (Premises)
Therefore, all dogs are fish (Conclusion)
Although, this is Valid but its Premises are not True (Dogs can not be Green in real world). Hence this is
Unsound Argument.

Important:
1. All Invalid arguments are always Unsound.
You can consider Validity to be passing class 10th exam and Soundness is like passing class 12th exam. Since
someone failing class 10th can not be considered for exam of class 12th, similarly, if Argument is Invalid, there
is no logic of checking Soundness (It will always be Unsound)

Strength and Cogency of Inductive Arguments


Remember that Inductive Reasoning is the Reasoning of Probability.
A Strong Inductive argument is such that that it is Improbable that the premises are true and the conclusion is
false. Conclusion Probably follows the Premises.
Conversely, a Weak Inductive argument is such that the conclusion does not follow probably from the
premises, even though it is claimed to.

Consider following example:


Most Chinese people have dark hair.
Reena is Chinese.
Therefore, Reena has dark hair.
This is example of Strong Argument, because the Conclusion Probably follows.

Consider another example:


When a lighted match is put into water, the flame is snuffed out.
Gasoline is a liquid, just like water.
Therefore, when a lighted match is slowly put into gasoline, the flame will be snuffed out.
This is example of Weak Argument, as the Conclusion probably does not follow.

For an argument to be Cogent, two conditions apply: (i) It is Strong and (ii) Premises are True. If Both
Conditions are not met, the it is Uncogent argument.

Consider following example:


Most Chinese people have Yellow hair.
Reena is Chinese.
Therefore, Reena has Yellow hair.
Although this is Strong Argument, but it is Uncogent, because Premises are not True (People can not have
Chinese Hair)

Consider following example:


Most Chinese people have black hair.

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Part-C: Paper-1

Reena is Chinese.
Therefore, Reena has black hair.
This is both Strong and Cogent Argument.

Important:
1. A Weak argument cannot be cogent. It will always be Uncogent.
You can consider Strength to be passing class 10th exam and Cogency is like passing class 12th exam. Since
someone failing class 10th can not be considered for exam of class 12th, similarly, if Argument is Weak, there
is no logic of checking Cogency (It will always be Uncogent)

Thus, we understand that:


Deductive Arguments are Valid/Invalid or Sound/Unsound.
Inductive Arguments are Strong/Weak or Cogent/UnCogent.

Square of Opposition
The square of opposition is a chart that represents the logical relationships holding between certain propositions
in virtue of their form.

The four corners of this chart represent the four basic forms of propositions recognized in classical logic.
A propositions, or Universal Affirmatives take the form: All S are P.
E propositions, or Universal Negations take the form: No S are P.

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Part-C: Paper-1

I propositions, or Particular Affirmatives take the form: Some S are P.


O propositions, or Particular Negations take the form: Some S are not P.

The square holds the following assumptions:


1.) A and O propositions are contradictory, and E and I propositions contradictory
Propositions are contradictory when the truth of one implies the falsity of the other, and vice-versa. Here we see
that the truth of a proposition of the form All S are P implies the falsity of the corresponding proposition of the
form Some S are not P.

For example, if the proposition "all birds are eagles" (A) is true, then the proposition "some birds are not eagles"
(O) must be false. Similarly, if "no cats are white" (E) is false, then the proposition "some cats are white" must
be true.

2.) A and E propositions are contrary


Propositions are contrary when they cannot both be true.
For example, an A proposition "all elephants have long trunks" cannot be true at the same time as the
corresponding E proposition "no elephants have long trunks."

However, A and E propositions, while contrary, are not contradictory. That is to say, while they cannot both be
true, they can both be false
For example, "all factories produce pollution" and "no factory produces pollution."

3.) I and O propositions are subcontrary


Propositions are subcontrary when it is impossible for both to be false. For example, if "some tickets are free" is
false, "some tickets are not free" must be true.

However, it is possible for corresponding I and O propositions both to be true, as with "some politicians are
communists," and "some politicians are not communists." Again, I and O propositions are subcontrary, but not
contrary or contradictory.

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Part-C: Paper-1

Increasing intension: animal, mammal, feline, tiger


Increasing extension: tiger, feline, mammal, animal
Decreasing intension: tiger, feline, mammal, animal
Decreasing extension: animal, mammal, feline, tiger

The order of increasing intension is usually the same as that of decreasing extension. Conversely, the order of
decreasing intension is usually the same as that of increasing extension.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.) In case of ___________ if premises are True, it


is IMPOSSIBLE for the conclusion to be FALSE. 5.) Consider following about categorical
In case of _______ If premises are True, it is Syllogism.
IMPROBABLE for the conclusion to be FALSE. (i) There are 3 Propositions
(A) Inductive Arguments, Deductive Arguments (ii) There are 3 terms, each appearing twice
(B) Deductive Arguments, Inductive Arguments (iii) The Subject “S” and the Predicate “P” are
(C) Circular Arguments, Hypothetical Arguments always in Conclusion
(D) Hypothetical Arguments, Circular Arguments (iv) First Premises is Major
(v) Second Premises is Minor
2.) Which of the following is incorrect about (vi) Subject of Conclusion- Minor Premises
Validity of Deductive Arguments? (vii) Predicate of Conclusion- Major Premises
(A) An argument is VALID if the truth of the (viii) Remaining two are called Middle Terms “M”
Premises logically guarantees the truth of the Which of the following are not true about
Conclusion. Categorical Syllogism?
(B) In case of valid Argument, it is impossible for (A) (ii) only
the Premises to be true and the Conclusion to be (B) (iv) and (v) only
false. (C) (iii) only
(C) If Conclusion is False (in case of Valid (D) None of statements is not true
Argument), then at least one of Premises has to be
necessarily False. 6.) Consider following categorical Syllogism.
(D) None of above No Pen use Lead
Cats are Pen
3.) Consider following statements. No Cats use Lead
Statement I- The Inductive Arguments are Which of the following is not correct?
Valid/Invalid or Sound/Unsound. (A) Pen is Middle Term
Statement II- The Deductive Arguments are (B) Cat is Subject
Strong/Weak or Cogent/non-Cogent. (C) Lead is Predicate
Codes (D) None of statements is not correct
(A) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
correct 7.) Match the Following
(B) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is List - I
incorrect (a) All Dogs are Yellow
(C) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is (b) Some Dogs are Yellow
correct (c) No Dogs are Yellow
(D) Statement I is correct and Statement II is (d) Some Dogs are not Yellow
incorrect List II
(i) Universal Negative- E
4.) Consider following argument. (ii) Universal Affirmative- A
Some Men are not Green. (iii) Particular Affirmative- I
Which of the following is incorrect? (iv) Particular Negative- O
(A) In this Argument, "Some" is Quantifier. Codes
(B) In this Argument, "Men" is Subject. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) In this Argument, "are not" is Predicate (A) (a) (c) (b) (d)
(D) None of above (B) (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Part-C: Paper-1

(C) (b) (a) (d) (c) 12.) Identify the type of fallacy from given
(D) (c) (a) (b) (d) example.
If I am in Patna, then I am in India. I am in India,
8.) What is Mood of following categorical therefore I am in Patna.
syllogism? (A) Exclusive Premises
No Birds are Mammals (B) Denying the Antecedent
All Dogs are Mammals (C) Affirming the Consequent
No Dogs are Birds (D) None of above
Codes
(A) EIO 13.) Identify the type of fallacy from given
(B) EAE example.
(C) AEI All Londoners are Indian. No Biharis are
(D) AEO Londoners. Therefore no Biharis are Indian.
(A) Illicit Minor
9.) What is the Figure of following categorical (B) Denying the Antecedent
Syllogism? (C) Affirming the Consequent
Some Kites are Men (D) Illicit Major
All Men are Flags
Some Flags are Kites 14.) The Red Herring Fallacy is also called
Codes: (A) Petito principii
(A) First Figure (B) Ad Baculum
(B) Second Figure (C) Ignoratio Elenchi
(C) Third Figure (D) Ad hominem
(D) Fourth Figure
15.) "Have you stopped beating your wife?" is an
10.) What is the Mood and Figure of following example of:
categorical Syllogism? (A) Suppressed Evidence Fallacy
No dog is a bird. (B) False Dichotomy Fallacy
All birds are winged. (C) Complex Question Fallacy
Some winged animals are not dogs. (D) Begging the Question Fallacy
Codes:
(A) AEI-2 16.) A "Cat" is something, which has 4 legs, moves
(B) AEI-4 in certain way, emit certain sounds. This is
(C) EAO-4 __________ definition.
(D) EAO-2 (A) Connotation
(B) Intensional
11.) Consider following statements. (C) Denotation
Statement I- A formal fallacy is one that may be (D) Both A and B
identified through mere inspection of the form or
structure of an argument. Fallacies of this kind are 17.) Consider following statements.
found only in deductive arguments. Statement I- Leader connotes Nandan Nilekani,
Statement II- Informal fallacies are those that can Ratan Tata, Narayan Murthy
be detected only through analysis of the content of Statement II- Leader denotes passionate, creative,
the argument. imaginative.
Codes: Codes
(A) Statement I is correct and Statement II is (A) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
correct correct
(B) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is (B) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
incorrect incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is (C) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
correct correct
(D) Statement I is correct and Statement II is (D) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
incorrect incorrect

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Part-C: Paper-1

18.) Identify the reasoning in the following (A) Truth of one proposition rejects the falsity of the
argument: other and vice versa.
“A person without a goal is like a computer without (B) Truth of one proposition doesn’t guarantee the
a program”. falsity of the other.
(A) Hypothetical (C) Truth of one proposition supposes the falsity of
(B) Analogical the other and vice versa.
(C) Inductive (D) Truth of one proposition implies falsity of the
(D) Deductive other and vice versa.

19.) The reasoning which would be helpful in 25.) Among the following statements, two are
seeking new knowledge of facts is : contradictory to each other.
(A) Inductive Statements:
(B) Demonstrative (a) All men are humans.
(C) Deductive (b) Some men are humans.
(D) Speculative (c) Some men are not humans.
(d) No men are humans.
20.) Which of the following statements are correct Select the code that represents them:
with regard to the ‘truth and validity’ in logically (A) (a) and (b)
reasoning. Select the correct code from the below: (B) (a) and (c)
(a) Truth and falsity are attributes of individual (C) (b) and (c)
propositions. (D) (a) and (d)
(b) Validity and invalidity are attributes of
individual propositions. 26.) Among the following there are two statements
(c) Truth and falsity are attributes of arguments. which can’t be true together, but can be false
(d) Validity and invalidity are attributes of together. Select the code that represents them.
arguments Statements:
(A) (a) and (c) (a) All poets are dreamers.
(B) (a) and (d) (b) No poets are dreamers.
(C) (a) and (b) (c) Some poets are dreamers.
(D) (b) and (d) (d) Some poets are not dreamers.
Codes
21.) Reasoning from a specific case to a general (A) (b) and (d)
conclusion is known as: (B) (a) and (d)
(A) Deductive logic (C) (c) and (d)
(B) Inductive logic (D) (a) and (b)
(C) Theoretical logic
(D) Scientific logic 27.) If two propositions are connected in such a way
that they cannot both be false although they may
22.) The argument which claims that its conclusion both be true, then their relationship is called:
is supported by its premises conclusively is: (A) Contradictory
(A) Deductive argument (B) Sub-Contrary
(B) Demonstrative argument (C) Contrary
(C) Analogical argument (D) Sub-Alterns
(D) Inductive argument
28.) Among the following propositions, two are
23.) A deductive argument is invalid if: related in such a way that both of them together
(A) Its premises and conclusions are all false. cannot be false although they may both be true.
(B) Its premises are all true but its conclusion is (a) All Books are Pen
false. (b) Some Books are Pen
(C) Its premises are all false but its conclusion is (c) No Books are Pen
true. (d) Some Books are not Pen
(D) Its premises and conclusions are all true. Codes
(A) (c) and (d)
24.) Two propositions are contradictory when, (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c)

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