JEE-MAINS (2019 NTA) Exam Date :02-04-19

Time : 3:00 Max. Marks : 360

INSTRUCTIONS:
1). There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Mathematics & Chemistry
having 30 questions in eachh part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for
each correct response.

2). Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer
sheet.

3) There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction

PHYSICS
1. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.20. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 10−3 ,
then the percentage change in volume is
1) +0.12 2) -0.12 3) +0.28 4) -0.28
2. A metal ring of initial radius r and cross-sectional area A is fitted onto a wooden disc of radius
R  r . If Young’s modulus of the metal is Y then the tension in the ring is
AYR AY ( R − r ) Y  R−r  Yr
1) 2) 3)   4)
r r A r  AR
3. The specific gravity of ice is 0.9. The area of the smallest slab of ice of height 0.5m, floating in
fresh water, that will just support a 100 kg man is
1) 1.5m 2 2) 2.0m2 3) 3.0 m2 4) 4.0 m2
4. A u – Tube is partialy filled with water. Oil, which does not mix with water, is next poured into
one side until water rises on the other side by 25 cm. If the density of oil is 0.8, the oil level will
stand higher than the water level by
1) 6.25 cm 2) 12.50 cm 3) 31.75 cm 4) 62.50 cm
5. A sphere has a hollow portion which is one-third of its total volume. It floats in water with four-
fifth of its volume immersed. The specific gravity of its material is
1) 0.9 2) 1.2 3) 1.8 4) 2.4
6. An ideal fluid is flowing in a tube of varying cross-section. At some point the radius of the tube
r
is r and the velocity of flow is v . The velocity of flow at another point, where the radius is ,
2
is
v v
1) 2) 3) 2v 4) 4v
4 2
7. A large tank, filled with water to a height h , is to be emptied through a small hole at the bottom.
h
The ratio of the time taken for the level to fall from h to and that taken for the level to fall
2
h
from to 0 is
2

1
 1 1
1) 2 2) 3) 2 − 1 4)
2 2 −1
8. Two capillary tubes of the same length and radii r1 and r2 are fitted horizontally side by side to
the bottom of a vessel containing water. The radius of a single tube that can replace the two
tubes such that the rate of steady flow through this tube equals the combined rate of flow through
the two tubes, is
1) r1 + r2 2) r1r2 (
3) r1 + r2
2
)
2 1/ 2
(
4) r1 + r2
4
)
4 1/ 4

9. Two small spherical drops having radii in the r atio 1 : 2 fall from a great height through the
atmosphere. Their momenta on reaching the earth are in the ratio
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 8 3) 1 : 16 4) 1 : 32
10. A large open top container of negligible mass and uniform cross-sectional area A has a small hole
of cross-sectional area a in its side wall near the bottom. The container is kept over a smooth
horizontal floor and contains a liquid of density  and mass m0 . Assuming that the liquid starts
flowing through the hole, the acceleration of the container will be
2ag ag 2Ag
1) 2) 3)
A A a
ag
4) initial acceleration is which increases with time
A
11. The rate of steady volume flow of water through a capillary tube of length l and radius r , under
a pressure difference p , is V . What is the rate of steady flow through a series combination of
this tube with another tube of the same length and half the radius if the same pressure difference
p is maintained across the combination ?
V V 16V 17V
1) 2) 3) 4)
16 17 17 16
12. An incompressible liquid travels as shown in figure. The speed of the fluid in the lower branch
will be

1) 1 ms −1 2) 1.5 ms −1 3) 2.25 ms −1 4) 3 ms −1
13. A soap bubble of radius r1 and another soap bubble of radius r2 (  r1 ) are brought together so that
they have a common interface. The radius of the interface is
r1r2
1) r2 − r1 2) 2 ( r2 − r1 ) 3) r2 + r1 4)
r2 − r1

14. Two pendulums of lengths 1m and 16m are in phase at mean position at a certain instant of time.
If T is time period of shorter pendulum, the minimum time after which they will again be in
phase is
T 2T 4T 8T
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
15. A particle executing S.H.M. of period 4s. Then the time taken by it to move from the mean
position to half the amplitude starting from the mean position

2
 1 1 2
1) s 2) s 3) s 4) 4s
3 2 3
16. One end of a spring of force constant K is fixed to a vertical wall and other to a body of mass m
resting on a smooth horizontal surface. There is another wall at a distance x0 from the body.
The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and released. The time taken to string the wall from its
compressed position is

4 m 5 m 1 m 2 m
1)  2)  3)  4) 
3 K 6 K 6 K 3 K
17. Two metallic spheres P and Q of the same surface finish are taken. Weight of P is twice that of Q.
Both the spheres are heated to the same temperature and are left in a room to cool by radiation.
The ratio of the rate cooling of P to that of Q is
1 1
1) 1: 2 2) 2 :1 3) 1: ( 2 ) 3 3
4) 2 :1
18. A mass m is suspended with a massless inextensible string. The other end of string in connected
to a rigid floor. If pulley suspended by a spring of force constant K and mass is allowed to
vibrate, then frequency of vibration of mass will be

m m m m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4 4) 
K 2K K K
19. A person speaking normally produces a sound intensity of 40 dB at a distance of 1 m. If the
threshold intensity for reasonable audibility is 20 dB, the maximum distance at which he can be
heard clearly is
1) 4m 2) 5 m 3) 10 m 4) 20 m
20. Two loudspeakers L1 and L2 , driven by a common oscillator and amplifier, are arranged as
shown. The frequency of the oscillator is gradually increased from zero and the detector at D
records a series of maxima and minima. If the speed of sound is 330 ms −1 then the frequency at
which the first maximum is observed is

1) 165 Hz 2) 330 Hz 3) 495 Hz 4) 660 Hz

−1
21. A wave of frequency 500 Hz has a velocity 360 ms . The distance between two nearest points
which are 600 out of phase, is
1) 0.7 cm 2) 12 cm 3) 70 cm 4) 120 cm
22. The end A of rod AB of length 1 m is maintained at 80 C and the end B at 0 0C . The
0

temperature at a distance of 60 cm from the end A is

3
 1) 16 0C 2) 32 0C 3) 48 0C 4) 64 0C
23. A string under a tension of 100 N, emitting its fundamental note, gives 5 bps with a tuning fork.
When the tension is increased to 121 N, again 5 beats per second are heard. The frequency of the
fork is
1) 105 N 2) 95 N 3) 210 N 4) 190 N
24. A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz is vibrated just above a cylindrical tube of length 120 cm.
Water is slowly poured in the tube. If the speed of sound in air is 340 ms −1 , then the minimum
height of water required for resonanace is
1) 25 cm 2) 45 cm 3) 75cm 4) 95 cm
 x 
25. A transverse wave is described by the equation y = y0 sin 2  ft −  . The maximum particle
 
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if
y y
1)  = 0 2)  = 0 3)  =  y0 4)  = 2 y0
4 2
26. An ideal gas is taken through A → B → C → A , as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to
the gas in the cycle is 5J, the work done by the gas in the process C → A is

1) -5J 2) -10 J 3) -15 J 4) -20 J

27. 70 calorie of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2 mole of an ideal gas at constant
pressure from 400 C to 450 C . The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the same
gas through the same range at constant volume is
1) 90 calorie 2) 70 calorie 3) 50 calorie 4) 30 calorie

28. A monatomic gas expands at constant pressure on heating. The percentage of heat supplied that
increases the internal energy of the gas and that is involved in the expansion is
1) 75%, 25% 2) 25%, 75% 3) 60%, 40% 4) 40%, 60%
29. Two rods of the same mateiral have diameters in the ratio 1 : 2 and length in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
temperature difference between their ends is the same, the ratio of the heats conducted by them in
a given time is
1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 8 4) 8 : 1
30. The slab consists of two layers of different materials of the same thickness joined in series and
having thermal conductivities K1 and K 2 . The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is
K1 K 2 2K1 K 2
1) K1 + K 2 2) 3) K1 K 2 4)
K1 + K 2 K1 + K 2
MATHEMATICS
31. Let A ( 2, −3) and B ( −2,1) be vertices of a triangle ABC. If the centroid of the triangle moves
on the line 2 x + 3 y = 1 , then the locus of the vertex C is the line:
1) 2 x + 3 y = 9 2) 2 x − 3 y = 7 3) 3x + 2 y = 5 4) 3x − 2 y = 3

4
 x y
32. The line L given by + = 1 passes through the point (13, 32 ) . The line K is parallel to L and
5 b
x y
has the equation + = 1 . Then the distance between L and K is:
c 3
23 23 17
1) 2) 3) 17 4)
17 15 15
The lines p ( p 2 + 1) x − y + q = 0 & p ( p 2 + 1) x + ( p 2 + 1) y + 2q = 0 are perpendicular to a
2
33.
common line for:
1) exactly one value of p 2) exactly two values of p
3) more than two values of p 4) no value of p
34. If one of the diameters of the circle S = x + y 2 − 2 x − 6 y + 6 = 0 is the common chord to the
2

circle C with centre (2, 1), then the radius of the circle is:
1) 1 2) 3 3) 3 4) 2
35. If the lines 2 x + 3 y + 1 = 0 and 3x − y − 4 = 0 lie along diameters of a circle of circumference
10 , then equation of the circle is:
1) x 2 + y 2 − 2 x + 2 y − 23 = 0 2) x 2 + y 2 − 2 x − 2 y − 23 = 0
3) x2 + y 2 + 2 x + 2 y − 23 = 0 4) x 2 + y 2 + 2 x − 2 y − 23 = 0
36. If P and Q are the points of intersection of the circles x2 + y 2 + 3x + 7 y + 2 p − 5 = 0 and
x2 + y 2 + 2 x + 2 y − p 2 = 0 , then there is a circle passing through P, Q and (1, 1) for :
1) all except one value of p 2) all except two values of p
3) exactly one value of p 4) all values of p
37. Three distinct points A, B and C are given in the 2-dimensional coordinate plane such that the
ratio of the distance of any one of them from the point (1, 0) to the distance from the point (-1, 0)
1
is equal to . Then the circumcentre of the triangle ABC is at the point:
3
5  5  5 
1)  , 0  2)  , 0  3)  , 0  4) ( 0, 0 )
4  2  3 
38. The shortest distance between line y − x = 1 and curve x = y 2 is:
3 3 2 8 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 8 3 2 3
39. Let ( x, y ) be any point on the parabola y = 4 x . Let P be the point that divides the line
2

segment from (0, 0) to ( x, y ) in the ratio 1 : 3. Then the locus of P is:

1) x2 = y 2) y 2 = 2 x 3) y 2 = x 4) x 2 = 2 y
40. The radius of the circle passing through the foci of the ellipse x2 /16 + y 2 / 9 = 1 , having its centre
at (0, 3) is:
1) 4 2) 3 3) 12 4) 7 / 2
1
41. A focus of an ellipse is at the origin. The directrix is the line x = 4 and the eccentricity is .
2
Then the length of the semi major axis is:
5 8 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
42. The normal at a point P on the ellipse x + 4 y = 16 meets the x-axis at Q. If M is the mid-point
2 2

of the line segment PQ, then the locus of M intersects the latusrectums of the given ellipse at the
points:

5
  3 5 2  3 5 19   1  4 3
1)   ,   2)   ,  3)  2 3,   4)  2 3,  
 2 7  2 4   7  7 
43. Let P ( a sec , b tan  ) and Q ( a sec  , b tan  ) , where  +  =  / 2 , be two points on the
hyperbola x2 / a 2 − y 2 / b2 = 1 . If ( h, k ) is the point of intersection of the normals at P and Q,
then k is equal to :
1) ( a 2 + b 2 ) / a 2) − ( a 2 + b 2 ) / a 3) ( a 2 + b 2 ) / b 4) − ( a 2 + b 2 ) / b
44. If the pair of lines ax 2 + 2 ( a + b ) xy + by 2 = 0 lie along diameters of a circle and divide the circle
into four sectors such that the area of one of the sectors is thrice the area of another sector, then:
1) 3a 2 − 2ab + 3b 2 = 0 2) 3a 2 − 10ab + 3b 2 = 0 3) 3a 2 + 2ab + 3b2 = 0 4) 3a 2 + 10ab + 3b 2 = 0
45. Consider a branch of the hyperbola x 2 − 2 y 2 − 2 2 x − 4 2 y − 6 = 0 with vertex at the point A.
Let B be one of the end points of its latus rectum. If C is the focus of the hyperbola nearest to the
point A, then the area of the triangle ABC is:
2 3 2 3
1) 1 − 2) −1 3) 1 + 4) +1
3 2 3 2
If Z is an idempotent matrix, then ( I + Z )
n
46.
1) I + 2n Z 2) I + ( 2n − 1) Z 3) I − ( 2n − 1) Z 4) None of these
47. If A is order 3 square matrix such that A = 2 , then adj ( adj ( adjA ) ) is
1) 512 2) 256 3) 64 4) None of these
1+ x
48. Let f ( x ) = . If A is matrix for which A3 = 0 , then f ( A) is
1− x
1) I + A + A2 2) I + 2 A + 2 A2 3) I − A − A2 4) None of these
 2 1 3 4  3 −4 
49. Consider three matrices A =   ,B=  , and C =   . Then the value of the sum
 4 1 2 3  −2 3 
 ABC   A ( BC )2   A ( BC )3 
tr ( A ) + tr   + tr   + tr   + ..... +  is
 2  4   8 
   
1) 6 2) 9 3) 12 4) None
 x 3 2
50. Given that matrix A =  1 y 4  . If xyz = 60 and 8 x + 4 y + 3z = 20 , then A ( adj A) is equal to
 2 2 z 
64 0 0  88 0 0  68 0 0  34 0 0 

1)  0 64 0   
2)  0 88 0   
3)  0 68 0   4)  0 34 0 
 0 0 64   0 0 88  0 0 68  0 0 34 
51. If   denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to the real number under consideration, and
 x  + 1  y   z 
 
−1  x  0, 0  y  1, 1  z  2 , then the value of the determinant   x   y  + 1  z   is
  x   y   z  + 1
1)  x  2)  y  3)  z  4) None of these
a 2 + a 2 n +1 + 2 p b 2 + 2n + 2 + 3q c 2 + p
52. If p, q, r are in A.P., then the value of determinant 2n + p 2n +1 + q 2q is
a 2 + 2n + p b 2 + 2n +1 + 2q c 2 − r
1) 1 2) 0 3) a 2b 2 c 2 − 2n 4) ( a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ) − 2n q
6
 a2 d2 x
53. If a, b, c, d , e and f are in G.P., then the value of b 2 e2 y depends on
c2 f2 z
1) x and y 2) x and z 3) y and z 4) independent of x, y and z
1 1 1
m m +1 m+2
54. The value of the determinant C1 C1 C1 is equal to
m m +1 m+2
C1 C2 C2
1) 1 2) -1 3) 0 4) none of these
n n+2 2n
x x x
55. If 1 xa a = 0, x  R, , where n  N ,s then value of a is
x n +5 x a +6 x 2 n +5

1) n 2) n − 1 3) n + 1 4) None of these
b+c c+a a +b a b c
56. If a + b b + c c + a = k c a b , then the value of k is
c+a a +b b+c b c a
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3
4) 4
a b ax + b
57. If a  0 and discriminant of ax + 2bx + c is negative, then  = b
2
c bx + c is
ax + b bx + c 0
2) ( ac − b ) ( ax 2 + 2bx + c ) 3) Negative
2
1) Positive 4) 0
log an log an +1 log an + 2
58. If a1 , a2 ,.....an ,..... form a G.P. and ai  0, for all i  1 , then log an +3 log an + 4 log an +5 is equal
log an + 6 log an + 7 log an +8
to
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

e2iA e−iC e−iB

59. If A, B, C are angles of a triangle, then the value of e−iC e2iB e −iA is
e−iB e−iA e2iC
1) 1 2) -1 3) -2 4) -4
2r − 1 m
Cr 1
60. Let m be a positive integer and  r = m2 − 1 2m m +1 (0  r  m) . Then the
sin 2 ( m2 ) sin 2 ( m ) sin 2 ( m + 1)
m
value of 
r =0
r is given by

1) 0 2) m2 − 1 3) 2m 4) 2m sin 2 ( 2m )

CHEMISTRY
61. According to Bohr’s atomic theory, which of the following is correct?
Z2
1) Potential energy of electron 
n2

7
 2) The product of velocity of electron and principle quantum number ( n )  Z 2
Z2
3) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit  3
n
Z2
4) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron  2
n
62. The ionization potential for the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV
atom −1 . What would be the ionization potential for the electron in the first excited state of Li +2 ?
1) 3.4 eV 2) 10.2 eV 3) 30.6 eV 4) 6.8 eV
63. For which of the following sets of quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest energy?
n l m s n l m s
1) 3 2 1 − 1/ 2 2) 4 3 −1 + 1/ 2
3) 4 1 −1 + 1/ 2 4) 5 0 0 − 1/ 2
64. Which of the following orbitals has two spherical nodes?
1) 2s 2) 4s 3) 3d 4) 6f
65. A sample of liquid in a thermally insulated container (a calorimeter) is stirred for 2 hr. by a
mechanical linkage to a motor in the surrounding, for this process:
1) w  0; q = 0; U = 0 2) w  0; q  0; U  0
3) w  0; q  0; U = 0 4) w  0; q = 0; U  0
66. An ideal gas expand against a constant external pressure at 2.0 atmosphere from 20 litre to 40
litre and absorb 10 kJ of energy from surrounding. What is the change in internal energy of the
system? ( Given :1 atm-litre=101.3 J)
1) 4052 J 2) 5948 J 3) 14052 J 4) zero
67. 10 mole of ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 1 atm at
300 K. What is the largest mass which can lifted through a height of 100 meter?
1) 31842 kg 2) 58.55 kg 3) 342.58 kg 4) None of these

68. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in P-V diagram for an ideal gas. Which of the following
diagram represents the same process?

1) 2) 3) 4)
69. Sodium hydroxide is produced on a large scale:
1) by the hydrolysis of Na2CO3
2) by the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl using a mercury cathode cell
3) by adding water to sodium oxide
4) by reacting sodium with water
70. The thermal stability of BaCO3 , CaCO3 , SrCO3 and MgCO3 decreases in the order:

8
 1) BaCO3  SrCO3  MgCO3  CaCO3 2) CaCO3  SrCO3  MgCO3  BaCO3
3) MgCO3  CaCO3  SrCO3  BaCO3 4) BaCO3  SrCO3  CaCO3  MgCO3
71. Plaster of pairs when mixed with the correct amount of water sets into a solid mass due to the
formation of :
1) CaSO4 2) ( CaSO4 )2 .H 2O 3) CaSO4 .2 H 2O 4) CaO
72. Which of the following compounds does not have similarity in their structural aspect?
1) FeSO4 .7 H 2O 2) Na2CO3 .7 H 2O 3) MgSO .7 H 2O 4) ZnSO4 .7 H 2O
73. The TLV values of four pollutants A, B,C and D are 9ppm, 10ppm, 100ppm and 500ppm
respectively. The most toxic is
1) A 2) B 3) C 4)D
74. The following are some statements about Eutrophication
I) It is mainly due to the organic wastes from agricultur and industry
II) It is over growth of algae and fungi in the ponds or lakes
III) Hydrogen substituted compounds are used in place are used in place of CFCS
1) I, II 2) II, III 3) I, III 4) I, II, III
75. LIST-I LIST-II
A. TLV 1. Oxygen required to oxidise organic substance presents in polluted water.
B. COD 2. Oxygen used by microoriganisms presents in water for 5 days
C. DO 3. O2 present in water is in dissolved state.
D.BOD 4. Permissible level of pollutant that can present in a mine.
5. O2 that is present in atmosphere
The correct match is
A B C D A B C D
1) 2 3 5 1 2) 3 4 2 5
3) 4 1 3 2 4) 1 2 3 4

76. A compound “X” of the formula C3 H8O gives iodoform test. On oxidation with acidified
K2Cr2O7 , X gave Y. Y also gives iodoform test. Then X and Y are
1) CH3CH 2CH 2OH , CH 3CH 2CHO 2) CH3CHOHCH , CH3COCH3
3) CH3CH 2CHO, CH3CH 2CH 2OH 4) CH3COCH3 , CH3CHOHCH3
77. Assertion (A):Dehydration of alcohols can be carried out with Conc H 2 SO4 is dibasic whileHCl
is monobasic
Reason (R): H 2 SO4 is dibasic while HCl is monobasic.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation to A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation to A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
78. The reaction

is Known as
1) Wurtz reaction
2) Kolbe reaction
3) Rimer-Tiemann reaction
9
 4) Schotten-Baumann reaction
79. When phenol reacts with chloroform and an alkali, the compounds formed is salicyladehyde. If
pyrene is used in place of chloroform, the product obtained is
1) Salicylic acid 2) Salicylaldehyde 3) Phenaphthalein 4) Cyclo hexanol
80.

x and y are
1) x = LiAlH 4 , y = NaBH 4 2) LiAlH 4 / AlCl3 , y = LiAlH 4
3) LiAlH 4 , y = LiAlH 4 / AlCl3 4) x = H 2 / Ni, y = H 2 / pt
81. What are the products of the following crossed cannizaro reactions

1) 2)

3) 4)
82. The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to compound A-D is
A) HCHO B) CH3COCH3 C) PhCOCH3 D) PhCOPh
1) A < B < C < D 2) D< B < C< A 3) D< C < B < A 4) C<D < B < A
83.

A bove conversion can be achieved by :

1. Wolf-Kishner-reduction
2. Clemmensen reduction
3. HS − CH 2 − CH 2 − SH , following by raney Ni
4. None of these

10
84.
Product of the Clemmensen reduction is ;

1) 2) 3) 4)
85. Which statement about the aldol condensation is correct ?
1) A Lewis acid is commonly used as a catalyst
2) The initial step is probably the formation of a carbanion
3) A Lewis base is employed to induce carbocation formation
4) The carbon chain lengthened through the elimination of 1 mole of water
86. Order of decreasing acidity of
I) HCOOH II) CH3COOH III) Cl2 CHCOOH IV) CF3COOH is
1) IV>III>II>I 2) IV>III>I>II 3) III>IV>II>I 4) I>IV>II>III

87. Which acid has lowest value of pKa ?

1) p – Methoxybenzoic acid 2) p – Chlorobenzoic acid
3) p – Aminobenzoic acid 4) p – Toluic acid
88. Which of the following is least reactive for nucleophilic substitution reaction?
1) CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − Br 2) CH 2 = CH − Br
3) C6 H5 − CH 2 − Br 4) C6 H5 − Br
89. For the given reaction
R − Cl + NaI ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Acetpone
→ R − I + Nacl
Which alkyl chloride will give maximum yield?
CH 3
|
1) CH 3 − C − Cl 2) CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − Cl
|
CH 3
CH 3
Ph − C − Cl |
3) | 4) Ph − C − Cl
CH 3 |
CH 3
90. An SN 2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always given?
1) an enantiomers of the substrate

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2) a product with opposite optical rotation
3) a mixture of diastereomers
4) A single diastereomer

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