LLT-IIT Date:04-04-2019

Time: 3 Hrs LT-IIT-PART TEST Max. Marks: 360

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four)
marks for each correct response.
2. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response is indicated for an
item in the answer sheet.
3. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per above instruction.

PHYSICS
1. The units of force, velocity and energy are 100 dyne, 10cm s-1and 500 erg respectively. The units of
mass are
1) 10gm 2) 5gm 3)15gm 4)20gm
2. A body with mass 1 Kg moves in one direction in the presence of a force which is described by the
potential energy graph. If the body is released from rest at x = 2m, than its speed when it crosses
x = 5 m is (Neglect dissipative forces)
10
8
U(Joule)

P = 3.5 m
6
Q = 4.5 m
4
2

0 1 2 3 P 4Q 5
x(metre)

1) 2 ms −1 2) 4 ms −1 3) 2 2ms −1 4) 2 ms −1

3. A constant power is supplied to a rotating disc. The relationship between the angular velocity (  ) of
the disc and number of rotations (n) made by the disc is governed by
1 2 3
1)  n 3
2)  n 3
3)  n 2
4)  n2

4. Two blocks A and B of masses m and 2m, respectively are connected by a spring of force constant k.
The masses are moving to the right with uniform velocity v each, the heavier mass leading the lighter
one. The spring is in the natural length during this motion. Block B collides head on with a third block
C of mass m, at rest, the collision being completely inelastic. Calculate the maximum compression of
the spring.

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 1 3mv 2 mv 2 3mv 2 mv 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 k 12k 2k 4k
5. The ratio of radius of curvature at the highest point of projectile to that just after its projection is ,if the
angle of projection is 300.
3 3 3 3 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 4 8 4
6. A block of mass m = 0.1kg is kept on a rough horizontal surface of friction Coefficient  = 0.2 . A
time varying horizontal force F = kt is applied on the block; where k = 1.04 N / s and t is time in
second. The rate of change of angle of friction just before the block starts slipping is( g = 10ms −2 )
1) 1 rad/s 2) 10 / s 3) 2 rad/s 4) 20 / s
7. In the configuration shown, vertical parts of the string AB and DE are pulled down with a constant
speed v = 2m / s each. If the separation between the pulleys is d = 2m , find angular acceleration of
the slant part of the string, BC at the instant when  = 45.0 . Neglect size of the pulleys.
B 2m D

 
A E

1) zero 2) 1 rad / s 2 3) 2 rad / s 2 4) 3 rad / s 2

8. Adjacent graph is drawn for particle along straight line motion. a - Acceleration & v-velocity. Find
displacement of particle from rest till it acquires velocity 2 ms −1
1

( m−1s2 )
a
5

4
(
v2 m2s −2 )
1) 1m 2) 2m 3) 6m 4) 8m

9. A copper wire 2 m long is stretched by 1 mm. If the energy stored in the stretched wire is converted to
heat, calculate the rise in temperature of the wire.
(Given : Y = 12  1011 dyne cm-2, density of copper = 9 g cm-3 , J=4.2 J/Cal
and specific heat of copper = 0.1 cal g-1C-1)
1) 252C 2)(1/252)C 3)504C 4) (1/504)C

10. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity k1 is surrounded by a

cylindrical sheet of inner radius R and outer radius 2R made of material of thermal
conductivity k 2 . The two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different
temperatures. There is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface and the system is in
steady state. Calculate the effective thermal conductivity of the system.
1) 4K = 2K1 + 3K2 2) 4K = 5K1 + 3K2 3) 4K = 6K1 + 4K2 4) 4K = K1 + 3K2

11. A reference frame attached to the earth is:

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 1) An inertial frame sometimes 2) an inertial frame always
3) A non-inertial frame 4) may be inertial or non-inertial.

12. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is kept on a rough surface. The velocities of air (density)
around the sphere are as shown in figure. Assuming R to be small and
4R2
M= kg, what is the minimum value of coefficient of friction so that the sphere starts pure
g
rolling (assume force due to pressure difference is acting along horizontal on centre of mass of sphere)

7 m/s 14 m/s
R
M

 horizontal

1)0.25 2)0.50 3)0.75 4)1.0

13. A man weighing 80 kg is standing on a trolley weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting on frictionless
horizontal rails. If the man starts walking on the trolley along the rails at constant speed 1 m/s, then
after 4s his displacement relative to the ground will be :
1) 5m 2) 4.8m 3)3.2m 4) 3m
14. For free expansion of a gas in an adiabatic container which of the following is true? (dQ is change of
heat energy, dW is workdone by the gas, dU is change of internal energy)
1) dQ = dW = 0 and dU = 0 2) dQ = 0, dW > 0 and dU = dQ
3) dW = 0, dQ > 0 and dU = 0 4) dW = 0, dQ < 0 and dU = 0
15. A particle of mass m begins to slide down a fixed smooth sphere from the top. What is its tangential
acceleration when it breaks off the sphere ?
2g 5g 2g 5g
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
16. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are placed on a horizontal table with coefficient of friction  and are
joined by a spring. Initially, the spring has its natural length. If F is minimum force which, when
applied on m1, will make the other block m2 just move. (k is the spring constant) then
m
2 m
1 F

m1g m 2 g m1g + m 2g
1) F = m 2g + 2) F = m2g + m1g 3) F = m1g + 4) F =
2 2 2
17. Figure shown is a graph, at a certain time t, of the displacement function S ( x, t ) of three sound waves
1,2 and 3 as marked on the curves having same displacement amplitudes that travel along x-axis
through air. If P1, P2 and P3 represent their pressure amplitudes respectively, then correct relation
between them is :
1
2
S
2

3
x
2
1
3

1) P1 > P2 > P3 2) P3 > P2 > P1 3) P1 = P2 = P3 4) P2 > P3 > P1

18. For the arrangement shown in the figure, the time period oscillation of the block of mass m is ( k is
spring constant)
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 k

m
4m 2m m m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
k k 2k 4k
19. A uniform rope of mass 0.1 kg and length 2.45 m hangs from the ceiling. Time taken by a transverse
wave to travel the full length of the rope is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
1
1) 1 s 2) 2 s 3) 0.5 s 4) s
2
20. A river of width ‘a’ with straight parallel banks flows due north with speed u. The point O and A are
on opposite banks and A is due east of O. Coordinate axes OX and OY are taken in the east and north
directions respectively. A boat, whose speed is v relative to water, starts from O and crosses the river.
v
If the boat is steered due to east and u varies with x as u = x(a − x) 2 , then Equation of trajectory of
a
the boat is
x 2 x3 x 2 x3 x 2 x3 2x 2 x 3
1) y = − 2 2) y = − 2 3) y = − 2 4) y = − 2
2a 3a a 3a a 2a a 3a
21. A cylinder with a movable piston contains air under a pressure p1 and a soap bubble of
radius ‘r’. The pressure p2 to which the air should be compressed by slowly pushing the
piston into the cylinder for the soap bubble to reduce its radius by half will be : (The
surface tension is σ , and the temperature T is maintained constant)
 24σ   28σ   24σ   28σ 
1) 8p1 +  2)  2p1 +  3)  2p1 +  4) 8p1 +
 r   r   r   r 
22. A balloon having mass ‘m’ is filled with gas and is held in hands of a boy. Then suddenly it get
released and gas starts coming out of it with a constant rate. The velocities of the ejected gases is also
constant 2 m/s with respect to the balloon. Find out the velocity of the balloon when the mass of gas is
reduced to half.
1) n2 2) 2 n4 3) 2 n2 4) 3 n2

23. The member OA rotates about a horizontal axis through O with a constant counter clockwise velocity
 = 3 rad/sec. As it passes the position  = 0, a small mass m is placed upon it at a radial distance OA=
r = 0.5 m. If the mass is observed to slip at  = 37, the coefficient of friction between the mass & the
member is

5 9 4 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 16 9 16
24. A particle is projected with a velocity of 39.2 m/s at an angle of 30o with the horizontal. It will move at
right angle to the initial direction of motion after a time.
1) 4 sec 2) 6 sec 3) 2 sec 4) 8 sec

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 90 90
25. Wavelength of two nodes in air are m and m. Each note produces four beats per second with a
175 173
third note of a fixed frequency. The velocity of sound in air is
1) 320 ms–1 2) 380 ms–1 3) 360 ms–1 4) 340 ms–1
26. The pitch of the screw gauge is 1mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. While
measuring the diameter of a wire, the linear scale reads 1mm and 47th division on the circular scale
coincides with the reference line. The length of the wire is 5.6cm. Find the correct surface area of
curved surface (in mm2) of the wire in appropriate number of significant figures
1) 2.6mm 2 2) 2.4 mm 2 3) 3.6mm2 4) 3.4mm2
27. A particle of mass 5 kg moving in the X-Y plane has its potential energy given by U = ( −7 x + 24 y )
( )
Joule. The particle is initially at origin and has velocity u = 14.4iˆ + 4.2 ˆj m / s . The speed of the
particle at t =4 sec is (in m/s)
1) 20 2)15 3) 5 4) 25
28. A uniform rod of mass M and length 2a, can turn freely about one end which is fixed. It is started with
angular velocity  from the position in which it hangs vertically. Its angular velocity at an instant
when it makes an angle q with downward vertical is
1 1
 2g 2  3g 2
1)   2 −

(1 − cos  )

2)   2 −

(1 − cos  )

3a 2a
1 1
 2g 2  3g 2
3)   2 +

(1 − cos  )

4)   2 −

(1 − cos  )

3a 4a
29. V – T. diagram for a process of a given mass of ideal gas is as shown in the figure. During the process
(1 to 2 ) pressure of gas.

1) First increases then decreases 2) continuously decreases

3) Continuously increases 4) first decreases then increases

30. The co-efficient of linear expansion of a rod is temperature dependent and is given by the formula
 = aT , where a is a constant and T in 0C. If the length of the rod is at temperature 0 0C, then the
temperature at which the length will be 2 is:
n2 n8 2 n4
1) 2) 3) 4)
a a a a
CHEMISTRY
31. Dimethyl terephthalate reacts with ethylene glycol under high temp and pressure to give a polymer
called ‘Dacron’. Identify the correct statements out of the following.
(I) Dacron is polyethylene Terephthalate
(II) Dacron is formed by step growth condensation polymerizations
(III) Dacron is a poly ester
(IV) Methanol molecules are removed during the polymerization process
1) only (I) and (II) 2) only (II), (III) and (IV) 3) only (III) 4) All of the above
32. Which are true statements among the following

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 (I) I3− has bent structure
(II) p–p bonds present in SO2
(III) SeF4 and CH4 has same shape
(IV) XeF2 and CO2 has same shape
(V) SF4 is see–saw structure whereas ICl3 is T–shaped
1) I, II, IV, V 2) I, II, III, IV 3) II, III, IV, V 4) I, III, IV, V
33.
Column – I Column – II
A) CN − (p) Bon order is 2, diamagnetic
B) C2 (q) Bond order is 3, diamagnetic
C) NO (r) Bond order is ½, paramagnetic
D) Ne2+ (s) Bond order is 5/2, paramagnetic

1) A → q; B → p ; C → s ; D → r 2) A → p; B → q ; C → r ; D → s
3) A → q; B → p ; C → r ; D → s 4) A → r; B → q ; C → s ; D → p
34. The density of a gaseous substance at 1 atm pressure and 750 K is 0.30 g/lt. If the molecular wt. of the
substance is 27 the forces existing among gas molecules is
1) Attractive 2) Repulsive 3)Both 4)None of these
35. POCl3 hydrolyses in water to give H3PO4 and HCl only. What volume of 2M Ca(OH)2 is needed to
completely neutralize 50 ml 0.1 M POCl3 solution.
1) 5 ml 2) 7.5 ml 3)15 ml 4) 10 ml
36. Which of the following pairs have same hybridization about the central atom?
1) SF4 ; SiF4 2) NO3− ; NF3 3) S2O82− ; S2O32− 4) BrF5 ; IF7
37. A light of wavelength  strikes a metal surface and ejects photoelectrons with KE = 1eV . Another

light of wavelength strikes the same metal surface and ejects photoelectrons with KE = 4eV . The
3
work function is
1) 1eV 2) 2eV 3) 0.5 eV 4) 3 eV
o
38. Relative humidity of air is 80% at 27 C. If the aqueous tension at the same temperature is 27mmHg,
partial pressure of water vapour in the air is
1) 27 mmHg 2) 25 mmHg 3) 23 mmHg 4)21.6 mmHg

39. Choose the incorrect statement

1) rate of catalytic hydrogenation is faster for C2H2 than C2H4
2) rate of electrophylic addition is faster for C2H2 than C2H4
3) Phynylacetylene and benzene can be distinguished by bromine water
4) poor leaving group favours E1CB mechanism in dehydrohalogenation

40.
OCOCH3

H Ph

Identify the correct statement about the reaction
H Ph

1) It is a syn elimination reaction and gives cis alkene

2) It is an anti elimination reaction and gives trans alkene
3) It is a syn elimination reaction and gives trans alkene
4) The product does not contain deuterium
41. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) All C—O bonds in CO32− are equal but not in H 2 CO3
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 2) All C—O bonds in HCO2H are equal but not in HCO −2
3) C—O bond length in HCO −2 is longer than C—O bond length in CO32−
4) C—O bond length in HCO −2 and C—O bond length in CO32− are equal.
42. The number of atoms in 100 g of an FCC metal crystal with density d = 10 g cm –3 and cell edge as 200
pm is equal to
1) 3 x 1025 2) 5 x 1024 3) 5 x 1023 4) 2 x 1025
43. If spheres of Radius ‘r’ are arranged in a CCP fasion (ABCABC …. ), the vertical distance between
any two consecutive A layers is
2 3
1) 4r 2) 4r 3) 6r 4) r 6
3 2
44. Identify the correct statement about the following compounds
H3C H CH3 H3C CH3

CH3 H C H H
3
(i) (ii) (iii)
1) (i) and (ii) are enantiomers 2) (i) and (iii) are identical compounds
3) (ii) and (iii) are diastereomers 4) (i) & (ii) are optically active but (iii) is inactive

45. Which of the following contains most acidic hydrogen?

1) 2) 3) 4)
46. Which of the following is most stable carbanion?
1) Ph — CH 2 2) CH3 — CH 2 3) (Ph)2 CH 4) (CH3 )2 CH
47. Select the Incorrect statement regarding silver extraction process
1) When the Pb–Ag alloy is rich in silver, lead is removed by cupellation
2) When the Pb–Ag alloy is rich in lead, lead is removed by parke’s pattinson’s process
3) Zn forms an alloy with led, from which lead is separated by distillation.
4) Zn forms an alloy with silver, from which zinc is separated by distillation.


48. Identify F, E, D respectively in the following scheme CaCO3 ⎯⎯ → A + Bgas
A + H2O → C ; C + B → CaCO3 + H2O; D + C ⎯⎯→ E(gas) ; E + H2O + B → F


1) NH4HCO3, NH4Cl, NH3 2) NH4HCO3, NH3, NH4Cl

3) NaHCO3, NH4Cl, NH3 4) NaHCO3 , NH3 , CO2
49. Which of the following methods gives rise to 1-bromo-2-phenyl ethane ?
1) benzene + Oxirane + H+ followed by reaction with HBr
2) benzene + Oxirane + H+ followed by reaction with P/Br2
3) propene + HBr followed by reaction with benzene in the presence of AlCl3
4) styrene + H3O+ + followed by reaction with P/Br2
50. Sodium phenoxide on reaction with ammonium chloride gives,
1) C6H5NH2 2) o, p-(NH2) C6H3OH 3) C6H5OH 4) C6H5– NH3+Cl −
51. Which one of the following is an example of intramolecular cannizaro reaction?
1) ortho hydroxy bezaldehyde with hydroxide ion
2) HOOC-CHO with hydroxide ion
3) Ethane 1,2- dial with hydroxide ion
4) 3-oxo pentanal with hydroxide ion
52. In the given reaction, what is [B]?

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 ( A ) ⎯⎯⎯ → ( B)
−

OH ⎯⎯⎯→
TsCl OH
HS Pyridine

S O
1) HS OTs 2) S OH 3) 4)
53. Which of the following reaction would produce the following product
O
H3C C

COOH
CH3 COOH CH3 COOH

AlCl 3 AlCl 3
1) + 2) +

COCl COCl

CH3
O
COOH CH3
AlCl 3
COCl
3)
+ O
AlCl 3
4) +
O
54. Regular use of which of the following fertilizers increases the acidity of soil ?
1) Ammonium sulphate 2) Potassium nitrate
3) Urea 4) Superphosphate of lime

55. For the diazonium ions the order of reactivity towards diazo-coupling with phenol in the presence of
dil. NaOH is
N2 N2 N2
N2

NO2 OMe CH3

NMe2
(III) (IV)
(I) (II)
1) I < IV < II < III 2) I < III < IV < II 3) III < I < II < IV 4) III < I < IV < II
56. 20L of an ideal gas present in a cylinder fitted with a piston at 10atm is allowed to expand in a
process in which P is constant. If the final volume of the gas is 60L the work done by the gas is
V
1) -800 L-atm 2) 800 L-atm 3) 400 L-atm 4) -400 L-atm
57. Which of the following on treatment with warm dilute H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4 will give 2-
butanone
I. 2-butyne II. 1-butyne III. 2-butene IV. 1,3-butadiene
1) I, III 2) I, II 3) I, II, III 4) III, IV
58. When the following redox reaction is balanced using simplest ‘natural numbers’, the stoichiometric
coefficient of H2O will be
Cr(OH)3 + IO3− + OH– → I– + CrO−42 + H2O
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7
59. 0.436 gm of acetyl derivative of a polyalcohol (molecular mass= 92) requires 0.336 gm of KOH for
hydrolysis. The total number of hydroxyl groups in the alcohol is

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 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1
60. Which of the following is correct for the reaction sequence:
SO Na CO I
Na2CO3 ⎯⎯⎯
2
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
2
⎯
3
→ B ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ C ⎯⎯→
Elemental S 2
D

(1) ‘A’ is a strong oxidizing (2) The O.S of central atom in ‘B’ is +6
(3) ‘C’ is a weak reducing agent than NaI (4) ‘B’ is used as a bleach in paper industry

MATHS
1 x x2
 
61. Let x = cos + i sin and  = x 2 1 x then the value of  is
3 3
1 x2 1
1) 0 2) −1 3) 8 4) 4
1 cos x 1 − cos x 
62. If  ( x ) = 1 + sin x cos x 1 + sin x − cos x then  2  ( x ) dx equals
0
sin x sin x 1
  
1) 2) 3) 0 4) −
4 2 2
63. Let P =  aij  be a 3  3 matrix and Q = bij  , where bij = 2 aij for 1  i, j  3 .If the determinant of P
i+ j

is 2, then the determinant of the matrix Q is

1) 210 2) 211 3) 212 4) 213
64. The number of real values of a for which the system of equations
x + ay − z = 0, 2 x − y + az = 0, ax + y + 2 z = 0 has a non – trivial solution is
1) 3 2) 1 3) 0 4) infinite

65. The number of values of k for which the system of equations

( k + 1) x + 8 y = 4k
kx + ( k + 3) y = 3k − 1 has infinitely many solutions is
1) 0 2) 1 c) 2 d) infinite
1 a3 a2
66. Let a2 , a3  R be such that a2 − a3 = 6 . Let f ( x ) = 1 a3 2a2 − x , x  R . The greatest value of
1 2a3 − x a2
f ( x) =
1) 6 2) 9 3) 12 4) 36
0 1 2  1/ 2 −1/ 2 1/ 2 
67. If A = 1 2 3  and A =  −4
  −1
3 y  , then
 3 x 1  5 / 2 −3 / 2 1/ 2 
1) x = 1, y = −1 2) x = −1, y = 1 3) x = 2, y = −1/ 2 4) x = 1/ 2, y = 1/ 2
68. Let P and Q be 3  3 matrices with P  Q . If P3 = Q3 and P 2 Q = Q2 P, then determinant of ( P 2 + Q 2 )
is equal to
1) 1 2) 0 3) -1 4) – 2
 3/2 1/ 2  1 1
69. Let P =  A=  and Q = PAP , then P Q P is
T T 2015

 −1/ 2 3 / 2   0 1

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 1 −2015  2015 1  1 2015 1 2015
1)   2)   3) 
1 
4)  
0 1   0 2015 0 0 2015
1 0 0 
70. If A = 0 1 1  ,6 A−1 = A2 + cA + dI , then ( c, d ) is
0 −2 4 
1) ( −6,11) 2) ( −11,6 ) 3) (11,6 ) 4) ( 6,11)
71. The number of ordered pairs ( m, n ) , m, n  1,2,...,100 such the 7 m + 7 n is divisible by 5 is
1) 1250 2) 2000 3) 2500 4) 5000
72. The number of seven digit integers, with sum of the digits equal to 10 and each digit of the number
being 1 or 2 or 3 is
1) 55 2) 66 3) 77 4) 88
73. Assuming the balls to be identical except for difference of colours the number of ways in which one or
more balls can be selected from 10 white, 9 green and 7 black balls is:
1) 629 2) 630 3) 879 4) 880
x +1 x −1 
10

74. Coefficient of the term independent of x in the expansion of  2/3 1/3 − 1/2 
is
 x − x +1 x − x 
1) 210 2) 105 3) 70 4) 35
2000
75. The remainder when 2 is divided by 17 is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 8 4) 12
If coefficients of x , x , x in the expansion of (1 + x / a ) are in A.P., then a equals
2 3 4 6
76.

(
1) 4 + 7 / 3 ) (
2) 4 + 3 / 3 ) 3) 2 − 3 4) 2 + 3

The coefficient of x 7 in the expansion of (1 − x − x 2 + x3 ) is

6
77.
1) 132 2) 144 3) -132 4) -144

78. OPQR is a square and M, N are the mid points of the sides PQ and QR respectively then the ratio of
the areas of the square and the triangle OMN is
1) 4 :1 2) 2 :1 3) 8 : 3 4) 4 : 3
79. A line meets the coordinate axes in A and B. A circle is circumscribed about the triangle OAB . If the
distances of A ,B from the tangent to the circle at the origin O be m and n respectively, then the
diameter of the circle is
1) m ( m + n ) 2) m + n 3) n ( m + n ) 4) m2 + n 2
80. If the tangent at the point P on the circle x 2 + y 2 + 6 x + 6 y = 2 meets the straight line 5 x − 2 y + 6 = 0 at
a point Q on the y-axis, then the length of PQ is
1) 4 2) 2 5 3) 5 4) 3 5
81. If common chord of the circle C with centre at ( 2,1) and radius r and the circle
x2 + y 2 − 2 x − 6 y + 6 = 0 is a diameter of the second circle, then the value of r is
1) 3 2) 2 3) 3/2 4) 1
82. Let p and q be two statements, then  ~ ( ~ p  q )   ( p  q ) is logically equivalent to
1) q 2) p  q 3) p 4) p ~ q
18 18

 ( xi − 8) = 9 and  ( x − 8) = 45 then the standard deviation of x1, x2 .....x18 is

2
83. If i
i =1 i =1
1) 4/9 2) 9/4 3) 3/2 4) ¾
84. A pair of unbiased dice is rolled together till a sum of either 5 or 7 is obtained. The probability that 5
comes before 7 is

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 2 3 4 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 5 5
85. Three persons A,B and C are to speak at a function along with 5 others. If the persons speak in a
random order, the probability that A speak before B and B speaks before C is
3 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 12 8 6
86. If from each of the three boxes containing 3 white and 1 black, 2 white and 2 black, 1 white and 3
black balls, one ball is drawn at random, then the probability that two white and one black ball will be
drawn is
13 1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
32 4 32 16

87. If P ( A) = 0.4, P ( B ') = 0.6 and P ( A  B ) = 0.15 then the value of P ( A / A ' B ') is
4 5 10 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
17 17 17 17
88. If the normal chord at a point ' t ' on the parabola y = 4ax subtends a right angle at the vertex, then a
2

value of t is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
89. The shortest distance between the line y − x = 1 and the curve x = y is
2

1) 3 2 / 5 2) 3/4 3) 3 2 / 8 4) 2 3 / 8
2 2
x y
90. Let P ( 6,3) be a point on the hyperbola 2
− 2 = 1 . If the normal at the point P intersects the x-axis at
a b
( 9,0 ) then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is
1) 5/ 2 2) 3 / 2 3) 2 4) 3

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