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PHYSICS .

1. Position – time graph for motion is represented by figure given below:

x (m)
In part I and part II of the graph:
(A) Acceleration is positive and negative respectively
(B) Acceleration is negative and positive respectively
(C) Acceleration is positive and positive respectively
(D) Acceleration is negative and negative respectively
2. In which of the following examples of motion, can the body be considered approximately a point
object:
(i) a railway carriage moving without jerks between two stations.
(ii) a monkey sitting on top of a man cycling smoothly on a circular track.
(iii) A spinning cricket ball that turns sharply on hitting the ground.
(iv) A tumbling beaker that has slipped off the edge of a table.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) All of the examples of motion
3. The position-time (x-t) graphs for two children a and b returning from their school O to their homes P
and Q respectively are shown in the figure. Choose the correct option:
x
Q

a b

O t
(A) a lives closer to the school than b
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(B) b starts from the school earlier than a
(C) a overtakes b on the road
(D) a and b reach home at the same time
4. A particle in one-dimensional motion
(i) with zero speed at an instant may have non-zero acceleration at that instant
(ii) with zero speed may have non-zero velocity.
(iii) with positive value of acceleration particle must be speeding up.
(A) Only (i) & (ii) is true (B) Only (i) is true
(C) Only (i), (ii) & (iii) is true (D) None is true
5. Look at the graphs (a) to (d) (shown in the figure) carefully which of these cannot possibly represent
one-dimensional motion of a particle.
Total path
speed length
x υ

t t t

(a) (b) (c) (d) t

(A) (a) only (B) (a), (b) & (C) only (C) (d) Only (D) None
6. Figure shows the x-t plot of one-dimensional motion of a particle. Is it correct to say from the graph
that:
I. The particle moves in a straight line for t < 0
II. The particle moves on a parabolic path for t > 0

0 t

(A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I & II (D) None of I & II

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7. Suppose a fixed force is applied for a certain interval of time on two bodies of different masses,
initially at rest, the lighter body picks up a greater speed than the heavier body however:
(A) The observation is not in support of law of conservation of momentum
(B) At the end of the time interval, observations show that each body acquires the same momentum.
(C) Both (A) & (B) is true
(D) None of (A) & (B) is true
8. A cyclist comes to a skidding stop in 10 m. During this process, the force on the cycle due to the road
is 200 N and is directed opposite to the motion. Work done by cycle on the road is:
(A) – 2000 J (B) 2000 J (C) Zero J (D) None
9. When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of the body:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged (D) Depends on the path of doing work
10. Mark the incorrect option regarding frictional force:
(A) Frictional force acts between two objects only if both objects are in contact.
(B) Frictional force acts only if two objects slip over each other.
(C) Frictional force may retard an object.
(D) Frictional force may accelerate an object.
11. A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed 70 m s−1 strikes a block of wood of mass 0.4 kg and
instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended from the ceiling by means of
thin wire. The height to which the block rises is approximately equal to:
(A) 15 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 10 cm
12. Observations that planets appear to move slower when they are farther from the sun than when they
are nearer. This observation leads to:
(A) Law of areas (B) Law of orbits but not the law of areas
(C) Law of orbits but not the law of periods (D) None
13. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars with a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The area of cross-
section of the piston carrying the load is 425 cm2 . What maximum pressure would the smaller piston
have to bear?
(A) 7 ×107 Pa (B) 7 ×105 Pa (C) 1.5 × 10 5 Pa (D) 1.5 × 107 Pa

14. Speed of sound in a solid medium:

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(A) is more than that in air
(B) is less than that in air
(C) do not depend on the density of medium
(D) depends on density only if the medium is solid
15. Two vessels have the same base area and same mass but different shapes. The first vessel takes twice
the volume of water than the second vessel to fill upto a particular common height.
I. The force exerted by the water on the base of the vessel is same in the two cases.
II. The vessels filled with water to that same height give different readings on a weighing scale?
(A) I is correct, II is incorrect (B) I is incorrect, II is correct
(C) I & II both are correct (D) I & II is incorrect
CHEMISTRY .

16. For the separation of red ink from blue ink paper chromatography technique is used.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(A) The blue and red ink form spots at different distances on the paper.
(B) More soluble component rises faster on paper.
(C) Paper and solvent are taken as stationary and mobile phases, respectively.
(D) Chromatography is used for separation of those solutes that dissolved in different solvent.
17. Which among the following statements is true?
(A) The rate of evaporation in a coastal area is less when compared to a non-coastal area.
(B) The rate of evaporation in a non-coastal area is less when compared to a coastal area.
(C) In both the areas the rate of evaporation is the same.
(D) Evaporation occurs only at a definite temperature.
18. In hill areas, distilled water boils at a temperature:
(A) above 373 K (B) above 473 K (C) below 373 K (D) at 373 K
15 11 15
19. 7 X, X are two naturally occurring isotopes of an element X. What is the percentage of
7 7 X isotope
of X if the average atomic mass is 14?
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 75 (D) 65
20. Which of the following has the highest percentage of nitrogen?
(A) NH 2 CONH 2 (Urea) (B) CaCN 2 (calcium cyanamide)

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(C) NH4 NO 3 (Ammonium nitrate) (D) Ca (NO 3 )2 (Calcium nitrate)
21. Which one of the following has maximum number of molecules?
(A) 16 g of O 2 (B) 16 g of NO 2 (C) 2 g of H2 (D) 32 g of N2
22. Isoelectronic species are:
(A) CO, CN–, NO, C2 (B) CO–, CN–, NO, C2–
(C) CO+, CN–, NO–, C2 (D) CO, CN–, NO+, C22–
23. A compound contains 28% of nitrogen and 72% of a metal. Three atoms of the metal combine with
two atoms of nitrogen. The approximate atomic mass of the metal is:
(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 48
24. The percentage of nitrogen by mass in ammonium sulphate is close to (atomic masses H = 1, N = 14,O
= 16, S = 32)
(A) 21% (B) 24% (C) 36% (D) 16%

25. What are the electronic configurations of Na+ and C l− ion?

(A) Na+ = 2, 8, 1 and Cl– = 2, 8, 7 (B) Na+ = 2, 8 and Cl– = 2, 8, 8
(C) Na+ = 2, 8, 2 and Cl– = 2, 8, 6 (D) Na+ = 2, 7 and Cl– = 2, 8, 8
26. Mud and face cream are respectively-

(A) Sol and Foam (B) Gel and Foam (C) Sol and Emulsion (D) Gel and Emulsion

27. The atomic numbers of elements X, Y and Z are 14, 17 and 11, respectively. The number of electrons
present in the “M” shells of these elements follows the order:

(A) Z > X > Y (B) X > Y > Z (C) Z > Y > X (D) Y > X > Z
28. In a closed flask of 5 litres, 1.0 g of H2 is heated from 300 to 600 K. Which statement is not correct?
(A) Pressure of the gas increases (B) The rate of collision increases
(C) The number of moles of gas increases (D) The energy of gaseous molecules increases
29. Calculate the mass of copper sulphate required to prepare 20% (mass per cent) solution in 100 g of
water?
(A) 15 g (B) 18 g (C) 22 g (D) 25 g

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30. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71%
and H, 9.67%. Find the simplest ratio of the elements (C : H : O) present in the organic compound.
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : 1

BIOLOGY .

31. Spirogyra is an alga because it shows –

(A) heterotrophic, thalloid plant body growing in water.
(B) autotrophic thalloid plant body and develop embryo.
(C) autotrophic thalloid plant body and do not develop embryo.
(D) autotrophic plant having disc – shaped chloroplasts and grows in marine water.
32. The characteristic features of monocotyledonous angiosperm are–
(A) Seeds monocotyledonous; leaves show reticulate venation; vascular bundles are arranged in a
ring in stem and flowers are trimerous.
(B) Seeds monocotyledonous; leaves show parallel venation; vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
in stem and flowers are trimerous.
(C) Seeds monocotyledonous; leaves show parallel venation; vascular bundles are scattered in stem
and flowers are trimerous.
(D) Seeds monocotyledonous; leaves show parallel venation; vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
in stem and flowers are pentamerous.
33. Observe the diagram and select the correct option out of the four provided.

(A) I = Stipe, II = Gills, III = Pileus

(B) I = Pileus, II = gills, III = Substratum
(C) I = Pileus, II = Gills, III = Stipe
(D) I = Velum, II – gills, III = Stipe

34. Out of the four phylums and its characteristics provided below, one phylum correctly matches with its
characteristics. Select the correct option.
(A) Echinodermata → Spiny–skinned organisms which have peculiar water canal system.
(B) Platyhelminthes → Dorsiventrally flattened body which have nephridia for excretion.
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(C) Porifera → Pore bearing organisms which have peculiar water – driven tube system.
(D) Arthropoda → Organisms which have an open circulatory system having blood – filled coelomic
cavity.
35. An experiment was set up to determine the percentage of water absorbed by raisins. If the mass of
dry raisins was 40 g, and mass of wet raisins was 45 g, the percent water absorbed would be:

(A)
( 45 − 40 ) g ×100 (B)
40g
×100 (C)
45g
×100 (D)
( 45 − 40 ) g ×100
40g 45g 40g 45g
36. This question contains three statements, which may or may not be correct. Read the following
statements carefully and choose the correct option out of the following provided:
Statement (1): Purkinje in 1674 coined the term protoplasm for the fluid substance of the cell.
Statement (2): In ‘black reaction’ method a weak solution of silver nitrate is used and is particularly
valuable in tracing the processes and most delicate ramifications of cells.
Statement (3): Endoplasmic reticulum serve as channels for the transport of materials (especially
proteins) between various regions of the cytoplasm or between the cytoplasm and
the nucleus.
(A) Statements (1), (2) and (3) all are correct.
(B) Statement (1) is incorrect while statements (2) and (3) are correct.
(C) Statements (1) and (3) are correct while statement (2) is incorrect.
(D) Statements (1) and (2) are incorrect while statement (3) is correct.
37. Five sentences are given below, which may or may not be correct. Read the sentences carefully and
choose the correct option out of the following provided.
(i) Epithelial tissue is protective tissue in animal body.
(ii) The lining of blood vessels, lung alveoli, and kidney tubules are all made up of epithelial tissue.
(iii) Epithelial cells have a lot of intercellular spaces.
(iv) Epithelial layer is permeable layer.
(v) Epithelial layer does not allow regulation of materials between body and external environment.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct while (iii) and (v) are incorrect.
(B) All the sentences are correct.
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct while (v) is incorrect.
(D) (i), (ii) and (v) is correct while (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.
38. Identify sclerenchyma on the basis of description given below:
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(A) Cells possess primary cell wall made up of cellulose, empty lumen and wide intercellular spaces.
(B) Cells with lignified secondary cell wall, narrow lumen and with intercellular spaces.
(C) Cells with lignified secondary cell wall, wider lumen and without intercellular spaces.
(D) Cells with lignified secondary cell wall, narrow lumen and without intercellular spaces.
39. Which among the following statement is true?
(A) All xylem components are living except tracheids.
(B) All phloem components are living except sieve tubes.
(C) All xylem components are dead except xylem parenchyma.
(D) All phloem components are dead except phloem fibre.
40. Match the columns I, II and III and select the correct option from the codes given below:
Column–I Column–II Column–III
(a) Areolar tissue (i) Haversian canal (w) Below the skin
(b) Adipose tissue (ii) Chondrocyte (x) Matrix composed of calcium and phosphorus
(c) Bone (iii) Mast cell (y) Matrix composed of proteins and sugars
(d) Cartilage (iv) Fat droplet (z) Between skin and muscle

(A) a → (iii, z), b → (iv, w), c → (i, x), d → (ii, y) (B) a →(iii, w), b → (iv, z) c → (i, x), d → (ii, y)
(C) a → (iv, w), b → (iii, z) c → (ii, y), d → (i, x) (D) a →(ii, y), b → (i, x) c → (iv, w), d → (iii, z)

41. What is the major difference between a human skin cell and a human egg cell?
(A) The egg cell has twice as many chromosomes as the skin cell.
(B) The egg cell has half as many chromosomes as the skin cell.
(C) The skin cell has no genetic information in its chromosomes.
(D) Only the egg cell has a nucleus.
42. This question contains three statements which may or may not be correct. Read the following
statements carefully and choose the correct option out of the following provided:
Statement (1): Leishmania, the protozoan organism is responsible for sleeping sickness.

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Statement (2): Trypanosoma, the protozoan organism is responsible for sleeping sickness while
Staphylococci a bacterium causes peptic ulcers.
Statement (3): Leishmania, the protozoan organism is responsible for kala – azar, Trypanosoma, the
protozoan organism is responsible for sleeping sickness and Helicobacter pylori is
responsible for peptic ulcers.
(A) Statement (1), (2) and (3) all are correct.
(B) Statement (1) is incorrect while statements (2) and (3) are correct.
(C) Statements (1) and (3) are incorrect while statement (2) is correct.
(D) Statements (1) and (2) are incorrect while statement (3) is correct.
43. Which among the following option is true in case of composite fish culture?

Catla Common Carps Grass Carps Rohu

(A) Middle zone feeders Feed on weeds Bottom feeders Surface feeders

(B) Surface feeders Bottom feeders Feed on weeds Middle zone feeders

(C) Surface feeders Feed on weeds Bottom feeders Middle zone feeders

(D) Bottom feeders Middle zone feeders Surface feeders Feed on weeds
44. Which of the following sentences are correct?
(i) Apis cerana indica is commonly known as Indian bee while Apis mellifera is commonly known as
rock bee.
(ii) Apis cerana indica is commonly known as Indian bee while Apis florae is known as rock bee.
(iii) Apis cerana indica is commonly known as Indian bee while Apis dorsata is known as rock bee.
(iv) Apis mellifera is known as Italian bee while Apis florae is known as little bee.
(v) Apis florae is known as little bee while Apis dorsata is known as rock bee.
(vi) Apis cerana indica is commonly known as Indian bee while Apis mellifera is known as Italian bee.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) (B) (i), (ii), (v), (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (D) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
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45. Phylum (P) consists of two animals (Q) and (R). In animal (Q) locomotion takes place through setae
and in animal (R) locomotion takes place through (S). Observe the flow chart given below carefully
and choose the correct option which best describes the (P), (Q) and (S).

Phylum (P)

Animals

Animal (Q)
Nereis (R)
Locomotory organ Locomotory organ
Setae (S)

(P) (Q) (S)

(A) Arthropoda Cockroach Jointed appendages
(B) Mollusca Snail Muscular foot
(C) Annelida Earthworm Parapodia
(D) Echinodermata Starfish Pectoral fin
MATHEMATICS .

46. In a triangle, the sum of any two sides exceeds the third side by 8 cm. The area of the triangle
(in sq. cm) is

(A) 18 3 (B) 24 3 (C) 12 3 (D) 16 3

47. When a polynomial p(x) is divided by (x – 73) and (x – 37) leaves a remainder 37 and 73 respectively.
The remainder, when p(x) is divided by (x – 73)(x – 37), is:
(A) 110x – 1 (B) 36x – 110 (C) 110 – x (D) 110 + 36x

48. If the polynomial ax 2 + 2bx + c and ax 2 + 2cx + b , (where a ≠ 0 and b ≠ 0) have a common zero, then
(b + c) is equal to

a −a a −a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4 4
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49. MAHI is a trapezium with MA || HI. Diagonals MH and AI intersect at O. If Ar(∆OMA) = 12 cm2 and
Ar(∆OHA) = 30 cm2 then area of trapezium MAHI is:
M A

I H

(A) 147 cm2 (B) 126 cm2 (C) 84 cm2 (D) 81 cm2

1 x 2 − 1+ 2x
50. If x2 + = 171 , then the value of is:
x2 x

(A) ± 14 (B) 15 or –11 (C) 11 or –14 (D) ± 15

51. The positive integer m satisfies the equation 3 + 12 + 27 = m . The value of m is:
(A) 42 (B) 72 (C) 96 (D) 108
52. ABCD is a rectangle. E and F are the points on sides CD and AB such that AFCE is rhombus.
If AB = 16 cm and BC = 12 cm then EF is

A F B

D C
E
(A) 8 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm
53. 9 × 101 × 10001 × 100000001 is equal to:
1014 − 1 1016 − 1
(A) 915 (B) 1016 − 1 (C) (D)
11 11
54. In the given figure AB and CD are two equal chords. If O is the centre of the circle and ∠AOB = 120°,
then ∠OCD is:

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O
• D
B
A
C
(A) 60° (B) 50° (C) 40° (D) 30°
b
55. If the decimal 1.a 7 is equal to , where a is whole number between 0 and 9 (both inclusive), and b
11
and 11 are co-prime, then a + b = ?
(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19
1 1
56. If k + = −2 , then k7824 − 91357 is equal to:
k k
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) –1

( )
3
2 1
57. If 6 + 35 + = k 14 , then k = ?
( )
3
2
6 + 35
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11
58. In the given figure, AB and AC are equal sides of an isosceles ∆ABC. D, E and F are points on AB, AC
and BC such that DEF is equilateral triangle. If ∠ADE = a, ∠FEC = b and ∠DFB = c, then value of c in
terms of a and b is:
A

D a E
b
c
B C
F
2a + b a + 2b a−b a+b
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
59. ∆PQR is an equilateral triangle of side length 50 cm. If (AB + BC + AD) = 55 cm and AB || QR, AD || PR
and BC || PQ, then CD is equal to:

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P

A B

Q D C R

(A) 35 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 47.5 cm

60. O is a point inside the square ABCD such that COD is an equilateral triangle. ∠AOB is:
D C

A B
(A) 150° (B) 135° (C) 120° (D) 110°

61. ( )
If the perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is 6 + 3 2 meter, then the area of the triangle is:

(A) 3 m2 (B) 4.5 m2 (C) 9 m2 (D) 9 2 m2

62. The length of the perpendiculars drawn from any point in the interior of an equilateral triangle to the
respective sides are P1, P2 and P3 . The length of each side of the triangle is:

1 1 2 4
(A) (P + P + P )
3 1 2 3
(B) (P1 + P2 + P3 ) (C) (P1 + P2 + P3 ) (D) (P1 + P2 + P3 )
3 3 3
63. A square has its side equal to the radius of the sphere. The square revolves around one of its sides to
generate a surface of total area ‘S’. If ‘A’ be the surface area of the sphere, which one of the following is
correct?
(A) A = 4S (B) A = 2S (C) A = S (D) A < S

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64. A right circular cylinder and a right circular cone have equal bases and equal volumes. The curved
15
surface area of the right circular cone is times the curved surface area of the right circular cylinder.
8
The ratio of radius to height of the cylinder is:
(A) 9 : 4 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 4 : 5 (D) 4 : 3
5
65. The value of 4
, when its denominator is rationalized, is:
3 125
4 4 4 4
125 125 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75 3 15 3
1
66. The following diagram shows a circle with radius .
π

•
1
π

Let the circumference of the circle be represented by ‘l’ and its area by ‘A’. Which of the following
statements are true?
(i) l is rational (ii) l is irrational (iii) A is rational (iv) A is irrational
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
67. The square root of the expression 10 + 24 + 60 + 40 is written in the form of x+ y+ z,
where, x, y and z are positive integers in ascending order. The value of y + z – x is:
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 8
3
68. The ascending order of 7 , 4 6 and 5 is:

(A) 5, 4 6 , 3 7 (B) 4
6 , 3 7, 5 (C) 4
6 , 5, 3 7 (D) 5, 3 7, 4 6

If it is given that ( P a ) = P a , then the value of the expression ab−1 × ba−1 is equal to:
b b
69.

(A) ab (B) ba (C) ab+1 (D) b a+1

2 − 4 
n
70. If 2n = 1024 , then the value of 3  4 
is

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(A) 1 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 27

If (x + 2) is a factor of the expression ( x + 1) + ( 2x + k ) , then k has the value equal to:

7 3
71.
(A) 5 (B) –5 (C) 3 (D) –3
2x y
72. If the linear equation + − 5 = 0 is equivalent to 4x + by + c = 0, then the value of b – 2c is:
3 6
(A) –59 (B) 59 (C) 61 (D) –61
73. Observe the following graph carefully:
y

• P  0, k 
 3
 
x
O

The value of 5k + 7m is:

(A) 29 (B) 31 (C) 27 (D) 33
74. In ∆ABC, AB > AC and the bisector of ∠A meets BC at D. Which of the following are true?
(i) ∠B > ∠C (ii) ∠C > ∠B
(iii) ∠ADB must be acute (iv) ∠ADC must be acute
(A) Only (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii)
75. In ∆DEF, perpendiculars DM and EG are drawn to EF and FD respectively to meet at the point H, then.
D

G
•H

E F
M

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1 1
(A) ∠DHG = ∠F (B) ∠DHG = 90° − ∠F (C) ∠DHG = ∠F (D) ∠DHG = 90° – ∠F
2 2
76. The given frequency table shows the time spent by students watching T.V. in a week.
Time (hours) 2 4 6 10 2y – 2
No. of students 15 10 y+8 5 10
If the mean time of watching T.V. in a week is 6 hours, then how many students are watching T.V.
more than 4 hours in a week?
(A) 25 (B) 22 (C) 28 (D) 30
77. The observations of a dataset in ascending order are as follows:
3, 8, 12, 3x + 4, 15, 6x + 1, 21
The value of x for which mean and median are equal, is:
(A) 2.5 (B) 3 (C) 3.5 (D) 3.25
78. In the given figure, T is a point on side QR of the triangle PQR such that ∠TQP = 2∠TPQ = 4∠RPT.
If ∠PTR = 150°, then the angle made by PQ at the centre of the circle is:
R

150° T
P
Q
(A) 5° (B) 10° (C) 15° (D) 20°
79. In the following figure, ∠ADC = 60°, ∠BAD = 80° and ∠EBC = 2 ∠PDE. The ∠APE is:
E
A
P 80°
•

60° B
D
C
(A) 120° (B) 110° (C) 130° (D) 140°
80. Suhani wants to construct a triangle having its two sides 10 units and 7 units. She decides to select
third side between the natural numbers 1 to 20 (both inclusive). The probability that the number
selected is third side of the triangle, is:

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17 3 13 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 20 20 4
81. In the given figure, P and Q are the centers of two circles having equal radii, intersecting each other at
S and T. If ST = 6 cm and AB = 16 cm. Then the radius of either circle is:
S
•

•
R• •
A B
P Q
•
T
61 63 71 73
(A) cm (B) cm (C) cm (D) cm
16 16 16 16
If ( 2.89 ) = ( 0.0289 ) = (100 ) , then the relationship between p, q and r is:
p q r
82.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2
(A) + = (B) = + (C) − = (D) + =
p q r p q r p q r p q r
83. The remainder when 5003 − 2493 − 2513 + 33 is divided by 6 is:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 0
84. If the mean and median of the data m1 , m2 , m3 , ....... mn are m and M respectively, then mean and
median of the data m1 + 6, m2 + 6, m3 + 6, ........ mn + 6 will be:
(A) Mean = m + 6, Median = M + 6 (B) Mean = m + 6, Median = M + 3
(C) Mean = m + 6, Median = M (D) Mean = m, Median = M
85. A sphere and a cone have equal radii. If their heights are also equal, the ratio of their curved surface
area will be:
(A) 1: 3 (B) 4 : 5 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 5 :1
86. Find the number in place of ‘?’
8, 12, 21, 46, 95, ?
(A) 264 (B) 195 (C) 176 (D) 216
87. I am facing south. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I turn left
and walk 10 m. and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which
direction and how far am I from the starting point?
(A) 45 m. North-West (B) 60 m. North-East
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(C) 30 2 m. North-East (D) 30 m. North-West
88. In the series given below, how many 8s are there each of which is exactly divisible by its immediate
preceding as well as succeeding numbers?
2 8 3 8 2 4 8 2 4 8 6 8 2 8 2 4 8 3 8 2 8 6
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
89. A letter- number series is given below. Find the missing term as shown by (?)
Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?
(A) Y44B (B) Y66B (C) Y88B (D) Z88B
90. In a row of 40 girls, when Komal was shifted to her left by 4 places, her number from the left end of the
row became 10. What was the number of Swati from the right end of the row if Swati was three places
to the right of Komal’s original position?
(A) 24 (B) 25 (C) 23 (D) 22

ENGLISH .

91. What is the correct indirect form of the following?

“What a pity you did not come!” said he to her.
(A) He exclaimed that it was a great pity she hadn’t come.
(B) He exclaimed that it was a pity she didn’t come.
(C) He exclaimed pitifully that she hadn’t come.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
92. What is the correct passive voice of the following?
Where have you kept the document?
(A) Where have document been kept by you?
(B) Where have the document been kept by you.
(C) Where has the document been kept by you?
(D) Where has the document been kept by you.
93. Which of the following taglines of famous brands is a grammatically WRONG sentence?
(A) I am lovin’ it – McDonald’s
(B) Just do it – Nike

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(C) Boost is the secret of our energy - Boost
(D) Your welfare is our responsibility – LIC
94. We ………….. the meeting as soon as the Chairman …………..
(A) are starting, will arrive (B) will start, arrives
(C) will start, will arrive (D) will be starting, will arrive
95. Which of the following pairs of statement and meaning is CORRECT?
(A) Statement: I have a black and white shirt.
Meaning: This means that there is one shirt.
(B) Statement: Bread and butter is my daily breakfast.
Meaning: This means in this sentence there are two subjects and they have been considered
separately.
(C) Statement: The Collector and Magistrate has arrived.
Meaning: Both the Collector as well as the Magistrate have arrived.
(D) All of these
96. Half of the apples ……………. rotten.
(A) are
(B) is
(C) were
(D) Both A and C
97. Thanks for the flowers. But you …………. so much money on them.
(A) needn’t have to spend
(B) needn’t have spent
(C) need to spend
(D) Both A and B
98. If a very polite request is to be made in the following statement, then which one of the options given
below is most appropriate?
…………….. you speak a bit slowly?
(A) Would

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(B) Will
(C) Can
(D) Should
99. What is the correct synonym of CRESTFALLEN?
(A) Disconsolate
(B) Pecuniary
(C) Frenzy
(D) Furore
100. To add insult to injury means
(A) good luck
(B) to do something badly or cheaply
(C) to not feel well
(D) to make a situation worse

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