PW – AITS_NT-24

PHYSICS
Section-A
1. Two particle A and B initially at rest move 6. The V-t graph of a rectilinear motion is
towards each other under a mutual force of shown in adjoining figure. The distance from
attraction. At the instant when velocity of A origin after 8 seconds is:
is V and that of B is 2v, the velocity of center
of mass of the system 4
(A) v (B) 2v (C) 3v (D) Zero 2

V(ms–1)
4 5 78
0 1 3 t(s)
2. Which of the following (if mass and radius 2
are assumed to be same) have maximum
percentage of total K.E. in rotational form (A) 18 metres (B) 12 metres
while pure rolling?
(C) 8 metres (D) 6 metres
(A) Disc (B) Sphere
(C) Ring (D) Hollow sphere
7. A vehicle is moving on a road with an
3. The speed of a uniform solid cylinder after acceleration a = 20 m/s2 as shown in figure.
rolling down an inclined plane of vertical The frictional coefficient between the block
height H, from rest without sliding is of mass (m) and the vehicle so that block is
gH 2gH does not fall downward is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) (B)
3 3
4gH
(C) gH (D)
3

4. A solid sphere is thrown up a rough incline. The (A) 0.5 (B) 0.4 (C) 2 (D) 0.7
sphere rolls up without slipping and eventually
comes down rolling without slipping. The 8. Two particles each of mass m are moving in
direction of static friction in upward and horizontal circle will same angular speed. If
downward motion respectively is both string are of same length then the ratio
(A) Downward, upward T
of tension in string 1 is
(B) Upward, downward T2
(C) Downward, downward
(D) Upward, upward m m
1 2
5. A Satellite is launched in the equatorial plane
in such a way that it can transmit signals up to
3 1
60° latitude on earth orbit velocity of satellite (A) (B) 3 (C) 2 (D)
2 3
is.
gR
(A) gR (B) 9. The property of a body by virtue of which it
2
tends to regain its original size and shape
1
(C) 2gR (D) gR when the applied force is removed is called
2
(A) elasticity (B) plasticity
(C) rigidity (D) compressibility
10. A barometer kept in a stationary elevator 16. PV plots of two gases during adiabatic
reads 76 cm. If the elevator starts accelerating processes are shown. Plot 1 and 2 should
up the reading will be correspond respectively to
(A) Zero (B) Equal to 76 cm P
(C) More than 76 cm (D) Less than 76 cm 1
2
11. If L, C and R are the self-inductance, C is V
capacitance and R is resistance respectively (A) Na and N2 (B) O2 and N2
then dimension of “LCR” will be – (C) He and Ne (D) N2 and Ne
(A) M0L0T–1 (B) M1L2T–1A–2
0 0 1
(C) M L T (D) M0L0T0 17. If a gas is compressed adiabatically
(A) Internal energy of the gas does not
change
12. A travelling wave pulse is given by
(B) Work done by the gas is positive
4
y= 2 (C) The internal energy of the gas increases
3x + 48t + 24xt + 2
2
(D) Internal energy of the gas decreases
where x and y are in metre and t is in second.
The velocity of wave is :- 18. A length of wire carries a steady current I. It
(A) 4 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 8 m/s (D) 12 m/s is bent first to form a circular plane coil of
one turn. The same length is now bent more
13. A position dependent force F acting on a sharply to give three loops of smaller radius.
particle and its force-position curve is shown The magnetic field at the centre caused by the
in the figure. Work done on the particle, when same current is:
its displacement 0 to 5 m is : (A) One third of its first value
(B) Unaltered
F(N)
(C) Three times of its initial value
+10 (D) Nine times of its initial value

4 5 X(m) 19. An electron and a proton enter a magnetic

1 2 3
field with equal velocities. Which one of
–10
them experiences more force?
(A) 35 J (B) 25 J (C) 15 J (D) 5 J (A) Electron
(B) Proton
14. A body is being moved from rest along a (C) Both experience same force
straight line by a machine delivering constant (D) It cannot be predicted.
power. The distance covered by body in time
t is proportional to 20. In a Millikan-type experiment there are two oil
droplets P and Q between the charged
(A) t (B) t3/2 (C) t3/4 (D) t2
horizontal plates, as shown in the diagram.
Droplet P is in rest while droplet Q is moving
15. Two rods A and B are made of different matals upwards. The polarity of the charges on P and
having coefficient of linear expansion 1 and 2 Q is
respectively. at 0° C lengths of A and B are
found to be 1 and 2 respectively. Difference of

lengths (1 – 2) will remain unchanged at any P Q

temperature if (A) + +
(A) 11 = 22 (B) 12 = 21 (B) neutral –
(C) – –
(C) 112 = 222 (D) 1 1 = 2 2 (D) + –
21. To form a composite 16F, 1000V capacitor 27. The electrical conductivity of a
from a supply of identical capacitors marked semiconductor increase when electromagnetic
8F, 250V, we require a minimum number of radiation of wavelength shorter than 2480 nm
is incident on it. The bank gap (in eV) for the
n capacitors, where n is:
semiconductor is
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32
(A) 0.9 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.1.

22. Displacement current is set up between the 28. Which of the following is the symbolic
plates of a capacitor when the potential representation of NAND gate
difference across the plates is
(A) Maximum (B) Zero (A) (B)
(C) Minimum (D) Varying
(C) (D)
23. A triangle made by wire of resistance 24.
Then find resistance across point 'A' and 'B'. 29. The difference in angular momentum
A associated with the electron in the two
successive orbits of hydrogen atom is
3 cm h h
(A) (B)
 2
C 4 cm B
h h
2 9 (C) (D) ( n − 1)
(A)  (B)  (C)14  (D) 2.4 2 2
9 2
30. If a monochromatic light of wavelength  is
24. An electric Kettle has two heating coil. When incident on 5 cm thick metallic surface, then
both the coil used in Kettle separately, then stopping potential is V if the same surface is
time taken to boil the same amount of water illuminated by light of wavelength 2,
is 3s and 6s then, find time when both the stopping potential is V/3. Calculate the
coils are connected in series and used threshold wavelength of surface is
(A) 4s (B) 18s (C) 9s (D) 3s 4 8
(A) (B) 4 (C) 6 (D)
3 3
25. The magnetic flux () linked with a coil due
31. A concave mirror of local length f (in air) is
to its own magnetic field is related to the
immersed in water (µ = 4/3). The focal length
number (n) of turns of the coil as of the mirror in water will be
(A)   n2 (B)   n–2 4 3 7
(A) ƒ (B) 3ƒ (C) 4ƒ (D) 3ƒ
(C)   n–1 (D)   n.
32. Which of the following graph is correct when
26. In the network shown the real image distance v formed by a convex
D1 lens is measured for different object distance u.

4
D2 (A) (B)

+ –
5 Volt
(A) The potential difference across D2 is 5 V
(B) Current through resistor equals 0.25 A (C) v (D) v
(C) Current through diode D1 is 1.25 V
(D) Current through diode D2 is 1.25 A. u u
33. In Young's double-slit experiment, slits are 35. A square loop of area 80 cm2 is placed in a
separated by 0.5 mm and the screen is placed uniform magnetic field of induction 0.5 T.
150 cm away. A beam of light consisting of Magnetic field is directed along the plane of
two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used the loop. Magnetic flux associated with the
to obtain interference fringes on the screen. loop is
The least distance from the common central (A) 4 × 10–3 Wb (B) 2 × 10–3 Wb
maximum to the point where the bright fringes
(C) 2√3 × 10–3 Wb (D) Zero
due to both the wavelengths coincide are
(A) 1.56 mm (B) 7.8 mm
(C) 9.75 mm (D) 15.6 mm

34. Which of the following graphs correctly

represents the variation of maximum kinetic
energy of emitted photo electrons (K) w.r.t
wave length () of incident radiation

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
 Section- B
36. When a body is spinning on its axis in 40. Four running forks of frequencies 200, 201,
absence of any external torque, then choose 204 and 206 Hz are sounded together. The
the wrong statement beat frequency will be :-
(A) 6 (B) 12
(A)  can be changed by keeping L same
(C) 15 (D) None of these
(B) L can be changed by keeping  same
41. The root mean square speed of hydrogen
(C) l can be changed by keeping L same
molecules of an ideal hydrogen gas kept in a
(D) l and  both can be changed by keeping gas chamber at 0°C is 3180 m/s. The pressure
L same on the hydrogen gas is
(Density of hydrogen gas is 8.99 × 10-2kg/m3,
37. A platform is arranged at height 2R From the 1 atmosphere = 1.01 × 105 N/m2)
(A) 0.1 atm (B) 1.5 atm
surface of earth, then find ratio of escape
(C) 2.0 atm (D) 3.0 atm
velocity from that platform and from surface
of earth.
42. A monoatomic gas is compressed
(A) 3: 2 (B) 2 :1 8
adiabatically to . of its initial volume, if
(C) 3 :1 (D) 1: 3 27
initial temperature is 27°C, then increase in
temperature
38. Magnitude of acceleration of block A → B is (A) 375 K (B) 275 K (C) 475 K (D) 175 K
aA and aB then find relation between them :
43. Two ions having masses in the ratio 1 : 1, and
charges 1 : 2 are projected into uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to the field with
speeds in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of the radii
of circular paths along which the two
particles move is :
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
(A) aA = aB (B) aA = 4aB
(C) 4aA = aB (D) aA = 2aB 44. Two large parallel sheets uniformly with
surface charge density  and –  are located
39. Find the equivalent spring constant for the as shown in the figure. Which one of the
following arrangement: following graphs shows the variation of
electric filed along a line perpendicular to the
sheets:
K K

(A) (B)

K K

m (C) (D)
2K
(A) (B) 3K/2 (C) 5K/2 (D) K/2
3
45. An inductance, a capacitance and a resistance 48. If the surface of body is perfectly absorptive
are connected in series across a source of and exposed to radiation of intensity I, find
alternating voltage. At resonance, the applied the force experienced by the body ?
voltage and the current flowing through the Intensity
circuit will have a phase difference :
'I'
 
(A) (B) zero (C)  (D)
4 2
H

46. In the circuit E1 has e.m.f. of 12V and zero

internal resistance while the battery E has an R
e.m.f of 2V. If the galvanometer G reads zero, R I2
RHI RHI HRI
then value of the resistance ‘x’ in ohm is (A) (B) (C) (D)
C C 2C C
G
500
X 49. Resolving power of a microscope is given by –
E1 E 2𝜇 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 𝜇 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃
(A) 𝜆2
(B) 𝜆
2𝜇 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 2𝜇 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
(C) (D)
𝜆 𝜆
(A) 100  (B) 500 
(C) 400  (D) 200 
50. In an interference experiment the ratio of
amplitudes of coherent waves is (a1/a2) =
47. In Rutherford's -scattering experiment, what (1/3). The ratio of maximum and minimum
will be the correct angle of scattering for intensities of fringes will be
impact parameter b = 0 (A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 2 (D) 18
(A) 0° (B) 90° (C) 180° (D) 270°
 CHEMISTRY
Section-A
51. Which of the following compound during the 57. The radii of Na+ and Cl– ions are 95 pm and
preparation of Na2CO3 by solvay process ? 181 pm respectively. The edge length of NaCl
(A) NH3, CaCO3, NaCl unit cell is:
(B) NH4, ClCaO, NaCl (A) 276 pm (B) 138 pm
(C) CaCO3, NaCl (C) 552 pm (D) 415 pm
(D) NaCl, NH4HCO3

58. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak

52. For a reaction A→2B the concentration of A
acid HX, the degree of ionization is 0.3.
changes from 0.06M to 0.02M in 20 minute.
Taking kf for water as 1.85, the freezing point
The rate of formation of B will be.
of the solution will be nearest to
(A) 0.002 M min-1 (B) 0.003 M min-1
(A) –0.360°C (B) –0.260°C
(C) 0.004 M min-1 (D) 0.006 M min-1
(C) +0.480°C (D) –0.480°C

53. What is the molarity of a saturated solution of

59. E 0cell for the reaction, 2H2O → H3O+ + OH–
CaCO3? (Ksp = 2.8 × 10–9)
at 25°C is –0.8277V. The equilibrium
(A) 2.6 × 10–5 (B) 2.8 × 10–9
constant for the reaction is:
(C) 5.2 × 10–5 (D) 5.6 × 10–9
(A) 10–14 (B) 10–23 (C) 10–7 (D) 10–21

54. In which of the following reactions is Kp < Kc

60. When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3
?
(excess) is added to KI solution, positively
(A) CO(g) + Cl2(g)  COCl2 (g) charged sol of AgI is formed due to
adsorption of
(B) CH4(g) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + 3H2(g)
(A) NO3– (B) O2– (C) Ag+ (D) K+
(C) 2BrCl(g)  Cl2(g) + Br2(g)

(D) I2(g)  2(g) 61. Which of the following anions is present in

the chain structure of silicates?
(A) SiO−44 (B) Si 2 O76−
55. Which one contains maximum number of
molecules? (C) (Si 2 O52− ) (D) (SiO32− )
n n

(A) 2.5 g molecule of N2

(B) 4 g atom of nitrogen 62. Which of the following transition metal is not
24
(C) 3.01 × 10 atoms of nitrogen coloured ?
(D) 82 g of dinitrogen (A) Cu+ (B) V3+ (C) Co2+ (D) Ni2+

56. What is correct about isothermal expansion of 63. Identify the ore not containing iron:
ideal gas ? (A) Limonite (B) Siderite
(A) Wrev = Wirr (C) Carnalite (D) Magnetite
(B) Wrev + Wirr = 0
64. What is correct sequence of bond order ?
(C) Wrev > Wirr
(A) O+2  O2−  O2 (B) O+2  O2  O−2
(D) qrev = qirr
(C) O2  O2−  O2+ (D) O−2  O2+  O2
65. Out of the following, which compound 71. N2 ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) 2NH3 ( g ) + 22 kcal
exhibits geometrical isomerism ?
The activation energy for forward reaction is
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 50kcal. What is the activation energy for the
(B) CH3 – CH (CH3) – CH (CH3) – CH3 backward reaction?
(C) CH3 – CH (CH3) – CH3 (A) –72 kcal (B) –28 kcal
(D) CH3 CH = CH – CH3 (C) + 28 kcal (D) +72 kcal

66. Decreasing order of – I power of given 72. Both geometrical and optical isomerism are
groups is : shown by
+
(A) CN (B) NO2 (C) NH 3 (D) F (A) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (D) [Cr(ox)3]3–
(A) b > a > d > c (B) b > c > d > a
(C) c > b > d > a (D) c > b > a > d
73. The latest technique for the purification of
organic compounds is:
67. Lindlar’s catalyst is : (A) Fractional distillation
(A) Platinised asbestos (B) Chromatography
(B) Raney Nickel (C) Vaccum distillation
(C) Pd – BaSO4 only (D) Crystallisation
(D) Pd – BaSO4 + Quinoline
74. Find relation between these two isomers :
68. Which one of the following methods cannot
yield alkyl halide ?
(A) CH3COOAg Br2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
anhyd.ZnCl2
•• ⎯→
A

(B) CH3COOAg + Br2 ⎯⎯⎯

→ CCl4
(A) Identical (B) Position
(C) Diasteremers (D) Enantiomers
(C) CH2 = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯
SOCl2
→

(D) CH3 CH2OH + HX ⎯⎯⎯⎯

anhyd.ZnCl2
•• ⎯→ 75. Cumene ⎯⎯⎯⎯ (i) O2
(ii) H O/H+
⎯→ (X) and (Y)
A 2

69. In which of the following reaction, H2O2 acts (X) and (Y) respectively are
as a reduced agent? (A) Toluene, propene
+
(A) HOCl + H2O2 ⎯⎯
H
→ H3O + Cl–+O2 (B) Toluene, propylchloride
– (C) Phenol, acetone
(B) Mn2+ + H2O2 ⎯⎯⎯
OH
→ Mn4++ 2OH–
−
(D) Phenol, acetaldehyde
(C) 2Fe2+ + H2O2 ⎯⎯⎯
OH
→ 2Fe3+ + 2OH–
+
(B) PbS(s) + 4H2O2(aq) ⎯⎯
H
→ PbSO4(s)+ 76. Anti - allergy drugs are called:
4H2O(l) (A) Antimicrobials (B) Antihistamines
(C) Antiviral (D) Antifungals
70. A certain gas takes three times as long to
77. Natural rubber is a polymer of :
effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will
be: (A) 1, 1-dimethylbutadiene

(A) 27 u (B) 36 u (C) 64 u (D) 9 u (B) 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene

(C) 2-chlorobuta-1, 3-diene
(D) 2-chlorobut-2-ene
78. In cellulose, D-glucose units are joined by : 81. On adding AgNO3 solution to a solution of
(A) -1, 4 glycosidic linkage [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl. The percentage of non-
ionsable chloride ion is
(B) -1, 6 glycosidic linkage
(A) 100 (B) 75 (C) 50 (D) 25
(C) -1, 4 glycosidic linkage
(D) peptide linkage 82. Correct order of M-C  bond strength is
(A) [Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4]– > [Fe(CO)4]2–
O 𝐶𝐻3 𝑀𝑔𝐵𝑟(𝑒𝑥𝑐𝑒𝑠𝑠) (B) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4]– < [Fe(CO)4]2–
79. O→ X, then X is:
𝐻3 𝑂 + (C) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4]– > [Fe(CO)4]2–
H3C OH (D) [Ni(CO)4] = [Co(CO)4]– = [Fe(CO)4]2–
(A) OH
H3C
HO 83. Which of the following statement is not
(B) OH
H3C correct?
O (A) Silicon is extensively used as a
OH
(C) semiconductor
CH3
(B) Carborundum is SiC
O
(D) (C) Silicon occurs in free state in nature
(D) Mica contains the element silicon
80. HCl/ZnCl2
CH3–CH2–CH–CH3 [X]
OH 84. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives:

Identify X and the mechanism of the reaction (A) Xe (B) XeO2

(A) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—Cl & SN1 (C) XeO3 (D) XeO4

(B) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—Cl & SN2

(C) CH3—CH—CH2—CH3 & SN1 85. The two strong acids present in the acid rain
are :
Cl
(A) NHO2 and HNO3 (B) H2SO4 and HNO3
(D) CH3—CH—CH2—CH3 & SN2 (C) H2SO4 and HCl (D) H2CO3 and HCl
Cl
 Section – B
86. The thermal stability of BaCO3, CaCO3, 93. In Wurtz reaction, n- hexane is obtained
SrCO3 and MgCO3 decreases in the order : from:
(A) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 (A) n – Propyl chloride (B) n – Butyl chloride
(B) CaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3 (C) Ethyl chloride (D) Isopropyl chloride
(C) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3
(D) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 94. 2.5 cm3 of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution is diluted to
0.5 dm3. Find normality of the diluted
87. The hydrogen ion concentration of the oceans solution:
is about 2 × 10–9 M. What is the pH? (A) 0.2 N (B) 0.02 N
(A) 8.85 (B) 9.3 (C) 7.85 (D) 8.7 (C) 0.002 N (D) 0.04 N

88. What is the orbital angular momentum of an 95. The set representing the correct order of ionic
radius is :
electron in f-orbital?
(A) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
1.5h 6h 3h 3h
(A) (B) (C) (D) (B) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
  2 
(C) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+
(D) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+
89. The standard enthalpies of formation of
CO2(g) , H2O() and glucose (s) at 25° C are – 96. Which of the following can’t form
400 kJ/mole, – 300 kJ/mole, –1300 kJ./mole CH3COOH from C2H5OH ?
respectively. The standard enthalpy of (A) PCC (B) PDC
combustion per gram of glucose at 25° C is : (C) K2Cr2O7 / H+
(D) Micoderma aceti
(A) –2900 kJ (B) + 2900 kJ (A) A and B only (B) C and D only
(C) –16.11 kJ (D) +16.11 kJ (C) Only A (D) All A,B,C,D

90. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 97. An organic compound gives precipitate with
20 sec–1. How much time it will take to benzene sulphonyl chloride which is soluble
in KOH organic compound is :-
1
reduce the concentration of reactant to th
100
(A)
of its initial value?
(A) 2.303 sec (B) 0.2303 sec (B) CH3CH2NH2
(C) 23.03 sec (D) 0.4606 sec (C) CH3NHCH3
(D) (CH3)3 N
91. Which of the following species given below
have shape similar to XeOF4 ? 98. Give the correct order of increasing acidity of
+ + the following compounds –
(A) XeO3 (B) IOF 4 (C) PCl5 (D) XeF 5

(I) OH (II) OH
92. Which electronic configuration of neutral
atoms will have the highest first ionisation (III) COOH (IV) CCH
energy ?
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (A) II < I < IV < III (B) IV < II < I < III
2 2 2 2 2 1
(C) 1s 2s 2p (D) 1s 2s 2p (C) I < II < IV < III (D) IV < I < II < III
99. Which of the following options is according 100. When two hydrogen atoms approach each
with the property mentioned against them? other to form H 2 molecule, the potential
(A) MI > MBr > MCI > MF energy diagram obtained is:
(Ionic character) (d = interatomic distance)
(B) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(A) (B)
(Bond dissociation energy)
(C) HI < HBr < HCl < HF
(Hydrogen-halogen bond strength)
(D) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(C) (D)
(Boiling point)
 BOTANY
Section-A
101. A special structure, which is formed by the 106. Select the statement which best explains
extension of plasmamembrane in bacteria and parasitism
contains vesicles, tubules and lamellae, is (A) One organism is benefited
called (B) Both the organisms are benefited
(A) Chromatophore (B) Gas vacuoles (C) One organism is benefited, other is not
(C) Mesosome (D) Inclusion bodies affected
(D) One organism is benefited, other is harmed
102. A large starch grain (BB) seeded pea plant is
crossed with small starch grain (bb) seeded 107. Given pedigree shows inheritance of
pea plant. In F1 generation the grain having autosomal recessive gene. What is the
genotype Bb exhibit genotype of given parents X & Y respectively?
(A) Round seeds and large starch grain
(B) Round seeds and short starch grain
(C) Wrinkled seeds and short strach grain
(D) Round seeds and intermediate starch
grain
(A) AA, aa (B) aa, AA
103. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. Puccinia (C) aa, Aa (D) Aa, Aa
(A) Called as rust fungi
(B) Sex organs are present 108. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
(C) Mycelium is branched and septate matched?
(D) Vegetative reproduction takes place by Mode of reproduction Example
Fragmentation (A) Leaf buds Bryophyllum
(B) Bulbil Agave
104. Match the columns and select the correct (C) Binary fission Hydra
option. (D) Offset Eichhornia
Column I Column II
(A) Active transport (i) Binary fission 109. Parietal placentation is found in
(B) Golgi body (ii) Na+/K+ pump (A) Primrose (B) Argemone
(C) Mitochondria (iii) Acid hydrolase (C) Pea (D) Waterlily
(D) Lysosome (iv) Packaging of
proteins 110. Pick up the wrong statement w.r.t Calvin
(A) A(ii), B(iv), C(i), D(iii) cycle
(B) A(ii), B(iv), C(iii), D(i) (A) Calvin cycle occurs in all photosynthetic
(C) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) plants
(D) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(iv) (B) In Calvin Cycle requires 12 ATP and 12
NEDPH2 for one glucose
105. A population growing in a habitat with
(C) RuBP is main enzyme
limited resources does not show
(D) Carboxylation is the most crucial step of
(A) Lag phase (B) stationary phase
the Calvin Cycle
(C) J-shaped curve (D) Sigmoid curve
111. Read the following statements and choose 116. Choose the incorrectly matched pair
how many of them is/are correct? (A) Sonalika – Wheat variety
(i) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites (B) IR-8 – Rice variety
and remain inert outside the host cell
(C) Jaya – Maize variety
(ii) A virus can have both DNA and RNA as
(D) Himgiri – Wheat variety
genetic material
(iii) Viroids usually cause plant diseases
(iv) prions have infectious RNA. 117. BOD of wastewater is estimated by
(A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) One measuring the amount of
(A) Total organic matter present in it
112. Ribonucleoprotein particles (B) Biodegradable inorganic matter present in it
A. Are called palade particle (C) Oxygen evolution during aerobic sludge
B. Are also found on nuclear membrane digestion
C. Are cell inclusions of eukaryotes only (D) Oxygen consumption by flocs during
D. Are made up of rRNA and proteins
degradation of organic matter
(A) All are correct except A and B
(B) All are correct except C
118. One of the ex-situ conservation methods for
(C) All are correct except C and D
endangered species is
(D) All are correct except A
(A) Wildlife sanctuaries
113. What is true about heartwood? (B) Biosphere reserves
(i) It does not help in water conduction (C) Cryopreservation
(ii) It is also called alburnum (D) National parks
(iii) It is dark in colour
(iv) Tyloses are found in it 119. The percentage of forest cover recommended
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) by the National Forest Policy (1988) is
(B) All (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(A) 33% for plains and 67 % for hills
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) 37% for plains and 63% for hills
(D) (i), (ii)
(C) 23% for plains and 77% for hills
114. The pyramid of number in tree ecosystem (D) 30% for plains and 60% for hills
(A) Inverted (B) Upright
(C) Spindle (D) All of the above 120. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is
(A) Oxygen (B) NADH
115. Match the columns and select the correct (C) ADP (D) ATP
option
Column I Column II
121. Penicillin inhibits bacterial multiplication
(a) Auxin (i) Widely used PGR in
because
agriculture
(A) It checks spindle formation
(b) Gibberellin (ii) Delay of senescence
(c) Cytokinin (iii) Internode (B) It destroys chromatin
elongation (C) It inhibits cell wall formation
(d) Ethylene (iv) Promotes rooting (D) It checks RNA synthesis
(A) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(B) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 122. For a given character, a gamete is always
(C) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (A) Homozygous (B) Pure
(D) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(C) Hybrid (D) Heterozygous
123. Select incorrect statement 130. Which DNA molecule among the following
(A) Kingdom protista includes single celled will melt at lower temperature?
eukaryotes (A) 5’ATGCTAGT3’ (B) 5’GCAATAGCT3’
(B) Most fungi are saprophytic in their mode (C) 5’AATAAAGC3’ (D) 5’AATGCTGC3’
of nutrition
(C) Lichen are not included in five kingdom
131. A polygenic inheritance is controlled by three
(D) Most extensive metabolic diversity is
pairs of genes. Two individuals that are
found in kingdom having Chlorella
heterozygous for three alleles are crossed
124. Which of the following is a free living each other, such type of cross produces
phenotypic ratio of
nitrogen fixing bacteria?
(A) Azotobacter (B) Rhizobium (A) 1 : 2 : 1
(C) Nitrococcus (D) Both (A) and (B) (B) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
125. In Mango A fruit is present and B is (D) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 :15 : 6 : 1
edible part.
(A) A – Pome, B – Endosperm
132. Phragmoplast is
(B) A – Lonentum, B – Seed
(C) A – Berry, B – Endocarp (A) Related to plastids
(D) A – Drupe, B – Mesocarp (B) A centrifugal cell furrow
(C) A plate formed by secretory vesicles in
126. PEPcase is found in animal cell
(A) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(D) A cell plate precursor, formed by Golgi
(B) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants
complex
(C) Bundle sheath of C3 plants
(D) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
133. The factors which represent the contrasting
127. The final acceptor of electrons in non-cyclic pair of gene.
electron transport in the thylakoid membrane is (A) Dominant and recessive
(A) Phaeophytin (B) NADP+ (B) Alleles
(C) Oxygen (D) Cytochrome a3 (C) Homologous pairs
(D) Determinants
128. In an old tree like Pinus, sugar is translocated
mainly through
(A) Heart wood 134. Denaturation of DNA occurs due to
(B) Primary xylem (A) High temperature
(C) Secondary phloem (B) Low temperature
(D) Primary phloem (C) Isolation for a long period
(D) Long exposure to air
129. Find the odd one w.r.t. phloem in
angiosperms
135. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by
(A) Phloem fibres are also called bast fibres
(B) Companion cells are living cells (A) Out crossing
(C) Seive tubes are usually present in (B) Inbreeding
angiosperms (C) Interspecific hybridisation
(D) Bast fibres are living cells (D) Cross breeding
 Section-B
136. Choose wrong statement w.r.t bulliform cells 144. In the sewage treatment, bacterial flocs are
(A) Found on abaxial epidermis of grasses allowed to sediment in a settling tank. This
(B) Are large, empty and colourless cells sediment is called as
(C) Also called as motor cells
(A) Inactivated sludge
(D) Help to minimise loss of water
(B) Activated sludge
137. In which organism, transcription and (C) Primary sludge
translation take place in same compartment? (D) Secondary sludge
(A) Volvox (B) Penicillium
(C) E.coli (D) pinus
145. How many hot spots are identified globally?
138. Which algae have chlorophyll a & d? (A) 20 (B) 3 (C) 34 (D) 50
(A) Brown algae (B) Red algae
(C) Green algae (D) Blue green algae
146. Which of the following materials is non
biodegradable and causes biomagnification?
139. Which of the following RNA polymerase
transcribes precursor of mRNA? (A) Coal (B) Urea
(A) RNA polymerase-I (C) DDT (D) Nitrates
(B) RNA polymerase-II
(C) RNA polymerase-III
147. How many stop codons are in following
(D) Both (A) and (B)
sequence 5’CCUGAG3’
140. An international treaty known as the Montreal (A) One (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
protocol signed in
(A) 1987 (B) 1989 (C) 1991 (D) 1982 148. Chromosomes are thickest during
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase
141. The enzyme which plays an important role in
biological N2 fixation (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
(A) Glutamate dehydrogenase
(B) Transaminase 149. Seed without fruit is found in
(C) Nitrogenase
(A) Bryophyte
(D) Pyruvate kinase
(B) Alga
142. These all are non-membranous structures, (C) Gymnosperm
except (D) Pteridophyte
(A) Centriole (B) Ribosomes
(C) Thylakoid (D) Nucleolus
150. Male sex organ of Marchantia is called
143. The method of producing thousands of plants (A) Gynoecium (B) Antheridium
through tissue culture is called (C) Archegonium (D) Strobilus
(A) Somatic hybridisation
(B) Micropropagation
(C) Biofortification
(D) Totipotency
 ZOOLOGY
Section-A
151. Which of the following animal was earlier 157. Mark the true statement among the following
considered as chordate but now it is with reference to normal breathing :
considered as "Non-chordate" ? (A) On an average, a healthy human breathes
(A) Asterias (B) Branchiostoma 12-16 times/minute.
(C) Balanoglossus (D) Ascidia
(B) Inspiration is an active process where as
expiration is passive process
152. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs of :
(C) The volume of air involved in breathing
(A) Hirudinaria, Scorpion, Bombyx, Apis
movements can be estimated by using a
(B) Periplaneta, Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer
spirometer
(C) Prawn, Cockroach, Scorpion, Ancyclostoma
(D) All of the above
(D) Cockroach, Crab, Nereis, Spider

153. Chondrocytes and osteocytes
characteristic feature of :
(A) Glandular connective tissue
(B) Skeletal connective tissue
(C) Fibrous connective tissue
(D) Nervous tissue
are 158. Blood normally contain ____ platelets mm–3.
(A) 1,500,00 to 3,500,00
(B) 6000 to 8000
(C) 5 million to 5.5 millions
(D) 40,000 to 50,000

154. In which part of alimentary canal of 159. Figure shows schematic plan of blood
cockroach, thickest cuticle and musculature is circulation in humans with labels I to IV.
Identify the labels and choose correct option.
found ?
(A) Crop (B) Proventriculus
(C) Mesenteron (D) Colon

155. Rugae are irregular mucosal folds of __A__

while small finger like folding of __B__ are
called as villi.
(A) A - Stomach, B - large intestine
(B) A - Stomach, B - Small intestine
(A) III-Vena cava – takes blood from body
(C) A - Small intestine, B - Stomach
parts to the left atrium
(D) A - Oesophagus, B - Stomach
(B) I- Pulmonary vein – takes de-oxygenated
156. Which of the following is/are characteristic of blood from Lungs
saliva ? (C) IV-Pulmonary vein – takes blood from
(i) It contains Na+, Cl–, HCO3− . K+ (optimum heart to the lungs
pH – 6.8) (D) II-Dorsal aorta–takes blood from heart to
(ii) Salivary amylase hydrolysed maltose into the body parts
glucose.
(iii) Saliva has an antibacterial agent 160. Columns of Bertini are:
lysozyme.
(A) Conical masses of Renal Medulla
(iv) About 60% starch is hydrolysed in buccal
(B) Medulla extends in between the cortex
cavity by salivary amylase.
Options : (C) Cortex extends in between the medullary
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii pyramids
(C) ii and iv (D) i and iii (D) Broad funnel shaped space of ureter
161. Find out the incorrect statement with
regarding to muscle fibres :
(A) Skeletal muscles are closely associated
with the skeletal components of the body.
(B) Visceral muscles are located in the inner
walls of hollow visceral organs of the
body
(C) Visceral muscles exhibit striations and are
smooth in appearance.
(D) Many cardiac muscle cells assemble in a
branching pattern to form a cardiac
muscle.
162. Arrange the following events of muscle
contraction in the sequence
(i) Generate an action potential in the
sarcolemma
(ii) Form a cross bridge
(iii) Release a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine)
(iv) Release of calcium ions
(v) Pulls the attached actin filaments towards
the centre of "A" band
(vi) Remove the masking of active sites for
myosin
The correct option is :
(A) iii → i → iv → ii → v → vi
(B) iii → iv → i → ii → vi → v
(C) i → ii → iii → iv → v → vi
(D) iii → i → iv → vi → ii → v
163. Which of the following is not correctly
matched:
(A) Association areas - memory
(B) Hypothalamus - urge for eating
(C) Cerebellum - Balance
(D) Medulla oblongata - Temperature
regulation
164. The aperture controlling the light entering in
eye is called :
(A) Iris (B) Pupil
(C) Blind spot (D) Sclerotic layer
165. Estrogen hormone :
(A) Interacts with membrane - bound
receptors
(B) Never enters the cell
(C) Enters the cell and form hormone
receptor complexes that bind to DNA
(D) Generates second messenger, cAMP
166. The blastomeres cells in the blastocyst are
arranged into –
(A) Outer cell mass and inner trophoblast
(B) Outside trophoblast and inner cell mass
(C) Blastoderm and blastocoel
(D) Blastoderm and archenteron
167. During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact
with the _______of the ovum and induces
changes in the membrane that block the entry
of additional sperms.
(A) Corona radiata layer
(B) Perivitelline space
(C) Zona pellucida layer
(D) Corpus luteum
168. Position of clitoris –
(A) At the upper junction of two labia minora
below the vaginal opening.
(B) At the upper junction of two labia majora
below the urethral opening.
(C) At the upper junction of two labia minora
above the urethral opening.
(D) At the upper junction of labia majora
above the urethral opening.
169. Which statement is not true regarding IUDs ?
(A) IUDs devices are inserted by doctors or
expert nurses
(B) Lippes loop, Cu-T, multiload 375 and
progestasert are examples of IUDs
(C) LNG-20 act by releasing Cu+2 ions
(D) IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the
females
170. All of the following except one are
complications of STD’s that occurs later.
(A) Pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID)
(B) Ectopic pregnancy
(C) still birth
(D) fluid discharge from genital organs
171. What is the figure given below showing in
particular?
(A) Vasectomy (B) Ovarian cancer
(C) Uterine cancer (D) Tubectomy
172. Which of the following will not be useful as a
prevention in acquiring STDs?
(A) In case of doubt, one should go to a
qualified doctor for early detection
(B) Use of condoms during coitus
(C) Use of oral pills
(D) Get complete treatment if diagnosed with
infection
173. During human evolution the body of which
primitive ancestors covered by hairs and walk
like gorilla and chimpanzee ?
(A) Dryopithecus and cromagnon
(B) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
(C) Ramapithecus and Homohabilis
(D) Java man and Peking man
174. In 1953 S.L. Miler created similar condition
in a laboratory scale. He created electric
discharge in a closed flask containing CH4,
H2, NH3 and water vapour and observed
formation of amino acid at the temperature :
(A) 400°C (B) 1000° C
(C) 800° C (D) 1200° C
175. Statement A : Flippers of penguins and
dolphins are example of homology.
Statement B : Analogous structures are the
result of convergent evolution.
(A) Statement B is correct and statement A is
wrong
(B) Both the statement A and B are correct
(C) Statement A is correct and statement B is
wrong
(D) Both the statement A and B are wrong.
176. Which one provides correct sequence of
events in origin of species according to
Darwinism ?
(a) Natural selection
(b) Variation and their inheritance
(c) Survival of fittest
(d) Struggle for existence
(A) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d)
(B) (b) → (d) → (c) → (a)
(C) (d) → (b) → (c) → (a)
(D) (b) → (c) → (a) → (d)
177. Among the following, how many diseases are
not caused by bacterial pathogens ?
Typhoid, Pneumonia, Common cold, Malaria,
Plague, AIDS, Dysentery, Ringworm,
Filariasis, Diphtheria
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 4
178. i. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium
ii. Sustained high fever (39°C to 40°C)
iii. Intestinal perforation in severe cases
iv. Confirmed by “widal test”
v. “Marry Mallon” was a carrier
Above statements are true for :
(A) Plague (B) Diphtheria
(C) Typhoid (D) Dysentery
179. Antigen is :
(A) Substances that stimulates the production
of venom
(B) Vaccine
(C) Antibody production stimulating agent
(D) A type of pathogen
180. Find out the correct statement regarding 183. What is the source of EcoRI
Thymus : (A) Escherichia coli RI
(A) Immature lymphocytes differentiate into (B) Escherichia coli RI l3
antigen – sensitive lymphocytes (C) Escherichia coli RX 13
(B) Micro-environment is provided for (D) Escherichia coli RY 13
development and maturation of T-
lymphocytes
184. An example of gene silencing is
(C) Remains active through out of the life.
(A) Bt Cotton
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Flavr savr tomato
(C) Transgenic Maize
181. A sexually transmitted disease that can be
treated with antibiotics is : (D) Transgenic rice

(A) Genital herpes (B) Hepatitis B

185. The DNA molecule to which the gene of
(C) Syphilis (D) AIDS
interest is integrated for cloning is called.
(A) Vector (B) Template
182. Biological principles as applied to animal
(C) Carrier (D) Trasformer
husbandry and food production. Which of the
following technique is going to play a pivotal
role in further enhancing food production?
(A) Tissue culture technique
(B) Embryo transfer technique
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
 Section-B
186. Body cavity is the cavity present between
body wall and gut wall. In some animals the
body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such
animals are called________.
(A) Acoelomate
(B) Pseudocoelomate
(C) Coelomate
(D) Haemocoelomate
187. The correct statement with respect to
epithelial tissue is :
I – This tissue has a free surface
II – cells have little intercellular space
III – cells have little intercellular matrix
IV – it is single or multilayered
(A) I & IV (B) II & III
(C) I, III & IV (D) All of these
188. Expiration takes place when the intra
pulmonary pressure is :
(A) Greater than the atmospheric pressure
(B) Lesser than atmospheric pressure
(C) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(D) Equal to intrapleural pressure
189. Towards the centre of the inner concave
surface of the kidney is a notch called _____
through which ureter, blood vessels and
nerves enter.
(A) Renal Pelvis (B) Hilum
(C) Minor calyx (D) Renal cortex
190. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding human skeletal system?
(A) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone
situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
(B) Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral
midline of thorax
(C) Hyoid is a single U-shaped bone present
at the base of buccal cavity
(D) The two halves of the pectoral girdle
meet ventrally to form the pubic
symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.
191. Second largest part of the brain which have very
convoluted surface in order to provide the
additional space for many more neurons, is :
(A) Cerebrum (B) Cerebellum
(C) Thalamus (D) Medulla oblongata
192. Secretion of which of the following hormones
is not influenced by pituitary gland :
(A) Thyroxin and cortisol
(B) Estrogen and T4
(C) Adrenaline and PTH
(D) Progesterone and cortisol
193. Marks the incorrect match –
(A) Fimbriae → Collection of ovum after
ovulation.
(B) Endometrium → Undergoes cycle change
during menstrual cycle.
(C) Labia majora → Large fleshy folds of
tissues surround the vaginal opening
(D) Each ovary → Connected to the
abdominal wall and vagina by ligaments.
194. Peak level of progesterone occur at ____ of
menstrual cycle.
(A) 10th day (B) 14th day
(C) 22nd day (D) 3rd day
195. Infertility cases due to inability to inseminate
female or due to very low sperm counts in the
ejaculates, could be corrected by preferably :
(A) ICSI (B) AI (C) IUT (D) IVF
196. Therapsids were evolved into :
(A) Dinosaurs (B) Reptiles
(C) Birds (D) Mammals
197. According to Hugo de Vries, speciation due
to mutation is also known as saltation which
means___________.
(A) Single-step variation
(B) Variations at regular intervals
(C) Single-step large mutation
(D) Multi-step large mutation
198. Which of the following individuals are at
high risk of HIV infection?
(A) Individuals having multiple sex partners
(B) Individuals who required repeated blood
transfusion
(C) Drug addicts who takes drugs
intravenously
(D) All of the above

199. Product of biotechnology is

(A) Transgenic crop (GM crop)
(B) Humulin
(C) Biofertilizer
(D) All of the above

200. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop.

When released for cultivation, it will help in
(A) Herbicide tolerance
(B) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice
(C) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency
(D) Pest resistance