PW – AITS_NT-21

PHYSICS
(Section A)

1. The respective number of significant figures 5. If the gravitational force had varied as r–5/2
for the number instead of r–2, the potential energy of a
particle at a distance r from the centre of the
24.403, 2.1 × 10–3, 0.0003 and 0.4 × 104
Earth would be proportional to :
(A) 5, 2, 1, 1 (B) 5, 2, 1, 2 (A) r3/2 (B) r–3/2 (C) r (D) r–5/2
(C) 5, 2, 4, 2 (D) 5, 5, 4, 1
6. The two spheres, one of which is hollow and
other solid, have identical masses and
2. An object is moving in negative direction
moment of inertia about their respective
with a negative acceleration. The velocity- diameters. The ratio of their radii is given by
time graph with constant acceleration which (A) 5 : 7 (B) 3 : 5
represents the above situation is : (C) 3 : 5 (D) 3 : 7

7. The length of a metal wire is 10 cm when the

(A) tension in it is 20 N and 12 cm when the
tension is 40 N. Then natural length of the
wire is (in cm)
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 9
(B)
1
8. A small hole is made at a height of from
3
the bottom of the cylindrical water tank and at
a depth of h = 1.71 m from the upper level of
(C) water in the tank. What is the distance, where
the water emerging form the hole strike the
ground ?
(A) 6 m (B) 4 m
(C) 3 m (D) 2 m
(D) 9. A vertical spring carries a 5 kg body and is
hanging in equilibrium an additional force is
applied so that the spring is further stretched.
When released from this position, it performs
3. Same force acts on two bodies of different 50 complete oscillations in 25 s, with an
masses 8 kg and 10 kg initially at rest. The amplitude of 5 cm. The additional force
ratio of times required to acquire same final applied is
velocity is : (A) 80 N (B) 80 2 N
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 8 : 11 (C) 39.5 N (D) 4 N
(C) 4 : 5 (D) 2 : 3 10. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls
4. In a projectile motion, where is the angular down an inclined plane of height h. The
momentum minimum ? angular velocity of the cylinder when it
(A) At the starting point reaches the bottom of the plane will be
(B) On the landing point 1 2
(A) gh (B) gh
(C) Highest point of projectile 2R R
(D) As no such position 2 gh 2 gh
(C) (D)
R 3 R 2
11. For equilibrium of the system, value of mass 16. A magnet of moment 4 Am2 is kept
m should be suspended in a magnetic field of induction
5 × 10–5 T. The work done in rotating it
through 180° is :
(A) 4 × 10–4 J (B) 5 × 10–4 J
(C) 2 × 10–4 J (D) 10–4 J
(A) 9 kg (B) 15 kg
(C) 21 kg (D) 1 kg
17. The magnetic field B and the magnetic
12. A and B are the two concentric circular intensity H in a material are found to be 1.6T
conductors of center O and carrying currents
and 1000 A/m respectively. Calculate the
I1 and I2 as shown in the adjacent figure. If
ratio of their radii is 1 : 2 and ratio of the flux relative permeability µr and the susceptibility
densities at O due to A and B is 1 : 3 then the  of material.
value of I1/I2 is : (A) 1.3 × 10–3 each (B) 1.3 × 103 each
(C) 3.1 × 10–3 each (D) 3.1 × 103 each

18. Find the temperature of junction at B, if each

rod has equal area of cross-section.
100°C L B L 40°C
(A) 1/6 (B) 1/4 A k 2k C
(C) 1/3 (D) 1/2 2L
k
D
13. The frequency of a whistle of an engine is 20°C
660 cycles/sec is moving with the speed of 30 90 50
m/sec towards an observer. The apparent (A) °C (B) °C
7 7
frequency will be (velocity of sound = 330
380 280
m/s) (C) °C (D) °C
7 5
(A) 600 cps (B) 726 cps
(C) 990 cps (D) 330 cps
19. When a process is taken from process abc
14. A particle of mass 3 kg is moving along 100 J of heat is absorbed by system and 50 J
x-axis and its position at time t is given by of work is done by it. If work done in process
equation x = (2t2 + 5) m. Work done by all adc is 60 J, then heat absorbed in this process
the force acting on it in time interval t = 0 to
P
t = 3 s is : d c
(A) 144 J (B) 72 J
(C) 108 J (D) 216 J
a b
V
15. If a force of 9 N is acting on a body, then find (A) 200 J (B) 250 J (C) 110 J (D) 90 J
instantaneous power supplied to the body
when its velocity is 5 m/s in the direction of
20. A sample of ideal gas ( = 1.4) is heated at
force constant pressure. If an amount of 140 J heat
(A) 195 watt (B) 45 watt is supplied to the gas, then change in internal
(C) 75 watt (D) 100 watt energy of the gas
(A) 40 J (B) 120 J
(C) 100 J (D) 50 J
21. Two capacitors C1 = C and C2 = 3C are 25. The maximum value of alternating emf E in
connected as shown in figure. Initially, key K the given circuit will be :
is open and capacitor C1 holds charge Q. after VR = 80 V VC = 100 V
closing the key K, the charge on each
capacitor at steady state will be :
C1 VL = 40 V

~
E = 50Hz
(A) 220 V (B) 140 V
K
(C) 100 V (D) 20 V

C2 26. In the given circuit bulbs are rated as B1

(50w, 220V) B2(50w, 220V) B3(220V, 50w)
Q Q Q 3Q
(A) , (B) , B4(50w, 220V) & B5(220V, 100w) Among
4 4 4 4
these bulbs which glow brightest?
3Q 3Q Q
(C) , (D) , Q
4 4 3

22. The linear charge density of the semicircular

ring on both side is same in magnitude. The
electric field intensity at O is along

++ Y
+ (A) B1 (B) B3
+
X (C) B5 (D) All of these

(A) iˆ (B) −iˆ 27. The specific resistance of manganin is

50 × 10–8 –m. The resistance of a cube of
(C) ĵ (D) − ĵ length 50 cm about any two phase will be
(A) 10–6  (B) 2.5 × 10–5 
23. An electric dipole having moment p is placed (C) 10–8  (D) 5 × 10–4 
in uniform electric field of magnitude E.  be
28. A p-type semiconductor can be obtained by
the angle between dipole moment and electric adding
field vectors. Unstable equilibrium position of (A) Antimony to pure germanium
the dipole corresponds to (B) Phosphorous to pure germanium
(A)  = 0° (B)  = 90° (C) arsenic to pure silicon
(D) gallium to pure silicon
(C)  = 180° (D)  = 120°
29. The charge on the electron and protons is
24. An alternating voltage is given by : reduced to half. Let the present value of the
e = e1sinωt + e2cosωt Rydberg constant be R. What will be the new
value of the Rydberg constant?
Then the root mean square value of voltage is
(A) R/2 (B) R/4
given by : (C) R/8 (D) R/16
(A) e12 + e22 (B) e1e2
30. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number
e1e 2 2
e +e 2 of atoms is 8 × 104. Its half life period is 3
1 2
(C) (D) year. The number of atoms 1 × 104 will
2 2 remain after an interval of
(A) 9 year (B) 8 year
(C) 6 year (D) 24 year
31. Two monochromatic light beams of 34. A single slit of width b is illuminated by
wavelength A and B incident normally on coherent monochromatic light of wavelength.
two separate metallic surfaces and ejecting If the second and fourth minima in the
the photoelectrons. Find ratio of
diffraction pattern at a distance 1 m from the
photoelectrons ejected (both beams have
slit are at 3 cm and 6 cm, respectively from
same intensity)
λA λB the central maximum, what is the width of the
(A) (B) central maximum? (i.e. the distance between
λB λA
2 2 the first minimum on either side of the central
λ  λ 
(C)  A  (D)  B  maximum)
 λB   λA  (A) 6.0 cm (B) 1.5 cm
(C) 4.5 cm (D) 3.0 cm
32. Calculate the velocity of the light ray in the
medium, if the critical angle for TIR from
medium to the vacuum is 30° : 35. Light from two coherent sources of the same
(A) 2 × 108 m/s (B) 1.5 × 108 m/s
8 amplitude A and wavelength  illuminates the
(C) 0.75 × 10 m/s (D) 3 × 108 m/s
screen. The intensity of the central maximum
33. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for light is I0. If the sources were incoherent, the
where wavelength in vacuum is 6000 Å. Its
wavelength in glass is intensity at the same point will be :
(A) 2000 Å (B) 4000 Å (A) 4I0 (B) 2I0
(C) 1000 Å (D) 3000 Å
(C) I0 (D) 0.5I0
 Section - B
36. From a uniform square plate, one-fourth 41. An open pipe resonates with a tuning fork of
part is removed as shown. Center of mass of frequency 500 Hz. it is observed that two
remaining part will lie on successive nodes are formed at distances 26
A D and 56 cm from the open end. The speed of
sound in air in the pipe is
O
(A) 230 m/s (B) 300 m/s
(C) 320 m/s (D) 360 m/s
B C

42. A cylinder of capacity 20 litres is filled with

(A) CO (B) OA
H2 gas. The total average kinetic energy of
(C) OB (D) OD
translational motion of its molecules is
37. An object weighs 10 N at the north pole of 1.5 × 105 J. The pressure of hydrogen in the
the earth. In a geostationary satellite distant 7 cylinder is
R from the centre of the earth (of radius R), (A) 2 × 106 N/m2 (B) 3 × 106 N/m2
the true weight and the apparent weight are (C) 4 × 106 N/m2 (D) 5 × 106 N/m2
(A) 0 N, 0 N (B) 0.2 N, 0
(C) 0.2 N, 9.8 N (D) 0.2 N, 0.2 N 43. A charge Q0 is placed at centre of spherical
cavity of a conductor and another charge Q. is
38. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined placed outside the conductor. The correct
surface with angle of inclination . The statement is:
incline is given an acceleration ‘a’ to keep
the block stationary. Then ‘a’ is equal to

(A) Force on Q0 and Q are equal and opposite

(B) Force on Q0 is zero and force on Q is non-
g
(A) (B) g cosec  zero
tan
(C) Force on Q and Q0 is zero
(C) a (D) g tan 
(D) Force on Q0 is non-zero and force on Q is
39. If linear momentum (P) ; acceleration (A) and zero
time (T) are taken to be fundamental
quantities, then dimensional formula for Mass 44. An electromagnetic wave is propagating in
is vacuum along z-axis, the electric field
(A) P–1A–1T–1 (B) P1A–1T–1 component is given by Ex = E0 sin (kz – t),
(C) P–1A1T1 (D) P–2A1T2
then magnetic component is
E0
40. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a (A) Bx = sin(kz – ωt)
C
magnetic field B along its axis. If the current
B0
(B) By = sin(kz – ωt)
is doubled and the number of turns per cm is C
halved, the new value of the magnetic field is: E0
(C) By = sin(kz – ωt)
(A) B/2 (B) B C

(C) 2B (D) 4B (D) By =B Csin (kz – wt)

45. The current passing through the ideal 48. Which logic gate is represented by the
ammeter in the circuit given below is following combination of logic gates in figure ?
Y1
A
Y
B
Y2
(A) OR (B) NAND
(C) AND (D) NOR
(A) 1.25A (B) 1A (C) 0.75A (D) 0.5A

49. Graph shown below gives relation between

46. In an inductor the current l varies with time t the photocurrent and applied voltage. Find
as l = 5A + 16(A/s) t. If induced emf in the maximum kinetic energy of emitted
inductor is 5 mV, the self inductance of the
photoelectrons ?
inductor is
(A) 3.75 × 10–3H (B) 3.75 × 10–4H
(C) 3.125 × 10–3H (D) 3.125 × 10–4H 0.8 A

47. In figure the approximate value of potential

drop. V0 across R is applied
2
R
(A) 2 e (B) 1.2 e
(C) 2.8 e (D) zero.
R V0
10V
50. The magnification power of a compound
(A) 0 (B) –5 V microscope does not depend upon

(C) 5 V (D) 10 V (A) The focal length and aperture of the eye lens
(B) The apertures of the objective lens
(C) Tube length of the microscope
(D) None of the above
 CHEMISTRY
Section-A
51. Which of the following option shows the 55. What weight of copper will be deposited by
correct order of decreasing acidity: passing 2 Faraday of electricity through a
(A) PhCO2H > PhSO3H > PhCH2OH > PhOH solution of Cu (II) salt?
(B) PhSO3H > PhOH > PhCH2OH > (A) 35.6 g (B) 63.5 g
PhCH2OH (C) 6.35 g (D) 3.56 g
(C) PhCO2H > PhOH > PhCH2OH > PhSO3H
(D) PhSO3H > PhCO2H > PhOH > PhCH2OH 56. Which of the following complex ion is not
expected to absorb visible light?
52. Which of the following compound show (A) [Ni(CN)4]2– (B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
geometrical isomerism ? (C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(A) 1-pentene
(B) 2-pentene 57. Which of the following complex is
(C) 2-methyl-2-butene paramagnetic, inner orbital complex and
(D) 2-methyl-1-butene coloured?
(A) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (B) [Co(H2O)6]2+
Br2/CCl4 (C) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (D) [Co(NH3)6]3+
53. CH3—CH—CH=CH2 X (Major)

CH3 58. Which method is not correct given for

refining of crude metals?
X will be
(A) Distillation: Zn and Hg
Br Br
(B) Liquiation : Sn
(A) CH3—C—CH—CH3 (C) Van Arkel: Zr
(D) Mond process : Pb
CH3
59. Uniquely match Column-I to Column-II
Br Br
Column-I Column-II
(B) CH3—CH—CH—CH3 (i) F > Cl > Br (P) decreasing
>I order of E.N.
+
CH3 (ii) I¯ > I > I (Q) decreasing
order of size
Br Br (iii) O2- < O¯ < O (R) increasing
< O+ order of
(C) CH3—C—CH2—CH2 electron
affinity
CH3 (iv) O > C > B (S) Magnitude of
Heg
Br Br
(A) i(R), ii(Q), iii(P), iv(S)
(B) i(P), ii(Q), iii(R), iv(S)
(D) CH2—CH—CH—CH3
(C) i(Q), ii(P), iii(S), iv(R)
CH3 (D) i(P), ii(Q), iii(S), iv(R)

60. Which of the following is true-

54. The radius of Ag + is 126 pm while that of I–
(A) AlF3 < Al2O3 < AlN, order of covalent
ions 216 pm. The coordination number of Ag
character
in AgI is
(B) 𝐶𝑙𝑂4− , (𝐶𝑙 − 𝑂)𝐵. 𝑂. = 1.75
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4
(C) Shape of 𝑆𝑏𝐶𝑙52− is square pyramidal
(D) All of these
61. Correct order for bond energies of NO, NO+ 67. Positively charged sol among the following is
and NO¯ (A) Copper sol (B) As2S3 sol
(A) NO > NO+ > NO¯ (C) Haemoglobin (D) Gelatin
(B) NO¯ > NO > NO+
(C) NO+ > NO¯ > NO 68. P4 + NaOH gives sodium salt of
(A) Phosphinic acid
(D) NO+ > NO > NO¯
(B) Phosphoric acid
(C) Pyrophosphorous acid
62. Strength of 10 V H2O2 in g/L is
(D) Metaphosphoric acid
approximately
(A) 50 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 10 69. Which of the following aquated ion is not
coloured ?
63. Which of the following set of quantum (A) Ti4+ (B) V3+
number is possible ? (C) Mn3+ (D) Cr2+
1
(A) n = 4, l = 4, m = –3, s = +
2 70. Which of the following is most basic in
1 nature ?
(B) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s = − (A) La(OH)3 (B) Yb(OH)3
2
(C) Eu(OH)3 (D) Ce(OH)3
1
(C) n = 2, l = 3, m = +3, s = +
2
71. Consider the following reaction
1
(D) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s = −
2

64. Two moles of ideal gas expand isothermally

and reversibly to double its volume at 400°C. Major product P is
The entropy change during the process is (log (A)
2 = 0.3)
(A) 6.74 J (B) 11.5 J
(C) 15.61 J (D) 19.5 J
(B)

65. Negative deviation solution among the

following is/are
(A) Phenol and aniline (C)
(B) Benzene and toluene
(C) Ethanol and acetone
(D)
(D) All of these

66. For the reaction A + B → product following

+
data were obtained. 72. CH3Cl ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
H3O
→B
[A] [B] Initial rate The product B is
(i) 0.1 0.1 0.04 (A) CH3OH (B) C2H5OH
(ii) 0.2 0.1 0.04 (C) CH3CHO (D) CH3COOH
(iii) 0.1 0.2 0.16
Overall order of the reaction is 73. Which among the following will not give
(A) 0 (B) 1 iodoform reaction ?
(C) 2 (D) 3 (A) HCHO (B) CH3CHO
(C) CH3COCH3 (D) C2H5OH
74. Which of the following can give carbylamine 81. Which of the following statements is correct
test ? for P4O10 molecule?
(A) CH3NH2 (B) (A) The lone pairs on each of the four
phosphorus atoms can form a coordinate
bond with an oxygen atom
(B) It contains seven P-O-P bonds
(C) (D) All of these
(C) It is hydrolysed by water, forming H3PO3
(D) Oxidation number of P in P4O10 is
different from that of P in P2O5
75. Monomer(s) of dacron is/are
(A) Ethane-1, 2-diol (B) Terephthalic acid
82. is
(C) Acrylonitrile (D) Both (A) and (B)

(A)
76. Maximum sweetners value is of
(A) Aspartame (B) Saccharin
(C) Sucralose (D) Alitame (B)

77. A compound contains 20% Mg, 26.6% S and

(C)
remaining oxygen. The empirical formula of
the compound is
(A) MgSO (B) MgSO2 (D)
(C) MgSO3 (D) MgSO4
83. Arrange the following compounds in
78. Not redox reaction among the following is decreasing order of nucleophilic addition
(A) KClO3 → KCl + O2 reaction
(B) NaH → Na + H2
(C) HCl + O2 → Cl2 + H2O
(D) CaCO3 →CaO + CO2

79. If  is the degree of dissociation of weak

dibasic organic acid and y is the hydrogen ion (A) (iii) > (i) > (iv) > (ii)
concentration, what is the initial (B) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)
concentration of acid :- (C) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
(y) −1 (D) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
(A) (B) y()–1
2
y() −1 84. Total number of lone pair of electron in I3−
(C) (D) None of them
2 ion is
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
80. Which is incorrect?
(A) C – C bond length in diamond, is greater 85. Which of following is incorrectly matched?
than in graphite (A) Mn2O7 : Basic oxide
(B) Hybridization of C atom is same in (B) Al2O3 : Amphoteric oxide
diamond and graphite (C) Cl2O7 : Acidic oxide
(C) Fullerene has aromatic nature but has two (D) N2O : Neutral oxide
different bond lengths
(D) Graphite can conduct electricity
 Section-B
86. The maximum prescribed concentration of 93. Which one of the following undergoes
iron in drinking water is reduction with hydrogen peroxide in an
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.05 (C) 3.0 (D) 5.0 alkaline medium ?
(A) Mn2+ (B) Cu (C) PbS (D) I2
87. Which of the following carbanion is most
stable?

94. Which of the following sets have correctly
CH2  matched each molecule or ion and its
geometry/shape-
(A) (B)
Tetrahedral Trigonal pyramidal T-shaped Square planar
O2N NO2 (1) CH4 BCl3 𝑁𝑂3− 𝑆𝑂4−2
  (2) CH4 𝑁𝑂3− GaI SnCl4
(3) CCl4 PF3 ICl3 SF4
(C) (D) (4) 𝑆𝑂4−2 NF3 ICI3 XeF4
NO2

95. Which of the following yield straight chain

88. The correct configuration assigned for given
polymer ?
compound :
(A) R4Si (B) R3SiCl
(C) R2SiCl2 (D) RSiCl3

96. Ratio of radius of fourth orbit of He+ ion to

the radius of second orbit of Be3+ ion is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 8 : 1

97. Maximum critical temperature is of

(A) 2R, 3R (B) 2S, 3S
(C) 2R, 3S (D) 2S, 3R (A) H2 (B) CO2 (C) N2 (D) NH3

89. Which of the following on reaction with 98. If enthalpy of combustion of butane is
Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis form –2658 kJ mol–1 then how much heat energy
alcohol ? will be released by the combustion of 5.8 g of
(A) HCHO (B) CH3CHO butane in kJ is
(C) CH3COCH3 (D) All of these (A) 132.9 (B) 265.8 (C) 332.25 (D) 664.5

90. Which among the following is C-2 epimer of 99. If KC for the reaction
D-glucose ?
(A) D-galactose (B) D-Mannose N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) is x
(C) D-Allose (D) D-Fructose then KC for the reaction
1 1
91. In blast furnace, maximum temperature is in: NO(g)  N2 (g) + O2 (g) is
2 2
(A) Zone of fusion
1 1 1
(B) Zone of combustion (A) x2 (B) (C) (D)
(C) Zone of slag formation x x2 x
(D) Zone of reduction
100. The molarity of aqueous NaCl solution which
92. E.m.f. of the cell contains 5.85 g NaCl in 500 ml solution is
2Ag+ + Cu ⎯→ Cu+2 + 2Ag (A) 1/5 (B) 1/2 (C) 3/5 (D) 2/5
[Given Eo(Ag|Ag+ ) = −0.8V;E(Cu
o
( +2)
|Cu)
= 0.3V ]
(A) – 0.5 V (B) 0.5 V
(C) –1.1 V (D) 1.1 V
 BOTANY
Section-A
101. Eukaryotic flagella and centriole share
similarity as both of them
(A) Are found in higher plant cells
(B) Are surrounded by membrane
(C) Has ‘9 + 2’ organisation of microtubules
(D) Have tubulin proteins
102. Select the incorrect match
(A) Zygotene : Synapsis occurs
(B) Pachytene : Crossing over takes place
(C) Diplotene : Dissolution of synaptonemal
complex
(D) Diakinesis : Nucleolus reappears
103. Correct binomial epithet of mango is
(A) Mangifera indica
(B) Mangifera indica Linn.
(C) Mangifera indica Linn.
(D) Mangifera Indica Linn.
104. Select the incorrect statement
(A) Herbarium serves as quick source of
reference in taxonomical studies
(B) Botanical garden is ‘in-situ’ conservation
strategy of plants
(C) Museums have collection of preserved
plants and animals
(D) National Zoological Park (Delhi) is one
of the finest zoos of Asia
105. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers
of litter and help in mineral cycling
(A) Have aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
(B) Reproduce sexually by spore formation
(C) Include mushrooms and morels
(D) Asexually reproduce by means of conidia
106. In cymose inflorescence,
(A) Peduncle has unlimited growth
(B) The main axis terminates into a flower
(C) The flowers are borne in acropetal order
(D) Younger flowers are present towards the
apex
107. Dicot root differs from monocot root
(A) In having radial vascular bundles
(B) In having exarch type of arrangement of
primary xylem
(C) In showing secondary growth
(D) In having root hairs
108. Solute potential of a solution is
(A) Equal to ψw of pure water
(B) Any positive value
(C) Negative
(D) Zero
109. ______ is required in synthesis of auxin.
(A) B (B) Zn
(C) Mn (D) S
110. Plants which show Kranz anatomy
(A) Have PEPcase only in bundle sheath cells
(B) Have Calvin cycle in mesophyll cells
(C) Show double carboxylation
(D) Show photorespiration
111. In angiosperms, male gametes are formed by
__A__ which __B__.
Complete the above statement by choosing
the correct option.
A B
(A) Vegetative cell Is small in size
(B) Generative cell Has large irregularly
shaped nucleus
(C) Vegetative cell Has abundant food
reserves
(D) Generative cell Is spindle shaped
112. All of the following are characteristics of
insect pollinated flowers, except
(A) Colourful, fragrant
(B) Large feathery stigma
(C) Nectaries are present
(D) Sticky pollen grain
113. Choose the incorrect statement about sickle-
cell anaemia
(A) It is an autosomal recessive disease
(B) Individuals with genotype HbA HbS are
normal
(C) The disease/defect is caused by transition
mutation
(D) The disease is controlled by a single pair
of allele
114. If the sequence of coding strand in a 120. Colchicine holds the cell in __A__ stage
transcription unit is written as follows which results in the formation of ___B___
5′GGCCTTAATGGCG3′ then what will be cells and the process is called as ___C___.
the sequence of complementary strand in 3′ –
A B C
5′ direction
(A) 5′CCGGAATTACCGC3′ (A) Anaphase Polyploid Endopolyploidy
(B) 3′CCGGAATTACCGC5′ (B) Metaphase Haploid Endopolyploidy
(C) 5′GGCCAATTACCGC3′ (C) Anaphase Haploid Endomitosis
(D) 3′GGGGAATTACGCC5′ (D) Metaphase Polyploid Endomitosis

115. Select the incorrectly matched pair

(A) Adapter molecule – tRNA
(B) Snurps – SnRNA + protein complex
(C) Stop codon – AUG
(D) Capping of hnRNA – Guanylyl
transferase
121. Identify the given figure and select the option
that has all the four parts (a, b, c & d)
correctly labelled.

116. Match the following columns and select the

correct option
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Monascus purpureus
b. Statins (ii) Lactobacillus (A) (a)-Aleurone (b)-Endosperm
c. Streptokinase (iii) Trichoderma
(c)- Coleoptile (d)-Coleorhiza Layer
polysporum
d. Lactic acid (iv) Streptococcus (B) (a)-Endosperm, (b)-Coleoptile
a b c d (c)-Scutellum (d)-Coleorhiza
(A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (C) (a)-Endosperm, (b)-Seed coat
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (c)-Scutellum (d)-Coleoptile
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (a)-Seed coat (b)-Endosperm
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c)-Coleorhiza (d)-Coleoptile
117. All birds and mammals
(A) Migrate temporarily from the stressful 122. First terrestrial plants to possess vascular
habitat to a more hospitable area tissues are
(B) Are able to maintain homeostasis (A) Thallophytes (B) Bryophytes
(C) Change their body temperature with
(C) Pteridophytes (D) Gymnosperms
ambient temperature
(D) Both (A) and (B)
123. How many additional molecules of ATP are
118. Declining population needed for net production of one molecule of
(A) Is called stable population maltose sugar by C4 plant as compared to the
(B) Shows bell shaped age pyramid
C3 Plant?
(C) Has less pre-reproductive individuals
(A) 24 (B) 12
than reproductive
(D) Is young population (C) 60 (D) 36

119. 60 S, the larger subunit of eukaryotic 124. The types of gametes, phenotypes and
ribosomes has about A protein molecules and
genotypes that can be produced by selfing a
B type(s) of rRNA
(A) A – 33, B – single plant of genotype ttRrDd will be
(B) A – 40, B – three (A) 4, 4, 9 (B) 8, 8, 27
(C) A – 34 , B – two (C) 4, 4, 16 (D) 2, 2, 3
(D) A – 21, B – four
125. During secondary treatment in STP, 130. Which of the given part of oxysome is a
organisms present in activated sludge are peripheral membrane protein and contains the
digested by site for ATP synthesis ?
(A) Anaerobic archaebacteria (A) Headpiece (B) Base
(B) Aerobic eubacteria (C) Stalk (D) F0 – part
(C) Aerobic methanogenic bacteria
(D) Anaerobic eubacteria 131. The parasitic fungus on mustard plant is
(A) Albugo (B) Ustilago
(C) Puccinia (D) Colletotrichum
126. When a carrier woman (for haemophilia) is
132. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical
married to a normal man then what will be
angiosperm is
the percentage of their son to be haemophilic? (A) n (B) 2n (C) 3n (D) 4n
(A) 25 % (B) 0 %
133. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of
(C) 50 % (D) 75 %
bacterium
(A) Penicillium roquefortii
127. Pusa Gaurav is a Brassica variety bred by (B) Penicillium cambertii
(C) Lactobacillus
hybridisation and shows resistance to (D) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(A) Jassids (B) Aphids
(C) Shoot borer (D) Fruit borer 134. From 1960 to 2000, wheat production
increased from __A__ million tonnes to

128. ‘Clot buster’ for removing clots from the __B__ million tonnes.

blood vessels is produced by (A) A – 11, B – 75

(A) Streptococcus (B) Aspergillus (B) A – 21, B – 75

(C) Rhizopus (D) Candida lipolytica (C) A – 11, B – 95

(D) A – 11, B – 85

129. Haryana kisan welfare club was created by 135. Lice on human is an example of
(A) Ramesh Chandra Dagar (A) Ectoparasitism
(B) Pandu Ram Hegde (B) Endoparasitism
(C) Amrita Devi Bishnoi (C) Brood parasitism
(D) Sunder Lal Bahuguna (D) Mutualism
 Section-B
136. Select the wrong statement about prokaryotic 143. In lac operon, enzyme permease is
cells. synthesized by gene
(A) There is no well defined nucleus (A) lac z (B) lac y
(B) The genetic material is naked (C) lac a (D) lac i
(C) All prokaryotes have a cell wall
surrounding the cell membrane.
144. Himgiri is a variety of ______ that is resistant
(D) They have 70 S ribosomes
to hill bunt.
(A) Tobacco (B) Rice
137. Histone protein synthesis occurs in
(C) Wheat (D) Turnip
(A) G1 phase (B) S phase
(C) G2 phase (D) M phase
145. Which of the following cannot be
138. Viroids differ from Prions in biofertilizers?
(A) Having protein molecules (A) Bacteria (B) Blue green algae
(B) Having genetic material (C) Fungi (D) Viruses
(C) Being infectious
(D) Being sub viral agent 146. Thinning of egg shells and their premature
breaking is due to
139. Life cycle of Fucus and Polysiphonia
(A) Eutrophication
respectively are
(B) Biomagnification
(A) Haplontic and Haplodiplontic
(C) Accumulation of calcium
(B) Diplontic and Haplodiplontic
(D) Thermal pollution
(C) Haplodiplontic and Diplontic
(D) Haplodiplontic and Haplontic
147. For organic substances to flow in phloem
140. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter (A) OP should be high at sink
a. Are autotrophs (B) TP should be low at source
b. Have chlorophyll (C) TP should be high at sink
c. Use solar energy for synthesis of food (D) OP should be high at source
(A) Only a (B) Only a and c
(C) Only b and c (D) All a, b and c 148. Crossing-over is seen in
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene
141 Cyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Pachytene (D) Diplotene
(A) Involves production of NADPH
(B) Synthesises ATP
149. Which of the given is smallest living
(C) Involves splitting of H2O
organism and can survive without oxygen?
(D) Requires H2O as an external source of
electrons (A) Mycoplasma (B) Trypanosoma
(C) Paramecium (D) Euglena
142. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Turner’s syndrome
(A) Due to monosomy 150. Noise becomes unbearable at
(B) Genetic compliment is 44 + XXY (A) 140 dB (B) 25 dB
(C) Are sterile females (C) 30 – 60 dB (D) 60 – 80 dB
(D) Have short stature
 ZOOLOGY
Section-A
151. Mostly birds are : 157. Find out the correct match from the following
(A) Uricotelic and oviparous table :
Column-
(B) Uricotelic and viviparous Column-I Column-II
III
(C) Ammonotelic and oviparous Tidal volume
(i) (EC-ERV) 500 ml
(D) Uricotelic and ovoviviparous (TV)
Expiratory
(ii) reserve (VC-IRV-TV) 3000 ml
152. Which group of phylum chordata has
volume (ERV)
maximum living animals ? Vital capacity
(iii) IRV+ERV+RV 4500 ml
(A) Pisces (B) Reptilia (VC)
(C) Aves (D) Mammalia Residual
(iv) FRC-ERV 1200 ml
volume (RV)
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
153. Which one of the following contains the
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iv)
largest quantity of extracellular material ?
(A) Striated muscle 158. Lymph differ from blood in possessing :
(B) Areolar tissue (A) Only WBC
(C) Stratified epithelium (B) More RBC & WBC
(C) More RBC & few WBC
(D) Myelinated nerve fibres
(D) More WBC & few RBC

154. In male, genital pouch/chamber surrounded by : 159. Correct order of excretory organs in
(A) Dorsally 9th and 10th terga and ventrally Cockroach, Earthworm and Rabbit
by 9th sternum respectively :
(B) Ventrally 9th and 10th sterna and dorsally (A) Skin, malpighian tubules, kidney
(B) Malpighian tubules, nephridia, kidney
by 9th terga
(C) Nephridia, malpighian tubules, kidney
(C) Dorsally 8th and 9th terga and ventrally by (D) Nephridia, kidney, green gland
9th sterna
(D) Dorsally 9thand 10thsterna and Ventrally 160. Which of the following is not a feature of
th
10 turga cortical nephrons ?
(A) These are more common, approximately
85% of total nephrons
155. Amino acids are absorbed in :
(B) Their glomeruli are in outer cortex
(A) Blood capillaries of villi (C) Their loop of Henle extend to a short
(B) Wall of rectum distance into the medulla
(C) Lacteals and blood capillaries of villi (D) They are associated with vasa recta
(D) Lacteals of villi
161. The difference between a white and red fibre
in skeletal muscle can be based on all except :
156. Which food substance is absorbed, without (A) Amount of oxygen store
digestion? (B) Number of mitochondria
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Presence of sarcomeres
(C) Vitamins (D) Fats (D) Presence of sarcoplasmic reticulum
162. Bone which is not related with skull of 169. Bartholin’s glands occur in:
Human is: (A) Females and help in vestibular lubrication
(A) Hyoid (B) Parietal (B) Females and produce estrogen for
(C) Atlas (D) Frontal regulating secondary sexual characters
(C) Males and form liquid part of seminal
163. Which of the following statement is false? fluid
(A) Unipolar neurons found usually in the (D) Males and produce alkaline fluid for
embryonic stage neutralising urethral acidity
(B) Multipolar neurons found in the retina of
eye 170. What is the difference in oral contraceptives
(C) Schwann cells form a myelin sheath and hormonal implants?
around the axon (A) They differ in their sites of implantation
(D) Myelinated nerve fibres are found in (B) They differ in their duration of action
spinal and cranial nerves. (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
164. Which of the following is a correct match of
ear part and its function ? 171. Which of the following technique involves in
(A) Organ of corti – Increase the efficiency of vivo fertilization ?
(A) GIFT
sound wave
(b) IUI
(B) Basilar membrane – determines pitch of
(c) ICSI
the sound
(d) Test-tube baby programme
(C) Tectorial membrane – Separates scala
(A) (A), (b) and (c) (B) (A), (b), (c) and (d)
vestibuli from scala tympani
(C) Only (A) (D) (A) and (b)
(D) Semicircular canal– Equalises the
pressure on either sides of the ear drum 172. First life form on earth was :
(A) Cyanobacteria
165. Which one is correctly matched ? (B) Autotrophs
(A) Pineal gland – Metabolism, Mental (C) Chemoheterotrophs
retardation (D) Photoautotrophs
(b) Thymus – Throne of immunity
(c) Thyroid – Anti inflammatory reaction 173. Which of the following statement is
(d) Pancreas – Prolonged hyperglycemia incorrect?
(A) a, c (B) b, c (C) c, d (D) b, d (A) Conditions on early earth were high
temp., volcanic storms, reducing
166. Outer coat of seminiferous tubules is composed atmosphere
of fibrous connective tissue called : (B) Chemical evolution of life proposed by
(A) Tunica propria (B) Lamina propria miller and Harold urey
(C) Plica semilunaris (D) Tunica albuginea (C) S.L. Miller an American scientist was the
great supporter of oparin
167. Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a (D) Because of absence of O3 layer, UV rays
layer of ________ and is called the primary from sun directly reached on earth
follicle.
(A) Sertoli cells (B) Leydig cells 174. ____________noted that embryos never pass
through the adult stages of other animals.
(C) Granulosa cells (D) Spermatogonia
(A) Lamarck
168. Which cells come earliest in the sequence of (B) Ernst Heckel
sperm production? (C) Karl Ernst von Baer
(A) Spermatozoa (B) Spermatocyte (D) Both (B) & (C)
(C) Spermatid (D) Spermatogonia
175. The most accepted line of descent in human 180. ___________is obtained from Erythroxylum
evolution is : coca, native of South America.
(A) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus →
Homo sapiens → homo habilis (A) Cannabinoids
(B) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo (B) Coca alkaloid
sapiens (C) Cocaine
(C) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo
erectus → Homo sapiens (D) Both (B) and (C)
(D) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus →
Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo 181. Apiculture is the maintenance of_________
sapiens
for the production of honey.
176. Plasmodium enters the human body as :- (A) Swarms of silk worm
(A) Female Anopheles mosquito (B) Fruit orchards and cultivated crops
(B) Sporozoite
(C) Trophozoite (C) Hives of honeybees
(D) Haemozoin (D) Wool yielding animals

177. _________have been identified in normal

cells which, when activated under certain 182. Through which of the following practice, we
conditions, could lead to oncogenic have been able to increase the production of
transformation of the cells.
aquatic plants and animals, both fresh-water
(A) Cellular oncogenes
(B) C-onc and marine?
(C) Proto oncogenes (A) Aquaculture (B) Apiculture
(D) All of the above
(C) Pisciculture (D) Both (A) and (C)

178. Which of the statement regarding treatment of

cancer is false ? 183. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by
(A) Common approaches for treatment of
Meloidogyne incognita?
cancer are surgery, radiation therapy and
immunotherapy (A) Stem (B) Root
(B) Chemotherapy has side effects like hair (C) Flower (D) Leaf
loss and anaemia
(C) -interferon are used as immunological
substances which activate the immune 184. The important role of primary metabolites is
system (A) defense mechanism
(D) All the above statement are true
(B) physical process
179. Match the columns and choose correct option (C) human welfare
Column-I Column-II (D) physiological process
1. Allergy (i) Wuchereria
2. Hallucinogens (ii) IgE
3. Filariasis (iii) Atropa belladona 185. Biomolecules having molecular weight less
4. ELISA test (iv) Carcinogens than one thousand dalton are
5. X-rays (v) AIDS
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(v), 5-(iv) (A) macromolecules
(B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(v), 5-(iv) (B) biomacromolecules
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(v), 4-(iii), 5-(i) (C) micromolecules
(D) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(v), 5-(iv)
(D) both (A) and (D)
 Section-B
186. Which one of the following pairs of animals
comprise 'Cartilaginous fishes' ?
(A) Labeo and Catla
(B) Pterophyllum and Scoliodon
(C) Pristis and Carcharodon
(D) Petromyzon and Myxlne
187. The correct statement with respect to
epithelial tissue is :
I. cells are compactly packed
II. cells have little intercellular space
III. cells have little intercellular substance
IV. it is single or multilayered
(A) I & IV (B) II & III
(C) I, III & IV (D) All of these
188. If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml
residual volume is 1200 ml and tidal volume
is 500 ml, what shall be the functional
residual capacity :
(A) 1600 ml (B) 2800 ml
(C) 2300 ml (D) 1200 ml
189. Blood enters into the heart because muscles
of:
(A) Atria relax (B)Ventricle contract
(C) Ventricle relax (D) Atria contract
190. Which one of the following is correct pairing
of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue
that moves it ?
(A) Iris-Involuntary smooth muscle
(B) Heart wall-Involuntary unstriated muscle
(C) Biceps of upper arm-Smooth muscle fibres
(D) Abdominal wall-Smooth muscle
191. Nissl granules occur in which part and what is
their function :
(A) Neurons and are sites of protein synthesis
(B) Blood and help in nutrition and excretion
(C) Sarcoplasm and help in contraction
(D) Mucous cell and secrete mucous
192. Match the columns and choose correct option:
Gland Hormone
I. Adenohypophysis 1. Epinephrine
II. Adrenal medulla 2. Prolactin
III. Parathyroid gland 3. Thymosin
IV. Thymus gland 4. Parathormone
(A) I - 3, II - 1, III - 4, IV - 2
(B) I - 1, II - 2, III - 3, IV - 4
(C) I - 2, II - 1, III - 4, IV - 3
(D) I - 2, II - 3, III - 4, IV - 1
193. Seminal vesicle is present at the junction of :
(A) Prostate and urethra
(B) Prostate and vas-deferens
(C) Prostate and cowper's gland
(D) Vas-deferns and testis
194. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent :
(A) Egg formation
(B) Embryonic development
(C) Fertilization
(D) Coitus
195. Which of the following methods of
contraception prevents ovulation ?
(A) Pills (B) Hormonal injection
(C) Norplant (D) All the above
196. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved
because :
(A) The young ones are left on their own
(B) The young ones are protected by a thick
shell
(C) The young ones are protected inside the
mother’s body leading to more chances
of survival
(D) The embryo takes a long time to develop
197. Homo sapiens arose in __________ and
moved across continents and developed into
distinct races :
(A) America (B) Australia
(C) China (D) Africa
198. Congenital diseases are :
(A) Diseases present from birth
(B) Deficiency diseases
(C) Spread from one individual to another
(D) Occur during life
199. The insecticidal protein in Bt cotton binds to
the
(A) Foregut epithelial cells
(B) Midgut mesothelial cells
(C) Midgut epithelial cells
(D) Hindgut mesothelial cells
200. Bollworm attacks
(A) Bt cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Cotton
(D) Bacillus thuringiensis