DHHQDHF

MC
1001504
INSTRUCTIONS –
1. Read the instructions given at the beginning/end of each section or at the beginning of a
group of questions very carefully.
2. This test has two sections with 60 questions — 30 questions in each section. The TOTAL
TIME available for the paper is 140 minutes.
3. The time available for each section is 70 minutes and you cannot return to the first
section once you have started the second section.
4. You are expected to show your competence in both the sections. All questions carry three
marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one mark.
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Section -1
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Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently of each other.
1.
In the figure above, PQR is a right angled triangle, where PQ = 24 cm, PR = 25 cm and ∠Q = 90°. A point S is chosen on the
hypotenuse and two perpendiculars, one each on to PQ and QR, are drawn from S such that they meet PQ and QR at A and B
respectively. Find the area of triangle SRB, if it is known that the area of the quadrilateral SAQB is the maximum possible.
a) 18 sq.cm.
b) 21 sq.cm.
c) 35 sq.cm.
d) 16 sq.cm.
You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer
Click here for solution

Let BR = x cm
PQR » SBR
⇒ =
⇒ =
∴ SB = (x)
Also, QB = (7 – x)
∴ Area of SAQB = (x) (7 – x)
This will be maximum if x = 7 – x ⇒ x =
Now, in D SBR, BR = , SB = 12
∴ Area = 21 sq.cm. Choice (B)
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Section -1
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2. Three friends, Ramya, Sudha and Shanti were to do all the arrangements for a party and they decided to work together. The time it takes to
finish the entire work for all three of them, working together, is 3 hours less than what it takes for Sudha, working alone, half an hour less than
what it takes for Ramya, working alone, and half of what it takes for Shanti, working alone. How long will it take all three of them to finish the
entire work, working together?
a) 10 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 25 minutes

Let us assume that it took ‘t’ hours to complete the work working together.
∴ time taken by Sudha = t + 3
time taken by Ramya =
time taken by Shanti = 2t
substituting the given values, we can identify the equation is satisfied when t = 20 min = hours = 20 minutes Choice (C)
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Section -1
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3. Given a series 1, 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37,……, what is the sum of the first 50 terms of the series?
a) 40475
b) 43375
c) 45575
d) 42375
⇒tn = 1 + (n – 1)2 = n2 – 2n + 2
Sn = S tn = S (n2 – 2n + 2)
= – + 2n
⇒ S50 =
= 42925 – 2550 + 100 = 40475 Choice (A)
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Section -1
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4. X and Y are two types of oils prepared by mixing olive oil and mustard oil in the ratio 11 : 3 and 2 : 5 respectively. If a third type of oil, Z, is
prepared by mixing oils X and Y in the ratio m : n, such that the percentage of olive oil in the resulting mixture is 50%, find m : n.
a) 3:8
b) 1:1
c) 3:4
d) 11 : 5
Given, (m + n)
⇒ 11m + 4n = 7m + 7n
⇒ 4m = 3n
⇒ m : n = 3 : 4 Choice (C)
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Section -1
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5. If a and b are real numbers and n is an integer, such that a < b , ab > 0 and an > b n , which of the following statements can be true (not
necessarily simultaneously)?
I. n is negative.
II. n is positive and even.
III. n is negative and odd.
a) Only I
b) Only I and II
c) Only I and III
d) I, II and III

The easiest approach to such questions is to consider a couple of numerical possibilities for a, b and n.
Let a = -3 and b = -2 (i.e. a < b) Case (i):
Let n = -1
Here, Hence (-3)-1 > (-2)-1
Hence n = -1, i.e., negative and odd.

⇒ Both statements I and III may be true.
Case (ii):
Let n = 2
Here, (-3)2 > (-2)2
Hence n = 2, i.e., positive and even.
⇒ Statement II may also be true.
Hence I, II and III may be true. Choice (D)
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Section -1
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6. Sita starts at 9:00 a.m. from A towards B, which is 24 km away from A, at a constant speed of 6 km/hr while Gita starts at 10:00 a.m. from B
towards A at a constant speed of 12 km/hr. When they reach their respective ends, they turn back and start walking in the opposite direction
without any change in their speeds. In this manner, they travel back and forth between A and B.
How far is Sita from B, when she meets Gita for the second time?
a) 6 km
b) 12 km
c) 8 km
d) 4 km
At 10 a.m., Sita is at D, 18 km away from Gita since ratio of speeds of Sita and Gita is 1 ; 2, Sita covers a further rd of 18 km, i.e., 6km when they
meet for the first time.

∴ Sita and Gita meet for the 1st time at C, the midpoint of AB. Between their 1st and 2nd meetings,
Sita and Gita cover a total of twice the distance between A and B, i.e., 48 km.
Distance covered by Sita out of 48 km = = 16 km
16 km from C would mean 12 km to B and 4 km back from B towards A.

∴ Sita would be 4 km from B. Choice (D)
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Section -1
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Directions for questions 7 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five students – Albert, Bala, Calvin, Deepak and Govind – attend six exams, one in each of the six subjects – English, Physics, Chemistry,
Maths, Biology and Hindi. The maximum marks in each of these subjects are 100 and in every subject, the marks scored by each of the
students is an integer. The following bar graph gives the subject wise break-up (in percentage terms) of the total marks scored by each
student.
The values shown in the above graph are cumulative values. Hence, for example, Albert scored 14% (i.e., 24 – 10) of his total marks in
Physics and 22% (i.e., 46 – 24) of his total marks in Chemistry.
7. The total marks scored by any of the five students are at most
a) 500
b) 520
c) 550
d) 600

The break up of percentage marks scored in the different subjects by the students are as follows :
Albert scored 22% of his total marks in Chemistry. As the maximum marks in each
subject is 100, he could not have scored more than 100 in any subject, which means his total score would be at most 450 as
By a similar logic the highest marks scored by Bala would be 500, Deepak 400 and Govind 550. Choice (C)
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Section -1
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Directions for questions 7 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five students – Albert, Bala, Calvin,
Deepak and Govind – attend six exams, one in each of the six subjects – English, Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology and Hindi. The
maximum marks in each of these subjects are 100 and in every subject, the marks scored by each of the students is an integer. The
following bar graph gives the subject wise break-up (in percentage terms) of the total marks scored by each student.
8. The total marks scored by Calvin in the exam are at most
a) 480
b) 500
c) 540
d) 550

The total marks scored by Calvin can be at most 500, as he scored 20% of his
total marks in a subject. Choice (B)

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Section -1
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Five students – Albert, Bala, Calvin, Deepak and Govind – attend six exams, one in each of the six subjects – English, Physics, Chemistry,
Maths, Biology and Hindi. The maximum marks in each of these subjects are 100 and in every subject, the marks scored by each of the
students is an integer. The following bar graph gives the subject wise break-up (in percentage terms) of the total marks scored by each
student.
9. If among the five students, Govind scored the highest marks in Maths, then his total score in all the six subjects put together is more
than that of at least how many of the other four students?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Let the total marks scored by Albert, Bala, Calvin, Deepak and Govind be a, b , c, d and g respectively. It is given that Govind scored the highest
in maths.
i.e., 18g > 14a, 19b , 15c and 25d
∴ g is definitely greater than b and d. Choice (B)
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Section -1
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10. Which of the following cannot be the sum of the squares of 12 consecutive odd natural numbers?
a) 2300
b) 2924
c) 3644
d) 4356

Let the 12 odd numbers be (2k ± 11), (2k ± 9), (2k ± 7), (2k ± 5), (2k ± 3) and (2k ± 1), where k is an integer.
Sum of their squares
= [(2k + 11)2 + (2k – 11)2 ] + [(2k + 9)2 + (2k – 9)2 ] + ……… + [(2k + 1)2 + (2k – 1)2 ]
= 2 [(4k 2 + 121) + …….. + (4k 2 + 1)]
= 2 [6(4k 2 ) + (1 + 9 + 25 + 49 + 81 + 121)] = 48k 2 + 572
Since all the values are positive (i.e., natural numbers), 2k – 11 > 0.
⇒k ≥6
Hence, if any number N is equal to the sum of the squares of 12 consecutive odd natural numbers, then N is of the form 48k 2 + 572,
where k ≥ 6.
⇒ N – 572 is not only divisible by 48, but also gives a quotient which is the square of a natural number greater than or equal to 6.
Now, the choices can easily be checked against this condition
which is not a perfect square.

Hence 4356 cannot be the sum of the squares of 12 consecutive odd natural numbers.
Alternate method:
Sum of squares of 1st 12 consecutive odd numbers.
= 12 + 32 + 52 + …… + 232
= 12 + 22 + 32 + 42 + …… + 222 + 232 – (22 + 42 + ….. + 222)
Now, consider option (B)

2924 = 2300 + 625 – 1
= 12 + 32 + 52 + … + 232 + 252 – 12 = 32 + 52 + 72 + … + 252
Consider option (C),
3644 = 2924 + 729 – 9
= 52 + 72 + ….. + 252 + 272
Consider option (D)
4356 = 3644 + 712
= 3644 + 841 – 129
= 52 + 72 + …… + 272 + 292 – 129
∴ 4356 cannot be expressed as a sum of squares of 12 consecutive integers. Choice (D)
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Section -1
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11. What is the sum of the digits of a two-digit number, which is 32 less than the square of the product of its digits?
a) 12
b) 9
c) 10
d) 8

As the given number is a two-digit number, it is at least 10 and at most 99.
Also given that the two-digit number is 32 less than the square of the product of its digits.
∴The square of the product of its digits is at least (10 + 32) and at most (99 + 32), i.e., at least 72 and at most 112 .
If the product of its digits is 7, 8, 9, 10 and 11, then the number will be (49 - 32), (64 - 32), (81 - 32), (100 - 32) and (121 - 32) respectively. i.e., 17,
32, 49, 68 and 89
Only 17 satisfies the given condition.

∴ The required sum = 1 + 7 = 8. Choice (D)
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Section -1
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12. Praful went to the market and bought apples, bananas and oranges. He purchased at least 25 fruits of each variety and calculated that if the
cost of each orange was Rs.1 more and the cost of each banana was Rs.4 more, then his total expenditure on the fruits would have gone up
by Rs. 136. If he bought a total of 80 fruits, find the number of bananas he purchased.
a) 26
b) 27
c) 28
d) 29

Let the number of apples, bananas and oranges bought be a, b and g.
Given that a + b + g = 80; a ≥ 25, b ≥ 25, g ≥ 25
⇒ 25 £ (a, b , g) £ 30
As the increase in cost per orange by Rs.1 and the increase in cost per banana by Rs.4 increases the overall bill by Rs.136, g +
4b = 136
In order to satisfy, the above condition, g must be a multiple of 4. Hence, it has to be 28.
Hence, b is 27 and a is 25.
Hence, Arjun purchased 27 bananas. Choice (B)
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Section -1
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13. Along the periphery of a circular park of radius 80 m, are located four Gulmohar trees at points P, Q, R, S. Supandi, a regular visitor to the
park, notices that the line joining points P and R perpendicularly intersects the line joining point Q and S at point O. Find PS2 + QR2 .
a) 6400 m2
b) 25600 m2
c) 12800 m2
d) Cannot be determined
From secant theorem

OQ . OS = OP . OR
From the figure,
OD = CE ⇒ OD2 = CE2
OD2 = (QD – QO)2 =
CE2 = CP2 – PE2

=
⇒ (OS –OQ)2 = 4r2 – (OP + OR)2

⇒ OS2 + OQ2 – 2(OS) (OQ)
= 4r2 – (OP2 + OR2 + 2(OP) . (OR)
⇒ OP2 + OQ2 + OR2 + OS2 = 4r2
⇒ QR2 + PS2 = 4r2 = 25600
Alternative Solution:
The intersection point could be considered to be either the center of the circle or on the periphery of the circle (as limiting cases)
If it is centre of circle then it is obvious that
QR2 + PS2 = 4r2
If it is on periphery, let Q, O & R coincide
OPS is right angled triangle ⇒ PS is diameter.

QR2 + PS2 = 4r2 Choice (B)
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Section -1
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14. A certain calculator has a faulty display which can display only the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4. Find the sum of all the four-digit numbers with distinct
digits that the calculator can display.
a) 66,660
b) 44,440
c) 22,000
d) 88,880

Consider the digit 1. 1 can be present in either units, tens, hundreds or thousands place.
Contribution of 1 when in units place = 1 × 10°
Contribution of 1 when in tens place = 1 × 101
Contribution of 1 when in hundreds place = 1 × 102
Contribution of 1 when in thousands place = 1 × 103
With 1 in units place, there can exist a total of 3! numbers. Same is the case with 1 in each of the other places.
∴ Total contribution of 1 to the sum
= 1(100 + 101 + 102 + 103 ) × 3! = (111)3! × 1
Similarly, contribution of 2, 3 and 4 to the sum is (1111)3! × 2, (1111) 3! × 3, (1111)3! × 4 respectively.
∴ Total sum = sum of contributions of all the digits
= (1111)3! (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 66660 Choice (A)
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Section -1
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15.
Two identical circles and a smaller circle are inscribed, (as shown in the figure) in a semi-circle of radius R. Find the radius of the smaller
circle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
In D PC1 C3 , PC1 2 + PC3 2 = C1 C3 2

⇒ R1 2 + [R – (R1 + R2 )]2 = [R1 + R2 ]2
⇒ R1 2 + R2 – 2R (R1 + R2 ) = 0 ⇒ R2 =
Also R1 + R1 = R ⇒ R1 =
Choice (B)
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Section -1
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16. Find the area (in sq.units) of the quadrilateral formed by the straight lines y = – 6 and y = 2x + 4, and the negative co-ordinate axes.
a) 28
b) 21
c) 35
d) 42
At the point of intersection of the two lines, –6 = 2x + 4

x = –5
The area of the quadrilateral = area of the trapezium OABC = ½ (OA + BC) OC
= ½ (2 + 5) (6) = 21 sq.units Choice (B)
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Section -1
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Directions for questions 17 to 19: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 150 families in a colony are surveyed
regarding the newspaper they read among the Times of India (TOI), The Hindu (H), the Economic Times (ET), Business Line (BL) and the Indian
Express (IE). It is further known that
(i) 20 families read exactly one newspaper, while 40 families read exactly four newspapers.
(ii) The number of families which read ET is 90.
(iii) All families which don’t read ET read BL and no family which reads ET, reads BL.
(iv) 25 families read two or more newspapers in addition to BL.
(v) The number of families which read at least 2 newspapers in addition to ET is twice that of those which read exactly one newspaper
in addition to BL.
(vi) There is no family which reads only Business Line.
17. What is the maximum number of families which read exactly two newspapers along with ET?
a) 50
b) 55
c) 50
d) 45
The above diagram is a venn-diagram representing readership of four newspapers – Times of India, Economic Times,
Hindu and Indian Express. The region outside the venn diagram represents those who read only Business line. It is
mentioned that all those who don’t read ET read BL ⇒ Regions a, c, d represent those who read TOI, H and IE in
addition to BL, i.e., exactly two news papers.
Also, there is no family which read only BL.
∴ The families which read exactly one newspaper are those which read only ET
⇒ b = 20.
Given 40 families read exactly four newspapers.
Now, in the figure, k represents families which read TOI, H, IE in addition to BL, and x represents those who read ET,
TOI, H and IE.
∴ k + x = 40
Number of families reading ET is given as 90.
∴ e + b + ℓ + g + x + m + n + I = 90
∴ Number of families reading BL = 150 – 90 = 60
⇒ a + f + k + j + c + h + d = 60
25 families read two or more newspapers in addition to BL.
⇒ f + k + j + h = 25
∴ a + c + d = 60 – 25 = 35
Number of families which read at least two newspapers in addition to ET is twice those who read exactly one newspaper
in addition to BL.
⇒ x + ℓ + m + n = 2(a + c + d) = 2(35) = 70.
Now, since ET is read by 90 families,
90 = e + b + ℓ + g + x + m + n + i
= e + g + i + 90
⇒ e +g +i =0
⇒ e =i =g =0
∴ Number of families that read exactly two newspapers, s2
= a + e + g + i + c + d = 35.
Also, since total number of families is 150,
s0 + s1 + s2 + s3 + s4 + s5 = 150
(s1, s2, s3, s4, s5 denote the number of families reading exactly 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 newspapers respectively).
s0 = 0 and s5 = 0
⇒ 0 + 20 + 35 + s3 + 40 + 0 = 150
⇒ s3 = 55. No. of families which read exactly 2 newspapers along with ET, and hence exactly 3 newspapers including ET = ℓ + m + n = s3 – (f + j +
h) = 55 – (f + j + h)
∴ Maximum possible value is 55. Choice (B)
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Section -1
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150 families in a colony are surveyed regarding the newspaper they read among the Times of India (TOI), The Hindu (H), the Economic Times (ET),
Business Line (BL) and the Indian Express (IE). It is further known that
in addition to BL.
18. How many families read exactly two newspapers?
a) 25
b) 30
c) 35
d) 40
⇒ b = 20.
TOI, H and IE.
∴ k + x = 40
∴ e + b + ℓ + g + x + m + n + I = 90
⇒ a + f + k + j + c + h + d = 60
⇒ f + k + j + h = 25
∴ a + c + d = 60 – 25 = 35
in addition to BL.
⇒ x + ℓ + m + n = 2(a + c + d) = 2(35) = 70.
90 = e + b + ℓ + g + x + m + n + i
= e + g + i + 90
⇒ e +g +i =0
⇒ e =i =g =0
= a + e + g + i + c + d = 35.
s0 + s1 + s2 + s3 + s4 + s5 = 150
s0 = 0 and s5 = 0
⇒ 0 + 20 + 35 + s3 + 40 + 0 = 150
⇒ s3 = 55. The number of people who read exactly 2 newspapers is 35. Choice (C)
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Section -1
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150 families in a colony are surveyed regarding the newspaper they read among the Times of India (TOI), The Hindu (H), the Economic Times (ET),
Business Line (BL) and the Indian Express (IE). It is further known that
in addition to BL.
19. If ten families who read BL also read three other newspapers. Then how many families read exactly two newspapers in addition to ET?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
⇒ b = 20.
TOI, H and IE.
∴ k + x = 40
∴ e + b + ℓ + g + x + m + n + I = 90
⇒ a + f + k + j + c + h + d = 60
⇒ f + k + j + h = 25
∴ a + c + d = 60 – 25 = 35
in addition to BL.
⇒ x + ℓ + m + n = 2(a + c + d) = 2(35) = 70.
90 = e + b + ℓ + g + x + m + n + i
= e + g + i + 90
⇒ e +g +i =0
⇒ e =i =g =0
= a + e + g + i + c + d = 35.
s0 + s1 + s2 + s3 + s4 + s5 = 150
s0 = 0 and s5 = 0
⇒ 0 + 20 + 35 + s3 + 40 + 0 = 150
⇒ s3 = 55. Given, k = 10 ⇒ x = 40 – k = 40 – 10 = 30.
∴ x = 30.
x + ℓ + m + n = 70 ⇒ ℓ + m + n = 70 – 30 = 40.
∴ The number of families who read exactly two newspapers in addition to ET(ℓ + m + n ) = 40. Choice (C)
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Section -1
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Directions for question 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
20. In a group of 115 people, 60, 50 and 40 people like three different games A, B and C respectively. The number of people who like all the three
games is two-third the number of people who like exactly two of the three games. The number of people who like only A and B is the same as
that of those who like only B and C, which, in turn, is the same as that of those who like only C and A. If every person likes at least one of the
three games, what is the number of people who like all the three games?
a) 25
b) 35
c) 10

n(A) = 60, n(B) = 50, n(C) = 40
Given, n(A Ç B Ç C) = 2/3 x [(A Ç B – C) + (B Ç C – A) + (C Ç A – B)] = 2/3 x 3x = 2x Using n(A È B È C) = n(A)
+ n(B) + n(C) – n(Exactly two) – 2n (Exactly three) We get 115 = 60 + 50 + 40 - x - x - x - 2(2x) 7x = 35 ⇒ x = 5 ∴ 2x = 10 Choice (C)
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Section -1
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Directions for questions 21 and 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Let a , b and g be the roots of the equation x3 + ax2 + b x + c = 0. Let S1 denote the sum of the roots, S2 , the sum of the squares of the roots and S3 ,
the sum of the cubes of the roots and so on.
21. Find S4 .
a) a4 + b 2 – a2 b
b) a4 + 4ac
c) a4 + 2b 2 – 4a2 b + 4ac
d) 4a4 + b 2 – 4a2 + 4ac
Since a, b and g are the roots of x3 +ax2 + b x + c = 0;

(x – a) (x – b) (x – g) = x3 + ax2 + b x + c
⇒ x3 – (a + b + g)x2 + (ab + bg + ag) x – abg
= x3 + ax2 + b x + c
⇒a+b+g=–a
ab + bg + ag = b
abg = – c
S4 = a4 + b4 + g4
= {(a2 + b2 + g2 )2 – 2(a2 b2 + b2 g2 + g2 a2 )
= {[(a + b + g)2 – 2(ab + bg + ga)]2
– 2 [(ab + bg + ga)2 – 2(abg (a + b + g)]}
= (a2 – 2b )2 – 2(b 2 – 2(–c) (– a))
= a4 + 4b 2 – 4a2 b – 2b 2 + 4ca
= a4 + 2b 2 – 4a2 b + 4ac. Choice (C)
For convenience, the roots may be chosen as all 1’s or all –1’s.
If the roots are 1, 1, 1 then
(x – 1)3 = x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 1
⇒ a = –3
b = +3
c = –1
These values can now be substituted in the options.
S4 = 14 + 14 + 14 = 3
From the options,
Option (A): (–3)4 + 32 – (–3)2 (3) = 81 + 9 – 27
Option (B): (–3)4 + 4(–3) (–1) = 81 + 12
Option (C): (–3)4 + 2(3)2 – 4(–3)2 (3) + 4(–3)(–1)
= 81 + 18 – 108 + 12 = 3
Option (D): 4(–3)4 + (3)2 –4(–3)2 + 4(–3)(3)
= 324 + 9 – 36 – 36
Clearly, only option (C) satisfies.
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Directions for questions 21 and 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Let a , b and g be the roots of the equation x3 + ax2 + b x + c = 0. Let S1 denote the sum of the roots, S2 , the sum of the squares of the roots and S3 ,
the sum of the cubes of the roots and so on.
22.
Find .
a)
b)
c)
d)
Since a, b and g are the roots of x3 +ax2 + b x + c = 0;

(x – a) (x – b) (x – g) = x3 + ax2 + b x + c
⇒ x3 – (a + b + g)x2 + (ab + bg + ag) x – abg
= x3 + ax2 + b x + c
⇒a+b+g=–a
ab + bg + ag = b
abg = – c S3 = a3 + b3 + g3
= (a + b + g) [a2 + b2 + g2 – ab – bg – ga] + 3abg
= (a + b + g) [(a + b + g)2 – 3ab – 3bg – 3ga] + 3abg
= (–a) [a2 – 3(b )] + 3 (– c) = – a3 + 3ab – 3c
= – (a3 – 3ab + 3c)
S2 = a2 + b2 + g2 = (a + b + g)2 – 2(ab + bg + ag)
= (–a)2 – 2b = a2 – 2b
⇒ Choice (C)
For convenience, the roots may be chosen as all 1’s or all –1’s.
If the roots are 1, 1, 1 then
(x – 1)3 = x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 1
⇒ a = –3
b = +3
c= –1
These values can now be substituted in the options.
Option (A):
Option (B):
Option (C):
Option (D):
Clearly, only option (C) satisfies.
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23.
If p, q and r have a product of 1, then
a)
b)
c) 1
d)

The first tem on the LHS
We get two similar expressions for the other two terms.
∴LHS = = =1
Let p = q = 1, then p q r = 1. The given expression equals 1. Among the choices only choices (1) and (5) equal 1.
If p = q = –1 and p q r = 1 ⇒ r = 1.
For these values, the given expression equals 1, but Choice (A) equals .
∴ Hence, the correct choice must be Choice (C).
Choice (C)
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24. Find the number of whole numbers less than 100 such that the sum of the factorials of the individual digit(s) of the number is less than or
equal to the number.
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19

Since the sum of the factorials of the digits should be less than number, the number cannot possibly contain digits which are greater or equal to 5,
as for n ≥ 5, n! ≥ 120.
The following numbers satisfy the given conditions:

1, 2, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21, 22, 23, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 40, 41, 42, 43. Hence, 19 such numbers exist. Choice (D)
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25. There are four apples with A, four oranges with B, four bananas with C and four mangoes with D. Any two persons among A, B, C and D can
exchange any number and kind of fruits as long as they exchange an equal number of fruits. Each such exchange is termed as a transaction.
Find the minimum number of transactions required so that every person possess one fruit of each variety.
a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 8

Let AAAA; OOOO; BBBB and MMMM denote apples, oranges, bananas and mangoes respectively. First consider the exchange
of two apples and two oranges between A and B and exchange of two bananas and two mangoes between C and D. Then after these two
transactions, the fruits with A, B, C and D will be respectively: AAOO; AAOO; BBMM and BBMM.Now an exchange of AO and BM between the persons
A and C, and B and D will lead to the possession of one fruit of each variety with every person.Hence, the minimum number of transactions required
is 4. Choice (C)
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26. If logxa, ax/2 and logb x are in GP, then the value of x is
a) loga (logb a)
b) logb (loga b )
c) logb a
d)
Given that logxa, ax/2 and logb x are in G.P.
x = loga Choice (A)
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27. Malini and Shalini play a game in which they first write down the first n natural numbers and then take turns in inserting plus or minus signs
between the numbers. When all such signs have been placed, the resulting expression is evaluated (i.e., the additions and subtractions are
performed). Malini wins if the absolute value of the result is even and Shalini wins if the absolute value of the result is odd. Which of the
following statements is true?
a) Malini wins if n is a multiple of 4
b) Shalini wins if n is even
c) Shalini wins if n is odd
d) Malini loses if n is a multiple of 4

The parity (even or odd) of the expression will be the same as that of the sum of the first n natural numbers. This is since, the parity of the
expression remains same whether the sign used is + or –. For example,
1 + 2 + 3 = 6 (even)
1 + 2 – 3 = 0 (even)
| –1 + 2 – 3| = 2 (even)
Hence we need to check the parity of n(n + 1)/2
n(n + 1)/2 is certainly even only when n is a multiple of 4 and for no other statement can a definite conclusion be drawn.
∴ Malini wins if n is a multiple of 4. Choice (A)
Alternate method 1:
The sum of 1st n natural numbers is even whenever there are an even number of odd numbers.
If n is a multiple of 4, the number of odd numbers is definitely even.
∴ The parity of the expression when n is a multiple of 4 is definitely even. This is the only generalisation possible. Therefore only Choice (A) can be
always true.
Alternate method 2:
For the given choices, one could try to eliminate one or more of them by assuming a few simple cases for ‘n’.
For n = 1, | 1| ® odd.
⇒ Shalini wins. With this information, none of the choices can be eliminated.
Similarly for n = 2, | 1 + 2| = 3 ® odd.
⇒ Shalini wins. None of the choices can be eliminated.
But for n = 3, | 1 + 2 + 3| ® even.
⇒ Malini wins. Hence, we can eliminate Choice (C).
Finally, for n = 4, | 1 + 2 + 3 + 4| ® even.
⇒ Malini wins. Here, we can eliminate choices (B) and (D).
Hence, only Choice (A) remains, which must be the correct answer.
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Directions for questions 28 to 30: The following graph shows the sales (in terms of units sold) of automobiles of four companies over the last five
years from 2002 to 2006.
28. Which of following companies showed the maximum percentage increase in the units sold in the given period?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

The percentage increase for the companies during the given period.
A= × 100 = 22.22%
B= × 100 = –25%
C= × 100 = 85.7%
D= × 100 = 62.5%
The maximum percentage increase is shown by C during the given period. Choice (C)
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29. In which year did the company B show the maximum percentage change in its sales over the previous year?
a) 2003
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2006
The percentage change in units from 2002-2003 remnants by B = × 100 = 16 . 66%
From 2003-04 = × 100 = 10%
From 2004-05 = × 100 = 36 . 36%
From 2005-06 = × 100 = 40%
Hence the maximum percentage change is observed by B in 2006. Choice (D)
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30. What is the overall percentage increase in the sales of the four companies in 2004 with respective previous year?
a) 19.1%
b) 22.8%
c) 25.7%
d) 28.1%

The total sales of the four companies in 2003= 40 + 50 + 40 + 45 = 175.The total sales of the four companies in 2004 = 55 + 55 + 50 + 60
= 220∴ The over percentage increase = = 25.7% Choice (C)
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Directions for question 1: The following question presents four statements, of which three, when placed in appropriate order, would form a
contextually complete paragraph. Pick the statement that is not part of the context.
1.
The classical aesthetics of being understands the aesthetic process as the revelation of an otherwise concealed higher sense
a)
or being.
An aesthetics of illusion, by contrast, rejects this close liaison between reality and aesthetic reality, and, correspondingly,
b)
between the aesthetic, epistemological and ethical theory of the one reality.
Both variations of an aesthetics of being do, however, assume that general structures of reality can be recognized in or by
c)
means of aesthetic perception; the basic constitution of the reality becomes visible in the constitution of aesthetic perception.
In current discussions, though, a non-classical variation, one frequently formulated in media theory, plays a big part; in the
d)
objects of art, this variation sees at work a discovery of the constructiveness of all relations of the real.

The paragraph begins with sentence A. This is a very general sentence that introduces the paragraph and talks about
“classical aesthetics”. This is followed by sentence D. The contrast term, though, is used and the role of the non-
classical variation is also highlighted. Sentence C closes the idea by stating that the common assumption of both
variations The correct order of the sentences is ADC. Sentence B which introduces a new concept 'aesthetics of
illusion' and other new terms is the odd sentence out. Choice (B)
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Directions for questions 2 and 3: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, (A) to (D). Select the option in which
the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
2. SIDE
a) He has let down the side with his poor batting.
b) An optimist is one who looks on the bright side of things.
c) Get that officer on your side and you’ll have the whole team working for you.
d) Although there was no sign of rain, I took an umbrella to be on the safe side.

If you ‘let someone down’ you disappoint them by not doing something that they expect of you. Sentence (A) should,
therefore, be ‘He has let the side down…..’ Choice (A)
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Directions for questions 2 and 3: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, (A) to (D). Select the option in which
the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
3. DEAL
a) You begin the game by dealing 7 cards to each player.
b) Parents find it difficult to deal with their children’s hostile and stubborn attitude.
c) The nuclear deal between India and the U.S. has sparked off a controversy.
d) Judges usually deal in harsher sentences to repeat offenders.

Choice (D) should have ‘deal out’ (to say what punishment somebody should have) and not ‘deal in’ (to buy and sell a product or to accept as a
basis for your decision). Choice (D)
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Directions for questions 4 to 6: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
Increasing reliance on religion-based classification of the people of the world tends to make the Western response to global terrorism and
conflict peculiarly ham-handed. Respect for “other people” is shown by praising their religious books, rather than by taking note of the many-
sided involvements and achievements, in non-religious as well as religious fields, of different people in a globally interactive world. In
confronting what is called “Islamic terrorism,” in the muddled vocabulary of contemporary global politics, the intellectual force of Western
policy is aimed quite substantially at trying to define – or redefine – Islam.
However, to focus just on the grand religious classification is not only to miss other significant concerns and ideas that move people, it also
has the effect of generally magnifying the voice of religious authority. The Muslim clerics, for example, are then treated as the ex officio
spokesmen for the so-called Islamic world, even though a great many people who happen to be Muslim by religion have profound differences
with what is proposed by one mullah or another. Despite our diverse diversities, the world is suddenly seen not as a collection of people, but
as a federation of religions and civilizations. In Britain, a confounded view of what a multi-ethnic society must do has led to encouraging the
development of state-financed Muslim schools, Hindu schools, Sikh schools, etc., to supplement pre-existing state-supported Christian
schools, and young children are powerfully placed in the domain of singular affiliations well before they have the ability to reason about
different systems of identification that may compete for their attention. Earlier on, state-run denominational schools in Northern Ireland had
fed the political distancing of Catholics and Protestants along one line of divisive categorization assigned at infancy, and the same
predetermination of “discovered” identities is now being allowed and, in effect, encouraged to sow even more alienation among a different part
of the British population.
Religious or civilizational classification can, of course, be a source of belligerent distortion as well. It can, for example, take the form of crude
beliefs well exemplified by U.S. Lieutenant General William Boykin’s blaring – and by now well-known – remarks describing his battle
against Muslims with disarming coarseness: “I knew that my God was bigger than his,” and that the Christian God “was a real God, and [the
Muslim’s] was an idol.” The idiocy of such dense bigotry is, of course, easy to diagnose, and for this reason there is, I believe, comparatively
limited danger in the uncouth hurling of such unguided missiles. There is, in contrast, a much more serious problem in the use in Western
public policy of intellectual “guided missiles” that present a superficially nobler vision to woo Muslim activists away from opposition through
the apparently benign strategy of defining Islam appropriately. They try to wrench Islamic terrorists from violence by insisting that Islam is a
religion of peace, and that a “true Muslim” must be a tolerant individual (“so come off it and be peaceful”). The rejection of a confrontational
view of Islam is certainly appropriate and extremely important at this time, but we must also ask whether it is at all necessary or useful, or
even possible, to try to define in largely political terms what a “true Muslim” must be like.
4. When the author mentions ‘our diverse diversities’, he is referring to the fact that:
a) There are many differences between people – not all of which are important or relevant.
b) He celebrates the uniqueness of each individual.
c) The distinctions between people are too many.
d) We are different from one another in more ways than one.

The words in quote occur in para 2. Through the passage the author points to our multiple identities and the folly of bringing it down to one
identity. He does not indicate anywhere that there is too much diversity (which would be a negative thought). Thus choice (C) is not applicable,
choice (D) is more appropriate. Choice (D)
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5. According to the author, the shortcoming in the West’s reply to terrorism lay in
a) not following a secular agenda which relegates religion to the private domain.
b) not showing enough respect for the religious sentiments of the minorities.
c) being excessively stereotypical.
d) being too accommodating with regard to the practices and beliefs of other communities.

Refer to the first sentence of the passage - “increasing reliance on religion-based classification”. The West tends to
look at the problem of terrorism purely from a religious angle. This is what is referred to in choice (C) as stereotypical
(stereotype means a fixed idea or image that many people have of a particular type of person or thing but which is
often not true in reality). Choice (C)
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6. Which of the following would the author NOT agree to?
a) The West fails to recognize the contribution of various people to different fields.
b) Brash remarks may be more harmful than hurtful.
c) The policies of the West sow divisive tendencies in the unformed minds of young children.
d) The West defeats its very purpose by giving too much importance to religious leaders

Choices (A), (C) and (D) are the author’s opinions found in the passage. Choice (B) is a negation of the author’s
opinion. In the last para the author says that the remarks of people like Boykin are uncouth. They hurt the listener but
they are not very harmful because we can see them for what they are and so prepare to guard ourselves from them. So
they are hurtful but not harmful (relatively). Choice (B) reverses this. Choice (B)
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Directions for question 7: There are two blanks in the following question. From the pair of words given below the sentence, select the pair that fills
the blanks most appropriately.
7. After the collapse of the Bretton Woods agreement in 1971, the IMF more or less lost its mission to ______ exchange rates, and began to
look for a new role, when it _____ its articles of association in 1978 they were so loosely drafted as to grant the IMF permission to interfere in
almost any aspect of a country’s governance.
a) behest, emended
b) safeguard, remedied
c) protect, altered
d) maintain, influence

The role of the IMF had been to ensure that exchange rates remain stable. Hence ‘maintain’, ‘safeguard’, and ‘protect’ are appropriate.
The ‘articles of association’ was ‘amended’, ‘emended’, or ‘altered’ – all suggest modification. ‘remedied’ is inappropriate. It suggests a correction
which the para shows is not the case. So Choice (C) is correct. Choice (C)
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Directions for questions 8 and 9: In the question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/paragraph labelled (a) is in its correct place.
The four that follow are labelled (b), (c), (d) and (e) and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph or passage. From the
given options, select the most appropriate one.
8. (a) The plains of solidified lava that give the moon its quirky human-like face as seen from the earth were created more than four
billion years ago.
(b) The nature of these chemicals puts the rock into the category of mare salt – a lava that flowed out smoothly onto the lunar surface
before solidifying, use only comma forming dark plains that early skywatchers mistakenly took for seas, “Mare” in Latin.
(c) The evidence comes from an unearthly silvery gray stone that was blasted off from the face of the moon, perhaps by an impacting
asteroid, and was captured by the earth’s gravity, prompting it to fall to ground in Botswana.
(d) The lunar heritage of the rock, named Kalahari 009, has been confirmed by a telltale signature of oxygen isotopes and ratio of iron
to manganese in two volcanic minerals, olivine and pyroxene.
(e) In 1999, the 13.5 kg remnant of this roving rock was found by local people near the village of Kuke, in the grasslands of the
sprawling Kalahari Nature Reserve, who then sold it to meteorite hunters.
a) debc
b) cdbe
c) dceb
d) cedb

The phrases ‘The evidence….’ and ‘….silvery gray stone….blasted off….’ in c refer to solidified lava in a, hence it should follow a. ‘Roving stone…in
e refers to….silvery gray stone…. in c, hence it should follow c. As ‘the chemicals…. ‘ in b refers to olivine and pyroxene in d, db form a pair. ‘These
chemicals’ in b makes it clear that it follows d. Thus, the right order is cedb. Choice (D)
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Directions for questions 8 and 9: In the question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The sentence/paragraph labelled (a) is in its correct place.
The four that follow are labelled (b), (c), (d) and (e) and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph or passage. From the
given options, select the most appropriate one.
9. (a) Droughts in Africa, hurricanes in America, floods in Bangladesh – these are the dramatic images of climatic change.
(b) Dr. Zimmerer explains that globalization has intensified the competition for resources. Climate change will increase the scarcity of
resources, be it habitable land or drinkable water, amid the already existing shortage of fossil energy such as oil.
(c) Genocide and competition over resources are definitely related. The fear that the 21st century, rather than the 20th century, will
turn out to be the century of genocide is intensified by fast depleting natural resources.
(d) However, according to Dr. Juergen Zimmerer, if temperatures continue to rise, there could be worse in store: genocide.
(e) As well as competition for living space, genocide results from the dehumanization of one group by another. The key condition for
genocide is to have two groups, with the dominant one considering the other to be its polar opposite.
a) dbce
b) bdce
c) bdec
d) dbec

Since (d) adds to the unpleasant results emanating from climate change, it should follow (a). (b) explains a reason for genocide, i.e. competition for
resources. Further, (d) gives the full name – Dr. Juergen Zimmerer whereas (b) says only Dr. Zimmerer showing that it comes after (d).
(c) strengthens what is said in (b), i.e., fear…..intensified….fast depleting….’ Finally, (e) adds one more reason for genocide. Thus, the correct order
is dbce. Choice (A)
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Directions for question 10: The following question has a paragraph with one italicized word that doesn’t make sense. Choose the most appropriate
replacement for that word from the options given below the paragraph.
10. With negotiations at a standstill between the French Prime Minister and student bodies, trade unions and other opponents of a new
type of employment contract, France is aprasgig itself for total disruption with a general strike having been called.
a) appraising
b) grounding
c) arming
d) bracing

Arming (which means preparing) is not the right word because we arm ourselves against something. One cannot ‘appraise’ oneself for disruption.
‘Bracing’ is suitable because it means preparing oneself for something unpleasant. Choice (D)
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Descartes was very much worried by the uncertain state of philosophy in his times. He saw that philosophy was cultivated for many centuries by the
best minds that had ever been and there was yet not a single proposition in it, which was not under dispute. However, Descartes did not despair of
knowledge and knowledge for him must attain certitude equal to that of the demonstrations of arithmetic and geometry. This knowledge, he thought,
could be attained if we use an appropriate method of enquiry. Seeing that knowledge proper has already been attained in arithmetic and geometry
he was surprised to find that philosopher’s had not reared a lofty edifice on such a firm and solid foundation. However, it was the method, and not
the subject matter so much, which had enabled mathematics to attain certitude. So Descartes attempted to understand that method of mathematics,
which could be utilized for advancing knowledge in any subject. He called his own enquiry universal mathematics in Rule 4 of his Regulate. This will
be called Meta mathematics today. Such a science according to Descartes should contain the primary rudiments of human reason and its
providence ought to extend to the eliciting of true results in every subject.
Descartes has noted that deduction alone could yield certain results and experimental inference could not yield errorless results. But he did not see
that these methods dealt with two different kinds of propositions. Further, we are beginning to realize only now that philosophy does not deal with
cognitive but with non-cognitive propositions concerning self-realization. Such distinctions would show that the criterion of mathematics couldn’t be
applied to the understanding of philosophical problems.
Descartes was very much concerned with the enquiry into the method of philosophizing. The object of Cartesian methodology was to apply
mathematical method to philosophy with a view to obtaining certitude in knowledge. In part II of ‘Discourse on Method’, Descartes gave an account
of rules, which he found adequate in explaining his method.
The first rule was never to accept anything as true unless Descartes recognized it to be certainly and evidently such, that is, carefully to avoid all
precipitation and pre-judgement, and include nothing in his conclusions unless it presented itself so clearly and distinctly to his mind that there was
no reason or occasion to doubt it. The second was to divide each of the difficulties which Descartes encountered into as many parts as possible and
as might be required for an easier solution. The third was to think in an orderly fashion when concerned with the search for truth, beginning with the
things which were simplest and easiest to understand and gradually and by degrees reaching towards more complex knowledge.
11. According to the passage, which of the following methods to be applied in philosophy would have been approved by Descartes.
a) An empirical method.
b) An ‘a priori’ system of logical deduction.
c) an ‘a posteriori’ system of logical deduction.
d) philosophy involving God.
Refer to the 2nd para of the passage ‘Descartes has noted that deduction above….ever less results’. This shows that (A) is wrong as empirical way
involves experimental inference and (B) is correct. (C) is wrong as ‘a posteriori’ system involves tracing a cause from an effect. (D) is wrong
because there is no reference to God. Choice (B)
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12. The author of the article dissents with the method Descartes wants to employ because
a) while mathematics deals with discernables, philosophy does not.
b) while mathematics is based on logical deductions philosophy is not.
c) while mathematics follows a deduction system, philosophy is based on experimental inference.
d) while mathematics has a solid base philosophy does not have one.
Para 2 presents the views of the author, juxtaposed with those of Descartes. Refer to the 3rd sentence ‘….. ‘We are beginning to realize’ …..
concerning self realization’ shows that (A) is the correct answer. Choice (A)
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13. Descartes felt that every proposition in the philosophy in his times was disputed because
a) the subject matter was abstract.
b) the subject was not as popular as mathematics and geometry.
c) the methods applied were not the same as those applied in mathematics and geometry.
d) the best minds cultivating philosophy were at loggerheads.
Refer to line 8 of para 1. ‘However it was the method and not the subject matter….certitude’ which shows that (C) is the correct answer choice.
Choice (C)
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Directions for question 14: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences.
14. (a) Wimbledon is the ultimate destination to every young tennis player.
(b) This is where Becker launched power tennis.
(c) Agassi won his first Grand Slam here.
(d) Deeds accomplished elsewhere is seen as secondary.
a) a and d
b) Only a
c) Only b
d) b and c

‘Destination’ is followed by ‘of’. The use of ‘to’ after ‘destination’ makes sentence a ungrammatical. The subject in sentence (d) is ‘Deeds’ and so
the verb that follows should be ‘are’ and not ‘is’. Choice (A)
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Directions for questions 15: The question consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate.
Select the option that indicates the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s).
15. (a) When we come to large scale enterprise, the idea of private ownership becomes an absurdity.
(b) Such property may be called passive property, or property for acquisition, for exploitation, or for power, to distinguish it from
property which is actively used by its owner for the conduct of his profession.
(c) To the lawyer, the first is of course as fully property as the second.
(d) It is questionable, however, whether economists should call it property at all, since it is not identical with the rights which secure
the owner the produce of his toil, but is the opposite of them.
a) Only a
b) a and c
c) b and d
d) Only d

In sentence (a) enterprise should be in plural since we are not referring to one enterprise but to large scale enterprises in general. In
sentence (b), the definite article should precede property (… to distinguish it from the property which….) since we are referring
to one particular type of property. In sentence (c), ‘of course’ should be separated from the rest of the sentence by commas (before and after) since
it is in the nature of a comment on the sentence (like however in (d)). Only (d) is correct. Choice (D)
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Directions for question 16: In the question, there are five sentences/paragraphs the sentence/paragraph labelled (a) is in its correct place. The four
that follow are labelled (b), (c), (d) and (e), and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage.
From the given options, select the most appropriate option.
16. (a) Anthropogenic degradation of the environment – disruption of the essential hydrological cycle – must have played some role in the
disappearance of ancient cultures; catastrophic droughts no doubt contributed, aggravated by desertification.
(b) There is some certainty, for instance, that the great migrations of the Golden Horde across the Steppes into Russia were set off not by
power rivalries of wealthy empires, but by aridity and the hunger for water.
(c) Nevertheless, cultures can survive anything but an outright shortage of water.
(d) Human-caused salinity, no doubt, also has a place as a villain.
(e) Arid lands can be made desert by human actions, and deserts can be made to be extended by careless destruction of the soil,
deserts where man has been active longest are more arid, more barren, than “natural” deserts.
a) BEDC
b) ebdc
c) edbc
d) bdec

‘Anthropogenic’ (originating in the activities of humans) in (a) leads to ‘human actions’ in (e). Hence (e) follows (a) elaborating the idea. (b) follows
(e), as it is an example of what is stated in (e). (c) is clearly the concluding sentence. Hence ebdc. Choice (B)
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Directions for question 17: The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled
with a letter. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
17. (a) Foremost among these are the requirement of minimizing collateral damage and casualties to innocent civilians in the theatre of
conflict.
(b) Modern weapon systems have highly accurate kill-probability, are devastating and endow the armies of advanced countries with a
grand advantage in neutralizing the enemy from a distance while keeping their own casualties within acceptable limits.
(c) However, there are constraints that apply to all parties involved and more so to developed nations.
(d) In such an eventuality the already battered non-combatant in the battle zone will pay the price, if no better technological alternative
can be found.
(e) But, inspite of technological progress, equipment malfunction cannot be ruled out.
a) beadc
b) bdcae
c) bcaed
d) baecd

All the choices begin with (b). So ‘b’ is the introduction sentence. Ideally statement (c) is the most appropriate statement to follow (b) because (c)
links to (b) with ‘However’. ‘These’ in a refers to ‘constraints’ in ‘c]. So ‘c’ is followed by ‘a’. ‘e’ then follows with ‘but’ and ‘d’ closes the para. Choice
(C)
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In 1972, for only the third time in our history we discovered a new world.
The first time was in 1492, an event that had immediate impact, with ultimate benefits that are incalculable. A new civilization was created and an old
one revivified.
The second date, not quite so famous, is 1610. In the spring of that year, Galileo turned his primitive ‘optic tube’ towards the moon and saw with his
own eyes that Earth was not unique. Floating out there, a quarter of a million miles away, was another world of mountains, valleys and great shining
plains – empty, virginal – awaiting, like Michelangelo’s Adam, the touch of life. And, 362 years later, life came riding on a pillar of fire.
With the end of the Apollo programme, there will now be a short pause until much cheaper transportation systems are developed. Then we will
return and the history of the moon will begin. But it may be quickly overshadowed by a greater drama on a far more impressive stage.
The third new world was not found by sailing ship or telescope; yet like the two earlier events it was a shocking surprise that resulted in the overthrow
of long-cherished beliefs. No one knew that such a place existed and when the evidence started to accumulate, early in 1972, many scientists were
literally unable to believe their eyes.
This new world has nearly twice the diameter of the moon and is almost four times as large as both Americas. And it has the most spectacular
scenery yet discovered anywhere in the universe. Think of the Grand Canyon, the greatest natural wonder of the United States. Then quadruple its
depth and multiply its width five times, to an incredible seventy five miles. Finally, imagine its spanning the whole continent, from Los Angeles to New
York. Such is the scale of the canyon that is carved along its equator.
Yet even this is not the planet’s most awesome feature, for it is dominated by volcanoes that dwarf any on Earth. The mightiest, Nix Olympia – the
Snows of Olympus – is almost three times the height of the Everest and more than three hundred miles across. Those volcanoes are slumbering
now, but not long ago they were spewing into the thin atmosphere all the chemicals of life, including water: there are dried-up riverbeds that give
clear indication of recent flash floods – the first evidence ever found for running water outside our Earth. It even appears that this may be a young
world, geologically speaking; if life has not already begun, that will be yet another surprise.
By now, you may have guessed the identity of this new world. It is Mars – the real Mars, not the imaginary one in which we believed until Mariner 9
swept aside the illusions of decades. It will be years before we absorb all the lessons of this, the most successful robot space mission ever flown;
but already it seems that Mars, not the moon, will be our main order of extraterrestrial business in the century to come.
This news may be received with less than enthusiasm at this moment. NASA’s budget is being cut to the bone and voices everywhere are calling for
an attack on the evils and injustices of our own world. No one can deny, though, that Columbus did more for Europe by sailing westward than whole
generations of men who stayed behind. True, we must rebuild our cities and our societies and bind up the wounds we have inflicted on Mother Earth.
To do this, we will need all the marvellous new tools of space – the weather, communications and resources satellites that are about to transform
the economy of mankind. Even so, it will be a difficult and often discouraging task, with little glamour to fire the imagination.
Yet “where there is no vision, the people perish.” Men need the mystery and romance of new horizons almost as badly as they need food and shelter.
In the difficult years ahead, we should remember that the Snows of Olympus lie silent beneath the stars, waiting for our grand children.
18. While discussing the moon and Mars, the author brings out details that enable us to infer all the following EXCEPT:
a) There was no similarity in the manner whereby we first learnt about them.
b) People had not known about the existence of either until the events referred to in the passage.
c) In both cases, the knowledge first gathered was in contradiction of views earlier held.
d) While one has shown the inherent potential for the beginnings of life, the other has not.

Choice (A) – can be inferred from paras 3 and 5.
Choice (B) – cannot be inferred – para 3 speaks of Galileo focusing on the moon to learn something new about it, while para 5 refers to the
discovery of Mars.
Choice (C) – can be inferred from the phrase ‘overthrow of long-cherished beliefs’ in para 5.
Choice (D) can be inferred – the potential of Mars to support life is referred to in para 7, while no such mention is made with reference to the moon.
Choice (B)
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In 1972, for only the third time in our history we discovered a new world. The first time was in 1492, an event that had immediate impact, with ultimate
benefits that are incalculable. A new civilization was created and an old one revivified.
19. According to the passage, the most significant difference between Mars, on one hand, and the moon and Earth, on the other, is in
a) the size of the bodies.
b) the types of the geographical features that they have.
c) the extent of benefit we have derived from the studies of these bodies.
d) the relative sizes of their features.

Paras 6 and 7 show how the geographical features (or ‘scenery’) on Mars is the most spectacular, not discovered anywhere in the universe. Thus,
choice (D) is the appropriate answer. Choice (D)
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one revivified.
20. The author says ‘this news may be received with less than enthusiasm’ because, at present
a) our major focus is on restoration.
b) our infrastructural capabilities are low.
c) we have far more important things to do.
d) we do not derive any tangible benefits from space exploration.

This line is from the penultimate paragraph. The paragraph indicates that the view generally prevailing is that we need to pay attention to our cities,
societies and to Earth. Choice (A) is thus the appropriate answer. Choice (A)
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one revivified.
plains – empty, virginal – awaiting, like Michelangelo’s Adam, the touch of life. And, 362 years later, life came riding on a pillar of fire. With the end of
the Apollo programme, there will now be a short pause until much cheaper transportation systems are developed. Then we will return and the history
of the moon will begin. But it may be quickly overshadowed by a greater drama on a far more impressive stage.
21. From the concluding paragraph we can infer that the author’s view is that man should always remain
a) a dreamer.
b) an explorer.
c) an adventurer.
d) a pragmatist.

The line ‘men need mystery and romance of new horizons almost as badly as they need food and shelter’ points to the author’s belief that, while
man needs adventure, he needs the fruits of discovery more. Thus ‘explorer’ is appropriate. Choice (B)
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Directions for questions 22 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Each of the five boys – Karan,
Prakash, Ravanth, David and Ranjan – has a different number of characteristics among blue eyes, black hair, white complexion, broad
forehead and long hair. It is also known that, (i) Ranjan does not have as many characteristics as Prakash but has a white complexion.
(ii) Prakash does not have as many characteristics as Ravanth, who does not have blue eyes.
(iii) David does not have as many characteristics as Karan and Karan does not possess the maximum number of characteristics in the
group.
(iv) the number of characteristics that Ranjan possesses is exactly two more than that possessed by the boy having the least number of
characteristics.
(v) Prakash has long hair and one of the characteristics of Ranjan is a broad forehead.
(vi) every characteristic is possessed by a different number of boys and it is possible that there is a boy who does not possess any of the
given characteristics and that there is a characteristic not possessed by any of the boys.
22. Which of the following additional statements is/are necessary to know about the characteristics possessed by each of boys?
I. Prakash has a broad forehead. II. Prakash has a white complexion. III. Karan does not have a broad forehead. IV.
Karan does not have a white complexion.
a) Only I
b) Only I or only II
c) Only III
d) Only III or only IV

From the given information, we know that
1. Prakash > Ranjan 2. Ravanth > Prakash 3. Karan > David Karan does not have the maximum number of
characteristics.So Ravanth must have the highest number of characteristics. As he does not have blue eyes, he must
have each of the other characteristics. The following are the data given and the inferences made based on them.1.
Rajan has white complexion, Ravanth does not have blue eyes. 2. Ravanth has all other characteristics. 3. The number
of characteristics possessed by them are 4, 3, 2, 1 and 0. 4. Blue eyes are not possessed by any one of them. 5. David
does not possess any of the given characteristics. Based on the information given we can make the following table.If we
know that Karan has either white complexion or broad forehead, then the entire table would be determined.\ Only III or only IV is necessary to
complete the table.Choice (D)
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forehead and long hair. It is also known that,
(i) Ranjan does not have as many characteristics as Prakash but has a white complexion.
group.
characteristics.
23. Which of the following characteristics is possessed by exactly two boys?
a) White complexion
b) Long hair
c) Broad forehead
d) Black hair

From the given information, we know that
1. Prakash > Ranjan 2. Ravanth > Prakash 3. Karan > David Karan does not have the maximum number of
characteristics.So Ravanth must have the highest number of characteristics. As he does not have blue eyes, he must
have each of the other characteristics. The following are the data given and the inferences made based on them.1.
Rajan has white complexion, Ravanth does not have blue eyes. 2. Ravanth has all other characteristics. 3. The number
of characteristics possessed by them are 4, 3, 2, 1 and 0. 4. Blue eyes are not possessed by any one of them. 5. David
does not possess any of the given characteristics. Based on the information given we can make the following
table.Long hair is possessed by exactly two persons. Choice (B)
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forehead and long hair. It is also known that,
(i) Ranjan does not have as many characteristics as Prakash but has a white complexion.
group.
characteristics.
24. Who among the five boys has/have Black hair?
a) Prakash
b) Ranjan
c) Ravanth
d) Both (A) and (C)

From the given information, we know that 1. Prakash > Ranjan 2. Ravanth > Prakash 3. Karan > David Karan does not have the
maximum number of characteristics.So Ravanth must have the highest number of characteristics. As he does not have
blue eyes, he must have each of the other characteristics. The following are the data given and the inferences made
based on them.1. Rajan has white complexion, Ravanth does not have blue eyes. 2. Ravanth has all other
characteristics. 3. The number of characteristics possessed by them are 4, 3, 2, 1 and 0. 4. Blue eyes are not possessed
by any one of them. 5. David does not possess any of the given characteristics. Based on the information given we can
make the following table.Only Ravanth possesses black hair. Choice (C)
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In a joint family, there are four cousins, Soumya, Navya, Divya, and Varun, each of whom plays exactly one game, in random order, among
Farmville, Cafe World, Poker and Mafia Wars, and eats exactly one item out of burger, pasta, sizzler and pizza.
The following additional information is given.
(i) The cousin who eats pizza does not play Farmville; the one who plays Cafe World does not eat pasta; the one who eats sizzler does not
play Poker and the one who plays Mafia Wars does not eat burger.
(ii) Divya eats neither a sizzler nor a pizza; while Soumya eats neither a burger nor a sizzler.
(iii) The game that Navya plays and the food item that Navya eats both begin with the same letter.
(iv) Varun does not play Farmville; Divya does not play Mafia Wars and Soumya does not play Cafe World.
(v) The one who eats burger does not play Farmville.
25. Which game does Soumya play?
a) Mafia Wars
b) Farmville
c) Poker
From (i), the above table can be constructed
From (iii), the game that Navya plays and the food she eats both start with the same letter
Þ Navya plays Poker and eats either Pasta or Pizza
From (ii), netiher Soumya nor Divya eats sizzler
\ From (ii) and (iii) Varun eats sizzler
From (v), the person who eats burger does not play Farmville
Þ the person who eats burger plays cafe world
From (iv), Varun does not play Farmville
Þ Varun plays mafia wars
Since Divya does not play mafia wars, Divya plays cafe world or Farmville
Similarly, Soumya plays Farmville or mafia wars
But since Varun plays Mafia wars, Soumya plays Farmville Þ Divya plays cafe world The table is now as below
Soumya plays farmville Choice (B)
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26. Who among the following eats burger?
a) Divya
b) Navya
c) Varun

But since Varun plays Mafia wars, Soumya plays Farmville Þ Divya plays cafe world The table is now as below
Divya eats Burger Choice (A)
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27. Which of the following items does the cousin who plays Farmville eat?
a) Sizzler
b) Burger
c) Pasta

But since Varun plays Mafia wars, Soumya plays Farmville Þ Divya plays cafe world
The table is now as below
Soumya plays Farmville and eats Pasta Choice (C)
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Directions for question 28: The question below is followed by two statements, I and II . Answer the question using the following instructions:
28. In a class of 125 students, if 20 students failed in all the three subjects – Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics – then how many
students passed in only Physics?
I. 65 students passed in Mathematics and 105 students passed in Chemistry.

II. 65 students passed in Chemistry as well as Mathematics, 60 students passed in Physics as well as Chemistry.
a) if the question can be answered by using statement I alone but not by using statement II alone.
b) if the question can be answered by using statement II alone but not by using statement I alone.
c) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements
d) alone.

From I alone,
As C = 105 and n = 20
C + n = 125
\a=e=b=0
\ I alone is sufficient.
From II alone we cannot find out the value of ‘b’ as it gives partial information. Choice (A)
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Directions for questions 29 and 30: Each question below is followed by two statements, I and II . Answer the questions using the following
instructions:
29. Only if Shyam eats no more than three sweets, then Ram will eat no more than three sweets, and Seeta will eat at least three sweets. How
many sweets did Shyam and Seeta together eat, given that everyone ate a different number of sweets and each of them ate at least one
sweet?
I. Seeta ate three sweets and Ram ate two sweets.

II. Ram ate one sweet and Seeta ate four sweets.
a) if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using
c) either statement alone.
d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

The given statement is of the form of :
if p then q.
The implications are : (1) q Þ p
(2) ~p Þ ~q
Given that Seeta had 3 sweets and Ram had 2 sweets i.e. q is the true which means that p is true i.e. Shyam eats at most 3 sweets. But we know
that all of them had a different number of sweets. \Shyam had one sweet.
The given question can be answered with statement I alone.
As per statement II, q is true which means Shyam eats at most three sweets but since Ram had one sweet, Shyam can have either two or three
sweets hence the question cannot be answered. Choice (A)
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Directions for questions 29 and 30: Each question below is followed by two statements, I and II . Answer the questions using the following
instructions:
30. How many Tuesdays are there in the year?
I. The year started with a Monday. II. The year ended with a Saturday.
a) if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using
c) either statement alone.
d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

From statement I alone we cannot determine the number of Tuesdays in the year because, if the year is a non-leap year there will be 52 Tuesdays,
if the year is a leap year there will be 53 Tuesdays.
From statement II the number of Tuesdays in that year are exactly 52.
Hence, II alone is sufficient. Choice (A)

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Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently of each other.

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This will be maximum if x = 7 – x ⇒ x =

∴ Area = 21 sq.cm. Choice (B)

Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently of each other.

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time taken by Shanti = 2t

Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently of each other.

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= 42925 – 2550 + 100 = 40475 Choice (A)

Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently of each other.

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Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently of each other.

c) Only I and III

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Hence n = -1, i.e., negative and odd.

Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently of each other.

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meet for the first time.

16 km from C would mean 12 km to B and 4 km back from B towards A.

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8. The total marks scored by Calvin in the exam are at most

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total marks in a subject. Choice (B)

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Now, the choices can easily be checked against this condition

which is not a perfect square.

Now, consider option (B)

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Only 17 satisfies the given condition.

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From secant theorem

CE2 = CP2 – PE2

⇒ (OS –OQ)2 = 4r2 – (OP + OR)2

OPS is right angled triangle ⇒ PS is diameter.

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In D PC1 C3 , PC1 2 + PC3 2 = C1 C3 2

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At the point of intersection of the two lines, –6 = 2x + 4

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18. How many families read exactly two newspapers?

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