NEET - AIIMS Objective Question - Disha Experts PDF

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INDEX
PHYSICS 25. Dual Nature of Radiation
and Matter P-148-P-153
1. Physical World, Units and 26. Atoms P-154-P-159

Measurements P-1-P-6
27. Nuclei P-160-P-165
2. Motion in a Straight Line P-7-P-13
28. Semiconductor Electronics :
3. Motion in a Plane P-14-P-19
Materials, Devices and
4. Laws of Motion P-20-P-25 Simple Circuits P-166-P-170
5. Work, Energy And Power P-26-P-31 29. Communication Systems P-171-P-176

6. System of Particles and Solutions P-S-1 – P-S-100
Rotational Motion P-32-P-37
7. Gravitation P-38-P-43 CHEMISTRY

8. Mechanical Properties
1. Some Basic Concepts of
of Solids P-44-P-49
Chemistry C-1-C-5
9. Mechanical Properties
of Fluids P-50-P-55 2. Structure of Atom C-6-C-11
10. Thermal Properties of Matter P-56-P-61 3. Classification of Elements

and Periodicity in Properties C-12-C-19
11. Thermodynamics P-62-P-66
12. Kinetic Theory P-67-P-71

4. Chemical Bonding and
Molecular Structure C-20-C-25
13. Oscillations P-72-P-77
5. States of Matter C-26-C-31
14. Waves P-78-P-83
6. Thermodynamics C-32-C-38
15. Electric Charges and Fields P-84-P-90
7. Equilibrium C-39-C-45
16. Electrostatic Potential and
Capacitance P-91-P-97 8. Redox Reactions C-46-C-50
17. Current Electricity P-98-P-104 9. Hydrogen C-51-C-55

18. Moving Charges and 10. The s-Block Elements C-56-C-60
Magnetism P-105-P-112
11. The p-Block Elements
19. Magnetism and Matter P-113-P-117
(Group 13 and 14) C-61-C-65
20. Electromagnetic Induction P-118-P-123
12. Organic Chemistry – Some Basic
21. Alternating Current P-124-P-129 Principles and Techniques C-66-C-73
22. Electromagnetic Waves P-130-P-135 13. Hydrocarbons C-74-C-80
23. Ray Optics and Optical 14. Environmental Chemistry C-81-C-86
Instruments P-136-P-141
15. The Solid State C-87-C-92
24. Wave Optics P-142-P-147
16. Solutions C-93-C-97 13. Photosynthesis B-76-B-82
17. Electrochemistry C-98-C-103 14. Respiration in Plants B-83-B-89
18. Chemical Kinetics C-104-C-110 15. Plant Growth and

Development B-90-B-95
19. Surface Chemistry C-111-C-117
16. Digestion and Absorption B-96-B-101
20. General Principles and Processes
17. Breathing and Exchange of
for Isolation of Elements C-118-C-123
Gases B-102-B-108
21. The p-Block Elements (Group 15,
18. Body Fluids and Circulation B-109-B-114
16, 17 and 18) C-124-C-129
19. Excretory Products and their
22. The d and f-Block Elements C-130-C-134 Elimination B-115-B-120
23. Co-ordination Compounds C-135-C-140 20. Locomotion and Movement B-121-B-126
24. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes C-141-C-146 21. Neural Control and
25. Alcohols, Phenols and Co-ordination B-127-B-132
Ethers C-147-C-152 22. Chemical Co-ordination and

Regulation B-133-B-139
26. Aldehydes, Ketones and
Carboxylic Acids C-153-C-160 23. Reproduction in Organism B-140-B-145
27. Amines C-161-C-165 24. Sexual Reproduction in

Flowering Plants B-146-B-151
28. Biomolecules C-166-C-170
25. Human Reproduction B-152-B-159
29. Polymers C-171-C-176
26. Reproductive Health B-160-B-165
30. Chemistry in Everyday Life C-177-C-180
27. Principles of Inheritance
Solutions C-S-1-C-S-68 and Variation B-166-B-171
28. Molecular Basis of

BIOLOGY Inheritance B-172-B-178
29. Evolution B-179-B-185

1. The Living World B-1-B-6
30. Health and Disease B-186-B-191
2. Biological Classification B-7-B-12
31. Strategies for Enhancement
3. Plant Kingdom B-13-B-20
in Food Production B-192-B-196
4. Animal Kingdom B-21-B-26
32. Microbes in human Welfare B-197-B-201
5. Morphology of Flowering
33. Biotechnology : Principles
Plants B-27-B-32
and Processes B-202-B-207
6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants B-33-B-38
34. Biotechnology and its
7. Structural Organisation in Applications B-208-B-211
Animals B-39-B-45
35. Organism and Population B-212-B-217
8. Cell : The Unit of Life B-46-B-52
36. Ecosystem B-218-B-223
9. Biomolecules B-53-B-58
37. Biodiversity and its
10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division B-59-B-64 Conservation B-224-B-229
11. Transport in Plants B-65-B-70 38. Environmental Issues B-230-B-236
12. Mineral Nutrition B-71-B-75 Solutions B-S-1-B-S-12
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PHYSICS
1 Physical World, Units

and Measurements
Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs
1. The _____ is a measure of how closed the 1. Which of the following pairs of physical
measured value is to the true value of quantity. quantities does not have same dimensional
2. In the formula X = 3YZ 2 , X and Z have formula?
dimensions of capacitance and magnetic (a) Work and torque.
induction respectively. The dimensions of Y in (b) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant
MKSQ sytem are ________.
(c) Tension and surface tension.
3. The equation of state for real gas is given by
(d) Impulse and linear momentum
æ a ö
çè P + 2 ÷ø (V - b) = RT . The dimensions of the 2. The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2 and
V
constant a is _________. 0.301 in appropriate significant figures is
4. ____ is the ratio of the mean absolute error to (a) 6663.821 (b) 664
the mean value of the quantity measured. (c) 663.8 (d) 663.8
5. Planck’s constant has dimensions ________.
3. On the basis of dimensions, decide which of
6. The _____ is the error associated with the
the following relations for the displacement of
resolution of the instrument.
a particle is not correct.
DZ (a) y = a sin 2pt/T – cos 2pt/T
7. If Z = A3, then = –––––
Z (b) y = a sin vt
8. The number of significant figures in 0.00060
m is _________. a ætö
(c) y= sin ç ÷
T èvø
True/ False :
æ 2πt 2πt ö
1. Every measurement by any measuring (d) y = a 2 ç sin - cos ÷
è T T ø
instrument has some error.
2. A measurement can have more accuracy but less 4. If dimensions of critical velocity ucof a liquid
precision and vice versa. flowing through a tube are expressed as
3. Chan ge of units chan ge th e number of
[ hx ry r x ] , where h, r and r are the coefficient
significant digits.
4. All the zero between two non-zero digits are of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and radius
significant. of the tube respectively, then the values of x, y
5. Light year and year, both measure time. and z are given by :
6. If l1= 0.6 cm ; l2 = 0.60 cm and l3 = 0.600 cm, (a) –1, –1, 1 (b) –1, –1, –1
then l3 is the least accurate measurement. (c) 1, 1, 1 (d) 1, –1, –1
P-2 PHYSICS
5. Which of the following quantities has a unit 13. Random error can be eliminated by :
but dimensionless? (a) careful observation
(a) Strain (b) eliminating the cause
(b) Reynolds number (c) measuring the quantity with more than one
instrument
(c) angular displacement
(d) taking large number of observations and
(d) Poisson’s ratio then their mean.
6. The speed of sound in a gas is given by 14. If f = x2, then the relative error in f is
2 Dx (Dx ) 2
gP (a) (b)
V= where P is pressure and d is density.. x x
d
Dx
The dimensional formula for g is (c) (d) (Dx)2
x
(a) M–1 L1 T2 (b) M0 L0 T0 15. The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second.
(c) M0 L–1 T0 (d) M0 L0 T1 The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is
7. If velocity (V), time (T) and force (F) are measured to be 25 second. The percentage error
fundamental quantities, what is the dimensional in the measurement of time will be
formula for mass : (a) 8% (b) 1.8%
(a) [F–1 TV] (b) [F T V] (c) 0.8% (d) 0.1%
16. Two quantities A and B have different
(c) [FV T–1] (d) [F–1 T V–1]
dimensions which mathematical operation given
8. Which of the following sets cannot be taken as below is physically meaningful?
fundamental quantities in any system of units : (a) A/B (b) A + B
(a) length, mass, velocity (c) A – B (d) A = B
(b) length, time, velocity 17. The dimensional formula of torque is
(c) mass, time, acceleration (a) [ML2T–2] (b) [MLT–2]
(d) energy, force, time (c) [ML–1T–2] (d) [ML–2T–2]
9. The dimensional formula for relative density is 18. In a vernier calliper N divisions of vernier scale
(a) [M L–3] (b) [M0 L–3] coincides with (N – 1) divisions of main scale
0 0 –1 (in which length of one division is 1 mm). The
(c) [M L T ] (d) [M0 L0 T0]
least count of the instrument should be
10. The percentage error in the measurement of
(a) N (b) N – 1
length of a cube is 2%, what will be percentage
(c) 1/10 N (d) 1/N – 1
error in the measurement of its volume
19. Which of the following is a dimensional
(a) 2% (b) 1%
constant?
(c) 4% (d) 6% (a) Refractive index
11. The solid angle sustended by the total surface (b) Poissons ratio
area of a sphere, at the centre is (c) Relative density
(a) 4p (b) 2p (d) Gravitational constant
(c) p (d) 3p 20. The unit of permittivity of free space, eo is
12. Mass of a body is 210 gm and its density is (a) Coulomb2/(Newton-metre)2
7.981 g/cm3. What will be its volume, with (b) Coulomb/Newton-metre
regard to significant digits (c) Newton-meter2/Coulomb2
(a) 26.312 cm3 (b) 26 cm3 (d) Coulomb2/Newton-meter2
(c) 27 cm 3 (d) 26.3 cm3
Physical World, Units and Measurements P-3
21. The ratio of the dimension of Planck’s constant

r2
and that of the moment of inertia is the (c) steradian (d) dA/r steradian
dimension of dA
(a) time (b) frequency 3. The accompanying diagram represents a screw
gauge. The circular scale is divided into 50
(c) angular momentum (d) velocity
divisions and the linear scale is divided into
22. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given millimeters. If the screw advances by 1 mm
by Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will be: when the circular scale makes 2 complete
(a) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1 revolutions, the least count of the instrument
and the reding of the instrument in figure are
(b) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2
respectively.
(c) Force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2
(d) Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2
40
-1 35
23. The dimensions of (m 0 Î0 )2 are 30
0 1 2 3 25
(a) [L1/2 T–1/2] (b) [L–1 T] 20
(c) [L T–1] (d) [L–1/2 T1/2]
(a) 0.01 mm and 3.82 mm
(b) 0.02 mm and 3.70 mm
Diagram Based Questions : (c) 0.11 mm and 4.57 mm
1. In Rutherford, alpha particle scattering (d) 1.0 mm and 5.37 mm
experiment as shown in given figure, A and B 4. In a screw gauge, the zero of mainscale
refer to coincides with fifth division of circular scale in
figure (i). The circular division of screw gauge
Lead Flash of are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one
block light
rotation. The diameter of the ball in figure (ii)
Microscope
is
a Fluorescent
q
screen 0 10
A Scattering 5
angle 0
B
(a) polonium sample and aluminium foil

(b) polonium sample and gold foil
Figure (i)
(c) uranium sample and gold foil
(d) uranium sample and aluminium foil 0 30
2. For the given figure solid angle, dW is equal to 25
20
dW dA Figure (ii)
(a) 2.25 mm (b) 2.20 mm
(c) 1.20 mm (d) 1.25 mm
(a) r2dA steradian (b) dA/r2 steradian

P-4 PHYSICS
Assertion/ Reason : Reason : Smaller the unit of measurement smaller

is its numerical value.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains 5. Assertion : Angle and strain are dimensionless.
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these Reason : Angle and strain have no unit.
questions also has four alternative choices, only one 6. Assertion : In the equation momentum, P =
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. mass
x, the dimensional formula of x is LT – 2.
area
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is a correct explanation for assertion. Reason : Quantities with different dimensions
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason can be multiplied.
is not a correct explanation for assertion 7. Assertion : Force cannot be added to pressure.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason : The dimensions of force and pressure
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. are different.
1. Assertion : Now a days a standard metre is de- 8. Assertion : The time period of a pendulum is
fined in terms of the wavelength of light.
given by the formula, T = 2p g / l
Reason : Light has no relation with length.
2. Assertion : Parallax method cannot be used Reason : According to th e principle of
for measuring distances of stars more than 100 homogeneity of dimensions, only that formula
light years away. is correct in which the dimensions of L.H.S. is
equal to dimensions of R.H.S.
Reason : Because parallax angle reduces so
much that it cannot be measured accurately. 1
9. Assertion: Formula for kinetic energy is K =
3. Assertion : A.U. is much bigger than Å. 2
Reason : A.U. stands for astronomical unit mu2 = ma
and A stands for Angstrom.
1
4. Assertion : When we change the unit of Reason : Both the equation K = mv2 and k
2
measurement of a quantity, its numerical value
changes. = ma are dimensionally incorrect.
Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the following Column I and Column II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Distance between earth & stars (1) micron
(B) Inter-atomic distance in a solid (2) angstrom
(C) Size of the nucleus (3) light year
(D) Wavelength of infrared laser (4) fermi
(5) kilometre
(a) (A)®(1); (B)®(3); C®(4); (D)®(2) (b) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(5); (B)®(2); C®(3); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
Physical World, Units and Measurements P-5
2. Column I Column II
(A) Length (1) burette
(B) Volume (2) Vernier callipers
(C) Diameter of a thin wire (3) screw gauge
(D) Mass (4) common balance
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(3); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
(A) 1 Fermi (1) 3.08 × 1016 m
(B) 1 Astronomical unit (2) 9.46 × 1015 m
(C) 1 Light year (3) 1.496 × 1011 m
(D) 1 Parsec (4) 10–15 m
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
(A) Meter scale (1) 3.08 × 1016 m
(B) Vernier callipers (2) 10–5 m
(C) Screw gauge (3) 10–3m to 102m
(D) Parallax method (4) 10–4 m
(a) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
(A) Size of atomic nucleus (1) 1011 m
(B) Distance of the sun from Earth (2) 107 m
(C) Radius of Earth (3) 10 –15 m
(D) Size of proton (4) 10 –14 m
(a) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
(A) Rotation period of Earth (1) 109s
(B) Average human life – span (2) 1017s
(C) Travel time for light from Sun to Earth (3) 105s
(D) Age of universe (4) 102s
(a) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
(A) Mean absolute error (1) D amean/ amean
æ D a mean ö
(B) Relative error (2) ç a ÷ ´100
è mean ø
n
(C) Percentage error (3) å | Dai | / n
i=1
(D) Absolute error (4) an – amean
(a) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(4) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
P-6 PHYSICS
8. Column - I Column - II
(A) Force (1) T –1
(B) Angular velocity (2) MLT–2
(C) Torque (3) ML–1 T–2
(D) Stress (4) ML–1 T–1
(5) ML2 T–2
(a) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(2); B®(1); (C)®(5); (D)®(4)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : quantity?

(a) (P – Q) / R (b) PQ – R
1. ln a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum (c) PQ / R (d) (PR – Q2) / R
percentage error in the measurement of length is
5. The physical quantities not having same
2% and that in the observation of the time-period
dimensions are
is 3%. Then the maximum percentage error in
determination of the acceleration due to gravity (a) torque and work
g is (b) momentum and Planck’s constant
(a) 5% (b) 6% (c) stress and Young’s modulus
(c) 1% (d) 8% (d) speed and (m o e o ) -1 / 2
2. Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a
6. Which one of the following represents the
Vernier callipers which has divisions of 0.1 cm
correct dimensions of the gravitational
on its main scale (MS) and 10 divisions of its
constant?
vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the
main scale. Three such measurements for a ball (a) [M–1L3T–2] (b) [MLT–1]
–1
(c) [ML T ] –2 (d) [ML–2T–2]
are given below:
7. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are
S.No. MS(cm) VS divisions given by Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity
will be
1. 0.5 8
(a) velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1
2. 0.5 4
(b) acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2
3. 0.5 6
(c) force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2
(d) pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2
If the zero error is – 0.03 cm, then mean
corrected diameter is 8. If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is
measured in terms of a unit ‘u’ made by
(a) 0.52 cm (b) 0.59 cm
combining the electric charge ‘e’, Bohr radius
(c) 0.56 cm (d) 0.53 cm
‘a0’, Planck’s constant ‘h’ and speed of light ‘c’
3. A force is given by F = at + bt 2, where t is time, then
the dimensions of a and b are
(a) [M L T–4] and [M L T–1] e2 h u=
hc
(a) u= (b) 2
(b) [M L T–1] and [M L T0] a0 e a0
(c) [M L T–3] and [M L T–4]
(d) [M L T–3] and [M L T0] e2 c e2 a 0
(c) u= (d) u=
4. If P,Q, R are physical quantities, having ha 0 hc
different dimensions, which of the following
combinations can never be a meaningful
2 Motion in a
Straight Line
1. Area under velocity-time curve over a given 1. Which one out of the following statements is
interval of time represents _________ . false?
2. The slope of the tangent drawn on position-time (a) A body can have zero velocity and still be
graph at any instant is equal to the accelerated
instantaneous _________ . (b) A body can have a constant velocity and
3. Acceleration is described as rate of change of still have a varying speed
_________ . (c) A body can have a constant speed and still
4. If a body travels with constant acceleration have a varying velocity
_________, remains constant. (d) The direction of the velocity of a body can
5. The path of a particle moving under the influence change when its acceleration is constant.
of a force fixed in magnitude and direction is 2. The displacement of a particle starting from rest
_________ . (at t = 0) is given by s = 6t2 – t3. The time in
6. An object accelerated downward under the seconds at which the particle will attain zero
influence of force of gravity. The motion of object velocity again, is :
is said to be _________ . (a) 2 (b) 4
7. Velocity time curve for a body projected vertically (c) 6 (d) 8
upwards is a _________ . 3. The study of motion, without consideration of
8. The graph between displacement and time for a its cause is studied in :
particle with uniformly accelerated motion is a/ (a) statistics (b) kinematics
an _________ . (c) mechanics (d) modern physics
4. The ratio of the numerical values of the average
True/ False : velocity and average speed of a body is always:
(a) unity (b) unity or less
1. In general, speed is equal or greater than the
magnitude of the velocity. (c) unity or more (d) less than unity
2. A particle moving in a given direction with a 5. A particle has moved from one position to
non-zero velocity can have zero speed. another position
3. When a body reaches highest point in vertical (a) its distance is zero
motion, its velocity becomes zero but (b) its displacement is zero
acceleration is non -zero. (c) neither distance nor displacement is zero
4. Average velocity of an object is not equal to the (d) average velocity is zero
instantaneous velocity in uniform motion. 6. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed
5. Average speed can be zero but average velocity V1 and the other half with speed V2, then its
can never be zero. average speed is :
P-8 PHYSICS
(a) (t1 + t2)/2 (b) t1 t2 / (t2 – t1)

V1 + V2 2V1 + V2
(a) (b) (c) t1t2 / (t2 + t1) (d) t1 – t2
2 V1 + V2
14. A body starts from rest, what is the ratio of the
2V1 V2 2(V1 + V2 ) distance travelled by the body during the 4th
(c) (d) and 3rd seconds ?
V1 + V2 V1 V2
7. The displacement of a body is zero. The distance 7 5
(a) (b)
covered : 5 7
(a) is zero
7 3
(b) is not zero (c) (d)
(c) may or may not be zero 3 7
(d) depends upon the acceleration 15. Three different objects of masses m1, m2 and m3
8. Which of the following changes when a particle are allowed to fall from rest and from the same
is moving with uniform velocity? point O along three different frictionless paths.
(a) speed (b) velocity The speeds of the three objects on reaching the
(c) acceleration (d) position vector ground will be in the ratio of
9. A lift is coming from 8th floor and is just about (a) m1 : m2 : m3 (b) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3
to reach 4th floor. Taking ground floor as origin
and positive direction upwards for all quantities, 1 1 1
which one of the following is correct? (c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) : :
m1 m2 m3
(a) X < 0, v < 0, a > 0 (b) X > 0, v < 0, a < 0
(c) X > 0, v < 0, a > 0 (d) X > 0, v > 0, a < 0. 16. The displacement of a particle is represented by
10. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where the following equation : s = 3t 3 + 7t 2 + 5t + 8
A and B are constants, then the distance travelled
by it between 1s and 2s is : where s is in metre and t in second. The
acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is
3
(a) A + 4B (b) 3A + 7B (a) 14 m/s2 (b) 18 m/s2
2 (c) 32 m/s2 (d) zero
3 7 A B 17. What is the relation between displacement, time
(c) A+ B (d) +
2 3 2 3 and acceleration in case of a bodyhaving uniform
11. The slope of the velocity time graph for retarded acceleration?
motion is
1
(a) positive (a) S =ut + at 2 (b) S = (u + a)t
(b) negative 2
(c) zero (c) S = v2 – 2as (d) None of these
(d) can be +ve, –ve or zero 18. Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3
12. The area of the acceleration-displacement curve kg), are dropped from heights of 16m and 25m,
of a body gives respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them
(a) impulse to reach the ground is
(b) change in momentum per unit mass (a) 12/5 (b) 5/12
(c) change in KE per unit mass (c) 4/5 (d) 5/4
(d) total change in energy
19. A particle moves a distance x in time t according
13. At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary
escalator in time t1. If she ramains stationary on to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of
the escalator, then the escalator take her up in particle is proportional to:
time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the (a) (velocity) 3/2 (b) (distance)2
moving escalator will be (c) (distance)–2 (d) (velocity)2/3
Motion in a Straight Line P-9
20. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers dis- 1

tances h 1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the (a) (AD + BE) × OC
2
next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respec-
tively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is 1
(b) (OA + BC) × OC
h h 2
(a) h1 = 2 = 3
3 5
(b) h2 = 3h 1 and h3 = 3h2 1
(c) (OC + AB) × AD
(c) h1 = h2 = h3 2
(d) h1 = 2h 2 = 3h 3 1
(d) (OA + AB) × BC
Diagram Based Questions : 2
4. Wind is blowing west to east along two parallel
1. The graph shown below represents
tracks. Two trains moving with same speed in
object B opposite directions have the relative velocity
w.r.t. wind in the ratio 1 : 2. The speed of each
x02
Position
object A train is
x01
u
Time wind
(a) A and B are moving with same velocity in v
opposite directions u
(b) velocity of B is more than A in same (a) equal to that of wind
direction (b) double that of wind
(c) velocity of A is more than B in same (c) three times that of wind
direction (d) half that of wind
(d) velocity of A and B is equal in same direction
5. The displacement of a particle as a function of
2. A man travelling in a car with a maximum constant
time is shown in figure. It indicates that
speed of 20m/s watches the friend start off at a
distance 100m ahead on a motor cycle with
constant acceleration ‘a’. The maximum value
of ‘a’ for which the man in the car can reach his
friend is
v a
10 20 30 40 50
100m Time in sec
(a) 2 m/s2 (b) 1 m/s2
2 (a) the velocity of the particle is constant
(c) 4 m/s (d) None of these
3. The velocity time graph of the motion of the throughout
body is as shown below (b) the acceleration of the particle is constant
throughout
A B (c) the particle starts with a constant velocity
u
and is accelerated
v(m/s)
D E C (d) the motion is retarded and finally the particle

o t1 t2 t3 t (s) stops
The total distance travelled by the body during
the motion is equal to
P-10 PHYSICS
6. If a body moving in circular path maintains 3. Assertion : The position-time graph of a uniform
constant speed of 10 ms–1, then which of the motion in one dimension of a body can have
following correctly describes relation between negative slope.
acceleration and radius ? Reason : When the speed of body decreases
with time, the position-time graph of the moving
body has negative slope.
a a 4. Assertion : position-time graph of a body
(a) (b) moving uniformly in a straight line parallel to
position axis. Says body is at rest.
Reason : The slope of position-time graph in a
r r
uniform motion gives the velocity of an object.
5. Assertion : The average and instantaneous
velocities have same value in a uniform motion.
a a Reason : In uniform motion, the velocity of an
(c) (d) object increases uniformly.
6. Assertion : A body may be accelerated even
when it is moving uniformly.
r r
Reason : When direction of motion of the body
is changing, the body must have acceleration.
Assertion/ Reason : 7. Assertion : The equation of motion can be
applied only if acceleration is along the direction
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
of velocity and is constant.
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
Reason : If the acceleration of a body is zero
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
then its motion is known as uniform motion.
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. 8. Assertion : A positive acceleration of a body
can be associated with ‘slowing down’ of the
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is body.
a correct explanation for assertion. Reason : Acceleration is a vector quantity.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 9. Assertion : A body falling freely may do so with
is not a correct explanation for assertion constant velocity.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason : The body falls freely, when acceleration
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. of a body is equal to acceleration due to gravity.
1. Assertion : The speedometer of an automobile 10. Assertion : A body, whatever its motion is
measure the average speed of the automobile. always at rest in a frame of reference which is
fixed to the body itself.
Reason : Average velocity is equal to total
displacement per total time taken. Reason: The relative velocity of a body with
2. Assertion : An object can have constant speed respect to itself is zero.
but variable velocity.
Reason : Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector
quantity.

1. For a particle in one dimensional motion, match the following columns :
Column I Column II
(A) Zero speed but non-zero acceleration. (1) Body which is about to fall
(B) Zero speed non-zero velocity. (2) Extreme position of oscillating body
(C) Constant speed non-zero acceleration. (3) Possible
(D) Positive acceleration must speeding up. (4) Not possible
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
(c) (A)®(1, 2, 3); (B)®(3); C®(4); (D)®(1, 3) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
(A) Physical quantity whose unit (1) Linear motion
is cm s–2 in CGS system
(B) Negative acceleration (2) Zero
(C) Motion exhibited by body moving (3) Distance
in a straight line
(D) Area under a speed time graph (4) Acceleration
(E) Velocity of an upward throwing (5) Retardation
body at the peak point
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(5); C®(1); (D)®(3) ; (E)®(2) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4) ; (E)®(5)
(c) (A)®(5); (B)®(2); C®(3); (D)®(1) ; (E)®(4) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3) ; (E)®(5)
(A) Zero acceleration (1) Retardation
(B) Velocity time graph (2) Speed
(C) Speed in a direction (3) Constant motion
(D) Acts in opposite direction of motion (4) Acceleration
(E) Slope of a distance time graph (5) Velocity
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(5); C®(1); (D)®(3) ; (E)®(3) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4) ; (E)®(5)
(c) (A)®(5); (B)®(2); C®(3); (D)®(1) ; (E)®(4) (d) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(5); (D)®(1) ; (E)®(2)
(A) Velocity (1) m/s2
(B) Displacement (2) vector
(C) Speed (3) m/s
(D) Acceleration (4) scalar
(a) (A)®(2, 3); (B)®(2); C®(3, 4); (D)®(1) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
(c) (A)®(1, 2, 3); (B)®(3); C®(4); (D)®(1, 3) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
P-12 PHYSICS
(A) Distance travelled by a body (1) zero acceleration
1
(B) Uniform velocity (2) ut + at2
2
(C) Speedometer (3) instantaneous speed
u2
(D) Height of a vertically thrown body (4)
2g
(a) (A)®(2, 3); (B)®(2); C®(3, 4); (D)®(1, 5) (b) (A)®(1, 2); (B)®(3); C®(5); (D)®(4)
(c) (A)®(1, 5); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4, 5) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
(A) sn (1) m/s2
u+v
(B) v2 – u2 (2)
t
(C) Average speed (3) 2gh
a
(D) Acceleration (4) u + (2n -1)
2
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(1) (b) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(4)
7. Match the Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Displacement (1) Slope of x – t graph
(B) Velocity (2) Slope of tangent to x – t Curve
(C) Acceleration (3) Area under v – t curve
(D) Instantaneous velocity (4) Slope of v – t graph
Area. under x – t curve
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(3); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 2. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a
time t (in second) the distance x (in metre) of the
1. A point traversed half of the distance with a particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How
velocity v0. The half of remaining part of the long would the particle travel before coming to
distance was covered with velocity v1 & second rest?
half of remaining part by v2 velocity. The mean (a) 24 m (b) 40 m
velocity of the point, averaged over the whole (c) 56 m (d) 16 m
time of motion is 3. The deceleration experienced by a moving
v 0 + v1 + v 2 2 v 0 + v1 + v 2 motorboat after its engine is cut off, is given by
(a) (b) dv/dt = – kv3 where k is constant. If v0 is the
3 3
magnitude of the velocity at cut-off, the
v 0 + .2 v1 + 2 v 2 2 v 0 1 + v2 )
( v
magnitude of the velocity at a time t after the
(c) (d)
3 (2v 0 + v1 + v 2 ) cut-off is
v0 1
(a) gt1t2 (b) gt1t2
(a) (c) - kt 2
2 v0 e
(2v 0 kt + 1)
(c) 2gt1t2 (d) 2hg
(c) v 0 / 2 (d) v 0 7. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a
4. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity for some time after which it decelerates at a
of 5 ms–1. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to constant rate b to come to rest. If the total time
5 ms–1 northwards. The average acceleration in elapsed is t, the maximum velocity acquired by
the car is given by
this time is
1 -2
æ a2 + b2 ö æ a2 - b2 ö
(a) ms towards north
ç ÷t ç ÷t
(a) ç ab ÷ (b) ç ab ÷
2 è ø è ø
1 æ a +b ö æ ab ö
(b) ms - 2 towards north - east çç ÷÷ t
2 (c) a b (d) çç a + b ÷÷ t
è ø è ø
1 8. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-
(c) ms - 2 towards north - west dimensional motion such that its velocity varies
2 according to v(x) = bx–2n where b and n are
(d) zero constants and x is the position of the particle. The
5. An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is acceleration of the particle as d function of x, is
dv given by
decelerated at a rate given by: = -2.5 v (a) –2nb2x–4n–1 (b) –2b2x–2n+1
dt
(c) –2nb e 2 –4n+1 (d) –2nb2x–2n–1
where v is the instantaneous speed. The time
taken by the object, to come to rest, would be 9. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown
vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken
(a) 2 s (b) 4 s by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that
(c) 8 s (d) 1 s taken by it to reach the highest point of its path.
6. A body is projected vertically upwards. If t1 and The relation between H, u and n is
t2 be the times at which it is at height h above
(a) 2gH = n 2 u 2 (b) gH = ( n - 2 )2 u 2 d
the projection while ascending and descending
respectively, then h is (c) 2gH = nu 2 ( n - 2 ) (d) gH = ( n - 2 ) u 2
P-14 PHYSICS
3 Motion in
a Plane
Fill in the Blanks : v2
6. Magnitude of the centripetal acceleration is .
R
1. _______ number of vectors in different planes
7. Centripetal acceleration always pointing towards
can be added to give zero resultant.
the centre.
2. If tm is the time taken by a projectile to achieve
the maximum height, then the total time of flight Conceptual MCQs
Tf related to tm as _______.
1. In a two dimensional motion, instantaneous
3. In a projectile motion, velocity at maximum height speed v0 is a positive constant. Then which of
is _______ . the following are necessarily true ?
4. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the (a) The acceleration of the particle is zero.
acceleration is _______ . (b) The acceleration of the particle is bounded.
5. The force required to keep a body in uniform (c) The acceleration of the particle is
circular motion is _______ . necessarily in the plane of motion.
6. In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector (d) The particle must be undergoing a uniform
and acceleration vector are _______ . circular motion
7. A body of mass m moves in a circular path with 2. Two projectiles are fired from the same point
with the same speed at angles of projection 60º
uniform angular velocity. The motion of the
and 30º respectively. Which one of the following
body has constant _______ . is true?
(a) Their maximum height will be same
True/ False : (b) Their range will be same
1. Two balls of different masses are thrown (c) Their landing velocity will be same
(d) Their time of flight will be same
vertically upwards with the same speed. They
pass through the point of projection in their 3. It is found that A + B = A . This necessarily
downward motion with the same speed (Neglect implies,
air resistance). (a) B = 0
2. A projectile fired from the ground follows a (b) A, B are antiparallel
parabolic path. The speed of the projectile is (c) A, B are perpendicular
minimum at the top of its path. (d) A.B £ 0
3. Two identical trains are moving on rails along 4. A stone tied with a string, is rotated in a vertical
the equator on the earth in opposite directions circle. The minimum speed with which the string
with the same speed. They will exert the same has to be rotated
pressure on the rails. (a) is independent of the mass of the stone
(b) is independent of the length of the string
4. In projectile motion, the range depends on the
(c) decreases with increasing mass of the
mass. It is greater for heavier object. stone
5. In projectile motion, the range is independent of (d) decreases with increasing length of the
the angle of projection. string
Motion in a Plane P-15
5. Which one of the following statements is true? 12. A particle A is dropped from a height and another
(a) A scalar quantity is the one that is particle B is projected in horizontal direction with
conserved in a process. speed of 5 m/sec from the same height, then
(b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never correct statement is
take negative values. (a) particle A will reach at ground first with
(c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not respect to particle B
vary from one point to another in space. (b) particle B will reach at ground first with
(d) A scalar quantity has the same value for respect to particle A.
observers with different orientations of the (c) both particles will reach at ground
axes. simultaneously
(d) both particles will reach at ground with same
6. The angle between A = iˆ + ˆj and B = iˆ - ˆj is speed
(a) 45° (b) 90° r
13. The resultant of A ´ 0 will be equal to
(c) – 45° (d) 180°
7. Which of the following is true regarding projectile (a) zero (b) A
motion ? (c) zero vector (d) unit vector
(a) horizontal velocity of projectile is constant r r r r
14. If | a + b | = | a - b | then angle between
(b) vertical velocity of projectile is constant r
r
(c) acceleration is not constant a and b is
(d) momentum is constant (a) 45º (b) 30º
8. The angular speed of a fly-wheel making 120 (c) 90º (d) 180º
revolutions/minute is 15. Which of the following is correct :
(a) p rad/sec (b) 4p rad/sec r r r r
(c) 2p rad/sec (d) 4p2 rad/sec (a) A . B ¹ B . A
9. Figure shows a body of mass m moving with a r r r r r
(b) A . ( B + C ) = A . B + A . C
uniform speed v along a circle of radius r.
B r r r
(c) A ´ B = B ´ A
v r r r r r r r
(d) A . ( B + C ) ¹ A . B + A . C
C A 16. The circular motion of a particle with constant
O speed is
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic
(b) simple harmonic but not periodic
D (c) periodic and simple harmonic
The change in velocity in going from A to B is (d) neither periodic nor simple harmonic
(a) v 2 (b) v / 2 17. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8
(c) v (d) zero km h–1. If the resultant velocity of boat is 10 km
10. If a unit vector is represented by h–1 , then the velocity of the river is
(a) 12.8 km h–1 (b) 6 km h–1
0.5iˆ + 0.8 ˆj + ckˆ, then the value of c is (c) 8 km h –1 (d) 10 km h–1
(a) 1 (b) 18. The magnitude of the vector product of two
0.8
(c) (d) vectors is 3 times then scalar product. The
0.11 0.01
11. Two vectors are perpendicular if angle between vectors is
r r r r p p
(a) A. B = 1 (b) A ´ B = 0 (a) (b)
r r r r 4 6
(c) A.B = 0 (d) A.B = AB
p p
(c) (d)
3 2
P-16 PHYSICS
r r r r r uuur uuur uuur
19. Two vectors A and B are such that A + B = C (a) AC + BD = 2BC
and A2 + B2 = C2. If q is the angle between uuur uuur uuur
(b) AB + BC = 2CD
r r uuur uuur uuur
positive direction of A and B , then the correct (c) AC - AB = 2BD
statement is : (d) All of these
p 3. If V1 is velocity of a body projected from the
(a) q = p (b) q= point A and V2 is the velocity of a body projected
2
from point B which is vertically below the highest
2p point C. If both the bodies collide, then
(c) q = 0 (d) q=
3
1
r r r r (a) V1 = V2 V1 C
20. If a and b are two unit vectors such that a + b 2
r r 1
and a - 2 b are perpendicular then the angle (b) V2 = V1 V2
r 2
r (c) V1 = V2 A B
between a and b is
(d) Two bodies can't collide.
p p 4. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is
(a) (b)
3
( 2$i + 3$j ) m/s its velocity (in m/s) at point B is
4
p
(c) p (d) Y
6
21. For angles of projection of a projectile (45° – q)
and (45° + q), the horizontal ranges described
by the projectile are in the ratio of
(a) 1: 3 (b) 1 : 2 B
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 A X
Diagram Based Questions :
(a) -2$i + 3 $j (b) 2$i - 3$j
r r r r r r
(c) 2$i + 3$j (d) -2$i - 3 $j
1. Six vectors, a , b , c , d , e and f have the
magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure.
5. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 cm
Which of the following statements is true?
clockwise at constant speed 2 cm/s. If x̂ and ŷ
b are unit acceleration vectors along X and Y-axis
a c respectively (in cm/s2), the acceleration of the
particle at the instant half way between P and Q
d e is given by
f
y
r r r r r r P
(a) b + c = f (b) d + c = f
r r r r r r
(c) d + e = f (d) b + e = f
O x
2. Which of the following holds true for the given Q
figure?
D C
(a) -4(xˆ + y)
ˆ (b) 4(xˆ + y)
ˆ
(c) -(xˆ + y)
ˆ / 2 (d) (xˆ - y)
ˆ /4
A B
Assertion/ Reason : 4. Assertion : The horizontal range is same when

the angle of projection is greater than 45° by
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains certain value and less than 45° by the same value.
Reason: If q = 45° + a, then
questions also has four alternative choices, only one u 2 sin2(45° + a ) u 2 cos 2a
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one R1 = =
g g
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
u 2sin2(45° - a )
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is If q = 45° – a, then R2 =
a correct explanation for assertion. g
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
u 2 cos 2a
is not a correct explanation for assertion =
g
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 5. Assertion : If there were no gravitational force,
1. Assertion : The magnitude of velocity of two the path of the projected body always be a
boats relative to river is same. Both boats start straight line.
simultaneously from same point on one bank Reason : Gravitational force makes the path of
may reach opposite bank simultaneously projected body always parabolic.
moving along different paths. 6. Assertion: The maximum possible height
Reason : For boats to cross the river in same 2
time. The component of their velocity relative to attained by the projected body is u , where u
2g
river in direction normal to flow should be same.
2. Assertion : Two balls of different masses are is the velocity of projection.
thrown vertically upward with same speed. They Reason : To attain the maximum height, body is
will pass through their point of projection in the thrown vertically upwards.
downward direction with the same speed. 7. Assertion : When the range of projectile is
Reason : The maximum height and downward maximum, the time of flight is the largest.
velocity attained at the point of projection are Reason : Range is maximum when angle of
independent of the mass of the ball. projection is 450.
3. Assertion : If a body of mass m is projected 8. Assertion : A shell fired from a gun is moving
upwards with a speed V making an angle q with along the parabolic path. If it explodes at the top
the vertical, than the change in the momentum of the trajectory, then no part of the shell can fly
of the body along X–axis is zero. vertically.
Reason : Mass of the body remains constant Reason : The vertical momentum of the shell at
along X–axis the top of the trajectory is zero.

r r
1. Vector A has components Ax = 2, Ay = 3 and vector B has components Bx = 4, By = 5, then match the
columns :
Column I Column II
r r
(A) The components of vector sum A + B ( ) (1) 8
r r
(B) The magnitude of A + B (2) – 2
r r
(C) The componet of vector difference A - B (3) 2 2
r r
(
(D) The magnitude of A - B ) (4) 10
P-18 PHYSICS
(a) (A)®(1); (B)®(4); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(3); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
r r
2. Given two vectors A = 3î + 4ˆj and B = î - 2 ˆj . Then match the following columns :
Column I Column II
r r
(A) Magnitude of vector A or B (1) 5
r
(B) Unit vector of A (2) ( 0.6iˆ + 0.8ˆj)
r r
(C) The magnitude of A + B (3) ( 2î + 6ˆj)
r r
(D) The difference of vector, A - B (4) 20
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
3.
r r
( ) r
The velocity v of a particle moving in the xy – plane is given by v = 6t – 4t 2 î + 8ˆj , with v in m/s and
t(>0) in second.
Column - I Column - II
(A) Acceleration magnitude is 10 m/s2 at a time (1) ¾ s
(B) Acceleration zero at time (2) never
(C) velocity zero at time (3) 1 s
(D) The speed 10 m/s at a time (4) 2 s
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(3); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
4. The equation of trajectory of a particle projected from the surface of the planet is given by the equation
y = x – x2. (suppose, g = 2 m/s2)
1
(A) angle of projection tan q (1)
4
(B) time of flight, T (2) 1
(C) maximum height attained, H (3) 2
(D) horizontal range, R (4) 4
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(2) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(4)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
5. A particle is projected with some angle from the surface of the planet. The motion of the particle is
described by the equation; x = t , y = t - t 2 . Then match the following columns:
(quantity) (magnitude only)
(A) velocity of projection (1) 1
(B) acceleration (2) 2
(C) time of flight (3) 2
1
(D) maximum height attained (4)
4
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(2) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(4) (d) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(3); (D)®(2)
6. A ball is thrown at an angle 75° with the horizontal at a speed of 20 m/s towards a high wall at a distance
d. If the ball strikes the wall, its horizontal velocity component reverses the direction without change in
magnitude and the vertical velocity component remains same. Ball stops after hitting the ground. Match
the statement of column I with the distance of the wall from the point of throw in column II .
Column I Column II
(A) Ball strikes the wall directly (1) 8 m
(B) Ball strikes the ground at x = 12 m from the wall (2) 10 m
(C) Ball strikes the ground at x = 10m from the wall (3) 0 m
(D) Ball strikes the ground at x = 5 m from the wall (4) 25 m
(a) (A)®(1,2); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)® (4) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(4) (d) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(3); (D)®(2)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 3.5 (b) 5.9

(c) 16.3 (d) 110.8
1. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a 5. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the
acceleration ar at a point P(R,q) on the circle of
point is 16 N and their resultant 8 3 N is at 90°
radius R is (Here q is measured from the x-axis )
with the force of smaller magnitude. The two
forces (in N) are n2 n2
(a) - cos q iˆ + sin q ˆj
(a) 11, 5 (b) 9, 7 R R
(c) 6, 10 (d) 2, 14
n2 n2
2. A particle crossing the origin of co-ordinates at (b) - sin q iˆ + cos q ˆj
time t = 0, moves in the xy-plane with a constant R R
acceleration a in the y-direction. If its equation
n2 n2
of motion is y = bx2 (b is a constant), its velocity (c) - cos q iˆ - sin q ˆj
component in the x-direction is R R
2b a n2 ˆ n2 ˆ
(a) (b) (d) i+ j
a 2b R R
6. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is
a b whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
(c) (d) speed. If the stone makes 22 revolution in 44
b a
seconds, what is the magnitude and direction
3. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in of acceleration of the stone?
the ratio 1 : 2 acquired the same heights. If A (a) p2 m s–2 and direction along the radius
is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, towards the centre.
the angle of projection of B will be (b) p2 m s–2 and direction along the radius away
(a) 0° (b) 60° from the centre.
(c) 30° (d) 45° (c) p2 m s–2 and direction along the tangent to
4. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth the circle.
with a velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle q with the (d) p2/4 m s–2 and direction along the radius
horizontal. Another projectile fired from another towards the centre.
planet with a velocity of 3 ms– 1 at the same
angle follows a trajectory which is identical with
the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth.
The value of the acceleration due to gravity on
the planet is (in ms– 2) given g = 9.8 m/s2
P-20 PHYSICS
4 Laws of Motion

1. Impulse equals _______ . 1. A block of mass 2 kg is resting on a rough inclined
2. China wares are wraped in straw of paper before plane of inclination 30º. The coefficient of friction
packing. This is the application of concept of is 0.8, the contact force between incline and the
_______ . block is (g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 20 N (b) 10 N
3. Swimming is possible on account of _______ .
4. A body whose momentum is constant must have (c) 10 3 N (d) none of these
constant _______ . 2. Centrifugal force
5. A jet engine works on the principle of _______. (a) is a real force
(b) balances centripetal force
6. The coefficient of static friction between two
(c) always acts away from centre
surfaces depends upon _______ and _______. (d) all of these
7. If the normal force is doubled, then coefficient 3. A rectangular block is placed on a rough
of friction is _______ . horizontal surface in two different ways as
8. When a car moves on a level road, then the shown, then
centripetal force required for circular motion is
provided by _______ . F
F
True/ False :
1. Newton's laws of motion hold good for both (a) (b)
inertial and non-inertial frames. (a) friction will be more in case (a)
2. During explosion, linear momentum is conserved. (b) friction will be more in case (b)
(c) friction will be equal in both the cases.
3. Force of friction is zero when no driving force is
(d) depends on th e relations among its
applied. dimensions.
4. Recoiling of a gun is an application of principle 4. If the force on a rocket moving with a velocity of
of conservation of linear momentum.
300 m/sec is 345 N, then the rate of combustion
5. The second law of motion relates the net external of the fuel, is
force to the acceleration of the body.
(a) 0.55 kg/sec (b) 0.75 kg/sec
6. A rocket moves forward by pushing the
surrounding air backwards. (c) 1.15 kg/sec (d) 2.25 kg/sec
5. On increasing the smoothness of surfaces in
7. When a person walks on a rough surface, the
contact,
frictional force exerted by the surface on the (a) frictional force b/w them must decrease.
person is opposite to the direction of his motion. (b) frictional force b/w them must increase.
8. A simple pendulum with a bob of mass m swings (c) frictional force b/w them may increase or
with an angular amplitude of 40°. When its decrease
angular displacement is 20°, the tension in the (d) frictional force does not change as it does
string is greater than mg cos 20°. not depend on area of contact.
Laws of Motion P-21
6. Centripetal force : (c) must be greater than the force applied by

(a) can change speed of the body. the monkey on the rope.
(b) is always perpendicular to direction of (d) may be equal to, less than or greater the
motion force applied by the monkey on the rope.
(c) is constant for uniform circular motion. 15. A coin is placed on a rotating disc and is
(d) all of these stationary w.r.t. the disc, then the direction of
7. When a horse pulls a cart, the horse moves down friction is
to the force exerted by (a) along the direction of motion of the coin
(a) the horse on the cart. w.r.t. ground
(b) the cart on the horse. (b) opposite to the direction of motion of the
coin w.r.t. ground
(c) the horse on the earth.
(c) towards the centre of the disc
(d) the earth on the horse.
(d) away from the centre of the disc
8. Forces of action and reaction do not balance 16. If a cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 gm moving
each other because. with a velocity of 20 m/s, then he experiences a
(a) they act in same direction force of (Time taken to complete the catch is 0.1
(b) their magnitudes are not equal sec.)
(c) they act on different bodies (a) 300 N (b) 30 N
(d) act perpendicular to each other (c) 3 N (d) 0.3 N
9. The force of action and reaction 17. A 100 N force acts horizontally on a block of 10
(a) must be of same nature kg placed on a horizontal rough surface of
(b) must be of different nature coefficient of friction m = 0.5. If the acceleration
(c) may be of different nature due to gravity (g) is taken as 10 ms–2 , the
(d) may not have equal magnitude acceleration of the block (in ms–2) is
10. Which of the following is self-adjusting ? (a) 2.5 (b) 10
(a) Static friction (b) Kinetic friction (c) 5 (d) 7.5
(c) Limiting friction (d) Rolling friction 18. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension
11. Frictional force in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its
(a) always acts opposite to direction of motion. acceleration is:
(b) always acts in the direction of motion (a) 4 ms–2 upwards
(c) may act in the direction of motion (b) 4 ms–2 downwards
(d) always acts perpendicular to the direction (c) 14 ms–2 upwards
of motion (d) 30 ms–2 downwards
19. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of
12. A body is moving with uniform velocity, then
radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A
(a) no force must be acting on the body.
bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a
(b) exactly two forces must be acting on the light wire of length 1.0 m. The angle made by the
body wire with the vertical is
(c) body is not acted upon by a single force.
(d) the number of forces acting on the body p
(a) 0° (b)
must be even. 3
13. The direction of impulse is p p
(a) same as that of the net force (c) (d)
(b) opposite to that of the net force 6 4
(c) same as that of the final velocity 20. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the
(d) same as that of the initial velocity rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the
14. A monkey is climbing up a rope, then the tension belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s
will be:
in the rope
(a) Mv newton (b) 2 Mv newton
(a) must be equal to the force applied by the
monkey on the rope. Mv
(c) newton (d) zero
(b) must be less than the force applied by the 2
monkey on the rope.
P-22 PHYSICS
Diagram Based Questions : m 3F

(d) F3 = m + m
1. A block of mass m on a rough horizontal surface 1 2
is acted upon by two forces as shown in figure. 4. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and
For equilibrium of block the coefficient of friction m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley
between block and surface is P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are
F2 on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of
q friction = m). The pulley is frictionless and of
negligible mass. The downward acceleration of
F1 m mass m1 is :
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
m2 m3
F1 + F2 sin q F1 cos q + F2 P
(a) (b) mg - F sin q
mg + F2 cos q 2
F1 + F2 cos q F1 sin q - F2
(c) (d)
mg + F2 sin q mg - F2 cos q
2. What is the direction of force on the wall due to
m1
the ball in two cases shown in the figures?
u g(1 – gm) 2gm
(a) (b)
30° g 3
u u 30° g(1 – 2m ) g(1 – 2m )
(c) (d)
u 3 2
5. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is
(a) (b) indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
(a) In (a) force is normal to the wall and in (b) The change in momentum of the particle over
force is inclined at 30° to the normal. the time interval from zero to 8 s is :
(b) In (a) force is normal to the wall and in (b)
6
force is inclined at 60° to the normal.
(c) In (a) the force is along the wall and in (b) 3
force is normal to the wall.
0
F(N)
(d) In (a) and (b) both the force is normal to the 2 4 6 8

wall. –3
3. For the system shown in figure, the correct
expression is t(s)
m3 (a) 24 Ns (b) 20 Ns
m2 m1 (c) 12 Ns (d) 6 Ns
F3 F2 F1
6. The motion of a car on a banked road is shown
in the figure. The centripetal force equation will
be given by
(a) F3 = F1 + F2
m 3F N cos q
(b) F3 = F + F + F N q
1 2 3
v2
m 3F a=
R q
(c) F3 = m + m + m f
1 2 3
q mg
Laws of Motion P-23
Reason : For same air resistance, acceleration of

mv 2
(a) Nsin q + fcos q = both the bodies will be same.
R
2. Assertion : On a rainy day, it is difficult to drive
2 a car or bus at high speed.
(b) f = mv
R Reason : The value of coefficient of friction is
lowered due to wetting of the surface.
mv 2
(c) N cos q + f = 3. Assertion: Friction is a necessary evil
R Reason: Though friction dissipates power, but
2 without friction we cannot walk.
(d) N sin q + f = mv 4. Assertion: There is a stage when frictional force
R
is not needed at all to provide the necessary
Assertion/ Reason : centripetal force on a banked road.
Reason: On a banked road, due to its inclination
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains the vehicle tends to remain inwards without any
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these chances of skidding.
5. Assertion : Force is required to move a body
uniformly along a circle.
Reason : When the motion is uniform,
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is acceleration is zero.
a correct explanation for assertion. 6. Assertion : Linear momentum of a body changes
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason even when it is moving uniformly in a circle.
is not a correct explanation for assertion Reason : In uniform circular motion, velocity
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect remains constant.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 7. Assertion : A cyclist always bends inwards while
1. Assertion : The two bodies of masses M and m negotiating a curve.
(M > m) are allowed to fall from the same height Reason : By bending, cyclist lowers his centre
if the air resistance for each be the same then of gravity.
both the bodies will reach the earth
simultaneously.

(A) Inertia (1) 105 gcms–1
(B) Recoil of gun (2) kg f
(C) 1 kg ms–1 (3) Newton’s third law of motion
(D) Weight (4) Newton’s first law of motion
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
P-24 PHYSICS
(A) Unbalanced (1) Acts on two different bodies
(B) Action & Reaction (2) Inability to change the state
(C) Inertia (3) mv
(D) Momentum (4) Variable velocity
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
(A) Accelerated motion (1) Newton’s 1st law
(B) Impulse (2) Mass
(C) Law of inertia (3) Force×time
(D) Measure of inertia (4) Change in speed and direction
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
4. A light string ABCDE whose extremity A is fixed, has weights W1 and W2 attached to it at B and C. It passes
round a small smooth peg at D carrying a weight of 300 N at the free end E as shown in figure. If in the
equilibrium position, BC is horizontal and AB and CD make 150° and 120° with CB. Match the columns :
D
A
150° 120°
B C E
300 N
w1 w2
Column I Column II
(A) Tension in portion AB, TAB (1) 150 N
(B) Tension in portion BC, TBC (2) 173 N
(C) Weight, W1 (3) 260 N
(D) Weight, W2 (4) 87 N
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3) (d) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
(A) Rocket’s work (1) Momentum
(B) F = ma (2) Uniform motion
(C) Quantity of motion (3) Conservation of momentum
(D) Constant force (4) Newton’s second law
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
Laws of Motion P-25
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) acceleration due to gravity × total time of
flight
1. A car moves at a speed of 20 ms–1 on a banked (b) weight of the ball × half the time of flight
track and describes an arc of a circle of radius (c) weight of the ball × total time of flight
–
40 3 m. The angle of banking is (g = 10 ms (d) weight of the ball × horizontal range
2
) 5. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a
(a) 25° (b) 60°
(c) 45° (d) 30° x3
vertical cross section given by y = . If the
2. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. 6
A light string connected to it passes over a coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height
frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from above the ground at which the block can be
its other end another block B of mass m2 is placed without slipping is:
suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction 1 2
(a) m (b) m
between the block and the table is µk. When the 6 3
block A is sliding on the table, the tension in the 1 1
string is (c) m (d) m
3 2
(m 2 – mk m1 ) g m1m 2 (1 + m k )g
(a) (b) 6. A particle tied to a string describes a vertical
(m1 + m 2 ) (m1 + m 2 )
circular motion of radius r continually. If it has
m1m 2 (1 – m k )g (m 2 + m k m1 )g
(c) (d) a velocity 3 gr at the highest point, then the
(m1 + m 2 ) (m1 + m 2 )
ratio of the respective tensions in the string
3. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination holding it at the highest and lowest points is
q is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. (a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 4
A block starting from rest at the top of the plane (c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 2
will again come to rest at the bottom, if the
7. Three blocks with masses m, 2 m and 3 m are
coefficient of friction between the block and
connected by strings as shown in the figure.
lower half of the plane is given by
After an upward force F is applied on block m,
2 the masses move upward at constant speed v.
(a) m = (b) m = 2 tan q
tan q What is the net force on the block of mass 2m?
1 (g is the acceleration due to gravity)
(c) m = tan q (d) m =
tan q (a) 2 mg
4. A ball is thrown up at an angle with the
horizontal. Then the total change of momentum (b) 3 mg
by the instant it returns to ground is (c) 6 mg
(d) zero
P-26 PHYSICS
5 Work, Energy
And Power
1. The change in _______ of a particle is equal to 1. The magnitude of work done by a force :
the work done on it by the net force. (a) depends on frame of reference
2. When the force retards the motion of a body, (b) does not depend on frame of reference
the work done is _______ . (c) cannot be calculated in non-inertial frames.
3. For a conservative force in one dimension, (d) both (a) and (b)
potential energy function V(x) is related to the 2. A position dependent force, F = (7 – 2x + 3x2) N
force F(x) as _______ . acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces
4. The energy stored in wounded spring watch is it from x = 0 to x = 5 m. Work done in joule is
_______ . (a) 35 (b) 70
5. If a force F is applied on a body and it moves (c) 135 (d) 270
with a velocity V, the power will be _______ . 3. Work done by a conservative force is positive if
6. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly (a) P.E. of the body increases
elastic collision is _______ . (b) P.E. of the body decreases
7. When two bodies stick together after collision, (c) K.E. of the body increases
the collision is said to be _______ . (d) K.E. of the body decreases
8. When two spheres of equal masses undergo 4. A vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity on a
smooth horizontal road, then power delivered by
glancing elastic collision with one of them at its engine must be :
rest, after collision they will move _______ . (a) uniform (b) increasing
(c) decreasing (d) zero
True/ False : 5. Which of the following forces is/are non-
conservative?
1. If there were no friction, moving vehicles could (a) Frictional force (b) Spring force
not be stopped even by locking the brakes. (c) Elastic force (d) All of these
2. As the angle of inclination is increased, the 6. Work done by frictional force in a round trip
normal reaction on the body placed on it (a) must be positive (b) must be negative
increases. (c) may be zero (d) must be none zero
3. Momentum of a system can be changed without 7. A car and a truck moving with equal kinetic
changing its K.E. energies are stopped by applying equal retarding
forces, then :
4. In elastic collision, initial kinetic energy is equal
(a) car will cover more distance before coming
to the final kinetic energy. to rest
5. Work energy theorem is a scalar form of Newton’s (b) truck will cover more distance before coming
second law. to rest.
6. Conservation of mechanical energy is a (c) both will cover equal distance before coming
consequence of work energy theorem for to rest.
conservative forces. (d) data insufficient.
Work, Energy and Power P-27
8. A ball of mass m and a ball B of mass 2m are 16. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two
projected with equal kinetic energies. Then at pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity
the highest point of their respective trajectories. of 18 kg mass is 6 ms–1. The kinetic energy of
(a) P.E. of A will be more than that of B
(b) P.E of B will be more than that of B the other mass is
(c) P.E of A will be equal to that of B (a) 324 J (b) 486 J
(d) can’t be predicted. (c) 256 J (d) 524 J
9. In case of elastic collision, at the time of impact. 17. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
(a) total K.E. of colliding bodies is conserved. 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
(b) total K.E. of colliding bodies increases
(c) total K.E. of colliding bodies decreases frictional force are 10% of energy. How much
(d) total momentum of colliding bodies power is generated by the turbine?( g = 10 m/s2)
decreases. (a) 8.1 kW (b) 10.2 kW
10. A ball A of mass mA collide with a stationary ball (c) 12.3 kW (d) 7.0 kW
B of mass mB. The ball A can come to rest after 18. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head
collision if
(a) mA = mB (b) mA< mB on with another stationary ball of double the
(c) mA > mB (d) either (a) or (b) mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then
11. A ball is projected from ground at a certain angle. their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be:
After striking the ground, horizontal component (a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 1
of its velocity
(c) 1, 0.5 (d) 0, 2
(a) must change
(b) must remain same 19. A particle with total energy E is moving in a
(c) will change if surface is smooth. potential energy region U(x). Motion of the
(d) will change if surface is rough. particle is restricted to the region when
12. In case of perfectly inelastic collision in two
dimensions (a) U(x) > E (b) U(x) < E
(a) Total K.E. remains conserved.
(b) Both the bodies stick together after the (c) U(x) = O (d) U(x) £ E
collision. 20. A stationary particle explodes into two particles
(c) Total momentum remains conserved of masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite
(d) All of these directions with velocities v1 and v2. The ratio of
13. The engine of a vehicle delivers constant power.
If the vehicle is moving up the inclined plane their kinetic energies E1/E2 is
then, its velocity, (a) m1v2/m2v1 (b) m2/m1
(a) must remain constant (c) m1/m2 (d) 1
(b) must increase
(c) must decrease Diagram Based Questions :
(d) may increase, decrease or remain same.
14. A ball projected from ground at a certain angle 1. A force F acting on an object varies with
collides a smooth inclined plane at the highest distance x as shown here. The force is in N and
point of its trajectory. If the collision is perfectly x in m. The work done by the force in moving
inelastic then after the collision.
the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is
(a) ball will comes to rest
(b) ball will move along the incline F(N)
(c) ball will retrace its path.
(d) ball will bounce back but will strike the
ground at a point other than point of 3
projection. 2
15. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 : 1 1
aremovingwith equallinear momentum.Theratio x(m)
0
of their masses is 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (a) 18.0 J (b) 13.5 J
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (c) 9.0 J (d) 4.5 J
P-28 PHYSICS
2. Figure shows three forces applied to a trunk that 5. For the given case which figure is correctly
moves leftward by 3 m over a smooth floor. The showing the after inelastic collision situation?
force magnitudes are F1 = 5N, F2 = 9N, and F3 = 3N. m1
The net work done on the trunk by the three forces u1 m2
Before collision
u 2= 0
v1
v2
(a) m2
m1
m2
(b) m1
(a) 1.50 J (b) 2.40 J v
(c) 3.00 J (d) 6.00 J
m1 m2
3. A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = (c)
kx is acting on it (where k is positive constant). –v1 +v1
If U(0) = 0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be
(where U is the potential energy function) : (d) m1 m2
–v
6. Which one of the following physical quantities is
represented by the shaded area in the given graph?
(a) (b)
Force
(c) (d) Distance

(a) Torque (b) Impulse
(c) Power (d) Work done
4. A ball of mass m hits the floor making an angle q
as shown in the figure. If e is the coefficient of Assertion/ Reason :
restitution, then which relation is true, for the
velocity component before and after collision? DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
1 1
v q q v of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is

(a) V1 sin q = V sin q a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) V1 sin q¢ = – sin q (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(c) V1 cos q¢ = V cos q is not a correct explanation for assertion
(d) V1 cos q¢ = –V cos q (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Mass and energy are not conserved Reason : Maximum energy loss occurs when the
separately, but are conserved as a single entity particles get stuck together as a result of the
called mass-energy. collision.
Reason : Mass and energy are inter-convertible 6. Assertion : In an elastic collision of two billiard
in accordance with Einstein's relation. balls, the total kinetic energy is conserved during
E = mc2 the short time of collision of the balls (i.e., when
2. Assertion : When a machine gun fires n bullets they are in contact).
per second each with kinetic energy K, the power Reason : Energy spent against friction follow
of a gun is P = nK the law of conservation of energy.
Reason : Power P = work done / time 7. Assertion : Kinetic energy of a system can be
3. Assertion : Power developed in circular motion increased or decreased without applying any
is always zero. external force on the system.
Reason : Work done in case of circular motion is 1
not zero. Reason : This is because K.E. = mV2, so it
2
4. Assertion: Linear momentum is conserved in
independent of any external forces.
both elastic and inelastic collisions but total
8. Assertion : Graph between potential energy of
energy is not conserved in inelastic collision.
a spring versus the extension or compression of
Reason: Law of conservation of momentum
the spring is a straight line.
states that momentum has to be conserved in an
Reason : Potential energy of a stretched or
isolated system.
compressed spring, proportional to square of
5. Assertion : A point particle of mass m moving
extension or compression.
with speed u collides with stationary point
particle of mass M. If the maximum energy loss
æ1 ö
possible is given as f ç mv2 ÷ then
è2 ø
æ m ö
f= ç ÷.
èM + mø
1. A small block of mass 200g is kept at the top of a an incline which is 10 m long and 3.2 m high. Match the
columns
Column I Column II
(A) Work done, to lift the block from (1) 6.4 J
the ground and put it at the top
(B) Work done to slide the block up (2) 7.2 J
the incline
(C) The speed of the block at the ground (3) 4 m/s
when left from the top of the incline to
fall vertically
(D) The speed of the block at the (4) 8 m/s
ground when side along the incline
P-30 PHYSICS
(a) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(4) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(1); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
2. If W represents the work done, then match the two columns:
Column I Column II
(A) Force is always along the velocity (1) W = 0
(B) Force is always perpendicular to velocity (2) W < 0
(C) Force is always perpendicular to acceleration (3) W > 0
(D) The object is stationary but the point of application
of the force moves on the object
(a) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(3); (D)®(2) (b) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(2,3); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(3); (D)®(1)
3. Column I represents work done by forces and column II represents change in kinetic energy Dk, change
in potential energy DU, change in mechanical energy DE. Then match the two columns
Column I Column II
(magnitude only)
(A) Work done by conservative force (1) DK
(B) Work done by non-conservative force (2) DU
(C) Work done by internal force (3) DE
(D) Work done by external force
(a) (A)®(1,2); (B)®(1,2); C®(1,2); (D)®(1,3)
(b) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(1,2); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(2,3)
(d) (A)®(1,3); (B)®(2,3); C®(2); (D)®(1)
(A) Kinetic energy (1) Drilling anail
(B) Potential energy (2) Water tank on the roof
(C) Mechanical energy (3) Pushing a wall
(D) Muscular energy (4) Motion of a car
(a) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(4) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (d) (A)®(1); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(2)
(A) Kinetic Energy (1) Stretched spring
(B) Potential Energy (2) Watt
(C) Collision (3) Elastic or inelastic
(D) Power (4) A boy running on the roof
(a) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(4) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(2) (d) (A)®(4); (B)®(1); C®(3); (D)®(2)
Critical Thinking Type Questions :

1. A rod of mass m and length I is made to stand at
(a) aL2 + bL3 (b)
1
2
(aL2 + bL3 )
an angle of 60° with the vertical. Potential energy
of the rod in this position is aL2 bL3 1 æ aL2 bL3 ö
(c) + (d) ç + ÷
2 3 2 çè 2 3 ÷ø
mgl
(a) mgl (b)
2 5. If two equal masses (m1 = m2) collide elastically
in one dimension, where m2 is at rest and m1
mgl mgl moves with a velocity u1, then the final velocities
(c) (d)
3 4 of two masses are
2. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on (a) V1 = 0; V2 = u1
a plane, where the acceleration due to gravity is (b) V1 = V2 = 0
not shown. On bouncing it rises to 1.8 m. The ball (c) V1 = 0 and V2 = –u1
loses its velocity on bouncing by a factor of
(d) V1 = –u1; V2 = 0
16 2 6. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head
(a) (b) on with another stationary ball of double the
25 5
mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then
3 9 their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be
(c) (d)
5 25 (a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 1
3. When a body is projected vertically up from (c) 1, 0.5 (d) 0, 2
the ground with certain velocity, its potential 7. A ball of mass m moving with a constant velocity
energy and kinetic energy at a point A are in strikes against a ball of same mass at rest. If e =
the ratio 2 : 3. If the same body is projected coefficient of restitution, then what will be the
with double the previous velocity, then at the ratio of velocity of two balls after collision?
same point A the ratio of its potential energy
to kinetic energy is 1- e e -1
(a) (b)
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 2 : 9 1+ e e +1
(c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 2 1+ e 2+e
4. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, (c) (d)
1- e e -1
it exerts restoring force of magnitude F = ax + bx2
where a and b are constants. The work done in
stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is
P-32 PHYSICS
6 System of Particles and

Rotational Motion
Fill in the Blanks : (a) closer to the earth
(b) closer to the moon
1. The centre of mass of a system of two particles (c) at the mid-point of line joining the earth
divides the distance between them in _______ and the moon
ratio of masses of particles. (d) cannot be predicted
2. The time rate of change of angular momentum of 2. Four particles of masses m1,m2,m3 and m4 are
a particle is equal to _______ . placed at the vertices A,B,C and D as
3. A boy comes running and sits on a rotating respectively of a square shown. The COM of
plateform _______ is conserved. the system will lie at diagonal AC if :
4. Rotational analogue of force in linear motion is (a) m1 = m3 A m1 B m2
_______ .
5. Moment of inertia along the diameter of a ring (b) m2 = m4
is _______. (c) m1 = m2
6. Radius of gyration of a body depends upon m m
(d) m3 = m4 4
C
3
_______ . D
7. According to the principle of conservation of 3. If COM of a system of particles lies at the origin
angular momentum, if moment of inertia of a of the coordinate system then
rotating body decreases, then its angular (a) x-coordinate of all the particles may be
velocity _______ . positive.
(b) x- coordinate of all the particles may be
True/ False : negative.
(c) x-coordinate of all the particles may be zero.
1. Position vector of centre of mass of two particles (d) y-coordinate of all the particles may be
of equal mass is equal to the position vector of positive.
either particle. 4. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about
2. Centre of mass of a body can lie where there is a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an
no mass. axis ^ to its plane and passing through a point
3. Centre of mass depends on the gravity. on its rim will be
4. A body in translatory motion cannot have angular
(a) 5 I (b) 3 I
momentum.
r r (c) 6 I (d) 4 I
5. If A points vertically upwards and B points
r r 5. Two spheres A and B of masses m and 2m and
towards east then, A ´ B points along South. radii 2R and R respectively are placed in contact
6. If earth were to shrink suddenly, length of the as shown. The COM of the system lies
day will increase. A
B
Conceptual MCQs
2R R
1. Centre of mass of the earth and the moon system
lies
System of Particles and Rotational Motion P-33
(a) inside A (b) inside B (a) w1 = w2 A

(c) at the point of contact (d) none of these B
6. Moment of inertia does not depend upon : (b) w1 > w2
(a) distribution of mass w w
(c) w1 < w2
(b) axis of rotation
(c) point of application of force (d) date insufficient
(d) none of these r
14. If F is the force acting on a particle having
7. Angular momentum of a body is constant if the r r
torque acting on the body is : position vector r and t be the torque of this
(a) constant (b) positive force about the origin, then:
r r r r
(c) negative (d) zero (a) r . t > 0 and F . t < 0
8. A disc is given a linear velocity on a rough r r r r
horizontal surface then its angular momentum is : (b) r . t = 0 and F . t = 0
(a) conserved about COM only r r r r
(c) r . t = 0 and F . t ¹ 0
(b) conserved about the point of contact only r r
r r
(c) conserved about all the points (d) r . t ¹ 0 and F . t = 0
(d) not conserved about any point. 15. A solid cylinder is rolling without shipping down
9. A body cannot roll without slipping on a an inclined plane. Then its angular momentum is :
(a) rough horizontal surface (a) conserved about COM of the cylinder.
(b) smooth horizontal surface (b) conserved about point of contact.
(c) rough inclined surface (c) conserved about all the points
(d) smooth inclined surface (d) not conserved about any point
10. The equation t = I a is valid about 16. In a bicycle, the radius of rear wheel is twice the
(a) centre of mass of the body radius of front wheel. It rf and rr are the radii and
(b) axis of rotation vf and vr are the speeds of topmost points of
(c) all the points wheels then
(d) both (a) and (b). (a) vr = 2vf (b) vf = 2vr
11. A solid sphere of radius R is placed on a smooth (c) vf = vr (d) vf = 4vr
17. If a person standing on a rotating disc stretches
horizontal surface. A horizontal force F is applied
out his hands, the angular speed will :
at height h from the lowest point. For the maximum (a) increase (b) decrease
acceleration of the centre of mass, (c) remains same (c) none of these
(a) h = R 18. In an orbital motion, the direction of angular
(b) h = 2R momentum vector is :
(c) h = 0 (a) along the radius vector
(d) The acceleration will be same whatever h (b) parallel to the linear momentum
may be (c) in the orbital plane
(d) perpendicular to the orbital plane
12. A uniform rod is hanging with the help of the
unintelligible strings as shown. Then: 19. A drum of radius R and mass M, rolls down
(a) T1 = T2 without slipping along an inclined plane of
(b) T1 > T2 angle q. The frictional force
T1 T2
(c) T1 < T2 (a) dissipates energy as heat
(c) T1 £ T2 (b) decreases the rotational motion
13. Two discs A and B are in contact and rotating
(c) decreases the rotational and translational
with angular velocity with angular velocities w1
motion
and w2 respectively as shown. If there is no
shipping between the discs, then (d) converts translational energy to rotational
energy
P-34 PHYSICS
Diagram Based Questions : 4. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of
1. The motion of binary stars , S1 and S2 is the side l cm (as shown in the figure). The moment
combination of ....X.... and ....Y.... . Here, X and Y of inertia of the system about a line AX
refer to perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in
s1 gram-cm2 units will be
3
(a) ml 2
2 X
3 m C
(b) ml 2
s2 4
(a) motion of the CM and motion about the l l
(c) 2 ml2
CM
(b) motion about the CM and motion of one
star 5 B
(c) position of the CM and motion of the CM (d) ml 2 A
4 m l m
(d) motion about CM and position of one star
2. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc 5. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m
(figure) is maximum about an axis perpendicular and radius r are placed as shown in figure.
to the disc and passing through Consider an axis XX' which is touching to two
shells and passing through diameter of third shell.
Moment of inertia of the system consisting of
C these three spherical shells about XX' axis is
(a) 3mr2 X
D
B 16 2
A (b) mr
5
(c) 4mr2
11 2
(d) mr X¢
(a) B (b) C 5
(c) D (d) A 6. A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a horizontal
3. A uniform square plate has a small piece Q of an surface C is its centre and Q and P are two points
irregular shape removed and glued to the centre equidistant from C. Let Vp, Vq and Vc be the
of the plate leaving a hole behind. Then the
magnitude of velocities of points P, Q and C
moment of inertia about the z-axis
respectively, then
y y
Q
C
Hole P
Q
x x
(a) VQ > VC > VP
(b) VQ < VC < VP
(a) increases 1
(b) decreases (c) VQ = VP , VC = VP
2
(c) remains same
(d) changed in unpredicted manner. (d) VQ < VC > VP
Assertion/ Reason : 4. Assertion: When axis of rotation passes through

the centre of gravity, then the moment of inertia
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains of a rigid body increases.
Reason: At the centre of gravity mass gets
concentrated and moment of inertia increases.
questions also has four alternative choices, only one 5. Assertion: An ice-skater stretches out arms-legs
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one during performance.
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason: Stretching out arms-legs helps the
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is performer to balance his or her body so that he
a correct explanation for assertion. or she does not fall.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 6. Assertion : If polar ice melts, days will be longer.
is not a correct explanation for assertion Reason : Moment of inertia decreases and thus
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect angular velocity increases.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 7. Assertion : Moment of inertia of a particle is
1. Assertion : The position of centre of mass of same, whatever be the axis of rotation
body depend upon shape and size of the body. Reason : Moment of inertia depends on mass
Reason : Centre of mass of a body lies always at and distance of the particles.
the centre of the body 8. Assertion : Radius of gyration of body is a
2. Assertion : A particle is moving on a straight constant quantity.
line with a uniform velocity, its angular Reason : The radius of gyration of a body about
momentum is always zero. an axis of rotation may be defined as the root
Reason : The momentum is not zero when particle mean square distance of the particle from the
moves with a uniform velocity. axis of rotation.
3. Assertion : It is harder to open and shut the 9. Assertion: A rigid disc rolls without slipping on
door if we apply force near the hinge. a fixed rough horizontal surface with uniform
Reason : Torque is maximum at hinge of the angular velocity. Then the acceleration of lowest
door. point on the disc is zero.
Reason : For a rigid disc rolling without slipping
on a fixed rough horizontal surface, the velocity
of the lowest point on the disc is always zero.
1. Match Column I and Column II
Column I Column II
(A) Moment of inertia (1) Twice the product of mass and areal velocity of
the particle
(B) Radius of gyration (2) The product of masses of the various particles
and square of their perpendicular distances
(C) Angular momentum (3) The root mean square distance of the particles
from the axis of rotation
(D) Torque (4) The product of force and its perpendicular
distance
(a) (A)®(2); (B)®(3); C®(1); (D)®(4) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(3) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
P-36 PHYSICS
(A) Rolling motion (1) Torque
(B) Rate of change of angular momentum (2) Rotatory motion
(C) Hollow cylinder about axis (3) Iz + Ma2
(D) Theorem of parallel axes (4) MR2
(a) (A)®(1); (B)®(3); C®(4); (D)®(2) (b) (A)®(3); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(3) (d) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(2); (D)®(4)
(A) Translational equilibrium (1) SF = 0
(B) Moment of inertia of disc (2) MR2
1 2
(C) Rotational equilibrium (3) Iw
2
1 1
(D) Kinetic energy of rolling body (4) mVcm2 + Iw2
2 2
(5) St = 0
(E) Moment of inertia of ring (6) MR2/2
(a) (A)®(1); (B)®(6); C®(5); (D)®(4); (E)®(2)
(b) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(1); (E)®(6)
(c) (A)®(6); (B)®(5); C®(3); (D)®(4); (E)®(2)
(d) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(5); (E)®(6)
4. Match Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
(Quantity) (Expression)
r r
(A) Angular momentum (1) r ´ (mv )
1 2
(B) Impulse (2) Iw
2
(C) Torque (3) r r
r ´F
r
(D) Rotational energy (4) mDv
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(2,4); (B)®(1); C®(5); (D)®(3) (d) (A)®(1); (B)®(4); C®(3); (D)®(2)
5. Match Column I (Body rolling on a surface without slipping) with Column II (Ratio of Translational
energy to Rotational energy.
Column I Column II
(A) Circular ring (1) 1/2
(B) Circular disc (2) 1
(C) Solid sphere (3) 3/2
(D) Spherical shell (4) 2
(5) 5/2
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3)
(b) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(5); (D)®(3)
(d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(5); (D)®(3)
6. A rigid body of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping on an inclined plane of inclination q, under
gravity. Match the type of body Column I with magnitude of the force of friction Column II
Column I Column II
(A) For ring (1) Mg sin q

2.5
Mg sin q
(B) For solid sphere (2)
3
Mg sin q
(C) For solid cylinder (3)
3.5
Mg sin q
(D) For hollow spherical shell (4)
2
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(3); C®(2); (D)®(1) (b) (A)®(1); (B)®(2); C®(4); (D)®(3)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(1); C®(5); (D)®(3) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. Two discs rotating about their respective axis of
rotation with angular speeds 2 rads–1 and 5 rads–1
1. A tube of length L is filled completely with an are brought into contact such that their axes of
incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at rotation coincide. Now, the angular speed of the
both ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal system becomes 4 rads–1. If the moment of inertia
plane about one of its ends with uniform angular of the second disc is 1 × 10–3 kg m2, then the
moment of inertia of the first disc (in kg m2) is
speed w. What is the force exerted by the liquid
at the other end? (a) 0.25 × 10–3 (b) 1.5 × 10–3
(c) 1.25 × 10–3 (d) 0.5 × 10–3
MLw2 5. If the angular momentum of a particle of mass m
(a) (b) MLw2 rotating along a circular path of radius r with
2
uniform speed is L, the centripetal force acting
MLw2 MLw2 on the particle is
(c) (d)
4 8 L2 L2
2. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular (a) 3
(b)
disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the mr mr
disc and of a circular ring of the same radius L L2 m
about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring is (c) (d)
mr r
(a) 1 : Ö2 (b) 1 : 3 6. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible
(c) 2 : 1 (d) Ö5 : Ö6 string of length l is suspended from a vertical
3. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with
mass M and length L about an axis passing an angular speed w rad/s about the vertical. About
the point of suspension:
through its midpoint and perpendicular to its
(a) angular momentum is conserved.
length is I0. Its moment of inertia about an axis
(b) angular momentum changes in magnitude
passing through one of its ends an d
but not in direction.
perpendicular to its length is
(c) angular momentum changes in direction but
(a) I0 + ML2/2 (b) I0 + ML2/4 not in magnitude.
(c) I0 + 2ML 2 (d) I0 + ML2 (d) angular momentum changes both in
direction and magnitude.
P-38 PHYSICS
7 Gravitation
1. Force of gravitational attraction is least at 1. Which of the following is an evidence to show
_______ . that there must be a force acting on the earth
2. There are _______ gravitational lines of force and directed towards the sun?
inside a spherically symmetric shell. (a) Deviation of the falling bodies towards east.
3. If the distance of earth is halved from the sun, (b) Revolution of the earth round the sun.
then the no. days in a year will be _______ . (c) Phenomenon of day & night.
4. Time period of a simple pendulum inside a (d) Apparent motion of the sun round the
satellite orbiting earth is _______ . earth.
5. The height of a Geo-stationary satellite is 2. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
_______ km. What is the gravitational force on it due to earth
6. The escape sspeed of a projectile from the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth
is approximately _______ . from the surface?
7. Escape speed on the moon is _______ than es- (a) 32 N (b) 28 N
cape speed on the earth. (c) 16 N (d) 72 N
8. If Ve is escape speed from the earth and Vp is 3. Kepler’s second law is based on :
that from a planet of half the radius of earth, (a) Newton’s second law of motion
then Ve = _______ . (b) Newton’s law of gravitation
(c) Special theory of relativity
True/ False : (d) Principle of conservation of angular
1. For a body taken to the moon inertial mass momentum.
remains the same 4. The orbital speed of Jupiter is :
2. Under the influence of central force, position (a) greater than the orbital speed of the earth.
vector sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals (b) less than the orbital speed of the earth.
of time. (c) equal to the orbital speed of the earth.
3. The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to (d) proportional to distance from the earth.
the square root of the radius of the orbit. 5. There is no atmosphere on the moon because
4. Escape velocity of a particle projected from the (a) it is closer to the earth and also it has the
surface of the earth depends on the speed with inactive inert gases in it.
which it is fired. (b) it is too for from the sun and has very low
5. The time period of a satellite does not depend pressure in its outer surface.
on the radius of the orbit. (c) escape velocity of gas molecules is greater
than their root mean square velocity.
6. Kepler's second law or, law of area is based on
(d) escape velocity of gas molecules is less
law of conservation of angular momentum.
than their root mean square velocity.
7. Planets situated at larger distances from the sun
take longer time to complete one rotation.
Gravitation P-39
6. Escape velocity of a particle depends upon its 13. With what minimum velocity a body must be
mass as : projected from the surface of the earth making
(a) veam2 (b) veam an angle 45º with the surface so that it escapes
(c) veam0 (d) veam–1 along from the gravitational field of the earth ?
7. A ball is dropped from a spacecraft revolving (a) 11.2 kms–1 (b) 11.2 2 kms -1
around the earth at a height of 100 km, then the
ball (c) 5.6 2 kms -1 (d) 22.4 kms–1
(a) fall down to the earth gradually
14. A man waves his arms while walking. This is to :
(b) go very far in the space
(a) keep constant velocity
(c) continue to move with the same speed (b) ease the tension
along the original orbit of the spacecraft. (c) increase the velocity
(d) move with the same speed, tangentially (d) balance the effect of earth’s gravity
to the spacecraft. 15. A missile is launched with a velocity less than
8. The maximum kinetic energy of a planet moving escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and
around the sun is at a position : potential energies is :
B (a) Zero
(b) Negative
(c) Positive
A Sun C (d) May be positive, negative or zero.
16. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the
earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential
D energy is
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D 1 1
(a) (b)
9. If radius of the earth is reduced, then : 2 2
(a) duration of the day reduce.
(b) earth rotates slower (c) 2 (d) 2
(c) time period of the rotation of earth decreases 17. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at
(d) duration of the day increases. a height of 5R above that surface of the earth, R
10. The value of escape velocity of a certain planet being the radius of the earth. The time period of
is 2km/s. Then the value of orbital speed for a another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from
satellite orbiting closer to its surface is : the surface of the earth is :
(a) 2km/s (b) 1km/s
6
(c) 2 km/s (d) 2 2 km/s (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 6 2 (d) 2
11. When a body is taken from poles to equator on
18. The period of revolution of planet A around the
the earth, its weight Sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from
(a) increases the Sun is how many times greater than that of B
(b) decreases from the Sun?
(c) remains same (a) 2 (b) 3
(d) increases at south pole and decreases at (c) 4 (d) 5
north pole. 19. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in
12. Which of the following does not depend upon air and the gravitational force between them is F.
the orbital radius of the satellite? The space around the masses is now filled with
T T2 a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational
(a) (b) force will now be
R R
F
T2 T2 (a) (b) 3F
9
(c) (d)
R2 R3 F
(c) F (d)
3
P-40 PHYSICS
20. The radius of a planet is twice the radius of earth.

2m 3m
Both have almost equal average mass-densities. 4m
If VP and VE are escape velocities of the planet
and the earth, respectively, then 7m 5m
(a) VE = 1.5VP (b) VP = 1.5VE
(c) VP = 2VE (d) VE = 3VP 3m
M
5m 7m
1. In the figure, the direction of gravitational 2m
4m 3m
force on m1 due to m2 is along
9 GMm 5 GMm
y (a) (b)
d2 d2
m1 r
m2 3 GMm GMm
r1 (c) 2 (d)
d d2
r2 4. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice
O x the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the
planet to move from C to D and t 2 is the time to
move from A to B then
z v
m
r r B
(a) r1 (b) r2 C
r r
(c) r (d) - r S
2. Which of the following graphs shows the cor- D
A
rect variation of acceleration due to gravity with
the height above the earth's surface?
g (a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2
g
(c) t1 = t2 (d) t1 > t2
5. Two satellites of masses m and 2m are revolving
(a) (b) around a planet of mass M with different speeds
in orbits of radii r and 2r respectively. The ratio
O r O r
of minimum and maximum forces on the planet
g due to satellites is
1
(a)
2
(c) (d) None of these r
1
(b) 2r M
O r 4
3. A central particle M is surrounded by a square 1
array of other particles, separated by either (c)
3
distance d or distance d/2 along the perimeter of
(d) None of these
the square. The magnitude of the gravitational
force on the central particle due to the other
particles is
Gravitation P-41
Assertion/ Reason : Reason : The intensity of gravitational field of

earth is maximum at the surface of earth.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains 4. Assertion : Smaller the orbit of the planet around
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these the sun, shorter is the time it takes to complete
questions also has four alternative choices, only one one revolution.
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one Reason : According to Kepler's third law of
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. planetary motion, square of time period is
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is proportional to cube of mean distance from sun.
a correct explanation for assertion. 5. Assertion : Gravitational potential of earth at
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason every place on it is negative.
is not a correct explanation for assertion Reason : Every body on earth is bound by the
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect attraction of earth.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 6. Assertion: The escape velocity on the moon is
much higher than that on the earth.
1. Assertion : Gravitational force between two
particles is negligibly small compared to the Reason: Ve = 2g / R
electrical force. Thus for lower R, Ve on moon is higher.
Reason : The electrical force is experienced by 7. Assertion : Space rocket are usually launched
charged particles only. in the equatorial line from west to east
2. Assertion: The gain in potential energy of an ob- Reason : The acceleration due to gravity is
ject of mass m raised to height equal to the radius minimum at the equator.
8. Assertion : The speed of satellite always remains
of earth is 1 mg R
2 constant in an orbit.
Reason: Kinetic energy at surface = P.E at the Reason : The speed of a satellite depends on its
top 1 mv2 and at the top v = gR . \ PE = path.
1 2 9. Assertion : A person sitting in an artificial
mgR. satellite revolving around earth feels weightless.
2
3. Assertion : The tidal waves in sea are primarily Reason : There is no gravitational force on the
due to the gravitational effect of earth. satellite.

(A) Force between any two bodies (1) Maximum at the earth’s surface
(B) Acceleration due to gravity (2) Always attractive
(C) Escape velocity (3) gR
(D) Orbital velocity (4) 2. gR
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
P-42 PHYSICS
(A) Gravitational constant (1) Law of periods
(B) g h (2) 24 Hrs
(C) T 2 µ R3 (3) 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2kg–2
æ 2h ö
(D) Time period of a (4) g0 ç1 – ÷
è Rø
geostationary satellite
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(A) Weight (1) Minimum
(B) gequator (2) Zero
(C) gpoles (3) Vector
(D) gcentre (4) Maximum
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
4. On the surface of earth acceleration due to gravity is g and gravitational potential is V. Match the
following:
Column I Column -II
(A) At height h = R, value of g (1) decreases by a factor 1/4
(B) At depth h = R/2, value of g (2) decreases by a factor 1/2
(C) At height h = R/2, value of g (3) decreases by a factor 3/4
(D) At depth h = R / 4, value of g (4) decreases by a factor 2/3
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
5. Two concentric spherical shells are as shown in figure. Match the following:
A
D
Column I Column II
(A) Potential at A (1) greater than B
(B) Gravitational field at A (2) less than B
(C) As one moves from C to D (3) potential remains constant
(D) As one moves from D to A (4) gravitational field decreases
(5) None
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (5) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
Gravitation P-43
(A) Potential energy of satellite (1) Positive
(B) Total energy of satellite (2) Negative
(C) kinetic energy of satellite (3) Zero
(D) Gravitational potential energy of (4) Infinite
satellite at infinity
(a) (A)®(4); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (b) (A)®(3); (B)®(1); C®(4); (D)®(2)
(c) (A)®(2); (B)®(2); C®(1); (D)®(3) (d) (A)®(2); (B)®(4); C®(1); (D)®(3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 3GM 2 GM

(a) - (b) -
1. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a a
a height of 5R above that surface of the earth, R GM 4 GM
being the radius of the earth. The time period of (c) - (d) -
a a
another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from
the surface of the earth is 6. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the
(a) 5 (b) 10 surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass
6 and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M
(c) 6 2 (d) and R. G is gravitational constant and g is
2
2. The height at which the acceleration due to acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
g earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle
gravity becomes (where g = the acceleration does not return back to earth, is
9
due to gravity on the surface of the earth) in
2GM 2GM
terms of R, the radius of the earth, is (a) (b)
R R R2
(a) (b) R / 2
2 2GM
(c) (d) 2 R (c) 2gR 2 (d)
2R R2
3. The gravitational potential at the centre of a 7. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and
square of side 'a' and four equal masses (m each) B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the
placed at the corners of a square is speed of satellite A is 3 V, then the speed of
Gm satellite B will be
(a) Zero (b) 4 2 (a) 3 V/4 (b) 6 V
a
(c) 12 V (d) 3 V/2
Gm Gm 2 8. What is the minimum energy required to launch
(c) -4 2 (d) -4 2
a a a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet
4. If a person goes to height equal to the radius of of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
the earth, from its surface, then his weight (w¢) altitude of 2R?
relative to the weight on earth (w) will be
5GmM 2GmM
W (a) (b)
(a) W¢ = (b) W¢ = 2W 6R 3R
4
(c) W¢ = W (d) W¢ = W (c)

GmM
(d)
GmM
2 2R 2R
5. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of
a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
a
gravitational potential at a point situated at
2
distance from the centre, will be
P-44 PHYSICS
8 Mechanical Properties
of Solids
Fill in the Blanks : 7. Hollow shaft is much stronger than a solid rod
of same length and same mass.
1. The restoring force per unit area is known as 8. It is difficult to twist a long rod as compared to
_______ . small rod.
2. Shearing stress change _______ of the body.
3. If the load is increased beyond the _______ Conceptual MCQs
point, the strain increases rapidly for even a small
1. A steel wire is stretched to double its length,
change in the stress.
then its Young’s modulus :
4. The ratio of stress and strain is called _______
. (a) becomes half
5. The ratio of tensile stress to the longitudinal (b) becomes double
strain is defined as _______ . (c) remains same
6. The only elastic modulus that applies to fluids (d) becomes one-fourth.
is ______ .
2. Modulus of rigidity of liquids is :
7. The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called
(a) zero (b) unity
______ .
8. Modulus of rigidity of a liquid is _______ . (c) infinity (d) non-zero but finite.
9. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress 3. Gases possess
is increased, then the ratio of stress to strain (a) Young’s modulus (b) Bulk modulus
_______ . (c) Shear modulus (d) All of these
True/ False : 4. If the tension in a wire is doubled, the elastic
potential energy stored in the wire will :
1. Elastic fatigue is the property by virtue of which
(a) become twice (b) become half
behavior becomes less elastic under the action
(c) remains same (d) become four times
of repeated alternating deforming forces.
2. Plasticity is the property due to which the regain in 5. Elastomers are the materials which :
original shape of a body is delayed after the removal (a) are not elastic at all
of deforming forces. (b) have very small elastic range.
3. Modulus of elasticity is more for steel than that (c) do not obey Hooke’s law
of copper.
(d) none of these
4. Rubber is more elastic than steel.
5. Bulk modulus is relevant for solids, liquids and 6. Shear modulus of a perfectly rigid body is :
gases. (a) zero (b) unity
6. The Young's modulus and shear modulus are (c) infinity (d) non-zero but unity
relevant for fluids.
Mechanical Properties of Solids P-45
7. Consider four steel wires of dimensions given 15. Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their
below (d = diameter and l = length): lengths are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the diameter are
(A) l = 1m, d = 1mm (B) l = 2m, d = 2 mm in the ratio 2 : 1. If they are pulled by the same
(C) l = 2m, d = 1mm (D) l = 1m, d = 2 mm force, then increase in length will be in the ratio
If same force is applied to all the wires then the (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
elastic potential energy stored will be maximum
in wire: (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1
(a) A (b) B 16. When an elastic material with Young’s modulus
(c) C (d) D Y is subjected to stretching stress S, elastic
8. Which of the following is responsible for change energy stored per unit volume of the material is
in shape ? (a) YS / 2 (b) S2Y / 2
(a) Tensile stress (b) Compressive stress (c) S2 / 2Y (d) S / 2Y
(c) Tangential stress (d) All of these 17. The compressibility of water is 4 × 10–5 per unit
9. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of : atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume
(a) longitudinal strain to lateral strain of 100 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100
(b) lateral strain to longitudinal strain atmosphere will be
(c) longitudinal strain to volumetric strain
(a) 0.4 cm3 (b) 4 × 10–5 cm3
(d) volumetric strain to longitudinal strain
10. Steel is : (c) 0.025 cm3 (d) 0.004 cm3
(a) perfectly elastic 18. According to Hook’s law of elasticity if stress is
(b) perfectly plastic increased then within the elastic limits, the ratio
(c) partially plastic and partially elastic of stress to strain
(d) depends on applied force (a) remains contant (b) becomes zero
11. Which of the following affects the elasticity of a (c) decrease (d) increases
substance? 19. According to Hooke’s low, force is
(a) Hammering and annealing proportional to
(b) Change in temperature
(c) Impurity 1
1
(d) All of these (a) (b)
x x2
12. Which of the following materials is most elas-
tic?
(c) x (d) x2
(a) Rubber (b) Lead
(c) Wood (d) Steel 20. Uniform rod of mass m, length l, area of cross-
13. If large deformation takes place between the section A has Young’s modulus Y. If it is hanged
elastic limit and fracture point then the material vertically, elongation under its own weight will
is
be
(a) ductile (b) elastomer
(c) brittle (d) none of these mgl 2mgl
(a) (b)
14. The SI unit of shear stress is 2 AY AY
N N mgl mgY
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 AY Al
m cm
(c) dyne (d) dyne
m2 cm 2
P-46 PHYSICS
Diagram Based Questions : (a) OA (b) C

(c) OE (d) OB
1. A rectangular frame is to be suspended
4. A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross-sectional
symmetrically by two strings of equal length on
area A is stretched, well within elastic limit,
two supports . It can be done in one of the horizontally between two pillars. A mass m is
following three ways suspended from the mid point of the wire. Strain
in the wire is
2L
x
m
(a) (b) (c)
x2 x
(a) (b)
The tension in the strings will be 2L L
(a) the same in all cases
(b) least in (a) x2 x2
(c) (d)
(c) least in (b) L 2L
(d) least in (c) 5. A beam of metal supported at the two edges is
2. The graph given is a stress-strain curve for loaded at the centre. The depression at the
centre is proportional to
1.0
d
Stress (N/ m2)
0.5 (a) Y 2 (b) Y

(c) 1/Y (d) 1/Y 2
0 6. The adjacent graph shows the extension (Dl) of
0.5
1.0 a wire of length 1m suspended from the top of a
Strain roof at one end with a load W connected to the
(a) elastic objects (b) plastics other end. if the corss-sectional area of the wire
(c) elastomers (d) None of these is 10–6m2, calculate the Young’s modulus of the
3. For the given graph, Hooke's law is obeyed in material of the wire
the region
4
(l ×10 )m
C 3
–4
A 2
E B 1
Stress
20 40 60 80 W(N)
(a) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10–11 N/m2

O Strain (c) 2 × 10–12 N/m2 (d) 2 × 10–13 N/m2
7. The diagram below shows the change in the Reason: Torque required to produce a given
length X of a thin uniform wire caused by the twist in hollow cylinder is greater than that
application of stress F at two different required to twist a solid cylinder of same length
temperatures T1 and T2. The variation shown and material.
suggests that 4. Assertion : Stress is the internal force per unit
area of a body.
T2
F Reason : Rubber is less elastic than steel.
T1 5. Assertion : Young’s modulus for a perfectly
plastic body is zero.
Reason : For a perfectly plastic body, restoring
X force is zero.
(a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 < T2 6. Assertion : Identical springs of steel and copper
(c) T2 > T1 (d) T1 ³ T2 are equally stretched. More work will be done
on the steel spring
Assertion/ Reason : Reason : Steel is more elastic than copper.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains 7. Assertion: Girders are given I shape.
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these Reason: To bear more pressure, depth is in-
questions also has four alternative choices, only one creased as per P = hrg
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one 8. Assertion : The stress-strain graphs are shown
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. in the figure for two materials A and B are shown
in figure. Young's modulus of A is greater than
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is that of B.
a correct explanation for assertion.
Stress
is not a correct explanation for assertion A

(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect B
1. Assertion: Solids are least compressible and
gases are most compressible.
Reason: solids have definite shape and volume Strain
but gases do not have either definite shape or
definite volume. Reason : The Young's modules for small strain
2. Assertion: Rubber is more elastic than lead is,
Reason: If same load is attached to lead and
rubber, then the strain produced is much less in stress
Y= = slope of linear portion, of graph;
rubber than in lead. strain
3. Assertion: Hollow shaft is found to be stronger and slope of A is more than slope that of B.
than a solid shaft made of same equal material.
P-48 PHYSICS

(A) Mud (1) Elastic
(B) Steel (2) Elastomer
(C) Rubber (3) Plastic
(D) Copper (4) Compressible
(a) (A)®(2), (B)®(3), (C)®(4), (D)®(1) (b) (A)®(3), (B)®(1), (C)®(2), (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(1), (B)®(2), (C)®(3), (D)®(4) (d) (A)®(2), (B)® (1), (C)®(3), (D)®(4)
(A) Young's modulus of elasticity (1) Rubber
(B) Hooke's law (2) Solids
(C) Hydraulic stress (3) Sraight line
(D) Elastomers (4) Solids, liquids & gases
(a) (A)®(2), (B)®(3), (C)®(4), (D)®(1) (b) (A)®(4), (B)®(2), (C)®(3), (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(1), (B)®(2), (C)®(3), (D)®(4) (d) (A)®(2), (B)® (1), (C)®(3), (D)®(4)
3. Column -I Column-II
(A) Equal force acting perpendicular to each (1) Balance the net weight to be supported
point on a spherical surface
(B) Cross-sectional area of the rope used in (2) Higher modulus of elasticity
giant structures
(C) Steel in structural designs (3) Reduction in volume without
change in shape
(D) Stress-strain curve (4) Inversely depends on the yield strength
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1, 3); (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(b) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1, 2); (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3, 4)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) ® (3); B ® (1, 4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (2)
4. A copper wire (Y = 1011 N/m2) of length 8 m and steel wire (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2) of length 4 m each of 0.5 cm2
cross-section are fastened end to end and stretched with a tension of 500 N.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Elongation in copper wire in mm (1) 0.25
(B) Elongation in steel wire in mm (2) 1.0
(C) Total elongation in mm (3) 0.8
1
(D) Elastic potential energy of the system in joules (4) th the elongation in copper wire
4
(a) (A)®(3), (B)®(4), (C)®(2), (D)®(1) (b) (A)®(4), (B)®(2), (C)®(3), (D)®(1)
(c) (A)®(1), (B)®(2), (C)®(3), (D)®(4) (d) (A)®(2), (B)® (1), (C)®(3), (D)®(4)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 2pSY aDT (b) SY aDT

(c) pSY aDT (d) 2SY aDT
1. An iron bar of length l cm and cross section A
cm2 is pulled by a force of F dynes from ends so 4. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid
as to produce an elongation Dl cm. Which of support. When loaded with a weight in air, it
the following statement is correct ? extends by la and when the weight is immersed
completely in water, the extension is reduced to
(a) Elongation is inversely proportional to
lw. Then the relative density of material of the
length
weight is
(b) Elongation is directly proportional to cross
section A la
(a) la / lw (b) la -lw
(c) Elongation is inversely proportional to
cross-section
(c) l w /(l a - l w ) (d) l w / l a
(d) Elongation is directly proportional to
5. A rubber cord catapult has cross-sectional area
Young’s modulus
25 mm2 and initial length of rubber cord is 10 cm.
2. A steel wire of length ‘L’ at 40°C is suspended It is stretched to 5 cm and then released to project
from the ceiling and then a mass ‘m’ is hung
from its free end. The wire is cooled down from a missile of mass 5 gm. Taking Yrubber = 5 × 108
40°C to 30°C to regain its original length ‘L’. The N/m2. Velocity of projected missile is
coefficient of linear thermal expansion of the steel (a) 20 ms–1 (b) 100 ms–1
(c) 250 ms –1 (d) 200 ms–1
is 10–5 /° C, Young’s modulus of steel is 1011 N/
m2 and radius of the wire is 1 mm. Assume that L 6. The length of a metal is l1 when the tension in it
diameter of the wire. Then the value of ‘m’ in kg is T1 and is l2 when the tension is T2. The original
is nearly length of the wire is
(a) 1 (b) 2 l1 + l 2 l1T2 + l 2T1
(a) (b)
(c) 3 (d) 5 2 T1 + T2
3. A wooden wheel of radius R is made of two
semicircular parts (see figure). The two parts are l1T2 - l 2T1
(c) (d) T1T2 l1l 2
held together by a ring made of a metal strip of T2 - T1
cross-sectional area S and length L. L is slightly 7. A thick rope of density r and length L is hung
less than 2pR. To fit the ring on the wheel, it is from a rigid support. The Young’s modulus of
heated so that its temperature rises by DT and it the material of rope is Y. The increase in length
just steps over the wheel. As it cools down to of the rope due to its own weight is
surrounding temperature, it presses the (a) (1/4) r g L2/Y (b) (1/2) r g L2/Y
semicircular parts together. If the coefficient of (c) r g L /Y2 (d) r g L/Y
linear expansion of the metal is a and its Young’s 8. If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a
modulus is Y, the force that one part of the wheel pool, its volume decreases by 0.1%. If the
applies on the other part is density of the water is 1 × 103 kg/m3 and g =
10m/s 2 , then the volume elasticity in
N/m2 will be
(a) 108 (b) 2 × 108
R (c) 10 9 (d) 2 × 109
P-50 PHYSICS
9 Mechanical Properties
of Fluids
1. _________ and _________ play the same role 1. Consider an iceberg floating in sea water. The
in case of fluids as force and mass play in case density of sea water is 1.03 g/cc and that of ice is
of solids. 0.92 g/cc. The fraction of total volume of iceberg
2. Hydraulic lifts and hydraulic brakes are based above the level of sea water is near by
on ______ . (a) 1.8% (b) 3%
3. Specific gravity of a body is also known as (c) 8% (d) 11%
______ . 2. The constant velocity attained by a body while
4. Pressure in a fluid at rest is same at all points falling through a viscous medium is termed as :
which are at the same height. This is known as (a) critical velocity (b) terminal velocity
_______ .
(c) threshold velocity (d) none of these
5. A pressure equivalent to 1 mm of Hg is called
3. When a train crosses a platform with high
_______ .
velocity, passenger on the platform tend to fall
6. The device which measures the flow speed of
towards the train. This phenomenon can be
incompressible fluid is _______ .
7. After terminal velocity is reached, the explained on the basis of :
acceleration of a body falling through a fluid is (a) Stoke’s law
_______ . (b) Archimede’s principle
8. Kerosene oil rises up in a wick of a lantern (c) Bernoulli’s theorem
because of _______ . (d) Pascal’s law
4. The difference in between viscosity and solid
True/ False : friction is/are :
(a) viscosity depends on area while solid
1. A cricketer, while spinning a ball makes it to friction does not.
experience magnus effect. (b) viscosity depends on nature of material but
2. Viscosity of gases decreases with increase in solid friction does not.
temperature (c) both (a) and (b)
3. Viscosity of liquids (except water) decreases with (d) neither (a) nor (b)
increase in pressure 5. Water is not used in thermometer because.
4. The antiseptics have very low value of surface (a) it sticks to glass
tension. (b) its shows anomalous expansion
5. The value of surface tension of liquid is (c) both (a) and (b)
independent of the temperature (d) neither (a) nor (b)
6. A large soap bubble shrinks while a small soap 6. Angle of contact depends on
bubble expands when they are connected to each (a) temperature
other by a capillary tube, in order to gain
(b) presence of impurities
equilibrium.
(c) nature of liquid and the container
7. A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it (d) all of these
has attained a certain height.
Mechanical Properties of Fluids P-51
7. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density 14. In rising from the bottom of a lake, to the top, the
= 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid temperature of an air bubble remains unchanged,
(density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of but its diameter gets doubled. If h is the
a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the barometric height (expressed in m of mercury of
same size in the same liquid relative density r) at the surface of the lake, the
(a) 0.4 m/s (b) 0.133 m/s depth of the lake is
(c) 0.1 m/s (d) 0.2 m/s (a) 8 rh m (b) 7rh m
8. The wetability of a surface by a liquid depends (c) 9 rh m (d) 12 rh m
primarily on 15. Hydraulic lift is based on the principle of
(a) surface tension (a) Pascal’s law
(b) density (b) Bernoulli’s theorem
(c) angle of contact between the surface and (c) Toricelli’s theorem
the liquid (d) Stoke’s law
(d) viscosity 16. Paint-gun is based on :
9. If r is the radius of influence of molecules of a (a) Bernoullis theorem
certain liquid, then thickness of its surface film (b) Archimede’s principle
is (c) Boyle’s law
r (d) Pascal’s law
(a) r (b)
2 17. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe having
(c) 2 r (d) none of these a restriction, then
10. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid (a) Pressure will be greater at the restriction.
of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of (b) Pressure will be greater in the wider portion.
radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface (c) Pressure will be same throughout the
tension of the liquid, then : length of the pipe
(d) none of the above
æ1 1 ö
(a) energy = 4VT ç - ÷ is released 18. The angle of contact between pure water and
è r Rø pure glass, is
(a) 0º (b) 45º
æ1 1 ö
(b) energy = 3VT ç + ÷ is absorbed (c) 90º (d) 135º
è r Rø
19. When a liquid rises in a capillary tube, the gain
æ1 1 ö in P.E. of the liquid is :
(c) energy = 3VT ç - ÷ is released (a) less than the work done by force of surface
è r Rø
tension
(d) energy is neither released nor absorbed (b) greater than the work done by force of
11. Toricelli’s theorem is used to find : surface tension
(a) the velocity of efflux through an orifice. (c) equal to the work done by force of surface
(b) the velocity of flow of liquid through a pipe. tension.
(c) terminal velocity (d) may be less than or equal to the force of
(d) critical velocity. surface tension.
12. A pin of density greater than that of water can 20. Fevicol is added to paint to be painted on the
float on the surface of water. It is due to : walls, because.
(a) viscosity (b) buoyancy (a) it increases adhesive force between paint
(c) surface tension (d) none of these & wall.
13. With increase in temperature, the viscosity of (b) it decreases adhesive force between paint
gases : & wall molecules.
(a) increases (c) it decreases cohesive force between paint
(b) decrease molecules
(c) remains same (d) none of the above
(d) depends on the nature of the gas.
P-52 PHYSICS
21. The terminal velocity vT of a small steel ball of

h = h1–h2
radius r falling under gravity through a column
of a viscous liquid of coefficient of viscosity h
depends on mass of the ball m, acceleration due
a
to gravity g, coefficient of viscosity h and radius
r. Which of the following relations is
dimensionally correct ? d
mgr ad ag
(a) vT µ (b) vT µ mg hr (a) (b)
h g d
mg hmg
(c) vT µ (d) vT µ a dg
rh r (c) (d)
d a
4. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a
1. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 cylindrical container of diameter D (D >> d) as
having densities r1 and, r2 respectively. A solid shown in figure. If it is burning at the rate of 2
ball, made of a material of density r3 , is dropped cm/hour then the top of the candle will
in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position
shown in the figure.Which of the following is L
true for r1, r1and r3?
(a) r3 < r1 < r2 r1 L
(b) r1 > r3 > r2
r3
d
(c) r1 < r2 < r3
D
(d) r1 < r3 < r2
(a) remain at the same height
2. From the figure, the correct observation is (b) fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour
(c) fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour
(d) go up at the rate of 1 cm/hour
5. A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped
wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 ×
Water Water 10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is 30
cm and its weight negligible. The surface tension
(a) (b) of the liquid film is
(a) the pressure on the bottom of tank (a) is
greater than at the bottom of (b)
(b) the pressure on the botttom of the tank (a) Film
is smaller than at the bottom (b)
(c) the pressure depend on the shape of the
container
(d) the pressure on the bottom of (a) and (b) is
the same. W
3. Figure shows a U-tube of uniform cross-sectional
area A, accelerated with acceleration a as shown. (a) 0.0125 Nm–1 (b) 0.1 Nm–1
If d is the separation between the limbs, then (c) 0.05 Nm–1 (d) 0.025 Nm–1
what is the difference in the levels of the liquid
in the U-tube is
Assertion/ Reason : place is the same as magnitude of force exerted

by the person (on the brick) to hold brick A in
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains place.
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these Reason : The magnitude of buoyant force on a
questions also has four alternative choices, only one brick completely submerged in water is equal to
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one magnitude of weight of water it displaces and
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. does not depend on depth of brick in water.
5. Assertion : The blood pressure in humans is
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is greater at the feet than at the brain
a correct explanation for assertion. Reason : Pressure of liquid at any point is
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason proportional to height, density of liquid and
is not a correct explanation for assertion acceleration due to gravity
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 6. Assertion : Hydrostatic pressure is a vector
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. quantity.
Reason : Pressure is force divided by area, and
1. Assertion: Mercury is preferred as a barometric force is vector quantity.
substance over water.
7. Assertion : A bubble comes from the bottom of
Reason: Mercury is opaque and shiny so it is a lake to the top.
easier to note the observation.
Reason : Its radius increases.
2. Assertion: A small iron needle sinks in water
8. Assertion : When height of a tube is less than
while a large iron ship floats.
liquid rise in the capillary tube, the liquid does
Reason: The shape of iron needle is like a flat
not overflow
surface while the shape of a ship is that which
Reason : Product of radius of meniscus and
makes it easier to float.
height of liquid in capillary tube always remains
3. Assertion : Pascal's law is the working principle
constant.
of a hydraulic lift.
9. Assertion: Surface tension of all lubricating oils
Reason : Pressure is equal to the thrust per unit
and paints is kept high.
area.
Reason: Due to high value of surface tension
4. Assertion : Imagine holding two identical bricks
the fluids don't get damaged.
under water. Brick A is completely submerged
10. Assertion : It is better to wash the clothes in
just below the surface of water, while Brick B is
cold soap solution.
at a greater depth. The magnitude of force exerted
Reason : The surface tension of cold solution is
by the person (on the brick) to hold brick B in
more than the surface tension of hot solution.

1. Match column I and column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Barometer (1) Law of conservation of energy
(B) Hydrometer (2) To measure density
(C) Bernoulli's Principle (3) To measure atmospheric pressure
(D) Archimedes' Principle (4) upthrust
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
P-54 PHYSICS
(A) Terminal velocity (1) Average density becomes less than that of
liquid
(B) Objects of high density can also float (2) Upthrust is zero
(C) A beaker having a solid iron under free fall (3) Varies with velocity
(D) Viscous drag (4) Upthrust and viscous force
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(A) Bernoullis theorem (1) Narrower pipes have less pressure
(B) Ball moving with spin (2) Paint gun
(C) Artificial high pressure (3) Non-viscous fluids
(D) Streamline flow (4) Conservation of energy
(5) Uplift due to pressure difference
(a) (A) ® (3,4) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1,3) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(A) Magnus effect (1) Pascal's law
(B) Loss of energy (2) Archimede's principle
(C) Pressure is same at the same level in a liquid (3) Viscous force
(D) Hydraulic machines (4) Lifting of Asbestos roofs
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (5) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(A) Water proofing agents (1) Increase in terminal velocity
(B) Sphygmomanometer (2) Gauge pressure
(C) More than gauge pressure (3) Actual pressure
(D) Mixing of drops of smaller dimension (4) Increase the angle of contact
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (5) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(A) Capillaries of smaller radii (1) Flat meniscus
(B) Fc > 2Fa where Fc and Fa are cohesive (2) Greater height difference
and adhesive force
(C) Angle of contact is zero (3) Drop in level
(D) Lower angle of contact (4) Welding agents
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2,3)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
7. Match the column I and column II

Column I Column II
(A) Floating bodies (1) Torricelli's law
(B) Capillarity (2) Bernoulli's principle
(C) Energy conservation (3) Archimedes principle
(D) Speed of efflux (4) Pascal's law
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 1.71 × 104 poise (b) 1.82 × 104 poise
(c) 1.78 × 104 poise (d) 1.52 × 104 poise
1. A block of ice floats on a liquid of density 1.2 in 5. A solid ball of volume V experiences a viscous
a beaker then level of liquid when ice completely force F when falling with a speed v in a liquid. If
melt another ball of volume 8 V with the same velocity
(a) remains same (b) rises v is allowed to fall in the same liquid, it
(c) lowers (d) either (b) or (c) experiences a force
2. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a (a) F (b) l6 F
material of density r1. It is falling through a liquid (c) 4 F (d) 2 F
of density r2 (r2< r1). Assume that the liquid 6. In a capillary tube, water rises to 3 mm. The height
of water that will rise in another capillary tube
applies a viscous force on the ball that is
having one-third radius of the first is
proportional to the square of its speed v, i.e.,
(a) 1 mm (b) 3mm
Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the (c) 6 mm (d) 9mm
ball is 7. Two capillary tubes A and B of diameter 1 mm
Vg (r1 – r2 ) Vgr1 and 2 mm respectively are dipped vertically in a
(a) (b) liquid. If the capillary rise in A is 6 cm, then the
k k capillary rise in B is
Vg r1 Vg (r1 – r2 ) (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm
(c) (d) (c) 4 cm (d) 6 cm
k k 8. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid
3. When a ball is released from rest in a very long of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of
column of viscous liquid, its downward radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface
acceleration is ‘a’ (just after release). Its tension of the liquid, then :
acceleration when it has acquired two third of
æ1 1 ö
the maximum velocity is a/X. Find the value of (a) energy = 4VT ç - ÷ is released
è r Rø
X.
(a) 2 (b) 3 æ1 1 ö
(c) 4 (d) 5 (b) energy = 3VT ç + ÷ is absorbed
è r Rø
4. An air bubble of radius 1 cm rises with terminal
velocity 0.21 cm/s in liquid column. If the density æ1 1 ö
of liquid is 1.47 × 103 kg/m3. Then the value of (c) energy = 3VT ç - ÷ is released
è r Rø
coefficient of viscosity of liquid ignoring the
(d) energy is neither released nor absorbed
density of air, will be
P-56 PHYSICS
10 Thermal Properties of
Matter
Fill in the Blanks : 3. Liquids have conductivities intermediate
between solids and gases
1. Triple point of water is _______ k. 4. Radiation is the fastest mode of heat transfer.
2. If a, b and g are coefficient of linear, area and 5. Steam causes more severe burns than boiling
volume expansion respectively, then g = water.
_______ a. 6. Conduction is a mode of heat transfer by actual
3. The phenomenon of refreezing the water into motion of matter.
ice on removing the increased pressure is Conceptual MCQs
called _______ .
4. The value of molar heat capacity at constant 1. The coefficient of thermal conductivity depends
upon:
temperature is _______ .
(a) temperature difference between the two
5. A quantity of heat required to change the unit
surfaces.
mass of a solid substance, from solid state to (b) area of the plate
liquid state, while the temperature remains (c) material of the plate
constant, is known as _______ . (d) all of these
6. _______ is used as a coolent in automobile 2. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of
radiator as well as a heater in hot water bags. glycerine is 5 × 10-4 K-1. The fractional change
7. Heat is transmitted from higher to lower in the density of glycerine for a rise of 40°C in its
temperature through actual mass motion of the temperature, is:
(a) 0.020 (b) 0.025
molecules in _______ .
(c) 0.010 (d) 0.015
8. Lamp black absorbs radiant heat which is near 3. Woollen clothes are used in winter season
about _______ . because woolen clothes :
9. At temperature T, the emissive power and (a) are good sources for producing heat.
absorption power of a body for certain (b) absorb heat from surrounding.
wavelength are el and al respectively, then el (c) are bad conductors of heat
= _______ . (d) none of these
4. If a liquid is heated in weightlessness, the heat
True/ False : is transmitted through:
1. Copper is a better conductor of heat than (a) conduction
glass. (b) convection
2. Thermal conductivity of steel is greater than (c) radiation
that of copper. (d) the liquid cannot be heated in weightlessness.
Thermal Properties of Matter P-57
5. Which of the following qualities are useful for a (a) Wien’s displacement law
cooking utensil? (b) Kirchoff’s law
(a) High specific heat and low thermal (c) Newton’s law of cooling
conductivity.
(d) Stefan’s law
(b) High specific heat and high thermal
12. A vessel completely filled with a liquid is heated.
conductivity.
If a and g represent coefficient of linear expansion
(c) Low specific heat and low thermal of material of vessel and coefficient of cubical
conductivity. expansion of liquid respectively, then the liquid
(d) Low specific heat an d high thermal will not overflow if:
conductivity. (a) g = 3 a (b) g > 3 a
6. The coefficient of thermal expansion of water at (c) g < 3 a (d) g £ 3 a
4ºc is : 13. Some ice is added to a glass of water, then
(a) zero (b) maximum (a) the equilibrium temperature must be
(c) minimum (d) infinity positive
7. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C (b) the equilibrium temperature may be
in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 negative
minutes. The temperature of the surroundings (c) the equilibrium temperature may be zero.
is: (d) both (b) and (c)
(a) 45°C (b) 20°C
14. Triple point is the temperature at which :
(c) 42°C (d) 10°C
(a) matter may simultaneously exist in liquid
8. The wavelength of radiation emitted by a body
and gaseous state.
depends upon:
(b) matter may simultaneously exist in liquid
(a) the nature of its surface
and solid state.
(b) the area of its surface
(c) matter may simultaneously exist in solid and
(c) the temperature of its surface gaseous state.
(d) all of the above (d) matter may simultaneously exist in all the
9. Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have three forms.
same temperature difference between their ends. 15. If lm denotes the wavelength at which the
Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2 and radiative emission from a black body at a
cross sectional areas A1 and A2, respectively. If temperature T K is maximum, then
the rate of heat conduction in rod 1 is four times
that in rod 2, then (a) l m µ T -1
(a) K1A1 = K2A2 (b) K1A1 = 4K2A2
(c) K1A1 = 2K2A2 (d) 4K1A1 = K2A2 (b) l m µ T 4
10. The rate of flow of heat through a rod depends (c) lm is independent of T
on: (d) l m µ T
(a) thermal conductivity of the rod. 16. A perfectly black body when heated to extremely
(b) length of the rod. high temperature, it appears:
(c) temperature difference across the rod. (a) black (b) red
(d) all of the above (c) white (d) blue
11. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes 17. At which temperature, the centrigrade and
dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally Fahrenheit scales are equal?
turns to white hot. The correct explanation for (a) 40° (b) – 40°
the above observation is possible by using (c) 37° (d) – 80°
P-58 PHYSICS
18. In order that the heat flows from one part of Diagram Based Questions :
a solid to another part, what is required?
(a) Uniform density 1. A cylindrical metal rod is shaped into a ring with
(b) Temperature gradient a small gap as shown. On heating the system :
(c) Density gradient
(d) Uniform temperature
19. At a common temperature, a block of wood and
a block of metal feel equally cold or hot. The
temperatures of block and wood are
(a) equal to the temperature of the body (a) x decreases, r and d increase
(b) x and r increase, d decreases
(b) less than the temperature of the body
(c) x, r and d all increase
(c) greater than temperature of the body
(d) x and r decreased, d remains constant
(d) either (b) or (c)
2. In the given pressure-temperature diagram, for
20. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at
water, which point indicates triple point ?
10°C. When water acquires a temperature of
80°C, the mass of water present will be: D B
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g– 1 °C– 1 and
latent heat of steam = 540 cal g– 1] water
(a) 24 g (b) 31.5 g steam
Pressure (P)
(c) 42.5 g (d) 22.5 g ice C A
21. The sprinkling of water slightly reduces the P
temperature of a closed room because
F E
(a) temperature of water is less than that of
the room
Temp. (T)
(b) specific heat of water is high
(c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation (a) A (b) C
(d) water is a bad conductor of heat (c) P (d) E
22. The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to 3. There rods of the same dimensions have thermal
the direction of incidence, received at a distance conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose as shown in fig. with their ends at 100°C, 50°C
outer surface radiates as a black body at a and 20°C. The temperature of their junction is
temperature T K is given by:
s r 2T 4 50°C
s r 2T 4
(a) (b) 2K
R2 4p r 2
100°C 3K q
4 4 2 4
sr T 4p s r T
(c) 4 (d)
r R2
K
(where s is Stefan's constant)
23. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of 20°C
cooling of a body is proportional to (Dq)n, where
Dq is the difference of the temperature of the body (a) 60° (b) 70°
and the surroundings, and n is equal to (c) 50° (d) 35°
(a) two (b) three
(c) four (d) one
4. The rate of heat flow through the cross-section Assertion/ Reason :

of the rod shown in figure is (T2 > T1 and thermal
conductivity of the material of the rod is K) DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
r1 r2 of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
L of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
T1
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
T2 is a correct explanation for assertion.
Kpr1r2 (T2 - T1 ) is not a correct explanation for assertion
(a) (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
L
Kp(r1 + r2 )2 (T2 - T1 ) 1. Assertion : Fahrenheit is the smallest unit
(b) measuring temperature.
4L
Reason : Fahrenheit was the first temperature
Kp(r1 + r1 ) 2 (T2 - T1 ) scale used for measuring temperature.
(c) 2. Assertion : The temperature at which
L
Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers read
the same is –40°
Kp(r1 + r1 )2 (T2 - T1 ) Reason : There is no relation between
(d)
2L Faherenheit and Centigrade temperature.
5. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a 3. Assertion : It is hotter over the top of a fire than
composite slab, consisting of two materials at the same distance on the sides.
having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and Reason : Air surrounding the fire conducts more
heat upwards.
2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively, are T2 4. Assertion: Copper expands five times more than
and T1 (T2 > T1 ) . The rate of heat transfer glass for same rise in temperature.
Reason: Copper is five times far better conductor
through the slab, in a steady state is of heat than glass.
5. Assertion: The rate of cooling and the rate of
æ A(T2 - T1 ) K ö
çè ÷ø f , with f equal to loss of heat are same thing.
x
Reason: In both the cases, the material has to
cool down and for a given material, rate of
2 4x
(a) x cooling and rate of loss of heat will be same.
3
6. Assertion : Specific heat of a body is always
1 greater than its thermal capacity.
(b) Reason : Specific heat capacity is required for
2 K
2K T1
(c) 1 raising temperature of unit mass of the body
through unit degree.
1 7. Assertion : Melting of solid causes no change
(d)
3 in internal energy.
Reason : Latent heat is the heat required to melt
a unit mass of solid.
P-60 PHYSICS

1. Match the quantities in column-I with the units in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Amount of substance (1) J kg–1 K–1
(B) Coefficient of volume expansion (2) J s–1 K–1
(C) Specific heat (3) K–1
(D) Thermal conductivity (4) mol
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
2. Column-I Column-II
(A) Bimetalic strip (1) Change in length
(B) Steam engine (2) Energy conversion
(C) Linear expansion (3) Change in area
(D) Area expansion (4) Thermal expansion
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
3. Match the column I and column II.
Column I Column II
(A) PV = mRT (1) Molar specific heat
(B) g = 3a (2) Newton’s law of cooling
1 DQ
(C) C = (3) Ideal gas equation
m DT
dQ
(D) = – k(T2 – T1) (4) Coefficient of expansion
dt
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(A) Lowest temperature of water in a lake (1) Less than 4°C
(B) Rate of variation of density (r) is zero (2) Coexistence of three phases of a substance.
(C) Least volume of water (3) Surface tension is zero
(D) Triple point (4) Equal to 4°C
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2)
(A) Specific heat capacity S (1) l1 – l2 = constant for l1a1 = l2a2
(B) Two metals (l1, a1) and (l2, a2) are heated (2) Y is same uniformly
(C) Thermal stress (3) S = ¥ for DT = 0
(D) Four wires of same material (4) Y µ Dt
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
6. Three liquids A, B and C having same specific heat and mass m, 2m and 3m have temperatures 20°C, 40°C
and 60°C respectively. Temperature of the mixture when
Column-I Column-II
(A) A and B are mixed (1). 33.3°C
(B) A and C are mixed (2) 52°C
(C) B and C are mixed (3) 50°C
(D) A, B and C all three are mixed (4) 46.67°C
(a) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1/ 4 1/ 4

æ 65 ö T æ 97 ö T
1. A bar of iron is 10 cm at 20°C. At 19°C it will be (a (a) çè ÷ø (b) çè ÷ø
2 4
of iron = 11 × 10–6/°C)
(a) 11 × 10–6 cm longer æ 97 ö
1/ 4
(b) 11 × 10–6 cm shorter (c) çè ÷ø T (d) (97)1/4T

2
(c) 11 × 10–5 cm shorter
5. A partition wall has two layers of different
(d) 11 × 10–5 cm longer
materials A and B in contact with each other.
2. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury They have the same thickness but the thermal
in a glass vessel is 153 × 10–6/ºC and in a steel conductivity of layer A is twice that of layer B.
vessel is 144 × 10–6/ºC. If a for steel is 12 × 10– At steady state the temperature difference
6/ºC , then a of glass is
across the layer B is 50 K, then the corresponding
(a) 9 × 10–6/ºC (b) 6 × 10–6/ºC difference across the layer A is
(c) 36 × 10–6/ºC (d) 27 × 10–6/ºC (a) 50 K (b) 12.5 K
3. Two spheres of different materials one with (c) 25 K (d) 60 K
double the radius and one-fourth wall thickness 6. A solid copper cube of edges 1 cm each is
of the other are filled with ice. If the time taken suspended in an evacuated enclosure. Its
for complete melting of ice in the larger sphere is temperture is found to fall from 100°C to 99°C in
25 minute and for smaller one is 16 minute, the 100 s. Another solid copper cube of edges 2 cm,
ratio of thermal conductivities of the materials with similar surface nature, is suspended in a
of larger spheres to that of smaller sphere is similar manner. The time required for this cube
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 to cool from 100°C to 99°C will be approximately
(c) 25 : 8 (d) 8 : 25 (a) 25 s (b) 50 s
4. Three very large plates of same area are kept (c) 200 s (d) 400 s
parallel and close to each other. They are 7. Consider two hot bodies B1 and B2 which have
considered as ideal black surfaces and have very temperatures 100°C and 80°C respectively at t =
high thermal conductivity. The first and third 0. The temperature of the surroundings is 40°C.
plates are maintained at temperatures 2T and 3T The ratio of the respective rates of cooling R1
respectively. The temperature of the middle (i.e. and R2 of these two bodies at t = 0 will be
second) plate under steady state condition is (a) R1 : R2 = 3 : 2 (b) R1 : R2 = 5 : 4
(c) R1 : R2 = 2 : 3 (d) R1 : R2 = 4 : 5
P-62 PHYSICS
11 Thermodynamics
Fill in the Blanks : 7. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends
upon density.
1. First law of thermodynamics is a special case of
______ . Conceptual MCQs
2. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal 1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
process is _________ . first law of thermodynamics?
3. The work done in an adiabatic change in ideal (a) It is a restatement of principle of
gas depends only upon _______ . conservation of energy.
4. In all natural processes, the entropy of the (b) It is applicable to cyclic processes
universe ____ . (c) It introduces the concept of entropy
5. Du + Dw = 0 is valid for _______ process. (d) It introduces the concept of internal energy
6. No heat flows between the system and 2. For an isochoric thermodynamic process.
surroundin g. Then the thermodynamic (a) DQ = DW (b) DQ = DU
process is _______ . (c) DU = DW (d) DU = 0
7. First operation involved in a car not cycle is 3. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot
_______ . cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs 6 kcal
8. A measure of the degree of disorder of a system at the higher temperature. The amount of heat
is known as _______ . (in kcal) converted into work is equal to
(a) 1.2 (b) 4.8
9. “Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower (c) 3.5 (d) 1.6
temperature to a body at higher temperature” is 4. Choose the incorrect statement related to an
a statement or consequence of _______ law of isobaric process.
thermodynamics.
V
True/ False : (a) = constant
T
1. Adiabatic system is thermally insulated from the (b) W = PDV
surroundings. (c) heat given to a system is used up in raising
2. Internal energy changes in isothermal process. the temperature only.
(d) DQ > W
3. The statement of Second law of 5. 110 joules of heat is added to a gaseous system,
thermodynamics, No process is possible whose whose internal energy is 40J; then the amount
sole result is the absorption of heat from a of external work done is
reservoir and complete conversion of heat into
work. (a) 150 J (b) 70 J
(c) 110 J (d) 40 J
4. A real engine has efficiency greater than that of
Carnot engine. 6. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
5. The combustion reaction of a mixture of petrol gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
and air ignited by a spark is irreversible. Cp
6. The leaking of a gas from the kitchen cylinder temperature. The ratio of for the gas is
cannot be reversed by itself. Cv
Thermodynamics P-63
5 14. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of

(a) 2 (b)
3 an ideal gas is (7/2) R. The ratio of specific heat at
constant pressure to that at constant volume is
3 4 (a) 8/7 (b) 5/7
(c) (d)
2 3 (c) 9/7 (d) 7/5
7. The internal energy of an ideal gas does not 15. During melting of ice, its entropy :
depend upon: (a) increases (b) decreases
(a) temperature of the gas (c) remains same (d) cannot increase
(b) pressure of the gas 16. Which of the following processes is adiabatic ?
(c) atomicity of the gas (a) Melting of ice
(d) number of moles of the gas. (b) Bursting of tyre
8. Mark the incorrect statement related to a cyclic (c) Motion of piston of an engine with
process.
constant speed
(a) the initial and final conditions always
coincide (d) None of these
(b) Q = W 17. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 50% has an
(c) W > 0 exhaust temperature of 500 K. If the efficiency is
(d) none of these to be 60% with the same intake temperature, the
9. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the exhaust temperature must be (in K)
resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat (a) 800 (b) 200
of ice to be 80 cal/°C, is (c) 400 (d) 600
(a) 273 cal/K (b) 8 × 104 cal/K 18. At a given temperature the internal energy of a
(c) 80 cal/K (d) 293 cal/K substance
10. During isothermal expansion, the slope of P-V (a) in liquid state is equal to that in gaseous
graph : state.
(a) decreases (b) in liquid state is less than that in gaseous
(b) increases state.
(c) remains same
(c) in liquid state is more than that in gaseous
(d) may increase or decrease.
11. In an adiabatic process, compressibility of the state.
gas is : (d) is equal for the three states of matter.
(a) constant 19. Air conditioner is based on the principle of
(b) directly proportional to its pressure. (a) Carnot cycle
(c) inversly proportional to its pressure (b) refrigerator
cp (c) first low of thermodynamics
(d) inversly proportiona to pg where γ =
G (d) none of these
12. If g be the ratio of specific heats of a perfect gas,
20. An ideal gas undergoing adiabatic change has
the number of degrees of freedom of a molecule
of the gas is the following pressure-temperature relationship
(a) P g -1T g = constant
25 3 g -1
(a) ( g - 1) (b) (b) P g T g -1 = constant
2 2 g -1
2 9 (c) P g T 1-g = constant
(c) (d) ( g - 1)
g -1 2 (d) P1-g T g = constant
13. The internal energy change in a system that
has absorbed 2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of
work is: 1. A thermodynamic system is taken through the
(a) 6400 J (b) 5400 J cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected
(c) 7900 J (d) 8900 J by the gas during the cycle is
P-64 PHYSICS
4. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken

D C by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.
2P
P B C
6×104 Pa
Pressure
P A B
2×104 Pa
A
V 3V
Volume
–
2 × 10 3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3
(a) 2 PV (b) 4 PV V
1 In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the
(c) PV (d) P V system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added
2
to the system. The heat absorbed by the system
2. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via in the process AC will be
three different processes as indicated in the P-V
(a) 500 J (b) 460 J
diagram
(c) 300 J (d) 380 J
5. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible
engine cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency
A 1 is
P 2
B T
3
2T0
V
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the T0
gas along the three processes and DU1, DU2,
DU3 indicate the change in internal energy along S
the three processes respectively, then S0 2S0
(a) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and DU1 = DU2 = DU3
1 1
(b) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1= DU2 = DU3 (a) (b)
4 2
(c) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and DU1 > DU2 > DU3
(d) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1> DU2 > DU3 2 1
(c) (d)
3. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic 3 3
process ABCDA as shown in fig. The work done
by the system in the cycle is Assertion/ Reason :
P C B
3P0 two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
2P0 of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
P0 D of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
A
V0 2V0 V a correct explanation for assertion.
(a) P0V0 (b) 2P0V0 is not a correct explanation for assertion
P0 V0 (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(c) (d) Zero (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
2
Thermodynamics P-65
1. Assertion : Zeroth law of thermodynamics Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes
explain the concept of energy. lowering of temperature and condensation of
Reason : Energy depends on temperature. water vapours.
2. Assertion: Mass of a body will increase when it 8. Assertion : The isothermal curves intersect each
is heated. other at a certain point.
Reason: The internal energy of a body increases Reason : The isothermal change takes place
on heating. slowly, so the isothermal curves have very little
3. Assertion: Heat cannot be added to a system slope
without increasing its temperature. 9. Assertion : The temperature of the surface of
Reason: Adding heat will increase the the sun is approximately 6000 K. If we take a
temperature in every situation. bigh lens and focus the sunrays, we can produce
4. Assertion : The heat supplied to a system is a temperature of 8000 K.
always equal to the increase in its internal energy. Reason : The highest temperature can be
Reason : When a system changes from one produced accor ding to secon d law of
thermal equilibrium to another, some heat is thermodynamics
absorbed by it.\ 10. Assertion : When a glass of hot milk is placed in
5. Assertion : In isothermal process whole of the a room and allowed to cool, its entropy decreases
heat energy supplied to the body is converted Reason : Allowing hot object to cool does not
into internal energy. violate the second law of thermodynamics.
Reason : According to the first law of 11. Assertion : Efficiency of a Carnot engine
thermodynamics increase on reducing the temperature of sink.
D Q = D U + W. Reason : Efficiency of a Carnot engine is defined
6. Assertion : First law of thermodynamics is a as the ratio of net mechanical work done per
restatement of the principle of conservation cycle by the gas to the amount of heat energy
Reason : Energy is fundamental quantity absorbed per cycle from the source.
7. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated
drink is opened a slight fog forms around the
opening.

1. Match columns I and II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Isothermal (1) DQ = 0
(B) Isobaric (2) Volume constant
(C) Isochoric (3) Pressure constant
(D) Adiabatic (4) Temperature constant
(a) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), D ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (3), D ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (4)
(A) The coefficient of volume expansion at (1) decrease in pressure
constant pressure
(B) At constant temperature, an increase in (2) at all temperature
volume results in
P-66 PHYSICS
(C) An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s and Charle’s law (3) same for all gases
(D) A real gas behaves as an ideal gas at (4) at high temperature
low pressure
(a) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), D – (4) (b) (A) – (4), (B) – (3), (C) – (2), D – (1)
(c) (A) – (1), (B) – (2), (C) – (3), (D) – (4) (d) (A) – (2), (B) – (4), (C) – (3), (D) – (1)
3. The P-V diagram of 0.2 mol of a diatomic ideal gas is shown in figure. Process BC is adiabatic, g = 1.4.
P B
Column I Column II
(A) DQAB (J) (1) 602
(B) DWBC (J) (2) – 644
(C) DUCA (J) (3) 1246 1 atm
A 455K C
(D) DUBC (J) (4) – 602 V
(a) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), D ® (2) (b) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (2), D ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (3, 4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 64P (b) 32P

P
1. The specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal (c) (d) 16P
5R 64
gas, C p = . The gas is kept in a closed vessel 5. A spring stores l J of energy for a compression
2
of volume 0.0083 m3 at 300 K and a pressure of of l mm. The additional work to be done to
1.6 × 106 N/m2. 2.49 × 104 J of heat energy is compress it further by l mm is
supplied to the gas. The final temperature and (a) l J (b) 2 J
the pressure respectively are (c) 3 J (d) 4 J
(a) 567.2 K and 6.3 × 106 N/m2 6. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a car engine as
(b) 675.2 K and 3.6 ×106 N/m2 the working substance. If during the adiabatic
(c) 275.2 K and 2.3 ×106 N/m2 expansion part of the cycle, volume of the gas
increases from V to 32 V, the efficiency of the
(d) 465.6 K and 4.2 × 106 N/m2 engine is
2. A mass of diatomic gas (g = 1.4) at a pressure of (a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so (c) 0.99 (d) 0.25
that its temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C.
7. In a Carnot engine, the temperature of reservoir
The pressure of the gas in final state is
is 927°C and that of sink is 27°C. If the work
(a) 28 atm (b) 68.7 atm done by the engine when it transfers heat from
(c) 256 atm (d) 8 atm reservoir to sink is 12.6 × 106J, the quantity of
3. A diatomic gas initially at 18ºC is compressed heat absorbed by the engine from the reservoir
adiabatically to one eighth of its original volume. is
The temperature after compression will be (a) 16.8 × 106 J (b) 4 × 106 J
(a) 18ºC (b) 668.4K (c) 7.6 × 10 J6 (d) 4.2 × 106 J
(c) 395.4ºC (d) 144ºC 8. If the energy input to a Carnot engine is thrice
4. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a the work it performs then, the fraction of energy
volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V rejected to the sink is
and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final 1 1
(a) (b)
5 3 4
pressure of the gas is : (take g = )
3 2 2
(c) (d)
5 3
12 Kinetic Theory
Fill in the Blanks : 7. Regarding the law of equipartition of energy, the
gas possess equal energies in all the three
1. The phenomenon of Browninan movement may directions x,y and z-axis.
be taken as the evidence of _______ .
2. When temperature is constant, the pressure of Conceptual MCQs
a given mass of gas varies inversely with
volume. This is the statement of _______ . 1. The kinetic theory of gases :
(a) explains the behaviour of an ideal gas.
3. The average kinetic energy per molecule of (b) describes the motion of a single atom or
any ideal gas is always equal to _______ . molecule.
4. In kinetic theory of gases, one assumes that (c) relates the temperature of the gas with K.E.
the collisions between the molecules are of atoms of the gas
_______ . (d) all of the above
5. The ratio of molar specific heat at constant 2. The ratio of principal molar heat capacities of a
pressure CP, to molar specific heat at constant gas is maximum for :
volume Cv for a monoatomic gas is _______. (a) a diatomic gas
6. The internal energy of an ideal gas is _____ of (b) a monoatomic gas
gas molecules. (c) a polyatomic gas having linear molecules.
7. A fly moving in a room has _______ degree of (d) a polyatomic gas having non-linear
freedom. molecules.
8. If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by 3. The correct statement of the law of equipartition
drawing out some gas, the mean-free path of of energy is
the molecules _______ . (a) the total energy of a gas is equally divided
among all the molecules.
True/ False : (b) The gas possess equal energies in all the
three directions x,y and z-axis.
1. On colliding in a closed container the gas (c) the total energy of a gas is equally divided
molecules transfer momentum to the walls. between kinetic and potential energies.
2. The average translational kinetic energy per (d) the total kinetic energy of a gas molecules
molecule of oxygen gas is 3 KT (K being is equally divided among translational and
Boltzmann constant). rotational kinetic energies.
3. The mean free path of molecules of gas is given 4. The internal energy of an ideal gas is :
kT
(a) The sum of total kinetic and potential
by l = energies.
2pd 2 p (b) The total translational kinetic energy.
4. For a gas there is distribution of velocities of (c) The total kinetic energy of randomly
the gas molecules. moving molecules.
5. The root mean square speed of the molecules in (d) The total kinetic energy of gas molecules.
a fixed mass of an ideal gas is increased by 5. The total degree of freedom of a CO 2 gas
increasing the pressure while keeping the volume molecule is
constant. (a) 3 (b) 6
6 CP – CV = R is true for monoatomic gases (c) 5 (d) 4
only.
P-68 PHYSICS
6. If Cs be the velocity of sound in air and C be the 14. The average velocity of molecules of gas is
r.m.s velocity, then given by:
(a) Cs < C (b) Cs = C 3RT 2RT
(c) Cs = C (g/3)1/2 (d) none of these (a) (b)
7. The pressure of a gas is raised from 27°C to 927°C. M M
The root mean square speed 8RT
(c) (d) Zero
(a) becomes (927 / 27) times the earlier value pM
15. Hydrogen gas and oxygen gas have volume
(b) remains the same 1cm3 each at NTP
(c) gets halved (i) Number of molecules is same in both the
(d) get doubled gases
8. For a certain gas the ratio of specific heats is (ii) The rms velocity of molecules of both the
given to be g = 1.5. For this gas gases is same.
(a) CV = 3R/J (b) CP = 3R/J (iii) The internal energy of each gas is same.
(c) CP = 5R/J (d) CV = 5R/J (iv) The average velocity of molecules of each
9. The correct relations is/are gas is same
1 R The correct options are :
(a) Cv = fR (b) Cv = (a) (i) & (ii) (b) (i), (iii) & (iv)
2 g -1
(c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (i), (ii) & (iii)
Cp 16. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a
(c) Cv = (d) all of these pressure P and temperature T, when occupying
g
a volume V, will be
10. In kinetic theory of gases, it is assumed that (a) PV = (5/16) RT (b) PV = (5/32) RT
molecules (c) PV = 5 RT (d) PV = (5/2) RT
(a) have same mass but can have different where R is the gas constant.
volume 17. At 10° C the value of the density of a fixed mass
(b) have same volume but mass can be of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At
different 110°C this ratio is:
(c) have different mass as well as volume
(d) have same mass but negligible volume. 383
(a) x (b) x
11. The amount of heat energy required to raise the 283
temperature of 1g of Helium at NTP, from T1K to
10 283
T2K is (c) x (d) x
110 383
3 3 18. The molar heat capacities of a mixture of two
(a) N k (T – T1) (b) N k (T – T1)
2 a B 2 4 a B 2 gases at constant volume is 13R/6. The ratio of
3 T 3 number of moles of the first gas to the second is
(c) NakB 2 (d) NakB(T2 – T1) 1 : 2. The respective gases may be
4 T1 8 (a) O2 and N2 (b) He and Ne
12. In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass (c) He and N2 (d) N2 and He
of all the molecules is halved and their speed is 19. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas requires
doubled, then the resultant pressure will be 207 J heat to raise the temperature by 10 K when
(a) 4P (b) 2P heated at constant pressure. If the same gas is
(c) P (d) P/2 heated at constant volume to raise the
13. Relation between pressure (P) and energy (E) of temperature by the same 10 K, the heat required
a gas is is [Given the gas constant R = 8.3 J/ mol. K]
2 1 (a) 198.7 J (b) 29 J
(a) P = E (b) P = E (c) 215.3 J (d) 124 J
3 3 20. Let v denote the rms speed of the molecules in
1 an ideal diatomic gas at absolute temperature T.
(c) P = E (d) P = 3E The mass of a molecule is ‘m’ Neglecting
2
vibrational energy terms, the false statement is :
Kinetic Theory P-69
(a) A molecule can have a speed greater

A
than 2v 5
(b) v is proportional to T
(c) The average rotational K.E. of a molecule is B
P(in kPa) 2
1 2
mv
4 5 2
(d) The average K.E. of a molecule is mv 4 6
6
Diagram Based Questions : V(in m3)
The change in internal energy of the gas during
1. The density (r)versus pressuure (P) of a given the transition is
mass of an ideal gas is shown at two
temperatures T1 and T2 (a) – 20 kJ (b) 20 J
(c) –12 kJ (d) 20 kJ
T1 4. The figure shows the volume V versus
temperature T graphs for a certain mass of a
T2 perfect gas at two constant pressures of P1 and
r P2 . What inference can you draw from the
graphs?
V P2
P
Then relation between T1 and T2 may be P1
q2
(a) T1 > T2
q1 T
(b) T2 > T1
(a) P1 > P2
(c) T1 = T2
(b) P1 < P2
(d) All the three are possible
(c) P1 = P2
2. The given P-V curve is predicted by
(d) No in ference can be drawn due to
insufficient information.
1.4
1.2 Assertion/ Reason :
1.0 T1 > T2 > T3
P 0.8
T1 two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
0.6 questions also has four alternative choices, only one
0.4 T2 of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
T3 of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
0.2
0 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
20 60 100 140 160 200 is a correct explanation for assertion.
V (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) Gaylussac’s law
3. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a
transition from A to B along a path AB as shown 1. Assertion: At low temperature and high
in the figure. pressure, the real gases obey more strictly the
gas equation PV = RT
Reason: At low temperature, the molecular
motion ceases and due to high pressure,
volume decreases and PV becomes constant.
P-70 PHYSICS
2. Assertion: One mole of any substance at any 6. Assertion : Each vibrational mode gives two
temperature or volume always contains 6.02 × degrees of freedom
1023 molecules. Reason : By law of equipartition of energy, the
Reason: One mole of a substance always energy for each degree of freedom in thermal
refers to S.T.P. conditions. equilibrium is 2kB T.
3. Assertion : The total translational kinetic 7. Assertion : Maxwell speed distribution graph
energy of all the molecules of a given mass of an is symmetric about most probable speed
ideal gas is 1.5 times the product of its pressure Reason : rms speed of ideal gas, depends upon
and its volume. it’s type (monoatomic, diatomic and polyatomic)
Reason : The molecules of a gas collide with 8. Assertion : Mean free path of a gas molecules
each other and the velocities of the molecules varies inversely as density of the gas.
change due to the collision. Reason : Mean free path varies inversely as
4. Assertion : When we place a gas cylinder on a pressure of the gas.
moving train, its internal kinetic energy increases. 9. Assertion : A gas can be liquified at any
Reason : Its temperature remains constant. temperature by increase of pressure alone.
5. Assertion : If a gas container in motion is Reason : On increasing pressure the temperature
suddenly stopped, the temperature of the gas of gas decreases.
rises.
Reason : The kinetic energy of ordered
mechanical motion is converted in to the kinetic
energy of random motion of gas molecules.

1. Match the Column I and II.
Column I Column II
(A) P µ T (1) Ideal gas equation
(B) V µ T (2) Boyle’s law
(C) PV = K B NT (3) Charle’s law
(D) P = nRT / M (4) V - Constant
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (2)
2. Match Column I (Physical Variables) with Column II (Expressions) . (n = number of gas molecules present
per unit volume, k = Boltzmann constant, T = absolute temperature, m = mass of the particle) :
Column I Column II
(A) Most probable velocity (1) nkT
(B) Energy per degree of freedom (2) Ö (3kT / m)
(C) Pressure (3) Ö (2kT / m)
(D) R.M.S. velocity (4) kT / 2
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (2)
Kinetic Theory P-71
(A) Average speed vav (1 ) 3RT

M
(B) Root mean square speed vrms (2 ) 8RT

pM
(C) Most probable speed vmp (3 ) g Rt

M
(4 )
2RT
(D) Speed of sound vsound
M
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(A) An ideal gas obeys gas equation (1) with decrease in pressure
(B) A real gas behaves as an ideal gas at low (2) at all temperature pressure
(C) Mean free path of molecules increases (3) at high temperature
(D) Charle’s law (4) pressure constant
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (4)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : æ 5ö

5. If one mole of monoatomic gas ç g = ÷ is mixed
è 3ø
1. If two vessels A and B contain the same gas but æ 7ö
the volume of vessel A is twice that of B and with one mole of diatomic gas ç g = ÷ , the value
è 5ø
temperature and pressure of gas A is twice that of g for the mixture is
of gas in B, then the ratio of gas molecules in A (a) 1.40 (b) 1.50
and B is (c) 1.53 (d) 3.07
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4 6. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 constant pressure and volume are denoted by
2. P, V, T respectively denote pressure, volume and Cp
temperature of two gases. On mixing, new Cp and Cv, respectively. If g = and R is the
temperature and volume are respectively T and Cv
universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to
V. Final pressure of the mixture is
(a) P (b) 2P
R ( g - 1)
(c) zero (d) 3P (a) (b)
3. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The ( g - 1) R
specific heat capacity of the gas at constant 1+ g
(c) gR (d)
volume is 5.0JK-1. If the speed of sound in this 1- g
gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the heat capacity at 7. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal
constant pressure is gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific
(Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1) heats g. It is moving with speed v and it suddenly
(a) 7.5 JK-1 mol-1 (b) 7.0 JK-1 mol-1 brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the
-1
(c) 8.5 JK mol -1 (d) 8.0 JK-1 mol-1 surroundings, its temperature increases by
4. The temperature at which oxygen molecules have ( g –1) gMv 2
(a) Mv 2 K (b) K
the same root mean square speed as that of 2gR 2R
hydrogen molecules at 300 K is
(a) 600 K (b) 2400 K ( g – 1) (g –1)
(c) Mv 2 K (d) Mv 2 K
(c) 4800 K (d) 300 K 2R 2( g + 1) R
P-72 PHYSICS
13 Oscillations
Fill in the Blanks : (a) increase
(b) decrease
1. A periodic to-and-fro motion is called _______ (c) remain same
motion. (d) increase if the child is tall and decrease if
2. A simple harmonic motion is represented by y (t) the child is short.
= 10 sin (20t + 0.5). The frequency is _______ . 2. In case of forced vibrations, the resonance wave
3. A child swinging on swing in sitting position, become very sharp when the
stands up.
(a) applied periodic force is small
The time period of the swing will _______ .
(b) quality factor is small
4. The graph plotted between the velocity and
displacement from mean position of a particle (c) damping force is small
executing SHM is a/an _____. (d) restoring force is small
5. The ratio of energies of oscillations of two exactly 3. What is the time period of a pendulum hanged
identical pendulums oscillating with amplitudes in a satellite?
5 cm and 10 cm is _______ . (T is time period of the pendulum on the earth)
6. The tension in the string of a simple pendulum (a) Zero (b) T
is __________ at the mean position. T
7. If a body oscillates at angular frequency wd of (c) (d) Infinity
the driving force, then the oscillations are called 6
_______ . 4. A particle executing S.H.M. has amplitude 0.01m
8. The acceleration of a particle is S.H.M. is ______ and frequency 60 Hz. The maximum acceleration
at the extreme position. of the particle is
(a) 144 p2 m/s2 (b) 120 p2 m/s2
True/ False : (c) 80 p m/s
2 2 (d) 60 p2 m/s2
1. In SHM, the acceleration of the body is in the 5. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion,
direction of velocity of the body. which of the following statements is not correct?
2. KE becomes maximum twice and PE becomes (a) Total energy of the particle always remains
maximum once in one vibration. same
3. In sitar, guitar the strings vibrate and produce (b) Restoring force is always directed towards
sound. a fixed point
4. In solids, atoms oscillate to produce the (c) Restoring force is maximum at the extreme
temperature sensation. position.
5. Time period of a spring mass system depends (d) Acceleration of the particle is maximum at
on spring constant. the equilibrium position.
6. A system exhibiting S.H.M. must possess 6. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced
elasticity as well as inertia. by wooden bob of same size, then its time period
will
Conceptual MCQs (a) increase
(b) decrease
1. A child swinging on swing in sitting position (c) remains same
stands up. The time period of the swing will : (d) may increase or decrease
Oscillations P-73
7. Two simple harmonic motions act on a particle. n

These harmonic motions are x = A cos (wt + d ), y (a) (b) 4n
p 4
= A cos (wt + a) when d = a + , the resulting
2 n
motion is (c) (d) 2n
2
(a) a circle and the actual motion is clockwise 13. The time period of second’s pendulum is :
(b) an ellipse and the actual motion is (a) 1s (b) 2s
counterclockwise (c) 4s (d) 8s
(c) an elllipse and the actual motion is clockwise 14. The potential energy of a long spring when
(d) a circle and the actual motion is counter stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched
clockwise by 8 cm, the potential energy stored in it is
8. The time period of a simple pendulum is 2 (a) 8 U (b) 16 U
seconds. If its length is increased by 4-times, (c) U/ 4 (d) 4 U
then its period becomes 15. A simple pendulumn oscillates with a frequency
(a) 16 s (b) 12 s f. The frequency with which its K.E. varies is :
(c) 8 s (d) 4 s f
(a) f (b)
9. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given 2
p (c) 2 f (d) 4 f
by y = 3sin (50t - x) 16. At resonance, the frequency of periodic force :
2 (a) must be equal to th e frequen cy of
Where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds. oscillations.
The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the (b) must be less than the frequency of
wave velocity is oscillations
3 (c) must be greater than the frequency of
(a) 2p (b) p oscillations.
2
(d) may be equal to the frequency of
2 oscillations.
(c) 3p (d) p
3 17. A rod is hinged vertically at one end and is forced
10. The particle executing simple harmonic motion to oscillate in a vertical plane with hinged end at
the top, the motion of the rod:
has a kinetic energy K0 cos2 wt . The maximum (a) is simple harmonic
values of the potential energy and the total (b) is oscillatory but not simple harmonic
energy are respectively (c) is pericolic but not oscillatory
(a) K0/2 and K0 (b) K0 and 2K0 (d) may be simple harmonic
(c) K0 and K0 (d) 0 and 2K0. 18. The superposition of two mutually perpendicular
11. Which of the following is a simple harmonic simple harmonic motions having same amplitude
motion?
π
(a) particle moving through a string fixed at and a phase difference of results into :
both ends. 2
(b) wave moving through a string fixed at both (a) a circle
ends. (b) an ellipse
(c) earth spinning about its axis. (c) simple harmonic motion
(d) ball bouncing between two rigid vertical (d) none of these
walls. 19. The necessary and sufficient condition for
12. A mass m is vertically suspended from a spring simple harmonic motion is :
of negligible mass; the system oscillates with a (a) constant acceleration
frequency n. What will be the frequency of the (b) constant time period
system, if a mass 4 m is suspended from the (c) constant amplitude
same spring? (d) restoring force directly proportional to
displacement
P-74 PHYSICS
20. The phase difference between the instantaneous y

velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion is
(a) p (b) 0.707 p a T
t
(c) zero (d) 0.5 p O

T T
1. The displacement vs time of a particle executing (a) (b)
SHM is shown in figure. The initial phase f is 2 4
3T 3T
(c) (d)
4 2
5. The graph shown in figure represents
Velocity
p 3p
(a) -p < f < - (b) p<f<
2 2
–a O +a Displacement
3p p
(c) – < f < –p (d) <f<p
2 2
2. The acceleration of a particle undergoing SHM (a) S.H.M.
is graphed in figure. At point 2 the velocity of (b) circular motion
the particle is (c) rectillinear motion
(d) uniform circular motion
6. For a particle executing SHM the displacement x
is given by x = A cos wt. Identify the graph which
represents the variation of potential energy (P.E.)
as a function of time t and displacement x.
(a) zero (b) negative

(c) positive (d) None of these
3. For the given figure
Y (a) I, III (b) II, IV
M (c) II, III (d) I, IV
P
y a
q 7. What do you conclude from the graph about
wt the frequency of KE, PE and SHM ?
X¢ O f0 N X
Energy
Total energy
A
A B
Y¢
(a) y = a sin wt (b) y = a sin (wt – f0) PE KE
(c) y = a cos wt (d) y = a cos (wt – f0)
4. In the given displacement time curve for SHM at
what value of t is the amplitude negative? 0 t
T/4 2T/4 3T/4 4T/4
Oscillations P-75
(a) Frequency of KE and PE is double the Reason : Sinusoidal functions repeats its values
frequency of SHM after a difinite interval of time
(b) Frequency of KE and PE is four times the 2. Assertion : In simple harmonic motion, the
frequency SHM. motion is to and fro and periodic
(c) Frequency of PE is double the frequency Reason : Velocity of the particle
of K.E.
(d) Frequency of KE and PE is equal to the ( v) = w k 2 - x 2 (where x is the displacement).
frequency of SHM. 3. Assertion : The graph of total energy of a
8. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a particle in SHM w.r.t. position is a straight line
hollow sphere containing mercury suspended with zero slope.
by means of a wire. If a little mercury is drained Reason : Total energy of particle in SHM remains
off, the period of pendulum will constant throughout its motion.
4. Assertion : In a S.H.M. kinetic and potential
energies become equal when the displacement
is 1/ 2 times the amplitude.
Reason : In SHM, kinetic energy is zero when
potential energy is maximum.
5. Assertion : The periodic time of a hard spring is
less as compared to that of a soft spring.
Reason : The periodic time depends upon the
(a) remain unchanged (b) increase spring constant, and spring constant is large for
(c) decrease (d) become erratic hard spring.
Assertion/ Reason : 6. Assertion : Damped oscillation indicates loss
of energy.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains Reason : The energy loss in damped oscillation
may be due to friction, air resistance etc.
7. Assertion : Resonance is special case of forced
vibration in which the natural frequency of
vibration of the body is the same as the
impressed frequency of external periodic force
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is and the amplitude of forced vibration is maximum
a correct explanation for assertion. Reason : The amplitude of forced vibrations of a
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason body increases with an increase in the frequency
is not a correct explanation for assertion of the externally impressed periodic force.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 8. Assertion: Pendulum clock will gain time on the
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. mountain top.
1. Assertion : Sine and cosine functions are Reason: On the mountain top the length of the
periodic functions. pendulum will decrease and T µ l , so it will
also decrease.

P-76 PHYSICS
1. Match the column I and column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Max. positive displacement (1) 0
T
(B) Max. positive velocity (2)
2
T
(C) Min. acceleration (3)
4
(D) Max. positive acceleration (4) T
3T
(E) Min. displacement (5)
4
(a) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (5), (E) ® (1)
(b) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (5), (D) ® (3), (E) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (5), (B) ® (1, 4), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (5), (E) ® (1, 2, 4)
(d) (A) ® (1, 3), (B) ® (3, 4), (C) ® (5), (D) ® (1, 2), (E) ® (5, 4)
2. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a straight line under the action of force F = (8 – 2x) N. The particle is
released at rest from x = 6m. For the subsequent motion match the following (All the values in the column
II are in their S.I. units)
Column I Column II
(A) Equilibrium position at x (1) p/4
(B) Amplitude of SHM is (2) p/2
(C) Time taken to go directly from x = 2 to x = 4 (3) 4
(D) Energy of SHM is (4) 2
(a) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (3)
3. A block of mass m is projected towards a spring with velocity v0. The force constant of the spring is k.
The block is projected from a distance l from the free end of the spring. The collision between block and
the wall is completely elastic. Match the following columns :
k
v0
l
Column-I Column-II
kv 02
(A) Maximum compression of the spring (1) –
m
mv0 2
(B) Energy of oscillations of block (2)
k
1
(C) Time period of oscillations (3) mv 02
2
é 2l mù
(D) Maximum acceleration of the block (4) ê +p ú
v
ë 0 k û
(a) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
Oscillations P-77
2
d2y d y
(A) 2 = v2 dx2 (1) Resonant vibration
dt
d2y
(B) + w2y = 0 (2) Free vibration
dt 2
d2y dy
(C) + 2k + w2y = 0 (3) Damped vibration
dt 2 dt
d2y dy
(D) 2 + 2k + w2y = F sin pt (4) Forced vibration
dt dt
(5) Progressive wave
(a) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2, 4), (D) ® (5)
(b) (A) ® (1, 3), (B) ® (2, 5), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4, 5)
(c) (A) ® (5), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (1, 4)
(d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
(A) Motion of a satellite (1) Damped oscillations
(B) Motion of a simple pendulum (2) Resonant oscillations
(C) Oscillation of stretched string in air (3) Periodic motion
(D) Flying off of a paper rider placed on the (4) Simple harmonic motion
stretched string
(a) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (2)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes

rd
1. A point mass oscillates along the x-axis æ 1ö
çè ÷ø in 2 seconds. If its amplitude after 6
according to the law x = x0 cos(wt - p / 4) . If the 3
acceleration of the particle is written as 1
seconds is times the original amplitude, the
a = A cos(wt + d) , then n
value of n is
(a) A = x0w2, d = 3p / 4 (b) A = x0 , d = – p / 4
(c) A = x0w2, d = p / 4 (d) A = x0w2, d = –p / 4 (a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 3 3 (d) 23
2. A particle at the end of a spring executes S.H.M 5. A pendulum of time period 2 s on earth is taken
to another planet whose mass and diameter are
with a period t1 , while the corresponding period twice that of earth. Then its time period on the
for another spring is t2. If the period of oscillation planet is (in second)
with the two springs in series is T then 1
1
-1 -1 -1 (a) (b) 2 2 (c) (d) 2
(a) T = t1 + t 2 (b) T 2 = t12 + t 22 2 2
6. A pendulum with time period of 1s is losing
(c) T = t1 + t2 (d) T -2 = t1-2 + t -22 energy due to damping. At certain time its energy
3. The length of a simple pendulum executing is 45 J. If after completing 15 oscillations, its
simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%. energy has become 15 J, its damping constant
The percentage increase in the time period of (in s–1) is :
the pendulum of increased length is 1 1
(a) 11% (b) 21% (a) (b) ln3
2 30
(c) 42% (d) 10%
1
(c) 2 (d) ln3
15
P-78 PHYSICS
14 Waves
Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs :

1. The waves associated with th e moving 1. Frequencies of sound produced from an organ
fundamental particles are called _______ waves. pipe open at both ends are
2. The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of (a) only fundamental note
sound is called _______ . (b) only even harmonics
3. Standing waves in a string are due to _______ (c) only odd harmonics
of waves. (d) even and odd harmonics
4. Two waves are said to be coherent, if they have 2. The fundamental frequency of an organ pipe is
_______ . 512Hz. If its length is increased, then frequency
5. The notes of frequencies which are integral will :
multiple of the fundamental frequencies are (a) decrease (b) increase
called _______ . (c) remains same (d) cannot be predicted
6. Doppler's effect in sound takes place when 3. Two sound waves having a phase difference of
source and observer are in _______ motion. 60º have path difference of
7. Two sound waves of slightly different l
frequencies propagating in the same direction (a) 2 l (b)
2
produce beats due to _______ .
l
8. Frequencies of sound produced from an organ (c) l (d)
pipe closed at one end are _______ harmonics 3 6
only. 4. A sounding horn is rotating rapidly in a
horizontal circle, the apparent frequency of the
True/ False : horn observed at the centre of the circle will
be :
1. Waves are patterns of disturbance which move (a) same as the actual frequency
without the actual physical transfer of flow of (b) less than the actual frequency
matter as a whole. (c) more than the actual frequency
2. Waves cannot transport energy. (d) sometimes more than and sometimes less
3. Mechanical waves transfer energy and matter than the actual frequency.
both from one point to another. 5. A star emitting light of green colour is
4. A series of wave pulse is called wave train. approaching the earth with a uniform
5. In a closed organ pipe, closed at one end, acceleration, its colour as seen from earth will :
longitudinal standing waves are present. (a) appear green
(b) turn gradually yellow
6. The harmonics which are present in a pipe, open (c) turn gradually blue
at both ends are odd harmonics only. (d) turn gradually red.
7. Change in frequency due to Doppler effect will 6. The property of a medium necessary for wave
be positive if the distance between source and propagation is :
listener increases. (a) inertia (b) elasticity
(c) low resistance (d) all of these
Waves P-79
7. An observer moves towards a stationary source (c) shock waves

of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of (d) none of these
sound. The wavelength and frequency of the 14. A wave y = a sin (wt – kx) on a string meets with
sound emitted are l and f respectively. The another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
apparent frequency and wavelength recorded the equation of the unknown wave is :
by the observer are respectively. (a) y = a sin (wt + kx)
(a) 0.8f, 0.8l (b) 1.2f, 1.2l (b) y = – a sin(wt + kx)
(c) 1.2f, l (d) f, 1.2l (c) y = a sin (wt – kx)
8. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is (d) y = – a sin (wt – kx)
p 15. Two sound waves of equal intensity I produce
represented by y ( x, t ) = 8.0 sin(0.5px - 4 pt - ) beats. The maximum intensity of sound produced
4 in beats will be :
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The (a) I (b) 2I
speed of the wave is (c) 3I (d) 4I
p 16. The time taken by a particle in reaching from
(a) 0.5 p m/s (b) m/s trough to crest in a transverse wave is :
4
(c) 8 m/s (d) 4p m/s T T
9. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The (a) (b)
4 2
wave travels in the + ve direction of x axis with
a speed of 128 m/sec and it is noted that 5 3T
(c) (d) T
complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. 4
The equation describing the wave is 17. Doppler’s effect is used for finding :
(a) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x – 2010t) (a) the rotation of the sun
(b) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x + 2010t) (b) the double star
(c) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x – 1005t) (c) the saturn ring
(d) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t) (d) all the above
10. Two sources P and Q produce notes of
2p
frequency 660 Hz each. A listener moves from P 18. From a wave equation: y = 0.5sin (64t - x ),
to Q with a speed of 1 ms–1. If the speed of 3.2
sound is 330 m/s, then the number of beats heard the frequency of the wave is
by the listener per second will be (a) 5 Hz (b) 15 Hz
(a) zero (b) 4 (c) 20 Hz (d) 25 Hz
(c) 8 (d) 2 19. Two pulses on a stretched string whose centres
11. Two sources of sound placed close to each other are initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each
are emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4 other as shown in the figure. When the pulses
sin 600 pt and y2 = 5 sin 608 pt. An observer located overlap, the total energy of the pulses will be :
near these two sources of sound will hear :
(a) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio
25 : 16 between waxing and waning.
(b) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio
25 : 16 between waxing and waning 8 cm
(c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio (a) zero
81 : 1 between waxing and waning (b) purely kinetic
(d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio (c) purely potential
81 : 1 between waxing and waning (d) partly kinetic and partly potential
12. The property of liquid which enables transverse 20. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in
wave to propagate on the surface of the liquid is its first overtone and another pipe P2, open at
(a) bulk modulus (b) viscosity both ends vibrating in its third overtone are in
(c) surface tension (d) all of these resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of
13. Doppler’s effect is not applicable for: lengths of P1 and P2 respectively are given by
(a) audio waves (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(b) electromagnetic waves (c) 3 : 8 (d) 3 : 4
P-80 PHYSICS
21. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes y

is formed between two atoms having a distance
1.21 Å between them. The wavelength of the
standing wave is
(a) 1.21 Å (b) 2.42 Å
(c) 6.05 Å (d) 3.63 Å x
22. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both
ends, then which of the following statements is
not true ?
(a) Odd harmonics of the fundamental
frequency will be generated
(b) All h armonics of the fundamental (a) (b)
frequency will be generated
(c) Pressure change will be maximum at both
ends
(c) (d)
(d) Antinode will be at open end
23. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 3. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres
5.5m respectively, each propagate in a gas with are initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each
velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following number other as shown in the figure. The speed of each
of beats per second pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 s, the total energy of the
(a) 0 (b) 1 pulses will be
(c) 6 (d) 12
24. A source and an observer move away from each
other, with a velocity of 10m/s with respect to
ground. If the observer finds the frequency of 8 cm
sound coming from the source as 1950 Hz, then (a) Zero
original frequency of source is (velocity of sound (b) Purely kinetic
in air = 340 m/s) (c) Purely potential
(a) 1950 Hz (b) 2068 Hz (d) Partly kinetic and partly potential
(c) 2132 Hz (d) 2486 Hz 4. For the graph given below for superposition of
two waves, which of the following holds true?
Diagram Based Questions : y
1. If the source is moving towards right, wave front

of sound waves get modified to
x
(a) (b)
(a) Phase difference, f = 0

p
(b) Phase difference, f =
2
(c) Phase difference, f = p
(c) (d) None of these
(d) Phase difference, f = 2p
5. The fifth harmonic for vibrations of a stretched
2. For the graph given, the resultant wave will be string is shown in figure. How many nodes are
present here?
Waves P-81
Reason : Elastic and inertial properties of string

are same for all waves in same string. Moreover
(a) 4 (b) 6 speed of wave in a string depends on its elastic
(c) 5 (d) 10 and inertial properties only.
6. What will be the frequency of beats formed from 3. Assertion: Explosions on other planets are not
the superposition of two harmonic waves shown heard on Earth.
below? Reason: Sound waves cannot travel to a far off
y distance
1.0 4. Assertion: Two astronauts can talk to each other
0 on moon through microphone.
t(s) Reason: Microphone can convert their sound
–1.0 (a) signals into transverse waves which can travel
y even in vacuum.
5. Assertion : The base of Laplace correction was
1.0
that exchange of heat between the region of
0
t(s) compression and rarefaction in air is negligible.
–1.0 (b) Reason : Air is bad conductor of heat and
velocity of sound in air is quite large.
(a) 20 Hz (b) 11 Hz 6. Assertion : On reflection from a rigid boundary
(c) 9 Hz (d) 2 Hz there takes place a complete reversal of phase.
Assertion/ Reason : Reason: On reflection from a denser medium,
both the particle velocity and wave velocity are
reversed in sign.
7. Assertion : In the case of a stationary wave, a
person hear a loud sound at the nodes as
compared to the antinodes.
Reason : In a stationary wave all the particles of
the medium vibrate in phase.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is 8. Assertion : Speed of mechanical wave in the
a correct explanation for assertion. medium depends on the velocity of source,
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason relative to an observer at rest.
is not a correct explanation for assertion Reason : Speed of mechanical wave is
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect independent of the elastic and other properties
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. such as mass density of the medium.
1. Assertion : Sound wave is an example of 9. Assertion : Doppler formula for sound wave is
longitudinal wave. symmetric with respect to the speed of source
Reason : In longitudinal waves, the constituents and speed of observer.
of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the Reason : Motion of source with respect to
direction of wave propagation. stationary observer is not equivalent to the
2. Assertion : Two waves moving in a uniform motion of an observer with respect to stationary
string having uniform tension cannot have source.
different velocities.

P-82 PHYSICS
1. Match the Columns I and II.

Column I Column II
(A) A region of low pressure and low density (1) Particles oscillate at right angle
(B) A region of high pressure and high density (2) Particles oscillate in the same direction
(C) Longitudinal wave (3) Compression
(D) Transverse wave (4) Rarefaction
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (2)
(A) Mechanical waves (1) Disturbance for short time
(B) Pulse (2) Independent of amplitude of vibrations
(C) Velocity of sound in air (3) SONAR
(D) Tracking of fish in ocean (4) Require a material medium
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (2)
(A) y = 4 sin (5x – 4t) + 3 cos (4t – 5x + p/6) (1) Particles at every position are performing
SHM
æ x ö æ x ö
(B) y = 10cos ç t - ÷ sin (100) ç t - ÷ (2) Equation of travelling wave
è 330 ø è 330 ø
(C) y = 10 sin (2px – 120t) + 10 cos (120t + 2px) (3) Equation of standing wave
(D) y = 10 sin (2px – 120t) + 8 cos (118t – 59/30px) (4) Equation of Beats
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(d) (A) ® (1,2) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1,3) ; (D) ® (4)
(A) Sound (1) Frequency
(B) SONAR (2) Mechanical wave
(C) Reflection of sound (3) Finding depth of the sea
(D) Pitch (4) Echo
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (1)
(A) Pitch (1) Waveform
(B) Quality (2) Frequency
(C) Loudness (3) Intensity
(D) Nodes (4) Position of zero amplitude
(a) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(A) Change in apparent frequency due to the (1) Beats
relative motion between source and listner
(B) Intensity of sound varies with (2) Transverse Wave
(C) Sound waves in air (3) Doppler’s effect
(D) Light waves (4) Longitudinal wave
Waves P-83
(a) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (1)
(c) (A)® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
7. Source has frequency f. Source and observer both have same speed. For the apparent frequency observed
by observer match the following.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Observer is approaching the source (1) More than f
but source is receding from the observer
(B) Observer and source both (2) Less than f
approaching towards each other
(C) Observer and source both (3) Equal to f
receding from each other
(D) Source is approaching but (4) Infinite
observer is receding
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A)® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 188.5 Hz (b) 178.2 Hz

(c) 200.5 Hz (d) 770 Hz
1. A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin 5. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ
( w t – kx). For what value of the wavelength is pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second
the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends.
velocity? The length of organ pipe open at both the ends
pA is
(a) (b) p A (a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm
2
(c) 2pA (d) A (c) 140 cm (d) 80 cm
2. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can 6. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car
æ pö driver sounds a horn of frequency f. The
be expressed as, y = 10-6 sin ç100t + 20 x + ÷ m reflected sound heard by the driver has as
è 4ø
frequency 2f. If v be the velocity of sound, then
where t is in second and x in meter. The speed of the velocity of the car, in the same velocity units,
the wave is will be
(a) 20 m/s (b) 5 m/s (a) v /2 (b) v /Ö2
(c) 2000 m/s (d) 5p m/s (c) v /3 (d) v /4
3. A sonometer wire supports a 4 kg load and 7. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a
vibrates in fundamental mode with a tuning fork stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000
of frequency 416 Hz. The length of the wire Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets
between the bridges is now doubled. reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency
In order to maintain fundamental mode, the load of the echo as detected by the driver of the train
should be changed to is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)
(a) 1 kg (b) 2 kg
(a) 3500 Hz (b) 4000 Hz
(c) 4 kg (d) 16 kg
4. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. (c) 5000 Hz (d) 3000 Hz
The tension in it produces an elastic strain of
1%. What is the fundamental frequency of steel
if density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 × 103 kg/
m3 and 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 respectively ?
P-84 PHYSICS
15 Electric Charges
and Fields
Fill in the Blanks : If high energy X-ray beam falls on the ball, the
ball will be deflected in the direction of the field.
1. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then 4. Total flux linked with a closed body, not enclosing
its radius _______ . any charge will be zero.
2. The electric field created by a point charge falls 5. Electric fields lines start from negative charge
with distance from the point charge as ______ . and end at positive charge.
3. Quantisation of charge was experimentally
6. Electric field lines form closed loops.
demonstrated by _______ .
r 7. At the centre of the line joining two equal and
4. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a
opposite charge, electric field E = 0
r
uniform electric field E , then torque acting on Conceptual MCQs :
it is given by _______ .
5. The total electric flux emanating from a closed 1. An electric charge, + Q is placed on the
surface of a solid, conduction sphere of radius
surface enclosing an a-particle is (e-electronic
a. The distance measured from the centre of
charge) _______ .
the sphere is denoted as r. Then
6. The electric field inside a spherical shell of
(a) the charge gets distributed uniformly
ur
uniform surface charge density is _______ .
through the volume of the sphere
7. When an electric dipole P is placed in a
ur (b) The electrostatic potential has the same
uniform electric field E then at angle _______ value for r < a
ur ur (c) an equal and opposite charge gets induce
between P and E the value of torque will be
maximum. in the bottom half of the sphere
8. The law, governing the force between electric (d) the electric field is given by
charges is known as _______ . 1/(4p Î0 r2 ) for r < a
True/ False : 2. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a
1. The work done in carrying a point charge from hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
r
one point to another in an electrostatic field Coulomb force F between the two is
depends on the path along which the point
charge is carried. æ 1 ö
çè where K = 4pe ÷ø
2. Two identical metallic spheres of exactly equal 0
masses are taken. One is given a positive charge
and the other an equal negative charge. Their e2 r e2
(a) K r (b) K rˆ
masses after charging are different. r3 r2
3. A small metal ball is suspended in a uniform
electric field with the help of an insulated thread. e2 e2 r
(c) - K 3
rˆ (d) - K r
r r3
Electric Charges and Fields P-85
3. A charge q is placed at O in the cavity in a (a) + 50 e, – 200 e (b) – 50 e, – 100 e

spherical uncharged conductor. Point S is (c) – 50 e, – 150 e (d) – 50 e, + 100 e
outside the conductor.
7. The total positive charge in a glass of water
If the charge is displaced from O towards S, still
containing 180 g of water is approximately :
remaining
(a) 1.0 × 107 coulomb
(b) 6.03 × 107 coulomb
(c) 1.80 × 107 coulomb
(d) 1.20 × 107 coulomb
3R
8. The electric field at a distance from the
2
within the cavity, electric field at S will centre of a charged conducting spherical shell
(a) increase of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance
(b) decrease R
(c) first increase and then decrease from the centre of the sphere is
2
(d) not change
E
4. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length (a) (b) zero
2
10 cm and having a charge of 500 mC, at a point
on the axis at a distance 20 cm from one of the E
(c) E (d)
charges in air, is 2
(a) 6.25 × 107 N/C (b) 9.28 × 107 N/C 9. Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at
(c) 13.1 × 10 N/C (d) 20.5 × 107 N/C
11 points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and
5. Four charges are rigidly fixed along the Y-axis as (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude
shown. A positive charge approaches the system and direction of the electric dipole moment
along the X-axis with initial speed just enough vector of this charge assembly are
to cross the origin. Then its total energy at the (a) 2qa along the line joining points
origin is –
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(b) qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0,
y
z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
2 2q (c) 2qa along +ve x direction

–q
(d) 2qa along +ve y direction
v Q x 10. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within
–1 –q
i. If f is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
–2 2q
associated with the curved surface B, the flux
linked with the plane surface A in units of
(a) zero (b) positive voltmeter will be
(c) negative (d) data insufficient
B
6. A ball of charge + 50e lies at the centre of a
hollow spherical metal shell that has a net charge C A
of – 150e. The charge on the inner surface and
outer surface of the spherical shell is :
P-86 PHYSICS
distance 3 cm is placed in an electric field of

q f
(a) (b)
2e0 3 2 ´ 10 5 N/C. Torque acting on the dipole is
(a) 12 ´ 10 -1 N - m (b) 12 ´ 10 -2 N - m
q 1æ q ö
(c) -f (d) ç - f÷
e0 2 è e0 ø (c) 12 ´ 10 -3 N - m (d) 12 ´ 10 -4 N - m
ur 17. The point charge Q and – 2Q are placed of some
11. An electric dipole of moment p is lying along a distance apart. If the electric field at the location
uniform electric field E . The work done in of Q is E. Then the electric field at the location of
– 2 Q will be
rotating the dipole by 90° is
(a) – 2 E (b) – E
pE
(a) (b) 2 p E 5E E
2 (c) - (d) -
2 2
(c) p E (d) 2 pE 18. Two charges of magnitude q and Q – q are placed
12. A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. at a distance d from each other force between
The electric flux through any face is them would be maximum if :
(a) q = Q/3 (b) q = – Q/2d
q 2pq
(a) (b) (c) q = 2Q (d) q = Q/2
6(4pe 0 ) 6(4pe 0 ) 19. The electric field strength at a distance r from a
charge q is E. What will be electric field strength
4pq pq
(c) (d) if the distance of the observation point is
6(4pe 0 ) 6(4pe 0 ) increased to 2 r?
13. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is (a) E/2 (b) E/4
4 × 10–8 m. The electric field which can give on (c) E/6 (d) none of the above
an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the 20. The surface density on the copper sphere is s.
The electric field strength on the surface of the
metal will be in units of V/m
sphere is
(a) 5 × 10–11 (b) 8 × 10–11 (a) s (b) s/2
(c) 5 × 10 7 (d) 8 × 107 (c) s / 2 eo (d) s / eo
14. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at
rest in a uniform electric field E and then released.
The kinetic energy attained by the particle after 1. The figure shows a charge + q at point P held in
moving a distance y is equilibrium in air with the help of four + q charges
(a) qEy2 (b) qE2 y situated at the vertices of a square. The net
electrostatic force on p is given by
(c) qEy (d) q2 Ey
15. A point charge +q is placed at mid point of a +q
cube of side ‘L’. The electric flux emerging from
the cube is
2
(a) q (b) 6 q L +q +q
e0 e0
q p
(c) (d) zero +q
2
6 L e0 +q
16. An electric dipole, consisting of two opposite (a) Gauss’s law (b) Coulomb’s law
charges of 2 ´ 10 -6 C each separated by a (c) Principle of superposition
(d) net electric flux out the position of +q.
2. A metal sphere is being charged by induction 4. Figure shows some of the electric field lines
using a charged rod, but the sequence of corresponding to an electric field. The figure
diagrams showing the process misplaced. suggests that
I. II. A B C
Charged
rod Ground
(a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC

III. IV. (c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB
5. In the figure the net electric flux through the area
r r
A is f = E × A when the system is in air. On
immersing the system in water the net electric
flux through the area
V.
Correct order of charging is Q

(a) I ® II ® III ® IV ® V
(b) V ® II ® III ® I ® IV
A
(c) V ® II ® I ® III ® IV
(d) IV ® II ® III ® I ® V
3. In the figure, charge q is placed at origin O. When
the charge q is displaced from its position the (a) becomes zero (b) remains same
electric field at point P changes (c) increases (d) decreases
y 6. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open
end of a cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric
field through the surface of the vessel is
P
q
q
x
O q
(a) at the same time when q is displaced. (a) zero (b) q/eo
(c) q/2eo (d) 2q/eo
OP
(b) at a time after where c is the speed of
c Assertion/ Reason :
light.
OP cos q DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
(c) at a time after . two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
c
OP sin q of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
(d) at a time after
c of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
P-88 PHYSICS
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is accelerations respectively then, a1 = a2.
a correct explanation for assertion. Reason : Forces will be same in electric field.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 6. Assertion : The property that the force with
is not a correct explanation for assertion which two charges attract or repel each other are
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect not affected by the presence of a third charge.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. Reason : Force on any charge due to a number
1. Assertion : When bodies are charged through of other charge is the vector sum of all the
friction, there is a transfer of electric charge forces on that charge due to other charges,
from one body to another, but no creation or taken one at a time.
destruction of charge. 7. Assertion : On bringing a positively charged
Reason : This follows from conservation of rod near the uncharged conductor, the conductor
electric charges. gets attracted towards the rod.
2. Assertion : Coulomb law and gravitational law Reason : The electric field lines of the charged
follow the same inverse-square law. rod are perpendicular to the surface of conductor.
Reason : Both laws are same in all aspects. 8. Assertion : On going away from a point
3. Assertion : The coulomb force is the charge or a small electric dipole, electric field
dominating force in the universe. decreases at the same rate in both the cases.
Reason : The coulomb force is weaker than the Reason : Electric field is inversely
gravitational force. proportional to square of distance from the
4. Assertion : If there exists coulomb attraction charge or an electric dipole.
between two bodies, both of them may not be 9. Assertion : On moving a distance two times the
charged. initial distance away from an infinitely long
Reason : In coulomb attraction two bodies are straight uniformly charged wire the electric field
oppositely charged. reduces to one third of the initial value.
5. Assertion : A deuteron and an a-particle are Reason : The electric field is inversely
placed in an electric field. If F1 and F2 be the proportional to the distance from an infinitely
forces acting on them and a1 and a2 be their long straight uniformly charged wire.
Column I Column II
1
(A) Additivity of charge (1) 1
0 n + 235
92 U ® 56 Ba + 36 Kr + 30 n
144 89
(B) Conservation of charge (2) –5mC + 15mC = 10mC

(C) Quantisation of charge (3) Gold nucleus repels alpha particle.
(D) Attraction and repulsion (4) q = ne
(a) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
2. Match the physical quantities in column I and the information related to them in Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Electric dipole moment (1) Vector product
(B) Electric field (2) Scalar product
(C) Electric flux (3) Points towards positive charge
(D) Torque (4) Points away from positive charge
(a) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
Charge
(A) Linear charge density (1)
Volume
Charge
(B) Surface charge density (2)
Length
Charge
(C) Volume charge density (3)
Area
(D) Discrete charge distribution (4) System consisting of ultimate individual charges
(a) A ® (2), B ® (3), C ® (1), D ® (4) (b) A ® (1), B ® (3), C ® (1), D ® (4)
(c) A ® (3), B ® (1), C ® (2), D ® (4) (d) A ® (3), B ® (2), C ® (1), D ® (4)
4. Match the entries of column I with that of Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Coulomb’s law (1) Total electric flux through a closed surface.
(B) Gauss’s law (2) Vector sum of forces.
(C) Principle of superposition (3) Force is inversely proportional to square
of distance
(D) Quantisation of charge (4) Discrete nature of charge
(a) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
5. Match the source of charge given in Column I with expressions of electric field produced by them in
Column II.
Column I Column II
l
(A) Point charge (1)
2pe 0 r
s
(B) Infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire (2) 2e 0
(C) Uniformly charged infinite plane sheet (3) 0
q
(D) At a point inside a uniformly charged thin spherical shell. (4)
4pe0 r 2
(a) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (3)
P-90 PHYSICS
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. The number of electric lines of force that radiate
outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum
1. Two charge q and –3q are placed fixed on x–axis is
separated by distance d. Where should a third
(a) 1.13 × 1011 (b) 1.13 × 1010
charge 2q be placed such that it will not
experience any force ? (c) 0.61 × 1011 (d) 0.61 × 109
q –3q 5. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length
10 cm and having a charge of 500 mC, at a point
A d B
on the axis at a distance 20 cm from one of the
charges in air, is
d - 3d d + 3d
(a) (b) (a) 6.25 × 107 N/C (b) 9.28 × 107 N/C
2 2
d + 3d d - 3d (c) 13.1 × 1011 N/C (d) 20.5 × 107 N/C
(c) (d) 6. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30°
2 2
2. Force between two identical charges placed at a with an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1, It
distance of r in vacuum is F. Now a slab of experiences a torque of 4 Nm. Calculate the
dielectric of dielectric contrant 4 is inserted charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm.
between these two charges. If the thickness of (a) 8 mC (b) 4 mC
the slab is r/2, then the force between the
(c) 8 mC (d) 2 mC
charges will become
3 7. The surface density on the copper sphere is s.
(a) F (b) F The electric field strength on the surface of the
5
sphere is
4 F
(c) F (d) (a) s (b) s/2
9 2
(c) Q / 2eo (d) Q / eo
3. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are
placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not 8. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line
joining two equal charges Q such that the system
q
experience any force. The value of is is in equilibrium then the value of q is
m
(a) Q/2 (b) –Q/2
pe0
(a) l (b) (c) Q/4 (d) –Q/4
G
G
(c) 4pe 0 (d) 4pe 0 G
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-91
Electrostatic Potential
16 and Capacitance
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Regarding series grouping of capacitors,

Potential difference and energy distributes in the
ur reverse ratio of capacitance.
1. An electric dipole of moment p is placed normal
ur 7. Effective capacitance is even les than the least
to the lines of force of electric intensity E , then of the individual capacitances.
the work done in deflecting it through an angle Conceptual MCQs :
of 180° is ______ .
2. On decreasing the distance between the plates 1. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a certain
of a parallel plate capacitor, its capacitance voltage. Now, if the dielectric material (with
______ . dielectric constant k) is removed then the
3. A capacitor stores ______ in the electrostatic (a) capacitance increases by a factor of k
field between the plates. (b) electric field reduces by a factor k
4. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness (c) voltage across the capacitor decreases by
is introduced between the plates of a capacitor. a factor k
The capacitance of the capacitor ______ . (d) none of these.
5. The potential gradient at which the dielectric 2. In a region, the potential is represented by
of a condenser just gets punctured is called V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts
______ . and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force
6. The energy stored in a condenser of capacity experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at
C which has been raised to a potential V is point (1, 1, 1) is :
given by ______ . (a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N
7. An arrangement which consists of two
conductors separated by a dielectric medium is (c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
called ______ . 3. A point charge q is held at a distance 2a from
8. ______ is a machine that can build up high the centre of an isolated, uncharged
voltages of the order of a few million volts. conductance sphere of radius a. The
potential of the sphere is
True/ False :
q q
1. In non-polar molecules displacement stops (a) 8pe a (b) 4pe a
0 0
when the external force on the constituent
charges of the molecule is balanced by the q
restoring force. (c) 2pe0 a (d) zero
2. Electric field lines are always perpendicular to 4. A sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge
equipotential surface. density. The electric potential at a points
3. Electric field lines are in the direction of tangent (r <R) is
to an equipotential surface. (a) due to the charge inside a sphere of
4. The potential at all the points on an equipotential radius r only
surface is same. (b) due to the entire charge of the sphere
5. Work done in moving a charge from one point to (c) due to the charge in the spherical sheel of
other on an equipotential surface is zero. inner and outer radii r and R, only
(d) independent of r
P-92 PHYSICS
a 9. Two point charge of 8 µC and 12 µC are kept in

5. A point charge q is held at a distance from the
2 air at a distance of 10 cm from each other. The
centre of a thin, conducting, uncharged, spheri- work required to change the distance between
cal shell of radius a. The potential of the shell is them to 6 cm will be.
(a) 5.8 J (b) 4.8 J
q q
(a) (b) (c) 3.8 J (d) 2.8 J
2pe0 a 4pe0 a 10. A capacitor is charges by using a battery which
q is then disconnected. A dielectric slab in then
(c) (d) zero introduced between the plates which results in
8pe0 a
the:
6. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is (a) reduction of charge on the plates and
connected to a cell of emf V and th en increase of potential difference across the
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric plates.
constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the (b) increase in the potential difference across
capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the the plates and reduction in stored energy
following is incorrect ?
but no change in the charge on the plates.
(a) The energy stored in the capacitor (c) decrease in potential difference across the
decreases K times. plates and reduction in stored energy but
(b) The chance in energy stored is not change in the charge on the plates.
1 æ1 ö (d) none of these
CV 2 ç – 1÷ 11. Two conducting spheres of radii 5.0 cm and
2 èK ø
10.0 cm are given a charge of 15.0 µC each. After
(c) The charge on the capacitor is not
connective the spheres by a copper wire, the
conserved.
charge on the smaller sphere is equal to :
(d) The potential difference between the plates
(a) 20.0 mC (b) 5.0mC
decreases K times.
(c) 10 mC (d) none of the above
7. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
12. Four points a, b, c and d are set at equal distance
such that the potential on its surface is 80 V. The
from thwe centre of a dipole as shown the figure.
potential at the centre of the sphere is
The electrostatic potential Va, Vb, Vc, and Vd would
(a) zero (b) 80 V
satisfy the following relation:
(c) 800 V (d) 8 V
8. In the figure two conducting concentric spherical a
shells are shown. +q
d b
–q
c
(a) Va > Vb > Vc > Vd (b) Va > Vb = Vd > Vc
(c) Va > Vc = Vb = Vd (d) Vb = Vd > Va > Vc
If the electric potential at the centre is 20V and 13. N small drops of a liquid each having a charge
the electric potential of the outer shell is 5V, then + q are combined to form a larger drop. The new
electrostatic potential V0 is related to the
the potential of the inner shell is
potential V on each small drop by the equation :
(a) 5V (b) 15V
(a) V0 = VN3 (b) V0 = VN2/3
(c) 20V (d) 25V
(c) V0 = VN 3/2
(d) V0 = VN
14. Consider the network shown here, B is a 4V (a) BC (b) BAD

battery of zero internal resistance; S1 and S2 are (c) AD (d) ABC
switches and C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors of 17. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and
values shown. Suppose S1 is closed keeping S2
separation d. It is charged to a potential
open till the capacitor C1 is fully charged. Then
difference V 0. The charging battery is
S1 is opened and S2 is closed so that C2 gets
disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to
charged. The energy stored in the capacitors is
equal to : three times the initial separation. The work
required to separate the plates is
S1 S2 3e0 AV0 2 e0 AV0 2
(a) (b)
d 2d
B e0 AV0 2 e0 AV0 2
(c) (d)
(4V) C1= 1µF C2 = 3µF 3d d
18. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b
and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge
(a) 2 × 10 – 6 J (b) 4 × 10 – 6 J
densities s , – s and s respectively. If VA, VB
(c) 8 × 10 – 6 J (d) 32 × 10 – 6 J and VC denotes the potentials of the three
15. The figure given below shows four arrangements shells, then for c = a + b, we have
of charged particles, all at the same distance from (a) VC = VB ¹ VA (b) VC ¹ VB ¹ VA
the origin. Rank the situation according to the
(c) VC = VB = VA (d) VC = VA ¹ VB
net electric potential (V1, V2, V3, V4) at the origin,
most positive first : 19. The electric potential at a point in free space due
to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. The
+2q –2q electric field at that point is
(a) 4 pe0 Q×1022 volt/m
V1 –9q –3q (b) 12 pe0 Q×1020 volt/m
V2 (c) 4 pe0 Q×1020 volt/m
1 2 (d) 12 pe0 Q×1022 volt/m
20. Consider two points 1 and 3 in a region outside
–2q –6q a charged sphere. The two points are not very
–2q ur
–2q +2q +q far away from the sphere . If E and V represent
V3 –3q –5q the electric field vector and the electric potential,
V4 which of the following is not possible :
3 4 ur ur
(a) V1 > V2 > V3 > V4 (b) V2 > V1 > V3 > V4 (a) | E1 | = | E 2 |, V1 = V2
(c) V2 > V1 > V4 > V3 (d) V4 > V1 > V3 > V2 ur ur
(b) E1 ¹ E2 , V1 ¹ V2
16. The electric potentials (in volts) and four points
ur ur
A, B, C and D are depicted in the figure on which (c) E1 ¹ E2 , V1 = V2
of the following parts with the work done on a ur ur
charge of – 2 C, be maximum (d) | E1 | = | E 2 |, V1 ¹ V2
(+2V) (– 3V) 21. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric
D· C· field E in the space between the plates. If the
(+ 1V) (– 1V) distance between the plates is d and area of each
B· A· plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is :
P-94 PHYSICS
1 4p Î0 r1r2
(a) e0 E 2 (b) E2Ad/e0
2 (a)
r2 - r1
1
(c) e0 E 2 Ad (d) e0EAd
2 (b) 4p Î0 (r1 + r2 )
Diagram Based Questions : (c) 4p Î0 r2
1. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body
placed in an electric field. Which of the quantities (d) 4p Î0 r1
are zero inside the body? 4. The effective capacitance of combination of
equal capacitors between points A and B shown
in figure is
C C
C C C
C C
A B
(a) Electric field and potential C C C
(b) Electric field and charge density
(c) Electric potential and charge density.
(d) Electric field, potential and charge density. (a) C (b) 2C
2. Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. C
(c) 3C (d)
Then the electric field strength will be 2
5. In the circuit given below, the charge in mC, on
Y the capacitor having capacitance 5 mF is
10V 20V 30V
2mF
O(cm)
30º X 3mF
10 20 30 (cm) e d
f 5mF
c
4mF
(a) 100 Vm–1 along X-axis a + b
(b) 100 Vm–1 along Y-axis 6V
(c) 200 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis
(d) 50 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis (a) 4.5 (b) 9
3. Two spherical conductors A1 and A2 of radii (c) 7 (d) 15
r1 and r2 (r2 > r1) are placed concentrically in air.
Assertion/ Reason :
A1 is given a charge +Q while A2 is earthed.
Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
A2 questions also has four alternative choices, only one
– – of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
+ + of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
A1 r1
+ + a correct explanation for assertion.
r2 –
–
is not a correct explanation for assertion
1. Assertion : Electric potential and electric 5. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected
potential energy are different quantities. across battery through a key. A dielectric slab of
Reason : For a system of positive test charge dielectric constant k is introduced between the
and point charge electric potential energy = plates. The energy stored becomes k times.
electric potential. Reason : The surface density of charge on the
2. Assertion : For a non-uniformly charged thin plate remains constant.
circular ring with net charge is zero, the electric 6. Assertion : When a dielectric slab is gradually
field at any point on axis of the ring is zero. inserted between the plates of an isolated
parallel-plate capacitor, the energy of the system
Reason : For a non-uniformly charged thin decreases.
circular ring with net charge zero, the electric
potential at each point on axis of the ring is zero. Reason : The force between the plates decreases.
3. Assertion : Electric energy resides out of the 7. Assertion : A dielectric is inserted between the
spherical isolated conductor. plates of a battery connected capacitor. The
energy of the capacitor increases.
Reason : The electric field at any point inside
the conductor is zero. 1
Reason : Energy of the capacitor, U = CV 2 .
4. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot 2
cut each other. 8. Assertion. Two equipotential surfaces can be
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel orthogonal.
to each other. Reason: Electric field lines are normal to the
equipotential surface.

Column-I Column -II
(A) Electric potential near an isolated positive (1) Negative
charge
(B) Electric potential near an isolated negative (2) Positive

charge
(C) Electric potential due to a charge at its own (3) Varies inversly of radius
location is not defined
(D) Electric potential due to uniformly charged (4) Infinite
solid non-conducting sphere
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4)
2. When a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of one of the two identical capacitors shown in the
figure then match the following:
A
V
B
P-96 PHYSICS
Column-I Column -II

(A) Charge on A (1) Increases
(B) Potential difference across A (2) Decreases
(C) Potential difference across B (3) Remains constant
(D) Charge on B (4) Cannot say
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)
3. Match the entries of Column I and Column II
Column-I Column -II
(A) Inside a conductor placed in an external (1) Potential energy = 0
electric field.
(B) At the centre of a dipole (2) Electric field = 0
(C) Dipole in stable equilibrium (3) Electric potential = 0
(D) Electric dipole perpendicular to (4) Torque = 0
uniform electric field.
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
4. Match the types of capacitors in Column I and expressions of capacitances in Column II.
Column-I Column -II
e 0 KA
(A) Spherical capacitor (1)
d
e0A
(B) Cylindrical capacitor (2)
d
2pe0 l
(C) Parallel plate capacitor air filled (3)
ær ö
ln ç 2 ÷
è r1 ø
4pe 0 r1 r2
(D) Parallel plate capacitor with dielectric slab (4)
r1 - r2
between the plates.
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) The energy stored in the capacitor
decreases K times.
1. Two equally charged spheres of radii a and b are (b) The chance in energy stored is
connected together. What will be the ratio of
electric field intensity on their surfaces? 1 æ1 ö
CV 2 ç – 1÷
2 èK ø
a a2
(a) (b) (c) The charge on the capacitor is not
b b2 conserved.
b b2 (d) The potential difference between the plates
(c ) (d) decreases K times.
a a2
2. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, 5. In a Van de Graaff generator, a spherical metal
one at each corner of the square. The relation shell is to be 15 × 106 V electrode. The
between Q and q for which the potential at the dielectric strength of the gas surrounding the
centre of the square is zero is electrode is 5 × 107V m–1. The minimum radius
of the spherical shell required is
1 (a) 1 m (b) 2 m
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
q (c) 1.5 m (d) 3 m
1 6. Four metallic plates each with a surface area of
(c) Q = q (d) Q =
q one side A, are placed at a distance d from each
3. In a region, the potential is represented by other. The two outer plates are connected to one
V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts point A and the two other inner plates to another
and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force point B as shown in the figure. Then the
experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at capacitance of the system is
point (1, 1, 1) is
(a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N
A B
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
4. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is
connected to a cell of emf V and th en e0A 2e 0 A
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric (a) (b)
d d
constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the
capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the 3e 0 A 4e 0 A
following is incorrect ? (c) (d)
d d
P-98 PHYSICS
17 Current Electricity
Fill in the Blanks : 6. In series a device of higher power rating

consumes less power.
1. When a potential difference V is applied across 7. The order of magnitude of current in lightening
a conductor at a temperature T, the drift velocity is about one ampere.
of electrons is proportional to _______ .
2. Macroscopic form of ohm’s law’s _______ . Conceptual MCQs
3. Constantan wire is used for making standard
resistance, because it has _______ . 1. If a negligibly small current is passed through a
4. When potential difference is applied across an wire of length 15 m and of resistance 5W having
electrolyte, then Ohm’s law is obeyed at _______ uniform cross-section of 6 × 10–7 m2 , then
potential . coefficient of resistivity of material, is
5. A cell of internal resistance r is connected across (a) 1 × 10–7 W-m (b) 2 × 10–7 W-m
an external resistance nr. Then the ratio of the (c) 3 × 10–7 W-m (d) 4 × 10–7 W-m
terminal voltage to the emf of the cell is ______. 2. The emf developed by a thermocouple is
6. Kirchoff’s first law, i.e., S i = 0 at a junction, measured with the help of a potentiometer and
deals with the conservation of _______ . not by a moving coil millivoltmeter because
7. If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the (a) the potentiometer is more accurate than the
positions of cells and galvanometer are voltmeter
interchanged, then balance point will _______ . (b) the potentiometer is more sensitive than
8. The reciprocal of resistance is _______ . voltmeter
9. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased (c) the potentiometer makes measurement
by _______ length of potentiometer . without drawing any current from the
thermocouple
True/False : (d) measurement using a potentiometer is
simpler than with a voltmeter
1. In household electric circuit, all electric 3. You have been provided with four 100 ohm
appliances drawing power are joined in parallel resistors each with a tolerance of 2%. The
2. A switch may be either in series or in parallel number of ways in which these can be combined
with the appliance which it controls to have different equivalent resistances is
3. Microscopic form of ohm’s law is R=
V (a) seven different combinations and seven
I different equivalents
4. When resistances are connected in parallel, (b) eight different combinations and seven
current distributes in the inverse ratio of different equivalents resistances
resistances. (c) nine different combinations and eight
5. When resistances are connected in series different resistances
maximum current flows through the resistance (d) ten different combinations and nine
having least value. different resistances
Current Electricity P-99
4. The equivalent resistance between points A and (a) in all cases

B is (b) only if all the resistances are equal
R R (c) only if R1 = R3 and R2 = R4
A B (d) only if R1/R3/R2/R4
R 10. Three resistances R, 2R and 3R are connected in
R
parallel to a battery. Then
(a) the potential drop across 3R is maximum
(b) the current through each resistance is same
(a) 2R (b) (3/4) R (c) the heat developed in 3R is maximum
(c) (4/3) R (d) (3/5) R (d) the heat developed in R is maximum.
5. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 W at 50ºC 11. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be
and 7W at 100ºC, then the mean temperature converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range.
coefficient of resistance (of the material) is The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be :
(a) 0.001/ºC (b) 0.004/ºC (a) 0.001 (b) 0.01 (c) 1 (d) 0.05
(c) 0.006/ºC (d) 0.008/ºC 12. A piece of copper and another of germanium are
6. The net resistance between point P and Q in the cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
circuit shown in figure is resistance of
R (a) each of them increases
R R (b) each of them decreases
P R Q (c) copper increases and germanium decreases
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases
13. In the house of a person who is weak of hearing,
(a) R/2 (b) 2R/5 a light bulb is also lit when somebody rings the
(c) 3R/5 (d) R/3
7. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 door bell. The ring can be operated both from
cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and the garden gate and from the door of the house.
without being short circuited thr ough a Select the correct possible circuit required.
resistance of 10W. Its internal resistance is
(a) 1.0 ohm (b) 0.5 ohm
(c) 2.0 ohm (d) zero (a) (b)
8. A battery of internal resistance 2W is connected
to a variable resistor whose value can vary from
4W to 10W. The resistance is initially set at 4W. If
the resistance is now increased then –
(a) power consumed by it will decrease
(b) power consumed by it will increase (c) (d)
(c) power consumed by it may increase or may
decrease
(d) power consumed will first increase then
decrease. 14. If two bulbs of power 25 W and 100 W
9. The Wheatstone bridge shown in the figure is
respectively each rated at 220 V are connected
balanced. If the positions of the cell C and the
galvanometer G are now interchanged, G will in series with the supply of 440 V. Which bulb
show zero deflection – will fuse ?
(a) 25 W bulb (b) 40 watts
R1 R2
(c) none of these (d) both 1 & 2
G 15. Which of the following graphs represent the
variation of thermo emf (E) of a thermocouple
R4 R3 with temperature q of hot junction (the cold
junction being kept at 0ºC)
C
P-100 PHYSICS
E E (a) directly proportional to their marked

voltages
(a) (b) (b) inversely proportional to their marked
voltages
q q (c) directly proportional to their squares of their
E marked voltages
E
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of their
marked voltages
(c) (d) 22. Power dissipated across the 8W resistor in the
q circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power
q dissipated in watt units across the 3W resistor is
16. Consider the following devices : 1W 3W i1
I Copper voltameter
II Water voltameter i
III Semi conductor diode
Which of these obey Ohm’s law :
(a) I only (b) I and II 8W i2
(c) III only (d) I, II and III (a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
17. A copper wire of length l and radius r is to be (c) 3.0 (d) 2.0
used as fuse. If the fuse wire attains, then the 23. Two cells of the same emf E have different
heat lost H per unit surface area per second is : internal resistances r 1 and r 2. They are connected
in series with an external resistance R and the
a
(a) Ha (b) Ha r 2 potential difference across the first cell is found
r3 to be zero. Therefore, the external resistance R
(c) H a l (d) H a r3 must be
18. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical
circuits are consequences of (a) r1 – r 2 (b) r + r2
(a) conservation of electric charge and energy (c) 2r1 – r2 (d) r1 – 2r2
respectively
(b) conservation of electric charge
(c) conservation of energy and electric charge 1. The figure shows three conductors I, II and III of
respectively same material, different lengths l, 2l and 3l and of
(d) conservation of energy different areas of cross-section 3A, A and 2A
19. In which of the following the carriers of electric
respectively. Arrange them in the increasing order
current are electrons only ?
(a) a super conductor of current drawn from battery.
(b) a voltaic cell l
(c) a semiconductor i1 3A i1
(d) a hydrogen discharge tube I
20. It takes t minutes for a kettle of water to start 2l
boiling when placed on an electric heater. If the i2 A i2
II
voltage drops to half its value, the time taken for 2A 3l
this water to boil will be: III
i3 i3
(a) 2 t minutes (b) 2 t minutes
(c) 4 t minutes (d) 8 t minutes ( )
21. Two electric bulbs of the same power, but with
different marked voltage are connected in series (a) i1 < i2 < i3 (b) i3 < i2 < i1
across a power line. Their brightness will be :
(c) i2 < i1 < i3 (d) i2 `< i3 < i1
2. The graph shows the variation of resistivity with resistance S the new position of null point is
temperature T. The graph can be of obtained
R S'
r B S
d G
A C
D
T ( )
(a) copper (b) nichrome (a) to the left of D
(c) germanium (d) silver (b) to the right of D
3. A battery of e.m.f E and internal resistance r is (c) at the same point D
connected to a variable resistor R as shown. (d) to the left of D if S' has lesser value than S
Which one of the following is true ? and to the right of D if S' has more value
E
than S.
r
6. In the figure in balanced condition of wheatstone
bridge
R
B
(a) Poten t i a l di ffer en ce a cr oss t h e R2 R4

terminals of the battery is maximum A G C
when R = r
(b) Power delivered to resistor is maximum R1 R3
when R = 2r
(c) Current in the circuit is maximum when
R= r D
(d) Current in the circuit is maximum when
R >> r
4. Which of the following is the correct equation
when kirchhoff’s loop rule is applied to the loop (a) B is at higher potential
BCDEB in clockwise direction? (b) D is at higher potential
R3 R4 (c) Any of the two B or D can be at higher
C D potential than other arbitrarily.
(d) B and D are at same potential.
i3
i2 R2
B E Assertion/ Reason :
R1 i1 DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
A F two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
(a) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 – i2 R2 = 0
(b) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0 of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(c) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0 (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
(d) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0 (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
5. The figure shows a meter bridge in which null is not a correct explanation for assertion
point is obtained at a length AD = l. When a (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
resistance S' is connected in parallel with (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
P-102 PHYSICS
1. Assertion: Current is a vector quantity. increases and vibration of ions increases which
Reason: Current has magnitude as well as decreases t.
direction. 6. Assertion : The drift velocity of electrons in a
2. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V = IR. metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature of
Reason: V = IR is the equation which defines the wire is increased.
resistance. Reason : On increasing temperature,
3. Assertion : A current flows in a conductor only conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
when there is an electric field within the 7. Assertion : Bending a wire does not effect
conductor. electrical resistance.
Reason : The drift velocity of electron in Reason: Resistance of wire is proportional to
presence of electric field decreases. resistivity of material.
r r 8. Assertion : The e.m.f of the driver cell in the
4. Assertion: E = r j is the statement of Ohm’ss
potentiometer experiment should be greater
law. that the e.m.f of the cell to be determined.
Reason: If the resistivity of the conducting Reason : The fall of potential across the
material is independent of the direction and potentiometer wire should not be less than the
magnitude of applied field then the material e.m.f of the cell to be determined.
obeys Ohm’s law. 9. Assertion : In meter bridge experiment, a high
5. Assertion: For a conductor resistivity increases resistance is always connected in series with
with increase in temperature. a galvanometer.
m Reason : As resistance increases current more
Reason: Since r = 2 , when temperature accurately than ammeter.
ne t
increases the random motion of free electrons

Column I Column II
(A) Ohm’s law is applicable to (1) Metals
(B) Ohm’s law is not applicable to (2) Greater resistivity
(C) Alloys have semiconductors (3) Diodes, electrolytes
(D) A heat sensitive resistor (4) Thermistors

(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(A) Silver (1) Wire bound resistor
(B) Semiconductor (2) Resistor of higher range
(C) Carbon resistor (3) Negative temperature coefficient of resistivity
(D) Manganin (4) Least resistivity
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
3. Match the physical quantities in Column I and their mathematical expressions in Column II.
Column I Column II
ne 2 t
(A) Current (1)
m
1 æ dp ö
(B) Conductivity (2) ç ÷
p è dT ø
r uuur
(C) Current density (3) j × DS
r
(D) Temperature coefficient of resistivity (4) nq vd
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
Column I Column II
(A) Smaller the resistance greater the current (1) If the same voltager is
applied and resistance are in series
(B) Greater or smaller the resistance the (2) If the same current is passed
current is same
(C) Greater the resistance smaller the power (3) When resistances are connected in series
(D) Greater the resistance (4) When resistances are
greater the power connected in parallel
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(A) Junction rule (1) Another statement of Ohm’s law.
(B) Loop rule (2) Magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field.
r r
(C) j = s E (3) Based on law of conservation of charge
(D) Mobility (4) Based on law of conservation of energy.
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); C ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); C ® (1); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); C ® (1); (D) ® (2)
6. Column I gives certain situations in which a straight metallic wire of resistance R is used and Column
II gives some resulting effects.
Column I Column II
(A) A charged capacitor connected to the (1) A constant current flows through the wire
is ends of the wire
(B) The wire is moved perpendicular to its (2) Thermal energy is generated in the wire
length with a constant velocity in a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane
of motion
(C) The wire is placed in a constant electric field (3) A constant potential difference develops between
that has a direction along the length the ends of the wire
of the wire
(D) A battery of constant emf is connected to (4) charges of constant magnitude appear at
the ends of the wire ends of the wire.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (1, 2, 3) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2, 3) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (1, 3) ; (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
P-104 PHYSICS
7. Match the entries of Column I with their correct mathematical expressions in Column II
Column I Column II
(A) Balanced condition of wheatstone bridge (1) R1 R3
=
R2 R4
R l1
(B) Comparison of emf of two cells field. (2) =
S 100 - l1
E1 l1
(C) Determination of internal resistance of a cell (3) =
E 2 l2
(D) Determination of unknown resistance (4) æl ö

r = R ç 1 - 1÷
è l2 ø
by meter bridge
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); C ® (3); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); C ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); C ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (1)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. Determine the current in 2W resistor.

2W
1. Two wires A and B of the same material, having 3W
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the
1W
ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in
A and B is
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 6V 2.8 W
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
2. The resistance of a wire at room temperature 30°C (a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A
is found to be 10 W. Now to increase the resistance (c) 0.9 A (d) 0.6 A
by 10%, the temperature of the wire must be [The 6. A meter bridge is set up as shown, to determine
temperature coefficient of resistance of the material an unknown resistance ‘X’ using a standard 10
of the wire is 0.002 per °C] ohm resistor. The galvanometer shows null point
(a) 36°C (b) 83°C when tapping-key is at 52 cm mark. The end-
corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively for
(c) 63°C (d) 33°C
the ends A and B. The determined value of ‘X’
3. A wire X is half the diameter and half the length
is
of a wire Y of similar material. The ratio of
resistance of X to that of Y is
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
4. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an
external resistance R. The internal resistance of
the two sources are R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the (a) 10.2 ohm (b) 10.6 ohm
potential difference across the source having (c) 10.8 ohm (d) 11.1 ohm
internal resistance R2 is zero, then 7. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is
(a) R= R 2 - R 1 10–7Wm current flowing through it, is 0.1 amp
(b) R= R 2 ´ (R1 + R 2 ) /(R 2 - R1 ) and cross sectional area of wire is 10–6 m2, then
potential gradient will be
(c) R= R 1R 2 /( R 2 - R 1 ) (a) 10–2 volt/m (b) 10–4 volt/m
(d) R= R1R 2 /(R1 - R 2 ) –6
(c) 10 volt/m (d) 10–8 volt/m
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-105
18 Moving Charges and

Magnetism
ur
Fill in the Blanks : 4. Lorentz force, in presence of electric field E (r )
1. Ampere’s circuital law is equivalent to _______ ur
and magnetic field B(r ) on a moving electric
law.
ur ur ur
2. If a current is passed through a spring then the charge is given by F = q [ E (r ) + v ´ B (r )]
spring will _______ .
5. For a static charge the magnetic force is
3. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
maximum.
form of _______ .
6. The magnetic field in the open space exterior to
4. In cyclotron the gyro radius is proportional to
the toroid is constant.
_______ .
7. Cyclotron cannot accelerates electrons because
5. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to
they have very small mass.
a magnetic field B. Force on the charge due to
magnetic field is _____. Conceptual MCQs :
6. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection
of the coil q is related to the elecrical current 1. Two very long, straight, parallel wires carry
i by the relation _______ . steady currents I and –I respectively. The
7. A moving coil galvanometer has N number of distance between the wires is d. At a certain
instant of time, at a point charge q is at a point
turns in a coil of effective area A, carries a
equidistant from the two wires, in the plane of
current I. The magnetic field B is radial. The
the wires.Its instantaneous velocity v is
torque acting on the coil is ____ .
perpendicular to the plane of wires. The
8. Two parallel circular coils of equal radii having magnitude of the force due to the magnetic field
equal number of turns placed coaxially and acting on the charge at the instant is
separated by a distance equal to the radii of the
coils carrying equal currents in same direction m 0 Iqv 2m0 Iqv
(a) (b)
are known as _______ . 2 pd pd
9. If m is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic m 0 Iqv
field, then the torque is given by _______ . (c) (d) zero
pd
True/ False : 2. P, Q and R are long straight wires in air, carrying
currents as shown. The force on Q is directed
1. Biot-savarts’s law is valid for all current
distributions. P Q R
2. A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non–
uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in
it. 20A 40A 60A
3. Ampere’s circuital law is based only on the
priciple of magnetism.
P-106 PHYSICS
(a) to the left (b) to the right ®

(c) perpendicular to the plane of the diagram has velocity v , as shown, the force on the
(d) along the current in Q charge is
3. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a Y
circular orbit of radius r with angular speed w.
The ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic
moment to that of its angular momentum
depends on –
(a) w and q (b) w , q and m O X
(c) q and m (d) w and m
4. Two observers moving with different velocities
seen that a point charge produces same magnetic
field at the same point A. Their relative velocity
must be parallel to rr , where rr is the position
vector of point A with respect to point charge. (a) along OY (b) opposite to OY
This statement is – (c) along OX (d) opposite to OX
(a) true 8. A charged paritcle (charge q) is moving in a circle
(b) false of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated
(c) nothing can be said magnetic moment µ is given by
(d) true only if the charge is moving (a) qvR2 (b) qvR2/2
perpendicular to the rr
(c) qvR (d) qvR/2
9. A beam of electron passes undeflected through
5. The negatively and uniformly charged
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields.
nonconducting disc as shown is rotated
clockwise. If the electric field is switched off, and the same
magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move
(a) in a circular orbit
(b) along a parabolic path
(c) along a straight line
A (d) in an elliptical orbit.
10. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25
divisions. A current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a
deflection of one per division. To convert this
galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range
The direction of the magnetic field at point A in
of 25 volts, it should be connected with a
the plane of the disc is
resistance of
(a) into the page (b) out of the page
(a) 2450 W in series (b) 2500 W in series.
(c) up the page (d) down the page
(c) 245 W in series. (d) 2550 W in series.
6. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle
of charge – 2 mC in a magnetic field of 2T acting 11. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a
in y direction, when the particle velocity is current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of 1
mm diameter carrying same current. The strength
( )
2 î + 3 ˆj ×106 ms –1, is of magnetic field far away is
(a) 4 N in z direction (b) 8 N in y direction (a) twice the earlier value
(c) 8 N in z direction (d) 8 N in – z direction (b) same as the earlier value
7. A very long straight wire carries a current I. (c) one-half of the earlier value
At the instant when a charge + Q at point P
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
12. When a charged particle moving with velocity 16. Two flat circular coils have a common center,
but their planes are at right angles to each other.
v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction
The inner coil has 150 turns and radius of p cm.
B , the force on it is non-zero. This implies that The outer coil has 400 turns and a radius of 2p
cm. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic
(a) angle between v and B can have any induction at the common centers of the coils
value other than 90° when a current of 200 mA is sent through each
of them is
(b) angle between v and B can have any
(a) 10–3 Wb/m2 (b) 2 × 10–3 Wb/m2
value other than zero and 180°
(c) 5 × 10–3 Wb/m2 (d) 7 × 10–3 Wb/m2
(c) angle between v and B is either zero 17. Two long parallel wires carry currents I1 and I2
or 180° (I1 > I2). When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway
(d) angle between v and B is necessarily
between the wires is 10 mT. If the direction of I2
90° is reversed, the field becomes 40 mT. The ratio
13. An electron enters a region where magnetic I1/I2 is
field (B) and electric field (E) are mutually
perpendicular, then (a) 5/2 (b) 5/3
(a) it will always move in the direction of B (c) 4/3 (d) 3/2
(b) it will always move in the direction of E 18. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform
(c) it always possesses circular motion magnetic field with four different orientations X,
Y, Z and W was shown in the figure. The correct
(d) it can go undeflected also. decreasing order of potential energy is
14. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number
of turns N, then magnetic moment of the coil, B
M is B
n̂
Ni
(a) NiA (b) n^
A X Y
Ni
(c) (d) N2Ai B n^
A
B
15. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of
side l is suspended between the pole pieces of n^
® Z W
a permanent magnet such that B is in the plane (a) X > Y > Z > W (b) Z > W> X > Y
of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a (c) X > W > Y> Z (d) X> Y > W > Z
torque t acts on it, the side l of the triangle is 19. A cylindrical conductor having radius of cross
section R carries a steady current I. If the distance
1 1 from the axis of the conductor is r, then the
2 æ t ö2 æ t ö2 magnetic field B varies as
(a) ç ÷ (b) 2çç ÷÷
3 è B.i ø è 3B.i ø (a) 1/r
(b) r for r < R and as 1/r for r > R
(c) r
2 æ t ö 1 t (d) 1/r2
(c) ç ÷ (d)
3 è B.i ø 3 B.i
P-108 PHYSICS
20. A current I flows in the anticlockwise direction direction. The net magnetic field on the axis of
through a square loop of side a lying in the xoy the cylinder is
plane with its center at the origin. The magnetic
induction at the center of the square loop is
2 2m 0 I 2 2m 0 I
(a) ê x (b) ê z
pa pa
2 2m 0 I 2 2m 0 I
(c) ê z (d) ê x m0 ni
2
pa pa 2 (a) µ0 ni (b)
2 pr
m 0 ni
1. A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a (c) zero (d)
4 pr
circular arc of radius r metres subtending an angle 4. The figure shows a thin rod pivoted at point O and
q at the centre as shown. The magnetic field at rotating clockwise in the plane of paper with
the centre O in tesla is constant angular velocity w. A bead having charge
+ q can slide freely on the rod as the rod rotates.
I × × × ×
q +q ×
× × ×
O × × O × ×
× × × ×
× × × ×
m0 Iq m0 Iq
(a) (b) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
4 pr 2 pr
(a) Magnetic moment of current loop generated
m0 Iq m0 Iq by the bead increases.
(c) (d) (b) Angular momentum of the bead increases.
2r 4r
(c) Torque on current loop generated is zero.
2. An element of 0.05 $i m is placed at the origin as (d) Potentential energy of current loop
shown in figure which carries a large current of generated decreases.
10 A. distance of 1 m in perpendicular direction. 5. The figure shows a closed loop bent in the form
The value of magnetic field is of a semi-circle. One bead having charge +q
slides from A to B along the diameter in uniform
motion and other bead having the same charge
slides along the arc from A to B in uniform circular
P motion. Both take some time to travel from A to
B. When both the beads are at the mid-point of
their journey, then the forces exerted by lower
bead and upper bead are respectively
A B
(a) 4.5 × 10–8 T (b) 5.5 × 10–8 T
(c) 5.0 × 10–8 T (d) 7.5 × 10–8 T
3. The figure shows n (n being an even number) (a) gravitational and magnetic
wires placed along the surface of a cylinder of (b) magnetic and electric
(c) electric and gravitational
radius r. Each wire carries current i in the same (d) gravitational and electric.
Assertion/ Reason : straight line.

Reason : The electric field exerts no force on the
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains particle but the magnetic field does.
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these 5. Assertion : Figure shows a current carrying
questions also has four alternative choices, only one conductor and a close path. For the close path
r r
Ñò Bgd l = 0.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. Reason : For the close path, the magnetic field
1. Assertion: Ampere’s circuital law is independent at each point on the path is zero.
of Biot-Savart’s law. 6. Assertion : The force between two parallel
Reason: Ampere’s circuital law can be derived current carrying conductors carrying currents
from the Biot-savart’s law. in same direction is attractive because there is
2. Assertion : The magnetic field due to a very no electrical interaction between them.
large current carrying loop is zero at its centre. Reason : The force between two electrons
Reason : Magnetic field at the centre of loop is, streams moving in the same direction repulsive
m 0i because there is no magnetic interaction
B= .
2R between them.
3. Assertion : If the current in a solenoid is reversed 7. Assertion : A current carrying loop placed in a
in direction while keeping the same magnitude, magnetic field must experience a torque.
the magnetic field energy stored in the solenoid Reason : Torque on the loop is given by
decreases. t=MBsinq.
Reason : Magnetic field energy density is 8. Assertion: The frequency of circular motion of
proportional to square of current. a charged particle in cyclotron is independent
4. Assertion : If a charged particle is released from of the mass of the particle.
rest in a region of uniform electric and magnetic Reason: Greater the mass of the particle less will
fields parallel to each other, it will move in a be the frequency of the particle.
Column I Column II
r uur
(A) Biot-Savart’s law (1) Ñò B.dl = m 0 Si
r r r
(B) Ampere’s circuital law (2) q[E + (V´ B)]
r uur
(C) Force between two parallel current (3) Ñò B.dl = m 0 Si
carrying conductors
r m i dlsin q
(D) Lorentz force (4)B= 0 ò nˆ
4p r2
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
P-110 PHYSICS
2. Match the entries given in Column I to their analogue entries of electrostatics given in Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Ampere’s circuital law (1) Electric dipole
(B) Biot-Savart’s law (2) Gauss’s law in electrostatics
(C) Planar current loop (3) Permitivity of free space
(D) Permeability of free space (4) Coulomb’s law
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (3)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
3. A charged particle having charge q and mass m is to be subjected to a combination of constant uniform
ur ur
magnetic field ( B) and a constant uniform gravitational field (G). Apart from these field forces there
exists no other force. Now match the column.
Column-I Column -II
ur ur
(A) The charged particle moves without change (1) It is possible that both B and G
in its direction. are zero.
ur ur
(B) The charged particle moves without change (2) It is possible that both B and G
in its velocity. are non zero.
ur ur
(C) The charged particle takes a circular path (3) It is possible that B is zero and G
is not zero.
ur
(D) The charged particle takes a parabolic path (4) It is possible that B is non zero
ur
and G is zero.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1,2,3,4) ; (B) ® (1,2,4) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
4. A square loop of side a and carrying current i as shown in the figure is placed in gravity free space
having magnetic field B = B k$ . Now match following :
0
y
i
Column-I Column -II

(A) Torque on loop (1) is zero
(B) Net force on loop (2) is in direction (– k$ )
(C) Potential energy of magnitudes (3) has minimum loop
(D) Magnetic moment of magnitudes (4) has maximum loop
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1,2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
5. Match the physical quantities of Column I with their mathematical expressions in Column II.
Column I Column II
m0 i
(A) Torque on a circular current loop placed in (1)
2R
uniform magnetic field
(B) Force per unit length between parallel (2) iAB sin q
current carrying wires
mV
(C) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular (3)
qB
current carrying loop.
m0 i1 i2
(D) Radius of circular path of a charge particle (4)
2 pd
moving in uniform
magnetic field.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (3)
6. A circular current carrying loop with magnetic moment parallel to the magnetic field is rotated by an angle
of 90° slowly about one of its diameter in a uniform magnetic field. Match the quantities of Column I with
Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Torque on the loop (1) Decreases from maximum to zero.
(B) Potential energy of the loop (2) Remains constant
(C) Magnetic moment of the loop (3) Increases from zero to maximum
(D) Magnetic flux through the loop (4) Increases from minimum to zero.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic
inductions at their centres will be
1. A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
a current of 75 A in north of south direction, (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
magnitude and direction of field B at a point 3 m 3. A charged particle with charge q enters a region
east of the wire is of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal
(a) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical up ur ur r
(b) 5 × 10–6 T, vertical down fields E and B with a velocity v perpendicular
ur ur
(c) 5 × 10–6 T, vertical up to both E and B , and comes out without any
(d) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical down r
change in magnitude or direction of v . Then
2. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain r ur ur r ur ur
length and then from the same length a coil of (a) v = B ´ E / E 2 (b) v = E ´ B / B2
two turns is made. If the same current is passed r ur ur 2 r ur ur
(c) v = B ´ E / B (d) v = E ´ B / E 2
P-112 PHYSICS
4. A cell is connected between two points of a magnetic field induction B in tesla at the centre
uniformly thick circular conductor and i1 and i2 of circle will be
are the currents flowing in two parts of the
circular conductor of radius a. The magnetic field (a) 2 ´ 10 -19 m 0 (b) 10 -19 / m 0
at the centre of the loop will be
(c) 10 -19 m 0 (d) 2 ´ 10 -20 / m 0
m0
(a) zero (b) ( I1 - I 2 ) 7. A galvanometer of resistance 100 W gives a full
4p scale deflection for a current of 10–5 A. To
convert it into a ammeter capable of measuring
m0 m0 upto 1 A, we should connect a resistance of
(c) ( I1 + I 2 ) (d) (I1 + I 2 )
2a a (a) 1 W in parallel (b) 10–3 W in parallel
5. An electron (mass = 9 × 10–31 kg, charge = 1.6 × (c) 105 W in series (d) 100 W in series
10–19 C) moving with a velocity of 106 m/s enters 8. The orbital speed of electron orbiting around a
a magnetic field. If it describes a circle of radius nucleus in a circular orbit of radius 50 pm is 2.2 ×
0.1m, then strength of magnetic field must be 106 ms–1. Then the magnetic dipole moment of
(a) 4.5 × 10–5 T (b) 1.4 × 10–5 T an electron is
(c) 5.5 × 10–5 T (d) 2.6 × 10–5 T (a) 1.6 × 10–19 Am2 (b) 5.3 × 10–21 Am2
6. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle (c) 8.8 × 10–24 Am2 (d) 8.8 × 10–26 Am2
of radius 0.8 meter in 2 sec. The value of the
19 Magnetism and Matter
Fill in the Blanks : 7. Diamagnetism is explained in terms of
electromagnetic induction.
1. The ultimate individual unit of magnetism in any 8. Isogonic lines on magnetic map will have zero
magnet is called _______ . angle of declination.
2. Magnetic dipole moment is a vector quantity
directed from _______ pole to _______ pole. Conceptual MCQs :
3. At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is _______
1. A bar magnet, of magnetic moment M , is placed
.
4. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation and in a magnetic field of induction B . The torque
magnetising field is called _______ . exerted on it is
5. Susceptibility is positive and large for a _______ (a) M . B (b) – M . B
magnetic material.
6. Metals getting magnetised by orientation of (c) M ´ B (d) B ´ M
atomic magnetic moments in external magnetic 2. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M
field are called _______ . are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the
7. The magnetic susceptibility for diamagnetic identical poles in the same direction. The time
materials is _______ . period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are
placed with opposite poles together and vibrate
8. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
with time period T2, then
_____ becomes.
(a) T2 is infinite (b) T2 = T1
9. The line on the earth’s surface Joining the points (c) T2 > T1 (d) T2 < T1
where the field is horizontal is _______ . 3. A short bar magnet, placed with its axis at 30°
True/ False : with an external magnetic field of 0.16 T,
experiences a torque of magnitude 0.032 J. The
1. The Earth behaves as a magnet with the magnetic moment of the bar magnet is
magnetic field pointing approximately from the (in units of J/T)
geographic South to the North. (a) 4 (b) 0.2
2. There is an attractive force between the North– (c) 0.5 (d) 0.4
pole of one magnet and the South–pole of other. 4. Ratio of magnetic intensities for an axial point
3. We can isolate the North or South–pole of a and a point on board side-on position at equal
magnet. distance d from the centre of magnet will be or
4. Paramagnetism is explained by domain theory. the magnetic field at a distance d from a shot bar
5. A paramagnetic material tends to move from a magnet in longitudinal and transverse positions
strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field. are in the ratio of
6. The resultant magnetic moment in an atom of a (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 3
diamagnetic substance is zero. (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 2
P-114 PHYSICS
5. The magnetism of magnet is due to 12. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(a) the spin motion of electron about hysteresis ?
(b) earth (a) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic
(c) pressure of big magnet inside the earth substances
(d) cosmic rays (b) The hysteresis loop area is proportional to
6. Which of the following is the most suitable the thermal energy developed per unit
material for making permanent magnet ? volume of the material
(a) Steel (b) Soft iron (c) The hysteresis loop area is independent of
the thermal energy developed per unit
(c) Copper (d) Nickel
volume of the material
7. A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian
(d) The shape of the hysteresis loop is
when it shows an angle of dip q at a place. The characteristic of the material
dip circle is rotated through an angle x in the 13. For protecting a sensitive equipment from the
horizontal plane and then it shows an angle of external electric arc, it should be
tan q ' (a) wrapped with insulation around it when a
dip q'. Then is current is passing through it
tan q
1 1 (b) placed inside an iron can
(a) (b) (c) surrounded with fine copper sheet
cos x sin x
(d) placed inside an aluminium can
1 14. The time period of oscillation of a freely
(c) (d) cos x
tan x suspended bar magnet with usual notations is
8. The horizontal component of the earth’s given by
magnetic field is 3.6 ´10 -5 tesla where the dip I
(a) T = 2 p (b) T = 2p MBH
angle is 60°. The magnitude of the earth’s MBH I
magnetic field is
(a) 2.8 ´10 -4 tesla (b) 2.1´ 10 -4 tesla I B
(c) T = (d) T = 2p H
MBH MI
(c) 7.2 ´10 -5 tesla (d) 3.6 ´ 10-5 tesla
15. There are four light–weight–rod samples A,B,C,D
9. A torque of 10 -5 Nm is required to hold a separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet
magnet at 90° with the horizontal component H is slowly brought near each sample and the
of the earth’s magnetic field. The torque to hold following observations are noted
it at 30° will be (i) A is feebly repelled
(a) 5 × 10–6 Nm (b) data is insufficient (ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
1 (iv) D remains unaffected
(c) ´ 10 -5 Nm (d) 5 3 ´ 10 -6 Nm
3 Which one of the following is true ?
10. The correct relation is (a) B is of a paramagnetic material
(b) C is of a diamagnetic material
BV (c) D is of a ferromagnetic material
(a) B = B (b) B = BV ´ BH (d) A is of a non–magnetic material
H
16. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side
(c) | B |= BH2 + BV2 (d) B = BH + BV l is suspended between the pole pieces of a
®
11. Above Curie temperature permanent magnet such that B is in the plane of
(a) a paramagnetic substance becomes the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque
diamagnetic t acts on it, the side l of the triangle is
(b) a diamagnetic substance becomes 1 1
paramagnetic 2 æ t ö2 æ t ö2
(a) ç ÷ (b) 2çç ÷÷
(c) a paramagnetic substance becomes 3 è B.i ø è 3B.i ø
ferromagnetic
(d) a ferromagnetic substance becomes 2 æ t ö 1 t
(c) ç ÷ (d)
paramagnetic 3 è B.i ø 3 B.i
Magnetism and Matter P-115
17. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of (c) No sign

diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and (d) Can be positive or negative
ferromagnetic material are denoted by md, mp and 3. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig
mf respectively, then associated with
(a) md = 0 and mp ¹ 0 (b) md ¹ 0 and mp = 0
(c) mp = 0 and mf ¹ 0 (d) md ¹ 0 and mf ¹ 0 (i)
18. A small bar magnet of moment M is placed in a (ii)
uniform field H. If magnet makes an angle of 30° H
with field, the torque acting on the magnet is
MH
(a) MH (b)
2
MH MH (a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic
(c) (d) substance
3 4
19. The true value of angle of dip at a place is 60°, the (b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic
apparent dip in a plane inclined at an angle of 30° substance
with magnetic meridian is (c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel
(d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron
-1 1
(a) tan (b) tan -1 (2) 4. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are
2
correctly shown in
-1 æ 2 ö
(c) tan çè ÷ø (d) None of these
3
20. The materials suitable for making electromagnets N N
should have
(a) high retentivity and low coercivity (a) (b)
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity S S
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity
1. A steel wire of length l has a magnetic moment
M. It is bent in L-shape (Figure). The new N N
magnetic moment is
(c) (d)
M l
(a) M (b) S S
2 2
M
(c) (d) 2M l
2 5. The given figure represents a material which is
2
2. Imagine rolling a sheet of paper into a cylinder
and placing a bar magnet near its end as shown
in figure. What can you
r say about the sign of
r r
B.dA for every area dA on the surface?
(a) Positive (b) Negative (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic

(c) ferromagnetic (d) none of these
P-116 PHYSICS
Assertion/ Reason : Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
questions also has four alternative choices, only one statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one statement in Column I can have correct matching
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. with one statement given in Column II. Each question
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out
a correct explanation for assertion. of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 1. Column I Column II
is not a correct explanation for assertion (A) Axial field for a short (1) – M.B
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect dipole
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (B) Equatorial field for a (2) M × B
1. Assertion : The poles of magnet can not be short dipole
separated by breaking into two pieces. (C) External field torque (3) m0 2M/4pr3
Reason : The magnetic moment will be reduced to (D) External field energy (4) –m0 M/4pr3
half when a magnet is broken into two equal pieces. (a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
2. Assertion : The earth¢s magnetic field is due to (b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1)
iron present in its core. (c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
Reason : At a high temperature magnet losses (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
its magnetism. 2. Column I Column II
3. Assertion : To protect any instrument from (A) Horizontal (1) BE sin q
external magnetic field, it is put inside an iron component
body. BV
Reason : Iron has high permeability. (B) Vertical (2)
BH
4. Assertion : The sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable component
magnetic material as a core inside the coil. (C) tan q (3) BE cos q
Reason : Soft ir on has high magnetic (D) Tangent law (4) B = BH tan q
permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or (a) A ® (3); B ® (2); C ® (1); D ® (4)
demagnetized. (b) A ® (3); B ® (1); C ® (2); D ® (4)
5. Assertion : Magnetism is relativistic. (c) A ® (2); B ® (3); C ® (1); D ® (4)
Reason : When we move along with the charge
(d) A ® (1); B ® (3); C ® (2); D ® (4)
so that there is no motion relative to us, we find
no magnetic field associated with the charge. 3. Column I Column II
6. Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do not (A) Negative (1) Ferromagnetic
obey Curie’s law. susceptibility
Reason : At Curie point a ferromagnetic (B) Positive and small (2) Diamagnetic
substance start behaving as a paramagnetic susceptibility
substance. (C) Positive and large (3) Paramagnetic
7. Assertion : A paramagnetic sample display susceptibility
greater magnetisation (for the same magnetic
(D) Loadstone (4) Magnetite
field) when cooled.
Reason : The magnetisation does not depend (a) A ® (3); B ® (2); C ® (4); D ® (1)
on temperature. (b) A ® (1); B ® (2); C ® (3); D ® (4)
8. Assertion : Electromagnets are made of soft iron. (c) A ® (2); B ® (3); C ® (1); D ® (4)
Reason : Coercivity of soft iron is small. (d) A ® (2); B ® (1); C ® (4); D ® (3)
Magnetism and Matter P-117
Critical Thinking Type Questions : vertical wire placed 20 cm east of the magnet.
Find the new time period.
1. Time periods of vibation of two bar magnets in (a) 0.076 s (b) 0.5 s
sum and difference positions are 4 sec and 6 sec (c) 0.1 s (d) 0.2 s
respectively. The ratio of their magnetic moments 5. A magnetising field of 2 × 103 A m–1 produces a
M1 / M2 is magnetic flux density of 8p T in an iron rod. The
(a) 6 : 4 (b) 30 : 16 relative permeability of the rod will be
(c) 2 . 6 : 1 (d) 1 . 5 : 1 (a) 102 (b) 1
(c) 104 (d) 103
2. A bar magnet 8 cms long is placed in the magnetic 6. At a temperatur of 30°C, the susceptibility of a
merdian with the N-pole pointing towards
ferromagnetic material is found to be c . Its
geographical north. Two netural points
susceptibility at 333°C is
separated by a distance of 6 cms are obtained
on the equatorial axis of the magnet. If horizontal (a) c (b) 0.5 c
component of earth’s field = 3.2 × 10–5 T, then (c) 2 c (d) 11.1 c
pole strength of magnet is 7. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 103 Am–1. It is
(a) 5 ab-amp × c (b) 10 ab-amp × cm desired to demagnetise it by inserting it inside a
solenoid 12 cm long and having 60 turns. The
(c) 2.5 ab-amp × cm (d) 20 ab-amp × cm
current that should be sent through the solenoid
3. Two magnets are held together in a vibration is
magnetometer and are allowed to oscillate in the (a) 2 A (b) 4 A
earth’s magnetic field with like poles together. (c) 6 A (d) 8 A
12 oscillations per minute are made but for unlike
poles together only 4 oscillations per minute are 8. A torque of 10 -5 Nm is required to hold a
executed. The ratio of their magnetic moments is magnet at 90° with the horizontal component H
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 of the earth’s magnetic field. The torque to hold
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4 it at 30° will be
4. A short magnet oscillates in an oscillation (a) 5 × 10–6 Nm (b) data is insufficient
magnetometer with a time period of 0.10s where 1 -5
(c) ´ 10 Nm (d) 5 3 ´ 10 -6 Nm
the earth¢s horizontal magnetic field is 24 mT. A 3
downward current of 18 A is established in a
P-118 PHYSICS
20 Electromagnetic
Induction
Fill in the Blanks : 4. A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept
along the diameter of a circular wire loop, without
1. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an touching. The emf induced in the loop is zero if
electric circuit changes, an emf is induced in the the current decreases at a steady rate.
circuit. This is called _______ . 5. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a coil
2. A moving conductor coil induces e.m.f. This is changes, an induced e.m.f.is produced in the
in accordance with _______ . circuit. The e.m.f. lasts so long as the change in
3. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of flux takes place
conservation of _______ . 6. Consider coil and magnet
4. The average power dissipation in pure
inductance is _______ . Y
5. A conducting wire is dropped along east-west
direction then induced current flows from
N S
_______ to _______ . X
6. A dynamo converts _______ into _______ . Current is induced in coil when both coil and
7. Choke coil works on the principle of _______ . magnet move along y with same speed.
8. Induction furnace make use of _______ current. 7. Two coils are placed close to each other. The
mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends
True/ False :
upon the rates at which currents are changing in
1. An e.m.f. can be induced between the two ends the two coils.
of a straight copper wire when it is moved 8. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series
through a uniform magnetic field. with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of
2. A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non- the bulb decreases when an iron rod is inserted
uniform magnetic field. An e.m.f. is induced in in the coil.
the coil. Conceptual MCQs
3. A conducting rod AB moves parallel to the x-
axis (see Fig.) in a uniform magnetic field pointing 1. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of
in the positive z-direction. The end A of the rod inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with
gets positively charged. the coil is
(a) 2 Wb (b) 0.5 Wb
(c) 12.5 Wb (d) Zero
2. A short-circuited coil is placed in a time-varying
magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated due
to the current induced in the coil. If the number
of turns were to be quadrupled and the wire
radius halved, the electrical power dissipated
would be –
(a) halved (b) the same
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled
Electromagnetic Induction P-119
3. If rotational velocity of a dynamo armature is (a) 5 H (b) 6 H

doubled, then induced emf will become (c) 11 H (d) 12 H
(a) unchanged (b) four times 9. The total charge induced in a conducting loop
(c) half (d) two times when it is moved in a magnetic field depend on
4. The coil is in a uniform magnetic field, (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
perpendicular to the plane of the coil, as shown. (b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only
10. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance
R changes by an amount Df in a time Dt. Then
the total quantity of electric charge Q that passes
any point in the circuit during the time Dt is
represented by
Consider now the following :
Df 1 Df
I. Rotation of the coil about an axis (a) Q = R. (b) Q= .
perpendicular to the coil and passing Dt R Dt
through its centre Df Df
II. Displacement of coil at constant speed (c) Q= (d) Q =
R Dt
towards right
11. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic
III. Rotation of coil about an axis passing field which changes from B0 to 4 B0 in time
through one of its diameters interval t. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be
In which of these an emf will be induced in the (a) 3 A 0 B0 / t (b) 4 A 0 B0 / t
coil :
(a) III only (b) I and III (c) 3 B0 / A 0 t (d) 4A 0 / B0 t
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III 12. A conducting square loop of side L and
5. Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform
placed so close together that the effective flux velocity v perpendicular to one of its side. A
in one coil is completely linked with the other. magnetic induction B constant in
The mutual inductance between these coils is x x x x x x
x x x x x x x x
(a) 6 mH (b) 4 mH
x x x x x vx B
(c) 16 mH (d) 10 mH x x x x x
6. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, x x x x x x
current changes with time according to relation time and space, pointing perpendicular and into
i = t2e–t. At what time emf is zero? the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The
(a) 4s (b) 3s current induced in the loop in
(c) 2s (d) 1s
7. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. Bl v
(a) clockwise
The current changes in the first coil according R
to equation I=I0 sin wt, where I0 = 10A and w =
100p radian/sec. The maximum value of e.m.f. in Bl v
(b) anticlockwise
the second coil is R
(a) 2p (b) 5p
(c) p (d) 4p 2Blv
(c) anticlockw ise
8. A varying current in a coil changes from 10A to R
zero in 0.5 sec. If the average e.m.f induced in (d) zero
the coil is 220V, the self-inductance of the coil is
P-120 PHYSICS
13. If a current increases from zero to one ampere in (a) zero

0.1 second in a coil of 5 mH, then the magnitude (b) anticlockwise of the +ve z axis
of the induced e.m.f. will be (c) clockwise of the +ve z axis
(a) 0.005 volt (b) 0.5 volt (d) along the magnetic field
(c) 0.05 volt (d) 5 volt
14. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal
resistance of 4000 hm. Its terminals are connected 1. In a coil of resistance 10 W, the induced current
to a load of 4000 ohm. The voltage across the developed by changing magnetic flux through
load is it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The
(a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt magnitude of change in flux through the coil
(c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt in weber is
15. An e.m.f. of 2 volt is produced in a coil when the i(amp)
current changes at a steady rate from 3 to 2
amperes in 1 milli-second. The value of self
4
inductance is
(a) zero (b) 2 mH
(b) 2 H (d) 200 mH
16. A coil has 200 turns and area of 70 cm2. The t(s)
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the 0 0.1
coil is 0.3 Wb/m2 and take 0.1 sec to rotate through (a) 8 (b) 2
180º.The value of the induced e.m.f. will be (c) 6 (d) 4
(a) 8.4 V (b) 84 V 2. Fig shown below represents an area A = 0.5 m 2
(c) 42 V (d) 4.2 V situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 2.0 weber/
17. A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular m2 and making an angle of 60º with respect to
to a uniform magnetic field of induction B. A magnetic field.
small cut is made in the ring and a galvanometer
is connected across the ends such that the total
resistance of the circuit is R. When the ring is B
suddenly squeezed to zero area, the charge 60
flowing through the galvanometer is
BR AB
(a) (b)
A R The value of the magnetic flux through the area
2
B A would be equal to
(c) ABR (d) (a) 2.0 weber (b) 3 weber
R2
18. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1A. (c) 3 / 2 weber (d) 0.5 weber
Energy stored in its magnetic field is 3. In the given situation, the bar magnet experinces
(a) 0.5 J (b) 1 A a ...A... force due to the ... B ... in coil.
(c) 0.05 J (d) 0.1 J
19. The armature of a dc motor has 20W resis-
tance. It draws a current of 1.5 A when run by
a 220 V dc supply. The value of the back emf
induced in it is
(a) 150 V (b) 170 V N
(c) 180 V (d) 190 V
20. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an Here, A and B refer to
uniform magnetic field B directed along positive (a) an attractive, air
z axis. The direction of induced current as seen (b) an attractive, induced current
from the z axis will be (c) repulsive, induced current
(d) attractive, vacuum
4. An electron moves along the line AB, which lies questions also has four alternative choices, only one
in the same plane as a circular loop of conducting of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
wires as shown in the diagram. What will be the of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
direction of current induced if any, in the loop
(a) no current will be induced (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(b) the current will be clockwise 1. Assertion : Induced emf will always occur
(c) the current will be anticlockwise whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
(d) the current will change direction as the
electron passes by Reason : Current always induces whenever there
5. As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial is change in magnetic flux.
conducting loops separated by some distance. 2. Assertion : Faraday¢s laws are consequence of
When the switch S is closed, a clockwise current conservation of energy.
IP flows in P (as seen by E) and an induced Reason : In a purely resistive ac circuit, the
current I Q1 flows in Q. The switch remains closed current legs behind the emf in phase.
for a long time. When S is opened, a current IQ2 3. Assertion : Lenz's law violates the principle of
flows in Q. Then the directions of I Q1 and IQ2 conservation of energy.
(as seen by E) are Reason : Induced emf always opposes the
change in magnetic flux responsible for its
production.
4. Assertion : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid
connected to a battery and a switch. A copper
ring is placed on a smooth surface, the axis of
(a) respectively clockwise and anticlockwise the ring being horizontal. As the switch is closed,
(b) both clockwise the ring will move away from the solenoid.
(c) both anticlockwise
(d) respectively anticlockwise and clockwise
6. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of
radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a
horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure.
The potential difference developed across the
ring when its speed is v, is : df
Reason : Induced emf in the ring, e = - .
dt
Q B
5. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a
conductor in a magnetic field.
r
Reason : An emf can be induced by changing
P R the magnetic field.
6. Assertion : Figure shows a metallic conductor
(a) Zero moving in magnetic field. The induced emf
(b) Bvpr2 /2 and P is at higher potential
across its ends is zero.
(c) prBv and R is at higher potential
(d) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
Assertion/ Reason :
Reason : The induced emf across the ends of a
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains conductor is given by e = Bvlsinq.
P-122 PHYSICS
7. Assertion : Eddy currents are produced in any 8. Assertion : When number of turns in a coil is
metallic conductor when magnetic flux is doubled, coefficient of self-inductance of the coil
changed around it. becomes 4 times.
Reason : Electric potential determines the flow Reason : This is because L µ N2.
of charge.

1. Match the following column-I and column-II.
Column I Column II
(A) AC generator (1) Eddy current
(B) DC motor (2) Slip rings
(C) Dead beat galvanometer (3) Split ring
(D) Solenoid wound in the form of a cylindrical coil (4) Insulated copper wire
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(A) Ring uniformly charged (1) Constant electrostatic field
out of system
(B) Rotating ring uniformly charged (2) Magnetic field strength rotating
velocity w with angular
(C) Constant current in ring i (3) Electric field (induced)
(D) i = i0coswt (4) Magnetic dipole moment
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (2, 3); (C) ® (1, 4, 3); (D) ® (3)
(b) (A) ® (3, 4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2,3); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (1, 2, 4); (C) ® (2, 4); (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4, 2, 1); (C) ® (2, 1); (D) ® (4, 2)
3. Time varying magnetic field is present in a circular region of radius R. Then
Column-I Column-II
(A) If a rod is placed along the diameter of the (1) Electric field is perpendicular to the
length of the rod. magnetic field
(B) Induced electric field at a point within (2) Constant along the length of
magnetic field (r < R) conductor.
r dB
(C) Induced electric field at a point out side the (3) -
2 dt
magnetic field (r > R)
R 2 dB
(D) Induced electric field in a conductor has a (4) -
2r dt
component parallel to length of conductor
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
4. Figure shows two circuits in which a conducting bar is sliding at the same speed v through the same
uniform magnetic field and along a U-shaped wire. The parallel lengths of the wire are separated by 2L in
circuit 1 and by L in circuit 2. The current induced a circuit 1 is counterclockwise.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Direction of current in circuit 1 (1) clockwise
(B) Direction of current in circuit 2 (2) anti-clockwise
(C) Large induce emf circuit (3) 1
(D) Smaller induce emf circuit (4) 2
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 2.07 × 10–3 W (b) 1.23 × 10–3 W
(c) 3.14 × 10–3 W (d) 1.80 × 10–3 W
1. The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is 4. A long solenoid having 200 turns per cm carries a
given by current of 1.5 amp. At the centre of it is placed a
f = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is coil of 100 turns of cross-sectional area 3.14 × 10–
(a) –190 V (b) –10 V 4 m2 having its axis parallel to the field produced
(c) 10 V (d) 190 V by the solenoid. When the direction of current in
2. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire the solenoid is reversed within 0.05 sec, the
in the form of a semicircle of radius r rotates induced e.m.f. in the coil is
about the diameter of the circle with an angular
(a) 0.48 V (b) 0.048 V
frequency w. The axis of rotation is perpendicular
(c) 0.0048 V (d) 48 V
to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit is
5. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the
R, the mean power generated per period of
same area A and total resistance R, rotates with
rotation is frequency w in a magnetic field B. The maximum
value of emf generated in the coil is
(Bprw) 2 (Bpr 2 w) 2
(a) (b) (a) N.A.B.R.w (b) N.A.B.
2R 2R (c) N.A.B.R. (d) N.A.B.w
6. The inductance of a closed-packed coil of 400
Bpr 2 w (Bprw2 ) 2 turns is 8 mH. A current of 5 mA is passed
(c) (d) through it. The magnetic flux through each turn
2R 8R
of the coil is
3. A circular coil of radius 6 cm and 20 turns rotates
1 1
about its vertical diameter with an angular speed (a) m0 Wb (b) m0 Wb
of 40 rad s–1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic 4p 2p
field of magnitude 2 × 10–2 T. If the coil form a 1
(c) m 0 Wb (d) 0.4 µ0Wb
closed loop of resistance 8W, then the average 3p
power loss due to joule heating is
P-124 PHYSICS
21 Alternating
Current
1. The maximum value of a.c. voltage in a circuit is 1. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in
707 V. Its r.m.s. value is _______ . inductance is I = 5 sin (100 t – p/2) amperes and
2. All a.c. meters are based on _______ effect of the potential difference is V = 200 sin (100 t)
current. volts. The power consumption is equal to
3. The alternating current of equivalent value of (a) 1000 watts (b) 40 watts
I0 (c) 20 watts (d) 0 watt
is _______ current.
2 2. A step down transformer is connected to 2400
4. In LCR circuit if resistance increases, quality volts line and 80 amperes of current is found to
factor ____ . flow in output load. The ratio of the turns in
5. The core of transformer is laminated to reduce primary and secondary coil is 20 : 1. If transformer
______ . efficiency is 100%, then the current flowing in
6. A transformer is based on the principle of the primary coil will be
_______ . (a) 1600 A (b) 20 A
7. The parallel combination of inductor and (c) 4 A (d) 1.5 A
capacitor is called as _______ circuit. 3. In the circuit shown in fig, the resonant
8. Transformers are used in _______ circuits only. frequency is
True/ False : 5mF
1. The frequency of a.c. mains in India is 60 Hz.

2. Most of the electrical energy sold by power 0.1H 5W
companies is transmitted and distributed as
alternating current. (a) 75 kc/s (b) 750 kc/s
3. The natural frequency of a L.C. circuit is equal (c) 7.5 kc/s (d) 75 mc/s
1 L 4. The power factor of an AC circuit having
to resistance (R) and inductance (L) connected in
2p C series and an angular velocity w is
4. In LCR series ac circuit, as the frequency of the (a) R/wL (b) R/(R2w2L2)
source increases, the impedence of the circuit
first decreases and then increases. (c) wL/R (d) R/(R2w2L2)½
5. Below resonance, voltage leads the current while 5. In an experiment, 200V A.C is applied at the
above it, current leads the voltage. ends of an LCR circuit. The circuit consists of
6. An alternating voltage of frequency w is induced an inductive reactance (XL) = 50W , capacitive
in electric circuit consisting of an inductance L reactance (XC) = 50W and ohmic resistance (R)
and capacitance C, connected in parallel. Then = 10W. The impedance of the circuit is
across the inductance coil the current is minimum (a) 10W (b) 20W (c) 30W (d) 40W
when w2 = 1/(L C). 6. In an A.C. circuit with phase voltage V and
7. If quality factor is large, i.e., R is low or L is large, current I, the power dissipated is
the circuit is more selective. (a) VI (b) V2I (c) VI2 (d) V2I2
Alternating Current P-125
7. In a transformers, number of turns in primary (d) lags behind the source voltage V by an angle
coil are 140 and that in secondary coil are 280. If between 0° and 90°.
current in primary coil is 4A, then that in 15. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in
secondary coil is series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A (c) 6 A (d) 10 A combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt
8. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to battery. The time constant of the circuit is
(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents (a) 20 seconds (b) 5 seconds
(b) make it light weight (c) 1/5 seconds (d) 40 seconds
(c) make it robust and sturdy 16. Resonance frequency of a circuit is f. If the
(d) increase secondary voltage capacitance is made 4 times the initial value, then
9. In an oscillating LC circuit the max. charge on the resonance frequency will become :
the capacitor is Q. The charge on capacitor when (a) f/2 (b) 2f (c) f (d) f/4
the energy is stored equally between electric 17. The average power delivered to an AC circuit by
and magnetic field is the source of emf is maximum when the circuit is
(a) consisting LCR away from resonance
(a) Q/2 (b) Q/ 3 (b) purely capacitive
(c) Q / 2 (d) Q (c) purely inductive
(d) purely resistive
10. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200
18. An inductor and a resistor in series are
2 sin 100 t volts is connected to a capacitor connected to an A.C. supply of variable
of capacity 1 mF. The r.m.s. value of the current frequency. As the frequency of the source is
in the circuit is increased, the phase angle between current and
(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA the potential difference across L will:
(c) 200 mA (d) 20 mA
L
11. An inductance L having a resistance R is
connected to an alternating source of angular
frequency w. The Quality factor Q of inductance
is ~ R
(a) R/ wL (b) (wL/R)2
(c) (R /wL)½ (d) wL/R
(a) first increase and then decrease
12. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X,
if capacitance and frequency become double, (b) first decrease and then increase
then reactance will be (c) go on decreasing
(a) 4X (b) X/2 (d) go on increasing
(c) X/4 (d) 2X 19. An AC source of variable frequency is connected
13. Which of the following will have the dimensions to a capacitor C and an inductor L as shown. A is
of time an ammeter
(a) LC (b) R/L
(c) L/R (d) C/L
14. In the circuit shown, the voltage V1 across
capacitor C
R
V ~ C V1
As the frequency is steadily increased the
current in A will :
(a) go on decreasing gradually
(a) is in phase with the source voltage V (b) go on increasing gradually
(b) leads the source voltage V by 90° (c) first increase and then decrease
(c) leads the source voltage V by an angle (d) first decrease and then increase
between 0° and 90°
P-126 PHYSICS
20. In a series LCR circuit, if the applied voltage V (a) 150 V and 2.2 A (b) 220 V and 2.0 A
and the current in the circuit I at any instant t are (c) 220 V and 2.0 A (d) 100 V and 2.0 A
given as :
V= V0 sin wt and I = I0 sin (wt – f) 4. In the given circuit, the current drawn from the
then which of the following holds good : source is
1 1
(a) wL = (b) wL >
V = 100x sin(100pt )
wC wC
X C = 20W
X L = 10W
1
R = 20W
(c) wL < (d) none of these
wC ~
1. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown
in the figure is (a) 20 A (b) 10 A
V (c) 5 A (d) 5 2 A
V0
5. The current in resistance R at resonance is
O t R
T/2 T
(a) V0 (b) V0 / 2
(c) V0/2 (d) V0 / 3 L C
2. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current ~

through the inductor is 0.9 A while the current V = V0 sin wt
through the condenser is 0.4 A. Then (a) zero
(b) minimum but finite
C
(c) maximum but finite
(d) infinite
L
Assertion/ Reason :
~ two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
V = V0 sin wt questions also has four alternative choices, only one
(a) current drawn from source I = 1.13 A of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
(b) w = 1/(1.5 L C)
(c) I = 0.5 A (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
(d) I = 0.6 A a correct explanation for assertion.
3. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter is not a correct explanation for assertion
V1 and V2 are 300 volt each. The reading of the (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete
L C R = 100 W cycle is always zero.
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined
V1 V2 V3
A over half cycle.
2. Assertion : The inductive reactance limits
~ amplitude of the current in a purely inductive
220 V, 50 Hz circuit.
Reason: The inductive reactance is independent 6. Assertion : When the frequency of the AC
of the frequency of the current. source in an LCR circuit equals the resonant
3. Assertion : A capacitor is connected to a direct frequency, the reactance of the circuit is zero,
current source. Its reactance is infinite. and so there is no current through the inductor
Reason : Reactance of a capacitor is given by or the capacitor.
1 . Reason : The net current in the inductor and
Xc = capacitor is zero.
wC
7. Assertion : In series LCR resonance circuit, the
4. Assertion : In a purely inductive or capacitive
impedance is equal to the ohmic resistance.
circuit, the current is referred to as wattless
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance
current.
exceeds the capacitive reactance.
Reason: No power is dissipated in a purely
8. Assertion : The power is produced when a
inductive or capacitive circuit even though a
current is flowing in the circuit. transformer steps up the voltage.
5. Assertion : The power in an ac circuit is minimum Reason : In an ideal transformer VI = constant.
if the circuit has only a resistor. 9. Assertion : A laminated core is used in
Reason: Power of a circuit is independent of the transformers to increase eddy currents.
phase angle. Reason: The efficiency of a transformer increases
with increase in eddy currents.
1. Match Columns I and II.
Column I Column II
(A) RL circuit (1) Leading quantity - current
(B) RC circuit (2) Leading quantity - voltage
(C) Inductive circuit (3) Phase difference between voltage and current 0°
(D) Resistive circuit (4) Phase difference between voltage and current 90°
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
2. In an LCR series circuit connected to an ac source, the supply voltage is V = V0 sin æç100pt + p ö÷ . VL = 40
è 6ø
V, VR = 40V, Z = 5W and R = 4W. Then match the column I and II.
Column I Column II
VL VC VR
(A) Peak current (in A) (1) 10 2
(B) V0 (in volts) (2) 50 2 L C R

(C) Effective value of applied (3) 50
voltage (in volts)
(D) XC (in W) (4) 1
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2)
P-128 PHYSICS
3. In a series LCR circuit, the e.m.f. leads current. Now the driving frequency is decreased slightly. Match
columns I and II.
Column I Column II
(A) Current amplitude (1) Increases
(B) Phase constant (2) Decreases
(C) Power developed in resistor (3) Remains same
(D) Impedance decrease (4) May increase or
(a) (A) ® (1, 2); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3, 4); (D) ® (1)
(b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (1, 2)
(d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1)
4. Consider the circuit shown in figure given below and match the columns.
L = 4mH R=10 W 10 µF
~
V = 20 sin w t
Column-I Column-II
(A) For w = 5,000 rad/sec (1) The current in circuit leads the voltage
(B) For w = 2,500 rad/sec (2) The current and voltage in circuit are in same phase
(C) For w = 75,00 rad/sec (3) The peak current in circuit is less than 2A
(D) For w = 5,000 rad/sec and R = 20W (4) Voltage in circuit leads the current.
in place of 10W
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(A) An L-C-R series circuit with 100 W resistance is connected to an A.C (1) (5/3) W
source of 200V and angular frequency 300 rad/sec. When only the
capacitance is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 60°
When only the inductance is removed, the current lead by the
voltage 60°. Impedance of circuit will be
(B) A 50 W, 100 V lamp is to be connected to an ac mains of 200V, 50 Hz. (2) 12 ´ 102 W
A capacitor of capacitance C is essential to be put in series with lamp.
What is the capacitance reactance
(C) A choke coil is needed to operate an arc lamp at 160V and 50 Hz. The (3) 11 W
arc lamp has an effective resistance of 5W when running at 10A. If the
same arc lamp is to be operated on 160V (dc), what addition resistance
is required.
(D) An a.c. source of angular frequency w is fed across a resistance R and (4) 100 W
capacitor of capacitance C in series. The current registered is l If now the
frequency of the source is changed to w/3 (keeping voltage same) the current
is found to the halved, the initial reactance is initial resistance will be
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : The primary is connected to an A.C. supply of
120 V and the current flowing in it is 10 A. The
1. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2W voltage and the current in the secondary are
is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The (a) 240 V, 5 A (b) 240 V, 10 A
current reaches half of its steady state value in
(c) 60 V, 20 A (d) 120 V, 20 A
(a) 0.1 s (b) 0.05 s
(c) 0.3 s (d) 0.15 s 6. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge
2. In an LCR series resonant circuit, the capacitance Q0 is connected to a coil of self inductance L at
is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored
frequency, the inductance should be changed equally between the electric and the magnetic
from L to field is
L p
(a) 2 L (b) (a) LC (b)
2 4
2p LC
L
(c) 4 L (d) (c) LC (d) p LC
4
3. The instantaneous values of alternating current 7. The primary of a transformer has 400 turns while
and voltages in a circuit are given as the secondary has 2000 turns. If the power
1 output from the secondary at 1000 V is 12 kW,
i= sin(100pt ) A what is the primary voltage?
2
(a) 200 V (b) 300 V
1
e= sin(100pt + p / 3) Volt (c) 400 V (d) 500 V
2 8. A transformer connected to 220 V mains is used
The average power in Watt consumed in the to light a lamp of rating 100 W and 110 V. If the
circuit is primary current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the
1 3 transformer is (approximately)
(a) (b)
4 4 (a) 60% (b) 35%
1 1 (c) 50% (d) 90%
(c) (d)
2 8 9. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is
4. A step up transformer operates on a 230 V line working on 200V and 3kW power supply. If the
and supplies a current of 2 ampere. The ratio of current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage
primary and secondary winding is 1:25 . The across the secondary coil and the current in the
current in primary is primary coil respectively are :
(a) 25 A (b) 50 A
(a) 300 V, 15A (b) 450 V, 15A
(c) 15 A (d) 12.5 A
5. The primary winding of a transformer has 100 (c) 450V, 13.5A (d) 600V, 15A
turns and its secondary winding has 200 turns.
P-130 PHYSICS
22 Electromagnetic
Waves
1. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature 1. The electromagnetic radiation used in food
is evident by _______ . processing sterilizing agent is:
2. If a variable frequency ac source connected to a (a) microwaves (b) UV rays
(c) gamma rays (d) radio waves
capacitor then with decrease in frequency, the 2. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave
displacement current will _______ . r
3. The displacement current was first postulated in vacuum is given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 ×
108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and
by ______ . seconds respectively. The value of wave vector
4. According to Maxwell’s equation the velocity k is :
of light in any medium is expressed as c = (a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1
(c) 6 m –1 (d) 3 m–1
_______ .
5. The electromagnetic radiation used in food 3. Electromagnetic radiation will be emitted in the
case of a
processing sterilizing agent is _______ .
(a) neutron moving in a straight line with a
6. _______ are the cause of “Green house effect” constant speed
7. It is possible to take pictures of those objects (b) proton moving in a straight line with a
which are not fully visible to the eye using camera constant speed
films sensitive to _______ rays. (c) is constant inside and decays as I r outside
the solenoid
True/ False : æ 1ö
(d) is constant inside and decays as exp ç – ÷
outside è rø
1. Displacement current comes into play in a region
where electric field is changing with time. 4. Intensity of electromagnetic wave will be :
2. b-rays are electromagnetic waves. (a) I = cm 0 B20 / 2 (b) I = ce 0 B20 / 2
3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity I falls on a
surface kept in vacuum and exerts radiation (c) I = B20 / cm 0 (d) I = E 02 / 2ce 0
pressure P on it. Radiation pressure is I/c if the
wave is totally absorbed. 5. The electric (E) and magnetic (B) field amplitudes
4. Energy stored in electromagnetic oscillations is associated with an electromagnetic radiation from
in the form of electric energy only. a point source behave at a distance r from the
5. The amplitude of an electromagnetic wave in source as
vacuum is doubled with no other changes made (a) E = constant, B = constant
to the wave. As a result of this doubling of the
amplitude, the speed of wave propagation 1 1 1 1
(b) E µ , Bµ (c) E µ ,B µ
changes. r r r 2
r2
6. Frequency of microwaves is greater than that of
ultraviolet rays. 1 1
7. Gamma ray has shortest wavelength in the (d) Eµ 3
, Bµ
electromagnetic spectrum. r r3
Electromagnetic Waves P-131
6. In 1825, the existence of electromagnetic waves (c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the
was predicted by electric susceptibility of vacuum
(a) Maxwell (b) Hertz (d) unity
12. In a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
(c) Bose (d) Marconi
space has an electric field of amplitude 9 × 103 V/
7. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave m, then the amplitude of the magnetic field is
in free space travelling along x-direction is given
(a) 2.7 × 1012 T (b) 9.0 × 10–3 T
by : Ez = 60 sin (kx + wt) V/m.
(c) 3.0 × 10–4 T (d) 3.0 × 10–5 T
The magnetic field component will be given as :
13. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature
60 is evident by
(a) Bz = sin (kz + wt)T
c (a) polarization (b) interference
(c) reflection (d) diffraction
60
(b) Bz = sin (kx + wt)T 14. Which of the following are not electromagnetic
c waves?
60 (a) cosmic rays (b) gamma rays
(c) By = sin (ky + wt)T
c (c) b -rays (d) X-rays.
60 15. Which of the following radiations has the least
(d) By = sin (kx + wt)T wavelength ?
c
Here c represents the speed of light in free space (a) g -rays (b) b -rays
8. If a source is transmitting electromagnetic wave (c) a -rays (d) X -rays
of frequency 8.2 × 106 Hz, then wavelength of 16. The electric field part of an electromagnetic
the electromagnetic waves transmitted from the wave in a medium is represented by Ex=0;
source will be
(a) 36.6 m (b) 40.5 m N éæ rad ö æ –2 rad ö ù ;
E y = 2.5 cos ê ç 2π ×106 ÷ t – ç π ×10 ÷x
C ëè mø è s ø úû
(c) 42.3 m (d) 50.9 m
9. We consider the radiation emitted by the human Ez = 0. The wave is :
body. Which of the following statements is true? (a) moving along x direction with frequency 106
(a) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet Hz and wavelength 100 m.
region and hence is not visible. (b) moving along x direction with frequency
(b) The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region. 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
(c) The radiation is emitted only during the day. (c) moving along – x direction with frequency
(d) The radiation is emitted during the summers 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
and absorbed during the winters. (d) moving along y direction with frequency
10. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which 2p × 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
best suited to observe a particle of radii 3 × 10–4 17. If l = 10 Å then it corresponds to
cm is of the order of (a) infrared (b) microwaves
(a) 1015 (b) 1014
(c) 10 13 (d) 1012 (c) ultraviolet (d) X-rays
11. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the 18. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the
amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic spectrum of
wave propagating in vacuum is equal to : (a) infrared rays (b) ultra-violet rays
(a) the speed of light in vacuum
(b) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum (c) microwaves (d) g -rays
P-132 PHYSICS
19. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitudes of 2. The figure here gives the electric field of an
magnetic field Ho and electric field Eo in free space electromagnetic wave at a certain point and a
are related as : certain instant. The wave is transporting energy
in the negative z-direction. The direction of the
Eo magnetic field of the wave at that point and
(a) Ho = Eo (b) H =
c instant is
eo
(c) H o = Eo m o e o (d) H o = E o
mo
20. In an electromagnetic wave
(a) power is transmitted along the magnetic
field
(b) power is transmitted along the electric
field
(a) + ve x-direction
(C) power is equally transferred along the elec- (b) –ve x-direction
tric and magnetic fields (c) +ve z-direction
(d) power is transmitted in a direction perpen- (d) –ve y-direction
dicular to both the fields 3. The figure shows graphs of the electric field
21. The frequency modulated waves are magnitude E versus time t for four uniform
(a) reflected by atmosphere electric fields, all contained within identical
(b) absorbed by atmosphere circular regions. Which of them is according to
(c) bend by atmosphere the magnitudes of the magnetic field?
(d) radio waves
22. The energy of electromagnetic wave in
vacuum is given by the relation
E2 B2 1 1
(a) + (b) e 0E 2 + µ0B2
2e 0 2µ 0 2 2
E 2 + B2 1 B2 (a) A (b) B
(c) (d) e0E 2 +
c 2 2µ0 (c) C (d) D
4. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor and the
current in the connecting wires that is
1. Light wave is travelling
r along y-direction. If the discharging the capacitor.
corresponding E vector at any time is along the
r
x-axis, the direction of B vector at that time is
along :
y
x
(a) The displacement current is leftward.
z (b) The displacement current is rightward
(a) y-axis (b) x-axis r
(c) The electric field E is rightward
(c) + z-axis (d) – z-axis (d) The magnetic field at point P is out the page.
Assertion/ Reason : wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.

4. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves carry energy
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains and momentum.
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be
questions also has four alternative choices, only one polarised.
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one 5. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves exert
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. radiation pressure.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is Reason : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
a correct explanation for assertion. 6. Assertion : The velocity of electromagnetic
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason waves depends on electric and magnetic
is not a correct explanation for assertion properties of the medium.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. free space is constant.
1. Assertion : Displacement current goes through 7. Assertion : The basic difference between various
the gap between the plates of a capacitor when types of electromagnetic waves lies in their
the charge of the capacitor does not change. wavelength or frequencies.
Reason : The displacement current arises in the Reason : Electromagnetic waves travel through
region in which the electric field is constant with vacuum with the same speed.
time. 8. Assertion : Microwaves are better carrier of
2. Assertion : Electromagnetic wave are transverse signals than optical waves.
in nature. Reason : Microwaves move faster than optical
Reason : The electric and magnetic fields in waves.
electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each 9. Assertion : Infrared radiation plays an important
other and the direction of propagation. role in maintaining the average temperature of
3. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves interact with earth.
matter and set up oscillations. Reason : Infrared radiations are sometimes
Reason : Interaction is independent of the referred to as heat waves.
1. Match the columns I and II.
Column I Column II
1
(A) Energy associated with an electromagnetic (1)
me
wave
u
(B) Radiation pressure (2)
c
1 1 B2
(C) Speed of EM wave in a medium (3) e0 E 2 +
2 2 m0
dfE
(D) Displacement current (4) ID = e0
dt
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
P-134 PHYSICS
2. Various electromagnetic waves are given in column I and various frequency ranges in column II. Match
the two columns.
Column I Column II
(A) Radio waves (1) 1 × 1016 to 3 × 1021 Hz
(B) g-rays (2) 1 × 109 to 3 × 1011 HZ
(C) Microwaves (3) 3 × 1018 to 5 × 1022 Hz
(D) X-rays (4) 5 × 105 to 109 Hz.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
Column I Column II
Electromagnetic wave Use
(A) ultraviolet rays (1) In satellite for army purpose
(B) Infrared rays (2) Aircraft navigation in RADAR
(C) Microwave (3) Television and cellular phones
(D) Radio wave (4) Checking mineral sample
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
4. Match Column-I (Wavelength range of electromagnetic spectrum) with Column-II (Method of production
of these waves) and select the correct option from the options given below the lists.
Column I Column II
(A) 700 nm to 1 mm (1) Vibration of atoms and molecules.
(B) 1 nm to 400 nm (2) Inner shell electrons in atoms moving
from one energy level to a lower level.
(C) < 10–3 nm (3) Radioactive decay of the nucleus.
(D) 1 mm to 0.1 m (4) Magnetron valve.
(a) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
5. Match the Column-I (Phenomenon associated with electromagnetic radiation) with Column-II (Part of
electromagnetic spectrum) and select the correct code from the choices given below the lists:
Column I Column II
(A) Doublet of sodium (1) Visible radiation
(B) Wavelength corresponding to temperature (2) Microwave
associated with the isotropic radiation filling
all space
(C) Wavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in (3) Short radio wave
interstellar space
(D) Wavelength of radiation arising from two (4) X-rays
close energy levels in hydrogen
(a) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and

magnetic fields are 100 V m–1 and 0.265 A m–1.
1. In order to establish an instantaneous The maximum energy flow is
displacemet current of 1 mA in the space between (a) 26.5 W/m2 (b) 36.5 W/m2
the plates of 2mF parallel plate capacitor, the (c) 46.7 W/m2 (d) 765 W/m2
potential difference need to apply is 6. The transmitting antenna of a radiostation is
mounted vertically. At a point 10 km due north
(a) 100 Vs–1 (b) 200 Vs–1
–1
of the transmitter the peak electric field is 10–3
(c) 300 Vs (d) 500 Vs–1 Vm–1. The magnitude of the radiated magnetic
2. An electromagnetic wave of frequency u = 3 field is
MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric (a) 3.33 × 10–10 T (b) 3.33 × 10–12 T
medium with permittivity (c) 10 T –3 (d) 3 × 105 T
e = 4. Then 7. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free
(a) wavelength and frequency both become space along x-axis. At a particular point in space,
half. the electric field along y-axis is 9.3V m–1. The
(b) wavelength is doubled and frequency
magnetic induction (B) along z-axis is
remains unchanged.
(a) 3.1 × 10–8 T (b) 3 × 10–5 T
(c) wavelength and frequncy both remain
unchanged. (c) 3 × 10–6 T (d) 9.3 × 10–6 T
(d) wavelength is halved and frequency 8. The rms value of the electric field of the light
remains unchanged. coming from the Sun is 720 N/C. The average
3. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave total energy density of the electromagnetic wave
r is
in vacuum is given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 ×
(a) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3 (b) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3
108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and
seconds respectively. The value of wave vector (c) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3 (d) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3
k is 9. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave
(a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 travelling through vaccum is given by the
(c) 6 m –1 (d) 3 m–1 equation E = E0 sin (kx – wt). The quantity that
4. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic is independent of wavelength is
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value
k
of electric field strength is (a) kw (b)
(a) 3 V/m (b) 6 V/m w
(c) 9 V/m (d) 12 V/m (c) k 2 w (d) w
P-136 PHYSICS
23 Ray Optics and

Optical Instruments
1. The minimum distance between an object and
1. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an
its real image formed by a convex lens is
_______. image 1/nth of the size of the object. The distance
2. Intensity of light after reflection _______ . of the object from the mirror is
n2 n1 n2 - n1 f
3. The equation - = holds true for (a) (b) (n - 1)f
v u R n -1
any _______ .
4. When the angle of incidence of a light ray is æ n -1ö
(c) nf - 1 (d) çè ÷f
greater than the critical angle it gets _______ . n ø
5. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water
2. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window
is minimum for _______ colour of light.
6. A ray of light is refracted through a prism 3
of thickness 4 mm whose refractive index is
producing minimum deviation. If i and e denote 2
the angle of incidence and emergence for this is
prism, then i and e related as _______ .
(a) 2 × 10–4 sec (b) 2 × 108 sec
7. The focal length of a normal eye-lens is about
______ .
8. To increase the angular magnification of a simple (c) 2 × 10–11 sec (d) 2 × 1011 sec
microscope, one should increase _____ of lens. 3. The hypermetropia is a
True/ False : (a) short-sight defect
(b) long-sight defect
1. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal (c) bad vision due to old age
all lie in the same plane.
(d) none of these
2. After reflection, velocity, wavelength and
frequency of light remains same. 4. A thin prism P1 with angle 4° made of glass of
3. A convex mirror is used to form the real image of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another
an object. thin prism P2 made of glass of refractive index
4. In case of reflection over spherical surface, 1.72 to produce no deviation. The angle of prism
normal is taken as perpendicular of tangent at
P2 is
point of incidence.
5. Sunlight reaches to us in composite form and (a) 3° (b) 2.6°
not in its constituent colours because vacuum (c) 4° (d) 5.33°
is non–dispersive and speed of all colours is 5. Green light of wavelength 5460 Å is incident on
same in vacuum. an air-glass interface. If the refractive index of
6. At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to glass is 1.5, the wavelength of light in glass would
pass through a larger distance in the atmosphere. be (c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
7. According to Rayleigh, scattering is (a) 3640 Å (b) 5460 Å
proportional to (1/l)2. (c) 4861 Å (d) none of the above
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments P-137
6. A rectangular block of glass is placed on a (a) 20 cm (b) 24 cm

printed page lying on a horizontal surface. The (c) 30 cm (d) 15 cm
minimum value of the refractive index of glass
for which the letters on the page are not visible 13. For glass prism (m = 3) , the angle of minimum
from any of the vertical faces of block is – deviation is equal to the angle of prism. The angle
(a) ³ 3 (b) ³ 1.55 of prism is
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) ³ 2 (d) ³ 1.38 (c) 60° (d) 90°
7. For the normal setting of telescope 14. A ray of light falls on transparent sphere with
(a) neither the object nor the final image has to centre at C as shown in the figure. The ray
be at infinity. emerges from the sphere parallel to the line AB.
(b) both object and the final image is at infinity The refractive index of the sphere is
(c) only object is at the infinity
(d) only the final image is at infinity C
A B
8. A point object is moving on the principal axis of 60°
a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards
the mirror. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from
the mirror its velocity is 9 cm/sec. What is the (a) 2 (b) 3
velocity of the image at that instant ? (c) 3/2 (d) 1/2
(a) 9 cm/sec away from the mirror 15. A normal eye is not able to see objects closer
(b) 9 cm/sec away from the mirror than 25 cm because
(c) 4 cm/sec towards the mirror (a) the focal length of the eye is 25 cm
(d) 4 cm/sec away from the mirror (b) the distance of the retina from the eye-lens
9. A planoconvex lens of focal length 6.0 cm is is 25 cm
constructed from a material of refractive index (c) the eye is not able to decrease the distance
µ = 1.5with respect to air. The radius of curvature between the eye-lens and the retina beyond
of the curved surface is : a limit
(a) 6.0 cm (b) 3.0 cm (d) the eye is not able to decrease the focal
(c) 9.0 cm (d) 4.5 cm
length beyond a limit
10. A convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a 16. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m.
concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined Power of spectacle lenses required for (i) reading
together. What will be their resulting power? purposes, (ii) seeing distant objects,
(a) + 6.5 D (b) – 6.5 D respectively, are
(c) + 7.5 D (d) – 0.75 D (a) –2 D and + 3 D (b) +2 D and –3 D
11. The diameter of the moon is 3.5 × 103 km and its (c) +2 D and –0.33 D (d) –2 D and + 0.33 D
distance from the earth is 3.8 × 105 km. The 17. If two mirrors are kept at 60º to each other, then
angular diameter of the moon formed by a the number of images formed by them is
telescope, if the focal length of the objective is (a) 5 (b) 6
4m and that of the eyepiece is 10 cm, will be near (c) 7 (d) 8
to : 18. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness
t and having refractive index m. If c be the
(a) 0.37° (b) 11° velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by
(c) 21° (d) 57° the light to travel this thickness of glass is
12. A plano-convex lens has curved surface having t
radius of curvature 60 cm and it is made of (a)
mc
(b) tmc
material of refractive index 1.5. When the convex
surface is silvered, the system will work as a mt tc
concave mirror of focal length (c) (d)
c m
P-138 PHYSICS
19. The refractive index of water is 1.33. What will

be speed of light in water ?
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 2.25 × 108 m/s
8
(c) 4 × 10 m/s (d) 1.33 × 108 m/s 60°
(ii) Air
20. A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive Water
41°
index m. The other half of the vessel is filled with
an immiscible liquid of refrative index 1.5 m. The
apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the actual
depth. Then m is
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.5 q
(c) 1.6 (d) 1.67 (iii) Glass
Water
21. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in 41°
contact and coaxial. Its power is same as power
of a single lens given by
(a) 30° (b) 35°
f1 + f 2 æ f1 ö (c) 60° (d) 41°
(a) (b) ç ÷
f1f 2 çf ÷ 3. The following figure shows refraction of light at
è 2ø
the interface of three media.
æ f2 ö f1 + f 2
(c) ç ÷ (d)
çf ÷ 2
è 1ø Medium 1 Medium 2
r2 Medium 3
r1
r1
1. Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected i1
by a mirror and going as A' and B'. The mirror
Correct the order of optical density of the three

A
media is
(a) d1 > d2 > d3 (b) d2 > d1 > d3
B A (c) d3 > d1 > d2 (d) d2 > d3 > d1
4. The graph between angle of deviation (d) and
B angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is
represented by
(a) is plane
(b) is convex
(c) is concave (a) (b) d
d
(d) may be any spherical mirror
2. Refraction of light from air to glass and from air
to water are shown in figure (i) and figure (ii) o o
below. The value of the angle q in the case of i i
refraction as shown in figure (iii) will be
(c) (d)
35° d d
(i) Glass
Air 60°
o o
i i
5. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum is not a correct explanation for assertion
deviation (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
Q
R
S
1. Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.
P Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object
is real.
2. Assertion : The focal length of the convex mirror
(a) PQ is horizontal will increase, if the mirror is placed in water.
(b) QR is horizontal Reason : The focal length of a convex mirror of
(c) RS is horizontal radius R is equal to , f = R/2.
(d) Any one will be horizontal 3. Assertion : The image formed by a concave mirror
is certainly real if the object is virtual.
6. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed Reason : The image formed by a concave mirror
in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam is certainly virtual if the object is real.
incident normally on the face AB is totally 4. Assertion : An object is placed at a distance of
reflected to reach on the face BC if f from a convex mirror of focal length f its image
will form at infinity.
A B Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror
q can never be infinity.
5. Assertion : The image of a point object situated
at the centre of hemispherical lens is also at the
centre.
6. Assertion : When a convex lens (µg= 3/2) of
focal length f is dipped in water, its focal length
8 2 8 4
(a) sin q ³ (b) < sin q < becomes f .
3 9 3
9 Reason : The focal length of convex lens in water
2 becomes 4f.
(c) sin q £ (d) None of these 7. Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex
3
lens of radius of curvature R made of material of
Assertion/ Reason : refractive index µ = 1.5, is R.
Reason : The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains 8. Assertion : If the rays are diverging after
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these emerging from a lens; the lens must be concave.
questions also has four alternative choices, only one Reason : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one 9. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. more if the diameter of the objective lens is more.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects
a correct explanation for assertion. more light.
1. Match the Column-I and Column-II
Column – I Column – II
(A) An object is placed at focus (1) Magnification is –¥
before aconvex mirror
(B) An object is placed at centre of curvature (2) Magnification is 0.5
before a concave mirror
P-140 PHYSICS
(C) An object is placed at focus (3) Magnification is +1

before a concave mirror
(D) An object is placed at centre of curvature (4) Magnification is –1
before a convex mirror
(5) Magnification is 0.33
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (5) (b) (A) ® (5); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (5) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (5); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(A) Mirage (1) Refraction of light by
(B) Apparent depth of object is lesser than (2) Scattering of sunlight
the actual depth in water
(C) Blue colour of sky (3) Total internal reflection
(D) The formation of rainbow (4) Dispersion of sunlight
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(A) Lens of power + 2.0 D (1) Convex lens of focal length 200 cm.
(B) Lenses of combination of power +0.25 D (2) Concave lens of focal length 40 cm
and +0.25 D
(C) Lens of power –2.0 D (3) Convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(D) Lenses combination of power –60 D (4) Concave lens of focal length 50 cm
and +3.5 D
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
4. For an object placed in front of a mirror, magnification (m) is given in Column I, Column II gives the
possible nature of the mirror or that of image. Match appropriately.
1
(A) m = (1) Concave mirror
4
(B) m = –1 (2) Convex mirror
(C) m=2 (3) Plane mirror
(D) m=1 (4) Real
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2)
(A) Hypermetropia (1)
(B) Myopia (2)
(C) Astigmatism (3)

(D) Presbyopia (4)
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
6. Match the columns I and II
Column I Column II
(A) Terrestrial telescope (1) Final image is inverted
w.r.t. the object.
(B) Galileo’s telescope (2) No chromatic aberration
(C) Reflecting telescope (3) Final image is erected.
(D) Astronomical (4) Uses concave lens for
telescope the eyepiece to obtain
an erected image.
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses
(refractive index 1.5) each having radius of
1. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex
refractive index m1 and the other half is filled surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening
with water of refractive index m2. The apparent space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The
depth of the vessel when viewed from above is focal length of the combination is
x (m1 + m 2 ) (a) –25 cm (b) –50 cm
xm1m 2
(a) (b) (c) 50 cm (d) –20 cm
2m1m2 2(m1 + m2 )
5. The refracting angle of a prism is ‘A’, and
xm1m2 2 x (m1 + m2 ) refractive index of the material of the prism is
(c) (d) cot(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is :
(m1 + m 2 ) m1m2
(a) 180° – 2A (b) 90° – A
2. Light travels in two media A and B with speeds
(c) 180° + 2A (d) 180° – 3A
1.8 ×
6. The focal lengths of objective and eye lens of
108 m s–1 and 2.4 × 108 m s–1 respectively. Then
an astronomical telelscope are respectively 2
the critical angle between them is
meter and 5 cm. Final image is formed at (i) least
æ 2ö æ 3ö distance of distinct vision (ii) infinity Magnifying
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) tan -1 ç ÷ power in two cases will be
è 3ø è 4ø
(a) – 48, – 40 (b) – 40, – 48
æ 2ö æ 3ö (c) – 40, + 48 (d) – 48, + 40
(c) tan -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
è 3ø è 4ø 7. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as
3. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if
power of – 5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical
medium with refractive index 1.6 will be face, is
(a) – 1D
(c) – 25 D
(b) 1 D
(d) 25 D (a) 3/ 2 (b)
( 3 + 1)
2
(c)
( 2 +1 ) (d) 5 /2
2
P-142 PHYSICS
24 Wave Optics
Fill in the Blanks : 5. The resolving power of a telescope is limited by

the diameter of objective lens.
1. The locus of all particles in a medium, vibrating
in the same phase is called _______ . 6. The magnification by objective lens of a
2. A plane wave passes through a convex lens. microscope does not depend upon the angle
The geometrical shape of the wavefront that subtended by the diameter of the objective lens
emerges is _______ . at the focus of the microscope.
3. If two coherent sources are vibrating in phase 7. Fringes with blue light are thicker than those for
then we have _______ interference at any point red light.
whenever the path difference is nl.
4. In young’s double slit experiment, the central Conceptual MCQs
point on the screen is _______ . 1. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of
5. If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an
water keeping the rest of the set-up same, the angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is
fringe width will _____. incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum
6. When ordinary light is made incident on a quarter is observed at an angle of :
wave plate, the emergent light is _______
æ 1ö æ 2ö
polarised. (a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
7. In a diffraction pattern by a wise, on increasing è 4ø è 3ø
diameter of wire, fringe width _____. æ 1ö -1 æ 3 ö
8. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because (c) sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin çè ÷ø
è 2ø 4
it ______ intensity of sunlight.
9. According to Brewster’s law of polarisation, 2. A parallel beam of light pass through a screen
m = _______ . S1 containing a slit and then produces a
diffraction pattern on a screen S2 placed behind
True/ False : it. The width of the central maximum observed
on the scren S2 can be increased by
1. Shape of wavefront in case of light emerging (a) decreasing the distance between the
out of a convex lens when a point source is screens S1 and S2
placed at its focus is plane. (b) increasing the width of the slit in screen S1
2. A point source emitting waves uniformly in all (c) decreasng the momentum of the electrons
directions. (d) increasing the momentum of the electron
3. At a small distance from the source, a small 3. In Young's double slit experiment 10th order
portion of sphere can be considered as plane maximum is obtained at the point of observation
wave. in the interference pattern for l = 7000 Å. If the
4. In order to observe good interference and source is replaced by another one of wavelength
diffraction pattern, the distance between the slits 5000 Å then the order of maximum at the same
should be very small (~ mm). point will be –
Wave Optics P-143
(a) 12 th (b) 14 th screen is placed at a large distance from the slit.

(c) 16 th (d) 18 th If the speed of the electrons is increased, which
4. A double slit is illuminated by two wavelength of the following statements is correct ?
450 nm and 600 nm. What is the lowest order at (a) The angular width of the central maximum
which the maxima of one wavelength coincides of the diffraction pattern will increase.
with the minima of the other wavelength – (b) The angular width of the central maximum
(a) 1 (b) 2 will decrease.
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) The angular width of the central maximum
5. In the far field diffraction pattern of a single slit will be unaffected.
under polychromatic illumination, the first (d) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the
minimum with the wavelength l1 is found to be screen in case of electrons.
coincident with the third maximum at l2. So – 12. In the Young's double slit experiment the
(a) 3l1 = 0.3l2 (b) 3l1 = l2 separation between the slits is halved and the
(c) l1 = 3.5 l2 (d) 0.3l1 = 3l2 distance between slits and the screen is doubled
6. Which of the following cannot exhibit diffraction the fringe width is
phenomenon ? (a) quadrupled (b) doubled
(a) photons (b) electrons (c) unchanged (d) halved
(c) neutrons (d) none of the above 13. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed
7. An unpolarised beam of light is incident on a with blue and with green light of wavelengths
plane surface separating air and glass at an angle 4360Å and 5460Å respectively. If x is the distance
equal to the Brewster angle. Then : of 4th maxima from the central one, then
(a) the reflected light has electric component (a) x (blue) = x (green)
only perpendicular to the incident plane. (b) x (blue) > x (green)
(b) the reflected light has electric component (c) x (blue) < x (green)
only in the plane of incidence.
(c) the electric component parallel to the plane x (blue) 5460
(d) =
of incidence in refracted ray completely x (green) 4360
disappear. 14. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe
(d) the magnetic component of the refracted width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole
light completely disappear. apparatus is immersed in water of refrative index
8. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity
of light at a point on the screen where the path 4
, without disturbing the geometrical
difference is l is K units. What is the intensity of 3
light at a point where the path difference is l/3; l arrangement, the new fringe width will be
being the wavelength of light used? (a) 0.30 mm (b) 0.40 mm
(a) K/4 (b) K/3 (c) 0.53 mm (d) 450 microns
(c) K/2 (d) K 15. In Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are
9. A single slit is illuminated by light whose placed 0.90 mm apart and fringe are observed
wavelengths are la and lb, so chosen that the one metre away. If it produces second dark fringe
first diffraction minimum of la coincides with the at a distance of 1 mm from central fringe, the
second minimum of lb. The two wavelengths wavelength of monochromatic light used would
are related as : be
(a) la= lb (b) 2la = lb (a) 60 × 10–4 cm (b) 10 × 10–4 cm
(c) la= 2lb (d) 2la = 3lb (c) 10 × 10–5 cm (d) 6 × 10–5 cm
10. If the source of light used in a Young’s double 16. In Young’s double slit experiment carried out with
slit experiment is changed from red to violet: light of wavelength (l) = 5000Å, the distance
(a) the fringes will become brighter
between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is at
(b) consecutive fringes will comes closer
200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at
(c) the intensity of minima will increase
(d) the central fringe- will became a dark fringe x = 0. The third maximum (taking the central
11. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is inci- maximum as zeroth maximum) will be at x equal to
dent normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent (a) 1.67 cm (b) 1.5 cm
(c) 0.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm
P-144 PHYSICS
17. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s (a) points (b) straight lines
double slit experiment is replaced by a (c) semi-circles (d) concentric circles
monochromatic blue light of the same intensity 2. Figure shows two coherent sources S1 and S2
(a) fringe width will decrease vibrating in same phase. AB is an irregular wire
(b) finge width will increase lying at a far distance from the sources S1 and
(c) fringe width will remain unchanged
(d) fringes will become less intense l
S2. Let = 10 -3 and Ð BOA = 0.12° . How
18. Interference was observed in interference d
chamber where air was present, now the chamber many bright spots will be seen on the wire,
is evacuated, and if the same light is used, a including points A and B?
careful observer will see
(a) No interference A
S1
(b) Interference with brighter bands
(c) Interference with dark bands d O
(d) Interference fringe with larger width
19. Two linear polarizers are crossed at an angle of S2
B
60°. The fraction of intensity of light transmitted
(a) 5 (b) 4
by the pair is
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/8 (c) 3/8 (d) 1/2 (c) 3 (d) 7
20. When wave of wavelength 0.2 cm is made 3. In Young's double slit experiment shown in figure
incident normally on a slit of width 0.004m, then S1 and S2 are coherent sources and S is the screen
the semi-angular width of central maximum of having a hole at a point 1.0mm away from the
diffraction pattern will be- central line. White light (400 to 700nm) is sent
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 90° (d) 0° through the slits. Which wavelength passing
21. In Young's experiment the wavelength of red through the hole has strong intensity?
light is 7.5 × 10–5 cm. and that of blue light
5.0 × 10–5 cm. The value of n for which (n +1)th the
blue bright band coincides with nth red band is - S1 Centre of
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1 screen
0.5mm
22. The equation of two light waves are S2 Screen
y1 = 6 coswt and y2 = 8 cos (wt + f). 1.0mm
The ratio of maximum to minimum intensities hole
produced by the superposition of these 50cm S
waves will be
(a) 49 : 1 (b) 1 : 49 (c) 1 : 7 (d) 7 : 1 (a) 400 nm (b) 700 nm
(c) 500 nm (d) 667 nm
Diagram Based Questions : 4. In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white
1. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are light is incident on the plane of the slits then the
separated by a small distance 'd' as shown in distance of the
figure. The fringes obtained on the screen will nearest white spot on the screen from O is d/A.
be Find the value of A. (assume d << D, l << d]
d 2d/3
d O
S1 S2 Screen D
D
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 4
Wave Optics P-145
5. For the given arrangement, the screen will have

1
Sodium lamp 2
3
S1
(a) 0 (b) l/4

S2 (c) l / 2 (d) l
Assertion/ Reason :
Screen two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
(a) interference pattern with central maxima questions also has four alternative choices, only one
(b) interference pattern with central minima of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
(c) two separate interference patterns with
central maxima
(d) doubly illuminated screen with no (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
interference pattern at all is not a correct explanation for assertion
6. A single-slit-diffraction pattern, through (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
following arrangement using an electric bulb as (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
the source of light only will be 1. Assertion : No interference pattern is detected
when two coherent sources are infinitely close
to each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely
proportional to the distance between the two
sources.
2. Assertion : It is necessary to have two waves of
equal intensity to study interference pattern.
(a) central dark fringe followed by bright fringe Reason : There will be an effect on clarity if the
of red colour waves are of unequal intensity.
3. Assertion : White light falls on a double slit
(b) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe with one slit is covered by a green filter. The
than bands of varying intensity bright fringes observed are of green colour.
Reason : The fringes observed are coloured.
(c) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe
4. Assertion : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced
then wider red fringes and narrower blue in front of the upper slit, then the fringe pattern
fringes. shifts in the downward direction.
(d) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe Reason : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal,
the minima will be completely dark.
then wider blue fringes followed by 5. Assertion : In YDSE, if I1 = 9I0 and I2 = 4I0 then
narrower red fringes. Imax
7. The figure shows Fraunhoffer’s diffraction due = 25.
I min
to a single slit. If first minimum is obtained in the
direction shown, then the path difference Reason : In YDSE Imax = ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 and
between rays 1 and 3 is I min = ( I1 - I 2 ) 2 .
P-146 PHYSICS
6. Assertion : In YDSE number of bright fringe or becomes narrower.

dark fringe can not be unlimited Reason : In YDSE, fringe width is given by
Reason : In YDSE path difference between the Dl
superposing waves can not be more than the b= .
d
distance between the slits. 8. Assertion : Coloured spectrum is seen when we
7. Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using look through a muslin cloth.
yellow light instead of red light, the fringes Reason : It is due the diffraction of white light
on passing through fine slits.
1. Column I Column II.
(A) Interference of light (1) I = I0 cos2 q
(B) Brewster’s Law (2) Obstacle/aperture of size = l
(C) Diffraction of light (3) m = tan ip
(D) Law of Malus (4) Coherent sources
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
2. Column I Column II.
(A) Reflection (1) Used for reducing glare
(B) Refraction (2) Change in path of light without change
in medium
(C) Interference (3) m = sin i/sin r
(D) Polarization (4) Light added to light produces darkness
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
3. In the figure shown A, B and C are the three slits each of which individually produces the same intensity
l 0 , at point P0 when they are illuminated by parallel beam of light of wavelength l.
l
(Given: BP0 - AP0 = , d << D, l 0 = 4 W/m2, Amplitude of each wave = 2 units, l = 6000Å)
2
Column-I Column-II
(A) Resultant intensity at P0 in (W/m2) (1) 4 C
d
(B) Resultant amplitude at P0 (in unit) (2) zero
B
(C) If slit C is closed then resultant (3) 2
2d
intensity at P0
A P0
(D) If slit B is closed resulting (4) 2 2
amplitude at P0 (in SI unit)

Wave Optics P-147
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(A) Central fringes is bright and all (1) Interference in wedge-shaped thin film
fringes are equally spaced
(B) Central fringes is dark and all (2) Young’s double slit experiment
fringes are equally spaced
(C) Central fringes is bright and (3) Fraunhofer single slit diffraction
fringes are not equally spaced experiment
(D) All fringes are equally spaced (4) Lloyd’s mirror experiment
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes
making an angle of 60º. Then the percentage of
1. Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point incident unpolarised light which passes through
of the screen are coming from coherent sources the system is
of light with phase difference 3p rad. Their (a) 100 (b) 50
amplitudes are 1 cm each. The resultant (c) 12.5 (d) 37.5
amplitude at the given point will be. 5. If the polarizing angle of a piece of glass for
(a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm green light is 54.74°, then the angle of minimum
(c) 2 cm (d) zero deviation for an equilateral prism made of same
2. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, let b be the glass is
fringe width, and let I0 be the intensity at the [Given, tan 54.74° = 1.414]
central bright fringe. At a distance x from the (a) 45° (b) 54.74°
central bright fringe, the intensity will be (c) 60° (d) 30°
6. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light
æxö 2æ xö with mutually perpendicular planes of
(a) I 0 cos çç ÷÷ (b) I 0 cos çç ÷÷
èbø èbø polarization are seen through a polaroid. From
the position when the beam A has maximum
intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a
æ px ö æ I0 ö æ px ö
(c) I 0 cos 2 çç ÷÷ (d) ç ÷ cos 2 çç ÷÷ rotation of polaroid through 30° makes the two
è b ø è 4ø è b ø beams appear equally bright. If the initial
3. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensities of the two beams are IA and IB
IA
intensity of light at a point on the screen where respectively, then equals:
IB
the path difference is l is K, (l being the
wavelength of light used). The intensity at a point 3
(a) 3 (b)
where the path difference is l/4, will be 2
(a) K (b) K/4 1
(c) 1 (d)
(c) K/2 (d) Zero 3
P-148 PHYSICS
25 Dual Nature of
Radiation and Matter
1. When the speed of electrons increase, then the 1. The phenomenon which can be explained only
value of its specific charge _______ . by quantum nature of light is
2. Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the (a) photoelectric effect (b) reflection
incident light has _______ than a certain mini- (c) interference (d) polarization
mum frequency. 2. No photoelectrons are emitted from a metal if
3. A photosensitive substance emits _____ when the wavelength of the light exceeds 600 nm. The
illuminated by light. work function of the metal is approximately equal
4. In a photon-particle collision, _______ does not to
remain conserved. (a) 3 × 10–16 J (b) 3 × 10–19 J
5. The maximum energy of electrons released in a (c) 3 × 10 J –20 (d) 3 × 10–22 J
photocell is independent of _______ of incident 3. Which metal will be suitable for a photoelectric
light. cell using light of wavelength 4000Å. The work
6. Positive rays are very identical to _______ rays. functions of sodium and copper are respectively
7. One electron volt (ev) = _______ joule. 2.0 eV and 4.0 eV.
8. In Heinrich Hertz’s experiment on the production (a) Sodium (b) Copper
of electromagnetic waves by means of spark (c) Both (d) None of these
discharge, high voltage sparks across the 4. The potential difference that must be applied to
detector loop were enhanced when the emitter stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a
plate was illuminated by _____ light. nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV,
when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must
True/ False : be
(a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V
1. Dual nature of radiation is shown by photoelec- (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V
tric effect and diffraction. 5. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the
2. Cathode rays do not deflect in electric field. velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
3. Electromagnetic radiations with high intensity gun can be increased by
have high frequency. (a) increasing the potential difference between
4. The stopping potential depends on the inten- the anode and filament
sity of incident radiation. (b) increasing the filament current
5. In the interaction with matter, radiation behaves (c) decreasing the filament current
as if it is made up of photons. (d) decreasing the potential difference between
6. Davisson and Germer experiment proved wave the anode and filament
nature of light.
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter P-149
6. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light 11. A photon of 1.7 × 10–13 joule is absorbed by a
of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% material under special circumstances. The correct
efficient in converting electrical energy to light, statement is
the number of photons of yellow light it emits (a) Electrons of the atom of absorbed material
per second is will go the higher energy states
(a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 (b) Electron and positron pair will be created
(c) 62 × 10 20 (d) 3 × 1019 (c) Only positron will be produced
7. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, (d) Photoelectric effect will occur and electron
the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted will be produced
photoelectrons from a metal versus the 12. Photoelectric emission is observed from a
frequency of the incident radiation gives a metallic surface for frequencies v1 and v2 of the
straight line whose slope incident light rays (v1 > v2). If the maximum
(a) depends both on the intensity of the values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
radiation and the metal used emitted in the two cases are in the ratio of 1 : k,
(b) depends on the intensity of the radiation then the threshold frequency of the metallic
(c) depends on the nature of the metal used surface is
v1 - v 2 kv1 - v 2
(d) is the same for all metals and independent of (a) (b)
the intensity of the radiation k -1 k -1
8. Two identical photocathodes receive light of kv2 - v1 v 2 - v1
frequencies f 1 and f 2. If the velocites of the (c) (d)
k -1 k
photoelectrons (of mass m ) coming out are with 13. The surface of a metal is illuminted with the light
velocity v1 and v2 respectively, then of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected
2 2h
2 photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The
(a) v1 - v2 = (f - f )
m 1 2 work function of the metal is
1/ 2 (hc = 1240 eV.nm)
é 2h ù
(b) v1 + v2 = ê ( f1 + f 2 )ú (a) 1.41 eV (b) 1.51 eV
ëm û (c) 1.68 eV (d) 3.09 eV
(c) 2 2 2h 14. If in a photoelectric cell, the wavelength of
v1 + v2 = (f + f )
m 1 2 incident light is changed from 4000Å to 3000 Å
1/ 2 then change in stopping potential will be
(d) v1 - v2 = éê ( f1 - f 2 )ùú
2h
(a) 0.66 V (b) 1.03 V
ëm û (c) 0.33 V (d) 0.49 V
9. A proton accelerated through a potential 15. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident
difference of 100V, has de-Broglie wavelength on the cathode of a photoelectric cell, the work
l0. The de-Broglie wavelength of an a-particle, function of the cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order
accelerated through 800V is to reduce the photocurrent to zero the voltage
l0 l0
(a) (b) of the anode relative to the cathode must be
2 2 made
l0 l0 (a) – 4.2 V (b) – 9.4 V
(c) (d)
4 8 (c) – 17.8 V (d) + 9.4 V
10. For same energy, find the ratio of lphoton and 16. The frequency and work function of an incident
lelectron. (m is mass of electron) photon are v and f0. If v0 is the threshold
2m 1 2m frequency then necessary condition for the
(a) c (b) emission of photoelectron is
E c E
v
1 2m (a) v < v0 (b) v = 0
1 2m 2
(c) (d) (c) v ³ v0
c 2 E c E2 (d) None of these
P-150 PHYSICS
17. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two Diagram Based Questions :
photons, each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron 1. In the given set-up, the photoelectric current
of aluminium, then emission of electrons cannot be varied by varying the
Quartz
(a) will be possible
window
(b) will not be possible S
(c) Data is incomplete
Evacuated
(d) Depends upon the density of the surface glass tube
18. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is Photosensitive
plate
given by Electrons
ìE 0 ; 0 £ x £ 1
U(x) = í
î 0; x >1
l1 and l2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the
particle, when 0 £ x £ 1 and x > 1 respectively. If Commutator
the total energy of particle is 2E0, then ratio V
l1
l2
will be
+–
(a) 2 (b) 1 (a) potential of plate A w.r.t. the plate C
1 (b) intensity of incident light
(c) 2 (d) (c) material of plate A
2
19. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function (d) material of plate C
4.7 eV is suspended from an insulating thread in 2. In Hallwach’s experiment on photoelectric emis-
freespace. It is under continuous illumination of sion with following setup, it was observed that
200 nm wavelength light. As photoelectrons are UV light Zinc plate
emitted, the sphere gets charged and acquires a
potential. The maximum number of
photoelectrons emitted from the sphere is
Photoelectrons
A ´ 10z (where 1 < A < 10). The value of ‘z’ is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 6 (d) 4
20. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of
wavelengths 400 nm and 250 nm, the maximum Electroscope
velocities of the photoelectrons ejected are u The zinc plate became _____ if initially nega-
tively charged.
and 2u respectively. The work function of the (a) positively charged
metal is (h = Planck’s constant, c = velocity of (b) negatively charged
light in air) (c) uncharged
(a) 2 hc × 106 J (b) 1.5 hc × 106 J (d) more positively charged
(c) hc × 10 J 6 (d) 0.5 hc × 106 J 3. In the given graph of photoelectric current ver-
sus collector plate potential the quantities (A),
(B), and (C) represent
(a) charge of the electron
Photocurrent
e
(b) of the electron
m
B
(c) work function of the emitter
(d) Plank’s constant
6. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed.
The wavelength l of the light falling on the
A o cathode is gradually changed. The plate current
C Collector plate potential I of the photocell varies as follows
(i) A (1) Retarding potential
(ii) B (2) Stopping potential I I
(iii) C (3) Saturation current
(a) (i) – 2; (ii) – 1; (iii) – 3
(a) (b)
(b) (i) – 2; (ii) – 3; (iii) – 1
(c) (i) – 3; (ii) – 2; (iii) – 1 O l O l
(d) (i) – 1; (ii) – 2; (iii) – 3
4. In a photoelectric experiment, anode potential I I
(v) is plotted against plate current (I)
(c) (d)
I
O l O l
C B
Assertion/ Reason :
A
V
(a) A and B will have different intensities while of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
B and C will have different frequencies of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(b) B and C will have different intensities while (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
A and C will have different frequencies a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) A and B will have different intensities while (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
A and C will have equal frequencies is not a correct explanation for assertion
(d) A and B will have equal intensities while B (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
and C will have different frequencies (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
5. The maximum kinetic energy (E max ) of 1. Assertion : In process of photoelectric emission,
all emitted electrons do not have same kinetic
photoelectrons emitted in a photoelectric cell
energy.
varies with frequency (n) as shown in the graph.
Reason : If radiation falling on photosensitive
The slope of the graph is equal to surface of a metal consists of differ ent
E max wavelength then energy acquired by electrons
absorbing photons of different wavelengths
shall be different.
2. Assertion : Though light of a single frequency
(monochromatic) is incident on a metal, the
energies of emitted photoelectrons are different.
n Reason : The energy of electrons emitted from
n0
P-152 PHYSICS
inside the metal surface, is lost in collision with 6. Assertion : Two sources of equal intensity
the other atoms in the metal. always emit equal number of photons in any time
3. Assertion : The phtoelectrons produced by a interval.
monochromatic light beam incident on a metal Reason : Two sources of equal intensity may
surface have a spread in their kinetic energies. emit equal number of photons in any time interval.
Reason : The work function of the metal is its 7. Assertion : Two photons of equal wavelength
characteristics property. must have equal linear momentum.
4. Assertion : Photoelectric saturation current Reason : Two photons of equal linear momentum
increases with the increase in frequency of will have equal wavelength.
incident light. 8. Assertion : The kinetic energy of
Reason : Energy of incident photons increases photoelectrons emitted from metal surface does
with increase in frequency and as a result not depend on the intensity of incident photon.
photoelectric current increases. Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic
5. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if surface is not possible with frequency of incident
its work function is small. photons below the threshold frequency.
Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the
threshold frequency.
(A) Field emission (1) Heat is supplied to the metal surface
(B) Photoelectric (2) Electric field is applied to the metal surface
(C) Thermionic emission (3) Light of suitable frequency illuminates the
metal surface
(D) Secondary emission (4) Striking fast moving electrons on the metal surface.
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); C ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); C ® (3); (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(A) Electromagnetism (1) Hertz
(B) Detection of electromagnetic waves (2) Roentgen
(C) X-rays (3) J.J. Thomson
(D) Electron (4) Maxwell
(a) (A) ® 1; (B) ® 4; (C) ® 3; (D) ® 2 (b) (A) ® 2; (B) ® 3; (C) ® 1; (D) ® 4
(c) (A) ® 3; (B) ® 2; (C) ® 4; (D) ® 1 (d) (A) ® 4; (B) ® 1; (C) ® 2; (D) ® 3
h
(A) Einstein Photoelectric equation (1) l = p
(B) de-Broglie relation (2) Kmax = hv – f0

(C) Threshold frequency (3) DxDp ; h
f0
(D) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (4) v =
h
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(A) Photocurrent (1) The minimum energy required by electron to
escape from the metal surface
(B) Saturation current (2) The minimum retarding potential
(C) Stopping potential (3) The number of photoelectric emitted per second
(D) Work function (4) The maximum number of photoelectrons emitted
per second
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 0.15 eV (b) 1.5 eV

(c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV
1. 4eV is the energy of incident photon and the
6. If the momentum of electron is changed by P,
work function is 2eV. The stopping potential will
then the de Broglie wavelength associated with
be
it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of
(a) 2V (b) 4V electron will be
(c ) 6 V (d) 2 2 V (a) 200 P (b) 400 P
2. The photoelectric work function for a metal P
surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for (c) (d) 100 P
200
this surface is
7. The wavelength le of an electron and lp of a
(a) 4125 Å (b) 3000 Å photon are of same energy E are related by
(c) 6000 Å (d) 2062 Å
3. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive
metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × (a) l p µ le (b) l p µ le
1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off
voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly 1
(c) lp µ (d) l p µ l 2e
(a) 2 V (b) 3 V le
(c) 5 V (d) 1 V
8. A material particle with a rest mass m0 is moving
4. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the
with speed of light c. The de-Broglie wavelength
cut-off frequency is n. If radiation of frequency
associated is given by
2n impinges on the metal plate, the maximum
possible velocity of the emitted electron will be h m0c
(m is the electron mass) (a) (b)
m0c h
(a) hn / m (b) 2 hn / m (c) zero (d) ¥
9. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 keV which
(c) 2 hn / m (d) hn / ( 2m ) is equal to that of a photon. The wavelength of
5. The photoelectric threshold of Tungsten is photon is l2 and that of proton is l1. The ratio
2300Å. The energy of the electrons ejected from of l2/l1 is proportional to
the surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength (a) E2 (b) E1/2
(c) E –1 (d) E–1/2
1800Å is
P-154 PHYSICS
26 Atoms
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Radii of allowed orbits of electron ar e
proportional to the principal quantum number.
1. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by 7. Frequency with which electrons orbit around the
_______ forces. nucleus in discrete orbits is inversely
2. Equivalent energy of mass equal to 1 a.m.u. is proportional to the cube of principal quantum
_______ . number.
3. The empirical atom model was given by _______ 8. Binding force with which the electron is bound
. to the nucleus increases as it shifts to outer orbits.
4. According to the Rutherford’s atomic model,
nucleus is _______ charged. Conceptual MCQs :
5. The angular momentum of the electron in 1. The following statements are all true. Which
hydrogen atom in the ground state is given by one did Rutherford consider to be supported
_______ . by the results of experiments in which a-
6. The first spectral series was disscovered by particles were scattered by gold foil?
_______ . (a) The nucleus of an atom is held together
7. Balmer series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom by forces which are much stronger than
electrical or gravitational forces.
lies in the _______ region of the electromagnetic
(b) The force of repulsion between an atomic
spectrum.
nucleus and an a-particle varies with
8. The radius of nth Bohr’s orbit of Hydrogen atom
distance according to inverse square law.
is given by _______ .
(c) a-particles are nuclei of Helium atoms.
True/ False : (d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete
energy levels.
1. The ratio of the kinetic energy to the total energy 2. The proof of quantization of energy states in
of an electron in a Bohr orbit is 1 : 2. an atom is obtained by the experiment
2. Rutherford’s nuclear model could not explain, performed by:
how could an atom as simple as hydrogen (a) Thomson (b) Millikan
consisting of a single electron and a single (c) Rutherford (d) Franck & Hertz
proton, emit a complex spectrum of specific 3. Which of the following types of radiation is
wavelengths. not emitted by the electronic structure of
3. Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment atoms:
concludes that there is a heavy mass at centre. (a) Ultraviolet light (b) X-rays
4. The observations of Geiger-Marsden experiment (c) Visible light (d) g-rays
are many of a particles pass straight through the 4. The angular speed of the electron in the n th
gold foil and only about 0.14% of a-particles orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is:
scatter by more than 1°. (a) directly proportional to n
5. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, (b) inversely proportional to n
orbiting speed of electron decreases as it shifts (c) inversely proportional to n 2
to discrete orbits away from the nucleus. (d) inversely proportional to n3
Atoms P-155
5. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 12. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom
eV. Following Bohr ’s theory, the energy is 5.29 × 10–11 meter, the radius of the second
corresponding to a transition between 3rd and orbit will be:
4th orbit is (a) 21.16 × 10–11 metre
(a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV (b) 15.87 × 10–11 metre
(c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV (c) 10.58 × 10–11 metre
6. Lines of Blamer series are emitted by the (d) 2.64 × 10–11 metre
hydrogen atom when the electron jumps: 13. The minimum energy required to excite a
(a) from higher orbits to first orbit. hydrogen atom from its ground state is:
(b) from higher orbit to second orbit. (a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(c) from second orbit to any other orbit. (c) –13.6 eV (d) 10.2 eV
(d) from third orbit to higher orbits. 14. Line spectrum is obtained whenever the
incandescent vapours at low pressure of the
7. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom:
excited substance are in their
(a) the linear velocity of the electron is (a) atomic state (b) molecular state
quantised. (c) nuclear state (d) none of these
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is 15. The total energy of electron in the ground state
quantised. of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is of an electron in the first excited state is
quantised. (a) 6.8 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is (c) 1.7 eV (d) 3.4 eV.
quantised. 16. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom,
8. Consider the spectral line resulting from the the angular momentum of an electron in any
transition n = 2 ® n = 1, in the atoms and ions orbit of hydrogen atom is:
given below, the shortest wavelength is (a) directly proportional to the radius of the
produced by: orbit
(a) hydrogen atom (b) deuterium atom (b) inversely proportional to the radius of the
(c) singly ionised helium orbit
(d) doubly ionised lithium (c) directly proportional to the square of the
9. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, radius of the orbit
the one which lies wholly in the ultraviolet (d) directly proportional to the square root of
region is: the radius of the orbit.
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series 17. According to Bohr’s model of the hydrogen
atom, the radius of a stationary orbit
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
characterised by the principal quantum
10. As the quantum number increases, the numbern is proportional to:
difference of energy between consecutive
(a) n–1 (b) n
energy levels:
(c) n–2 (d) n2
(a) remain the same (b) increases 18. The ionization energy of the electron in the
(c) decreases hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV.
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to
decreases. emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum
11. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to
the one which gives an absorption line of the transition between
highest frequency is: (a) n = 3 to n = 1 state
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 3 to n = 8 (b) n = 2 to n = 1 state
(c) n = 2 to n = 1 (d) n = 8 to n = 3 (c) n = 4 to n = 3 state
(d) n = 3 to n = 2 state
P-156 PHYSICS
19. Fraunhofer lines are observed in the spectrum of: (a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(a) a hydrogen discharge tube (c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only
(b) a carbon arc 2. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is
(c) the sun shown in figure. There are some transitions A,
(d) sodium vapour lamp. B, C, D and E. Transition A, B and C respectively
20. In which region of electromagnetic spectrum
represent
does the Lyman series of hydrogen atom lie:
(a) ultraviolet (b) infrared n=¥ – 0.00 eV
(c) visible (d) X-ray n=6 – 0.36 eV
21. According to the Bohr theory of H-atom, the n=5 – 0.54 eV
speed of the electron, its energy and the radius n=4 – 0.85 eV
C
n=3 – 1.51 eV
of its orbit varies with the principal quantum B D
n=2 – 3.39 eV
number n, respectively, as :
A E
1 2 1 1 2
(a) ,n , 2 (b) n, ,n n=1 – 13.5 eV
n n n2
(a) first member of Lyman series, third spectral
1 1 1 1 2 line of Balmer series and the second spectral
(c) n, 2 , 2 (d) , ,n line of Paschen series
n n n n2
22. What is the wavelength of the most energetic (b) ionization potential of hydrogen, second
photon emitted in the Balmer series of the spectral line of Balmer series, third spectral
Hydrogen atom ? line of Paschen series
(a) 654 nm (b) 580 nm (c) series limit of Lyman series, third spectral
(c) 435 nm (d) 365 nm line of Balmer series and second spectral
23. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr’s line of Paschen series
postulates the product of linear momentum and (d) series limit of Lyman series, second spectral
line of Balmer series and third spectral line
angular momentum is proportional to (n)x where
of Paschen series
‘n’ is the orbit number. Then ‘x’ is-
3. If in hydrogen atom, radius of n th Bohr orbit is
(a) 0 (b) 2
rn, frequency of revolution of electron in nth orbit
(c) –2 (d) 1 is fn, choose the correct option.
24. One of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+
rn
has the same wavelength as that of the 2nd line
of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum. The
electronic transition corresponding to this line
is – (a)
(a) n = 4 ® n = 2 (b) n = 8 ® n = 2 O n
(c) n = 8 ® n = 4 (d) n = 12 ® n = 6
Diagram Based Questions : ær ö
log ç n ÷
è r1 ø
1. The diagram shows the path of four a-particles
of the same energy being scattered by the (b)
nucleus of an atom simulateneously which of O log n
those is not physically possible?
æf ö
log ç n ÷
1. è f1 ø
2. (c)
3. O log n
4.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Atoms P-157
4. The diagram shows the energy levels for an 2. Assertion : According to classical theory the
electron in a certain atom. Which transition proposed path of an electron in Rutherford atom
shown represents the emission of a photon with model will be parabolic.
the most energy? Reason : According to electromagnetic theory
n=4
an accelerated particle continuously emits
n=3 radiation.
3. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the
n=2
electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus
do not radiate.
n =1 Reason: According to classical physics all
I II III IV
moving electrons radiate.
(a) 4 (b) 3 4. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to
(c) 2 (d) 1 coulomb forces.
5. Four lowest energy levels of H-atom are shown
in the figure. The number of possible emission Reason : The atom is stable only because the
lines would be centripetal force due to Coulomb's law is balanced
by the centrifugal force.
n=4 5. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one
n=3 electron but its emission spectrum has many
n=2 lines.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the
n =1 absorption sepectrum of hydrogen atom whereas
in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6 6. Assertion : Balmer series lies in the visible region
of electromagnetic spectrum.
Assertion/ Reason :
1 é1 1 ù
Reason : = R ê - ú where n = 3, 4, 5.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains l ë2 2
n2 û
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these 7. Assertion : Between any two given energy
questions also has four alternative choices, only one levels, the number of absorption transitions is
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one always less than the number of emission
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. transitions.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is Reason : Absorption transitions start from the
a correct explanation for assertion. lowest energy level only and may end at any
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason higher energy level. But emission transitions may
is not a correct explanation for assertion start from any higher energy level and end at
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect any energy level below it.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 8. Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum
1. Assertion : The force of repulsion between 3
and maximum wavelength is .
atomic nucleus and a-particle varies with 4
distance according to inverse square law. Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines
Reason : Rutherford did a-particle scattering corresponding to transition from higher energy
experiment. to ground state of hydrogen atom.
P-158 PHYSICS
1. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
(A) J.J. Thomson (1) Nuclear model of the atom
(B) E. Rutherford (2) Plum pudding model of the atom
(C) Franck-Hertz (3) Explanation of the hydrogen spectrom
(D) Nills Bohr (4) Existence of discrete energy levels in an atom
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
2. Consider Bohr's model to be valid for a hydrogen like atom with atomic number Z. Match quantities given
in Column -I to those given in Column II.
Z3
(A) (1) Angular speed
n5
Z2
(B) (2) Magnetic field at the centre due to
n2
revolution of electron
Z2
(C) (3) Potential energy of an electron in nth orbit
n3
Z
(D) (4) Frequency of revolution of electron
n
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3,4); (B) ® (2,3); (C) ® (1,2); (D)® (1) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
3. Match the following Column II gives nature of image formed in various cases given in column I
(A) n = 5 to n = 2 (1) Lyman series
(B) n = 8 to n = 4 (2) Brackett series
(C) n = 3 to n = 1 (3) Paschen
(D) n = 4 to n = 3 (4) Balmer
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1,4) (d) (A) ® (1,3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)
4. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
2pkze2
(A) Radius of n th orbit (1)
nh
-kze 2
(B) Velocity of electron in nth orbit (2)
rh
Atoms P-159
kze2
(C) Potential energy in n th orbit (3)
2rh
n 2 h2
(D) Kinetic energy in nth orbit (4)
4 pkze2 m
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. If u1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman
series, u2 is the frequency of the first line of
1. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third Lyman series and u3 is the frequency of the series
excited state to second excited state and then limit of the Balmer series then
from second excited to the first excited state. (a) u1 - u2 = u3 (b) u1 = u2 - u3
The ratio of the wavelength l1 : l2 emitted in
the two cases is 1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) = + (d) = +
(a) 7/5 (b) 27/20 u2 u1 u3 u1 u2 u3
(c) 27/5 (d) 20/7 6. The radiation corresponding to 3 ® 2 transition
2. If the k a radiation of Mo (Z = 42) has a of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to
wavelength of 0.71Å. Calculate the wavelength produce photoelectrons. These electrons are
of the corresponding radiation of Cu (Z = 29). made to enter a magnetic field of 3 × 10–4 T. If
(a) 1.52Å (b) 2.52Å the radius of the largest circular path followed
(c) 0.52Å (d) 4.52Å by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function
3. If the atom 100Fm 257 follows the Bohr model of the metal is close to:
and the radius of 100Fm257 is n times the Bohr (a) 1.8 eV (b) 1.1 eV
radius, then find n. (c) 0.8 eV (d) 1.6 eV
(a) 100 (b) 200 7. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of
(c) 4 (d) 1/4 the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength to
4. The ratio of longest wavelengths correspond- the Lyman series ?
ing to Lyman and Blamer series in hydrogen (a) 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 3
spectrum is
(c) 4 : 9 (d) 5 : 9
3 7 8. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series
(a) (b)
23 29 for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second
9 5 line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The
(c) (d) atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is
31 27
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 2
P-160 PHYSICS
27 Nuclei
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Nuclear density is very large compared to
ordinary matter.
1. Positron has the mass closest in value to that of 7. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus.
the _______ . 8. The phenomenon in which proton flips is called
2. Chadwick was awarded the 1935 nobel prize in nuclear fusion.
physics for his discovery of the _______ .
3. A nuclei having same number of neutron but
Conceptual MCQs :
different number of protons / atomic number are 1. An element A decays into an element C by a two
called _______ . step process
4. The mass of an atomic nucleus is _______ than
the sum of the masses of its constituents. A ® B + 2He4 and B ® C + 2e - . Then,
5. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by (a) A and C are isotopes
_______ . (b) A and C are isobars
6. Fusion reaction occurs at temperatures of the (c) B and C are isotopes
(d) A and B are isobars
order of _______ .
7. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made 2. Heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear
of ______ . reactor. The function of the moderator is
8. According to radioactive decay law, the rate of (a) to control energy released in the reactor
disintegration, at a given instant, is ______ to (b) to absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction
the number of atoms present at that instant.
(c) to cool the reactor
True/ False : (d) to slow down the neutrons to thermal
energies.
1. A reaction between a proton and 8O18 that
produces 9F18 must also liberate 0e1. 3. Nuclear forces are
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central
2. Atomic species of the same element differing in
part
mass but same in atomic number are called
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central
isotopes.
part
3. For binding energy per nucleon versus mass
(c) spin independent and have no non-
number curve. Binding energy per nucleon Ebn
central part
is independent of mass number range 30 < A <
(d) spin independent and have a non-central
170.
part
4. In one half-life time duration, activity of a sample
4. Which one of the following nuclear reactions
reduced to half of its initial value.
is possible?
5. At a specific instant, emission of radioactive
14 +
element is deflected in a magnetic field. The (a) ® 13
7 N ¾¾ 6 C+b + nc
compound can emit electrons, protons, He2+, and
13 +
neutrons. (b) ® 13
7 N ¾¾ 6 C+b + nc
Nuclei P-161
13 13 + 13. In which sequence the radioactive radiation are

(c) 7 N ¾¾
® 6 C+b emitted in the following nuclear reaction
13 +
(d) ® 13
7 N ¾¾ 7 +b + nc
Z
XA ¾¾
® Z+ 1
YA ¾¾
®
5. The ratio of the radius of the nucleus of mass
number 216 to the radius of the nucleus of mass KA–4 ¾¾ ® Z – 1 KA–4
Z–1
number 64 is approximately : (a) g, a, b (b) a, b, g
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.2 (c) b, g, a (d) b, a, g
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.8 14. The radioactive decay of uranium into thorium
6. At what rate must the 235U nuclei undergo fission is expressed by the equation
reaction to generate energy at the rate of 3.0 W.
Assume the Q-value of fission to be 200 MeV: U238 ¾¾
92
® Th + X, what X is?
(a) 1023 (b) 1019 (a) A deuteron (b) An alpha particle
(c) 10 11
(d) 106 (c) A proton (d) An electron
7. What is the energy released in the b-decay of 15. The activity of a radioactive substance is R1 at
time t1 and R2 at a later time instant t2. Its decay
P ¾¾
32 ® 32S
constant is l. Then,
(Given : Atomic masses : 31.97391 u for 32 P (a) R1t1 = R2t2
and 31.97207 u for 32 S) (b) R2 exp (lt2) = R1 exp (lt1)
(a) – 1.2 MeV (b) + 1.7 MeV (c) R2 = R1 exp [l(t2 – t1)]
(c) + 2.1 Me V (d) – 0.9 MeV (d) R1 – R2 = a constant (t2 – t1)
8. In a nuclear reaction between a deuteron and 16. An element X decays, first by positron emission
C12, 7N 13 is produced. The other liberated an d then two a-particles are emitted in
6
particle is a/an : successive radioactive decay. If the product
nuclei has a mass number 229 and atomic number
(a) proton (b) electron
89, the mass number and atomic number of
(c) neutron (d) positron element X are –
9. How many alpha a – and b– decays does U238 (a) 237, 93 (b) 237, 94
experiences before turning finally into stable (c) 221, 84 (d) 237, 92
Pb206 isotope ? 17. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets
(a) 12, 6 (b) 10, 4 disintegrated into two small fragments of mass
(c) 8, 6 (d) 8, 8 number 80 and 120. If binding energy per
10. The activity of a certain radioactive sample is nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 MeV and for
128 mCi. If the decay constant of the material be daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV respectively,
6.93 per hour then its activity after 30 minutes then the energy released in the decay will be –
(a) 200 MeV (b) –220 MeV
will reduced.
(c) 220 MeV (d) 180 MeV
(a) 4mCi (b) 12.8 mCi 18. A U235 atom undergoes fission by thermal
(c) 16 mCi (d) 32 mCi neutrons according to the following reaction :
11. Actinium 231
AC89, emit in succession two b 140 94
particles, four alphas, one b and one alpha plus U235+ n = 54
Xe + 38Sr + 2n
several g rays. What is the resultant isotope: Then Xenon undergoes four and Strontium
(a) 221 Au79 (b) 211 Au 79 undergoes two consecutive b decays and six
(c) 221
Pb 82 (d) 211 Pb 82 electrons are detected. What is the atomic
12. The energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit number of the two final decay products of Xenon
is and Strontium ?
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 J (b) 6.02 × 1023 J (a) 50, 36 (b) 58, 40
(c) 931 MeV (d) 9.31 MeV (c) 56, 42 (d) 57, 41
P-162 PHYSICS
19. At an instant, the ratio of the amounts of (a) Y ® 2Z (b) W ® X + Z

radioactive substances is 2 : 1. If their half lives
(c) W ® 2Y (d) X ® Y + Z
be respectively 12 and 16 hours, then after
2 days, the ratio of amounts of substances left 3. The energy spectrum of b-particles [number N(E)
over will be as a function of b-energy E] emitted from a
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 radioactive source is
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
20. Determine the energy released in the process
2 2 ¾¾® 2He4 + Q (a) N(E)
1H + 1H
Given M (1H2) = 2.01471 amu M (2He4) = 4.00388
amu E
E0
(a) 3.79 MeV (b) 13.79 MeV
(c) 0.79 MeV (d) 23.79 MeV
21. The half life of a radioactive substance is 34.65 (b) N(E)
minute. If 1022 atoms are active at any time then
find the activity of substance?
E
(a) 3.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec E0
(b) 0.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec
(c) 1.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec
(d) 3.4 × 1018 disintegration /sec (c) N(E)
E
1. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the E0
mass number for stable nuclei is shown in the
figure. Which curve is correct?
(d) N(E)
E
E0
4. Radioactive element decays to form a stable

nuclide, then the rate of decay of reactant is
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
N N
2. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number
curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y
(a) (b)
and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve.
The process that would release energy is t t
N N
(c) (d)
t t
Nuclei P-163
Assertion/ Reason : with A.

Reason : The forces are weak for heavier nuclei.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains 5. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108 undecayed
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these radioactive nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal
questions also has four alternative choices, only one to that of 1.2 × 108 number of undecayed nuclei
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of some other material with half life of 60 days.
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half-
life.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is 6. Assertion : The ionising power of b-particle is
a correct explanation for assertion. less compared to a-particles but their penetrating
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason power is more.
is not a correct explanation for assertion Reason : The mass of b-particle is less than the
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect mass of a-particle.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 7. Assertion : Radioactive nuclei emit b–1 particles.
1. Assertion : Density of all the nuclei is same. Reason : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional 8. Assertion : Cobalt-60 is useful in cancer therapy.
to the cube root of mass number. Reason : Cobalt -60 is source of g- radiations
2. Assertion : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily capable of killing cancerous cells.
as compared to protons. 9. Assertion : It is not possible to use 35Cl as the
Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive than fuel for fusion energy.
protons. Reason : The binding energy of 35Cl is to small.
3. Assertion : The mass number of a nucleus is 10. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy
always less than its atomic number. nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
Reason : Mass number of a nucleus may be fusion and
equal to its atomic number. Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per
4. Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon, for nucleon increases with increasing Z while for
nuclei with atomic mass number A > 100, decrease light nuclei it decreases with increasing Z.
(A) Isotopes (1) Mass number same but different atomic number
(B) Isobars (2) Atomic number same but different mass number.
(C) Isotones (3) Number of nentrons plus number of protons
(D) Nucleons (4) Number of nentrons same but different
atomic number
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
2. Match Column I of the nuclear processes with Column II containing parent nucleus and one of the end
products of each process.
Column I Column II
15 15
(A) Alpha decay (1) 8 O®7 N + ...
b+ decay 238 234

(B) (2) 92 U ® 90 Th + ...
P-164 PHYSICS
185 184
(C) Fission (3) 83 Bi ® 82 Pb + ...
239
(D) Proton emission (4) 94 Pu ® 140
57 La + ...
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
3. Column – I Column – II
(A) Nuclear fusion (1) E = mc2
(B) Nuclear fission (2) Generally possible for nuclei with low atomic
number
(C) b-decay (3) Generally possible for nuclei with higher atomic
number
(D) Mass-energy (4) Essentially proceeds by
equivalence weak reaction nuclear forces
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
4. Column – I Column – II
(A) Hydrogen bomb (1) Fission
(B) Atom bomb (2) Fusion
(C) Binding energy (3) Critical mass
(D) Nuclear reactor (4) Mass defect
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 56 (b) 2

26 Fe 1H
1. In the options given below, let E denote the rest
(c) 235 (d) 4
mass energy of a nucleus and n neutron. Then 92 U 2 He
the correct option is 3. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron
( ) ( ) ( )
and an a-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What
(a) E 236 U > E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n) will be the energy Q released in the reaction 1H2
92 53 39
+ 1H2 ® 2He4 + Q
(b) (92 ) ( ) ( )
E 236 U < E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n)
53 39
(a) 4(x1 + x2)
(c) 2(x1 + x2)
(b) 4(x2 – x1)
(d) 2(x2 – x1)
( ) ( ) ( )
4. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample
(c) E 236 U < E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n) decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0,
92 56 36
number of P species are 4 N0 and that of Q are
(d) ( ) ( ) ( )
E 236 U = E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n)
92 56 36
N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute
where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are
2. If the total binding energies of no nuclei of R present in the sample. When
number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the
2 4 56 235 nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 492
1 H, 2 He, 26 Fe & 92 U number of nuclei of R present in the sample
and 1786 MeV respectively, identify the most would be
stable nucleus of the following.
Nuclei P-165
9N 0 (a) 60 s (b) 80 s
(a) 3N0 (b)
2 (c) 20 s (d) 40 s
5N0 7. The half-life period of a radio-active element X
(c) (d) 2N0 is same as the mean life time of another radio-
2
active element Y. Initially they have the same
5. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days.
number of atoms. Then
The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time
2 (a) X and Y decay at same rate always
t2when of it has decayed and the time t1 when (b) X will decay faster than Y
3
1
of it had decayed is (c) Y will decay faster than X
3
(a) 30 days (b) 50 days (d) X and Y have same decay rate initially
(c) 60 days (d) 15 days 8. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and
an electron. The energy released during this
6. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials
process is : (mass of neutron = 1.6725 × 10–27
A1 and A2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s
kg, mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of
respectively. Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1
electron = 9 × 10–31 kg).
and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in the
mixture will become equal after (a) 0.511 MeV (b) 7.10 MeV
(c) 6.30 MeV (d) 5.4 MeV
P-166 PHYSICS
Semiconductor Electronics :
28 Materials, Devices and
Simple Circuits
1. The majority charge carriers in P-type 1. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50
semiconductor are ______ . Hz mains frequency, the fundamental frequency
2. In P-N junction, avlanche current flows in circuit in the ripple would be
when biasing is _______ . (a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
3. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap (c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz
between the valence band and the conduction 2. If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode
band is of the order of _______ . is changed from 0.5V to 0.7 V, then the forward
4. Zener diode is used for _______ . current changes by 1.0 mA. The forward
5. The part of a transistor which is most heavily resistance of diode junction will be
doped to produce large number of majority (a) 100 W (b) 120 W
carriers is _______ . (c) 200 W (d) 240 W
6. To use a transistor as an amplifier, emitter-base 3. Current gain of a transistor in common base
junction is _______ biased and base-collector mode is 0.95. Its value in common emitter mode
is
junction is _____ biased.
7. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with (a) 0.95 (b) 1.5
_______ . (c) 19 (d) (19)–1
8. NAND and NOR gates are called _______ gates. 4. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and
emitter current 90 mA. The collector current
True/ False : will be
(a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA
1. The depletion layer in the P-N junction region (c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA
is caused by migration of impurity ions.
5. For a common base amplifier, the values of
2. Function of rectifier is to convert d.c. into a.c. resistance gain and voltage gain are 3000 and
3. Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 2800 respectively. The current gain will be
eV are insulators. (a) 1.1 (b) 0.98
4. The resistivity of a semiconductor increases (c) 0.93 (d) 0.83
with increase in temperature. 6. The current gain for a transistor working as
5. In forward biasing electrons from n-sdie crosses common-base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter
junction and reach p-side. current is 7.2 mA, then the base current is
6. Due to diffusion of electrons from n to p-side an (a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA
ionised acceptor is left in the p-region. (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA
7. For transistor action Base, emitter and collector 7. A half-wave rectifier is being used to rectify an
region have similar size and doping alternating voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The
concentrations. number of pulses of rectified current obtained
in one second is
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-167
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) Silicon is a direct band gap semiconductor

(c) 100 (d) 2000 (d) Silicon is has diamond structure
8. The intrinsic semi conductor becomes an 16. The donor level in a semiconductor is placed:
insulator at (a) half-way in the forbidden energy gap
(a) 0ºC (b) 0 K (b) in the forbidden energy gap close to the
(c) 300 K (d) –100ºC upper edge of the valence band
9. In a P -N junction (c) in the conduction band close to the lower
(a) the potential of P & N sides becomes higher edge to the conduction band
alternately
(b) the P side is at higher electrical potential (d) in the forbidden energy gap close to the
than N side. lower edge of the conduction band
(c) the N side is at higher electric potential than 17. Identify the logic operation of the following logic
P side. circuit:
(d) both P & N sides are at same potential.
10. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does
not depend on
(a) doping density (b) diode design
(c) temperature (d) forward bias (a) NAND (b) AND
11. The energy band gap is maximum in (c) NOR (c) OR
(a) metals 18. A transistor amplifier in CE configuration
(b) superconductors amplifies an input of 0.01 V to 2.5V. The collector
(c) insulators resistance Rc and the input resistance RB are in
(d) semiconductors.
the ratio of 5 : 1. The current amplication factor b
12. The part of a transistor which is most heavily
of the transistor is :
doped to produce large number of majority
carriers is (a) 5 (b) 50
(a) emmiter (c) 250 (d) 25
(b) base
19. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a
(c) collector band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of
(d) can be any of the above three. the radiation that can be absorbed by the material
13. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier is nearly
(a) electrons move from collector to base (a) 10 × 1014 Hz (b) 5 ×1014 Hz
(b) holes move from emitter to base 14
(c) 1 × 10 Hz (d) 20 × 1014 Hz
(c) electrons move from base to collector 20. Two NOT gates are connected at the two inputs
(d) holes move from base to emitter of a NAND gate. This combination will behave
14. In a common base amplifier the phase difference like :
between the input signal voltage and the output (a) NAND gate (b) AND gate
voltage is
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate
(a) 0 (b) p/4
(c) p/2 (d) p 21. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased the
15. Which one of the following is NOT a correct flow of current across the junction is mainly due
statement about semiconductors? to
(a) The electrons and holes have different (a) diffusion of charges
mobilities in a semiconductor (b) drift of charges
(b) In an n-type semiconductor, the Fermi level (c) depends on the nature of material
lies closer to the conduction band edge (d) both drift and diffusion of charges
P-168 PHYSICS
Diagram Based Questions : (a) XOR gate (b) AND gate

(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
1. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams,
which one is reverse biased ? 5. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs
+10 V A and B and the output C. The voltage wave
forms across A, B and C are as given. The logic
R
(a) gate circuit is:
+5 V
(b)
–12 V R
–5 V
(c) R
–10 V A
+5 V
R
(d)
B
2. In bridge rectifier circuit, (see fig.), the input
signal should be connected between
A C
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate

D B
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
6. The following circut represents
C
(a) A and D (b) B and C A
(c) A and C (d) B and D
3. Which of the following gates will have an output Y
of 1?
B
1 0
1 1 (a) OR gate (b) XOR gate
(A) (B)
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
0 0
1 0 7. The following configuration of gate is equivalent
(C) (D) to
(a) D (b) A A OR
B
(c) B (d) C Y
4. Following diagram performs the logic function AND
of
NAND
A
Y (a) NAND gate (b) XOR gate
B
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-169
Assertion/ Reason : 4. Assertion : Silicon is preferred over germanium

for making semiconductor devices.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains Reason : The energy gap in germanium is more
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these than the energy gap in silicon.
questions also has four alternative choices, only one 5. Assertion : When two semi conductor of p and
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one n type are brought in contact, they form p-n
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. junction which act like a rectifier.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating
a correct explanation for assertion. current into direct current.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 6. Assertion : The diffusion current in a p-n
is not a correct explanation for assertion junction is from the p-side to the n-side.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason : The diffusion current in a p-n junction
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. is greater than the drift current when the junction
1. Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative is in forward biased.
temperature coefficient of resistance. 7. Assertion : A transistor amplifier in common
Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the emitter configuration has a low input impedence.
temperature, more charge carriers are released, Reason : The base to emitter region is forward
conductance increases and resistance biased.
decreases. 8. Assertion : NOT gate is also called invertor
2. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor circuit.
is increased then its resistance decreases. Reason : NOT gate inverts the input order.
Reason : The energy gap between conduction 9. Assertion : NAND or NOR gates are called
band and valence band is very small. digital building blocks.
3. Assertion : A p-type semiconductors is a Reason : The repeated use of NAND (or NOR)
positive type crystal. gates can produce all the basis or complicated
Reason : A p- type semiconductor is an gates.
uncharged crystal.
1. Match the column I and Column II
Column I Column II
(Rnge of resistivity, r)
(A) Metals (1) 1011 – 1019 W m
(B) Semiconductors (2) 10–5 –106 W m
(C) Insulators (3) 10–2 –10–8 W m
(4) 10–20 – 1025 W m
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1,4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3,4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2,4); (C) ® (3)
2. Match the elements in column I, with their respective energy gaps in column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Diamond (1) 1.1 ev
(B) Aluminium (2) 0.71 ev
P-170 PHYSICS
(C) Germatium (3) 0.03 ev

(D) Silicon (4) 6 ev
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(A) Moderate size and heavily doped (1) Base
(B) Very thin and lightly doped (2) Collector
(C) Moderately doped and of large size (3) Emitter
(D) Dopped with penta valent impurity (4) N-type semmiconductor
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(A) OR gate (1) A Y
(B) AND gate (2) A Y
B
(C) NOT gate (3) A Y
B
(D) NAND gate (4) A Y
B
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter
configuration for load impedance of 1k W
1. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron
(ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 (hfe = 50 and h oe = 25ms) the current gain is
m–3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 (a) – 24.8 (b) – 15.7
m–3. The doped semiconductor is of (c) – 5.2 (d) – 48.78
(a) n–type with electron concentration 5. The current gain of a transistor in common base
ne = 5 × 1022 m–3 mode is 0.995. The current gain of the same
transistor in common emitter mode is
(b) p–type with electron concentration
(a) 197 (b) 201
ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3
(c) 198 (d) 199
(c) n–type with electron concentration 6. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the
ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3 emitter in 10–6 s. 4% of the electrons are lost in
(d) p–type having electron concentration the base. The current transfer ratio will be
ne = 5 × 109 m–3 (a) 0.98 (b) 0.97
2. What is the conductivity of a semiconductor if (c) 0.96 (d) 0.94
electron density = 5 × 1012/cm3 and hole density 7. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain
= 8 × 1013/cm3 of 50, an input impedance of 100W and an output
(µe = 2.3 m2 V–1 s–1, µh = 0.01 m2V–1 s–1) impedance of 200W. The power gain of the
(a) 5.634 W–1 m–1 (b) 1.968 W–1 m–1 amplifier is
(c) 3.421 W–1 m–1 (d) 8.964 W–1 m–1 (a) 500 (b) 1000
3. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across (c) 1250 (d) 50
8. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal
its junction which does not depend on current, is
voltage across the collector resistance of 2kW
connected in series with resistance of 20 W is 2V. If the base resistance is 1kW and the
across source. If 0.1 A current passes through current amplification of the transistor is 100, the
resistance then what is the voltage of the source? input signal voltage is
(a) 1.5 V (b) 2.0 V (a) 0.1 V (b) 1.0 V
(c) 2.5 V (d) 5 V (c) 1 mV (d) 10 mV
29 Communication
Systems
Fill in the Blanks : 6. The orbit of geostationary satellite lies in the
equatorial plane at inclination of 0.
1. Telephony is an example of ______ mode of 7. Space waves are normally propagated in VHF
communication. frequency range.
2. _______ modulation is employed in India for 8. In standard AM broadcast, ground based
radio transmission. vertical towers are generally used as transmitting
3. The purpose of _______ is to convert the antennas.
message signal produced by the source of
information into a form suitable for transmission Conceptual MCQs :
through the channel.
4. There is a need of translating the information 1. The maximum and minimum amplitude of an AM
contained in our original low frequency wave are 90 mV and 30 mV respectively. The
baseband signal into _______ or _______ depth of modulation is
frequencies before transmission. (a) 0.6 (b) 0.5
5. An antenna behaves as _______ circuit when (c) 0.4 (d) 0.3
its length is l/2 or integral multiple of l/2. 2. Which mode of communication is most suitable
6. The cellular mobile radio frequency band is for carrier wave of frequencies around 100 MHz :
_______ Hz. (a) Satellite (b) Ground wave
7. The process of superimposing signal frequency (c) Line of sight (d) Ionospheric
(i.e., audio wave) on the carrier wave is known 3. Commun ication on ground is through
as _______ . electromagnetic waves of wavelength :
8. _______ mode of communication is most
(a) larger than 600 m
suitable for carrier wave of frequencies around
(b) between 200 and 600 m
100 MHz.
(c) between 1 and 5 m
True/ False : (d) between 10 – 3 and 0.1
4. The maximum range for the tropospheric
1. While tuning in a certain broadcast station with transmission of radio wave of wavelength 3m
a receiver, we are actually tuning the antenna. using the transmitting antenna and receiving
2. Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic antenna of heights 100 m and 60 m respectively
interference from outside. is
3. Optical fibres have extremely low transmission (a) 8 m (b) 800 m
loss. (c) 8 km (d) 80 km
4. Digital signals represent values as discrete, 5. Ground waves are polarised
values and can utilise decimal as well as binary (a) Parallel to the earth's surface
systems. (b) normal to the earth's surface
5. In statellite communication the frequency used (c) at an angle 45° from earth's surface
lies between 5 MHz and 1 MHz. (d) in any direction.
P-172 PHYSICS
6. Critical frequency that gets reflected back from 12. Calculate the power developed by an amplitude
ionosphere is modulated wave in a load resistance of 100 W, if
(a) same for all layers of the ionosphere the peak voltage of carrier wave is 100 V and
(b) different for different layers of the modulation index is 0.4.
ionosphere (a) 50 watt (b) 54 watt
(c) not dependent on layers of the ionosphere (c) 104 watt (d) 4 watt
(d) none of these 13. A 1000 kHz carrier is simultaneously modulated
7. Intensity of electric field obtained at receiver with 300 Hz, 800 Hz and 2 kHz audio waves. The
antenna for a space wave propagation is frequencies present in the output is
(a) directly proportional to the perpendicular- (a) 999.7 kHz, 100.3 kHz, 999.2 kHz
distance from transmitter to antenna (b) 1000.8 kHz, 998 kHz, 1002 kHz
(b) inversely proportional to the perpendicular- (c) 1002.8 kHz, 996 kHz, 1106 kHz
distance from transmitter to antenna (d) both (a) and (b)
(c) directly proportional to the square 14. Array gain of an antenna is
perpendicular-distance from transmitter to (a) directly proportional to power radiated by
antenna isotropic antenna
(d) inversely proportional to the square (b) invesely proportional to power radiated by
perpendicular-distance from transmitter to
isotropic antenna
antenna
(c) directly proportional to power radiated by
8. In sky-wave propagation, skip-distance depends
on : practical antenna
(a) frequency of e.m. waves transmitted (d) inversely proportional to square of power
(b) critical frequency of the layer radiated by practical antenna.
(c) height of layer above earth’s surface 15. Consider the following amplitude modulated
(d) all the above (AM) signal , where fm < B
9. For a single side band transmission a balanced xAM (t) = 10 (1 + 0.5 sin 2pfmt) cos 2pfct
modulator is used to The average side-band power for the AM signal
(a) increase power of carrier wave given above is
(b) increase amplitude of carrier wave (a) 25 (b) 12.5
(c) suppress audio signal
(c) 6.25 (d) 3.125
(d) suppress carrier component
10. For 100% modulation (AM), the useful part of 16. The picture signal in TV-broadcast is modulated
the total power radiated is in
1 (a) SSB (b) VSB
(a) of the total power
2 (c) FM (d) DSB
1 17. In PCM if the transmission path is very long
(b) of the total power (a) pulse spacing is reduced
3
1 (b) pulse amplitude is increased
(c) of the total power (c) pulse width is increased
4
(d) repeater stations are used.
2
(d) of the total power 18. Field strength of tropospheric TV signal is
3
proportional to
11. The frequency deviation in a FM transmission
is 18.75 KHz. If it broadcasts in 88-108 MHz band, 1
(a) (b) l
then the percent modulation is l
(a) 10 % (b) 25 % 1
(c) 50 % (d) 75 % (c) (d) l2
l2
Communication Systems P-173
19. Electromagnetic waves with frequencies greater

than the critical frequency of ionosphere cannot a
be used for commu nication using sky wave
propagation because:
(a) the refractive index of the ionosphere (d)
t
becomes very high for f > fc
(b) the refractive index of the ionosphere
becomes very low for f > fc
(c) the refractive index of the ionosphere very
high for f < fc 2. A diode detector is used to detect an amplitude
modulated wave of 60% modulation by using a
20. A 1 kW carrier is modulated to a depth of 80%.
The total power (in Kw) in the modulated wave condenser of capacity 250 picofarad in parallel
is: with a load resistance 100 kilo ohm. Find the
(a) 1.32 (b) 1.56 maximum modulated frequency which could be
(c) 1.84 (d) 1.96 detected by it.
21. For an AM wave, the maximum voltage was
D
found to be 10 V and minimum voltage was 4 V.
The modulation index of the wave is
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.43 Signal C R
(c) 0.56 (d) 0.64
(a) 10.62 MHz (b) 10.62 kHz
1. Which one of the following represents rectified (c) 5.31 MHz (d) 5.31 kHz
wave?
a Assertion/ Reason :
t two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
(a) questions also has four alternative choices, only one
a
(b) t (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
a 1. Assertion : Amplification is necessary to
compensate for the attenuation of the signal in
communication system.
(c) t
Reason : Amplification is the process of
increasing the amplitude and consequntly the
strength of signal using an electronic circuit.
P-174 PHYSICS
2. Assertion : The loss of strength of a signal while 6. Assertion : Long distance communication
propagating through a medium is known as between two points on the earth is achieved by
attenuation. using sky waves.
Reason : Transmitter helps to avoid attenuation. Reason : Sky wave propagation takes place
3. Assertion : The information contained in our above the frequency of 30 MHz.
original low frequency baseband signal is to be 7. Assertion : The television signals are
translated into high or radio frequencies before propagated through sky waves.
transmission. Reason : Television signals have frequency in
Reason : For transmitting a signal, the antenna the range of 1000 MHz to 2000 MHz range.
should have a size comparable to the wavelength 8. Assertion : Space waves are used for line-of-
of the signal. sight communication.
4. Assertion : When the height of a TV Reason : Space wave travels in a straight line
transmission tower is increased by three times, from transmitting anttena to receiving antenna.
the range covered is doubled. 9. Assertion : The ionosphere layer acts as a
Reason : The range covered is proportional to reflector for all range of frequencies.
the height of the TV transmission tower. Reason : Ionospher e does not allow
5. Assertion : Microwave communication is electromagnetic wave to penetrate and escape.
preferred over optical communication. 10. Assertion : The process of retrival of information
Reason : Information carrying capacity is directly from the carrier wave at the receiver is termed as
proportional to bandwidth. modulation.
Reason : Repeater helps to modulate the signals.
1. Match the Columns I and II.
Column I Column II
(A) Attenuation (1) The process of increasing the amplitude
(B) Amplification (2) The loss of strength of a signal
(C) Bandwidth (3) The process of retrieval of information from
the carrier wave
(D) Demodulation (4) The frequency range over which an
equipment operates
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
Communication Systems P-175
(Name of the stratum) (Frequencies most
affected)
(A) Troposphere reflects HF (1) Efficiently waves
(B) Stratosphere (2) Partially absorbs HF waves
(C) Mesosphere (3) V H F upto several GHZ
(D) Thermosphere absorbs MF (4) Reflects LF and HF to
some degree
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
5. For an AM-system the total power of modulated

Critical Thinking Type Questions : signal is 600 W and that of carrier is 400 W, the
1. A transmitter radiates 10 kW of power with the modulation index is
carrier unmodulated and 11.8 kW with the carrier (a) 0.25 (b) 0.36
sinusoidally modulated. The modulation factor (c) 0.54 (d) 1
is 6. For 100% modulation (AM), the useful part of
(a) 56% (b) 60 % the total power radiated is
(c) 72 % (d) 84% 1
(a) of the total power
2
2. The frequency deviation in a FM transmission 1
is 18.75 KHz. If it broadcasts in 88-108 MHz band, (b) of the total power
3
then the percent modulation is
1
(a) 10 % (b) 25 % (c) of the total power
4
(c) 50 % (d) 75 %
3. 12 signals each band limited to 5 kHz are to be 2
transmitted by frequency-division multiplexer. If (d) of the total power
3
AM-SSB modulation guard band of 1 kHz is used
7. Consider the following amplitude modulated
then the bandwidth of multiplexed signal is
(AM) signal , where fm < B xAM (t) = 10 (1 + 0.5
(a) 101 kHz (b) 99 kHz
sin 2pfmt) cos 2pfct
(c) 84 kHz (d) 71 kHz
The average side-band power for the AM signal
4. The rms value of a carrier voltage is 100 volts.
given above is
Compute its rms value when it has been
amplitude modulated by a sinusoidal audio (a) 25 (b) 12.5
voltage to a depth of 30%. (c) 6.25 (d) 3.125
(a) 94 V (b) 104 .5V 8. A sinusoidal carrier voltage of frequency 10 MHz
(c) 114.4 V (d) 124 V and amplitude 200 volts is amplitude modulated
by a sinusoidal voltage of frequency 10 kHz
producing 40% modulation. Calculate the
frequency of upper and lower sidebands.
P-176 PHYSICS
(a) 10010 kHz, 9990 kHz 10. A 10 kW carrier is sinusoidally modulated by

(b) 1010 kHz, 990 kHz two carriers corresponding to a modulation index
of 30% and 40% respectively then total power
(c) 10100 Hz,9990 Hz
radiated by the modulator is
(d) 1010 MHz, 990 MHz
(a) 10.25 kW (b) 11.25 kW
9. What will be the image frequency of an FM radio
(c) 12.75 kW (d) 17 kW
receiver that is tuned to 98.6 MHz broadcast
station? 11. An AM wave varies from 10V to 4V. Its
percentage modulation is
(a) 111.8 MHz (b) 108 MHz
(a) 36% (b) 42.8%
(c) 121.6 MHz (d) 132 MHz
(c) 54% (d) 68 %
Solutions
1 Physical World,
Units and Measurements
Fill in the Blanks 5. (c) Angular displacement has unit
1. Accuracy (degree or radian) but it is dimensionless.
2. [X] = [C] = [M –1 L–2 T 2 Q2] Note : vice-versa is not possible.
[Z] = [B] = [MT –1 Q –1 ] 6. (b) g is ratio of specific heats.
V
[M -1 L-2T 2Q 2 ] ,, mass = [F 1 V +1 T–1].
\ [Y] = = [ M -3 L-2T 4 Q 4 ] 7. (c) acceleration =
T
[ MT -1Q -1 ]2 8. (b) Because by using length, time and velocity we
can’t find mass.
MLT -2 9. (d) 10. (d)
3. [a] = [PV 2 ] = 2
L6 = ML5 T –2 11. (a)
L 12. (b) Least no. of significant digits are 2, so round
4. Relative error off the final answer to two significant digits.
é 2 -2 ù 13. (d)
E ë ML T û é 2 -1 ù 14. (a)
5. h = v = é -1 ù = ë ML T û 0.2
T DT
ë û 15. (c) × 100 = × 100.
T 25
6. Least count error 16. (a) Use principle of Homogeneity.
æ DA ö 17. (a) t = [Force × distance]
7. 3ç ÷
è A ø = [MLT–2] [L] = ML2T–2
8. 2, According to rules of significant figures. 18. (c) Least count = 1MSD – 1 VSD
True/ False æ N -1 ö
1. True 2. True = 1MSD – ç
è ÷ MSD
N ø
3. False 4. True
5. False. Light year is used to measure very-very large N–1
distances. (Q N VSD = (N – 1)MSD \ 1 VSD = MSD )
6. False. Among l1, l2 and l3, l3 is the most accurate N
measurement. 1
Conceptual MCQs = MSD
N
1. (c) Tension is a force [MLT –2] 1 1 1
Whereas surface tension = ´ cm =
N 10 10N
force [ 0 -2 ] 19. (d) A quantity which has dimensions and a constant
= ML T
length value is called dimensional constant. Therefore,
gravitational constant (G) is a dimensional
2. (b) constant.
3. (b)
4. (d) Applying dimensional method : q2
20. (d) eo =
VC = hxryrz
[M0LT–1] = [ML–1T–1]x [ML–3T0]y [M0LT0]z (r 2 )4 pF
Equating powers both sides Þ unit of eo is (coulomb)2/ newton-metre2
x + y = 0; –x = –1 \ x = 1 2 pI w
1 + y = 0 \ y = –1 nh
–x – 3y + z = 1 21. (b) Planck's constant = n [As = Iw ]
Moment of inertia I 2p
–1 – 3(–1) + z = 1
–1 + 3 + z = 1
2pI (2pf ) æ 4p 2 ö
\ z = –1 = =ç . f ÷ = [T -1 ]
nI è n ø
P-S-2 PHYSICS
mass
MLT –2 –1 –2 6. (d) P=
area
x
22. (d) Pressure = = ML T
L2 P ´ area MLT -1
\ x= = ´ L2 = L3T - 1
Þ a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2. mass M
Quantities with different dimensions can be
1 multiplied.
23. (c) Speed, c = T–1].
, so, dimensions are [LT
m 0 Î0 7. (a) Addition and subtraction can be done between
quantities having same dimensions.
Diagram Based Questions
8. (d) Let us write the dimension of various quantities
1. (b) The alpha particle scattering experiment of on two sides of the given relation.
Rutherford gave the nuclear model of the atom L.H.S. = T = [T]
as shown in figure
LT –2
Lead Flash of R.H.S. = 2p g / l = = [T –1 ]
block light L
[\ 2p has no dimension]. As dimensions of
L.H.S is not equal to dimensions of R.H.S.
a Fluorescent Therefore according to principle of homogeneity
A q
screen the relation
Scattering T = 2p g / l is not valid
B angle 9. (d) Mass × acceleration (ma) = F (force)
Polonium Gold foil
sample Matching Based Questions
2. (b) 3. (a) 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b)
0.5 Critical Thinking Type Questions
4. (c) Least count = = 0.01mm
50 1. (d) As we know, time period of a simple pendulum
Zero error = 5 × L.C = 5 × 0.01 mm
= 0.05 mm L 4p2 L
Diameter of ball = [Reading on main scale] + T = 2p Þg= 2
g T
[Reading on circular scale × L . C]
– Zero error The maximum percentage error in g
= 0.5 × 2 + 25 × 0.01 – 0.05 = 1.20 mm Dg DL æ DT ö
Assertion/ Reason ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 2 ç ´ 100 ÷
g L è T ø
1. (c) Light has well defined relation with length.
= 2% + 2(3%) = 8%
2. (a) As the distance of star increases, the parallax
angle decreases, and great degree of accuracy 0.1
is required for its measurement. Keeping in 2. (b) Least count = = 0.01 cm
10
view the practical limitation in measuring the
parallax angle, the maximum distance of a star d 1 = 0.5 + 8 × 0.01 + 0.03 = 0.61 cm
we can measure is limited to 100 light year. d 2 = 0.5 + 4 × 0.01 + 0.03 = 0.57 cm
3. (b) A.U. (Astronomical unit) is used to measure d 3 = 0.5 + 6 × 0.01 + 0.03 = 0.59 cm
the average distance of the centre of the sun 0.61 + 0.57 + 0.59
from the centre of the earth, while angstrom is Mean diameter =
used to measure very short distances. 1 A.U. = 3
1.5 × 1011m; 1Å =10–10m. = 0.59 cm
4. (c) We know that Q = n1u 1 = n 2u2 are the two 3. (c) [at] = [F] amd [bt2] = [F]
units of measurement of the quantity Q and n1, Þ [a] = MLT–3 and [b] = MLT–4
n2 are their respective numerical values. From 4. (a)
relation Q1= n1u1 = n 2u 2, nu = constant 5. (b) [momentum] = [M][L][T–1] = [MLT–1]
Þ n µ 1/ u i.e. , smaller the unit of E
Planck’s constant =
measurement, greater is its numerical value. n
[M][LT-1]2
5. (c) Angle and strain dimensionless, but angle has
= = ML2T -1
unit radian. -1
T
Solutions P-S-3
8. (d) Let unit ‘u’ related with e, a 0, h and c as

GMm follows.
6. (a) F=
R2 [u] = [e]a [a0]b [h]c [C]d
Using dimensional method,
FR 2 [M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [A1T1]a[L]b[ML2T–1]c[LT–1]d
\G= Þ G = [ML3T–2]
Mm [M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [Mc Lb+2c+d Ta–c–d Aa]
MLT –2 a = 2, b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1
7. (d) Pressure = = [ ML–1T –2 ]
L2 e 2 a0
\ u=
Þ a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2. hc
2 Motion in a Straight Line
Fill in the Blanks True/ False

1. Displacement 1. True 2. False 3. True
2. Speed 4. False
The slope of the tangent drawn on position-time 5. False. Average velocity can be positive, negative or
graph at any instant gives instantaneous velocity.
zero.
S Conceptual MCQs
A 1. (b) In case of uniform circular motion, a body can

AB have a constant speed and still have a verying
Position C B AC = = Vinst
BC velocity due to change in direction.
2. (b) s = 6t2 – t3
O Time
ds
3. Velocity v= = 12t - 3t 2
4. Change in velocity dt
5. Straight line
6. Free fall for v = 0 12t = 3t 2
7. Straight line
Velocity time curve will be a straight line as shown: 12
t= = 4s
3
v 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c)
Total distance travelled
6. (c) Average speed =
Total time taken
o If L is the total distance travelled.
t Time taken to cover half the distance
At the highest point v = 0. L
8. Parabola
For a particle moving with uniform acceleration the = t1 = 2
displacement-time graph is a parabola. V1
S time taken to cover test half the distance
L
= t2 = 2
V2
t
P-S-4 PHYSICS
L L d 2s
+ Acceleration = = 18t + 14
\ Average speed = 2 2 dt 2
L L Acceleration at (t = 1s)
+
2V1 2V2 = 18×1+14 = 18 + 14 = 32 m/s2
17. (a)
L 18. (c) Let t1 & t 2 be the time taken by A and B
2 respectively to reach the ground then from the
2 2V1V2
= = formula,
L æ V1 + V2 ö V1 + V 2
ç ÷ 1 2
2 è V1V2 ø h= gt ,
2
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a)
10. (c) Given : Velocity 1 2
For first body, 16 =
gt1
dx 2
V = At + Bt2 Þ = At + Bt2
dt 1 2
By integrating we get distance travelled For second body, 25 = gt2
2
x 2
16 t12
ò ( At + Bt ) dt
t 4
ò
2
Þ dx = \ = 2 Þ 1 = .
25 t2 t2 5
0 1
Distance travelled by the particle between 1s 1
and 2s 19. (a) x=
t +5
A ( 2 2 ) B ( 3 3 ) 3A 7B
2 -1 + 2 -1 = +
x=
2 3 2 3 dx = -1
\ v=
11. (b) The slope of velocity-time graph denotes dt (t + 5) 2
acceleration. For a retarded motion acceleration
is negative. d2x 2
12. (c) Area of acceleration-displacement curve \ a= =
(t + 5)3
= 2x3
dt 2
dv
dx éê a = , v = ùú
x2 x2 dv dx
A= òx1 a dx = òx1 dt ë dt dt û 1
µ v2
1
Now
(t + 5)
v 1 2
A= òu vdv = 2 [v - u2 ] 3
1
\ µ v2 µa
1 m [v 2 - u 2 ] (t + 5)3
A=
2 m 1 2
= Change in K.E. per unit mass. 20. (a) Q h= gt
13. (c) 2
1
a \ h1 = g(5)2 = 125
0+ (2 ´ 4 - 1) 2
D4 2 7
14. (a) = =
D3 a 5 1
0 + (2 ´ 3 - 1) h1 + h2 = g(10)2 =
2 2
15. (c) The speed of an object, falling freely due to 500
gravity, depends only on its height and not on Þ h2 = 375
its mass. Since the paths are frictionless and 1
all the objects fall through the same height, h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2
therefore, their speeds on reaching the ground 2
will be in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 1. = 1125
16. (c) Displacement Þ h3 = 625
s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 5t +8; h2 = 3h1 , h3 = 5h1
ds h2 h3
Velocity = = 9t2 + 14t + 5 or h1 = =
dt 3 5
Solutions P-S-5
Diagram Based Questions of a body increases and will be maximum when

1. (d) the body touches the ground.
2. (a) v2 = u2 + 2as 10. (a) A body has no relative motion with respect to
400 > 2a(100) : a < 2 itself. Hence, if a frame of reference of body is
3. (c) fixed, then the body will be always at relative
4. (c) Let v be velocity of wind and u be velocity of rest in this frame of reference.
each train. Matching Based Questions
Rel. vel. of one train w.r.t. wind = 2 × Rel. vel. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)
of other train w.r.t. wind
u + v = 2 (u – v) 6. (a) 7. (c)
v + 2 v = 2u – u = u. Critical Thinking Type Questions
i.e., u = 3v. 1. (d) Let the total distance be d. Then for first half
5. (e) From displacement-time graph, it is clear that
in equal intervals of time displacements are d
not equal infact, decreases and after 40s distance, time = , next distance. = v1t
2v 0
displacement constant i.e. the particle stops. and last half distance = v2t
6. (c) Speed, V = constant (from question)
Centripetal acceleration, d t= d
\ v1t + v 2 t = ;
V2 2 2(v1 + v2 )
a=
r Now average speed
ra = constant
Hence graph (c) correctly describes relation d
t=
between acceleration and radius. d d d
Assertion/ Reason + +
2 v 0 2( v1 + v 2 ) 2( v1 + v 2 )
1. (d) Speedometer measures instantaneous speed of
automobile. 2v0 (v1 + v2 )
2. (a) Since velocity is a vector quantity, hence as its =
direction changes keeping magnitude constant, (v1 + v 2 ) + 2v0
velocity is said to be changed. But for constant 2. (c) When particle comes to rest,
speed in equal time interval distance travelled dx d
should be equal. V=0= = (40 + 12t – t3)
3. (c) Negative slope of position time graph dt dt
represents that the body is moving towards the Þ 12 – 3t2 = 0
negative direction and if the slope of the graph 12
decrease with time then it represents the Þ t2 = = 4 \ t = 2 sec
decrease in speed i.e. retardation in motion. 3
4. (c) If the position-time graph of a body moving Therefore distance travelled by particle before
uniformly in a straight line parallel to position coming to rest,
axis, it means that the position of body is x = 40 + 12t – t3 = 40 + 12 × 2 – (2)3 = 56m
changing at constant time. The statement is
dv dv
abrupt and shows that the velocity of body is 3. (a) = - kv 3 or 3 = - k dt
infinite. dt v
5. (c) In uniform motion the speed is same at each 1
instant of motion. Integrating we get, - = - kt + c ...(1)
6. (a) In uniform circular motion, there is acceleration 2v 2
of constant magnitude. 1
7. (d) Equation of motion can be applied if the At t = 0, v = v0 \ - 2 = c
acceleration is in opposite direction to that of 2vo
velocity and uniform motion mean the Putting in (1)
acceleration is zero.
1 1 1 1
8. (b) A body having positive acceleration can be - 2
= - kt - 2
or - = - kt
associated with slowing down, as time rate of 2v 2v0 2v20 2v2
change of velocity decreases, but velocity
[ ]
increases with time. é 1 ù 1 v2
or 1 + 2v 02 kt = 0
9. (d) When a body falling freely, only gravitational or ê + kt ú =
2 2
force acts on it in vertically downward direction. ëê 2 v 0 ûú 2 v v2
Due to this downward acceleration the velocity
P-S-6 PHYSICS
1 2
v 20 v0 s1 = a t1 and v = a t1 , t1 = v / a ,
or v 2 = or v = 2
1 + 2 v 20 kt 1 + 2 v 02 kt 1 v2
change in velocity \ s1 = ´ a ´ (v2 / a 2 ) = ...(1)
4. (c) Average acceleration =
2 2a
time interval Let the car decelerates for a time t2 and travels
a distances s2. Then
Dv v
= 1
t s 2 = v t 2 - b t 2 2 and 0 = v - b t 2 or t 2 =
v2 2 b
N æ v ö 1 æ v2 ö
\ s2 = v ´ ç ÷ - b ç ÷
D v = v 2 + (- v1 ) è b ø 2 çè b2 ÷ø
v2 v2 v2
or s 2 = - = ...(2)
90° b 2b 2b
W E As per question,
- v1 v1 Let max. velocity is v
then v = a t1 & v – b t2 = 0, where t = t1 + t2
S v v
uur uur Now t1 + t2 = t or + =t
ˆ v = 5jˆ
v1 = 5i, a b
2
t æ ab ö
D v = (v 2 - v 1 ) = v12 + v 22 + 2 v1v 2 cos 90 \v= =ç ÷ t and
æ 1 1 ö è a+bø
ç + ÷
= 5 2 + 52 + 0 [As | v1 | = | v 2 | = 5 m/s] èa bø
= 5 2 m/s
s = s1 + s2 =
v2 v2 v2 æ 1 1 ö
+ = ç + ÷
Dv 5 2 1 2 a 2b 2 è a b ø
Avg. acc. = = = m / s2
t 10 2 8. (a) According to question,
5 V (x) = bx–2n
tan q = = -1
-5 dv
which means q is in the second quadrant. (towards So, = – 2 nb x– 2n – 1
dx
north-west) Acceleration of the particle as function of x,
dv dv
5. (a)
dt
= -2.5 v Þ
v
= – 2.5 dt a=v
dv
dx
{
= bx–2n b (–2 n) x
–2n –1
}
Integrating, = – 2nb2x–4n–1
0 9. (c) Speed on reaching ground
0 t
é v +½ ù u
ò v dv = -2.5ò dt Þ êê (½) úú = -2.5[ t ]0
-½ t
2
v= u + 2 gh
6.25 0 ë û 6.25
H
Þ – 2(6.25)½ = – 2.5t Þ t = 2 sec
1 2
6. (a) h = ut1 -
gt1
2
Now, v = u + at Þ u 2 + 2 gh = -u + gt
1
Also h = ut2 - gt22 u
2 Time taken to reach highest point is t = ,
After simplify above equations, we get g
1 u + u 2 + 2 gH
h = gt1t2 . nu
2 Þ t= =
7. (d) Let the car accelerates for a time t1 and travels g g
a distance s1. Suppose the maximum velocity (from question)
attained by the car be v. Then Þ 2gH = n(n –2)u2
Solutions P-S-7
3 Motion in a Plane
Fill in the Blanks Conceptual MCQs
1. Three;
The resultant of any three vectors will be cancel out. 1. (c) The acceleration of the particle must be in the
2. Vy = u sin q – gtm = 0 plane of motion of a two dimensional motion if
speed is a positive constant.
u y sin q 2. (b) Given, u1 = u2 = u, q1 = 60º, q2 = 30º
\ tm = (time to reach the maximum height) In 1st case, we know that range
g
2(u sin q) u 2 sin 2(60°) u 2 sin120°
Total time of flight Tf = R1 = =
g g g
\ Tf = 2tm u 2 sin(90° + 30°)
3. (u cos q) Only horizontal component of velocity =
4. At the highest point of trajectory, the acceleration is g
equal to g.
u 2 (cos 30°) 3u 2
5. Centripetal force = =
6. Perpendicular to each other. g 2g
In uniform circular motion speed is constant. So, no
In 2nd case, when q 2 = 30° , then
tangential acceleration.
v2 u 2 sin 60° u 2 3
It has only radial acceleration a R = [directed R2 = = Þ R1 = R2
R g 2g
towards center] and its velocity is always in tangential [we get same value of ranges].
direction. So these two are perpendicular to each other. 3. (b)
7. Kinetic energy.
4. (a) Minimum speed with which the string is
True/ False
1. True, rotating in a vertical circle (v) = gr
When the two balls are thrown vertically upwards The minimum speed of stone is independent
with the same speed u then their final speed v at the of mass of stone.
point of projection is v2 – u2 5. (d) 6. (b)
=2×g×s 7. (a) Horizontal velocity of a projectile is not affected
Here, s = 0 by gravity.
\ v = u for both the cases
2. True, 2pn 2p ´ 120
8. (b) w= =
T.E. = P.E. + K.E. t 60 s
T.E. = Constant r
At top, K.E. is minimum and P.E. is maximum. Since 9. (a) Velocity at A, v = v ˆj
K.E. is minimum speed is also minimum. r
3. False, The pressure exerted will be different because Velocity at B, v2 = - v iˆ
one train is moving in the direction of earth’s rotation Change in velocity,
and other in the opposite direction. r r r
4. Flase, In projectile motion, the horizontal range is Dv = v2 - v1 = - v iˆ - v ˆj
independent of the mass
r
5. False, Depends on the angle of projection according Dv = ( - v ) 2 + ( - v )2 = v 2.
2
u sin 2q
to the relation: R = 10. (c) 0.52 + 0.82 + c 2 = 1
g
6. True or c = 1 - 0.89 = 0.11
7. True, Centripetal acceleration has a constant 11. (c) For two perpendicular vectors,
magnitude and is always directed towards the centre. r r
A. B = AB cos 90° = 0.
P-S-8 PHYSICS
12. (c) Initially, both particles have zero vertical
velocity. So, both particles take same time to V12 sin 2 30° V22 V2 1
So = Þ V = sin 30° = 2
fall through same height. 2g 2g 1
r
13. (c) The resultant of A ´ 0 is a vector of zero
1
magnitude. The product of a vector with a scalar \ V2 = V
2 1
gives a vector. 4. (b) At point B the direction of velocity component
r r r r
14. (c) | a + b |2 = | a - b |2 of the projectile along Y - axis reverses.
ur
r r r r Hence, V B = 2$i - 3 $j
Þ | a | + | b | + 2 a . b = | a |2 + | b |2 - 2a . b
2 2
15. (b) Scalar product is distributive over addition. v2

16. (a) In circular motion of a particle with constant 5. (c) a= = 1 cm/s. Centripetal acceleration is
speed, particle repeats its motion after a regular r
interval of time but does not oscillate about a directed towards the centre. Its magnitude = 1.
fixed point. So, motion of particle is periodic Unit vector at the mid point on the path between
but not simple harmonic. P and Q is -(xˆ + y)
ˆ / 2.
vR – vB2
2 Assertion/ Reason
17. (b) vr = = 102 - 82 = 6 km h –1
18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) (45º – q) & (45º + q) are complementary angles 1. (b)
as 45º – q + 45º + q = 90º. We know that if Boat 2 v Boat 1
angle of projection of two projectiles make v
complementary angles, their ranges are equal. river
In this case also, the range will be same. So Vr,g=5m/s
the ratio is 1 : 1.
Diagram Based Questions If component of velocities of boat relative to
r r river is same normal to river flow (as shown in
1. (c) Using the law of vector addition, (d + e ) is as figure) both boats reach other bank
shown in the fig. simultaneously.
1
d 2. (b) h = ut - gt 2 and v2 = u2 – 2gh;
2
These equations are independent of mass.
3. (b) When a body is projected up making an angle
q the velocity component along-axis remains
constant.
f \ Momentum along x-axis is constant.
e Along horizontal, mass and velocity both are
r r r constant.
\ d +e = f
2. (a) u 2 sin 2q
D C 4. (a) R = If q = 45° + a then
g
u 2 sin 2(45° + a) u 2 sin(90° + a)
R1 = =
g g
A B u 2 cos a
uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur =
AC + BD = (AB + BC) + (BC + CD) g
uuur uuur uuur If q = 45° – a then
= AB + 2BC + CD
uuur uuur uuur u 2 sin 2 (45° - a ) u 2 sin(90° - a)
= AB + 2BC - AB R2 = =
uuur g g
= 2BC
3. (b) Two bodies will collide at the highest point if u 2 cos a
both cover the same vertical height in the same = \ R1 = R2
g
time.
Solutions P-S-9
5. (c) If gravitational force is zero, then ay = 0. vy = 2bxvx

So, x = u cos q t and y = u sin q t Again differentiating w.r.t to t on both sides
\ y = x tan q. we get
It represent straight line. dv y
The resultant path of the body depends on initial dx dv
= 2bv x + 2bx x = 2bv 2x + 0
velocities and acceleration. dt dt dt
6. (a) For maximum height q = 90°, or body must be
projected straight upwards. Then dv x
[ = 0, because the particle has constant
0 = u2 – 2gh, dt
acceleration along y-direction]
u2
\ h = . dv y a
2g = a = 2bv 2x ; v 2x =
Now,
2u sin q dt 2b
7. (d) T = , it will maximum, when q = 0°.
g a
vx =
u 2 2b
Rmax = , for q = 45°. 3. (c) For projectile A
g
8. (d) At the highest point of the trajectory, u 2A sin 2 45°
vy = 0, and Maximum height, HA =
r 2g
so, Py = 0. For projectile B
For the two pieces, it is
r r u 2B sin 2 q
P1y + P2 y = 0. Maximum height, HB =
2g
Matching Based Questions
As we know, HA = HB
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) u 2A sin 2 45° u 2B sin 2 q
6. (a) =
Critical Thinking Type Questions 2g 2g
1. (d) D C sin 2 q u 2A
=
sin 2 45° u 2B
2
æu ö
F2 F F2 sin 2 q = ç A ÷ sin 2 45°
è uB ø
2 2
90° æ 1 ö æ 1 ö 1
sin 2 q = ç ÷ ç ÷ =
A F1 B è 2ø è 2ø 4
In DABC, 1 -1 æ 1 ö
sin q = Þ q = sin ç ÷ = 30°
F22 = F2 + F12 or F2 = F22 – F12 2 è2ø
( 8 3 )2 = F22 – F12 4. (a) Horizontal range =

u 2sin 2q
so g µ u2
192 = (F2 + F1) (F2 – F1) g
192 g planet (u planet ) 2
F2 – F1 = = 12N [Q F1 + F2 = 16N]
16 or =
On solving we get,
g earth (u earth ) 2
F1 = 2N, F2 = 14 N 2
2. (b) y = bx2 æ3ö 2
Differentiating w.r.t to t an both sides, we get Therefore gplanet = ç ÷ (9.8 m / s )
5
è ø
dy dx = 3.5 m/s2
= b2x
dx dt
P-S-10 PHYSICS
5. (c) Clearly 6. (a) ar = w2 R
r
a = ac cos q(-iˆ) +ac sin q(- ˆj )
-v 2 v2
= cos q iˆ - sin q ˆj
R R
Y
2
2 æ 22 ö
P( R, q ) a r = (2p2) 2 R = 4p2 2 2R = 4p çè ÷ (1)
44 ø
R
q é 22 ù
êëQ v = 44 úû
X
O
dv
at = =0
dt
anet = ar = p2 ms–2 and direction along the radius
towards the centre.
4 Laws of Motion
Fill in the Blanks N
1. Change in momentum
Impulse = Force × time duration. f
According to Newton’s second law
Change in momentum mg
Force = time duration True/ False
1. False,
\ Force × time = change in momentum
Newton's laws of motion are applicable only for
i.e., Impulse = change is momentum. inertial frames. All refrence frames present on
2. Impulse surface of earth are supposed to be inertial frame
3. Third law of motion, of refrence.
Swimming is a result of pushing water in the opposite 2. True 3. True
direction of the motion. 4. True,
4. Velocity, According to third law of motion bullet experiences
5. Conservation of linear momentum. a force F then, gun experiences an equal and opposite
6. Normal reaction, and force of friction force F. According to second law, FDt is change in
momentum of the bullet, then – FDt is change in
force of friction momentum of the gun. Since initially both are at
Coefficient of static friction = rest, the final momentum = 0. \ Pb + Pg = 0. Thus
normal reaction
the total momentum of (bullet + gun) is conserved.
7. Unchanged, 5. True Reaction
Coefficient of friction is independent of normal force. 6. False,
8. Component of force of friction between road and The rocket moves forward
tyres. when the exhaust gases are
Normal reaction N = weight mg thus the thrown backward.
centripetal force required by the car for circular Here exhaust gases thrown
motion is provided by the component of the force backwards is action and
of friction b/w the road and the car tyres. rocket moving forward is Exhaust gases
reaction. Action
This phenomenon takes place in the absence of air
as well.
Solutions P-S-11
7. True, 3. (c) Friction does not depend on the area of contact.

Friction force opposes the relative motion of the 4. (c) Velocity of the rocket (u) = 300 m/s and force
surface of contact. (F) = 345N. Rate of combustion of fuel
When a person walks on a rough surface, the foot is
the surface of contact. When he pushes the foot æ dm ö F
çè ÷= = 1.15kg / sec
backward, the motion of surface of contact tends to dt ø u
be backwards. Therefore the frictional force will act 5. (c) On increasing smoothness, friction first
forward (in the direction of motion of the person) decreases and then increases.
6. (b) Centripetal force always acts perpendicular to
the direction of motion, hence it can change
direction of motion, of the body but not its
f speed. Again as direction of centripetal force
is different at different positions, it is never
f constant.
8. True, 7. (d) The horse exerts a backward force on the earth
As the angular amplitude of the pendulum is 40°, as a result, earth exerts a forward force on the
the bob will be in the mid of the equilibrium position horse and cause horse to move forward.
and the extreme position as shown in the figure 8. (c) Action and reaction always act on different
bodies.
mv 2 9. (a) Action and reaction forces are always of same
For equilibrium of the bob, T – mg cos 20° = ,
l nature.
where l is the length of the pendulum and is the 10. (a) Static friction is self adjusting in nature.
velocity of the bob. 11. (c) Friction always apposes relative motion
between surfaces in contact and hence can act
mv 2 in any direction to oppose the relative motion.
\ T = mg cos 20° +
l 12. (c) As the net force acting on the body is zero,
either no force should act on the body or at least
two forces should be acting on it.
40°
13. (a) Direction of impulse is same as that of the net
20°
T
force.
l 14. (a) By Newton’s third law of motion, the tension
in the rope must be equal to the force applied
by the monkey on the rope.
20°
15. (c) Friction provides centripetal force to the coin,
mg cos 20° hence acts towards the centre of the disc.
mg
Total Impulse
mv 2 16. (b) Net force experienced =
Time taken
is always a positive quantity..
l
Hence, T > mg cos 20°. mDv 20
= = 0.15 ´ = 30 N
Conceptual MCQs t 0.1
1. (a) As the block is at rest, the net contact force on F - mR 100 - 0.5 ´ (10 ´ 10)
the block i.e. resultant of friction and normal 17. (c) a = = = 5 ms -2
m 10
reaction must balance the weight of the block. 18. (a) Net force, F = T – mg
Hence R = mg = 20N ma = T – mg
N R F 2000 a = 28000 – 20000 = 8000
8000
a= = 4 ms –2
m 2000
19. (d) Given; speed = 10 m/s; radius r = 10 m
30º Angle made by the wire with the vertical
mg v2 102
tan q = = =1
2. (c) Centrifugal force is a pseudo force which rg 10 ´ 10
appears to act on an object when observed from
a rotating frame of reference. It always acts p
Þ q = 45° =
away from the centre of circular path. 4
P-S-12 PHYSICS
4. (c) Acceleration
d(Mv) dv dM
20. (a) F= = M +v Net force in the direction of motion
dt dt dt =
\ v is constant, Total mass of system
dM dM m1g - m(m 2 + m3 )g g
\ F= v But = Mkg / s
dt dt = = (1 - 2m )
m1 + m 2 + m3 3
\ F = vM newton.
Diagram Based Questions (Q m1 = m2 = m3 = m given)
5. (c) Change in momentum,
1. (a) Here, on resolving force F2 and applying the
concept of equilibrium Dp = ò Fdt
= Area of F-t graph
F2cos q
= ar of D – ar of + ar of
F2sin q
1
F1 m = ´2´6-3´2+ 4´3
2
= 12 N-s
f N 6. (a)
N cos q
mg
N
q
N = mg + F2 cos q , and f = µN
f cos q
\ f = m[mg + F2 cos q] … (i) N sin q
Also f = F1 + F2 sin q … (ii) f
From (i) and (ii) q mg
m[mg + F2 cos q] = F1 + F2 sin q f sin q
Clearly form the figure, N sinq and f cosq
F1 + F2 sin q
Þ m= contribute to the centripetal force.
mg + F2 cos q
mv 2
2. (d) Case (a) \ N sinq + f cosq =
(Px)i = mu R
Py(initial) = 0 Assertion/ Reason
(Px)f = f = –mu 1. (a) The force acting on the body of mass M are its
Py(final) = 0 weight Mg acting vertically downward and air
Impulse = DP = –2mu (along x –axis) resistance F acting vertically upward.
Impulse = 0 along y–axis F
parallaly in case (b) \ Acceration of the body , a = g -
(Px)i = mu cos30° M
(Py)i = –mu sin30° Now M > m, therefore, the body with larger
(Px)f = f = –mu cos30° mass will have great acceleration and it will
(Py)f = –mu sin30° reach the ground first.
\ Impulse = –2mu cos 30°(along x-axis) 2. (a) On a rainy day, the roads are wet. Wetting of
Impulse = 0 (along y–axis) roads lowers the coefficient of friction between
Force and impulse are in the same direction the types and the road. Therefore, grip on a
the force on wall due to the ball is normal to road of car reduces and thus chances of
the wall along positive x–direction in both (a) skidding increases.
& (b) case. 3. (a) Friction causes wear & tear and loss of energy,
3. (c) Common acceleration of system is so it is an evil but without friction walking.
Stopping a vehicle etc. would not be possible.
F So it is necessary for us.
a=
m1 + m2 + m3 4. (c) The assertion is true for a reason that when the
car is driven at optimum speed. Then the
\ Force on m3 is F3 = m3 × a
normal reaction component is enough to provide
m 3F the centripetal force.
= m +m +m
1 2 3
Solutions P-S-13
5. (b) When a body is moving in a circle, its speed 3. (b)

remains same but velocity changes due to
change in the direction of motion of body.
S/2 h
According to first law of motion, force is oot S/2 sin q
required to change the state of a body. As in Sm
q
circular motion the direction of velocity of body
is changing so the acceleration cannot be zero. S/2
h
But for a uniform motion acceleration is zero oug S/2 sin q
(for rectilinear motion). q R
6. (c) In uniform circular motion, the direction of For upper half of inclined plane
motion changes, therefore velocity changes. v2 = u2 + 2a S/2 = 2 (g sin q) S/2 = gS sin q
As P = mv therefore momentum of a body also For lower half of inclined plane
changes uniform circular motion. 0 = u2 + 2 g (sin q – m cos q) S/2
7. (c) The purpose of bending is to acquire centripetal Þ – gS sin q = gS ( sinq – m cos q)
force for circu lar motion. By doing so 2 sin q
Þ 2 sin q = m cos q Þ m= = 2 tan q
component of normal reaction will counter cos q
balance the centrifugal force. 4. (c) Change in momentum of the ball
Matching Based Questions = mv sin q – (– mv sin q)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 2v sin q
= 2 mv sin q = mg ´
g
Critical Thinking Type Questions
= weight of the ball × total time of flight
2 2 5. (a) At limiting equilibrium,
v 20 m = tanq
1. (d) Angle of banking is tan q = =
rg 40 3 ´10 dy x 2
tanq = m = =
1 dx 2
tan q =
3
\ q = 30º m
2. (b) For the motion of both the blocks y
q
m1a = T – mkm1g
m2g – T = m2a
a
T
mk m1g m1
(from question)
mk Q Coefficient of friction m = 0.5
m2 x2
a \ 0.5 = Þx=+1
2
m2g x3 1
Now, y = = m
6 6
m 2g – m k m1g 6. (c) Tension at the highest point
a=
m1 + m 2
mv2
Ttop = – mg = 2mg (\ vtop = 3gr )
æ m 2 g – m k m1g ö r
m2g – T = (m2) ç ÷ Tension at the lowest point
è m1 + m 2 ø Tbottom = 2mg + 6mg = 8mg
solving we get tension in the string
Ttop 2mg 1
m1mg (1 + m k )g \ = = .
T= Tbottom 8mg 4
m1 + m 2
7. (d) Q v = constant
so, a = 0, Hence, Fnet = ma = 0
P-S-14 PHYSICS
5 Work, Energy and Power
Fill in the Blanks

3. (b) Work done by a conservative force is negative
1. Kinetic energy; This is according to work-energy of change in P.E. of the body. Hence if work
theorem i.e., D K.E. = W done by a conservative force is positive, its P.E.
2. Negative must decrease.
3. Conservative force is negative gradient of potential 4. (d) P = Fv
–dV(x) as v = constant, f = 0
F(x) = \ P=0
dx 5. (a) Friction force is non-conservative while all
4. Potential energy, The energy stored in spring in the elastic forces are conservative.
form of elastic potential energy. i.e.,
6. (c) Work done by a non-conservative force in a
1 2 round trip may be positive, negative or zero.
(P.E ) elastic = kx 7. (c) By work-energy theorem
2
Where x is compression or elongation of spring & k W = Dk
is spring constant. or – Fs = – k
5. FV k
6. 1, Since or S =
– (v1 - v2 ) velocity of separation F
e= = as both kinetic energy and retarding force are
(u 2 - u1) velocity of approach equal for the car and the truck, they must cover
(i) For perfectly elastic collision e =1 equal distance before coming to rest.
(ii) For perfectly inelastic collision e = 0 8. (c) K.E. at the highest point of trajectory,
(iii) For other collision 0 < e < 1 k ¢ = k cos2q
7. Perfectly inelastic, When the two bodies stick will be equal for both the balls hence their P.E
together after collision, then it is perfectly inelastic will also be equal.
collision and in this case, the coefficient of restitution 9. (c) During collision, the P.E of the colliding bodies
e is equal to zero. increases due to deformation in the bodies,
8. At right angle to each other. hence their K.E. decreases during the collision.
True/ False 10. (d) Velocity of A after the collision is given by
1. True, If there were no friction, moving vehicles could ( m1 - em2 ) u1 (1 + e ) m2u2
not be stopped by looking the brakes. V1 = +
2. False
m1 + m2 m1 + m2
3. True, When a bomb explodes; momentum is Here e is coefficient of restitution.
conserved K.E. changes and in uniform circular Here, m1 = mp = m2 = m3 u = n u2 = 0
motion , K.E remains constant but momentum
changes due to change in directions of motion. ( mA - emB ) u
\ =0
4. True, In elastic collision, total momentum and kinetic mA + mB
energy will remain conserved.
or mA = emB
5. True
but e £ 1
6. True
\ mA £ mB
Conceptual MCQs
1. (a) The magnitude of work done by a force depends 11. (d) If the surface is rough, friction will act along
on frame of reference. the horizontal and hence horizontal component
s s of its velocity will change.
ò Fdx = ò (7 - 2 x + 3x )dx 12. (c) In inelastic collision, K.E. does not remain
2
2. (c) W = conserved. Also bodies may or may not stick to
0 0
each other if the collision is obrtque but the
= [7 x - x + x3 ]50 = 135 J
2
total momentum remains conserved.
Solutions P-S-15
13. (a) P = Fv 19. (d) As the particle is moving in a potential energy

For the inclined plane, region.
F = mg (sin q + m cos q) is constant, hence P = \ Kinetic energy ³ 0
constant. And, total energy E = K.E. + P.E.
14. (b) Common normal component of velocity of the Þ U(x) £ E
ball will become zero, hence the ball will move 20. (b) From conservation law of momentum, before
along the incline. collision and after collision linear momentum
(p) will be same. That is,
1 initial momentum = final momentum.
(K.E )1 m1v12 m1v12 4
2 4 Þ 0 = m1v1 – m2v2 Þ m1v1 = m2v2
15. (d) = = Þ =
(K.E ) 2 1 2 1 m2 v22 1 p1 = p2
m v
2 2 2 p2
Now, E =
(m1v1 )2 m2 4 p12 m2 4 2m
Þ = ´ =
(m2 v2 ) 2 m1 1 Þ p22 m1 1 E1 p 2 2m
\ = 1 ´ 2
2 E2 2m1 P22
m2 4 ´ p2 4 m1 1
= = ´1Þ =
m1 1 ´ p 2 1 m2 4 E1 m2
Þ =
E2 m1 [ p1 = p2]
1
[Given: p1=p2]
16. (b) From conservation of linear momentum Diagram Based Questions
m1v1 + m2v2 = 0
1. (b) F(N)
æ –m ö æ -18 ö
v2 = ç 1 ÷ v1 = ç 6 = -9ms -1
è m ø2 è 12 ÷ø A B
3
1 1 2
K.E. = m2 v22 = ´ 12 ´ 92 = 486 J 1
2 2 C
17. (a) Given, h = 60m, g = 10 ms–2, x(m)
0
Rate of flow of water = 15 kg/s 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
\ Power of the falling water Work done = area under F-x graph
= 15 kgs–1 × 10 ms–2 × 60 m = 900 watt.
Loss in energy due to friction 1
= area of trapezium OABC = ( 3 + 6)( 3)
10 2
= 9000 ´ = 900 watt. = 13.5 J
100 r
\ Power generated by the turbine 2. (a) F = –5iˆ + 9cos 60°iˆ + 9sin 60° ˆj - 3 ˆj
= ( 9000 – 900) watt = 8100 watt = 8.1 kW
9 9 3ˆ
18. (a) Clearly v1 = 2 ms –1, v2 = 0 = –5iˆ + iˆ + j - 3 ˆj
m1 = m (say), m2 = 2m 2 2
v1' = ?, v'2 = ?
iˆ æ 9 3 ö
= - + - 3÷ ˆj
v1 '- v2 ' 2 çè 2 ø
e= ....(i)
v2 - v1 r
s = –3iˆ .
By conservation of momentum,
2m = mv1' + 2mv2' ... (ii) r é iˆ æ 9 3 ö ù
W = F .sr = ê - 2 + çè - 3÷ ˆj ú .( -3iˆ)
From (i), ø
ë 2 û
v2 '- v1 ' = 1.5 J.
0.5 =
2 x x
1
\ v2' = 1 + v1'
From (ii),
3. (a) U=-
ò
0
Fdx = -
0 ò
kxdx = - kx 2 .
2
2 = v1'+ 2 + 2 v1' It is correctly drawn in (a)
Þ v1 = 0 and v2 = 1 ms–1
P-S-16 PHYSICS
4. (a) As the floor exerts a force on the ball along the Critical Thinking Type Questions
normal, & no force parallel to the surface,
1. (d) For any uniform rod, the mass is supposed to
therefore the velocity component along the
be concentrated at its centre.
parallel to the floor remains constant. Hence V
\ height of the mass from ground is, h = (l/2) sin
sin q = V1 sin q1.
30º
5. (b) When m 1 > m 2 & m 2 at rest then the bodies
\ Potential energy of the rod
collide in elastically and move together as one
body without changing the direction. l
= m´g´ sin 30º
2 l 60º
6. (d) Work done = ò Fdx l 1 mgl
m
Assertion/ Reason = m´g´ ´ = 30º
2 2 4
1. (a) Both reason and assertion are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion.
m
W K
2. (a) Power = = = nK l/2
t 1/ n h
30º
3. (d) Work done and power developed one-zero in
uniform circular motion only. 2. (b) According to principle of conservation of
4. (d) Total momentum and total energy both are energy
conserved in an inelastic collision. It is the K.E. Potential energy = kinetic energy
which changes. 1
Þ mgh = mv2 Þ v = 2gh
P2
P 2 2
5. (d) Maximum energy loss = - If h1 and h2 are initial and final heights, then
2m 2(m + M)
Þ v1 = 2gh 1 , v 2 = 2gh 2
é P2 1 ù Loss in velocity,
êQ K.E. = = mv2 ú
êë 2m 2 úû =Dv=
v1 – v 2 2gh1 – 2gh 2
\ fractional loss in velocity
P2 é M ù 1 ì M ü
= ê ú = mv 2 í ý 2gh1 – 2gh 2
2m ë (m + M) û 2 îm + M þ Dv h2
= = =1–
Reason is a case of perfectly inelastic collision. v1 2gh1 h1
By comparing the equation given in Assertion
with above equation, we get 1.8 2
=1– = 1 – 0.36 = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4 =
æ M ö æ m ö 5 5
f=ç
è m + M ÷ø instead of çè M + m ÷ø 3. (c) Let E be the total energy then
Hence Assertion is wrong and Reason is correct. P.E mgh 2 5
6. (d) The billiard balls in an elastic collision are in = = ÞE= mgh
a deformed state. Their total energy is partly K .E E - mgh 3 2
kinetic and partly potential. So K.E. is less than When velocity is double then inital energy
the total energy. The energy spent against becomes 4E.
friction is dissipated as heat which is not mgh mgh
available for doing work. So, = NL =
7. (c) K.E. can be increased or decreased without 4 E - mgh 10 mgh - mgh
applying any external force, as internal forces
P.E 1
can do work e.g., explosion of a bomb. On solving we get = .
K .E 9
1 2
8. (d) Potential energy U = kx i.e. U µ x 2 4. (c) Work done in stretching the rubber-band by a
2 distance dx is
This is a equation of parabola, so graph between dW = F dx = (ax + bx2)dx
U and x is a parabola not a straight line. Integrating both sides,
Matching Based Questions L L
aL2 bL3
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) W = ò axdx + ò bx 2 dx = +
2 3
0 0
Solutions P-S-17
5. (a) In an elastic collision

v2 '- v1 '
(m1 - m 2 ) 2m1u1 From (i), 0.5 =
V1 = u ;V = 2
m1 + m 2 1 2 m1 + m 2 \ v2' = 1 + v1'
\ if m1 = m2, then V1 = 0; and From (ii), 2 = v1'+ 2 + 2 v1'
Þ v1 = 0 and v2 = 1 ms–1
2 m1v1 7. (a) As u2 = 0 and m1 = m2, therefore from
V2 = = u1
2m1 m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2
we get u1 = v1 + v2
6. (a) Clearly v1 = 2 ms –1, v2 = 0 Also,
m1 = m (say), m2 = 2m
v1' = ?, v'2 = ? v 2 - v1 v 2 - v1 1 - v1 / v 2
e= = = ,
v1 '- v2 ' u1 v 2 + v1 1 + v1 / v 2
e= ....(i)
v2 - v1 v1 1 - e
By conservation of momentum, which gives =
v2 1 + e
2m = mv1' + 2mv2' ... (ii)
6 System of Particles and

Rotational Motion
Fill in the Blanks r r
5. False, If A points vertically upwards and B points
1. Inverse m1r1 = m2r2 r r
towards east then A ´ B points towards north.
1 6. False, If Earth shrinks suddenly, its radius R would
\rµ
m 2
2. Torque, In analogy to Newton’s second law of motion decrease and I = 5 MR2 would decrease. Thus, w
in linear motion, increases to keep angular momentum constant. Hence
Force = rate of charge of linear momentum, in angular the length of the day will decrease.
motion Conceptual MCQs
Torque = rate of change of angular momentum
3. Angular momentum 1. (a) Centre of mass of a two particle system always
4. Torque, force in linear motion corresponds to torque lies closer to the heavier particle.
in rotational motion. 2. (b) COM will lie on diagonal AC, i.e. COM will
be equidistant from B and D if m2 = m4.
1 2 3. (c) If COM lies the origin x-coordinate of all the
5. mr
2 particles may be zero.
6. The axis of rotation. 4. (c) M.I of uniform circular disc about its diameter
7. Increases, As L = I w = constant, therefore, when I =I
decreases, w will increase. According to theorem of perpendiclar axes,
True/ False
1 2
1. True; For two particles of equal mass, the centre of M.I. of disc about its axis = mr = 2I
mass lies exactly midway between them.
2
2. True, Centre of mass does not necessarily lie only æ 1 2ö
where there is mass. It can lie outside the body as Applying theorem of | | axes, çQ I = mr ÷
well. For e.g. Centre of mass of circular ring lies
è 4 ø
in the centre of the ring where there is no mass. M.I of disc about the given axis
3. False, Centre of mass depends on the distribution of = 2 I + mr2 = 2 I + 4 I = 6 I
mass not on gravity. 5. (c) Distance of COM from centre of sphere A,
4. False, A body in translatory motion shall have angular mB r 2m ´ 3R
momentum unless the fixed point about which r1 = = = 2R
angular momentum is taken lies on the line of motion m A + mB m + 2m
of the body.
P-S-18 PHYSICS
6. (c) Moment of inertial depends on distribution of
N
mass and the axis of rotation.
f
dL
7. (d) t=
dt
\ If L = constant, t = 0
8. (b) Situation is shown in the figure.
mg
w q
16. (c) Speeds of centre of wheels act hence that of
topmost points must be equal.
17. (b) When the person stretches his hands, his
v
moment of inertia increase, hence by
conservation of angular momentum, its angular
speed decreases.
f mg 18. (d) Direction of angular momentum is
perpendicular to the orbital plane.
Here line of action of all the forces passes 19. (d) Net work done by frictional force when drum
through the point of contact hence, net force rolls down without slipping is zero.
about point of contact is zero. So, the angular Wnet = 0
momentum about point of contact is conserved.
9. (d) On smooth inclined plane, the speed of body
will change due to gravity but there is not torque
to change angular velocity of the body. Hence
a body cannot roll without slipping on a smooth
inclined surface.
10. (d) The equation t = Ia is valid about COM or Wtrans. + Wrot. = 0; DKtrans. + DKrot. = 0
axis of rotation but not about any other point. DKtrans = –DKrot.
11. (d) As friction is absent at the point of contact, i.e., converts translation energy to rotational
energy.
Force
Accelerati on = Diagram Based Questions
Mass
1. (a) When no external force acts on the binary star,
It is independent of h
its CM will move like a free particle [Fig. (a)].
12. (b) T1 r1 = T2 r2 but r1 < r2 \ T1 > T2
From the CM frame, the two stars will seems
to move in a circle about the CM with
diametrically opposite positions.
T1 T2
s1
r1 r2 s1
C
13. (c) For no slipping. C
w1R1 = w2R2
ω1 R2 s2 s2
or =
ω2 R1 (i) (ii)
but R1 > R2 \ w1 < w2 (i) Trajectories of two stars. S1 (dotted line) and
r r r r r r r S2 (solid line) forming a binary system with
14. (b) t = r ´ F Þ r . t = 0 F.t = 0 their centre of mass C in uniform motion
r (ii) The same binary system, with the centre of
Since, t is perpen dicular to th e plane of
r r r r mass C at rest.
r and F , hence the dot product of t with r So, to understand the motion of a complicated
r system, we can separate the motion of the
and F is zero. system into two parts. So, the combination of
15. (d) The forces are not concurrent, hence a finite the motion of the CM and motion about the
torque will act about any of the point and hence CM could described the motion of the system.
angular momentum is not conserved about any
point.
Solutions P-S-19
2. (a) According to parallel axis theorem of the Assertion/ Reason

moment of Inertia
1. (c) The position of centre of mass of a body
I = Icm + md 2
depends on shape, size and distribution of mass
d is maximum for point B so Imax about B.
of the body. The centre of mass does not lie
3. (b)
necessarily at the centre of the body.
4. (d) IAX = m(AB)2 + m(OC)2 r
= ml2 + m (l cos 60º)2 2. (d) When particle moves with constant velocity v
= ml2 + ml2/4 = 5/4 ml2 then its linear momentum has some finite value
ur r
X ( P = mv) .
Cm Angular momentum (L) = Linear momentum
O (P) × Perpendicular distance of line of action
60º of linear momentum form the point of rotation (d)
l l So if d ¹ 0 then L ¹ 0, but if d = 0 then L may
be zero. So we can conclude that angular
momentum of a particle moving with constant
60º velocity is not always zero.
Am l Bm 3. (c) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance of line
5. (c) Moment of inertia of shell 1 along diameter of action of force from the axis of rotation (d).
Hence for a given applied force, torque or true
2
Idiameter = MR 2 tendency of rotation will be high for large value
3 of d. If distance d is smaller, then greater force
Moment of inertia of shell 2 = m. i of shell 3 is required to cause the same torque, hence it
is harder to open or shut down the door by
2 5
= Itengential = MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2 applying a force near the hinge.
3 3 4. (d) The moment of inertia of a rigid body reduces
X to its minimum value, when the axis of rotation
passes through its centre of gravity because the
weight of a rigid body always acts through its
1 centre of gravity.
5. (c) An ice-skater stretches out arms and legs during
2 3 performance to take advantage of principle of
conservation of angular momentum. As on
X¢ doing so, their moment of inertia increases or
So, I of the system along x x1 decreases respectively and hence the angular
= Idiameter + (Itengential) × 2 velocity of spin motion decreases or increases
accordingly.
2 æ5 ö
or, Itotal = MR 2 + ç MR 2 ÷ ´ 2 6. (c) As the polar ice melts, water so formed flows
3 è 3 ø towards the equator. The moment of inertia of
the earth increases. To conserve angular
12 momentum, angular velocity decreases. This
= MR 2 = 4MR 2
3 increases the length (T = 2 p/w) of the day.
7. (d) The moment of inertia of a particle about an
axis of rotation is given by the product of the
6. (a) VQ w mass of the particle and the square of the
v VCQ
C C perpendicular distance of the particle from the
w P axis of rotation. For different axis, distance
r r
would be different, therefore moment of inertia
of a particle changes with the change in axis of
O O
rotation.
(I) (II) 8. (d) Radius of gyration of body is not a constant
From Fig. (I), we have OC = r (radius) quantity. Its value changes with the change in
Therefore, v = rw location of the axis of rotation. Radius of
Since , w = constant, therefore v µ r gyration of a body about a given axis is given as
Now, form Fig (II), it is clear that the distance,
OP < OC < OQ ÞVP < VC < VQ or VQ > VC > VP. r12 + r22 + .....rn2
K=
n
P-S-20 PHYSICS
9. (d) For a disc rolling without slipping on a

horizontal rough surface with uniform angular K2 I¢y
velocity, the acceleration of lowest point of disc \ 1 = 1
Þ K1 : K 2 = 5 : 6
K 22 I¢y
is directed vertically upwards and is not zero 2
(Due to translation part of rolling, acceleration 3. (b) By theorem of parallel axes,
of lowest point is zero. Due to rotational part I = Icm + Md2
of rolling, the tangential acceleration of lowest I = I0 + M (L/2)2 = I0 + ML2/4
point is zero and centripetal acceleration is non- 4. (d) According to law of conservation of angular
zero and upwards). Hence assertion is false. momentum,
I1w1 + I 2w 2 = ( I1 + I 2 ) w
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d)
Substituting the values ofw1 = 2 rad s–1
6. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions w2 = 5 rad s–1
1. (a) Tube may be treated as a particle of mass M at
distance L/2 from one end. I2 = I ´ 10–3 kg m2
I1 ´ 2 + 1 ´ 10–3, ´ 5 = (I1 + 1 ´ 10–3) ´ 4
2 ML 2
Centripetal force = Mrw = w Þ 2I1 + 5 ´ 10–3 = 4I1 + 4 ´ 10–3
2 Þ 2I1 = 1 ´ 10–3
y1 y¢1 1 ´ 10 –3
Þ I1 = = 0.5 ´ 10 –3 kg m 2
2
2. (d) Circular disc(1) 5. (a) From the relation, angular momentum,
L = mvr
L
v=
mr
MR 2 \ Centripetal force acting on the particle
Iy =
1 4 2
æ Lö
mç ÷
MR 2 5 mv 2 è mr ø L2
\ I¢y = + MR 2 = MR 2 F= = = 3
1 4 4 r r mr
6. (c) Torque working on the bob of mass m is,
y2 y¢2
t = mg ´ l sin q . (Direction parallel to plane
Circular ring (2) of rotation of particle)
q
MR 2 l l
Iy =
2 2
m mg
MR 2 3 ur
\ I¢y = + MR 2 = MR 2 As t is perpendicular to L , direction of L
2 2 2
changes but magnitude remains same.
I¢y = MK 12 , I¢y 2 = MK 22
1
Solutions P-S-21
7 Gravitation
Fill in the Blanks

( R + h)
3
1. Equator,
5. False, T = 2p
The gravitational force of attraction on a body of mass GM
m is given by 6. True 7. True
GMm Conceptual MCQs
F=
R2 1. (b) Gravitational force of the sun provides
1 necessary centripetal force to the earth.
Therefore, F µ 2 2. (a) mg = 72 N (body weight on the surface)
R
The radius of earth is maximum at equator, therefore,
GM
gravitational force of attraction is least at equator. g=
2. Zero, there is no gravitational field in the shell. R2
3. 129 days,
From Kepler's law of periods, R
At a height H = ,
3/2
2
æR ö 3/ 2
T2 = T 1 ç 2 ÷ = 365 æ R / 2 ö GM
è R1 ø ç R ÷ g¢ =
è ø 2 4 GM
æ Rö =
= 365 ×
1
= 129 days. çè R + ÷ø 9 R2
2 2 2
l R
4. Infinite, since T = 2π Body weight at height H = ,
g 2
but inside the satellite g = 0 4 GM
So T = ¥ mg ¢ = m ´
9 R2
5. 36,000 km.
6. 11.2 km/sec, the escape velocity of projectile from 4 4
= m´ ´ g = mg
earth is ve = 2gRe , where Re is radius of earth 9 9
since g = 9.8m/sec2, Re = 6.4×106 metre 4
Þ ve= 11.2 km/sec = ´ 72 = 32 N
9
7. Smaller, Since 'g' on moon is smaller than earth and
radius of moon is also smaller, therefore escape 3. (d) Kepler’s second law is based on the principle
velocity on moon is just 2.3 km/s, which is of conservation of angular momentum.
approximately five times smaller than earth 11.2 km/ 1
4. (b) Va
s. r
8 where r is distance from the sun. As distance
8. Ve = 2Vp Escape speed, Ve = R pGs
3 of Jupiter from the sun is more than that of the
\ Ve µ R. earth, its orbital speed is less than that of the
True/ False earth.
1. True, weight of body will change but not mass. 5. (d) Escape velocity from the surface of the moon
2. True, Kepler’s second law of motion. is much less than the rms velocity of gas
molecules, hence there is no atmosphere on the
GM moon.
3. True, orbital velocity V0 = 6. (c) Escape velocity is independent of mass.
R 7. (c) The ball will have velocity equal to that of the
4. False; Ve = 2 gR satellite hence will revolve around the earth in
the same orbit.
P-S-22 PHYSICS
8. (a) Speed of the planet is maximum when it is 18. (a) Let TA and TB be time period of A and B about
nearest to the sun. sun.
9. (c) If the radius of the earth is reduced, its moment TA = 8TB
of inertia will decrease, hence by conservation TA
of angular momentum, angular speed of the =8 ...(1)
earth will increase causing a decrease in the TB
time period of its rotation. According to Kepler's Law T2 µ r3
10. (c) When the satellite revolves close to the surface 3 3
of the planet, T A ( rA ) ær ö r
= 3
Þ ç A÷ =8Þ A = 2
Ve 2 TB ( rB ) è rB ø rB
Vo = = = 2 km/s.
2 2 19. (c) Gravitational force is independent of medium,
11. (b) The value of acceleration due to gravity is more Hence, this will remain same.
at poles than at equator.
8
12. (d) T 2 a R3 20. (c) Escape velocity, Ve = R pGP
3
T2
\ = constant VP RP
R3 Þ Ve µ R Þ = = 2 Þ VP = 2VE.
13. (a) Escape velocity is independent of angle of VE RE
projection. Diagram Based Questions
14. (d) A man waves his arms while walking so that
the moment of weights remains zero i.e. to 1. (c) As m2rattracts m1 towards itself, \ force is
balance the effect of earth is gravity. along r .
15. (b) If the velocity of an object is less than the escape 2. (b) Acceleration due to gravity with height h
velocity, the total energy of the object must be varies as
negative. 1
16. (a) K.E. of satellite moving in an orbit around the g µ
earth is r2
(when r = R + h). Thus variation of g and r is
a parabolic curve.
GM (3m)3GMm
3. (c) F= = .
d2 d2
4. (b) According to Kepler’s law, the areal velocity
of a planet around the sun always remains
constant.
2
1 2 1 æ GM ö GMm SCD : A1– t1 (areal velocity constant)
K = mv = m ç ÷ = SAB : A2 – t2
2 2 è r ø 2r A1 A 2
= ,
P.E. of satellite and earth system is t1 t2
GMm A
t1 = t2 . 1 , (given A1 = 2A2)
K 1 A2
U=
GMm = 2r =
Þ U GMm 2 2A 2
r = t2 . \ t1 = 2t2
r A2
17. (c) According to Kelpner’s law of period GM m GM (2m )
5. (c) Fmin = -
T2 µ R3 r2 (2r ) 2
T12 R3 (6 R )3 GMm
= 13 = =8 =
T22 R2 (3 R )3 2r 2
GMm GM (2 m)
24 ´ 24 and Fmax = +
(2r ) 2
=8 r2
T22 3 GMm
24 ´ 24 = .
T22 = = 72 = 36 × 2 2 r2
8 Fmin 1
\ Fmax = .
T2 = 6 2 3
Solutions P-S-23
Assertion/ Reason 24 ´ 24
T22 = = 72 = 36 × 2
8
Fg
1. (b) For two electron = 10 -43 i.e., gravitational T2 = 6 2
Fe
force is negligible in comparison to electrostatic
force of attraction. g' R2
2. (d) We know that =
2. (c) Work done in raising the body g ( R + h) 2
2R 2R
GMm gR 2 g /9 é R ù
2
= ò x2
dx = ò 2
mdx
\ =ê
R R x g ë R + h úû
2R R 1
-1 ù 2 é -1
= mgR 2 . é + ù
1 =
= mgR \
êë x úû R êë 2R R úû R+h 3
\ h = 2R
2 é -1 +
2ù 1 a
= mgR = mgR A B
êë 2R úû 2 3. (c)
3. (d) The tidal effect is due to the gravitation effect
of moon and earth both. g' =
g
, for h = a a
æ hö
2 O
çè 1 + ÷ø
R
0, g' = g. D a C
4. (a) According to Kepler's third law T2 µ r3
if r is small then T will also be small. a 2 a
5. (a) Because gravitational force is always OA = OB = OC = OD = =
attractive in nature and every body is bound
2 2
by this gravitational force of attraction of Total gravitational potential at the centre of
earth. -Gm ´ 4
6. (d) Escape velocity on the moon is five times the square =
OA
smaller than on the earth 11.2 km/s.
7. (b) Space rocket are usually launched from west -4Gm -4 2Gm
to east to take the advantage of rotation of earth. = =
a/ 2 a
Also g' = g – w2R cos2 l, at equator l = 0, and
4. (a) Wr = mg = GMm/R2 ; at a height h,
so cos l = 1, and g' is least.
8. (d) If the orbital path of a satellite is circular, then GMm
Wh =
its speed is constant and if the orbital path of a (R + R)2
satellite is elliptical, then its speed in its orbit
is not constant. In that case its areal velocity is GMm 1 1 w
constant. = = WE . \ w h =
2 4 4
9. (c) Gravitational force on the person in satellite is (2 R)
not zero, but normal reaction of the satellite on 5. (a) Potential at the given point = Potential at the
the person is zero. point due to the shell + Potential due to the
Matching Based Questions particle
GM 2GM 3GM
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) =- - = -
6. (c) a a a
Critical Thinking Type Questions 6. (a) The velocity u should be equal to the escape
1. (c) According to Kepler’s law of period T2 µ R3 velocity. That is, u = 2gR
T12 R13 (6 R )3 GM
= = =8 But g =
T22 R23 (3 R ) 3 R2
24 ´ 24 GM 2GM
=8 \ u = 2· ·R Þ
T22 R2 R
P-S-24 PHYSICS
7. (b) Orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit
1 GMm 1 GM GMm
of radius a is given by Ef = mv02 - = m -
2 3R 2 3R 3R
GM 1 v a1
v= Þ va Þ 2 = GMm æ 1 ö - GMm
a a v1 a2 = ç - 1÷ =
3R è 2 ø 6R
4R
\ v2 = v1 = 2 v1 = 6V -GMm
R Ei = +K
8. (a) As we know, R
-GMm
Ei = E f
Gravitational potential energy = Therefore minimum required energy,
r
5GMm
and orbital velocity, v0 = GM / R + h K=
6R
8 Mechanical Properties of Solids
Fill in the Blanks \U µ T2

1. Stress \ If tension is doubled, elastic P.E. stored in
2. Shape the wire will becomes four times.
3. Yield point, 5. (c) Elastomers do not obey Hooke’s law.
It is the point, beyond which the wire starts showing 6. (c) Shear modulus is given by
increase in strain without any increase in stress. F
4. Modulus of elasticity h=
5. Young’s modulus Aq
for a perfectly rigid body,
6. Bulk modulus
q=0
1 \ h= ¥
7. Compressibility =
Bulk modulus
8. zero F2
7. (c) We have, U =
9. Remains constant, 2k
The ratio of stress to strain is always constant. If
stress is increased, strain will also increase so that Yl Yl d2
where k = = \ Uµ
their ratio remains constant. A 1 l
True/ False pd2
4
8. (c) Shape of a body charges when a tangential
1. True 2. True 3. True rsteel > gcopper
stress is applied on it.
4. False 5. True 6. False
9. (b) Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to
7. True 8. False
longitudinal strain.
Conceptual MCQs
10. (d) Steel may behave as perfectly elastic, perfectly
1. (c) Young’s modulus of a given material is con- plastic or partially elastic depending on the
stant and does not depend on dimensions of stress developed in the steel wire object.
the wire. 11. (d) All these factor affect elasticity of a substance.
2. (a) Liquids do not have finite shape hence their 12. (c) Among the given materials steeel is most elas-
modulus of rigidity is zero. tic.
3. (b) Gases & liquids possess only Bulk modulus. 13. (a)
1 14. (a)
4. (d) U= ´ T ´ Dl 15. (c) We know that Young's modulus
2
but Dl µ T F L
Y= ´
pr 2 l
Solutions P-S-25
Since Y, F are same for both the wires, we have,

æ fL ö
1 L1 1 L 2 d=ç ÷
= è 4Ybd3 ø
r12 l 1 r22 l 2 [f, L, b, d are constants for a particular beam]
l 1 r22 ´ L1 (D 2 / 2) 2 ´ L1 1
or, = 2 = i.e. d µ
l 2 r1 ´ L 2 (D1 / 2) 2 ´ L 2 Y
6. (a) From the graph l = 10–4m, F = 20 N
l D 2 ´ L1 D 22 L 1
or, 1 = 2 = ´ 2 = A = 10–6m2, L = 1m
l 2 D1 ´ L 2 (2 D 2 )
2 2 2 L2 8 FL 20 ´ 1
So, l 1 : l 2 = 1 : 8 \ Y = = -6
Al 10 ´ 10-4
16. (c) Energy stored per unit volume
= 20 ´ 1010 = 2 ´ 1011 N/m 2
1
= ´ stress ´ strain 7. (a) When same stress is applied at two different
2 temperatures, the increase in length is more at
1 higher temperature. Thus T1 > T2.
= ´ stress ´ (stress / Young ' s modulus )
2 Assertion/ Reason
1. (b) The incompressibility of solids is primarily due
1 2 S2 to the tight coupling between the neighbouring
= ´ (stress ) /( Young ' s modulus ) =
2 2Y atoms. Molecules in gases are very poorly
coupled to their neighbours.
1 DV / V
17. (a) K= = . Here, P = 100 atm, 2. (d) Lead is more elastic than rubber because for
B P same load strain produced is much less in lead
K=4× 10–5
and V = 100 cm3.
than rubber.
Hence, DV = 0.4 cm3
18. (a) 3. (a) Torque required to produce a given twist in
19. (c) According to Hooke’s Law, within the elastic hollow cylinder is greater than solid cylinder
limit, stress µ strain thus both are true.
F/A 4. (b) Stress is defined as internal force (restoring
or Y = force) per unit area of a body. Also, rubber is
Dx / x 0
less elastic than steel, because restoring force
YADx is less for rubber than steel.
Þ F=
x0 stress
5. (a) Young’s modulus of a material, Y =
or, F µ D x strain
Fl Fl mgl restoring force
20. (c) Y= Þ Dl = = Here, stress =
ADl YA YA area
Diagram Based Questions As restoring force is zero \ Y = 0.
1. (c) 6. (a) Work done
2. (c) The given graph does not obey Hooke's law. 1 1
and there is no well defined =plastic region. So = ´ Stress ´ Strain ´ Y ´ (Strain)2 .
2 2
the graph represents elastomers. Since, elasticity of steel is more than copper,
3. (c) Since OE is a straight line so, stress µ strain. hence more work has to be done in order to
\ Hooke's law is obeyed in the region OE of stretch the steel.
the graph. 7. (b) The most effective method to reduce depression
4. (a) in a beam of given length & material is to make
depth of the beam large as compared to its
d breadth. But on increasing the depth too much,
5. (c)
the beam bends. To check this buckling, a
For a beam, the depression at the centre is given by, compromise between breadth & depth of a
beam is made by using I-shaped girder.
P-S-26 PHYSICS
8. (d)
r (r - 1) la
Matching Based Questions = or r =
la lw (l a - l w )
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions 5. (c) Young’s modulus of rubber, Yrubber
F l Dl
1. (c) According to Hooke’s law = ´ Þ F = YA.
A Dl l
F Dl On putting the values from question,
Stress µ strain i.e., µ
A l 5 ´ 108 ´ 25 ´ 10 -6 ´ 5 ´ 10 -2
F=
Þ For same F & l, Dl µ
1 10 ´ 10 - 2
A
2. (c) We know that
= 25 ´ 25 ´ 10 2-1 = 6250 N
kinetic energy = potential energy of rubber
mg / A mg l
Y= = ....(1) 1 1
Dl / l ADl mv 2 = F Dl
2 2
Also Dl = l a DT ...(2)
FDl 6250 ´ 5 ´ 10-2
From (1) and (2) v= = = 62500
mg l mg
m 5 ´10-3
Y= = = 25 × 10 = 250 m/s
Al a DT A a DT 6. (c) If l is the original length of wire, then change
in length of first wire,
YA a DT 1011 ´ p(10-3 ) 2 ´ 10-5 ´ 10
\ m=
g
= Dl 1 = (l 1 - l)
10
Change in length of second wire,
=p»3
3. (d) Elongation due to change in temperature,
Dl 2 = (l 2 - l)
Dl = LaDT T l T l
Now, Y = 1 ´ = 2´
Which is compensated by elastic strain, A Dl 1 A Dl 2
When temperature becomes normal, i.e.,
TL T1 T T1 T2
Dl = or = 2 or =
YS Dl 1 Dl 2 l1 - l l 2 - l
F or T1 l 2 – T1 l = T2 l 1 – l T2
TL
Thus, = LaDT
YS T2 l1 - T1l 2
or l=
Þ T = VS aDT T T T2 - T1
At equilibrium force exerted by one half on
other, F ( L / 2) ( A L r g )( L / 2)
7. (b) Dl = =
F = 2T = 2YS aDT AY AY
4. (b) Let V be the volume of the load and r its
relative density æ 1ö 2
= ç ÷ r g L /Y
FL VrgL è 2ø
So, Y = = .....(1)
A la Ala DP hrg
8. (d) K= =
When the load is immersed in the liquid, then DV / V DV / V
F¢ L (V r g - V ´ 1 ´ g ) L
Y= = ....(2) 200 ´103 ´10
Alw Alw = = 2 ´ 109
0.1 / 100
(Q Now net weight = weight – upthrust)
From eqs. (1) and (2), we get
Solutions P-S-27
9 Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Fill in the Blanks

1. Pressure and density
é æ 0.92 ö ù
ê V – çè 1.03 ÷ø V ú
2. Pascal’s law, Hydraulic machines & lifts are based ë û
on Pascal’s Law = ´ 100%
V
F1 F
P1 = P2 Þ = 2
A1 A 2 æ 0.92 ö 0.11
3. Relative density of body, Specific gravity of a body = ç1 - ÷ ´ 100% = ´ 100% » 11%
is defined as ratio of weight of body in air to the loss è 1.03 ø 1.03
of weight of body in water at 4°C. 2. (b) When a body falls through a viscous medium,
Vsg s it attains a constant velocity called terminal
= = = Relative density of the body.. velocity.
Vswg sw 3. (c) When the train crosses the platform, velocity
4. Pascal’s law of air molecules near the train become greater
5. 1 torr hence the passenger standing on the platform
6. venturimeter experience a pull towards the train as fast
7. Zero, when terminal velocity is reached then body moving air molecules exert less pressure.
moves with constant velocity hence, accelesation is 4. (a) Both friction and viscosity depend on nature
zero. of material but friction does not depend on area
8. Capillary action, If the surface tension of oil is zero, of contact.
then it will not rise, so oil rises up in a wick of a 5. (c) water shows anamalous expansion and it sticks
lantern due to surface tension. to glass as well.
True/ False 6. (d) Angle of contact depends on temperature,
nature of liquid and the container and on the
1. True presence of impuraties.
2. False; On increasing temperature, the rate of diffusion
increases. 2
2r ( d1 - d 2 ) g
3. False 7. (c) Terminal velocity, vT =
4. True if spread properly over wound. 9h
5. False, surface tension decreases with rise in
temperature vT (10.5 - 1.5) 9
2
6. False 7. True = Þ vT = 0.2 ´
0.2 (19.5 - 1.5) 2 18
Conceptual MCQs
\ vT = 0.1 m / s
1. (d) Let Vi be the volume of the iceberg inside sea 2
water and V is the total volume of iceberg. 8. (c) Wetability of a surface by a liquid primarily
Total weight of iceberg depends on angle of contact between the surface
= weight of water displaced by iceberg. and liquid.
If angle of contact is acute liquids wet the solid
V.rice g = Vi .rwater .g and vice-versa.
9. (a) Thickness of the surface film is equal to the
Vi r 0.92
Þ = ice = radius of influence.
V rwater 1.03
Thus the fraction of total volume of iceberg above 10. (c) As surface area decreases so energy is released.
the sea level Energy released = 4pR2T[n1/3 – 1]
where R = n1/3r
æ V - Vi ö
=ç ´ 100% é1 1ù é1 1ù
è V ÷ø
3
= 4pR T ê - ú = 3VT ê - ú
ër R û ër R û
P-S-28 PHYSICS
11. (a) Toricelli’s theorem is used to find velocity of = (h1rg – h2rg) A
efflux of an ideal liquid through on orifice. Equating both the forces
12. (c) A pin of density greater than that of water can (h1 – h2) rgA = Adra
float on the surface of water due to surface
tension. Adra ad
Þ (h1 – h2) = =
13. (a) with increase in temperature, the viscosity of rgA g
gases increases while those of liquids 4. (b) The candle floats on the water with half its
decreases. length above and below water level. Let its
4 4 length be 10 cm. with 5 cm. below the surface
14. (b) (hrg + H ´ 1 ´ g ) pr 3 = hrg ´ p(2r )3 and 5 cm. above it. If its length is reduced to 8
3 3 cm, it will have 4 cm. above water surface. So
This gives H = 7hr we see tip going down by 1 cm. So rate of fall
15. (a) Hydraulic lift is based on the principle of of tip = 1 cm/hour.
Pascal’s law. 5. (d) At equilibrium, weight of the given block is
16. (a) Paint gun is based on Bernoulli’s theorem. balanced by force due to surface tension, i.e.,
17. (b) By equation of continuity, the velocity of liquid 2L. S = W
will be more at narrower portion and less at
wider portion, hence pressure will be more at W 1.5 ´ 10 -2 N
the wider portion, as according to Bernoulli’s
or S = = = 0.025 Nm -1
2L 2 ´ 0.3 m
theorem, pressure is more at a point where
velocity is less. Assertion/ Reason
18. (a) We know that angle of contact is the angle 1. (b) Since mercury is a most dense liquid available
between the tangent to liquid surface at the therefore by using it, barometric arrangement
point of contact and solid surface inside the will be of very convinient size.
liquid. In case of pure water and pure glass, 2. (c) In case of iron needle, the weight of water dis-
the angle of contact is zero. placed by the needle is much less than the
19. (a) Some of the work done by the force of surface weight of the needle, hence it sinks but in case
tension is used in change in P.E. of the liquid of a large iron ship the weight of water dis-
and remaining is loss in the form of heat. placed by the ship is higher than the weight of
20. (a) fevicol increases adhesive force between paint the ship, hence it floats in water.
and wall molecules. 3. (b) According to Pascal's law, if gravity effect is
21. (c) Note that according to Stoke's law neglected, the pressure at every point of liquid
6ph rvT = mg in equilibrium of rest is same
Hence, the valid relation is vT µ mg / rh F1

Load
Diagram Based Questions a1 C D a2
1. (d) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats F2
on liquid 2. The lighter liquid floats over
heavier liquid. Therefore we can conclude that
r1 < r2
Also r3 < r2 otherwise the ball would have sink
to the bottom of the jar. F1 F2 a2
P1 = P2 i.e., = or F2 = F1
Also r3 > r1 otherwise the ball would have a1 a 2 a1
floated in liquid 1. From the above discussion As a2 >> a1 \ F2 >> F1
we conclude that This shows that small force (F1) applied on the
r1 < r3 < r2. smaller piston (of area a1) will be appearing as
2. (d) Pressure = hrg i.e. pressure at the bottom is a very large force on the larger piston.
independent of the area of the bottom of the 4. (a) Since the net buoyant force on th e brick
tank. It depends onthe height of water upto completely submerged in water is independent
which the tank is filled with water. As is both of its depth below the water surface, the man
the tanks, the levels of water are the same, will have to exert same force on both the bricks.
pressure at the bottom is also the same. 5. (a) Height of the blood column in the human body
3. (a) Mass of liquid in horizontal portion of U-tube is more at feet than at the brain. As P = hrg.
= Adr therefore the blood exerts more pressure at the
Pseudo force on this mass = Adra feet than at the brain.
Force due to pressure difference in the two
limbs
Solutions P-S-29
6. (d) Since due to applied force on liquid, the i.e., volume of liquid displaced by floating ice
pressure is transmitted equally in all directions will be lesser than water formed and so the
inside the liquid. That is why there is no fixed level if liquid will rise.
direction for the pressure due to liquid. Hence 2. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is
hydrostatic pressure is a scalar quantity. Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force
7. (a) Since, the fluid move from higher pressure to
Fv B=Vr 2 g
lower pressure and in a fluid, the pressure
increase with increase of depth. Hence, the
pressure p0 will be lesser at the top than that at
the bottom (p0 + hrg). So, the air bubble moves
from the bottom to the top and does not move
sideways, since the pressure is same at the same W=V r 1 g
level. Further in coming from bottom to top the
pressure decreases. According to Boyle's law \ V r1 g = V r2 g + kvt2
pV = constant.
Therefore, if pressure decreases the volume Vg (r1 - r 2 )
increses, it means radius increases \ vt =
k
2T 2T 3. (b)
8. (a) h= Þ hR = \ hR = constant
Rdg dg vf 2 2
vf = Weff
Hence when the tube is of insufficient length, 3 3
radius of curvature of the liquid meniscus
increases, so as to maintain the product hR a
W eff = vf
finite constant.
i.e., as h decreases, R increases and the liquid
meniscus becomes more and more flat, but the W eff
W eff
liquid does not overflow. When the When the ball attains
ball is released terminal velocity When the ball attains
9. (d) Surface tension of oils and paints is kept low 2/3 of terminal velocity
so that it can spread over larger area. When the ball is just released, the net force on
10. (d) The soap solution, has less surface tension as ball is
compared to ordinary water and its surface Weff (= mg - buoyant force)
tension decreases further on heating. The hot The terminal velocity vf of the ball is attained
soap solution can, therefore spread over large when net force on the ball is zero.
surface area and also it has more wetting power.
\ Viscous force 6phr vf = Weff
It is on account of this property that hot soap
solution can penetrate and clean the clothes 2
better than the ordinary water. When the ball acquires rd of its maximum
3
1. (a) 2
velocity vf the viscous force is = Weff
2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 3
5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b)
2 1
Critical Thinking Type Questions Hence net force is Weff - Weff = Weff
3 3
1. (b) The volume of liquid displaced by floating ice \ required acceleration is a/3
M 4. (d) Using the formula of the terminal velocity of a
VD = body falling through a viscous medium,
sL
Volume of water formed by melting ice, 2r 2 (r - s)g 2r 2 (r - s)g
V= Þ h=
M 9h 9v
VF =
sw Where r is the density of material of body and
s is the density of medium.
M M In case of the air bubble r = 1 and s = 1.47 ×
If s L > s w , then < i.e., VD < VF 103 kg/ms and the air bubble rises up.
s L sw
P-S-30 PHYSICS
2 ´ (10-2 )2 ´1.47 ´103 ´ 9.8 2T

2r 2 sg So, for first capillary tube h1 =
h= = r1ρg
9V 9 ´ 0.21´10–2 2T
For second, h 2 =
2 ´ 1.47 ´ 9.8 ´ 10 r2 ρg
=
9 ´ 0.21
h1 r2 3 r é r ù
= 1.52 × 103 decapoise = 1.52 × 104 Poise = Þ = 1 ê r2 = 1 ú
5. (d) From stoke's law, F = 6phR1v, and h2 r1 h 2 3×r1 ë 3û
4 3 h 2 = 9mm
V= pR
3 7. (b) For capillary rise, according, to zurin’s law
h1r1 = h2r2
æ 4 ö
F' = 6phR2v, çè volume 8 V = p(2R)3 ÷ 6 × 1 = h2 × 2 Þ h2 = 3 cm
3 ø 8. (c) As surface area decreases so energy is released.
= 6ph(2R)v = 2F Energy released = 4pR2T[n1/3 – 1]
where R = n1/3r
2T
6. (d) For rise in capillary, the formula is h = 3 é1 1ù é1 1ù
rρg = 4pR T ê - ú = 3VT ê - ú
ër R û ër R û
10 Thermal Properties of Matter

Fill in the Blanks True/ False
1. 273.16 K 1. True
2. g = 3a 2. False, Thermal conductivity of copper is more than
V + DV = (L + DL)3 = (L + aLDT)3 that of steel, hence stainless steel cooking pans are
= L3 + (1 + 3aDT + 3a2DT2 +a3DT3) provided with extra copper bottoms.
3. True, Gases are poor thermal conductors while
Þ a2 and a3 terms are neglected.
liquids have conductive intermediate between solids
\ V (1 + gDT) = V (1 + 3aDT) and gases.
1 + gDT = 1 + 3aDT 4. True 5. True
\ g = 3a. 6. False, Convection is mode of heat transfer by actual
3. regelation motion of matter. Convection can be natural or forced.
4. Infinity, At constant temperature molar heat capacity In natural convection, gravity plays an important part.
Conduction - Heat transfer without actual motion of
DQ matter.
CT =
n DT Conceptual MCQs
T is const. Þ DT = 0
1. (c) Coefficient of thermal conductivity depends
DQ only on the material of the plate.
\ CT = = ¥
0 2. (a) From question,
5. Latent heat of fusion Rise in temperature Dt = 40°C
6. Water, Water has highest specific heat capacity and Dr
Fractional change in the density =?
hence it is used as a coolant in car radiators as well r0
as heater in hot water bags. Coefficient of volume expansion
7. Convection g = 5 × 10–4K–1
8. 98% r = r0 (1 –gDt)
9. el = al Dr
Þ = gDT = (5 × 10–4) (40) = 0.02
r0
Solutions P-S-31
3. (c) Wool is a bad conductor hence it does not allow ga = g – 3a < 0

heat from our body to lose to the surroundings. or g < 3a
4. (a) Convection cannot take place in weightlessness, 13. (c) When ice is added to water, the equilibrium
hence the heat is transmitted only through temperature may be zero or positive depending
conduction. on amount of ice and water and their initial
5. (d) A cooking utensil must heat up quickly and temperatures.
must transmit heat rapidly. Hence, it must have
14. (d) Triple point is the temperature where three
low specific heat and high thermal conductivity. states of matter can exist simultaneously.
6. (a) At 4°C, density of water is maximum, hence
15. (a) From Wein’s displacement law
dv 1 dv lmT = constant
= 0 or a = =0. Þ lm µ T–1
v T v
7. (a) Let the temperature of surroundings be q0 16. (c) A body at higher temperature emits radiation
By Newton's law of cooling of all wavelengths absorbed by it a lower
temperature.
q1 - q 2 é q + q2 ù
= kê 1 - q0 ú C F - 32 C C - 32
t ë 2 û 17. (b) = or =
5 9 5 9
70 - 60 é 70 + 60 ù 4C = – 160 or C = F = – 40°.
Þ = kê - q0 ú 18. (b) As heat flows from higher temperature to lower
5 ë 2 û
temperature, so a temperature gradient is
Þ 2 = k [65 – q0] ...(i) required.
60 - 54 é 60 + 54 ù 19. (a) The temperatures of the block and wood are
Similarly, = kê - q0 ú equal to the temperature of the body as both
5 ë 2 û feel equally hot or cold.
6 20. (d) According to the principle of calorimetry.
Þ = k [57 – q0] ...(ii) Heat lost = Heat gained
5 mLv + mswDq = mwswDq
By dividing (i) by (ii) we have Þ m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80)
10 65 - q0 = 20 × 1 × (80 – 10)
= Þ q0 = 45º Þ m = 2.5 g
6 57 - q0 Therefore total mass of water at 80°C
8. (d) = (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5 g
9. (b) Q1 = 4Q2 (Given) 21. (c) Water has a large latent heat of vaporisation.
When it is sprinked over a large area, its
K1 A1Dt K A Dt
Þ =4 2 2 evaporation occurs which, in turn, causes
L L cooling.
Þ K1A1 = 4K2A2.
S 4p r 2 2
10. (d) Rate of flow of heat through a rod,
22. (a) E= sT 4 = sT 4 = s r T 4
kA S0 4p R 2 R2
H= DT
2 dH
23. (d) µ (q 2 - q1 ) = ( Dq ) n Þ n = 1
11. (a) Wein’s displacement law dt
According to this law Diagram Based Questions

1. (b) Material expands outward and so x, r increases.
1 Due to linear expansion diameter of rod will
lmax µ
T increase.
2. (c) The three curves AB, CD and EF meet at point
or, lmax × T = constant P which is called the triple point of water. It
is the point where all three states solid, liquid
So, as the temperature increases l decreases. and gas of water co-exists.
12. (d) Liquid does not over flow on heating, when
apparent value of coefficient of volume
expansion,
P-S-32 PHYSICS
6. (a)
dQ DT
3. (b) = KA Critical Thinking Type Questions
dt L
L1 1 + a(Dq)1
æ dQ ö 3KA 1. (c) L = L0 (1 + aDq) Þ =
For the first rod, ç ÷ = L (100 – q) L 2 1 + a (Dq)2
è dt ø1
10 1 + 11´ 10 –6 ´ 20
æ dQ ö A Þ = Þ L2 = 9.99989
Similarly, ç = 2K (q – 50) L2 1 + 11´10–6 ´ 19
è dt ÷ø 2 L Þ Length is shorten by
10 – 9.99989 = 0.00011 = 11 × 10–5 cm.
æ dQ ö A
ç ÷ = K (q – 20) 2. (a) g real = g app. + g vessel
è dt ø3 L
æ dQ ö æ dQ ö æ dQ ö So ( g app. + g vessel )glass = ( g app + g vessel )steel

Now, ç ÷ =ç ÷ +ç ÷
è dt ø1 è dt ø2 è dt ø3 -6 -6
Þ 153 ´ 10 + ( g vessel )glass = 144 ´ 10 + ( g vessel )steel
Þ 3 (100 – q) = 2 (q – 50) + (q – 20)
Further,
Þ q = 70°
4. (a) reff = r1r2 ( g vessel )steel = 3a = 3 ´ (12 ´ 10 -6 ) = 36 ´10 -6 / °C
-6
dQ KA(T2 - T 1 ) Kpr1r2 (T2 - T1 )
= = Þ 153 ´10 + ( g vessel )glass = 144 ´10-6 + 36 ´ 10-6
dt L L
5. (d) The thermal resistance is given by Þ ( g vessel )glass = 3a = 27 ´10-6 / °C
x 4x x 2 x 3x
+ = + = Þ a = 9 ´ 10 -6 / °C
KA 2KA KA KA KA
3. (d) Radius of small sphere = r
dQ DT (T2 - T1 ) KA Thickness of small sphere = t
\ = = Radius of bigger sphere = 2r
dt 3x 3x
Thickness of bigger sphere = t/4
KA Mass of ice melted = (volume of sphere) ×
1 ì A(T2 - T1 ) K ü (density of ice)
= í ý 1 Let K1 and K2 be the thermal conductivities of
3î x þ \f = larger and smaller sphere.
3
Assertion/ Reason For bigger sphere,
4 3
1. (c) 2. (c) K1 4p (2r)2 ´ 100 3 p(2r) rL
=
3. (c) Heat is carried away from a fire sideways t/4 25 ´ 60
mainly by radiations. Above the fire, heat is For smaller sphere,
carried by both radiation and by convection of 4 3
air. The latter process carries much more heat. pr rL
K 2 ´ 4pr 2 ´ 100 3 K1 8
4. (a) Metals generally have higher coefficient of = \ =
linear expansion. Since copper has 1.7 K–1 t 16 ´ 60 K 2 25
and glass has 0.32 K–1 coefficient of linear 4. (c) Under steady conditions, the heat gained per
expansion so, copper expands five times more second by a plate is equal to the heat released
than glass. per second by the plate.
5. (d) Rate of cooling a body at a temperature is 2T T' 3T
defined as the fall in temperature per second
at that temperature, while rate of loss of heat
from a body is the quantity of heat lost per
second from the body.
6. (d) 7. (d) A A
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 1 2 3

Solutions P-S-33
Heat gained Heat gained K A A(TA - T) K B A(T - TB )

[by (2) from (1)] + \ =
Second Second L L
Heat gained 2K B (TA - T) = K B (T - TB )
[(by ((2) from (3)] = (by 2)
Second T - TB 50K
\ sA(2T)4 + sA(3T)4 = s(2A) (T ¢)4 TA - T = = = 25K
2 2
1/ 4 4 4
é 97 ù Dq Aes(T - T0 )
\ T ¢= ê ú T 6. (c) Rate of cooling =
ë2û t mc
m
TA T TB Þtµ
5. (c) A
[ Dq, t , s, (T 4 - T04 ) are constant]
A B
m Volume a3 t a
Þtµ µ µ ÞtµaÞ 1 = 1
A Area a 2 t 2 a2
L L
100 1
Let T be temperature of the junction Þ = Þ t2 = 200sec
t2 2
Here, K A = 2K B , T - TB = 50K
7. (a) Initially at t = 0
At the steady state, Rate of cooling (R) µ Fall in temperature of
body (q – q0)
HA = HB
R 1 q1 – q0 100 – 40 3
Þ = = =
R 2 q 2 – q0 80 – 40 2
11 Thermodynamics
Fill in the Blanks 7. isothermal expansion

8. entropy
1. Law of conservation of energy. According to first law
9. Second law of thermodynamics, External amount of
of thermodynamics DH = Du + Dw
work must be done in order to flow heat from lower
2. Infinite, In isothermal process temperature remains
temperature to higher temperature.
constnat.
i.e., DT = 0. Hence according to True/ False
1. True 2. False
Q
C= Þ Ciso = ¥ 3. True, It is Kelvin-Planck’s statement
mDT 4. False, No heat engine working between the same
3. Change in temperature, In adiabatic process, no heat two temperatures can have efficiency greater than
is taken or given by the system i.e., that of Carnot engine.
DQ = 0 Þ DU = -DW 5. True 6. True
7. False. It depends upon temperature
If DW is negative (work done on system), then DU Conceptual MCQs
increases & temperature increases and vice-versa.
So work done in adiabatic change in particular gas 1. (c) The concept of entropy is introduced by the
(ideal gas) depends on change in temperature. second law of thermodynamics.
4. remains constant 2. (b) For an isochoric process, W = 0
5. adiabatic \ DQ = DU.
6. Adiabatic process DQ = 0.
P-S-34 PHYSICS
T1 - T2 12. (c) We know that ratio of specific heats,

3. (a) Efficiency = 2 2
T1
g = 1+ or n =
T1 = 227 + 273 = 500 K n g -1
T2 = 127 + 273 = 400 K [where n = Degree of freedom]
500 - 400 1 13. (c) According to first law of thermodynamics
h= = Q = DU + W
500 5
DU = Q – W
Hence, output work = 2 × 4.2 × 1000 – 500 = 8400 –500
1 = 7900 J
= (h) ´ Heat input = ´ 6 = 1.2 kcal
5
4. (c) In isoboric process, volume of system changes, 14. (d) C = 7 R; C = C - R = 7 R - R = 5 R
P V P
hence heat supplied is used to increase 2 2 2
temperature and also in work done. Hence (c) CP 7 / 2 R 7
is incorrect. = =
5. (b) DQ = DU + DW CV 5 / 2 R 5
Þ DW = DQ – DU = 110 – 40 = 70 J 15. (a) Entropy of matter in solid state is less than that
6. (c) According to question P µ T3 in liquid state.
But as we know for an adiabatic process the 16. (b) Bursting of tyre is an adiabatic process as it
g is very fast process.
g -1 T2 50 500
pressure P µ T .
17. (c) h = 1 - or = 1-
g 3 Cp 3 T1 100 T1
So, =3Þg= or,, =
g -1 2 Cv 2 Þ T1 = 1000 K
7. (b) Internal energy of an ideal gas 60 T
U = nWT Also, = 1 - 2 Þ T2 = 400 K
depends of temperature number of moles and 100 1000
atomicity (as Cv depends on atomicity) of the 18. (b) At a given temperature, the en tropy of a
gas, but it does not depend on pressure of the substance in liquid state is less than that in
gas. gaseous state.
8. (c) For a cyclic process, work done can be positive 19. (b) Air conditioner is based on the principle of
as well as negative. refrigerator.
9. (d) Change in entropy is given by 20. (d) We know that in adiabatic process,
dQ DQ mLf PVg = constant ....(1)
dS = or DS = = From ideal gas equation, we know that
T T 273 PV = nRT
1000 ´ 80 nRT
DS = = 293cal / K. V= ....(2)
273 P
10. (a) During isothermal expansion, the slope of P.V Puttingt the value from equation (2) in
graph, equation (1),
dP p g
= - , always decreases. æ nRT ö
dP V Pç
è P ÷ø
= constant
11. (c) For isothermal process,
PV g = constant. P(1 – g) T g = constant
Differentiating both sides, Diagram Based Questions
gPvg–1 dv + VgdP = 0
1. (a) Q Internal energy is the state function.
dP p \ In cyclie process; DU = 0
or = -g
dV V According to 1st law of thermodynamics
Now, Bulk modulus,
DQ = DU + W
dP
B = -V = gp So heat absorbed
V DQ = W = Area under the curve
1 1 = – (2V) (P) = – 2PV
\ Compressibility = = So heat rejected = 2PV
B gP
Solutions P-S-35
2. (a) Initial and final condition is same for all 3. (d) Heat can be added to a system without
process increasing its temperature e.g. melting and
DU1 = DU2 = DU3 boiling.
from first law of thermodynamics 4. (d) According to first law of thermodynamics, DQ
DQ = DU + DW = DU + DW = DU +PDV. If heat is supplied in
Work done such a manner that volume does not change
DW1 > DW2 > DW3 (Area of P.V. graph) DV = 0,i.e., isochoric process, then whole of
So DQ1 > DQ2 > DQ3 the heat energy supplied to the system will
3. (d) Work done by the system in the cycle increase internal energy only. But, in any other
= Area under P-V curve and V-axis process it is not possible.
1 Also heat may be adsorbed or evolved when
= (2P0 - P0 )(2V0 - V0 ) + state of thermal equilibrium changes.
2 5. (d) In isothermal process, DT = 0 and so
é æ 1ö ù DU = 0.
ê - çè 2 ÷ø (3P0 - 2P0 )(2V0 - V0 ) ú Thus Q = 0 + W = W.
ë û
6. (c) First law of thermodynamics is restatement of
P0 V0 P0 V0 the principal of conservation of energy as
= - =0
2 2 applied to heat energy.
4. (b) In cyclic process ABCA 7. (a) The opening of bottle is the rapid or adiabatic
Qcycle = Wcycle process. In the process temperature falls.
QAB + QBC + QCA = ar. of DABC 8. (e) As isothermal processes are very slow and so
the different isothermal curves have different
1 slopes so they cannot intersect each other.
+ 400 + 100 + QC®A = (2 × 10–3) (4 × 104)
2 9. (d) According to second law of thermodynamics,
Þ QC ® A = – 460 J this is not possible to transfer heat from a body
Þ QA ® C = + 460 J at lower temperature to a body at higher
temperature without the aid of an external
5. (d) T agent. Since, the given information produces a
contradiction in second law of thermodynamics,
therefore it is not possible to produce
2T0 temperature of 8000 K by collecting the sun
Q1 rays with a lens.
Q3 10. (b) When milk cools, its energy content decreases.
T0 T
Q2 11. (a) h = 1 - 2 ; clearly when T2 is decreases h
T1
S will increase.
S0 2S0 Matching Based Questions
1 3 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b)
Q1 = T0S0 + T0S0 = T0S0 Critical Thinking Type Questions
2 2
Q2 = T0(2S0 – S0) = T0S0 and Q 3 = 0 PV
1. (b) n =
RT
W Q1 - Q 2
h= = é1.6 ´ 106 ´ 0.0083 ù
Q1 Q1 =ê ú = 5.33
ë 8.31 ´ 300 û
Q2 TS 1
= 1- = 1- 0 0 = Q = nCv DT
Q1 3 3
T0S0
2 æ 3 ´ 8.31ö
or 2.49 × 104 = 5.33 × ç × DT
Assertion/ Reason è 2 ÷ø
1. (d) Zeroth law of thermodynamics tells about or DT = 375 K
thermal equilibrium. \ Tf = Ti + 375 = 675 K.
2. (b) On heating a body it absorbs energy, so, its 2. (c) T1 = 273 + 27 = 300K
mass will increase accordingly as per the T2 = 273 + 927 = 1200K
equation For adiabatic process,
E = mc2 P1–g Tg = constant
P-S-36 PHYSICS
Þ P11–g T1g = P21–g T2g 5. (c) As we know, energy stored in a spring
1-g g 1 2
æP ö æ T1 ö U= kx
Þç 2÷ = ç 2
èP ø 1 è T ÷ø 2 x = extension (or compression) in the spring.
1-g g
k = spring constant of the spring
æP ö æ T2 ö As per question, for x = 1mm = 1 × 10–3m
Þç 1÷ = ç
è T2 ø è T ÷ø 1 U=
1
k (1 ´ 10 –3 m) 2 = 1 J .......(i)
2
1-1.4 1.4
æ P1 ö æ 1200 ö If spring is further compressed by 1 mm then
=ç
çè P ÷ø
2 è 300 ÷ø U¢ =
1
k (2 ´ 10 -3 m) 2 .......(ii)
2
-0.4 Dividing eqn. (ii) by (i), we get
æ P1 ö
çè P ÷ø = (4)1.4 U¢
2 = 4 or U ¢ = 4U
U
0.4 Work done
æ P2 ö
çè P ÷ø = 41.4 W = U¢ – U = 4U – U
1 = 3U = 3 × 1 J = 3J
æ 1.4 ö æ7ö 6. (b) The efficiency of cycle is
èç 0.4 ø÷ èç 2 ø÷ T2
P2 = P1 4 = P1 4 h = 1–
= P1 (27) = 2 × 128 = 256 atm
T1
3. (b) Initial temperature (T1) = 18°C = 291 K For adiabatic process
Let Initial volume (V1) = V T Vg–1 = constant
V 7
Final volume (V2) = For diatomic gas g =
8 5
According to adiabatic process, T1V1g–1 = T2V2g–1
g –1
TVg – 1 = constant æV ö
T1 = T2 ç 2 ÷
According to question, T1V1g -1 = T2V2g -1 è V1 ø
7
–1
æV ö
g -1 T1 = T2 (32) 5 = T2 (25 ) 2 / 5 = T2 ´ 4
Þ T2 = 293 ç 1 ÷ T1 = 4T2
èV ø 2
\ æ 1ö 3
7
-1 h = ç 1 – ÷ = = 0.75
Þ T2 = 293(8) 5 = 293 × 2.297 = 668.4K è 4ø 4
W T
7. (a) As we know h = = 1– 2
é Cp 7ù Q1 T1
ê For diatomic gas g = = ú
ë Cv 5 û 300 K 3
Þ h = 1– =
4. (c) For isothermal process P1V1 = P2V2 1200K 4
P 3 W 4 4
Þ PV = P2(2V) Þ P2 = = Þ Q1 = W ´ Þ Q1 = 12.6 ´106 ´
2 4 Q1 3 3
For adiabatic process Q1= 16.8 × 106J.
g
P2 V2 = P3V3
g Woutput w 1
8. (d) Efficiency h = = =
Heat input 3w 3
æ Pö g g
Þ çè ÷ø (2v) = P316v) h = 1-
Q2 1
=
2
Q1 3
5/3
3 æ 1ö P
Þ P3 = ç ÷ = Q2 2
2 è 8ø 64 \ =
Q1 3
Solutions P-S-37
12 Kinetic Theory
Fill in the Blanks 7. True, In all the three directions x, y and z gas possess
equal energies.
1. Kinetic theory of matter Conceptual MCQs
2. Boyle’s law
1. (d) All the given phenomena are explained by
3
3. k B T , In equilibrium, the average kinetic energy kinetic theory of gases.
2
2
of molecules of different gases will be equal. That is 2. (b) g = 1 +
F
1 1 æ3 ö
m1v1-2 = m2 v2-2 = ç k BT ÷ where F is number of degree of freedom.
2 2 è2 ø As F is least for a monoatomic gas molecules,
4. Perfectly elastic, g is maximum for monoatomic gas molecule.
According to kinetic theory of gases there is no loss 3. (b) According to the law of equipartition of
of energy during the collisions between the energies, the gas possesses equal energies in
molecules. Therefore, collision between the all the three direction x, y and z-axis.
molecules is perfectly elastic. 4. (d) There is no interaction among the molecules
of a gas, hence potential energy of an ideal gas
5 is zero.
5. , For a monoatomic gas, the average energy of a
3 5. (c) CO2 gases a linear molecule, hence for CO2,
F = 5.
3
molecule at temperature T is k BT . gP
2 6. (c) Velocity of sound (CS) =
r
3
\ Internal energy U = RT
T
2 3P
R.M.S. velocity of gas molecules =
dU 3 r
CV = = R
dT 2
Cs gP r g
For an ideal gas, CP – CV = R = ´ =
C r 3P 3
5 CP 5
\ CP = R and g = =
2 CV 3 g
Þ Cs = C ´
6. Total K.E. 3
7. 3, A fly moving in a room has three degrees of
freedom, because it is free to move in space. 7. (d) crms µ T
As temperature increases from 300 K to 1200 K
8. Increases that is four times, so, crms will be doubled.
True/ False
CP 15 3 2
1. True, 8. (b) g = = = Þ CV = CP
2. False, The average transnational K.E. is same for CV 10 2 3
molecules of all gases and for each molecules it is R 2 R
C P - CV = Þ CP - CP =
3 J 3 J
kT
2 CP R 3R
Þ = Þ CP =
kT 3 J J
3. True, Mean free path l = 9. (d)
2 pd 2 P
10. (d) In kinetic theory of gas, it is assumed that
4. True 5. False molecules/ atoms have negligible volume.
6. False, CP – CV = R is true for any gas.
P-S-38 PHYSICS
11. (d) From first law of thermodynamics
DQ = DU + DW 13R
Þ = C v1 + 2C v2
3 1 2
= . R (T2 – T1) + 0 Possible values are,
2 4
3 R 3R 5R
Cv1 = , Cv2 =
= NaKB (T2 – T1) [Q K = ] 2 2
8 N
\ Gases are monatomic (like He) and diatomic
1 mn 2 (like N2)
12. (b) Q P = Vrms
3 V 5 3
When mass is halved and speed is doubled then 19. (d) C p = R and Cv = R
2 2
1 m n We know that Qv = nCvDT and Qp = nCpDT
Resultant pressure, Pt = ´ ´ (2vrms )2
3 2 V
v Q 3
Þ Q =5.
= 2 P.
1 2 æ1 ö 2 p
13. (a) P = Nmc 2 = ´ ç Nm÷ c 2 = K .E
3 3 è 2 ø 3 Given Qp = 207 J Þ Qv @ 124 J
14. (d) In a gas molecules move randomly in all
possible directions, hence their average velocity 1 1 æ mv 2 ö 5 2
is zero. 20. (c) Total K.E. = fkT = (5)k ç ÷ = mv
2 2 è 3k ø 6
15. (b) As both the gases have equal volume, they must
have equal number of moles, hence (i) is
correct. 1 1
and rotational K.E. = ´ 2 ´ k k = mv 2 .
R.M.S. velocity depends on molar mass, hence 2 3
is different for both the gases (ii) is incorrect. Diagram Based Questions
Both the gases are diatomic, hence, they must
have some internal energy. (iii) is correct. 1. (b) According to ideal gas equation
Average velocity of molecules is zero for both PV = nRT
the gases. (iv) is correct.
m r r M
5 5 PV = RT, P = RT or =
16. (b) n = \ PV = RT [ Q PV = nRT]
T] M M P RT
32 32
17. (d) Let the mass of the gas be m. r 1
or µ
At a fixed temperature and pressure, volume P T
is fixed.
m r
Density of the gas, r = Here, represent the slope of graph
V P
r m m Hence T2 > T1
Now = =
P PV nRT 2. (a)
m 3. (a) Change in internal energy from A ® B
Þ = x (By question)
nRT f f
Þ xT = constant Þ x1T1 = x2T2 DU = nRDT = nR (Tf – Ti)
2 2
é\ ù
x1T1 283 ê 5
Þ x2 Þ = x ê T1 = 283K ú = {P V – P V }
T2 383 ú 2 f f i i
êëT2 = 383K úû (As gas is diatomic \ f = 5)
n1Cv1 + n 2 Cv2 5
Cv mix = = {2 × 103 × 6 – 5 × 103 × 4}
18. (c) 2
n1 + n 2
5
13R n1Cv1 + 2n1Cv 2 é n1 1 ù = {12 – 20} × 103 J = 5 × (–4) × 103 J
Þ = êQ n = 2 ú 2
6 n1 + 2n1 ë 2 û DU = –20 KJ
Solutions P-S-39
4. (a) Q q1 < q 2 Þ tan q1 < tan q 2 that extends to infinity.

Also Urms depends upon nature of gas and it’s
æV ö æV ö temperature.
Þç ÷ <ç ÷
è T ø1 è T ø 2 dN
dv
V 1
From PV = mRT ; µ
T P
æ 1ö æ 1ö
Hence çè ÷ø < çè ÷ø Þ P1 > P2 . vmv vav vrms
P 1 P 2
8. (a) The mean free path of a gas molecule is the
averge distance between two successive
Assertion/ Reason collisions. It is represented by l.
1. (d) The real gases obey the gas equation at low 1 kT m
pressure and high temperature as, at high l= 2
and l =
temperature the intermolecular force is 2 ps P 2 × ps2 d
negligible due to increased volume of the gas. Here, s = 0 diameter of molecule and
2. (c) The number 6.02 × 1023 is Avogadro’s number k = Boltzmann’s constant.
and one mole of a substance contains Þ l µ 1 / d, l µ T and l µ 1 / P.
Avogadro’s number of molecules. Hence, mean free path varies inversely as
3. (b) Total translational kinetic energy density of the gas. It can easily proved that the
mean free path varies directly as the
3 3 temperature and inversely as the pressure of
= nRT= PV
2 2 the gas.
In an ideal gas all molecules moving randomly 9. (d) A vapour above the critical temperature is a gas
in all direction collide and their velocity and gas below the critical temperature for the
changes after collision. substance is a vapour. As gas cannot be
4. (c) Internal energy can be increased wh en liquidfied by the application of pressure alone,
molecules of gas will get greater velocity w.r.t. how so ever large the pressure may be while
container. vapour can be liquified under pressure alone.
5. (a) The motion of the container is known as the To liquify a gas it must be cooled upto or below
ordered motion of the gas and zigzag motion of its critical temperature.
gas molecules within the container is called Matching Based Questions
disordered motion 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d)
When the container suddenly stops, ordered
kinetic energy gets converted into disordered
kinetic energy which is turn increases the
temperature of the gas. 1. (d) VA = 2VB ; TA = 2TB ; PA = 2PB
Ordered motion PAVA PV
= B B = nAR = nBR
Disordered motion TA TB
hA PV T
\ = A A B
6. (c) By law of equipartition of energy, the energy hB PBVB TA
for each degree of freedom in thermal
1 (2 PB ) (2VB ) (TB )
equilibrium is k B T . Each quadratic term = = 2
2 PB VB (2TB )
form in the total energy expression of a
molecules is to be counted as a degree of 2. (b) Let n1 and n2 be the number of moles of each
freedom. Thus each vibrational mode gives 2 gas. Then
degree of freedom i.e, kinetic and potential PV PV
energy modes, corresponding to the energy n1 = and n2 =
RT RT
æ1 ö When the two gases are mixed, total number
2 ç k B T ÷ = k BT .
è 2 ø of moles,
7. (d) Maxwell speed distribution graph is n = n 1 + n2
asymmetric graph, because it has a long ‘tail’
P-S-40 PHYSICS
P 'V PV PV n1 + n2 n1 n2
+
Þ = + 5. (b)
g –1
= g1 - 1 g 2 – 1
RT RT RT
(where P¢ is the pressure of the mixture.) 2 1 1
or =+
Þ P¢ = 2P g –1 5
–1
7
–1
3. (d) Molar mass of the gas = 4g/mol 3 5
Speed of sound 3
\ g = .
gRT g ´ 3.3 ´ 273 2
V= Þ 952 = 6. (a) Cp – Cv = R Þ Cp = Cv + R
m 4 ´ 10-3
Cp Cv + R Cv R
16 8 Q g= = = +
Þ g = 1.6 = = Cv Cv Cv Cv
10 5
CP 8 R R R
= Þg=1+ Þ = g – 1 Þ Cv =
Also, g = Cv Cv g -1
CV 5
7. (c) As no heat is lost,
8´ 5 Loss of kinetic energy
So, CP = = 8JK–1mol–1 [CV = 5.0 JK–1 = gain of internal energy of gas
5
given] 1 2 m R
1 2
4. (c) According to given problem mv = nCV DT Þ mv = × DT
2 2 M g –1
(v rms ) O 2 = (v rms ) H 2
mv 2 (g –1)
3RTO2 3R(300) Þ DT = K
= 2R
M O2 M H2
M O2 32
TO 2 = 300 ´ = 300 ´ = 4800 K
M H2 2
13 Oscillation
Fill in the Blanks 6. Maximum

7. Forced oscillations, the body oscillates at the angular
1. Oscillatory motion frequency of the driving force.
20 8. Maximum
2. , y = 10 sin (20 t + 0.5) True/ False
2p
y (t) = a sin (wt + q)
1. False, In SHM, acceleration of particle is always
w 20 directed towards mean position but velocity is either
\ Frequency, v = = towards or away from mean position.
2p 2p
2. False, In one vibration the particle goes twice to
3. decrease extreme positions and twice crosses the mean
4. ellipse position. So does the PE and KE.
1 3. True, In most of the musical instruments either string
mw2 r12 æ ö2 2 or some memberane oscillates to produce pleasant
E1 2 r æ5ö
5. 1 : 4, = =ç 1 ÷ =ç ÷ =1:4 sound.
E2 1 r è 10 ø
mw2 r22 è 2 ø 4. True
2
Solutions P-S-41
1 p
5. True, T µ m ÞT µ 9. (b) y = 3sin (50t - x )
k 2
So, T does not depends on the amplitude of the æ p ö
oscillation T depend on m, k. y = 3sin ç 25pt - x ÷ on comparing with
è 2 ø
6. True the standard wave equation
y = a sin (wt – kx)
Conceptual MCQs
w 25p
1. (b) As the child stands up, centre of mass of the Wave velocity v = = = 50 m/sec.
k p/2
system shifts up decreasing the effective length
of the pendulum, hence time period of the swing The velocity of particle
will decrease. ¶y æ p ö
vp = = 75p cos ç 25pt - x÷
2. (c) The resonance becomes sharp when dramping ¶t è 2 ø
force is small vp max = 75p
3. (d) In a satellite, effective value of acceleration due
to gravity. v pmax 75p 3p
then = =
g¢ = 0 v 50 2
10. (c) We have, U + K = E
l where, U = potential energy, K = Kinetic energy,
\T ¢ = 2p =¥ E = Total energy.
g¢
Also, we know that, in S.H.M., when potential
4. (a) Amplitude (A) = 0.01 m, Frequency = 60 Hz energy is maximum, K.E. is zero and vice-versa.
Maximum acceleration
\U max + 0 = E Þ U max = E
= Aw 2 = 0.01 ´ (2pn)2 Further,
= 0.01 ´ 4p 2 ´ 60 ´ 60 = 144p 2 m/sec2 1
K .E. = mw 2 a 2 cos 2 wt
5. (d) At equilibrium position, net force and hence 2
acceleration of particle executing simple
harmonic motion is zero. But by question, K .E. = K 0 cos 2 wt
6. (c) Time period of a simple pendulum is 1
independent of mass of the bob. \ K0 = mw 2 a 2
2
7. (d) x = A cos (wt + d )
1
y = A cos(wt + a ) ....(1) Hence, total energy, E =mw 2 a 2 = K0
2
p \U max = K 0 & E = K0 .
When d = a +
2 11. (b) The particles of wave moving through a string
fixed at both ends execute simple harmonic
æp ö
x = A cos ç + wt + a ÷ motion.
è2 ø
1 k
x = - A sin (wt + a ) ....(2) 12. (c) n =
2p m
Squaring (1) and (2) and then adding
x2 + y2 = A2 [cos2 (wt + a) + sin2 (wt + a)] 1 k 1 1 k
or x2 + y2 = A2, which is the equation of a circle. n¢ = = ´
The present motion is anticlockwise.
2p 4 m 2 2 p m
l n
Tµ l On putting the value of n we get n ' =
8. (d) T = 2 p 2
g
13. (b) A second’s pendulum crosses mean position at
If l is increased by 4 times, time period will
the interval of is, hence its time period is 2s.
increase by two times.
P-S-42 PHYSICS
1 2 Diagram Based Questions

14. (b) The potential energy of a spring = kx
2 1. (a) For x = (– A), we have
1 1 –A = A sin(w ´ 0 + f0 )
U = k .(2) 2 = 4 ´ k
2 2 p
or f0 = – .
For x = 8 cm, 2
1 1 f
So for x < ( - A) , 0 < (– p / 2) .
Energy stored = k .(8) 2 = 64 ´ k
2 2 2. (a) At point 2, the acceleration of the particle is
maximum, which is at the extreme position.
U At extreme position, the velocity of the particle
= 64 ´ = 16 U
4 will be zero.
15. (c) Let the S.H.M is described by the equation y
3. (b) = sin q
x = A sin wt a
\ y = a sin q
dx
v= = wA cos wt q = ÐXOP = wt – f0
dt \ y = a sin (wt – f0)
\ kinetic energy 4. (c)
5. (a) t = 0, v maximum. The motion begins from
1 2 1 mean position. So it represents S.H.M.
k= mv = mw 2 A2 cos 2 wt
2 2 6. (a) In x = A cos wt , the particle starts oscillating
1 from extreme position. So at t = 0, its potential
= mw 2 A2 (1 + cos 2w t ) energy is maximum.
4 7. (a) KE and PE completes two vibration in a time
\ K.E. of simple harmonic oscillator, oscillates during which SHM completes one vibration.
with frequency 2f. Thus frequency of PE or KE is double than that
of SHM.
16. (a) At resonance, the frequency of periodic force
8. (b) When some mercury is drained off, the centre
must be equal to the frequency of oscillations.
of gravity of the bob moves down and so length
17. (d) The oscillations of the rod are simple harmonic of the pendulum increases, which result
for small amplitude only. increase in time period.
18. (a) Let the two SHM’s are described
Assertion/ Reason
x = A sin wt ...(1)
p 1. (a) A periodic function is one whose value repeats
and y = A sin (wt + ) = A cos wt...(2) after a definite interval of time sin q and cos q
2 are periodic functions because they repeat itself
Squaring and adding, after 2p interval of time
x2 + y2 = A2, which is equation of circle.
19. (d) The necessary and sufficient condition for
O p 2p O p 2p
simple harmonic motion is :
F = – kx
i.e. a restoring force proportional to sin curve cos curve
displacement. 2. (c) S.H.M. is to and fro motion of an object and it is
periodic.
20. (d) Let y = A sin wt
dy
vinst = = Aw cos wt = Aw sin(wt + p / 2) v = w k2 - x2
dt If x = 0, v has maximum value. At x = k, v has
minimum velocity. Similarly, when x = – k, v
Acceleration = - Aw 2 sin wt has zero value, all these indicate to and from
= Aw2sin(p + wt) movement.
p 3. (a) The total energy of S.H.M = Kinetic energy of
\ f = = 0.5p
2 particle + potential energy of particle
The variation of total energy of the particle in
SHM with time is shown in a graph
Solutions P-S-43
Energy Matching Based Questions

Zero slope
A Total energy 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
Kinetic energy
Potential energy Critical Thinking Type Questions
T/4 2T/4 3T/4
1. (a) Here,
1 2 2 2
4. (b) In SHM. K.E.= mw (a - y ) and P.E. = x = x0 cos (wt – p / 4 )
2 \ Velocity,
1 dx æ pö
mw2 y 2 . v= = - x 0 w sin ç w t - ÷
2 dt è 4ø
For K.E. = P.E. Þ 2y2 = a2 Þ y = a / 2 . Acceleration,
Since total energy remains constant through out dv æ pö
the motion, which is E = K.E. + P.E. So, when a= = - x 0 w2 cos ç wt - ÷
P.E. is maximum then K.E. is zero and dt è 4ø
viceversa. é p öù
æ
5. (a) The time period of a oscillating spring is given by = x 0 w2 cos ê p + ç wt - ÷ ú
ë è 4 øû
m 1
T = 2p ÞTµ , Since the spring = x0 w2
k k
æ 3p ö
constant is large for hard spring, therefore hard cos ç w t + ÷ ...(1)
spring has a less periodic time as compared to è 4 ø
soft spring. Acceleration, a = A cos (wt + d) ...(2)
6. (b) Energy of damped oscillator at an any instant t Comparing the two equations, we get
is given by 3p
A = x0w2 and d =
- bt/m
E = E0 e 4
1 2 m m
[ where E 0 = kx = maximum energy] 2. (b) t 1 = 2p , t 2 = 2p
2 k1 k2
Due to damping forces the amplitude of
oscillator will go on decreasing with time whose when springs are in series then,
energy is expressed by above equation. k1k 2
7. (c) Amplitude of oscillation for a forced damped k eff =
oscillatory is kl + k 2
F0 / m m( k l + k 2 )
A= , where b is \ T = 2p
2 2
(w - w0 ) + (bw / m) 2 k1k 2
constant related to the strength of the resistive
m m
force, w0 = k / m is natural frequency of \ T = 2p +
k 2 k1
undamped oscillator (b = 0)
When the frequency of driving force (w) » w0 , t 22 t 12
then amplitude A is very larger. = 2p + Þ T 2 = t12 + t 22
( 2 p) 2 ( 2 p) 2
For w < w0 or w > w0 , the amplitude
decreases. l
8. (d) Both assertion and reason are wrong. At the 3. (d) T = 2p
mountain top g will decrease and
g
T µ
1
. 1 ælö
log T = log( 2p) + logçç ÷÷
g 2 ègø
It will increase. Thus the pendulum clock will
become slow. So, pendulum clock loses time. 1 1
Þ logT = log(2π) + log(l) - log(g)
2 2
P-S-44 PHYSICS
3
DT 1 Dl 1 æ 1ö
Differentiating, = 0 + ´ -0 or, = ç ÷ (Using eq. (i))
T 2 l n è 3ø
DT 1 Dl 5. (b) The time period of pendulam is given by
Þ ´ 100 = ´ ´ 100 l
T 2 l T = 2p
g
1
= ´ 21 = 10.5 » 10% Acceleration due to gravity of earth is
2 GM
Note: In this method, the % error obtained is ge =
an approximate value on the higher side. Exact R e2
value is less than the obtained one.
Value of 'g' on planet is
4. (b) Amplitude of a damped oscillator at any instant
t is given by GM p G.2M g
A = A0e–bt/2m gp = = = e
R 2p 4R 2 2
where A0 is the original amplitude
From question,
l .2
A0 \ Tp = 2 p = 2T
When t = 2 s, A = ge
3
i.e. Tp = 2 2
A0
\ = A0e–2b/2m bt
3 –
6. (d) As we know, E = E0 e m
1
or, = e–b/m … (i) b15
3 –
15 = 45e m
A0 [As no. of oscillations = 15 so t = 15sec]
When t = 6 s, A =
n b15
1 –
A0 = e m
\ = A0e–6b/2m 3
n Taking log on both sides
1 b 1
or, = e–3b/m = (e–b/m)3 = ln3
n m 15
14 Waves
Fill in the Blanks standing wave in a string are produced due to

interference of waves.
1. Matter waves 4. Same, frequencies, phases and amplitudes at a given
2. Mach number, time or place.
5. Harmonics
speed of body
= mach number 6. In relative motion, These apparent change in
speed of sound frequency due to motion of source and observer
3. Interference, When two waves, one incident and relative to the medium along the line of sight is
other reflected wave, interfere with each other in called Doppler's effect.
the string than a new type of wave is produced, 7. Interference
which appears stationary in the medium. This wave 8. odd harmonics. The harmonics of frequencies 2n, 4n
is called stationary or standing wave. Therefore, ____ are missing.
Solutions P-S-45
True/ False
ω 4
9. (c) A = 2cm, = 128 ms–1, 5l = 4, l = m
1. True, k 5
The particles of the medium only oscillate but do y = A sin (kx – wt),
not travel from one place to another.
2. False, Waves transport energy and the pattern of 2p 2p ´ 5 31.4
k= = = = 7.85
disturbance has information that propagate from one l 4 4
point to another. y = 0.02 m sin (7.857 – 1005 t)
3. False, Mechanical waves only transfer energy from w = 128 × 7.85 = 1005
one point to another.
Df n
4. True, 10. (b) =
5. True, In a closed organ pipe, two waves travelling in f C
opposite direction (one incident and other reflected
wave from boundary) superimpose with each other (Beats) 2 n
Þ =
to develop a wave pattern which is standing or f C
stationary.
6. False, In an open organ pipe, 2 fv
nv Þ Beats = = 4.
Natural frequencies = v = ; n = 1, 2, 3, ..... C
2L 11. (d) 2p f1 = 600 p
Thus, even and odd i.e., all the harmonics are present. f1 = 300 ... (1)
7. False, Change in frequency has nothing to do with 2p f2 = 608 p
distance between source and listener.
f2 = 304 ...(2)
Conceptual MCQs |f1 – f2| = 4 beats
1. (d) An open organ pipe produces both even and
odd harmonics. I max ( A1 + A2 )2 (5 + 4)2 81
= = =
2. (a) Fundamental frequency of an organ pipe, I min ( A1 + A2 )2 (5 - 4)2 1 ,
1
nµ where A1, A2 are amplitudes of given two sound
L wave.
p 12. (c) Free surface of liquids tends to regain its shape
3. (d) Phase difference = 60° =
3 due to its surface tension and causes a
transverse wave to propagate on the surface.
l 13. (c) Shock waves do not show Doppler’s effect.
Path difference = (phase diff .)
2p 14. (b) For producing standing waves, the superposing
l p l waves must have same amplitude & speed, a
= ´ = phase difference of p and must be travelling
2p 3 6 in opposite direction.
4. (a) The direction of motion is always perpendicular
( ) = (2 I )
2 2
to the line joining the source and the listener, 15. (d) Imax = I1 + I 2 = 4I
hence apparent frequency is equal to the actual
frequency. 16. (b) Let the oscillations of particle of the wave at
5. (c) As the star is moving towards the earth, the x = 0 are represented by
apparent frequency of light must be greater than x = a sin wt
its actual frequency. then at crest,
6. (d) For propagation of a wave, a medium must p
possess elasticity, inertia and low resistance. a = a sin wt or wt = ...(1)
2
æ u + u / 5ö 6 and at trough,
f apparent = ç f = f = 1.2 f
è u ÷ø
7. (c)
5
3p
Wavelength remains constant (unchanged) in this case. – A = A sin wt2 or wt2 = ...(2)
8. (c) Speed of a wave represented by the equation 2
w Subtracting (1) from (2) we get
y(x, t) = A sin (kx – wt + f) is v = w (t2 – t1) = p
k
By comparison, w = 4p; k = 0.5p p T
or t2 – t1 = =
w 4p w 2
v= = = 8 m/sec
k 0.5p 17. (d)
P-S-46 PHYSICS
2p
18. (c) y = 0.5 sin (64t - x ) . Standard equation
3.2 5. (a) N N N N
2p
of the wave is : y = a sin ( vt - x ) . Total no. of nodes = 4
l
Comparing the given equation with the standard 6. (d) Figure(a) represents a harmonic wave of
equation, we get v = 64 and l = 3.2. Therefore, frequency 7.0 Hz, figure (b) represents a
harmonic wave of frequency 5.0 Hz. Therefore
frequency =
64 beat frequency
= 20 Hz .
3.2 vs = 7 – 5 = 2.0 Hz.
19. (b) When the waves overlap, the P.E will become Assertion/ Reason
zero, hence energy of pulse will be purely kinetic.
20. (c) We know that the length of pipe closed at one 1. (c) In longitudinal waves, the constituents of the
3l medium oscillate parallel to the direction of
end for first overtone (l1) = and length of wave propagation. So sound wave is an example
4 of longitudinal wave.
4l 2. (d) Two waves moving in uniform string with
the open pipe for third overtone (l2) = = 2l .
2 uniform tension shall have same speed and may
be moving in opposite directions. Hence both
l 3l / 4 3
Therefore, the ratio of lengths 1 = = waves may have velocities in opposite direction.
l2 2l 8 3. (c) There is no material medium over a long
or l1 : l 2 = 3 : 8 . distance between earth and other planets. So
explosions on other planets are not heard on Earth.
21. (a) Let l be length of string 4. (a) Two astronauts cannot talk to each other on
ælö moon because moon has no atmosphere and
l = ç ÷2 Þ l = l hence there is no medium for propagation of sound.
è2ø 5. (c) Laplace assumed adiabatic process during
Hence, the wavelength of standing wave sound propagation.
= l = l = 1.21Å 6. (a) Reflection from a rigid boundary is a case of
22. (c) Pressure change will be minimum at both reflection from a denser medium. In that case
ends. In fact, pressure variation is maximum the particle velocity and wave velocity are
at l/2 because the displacement node is reversed in sign.
pressure antinode. 7. (c) At nodes pressure is maximum. Particles within
a loop vibrate in phase.
330 330
23. (c) Frequencies of sound waves are & 8. (d) Relative to an observer at rest in a medium the
5 5.5 speed of a mechanical wave in that medium
i.e., 66 Hz and 60 Hz depends only on elastic and other properties
Frequencies of beat = 66 – 60 = 6 per second of the medium. It does not depend on the
24. (b) According to Doppler's effect velocity of the source.
æ v - v0 ö æ 340 - 10 ö 330 9. (d) In doppler effect for sound wave effect due to
n' = ç ÷ n= ç ÷ø n = ´ 1950 observer and source motion are different.
è v - v sø è 340 + 10 350
= 2068 Hz Matching Based Questions
Diagram Based Questions 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b)
6. (c) 7. (d)
1. (b) For a moving source, l ¢ < l (normal wavelength).
2. (c) As two waves meet a point with opposite
phase hence desctructive interference i.e., 1. (c) y = A sin ( w t–kx)
minimum sound at that point. Particle velocity,
3. (b) After 2 s, the each wave travels a distance =
2 × 2 = 4 m. dy
vp = = A w cos ( w t – kx)
The wave shape is shown in figure. dt
Thus energy is purely kinetic. \ vp max = A w
4. (c) When the waves meet a point with opposite w
wave velocity =
phase, destructive interference is obtained at k
that point. In this case phase difference, w
f = 180° or (2n –1)p n = 1, 2, 3,....... \ Aw = k
Solutions P-S-47
1 2p Dl
i. e., A = But k = Putting the value of l, , r and g in eqn.
k l l
\ l = 2 p A (i) we get,
2. (b) From equation, w = 100 2 103
f = ´
2p 100 7 3
\ = 100 Þ n = or, f » 178.2 Hz
T 2p
5. (b) Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe
2p 2p
= 20 Þ l = V
l 20 Vc =
4lc
2 p 100 Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe
v = ln = ´ = 5m / s
20 2 p
V
3. (d) Load supported by sonometer wire = 4 kg V0 =
Tension in sonometer wire = 4 g 2l0
If m = mass per unit length Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe
1 T 3V
then frequency u = =
2l m 2l0
From question,
1 4g
Þ 416 = V 3V
2l m =
4lc 2l0
When length is doubled, i.e., l¢ = 2l
Þ l0 = 6lc = 6 × 20 = 120 cm
Let new load = L
As, u¢ = u 6. (c) Let f ' be the frequency of sound heard by cliff.
νf
1 Lg 1 4g \f¢= ......(1)
\ = v - vc
2l ¢ m 2l m
Now for the reflected wave cliff. acts as a
source
1 Lg 1 4g
Þ = f ¢ (v + v c )
4l m 2l m \2 f ¢ = ......(2)
v
Þ L = 2 ´ 2 Þ L = 16 kg
4. (b) Fundamental frequency,
(v + v c ) f
2f = Þ 2v – 2 vc = v + vc
v - vc
v 1 T 1 T
f = = =
2l 2l m 2l Ar or
v
= vc
3
é T mù 7. (c) Frequency of the echo detected by the driver of
êQ v = and m = ú
ë m lû the train is
(According to Doppler effect in sound)
Tl T Y Dl
Also, Y = Þ = æ v + uö
ADl A l f '= ç f
è v - u ÷ø
1 gDl
Þ f = ....(i) where f = original frequency of source of sound
2l lr f ¢ = Apparent frequency of source because of
Dl the relative motion between source and
l = 1.5 m, = 0.01, r = 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 observer.
l
(given) æ 330 + 220 ö
f '= ç 1000 = 5000 Hz
g = 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 (given) è 330 - 220 ÷ø
P-S- 48 PHYSICS
15 Electric Charges and Fields
Fill in the Blanks 6. False, they do not form closed loops.

1. Increases; Every system tends to decrease its 7. False, E ¹ 0 but potential V = 0
potential energy to attain more stability, when we Conceptual MCQs
increase charge on soap bubble its radius increases,
1. (b) Charge(+ Q) gets distributed uniformly over the
1 surface of the sphere. We know that electrostatic
uµ potential inside a solid, conducting sphere is
r
constant.
1 1 q 2. (d) Charges (–e) on electron and (e) on proton exert a
2. 2 Electric field, E= force of attraction given by
r 4p Î0 r 2
3. Millikan’s oil drop experiment ( -e)(e) - Ke2 r
r r r Force = ( K ) rˆ = r
4. t = p ´ E , Torque (t) = Either force × perpendicular r2 r3
distance between the two forces = qaEsinq or r
r r r æ rö
t = pE sin q or t = p ´ E (vector form) çQ ˆ
r =
è r ÷ø
2e
5. fE = , Note : Magnitude of Coulomb force is given by
e0
1 q2 q2
q
Electric flux, fE = 4pe 0 r 2 ,
e0
r 1 q1q2 r
Charge on a-particle = 2e but in vector form F = r
2e 4pe 0 r 3
fE = 3. (d)
e0 4. (a) Given : Length of the dipole (2l) =10cm
6. Zero, Electric charge resides only on the surface of = 0.1m or l = 0.05 m
a shell. Charge on the dipole (q) = 500 mC = 500 ×
7. 90°, t = p E sin q 10–6 C and distance of the point on the axis from
8. Coulomb’s law the mid-point of the dipole (r) = 20 + 5 = 25 cm =
True/ False 0.25 m. We know that the electric field intensity
1. False, due to dipole on the given point (E) =
Electrostatic force is conservative in nature, therefore 1 2( q.2l ) r
work done is path independent. ´ 2 2 2
2. True, The metallic sphere which gets negatively 4pe 0 (r - l )
charged gains electrons and hence its mass increases.
The metallic sphere which gets positively charged 2(500 ´ 10 -6 ´ 0.1) ´ 0.25
loses electrons and hence its mass decreases. = 9 ´109 ´
3. True, When high energy [(0.25) 2 - (0.05) 2 ]2
X-ray beam falls, it will knock
out electrons from the small 225 ´ 103
= = 6.25 ´ 107 N / C
metal ball making it positively 3.6 ´ 10 -3
charged. Therefore the ball 5. (b) There exists a point P on the x-axis (other than the
will be deflected in the origin), where net electric field is zero. Once the
direction of electric field. charge Q reaches point P, attractive forces of the
4. True two -ve charge will dominate and automatically
5. False, Electric field lines start from positive charge cause the charge Q to cross the origin.
and end at negative charged Now if Q is projected with just enough velocity to
reach P, its K.E. at P is zero, but while being
Solutions P-S- 49
attracted towards origin it acquires KE and hence fA = fC = f'

its net energy at the origin is positive. (P.E. at Therefore,
origin = zero)
q
6. (b) = 2f '+ fB = 2f '+ f
e0
1æ q ö
50 e – 50 e 50 e Þ f' = ç - f÷
2 è e0 ø
11. (c) Work done in rotating a dipole, = pE (1 – cos q)
50 e If q = 90º, work done = pE (1 – 0) = pE
– 150 e – 150 e 12. (c) Cube has 6 faces. Flux through any face is given
The charge on inner and outer surfaces by
= – 50 e, – 100 e q q 4p
7. (a) The number of molecules in 18 g of water f= =
= 6.02 ×1023 6e 0 6(4pe 0 )
\ Number of molecules in 180 g of water
V 2
180 13. (c) E = =
= 6.02 × 1023 × = 6.02 ×1024 d 4×10 –8
18 = 0.5 × 108 = 5 × 107 Vm–1
The number of protons in a molecule of water = 14. (c) K.E. = Force × distance = qE.y
10 15. (a) By Gauss theorem
So, total number of protons,
Total ch arg e inside cube
n = 6.02 × 1024 ×10 = 6.02 × 1025 Total electric flux =
The total charge, q = ne e0
= 6.02 × 1025 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 0.96 × 107
» 1.0 × 107 C. q
Þ f=
8. (b) Electric field at a point inside a charged e0
conducting spherical shell is zero. 16. (c) Charges (q) = 2 × 10 –6 C, Distance (d)
9. (a) Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at = 3 cm = 3 × 10 –2 m and electric field (E)
points B (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), = 2 × 105 N/C. Torque (t) = q.d.
O (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and A(x = a, y = 0, z = 0) E =(2 × 10–6) × (3 × 10–2) × (2 × 105)
The system consists of two dipole moment vectors = 12 × 10–3 N–m .
due to (+q and –q) and again due to (+q and –q) 17. (d) Electric field at location of Q is due to –2Q.
charges having equal magnitudes qa units – one
uuur uuur - K.2Q
along OA and other along OB . Hence, net dipole EQ = =E
moment, r2
uuur Electric field at location of – 2Q is due to Q.
pnet = (qa)2 + (qa) 2 = 2qa along OP at KQ
an angle 45° with positive X-axis. \ E– 2Q =
r2
y P
+q(0, a, 0) KQ
B B
E -2Q 2
Þ = r
A EQ 2Q
(–2q) x
45° -K 2
(0, 0, 0) O +q(a, 0, 0) O A r
z
EQ -E
Þ E–2Q = – =
2 2
q 18. (d) The force between the charges
10. (d) Since f total = fA + fB + fC =
e0
q(Q - q) k(Qq - q 2 )
Where q is the total charge. F=k =
As shown in the figure, flux associated with the d2 d2
curved surface B is f = fB
dF
Let us assume flux linked with the plane surfaces For maximum F, =0
A and C be dq
P-S- 50 PHYSICS
signs which are attractive and repulasive.
d
or (Qq - q 2 ) = 0 3. (d) Gravitational force is the dominating force in
dq nature and not coulomb's force. Gravitational
or Q – 2q = 0 force is the weakest force. Also, Coulomb's
force > > gravitational force.
Þ Q = 2q 4. (b) Coulomb attraction exists even when one
Þ q = Q/2 body is charged, and the other is uncharged.
19. (b) As new distance = 2 r and electric field due to 5. (c) qd = e, md = 2mp = 2m
1 qa = 2e, ma = 4mp = 4m
single charge, E µ , F1 = Fa = eE, F2 = Fa = 2eE ¹ F1
2
r F1 eE
therefore, new intensity = E/4. Further, a1 = =
20. (d) According to Gauss's theorem, 2m 2m
q é F2 2eE eE
E Ñò ds = Here Ñ
ò ds = 4pR ùû
2 and a 2 = = = = a1 s
Î0 ë 2m 4m 2m
6. (b) Force on any charge due to a number of other
q / 4 pR 2 charges is the vector sum of all the forces on
\E = [Q q / 4pR 2 = s] that charge due to the other charges, taken one
Î0 at a time. The individual force are unaffected
due to the presence of other charges. This is
or E = s / e o the principle of superposition of charges.
Diagram Based Questions 7. (b) Though the net charge on the conductor is still
1. (c) The weight mg of the charge hold in air is in zero but due to induction negatively charged
equillibrium with net electrostatic force exerted region is nearer to the rod as compared to the
by the four charges situated at the corners. The positively charged region. That is why the
net electrostatic force is given by the vector sum conductor gets attracted towards the rod.
of the individual forces exerted by the charges at 8. (d) The rate of decrease of electric field is
the corners. This is principle of superposition. different in the two cases. In case of a point
2. (c) When charged rod is brought near uncharged charge, it decreases as 1/r2 but in the case of
conductor near end of conductor has opposite electric dipole it decreases more rapidly, as E
charge.When for end of this conductor is µ 1/r3.
connected is ground (i.e., earthed), charge of far 9. (a) Since for an infinitely long straight uniformly
end flows down to ground when for end
connection and rod are removed charge on l
conductor spreads uniformly on surface. charged wire, E = on moving a distance
2pe0 r
3. (b) The electric field around a charge propagates two times the
with the speed of light away from the charge. initial distance away from wire, the distance
Therefore the required time = from wire becomes 3r. Therefore final value of
distance OP l E
= .
electric field E¢ = = .
speed c 2pe 0 ( 3r ) 3
4. (c)
r Matching Based Questions
5. (d) Since electric field E decreases inside water,
r r 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c)
therefore flux f = Ε.A also decreases. Critical Thinking Type Questions
6. (a) The flux is zero according to Gauss’ Law
because it is a open surface which enclosed a 1. (b) 2q q –3q
charge q. P A B
Assertion/ Reason l d
Let a charge 2q be placed at P, at a distance
1. (a) Conservation of electric charge states that the
I from A where charge q is placed, as shown
total charge of an isolated system remains
in figure.
unchanged with time
The charge 2q will not experience any force,
2. (c) Coulomb force and gravitational force follow
when force, when force of repulsion on it due
the same inverse-square law. But gravitational
to q is balanced by force of attraction on it
force has only one sign which is always
due to –3q at B where
attractive, while coulomb force can be of both
AB = d
Solutions P-S- 51
(2q)(q ) (2q )(-3q) 2(500 ´ 10 -6 ´ 0.1) ´ 0.25

or 2
= 2 = 9 ´109 ´
4pe0 l 4pe 0 (l + d ) [(0.25) 2 - (0.05) 2 ]2
(l + d)2 = 3l2
or 2l2 – 2ld – d 2 = 0 225 ´ 10 3
= = 6.25 ´ 10 7 N / C
2 2 -3
2d ± 4d + 2d d 3d 3.6 ´ 10
\ l = = ±
4 2 2 (k = 1 for air)
r r r
6. (d) Torque, t = p ´ E = pE sin q
d + 3d
l = 4 = p × 2 × 105 × sin 30°
2
4
1 q2 or, p = 5
= 4 ´ 10-5 Cm
2. (c) In vacuum, F = …(i) 2 ´ 10 ´ sin 30°
4pe0 r 2 Dipole moment, p = q × l
Suppose, force between the chrages is same when
p 4 ´10-5
charges are r¢ distance apart in dielectric. q= = = 2 ´ 10-3 C = 2mC
l 0.02
1 q2 7. (d) According to Gauss's theorem,
\ F' = …(ii)
4pe0 kr '2 q é
E Ñò ds = Here Ñ
ò ds = 4pR ùû
2
Î0 ë
From (i) and (ii), kr'2 = r2 or, r = kr '
q / 4 pR 2
In the given situation, force between the charges \E = [Q q / 4pR 2 = s]
would be Î0
or E = s / e o
1 q2 4 q2 4F
F' = = = 8. (d) Let q charge is situated at the mid position of
4pe0 æ r rö
2 9 4pe0 r 2 9 the line AB. The distance between AB is x. A
ç + 4 ÷ and B be the positions of charges Q and Q
è2 2ø
respectively.
3. (d) They will not experience any force if
r r A C B
| FG |= | Fe | Q Q
x q x
m2 1 q2 2 2
Þ G = . x
(16 ´ 10-2 ) 2 4pe0 (16 ´10 -2 ) 2 x x
Let AC = , BC =
q 2 2
Þ = 4 pe0 G The force on A due to charge q at C,
m
® 1 Q.q
4. (a) Here, q = 1 C, e0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2N–1m–2 F CA = . along AC
Number of lines of force = Electric force 4pe 0 ( x / 2) 2
q 1 The force on A due to charge Q at B
= = = 1.13 × 1011
e0 8.85 ´10-12 ® 1 Q2 ®
F AB = . 2 along BA
5. (a) Given : Length of the dipole (2l) = 10cm 4pe0 x
= 0.1m or l = 0.05 m The system is in equilibrium, then two
Charge on the dipole (q) = 500 mC oppositely directed force must be equal, i.e.,
= 500 × 10–6 C and distance of the point on the total force on A is equal to zero.
axis from the mid-point of the dipole (r) = 20 + ® ® ® ®
5 = 25 cm = 0.25 m. F CA + F AB = 0 Þ F CA = - F AB
We know that the electric field intensity due to
dipole on the given point (E) 1 4Q.q –1 Q 2
. 2 = .
1 2(q.2l )r 4 pe 0 x 4 pe 0 x 2
= ´
4pe 0 (r 2 - l 2 ) 2 Q
Þq=-
4
P-S- 52 PHYSICS
16 Electrostatic Potential and

Capacitance
Fill in the Blanks r
Þ (E) = 22 + 102 + 62 = 140 = 2 35
1. Zero, W = PE(cos 90° – cos 270°) = 0. r
e0 A \ F = qE = 2 ´ 2 35 = 4 35
2. Increases, Since capacitance C = , as d decreases
d q
capacitance increases. 3. (b) V =
3. Electric energy 4pe 0 a
4. (a) Due to the change inside a sphere of radius r
e0 A
4. remains unchanged As C = only.
(d – t) 5. (b)
5. dielectric strength Q
v 1 6. (c) Capacitance of the capacitor, C =
6. U = ò CV dV = CV 2 V
0 2 After inserting the dielectric, new capacitance
7. Capacitor C1 = K.C
8. Van De graff generator, New potential difference
It is a machine that can built up high voltages of the V
order of a few million volts. The resulting large V1 =
electric fields are used to accelerate charged particles K
(electrons, protons, ions) to high energies needed
for experiments to probe the small scale structure 1 2 Q2
ui = cv = (Q Q = cv)
of matter. 2 2C
True/ False
Q 2 Q 2 C2 V 2 æ ui ö
1. True, ; Because of internal fields in the molecule. uf = = = =ç ÷
2. True, Electric field lines are always perpendicular to 2f 2kc 2KC è k ø
equipotential surface
3. False, they cannot be in a direction of tangent to an 1 2 ì1 ü
Du = uf – ui = cv í – 1ý
equipotential surface. 2 îk þ
4. True,
As the capacitor is isolated, so change will remain
5. True, for any two points on equipotential surface the
conserved p.d. between two plates of the
potential difference is zero.
capacitor
6. True
7. True; This is in case of series grouping of capacitors. Q V
L= =
Conceptual MCQs KC K
7. (b) Potential at the centre of the sphere
1. (d) All (a), (b), (c) are not true. When dielectric is = potential on the surface = 80 V.
removed C decreases by a factor k. Hence (a) is 8. (c) The electric field inside the inner shell is zero.
not true. So, the potential on inner shell and all the points
q = CV = constant. \ V increases by a factor k. (c) inside it will be constant.
is not true. 9. (a) Work = Increase in potential energy
E = V/d. \ E increases by a factor k. Hence (b) is
not true. æ1 1ö
= Kq1q2 ç –
r ¶V $ ¶V $ ¶V $ è r2 r1 ÷ø
2. (d) E = - i- j- k
¶x ¶y ¶z = 9 × 109 × 8 × 10–6 × 12 × 10–6
ˆ ˆ ˆ æ 1 1 ö
= -[(6 - 8y)i + (-8x - 8 + 6z) j + (6y)k] –
r ç ÷
è 6 ´ 10–2 10 ´ 10 –2 ø
At (1, 1, 1), E = 2i$ + 10j$ - 6k
$
Solutions P-S- 53
æ1 1ö e0 A e 0 AV0
= 9 × 8 × 12 ç – ÷ × 10–1 = 5.8 J 17. (c) , charge on plate is Q = CV =
è 6 10 ø d d
10. (c) On an isolated capacitor charge remains constant Energy stored is W = Q2/2C
. As d is increased 3 times, C decreases 3 times.
11. (c) If q1 and q2 are the final charges, then q1 + q 2 Battery is disconnected, so Q remains same. The
= 15 +15 = 30 …(1) difference in the energy is the work done.
18. (d) c = a + b.
1 q1 1 q2
and = σa σb σc σ
4p e0 r1 4p e0 r 2 VA = – + = [c – (b – a)]
ε0 ε0 ε0 ε0
q1 r1 5 1
or = = = ...(2) –σb 1 σ × 4pa 2 σc
q 2 r 2 10 2 VB = + . +
ε0 4pe 0 b ε0
Solving (i) & (ii), q1 =10µC
12. (b) The potential of A, Va = + ve σ é (b 2 – a 2 ) ù
Vb= 0 = êc – ú
Vd = 0 ε 0 ëê b ûú
Vc = – ve
Thus Va > Vb = Vd > Vc
13. (b) By conservation of charge, the charge on bigger b
drop Q = Nq
If R is the radius of the bigger drop, then
a
4 3 4
pR = N ´ pr 3 Þ R = N1/3r
3 3
1 q c
For small drop V = A
4pe0 r B
The potential of bigger drop, C
V0 =
1 Q σc 1 σ × 4πb2 1 σ × 4πa 2
VC = - . + .
4pe0 R ε 0 4pe 0 c 4πε 0 c
1 Nq 1 q
= = N2 / 3 σ é (b 2 – a 2 ) ù
4pe 0 N1/ 3 r 4pe 0 r = êc – ú
= N2/3 V ε0 êë c úû
1 1 -6 2 σ
14. (c) U= C1V 2 = 1 ´ 10 ´ 4 = [ c – (b – a)]
2 2 ε0
= 8 × 10 – 6 J
VA = V C ¹ V B
15. (c) V1 V2 V3 V4 19. (a) Given that, V = Q × 1011 volts
-7 -5 -9 -8 Electric potential at point is given by
16. (a) Work done = potential difference × charge
For BC, 1 Q 1 Q
V= . or, Q × 1011 = .
W = (VC – VB) × Q = ( – 3 – 1) × –2 = 8J 4p Î0 r 4p Î0 r
(Workdone depends only on initial and final
position) 1
For BAD, Þ r= .10 -11 m.
4 p Î0
W = (VD – VB) × Q = (2 – 1) × – 2 = – 2J
For AD,
W = (VD– VA) × Q = (2 + 1) × – 2 = – 6J
V Q ´ 1011
As E = =
For ABC, r 1
W = (VC – VA) × Q = (–3)–(–1) ×–2 =+ 4 J
.10-11
4p Î0
Thus work is maximum for path BC
22 -1
= 4p Î0 Q ´ 10 volt m .
P-S- 54 PHYSICS
20. (d) At two different points, outside the sphere if | E1 So, q = CV
| = | E2 |, then their potential must be equal. Þ q = 2.1 × 6 µC
21. (c) The energy stored by a capacitor Þ q = 12.6 µ C
1 Potential across 3 µF capacitance is
U= CV 2 ...(i) 12.6
2 V= = 4.2 volt
V is the p.d. between two plates of the capacitor. 3
Potential across 2 and 5 combination in parallel
The capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor is 6 – 4.2 = 1.8 V
V = E.d. So, q' = (1.8) (5) = 9 µC
Ae 0 Assertion/ Reason
C= 1. (c) Potential and potential energy are different
d
Substituting the value of C in equation (i) quantities and cannot be equated.
2. (d) For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring
1 Ae 0 1 2 with net zero charge, electric potential at each
U= ( Ed )2 = Ae0 E d point on its axis is zero. Hence electric field at
2 d 2 each point on its axis must be perpendicular to
Diagram Based Questions the axis. Therefore Assertion is false and Reason
1. (b) Electric field is always zero inside a conductor. is true.
If there is any excess of charge on a hollow 3. (a) As these is no electric field inside the conductor,
conductor it always resides on the outer surface and so no energy inside it.
of conductor. Therefore inside a hollow 4. (c) Reason is false because the work done in bringing
conductor there is no charge and hence charge a unit positive charge from infinity to a point in
density is zero. equatorial plane is equal and opposite for the
ur r two charges of the dipole.
2. (c) Using dV = – E. d r 10V
20V 1
Þ DV = – E Dr cosq 4E 5. (c) ( kC )V 2 = kU. Also q¢
C¢ = kC, and so, U ¢ =
q 2
-DV 30º 30º = C¢V = kCV = kq, and so charge density
Þ E = Dr increases.
Dr cos q
-(20 - 10) q2 q2
Þ E = -2 6. (c) C¢ = kC, and U ¢ = = . With the
10 ´10 cos120° 2C ¢ 2 kC
-10 introduction of dielectric, energy of the system
= decreases. As charge on the capacitor remains
10 ´ 10-2 (– sin 30°) same, and so force between them remains same.
-102 7. (a)
1
U = CV 2 . In the battery connected capacitor
= = 200 V / m 2
-1/ 2
V remains constant while C increases with the
Direction of E be perpendicular to the introduction of dielectric and so U will increase.
equipotential surface i.e. at 120° with X-axis. 8. (d) Two equipotential surfaces never intersect each
3. (a) other so they cannot be orthogonal.
C C Matching Based Questions
1 (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d)
4. (b) A C C B
C C
a b
1. (c)
C C
The figure shows two independent balanced
wheatstone Brides connected in parallel each
having a capacitance C. So, Let charge on each sphere = q
Cnet = CAB = 2C when they are connected together their potential
5. (b) Potential difference across the branch de is 6 V. will be equal .
Net capacitance of de branch is 2.1 µF Now let charge on a = q1 and on b = 2q - q1
Solutions P-S- 55
C1 = K.C
1 q1 1 2q - q1
Þ Va = Vb or = New potential difference
4peo a 4pe o b V
q1 a V1 =
Þ = K
2q - q1 b
1 Q2
1. q1 Ui = CV2 = (Q Q = cv)
2 2C
Ea 4peo a 2 æ q1 ö b 2 Q2 Q2 C2 V 2 æ u i ö
= =ç ÷
Eb 1 q 2 è 2q - q1 ø a 2 Uf = = = =ç ÷
2F 2KC 2KC è k ø
4peo b2
1 2 ì1 ü
DU = Uf – Ui = CV í –1ý
a b2 b 2 îK þ
= . = = b:a
b a2 a As the capacitor is isolated, so change will remain
2. (a) Let the side length of square be 'a' then potential conserved p.d. between two plates of the
at centre O is capacitor
–Q –q Q V
L= =
KC K
5. (d) : Here, V = 15 × 106 V dielectric strength
O = 5 × 107 V m–1
Maximum electric field, E = 10% of dielectirc
2Q 2q stength
10
k ( -Q) k (-q ) k (2q) k (2Q) \ E = ´ 5 × 107 = 5 × 106 V m–1
V= + + + =0 100
æ a ö a a a
ç ÷ 2 2 2 V
è 2ø As E =
(Given)
r
= – Q – q + 2q + 2Q = 0 = Q + q = 0 V 15 ´ 106
Q=–q \ r = = = 3 m
E 5 ´ 106
r ¶V $ ¶V $ ¶V $
3. (d) E=- i- j- k 6. (b) It consists of two capacitors in parallel,
¶x ¶y ¶z
2 Î0 A
ˆ ˆ ˆ therefore, the total capacitance is =
= -[(6 - 8y)i + (-8x - 8 + 6z) j + (6y)k] d
r
At (1, 1, 1), E = 2i$ + 10j$ - 6k
$ + + + +
+ + + +
r 2 2 2 – – – –
Þ (E) = 2 + 10 + 6 = 140 = 2 35 – – – –
r +A – – – – –B
\ F = qE = 2 ´ 2 35 = 4 35 – – – –
+ + + +
Q + + + +
4. (c) Capacitance of the capacitor, C = (The plates of B, having negative charge do not
V constitute a capacitor).
After inserting the dielectric, new capacitance
P-S- 56 PHYSICS
17 Current Electricity
Fill in the Blanks 2. (c)

V 3. (d) Arrange the resistors in all possible combinations
1. Potential ,V ; Vd = and get the number of combinations as ten with
rlne nine different values. The combinations can be all
V 4 in series, all 4 in parallel, 3 in series with 1 in
2. R= parallel, 3 in parallel with 1 in series etc.
I 4. (d) The circuit can be redrawn as and f in a lly
3. Negligible temperature co-efficient of resistance
4. high 3
R AB = R
n 5
5. , Internal resistance = r, External resistance =
n +1 A
R
B A
R
nr. R
Let terminal voltage = V R R R 2
Er
then V = E - Ir Þ V = E - B
(n + 1)r
3R/2
nE V n
V= Þ =
n +1 E n +1 A R B
6. Charge 5. (a) As we know that resistance varies with
7. remain unchanged temperature as
1 R = R0 [1 + at]
8. Conductance; s= Ist Case : 5 = R0 [1 + a(50)] ....(I)
R IInd Case : 7 = R0 [1 + a(100)] .....(II)
9. Increasing .
True/ False 5 1 + 50a
Divide (I) by (II), =
1. True 2. False 7 1 + 100a
r 5 + 500 a = 7 + 350 a
3. False; microscopic form of ohm’s law is J = sE
4. True, When resistances are connected in series the 2
150 a = 2 Þ a = = 0.001 /°C
same current flows through each resistance. 150
5. False ; Same current through all resistors in series. 6. (b) The circuit can be drawn as :
6. True, R
7. False, The order of magnitude of current in lightening
is very high approx 10,000 of amperes. P Q R/2
P Q
Conceptual MCQs R
R R
1. (b) Given : Length of wire (l) = 15m
Area (A) = 6 × 10–7 m2
2R
Resistance (R) = 5W. 2R/5 Q
P
We know that resistance of the wire material
l 2R
R=r \ R PQ = .
A 5
15 ER
Þ 5 = r´ = 2.5 ´ 10 7 r 7. (a) Here E > , hence the lengths 110 cm and
6 ´ 10 -7 R+r
5 100 cm are interchanged.
Þr= = 2 ´ 10 -7 W - m
2.5 ´ 10 7 Without being short-circuited through R, only
[where r = coefficient of resistivity] the battery E is balanced.
Solutions P-S- 57
V V GS VG 25 ´ 10 -3
E= ´ l1 = ´ 110.....(i) = =
L L G+ S I 25
V GS
When R is connected across E, Ri = ´ l2 = 0.001W
L G+S
Here S << G so
æ E ö V S = 0.001 W
or, R ç = ´ 100.....(ii)
è R + r ÷ø L 12. (d) Copper is a metal whereas Germanium is semi-
conductor.
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b)
rl
R + r 110 i2 2
i2 R
= pr
=
R 100 17. (a) H=
2 p rl 2 prl
or, 100 R + 100 r = 110 R
1
or, 10 R = 100 r or H µ
r3
10R 10 ´ 10 18. (a) Kirchhoff ' s first law deals with conservation
\ r= = (\ R = 10W) of electrical charge & the second law deals with
100 100
conservation of electrical energy.
Þ r = 1W. 19. (a) In conductors, the charge carriers are free
8. (a) Power maximum when r = R. electrons.
So, power consumed by it will decrease for R > r. V2 (V / 2) 2
20. (c) H= t= t'
P R r
\ t ' = 4t
V 2 V '2
21. (c) P= =
R R'
22. (c) Power = V . I = I2R
Power 2 1 1
i2 = = = = A
R 8 4 2
R 1
Potential over 8W = Ri 2 = 8 ´ = 4V
r=R 2
9. (a) In a Wheatstone bridge, the deflection in the This is the potential over parallel branch. So,
galvanometer does not change if the battery and 4
galvanometer are interchanged. i1 = = 1A
4
10. (d) In parallel combination, potential drop across Power of 3W = i12R = 1 × 1 × 3 = 3W
each resistance is same. 23. (a) Current I = 2E/(R + r1 + r2).
V2
Heat developed =
R l
1. (d) As we know, resistance R = r . The resistance
V2 V2 V2 A
H1 = , H2 = , H3 = of conductor l is given by
R 2R 3R
\ Heat developed in resistance R is maximum. l R æ l ö
RI = r = ç where R = r ÷
11. (a) Galvanometer is converted into ammeter, by 3A 3 è Aø
connected a shunt, in parallel with it.
2l
G Similarly, RII = r = 2R
I
A
3l 3
and RIII = r = R
2A 2
From this we conclude that RII > RIII > RI. Since
S in parallel combination of resistances current
P-S- 58 PHYSICS
distributes in inverse ratio of resistances, no current in the conductor. In the presence of
therefore i2 < i3 < i1 electric field, each electron in the conductor
2. (c) The resistivity of semiconductor decreases with experience a force in a direction opposite to the
increase in temperature. electric field. Now the free electrons are
accelerated from negative and to the positive
E E
3. (c) I= = end of the conductor and hence a current starts
R + r ( R - r )2 + 2 R r to flow from the conductor.
I is maximum when R = r 4. (a) We know that V = IR
l
P = I 2 R , when I is max, P is also max. Since R = r
A
Pmax = I 2max R . Therefore V = I r
l
… (i)
4. (b) If we apply Kirchhoff’s loop rule to the loop A
BCDEB in clockwise direction the changes in I
potential across R3 and R4 are negative. Therefore
Now = j is the current density..
A
i3 R3 and i3 R4 should have negative sign. But Therefore eq. (i) becomes
for this clockwise direction we are moving in a
V
direction opposite to i2 across R2. Current flows V = j rl or = jr
from higher potential to lower potential but we l
are moving from lower potential to higher V
Now = E , where E is magnitude of electric
potential i.e., potential is increasing. So the l
change in potential is positive. Therefore i2 R2 field.
has positive sign. Therefore E = jr … (ii)
5. (b) The working principle of meter bridge is r
Current density j is also a vector which is
R l r
= … (i) directed along E . Therefore the relation (ii) can
S 100 - l r r
also be written in vector form E = r j .
When S' is connected in parallel with S we obtain
equivalent resistance Seq of S and S' which is 5. (a) When temperature increases the random motion
less than S. Thus if the value of denominator of of electrons and vibration of ions increases which
L.H.S. of eq. (i) decreases then value of results in more frequent collisions of electrons
denominator of R.H.S. of eq. (i) also decreases. with the ions. Due to this the average time
For this to happen the null point shifts to the between the successive collisions, denoted by
right of D. t, decreases which increases r.
6. (d) In balance condition, since no current flows 6. (b) On increasing temperature of wire the kinetic
through the galvanometer therefore B and D are energy of free electrons increase and so they
at the same potential. collide more rapidly with each other and hence
Assertion/ Reason their drift velocity decreases. Also when
temperature increases, resistivity increases
1. (d) We call those quantities as vector quantities and resistivity is inversely proportional to
which have magnitude and direction and obey conductivity of material.
laws of vector addition. Though current has
magnitude as well as direction but it does not I
obey laws of vector addition. Hence it is not a 7. (a) Resistance wire R = r , where r is
A
vector quantity. resistivity of material which does not depend
2. (d) A diode does not obey Ohm’s law while a resistor on the geometry of wire. Since when wire is
obeys. But the equation V = IR can be applied bent resistivity, length and area of cross-
to both. In fact the equation V = IR can be applied section do not change, therefore resistance of
to all the conducting devices whether they obey wire also remain same.
Ohm’s law or not. So V = IR is not a statement 8. (a) If either e.m.f. of the driver cell or potential
of Ohm’s law. Ohm’s law states that V is directly difference across the whole potentiometer
proportional to I i.e.. V µ I. The proportionality wire is lesser than the e.m.f. of then
sign is changed to equality sign in the equation V experimental cell, then balance point will not
= IR with R as constant of proportionality know obtained.
as resistance of conductor. Thus the equation V 9. (c) The resistance of the galvanometer is flexed.
= IR defines resistance. In meter bridge experiments, to protect the
3. (c) Before the presence of electric field, the free galvanometer from a high current, high
electrons move randomly in the conductor, so resistance is conneted to the galvanometer in
their drift velocity is zero and therefore there is order to protect it from damage.
Solutions P-S- 59
Matching Based Questions 5. (c) At steady state the capacitor will be fully charged
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) and thus there will be no current in the 1W
5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) resistance. So the effective circuit becomes
2W
1. (a) Current flowing through the conductor, I1
I = n e v A. Hence A B
I2 3W
2
4 nevd1 p(1) vd 4 ´ 1 16
= or 1 = = .
1 nevd p(2)2 vd 2 1 1 I
2
2. (b) Rt = R0 (1 + at)
Initially, R0 (1 + 30a) = 10 W 6V 2.8W
Finally, R0 (1 + at) = 11 W Net current from the 6V battery,
11 1 + at 6 6 3
\ = I= = = = 1.5A
10 1 + 30a æ 2 ´ 3 ö 2.8 1.2 + 2.8 2
ç ÷+
or, 10 + (10 × 0.002 × t) = 11 + 330 × 0.002 è 2+3ø 1
or, 0.02t = 1 + 0.66 = 1.066 or Between A and B, voltage is same in both
1.66 resistances, 2I1 = 3I 2
t= = 83°C.
0.02 where I1 + I 2 = I = 1.5
rl l Þ 2I1 = 3(1.5 - I1 ) Þ I1 = 0.9A
3. (c) R= or R µ .
2 2 6. (b) At Null point
( p D / 4) D
Rx l D y2 ly / 2 D y2 2 X 10W
= x ´ = ´ =
R y Dx 2 l y (D y / 2) 2 l y 1
2e
4. (a) I=
R + R1 + R 2 A B
52 cm 48 cm
R1 R2 X 10
I =
l1 l 2
Here l1 = 52 + End correction = 52 + 1
= 53 cm
l 2 = 48 + End correction = 48 + 2 = 50 cm
R X 10 53
\ = \X = = 10.6W
Pot. difference across second cell 53 50 5
= V = e - IR 2 = 0
2e 7. (a) Potential gradient
e = .R2 = 0
R + R1 + R 2
VA - VB i ´ r 0.1 ´ 10-7
R + R1 + R 2 - 2R 2 = 0 = = =
l A 10-6
R + R1 - R 2 = 0 \ R = R 2 - R1
= 10 -2 V / m
P-S- 60 PHYSICS
18 Moving Charges and Magnetism
Fill in the Blanks 5. (a) Disc behaves like made up of coils arranged in a
1. Biot-Savart’s Law plane in which current is flowing in anticlockwise
2. Compress, due to the force of attraction between two direction.
adjacent coils carrying current in the same direction.
3. Magnetic Field
mv2 Þ r = mv
4. Momentum, Bqv =
r Bq
Þ r µ mv Hence, the field at A is directed into the page.
5. Zero, F = q v B sin 0° = 0 6. (d) The magnetic force acting on the charged
Cq paraticle is given by
r r r
6. i=
NAB
Þ iµ q
(
F = q v× B )
7. t max = NiAB, t = MB sin q Þ [ q = 90°]
8. Helmholtz coils = (–2× 10–6) [{2iˆ + 3j)
ˆ ´ 106 } ´ (2ˆj)]
r r
9. m´ B ˆ
= –4(2k)
True/ False
1. True 2. True = –8kˆ
3. False, It is based on the principle of \ Force is of 8N along – z-axis.
electromagnetism. r Ù
4. True 7. (a) The direction of B is along ( - k )
5. False, If charge is not moving then the magnetic \ The magnetic force
force is zero.
ur r ur F = Q( v ´ B) = Q( vî ) ´ B( - k̂ ) = QvBĵ
Since F m = q (v ´ B ) r
r Þ F is along OY..
As v = 0, for stationary charge 8. (d) Magnetic moment, m = IA
ur
\ Fm = 0 qv qvR é q 2pR ù
= (pR 2 ) = Q I = and T =
6. False 7. True 2pR 2 êë T v úû
Conceptual MCQs 9. (a) If the electric field is switched off, and the same
r ur magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move in
1. (d) Both v and B are perpendicular to plane of parallel
r r ur a circular orbit and electron will travel a magnetic
wires. \ F = q(v ´ B) = zero. field ^ to its velocity..
2. (a) Both due to 20A (P) as well as 60 A (R), the force 10. (a) Rg = 50W, Ig = 25 × 4 × 10–4W = 10–2 A
on Q is towards left.
r Range of V = 25 volts
pm q
3. (c) r = V = Ig(R e + Rg)
L 2m
r m 0 vr ´ rr V
4. (a) Since =
B q r r
, v ´ r must be same
\ Re = - R g = 2450W
4p r3 Ig
r
where v = velocity of charge with respect to R
observer
Let A and B are the observes A B
r r r r r r
then (vC - vA ) ´ r = (vC - vB ) ´ r
r r r r r r Ig Re Rg
or (vA - v B ) ´ r = 0 or (vA - v B ) || r
Solutions P-S- 61
11. (b) The current is same in both the wire, hence proportional to the distance r from the centre for r
magnetic field induced will be same. < R and outside the conductor proportional to 1/r.
12. (b) Force on a particle moving with velocity v in a 20. (b) Field due to one side of loop at
m0I
magnetic field B is F = q ( v ´ B) O= (2 sin 45°)
r æ aö
r 4p ç ÷
If angle between v & B is either zero or 180º, è 2ø
r
then value of F will be zero as cross product of v Field at O due to all four sides is along unit
r
and B will be zero. vector ê z
13. (d) When the deflection produced by electric field is I a
equal to the deflection produced by magnetic
field, then the electron can go undeflected.
45° 45°
m i I I
B = 0 and so it is independent of thickness.
2pr O
14. (a) Magnetic moment linked with one tu rn
= iA
I
Magnetic moment linked with N turn
= iNA amp-m2. Here, A = Area of current loop.
m0 I 2 2m0 I
15. (b) t = mB sinq \ Total field = 4. (2 sin 45°) =
æ ö
a pa
t = iAB sin90º 4p ç ÷
è2ø
A Diagram Based Questions
µ0 I q m 0 Iq
l 1. (a) B= ´ =
l 2r 2p 4pr
m0 IdI sin q
l/2 l/2 2. (c) dB =
B C 4p r 2
Here, dI = Dx = 0.05 m, I = 10 A, r = 1 m
t sinq = sin 90° = 1,
\ A= ; Also, A = 1/2 (BC) (AD)
iB
10 ´ 0.05 ´ 1
\ dB = 10–7 ×
1 1 ælö
2
3 2 (1) 2
But (BC)(AD) = (l ) l 2 - ç ÷ = l
2 2 è2ø 4 = 0.50 × 10–7 = 5.0 × 10–8 T
3. (c) Since n is an even number, we can assume the
1 wires in pairs such that the two wires forming a
3 2 t æ t ö2 pair is placed diametrically opposite to each
Þ (l ) = \ l = 2ç ÷
4 Bi ç 3 B.i ÷ other on the surface of cylinder. The fields
è ø produced on the axis by them are equal and
opposite and can get cancelled with each other.
m0 In
16. (a) B = Add vectorially r r
2 pa 4. (d) Since P.E. = – m × B = -mB cos 0°
17. (b) Use the expression for magnetic field due to a \ P.E. = –mB
current carrying straight conductor and r
Since m increases in magnitude, therefore P.E.
B1 - B2 I1 - I2 decreases.
=
B1 + B2 I1 + I2 5. (d) Obviously gravitational and electric force is
there as both the particle have mass and charge.
18. (c) Potential energy is given by U = – mB
19. (b) Using Ampere’s law and noting that the steady Since both charges are in motion so they
current is uniformly distributed over the cross constitute currents which generate magnetic
section of the conductor, the magnetic field is fields around them and thus exert magnetic force
on each other.
P-S- 62 PHYSICS
Assertion/ Reason
m I m I
1. (d) Ampere’s circuital law can be derived from Biot- B= 0 = 0
Savart law and is not independent of Biot-Savart 2pr l
law. l
2. (a) Magnetic field at the centre of circular loop is 2nd Case : l = 2(2pr ¢) Þ r ¢ =
given by 4p
m 0i m 0 In 2m I
B= , as R ® ¥ , and so B ® 0 . B¢ = = 0 (where n = 2)
2R l l
3. (a) Reversing the direction of the current reverses 2p
the direction of the magnetic field. However, it 4p 2
has no effect on the magnetic-field energy on putting the value of B
density, which is proportional to the square of æ m0I ö
the magnitude of the magnetic field. Þ B¢ = 4ç ÷ = 4B
r r è l ø
4. (c) Due to electric field, the force is F = qE in the r r
r r r 3. (b) Here, E and B are perpendicular to each other
direction of E . Since E is parallel to B , the r
r r and the velocity v does not change; therefore
particle velocity v (acquired due to force F ) is
r r qE = qvB Þ v =
E
parallel to B . Hence B will not exert any force B
r r r ur ur
since v ´ B = 0 and the motion of the particle
r If velocity v is ^ r to both E and B ,
is not affected by B . Also,
r r r r
5. (c) We know that, Ñò B.d l = m 0iin . Since iin = 0 and E´B E Bsin q E B sin 90° E r
r r = = = = |v| = v
2 2 2 B
so Ñò B.d l = 0 . The magnetic field on any point B B B
4. (a) Let l1, l2 be the lengths of the two parts PRQ and
on the close loop is zero.
PSQ of the conductor and r be the resistance per
6. (c) In case of two electron streams the electric
unit length of the conductor. The resistance of the
repulsion is greater than magnetic attraction.
portion PRQ will be R1 = l1 r
7. (d) The value of torque depends on q. For q = 0, t =
MBx I2
sin 0° = 0.
8. (d) The frequency of revolution is given by
qB S O Q
n= , hence Statement I is false and II is
2 pm
R
true.
P I1
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (b) The resistance of the portion PSQ will be R 2 =
Critical Thinking Type Questions l2 r
1. (c) From Ampere circuital law Pot. diff. across P and Q = I1 R1 = I2 R2
ur uur
Ñò B.dI = m 0 I enc or I1 l1 r = I2 l2 r or I1 l1 = I2 l2 ...(1)
Magnetic field induction at the centre O due to
B × 2pR = m0Ienc currents through circular conductors PRQ and
m 0 I enc 75 PSQ will be
B= = 2 × 10–7 × = 5 × 10–6 T = B 1 – B2
2pR 3
The direction of field at the given point will m 0 I1l1 sin 90º m 0 I 2 l 2 sin 90º
be vertical up determined by the screw rule or = - = 0.
right hand rule. 4p r2 4p r2
2. (b) Let l be length of wire m v2 m v (9 ´ 10 -31 ) ´ 10 6
5. (c) Bqv = or B = =
l r rq 0.1 ´ (1.6 ´ 10 -19 )
Ist case : l = 2pr Þ r =
2p
= 5.5 ´10-5 T
Solutions P-S- 63
m 0 2pi Ιg R g 10-5 ´ 100

6. (c) B= where S= = = 10 -3 W in parallel
4p r I - Ig 1 - 10 -5
-19
2e 2 ´ 1.6 ´10 8. (c) Magnetic dipole moment
i= = = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 A e e erv
t 2 m = iA = ´ pr 2 = ´ pr 2 = .
T (2 pr / v) 2
m 0 i m 0 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
\ B= = = m 0 ´ 10 -19 T 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 50 ´ 10 -12 ´ 2.2 ´ 10 6
2r 2 ´ 0.8 =
2
7. (b) Here, Rg = 100 W; Ig = 10–5 A; I =1A; S = ?
= 8.8 ´ 10-24 Am2 .
19 Magnetism and Matter

Fill in the Blanks 3. (d) Torque, t = MB sin q
1. Dipole t 0.032
Þ M= =
0.16 ´ sin 30o
2. South pole to north pole B sin q
3. 90°
4. magnetic susceptibility 0.032 ´ 2
5. Ferromagnetic substance = = 0.4 J / T
0.16 ´ 1
6. Paramagnetic
7. Small and negative 2M M B1
4. (c) B1 = 3 , B2 = 3 ; \ = 2 :1
8. ferromagnetic material become diamagnetic d d B 2
9. Magnetic equator
5. (a) 6. (a)
True/ False
V V tan q¢ 1
1. True 2. True 7. (a) tan q = , tan q¢ = ; =
3. False, We cannot isolate the North or South-pole of H H cos x tan q cos x
a magnet. If a bar magnet is broken into two halves,
8. (c) H
we get two similar bar magnets with somewhat
weaker strengths. q
4. False, Domain theory is for ferromagnetic substance.
5. False, A paramagnetic material tends to move from ®
a weak magnetic field to strong magnetic field. B V
6. True 7. True Horizontal component of earth’s field,
8. False, Same angle of declination. H = Bcos q , since, q = 60°
Conceptual MCQs
1. (c) We know that when a bar magnet is placed in the 1 -5
magnetic field at an angle q, then torque acting on 3.6 ´10-5 = B ´ Þ B = 7.2 ´ 10 Tesla
the bar magnet
2
9. (a) The torque acting on the magnet of magnetic
(t) = MB sin q = M ´ B . moment M, when held at angle q to magnetic
Note : This torque t has a tendency to make the field B, t = MBsin q
axis of the magnet parallel to the direction of the
magnetic field. t = MB = 10 -5 Nm.
I1 + I2 I t = MB sin 30° = 0.5 ´ 10 -5 Nm.

2. (c) T1 = 2p = 2p = 5 × 10–6 Nm
(M + 2M) H 3MH 10. (c)
11. (d) Above Curie Temperature, a ferromagnetic
I1 + I2 I substance becomes paramagnetic.
T2 = 2p = 2p 12. (c) The net energy dissipated per unit volume of the
-
(2M M) H MH material during a complete cycle of magnetisation
Obviously, T2 > T1 is equal to area of B.H curve.
P-S- 64 PHYSICS
13. (b) The iron can produces a magnetic screening for Therefore distance between poles
the equipment as lines of magnetic force can not
enter iron enclosure. l
14. (a) = ( l 2 ) 2 + ( l 2 )2 =
2
15. (a) A ® diamagnetic B ® paramagnetic
C ® Ferromagnetic D ® Non magnetic ml M
16. (b) t = MB sinq
A So, M' = =
2 2
t = iAB sin90º
l 2. (b) The field is entering into the surface so flux is
t l
negative.
\ A=
iB 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
l/2 l/2 Assertion/ Reason
Also, A = 1/2 (BC) (AD) B C
D
l 1. (b) When a magnet is cut into pieces, each piece
ml M
2 becomes new magnet. M ¢ = = .
But 1 (BC)(AD) = 1 (l ) l 2 ælö 2 2
-ç ÷
2 2 è2ø 2. (d) Magnetic field of earth is due to moving charged
particles in the atmosphere. With increase in
3 2 temperature, the magnetic moment of magnet
= l decreases.
4 3. (a) Because of high permeability of the iron, the
3 2 t entire magnetic field will pass through iron, and
Þ (l ) = so rest space becomes free from magnetic field.
4 Bi 4. (c) Sensitivity of galvanometer,
1 q tan q
æ t ö2 s= ;
\ l = 2ç ÷ i i
ç 3 B.i ÷
è ø m0 N
= .
17. (a) The magnetic dipole moment of diamagnetic 2 RBH
material is zero as each of its pair of electrons
If a magnetic material is placed inside coil of
have opposite spins, i.e., md = 0. galvanometer, then
Paramagnetic substances have dipole moment >
0, i.e. mp ¹ 0, because of excess of electrons in its mr m0 N
s¢ = .
molecules spinning in the same direction. 2 RBH
Ferro-magnetic substances are very strong 5. (b) A magnetic field is produced by the motion of
magnets and they also have permanent magnetic electric charge. Since motion is relative, the
moment, i.e. mf ¹ 0. magnetic field is also relative.
MH 6. (c) The susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance
18. (b) t = MH sin q = MH sin 30° = decreases with the rise of temperature in a
2
complicated manner. After Curies point in the
tan f susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance varies
19. (b) tan f ' = ; where f ' = Apparent angle of inversely with its absolute tempearture.
cos b
Ferromagnetic substance obey’s Curie’s law only
dip, above its Curie point.
f = True angle of dip, b = Angle made by 7. (d) A paramagnetic sample display greater
vertical plane with magnetic meridian. magnetisation when cooled, this is because at
lower temperature, the tendency to disrupt the
tan 60° alignment of dipoles (due to magnetising field)
Þ tan f ' = = 2 Þ f ' = tan -1 (2)
cos 30° decreases on account of reduced random thermal
20. (b) Electromagnet should be amenable to motion.
magnetisation & demagnetization. 8. (b) Electromagnets are magnets, which can be turnd
\ retentivity should be low & coercivity should on and off by switching the current on and off.
be low As the material in electromagnets is subjected
Diagram Based Questions to cyclic changes (magnification and
demangetisation), the hysteresis loss of the
1. (b) Magnetic moment, M = ml material must be small. The material should
M attain high value of I and B with low value of
= m , where m is the polestrength. magnetising field intensity H. As soft iron has
l
Solutions P-S- 65
small coercivity, so it is a best choice for this

I
purpose. T2 = 2p MBH … (ii)
Matching Based Questions 2
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) Using equations (i) and (ii) , and substituting
Critical Thinking Type Questions the values, we get
T2 = 0.076 s
M1 T22 + T12 62 + 42 52 Here, H = 2 × 103 A m–1, B = 8p T,
1. (c) = = = = ( 2.6 ) :1 5. (c)
M 2 T22 - T12 62 - 42 20 m0 = 4p × 107
2. (a) Here, m mH B
Since mr = = =
6 m0 m0 H m0 H
2 l = 8 cm , l = 4 cm , d = = 3 cm .
2 8p
At neutral point, = -7 = 104
4p´10 ´ 2 ´103
m0 M m C
H= B= 6. (b) According to Curie's law, cm =
0
4 p (d + l 2 )3 / 2
2
T
where C is Curie constant, T = temperature
M M
= 10 - 7 = 1
(5 ´ 10 - 2 ) 3 1250 \ cma
T
cm1 T2 273 + 333 606
\ M = 1250 H = 1250 ´ 3.2 ´ 10 -5 Am 2 = = = =2
c m2 T1 273 + 30 303
M 1250 ´ 3.2 ´ 10 -5
m= =
( )
A m.
2l 8 ´ 10 -2 \ cm2 = cm1 / 2 = 0.5cm = 0.5 c. Q cm1 = c
1
1 7. (d) The bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 103 Am–1
i.e.,
= 0.5 Am = 0.5 ´ ab amp ´ 100 cm
10 it requires a magnetic intensity H = 4 × 10 3
= 5 ab-amp cm. Am –1 to get demagnetised. Let i be the current
carried by solenoid having n number of turns
60 60 per metre length, then by definition H = ni.
3. (d) Here, T1 = = 5 s, T2 = = 15 s
12 4 Here, H = 4 × 103 Am–1
M1 T22 + T12 152 + 5 2 250 5 N 60

n= = = 500 turn metre–1
= = = = l 0.12
M 2 T22 - T12 15 2 - 52 200 4
H 4 ´ 103
T Þ i= = = 8A
4. (a) We know that T1 = 2p MBH … (i) n 500
1
8. (a) The torque acting on the magnet of magnetic
Where BH1 = 24 ´ 10-6 T moment M, when held at angle q to magnetic
The magnetic field produced by, wire field B, t = MBsin q
µ0 i (18)
B= . –7
= (2 ´ 10 ) ´ = 1.8 ´ 10-6 T t = MB = 10 -5 Nm.
2p r 0.20
Now BH 2 = BH1 + B = 42 × 10–6 T t = MB sin 30° = 0.5 ´ 10 -5 Nm.
= 5 × 10–6 Nm
P-S- 66 PHYSICS
20 Electromagnetic Induction
Fill in the Blanks 8. True, By inserting iron rod in the coil,

L z I ¯ so brightness ¯
1. Electromagnetic induction Conceptual MCQs
1 2 1. (c) Given: current I = 2.5 A
2. Faradays’ law 3. Energy 4. LI Inductance, L = 5H
2
Magnatic flux, f = ?
5. West to east
We know, f = LI Þ 5 × 2.5 Wb = 12.5 Wb
6. Mechanical energy into electrical energy 2. (b) As number of turns are quadrupled, the induced
7. Self induction 8. Eddy current emf will increase four times. Also, resistance of
coil increases sixteen times. Hence power
True/ False
æ V2 ö
1. True. A copper wire consists of billions and billions of
free electrons. When the wire is at rest, the average
çè R ÷ø will not change.
velocity of each electron is zero. But when the wire is 3. (d) Induced emf, E = NABw sin wt
in motion, the electrons have a net velocity in the
direction of motion.
Þ max emf (sin wt = 1)
A charged particle moving in a magnetic field Emax = NABw
r r ur If w' = 2w then
experiences a force given by F = q( n ´ B). E' = 2Emax
Here also each electron experiences a force and 4. (a) When coil is rotated about the diament, the flux
therefore, electrons will move towards one end creating will change. In other cases no flux will change.
an emf between the two ends of a straight copper 5. (b) Mutual Inductor of two coils
wire. M= M1 M 2 = 2mh ´ 8mh = 4mH
2. False : For induced emf to develop in a coil, the
magnetic flux through it must change. 6. (c) L = 2mH, i = t2e–t
But in this case the number of magnetic lines of force di
through the coil is not changing. Therefore the E= -L = - L[- t 2 e - t + 2 te - t ]
statement is false.
dt
when E = 0,
3. True : When conduction rod AB
–e–t t2 + 2te–t = 0 or,
moves parallel to x-axis B 2t e–t = e–t t2
in a uniform magnetic Fm – –
Þ t = 2 sec.
field pointing in the
positive z-direction, then e v di d(i 0 sin wt )
according to Fleming’s 7. (b) e = -M = - 0.005´
dt dt
left hand rule, the = –0.005 × i0 ×(w cos wt)
electrons will experience + +
A
a force towards B. Hence, e max . = 0.005 ´ i 0 ´ w (when cos wt = –1)
the end A will become = 0.005 × 10 × 100p = 5p V
positive. 8. (c) Initial current (I1 ) = 10 A; Final current
4. False, When the current is decreasing at a steady rate (I2)= 0; Time (t) = 0.5 sec and induced e.m.f.
then the change in the flux (decreasing inwards) on (e) = 220 V.
Induced e.m.f. (e)
the right half of the wire is equal to the change in flux
(decreasing outwards) on the left half of the wire such dI (I - I ) (0 - 10)
=-L = -L 2 1 = -L = 20L
that Df through the circular loop is zero. dt t 0.5
5. True
220
6. False, Relative motion between the magnet and the coil or, L = = 11H
is responsible for current induction in the coil.
20
[where L = Self
7. False inductance of coil]
Solutions P-S- 67
1 1 æ - df ö dq
9. (c) q = ò idt = ò edt = ò ç ÷ dt But i =
R R è dt ø dt
1
Rò
= df (taking only magnitude of e) dq 1 dφ 1 BA
Þ = Þ ò dq= ò dφ Þ q=
Hence, total charge induced in the conducting dt R dt R R
loop depend upon the total change in magnetic 1 1
flux. 18. (c) E = Li 2 = ´ (100 ´ 10-3 ) ´ 12 = 0.05 J
2 2
Df 19. (d)
10. (c) = e = iR Þ Df = (iDt )R = QR
Dt
20. (a) For a current to induce in the cylindrical
Df
ÞQ= conducting rod.
R (i) The cylindrical rod should cut magnetic
lines of force which will happen only
df dB A dB
11. (a) Induced e.m.f. e = = = A0 when the cylindrical conducting rod is
dt dt dt moving. Since conducting rod is at rest,
no current will be induced.
æ 4 B 0 - B0 ö
=A 0 ç ÷ =3 A 0 B 0 / t
è t ø
12. (d) Since the magnetic field is uniform the flux f
B
through the square loop at any time t is constant,
because
f = B × A = B × L2 = constant
df
\ e=- = zero
dt –
-3
e v=0
13. (c) e = (5 ´10 ) (1 / 0.1) = 0.05 V .
14. (d) Total resistance of the circuit = 4000 + 400
= 4400 W
V 440
Current flowing i = = = 0.1 amp.
R 4400 (ii) The magnitude / direction of the magnetic
Voltage across load = R i = 4000 × 0.1 field changes. A changing magnetic field
will create an electric field which can
= 400 volt. apply force on the free electrons of the
conducting rod and a current will get
di é (3 - 2) ù induced.
15. (b) e=L or 2 = L ê ú
dt ë 10 -3 û But since the magnetic field is constant,
no current will be induced.
-3 Diagram Based Questions
2×10
\ L= =2mH. 1. (b) The charge through the coil = area of current-
1 time (i – t) graph
16. (a) Change in flux = 2 B A N
\ Induced e.m.f. 1
q= ´ 0.1 ´ 4 = 0.2 C
2
2 ´ 0.3 ´ 200 ´ 70 ´10 -4 Df
= = 8.4v q= Q Change in flux (Df) = q × R
0.1 R
17. (b) The individual emf produced in the coil
Df
- df q = 0.2 =
e= 10
dt Df = 2 weber
\ The current induced will be
2. (d) f = BA cos q = 2.0 ´ 0.5 ´ cos 60º
|e| 1 df
i= Þi= 2.0 ´ 0.5
R R dt = = 0.5 weber.
2
P-S- 68 PHYSICS
3. (c) In this situation, the bar magent experiences a
df
repulsive force due to the induced current. e=- = -(20 t - 50)
Therefore, a person has to do work in moving dt
the magnet.
e t = 3 = -10 V
4. (d) When electron approaches nearby the loop flux
inside loop will increase and when electron r r
recedes from the loop the flux inside loop 2. (b) j = B.A f = BA cos wt
decreases and so current change in direction.
df wBA
5. (d) e=- = wBA sin wt ; i = sin wt
6. (d) Rate of decreasing of area of semicircular ring
dt R
dA 2
æ wBA ö
= = (2r)v Pinst = i 2 R = ç 2
÷ ´ R sin wt
dt è R ø
From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
T
dq dA
e= -
dt
= -B
dt
= - B(2rv) ò Pinst ´ dt
Pavg = 0
T
ò dt
0
T
As induced current in ring produces magnetic field
ò sin
2
in upward direction hence R is at higher potential. wtdt
2
(wBA) 0
Assertion/ Reason =
R T
1. (c) Emf will always induces whenever, there is
change in magnetic flux. The current will induced ò dt
only in closed loop. 0
2. (c) In purely resistive circuit, the current and emf

are in the same phase. (wBA) 2 æ T ö
= çè ÷.
3. (a) Lenz's law (that the direction of induced emf is R 2.T ø
always such as to oppose the change that cause
it) is direct consequence of the law of 2 2
(ωBπr )
conservation of energy. \ Pavg =
2R
4. (a) When switch is closed , the magnetic flux through
the ring will increase and so ring will move away 3. (a) Here, r = 6 cm = 6 × 10–2 m, N = 20, w = 40
form the solenoil so as to compensate this flux. rads–1
This is according to Lenz's law. B = 2 × 10–2 T, R = 8W
5. (b) In both the cases, the magnetic flux will change, Maximum emf induced, e = NABw
and so there is an induced current. = N(pr2)Bw
6. (a) In the given case, there is no component of = 20 × p × (6 × 10–2) 2 × 10–2 × 40 = 0.18
velocity, perpendicular to the magnetic field and V
so e = Bvl sin 0°.
Average value of emf induced over a full cycle
7. (b) 8. (b)
eav = 0
Maximum value of current in the coil.
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c)
Critical Thinking Type Questions eI 0.18
I = = = 0.023 A
R 8
1. (b) f = 10t 2 - 50t + 250 Average power dissipated,
Solutions P-S- 69
eI 0.18 ´ 0.023 df 2.4 ´ 10 -5

P = = = 2.07 × 10–3 W =N = 100 ´ = 0.048 V.
2 2 dt 0.05
4. (b) ur ur
df d(NB.A)
B = m 0 n i= (4 p ´ 10 -7 ) (200 ´10 -2 ) ´1.5 5. (d) e=- =-
dt dt
= 3.8 × 10–2 Wb / m2
Magnetic flux through each turn of the coil d
= -N ( BA cos wt ) = NBAw sin wt
dt
f = BA = (3.8 × 10–2) (3.14 × 10–4)
= 1.2 × 10–5 weber Þ e max = NBAw
When the current in the solenoid is reversed, the 6. (a) Nf = LI
change in magnetic flux
LI 8 ´ 10 -3 ´ 5 ´10 -3
-5
= 2 ´ (1.2 ´ 10 ) = 2.4 ´10 -5
weber \ f= =
N 400
Induced e.m.f.
-7 m
= 10 = 0 Wb
4p
21 Alternating Current
Fill in the Blanks Ιs n p

2. (c) = ; 80 = 20 or Ι = 4 amp.
Eo Ιp ns Ιp 1
p
1. 500 v , Erms = 2. Heating
2 3. (a) 4. (b)
3. r.m.s current 4. decreases finitely 5. (a) Impedance of circuit is
5. eddy current. 6. mutual induction
7. tank circuit 8. AC circuits only. Z= R 2 + (X L - X C ) 2
True/ False
1. False, 50 Hz in India, 60 Hz in USA. 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a)
2. True 9. (c) In the case of maximum charge on capacitor, the
3. False, Natural frequency of a L-C circuit = whole energy is, stored in capacitor in the form
of electric field which is
1
=
2p LC 1 Q2
U=
4. True 2 C
5. False, The voltage leads the current because When energy in distributed equally between
1 electric and magnetic field , then energy stored
> Lw and if the voltage lags, the inductive in electric field i.e. in capacitor is
Cw
reactance is greater than the capacitive reactance.
6. True 7. True U æç 1 Q 2 ö÷ 1
U1 = =
Conceptual MCQs 2 çè 2 C ÷ø 2
1. (d) Power, P = Ι r.m.s ´ Vr.m.s ´ cos f At that time if charge on capacitor is Q1, then
In the given problem, the phase difference 1 Q12 U 1 Q 2
between voltage and current is p/2. Hence U1 = = = Þ Q1 = Q / 2
2 C 2 4 C
P = Ι r.m.s ´ Vr.m.s ´ cos(p / 2) = 0.
P-S- 70 PHYSICS
drawn from generator
200 2 = IL – IC = 0.9 – 0.4 = 0.5 amp.
10. (d) Vrms = = 200V
2 3. (b) As VL = VC = 300 V, resonance will take place
\ VR = 220 V
200
Vrms 220
Irms = = 1 Current, I = = 2.2 A
X C 100 ´ 10-6 100
= 2 × 10–2 = 20mA \ reading of V3 = 220 V
and reading of A = 2.2 A
11. (d)
Potential drop across capacitor or inductor V
Q= 4. (d) Current, I =
Potential drop across R. Z
5. (c) At resonance X L = X C Þ Z = R & current
wL
= E
R is maximum but finite, which is I max = ,
R
1 where E is applied voltage.
12. (c) The reactance of capacitor X = where w is Assertion/ Reason
wC 1. (b) The means or average value of alternating current
frequency and C is the capacitance of capacitor. or e.m.f during a half cycle is given by
13. (c) Im = 0.636I0 or Em = 0.636E0
14. (d) Draw phase diagram and verify. During the next half cycle, the mean value of ac
15. (b) Time constant is L/R will be equal in magnitude but opposite in
Given, L = 40H & R = 8W direction. For this reason the average value of ac
\ t = 40/8 = 5 sec. over a complete cycle is always zero. So the
1 average value is always defined over a half cycle
16. (a) f= of ac.
2p LC 2. (c) The inductive reactance limits the amplitude of
current in a purely inductive circuit in the same
1 1 1
i.e. f µ ® = way as the resistance limits the current in a
C 4 2 purely resistive circuit.
17. (d) Average power delivered to an a.c. circuit is e0
i.e. I 0 =
P = Ev Iv cos f XL
For resonance 1
P = Ev Iv as cos f = 1 3. (a) As X C = , so for w = 0, X C ® ¥ .
wC
Hence power is maximum when both inductive 4. (a) In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, power
and capacitive reactances are equal, that is circuit factor, cos f = 0 and no power is dissipated
behaves as pure resistor even though a current is flowing in the circuit. In
XL such cases, current is referred to as wattless
18. (d) tan q = current.
R 5. (d) Power in a series ac circuit consisting of L, C
V V and R is given by
19. (d) i = =
z 2 P = IrmsVrms cos f where
æ 1 ö
(wL)2 + ç
è wC ÷ø æ X – XC
f = tan –1 çç L
ö
÷÷
20. (b) Given V = V0 sinwt; i = i0sin(wt – f) è R ø
Here current lays the potential. This can be For a purely resistive circuit XL = 0 and XC = 0
1 Therefore, tan f = 0 or f = 0 and thereby cos f =
possible when XL > XC or wL > . 1 and P = IV.
wC The power is maximum as cos f is maximum.
Diagram Based Questions Power depends on the phase angle through the
power factor cos f.
(T / 2)V0 2 + 0 V 6. (d) The currents in capacitor and in inductor are
1. (b) Vrms = = 0 . opposite and so net current is zero.
T 2 7. (c) In series resonance circuit,
2. (c) The current drawn by inductor and capacitor inductive reactance is equal to capacitive
will be in opposite phase. Hence net current reactance.
Solutions P-S- 71
1
i.e. wL = 1
wC
2 = æ 1ö A
2 Irms = ç ÷
æ 1 ö 2 è 2ø
\ Z = R 2 + ç wL = ÷ =R
è wC ø p 1
8. (a) Transformer cannot produce power, but it cos f = cos =
transfer from primary to secondary. 3 2
9. (d) Large eddy currents are produced in non- 1 1 1 1
laminated iron core of the transformer by the <P>= ´ ´ = W
induced emf, as the resistance of bulk iron core 2 2 2 8
is very small. By using thin iron sheets as core np Ep 1
the resistance is increased. Laminating the core 4. (b) = =
substantially reduces the eddy currents. Eddy ns Es 25
current heats up the core of the transformer.
More the eddy currents greater is the loss of \ E s = 25E p
energy and the efficiency goes down.
But Es Is = E p Ip
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) E S ´ IS
Þ Ip = Þ Ip = 50A
Ep
1. (a) The charging of inductance given by, Es n æn ö
5. (a) = s or E s = E p ´ ç s ÷
æ Ep np ç np ÷
- ö÷
Rt
ç è ø
i = i 0 ç1 - e L ÷
ç ÷ æ 200 ö
è ø \ E s = 120 ´ ç ÷ = 240 V
è 100 ø
Rt Rt
i0 - - 1
= i 0 (1 - e L ) Þ e L = Ιp ns æ np ö
2 2 = or Ι s = Ι p ç ÷
Taking log on both the sides, Ιs np è ns ø
Rt æ 100 ö
- = log 1 - log 2 \ Is = 10 ç ÷ = 5 amp
L è 200 ø
L 300 ´10 -3 1 1
Þ t= log 2 = ´ 0.69 6. (a) As = w2 = or w =
R 2 LC LC
Þ t = 0.1 sec. Maximum energy stored in capacitor
2. (d) For resonant frequency to remain same
LC = constant 1 Q02
=
LC = constant 2 C
As, C ® 4C Let at any instant t, the energy be stored
equally between electric and magnetic field.
L Then energy stored in electric field at instant
\ L®
4 t is
3. (d) The average power in the circuit where cos f =
1 Q 2 1 é 1 Q0 ù
2
power factory = ê ú
< P > = Vrms × Irms cos f 2 C 2 êë 2 C úû
180
f = p/3 = phase difference = = 60 Q02 Q0
3 or Q2 = or Q =
2 2
1 Q0
Þ Q0 coswt =
2 = 1 volt 2
Vrms = p
2 2
or wt =
4
P-S- 72 PHYSICS
But power in secondary of transformer is
p p
or t = = Ps = 100 W
4w 4 ´ (1/ LC ) 100
p LC \ h = = 0.9 = 90%
= 110
4 Vs Is V (6)
7. (a) NP = 400, NS = 2000 and VS = 1000 V.
9. (b) Efficiency h = Þ 0.9 = s
VP N P Vp Ip 3 ´ 103
= of,
VS NS Þ Vs = 450 V
As VpIp = 3000 so
VS ´ N P 1000 ´ 400
VP = = = 200V. 3000 3000
NS 2000 Ip = = A = 15A
8. (d) Power in primary of transformer is Vp 200
P P = Vp.IP = 220 × 0.5
= 110 W
22 Electromagnetic Waves
Fill in the Blanks area = I/c
When wave is fully absorbed by the surface, the
1. Polarization; Polarization is shown by only momentum
transverse waves. of the reflected wave per unit time per unit area
2. Decrease, Current through capacitor, =0
E E Radiation pressure (P) = change in momentum per
I= = = wCE = 2pu CE or I µ u. unit
XC 1
wC DI I I
time per unit area = = –0=
\ decrease in frequency u of ac source decreases c c c
the conduction current. As displacement current 4. False; Energy stored in form of electrical and magnetic.
is equal to conduction current, decrease in u 5. False, Velocity of electromagnetic wave
decreases displacement current in circuit.
3. Maxwell 1
c= 8 –1
1 m0 e0 = 3 × 10 m s
4. c= Velocity of light in a medium, It is independent of amplitude, frequency and
me
wavelength of electromagnetic wave.
1 1 6. False; f micro < f uvrays
c= = 7. True, lmicro > linfrared > lultraviolet > lgamma
m0 eo mr er me Conceptual MCQs
5. ultraviolet rays
1. (b ) Ultraviolet radiation is used in food processing
6. Infrared rays
as sterlizing agent.
7. Infrared rays
2. (a) On comparing the given equation to
True/ False
r
1. True E = a0iˆ cos (wt – kz)
2. False; B-rays are beam of fast moving electrons. w = 6 × 108z,
3. True, Momentum per unit time per unit area
2p w
intensity I k= =
= = r c
speed of wave c
w 6 ´ 108
Change in momentum per unit time per unit area k= = = 2 m -1
= DI/c = radiation pressure (P), i.e. P = DI/c. c 3 ´ 108
Momentum of incident wave per unit time per unit
Solutions P-S- 73
3. ( c) Accelerating charge produces electromagnetic G ® g rays C ® Cosmic rays

radiation which is called Bremstrahlung
radiation. Þ g rays has least wavelength
4. (b) 5. (c) 16. (b) Comparing with the equation of wave.
6. (a) The existence of electromagnetic wave was first Ey = E0 cos (wt – kx)
predicted by Maxwell. w = 2 pf = 2p × 106 \ f = 106 Hz
7. (d) Given Ez= 60sin (kx + wt) V/m. The magnetic field 2p
component must be perpendicular to Ez and x. = k = p × 10–2 m –1, l = 200 m
l
E 0 60
Also B0 = = . Thus o -10 -9
c c 17. (d) l = 10Å = 10 ´ 10 m = 10 m
X- ray wavelength is of the order of 1Å
60
By = sin (kx + wt). 18. (c) Microwave region wavelength = 10 -3 m to1m
c
19. (c) Relation between E 0 and H 0
c 3 ´ 10 8
8. (a) Here, l = = = 36.6 m.
n 8.2 ´ 10 6 Eo 1 m0 e 0
= =
9. (b) Depends on the magnitude of frequency Ho C
10. (a) Size of particle = 2 ×(3 × 10–4) = 6 × 10–4 m.
To observe a particle, the wavelength of i.e. Ho = Eo eo m o
electromagnetic waves must be of the size of 20. (d)
particle. 21. (c)
11. (b) The average energy stored in the electric field
1
1 22. (d) e 0 E 02 is electric energy density..
UE = e0 E 2 2
2
The average energy stored in the magnetic field B2
is magnetic energy density..
1 B2 2m 0
= UB = ,
2 m0 1 B2
According to conservation of energy So, total energy = e 0 E 02 + 0
UE = UB 2 2m 0
B2
e 0m 0 = 1. (c) Light wave is an electromagnetic wave in which
E2 uur uur
E and B are at right angles to each other as
B 1 well as at right angles to the direction of wave
= e 0m0 =
E C propagation.
2. (a) Direction of energy progration of EM-waves is
E 0 9 ´ 10 3 given by
12. (d) B 0 = = = 3 ´ 10 -5 T. r r r
c 3 ´ 10 8 r
D = K ( E ´ B) or –kˆ = K ( E ˆj ´ B )
13. (a) Clearly direction of magnetic field is along
14. (c) b -rays are the beam of fast moving electrons. positive x-axis.
l decreasing r r 2 df
15. (a) ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® 3. (c) Ñò B.d l b - 4ac = m 0 Î0 dt
RMIVUXGC
æ dE ö æ dE ö
R ® Radio waves or B ´ 2 pr = m 0 Î0 A ç \ Bµç
÷
è dt ø è dt ÷ø
M ® Micro waves 4. (a) According to conservation of charge, the
I ® Infra red rays displacement current must be leftward.
V ® Visible rays id
i
U ® Ultraviolet rays X ® X rays
P-S- 74 PHYSICS
Assertion/ Reason Critical Thinking Type Questions
1. (d) Displacement current arises when electric field 1. (d) Id = 1 mA = 10–3 A
in a region is changing with time, which is given C = 2mF = 2 × 10–6 F
by
d dV
d fE ID = IC = (CV) = C
ID = e0 dt dt
dt
It will be so if the charge on a capacitor is not dV I D 10 -3
constant but changing with time. Therefore, = = = 500 Vs–1
2. (a) Transverse waves are those waves in which the
dt C 2 ´ 10-6
particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular Therefore, applying a varying potential
to the direction of wave propagation. difference of 500 V s –1 would produce a
3. (c) Electrormagnetic waves interact with matter via displacement current of desired value.
their electric and magnetic field which in 2. (d) The frequency of electromagnetic wave remains
oscillation of charges present in all matter. The unchanged but the wavelength of electromagnetic
detailed interaction and so the mechanism of wave changes when it passes from one medium
absorption, scattering, etc. depend of the to another.
wavelength of the electromagnetic wave, and the
nature of the atoms and molecules in the 1
medium. c=
4. (b) Consider a plane perpendicular to the direction m 0 e0
of propagation of the electromagnetic wave. If
electric charges are present in this plane, they 1 1
will be set and sustained in motion by the electric \ cµ vµ
and magnetic fields of the electromagnetic wave.
e0 and e
The charge thus acquired energy and momentum
from the wave. This illustrate the fact that an c e 4
\ = =
electromanetic wave like other waves carries v e0 1 =2
energy and momentum.
5. (a) Electromagnetic waves have linear momentum c ul l l
as well as energy. This concludes that they can = = = 2 or l ' =
exert radiation pressure by falling beam of v ul ' l ' 2
electromagnetic radiation on an object. 3. (a) On comparing the given equation to
r
1 c E = a0iˆ cos (wt – kz)
6. (b) v= = w = 6 × 108z,
me mr e r
7. (a) The basic difference between various types of 2p w
k= =
electromagnetic waves lies in their wavelengths r c
or frequencies since all of them travel through
vacuum with the same speed. Consequently, the w 6 ´ 108
waves differ considerably in their mode of k= = = 2 m -1
c 3 ´ 108
interaction with matter.
4. (b) From question,
8. (d) The optical waves used in optical fibre
B0 = 20 nT = 20 × 10–9T
communication are better carrier of signals than r r r
microwaves. The speed of microwave and optical E0 = B0 ´ C
wave is the same in vacuum. r r r
9. (b) Infrared radiation help to maintain the earth | E 0 |=| B0 | . | C |= 20 ´ 10-9 ´ 3 ´ 108 = 6 V/
warmth through the greenhouse effect. Incoming m.
visible light which passes relatively easily (Q velocity of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms–1)
through the atmosphere is absorbed by the 5. (a) Here, amplitude of electric field, E0 = 100 V/m;
earth’s surface and re-radiated as infrared amplitude of magnetic field, H0 = 0.265 A/m.
radiation. The radiation is trapped by greenhouse We know that the maximum rate of energy flow,
gases such as carbon dioxide and water vapour S = E0 × H0 = 100 × 0.265 = 26.5 W/m2.
and they heat up and heat their surrondings.
Matching Based Questions E0
6. (b) B0 =
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) c
Solutions P-S- 75
E0 - Electric field, c - speed of light, B 0 - Magnetic

Field. = 8.85 ´10-12 ´ (720)2
10 -3 = 4.58 ´10-6 J / m3
B0 = = 3.33 ´ 10 -12 T
3 ´ 108 2p
7. (a) Velocity of light 9. (b) Here, k = , w = 2pu
l
E E 9.3
C= ÞB= = = 3.1 ´ 10-8 T k 2p / l 1 1
B C 3 ´ 108 \ = = = (Q c = u l)
w 2pu pu c
8. (a) Erms = 720
where c is the speed of electromagnetic wave
The average total energy density
in vacuum. It is a constant whose value is 3 × 106
1 1 m s–1
Î0 E 20 = Î0 [ 2E rms ] =Î0 E rms
2 2
=
2 2
23 Ray Optics and

Optical Instruments
1. 4f 1 1 1
2. Decreases 1. (b) Magrification, m = v/u ; = +
f v u
n 2 n1 n 2 - n1
3. Curved spherical; Relation - = true c 3 ´ 108
v u R 2. (c) vg = = = 2 ´ 108 m/s
for any curved spherical surface. m 3
4. Total internal reflection, As i > ic 2
At i = ic angle of refraction
‘r’ = 90° x 4 ´ 10 -3
t= = 8
= 2 ´ 10 -11 s
sin ic vg 2 ´ 10
\ =µ=1 3. (b) A person suffering from hypermetropia can see
sin 90°
objects beyond a particular point called the near
5. Violet point. If the object lies at a point nearer than
6. i = r In the position of minimum deviation, i = r. this point, then image is not formed at the
7. 2.5 cm. retina. This is also known as long-sight defect.
8. Power of lens i.e., decrease the focal length of a lens. 4. (a) Deviation produced by one is cancelled by the
True/ False other. Use d = A( m – 1).
1. True
2. True; only intensity changes. l a 5460
5. (a) lg = = = 3640Å
3. False, The image formed by a convex mirror is m 1.5
always virtual. 6. (c) For object not to be visible from vertical face
4. True, Normal is perpendicular to the tangent to (AC) any ray starting from object should not
surface at the point of incidence i.e., the normal is come out of vertical face. i.e., suffer TIR at
along the radius, the line joining the centre of vertical face.
curvature of the mirror to the point of incidence. Assume BAC to be prism of angle A = 90°.
5. True, The variation of refractive index with The condition for no ray to emerge from second
wavelength may be more pronounced in some media
refracting surface of prism is A ³ 2C
than the other. In vacuum, of course, the speed of
light is independent of wavelength. Thus, vacuum Þ 90 ³ 2C
(or air approximately) is a non-dispersive medium or C £ 45°
in which all colours travel with the same speed.
6. True Þ sin C £ 1/ 2
7. False, According to Rayleigh, scattering µ (1/l)4
P-S- 76 PHYSICS
C
1 1 1
= -
f 80 50
100 100
1
Þ P= = 1.25 – 2 = – 0.75D
f
B A 11. (c) Given, D = 3.5 × 103 km and
r = 3.8 × 105 km
or n ³ 2
7. (b) In normal adjustment of telescope, the final
D
image is formed at infinity. The incident rays
from the object at infinity forms first image at
the focus of eye piece. r a
3
8. (d) f = 24 cm 3.5 ´ 10
u = 60 cm a= = 9.2 ´ 10 -3 rad.
3.8 ´ 105
1 1 1 Magnification of telescope
Mirror formula, + = .....(1)
u v f f o 400
M= = = 40
1 1 1 fe 10
\ + = By the definition
60 v 24
b b
1 1 1 5-2 3 M= or 40 =
= - = = a a
v 24 60 120 120
\ b = 40 a = 40 × 9.2 × 10–3 = 21°
v = 40 cm.
12. (a) Note that a ray of light passes twice through the
The image is formed at a distance of 40 cm in
lens and gets reflected once from the curved
mirror, Differentiating (1) with respect to t
surface. If f, f1 and f2 denote the focal length of
1 du 1 dv combination, lens and mirror respectively, use
. + . =0 .....(2) 1/f = 2/f1 + 1/f2.
u 2 dt v 2 dt 13. (c)
du
Here, = 9cm / sec A dm
dt
Sub: the values in (2), we get i2
i1
1 1 dv r1 r2
´9+ ´ =0
2 2 dt
(60) (40)
dv -9 ´ 1600
= = – 4 cm/sec.
dt 3600
i.e., the speed of the image is 4cm/sec away
from the mirror. i1 + i2 = A + dm,r1 + r2 = A
9. (b) We know that Given, dm= A
But in case of minimum deviation
1 æ 1 1 ö i1 = i2 = i, r1 = r2 = r \ r = A/2
= (µ - 1) ç - ÷
f è R1 R 2 ø A + dm A+A
sin sin
\m = 2 = 2 m = sin A
1 æ1 1 ö
= (1.5 - 1) ç - ÷ Þ R = 3 cm. sin r
sin
A
sin
A
6 è ¥ - Rø 2 2
n
1 1
10. (d) We know that
f
= åf m = 2 cos
A A 3
, 3 = 2 cos , = cos
A
i =1 i 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 A
= + ; f1 = 80 cm, f2 = –50 cm cos 30° = cos \ A = 60°
f f1 f 2 2
Solutions P-S- 77
14. (b) Solving we get m = 1.671

60°
1 1 1 f 2 + f1 1 f1 + f 2
; P= =
r
A r C 60°
B 21. (a) = + =
60° 60° F f1 f 2 f1f 2 F f1f 2
1. (a)
60° = r + r, r = 30°.
sin 60°
3 2. (b) amg = ... (i)
sin 35°
sin 60°
\m = = 2 \m = 3 sin 60°
sin 30° 1 am =
... (ii)
2
w sin 41°
15. (d) Because, the focal length of eye lens can not sin 41°
decrease beyond a certain limit. wm
= ... (iii)
16. (c) For reading purposes :
g sin q
am
u = – 25 cm, v = – 50 cm, f = ? w
× wmg = amg
1 1 1 1 1 1 sin 60° sin 41° sin 60°
= - =- + = ; ´ = (Using (i),
f v u 50 25 50 sin 41° sin q sin 35°
100 (ii) and (iii)) = sinq = sin35° q = 35°
P= = +2 D 3. (d) As r1 < i1 i.e., the incident ray bends towards
f the normal Þ medium 2 is denser than
For distant vision, f' = distance of far point = – medium 1.
3m Or r2 < i1 Þ medium 3 is denser than medium 1.
1 1 Also, r2 > r1 Þ medium 2 is denser than medium
P= = - D = -0.33 D 3.
f¢ 3 4. (c) For the prism as the angle of incidence (i)
increases, the angle of deviation (d) first decreases
360 º
17. (a) Number of images ( n 1 ) = -1 goes to minimum value and then increases.
q 5. (b) For minimum deviation, incident angle is equal
where q = angle between mirrors to emerging angle.
Here, q = 60º \ QR is horizontal.
6. (a) The phenomenon of total internal reflection
360 º takes place during reflection at P.
So, number of images n 1 = -1 = 5
60 º
1
velocity of light in vacuum sin q = … (i)
w
18. (c) m= gm
velocity of light in glass plate
When q is the angle of incidence at P
l
c c
or m = or c ¢ = B A
c¢ m q
q
Time taken = distance/velocity R P
mt
= t /( c / m ) =
c C
v2 m 1 a
19. (b) = 1 = w gh 1. 5
v1 m 2 1 .33 Now, gm =
w
= = 1.125
gm
4/3
v1
or v 2 = = 2.25 ´ 108 m / s 1 8
1.33 Putting in (i), sin q = =
20. (d) Let d be the depth of two liquids. 1.125 9
Then apparant depth 8
\ sin q should be greater than or equal to .
( d / 2) ( d / 2) d 1 2 9
+ = or + =1
m 1. 5 m 2 m 3m
P-S- 78 PHYSICS
Assertion/ Reason Light travels slower in denser medium. Hence
1. (b) Plane mirror may form real image, if object is medium A is a denser medium and medium B
virtual. is a rarer medium. Here, Light travels from
medium A to medium B. Let C be the critical
angle between them.
1
(Real) I O (virtual) \ sinC = AmB = B
mA
2. (d) Focal length of the spherical mirror does not Refractive index of medium B w.r.t. to medium
depend on the medium in which it placed. A is
3. (c) The image of real object may be real in case of
Velocity of light in medium A vA
concave mirror. Am
= =
B
4. (d) The distance of image in convex mirror is always Velocity of light in medium B vB
v£ f .
5. (c) The rays from centre of hemisphere cut at the vA 1.8 ´ 108 3
\ sin C = = =
centre after refraction - Snell's law is valid in vB 2.4 ´ 108 4
each case of refraction.
æ 3ö
æ3 ö or C = sin–1 ç ÷
ç - 1÷ è 4ø
amg -1
= f è
2 ø
6. (d) fw = f =4f
æ amg ö æ 3/ 2 ö 1 æ 1. 5 ö æ 1 1 ö
ç - 1÷ ç - 1÷ 3. (b) =ç - 1÷ çç - ÷÷ … (i)
è a mw ø è 4/3 ø fa è 1 ø è R1 R 2 ø
1 æ 1 1 ö æ1 1 ö
7. (c) = (m - 1) ç - ÷ = (1.5 – 1) ç - ÷ 1 æ mg öæ 1 1 ö
f è R1 R2 ø è R -R ø = çç - 1÷÷ çç - ÷
÷
or f = R.
fm è mm ø è R1 R 2 ø
8. (d) If the rays cross focal point of convex lens, they
1 æ 1.5 ö æ 1 1 ö
become diverging. =ç - 1÷ çç - ÷
÷
… (ii)
9. (a) RP µ diameter of objective. fm è 1. 6 ø è R 1 R 2 ø
æ ö
f m ç 1.5 - 1 ÷
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (c) Dividing (i) by (ii), =ç ÷ =–8
f a ç 1.5 ÷
Critical Thinking Type Questions ç -1 ÷
è 1.6 ø
1 1
Oil m1 Pa = - 5 = Þ fa = -
fa 5
1. (a)
Water m2 1 8
Þ f m = - 8 ´ f a = -8 ´ - =
5 5
Real depth
As refractive index, m = m 1.6
Apparent depth Pm = = ´ 5 = 1D
fm 8
\ Apparent depth of the vessel when
viewed from above is 4. (b) Using lens maker’s formula,
x x xæ 1 1 ö 1 æ 1 1 ö
d apparent = + = ç + ÷ = (m – 1) ç – ÷
2m1 2m 2 2 è m1 m 2 ø f è R1 R 2 ø
x æ m2 + m1 ö x (m1 + m 2 ) 1 æ 1.5 öæ 1 1 ö
= ç ÷ = =ç – 1÷ç – ÷
2 è m1m 2 ø 2m1m2 f1 è 1 øè ¥ –20 ø
2. (d) Here, vA = 1.8 × 108 m s–1
vB = 2.4 × 108 m s–1 Þ f1 = 40cm
Solutions P-S- 79
1 æ 1.7 öæ 1 1 ö f0 æ fe ö
=ç – 1÷ç – ÷ 6. (a) (i) M = - ç1 + ÷
f2 è 1 øè –20 +20 ø fe è dø
100 200 æ 5 ö
Þ f2 = – cm
7 = - ç1 + ÷ = - 48
5 è 25 ø
(since least distance d = 25cm)
1 æ 1.5 öæ 1 1 ö
and =ç – 1÷ç – ÷ f 200
f3 è 1 øè ¥ –20 ø (ii) M = - 0 = - = -40
fe 5
Þ f3 = 40 cm
sin 45°
1 1 1 1 7. (a) For point A, a mg =
= + + sin r
f eq f1 f2 f3
1
Þ sin r =
1 1 1 1 2 a mg
Þ = + +
feq 40 –100 / 7 40 for point B, sin (90 – r) = gma
45º Air
\ feq = –50 cm (90 – r) is critical angle. 90 – r r A
Therefore, the focal length of the combination is
– 50 cm. 1 90 – r
\ cos r = g m a =
5. (a) As we know, the refractive index of the material m
a g
B
of the prism
1 Glass
æ d + Aö Þ a mg =
sin ç m
è 2 ÷ø cos r
m=
sin (A/ 2)
1 1
= =
æ A + dm ö 1 - sin r 2 1
sin ç 1-
è 2 ÷ø cos (A/ 2) 2 amg2
cot A/2 = =
sin A / 2 sin (A / 2)
[Q µ = cot (A/2)] 2 1 2 a m 2g
Þ a mg = =
æ dm + A ö 1 2 a m 2g - 1
1-
Þ Sin ç
è 2 ÷ø
= sin(90° + A/2) 2 a m g2
Þ dmin = 180° – 2A
2 3
Þ 2 a mg - 1 = 2 Þ a mg =
2
P-S- 80 PHYSICS
24 Wave Optics
1. Wavefront 1. (d) For the first minima,
2. Converging spherical
hl l 1
3. Destructive interference; When path difference = nl q= Þ sin30° = =
(n = 0, 1, 2...). a a 2
4. Bright First secondary maxima will be at
5. Decrease, The wavelength of light in water
3l 3 æ 1 ö æ 3ö
æ la ö sin q = = ç ÷ Þ q = sin–1 ç ÷
2a 2 è 2 ø è 4ø
ç lw = ÷ is less than that in air. When the set-up
è m ø 2. (c)
is immersed in water, fringe width b(µ l) will decrease. 3. (b) n1 l1 = n2 l2
6. Elliptically polarised 10 × 7000 = n2 × 5000 Þ n2 = 14
4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c)
D 7. (a) The related light becomes plane polarised.
7. Decreases; As, B = l d = diameter of wire.
d 8. (a) K = I + I + II cos 2p = 4I ,
8. Reduces; Polaroid glass polarises light reducing the
light intensity to half its original value. K' = I + I + 2 II cos 2 p = I ,
9. M = tan ip K
True/ False =
4
1. True, A light ray emerging out of convex lens when a 9. (c) for minm sinq = l, 2l, 3l ,......,la = 2lb
point source is placed at its focus. 10. (b) The dista nce of n th fringe is given by y n
2. True
3. False, At a large distance from the source, the small
nD l
=
portion of the sphere can be considered as plane wave. d
4. True, MD As it is clear from the relation. As lviolet < lred,
\ fringes will come closer.
lD
Fringe with b =
d
D = distance between the slit and screen
d = distance between the slits.
Smaller the ‘d’ higher will be the value of fringe width. Y
0.61l 11. (b) d
5. True, Since, Dq »
a
where Dq = angle subtended by the image of the object
on focus of the length.
l = wavelength of light used
Y nlD
a = aperture of the objective lens Angular width, q = =
For ‘Dq’ to be small, ‘a’ must be large D dD
6. False, The magnification produced by a microscope é Dl ù
êQ Y = d ú
v D ë û
m= = = 2 tan b
f f l
so, q = , v l ¯ q ¯
D d
7. False; As, b = l and lred > lblue [For central maxima n = 1]
d Hence, with increase in speed of electrons
angular width of central maximum decreases.
Solutions P-S- 81
lD 5.0 ´ 10 –5
12. (a) Fringe width, b = , n= = 2.
d 2.5 ´ 10-5
where D = distance of screen,
d = distance between slits, l = wavelength 22. (a) a1 = 6 units, a2 = 8 units
Now, d' = d/2, D' = 2D 2
é a1 ù é6 ù
2
l 2D 4 lD ê + 1ú +1
Þ b' =
d/2
=
d
Imax ëa2 û ëê 8 ûú
= 2
= 2
l min é a1 ù é6 ù
D - 1 - 1
13. (c) Distance of nth maxima, x = nl µl êa ú êë 8 úû
d ë 2 û
As l b < l g
Imax 49
Þ =
\ x blue < x green l min 1
b 0. 4
14. (a) b' = = = 0.3 mm Diagram Based Questions
m 4 1. (d) It will be concentric circles.
3
l
15. (d) For dark fringe 2. (c) Angular width = = 10-3 (given)
lD d
x = (2 n - 1) \ No. of fringes within 0.12° will be
2d
0.12 ´ 2p
2xd 2 ´ 10 –3 ´ 0.9 ´10 -3 n= @ [2.09]
\l = = 360 ´ 10-3
(2n - 1)D (2 ´ 2 - 1) ´ 1 \ The number of bright spots will be three.
-6 3. (c) Wavelength for which maximum obtained at the
l = 0.6 ´ 10 m = 6 × 10–5 cm hole has the maximum intensity on passing. So,
D 2 nlD
16. (b) x = ( n )l = 3 ´ 5000 ´ 10 –10 ´ x=
d 0.2 ´ 10 – 3 d
= 1.5 ´ 10 –2 m = 1.5 cm
xd 1 ´ 10-3 ´ 0.5 ´ 10-3
l= =
lD
nD -6 n ´ 50 ´ 10-2
17. (a) As b = and l b < l y , 1 ´ 10 1000nm
d = =
n n
\ fringe width b will decrease n = 1, l = 1000 nm ® Not in the given range
18. (d) In vaccum, l increases very slightly compared to n = 2, l = 500nm
that in air. As b µ l , therefore, width of 4. (c) The nearest white spot will be at P, the central
maxima.
interference fringe increases slightly.
2d d d
19. (b) If I0 is the intensity of light incident on the first \ y= - =
polarizer, then the intensity which comes out of it 3 2 6
is I1 = I0/2. This is the intensity incident on the
second polarizer which is crossed at an angle of
60°. Therefore, the intensity that comes out of d/2
this second polarizer is I2 = I1 cos2 60° = I0/8. 2d/3
P
y O
æ lö
20. (b) q = sin -1 ç ÷ ....... (1)
è aø
According to question
l = 2 × 10–3 m 5. (d) Light waves coming out of two independent
a = 4 × 10–3 m ....... (2) sources do not have any fixed phase difference
From equation (1) and (2) as they undergo phase changes in time of the
q = sin–1(1/2) Þ q = 30°. order of 10–10s.
21. (c) n1 l1 = n2 l2 for bright fringe Hence, the sources are incoherent and the
n (7.5 × 10–5) = (n + 1) (5 × 10–5) intensities on the screen just add up. Hence no
interference fringer will be observed on the screen.
P-S- 82 PHYSICS
6. (c) The position of all the bands depends on the 3. (c) For path difference l,
wavelength, higher the wavelength, wider is the phase difference = 2p rad.
band. l
7. (c) In Fraunhoffer diffraction, for minimum For path difference ,
intensity, 4
p
l phase difference = rad.
Dx = m 2
2 As K = 4I0 so intensity at given point where
For first minimum, m = 1
l
l path difference is
\ Dx = 4
2 æ p öæ p ö
2
Assertion/ Reason K¢ = 4I0 cos ç ÷ ç cos = cos 45º ÷
è 4ø è 4 ø
Dl K
1. (a) b= . When d ® 0 , b ® ¥ , and so fringes
d = 2I 0 =
2
will not be seen over the screen. 4. (c) Suppose intensity of unpolarised light = 100.
2. (d) For interference, the waves may be of unequal \ Intensity of polarised light from first nicol
intensities. prism
3. (c) Interference will take place in green light only.
4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b)
Ι0 1
= = ´ 100 = 50
Dl 2 2
7. (a) As b = and wavelength of yellow light is According to law of Malus,
d
shorter than red, so fringe width is narrower for Ι = Ι0 cos 2 q = 50 (cos 60º )2
yellow light. 2
8. (a) æ1ö
Matching Based Questions = 50 ´ ç ÷ = 12.5
è2ø
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) By principle of polarization, µ = tanqp
Critical Thinking Type Questions or µ = tan 54.74° or µ = 1.414
1. (d) : Resultant amplitude, For an equilateral prism, ÐA = 60°
A= A 21 + A 22 + 2 A1 A2 cos f æ A + dö æ 60° + d ö
sin ç sin ç
Here, A1 = A2 1 cm, f = 3p rad è 2 ÷ø è 2 ÷ø
\ m= =
\A = sin ( A / 2) sin ( 60° / 2)
12 + 12 + 2 ´1´1´ cos 3p
1.141 ´ 1 æ 60° + d ö é
= 2 + 2 ´ (-1) = 0 or, = sin ç Q1.414 = 2 ùû
2 è 2 ÷ø ë
d
2. (c) D=x , where D is path difference between 2 æ 60° + d ö 1 æ 60° + d ö
D or, = sin ç or = sin ç
two waves. 2 è 2 ø÷ 2 è 2 ø÷
or, sin 45°
2p
\ phase difference = f = D.
æ 60° + d ö æ 60° + d ö
l
= sin ç
è ÷ or 45° = çè ÷
Let a = amplitude at the screen due to each slit. 2 ø 2 ø
\ I0 = k (2a)2 = 4ka2, where k is a constant. 6. (d) According to malus law, intensity of emerging
For phase difference f, beam is given by,
amplitude = A = 2acos(f/2). I = I0cos2q
2 2 2
[Since, a = a 1 + a 2 + 2a1a 2 cos f , here a1 Now, IA' = I A cos230º
= a2] I B ' = I B cos 2 60º
Intensity I,
As I A ' = I B '
æ px ö
Ι = kA 2 = k(4a 2 ) cos 2 ( f / 2) = Ι 0 cos 2 ç D
è b ø÷ Þ IA ´
3
= IB ´
1
4 4
æ p xd ö æ px ö
= Ι 0 cos 2 ç . ÷ = Ι0 cos 2 ç ÷ IA 1
èl Dø è bø =
IB 3
Solutions P-S- 83
25 Dual Nature of Radiation

and Matter
Fill in the Blanks
6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
1. Decreases; As velocity v increase m increases according \ (l0)sodium= = 6188
2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
e Å
to Einstein’s equation. Hence specific charge
m 1 ( l 0 )sodium (f) copper
decreases. Q l0 µ Þ =
2. Greater than, For occurence of photoelectric effect, f (l 0 )copper (f)sodium
the incident light should have frequency more than a 2
certain minimum which is called the threshold Þ (l0)copper = × 6188 = 3094 Å
frequency (v0). 4
To eject photo-electrons from sodium the
1 2 longest wavelength is 6188 Å and that for copper
We have, mv = h v - hv0 is 3094 Å.
2
For photoelectric effect emission n > n0 Hence for light of wavelength 4000 Å, sodium
where n is the frequency of the incident light. is suitable.
3. electrons hc hc
4. Photons. The photon may be absorbed or a new 4. (d) Kmax = -W = - 5.01
photon may be created. l l
5. Intensity of incident light. 12375
6. Alpha (a) particle = - 5.01
7. 1 electron volt (ev) = 1.6 × 10–19 joule l (in Å)
8. Ultraviolet The ultraviolet light provided sufficient
12375
energy for the electrons to escape from the surface of = –5.01 = 6.1875 – 5.01 = 1.17775
detector (metal) loop and hence the current increased. 2000
True/ False ; 1.2 V
1. True; Particle nature – photoelectric effect. 5. (a) In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the
Wave nature – Diffraction. velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
2. False, As Cathode rays are positively charged, hence, gun can be increased by increasing the potential
get deflected in the electric field. difference between the anode and filament.
3. False, According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation 6. (a) Give that, only 25% of 200W converter electrical
kmax energy into light of yellow colour
= hv – hv0 if v0 > v kmax –(ve)
æ hc ö 25
4. False, The stopping potential is independent of çè ÷ø ´ N = 200 ´
intensity of incident radiation. l 100
5. True Where N is the No. of photons emitted per
6. False, Neither wave nor particle nature of light. second, h = plank’s constant, c, speed of light.
Conceptual MCQs
200 ´ 25 l
1. (a) Photoelectric effect can be explained only by N= ´
quantum nature of light. 100 hc
hc 200 ´ 25 ´ 0.6 ´ 10 -6
2. (b) W= = = 1.5 × 1020
l0 100 ´ 6.2 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
7. (d) From Equation K .E = hn - f
6.62 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
= J slope of graph of K.E & n is h (Plank's
600 ´ 10-9 constant)
= 3.31 ´ 10-19 J which is same for all metals
8. (a) For first photocathode
hc
3. (a) Q l0 = 1 2
f hf1 - W = mv ....(i)
2 1
P-S- 84 PHYSICS
For second photocathode hc æ 1 1 ö
V2 - V1 = ç - ÷
1 2 e è l 2 l1 ø
hf 2 - W = mv
2 2 æ 1 1 ö
....(ii) = 12400 ç - ÷ = 1.03 eV
Subtracting (ii) from (i) we get è 3000 4000 ø
15. (b) E = W0 + eV0
( hf1 - W ) – ( hf 2 - W ) For hydrogen atom, E = +13.6 eV
\ + 13.6 = 4.2 + eV0
1 2 1 2
= mv - mv (13.6 - 4.2)eV
2 1 2 2 Þ V0 = = 9.4V
e
m 2 2
\ h( f1 - f 2 ) = (v1 - v2 ) Potential at anode = – 9.4 V
2 16. (c)
2 2 2h 17. (b) For emission of electrons incident energy of each
\ v1 - v 2 = ( f - f2 ) photon must be greater than work function
m 1 (threshold energy).
9. (d) 18. (c) K.E. = 2E0 – E0 = E0 (for 0 £ x £ 1) Þ l1
lp ma q a Va (4mp ) (2e) ´ (800) h
= = =8
la m p q p Vp (m p ) ´ (e) ´ (100) =
2mE0
h
lpl
Þ la = = 0 K.E. = 2E0 (for x > 1) Þ l2 =
4mE0
8 8
h l1
hc Þ = 2.
10. (a) lphoton = , le = l2
E 2mE
l photon hc 2mE 2m 1 é hc ù
= ´ =c 19. (b) Stopping potential = ê - f ú where
le E h E eë l û
11. (b) For electron and positron pair production, hc = 1240eV –nm
minimum energy is 1.02 MeV.
1 é 1240 ù 1
Energy of photon is given = ê - 4.7 ú = [ 6.2 - 4.7 ]
1.7 ´ 10-13 e ë 200 û e
1.7 ´ 10-3=
J 1
1.6 ´ 10-19 = ´ 1.5eV = 1.5V
= 1.06 MeV. e
Since energy of photon is greater than 1.02 MeV.
so electron positron pair will be created.
12. (b) By using hv – hv0 = Kmax 1 q 1 ne
But V = =
Þ h (v1 – v0) = K1 ..... (i) 4pe 0 r 4pe 0 r
And h(v2 – v0) = K2 ..... (ii)
Vr (4pe0 ) 1.5 ´ 10 -2
v1 - v0 K1 1 kv - v \ n= =
Þ = = , Hence v0 = 1 2 . e 9 ´ 109 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
v 2 - v0 K 2 K K -1 \ n = 1.04 × 107
Comparing it with A × 10z we get, z = 7
13. (a) l = 400 nm, hc = 1240 eV.nm, K.E. =1.68 eV
We know that hc 1
20. (a) By using = W0 + mu2
hc hc l 2
= -W = K .E Þ W - K .E
l l hc 1
Þ -9
= W0 + mu2 ...(i)
1240 400 ´ 10 2
= Þ W - 1.68 = 3.1 – 1.68 = 1.42 eV
400
hc 1
14. (b) eV1 = hn1 - hn0 and -9
= W0 + m(2u)2 ...(ii)
250 ´ 10 2
eV2 = hn2 - hn0 On solving (i) and (ii)
Solutions P-S- 85
which may stop this e–.

1 hc é 1 1 ù
mu2 = ê - Let it be V, then eV = 2e Þ V = 2 volt.
2 3 ë 250 ´ 10-9 400 ´ 10 -9 úû
2. (b) Since work function for a metal surface is
...(iii)
From equation (i) and (iii) W0 = 2hc × 106J. hc
W=
Diagram Based Questions l0
1. (c) Changing the material of plate A will not affect where l0 is threshold wavelength or cut-off
the no. of photoelectrons emitted for the given wavelength for a metal surface.
material of plate C and intensity & frequency of here W = 4.125 eV = 4.125 × 1.6 × 10–19 Joule
light used.
2. (c) 3. (b) 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108
so l 0 = = 3000Å
4. (a) From the graph it is clear that A and B have the 4.125 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
same stopping potential and therefore the same
3. (a) K.E. = hn – hnth = eV0 (V0 = cut off voltage)
frequency. Also B and C have the same intensity.
h
5. (d) Intensity µ 1/ (distance) 2 ; No. of Þ V0 = (8.2 ´ 1014 - 3.3 ´ 1014 )
e
photoelectrons emitted is proportional to
intensity of incident light. 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 4.9 ´ 1014
= » 2V.
6. (d) As l is increased, there will be a value of l 1.6 ´ 10 -19
above which photoelectrons will be cease to 4. (b) From photoelectric equation,
come out so photocurrent will become zero. hn' = hn + Kmax ...(i)
Hence (d) is correct answer.
Assertion/ Reason 1
h.2n = hn + mV2max [\ n ¢ = 2 n]
1. (b) If radiation of single wavelength is incident on 2
photosensitive surface, electrons of different KE
will be emitted. 1 2hn
Þ hn = mV2max Þ Vmax =
2. (a) When a light of single frequency falls on the 2 m
electrons of inner layer of metal, then this
electron comes out of the metal surface after a hc æ 1 1 ö
large number of collisions with atom of it's upper 5. (a) Ek = ç - ÷ (in eV)
layer.
c è l l0 ø
3. (b) The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons
varies from zero to a maximum value. Work 6.6 ´10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108 æ 1010 1010 ö
= çç - ÷÷ = 0.15eV
function depends on metal used. 1.6 ´10-19 è 1800 2300 ø
4. (d) Photoelectric saturation current is independent
of frequency. It only depends on intensity of 6. (a) The de-Broglie’s wavelength associated with the
light. h
5. (b) Less work function means less energy is required moving electron l =
for ejecting out the electrons. P
6. (d) Total number of emitted photons depends on Now, according to problem
energy of each photon. The energy of photons dl dp
of two sources may be different. =-
7. (d) To photons of equal wavelength will have equal l P
momentum (magnitude), but direction of 0.5 P
momentum may be different. = or P¢ = 200 P
8. (b) 100 P '
Matching Based Questions E
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 7. (d) As P =
C
hC
1. (a) Einstein equation E = huo + K.E lp = ...(i)
where E = energy of incident photon. E
huo = work function of metal hh
le2 = ...(ii)
K.E = max. kinetic energy of e– 2mE
\ 4 eV = 2 eV + K.E or K.E = 2 eV From equations (i) and (ii)
Stopping potential is the potential difference lp µ le2
P-S- 86 PHYSICS
h m0 1
8. (c) l= ,v= , for proton E = m p v 2p
mv 2 2
æ vö
1- ç ÷ 2 2
è cø 1 mp vp
E= Þ p= 2mE
v ® c, m ® ¥ 2 m
From De Broglie Eqn.
hence, l ® 0 .
9. (d) For photon E = hn h h h
p= Þ l1 = = ...(ii)
hc hc l1 p 2mE
E= Þ l2 = ...(i)
l E λ2 hc
= ¥ E –1/2
λ1 E× h
2mE
26 Atoms
Fill in the Blanks Gold foil target

Vacuum –8
1. Coulomb’s forces about 10 m thick
Lead brick
2. 931 Mev Most pass
3. J.J. Thomson Beam of through
a-particles
4. Positively Source of
h a-particles
5. In ground state, angular momentum = . ZnS Screen
2p
Some are
According to Bohr's theory, deviated through
About 1 in 8000 a large angle q
is reflected back Detector
nh
Angular momentum, mvr = (microscope)
2p Schematic arrangement of the Geiger-Marsden experiment
6. Balmer, In 1885, the first spectral series were Only about 0.14% of the incident a-particles
observed by a Swedish school teacher Johann scatter by more than 1° and about 1 in 8000
Jakob Balmer. deflected by more than 90°.32.
7. Visible region; Transition from higher states to n = 2 5. True, Orbital speed varies inversely as the radius of
lead to emission of radiation with wavelengths 656.3 the orbit.
nm and 365.0 nm. These wavelengths fall in the visible 1
vµ
region. n
6. True 7. False
Î0 n 2 h 2 8. False; As according to coulomb’s force
8 q1q2
πmZe 2 F= K
r2
True/ False Conceptual MCQs
1. False, K.E. = –(T.E.) 1. (b) Some of a-particles was found to be scattered
at very large angles inspite of having very high kinetic
2. True energy. This shows that these are the a-particles
which will be passing very close to Nucleus. Rutherford
3. True, Heavy mass at the centre of atom is responsible
confirmed that the repulsive force on a-particle due to
for large angle scattering of alpha particles
nucleus varies with distance according to inverse square
4. True, Many of the a-particles pass through the foil. law.
It means that they do not suffer any collisions. 2. (d)
Solutions P-S- 87
3. (d) Ultraviolet light is emitted when electron makes 19. (c) When white light from the photosphere (central
transition from any higher energy level to n = 1 portion of the sun) passes through vapours of various
level. Similarly, visible light is emitted when electron elements present in the outer chromosphere, then
jumps from any higher level to these elements absorb those wavelengths which they
n = 2 level. X-rays are also emitted when one of the themselves emit on being incandescent. Hence dark
electrons from some inner shell of atom is knocked lines (absence of light) appear at those places in the
out and the vacancy so created is filled up by jumping continuous solar spectrum,
of electron from higher energy shell. On the other 20. (a) The wavelengths of different lines in Lyman
hand, g-rays are emitted from the nucleus of an atom. series varies from 912 A° to 1216 A°.
v 1 1 C z
4. (d) w= As v µ and r µ n2 hence w µ 3 21. (d) Speed of electron, v = ,
r n n 137 n
5. (d) E = E4 – E3 -13.6
Energy = and radius = 0.53 n2Å
13.6 æ 13.6 ö n2
=- -ç- ÷ = -0.85 + 1.51
4 2 è 32 ø 1 æ 1 1 ö
= 0.66 eV 22. (d) = Rç - ÷
l è2 2
¥2 ø
6. (b)
7. (d) According to Bohr’s second postulate: 4
\ l= = 4 ´ 912 = 365nm .
nh R
mvr = , n = 1, 2, ....... 23. (a) Linear momentum Þ mv a 1/n
2p
angular momentum Þ mv a n
1 æ1 1 ö \ product of linear momentum and angular
8. (d)
l z = Z2 R çè 2 - 2 ÷ø ; lz is minimum. momentum a n0.
1 2 24. (d) For 2nd line of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
when Z is maximum. Z is maximum (= 3) for doubly
ionised lithium. 1 æ 1 1ö 3
= R (1) ç 2 - 2 ÷ = R
9. (a) The range of wavelengths of the lines of Lyman l è2 4 ø 16
series varies from 912 A° to 1216 A°.
For Li2+ which is satisfied by n = 12 ® n = 6
10. (c)
11. (a) As DE = hv, hence v is highest when DE is
maximum. DE is maximum for n = 1 to n = 2 1. (d) a-particle cannot be attracted by the nucleus.
transition. For absorption, it should be a transition 2. (c) Transition A (n = ¥ to 1) : Series line of Lyman
from lower energy level to higher energy level. series
12. (a) 13. (d) Transition B (n = 5 to n = 2) : Third spectral
14. (a) Line spectrum is related with atomic state of line of Balmer series
matter because every atom is found to emit a Transition C (n = 5 to n = 3) : Second spectral
radiations of certain fixed discrete wavelengths only. line of Paschen series
15. (d) Energy in the first excited state 3. (d) Radius of nth orbit rn µ n2, graph between rn
and n is a parabola. Also,
-13.6 -13.6 2
= 2
= 2
= -3.4eV rn æ n ö ær ö
n 2 = ç ÷ Þ log e ç n = 2log e (n)
But K.E. = –(Total energy) = +3.4 eV. r1 è 1 ø è r1 ÷ø
Comparing this equation with y = mx + c,
nh
16. (d) L = mvr = , As r µ n2, hence L µ r . ær ö
2p Graph between log e n and loge (n) will be
çè r ÷ø
17. (d) 1
n(n – 1) a straight line, passing from origin.
18. (c) =6 Similarly it can be proved that graph between
2
æf ö
4 log e ç n ÷ and log n is a straight line. But with
3 è f1 ø e
2 negative slops.
4. (b)
1 5. (d) Number of possible emission lines
n2 – n – 12 = 0 n ( n - 1)
(n – 4) (n + 3) = 0 or n=4 =
2
P-S- 88 PHYSICS
Assertion/ Reason Two possibilities in absorption transition.
1. (b) Rutherford confirmed that the repulsive force
of a-particle due to nucleus varies with distance
according to inverse square law and that the
positive charges are concentrated at the centre
and not distributed throughout the atom.
2. (d) According to classical electromagnetic theory,
an accelerated charged particle continuously Three possibilities in emission transition.
emits radiation. As electrons revolving in circular Therefore, absorption transition < emission.
paths are constantly experiencing centripetal 8. (b)
acceleration, hence they will be losing their Matching Based Questions
energy continuously and the orbital radius will 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a)
go on decreasing, form spiral and finally the Critical Thinking Type Questions
electron will fall in the nucleus.
1. (c)
3. (b) Bohr postulated that electrons in stationary n=3
orbits around the nucleus do not radiate. Case (I)
This is the one of Bohr's postulate, According
to this the moving electrons radiates only when
Energy states
they go from one orbit to the next lower orbit. n=2
4. (c) According to postulates of Bohr's atom model Case (II)
the electron revolves around the nucleus in fixed
orbit of definite radii. As long as the electron is II
in a certain orbit it does not radiate any energy. n=1
5. (b) When the atom gets appropriate energy from
outside, then this electron rises to some higher 1
energy level. Now it can return either directly to The wave number ( n) of the radiation =
l
the lower energy level or come to the lowest energy
level after passing through other lower energy é 1 1ù
levels hence all possible transitions take place in = R¥ ê
2
- ú
the source and many lines are seen in the spectrum. êë n1 n22 úû
6. (a) The wavelength in Balmer series is given by Now for case (I) n1 = 3, n2 = 2
1 é1 1 ù 1 é 1 -1 ù
= R ê - ú , n = 3, 4, 5,..... = R¥ ê
ë 9 4 úû ¥
l 2 , R = Rydberg constant
ë2 n2 û l1
1 é1 1ù 1 é 4 - 9 ù -5R¥ - 36
= Rê - ú = R¥ ê = Þ l1 = 5 R
l max ë2 2
32 û l1 ë 36 ú
û 36 ¥
l max =
36
=
36 1 é 1 1 ù -3R¥
= 6563 Å = R¥ ê - ú =
5R 5 ´1.097 ´107 l2 ë 4 1û 4
1 é1 1 ù -4 l1 -36 3R¥
and = Rê - ú l2 = Þ = ´
l min ë2 2
¥2 û 3 R¥ l 2 5 R¥ -4
4 36 l1 27
l min = = = 3646 Å =
R 1.097 ´107 l2 5
The wavelength 6563 Å and 3646 Å lie in
visible region. Therefore, Balmer series lies in 2. (a) From Mosley's law, we have,
visible region. c
7. (a) Absorption transition (Z – 1)2 µ n \ (Z – 1)2 = A l
C ka
where A is some constant,
B 2
(ZMO - 1)2 l Cu æ 41ö l Cu
A \ = or ç ÷ =
(ZCu - 1)2 l MO è 28 ø 0.71
Solutions P-S- 89
æ 41ö
2 mu 2meV 1 2m
\ l Cu = 0.71 × ç ÷ = 1.52Å r= = = V
è 28 ø qB eB B e
3. (d) For an atom following Bohr’s model, the radius
B2 r 2 e
r0 m 2 Þ V= = 0.8V
is given by rm = where r0 = Bohr’ss
2m
Z For transition between 3 to 2.
radius and m = orbit number.
æ 1 1 ö 13.6 ´ 5
For Fm, m = 5 (Fifth orbit in which the outermost E = 13.6 ç - ÷ = = 1.88eV
electron is present) è 4 9ø 36
Work function = 1.88 eV – 0.8 eV = 1.08 eV »
r 52 1
1.1eV
\ rm = 0 = nr0 (given) Þ n = 4
100 7. (a) : For a Balmer series
4. (d) For Lyman series (2 ® 1)
1 é1 1 ù
= Rê - ú ... (i)
1 é 1 ù 3R lB ë2 2
n2 û
lL
=R ê1 - 2 ú =
ë 2 û 4 where n = 3, 4, .......
For Balmer series (3 ® 2) By putting n = ¥ in eauaton (i), we obtain the
series limit of the Balmer series. This is the
1 é 1 1 ù 5R shortest wavelength of the Balmer series.
=R ê - ú =
lB ë 4 9û 36 4
or lB = ... (ii)
4 R
lL 4 æ5ö 5 For a Lyman series
3R
Þ = = ç 3÷ =
lB 36 36 è ø 27 1 é1 1 ù
= Rê - ú ... (iii)
5R lL ë12
n2 û
5. (a) For Lyman series where n = 2, 3, 4, .....
é1 1 ù By putting n = ¥ in equation (iii), we obtain
u = RC ê - ú the series limit of the Balmer series. This is
12 n 2
ë û the shortest wavelength of the Lyman series.
where n = 2, 3, 4, ....... 1
For the series limit of Lyman series, n = ¥ or lL = ... (iv)
R
é1 1 ù Dividing (ii) by (iv), we get
\ u1 = RC ê - ú = RC ...(i)
2
ë1 ¥2 û lB 4
For the first line of Lyman series, n = 2 =
lL 1
é1 1 ù 3 8. (d) The wavelength of the first line of lyman
\ u2 = RC ê - ú = RC ...(ii) series for hydrogen atom is
ë12 22 û 4
For Balmer series 1 é1 1 ù
= Rê - ú
é1 1 ù l ë12
22 û
u = RC ê 2 - 2 ú The wevelength of the second line of Balmer
2 ë n û series for like ion is
where n = 3, 4, 5 .....
For the series limit of Balmer series, n = ¥ 1 é1 1 ù
= Z 2R ê - ú
l' ë2 2
42 û
é1 1 ù C R
\ u3 = RC ê - ú = 4 ...(iii) According to question = l = l'
ë 22 ¥ 2 û
From equation (i), (ii) and (iii), we get é1 1 ù é1 1 ù
u1 = u2 + u3 or u1 - u2 = u3 Þ R ê - ú = Z 2R ê - ú
2 2 2
6. (b) Radius of circular path followed by electron is
ë1 2 û ë2 42 û
given by,
3 3Z 2
or = or Z2 = 4 or Z = 2
4 16
P-S- 90 PHYSICS
27 Nuclei
Fill in the Blanks 9. (c) Let n-alpha and m-beta particles be emitted, then
1. Electron; Positron is the antiparticle of electron.
238 = 206 + n × 4 Þn=8
2. neutrons 3. isotones and 92 – 8 × 2 + m × 1 = 82 Þ m = 6.
4. less than 5. Irene Curie and Joliot A
6. 107 K 7. cadmium. 10. (a) = e -lt
8. Directly proportional A0
True/ False A =A0e –lt = 128 e –6.95 × 1/2
1. False; 8O18 + 1H1 ® 9F18 + 0n1. 128 e–3.475 = 4m Cu
2. True OR
3. True 0.693 1
4. True, The common time measure of how long any T= =
given type of radionuclide lasts is the half-life T1/2 of 6.93 10
a radionuclide, Which is the time at which both N and t y
R have been reduced to one-half their initial values. n = = 2 = 5,
5. False, Neutrons can’t be deflected by a magnetic field. T y10
6. True, This density is very large compared to ordinary 5
matter, say water which is 10 23 kg m –3. This is æ 1ö
A = 128 ç ÷ = 4
understandable, as we have already seen that most of è 2ø
the atom is empty. 11. (d) Five alpha and three beta particles results
7. True, Ordinary matter consisting of atoms has a large
amount of empty space. 231-5 ´ 4 = 211
231
8. False, Nuclear Magnetic Resonance. AC89 ¾¾
® Pb
(89 -5 ´ 2 +3´1) = 82
Conceptual MCQs
12. (c) 1 a.m.u = 931 MeV
(a) X Y Y -4 4
1. Y A ® X A ®X - 2 B + 2 He , A
X ¾¾
® A
(since Z ® Z + 1)
13. (d) Z Z +1Y
Y- 4 Y -2 - Y Y -2
X - 2 B ®X C + 2e X A and X C \ b emission
A
Hence, A and C are isotopes.
Z+1
® Z -1Y A - 4
Y ¾¾
2. (d) Moderator slows down the neutrons to thermal
energies. (decrease in A = 4, decrease in Z = 2 )
3. (b) 4. (b) \ a particle emission
5. (c) We know, r = r0 A1/3 A- 4 A-4
Z -1 K ¾¾
® Z -1K
1/ 3
r1 æA ö (decrease in A = 0, decrease in Z = 0)
\ =ç 1÷ \ g emission.
r 2 è A2 ø 14. (b) Thorium has atomic mass 234 and atomic number
90 hence
1/ 3
é 216 ù 6 235
U ¾¾
234
® 90 Th +X
=ê ú = = 1.5 92
ë 64 û 4 For X, A = 4, Z = 2
6. (c) The rate of fission = P/E which means Z = alpha particle.
3 15. (b) If N0 is the initial number of nuclei present, then
= = 1011 the activities at the time instants t1 and t2 can be
200 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-13 written as R1 = N0 exp (–lt1) and
7. (b) The mass defect, R2 = N0 exp (–lt2) respectively. Equate for N0 to
Dm = 31.97391 – 31.97207 = 0.00184u get the result.
The energy released E = Dmc2
= 1.7 MeV. 16. (b) Z X
A
¾¾
® Z -1Y
A
+ e+ + v
8. (c) 6C12 + 1H1 = 7N13 + 0n1 ¯
A- B
2a + Z -5 X ¢
Solutions P-S- 91
Given A – 8 = 224 2. (b) Both statements are separately correct.

& Z – 5 = 89 Þ A = 237, Z = 94 3. (d) In case of hydrogen atom mass number and
17. (c) Energy released = (80 × 7 + 120 × 8 – 200 × 6.5) atomic number are equal.
= 220 MeV. 4. (c) Nuclear force is nearly same for all nucleus.
140 -4b dN 0.693N
18. (b)
54
Xe ¾¾¾ ® 58Y140 5. (c) Radioactivity = - = lN =
dt T1/ 2
94 -2 b 94
38 Sr ¾¾¾
® 40 Sr 0.693 ´ 108 0.693 ´1.2 ´ 108
= = .
19. (a) The radioactive substances complete 4 and 3 of 50 60
their respective half lives in 2 days.
20. (d) mass defect Dm = 2 × 2.01471 – 4.00388 = 0.693 ´ 2 ´ 106
= 0.02554 amu
energy liberated = 0.02554 × 931.5 Radioactivity is proportional to 1/T1/2, and not
MeV = 23.79 MeV to T 1/2.
6. (b) b-particles, being emitted with very high speed
-dN compared to a-particles, pass for very little time
21. (a) Activity A = = lN near the atoms of the medium. So the probability
dt
of the atoms being ionised is comparatively less.
0.693 0.693 But due to this reason, their loss of energy is
A= Ń= ´ 1022 very slow and they can penetrate the medium
T 34.65 ´ 60
= 3.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec through a sufficient depth.
Diagram Based Questions 7. (c) Electrons are not inside nucleus.
8. (d) 9. (c)
1. (c) 10. (d) We know that energy is released when heavy
2. (c) Energy is released in a process when total nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
binding energy (BE) of products is more than fusion.
the reactants. By calculations we can see that The second statement is false because for heavy
this happens in option (c). nuclei the binding energy per nucleon decreases
Given W = 2Y with increasing Z and for light nuclei, B.E/
BE of reactants = 120 × 7.5 = 900 MeV nucleon increases with increasing Z.
BE of products = 2 × (60 × 8.5) = 1020 MeV.
3. (c) The range of energy of b-particles is from zero Matching Based Questions
to some maximum value. 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b)
4. (c) No. of nuclide at time t is given by Critical Thinking Type Questions
N = N o e - lt 1. (a) Iodine and Yttrium are medium sized nuclei and
therefore have more binding energy per nucleon
Where N o = initial nuclide as compared to Uranium which has a big nucleus
and less B.E. / nucleon. In other words, Iodine
thus this equation is equivalent to y = ae - kx and Yttrium are more stable and therefore,
thus correct graph is possess less energy and less rest mass. Also,
when Uranium nuclei explodes, it will convert
N into I and Y nuclei having kinetic energies.
2.22
2. (a) B.E H = = 1.11
2
28.3
B.E He = = 7.08
t 4
Assertion/ Reason 492
B.E Fe = = 8.78 = maximum
M A 56
1. (a) r= =
V 4 3 1786
pr B.E U = = 7.6
3 235
A 1 56
= = = constant 26 Fe is most stable as it has maximum binding
4 1/ 3 3 æ 4 3ö
p( r0 A ) çè pr0 ÷ energy per nucleon.
3 3 ø
3. (b) Q = 4 (x2 – x1)
P-S- 92 PHYSICS
4. (b) Initially P ® 4N0 The amount of A2, which remains, after t years
Q ® N0
N 02
Half life TP = 1 min. N2 =
TQ = 2 min. (2)t/10
Let after time t number of nuclei of P and Q are According to the problem
equal, that is N1 = N2
4N0 N0 4N 1 40 160
t /1
= t/2
Þ t /1
= t/2
=
2 2 2 2 (2)t/20 (2)t/10
Þ 2t/1 = 4.2t/2
æ t ö
22.2t/2 = 2(2 + t/2) çè - 2÷ø
t/20 10
t t t 2 =2
Þ = 2 + Þ = 2 Þ t = 4 min t t
1 2 2 = -2
20 10
(4N 0 ) N0
NP = = t t
2 4 /1 4 - =2
20 10
at t = 4 min.
t
N0 N 0 =2
N0 = = 20
4 4 t = 40 s
or population of R
7. (c) According to question,
æ N0 ö æ N0 ö 9N 0 Half life of X, T1/2 = tav , mean life of Y
ç 4N0 - ÷ + ç N0 - ÷ =
è 4 ø è 4 ø 2 0.693 1
Þ =
1 lX lY
5. (b) N1 = N0 e–lt N1 = N0
3 Þ l X = (0.693). l Y
N0 \ lX > lY .
= N0 e -lt2
3 Now, the rate of decay is given by
1 2
æ dN ö
Þ = e -lt ...(i) - ç ÷ = l X N0
3 è dt ø
2
N2 = N0 æ dN ö
3 -ç ÷ = l 4 N0
è dt ø4
2
N 0 = N0e -lt1 Y will decay faster than X.
3 1
8. (a) 0n ® 11H + -1e 0 + n + Q
¾¾
2
Þ = e -lt1 ...(ii) The mass defect during the process
3
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii) Dm = mn - mH - me
= 1.6725 × 10–27 – (1.6725 × 10–27+ 9 × 10–
1
= e -l (t2 -t1 ) 31kg)
2 = – 9 × 10–31 kg
l (t2 - t1) = ln2 The energy released during the process
E = Dmc2
ln 2 E = 9 × 10–31× 9 × 1016 = 81 × 10–15 Joules
t 2 - t1 = = T1/2 = 50 days
l 81 ´ 10 -15
6. (d) Let, the amount of the two in the mixture will E= = 0.511MeV
become equal after t years. 1.6 ´ 10 –19
The amount of A1, which remains after t years
N 01
N1 =
(2)t/20
Solutions P-S- 93
Semiconductor Electronics:
28 Materials, Devices and Simple
Circuits
Fill in the Blanks
a 0.95 0.95
1. Holes; Electrons in n-type semiconductor. 3. (c) b= = = = 19
2. Reverse at a particular reverse voltage in PN-junction, 1 - a 1 - 0.95 0.05
a huge current flows in reverse direction known as 4. (c) IC = IE –IB = 90 – 1 = 89 m A
avlanche current. A V 2800
3. 1 eV 5. (c) Current gain, a = = = 0.93
4. Stabilization, Zener diode is used as a voltage regulator A R 3000
i.e. for stabilization purposes. 6. (a) Current gain (a) = 0.96
5. emitter Ie = 7.2 mA
6. Forward, reverse; The biasing of the transistor is done
Ic
differently for different uses. The transistor works = a = 0.96
as an amplifier with its emitter-base junction forward Ie
biased and the base-collector junction reverse biased.
I c = 0.96 ´ 7.2 mA = 6.91 mA
7. Positive feed back
8. Universal gates; Combination of NAND & NOR Ie = Ic + Ib
gates can produce OR, AND & NOT gates. Þ Ib = Ie – Ic = 7.2 – 6.91 = 0.29 mA
True/ False 7. (b) In half wave rectifier only half of the wave is
rectified
1. False; Due to large concentration of electrons in N-
8. (b) At 0K (–273ºC) motion of free electron stop i.e.,
side and holes in P-side, they diffuses from their own
there is no electron in conduction band therefore
side to other side. Hence depletion region produces.
at 0K intrinsic semiconductor becomes insulator.
2. False; Rectifier converts a.c. into d.c.
9. (b) For easy flow of current the P side must be
3. True; Energy gap least for conductors and maximum
connected to +ive terminal of battery i.e., it is
for insulators.
connected to higher potential in comparison to N.
4. False
This connection is called forward biased. In this
5. True, In forward biasing due to the applied voltage,
case the input resistance is very low.
electrons from n-sdie cross the depletion region and
In reverse-biased, the P-side is connected to –ive
reach P-side (where they are minority carriers).
terminal & N side to (+ive) terminal to battery. In
6. False, When an electlron diffuses from n ® P, it leaves
this case input resistance is very high.
behind an ionised donor (species which has becomes
n
ion by donating electron) on n-side. This ionised donor
dow I
(positive charge) is immobile as it is bonded to the k e forward
ea ag
surrounding atoms. As the electrons continue to
Br volt biased
diffuse from n-P, a layer of positive charge (or positive VB
space-charge region) on n-side of the juction is V
developed. On P-side atom receiving electrons is VT
ionised acceptor. reverse
7. False, Base of a transistor is thin and lightly doped, biased
base-emitter region is in forward biased whereas
collector is in reverse biased. 10. (b) Barrier potential depends on, doping density,
Conceptual MCQs temperature, forward/reverse bias but does not
depend on diode design.]
1. (d) In full wave rectifier, we get the output for the 11. (c) Maximum in insulators and overlaping in metals
positive and negative cycle of input a.c. Hence 12. (a)
the frequency of the ripple of the output is twice 13. (d) Holes move from base to emmitter
than that of input a.c. i.e. 100 Hz 14. (a) The phase difference between output voltage and
2. (c) Forward resistance = input signal voltage in common base transistor
DV 0.7 - 0.5 circuit is zero
= = 200 W 15. (c) Silicon is an indirect-Band gap seniconductor.
DI 1.0 ´ 10-3
P-S- 94 PHYSICS
CB
\ Y = X = AB
16. (d) Donar level Y = AB by Demorgan theorem
VB \ This diagram performs the function of AND
17. (b) NAND + NAND gate.
Þ AND A 0 1 1 0
V0 R 5. (a) B 0 0 1 1
18. (b) =b C C 1 1 1 1
V1 RB OR gate
2.5 5 6. (b) Output of upper AND gate = AB
= b´
0.01 1 Output of lower AND gate = AB
Þ b = 50
19. (b) Eg = 2.0 eV = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J \ Output of OR gate, Y = A B + BA
Eg = hv This is boolean expression for XOR gate.
7. (b)
Eg 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 J
\ v= = A Y1
h 6.62 ´ 10-34 Js
B
= 0. 4833 × 1015 s–1 = 4.833 × 1014 Hz
Y
; 5 ´ 1014 Hz
20. (b) NOT + NAND = AND.
21. (b) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the flow of
Y2
current is due to drifting of minority charge carriers
across the junction.
Y1 = A + B, Y2 = A . B
1. (d) Positive terminal is at lower potential (0V) and Y = (A + B)gAB
negative terminal is at higher potential 5V.
2. (d) The input signal should be connected between = AgA + AgB + BgA + BgB
two points of bridge rectifier such that in positive
half wave of input signal, one p-n junction should = 0 + AgB + BgA + 0 = AgB + BgA
be forward biased and other should be reverse This expression is for XOR
biased and in negative half wave of input signal, Assertion/ Reason
the reverse should take place. It will be so when 1. (a) In semiconductors, by increasing temperature,
input is connected between B and D. covalent bond breaks and conduction hole and
3. (d) (A) is a NAND gate so output is electrons increase.
2. (a) In semiconductors the energy gap between
1´ 1 = 1 = 0 conduction band and valence band is small (»1
(B) is a NOR gate so output is eV). Due to temperature rise, electron in the
0 +1 = 1 = 0 valence band gain thermal energy and may
(C) is a NAND gate so output is jumpy across the small energy gap, (to the
conduction band). Thus conductivity increases
0 ´1 = 0 = 1 and hence resistance decreases.
(D) is a XOR gate so output is 0 Å 0 = 0 3. (d) There is no charge on P-type semiconductor,
because each atom of semiconductor is itself
neutral.
4. (c) Silicon is cheaper than germanium, so it is
0
preferred over germanium. But energy gap in
1 germanium is smaller than silicon.
1 5. (b) Study of junction diode characteristics shows
that the junction diode offers a low resistance
Following is NAND Gate Y = AB path, when forward biased and high resistance
path when reverse biased. This feature of the
4. (b) A junction diode enables it to be used as a rectifier.
Y 6. (b) Diffusion current is due to the migration of holes
B X
and electrons into opposite regions, so it will be
from p-side to n-side. Also in forward bias it
X = AB will increases.
Solutions P-S- 95
7. (a) Input impedance of common emitter

a 0.995 0.995
configuration. = = = = 199.
DVBE 1 - a 1 - 0.995 0.005
= 6. (c) No. of electrons reaching the collector,
DiB V
CE = constant 96
where DVBE = voltage across base and emitter nC = ´ 1010 = 0.96 ´ 1010
(base emitter region is forward biased)
100
Di B = base current which is order of few nE ´ e
microampere. Emitter current, IE =
8. (a) A NOT gate puts the input condition in the t
opposite order, means for high input it give low nC ´ e
output and for low input it give high output. Collector current, I =
C
For this reason NOT gate is known as invertor t
circuit. \ Current transfer ratio,
9. (a) These gates are called digital building blocks
IC n C 0.96 ´ 1010
because using these gates only (either NAND a= = = = 0.96
or NOR) we can compile all other gates also IE n E 1010
(like OR, AND, NOT, XOR)
7. (c) Power gain = voltage gain × current gain
V I
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) = VG × I G = 0 × 0
Critical Thinking Type Questions Vi Ii
1. (d) ni2 = nenh V02 Ri 100
= 2 × = 50 ´ 50 ´
(1.5 × 1016)2 = ne (4.5 × 1022) Vi R0 200
Þ ne = 0.5 × 1010 2500
or ne = 5 × 109 = = 1250
Given nh = 4.5 × 1022 2
Þ nh >> ne 8. (d)
\ Semiconductor is p-type and IC
ne = 5 × 109 m–3.
2. (b) Given : µe = 2.3 m2 V–1 s–1
µh = 0.01 m2 V–1 s–1, ne = 5 × 1012 / cm3 RC O/P = 2 Volt
= 5 × 1018/m3 nh = 8 × 1013/cm3 = 8 × 1019/m3.
Conductivity s = e[neµe + nhµh]
Input RB
= 1.6 × 10–19 [5 × 1018 × 2.3 + 8 × 1019 × 0.01]
= 1.6 × 10–1 [11.5 + 0.8]
= 1.6 × 10–1 × 12.3 = 1.968 W–1 m–1.
3. (c) V' = V + IR = 0.5 + 0.1 × 20 = 2.5 V
The output voltage, across the load RC
0.5V 20W V0 = IC RC = 2
The collector current (IC)
0.1A
2
IC = 3
= 10-3 Amp
2 ´ 10
Current gain (b)
V
IC
4. (d) In common emitter configuration current gain (b) current gain = = 100
IB
-h f e -50 IC 10-3
Ai = = IB = = = 10 -5 Amp
1 + h oe R L 1 + 25 ´ 10-6 ´ 1 ´ 103 = 100 100
– 48.78 Input voltage (Vi)
Where hfe= forward current ratio Vi = RB IB = 1 × 103 × 10–5 = 10–2 Volt
hoe= output admittance. Vi = 10 mV
5. (d) Current gain in common emitter mode
P-S- 96 PHYSICS
29 Communication Systems
Fill in the Blanks 2. (c) Line of sight mode of communication for carrier
waves around 100 MHz.
1. Point to point
3. (d) The req uired wavelength should be from
2. Amplitude modulation.
10–3m to 0.1m.
3. Transmitter; The purpose of transmitter is to
4. (c) l = 3m, H = 100 m, h = 60 m
convert the message signal produced by source of
information into a form suitable for transmission Path difference between direct wave and wave
through the channel. obtained after reflection from earth surface is
4. High or radio.
2 p æ 2Hh ö
+ p = 2p
l çè d ÷ø
5. Resonant circuit.
6. 840 – 935 MHz
7. Modulation; Carrier + signal ® modulation. 4Hh 4Hh
8. Line of sight or =1 or d=
ld l
True/ False
1. False; In fact varying the local oscillator frequency. 4 ´ 100 ´ 60
Þd= = 8 ´ 103 m or 8km
2. False, Optical fibres are not subjected to 3
electromagnetic interference from outside. 5. (b) Ground waves have the property of being polarized
3. True normal to the earth's surface.
4. False, Digital signals are the values in the form of 0 or
6. (b) Critical frequency f c = 9 N m
1. It represents discrete values in the binary bits which
are non-continuous set of values.
where N m represents election density of layers
5. False, In statellite communication, the frequency used
is more than 40 MHz.
Q fc µ N m
6. True
7. False; UHF Þ fc is different for different layers.
8. True, In standard AM broadcast, ground based vertical
4pHhE
towers are generally used as transmitting antennas. 7. (d) Electric Field = -
For such antennas ground has a strong influence on the ld 2
propagation of the signal.
Conceptual MCQs 1
Þ E.F. µ
1. (b) d2
8. (d) Skip distance is the minimum distance on earth’s
E max - E min 90 - 30 60 6
ma = = = = = 0.5 surface from the transmitter where e.m. wave of a
E max + E min 90 + 30 120 12
definite frequency can reach after reflection from
the ionosphere
Solutions P-S- 97
999.7 KHz, 100.3 KHz, 999.2 KHz

f2 1000.8 KHz, 998 KHz, 1002 KHz
It is given by Dskip = 2h -1
2
fc
æ P0 ö
14. (a) G = 10 log10 ç ÷ dbs
Þ Dskip is dependent on h, f and fc. è Pn ø
9. (d) Since maximum part of the power of modulated
wave is contained with the carrier wave which G µ P0 ( ® power radiated by isotropic
does not transmit any desired information, hence antenna)
to avoid wastage of power to suppress carrier
balanced modulator is used. 1
Gµ
Pn ®
( power radiated by practical
10. (b) 100% modulation Þ ma = 1
antenna)
2
useful power ma 1 1
= = = ma 2
total power radiated 2 + m 2 2 +1 3 15. (c) Average side-band power Pav = Pc
a 4
Þ Useful power Here ma = 0.5

Pc = 10
1
= ( total power radiated ) 0.5 ´ 10 ´ 10
3 \ Pav = = 6.25
4
11. (b) For given transmission band 88-108 MHz
16. (b) Bandwidth is reduced using VSB
( Df )max = 75 kHz
SSB is not used because removal of one side band
is practically impossible.
given ( Df )actual = 18.75 kHz
Bandwidth is reduced because same information
\ % modulation is present in both for picture signal is amplitude
modulated.
( Df )actual 18.75 17. (d) When transmission path is long more repeater
=m = ´=
100 25%
( )max
D f 75 stations are needed at intermediate points as
repeater receives signal, remove the noise, amplify
12. (b) Ec = 100 V, ma = 0.4, R = 100 W, it and retransmit it along the channel.
E c 2 (100) 2 88 p h t h r
Pc = = = 50 watt 18. (a) Electric field strength E =
2R 2 ´ 100 ld 2
1
æ m 2 ö é (0.4) 2 ù Þ Eµ
P = ç1 + a ÷ Pc = ê1 + ú ´ 50 = 54 watt l
ç 2 ÷ êë 2 úû
è ø 19. (a) For total internal reflection of sky waves, the
refractive index of the ionosphere should be less.
13. (d) Frequencies present in the output = 100 ± 0.3 If f > fc, the refractive index will increase. By this
waves will just pass without reflection taking
1000 ± 21 i.e. ®
place.
P-S- 98 PHYSICS
that the antenna properly senses the time

é m 2ù é ( 0.8)2 ù variation of the signal. For an electromagnetic
20. (a) P = Pc ê1 + a ú = 1 ê1 + ú = 1.32kW.
ë 2 û ë 2 û wave frequency 20 kHz, the wavelength is 15
km. Obviously such a long antenna is not
Vmax - Vmin 10 - 4 6 possible to cosntruct and operate. Hence direct
21. (b) ma = = = = 0.43 transmission of such baseband signals is not
Vmax + Vmin 10 + 4 14
practical. Therefore there is a need of translating
Diagram Based Questions the information constained in our original low
frequency baseband signal into high or radio
1. (b)
frequencies before trasnsmission.
2. (b) Given : Resistance R = 100 kilo ohm
4. (c) The range covered is not proportional to the
= 100 × 103 W height of the TV transmission tower. The range
Capacitance C = 250 picofarad depends directly on square root of the height of
= 250 × 10–12F the antenna i.e.
t = RC = 100 × 103 × 250 × 10–12 sec Sµ h .

= 2.5 × 107 × 10–12 sec
Let the height of the TV transmission tower be
= 2.5 × 10–5 sec h and h' which covers the range S and S'
The higher frequency whcih can be detected respectively.
with tolerable distortion is
\ S= 2hR and S' = 2h ' R
1 1
f = = Hz For S' = 2S i.e. 2 h ' R = 2 2h ' R
2pma RC 2p ´ 0.6 ´ 2.5 ´ 10 -5
5. (a) Microwave communication is preferred over
optical communication because microwave
100 ´ 104 4
= Hz = ´ 104 Hz provide large number of channels and wide
25 ´ 1.2p 1.2 p badwidth compared to optical signals as
infromation carrying capacity is directly
= 10.61 KHz
proportional to bandwidth. So wider the
This condition is obtained by applying the
bandwidth greater the information carrying
condition that rate of decay of capacitor voltage
capacity.
must be equal or less than the rate of decay
6. (c) Long distance communication between two
modulated singnal voltage for proper detection
points on the earth is achieved through reflection
of mdoulated signal.
of electromagnetic waves by ionosphere. Such
Assertion/ Reason
waves are called sky waves Sky wave
1. (a) Amplification is necessary to compensate for propagation takes place up to frequency of
the attenuation of the signal in communication about 30 MHz.
systems. 7. (d) As television signals being of frequency 100
2. (c) A transmitter processes the incoming message MHz to 200 MHz cannot be reflected by
signal, so as make it suitable for transmission ionosphere but they penetrate it, so they are
through a channel and subseqeuent reception. not propagated through sky waves. In fact,
3. (a) For transmitting a signal, we need an antenna or television signals are propagated through space
an aerial. This antenna should have a size wave propagation.
comparable to the wavelength of the signal so
Solutions P-S- 99
8. (a) A space wave travels in a straight line from 3. (d) Total signal B.W= 12 ´ 5 = 60 kHz
transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna.
Space waves are used for line-of-sight 11 guard band are required between 12 signal
communication as well as satellite \ guard bandwidth = 11 ´ 1kHz = 11kHz
communication. At frequencies above 40 MHz
communication is essentially limited to line of
\ total bandwidth = 60 + 11 = 71kHz
sight paths.
é m 2ù
9. (d) The ionosphere layer acts as a reflector for a 4. (b) Pt = Pc ê1 + a ú
ë 2 û
certain range of frequencies i.e. 3 to 30
MHz.Electromagnetic waves of frequencies
higher than 30 MHz penetrate the ionosphere V 2rms V 2c é ma 2 ù
Þ = ê1 + ú
and escape. 2 2 ë 2 û
10. (d) The process of retrieval of information from the
carrier wave at the receiver is termed as é m 2ù
V 2 rms = V 2 c ê1 + a ú
demodulation. Repeater is a combination of a ë 2 û
receiver and a transmitter, a repeater picks up
the signal from the transmitter, amplifies and
ma 2
retransmist it to the receiver sometimes with a Þ Vrms = Vc 1 +
change in carrier frequency. 2
(0.3) 2
1. (a) 2. (c) Þ Vrms = 100 1 +
2
= 104.5 volts.
æ m2 ö
1. (b) Pc = Pt ç1 + ÷ æ m 2 ö
ç 2 ÷ø PT = PC ç1 + a ÷
è 5. (d)
ç ÷
è 2 ø
æ m2 ö
Þ 11.8 = 10 ç1 + ÷ æ m 2 ö 3 ma 2
ç 2 ÷ \ 600 = 400 ç 1 + a ÷ Þ = 1+
è ø ç 2 ÷ 2 2
è ø
Þ m = 0.6 Þ % modulation = 60%.
2. (b) For given transmission band 88-108 MHz ma 2 1
or = Þ ma = 1
2 2
( Df )max = 75 kHz
6. (b) 100% modulation Þ ma = 1
given ( Df )actual = 18.75 kHz
useful power ma 2 1 1
\ % modulation = = =
total power radiated 2 + m 2 2 + 1 3
a
( Df )actual 18.75 Þ Useful power

m= ´100 = = 25%
( Df )max 75
1
= ( total power radiated )
3
P-S- 100 PHYSICS
ma 2 E c2
7. (c) Average side-band power Pav = Pc 10. (b) Pc = = 10 kW
4 2
Here ma = 0.5
Pc = 10 ma = m12 + m22 = 0.302 + 0.402 = 0.50
0.5 ´ 10 ´ 10
\ Pav = = 6.25
4
æ ma 2 ö æ ( 0.5 )2 ö
8. (a) Modulating signal frequency ® 10kHz Pt = Pc\
ç1 + ÷ = 10 ç 1 + ÷ = 11.25 kW
ç 2 ÷ ç 2 ÷
Carrier signal frequency® 10 MHz è ø è ø
\ Side band frequency are
USB = 10 MHz + 10 kHz = 10010 kHz E max – E min 10 – 4 6
11. (b) ma = = = = 0.428
LSB = 10MHz – 10 kHz = 9990 kHz E max + E min 10 + 4 14
9. (c) FM (I.F)=11.5MHz
= 42.8%
F(image) = fs+2 fIF
= 98.6 + 2 ´11.5 = 121.6 MHz

Solutions
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Chapter - 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry N1V1 + N 2 V2 + N 3 V3
15. (b) N=
Total volume
Fill in the Blanks 50 ´ 10 + 25 ´ 12 + 40 ´ 5
= = 1N
1000
1. Carbon (C – 12) 2. 6.02 × 1024
3. 0.4m 4. 4.14 g 16. (b) K 2Cr2 O 7 + H 2SO 4 + 3SO 2 ¾
¾®
5. A mixture may contain any number of components 1 1 3
in any ratio. K 2SO 4 + Cr2 (SO 4 ) 3 + H 2O
e.g. air is a mixture of various gases. 17. (d) Let weight of O2 in mixture = 1g, and weight of
6. 1.4 × 10–21g 7. 5L 8. 8.6 × 1029 N2 = 4g
9. equal 10. C 2H 4O 1
1gm O2 = ´ 6.023 ´ 1023 molecules
32
True/ False
1 4
\ Ratio of no. of molecules = : = 7 : 32
1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 32 28
5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 18. (b)
9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 180 180
19. (c) n = =
Conceptual MCQs Molecular mass of CH 2 O 30
n=6
1. (b) 20. (b)
2. (b) The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic Assertion/ Reason
gas = 0.1 × 3 × 6.023 × 1023 = 1.806 × 1023
1. (c)
3. (c) 4. (c)
2. (d) 1.231 has four significant figures all no. from
5. (a) Mass ratio of H : C = 1 : 12
left to right are counted, starting with the first
However, given mass ratio of H : C = 1 : 3
digit that is not zero for calculating the no. of
Therefore, for every C atom, there are 4 H atoms,
hence empirical formula = CH4 significant figure.
6. (c) Each has three significant figures. When zero is 3. (b)
used to locate the decimal point, it is not 4. (d) We know that from the reaction H 2 + Cl2
considered as significant figure. ® 2HCl that the ratio of the volume of gaseous
7. (a) reactants and products is in agreement with their
8. (c) Meq of A = Meq of B. molar ratio.The ratio of H2 : Cl2 : HCl volume
Meq of KMnO4 = 20 × 0.5 = 10 is 1: 1: 2 which is the same as their molar ratio.
Meq of 50 ml of 0.1 Thus volume of gas is directly related to the
M H2C2O4 = 50 × 0.2 = 10 number of moles. Therefore, the assertion is false
(0.1 M H2C2O4 = 0.2 N H2C2O4) but reason is true.
9. (a) 5. (c) Equal moles of different substances contain same
10. (c) Law of multiple proportions. number of constituent particles but equal
11. (b) Law of multiple proportion. As the ratio of weights of different substances do not contain
oxygen which combine with fix weights of 1 g of the same number of consituent particles.
nitrogen bears a simple whole number ratio 6. (a)
0.57 : 1 : 12 : 1.7031 : 2 : 3 7. (c) Atoms can be created and can be destroyed.
12. (a) Molecular mass of HCl = 36.5 At N.T.P., number of molecules or atoms
As 1 mole is the amount of the substance which contained in same volume remains equal.
has mass equal to gram molecular mass. 8. (c) Assertion is true and reason is false.
13. (c)
0.3M H3PO3 = 0.6 N H3PO3
6 6
14. (c) Mol. of O2 = & mol. of SO2 = . The mol.wt
32 64 Eq. wt. of H3PO3 =
number of molecules of SO2 will be less than that 2
of O2. [Q Basicity of H3PO3 = 2]
’
BIOLOGY
1 The Living World
Fill in the Blanks : 4. Reproduction is the production of progeny

possessing features dissimilar to their parents.
1. In Bracketed key _______ pair/s of contrasting 5. All living organisms have ability to respond the
characters are used. environment stimuli which could be physical,
2. Indented key is also known as _______ . chemical or biological.
3. In place of phylum, _______ is used, in plants. 6. Classification is the providing of standardize
4. The taxon _______ is used in Trinomial and not names to the organisms such that a particular
binomial, system of classification. organism known by the same all over the world.
5. The world famous botanical garden is at 7. Genus comprises a group of related species
_______ . which has more characters in common in
comparison to species of other genera.
6. The _______ is the taxon between family and
class. 8. In animals growth is seen up to a certain age.
7. The international code of zoological Conceptual MCQs :
nomenclature was published in two languages,
i.e. _______ . 1. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/
classification is
8. The term 'taxon' for animals was given by
(a) species (b) kingdom
_______ .
(c) family (d) variety
9. Two animals which are the members of the same
2. Which of the following is a correct name –
order must also be the members of the same (a) Solenum tuberosum
_______. (b) Solenum Tuberosum
10. The common characteristics between tomato and (c) Solenum tuberosum Linn.
potato will be maximum at the level of (d) all the above
their_______. 3. Most of the botanical names are drawn from the
11. In printed scientific names, only the ______ is following language –
capitalized. (a) german (b) greek
12. Each category of taxonomic hierarchy refers to (c) latin (d) spanish
as a unit of ______. 4. Which of the following is a species ?
(a) Tamarindus
True/ False : (b) Indicus
(c) Indica
1. Growth cannot be taken as a defining property (d) Tamarindus indicus
of living organism. 5. The term taxon refers to –
2. Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that (a) name of a species
the members within the taxon share. (b) name of genus
(c) name of family
3. Genus comprises a group of related species.
(d) a taxonomic group of any rank
B-2 BIOLOGY
6. Plant nomenclature means 12. Which one of the following is not a correct
(a) To give names to plants without any rules statement ?
(b) Nomenclature of plants under the (a) Botanical gardens have collection of living
international rules plants for reference.
(c) Nomenclature of plants in local language (b) A museum has collection of photographs
(d) Nomenclature of plants in english language of plants and animals
7. Scientific name of Mango plant is Mangifera (c) Key is taxonomic aid for identification of
indica (Linn) Santapau. In the above name specimens.
Santapau refers to – (d) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and
(a) variety of Mango preserved plant specimens.
(b) a taxonomist who proposed the present 13. A group of interconnected genera is called
nomenclature in honour of Linnaeus (a) family (b) order
(c) a scientist who for the first time described (c) phylum (d) class
mango plant
14. The first organisms to appear on earth were
(d) a scientist who changed the name proposed
(a) photoautotrophs
by Linnaeus and proposed present name
(b) chemoautotrophs
8. Practical significants of taxonomy is –
(c) chemoheterotrophs
(a) classification
(b) to understand diversity (d) coacervates
(c) to understand of evolution 15. Systema Naturae was written by
(d) identification of organisms (a) Linnaeus (b) Aristotle
9. Which one of the following is considered (c) Hippocrates (d) Darwin
important in the development of seed habit? 16. The binomial of sunn hemp is
(a) Heterospory (a) Crotolaria juncea
(b) Haplontic life cycle (b) Erythrina indica
(c) Free -living gametophyte (c) Glycine max
(d) Dependent sporophyte (d) Arachis hypogea
10. Which one of the following aspects is an (e) Dalbergia sissoo
exclusive characteristic of living things ? 17. Which one of the following series includes the
(a) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro orders ranales, parietales and malvales?
(b) Increase in mass from inside only (a) Bicarpellatae (b) Thalamiflorae
(c) Perception of events happening in the (c) Calyciflorea (d) Disciflorae
environment and their memory 18. Which of the following statements regarding
(d) Increase in mass by accumulation of universal rules of nomenclature is wrong?
material both on surface as well as internally. (a) The first word in a biological name represents
11. Which one of the following organisms is the genus.
scientifically correctly named, correctly printed (b) The first word denoting the genus starts
according to the International Rules of with a capital letter.
Nomenclature and correctly described? (c) Both the words in a biological name, when
(a) Musca domestica - The common house handwritten, are separately underlined.
lizard, a reptile. (d) Biological names are generally in Greek and
(b) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan written in italics.
pathogen causing the most serious type of (e) The second component in a biological
malaria.
name denotes the specific epithet.
(c) Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well protected
19. Select the incorrect statements.
in Gir forests.
(A) Lower the taxon, more are the
(d) E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli, a
characteristics that the members within the
commonly occurring bacterium in human
intestine. taxon share.
The Living World B-3
(B) Order is the assemblage of genera which 7. Assertion: Chemotaxonomy is classifying

exhibit a few similar characters. organisms at molecular level.
(C) Cat and dog are included in the same family Reason: Cytotaxonomy is classifying organisms
Felidae. at cellular level.
(D) Binomial nomenclature was introduced by 8. Assertion: Systematics is the branch of biology
Carolus Linnaeus. that deals with classification of living organisms.
(a) B & C (b) B, C & D
Reason: The aim of classification is to group
(c) A & D (d) C & D
the organisms.
20. Which one of the following is a taxonomical aid
for identification of plants and animals based on 9. Assertion: To give scientific name to plant, there
similarities and dissimilarities? is ICBN.
(a) Flora (b) Keys Reason: It uses articles, photographs and
(c) Monographs (d) Catalogues recommendations to name a plant.
10. Assertion: Taxon and category are different
Assertion/ Reason : things.
Reason: Category shows hierarchical
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-12): These questions consist of
classification.
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason.
11. Assertion: The hierarchy includes seven
While answering these questions you are required to
choose any one of the following five responses. obligate categories.
Reason: Intermediate categories are used to
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the make taxonomic positions more informative.
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. 12. Assertion: The species is reproductively
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason isolated natural population.
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
Reason: Prokaryotes cannot be kept under
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
different species on the basis of reproductive
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false
isolation.
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Botany deals with the study of plants Matching Based Questions :
and zoology deals with the study of animals.
Reason: Biology is the study of living beings. DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
2. Assertion: Study of internal structure is called (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
anatomy. (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
Reason: It is useful for phylogentic study. Column I can have correct matching with one
3. Assertion: The science of classifiying organisms statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
is called taxonomy. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
Reason: Systematics and taxonomy have same which ONLY ONE is correct.
meaning. 1. Column-I Column-II
4. Assertion: Formation of new species is called
(Common name) (Taxonomic
speciation.
category–Order)
Reason: The deme has a common gene pool.
5. Assertion: Phylogeny is the developmental (A) Wheat I. Primata
history of a species.
Reason: Species is the basic unit of taxonomy. (B) Mango II. Diptera
6. Assertion: Whittaker's classification for algae
is not acceptable. (C) Housefly III. Sapindales
Reason: Whittaker grouped algae in different (D) Man IV. Poales
kingdoms.
B-4 BIOLOGY
(a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – I

(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (b) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (c) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – III
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (d) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – IV
2. Column-I Column-II 6. Column I Column II
(Common Name) (Taxonomic (A) Growth I. Production of
category–Family) offspring.
(A) Man I. Poaceae
(B) Datura II. Anacardiaceae (B) Reproduction II. Composed of one
(C) Mango III. Solanaceae or more cells.
(D) Wheat IV. Hominidae
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (C) Metabolism III. Increase in mass
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II and increase in
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV number of
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV individuals.
(Class) (Biological name) (D) Cellular IV. Sum total of all
(A) Homo sapiens I. Dicotyledonae organization chemical reactions
(B) Musca domestica II. Mammalia occurring in body.
(C) Mangifera indica III. Monocotyledonae A B C D
(D) Triticum aestivum IV. Insects (a) I II III IV
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) III I II IV
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (c) III I IV II
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) II IV III I
(d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III 7. Column I Column II
(A) Taxon I. Basic unit of
(A) National Botanical I. Carolus Linneaus
classification
Research Institute
(B) Species II. A taxonomic group
(B) Indian Botanical II. Taxon
of any rank
Garden
(C) Phylum III. Division is the same
(C) Binomial III. Howrah (India)
category in case of
Nomenclature
(D) Genus IV. Identified based on
(D) A unit of IV. Lucknow
a number of similar
classification
characters
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(E) Order V. Group of related
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
species having
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
more character in
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II common with others
A B CspeciesD E
(A) Family I. tuberosum
(a) V II IV III I
(B) Kingdom II. Polymoniales
(b) III I IV II V
(C) Order III. Solanum
(c) II I III V IV
(D) Species IV. Plantae
(E) Genus V. Solanaceae (d) III II IV I V
The Living World B-5
8. Column I Column II (c) have more than 90 per cent similar genes.
(A) Herbarium I. Includes those specimens (d) look similar and possess identical
which can be easily secondary metabolites.
classified on their 3. ‘Taxa’ differs from ‘taxon’ due to being
observable characters. (a) a higher taxonomic category than taxon.
(B) Botanical II. Preserved specimens on
(b) lower taxonomic category than taxon.
garden sheets become a store
house for future use. (c) the plural of taxon.
(C) Museum III. Generally set up in (d) the singular of taxon.
educational institutes. 4. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(D) Zoological IV. Includes those animals
(a) step-wise arrangement of all categories for
Park which are identified based
classification of plants and animals.
on their aggregates of
characters. (b) a group of senior taxonomists who decide
(E) Key V. All animals provided the nomenclature of plants and animals.
similar conditions to their (c) a list of botanists or zoologists who have
natural habitat. worked on taxonomy of a species or group.
VI. Includes animals of related (d) classification of a species based on fossil
orders. record.
VII Includes collection of
5. One of the most important functions of
. living plants for reference.
botanical gardens is that
VII It identifies animals and (a) t h ey pr ovi de a bea ut i ful a r ea for
I. plants on the basis of their recreation.
similarities and (b) one can observe tropical plants there.
dissimilarities. (c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ
A B C D E plasm.
(a) I II VIII V III (d) they provide the natural habitat for
(b) III I IV II V wildlife.
(c) II VII III V VIII 6. The disadvantage of using common names for
(d) II III VII I IV species is that
(a) the names may change.
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (b) one name does not apply universally.
1. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic (c) one species may have several common
categories. names and one common name may be
applied to two species.
(a) Species ® Genus ® Order ® Class ®
Family ® Phylum/Division ® Kingdom (d) all of the above
(b) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Class ® 7. The most important feature of all living systems
Phylum/Division ® Order ® Kingdom is to
(c) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Order ® (a) utilize oxygen to generate energy.
Class ® Phylum/Division ® Kingdom (b) replicate the genetic information.
(d) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Order ® (c) produce gametes.
Class ® Phylum/Division ® Kingdom (d) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities.
2. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong 8. Refer the botanical name of wheat "Triticum
to the same species if they aestivum" and identify the statement which
(a) have same number of chromosomes. correctly describes it.
(b) can reproduce freely with each other and (a) The second word belongs to genus and
form seeds. starts with a small letter.
B-6 BIOLOGY
(b) Both the words "Triticum aestivum" denote (c) Solanum, Petunia, and Datura placed in
the specific epithet. Solanacea.
(c) The first word Triticum denotes the genus (d) Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and
which starts with a capital letter. Panthera leo.
(d) The first word Triticum denotes the specific 10. "X" being a higher category is the assemblage
epithet while the second word denotes the of families which exhibit a few "Y" characters.
genus. The "Z" characters are less in a number as
9. Which of the following shows the correct compared to different genera included in a family.
example of taxonomic category - Genus? Identify "X", "Y", and "Z".
(a) Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to (a) X - Order; Y - Similar; Z - Similar
Solanum. (b) X - Genus; Y - Similar; Z - Different
(b) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon placed in (c) X - Species; Y - Different; Z - Similar
Mammalia. (d) X - Class; Y - Different; Z - Different
2 Biological
Classification
1. Kingdom monera comprises the –
1. ______ is an example of amoeboid protozoans ? (a) plants of economic importance
2. ________ is used extensively in biochemical and (b) all the plants studied in botany
genetic work. (c) prokaryotic organisms
3. The subunit of capsid is called ________ (d) plants of thallophyta group
2. Whittaker is famous for –
4. The genetic material of virus includes ________ (a) two kingdom classification
5. Clamp connection is found in ________ (b) four kingdom classification
6. The bacteria which oxidize various inorganic (c) five kingdom classification
substances and use the released energy for their (d) distinguishing in bacteria and blue green
algae
ATP production are called _______________. 3. In Whittaker’s five kingdom classification,
7. Virus which attack bacteria are called as _______. eukaryotes were assigned to –
8. ________ is the protein covering of TMV. (a) all the five kingdom
(b) only four of the five kingdoms
9. AIDS virus contains ________.
(c) only three kingdom
10. The integrated viral genome is called ________. (d) only one kingdom
4. Which group of plant have embryo but not
True / False : vascular tissue –
(a) cyanophyta (b) tracheophyta
1. Neurospora, which is used in biochemical and (c) bryophyta (d) chlorophyta
genetic work is a member of this class. 5. Kingdom of unicellular eukaryotes –
2. Reproduction in fungi can take place by (a) monera (b) protista
vegetative means – fragmentation, fission and (c) fungi (d) plantae
budding. 6. A true species consists of a population –
(a) sharing the same niche
3. Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism. (b) interbreeding
4. Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma (c) feeding over the same food
are examples of deuteromycetes. (d) reproductivity isolated
5. Cyanobacteria are chemosynthetic autotrophs. 7. Which one belongs to monera?
(a) Amoeba (b) Escherichia
6. Archaea have some novel features that are (c) Gelidium (d) Spirogyra
absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes. 8. Protista includes
7. Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores (a) heterotrophs
(motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile) in (b) chemoheterotrophs
(c) chemoautotrophs
Ascomycetes.
(d) all the above
B-8 BIOLOGY
9. Protistan genome has (a) smaller but have larger sex organs
(a) membrane bound nucleoproteins (b) larger but have smaller sex organs
embedded in cytoplasm (c) larger and have larger sex organs
(b) free nucleic acid aggregates (d) smaller and have smaller sex organs
(c) gene containing nucleoproteins condensed 18. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to
together in loose mass represent a significant step toward evolution of
(d) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell seed habit because:
substance (a) female gametophyte is free and gets
10. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram (–)ve dispersed like seeds
bacteria resides in their (b) female gametophyte lacks archaegonia
(a) cell wall (b) cell membrane (c) megaspores possess endosperm and
(c) cytoplasm (d) flagella embryo surrounded by seed coat
11. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 pollution (d) embryo develops in female gametophyte
of air which is retained on parent sporophyte.
(a) Mosses (b) Lichens 19. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by a species
(c) Mushrooms (d) Puffballs of
12. Decomposers are organisms that (a) Puccinia (b) Erysiphe
(a) illaborate chemical substances, causing (c) Ustilago (d) Albugo
death of tissues 20. Movements by pseudopodia of Amoeba are due
(b) operate in living body and simplifying to change in
organic substances of cells step by step (a) pressure (b) atmosphere
(c) attack and kill plants as well as animals (c) temperature (d) viscosity
(d) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by
step the organic constituents of dead body Diagram Based Questions :
13. The chemical compounds produced by the host
plants to protect themselves against fungal 1. Refer the given figure of bacteria cell and Nostoc
infection is and choose the option which shows correct label
(a) phytotoxin (b) pathogen for the structure marked as A, B, C, D and E ?
(c) phytoalexins (d) hormone
14. Mycorrhiza is
(a) a symbiotic association of plant roots and
certain fungi
(b) an association of algae with fungi
(c) a fungus parasitising root system of higher
plants
(d) an association of Rhizobium with the roots
of lenguminous plants
15. Phylogenetic system of classification is based
on:
(a) morphological features (a) A – Cell wall; B – Cell membrane; C –
(b) chemical constituents Heterocyst; D – DNA; E – Mucilagenous
(c) floral characters sheath
(d) evolutionary relationships (b) A – Cell wall; B – Cell membrane; C – DNA;
16. Mannitol is the stored food in: D – Heterocyst; E – Mucilagenous sheath
(a) Porphyra (b) Fucus (c) A – Mucilagenous sheath; B – Cell
(c) Gracillaria (d) Chara membrane; C – DNA; D – Heterocyst; E –
17. Compared with the gametophytes of the Cell wall
bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular plant (d) A – Cell membrane; B – Cell wall; C – DNA;
are D – Heterocyst; E – Mucilagenous sheath
Biological Classification B-9
2. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria 5. The given figure shows the structure of
given below according to their shapes. filamentous blue green algae, Nostoc with a
structure marked as "X". Select the option which
shows the correct identification of the "X" with
its feature.
(a) A – Cocci; B – Bacilli; C – Spirilla; D – Vibrio

(b) A – Bacilli; B – Cocci; C – Spirilla; D – Vibrio
(c) A – Spirilla; B – Bacilli; C – Cocci; D – Vibrio
(d) A – Spirilla; B – Vibrio; C – Cocci; D – Bacilli
3. Identify the following figures A, B and C.
(a) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium,

C –Agaricus
(b) A – Euglena, B – Planaria, (a) Spores - Reproduction
C – Agaricus (b) Heterocysts - Nitrogen fixation
(c) A – Planaria, B – Paramecium, (c) Pellicle - Recycling of nutrition
C – Agaricus (d) Mucilaginous sheath - Photosynthesis
6. The given figure shows some labelled structure
(d) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium,
as A, B, C and D. In which structure the protein
C – Aspergillus
coat that encloses the nucleic acid is present?
4. The figure given below shows the structure of a
bacteriophage. Identify its parts labelled as A,
B, C and D.
(a) A (b) B
(c) C sheath (d) D tail fibres
Assertion/ Reason :
A B C D
(a) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-12): These questions consist of
(b) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres two statements each, printed as assertion and reason.
(c) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres While answering these questions you are required to
(d) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath choose any one of the following five responses.
B-10 BIOLOGY
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the 10. Assertion : Neurospora is commonly called
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. water mould.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason Reason : It belongs to basidomycetes fungi.
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. 11. Assertion : Lichen is important for chemical
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. industries.
Reason : Litmus and Orcein are formed from
lichens.
12. Assertion : Yeasts such as Saccharomyces
1. Assertion: Viruses are not considered organism. cerevisiae are used in baking industry.
Reason: Viruses are nucleoproteins and lack cell Reason : Carbon dioxide produced during
organelle, etc. fermentation causes bread dough to rise by
2. Assertion : Bacteria have three basic shapes, thermal expansion.
i.e., round , rod, spiral.
Reason : Cocci and Bacilli may form clusters or Matching Based Questions :
chain of a definite length.
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
3. Assertion : Aflatoxins are produced by
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
Aspergillus flavus.
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
Reason : These toxins are useful to mankind. Column I can have correct matching with one
4. Assertion : TMV is a virus which causes mosaic statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
disease. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
Reason : TMV has RNA as genetic material. which ONLY ONE is correct.
5. Assertion : Plasmids are extrachromosomal 1. Column-I Column-II
DNA. (A) Escherichia coli I. Nif gene
Reason : Plasmids are found in bacteria and are (B) Rhizobium II. Digestive
useful in genetic engineering. melilotae hydrocarbon of
6. Assertion: Plasmids are single-stranded extra crude oil
chromosomal DNA. (C) Bacillus III. Production of human
Reason: Plasmids are usually present in thuringiensis insulin
eukaryotic cells. (D) Pseudomonas IV. Biological control of
7. Assertion : Yeasts such as Saccharomyces putida fungal disease
cerevisiae are used in baking industry. V. Bio-decomposed
insectiside
Reason : Carbon dioxide produced during
(1) A - III; B - I; C - V; D - IV
fermentation causes bread dough to rise by
(2) A - I; B - II; C - III; D - IV
thermal expansion.
(3) A - II; B - I; C - III; D - IV
8. Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and (4) A - III; B - I; C - V; D - II
Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal 2. Column-I Column-II
diseases. (Group) (Example)
Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of (A) Bacillariophyceae I. Paramecium
diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of (B) Dinoflagellates II. Euglena
fluids and electrolytes should be ensured. (C) Euglenoids III. Gonyaulax
9. Assertion : Gram-negative bacteria do not retain (D) Protozoans IV. Diatoms
the stain when washed with alcohol. A B C D
Reason : The outer face of the outer membrane (1) I III II IV
of gram-negative bacteria contains (2) I IV III II
lipopolysaccharides, a part of which is integrated (3) IV II III I
into the membrane lipids. (4) IV III II I
Biological Classification B-11
3. Column-I Column-II 7. Column-I Column-II

(Spores) (Organisms) (Kingdom) (Class)
(A) Ascospores I. Diatoms (A) Plantae I. Archaebacteria
(B) Endospores II. Agaricus (B) Fungi II. Euglenoids
(C) Auxospores III. Bacteria (C) Protista III. Phycomycetes
(D) Basidiospores IV. Yeast (D) Monera IV. Algae
V. Nephrolepis (a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(1) A - IV; B - III; C - I; D - II (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(2) A - IV; B - I; C - III; D - II (c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(3) A - IV; B - I; C - V; D - II (d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(4) A - IV; B - V; C - I; D - II 8. Column-I Column-II
4. Column-I Column-II (Fungus name) (Commonly called)
(A) Puccinia I. Yeast
A. M13 bacteriophage I. dsRNA
(B) Ustilago II. Mushroom
B. Rice dwarf virus II. ssRNA
(C) Agaricus III. Smut fungus
C. Cauliflower mosaic virus III. ssDNA (D) Saccharomyces IV. Rust fungus
D. Polio virus IV. dsDNA (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
A B C D (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(1) III I IV II (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(2) II I III IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(3) III IV II I 9. Column-I Column-II
(4) IV III I II (Type of Protozoans) (Examples)
5. Column-I Column-II (A) Amoeboid protozoans I. Paramecium
(Class of fungi) (Common name) (B) Ciliated protozoans II. Plasmodium
(A) Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi (C) Flagellated protozoans III. Amoeba
(B) Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi (D) Sporozoans IV. Trypanosoma
(C) Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti (a) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
(D) Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
6. Column-I Column-II (Characters/features) (Examples)
(Terms) (Examples) (A) Red dinoflagellates I. Rhizopus
(A) Ascus I. Spirulina (B) Unicellular fungi used to II. Gonyaulax
(B) Basidium II. Penicillium make bread and beer
(C) Protista III. Agaricus (C) Source of antibiotics III. Yeast
(D) Cyanobacteria IV. Euglena (D) Bread mould IV. Penicillium
(E) Animalia V. Sponges (a) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V; E – I (b) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – II; B – V; C – III; D – I; E – IV
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(d) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I, E – V
B-12 BIOLOGY
6. In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA

Critical Thinking Type Questions indicating that
1. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because (a) their nucleic acid must combine with host
there is DNA before replication.
(a) neither syngamy nor reduction division. (b) they cannot replicate.
(b) no distinct chromosomes. (c) there is no hereditary information.
(c) no conjugation. (d) RNA can transfer heredity material.
(d) no exchange of genetic material. 7. Ustilago causes plant diseases (called smuts)
2. Yeast is not included in protozoans but in fungi because
because (a) they parasitize on cereals.
(a) it has no chlorophyll. (b) they lack mycelium.
(b) some fungal hyphae grow in such a way (c) they develop sooty masses of spores.
that they give the appearance of (d) their affected parts becomes completely
pseudomycelium. black.
(c) it has eukaryotic organization. 8. Bacteria were regarded to be plants because
(d) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve (a) some of them are green in colour.
food material is starch. (b) they are present every where.
3. A virus can be considered a living organism (c) some of them cannot move.
because it (d) they have a rigid cell wall.
(a) responds to touch stimulus 9. A fungus contains cells with two nuclei from
(b) respires different genomes. The nuclei do not fuse but
(c) reproduces (inside the host) divide independently and simultaneously as new
(d) can cause disease cells are formed. This fungus belongs to
(a) phycomycetes (b) zygomycetes
4. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they
(c) deuteromycetes (d) basidiomycetes
(a) show association between algae and fungi.
10. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms
(b) grow faster than others.
is correctly assigned to its taxonomic group?
(c) are sensitive to SO2.
(a) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the
(d) flourish in SO2 rich environment. same kingdom as that of Penicillium.
5. When a moist bread is kept exposed in air, it (b) Lichen is a composite organism formed from
becomes mouldy and black because the symbiotic association of an alga and a
(a) spores are present in the water. protozoan.
(b) spores are present in the bread. (c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a
(c) spores are present in the air. fungus.
(d) the bread decomposes. (d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of
protista.
Plant Kingdom B-13
3 Plant Kingdom
Fill in the Blanks : 7. All seed – bearing plants i.e., gymnosperms and
angiosperms follow dipontic life patterns of
1. The Natural system of classification for plants.
flowering plants was given by __________ and 8. In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent.
__________
2. Cytological information like chromosome Conceptual MCQs :
number, structure, behaviour are related with 1. Bryophytes are amphibians because
__________ . (a) they require a layer of water for carrying
3. Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in out sexual reproduction
size is termed as _______. (b) they occur in damp places
4. _______ represent the reproductive organs (c) they are mostly aquatic
amongst gymnosperms. (d) all the above
2. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in
5. In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are
possessing
called ______ and ______ respectively.
(a) independent gametophyte
6. The heterosporous pteridophyte belonging to (b) well developed vascular system
the class lycopsida is __________ . (c) archegonia
7. Protonema and leafy stage are the predominant (d) flagellate spermatozoids
stage of the life cycle of __________ . 3. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs
by
True/ False : (a) isogamy and anisogamy
(b) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
1. Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and (c) oogamy only
leafy stage. (d) anisogamy and oogamy
2. Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are 4. Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in
present in pteridophytes. angiosperms because of
3. Most rhodophyta grow at great depths, the (a) naked ovules
chlorophyll can only absorb light in the red area (b) seems like monocot
of the spectrum. So, rhophyta exhibits red in (c) circinate ptyxis
colour. (d) compound leaves
4. Double fertilization is unique to gymnosperms 5. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops
and monocotyledons. into
(a) embryo sac (b) ovule
5. Phaeophyceae members possess chlorophyll a,
(c) endosperm (d) pollen sac
c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.
6. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
6. Leafy stage are attached to the soil through (a) Pinus (b) Opuntia
unicellular and branched rhizoids in moss. (c) Ginkgo (d) Thuja
B-14 BIOLOGY
7. Blue-green algae belong to 18. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

(a) eukaryotes (b) prokaryotes (a) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms
(c) rhodophyceae (d) chlorophyceae are formed
8. Bioindicators are – (b) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains
(a) lichens tracing the presence of pollution are stored after pollination
(b) fossil lichens (c) an opening in the mega gametophyte
(c) special type of litmus paper through which the pollen tube approaches
(d) none above the egg
9. The endosperm of Gymnosperm is- (d) the microsporangium in which pollen grains
(a) haploid (b) diploid develop
(c) triploid (d) tetraploid 19. Which one of the following is a saprophytic
10. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the bryophyte?
stigma of another flower of the same plant, this (a) Riccia fluitans
pollination is referred to as – (b) Buxbaumia aphylla
(a) xenogamy (b) geitonogamy (c) Funaria hygrometrica
(c) autogamy (d) allogamy (d) Sphagnum
11. When pollen tube enters through funiculus or 20. Iodine is obtained from
integument, it is called – (a) Laminaria (b) Chlorella
(a) porogamy (b) chalazogamy (c) Polysiphonia (d) Porphyra
(c) cesogamy (d) isogamy
12. Reinder moss is the common name of – Diagram Based Questions :
(a) Usnea comosa 1. The given figures (A, B, C, D) represents the
(b) Cladonia rangiferina exampels of types of algae. Identify the correct
(c) Funaria hygrometrica option for the given diagrams ?
(d) Sphagnum aceutifolium
13. Male and female gametophytes are independent
and free -living in:
(a) Mustard (b) Castor
(c) Pinus (d) Sphagnum
14. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in
having:
(a) Seeds
(b) Motile Sperms
(c) Cambium
(d) Vessels
15. Sporocarp is a reproductive structure of
(a) Some algae
(b) Some aquatic ferns having sori
(c) Angiosperms having spores
(d) Bryophytes
16. Coralloid roots of Cycas is distinguished from
angiosperm roots by
(a) absence of pith
(b) having xylem tissue
(c) absence of algal zone
(d) presence of algal zone
17. Heterocysts are present in
(a) Riccia (b) Ulothrix
(c) Albugo (d) Nostoc
Plant Kingdom B-15
S. No. A B C D
(a) Porphyra Fucus Dictyota Polysiphonia
(b) Polysiphonia Porphyra Dictyota Fucus
(c) Fucus Dictyota Porphyra Polysiphonia
(d) Porphyra Polysiphonia Fucus Dictyota

2. Refer the given figure (A, B, C and D) and answer the question. Which of the following figures are the
members of green algae ?
(a) A, B and D (b) A, B and C (c) B, C and D (d) C, D and A

3. The given figure represents the examples of bryophytes. In them few structure/part are marked as A, B, C
and D.
D
B-16 BIOLOGY
Identify the option which shows the correct labeling of A, B, C and D.

S . No. A B C D
(a) Gemma cup A rch eg on iop ho re Sp oro p hy te S ph ag nu m
(b) A rch ego nio ph ore Gemma cu p Gametop hy te S ph ag nu m
(c) A rcheg on ia A ntheridia Gemma cup S ph ag nu m
(d) A n th erid ia A rch ego nia Gemma cup S ph ag nu m
4. Which one of the following option correctly represents the type of life cycle patterns?
Sporophyte
(2n) Zygote Sporophyte
(2n) (2n)
Syngamy Meiosis Zygote (2n)
Meiosis
A Syngamy C
Zygote (2n) B Spores (n)
Gametogenesis Spores (n)
Gametogenesis Gametogenesis
Syngamy
Meiosis Gametophyte (n)
Gametophyte (n)
(n)
(a) A - Diplontic; B - Haplodiplontic; C - Haplontic

(b) A - Haplodiplontic; B - Haplontic; C - Diplontic
(c) A - Haplontic; B - Diplontic; C - Haplodiplontic
(d) A- Diplontic; B - Haplontic; C - Haplodiplontic
5. Identify the plants (A, B, C and D) and choose their correct name from the options given below.
A
C D
S . No. A B C D
(a) Eq uisetu m Gin k g o S ela ginella Lyco po dium
(b) S ela ginella Equ isetu m S alvin ia Gink go
(c) Fu na ria Ad ia ntum S alvin ia Ricc ia
(d) C ha ra M a rcha ntia Fu cu s Pin us

Plant Kingdom B-17
6. The given figure shows the life cycle of an angiosperm. Few plants are marked as A, B, C, D and E. Identify
the correct labelling from the given option.
A B
Microspore
mother cells
Style Filament
Microsporangium
Ovary
Flower Microspores
Megaspore
mother cell
Megasporangium
(ovule)
Sporophyte GAMETOPHYTIC
SPOROPHYTIC (n)
(2n) GENERATION
GENERATION
Microspore
(pollen grain)
Embryo
E C
Gametes
Zygote D
(a) A–Stigma; B–Anther; C–Male gametophyte; D–Egg; E–Female gametophyte

(b) A–Stigma; B–Anther; C–Female gametophyte; D–Egg; E–Male gametophyte
(c) A–Stigma; B–Anther; C–Male gametophyte; D–Fertilized egg; E–Female gametophyte
(d) A–Stigma; B–Anther; C–Embryo sac; D–Egg; E–Female gametophyte
Assertion/ Reason : 2. Assertion : Mosses are evolved from algae.

Reason : Protonema of mosses is similar to some
Directions for (Qs. 1-9) :These questions consist of green algae.
3. Assertion : Red algae contributes in producing
coral reefs.
choose any one of the following five responses.
Reason : Some red algae secrete and deposit
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the calcium carbonate over their walls.
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
4. Assertion : Coconut tree is distributed in coastal
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
areas over a large part of the world.
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : Coconut fruit can float and get
dispersed over thousands of kilometers before
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
losing viability.
5. Assertion : The fungi are widespread in
1. Assertion : In hemianatropous ovule, the fu-
distribution and they even live on or inside other
nicle lies parallel to body of ovule.
plants and animals.
Reason : Here, body of ovule has rotated by 90°.
B-18 BIOLOGY
Reason : Fungi are able to grow anywhere on (B) Lycopsida II. Psilotum
land, water or on other organisms because they (C) Sphenopsida III. Dryopteris
have a variety of pigments, including chlorophyll, (D) Pteropsida IV. Equisetum
carotenoids, fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin. (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
6. Assertion : Algae and fungi are classified as (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
thallophytes. (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
Reason : They both are autotrophs. (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
7. Assertion : Conifer trees produce a large quantity 3. Column-I Column-II
of wind borne pollen grains. (A) Agar I. Single cell protein,
Reason : The pollen grains have wings. used as food
8. Assertion : Red algae contributes in producing supplements by space
coral reefs. travellers
Reason : Some red algae secrete and deposit (B) Algin II. Red algae
calcium carbonate over their walls. (C) Carrageen III. Brown algae
9. Assertion: The peristome is a fringe of teeth- (D) Chlorella and IV. Gelidium, Gracilaria
like projections found at the mouth of the Spirullina
capsule. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
Reason: It may be of two types nematodontous (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
and orthodontus. (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
Matching Based Questions : 4. Column-I Column-II
(A) Phaeophyceae I. Have an elaborate
mechanism of
spore dispersal
(B) Rhodophyceae II. first terrestrial
Column I can have correct matching with one
plant with
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of vascular tissue-
which ONLY ONE is correct. phloem and xylem
(C) Mosses III. Asexual
1. Column-I Column-II reproduction by
(Group of (Examples) biflagellate
Plant Kindgdom) zoosposes
(A) Algae I. Solanum (D) Pteridophytes IV. Polysiphonia,
tuberosum Porphyra,
Gracilaria
(B) Fungi II. Equisetum
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(C) Angiosperm III. Cycas
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(D) Pteridophyte IV. Chlamydomonas (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(E) Gymnosperm V. Rhizopus (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(a) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III 5. Column-I Column-II
(b) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III (Pattern of (Examples)
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – III life cycle in plant)
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II (A) Haplontic I. Bryophytes,
2. Column -I Column-II life cycle Pteridophytes,
Ectocarpus,
(Classes of (Examples)
pteridophytes) Polysiphonia,
Kelps
(A) Psilopsida I. Selaginella
Plant Kingdom B-19
(B) Diplontic II. Seed bearing 8. Column-I Column-II

life cycle plants (A) Amphibian of the I. Sphagnum
(Gymnosperm plant kingdom
and Angiosperm), (B) Specialized structures II. Angiosperms
Fucus in liverworts for
(C) Haplo-diplontic III. Many algae asexual reproduction
life cycle (Volvox, (C) Monocotyledons and III. Bryophytes
Spirogyra) and dicotyledons
some species of (D) A plant which has IV. Gemmae
Chlamydomonas capacity to holding
(a) A – III; B – II; C – I water
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III (a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – I; C – II (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
6. Column-I Column-II (d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(System of (Characteristics) 9. Column-I Column-II
classification) (features) (term)
(A) Artificial system I. Based on few (A) Presence of tap roots I. Bryophyte
of classification morphological and coralloid roots
characters (B) The synergids and II. Pteridophytes
(B) Natural system II. Based on antipodal cells
of classification evolutionary degenerates after
relationships fertilization
between the (C) The food is III. Red algae
various organisms stored as
floridean starch which
(C) Phylogenetic III. Based on natural
is very similar to
system of affinities among the
amylopectin and
classification organisms and
glycogen in structure
consider external as
(D) Presence of (IV) Angiosperms
well as internal
sporophyte which
features.
is not free living
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III
but attached to the
(b) A – I; B – III; C – II
photosynthetic
(c) A – III; B – II; C – I
gametophytes and
(d) A – I; B – II; C – III
derives nourishment
7. Column-I Column-II from it
(A) Smallest flowing I. Eucalyptus (E) Members of this (V) Gymnosperms
plant group are used
(B) Male sex organ in II. Wolffia for medicinal
flowering plant purposes, as soil
(C) Female sex organ III. Stamen binders and frequently
in flowering plant grown as ornamentals
(D) Tallest tree IV. Pistil A B C D E
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (a) I II III IV V
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (b) III V II IV I
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) III I V II IV
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (d) V IV III I II
B-20 BIOLOGY
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 8. If the cells of root in wheat plant have 42
chromosomes, then the no. of chromosome in
1. Which of the following, examples belongs to the the cell of pollen grain is
same class of algae? (a) 14 (b) 21
(a) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia (c) 28 (d) 42
(b) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas 9. A research student collected certain alga and
(c) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix found that its cells contained both chlorophyll
(d) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria a and chlorophyll d as well as phycoerythrin on
2. A bryophyte differs from pteridophytes in having the basis of his observation the students
(a) archegonia. conclude that the alga belongs to
(b) lack of vascular tissue. (a) rhodophyceae
(c) swimming antherozoids. (b) bacillariophyceae
(d) independent gametophytes. (c) chlorophyceae
3. Fern plant is a (d) phaeophyceae
(a) haploid gametophyte 10. Fruits are not formed in gymnosperms because
(b) diploid gametophyte of
(c) diploid sporophyte (a) absence of pollination.
(d) haploid sporophyte (b) absence of seed.
4. The unique feature of bryophytes compared to (c) absence of fertilization.
other plant groups is that (d) absence of ovary.
(a) they produce spores. 11. What is common in all the three, Funaria,
(b) they lack vascular tissues. Dryopteris and Ginkgo?
(c) they lack roots. (a) Independent sporophyte
(d) their sporophyte is attached to the (b) Presence of archegonia
gametophyte. (c) Well developed vascular tissues
5. If there are 4 cells in anther, what will be the (d) Independent gametophyte
number of pollen grains? 12. In angiosperms, a mature male gametophyte is
(a) 8 (b) 4 derived from a pollen mother cell by
(c) 16 (d) 12 (a) three mitotic divisions.
6. Bryophytes are different from fungi in having (b) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions.
(a) land habit. (c) two meiotic divisions.
(b) sterile jacket layers. (d) a single meiotic division.
(c) multiflagellate gametes. 13. If you are asked to classify the various algae
(d) gametophytic plant body. into distinct groups then which of the following
7. Moss peat is used as a packing material for characters you should choose for the
sending flowers and live plants to distant places classification ?
because (a) Nature of habitat
(a) it reduces transpiration. (b) Structural organization of thallus
(b) it serves as a disinfectant. (c) Chemical composition of the cell wall
(c) it is easily available. (d) Types of pigments present in the cell.
(d) it is hygroscopic.
Animal Kingdom B-21
4 Animal Kingdom
Fill in the Blanks : 7. In non-chordates, central nervous system is

ventral, solid and double.
1. When any plane passing through the central 8. Nematocysts are characteristic feature of the
axis of the body divides the organism into two phylum cnidaria.
identical halves, the organism is called _______. 9. Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each
2. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc. where the segment of the body.
body can be divided into identical left and right
halves in only one plane, exhibit_____symmetry. Conceptual MCQs :
3. In ctenophora, the body bears _______ external 1. A chordate character is
rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in
(a) gills
locomotion.
(b) spiracles
4. Aquatic annelids (like Nereis) possess lateral (c) post anal tail
appendages called ______________, which (d) chitinous exoskeleton
help in swimming.
2. Malpighian tubules are
5. A file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula, (a) excretory organs of insects
present in the phylum __________. (b) excretory organs of annelids
6. In phylum echinodermata, the adult echinoderms (c) respiratory organs of insects
are _______, _______ but larvae are _______ (d) respiratory organs of annelids
_______ . 3. Male and female cockroaches can be
7. In amphibians, heart is ________ chambered. distinguished externally through
8. __________ is responsible for maintaining the (a) anal styles in male
current of water in sponge. (b) anal cerci in female
(c) anal style and antennae in females
True / False : (d) both b and c
4. Venom of cobra attacks
1. Parapodia are lateral appendages in arthropods
(a) digestive system
used for swimming.
(b) respiratory system
2. Radula in molluscs are structures involved in
(c) nervous system
excretion.
(d) circulatory system
3. Circulatory system in arthropods is of closed
5. What is common in Whale, Bat and Rat ?
type.
(a) Absence of neck
4. The pelvic fins of female sharks bear claspers. (b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax and
5. In Obelia, polyps produce medusae sexually and abdomen
medusae form the polyps asexually. (c) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high
6. Flame cells in platyhelminthes help in temperature of body
osmoregulation and excretion. (d) Presence of external ears
B-22 BIOLOGY
6. All vertebrates possess (c) It is absent throughout life in humans from

(a) renal portal system the very beginning
(b) dorsal hollow central nervous system (d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
(c) four chambered ventral heart 16. Which one of the following pairs of animals are
(d) pharyngeal gill slits similar to each other pertaining to the feature
7. What is true about all sponges without exception stated against them?
(a) They are all marine (a) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity
(b) They have flagellated collar cells (b) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three
(c) They have a mixed skeleton consisting of chambered heart
spicules and spongin fibres (c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric
(d) They reproduce only asexually by budding segmentation
8. Which of the following characteristic is shared (d) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded
by all arthropods ? (poikilothermal)
(a) Complete metamorphosis 17. Which of the following are correctly matched
(b) Wings with respect to their taxonomic classification?
(c) Jointed appendages (a) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion-
(d) Asexual reproduction Insecta
9. Octopus has 8 arms and it belongs to the class : (b) House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfish-
(a) cephalopoda (b) rhizopoda Insecta
(c) gastropoda (d) pelecypoda (c) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber-
10. Which of the following is closest relative of man ? Echinodermata
(a) Chimpanzee (b) Gorilla (d) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish-Pisces
(c) Orangutan (d) Gibbon 18. "Portuguese man of war" is
11. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates (a) Soldier of world war I
that – (b) Portuguese soldier
(a) fishes evolved from frog like ancestors (c) A sponge
(b) frogs will have gills in future (d) A polymorphic, colonial, coelenterata
(c) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors 19. Which are exclusively viviparous ?
(d) fishes were amphibious in the past (a) Bony fishes
12. Pupa of Mosquito is called – (b) Cartilagenous fishes
(a) bolus (b) tumbler (c) Sharks
(c) maggot (d) wriggler (d) Whales
13. Which one of the following kinds of animals are 20. Aristotle’s lantern is a characteristic of the
triploblastic? following class of Echinodermata
(a) Flat worms (b) Sponges (a) Echinoidea (b) Ophiuroidea
(c) Ctenophores (d) Corals (c) Holothuroidea (d) Asteroidea
14. What will you look for to identify the sex of the
following? Diagram Based Questions :
(a) Female Ascaris- Sharply curved posterior
end 1. The given figures (A & B) shows the germinal
(b) Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first layer.
digit of the hind limb Ectoderm
Mesoglea
(c) Female cockroach-Anal cerci Endoderm
(d) Male shark-Claspers borne on pelvic fins
15. Which one of the following statements is totally
wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while
the other three are correct?
(a) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult Mesoderm
frog A B
Animal Kingdom B-23
The animals having structures shown in the A B C

figures are respectively called (a) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
(a) diploblastic, triploblastic (b) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
(b) triploblastic, diploblastic (c) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
(c) diploblastic, diploblastic (d) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
5. Identify the figures and select the correct option.
(d) triploblastic, triploblastic
2. Refer the figures A, B, C and D given below.
Which of the following options shows the
correct name of the animals shown by the figures
A, B, C and D ?
A B
A B C D
(a) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D –
Pila
(b) A – Locust, B – Prawn, C – Scorpion, D –
Pila C
(c) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – (a) A - Pseudocoelomate; B - Coelomate;
Snail C-Acoelomate.
(d) A – Butterfly, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D –
(b) A - Coelomate; B - Pseudocoelomate;
Pila
3. Refer the given figures A, B, C and D and identify C- Acoelomate
the option which shows their correct name. (c) A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate;
D
A B C C - Pseudocoelomate
(d) A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate;
C-Eucoelomate
6. Identify the figure with its correct name and
phylum.
A B C D
(a) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia
(b) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia
(c) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia
(d) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast
4. Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one of
the four options all the items A, B and C are
correctly identified ?
(a) Sycon - Porifera

(b) Aurelia - Coelenterata
(c) Pleurobrachia - Ctenophora
B C
A (d) Tapeworm - Platyhelminthes
B-24 BIOLOGY
7. Identify the figures A, B and C and choose the (a) Cucumaria – Echinodermata
correct option. (b) Ascidia – Urochordata
(c) Balanoglossus – Hemichordata
(d) Hirudinaria – Annelida
10. The given figures A, B, C and D are the examples
of first true land vertebrates. They are dominant
in mesozoic era and belong to phylum ‘X’.
Identify ‘X’ and the animals which have four
chambered heart.
A B C
(a) A - Male Ascaris; B - Hirudinaria (leech); A B
C- Nereis
(b) A - Female Ascaris; B - Nereis; C-Hirudinaria
(leech)
(c) A - Female Ascaris; B- Hirudinaria (leech);
C - Nereis
(d) A - Male Ascaris; B - Nereis; C- Hirudinaria C D
(leech) (a) X – Reptile; B (b) X – Reptile; A
8. Identify the animals shown in the given figures (c) X – Amphibia, C (d) X – Pisces; D
A, B and C from options given below.
Assertion/ Reason :
A B C
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(a) A - Octopus; B -Asterias, C- Ophiura
(b) A - Asterias; B - Ophiura, C- Octopus (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
(c) A - Echinus; B - Octopus C - Ophiura is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(d) A - Ophiura; B - Echinus, C- Octopus (c) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
9. Identify the figure with its correct name and (d) If both the assertion and reason are false
phylum. (e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion : Acraniata is a group of organisms
which do not have distinct cranium.
Reason : It includes small marine forms without
head.
2. Assertion: Sponges belong to Porifera.
Reason: Sponges have canal system.
3. Assertion : Birds have one ovary.
Reason : This reduces the body weight for flight.
4. Assertion : Plasmodium vivax is responsible
for malaria.
Animal Kingdom B-25
Reason : Malaria is caused by polluted water. (a) A – II; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – III

5. Assertion: Lateral line system is found in fishes (b) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III
and aquatic larval amphibians. (c) A – V; B – II; C – I; D – IV; E – III
Reason: Lateral line system has receptor of
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III
sensory cells derived from ectoderm.
2. Column- I Column -II
6. Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as
mammals. (Organism) (Excretory structures)
Reason : Bats and whales have four-chambered (A) Cockroach I. Nephridia
heart. (B) Cat fish II. Malpighian tubules
7. Assertion : Holoblastic cleavage with almost (C) Earthworm III. Kidneys
equal sized blastomeres is a characteristic of (D) Balanoglossus IV. Flame cells
placental animals.
(E) Flatworm V. Proboscis gland
Reason : Eggs of most mammals, including
(a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V
humans, are of centrolecithal type.
8. Assertion : All birds, except the ones like koel (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV
(cuckoo) build nests for retiring and taking rest (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
during night time (day time for nocturnal). (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV
Reason : Koel lays its eggs in the nests of tailor bird. 3. Column-I Column-II
9. Assertion : Tapeworm, roundworm and (Characteristic (Phylum)
pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine. feature/term)
Reason : Improperly cooked food is the source (A) Choanocytes I. Platyhelminthes
of intestinal infections. (B) Cnidoblasts II. Ctenophora
10. Assertion : The honey bee queen copulates (C) Flame cells III. Porifera
only ones in her life time. (D) Nephridia IV. Coelenterata
Reason : The honey bee queen can lay fertilized E. Comb plates V. Annelida
as well as unfertilized eggs. (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – III
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III
Matching Based Questions : (c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – II; E – IV
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements 4. Column -I Column- II
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in (A) Physalia I. Sea anemone
Column I can have correct matching with one (B) Meandrina II. Brain coral
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 (C) Gorgonia III. Sea fan
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of (D) Adamsia IV. Portuguese man-of-war
(a) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
which ONLY ONE is correct.
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
1. Column -I Column -II
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(Types of animals) (Examples)
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(A) Limbless reptiles I. Elephant
(B) Jawless vertebrates II. Lamprey
(Organisms) (Comman name)
(C) Flightless bird III. Ichthyophis (A) Pennatula I. Sea-lily
(D) Largest terrestrial IV. Ostrich (B) Antedon II. Sea- pen
animal (C) Echinus III. Sea-urchin
E. Limbless amphibia V. Cobra (D) Cucumaria IV. Sea - cucumber
B-26 BIOLOGY
(a) A – II; C – III; D – I; E – IV 3. The combination of a true coelom and repeating

(b) A – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III body segmentation allows the annelids (unlike
(c) A – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV the anatomically “simpler” worms) to do which
of the following?
(d) A – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(a) Attain complex body shapes and thus
6. Column -I Column- II
locomote more precisely.
(Phylum) (Examples)
(b) Move through loose marine sediments.
(A) Echinodermata I. Ascidia, Doliolum
(c) Be hermaphroditic.
(B) Hemichordata II. Asterias, Ophiura (d) Inject paralytic poisons into their prey.
(C) Urochordata III. Branchiostoma 4. The transition from aquatic to terrestrial lifestyles
(D) Cephalochordata IV. Balanoglossus, required many adaptations in the vertebrate
Saccoglossus lineage. Which of the following is not one of
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III those adaptations ?
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (a) Switch from gill respiration to air-breathing
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I lungs.
(d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) Improvements in water resistance of skin.
7. Column -I Column- II (c) Alteration in mode of locomotion.
(Phylum) (Special features (d) Development of feathers for insulation.
present) 5. Which of the following sets of animals give birth
(A) Porifera I. Mammary glands to young ones?
(B) Mollusca II. Cloaca (a) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus.
(C) Ctenophora III. Choanocytes (b) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi.
(D) Amphibia IV. Radula (c) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris.
E. Mammalia V. Comb plates (d) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich.
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I 6. Which one of the following features is common
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – I in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn?
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I (a) Three pairs of legs and segmented body.
(d) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II; E – I (b) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae.
(c) Jointed appendages and chitinous
Critical Thinking Type Questions : exoskeleton.
(d) Cephalothorax and tracheae.
1. Which of the following group of animals belongs 7. Which of the following is a correct match of a
to the same phylum? phylum with their three examples?
(a) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm (a) Platyhelminthes–Planaria, Schistosoma,
(b) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta Enterobius
(c) Sponge, Sea anemone, starfish (b) Mollusca – Loligo, Sepia, Octopus
(d) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, mosquito (c) Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
2. Which of the following traits is not shared by (d) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
both sea anemones and jellyfish ? 8. Hemichordates have now been placed with the
(a) A medusa as the dominant stage in the life non-chordates, close to echinoderms, because
cycle. true
(b) Possession of a gastro vascular cavity. (a) notochord is absent.
(c) Sexual reproduction. (b) pharyngeal gill-slits are lacking.
(d) Nematocysts present on the tentacles. (c) dorsal nerve cord is absent.
(d) heart is lacking.
Morphology of
5 Flowering Plants
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Pulvinus leaf-base is present in some leguminous
plants.
1. Stilt roots occur in __________ . 7. In Alstonia, the petioles expand, become green
2. The region of the stem where leaves are born are and synthesize food.
called ____________ while ____________ are 8. Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora.
the portions between two ____________. 9. Maize and sugarcane have prop roots.
3. A branch in which each node bearing a rossette
of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in aquatic Conceptual MCQs :
plants like _________ and _________. 1. Most plants are green in colour because
4. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess (a) the atmosphere filters out all the colours of
_______ venation, while _________ venation the visible light spectrum except green
is the characteristic of most monocotyledons. (b) green light is the most effective wavelength
5. The main purpose of phyllotaxy for the leaves is region of the visible spectrum in sunlight
to provide sufficient_______. for photosynthesis
6. The flower is the reproductive unit in the ______ (c) chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing
meant for _________ reproduction. green light
7. When a flower has both androecium and (d) green light allows maximum photosynthesis
gynoecium, it is known as__________. 2. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo
is represented by
8. A scar on the seed coat through which the
(a) scutellum (b) prophyll
developing seeds attached to the fruit is called
(c) coleoptile (d) coleorhiza
as ________.
3. Function of stem is –
9. Pollen grains are produced within _________of (a) bear leaves and branches
stamen. (b) conduction of water & minerals
(c) conduction and storage of food
True / False : (d) all
4. Main function of leaf is –
1. Bulb of Allium cepa is a modified stem.
(a) manufacture of food
2. Each stamen which represents the male (b) exchange of gases
reproductive organ consists of a stalk or a (c) both 1 and 2
filament and an anther. (d) none of the above
3. An actinomorphic flower can be dissected into 5. Arrangement of leaves on a stem branch is –
two equal halves from any plane. (a) venation (b) vernation
4. Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and (c) inflorescence (d) phyllotaxy
are called sepals. 6. A modification of leaf is –
5. The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the (a) phyllode (b) phylloclade
lamina of leaf is called venation. (c) cladode (d) corm
B-28 BIOLOGY
7. Pneumatophores are found in – (a) Aloe (b) Tomato

(a) the vegetation which is found in marshy (c) Papaver (d) Michelia
and saline lake 20. The coconut water and the edible part of coconut
(b) the vegetation which found in saline soil are equivalent to :
(c) xerophytes (a) Endosperm (b) Endocarp
(d) epiphytes (c) Mesocarp (d) Embryo
8. Pulses yielding main family of plants is–
(a) poaceae (Graminae)
(b) cucurbitaceae Diagram Based Questions :
(c) liliaceae 1. The given figure shows the region of root tips
(d) papilionaceae
with their region marked as A, B and C. Choose
9. Tetradyanamous conditions occur in –
the option which shows the correct labelling of
(a) cruciferae (b) malvaceae
A, B and C.
(c) solanaceae (d) lilliaceae
10. Occurrence of different types of leaves on the Region of Mature cells
same plant is–
(a) heterophylly (b) heterotrophy
(c) heteronasty (d) all
11. A modification of bud that can bear leaves,
flowers, fruits & branches is
(a) thorn (b) spine
(c) prickle (d) trichome
12. Flower is complete when it has
(a) calyx, corolla, androecium & gynoecium
(b) calyx & corolla
(c) androecium & gynoecium
(d) corolla, androecium & gynoecium
13. A plant with both male & female flowers borne (a) A - Zone of elongation; B - Zone of meiosis;
over it is C - Zone of mitosis.
(a) monoecious (b) dioecious
(b) A - Zone of maturation; B - Zone of
(c) unisexual (d) bisexual
14. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation meristematic activity; C - Zone of elongation.
are present in (c) A - Zone of mitosis; B - Zone of elongation;
(a) Calotropis (b) Neem C - Zone of root cap.
(c) China rose (d) Alstonia (d) A - Region of maturation; B - Region of
15. Sweet potato is homologous to elongation; C - Zone of meristematic activity.
(a) Potato (b) Colocasia
2. The given figures (A and B) shows the
(c) Ginger (d) Turnip
modificaiton of roots.Which of the following
16. Placentation in tomato and lemon is
statements regarding the figures is correct ?
(a) Parietal (b) Free central
(c) Marginal (d) Axile
17. Cymose inflorescence is present in :
(a) Solanum (b) Sesbania
(c) Trifolium (d) Brassica
18. Phyllode is present in :
(a) Asparagus (b) Euphorbia
(c) Australian Acacia (d) Opuntia
19. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in
flowers of A B
Morphology of Flowering Plants B-29
(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious

root of sweet potato, get swollen and store
food.
(b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals
& photosynthesis
(c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that
grow in sandy soil. I. Hypogynous flower II. Perigynous flower
(d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots III. Epigynous flower
and sweet potato shows tap root. (a) A-I; B-II; C-III (b) A-I; B-III; C-II
3. Which of the following option shows the correct (c) A-III; B-II; C-I (d) A-III; B-I; C-II
labelling of the parts of leaf marked as A, B, C 6. Which one of the following option shows the
and D. correct labelling of the structure marked as A, B,
C & D?
A B C D
(a) Lamina Axillary bud Stipule Leaf base
(b) Lamina Stipule Axillary Leaf base
bud
(c) Lamina Axillary Stipule Pedicel
bud A B C D
(a) Gynoecium Megasporophyll Ovule Thalamus
(d) Leaflet Axillary Stipule Leaf base
(b) Gynoecium Stamen Seed Thalamus
bud
(c) Microsporophyll Stamen Ovule Thalamus
4. Identify the different types of aestivation (A, B,
(d) Gynoecium Stamen Ovule Thalamus
C and D) in corolla and select the correct option.
7. The given figure shows the parts of mango and
coconut. Choose the option which shows the
correct labelling of A, B, C and D marked in the
figures.
(a) A-Valvate; B-Twisted; C-Imbricate;
D-Vexillary
(b) A-Vexillary; B-Valvate; C-Twisted;
D-Imbricate
(c) A-Imbricate; B-Vexillary; C-Valvate;
D-Twisted
(d) A-Twisted; B-Imbricate; C-Vexillary; A B C D
D-Valvate (a) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Seed, Endocarp
5. Given figures (A, B and C) shows the position of (b) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovule, Endocarp
floral parts on thalamus. (given as I, II and III) (c) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovary, Endocarp
Select the correct combination. (d) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Embryo, Endocarp
B-30 BIOLOGY
8. The given figure shows a typical structure of 5. Assertion : Bud may form leaves and flowers.
monocotyledonous seeds. Identify A, B, C, D Reason : Bud is a condensed shoot.
and E parts marked in the given figures. 6. Assertion : A simple leaf has undivided lamina.
Reason : Leaves showing pinnate and palmate
venations have various type of incisions.
7. Assertion : Citrus is a palmate compound leaf.
Reason : Citrus has single functional leaflet.
8. Assertion : Whole compound leaf of Clematis
converts into tendril.
Reason : Gloriosa superba shows whole leaf
tendril.
(a) A - Endosperm; B - Embryo; C - Scutellum; 9. Assertion : Leaves of Bryophyllum, Begonia
D - Coleorhiza; E - Coleoptile help in vegetative multiplication.
(b) A- Embryo; B - Endosperm; C - Scutellum; Reason : Leaves of these plants possess
D - Coleoptile; E - Coleorhiza adventitious buds.
(c) A - Endosperm; B - Embryo; C - Scutellum;
D - Coleoptile; E - Coleorhiza
(d) A - Embryo; B - Endosperm; C - Scutellum; DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
D - Coleorhiza; E - Coleoptile (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
Assertion/ Reason : Column I can have correct matching with one
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-9): These questions consist of choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. which ONLY ONE is correct.
While answering these questions you are required to 1. Column - I Column-II
choose any one of the following five responses. (Type of aestivation) (Examples)
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the (A) Valvate I. Cotton
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. (B) Twisted II. Calotropis
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason (C) Imbricate III. Bean
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. (D) Vexillary IV. Gulmohar
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
1. Assertion : Adiantum caudatum is a walking (d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
fern. 2. Column-I Column-II
Reason : Adiantum grows vegetatively by their
(Placentation Types) (Examples)
leaf tips.
(A) Basal I. Dianthus
2. Assertion : In corymb, all the flowers lie at the
same level. (B) Free central II. Pea
Reason : Pedicels of all the flowers are of same (C) Parietal III. Lemon
length. (D) Axile IV. Marigold
3. Assertion : An incomplete flower can be perfect.
(E) Marginal V. Argemone
Reason : Perfect flowers (incomplete) are called
neuter. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
4. Assertion : A plant having unisexual flowers are (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V; E – I
called dioecious. (c) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II
Reason : Mango is a polygamous plant. (d) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II
Morphology of Flowering Plants B-31

(A) Gamosepalous I. Flower of lily
(Stem Modifications) (Found in) (B) Polysepalous II. Sterile anther
(A) Underground stem I. Euphorbia (C) Gamopetalous III. Free petals
(B) Stem tendril II. Opuntia (D) Polypetalous IV. Free sepals
(C) Stem thorns III. Potato (E) Epiphyllous V. Fused petals
(F) Staminode VI. Fused sepals
(D) Flattened stem IV. Citrus
(a) A – IV; B – V; C – III; D – I; E – VI; F – II
(E) Fleshy cylindrical V. Cucumber
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II; F – VI
stem
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV (c) A – VI; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I; F – II
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V; E – I (d) A – VI; B – IV; C – V; D – III; E – II; F – I
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II 8. Column I Column II
(d) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II; E – I (A) Coleorhiza I. Grapes
4. Column-I Column-II (B) Food storing tissue II. Mango
(Family) (Androecium formula) (C) Parthenocarpic fruit III. Maize
(A) Brassicaceae I. A3 + 3 (D) Single seeded fruit IV. Radicle
(B) Fabaceae II. A(5) developing from
(C) Solanaceae III. A(9) + 1 monocarpellary
(D) Liliaceae IV. A2 + 4 superior ovary
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (E) Membranous V. Endosperm
seed coat
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (a) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I; E – III
5. Column-I Column-II (c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II
(Position of floral (Represented in) (d) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III
parts on thalamus) 9. Column-I Column-II
(A) Hypogynous I. Ray florets of (Members of Fabaceae) (Economic
sunflower importance)
(B) Perigynous II. Brinjal (A) Gram, sem, moong, I. Medicine
(C) Epigynous III. Peach soyabean
(a) A – II, B – I, C – III (b) A – I, B – II, C – III (B) Soyabean,groundnut II. Ornamental
(c) A – III, B – II, C – I (d) A – II, B – III, C – I (C) Indigofera III. Fodder
(D) Sunhemp IV. Fibres
(A) Bud in the I. Pitcher plant
(E) Sesbania, Trifolium V. Dye
axil of leaf and venus fly trap
(B) Outer layer of II. Cacti (F) Lupin, sweet potato VI. Edible oil
seed coat (G) Mulethi VII. Pulses
(C) Spines III. Testa (a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V, F – VI, G – VII
(modified leaves) (b) A– VII, B – VI, C – V, D – IV, E – III, F – II, G – I
(D) Leaves modified IV. Simple leaf (c) A – II, B – IV, C – VI, D – I, E – III, F – V, G – VII
to catch insects (d) A – I, B – III, C – V, D – VII, E – II, F – IV, G – VI
(E) Fleshy leaves V. Garlic and onion
with stored food Critical Thinking Type Questions :
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V 1. Floral features are chiefly used in angiosperms
(b) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I identification because
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V (a) flowers are of various colours.
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I; E – V (b) flowers can be safely pressed.
B-32 BIOLOGY
(c) reproductive parts are more stable and (d) Bisexual, zygomorphic, gamophyllous,
conservative than vegetative parts. inferior ovary, marginal placentation.
(d) flowers are good materials for identification. 10. Which one of the following is cor rect
2. Aleurone layer helps in explanation for the given floral formula ?
(a) storage of food in endosperm.
%O K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1
(b) protection of embryo. +
(c) utilization of stored food. (a) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and
(d) all of the above. gamosepalous, petals five and papilionaceous,
3. Rearrange the following zones seen in the anthers ten and monadelphous, ovary superior
regions of root tip and choose the correct option. and monocarpellary.
(A) Root hair zone (B) Zone of meristems (b) Zygomorphic, unisexual, sepals five and
(C) Root cap zone (D) Zone of maturation gamosepalous, petals five and
(E) Zone of elongation polypetalous, anthers nine united and one
(a) C, B, E, A, D (b) A, B, C, D, E free, ovary superior and monocarpellary.
(c) D, E, A, C, B (d) E, D, C, B, A (c) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and
4. Which is not a stem modification ? gamosepalous, petals five and
(a) Rhizome of ginger (b) Corm of Colocasia papilionaceous, anthers ten and diadelphous,
(c) Pitcher of Nepenthes (d) Tuber of potato ovary superior and monocarpellary.
5. Most prominent function of inflorescence is (d) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and
(a) dispersal of seeds. united, petals five and united, anthers ten
(b) formation of more fruits. and diadelphous, ovary superior and
(c) formation of pollen grains. monocarpellary.
(d) dispersal of pollens. 11. The region of the root-tip which is involved in
6. The character of flower which is represented by the formation of root hairs by epidermal cells is
floral formula but not by floral diagram is called the
(a) aestivation (a) region of maturation.
(b) placentation (b) region of meristematic activity.
(c) position of gynoecium (c) region of elongation.
(d) adhesion of stamen (d) none of the above.
7. The mature seeds of plants such as gram and 12. The X is small and situated in a groove at one end
peas, possess no endosperm, because of the endosperm. It consists of one large and
(a) these plants are not angiosperms. shield shaped cotyledon known as Y and a short
(b) there is no double fertilization in them. axis with a plumule and a Z. Identify X, Y and Z.
(c) endosperm is not formed in them. X Y Z
(d) endosperm gets used up by the developing (a) Scutellum Embryo Radicle
embryo during seed development. (b) Embryo Scutellum Radicle
8. Which of the following is correct with reference (c) Scutellum Radicle Embryo
to floral character of family solanaceae? (d) Radicle Embryo Scutellum
(a) Racemose, zygomorphic, unisexual, floral 13. "X" is the outermost whorl of the flower and
characters contains "Y". Y is green, leaf like and protect the
(b) Racemose, zygomorphic, bisexual, polypetalous other whorls of the flower.
(c) Axillary, bisexual, actinomorphic, epipetalous Identify X and Y.
(d) Axillary, actinomorphic, bisexual, epipetalous (a) X - Calyx; Y - Sepals
9. Which of the following represents the floral (b) X - Corolla; Y - Petals
characters of liliaceae? (c) X - Gynoecium; Y - Fruit
(a) Six tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, (d) X - Androecium; Y - Ovary
bilocular ovary, axile placentation. 14. It is a proteinous layer and the outer covering of
(b) Actinomorphic, polyphyllous, unilocular endosperm which separates the embryo. Identify
ovary, axile placentation.
the layer.
(c) Tricorpellary, actinomorphic, polyandrous,
(a) Tegmen (b) Scutellum
superior ovary, axile placentation.
(c) Hyaline layer (d) Aleurone layer
Anatomy of
6 Flowering Plants
Fill in the Blanks : 8. Tracheids are the chief water transporting
elements in gymnosperms.
1. Various functions like photosynthesis, storage,
excretion performed by _____________. Conceptual MCQs :
2. Sclerenchyma usually______ and _________
1. What is true about a monocot leaf?
protoplasts.
(a) Reticulate venation
3. The __________ occurs in layers below the
(b) Absence of bulliform cells from epidermis
epidermis in dicotyledonous plants.
(c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade
4. Xylem functions as a conducting tissue for water
and spongy tissues
and minerals from ______to the ______ and
(d) Well differentiated mesophyll
__________.
5. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are ______. 2. Which is correct about transport or conduction
6. Phellogen and phellem respectively denote ______. of substances?
7. Bast fibres are made up of __________ cells. (a) Organic food moves up through phloem
8. An organised and differentiated cellular structure (b) Inorganic food moves up through phloem
having cytoplasm but no nucleus is called ______. (c) Inorganic food moves upwardly and
9. A vascular bundle in which the protoxylem is downwardly through xylem
pointing to the periphery is called __________. (d) Organic food moves upwardly and
downwardly through phloem
True / False : 3. What is not true about sclereids?
(a) These are parenchyma cells with thickened
1. Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and lignified walls
mitochondria. (b) These are elongated and flexible with
2. In flowering plants, tracheids and vessels are tapered ends
the main water transporting elements. (c) These are commonly found in the shells of
3. Xylem parenchyma store food materials in the nuts and in the pulp of guava, pear, etc
form of starch or fat and other substances like (d) These are also called the stone cells
tannins. 4. Vessels are found in
4. In Xylem cells, the cell wall is composed of (a) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms
cellulose an d has pits th rough which (b) most of angiosperms and few gymnosperms
plasmodesmatal connections exist between the (c) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and
cells. some pteriodophyta
5. The companion cells are specialised (d) all pteridophyta
parenchymatous cells which are closely 5. Which of the following statements is true?
associated with phloem parenchyma. (a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen
6. Phloem parenchyma is absent, and water- (b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow
containing cavities are present within the lumen
vascular bundles in dicotyledonous root. (c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen
7. Uneven thickening of cell wall is characteristic (d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen
of sclerenchyma.
B-34 BIOLOGY
6. In barley stem vascular bundles are: 15. Trees at sea do not have annual rings because –
(a) closed and scattered (a) soil is sandy
(b) open and in a ring (b) there is climatic variation
(c) closed and radial (c) there is no marked climatic variation
(d) open and scattered (d) there is enough moisture in the atmosphere
7. Heartwood differs from sapwood in: 16. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
(a) presence of rays and fibres (a) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and
(b) absence of vessels and parenchyma no chloroplasts
(c) having dead and non -conducting elements (b) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large
(d) being susceptible to pests and pathogens number of chloroplasts
8. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex (c) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and
are collectively called: several chloroplasts
(a) phelloderm (b) phellogen (d) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and
(c) periderm (d) phellem few chloroplasts
9. Function of companion cells is 17. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles
(a) providing energy to sieve elements for are found in
active transport (a) Sunflower (b) Maize
(b) providing water to phloem (c) Cycas (d) Pinus
(c) loading of sucrose into sieve elements by 18. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood
passive transport spermatophytes because they lack :
(d) loading of sucrose into sieve elements (a) Cambium
10. A tissue is a group of cells which are – (b) Phloem fibres
(a) similar in origin, but dissimilar in form and (c) Thick-walled tracheids
function. (d) Xylem fibres
(b) dissimilar in origin, form and function. 19. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other
(c) dissimilar in origin, but similar in form and epidermal cells in having :
function. (a) cytoskeleton (b) mitochondria
(d) similar in origin, form and function. (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) chloroplasts
11. Root apex is subterminal because it is – 20. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) covered by root hairs (a) Root pressure - Guttation
(b) covered by root cap (b) Puccinia - Smut
(c) covered by epidermis (c) Root - Exarch protoxylem
(d) under the soil (d) Cassia - Imbricate aestivation
12. When xylem and phloem are on same radii, the
vascular bundles are said to be – Diagram Based Questions :
(a) radial
(b) conjoint/Collateral 1. The given figure shows apical meristem of root
(c) concentric apex with few part marked as A, B and C. Identify
(d) exarch/centripetal the correct labelling of A, B and C.
13. Apical, intercalary and lateral meristems are
differentiated on the basis of–
(a) origin
(b) function
(c) position
(d) development
14. Wood is-
(a) primary phloem
(b) primary xylem
(c) secondary xylem (a) A – Vascular structure; B – Protoderm; C –
(d) secondary phloem Root cap
Anatomy of Flowering Plants B-35
(b) A – Cortex; B – Endodermis; C – Root cap 4. The given figures are types of elements (A and
(c) A – Cortex; B – Protoderm; C – Root cap B) which constitute one type of complex tissue
(d) A – Tunica; B – Protoderm; C – Root cap (c) of a plant . Identify A, B and C.
A C
2. Identify A, B and C in the given figure of shoot B
apical meristem
(a) A – Tracheid; B – Vessel; C – Xylem

(a) A – Leaf primordium; B – Shoot apical
(b) A – Vessel; B – Tracheild; C – Phloem
meristem; C – Axillary bud
(c) A – Fibre; B – Tracheid; C – Bark
(b) A – Leaf primordium; B – Shoot apical
meristem; C – Apical bud (d) A – Fibre; B – Sclereid; C – Casparian strips
(c) A – Root hair primordium; B – Root apical 5. In the given figure of phloem tissue, identify the
meristem; C – Axillary bud marked part (A, B and C) which help in maintaining
(d) A – Root hair primordium; B – Root apical the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes.
meristem; C – Terminal bud
3. Identify the types of simple tissue indicated by
A, B, C and D and their function.
(A) (B)
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) None of the above
6. The given diagrams show stomatal apparatus in
dicots and monocots. Which one is correct
option for A, B and C?
(C) (D)
(a) A – Parenchyma; Photosynthesis; Storage
and Secretion.
(b) B – Sclerenchyma Scleriods; Transport
food material
(c) C – Collenchyma; Provides mechanical
support to organs.
(d) D – Sclerenchyma Fibres; Provide
Mechanical support to the growing parts
of the plant such as young stem and petiole
of a leaf.
B-36 BIOLOGY
(a) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells; 2. Assertion: Cambium is a lateral meristem and
C – chloroplast cause growth in width.
(b) A – Guard cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C – Reason: Cambium is made up of fusiform and
Stomatal pore ray initials in stem.
(c) A – Guard cells; B – Epidermal cells; C – 3. Assertion : Higher plants have meristematic
Guard cells regions for indefinite growth.
(d) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C Reason : Higher plants have root and shoot apices.
– Guard cells 4. Assertion : In collateral vascular bundles,
7. Identify types of vascular bundles in given figures phloem is situated towards inner side.
A, B and C. Reason : In monocot stem, cambium is present.
5. Assertion : Collenchyma is thick walled dead
tissue.
Reason : Collenchymatous cells show
thickenings of pectin.
(A) 6. Assertion: The two cotyledons in seed are
(B) embryonic leaves.
Reason: The embryo contains radicle and plumule.
7. Assertion : In angiosperms the conduction of
water is more efficient because their xylem has
vessels.
(C) Reason : Conduction of water by vessel elements
is an active process with energy supplied by
A B C xylem parenchyma rich in mitochondria.
(a) Radial Conjoint closed Conjoint open 8. Assertion : In woody stems, the amount of heart
(b) Conjoint closed Conjoint open Radial wood continues to increase year after year.
(c) Conjoint open Conjoint closed Radial Reason : The cambial activity continues
(d) Bicollateral Concentric Radial uninterrupted.
9. Assertion : Petroplants produce large amount
of latex.
Assertion/ Reason :
Reason : The latex contains long chain
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-9): These questions consist of hydrocarbons.
While answering these questions you are required to Matching Based Questions :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason Column I can have correct matching with one
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false which ONLY ONE is correct.
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. 1. Column-I Column-II
1. Assertion : Thick cuticle is mostly present in (A) Xylem vessels I. Store food
disease resistant plants. materials
(B) Xylem tracheids II. Obliterated lumen
Reason : Disease causing agents cannot grow (C) Xylem fibres III. Perforated plates
on cuticle and cannot invade the cuticle. (D) Xylem parenchyma IV. Chisel-like ends
Anatomy of Flowering Plants B-37
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I 6. Column-I Column-II

(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (A) Spring wood I. Lighter in colour
(c) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III or early wood
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (B) Autumn wood II. High density
2. Column -I Column -II or late wood III. Low density
(A) Bulliform cells I. Initiation of lateral IV. Darker in colour
roots V. Larger number of
(B) Pericycle II. Root xylem elements
(C) Endarch xylem III. Grasses VI. Vessels with wider
(D) Exarch xylem IV. Dicot leaf cavity
E. Bundle sheath cells V. Stem VII. Lesser number of
(a) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – II xylem elements
(b) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – III; E – IV VIII. Vessels with small
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III; E – V cavity
(d) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV Which of the following combination is correct ?
3. Column-I Column-II (a) A – II, IV, VII, VIII; B – I, III, V, VI
(Term) (Functions) (b) A – I, II, VII, VIII; B – III, IV, V, VI
(A) Meristem I. Photosynthesis, (c) A – I, III, V, VI; B – II, IV, VII, VIII
storage (d) A – I, III, VII, VIII; B – II, IV, V, VI
(B) Parenchyma II. Mechanical support 7. Column-I Column-II
(C) Collenchyma III. Actively dividing (A) Stele I. Innermost layer of
cells cortex
(D) Sclerenchyma IV. Stomata (B) Endodermis II. Suberin
E. Epidermal tissue V. Sclereids (C) Casparian strips III. All the tissues
(a) A – I; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – IV exterior to vascular
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV cambium
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – III (D) Bark IV. All the tissues inner
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I to endodermis
4. Column-I Column-II (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(A) Cuticle I. Guard cells (b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(B) Bulliform cells II. Outer layer (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(C) Stomata III. Waxy layer (d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(D) Epidermis IV. Empty colourless cell 8. Column-I Column-II
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (Terms) (Features)
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (A) Fibres I. Cells are living and thin
(c) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I walled with cellulosic cell
(d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV wall, store food materials in
5. Column-I Column-II the form of starch or fat
(Structure) (Function) (B) Sclereids II. Main water conductive cells
(A) Stomata I. Protection of stem of the pteridophytes and the
(B) Bark II. Plant movement gymnosperms
(C) Cambium III. Secondary growth (C) Tracheids III. Thick walled, elongated and
(D) Cuticle IV. Transpiration pointed cells, generally
V. Prevent the loss of water occurring in groups
(a) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – IV (D) Vessels IV. Long cylindrical tube like
(b) A – I; B – IV; C – V; D – III structure and cells are devoid
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III of protoplasm. Characteristic
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – V feature of angiosperms
B-38 BIOLOGY
E. Xylem V. Reduced form of (d) Cork cambium is present in dicots

parenchyma sclerenchyma cells with 4. The length of different internodes in a culm of
highly thickened lignified sugarcane is variable because of
cellular walls that form small (a) size of leaf lamina at the node below each
bundles of durable layers of internode
tissue in most plants. (b) intercalary meristem
A B C D E (c) shoot apical meristem
(a) I II III IV V (d) position of axillary buds
(b) III V II IV I 5. As secondary growth proceeds, in a dicot stem,
(c) III I V II IV the thickness of
(d) V IV III I II (a) sapwood increases.
9. Column-I Column-II (b) heartwood increase.
(A) Lateral meristem I. Fascicular vascular (c) both sapwood and heartwood increases.
cambium, interfascicular (d) both sapwood and heartwood remains the
cambium and cork same.
cambium. 6. The trees growing in desert will
(B) Apical meristem II. Produces dermal (a) show alternate rings of xylem and
tissue, ground tissues sclerenchyma.
and vascular tissue. (b) have only conjunctive tissue and phloem
(C) Bast fibres III. Generally absent in is formed by the activity of cambium.
primary phloem but (c) show distinct annual rings.
found in secondary (d) not show distinct annual rings.
phloem. 7. Some vascular bundles are described as open
(D) Sap wood IV. Involved in the because these
conduction of water (a) are surrounded by pericycle but not
and minerals from the endodermis.
root to leaf. (b) are capable of producing secondary xylem
A B C D and phloem.
(a) I II III IV (c) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem
(b) III I II IV and phloem.
(c) I IV III II (d) are not surrounded by pericycle.
(d) II IV III I 8. Apical and intercalary meristems are primary
meristems because
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) they occur in the mature region of roots
1. One of the primary function of the ground tissue and shoots of many plants.
in a plant is (b) they made up of different kinds of tissues.
(a) photosynthesis. (c) they involved in secondary growth.
(b) to protect the plant. (d) they appear early in life of a plant and
(c) to anchor the plant. contribute to the formation of the primary
(d) water and sugar conduction. plant body.
2. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove 9. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food
(a) periderm (b) epidermis because they possess
(c) cuticle (d) leaves (a) bordered pits.
3. Why grafting is successful in dicots ? (b) no ends walls.
(a) In dicots vascular bundles are arranged in (c) broader lumen and perforated cross walls.
a ring. (d) no protoplasm.
(b) Dicots have cambium for secondary 10. A piece of wood having no vessels (trachea)
growth. must be belonged to
(c) In dicots vessels with elements are arranged (a) teak (b) mango
end to end. (c) pine (d) palm
Structural Organisation
7 in Animals
Fill in the Blanks : 8. Heart of cockroach consists of elongated
muscular tube lying along mid dorsal line of
1. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner thorax and abdomen.
walls of blood vessels is _________ .
2. The only type of cell seen in a tendon is Conceptual MCQs :
_________ . 1. The type of muscles present in our :
3. The chondrocytes of connective tissue are (a) heart are involuntary and unstriated
_________ . smooth muscles
4. The supportive skeletal structures in the human (b) intestine are striated and involuntary
external ears and in the nose tip are examples of (c) thigh are striated and voluntary
_________ . (d) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres
5. Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals fusiform in shape
that are included in class _______ of phylum 2. Which of the following is correctly stated as it
_______. happens in the common cockroach ?
6. Intercalated discs are the communication (a) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs
junctions between the cells of _________ . projecting out from the colon
(b) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in
True/ False : blood
(c) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
1. There are 16 very long malpighian tubules (d) The food is ground by mandibles and
present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut gizzard
in periplaneta americana. 3. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
2. Nervous system is located ventrally in structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
periplaneta and consists of segmentally arranged found in:
gan glia joined by a pair of longitudinal (a) nails (b) ear ossicles
connectives. (c) tip of the nose (d) vertebrae
3. Muscle fibres contract (shorten) in response to 4. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on it
stimulation, then relax (lengthen) and return to outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid
their uncontracted state in a coordinated fashion. that comes out is :
4. Neuroglial cells protect and support neurons. (a) coelomic fluid (b) haemolymph
5. Tight junctions help to stop substances from (c) slimy mucus (d) excretory fluid
leaking across a tissue. 5. A piece of bone such as femur of frog if kept in
6. Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, dilute HCl for about a week will
macrophages and mast cells. (a) assume black colour
(b) shrink in size
7. Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of
(c) turn flexible
specialized connective tissue.
(d) crack into pieces
B-40 BIOLOGY
6. Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the cells 14. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the
are category of:
(a) hardened and provide support to the (a) smooth muscle tissue
organs (b) squamous epithelium
(b) cemented directly to one another to form a (c) columnar epithelium
single layer (d) connective tissue
(c) continuously dividing to provide form to 15. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles
an organ by earthworm is a process called
(d) loosely connected to one another to form (a) humification (b) fragmentation
an irregular organ (c) mineralisation (d) catabolism
7. Blood is a – 16. Consider the following four statements (A-D)
(a) epithelial tissue (b) muscular tissue related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and
(c) connective tissue (d) supportive tissue select the correct option stating which ones are
8. Inter-calated discs are present in – true (T) and which ones are false (F)
(a) cardiac muscles (b) striped muscles Statements :
(c) unstriated muscles (d) ligament (A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2
9. Photoreceptor in Pheretima are – its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few
(a) on ventral side of skin
days
(b) on dorsal side of skin
(B) It has four- chambered heart
(c) on both
(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic
(d) in clitellum
(D) Its life-history is carried out in pond water
10. The principal function of blood vascular system
Options :
in cockroach is –
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) distribution of absorb nutrients
(a) T F F T
(b) distribution of oxygen
(c) transportation of enzymes (b) T T F F
(d) transportation of heat (c) F F T T
11. Diagnostic feature of insects in – (d) F T T F
(a) three pairs of legs 17. The type of muscles present in our :
(b) compound eye (a) heart are involuntary and unstriated
(c) chitinous body smooth muscles
(d) two pairs of wings (b) intestine are striated and involuntary
12. Male and female cockroaches can be (c) thigh are striated and voluntary
distinguished externally through (d) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres
(a) anal styles in male fusiform in shape
(b) anal cerci in female 18. Select the correct statement from the ones given
(c) anal style and antennae in female below with respect to Periplaneta americana.
(d) both (b) and (c) (a) Nervous system located dorsally, consists
13. Which of the following is correctly stated as it of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by
happens in the common cockroach ? a pair of longitudinal connectives.
(a) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs (b) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal
projecting out from the colon styles.
(b) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in (c) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules
blood present at the junctions of midgut and
(c) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea hindgut.
(d) The food is ground by mandibles and (d) Grinding of food is carried out only by the
gizzard mouth parts.
Structural Organisation in Animals B-41
19. Which of the following statements are wrong? (b) A-Macrophage; B-Collagen fibres; C
(i) Leucocytes disintegrate in the spleen and liver. Microfilament; D-Mast cells
(ii) RBC, WBC and blood platelets ar e (c) A-Macrophage; B-Collagen fibres; C
produced by bone marrow. Microtubule; D-RBC
(iii) Neutrophils bring about destruction and
(d) A-Macrophage; B-Fibroblast; C-Collagen
detoxification of toxins of protein origin.
fibres; D-Mast cells
(iv) The important function of lymphocytes is
to produce antibodies. 3. Identify figures-I and II.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iv) only Matrix Fibroblast Collagen Fibre
(c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only
20. Cells that maintain marrow cells are called
(a) osteocytes (b) chondrocytes
(c) osteoclasts (d) none of these.

1. The diagram given below represents the
reproductive organ of male cockroach. Choose Collagen Fibroblast Matrix
the correct labelling of the part of marked as A, Fibre
Fig-I Fig-II
B, C and D.
Figure I Figure II
(a) Dense regular Dense irregular
A connective tissue, connective tissue
B
C (b) Loose irregular Loose regular
D
connective tissue, connective tissue
(a) A – 8th sternum; B - Anal cercus; C - 10th
(c) Adipose tissue, Specialized
tergum; D - Anal style connective tissue
(b) A - 10th tergum; B - Anal cercus; C - Anal
(d) Connective tissue Areolar tissue
style; D - 8th sternum
(c) A - Anal style; B - Anal cercus; C - 10th proper
tergum; D- 8th sternum 4. The intercellular material of the given figure is
(d) A - Anal cercus; B - 8th sternum; C - 10th solid and resists compression. Identify the figure
tergum; D - Anal style. and the label marked as A & B.
2. In the given diagram of areolar connective tissue,
the different cells and parts have been marked
by alphabets (A, B, C & D). Choose the answer A
in which these alphabets correctly match with
the parts and cells they indicate. B
Matrix
A Fig
B
Fig. A B
C
(a) Cartilage Collagen Chondrocyte
(b) Cartilage Collagen Chondroclast
D (c) Bone Microtubule Chondroclast
(a) A-Adipocyte; B-Collagen fibres; C- (d) Bone Collagen fibres Osteoblast
Microfilament; D-Mast cells
B-42 BIOLOGY
5. The following figure shows the extarnal features 7. The following figures A, B and C are types of
of cockroach with few structures labelled as A, muscle tissue. Identify A, B and C.
B, C, D, & E.
(A) (B) (C)

(a) A – Smooth muscle; B – Cardiac muscle; C
– Skeletal muscle
(b) A – Skeletal muscle; B – Smooth muscle; C
– Cardiac muscle
(c) A – Cardiac muscle; B – Smooth muscle; C
– Skeletal muscle
Identify A to E . (d) A – Smooth muscle; B –Skeletal muscle; C
– Cardiac muscle
(a) A- Mesothorax; B-Pronotum;
C Metathorax; D-Tegmina; E-Anal style Assertion/ Reason :
(b) A- Pronotum; B-Metathorax;
C Mesothorax; D-Tegmina; E-Sterna
(c) A- Pronotum; B-Mesothorax; C While answering these questions you are required to
Metathorax; D-Tegmina; E-Anal cerci choose any one of the following five responses.
(d) A- Pronotum; B-Mesothorax; C (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the
Metathorax; D-Tegmina; E-Anal style reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
6. Identify the figure with its correct function (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
1. Assertion : Cartilage and bone are rigid
connective tissues.
Reason : Blood is a connective tissue
2. Assertion : Intercalated discs are important
regions of cardiac muscle cells.
Reason : Intercalated discs function as boosters
Fig :. Adipose connective tissue for muscle contraction waves.
(a) Areolar connective tissue – Serves as a 3. Assertion : Typhlosole increases the effective
support framework for epithelium. area of absorption in the intestine.
(b) Adipose tissue – Store fats and act as heat Reason : Typhlosole, present in the intestine is
insulators. the characteristic feature of cockroach.
(c) Dense regular tissue – Provide flexibility. 4. Assertion : Urinary bladder can considerably
expand to accommodate urine.
(d) Dense irregular tissue – Provide strength
Reason : It is lined by stretchable squamous
and elasticity.
epithelium.
5. Assertion : Specialization of cells is (a) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – III; E – I

advantageous for the organisms. (b) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I
Reason : It increases the operational efficiency (c) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
of an organism.
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II
6. Assertion : WBCs accumulate at site of wounds
by diapedesis. 2. Column-I Column-II
(Types of epithelium) (Description)
Reason : It is squeezing of leucocytes from
endothelium. (A) Squamous I. It is composed of
epithelium a single-layer of
7. Assertion : Mast cells in the human body release
excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals cube-like cells
which cause allergic reactions. (B) Cuboidal II. Having cilia on
Reason : Allergens in the environment on epithelium their free
reaching human body stimulate mast cells in surface
certain individuals. (C) Columnar III. It is composed of
8. Assertion : Surface of skin is impervious to water. epithelium a single layer of
tall and slender
Reason : Surface of skin is covered by stratified
cells
cuboidal epithelium.
(D) Ciliated IV. It is made up of a
9. Assertion : Mast cells help in body defence.
epithelium single thin layer
Reason : Mast cells phagocytose & destroy of flattened cells
microbes.
with irregular
boundaries
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (b) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of (Types of connective) (Examples)
which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Loose connective I. Tendons and
tissue ligaments
(B) Dense regular II. Skin
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)
tissue
(A) Cuboidal I. Epidermis of skin
(C) Dense irregular III. Cartilage, bones,
(B) Ciliated II. Inner lining of
tissue blood
blood vessels
(D) Specialized IV. Fibroblasts,
(C) Columnar III. Inner surface of
gall bladder connective tissue macrophages and
mast cells
(D) Squamous IV. Inner lining of
fallopian tube (a) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(E) Keratinized V. Lining of (b) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
pancreatic duct (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
squamous (d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
B-44 BIOLOGY

(Description) (Example)
(Terms) (Features)
(A) Aquatic respiratory A. Skin
(A) Exocrine gland I. They help to stop organ
substances from (B) Organ which acts B. Ureter
leaking across a urogenital duct and
tissue opens into the cloaca
(B) Endocrine gland II. Hormones are (C) A small median C. Cloaca
chamber that is used to
secreted directly
pass faecal matter, urine
into the fluid
and sperms to the exterior
bathing the gland (D) A triangular structure D. Sinus
(C) Tight junctions III. They perform which joins the right venosus
cementing to atrium and receives blood
keep through vena cava
neighbouring 1 2 3 4
cells together. (a) A B C D
(b) C A D B
(D) Adhering junctions IV. Secretes mucus, (c) B A C D
saliva, earwax, oil, (d) C B D A
milk, digestive
enzymes and Critical Thinking Type Questions :
other cell 1. The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory
products pigment. It means that
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (a) cockroach does not respire.
(b) respiration is anaerobic.
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (c) oxygen goes dir ectly into tissues by
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I diffusion.
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (d) oxygen goes dir ectly into tissues by
intracellular capillary system.
5. Column-I Column-II 2. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still
(A) Periplaneta I. Hepatic caecae alive for as long as one week. It is because of
americana (a) the body which is covered with a hard
(B) A ring of 6-8 blind II. Phylum chitinous exoskeleton.
(b) head which holds a bit of nervous system.
arthropoda
(c) head which is of no use.
tubules (d) food capturing appratus which is found
(C) Vascular system III. Spiracles elsewhere.
(D) 10 pairs of small IV. Malpighian 3. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?
(a) No movements at joints.
tubules holes
(b) Bones will become fixed.
(E) Excretion V. Open type (c) Bones will become unfixed.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (d) Bone will move freely at joints.
4. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved
(b) A – II; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – IV
in injuries resulting in damage and death of a
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV few cells of the following. Which of the cells are
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I least likely to be replaced by new cells?
(a) Liver cells (c) Crop ® Gizzard ® Hepatic caeca ®

(b) Neurons Malphigian tubules ® Rectum.
(c) Malpighian layer of the skin (d) Crop ® Hepatic caeca ® Gizzard ® Rectum
(d) Osteocytes ® Malphigian tubules.
5. In cockroach head can move in all directions 8. Lack of blood supply and presence of the
due to noncellular basement membran e are the
(a) absence of neck. characteristics of the
(b) fusion of all 6 segments of head. (a) muscular tissue
(c) flexible neck. (b) fluid connective tissue
(d) head is small and light weight. (c) epithelial tissue
6. What external changes are visible after the last (d) nervous tissue
moult of a cockroach nymph? 9. The secretions of endocrine glands are released
(a) Development of anal cerci. directly
(b) Development of both forewings and hind (a) into the skin surface
wings. (b) into the blood stream
(c) Development labium. (c) into a gland duct
(d) Mandibles become harder. (d) into the brain tissue
7. Choose the correct sequence of alimentary canal 10. Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing
of Cockroach following an inj ury because
(a) Gizzard ® Crop ® Malphigian tubules ® (a) cartilage cells cannot reproduce.
Hepatic caeca ® Rectum. (b) they lack direct blood supplies.
(b) Gizzard ® Hepatic caeca ® Crop ® Rectum (c) the intercellular material is missing.
® Malphigian tubules. (d) cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids.
B-46 BIOLOGY
8 Cell : The Unit of Life
Fill in the Blanks : 8. Glycocalyx is the outermost envelope in bacteria.

9. Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the
1. Difference between the prokaryotic an d bacterial cell are called fimbriae.
eukaryotic cells in having __________.
10. RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the
2. Polysome is a chain of __________. whole biosphere.
3. Extension of plasma membrane in prokaryotic 11. Na+/K+ pump is an example of passive transport.
cell is __________.
4. _______________ is the important site of Conceptual MCQs :
formation of glycoproteins and golycolipids.
1. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma
5. Plastids storing fat are called __________. membrane is composed of
6. An organelle devoid of membrane covering is (a) phospholipids and oligosaccharides
_________. (b) phospholipids and hemicellulose
7. The membrane of the erythrocytes has (c) phospholipids and integral proteins
approximately ___% of proteins and ___% lipids. (d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and
intrinsic proteins
8. The lipid component of the membrane mainly
2. Electron microscope has a high resolution power.
consists of __________.
This is due to
(a) electromagnetic lenses
True / False : (b) very low wavelength of electron beam
1. Human RBC is about 7.0 mm in diameter. (c) low wavelength of light source used
(d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses used
2. Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm
3. Element necessary for middle lamella is
to keep the cell in the living state.
(a) Ca (b) Zn
3. Cilia are smaller which work like oars, causing (c) K (d) Cu
the movement of either the cells or surrounding 4. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ
fluid. in
4. Contractile vacuole takes part in osmoregulation (a) type of movement and placement in cell
and excretion. (b) location in cell and mode of functioning
5. The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium (c) microtubular organization and type of
carbonate which h olds the differen t movement
neighbouring cells together. (d) microtubular organization and function
6. ER helps in the tran sport of substances, 5. Centromere is required for
synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and (a) movement of chromosomes towards poles
glycogen. (b) cytoplasmic cleavage
(c) crossing over
7. Mitochondria help in oxidative phosphorylation
(d) transcription
and generation of ATP.
Cell : The Unit of Life B-47
6. Vacuole in a plant cell 14. Similarity between plant and animal flagella
(a) is membrane-bound and contains storage microtubules is
proteins and lipids (a) 9 + 3 (b) 9 + 2
(b) is membrane-bound and contains water and (c) 9 + 6 (d) 9 + 1
excretory substances 15. Sedimentation coefficient of mitochondrial
(c) lacks membrane and contains air
ribosomes of higher plants is :
(d) lacks membrane and contains water and
(a) 80S (b) 70S
excretory substances
7. Hereditary characters are due to (c) 65S (d) 55S
(a) chromosomes (b) gene 16. Middle lamella is composed mainly of:
(c) blood (d) placenta (a) muramic acid
8. Cell wall is made up of (b) calcium pectate
(a) several layers of microfibrils (c) phosphoglycerides
(b) several micelle (d) hemicellulose
(c) cellulose molecules 17. Which one of the following structures between
(d) glucose molecules two adjacent cells is an effective transport
9. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs pathway?
(a) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well (a) Plasmodesmata
as in mitochondria
(b) Plastoquinones
(b) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
well as in cytoplasm
(c) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear (d) Plasmalemma
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum 18. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(d) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol (a) Mitochondria
10. Which structure is present in chromosomes? (b) Dictyosome
(a) Nucleus (b) Centromere (c) Lysosome
(c) Centrosome (d) Golgi body (d) Peroxisome
11. Chromosome with centromere at one end? 19. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and
(a) Metacentric (b) Sub-metacentric glycolipids is
(c) Telocentric (d) Acrocentric (a) vacuole
12. Three of the following statements regarding cell (b) golgi apparatus
organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which
(c) plastid
one is wrong ?
(d) lysosome
(a) Lysosomes are double membraned vesicles
budded off form golgi apparatus and 20. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA
contain digestive enzymes. strand. What is so special shown in it?
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a 5’ —— GAATTC —— 3’
network of membranous tubules and helps 3’ —— CTTAAG —— 5’
in transport, synthesis and secretion. (a) Replication completed
(c) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes (b) Deletion mutation
lack pigment but contain their own DNA (c) Start codon at the 5’ end
and protein synthesizing machinery. (d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(d) Sphearosomes are single membrane bound 21. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
and are associated with synthesis and (a) Lysosomes
storage of lipids.
(b) Nucleolus
13. Golgi body is concerned with –
(c) Nucleoplasm
(a) respiration (b) secretion
(c) excretion (d) degradation (d) Ribosomes
B-48 BIOLOGY
(c) A – Submetacentric chromosome; B –

Diagram Based Questions : Metacentric chromosome; C – Telocentric
1. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D chromosome; D – Acrocentric chromosome
in the given section of cilia/flagella showing
(d) A – Metacentric chromosome; B –
different parts. Choose the option which shows
Submetacentric chromosome; C–
the correct labelling of parts.
Acrocentric chromosome;
D – Telocentric chromosome.
3. Which of the following option correctly match
A, B, C, and D indicated in the given sectional
view of chloroplasts.
(a) A – Plasma membrane; B – Interdoublet

bridge; C – Central microtubule; D – Radial
spoke
(b) A – Plasma membrane; B – Arm; C – Central
microtubule; D – Radial spoke
(c) A – Plasma membrane; B – Interdoublet (a) A - Thylakoid; B-Stromal lamella; C - Stroma;
bridge; C – Hub; D – Radial spoke D - Granum
(d) A – Plasma membrane; B – Interdoublet (b) A - Granum; B - Thylakoid; C - Stromal
bridge; C– Hub; D – Arm lamella; D - Stroma
2. The given diagram shows the types of (c) A - Thylakoid; B - Granum; C - Stromal
chromosomes (labelled as A, B, C & D) based on lamella; D - Stroma
the position of centromere. Which one is the
correct option for the labelled chromosomes. A, (d) A - Granum; B - Thylakoid; C - Stroma; D -
B, C and D ? Stromal lamella
4. The given diagram shows the sectional view of
a mitochondrion.
Ribosomes DNA (B)
Tubuli
(E)
A B C D
(A)
(a) A – Telocentric chromosome; B – (D) (C)
Acrocentric chromosome; C – Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D & E
Submetacentric chromosome; (a) A - Outer membrane; B - Inner membrane;
D – Metacentric chromosome C - Matrix; D - Inter- membrane space; E -
(b) A – Acrocentric chromosome; B – Crista
Telocentric chromosome; C – Metacentric (b) A - Outer membrane; B - Inner membrane;
chromosome; D – Submetacentric C - Inter-membrane space; D - Matrix;
chromosome E - Crista
(c) A - Outer membrane; B - Inner membrane; (i) Sugar (ii) Protein

C - Matrix; D - Crista; E - Inter - membrane (iii) Lipid bilayer (iv) Integral protein
space
(v) Cytoplasm (vi) Cell wall
(d) A - Outer membrane; B - Inner membrane;
(vii) External protein
C- Crista; D - Matrix; E - Inter-membrane
space (a) A - (i); B - (ii); C - (iii); D - (iv); E - (v)
5. The following diagram shows some of the (b) A - (ii); B - (i); C - (iii); D - (iv); E - (v)
missing structures in a plant cell marked as A, B, (c) A - (i); B - (ii); C - (iii); D - (iv); E - (vi)
C, D E. Choose the option with their correct (d) A - (i); B - (ii); C - (iii); D - (vii); E - (v)
names.
7. The following diagram represents a structure
chromosome.
Identify the structures marked as A, B and C.
(a) A - Plasmodesmata; B - Rough endoplasmic

reticulum; C - Golgi apparatus; D -
Mitochondrion; E - Ribosomes (a) A - Satellite; B - Primary constriction;
(b) A - Desmosome; B - Rough endoplasmic C - Acrocentric
reticulum; C - Golgi apparatus; D - (b) A - Satellite; B - Secondary constriction;
Mitochondrion; E - Ribosomes C - Metacentric
(c) A - Plasmodesmata; B - Smooth (c) A - Satellite; B - Centromere; C - Telocentric
endoplasmic reticulum; C - Golgi apparatus;
D - Mitochondrion; E - Ribosomes (d) A - Satellite; B - Centromere; C - Submetacentric
(d) A - Tight junction; B - Rough endoplasmic
reticulum; C - Golgi apparatus; D -
Assertion/ Reason :
Mitochondrion; E -Ribosomes DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-11): These questions consist of
6. The diagram given below represent a filuid two statements each, printed as assertion and reason.
mosaic model of plasma membrance. Match the While answering these questions you are required to
components marked as A, B, C, D and E in the choose any one of the following five responses.
diagram below from the list (i) to (vii).
1. Assertion: Cell membrane is semipermeable.
Reason: The constituent molecules can freely
move in the membrane.
B-50 BIOLOGY
2. Assertion: Plasmids are double-stranded extra 1. Column-I Column-II

chromosomal DNA. (A) Tonoplast I. Contain digestive
Reason: Plasmids are possessed by eukaryotic enzyme
cells. (B) Contractile vacuole II. Store metabolic
3. Assertion: Living organisms possess specific gases
individuality with the definite shape and size. (C) Food vacuole III. Excretion
Reason: Both living and non living entities (D) Air vacuole IV. Transport of ions
resemble each other at the lower level of in plants
organisation.
4. Assertion: Mitochondria is known as power (a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
house of cell. (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
Reason: ATP production takes place here. (c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
5. Assertion: Cell wall is not found in animal cell.
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
Reason: Animal cells are covered by cell
membrane. 2. Column-I Column-II
6. Assertion: It is important that the organisms (Chromosome) (Position of Centromere)
should have cell. (A) Metacentric I. At the tip
Reason: A cell keeps its chemical composition (B) Submetacentric II. Almost near the tip
steady within its boundary. (C) Acrocentric III. At the middle
7. Assertion: A cell membrane shows fluid (D) Telocentric IV. Slightly away from the
behaviour. middle
Reason: A membrane is a mosaic or composite
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
of diverse lipids and proteins.
8. Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
semi autonomous organelles. (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
Reason: They are formed by division of pre-
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – I ; D – II
existing organelles as well as contain DNA but
lack protein synthesizing machinery 3. Column-I Column-II
9. Assertion: Na+– K+ ATPase is an important (A) SER I. Increase the surface
membrane associated enzyme. area
Reason: It helps in ion transfer across the (B) Golgi apparatus II. Store oils or fats
membrane. (C) Cristae III. Excretion
10. Assertion: DNA is associated with proteins. (D) Peroxisome IV. Photorespiration
Reason: DNA binds around histone proteins that E. Elaioplasts V. Synthesis of lipid
form a pool and the entire structure is called a
(a) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – II
nucleosome.
11. Assertion: Lysosomes help in photorespiration. (b) A – V; B – III: C – II; D – IV; E – I
Reason: Lysosome have basic enzyme. (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – V
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A) Leeuwenhoek I. First saw and
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements described a living cell
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in (B) Robert Brown II. Presence of cell wall is
Column I can have correct matching with one unique to plant cells
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 (C) Schleiden III. Discovered the nucleus
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
(D) Schwann IV. All plants are composed
of different kind of cells
(a) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II (a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I

(b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(Cell type) (Size) (A) Bacteria without walls I. Lysosome
(A) Viruses I. 1-2 mm (B) Small circular DNA II. Mycoplasma
(B) PPLO II. 10-20 mm cells
(C) Eukaryotic cell III. About 0.1 mm (C) Flattened sacs in III. Thylakoid
(D) Bacterium IV. 0.02 - 0.2 mm a chloroplast
(D) A vesicle in which IV. Plasmid
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
hydrolytic enzymes
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I are stored
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
6. Column-I Column-II (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(A) Mitochondria I. Without membrane (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I ; D – II
(B) Lysosomes II. Single membrane
(C) Ribosomes III. Double membrane Critical Thinking Type Questions :
A B C 1. Golgi apparatus is absent in
(a) I II III (a) higher plants
(b) III I II (b) yeast
(c) III II I (c) bacteria and blue-green algae
(d) None of the above
(d) II III I
2. Most of water, in mature plant cells occurs in
(a) nucleus (b) cell wall
(A) Golgi apparatus I. Storage
(c) vacuoles (d) cytoplasm
(B) Mitochondria II. Photosynthesis
3. Which of the following lacks cell wall?
(C) Vacuoles III. Transport
(a) Gametes (b) Amoeba
(D) Grana IV. Secretion
(c) Mycoplasma (d) All of these
V. Respiration
4. What would happen if lysosomes get ruptured
A B C D
in a cell?
(a) IV V I II
(a) Cell dies
(b) I II IV III
(b) Cell shrinks
(c) IV I II III
(c) Cell swell up
(d) I II III IV
(d) Nothing would happen
5. Cell sap is a
(A) RER I. Intracellular and
(a) living content of cytoplasm.
extracellular digestion
(b) nonliving content of cytoplasm.
(B) Cell wall II. Provide structural
(c) nonliving content of vacuole.
support to the cell
(d) living content of vacuole.
(C) Flagella III. Protein synthesis and
6. The fluidity of membranes in a plant in cold
secretion
weather may be maintained by
(D) Lysosomes IV Responsible for cell
(a) increasing the number of phospholipids
movement
with unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.
B-52 BIOLOGY
(b) increasing the proportion of integral 9. pH of vacuolar cell sap is

proteins. (a) neutral and isotonic.
(c) increasing concentration of cholesterol in (b) alkaline and isotonic.
membrane. (c) acidic and hypertonic.
(d) increasing the number of phospholipids (d) equal to cytoplasm and isotonic.
with saturated hydrocarbon tail. 10. Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin
7. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes? filaments are all part of the
(a) DNA (b) RNA (a) mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Mitochondria in chloroplasts.
8. In which method of transport, plasma membrane (b) rough ER in prokaryotic cells.
does not require carrier molecule? (c) cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells.
(a) Active transport (b) Facilitated diffusion (d) process that moves small molecules across
(c) Simple diffusion (d) Na+ – K+ pump cell membranes.
9 Biomolecules

1. The simplest amino acid is _________. 1. RNA does not possess
2. The charged molecule which is electrically (a) uracil (b) thymine
neutral is known as _________. (c) adenine (d) cytosine
2. Which is wrong about nucleic acids ?
3. Primary structure of protein is due to the presence
(a) DNA is single stranded in some viruses
of ______.
(b) RNA is double stranded occasionally
4. Building block of nucleic acid is ________.
(c) Length of one helix is 45Å in B-DNA
5. Quaternary structure is present in ________.
(d) One turn of Z-DNA has 12 bases
6. The bond between phosphate and hydroxyl
3. Adenine is
group of sugar in nucleic acid is _______.
(a) purine (b) pyrimidine
7. The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the (c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide
substrate concentration at which the reaction 4. An enzyme brings about
reaches to ________. (a) decrease in reaction time
8. Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at (b) increase in reaction time
________temperature and ________ pressure. (c) increase in activation energy
True/ False : (d) reduction in activation energy
5. In which one of the following groups, all the
1. The amino group and carboxylic group of an three are examples of polysaccharides?
amino acid are attached to both amino and (a) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
carboxylic groups to alpha carbon. (b) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
2. In lipid, R group may be –CH3 group, –C2H5 (c) Glucose, fructose, lactose
group or higher number of –CH2 group (1 to 19 (d) Galactose, starch, sucrose
carbon). 6. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is
3. Lysine is a neutral amino acid. due mainly to the diversity of
4. Proteins are homopolymer made of amino acids. (a) amino groups on the amino acids
5. Abrin and ricin are secondary metabolities used (b) R groups on the amino acids
as a drugs. (c) amino acid sequences within the protein
molecule
6. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal
(d) peptide bonds
activity.
7. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid
7. Nitrogen bases are open chain hydrocarbons. molecules are
8. Chitin, a complex or heteropolysaccharide (a) hydrophilic (b) hydrophobic
occuring in exoskeleton consists of NAG. (c) neutral (d) zwitter ions
9. Glucosamine and N-acetyl glucosamine are 8. If base order in one chain of DNA is “ATCGA”
modified sugar. then how many no. of H-bond found in DNA
duplex –
B-54 BIOLOGY
(a) 20 (b) 12 (b) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid

(c) 10 (d) 11 esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a
9. Which of the following is the example of acidic phosphate group is also attached
amino acid? (c) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid
(a) Lysine (b) Glutamic acid esterified to a phosphate group which is
(c) Aspartic acid (d) (b) and (c) both also attached to a glycerol molecule.
10. Bond between nitrogenous bases in a nucleotide (d) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a
is – glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
(a) H-bond group is also attached
(b) covalent bond 18. An example of competitive inhibition of an
(c) phosphodiester bond
enzyme is the inhibition of
(d) sulphide bond
(a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
11. Ligase enzyme is used for –
(b) cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
(a) denaturation of DNA
(b) splitting DNA into small bits (c) hexokinase by glucose -6- phosphate
(c) joining bits of DNA (d) carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
(d) digestion of lipids 19. Macro molecule chitin is :
12. Fats in the body are formed when – (a) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
(a) glycogen is formed from glucose (b) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(b) sugar level becomes stable in blood (c) Simple polysaccharide
(c) extra glycogen storage in liver and muscles (d) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
is stopped 20. Which vitamin should not be stored?
(d) all of them (a) Calciferol (b) Retinol
13. Chemically enzymes are – (c) Niacin (d) Ascorbic acid
(a) fats (b) carbohydrates Diagram Based Questions :
(c) hydrocarbons (d) proteins
14. Characteristic feature of haemoglobin – 1. What kinds of the structures of proteins are
(a) reversible union with oxygen shown in the given figure (A, B, C and D)?
(b) red Colour
(c) presence of Cu
(d) presence of globulin protein N C
15. Which one is the most abundant protein in the
animal world ?
(a) Trypsin (b) Haemoglobin A B
(c) Collagen (d) Insulin
16. Which one of the following biomolecules is
correctly characterized?
(a) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found N
in cell membrane.
(b) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid
with 18 carbon atoms. C
(c) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose C D

phosphate molecule. (a) A = 1º structure, B = 2º structure, C = 3º
(d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino structure, D = 4º structure
group and an acidic group anywhere in the (b) A = 4º structure, B = 2º structure, C = 3º
molecule. structure, D = 1º structure
17. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of : (c) A = 1º structure, B = 4º structure, C = 3º
(a) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to structure, D = 2º structure
a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate (d) A = 4º structure, B = 3º structure, C = 2º
group is also attached structure, D = 1º structure
Biomolecules B-55
2. Identify the following molecule. 5. The given structural formulas represent amino
acids (labelled by as X, Y and Z)
H CH3 CH2 – OH
X Y Z
HO Identify the correct name of X, Y and Z.
(a) Phospholipid (b) Lecithin (a) Alanine, serine and glycine respectively.
(c) Cholesterol (d) Oleic acid (b) Tyrosine, cysteine and glutamic acid
3. Refer the given structure of adenylc acid. In this respectively.
identify A. (c) Glycine, alanine and serine acid
respectively.
O
|| O (d) Cysteine, glutamic acid and tyrosine
HO – P – OCH2 N-base respectively.
|
OH A 6. The structural formula given below belongs to
CH2OH
(a) Glycosidic bond

(b) Phosphate bond HO OH
(c) Ester bond
(d) Ionic bond OH OH
4. The adjoining graph shows change in
(a) glucose (b) ribose
concentration of substrate on enzyme activity.
(c) sucrose (d) deoxyribose
Identify A, B and C.
7. The given graph shows concept of activation
energy with labelled 1, 2, 3, & 4. Co-relate the
Y
statements I, II, III & IV with 1, 2, 3 & 4.
A
V 3
C 1 4
Energy
A+B
B
[S] X
}
C 2
Progress of the reaction

A B C
I. Segment representing the energy of
(a) Ki Km Vmax activation.
Vmax II. Segment representing the amount of free
(b) Km Ki
2 energy released by the reaction.
Vmax III. Transition state.
(c) Vmax Km
2 IV. Segment would be the same regardless of
Vmax whether the reaction were uncatalysed or
(d) Km Vmax
2 catalysed.
B-56 BIOLOGY
I II III IV Reason : It is not dependent upon the number

of active sites present over an enzyme.
(a) 1 3 2 4
8. Assertion : Enzyme becomes inactive below
(b) 1 2 3 2
minimum temperature.
(c) 1 3 2 4
Reason : The inactivity of the enzymes is due to
(d) 1 2 4 3 denaturation.
Assertion/ Reason : Matching Based Questions :

choose any one of the following five responses. Column I can have correct matching with one
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason which ONLY ONE is correct.
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. 1. Column-I Column-II
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (Organic Compounds) (Examples)
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false (A) Fatty acid I. Glutamic acid
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. (B) Phospholipid II. Tryptophan
1. Assertion : Enzymes have active sites and (C) Aromatic amino acid III. Lecithin
substrates reactive sites, on their surfaces (D) Acidic amino acid IV. Palmitic acid
respectively. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III, D – IV
Reason : Active and reactive sites push the (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II, D – I
enzyme and substrate molecules away from each (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I
other. (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II
2. Assertion : Enzyme substrate complex does not
(Biomolecules) (Examples)
remain throughout the reaction.
(A) Carbohydrates I. Trypsin
Reason : The greater the affinity of the enzyme (B) Protein II. Cholesterol
for a substrate, the higher is the catalytic activity. (C) Nucleic acid III. Insulin
3. Assertion : Desmolysing enzymes are those (D) Lipid IV. Adenylic acid
which catalyse the reactions by hydrolysis. (a) A – III; B – I; C – IV, D – II
Reason : Digestive enzymes are hydrolysing in (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I
nature. (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II
4. Assertion : Coenzymes serve as co-factors in a (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III
number of different enzyme catalyzed reactions. 3. Column I Column II
Reason : Coenzymes and prosthetic groups are (Proteins) (Functions)
cofactors. (A) Collagen I. Glucose
5. Assertion : Enzymes are defined as biological transport
proteins. (B) Trypsin II. Hormone
Reason : Chemically all enzymes are globular (C) Insulin III. Intercellular
proteins. ground
6. Assertion : DNA molecules and RNA molecules substance
are found in the nucleus of cell. (D) GLUT-4 IV. Enzyme
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
Reason : On heating, enzymes do not lose their
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
specific activity.
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
7. Assertion : The higher the turn-over number
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
the more efficient an enzyme is.
Biomolecules B-57
4. Column-I Column-II (B) Enzyme catalyzes the II. Oxidore-

(Component) (% of the total conversion of ductase
cellular mass) an aldose sugar to
(A) Water I. 3 a ketose sugar.
(B) Proteins II. 70-90 (C) Enzyme where III. Ligases
catalysis involves
(C) Carbohydrates III. 2
transfer of electrons.
(D) Lipids IV. 5-7
(D) Enzyme catalysing IV. Lyases
(E) Nucleic acids V. 10-15 bonding of two
(a) A – V; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – I components with the
(b) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – III; E – IV help of ATP.
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II (a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I (b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
5. Column I Column II (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(Category) (Secondary (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
metabolites)
(A) Pigments I. Concanavalin A
(B) Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, 1. According to weight percentage, the first three
Diterpenes elements in human body are
(C) Alkaloids III. Morphine, (a) C > H > O (b) C > O > N
Cadeine (c) O > N > C (d) O > C > H
(D) Lectins IV. Carotenoids, 2. If all the peptide bonds of a protein are broken
Anthocyanin down, then what would remain?
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (a) Amino acids (b) Peptides
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) Polypeptides (d) Oligopeptides
(c) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II 3. Relation between amino acid and protein is
similar to the one found between
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(a) glucose and fructose
(b) thymine and uracil
(A) Cotton fibre I. Chitin
(c) nucleosides and nucleic acid
(B) Exoskeleton of II. Glycogen
(r) nucleotides and nucleic acid
cockroach
4. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids.
(C) Liver III. Starch
Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed
(D) Peeled potato IV. Cellulose by
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (a) base-sugar-phosphate.
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (b) base-sugar-OH.
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (c) (base-sugar-phosphate)n.
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (d) sugar-phosphate.
7. Column I Column II 5. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
(Function) (Types of that
enzymes) (a) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands,
(A) Enzymes catalysing I. Isomerases at their ends share the same position.
breakdown without (b) the phosphate groups at the start of two
addition of water. DNA strands are in opposite position
(pole).
B-58 BIOLOGY
(c) one strand turns clockwise. 11. Which of the following set is correctly match to
(d) one strand turns anti-clockwise. the category mentioned against them ?
6. Which of the following is not an attribute of (a) Lysine, glycine, thiamine – amino acids.
enzymes ? (b) Arachidonic acid, acetic acid, palmitic acid
(a) They are substrate specific in nature. – Fatty acids
(b) They are proteinaceous in nature. (c) Thymidine, uridine, cytidilic acid –
Nucleosides
(c) They are used up in the reaction.
(d) Cellulose, inulin, glycogen –
(d) They speed up rate of biochemical reaction.
Polysaccharides
7. “All enzymes are proteins.” This statement is
12. The stored form of sugar in animal is a
now modified because an apparent exception to
(a) homopolysaccharide (b)
this biological truth is
heteropolysaccharide
(a) arylsulfatase
(c) oligosaccharide (d)
(b) dehydrogenase
diasaccharide
(c) ribozyme
13. Select the type of enzyme involved in the
(d) nitroreductase following reaction.
8. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecule
on earth, are produced by S - G + S' ® S + S'- G
(a) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells. (a) Dehydrogenase (b) Transferase
(b) fungi, algae and green plant cells. (c) Hydrolase (d) Lyase
(c) all bacteria, fungi and algae. 14. Transition state structure of the substrate
(d) viruses, fungi and bacteria. formed during an enzymatic reaction is.
9. Which one of the following biomolecules is (a) permanent but unstable.
correctly characterized? (b) transient and unstable.
(a) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found (c) permanent and stable.
in cell membrane.
(d) transient but stable.
(b) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid
15. For a protein to have a quaternary structure, it
with 18 carbon atoms.
must
(c) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose
(a) have four amino acids.
phosphate molecule.
(b) consist of two or more polypeptide
(d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino
subunits.
group and an acidic group anywhere in the
(c) consist of four polypeptide subunits.
molecule.
(d) have at least four disulphide bridges.
10. The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least
by 16. The quaternary structure of human haemoglobin
is best described as a
(a) temperature.
(a) dimer of identical subunits.
(b) concentration of the substrate.
(b) dimer of different subunits.
(c) original activation energy of the system.
(c) tetramer of four different subunits.
(d) concentration of the enzyme.
(d) tetramer of two different subunits.
Cell Cycle and Cell Division B-59
10 Cell Cycle and

Cell Division
1. In mitosis, nucleolus and nuclear membrane 1. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II is
disappear at _______ . equational division due to
2. During mitosis, nuclear envelope, nucleolus (a) pairing of homologous chromosomes
begin to form and ER to reappear at _______ . (b) crossing over
(c) separation of chromatids
3. Chromosome synapsis or bivalent formation
(d) disjunction of homologous chromosomes
occurs in _______ .
2. Best stage to observe shape, size and number of
4. Crossing over occurs during _______ . chromosomes is
5. Chiasmata are first seen in _______ . (a) interphase (b) metaphase
6. Terminalization occurs during _______ . (c) prophase (d) telophase
7. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach 5. Meiosis is evolutionary significant because it
to a specialized structure in the centromere region result in
of each chromosome called the __________. (a) genetically similar daughters
(b) four daughter cells
True / False : (c) eggs and sperms
(d) recombinations
1. Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of
4. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach to
the cell in anaphase during mitosis.
the chromosome at a region called
2. (In mitosis) Golgi complex and endoplasmic
(a) chromocentre (b) kinetochore
reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.
(c) centriole (d) chromomere
3. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and 5. Synapsis occurs between:
get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase (a) mRNA and ribosomes
of mitosis. (b) spindle fibres and centromere
4. Cell plate represents the middle lamella between (c) two homologous chromosomes
the walls of two adjacents cells. (d) a male and a female gamete
5. Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and takes 6. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
place by cell-plate formation while animal cells (a) G1 phase
by furrowing/cleavage and is centripetal. (b) G2 phase
6. M phase represents the phase when actual cell (c) mitotic metaphase
division occurs and I phase represents the phase (d) S phase
between two successive M phase. 7. A contractile mid body forms during cytokinesis
7. In the 24 hours, average duration of cell cycle of in –
a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only (a) animals (b) higher plants
about an hour. (c) fungi (d) algae
B-60 BIOLOGY
8. Reason of chromosomal movement in Anaphase – (d) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator
(a) astral rays and get aligned along equatorial plate in
(b) centrioles metaphase
(c) kinetochore 16. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the
(d) kinetochore and spindle fibres spindle fibres by their:
9. Chromosome exhibit high level of coiling at (a) satellites
which phase of karyokinesis ? (b) secondary constrictions
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase (c) kinetochores
(c) Telophase (d) Interphase (d) centromere
10. In meiosis – 17. During gamete formation, the enzyme
(a) division of nucleus twice but replication of recombinase participates during
DNA only once (a) Metaphase - I (b) Anaphase - II
(b) division of nucleus twice and replication of (c) Prophase - I (d) Prophase - II
DNA twice 18. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
(c) division of nucleus once and replication of homologous chromosomes is called
DNA is also once (a) Kinetochore (b) Bivalent
(d) division of nucleus once and DNA - (c) Axoneme (d) E q u a t o r i a l
replication is twice plate
11. Gap between meiosis - I and II is called : 19. Which chromosome may lost during cell
(a) interphase (b) interkinesis division?
(c) diakinesis (d) metakinesis (a) Giant chromosome
12. Chiasmata are formed as a result of – (b) Acentric chromosome
(a) exchange of parts of paired homologous (c) Polycentric chromosome
chromosome (d) Telocentric chromosome
(b) exchange of part of unpaired non- 20. Colchicine prevents the mitosis of cells at which
homologous chromosome of the following stage ?
(c) duplication of parts of paired homologous
(a) Anaphase (b) Metaphase
chromosome
(c) Prophase (d) Interphase
(d) loss of parts of unpaired non-homolog us
chromosome
13. Centromere is required for – Diagram Based Questions :
(a) movement of chromosomes towards poles 1. Given below is a schematic break-up of the
(b) cytoplasmic cleavage phases / stages of cell cycle with few parts
(c) crossing over labelled as A, B, C & D.
(d) transcription
14. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) DNA is synthesized through out the cell-
cycle.
(b) Cell division is inhibited by cytokinin.
(c) Chromosome are condensed at S-stage.
(d) Only extra chromosomal DNA is replicated
at any stage of cell cycle.
15. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
(a) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre
of the cell in anaphase. Which one of the following is the correct
(b) Chromatids start moving towards opposite indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?
poles in telophase. (a). C - Karyokinesis (b) D - Synthetic phase
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum (c) A - Cytokinesis (d) B - Metaphase
are still visible at the end of prophase.
2. Which stages of cell division do the following 5. The following diagram is of a typical cell cycle
figures A and B represent respectively? indicating formation of two cells from one cell.
X Y
G0
es is
Cytokin se
Fig. A Fig. B elopha se e
T pha as
(a) A - Metaphase ; B - Telophase a h
An etap
se
ha
M
(b) A - Telophase ; B - Metaphase M
op
Z
Ph
Pr
as
(c) A - Late Anaphase ; B - Prophase
e
(d) A - Prophase ; B - Anaphase
3. Given below is the representation of a certain Choose the correct option showing the correct
event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. identification of X, Y, & Z.
Which stage is shown by the given figure? (a) X - G1; Y - S; Z - G2
(b) X - G2; Y - S; Z - G1
(c) X - G0; Y - S; Z - G2
(d) X - G1; Y - G0; Z - S
6. A stage of mitosis is shown in the given diagram.
Identify stage with its characteristics?
(a) Prophase I during meiosis.

(b) Prophase II during meiosis.
(c) Prophase of mitosis.
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis.
4. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure.
Select the answer which gives correct
identification of the stage with its characteristics. (a) Late prophase – Chromosomes move to
spindle equator.
(b) Metaphase – Spindle fibres attached to
kinetochores, centromeres split and
chromatids separate
(c) Metaphase – chromosomes moved to
spindle equator chromosomes made up of
(a) Late anaphase Chromosomes move away two sister chromatids
from equatorial plate, Golgi (d) Anaphase – centromeres split and
complex is not present. chromatids separate and start moving away
(b) Cytokinesis Cell plate is formed, 7. Choose the diagram which correctly depicts
mitochondria distributed anaphase I.
between two daughter cells.
(c) Telophase Endoplasmic reticulum
and nucleolus not reformed
yet
(d) Telophase Nuclear envelop reforms,
golgi complex reforms (a) (b)
B-62 BIOLOGY
7. Assertion : Meiotic division results in the

production of haploid cells.
Reason : Synapsis occurs during zygotene of
meiosis.
8. Assertion : DNA is associated with proteins.
Reason : DNA binds around histone proteins
(c) (d) that form a pool and the entire structure is called
a nucleosome.
Assertion/ Reason : 9. Assertion : Histones are basic proteins of major
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-11): These questions consist of importance in packaging of eukaryotic DNA.
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. DNA and histones comprise chromatin, forming
While answering these questions you are required to the bulk of eukaryotic chromosome.
choose any one of the following five responses. Reason : Histones are 5 major types H1, H2A,
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the H2B, H3 and H4.
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. 10. Assertion : Karyokinesis occurs in M-phase.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason Reason : Cell division stops in M-phase.
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. 11. Assertion : DNA synthesis occurs in G1 and G2
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. periods of cell cycle.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false Reason : During G1 and G2 phase the DNA
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. contents become double.
1. Assertion : Interphase is resting stage.
Reason : The interphase cell is metabolically Matching Based Questions :
inactive.
2. Assertion : Mitosis maintains the genetic
similarity of somatic cells.
Reason : Chromosomes do not undergo crossing
over.
3. Assertion : Chiasmata is formed during
diplotene.
Reason : Chiasmata are formed due to deposition which ONLY ONE is correct.
of nucleoproteins. 1. Column I Column II
4. Assertion : During zygotene, chromosomes (A) Chromosomes are moved I. Pachytene
show bivalent stage. to spindle equator
Reason : Bivalent is half the number of (B) Centromere splits and II. Zygotene
chromosomes.
chromatids apart
5. Assertion : Meiosis takes place in pollen mother
(C) Pairing between homologous III. Anaphase
cells.
chromosomes takes place
Reason : Each pollen mother cell produce 4
haploid pollen grains. (D) Crossing between IV. Metaphase
6. Assertion : Plasmids are double - stranded extra homologous chromosomes
- chromosomal DNA. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
Reason : Plasmids are possessed by eukaryotic (b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
cells.
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (b) During S-phase.

2. Column I Column II (c) During entire prophase.
(Terms) (Explanation) (d) During telophase.
(A) Terminalization I. Pairing of homologous 2. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a
chromosomes. single cell to make 128 cells?
(B) Synapsis II. Point of attachment (a) 7 (b) 14
between homologous (c) 28 (d) 64
chromosomes. 3. During which stages (or prophase I substages)
(C) Chiasmata III. Nuclear protein complex of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents
that helps in adherence and DNA replication respectively?
of sister chromatid sand (a) Pachytene and interphase (between two
then homologous meiotic divisions).
chromosomes. (b) Pachytene and interphase (just prior to
(D) Synaptonemal IV. Shifting of chiasmata prophase I).
(c) Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just
complex outwards towards the
prior to prophase I).
ends of a bivalent.
(d) Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III to prophase I).
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I 4. Significance of meiosis lies in
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (a) reduction of chromosome number to one
half.
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(b) maintaining consistancy of chromosome
3. Column-I Column-II number during sexual reproduction.
(A) Initiation of the assembly I. Anaphase (c) production of genetic variability.
of mitotic spindle (d) all of the above.
(B) Proteins are synthesized II. Prophase 5. How many meiotic divisions are required to
in preparation for mitosis produce 100 pollen grains ?
while cell growth continues. (a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 125
(C) Spindle fibres attach to III. Interphase
6. Mitosis and meiosis take place respectively in
kinetochores of
(a) meristem and gametangia.
chromosomes.
(b) gametangia and meristem.
(D) Movement of chromatids IV. Metaphase
(c) permanent tissues and secretory tissues.
towards opposite poles
(d) secretory tissues and permanent tissues.
The correct match is
7. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I your class and are asked to count the
(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV chromosomes, which of the following stages can
you most conveniently look into?
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (a) Metaphase (b) Telophase
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
8. Which of the following is the result when
Critical Thinking Type Questions : karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis ?
(a) Synaptonemal complex
1. In which stage of the cell cycle, histone proteins
are synthesized in a eukaryotic cell? (b) Syncytium
(a) During G2 stage of prophase.
B-64 BIOLOGY
(c) Recombination nodules 14. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are
(d) Terminalization (a) genetically similar
9. “G0” state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes (b) genetically different
(a) check point before entering the next phase. (c) anucleate
(b) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope (d) multinucleate
with a temporary delay. 15. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent
(c) death of a cell. cell as well as amongst themselves due to
(d) exit of cells from cell cycle. (a) segregation, independent assortment and
10. Mitosis is the process by which eukaryotic cells crossing over.
(a) expose the genes for protein synthesis. (b) segregation and crossing over.
(b) become specialized in structure and (c) independent assortment and crossing over.
function. (d) segregation and independent assortment.
(c) multiply. 16. The separation of two chromatids of each
(d) grow. chromosome at early anaphase is initiated by
11. The major event that occurs during the anaphase (a) the interaction of centromere with the
of mitosis, which brings about the equal chromosomal fibres.
distribution of chromosomes is (b) the elongation of metaphasic spindle.
(a) replication of the genetic material. (c) the force of repulsion between the divided
(b) splitting of the chromatids. kinetochores.
(d) All of the above.
(c) splitting of the centromeres.
17. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without
(d) condensation of the chromatin.
interruption
12. In animal cells, cytokinesis involves
(a) once it has entered the S phase.
(a) the separation of sister chromatids.
(b) once it has entered the G2 phase.
(b) the contraction of the contractile ring of
microfilament. (c) at any time during cell division activity.
(c) depolymerization of kinetochore (d) none of the above
microtubules. 18. Identify the meiotic stage in which the
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other homologous chromosomes separate while the
enzymes. sister chromatids remain associated at their
centromeres.
13. Which of the following will show simple cell
(a) Metaphase I
division?
(b) Metaphase II
(a) Microspore mother cells
(c) Anaphase I
(b) Megaspore mother cells (d) Anaphase II
(c) Archesporial cells
(d) All of the above.
11 Transport in Plants
Fill in the Blanks : 3. Xylem translocates organic and inorganic solutes,

mainly from roots to the aerial parts of the plants.
1. The process by which water is absorbed by 4. Phloem translocates water, mineral salts, some
solids like colloids causing them to increase in organic nitrogen and hormones, from the leaves
volume is called ____ . to other parts of the plants.
2. Movement that is aided by cytoplasmic streaming 5. The apoplastic movement of water occurs
and occurs from cell to cell through exclusively through the cell wall without crossing
plasmodesmata is called _______ .
any membranes.
3. When a root absorbes minerals from a region of
6. Endodermis, is pervious to water because of a
lower concentration to a region of higher
band of suberised matrix.
concentration, and need energy this type of
absorption is called _______ . 7. Apoplastic movement may be aided by
cytoplasmic streaming which occurs in hydrilla
4. During fruit development, photosynthesizing
leaves would be the ______________ and the leaf and chloroplast.
fruit would be __________ 8. Elements most readily mobilised are P, S, N and K.
5. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place
in _____ . Conceptual MCQs :
6. _______is mainly water and sucrose, but other 1. Water potential is equal to
sugars, hormones and amino acids are also (a) Ys + O.P. (b) Ys = T.P.
_______ through phloem. (c) Yp + Yw (d) Ys + Yp
2. Stomata open and close due to
7. The hypothesis accepted for the translocation
(a) circadian rhythm
of sugar from source to sink is__________.
(b) genetic clock
8. The process of loading at the source produces a (c) pressure of gases inside the leaves
_________ condition in the phloem. (d) turgor pressure of guard cells
9. Water in the adjacent xylem moves into the 3. An adaptation for better gaseous exchange in
plant leaves is
phloem by the process of _______ .
(a) hair on lower surface
True/ False : (b) multiple epidermis
(c) waxy cuticle
1. Mycorrhizal fungi form a network around the (d) stomata on lower surface away from direct
young root and they penetrate the root cells. sun rays
4. Active and passive transports across cell
2. Ions are absorbed from soil by both passive and
membrane differ in
active transport. (a) passive transport is nonselective
B-66 BIOLOGY
(b) passive transport is along the concentration (b) Metaxylem ® protoxylem ® pericycle ®
gradient while active transport is due to cortex ® endodermis ® soil ® root hair
metabolic energy (c) Cortex ® root hair ® endodermis ®
(c) active transport is more rapid pericycle ® protoxylem ® metaxylem
(d) passive transport is confined to anions (d) Pericycle ® soil ® root hair ® cortex
while active transport in confined to cations ® endodermis ® protoxylem ® metaxylem
5. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place 12. Which of the following wall of guard cells is
in thick?
(a) xylem (b) phloem (a) Outer (b) Inner
(c) parenchyma (d) cambium (c) Sidewall (d) All the three
13. When the stomata are opening; we observe
6. Plants die from prolonged water-logging because
following changes in the guard cells :
(a) soil nutrients become very dilute
(a) OP increase, TP decreases
(b) root respiration stops
(b) OP & TP increases
(c) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute (c) OP decreases, TP increases
(d) nutrients leach down due to excess water (d) OP & TP decreases
7. If a plant cell is immersed in water, the water 14. Guard cells help in:
continues to enter the cell until the: (a) transpiration
(a) concentration of the salts is the same inside (b) guttation
the cell as outside (c) fighting against infection
(b) cell bursts (d) protection against grazing
(c) concentration of water is the same inside 15. Guttation is the result of :
the cell as out side (a) diffusion (b) transpiration
(d) diffusion pressure deficit is the same inside (c) osmosis (d) root pressure
the cell as out side 16. Which of the following criteria does not pertain
8. Which of the following statement is not correct? to facilitated transport?
(a) Plants absorb excess quantity of water (a) High selectivity
(b) Plants take small quantity of mineral salts (b) Transport saturation
through soil water (c) Uphill transport
(c) Water an d inorganic salts may also (d) Requirement of special membrane proteins
simultaneously by root hair 17. Water potential of pure water and its solution
(d) Plant absorb only one thing at a time water are
or inorganic salts (a) 0 and 1
9. Transpiration from plants would be most rapid (b) 0 and 0
(c) 0 and more than one
when :
(d) 0 and less than 1.
(a) there is lot of humidity in atmosphere
18. A cell, when kept in sugar solution, gets
(b) the air is more humid
dehydrated. Then solution is
(c) there is excess rain fall (a) hypotonic (b) hypertonic
(d) environmental conditions are dry (c) isotonic (d) none of these
10. Increase in CO2 concentration around leaf 19. Two cells A and B are contigous. Cell A has
results in : osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm
(a) rapid opening of stomata and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has
(b) partial closure of stomata osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm
(c) complete closure of stomata and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result
(d) no effect on stomatal opening will be
11. The pathway of water from soil upto the (a) movement of water from cell B to A
secondary xylem: (b) no movement of water
(a) Soil ® root hair ® cortex ® endodermis (c) equilibrium between the two
® pericycle ® protoxylem ® Meta xylem (d) movement of water from cell A to B
Transport in Plants B-67
20. Cohesion theory of water movement in plants

was put forth by C
(a) Melvin Calvin (b) F. F. Blackman A
(c) T. W. Englemann (d) Henry Dixon
B
1. Chamber A and B are separated by a
semipermeable membrane. Study the given figure D
E
and choose the right option. Diffusion into
surrounding air
(a) A - tracheids; B - Phloem; C - Mesophyll; D

- Stomatal pore, E - Guard cell
(b) A - Phloem; B - Xylem; C - Palisade; D -
Guard Cell; E - Water pore
(c) A - Xylem; B - Phloem; C - Palisade; D -
Guard cell; E - Stomatal pore
(a) Chamber A has higher water potential and
(d) A - Phloem; B - Xylem; C - Mesophyll cell;
water will move from A to B.
D - Subciliary cell; E - Water pore
(b) Chamber B has lower solute potential and
water will move from A to B. 4. Based on Munch’s pressure-flow hypothesis,
(c) Chamber A has higher solute potential and which of the following conditions would increase
water will move from B to A. the rate of translocation?
(d) Chamber B has lower water potential and
water will move from B to A.
2. Study the experiment shown below :
Stands
Beaker Thistle funnel Sieve-tube elements

Sugar solution
Y
Semipermeable membrane
Pure water
After a few days, which of the following will have

occured ?
(a) A rise in level X and Y
(b) A drop in level X and level Y Companion sink (root cell)
cell
(c) A rise in level X and a drop in level Y (a) An increase in the humidity in the outside
(d) A drop in level X and a rise in level Y air.
3. Choose the correct combination of labelling of (b) A decrease in phloem unloading at the sink.
water movement in the leaf. (c) An increase in sucrose production at the
source.
(d) A decrease in photosynthesis.
B-68 BIOLOGY
5. Given below is the diagram of stomatal is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
apparatus. In which of the following all of the (c) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
three parts labelled as A, B and C are correctly (d) If both the assertion and reason are false
identified? (e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion : Long distance flow of photo-
assimilates in plants occurs through sieve tubes.
Reason : Mature sieve tubes have parietal
cytoplasm and perforated sieve plates.
2. Assertion : Water potential is new term for
diffusion pressure deficit.
Reason : Both diffusion pressure deficit and
(a) A - Microfibril; B - Stomatal aperture; C - water potential have a negative value.
Guard cell 3. Assertion : Wilting occurs due to loss in turgidity.
(b) A - Microfibril; B - Guard cell; C - Stomatal Reason : Turgor pressure checks the excessive
aperture entry of water into cells.
(c) A - Stomatal aperture; B - Guard cell; C - 4. Assertion : Seeds and spores do not lose the
Microfibril viability in unfavourable periods.
(d) A - Guard cell; B - Stomatal aperture; C - Reason : Seeds and spores have high osmotic
Microfibril pressure.
6. Which of the following shows the correct 5. Assertion : Upward movement of water is called
explanation of the given figures? ascent of sap.
Reason : Upward movement of water occurs
through xylem and phloem.
6. Assertion : Waxy and cutin coating on plant
parts reduce the transpiration.
Reason : These adaptations are found in
(a) Cell “A” will lose H2O, Cell “B” will gain
xerophytes.
H2O, Cell “C” neither gain nor loses H2O.
7. Assertion : Guttation liquid is found on the
(b) Cell “A” neither gain nor loses H2O, Cell margins of leaves.
“B” will gain H2O, Cell “C” will lose H2O. Reason : Hydathodes are found on the margins.
(c) Cell “A” will gain, Cell “B” neither gain nor 8. Assertion : Xylem is principal water conducting
tissue.
loses H2O, Cell “C” lose H2O.
Reason : It has been recognised by girdling or
(d) Cell “A” will gain H2O, Cell “B” will lose ringing experiment.
H2O, Cell “C” neither gain nor loses H2O. 9. Assertion : Water and mineral uptake by root
hairs from the soil occurs through apoplast until
Assertion/ Reason :
it reaches endodermis.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-10): These questions consist of Reason : Casparian strips in endodermis are
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. suberized.
While answering these questions you are required to 10. Assertion : Plant parts become flaccid in wilting
choose any one of the following five responses. condition.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the Reason : Temporary and permanent wilting
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. result in plant death.
Transport in Plants B-69

A. Transpiration I. Anaerobic
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements respiration in
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements yeast
Column I can have correct matching with one B. Guttation II. Active absorption
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 of water
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of C. Exudation III. Loss of water
which ONLY ONE is correct. vapour from plant
1. parts
Column - I Column - II D. Fermentation IV. Loss of liquid
A. Isotonic I. External solution is more water from
concentrated leaves
B. Hypotonic II. Shrinkage of protoplasm V. Loss of water from
C. Hypertonic III. solution is more dilute injured plant parts
than the cytoplasm (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
D. Plasmolysis IV Two solutions have the (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
same osmolarity (c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (d) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II 4. Column-I Column-II
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II A. Hypotonic I. Water
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I B. Hypertonic II. Sucrose
2. Column-I Column-II C. Solute III. Lower tonicity
A. Cohesion I. The ability to rise
D. Solvent IV. Higher tonicity
in their tubes.
B. Adhesion II. Loss of water (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
vapour from (b) A–III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
plant parts. (c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
C. Tensile strength III. Mutual attraction (d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
between water 5. Column I Column II
molecules A. Relay Pump Theory I. Stocking
D. Capillarity IV. Attraction of B. Transpiration II. Sir J. C. Bose
water molecules Cohesion Theory
to polar surfaces C. Mass Flow Theory III. Godlewski
V. An ability to D. Pulsation Theory IV.
Dixon and
resist a pulling Jolly
force. V. Ernest Munch
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V (a) A ® (III); B ® (II); C ® (V); D ® (I)
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A ® (II); B ® (I); C ® (V); D ® (III)
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I (c) A ® (III); B ® (IV); C ® (V); D ® (II)
(d) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – III (d) A ® (IV); B ® (III); C ® (I); D ® (II)
B-70 BIOLOGY
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. Water will move from its region of higher chemical
potential to its region of lower chemical potential
1. Cell A and cell B are adjacent plant cells. In cell A, until
ys = – 20 bars and yp = 8 bars. In cell B, ys = – 12 (a) equilibrium is reached.
bars and yp = 2 bars. Then (b) amount of both solvent and solute in both
(a) water moves from cell A to cell B. regions become equal.
(b) there is no movement of water between cell (c) solvent amount in both regions become
A and cell B. equal.
(c) water moves from cell B to cell A. (d) solute amount in both regions become
(d) equal amount of water is simultaneously equal.
exchanged between cell A and cell B. 6. “Osmosis is the diffusion of a solution of a weaker
2. A plant cell placed in pure water will concentration when both are separated by
(a) expand until the osmotic potential or solute semipermeable membrane above”. What is the
potential reaches that of water error in the statement ?
(b) becomes more turgid until the pressure (a) The movement of solvent molecule is not
potential of cell reaches its osmotic potential specified.
(c) become more turgid until osmotic potential (b) There is no mention of DPD.
reaches that of pure water (c) Behaviour of semipermeable membrane is
(d) becomes less turgid until the osmotic not specified.
potential reaches that of pure water. (d) The exact concentration of solutions are
3. A boy is studying transport of a certain type of not indicated.
molecules into cell. He finds that transport slows 7. The net direction and rate of osmosis depends
down when the cells are poisoned with a on both the ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
chemical that inhibits energy production. Under (a) X - Solute; Y - Solvent
normal circumstances the molecules studied by (b) X - Pressure potential; Y - Solute potential
(c) X - Water potential; Y - Pressure gradient
the boy is probably transported by
(d) X - Pressure gradient; Y - Concentration
(a) Simple diffusion
gradient
(b) Osmosis 8. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted pickle
(c) Active transport because
(d) Facilitated diffusion (a) salt inhibits reproduction of bacteria.
4. Osmosis is a form of diffusion in which (b) they become plasmolysed and death occurs.
(a) the solvent moves through a semipermeable (c) nutrients in pickle cannot support life.
membrane from its region of higher chemical (d) enough light is not available for
potential to its region of lower chemical photosynthesis.
potential. 9. A cell is said to be flaccid when
(b) the solvent moves through a semipermeable (a) there is no net flow of water towards the
membrane from its region of lower chemical inside or outside.
potential to its region of higher chemical (b) the external solution balances the osmotic
potential. pressure of the cytoplasm.
(c) the solute moves through a semipermeable (c) water flows into the cell and out of the cell
membrane from a region of higher and are in equilibrium.
concentration to lower concentration (d) The external solution is more dilute than the
(d) the solute moves through a semipermeable cytoplasm.
membrane from a r egion of lower
concentration to higher concentration
Mineral Nutrition B-71
12 Mineral Nutrition

1. The essential elements which are required by 1. Which element is required in comparatively least
plants in large amounts are called________ and quantity for the growth of plant?
those required in very small amount by the plants (a) Zn (b) N
are called _________. (c) P (d) Ca
2. Which mineral nutrients are called critical
2. _________ is an constituent of the ring element for crops?
structure of chlorophyll and helps to maintain (a) N, P, K (b) C, H, O
the ribosome structure. (c) N, S, Mg (d) K, Ca, Fe
3. Pigment present in the root nodules of legume is 3. Which of the following does NPK denote?
________ (a) Nitrogen, Potassium, Kinetin
4. The enzyme _______ which is capable of (b) Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
nitrogen reduction is present exclusively in (c) Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
prokaryotes. Such microbes are called_____. (d) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
5. The process by which mineral absorbed is called 4. Which one of the following mineral elements
________ plays an important role in biological nitrogen
6. Denitrification is carried out by ________ fixation?
7. Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that (a) Copper (b) Manganese
reduces the dry weight of tissues by about (c) Zinc (d) Molybdenum
_______ is considered toxic. 5. All of the following statements concerning the
Actinomycetous filamentous soil bacterium
8. Conversion of N ºN to NH3 occurs in plant cell Frankia are correct except the Frankia –
by ______ (a) Can induce root nodules on many plant
species
True / False : (b) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state
(c) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects, its host
1. Macro nutrients are present in plant tissues in plant through root hair deformation and
excess of 100 m mole per kg of dry matter. stimulates cell proliferation in the host's
2. Some elements attained from CO2 and H2O while cortex
the others are absorbed from the soil. (d) Forms specialized vesicles in which the
3. C, H & O are mainly obtained from CO2 and H2O. nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a
chemical barrier involving triterpene
4. Rhizobium induces invagination of root hairs.
hopanoids
5. Magnesium competes with iron and manganese 6. Which of the following is not caused by
for uptake and with Iron for binding with deficiency of mineral nutrition?
enzymes. (a) Necrosis
6. Nitrogen is very essential for the sustenance of (b) Chlorosis
life. (c) Etiolation
(d) Shortening of internodes
B-72 BIOLOGY
7. Manganese is required in: 17. Which one of the following is essential for
(a) plant cell wall formation photolysis of water ?
(b) photolysis of water during photosynthesis (a) Manganese (b) Zinc
(c) chlorophyll synthesis (c) Copper (d) Boron
(d) nucleic acid synthesis 18. Best defined function of Manganese in green
8. Which one of the following elements in plants is plants is :
not remobilised? (a) Photolysis of water
(a) Phosphorus (b) Calcium (b) Calvin cycle
(c) Potassium (d) Sulphur (c) Nitrogen fixation
9. Nitrifying bacteria : (d) Water absorption
(a) oxidize ammonia to nitrates 19. Which one of the following is wrong statement?
(b) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds (a) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing
(c) convert proteins into ammonia nitrogen in free living state also.
(d) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (b) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as
10. The function of leg haemoglobin in the root aerobes under free-living conditions.
nodules of legumes is : (c) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell
(a) inhibition of nitrogenase activity membranes, certain nucleic acids and cell
(b) oxygen removal proteins.
(c) nodule differentiation (d) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are
(d) expression of nif gene chemoautotrophs.
11. Minerals absorbed by roots move to the leaf 20. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires
through (a) zinc (b) iron
(a) xylem (b) phloem (c) niacin (d) copper
(c) sieve tubes (d) none of the above
12. Which one is an essential mineral, not Diagram Based Questions :
constituent of any enzyme but stimulates the 1. Label the following diagram and determine which
activity of many enzymes? experiment it is demonstrated?
(a) Zn (b) Mn
(c) K (d) Mg
13. Passive absorption of minerals depend on
(a) temperature
(b) temperature and metabolic inhibitor
B
(c) metabolic inhibitor A
(d) humidity
14. The major role of minor elements inside living
organisms is to act as
C
(a) binder of cell structure
(b) co-factors of enzymes
(c) building blocks of important amino acids
(d) constituent of hormones A B C D
15. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly (a) Funnel Aerating Nutrient Hydroponics
matched? for adding tube solution
(a) Alcohol - nitrogenase water and
(b) Fruit juice - pectinase nutrients
(c) Textile - amylase (b) Funnel Aerating Nutrient Aeroponics
(d) Detergents - lipase for adding tube solution
16. Which one of the following is not an essential water only
mineral element for plants while the remaining (c) Funnel Aerating Water Tissue
three are for adding tube culture
(a) Iron (b) Manganese nutrients
(c) Cadmium (d) Phosphorus only
(d) Funnel Aerating Water Hydroponics A B C D

for adding tube
(a) K Ammonification Animal Plant
water and
nutrients biomass biomass
2. The given diagram shows hydroponic/soilless (b) NH3 Ammonification Plant Animal
plant production. Plants are grown in a tube or biomass biomass
trough placed on a slight incline. The arrows (c) CO2 Denitrification Animal Plant
indicate the direction of flow of nutrient solution. biomass biomass
(d) CHO Nitrification Plant Animal
biomass biomass
4. The given diagram shows the development of
root nodule in soyabean. Thus structures are
marked as A, B, C and D.
D
A
C
B
Identify the correct labelling of A, B, C & D.

(a) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Outer
cortex; D-Infection thread containing virus.
Nutrient solution is sent to the elevated end of (b) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Inner
the tube from the reservoir by ___________ and cortex and pericycle cells; D-Infection thread
it flows back to the reservoir due to __________. containing bacteria
(a) pump, pump (b) gravity, gravity (c) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Endodermal cell; C-
(c) pump, gravity (d) gravity, pump Inner endodermis; D-Infection thread
containing virus
3. Refer the figure given below and select the option
(d) A-Nitrosomonas bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-
which gives correct words for all the four blanks
Inner cortex and pericycle cells; D-Infection
A, B, C and D. thread containing bacteria.
Assertion/ Reason :
1. Assertion : Calcium is a constituent of cell wall.
Reason : Calcium is required in mitotic division.
B-74 BIOLOGY
2. Assertion : Hydroponics is used for solution 2. Column-I Column-II

culture. (A) Free living aerobic I. Anabaena and
Reason : A balanced nutrient solution contains
both essential and nonessential elements. nitrogen fixers Nostoc
3. Assertion : Magnesium is important in (B) Anaerobic nitrogen II. Pseudomonas
photosynthesis and carbohydrate metabolism. fixers and Thiobacillus
Reason : Mg++ is involved in the synthesis of
(C) Nitrogen fixing III. Nitrosomonas
nucleic acids.
4. Assertion : Manganese is an activator of cyanobacteria and Nitrococcus
enzyme nitrite reductase. (D) Denitrifying bacteria IV. Azotobacter and
Reason : Manganese deficient cells prefer Beijernickia
ammonia over nitrate.
(E) Nitrifying bacteria. V. Rhodospirillum
5. Assertion : Deficiency of sulphur causes
chlorosis in plants. (a) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III
Reason: Sulphur is a constituent of chlorophyll, (b) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III;E – II
proteins and nucleic acids. (c) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – III; E – I
6. Assertion : Iron is a microelement. (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II; E – V
Reason : Microelements are required in traces
only, less than 1mg/gm of dry matter. 3. Column-I Column-II
7. Assertion : In solution culture of plants, iron is (A) Manganese I. Component of various
added in the form of Fe-EDTA. enzymes, and
Reason : Hydroponics setup is costly. participate in nitrogen
metabolism.
Matching Based Questions : (B) Zinc II. Required for poller
germination and
carbohydrate
translocation
(C) Molybdenum III. Helps in splitting of
water to liberate oxygen
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 during photosynthesis
(D) Boron IV. Needed in the
which ONLY ONE is correct. synthesis of auxin
1. Column - I Column -II (a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – IV
(A) Mg2+ I. activator of dehydrogenase
(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(B) Zn2+ II. activator for both RuBP
carboxylase oxygenase (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
and PEP are (d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(C) K+ III. required for all 4. Column-I Column-II
Phosphorylation reactions
(D) H2PO4– IV. plays an important role in (A) K I. Stomatal opening
opening and closing of (B) Mo II. Constituent of cell membrane
stomata
(C) P III. Photolysis of water
(a) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (D) Mn IV. Free ion
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II V. Component of nitrogenase
(d) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
and nitrate reductase
A B C D (a) ATP (b) Cyclic AMP

(c) NADH (d) NADPH
(a) I, IV V II III
7. A small aquatic plant was put in each of the
(b) I, V IV III II petridishes -X, Y & Z, containing different culture
(c) I,V IV II III solutions. After six weeks the plant in dish X
(d) IV I III II, V had the same number of leaves as it had
previously & were all small and yellowish. Plant
5. Column -I Column-II in dish Y had more leaves of normal size and
A. Zinc I. Chlorophyll dark green colour. Plants in dish Z had more
B. Sulphur II. IAA leaves of normal size but very pale. Which of
C. Magnesium III. Nitrate reductase the following show the element missing in the
D. Molybdenum IV. Cysteine culture?
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV X Y Z
(a) Magnesium Phosphorus Nitrogen
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) Phosphorus Magnesium Nitrogen
(c) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (c) Phosphorus Nitrogen Magnesium
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (d) Magnesium Nitrogen Phosphorus
8. Which of the following is an anaerobic N2 fixing
Critical Thinking Type Questions : bacterium?
(a) Azotobacter (b) Bacillus
1. Plants absorb nitrogen from soil mainly in the (c) Rhodospirillum (d) Beijernickia
form of 9. Nitrogen fixation by organisms requires
(a) N2-gas (b) Nitric acid conditions that are
(c) Nitrite (d) Nitrate (a) aerobic
2. An important essential element which is required (b) anaerobic
by plants in the greatest amount is (c) saturated with sunlight
(a) Nitrogen (b) Iron (d) free of water
(c) Sulphur (d) Copper 10. At physiological pH, for the formation of
3. The mineral involved in the synthesis of DNA ammonium ion, Ammonia is
and RNA, the mineral required for maintenance (a) protonated (b) deprotonated
of the turgidity of cells and the one required for (c) carbonylated (d) decarbonylated
the activation of the enzyme catalase are 11. Glutamate dehydrogenase enzyme is used to
respectively convert
(a) Potassium, Magnesium, Chlorine (a) a-Ketoglutaric acid into glutamate
(b) Sulphur, Potassium, Iron (b) Glutamate into a-ketoglutaric acid
(c) Phosphorus, Potassium, Chlorine (c) Citric acid to a-ketoglutaric acid
(d) Magnesium, Potassium, Iron (d) Succinic acid to glutamic acid
4. The term critical concentration means 12. Which of the following expression describes
(a) essential element concentration below nitrogen fixation?
which plant remains in the vegetative phase. (a) N2 + 3H2 ® 2NH3
(b) essential element concentration below (b) 2NH4+ + 2O2 + 8e– ® N2 + 4H2O
which the plant growth is retarded. (c) 2NH3 ® N2 + 3H2
(c) essential element concentration above (d) 2N2 + glucose ® 2 amino acids
which the plant growth is stunted. 13. A gardner purchases a commercial fertilizer. The
(d) Non-essential element concentration below label says that it is 10-20-10. This label refers to
the
which plant growth is retarded.
(a) percentage of nitrogen, phosphate and
5. Which one of these do plants require for the
potassium.
formation of Adenosine triphosphate? (b) percentage of nitrogen, carbon and oxygen.
(a) N, Cu (b) N, Ca (c) rate at which nitrogen is released from the
(c) N, P (d) N, K fertilizer.
6. In an active process, the entry or exit of ions to (d) ratio of organic to inorganic matter in the
and from the symplast requires fertilizer.
B-76 BIOLOGY
13 Photosynthesis
Fill in the Blanks : 8. Tropical plants have a higher temperature

optimum than the plants adapted to temperate
1. The experiment material used by Van Neil, to climates.
prove that O2 comes out from water was _____ .
2. In PS-I the reaction centre Chl a has absorption Conceptual MCQs :
maxima at _____________, while in PS-II the 1. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in
reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at (a) PS I
___________. (b) PS II
3. An energy diagram for the transfer of electrons (c) calvin cycle
in the light reactions of photosynthesis in plants (d) noncyclic photophosphorylation
is _______ . 2. Greatest producers of organic matter are
4. The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plant is _____ . (a) crop plants (b) forests
5. Chloroplast movement is influenced by ______ . (c) plants of the land area
6. Fixation of CO2 molecule through Hatch and (d) phytoplankton of oceans
Slack pathway requires an enzyme called ____ . 3. Kranz anatomy is typical of
(a) C4 plants (b) C3 plants
7. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation
(c) C2 plants (d) CAM plants
during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of
4. Which enzyme is most abundantly found on
_______ .
earth?
8. A process that creates an important difference (a) Catalase (b) Rubisco
between C3 & C4 plants is _____ . (c) Nitrogenase (d) Invertase
9. The principle of limiting factors was proposed 5. Which one of the following is wrong in relation
by _____ . to photorespiration ?
(a) It is a characteristic of C3 plants
True/ False : (b) It occurs in chloroplasts
1. Water is oxidised in PS - II, but not PS - I. (c) It occurs in daytime only
2. Production of NADPH + H+ is associated with PS - (d) It is a characteristic of C4 plants
II, nor PS - I. 6. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less
3. Site of photosynthesis is mesophyll cells of limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because:
chloroplast. (a) effective pumping of CO2 into bundle
sheath cells.
4. In Z-scheme of photosynthesis, the electrons flow
from H2O to NADP+. (b) RuBisCo in C4 plants has higher affinity
for CO2.
5. Pigments are substances that have an ability to
(c) four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2
absorb light, at specific wavelengths.
fixation products.
6. Reaction center of Photosystem I is P700.
(d) the primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via
7. H2S, not H2O, is involved in photosynthesis of PEP carboxylase.
purple sulphur bacteria.
Photosynthesis B-77
7. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis 16. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in

than C3 plants due to: some cyanobacteria are :
(a) higher leaf area (a) Basal bodies
(b) presence of larger number of chloroplasts (b) Pneumatophores
in the leaf cells (c) Chromatophores
(c) presence of thin cuticle (d) Heterocysts
(d) lower rate of photorespiration 17. The family in which many plants are C4 type
8. PSI occurs in – (a) Malvaceae (b) Solanaceae
(a) appressed part of granal thylakoids (c) Crucifereae (d) Graminae
(b) appressed and non appressed part of grana 18. Which one does not differ between a C3 and a
thylakoids C4 plant?
(c) stroma I. Initial CO2 acceptor.
(d) stroma thylakoids and non-appressed part II. Extent of photorespiration.
of grana thylakoids. III. Enzyme catalyzing reaction that fixes CO2.
9. Conditions necessary for photosynthesis are – IV. Presence of Calvin cycle.
(a) light and suitable temperature V. Leaf anatomy.
(b) chlorophyll and water (a) I and V (b) IV
(c) carbon dioxide (c) II and III (d) II
(d) all of the above 19. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid,
10. Splitting of water in photosynthesis is called : in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is
(a) dark reaction (b) photolysis (a) fructose phosphatase
(c) electron transfer (d) phototropism (b) ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
11. During photosynthesis when PGA is changed (c) phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
into phosphoglyceraldehyde, which of the (d) ribulose phosphate kinase
following reaction occur? 20. The reactions of pentose phosphate pathway
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction (PPP) take place in
(c) Electrolysis (d) Hydrolysis (a) mitochondrion
12. The enzyme which catalyzes the photosynthetic (b) cytoplasm
C4 cycle is – (c) chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondrion
(a) RuDP carboxylase (d) chloroplast, glyoxysome and
(b) PEP carboxylase mitochondrion
(c) Carbonic anhydrase
(d) None of these Diagram Based Questions :
13. The rate of photosynthesis does not depend 1. Choose the correct combinations of labelling the
upon –
carbohydrate molecule involved in the Calvin cycle
(a) light duration
(b) light intensity
(c) light quality (colour)
(d) temperature
(I)
14. Chlorophyll is present –
(a) in the grana of chloroplasts
(b) on the surface of chloroplasts
(c) dispersed through out the chloroplasts
(d) in the stroma of chloroplasts (II)
15. C4 plants are found among –
(a) only gramineae
(b) only monocots
(c) only dicots (III)
(d) monocots as well as dicots
B-78 BIOLOGY
(a) (I) RuBP (II) Triose (III) PGA made acidic by soaking them in a solution at pH
phosphate 4. After the thylakoid space reached pH 4, the
(b) (I) PGA (II) RuBP (III) Triose chloroplasts were transferred to a basic solution
phosphate at pH 8. The chloroplasts are then placed in the
(c) (I) PGA (II) Triose (III) RuBP dark. Which of these compounds would you
phosphate expect to be produced?
(d) (I) RuBP (II) PGA (III) Triose
phosphate phosphate
2. The diagram represents the Calvin cycle.
GP(PGA) Q
P triose R hexose
starch
phosphate phosphate
RuBP S
At which stage is CO2 incorporated? (a) ATP (b) NAD

(a) P (b) Q (c) G3P (d) C6H12O6
(c) R (d) S 5. The diagram below shows ATP synthesis
3. The diagram given below shows the relation through chemiosmosis.
between light intensity and CO2 concentration
on rate of photosynthesis.
Rate of High light

Photosynthesis intensity
Low light
intensity
CO2 concentration
Which of the following explains the diagram
correctly?
(a) At higher light intensity, gradually the rate
does not show further increase as the light
independent reaction involving CO 2
becomes rate limiting
(b) light is rarely a limiting factor in nature Which option shows the correct labelling of A,
(c) Photosynthesis is independent of light B, C and D in the diagram ?
intensity (a) A - F1; B - Thylakoid membrane,
(d) Increase in incident light beyond a point
C - Photosystem (I); D - Photosystem (II)
causes the breakdown of chlorophyll & a
decrease in photosynthesis. (b) A - F0; B - Thylakoid membrane,
4. The diagram below represents an experiment with C - Photosystem (I); D - Photosystem (II)
isolated chloroplasts. The chloroplasts were first
Photosynthesis B-79
(c) A - F1; B - Thylakoid membrane, Graph 3 Graph 4
C - Photosystem (II); D - Photosystem (I)

(d) A - F0; B - Thylakoid membrane,
C - Photosystem (II); D - Photosystem (I)
6. Given below is the pathway of light reaction. 400 700 400 700
Wavelength / nm Wavelength / nm
Identify the given blanks indicated by A, B, C
and D. Chlorophyll Absorption Spectra Action
a Chlorophyll Carotenoids Spectrum
b
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
8. Which one of the following correctly identifies
X and Y and and their functions in the given
figure of chloroplast ?
X
Y
X Y
Structure Function Structure Function
Photolysis of
(a) Grana Stroma CO2 fixation
water
7. Three of the graphs below show the absorption Photolysis of
spectra of photosynthetic pigments. One graph (b) Grana CO2 fixation Stroma
water
shows the action spectrum of photosynthesis (c) Stroma
Photolysis of
CO2 fixation
Grana
for a plant containing the pigments. All the X water
axis show wavelength. Three of Y axis show light Photolysis of
(d) Stroma CO2 fixation Lamellae
water
absorption. One Y axis shows the rate
photosynthesis. Assertion/ Reason :
Graph 1 Graph 2
400 700 400 700
Wavelength / nm Wavelength / nm (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
B-80 BIOLOGY
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. 10. Assertion : Plants utilizing first RuBP in CO2
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false fixations are called C3 plants.
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. Reason : Plants utilizing first PEP in CO2 fixations
1. Assertion : 6 molecules of CO2 and 12 molecules are called C4 plants.
of NADPH+ + H+ and 18 ATP are used to form 11. Assertion :CO2 is transported from mesophyll
one hexose molecule. cells to bundle sheath of chloroplasts in C
4
Reason : Light reaction results in formation of plants.
ATP and NADPH2. Reason : RuBP is called initial acceptor of CO2 in
2. Assertion : There is a decrease in photo- C2 plants.
synthesis, if the photosynthetic cells are 12. Assertion : Plants utilize 5-10 of the absorbed
illuminated by light of P680 nm or more water in photosynthesis.
wavelength. Reason : Reduced leaf hydration decrease the
photosynthesis
Reason : In red drop phenomenon the rate of
photosynthesis decreases.
3. Assertion : Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis
first appeared in some eubacterial species. DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
Reason : Oxygen started accumulating in the (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
atmosphere after the non-cyclic pathway of (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
photosynthesis evolved. Column I can have correct matching with one
4. Assertion : Cyclic photophosphorylation statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
synthesizes ATP. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
Reason : ATP synthesize in cyclic photophos- which ONLY ONE is correct.
phorylation is not associated with NADPH
formation.
(A) Priestley I.. determined the
5. Assertion : Each molecule of ribulose-1, 5- action spectrum of
bisphosphate fixes one molecule of CO2. chlorophyll
Reason : Three molecules of NADPH and two (B) Jan Ingenhousz II. provided evidence
ATP are required for fixation of one molecule of that in green parts of
CO2. plant glucose is
6. Assertion : C4 Photosynthetic pathway is more made & stored as
efficient than the C3 pathway. starch
Reason : Photorespiration is suppressed in C4 (C) Sachs III. plants purify air only
plants. in presence of light
7. Assertion : The movement of photosynthates (D) Engelmann IV. demonstrated that
is unidirectional. photosynthesis is
Reason : Movement of photosynthates occurs essentially a light-
with the water. dependent reaction
8. Assertion : The concentration of O in the (E) Niel V. revealed the
2
atmosphere is inhibitory to photosynthesis. essential role of air in
Reason :Oxygen inhibitory effect is due to the growth of plants
Warburg effect. (a) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – IV
9. Assertion : CAM plants lack structural (b) A – V; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – IV
compartmentation of leaf, as found in C plants. (c) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – III; E – II
4
Reason : Stomata of CAM plants are open during
(d) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II
the day.
Photosynthesis B-81
2. 5. Column - I Column - II
(A) Oxygen evolving I. Pigments
complex ferric oxalate
(B) Proton gradient II. High oxygen
concentration
(C) Absorb light at III. ATP synthesis
specific wavelengths.
(D) Photorespiration IV. Photolysis of
water
(a) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
Column-I Column-II (b) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(A) Limiting factor I. Some factor other (c) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
in region A than light intensity is (d) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
becoming the
limiting factor Critical Thinking Type Questions :
(B) B represents to II. Light is no longer
limiting factor 1. In Non-cyclic reactions of Photosynthesis,
(C) C represents to III. Light intensity electrons from chlorophyll molecules in
(D) D represents to IV. Maximum rate of Photosystem-I are used in the formation of
photosynthesis NADPH. What is the source of such electrons?
(E) E represents to V. Saturation point for (a) From light
light intensity (b) From NADPH
The correct option is (c) From Photosystem-I
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (d) From Photosystem-II, which splits water
molecule
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV
2. To make 100 molecules of glucose, how many
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – III; E – I molecules of ATP & NADPH are required?
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I (a) 1800 and 1200 respectively
3. Column-I Column-II (b) 1200 and 1800 respectively
(A) Emerson effect I. C4 Cycle (c) 1800 and 600 respectively
(B) Hill reaction II. Photolysis (d) 200 and 600 respectively
(C) Calvin Cycle III. C3 Cycle 3. Chloroplasts are disrupted and the stroma
(D) Hatch & Slack IV. Photosystem I & II separated from the lamellae. The isolated stroma
cycle will fix CO2 if it is supplied with
(a) A - I; B - II; C - III; D - IV (a) O2
(b) A - I; B - III; C - IV; D -I (b) RuBisCO
(c) A - III; B - IV; C - I; D- II (c) light
(d) A -IV; B - II; C- III; D - I (d) ATP + NADPH
4. Column-I Column-II 4. The correct sequence of Calvin cycle is
(A) Grana of chloroplast I. Kreb's cycle (a) Decarboxylation ® Oxidation ®
(B) Stroma of chloroplast II. Light reaction Regeneration
(C) Cytoplasm III. Dark reaction (b) Decarboxylation ® Regeneration ®
(D) Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis Oxidation
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) Car boxylation ® Reduction ®
Regeneration
(b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(d) Car boxylation ® Reduction ®
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II Regeneration
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
B-82 BIOLOGY
5. The reactions of Calvin cycle not dependent on 10. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern states
light, but they usually do not occur at night - of India shows lesser yield due to limiting factor
Why? of
(a) Night is often too cold for these reactions (a) CO2
to occur (b) light
(b) CO2 concentration in night is too high for
(c) temperature
these reactions to occur
(d) water
(c) Plants usually open stomata at night
11. A student sets up an exper iment on
(d) Calvin cycle independent on the products
of light reaction photosynthesis as follows:
He takes soda water in a glass tumbler and add
6. Which one is correct for C4 plants?
chlorophyll extracts into the contents and keeps
Mesophyll Bundle Sheath the tumbler exposed to sunlight hoping that he
(a) PEPcase C4 -Cycle RuBisCO C3 -Cycle has provided necessary ingredients for
(b) PEPcase Calvin Cycle RuBisCO C4 -Cycle photosynthesis to proceed (viz., CO2, H2 O,
(c) RuBisCO C4 -Cycle PEPcase C3 -Cycle chlorophyll and light). What do you think what
(d) RuBisCO C2 -Cycle PEPcase C3 -Cycle will happen after, say, a few hours of exposure of
light?
7. In an experiment, the CO2 available to a C4 plant
(a) Photosynthesis will take place and glucose
was labelled with a radioactive isotope and the
will be produced.
amount of radioactivity in the chloroplast was
(b) Photosynthesis will take place and starch
measured. As photosynthesis preceeded, in
which of the following molecules did the will be produced which will turn the mixture
radioactivity first appear? turbid.
(a) Oxaloacetic acid (b) PEP (c) Photosynthesis will not take place because
(c) Malic acid (d) RuBP CO2 dissolved in soda water escapes into
8. Which of the following plant species have the atmosphere.
highest photosynthetic yield? (d) Photosynthesis will not take place because
intact chloroplasts are needed for the
(a) Species that perform photorespiration
process.
(b) Species possessing C3 pathway
12. The electrons that are released by the Photolysis
(c) Species possessing C4 pathway
of water during non-cyclic Photophosp-
(d) Same for all
horylation, ultimately end up in
9. According to Blackman’s law of limiting factor,
(a) Glucose
at any given time, Photosynthesis can be limited
(b) ATP
by
(c) H2O
(a) light (d) NADPH
(b) CO2 concentration
(c) both light and CO2 concentration
(d) either by light or by CO2
Respiration in Plants B-83
14 Respiration in Plants
Fill in the Blanks : 5. The proton-motive force is the establishment of

proton gradients and electrochemical potentials
1. Cellular respiration includes the various across the inner membrane.
pathways by which carbohydrates and other
6. Proton-motive force is essential for back flow of
metabolites are broken down with the
H+ from outer chamber of matrix of mitochondria
consecutive buildup of __________.
through proton channel (F0) of F0 – F1 particle
2. Glycolysis occurs in the________ and
to produce ATP.
produces________, which in the presence of
O2 enters the __________. 7. Enzymes for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm.
3. When oxygen is not available to a muscle cell, It is common in aerobic/anaerobic respiration.
NADH formed during glycolysis does not pass 8. The scheme of glycolysis was given by Gustav
electrons to the ETS. Instead, it passes hydrogen Embden, Otto Morrison, and J. Parnas and is
atoms to __________. often referred to as the EMP pathway.
4. In the fermentation of one glucose molecule,
there is a net gain of ______________ molecules Conceptual MCQs :
of ATP.
1. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose
5. Acceptor of Acetyl Co-A in Kreb’s cycle is
molecule during respiration
__________.
(a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34
6. Total number of ATP consume during Kreb’s
cycle is _____. during respiratory chain
7. In the Electron transport system, the final (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and
acceptor of proton is __________. 34 inside mitochondria
8. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which (c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs
donates electrons to oxygen is __________. cycle
(d) all are formed inside mitochondria
True / False : 2. Respiratory substrate yielding maximum
number of ATP molecule is
1. Autotrophs can produce their own food but must
(a) ketogenic amino acids
obtain energy from it by glycolysis & cellular
(b) glucose
respiration.
(c) amylose
2. Fermentation usually occurs under aerobic
(d) glycogen
conditions.
3. The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is 3. RQ is ratio of
catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase. (a) CO2 produced to substrate consumed
(b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
4. ATP can be synthesized through substrate level
(c) oxygen consumed to water produced
phosphorylation, photophosphorylation and
oxidative phosphorylation. (d) oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
B-84 BIOLOGY
4. Fermentation is anaerobic production of 13. Anaerobic respiration takes place in –

(a) protein and acetic acid (a) ribosome (b) nucleus
(b) alcohol, lactic acid or similar compounds (c) cytoplasm (d) vacuole
(c) ethers and acetones 14. Conversion of pyruvic acid into ethyl alcohol is
(d) alcohol and lipoproteins mediated by -
5. In alcoholic fermentation (a) phosphatase
(a) oxygen is the electron acceptor (b) dehydrogenase
(b) triose phosphate is the electron donor while (c) decarboxylase & dehydrogenase
acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor (d) catalase
15. The first compound of TCA cycle is –
(c) triose phosphate is the electron donor while
(a) oxalo succinic acid (b) oxaloacetic acid
pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor
(c) citric acid (d) cis aconitic acid
(d) there is no electron donor
16. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately
6. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and
termed:
the electron transport system is the formation of (a) parabolic (b) amphibolic
(a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (c) anabolic (d) catabolic
(b) sugars 17. The energy - releasing metabolic process in
(c) nucleic acids which substrate is oxidised without an external
(d) ATP in small stepwise units electron acceptor is called:
7. In Krebs cycle FAD participates as electron (a) glycolysis (b) fermentation
acceptor during the conversion of (c) aerobic respiration (d)
(a) succinyl CoA to succinic acid photorespiration
(b) a-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA 18. Which of the metabolites is common to
(c) succinic acid to fumaric acid respiration mediated breakdown of fats,
(d) fumaric acid to malic acid carbohydrates and proteins?
8. The commonest living, which can respire in the (a) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate
absence of O2 is – (b) Pyruvic acid
(a) fish (b) yeast (c) Acetyl CoA
(c) potato (d) chlorella (d) Glucose - 6 - phosphate
9. Respiration in plants 19. In the electron transport chain during terminal
(a) occurs only during day oxidation, the cytochrome, which donates
(b) results in the formation of vitamins electrons to O2 is
(c) is characteristic of all living cells (a) Cytochrome-b (b) Cyto-C
(d) often requires CO2 (c) Cyto-a3 (d) Cyto.-f
20. An enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the
10. What is the energy currency of a cell ?
mitochondrial matrix except one which is located
(a) DNA (b) RNA
in inner mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotes
(c) ATP (d) Minerals
and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is
11. The end product of glycolysis is
(a) Succinate dehydrogenase
(a) citric acid (b) Lactate dehydrogenase
(b) glyceraldehyde (c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(c) phosphoglyceraldehyde (d) Malate dehydrogenase
(d) pyruvic acid 21. 2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 ® 102CO2 + 98H2O +
12. A very important feature of respiration is that – Energy
(a) it liberates energy The RQ of above reaction is
(b) it provides O2 (a) 1 (b) 0.7
(c) utilize CO2 (c) 1.45 (d) 1.62
(d) synthesize complex compounds
(a) (P) 4C; (Q) 6C; (R) 5C; (S) 4C; (T) 4C
(b) (P) 6C; (Q) 5C; (R) 4C; (S) 3C; (T) 2C
1. The given figure shows the few steps of the
(c) (P) 2C; (Q) 5C; (R) 6C; (S) 4C; (T) 4C
pathway are indicated by P, Q, R and S major
pathway of anaerobic respiration. (d) (P) 4C; (Q) 6C; (R) 4C; (S) 4C; (T) 5C
3. Refer the figure and identify X, Y and Z
Ox
alo
a ce
tic
ac
id
=
4C
+ CO2
X Y Z
Identify P, Q, R and S. (a) GTP NADH2 CO2
P Q R S (b) FADH2 NADH2 GTP
(a) NAD
+
Ethanol Lactic acid PEP (c) NADH2 FADH2 GTP
(b) Ethanol +
Lactic acid ATP
(d) CO2 NADH2 ADP
NAD
(c) Lactic acid Ethanol Glucose ADP 4. In the given figure of electron transport chain -
identify P, Q, R and S.
(d) NAD Lactic acid Ethanol DHAP Inner membrane
of mitochondria
2. Refer the figure of citric acid cycle and choose Q
the correct combination of labelling (P, Q, R, S P
R
and T) the number of carbon compounds in the 2H
substrate molecules, involved in the given figure. 2H FMN S
T
2e
FeS Fes
T UQ 2e T
H2 UQ
Oxaloacetic (P) (Q) 2e
Cy b 2e
FeS
T UQ 2e T
H2 UQ
(T) (R)
2e
Cy c – 1/2O2
+
2e 2H
(S) Cy c Cy a – a1 H2O
B-86 BIOLOGY
(a) P - Matrix, Q - Outer membrane, R - RMNH2,

S - NADH2, T - 2H
(b) P - Inter membrane space, Q - Matrix, R -
NADH + H+, S - NAD+, T - 2H+
(c) P - Outer membrane, Q - Cristae, R - NAD, S
- NADH + H+, T - H
(d) P - Cristae, Q - Outer chamber, R - NADH +
H+, S - NAD, T - 2H+
5. The given figure represents the interelationship
among metabolic pathways showing the
respiration mediated breakdown of different
organic molecules to CO2 and H2O. Now identify
A to D.
A Carbohydrates C
Fatty Monosaccharides
+ Glycerol E.g. Glucose Amino acids
acids
P Q R S
Glucose-6-phosphate (a) 1,3 di PGA 3 PGAld Fr.1,6 di P Fr. 6 P
(b) 3 PGA1d 1,3 di PGA Fr. 1,6 di P Fr.6 P
Fructose 1, 6 bis-phosphate (c) Fr. 1,6 di P Fr. 6 P 3 PGAld 1,3 di PGA
(d) Fr.6 P Fr. 1,6 di P 3 PGAld 1,3 di PGA
Glyceraldehyde
B 3-phosphate 7. Which of the following diagram represents ATP
synthesis in mitochondria through
Pyruvic acid chemiosmosis?
I.M. = Inner membrane;
D M = Matrix ;
O.C. = Outer Chamber
Kreb’s
cycle
H2O CO2 (a)

A B C D
(a) Protein Acetyl Fat DHAP
CoA
(b) Fat DHAP Proteins Acetyl
CoA (b)
(c) Acetyl Fat DHAP Protein
CoA
(d) Fat DHAP Acetyl Protein
CoA
6. Refer the figure of glycolysis and identify the (c)
products formed at P, Q, R and S.
7. Assertion : In alcoholic fermentation, the hexose

molecule is converted into glucose and fructose.
Reason: Alcoholic fermentation is anaerobic
(d)
respiration brought about by enzyme zymase.
8. Assertion : In electron transport chain, there is
a loss of energy at each step.
Assertion/ Reason : Reason : At each step of ETC, there are electron
carriers.
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. 9. Assertion : Both hexokinase and glucokinase
While answering these questions you are required to require divalent cation Mg++ or Mn++.
choose any one of the following five responses. Reason : The divalent cations act as catalysts.
10. Assertion : Cytochromes are a group of copper
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the containing electron transferring proteins.
Reason : The terminal cytochrome reacts with
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. oxygen.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false Matching Based Questions :
1. Assertion : Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.
Reason : Enzymes for glycolysis are found in (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
cytoplasm. It is common in aerobic/anaerobic Column I can have correct matching with one
respiration. statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
2. Assertion : The inner membrane of mitochondria choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
contains systems involving electron transport. which ONLY ONE is correct.
Reason : The mitochondrial matrix contains 1. Column-I Column-II
enzymes of Kreb's cycle. (A) Inner mitochondrial I. Krebs cycle
3. Assertion : The product of the first reaction of membrane
the Kreb's cycle is citric acid, a six carbon (B) Pyruvic acid is converted II. ETC
compound. into CO2 and ethanol.
Reason : The first reaction of the Kreb's cycle is (C) Cytoplasm III. Fermentation
(D) Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis
the condensation of acetyl CoA with
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
oxaloacetate.
4. Assertion : Substrate level phosphorylation is (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
present in glycolysis. (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
Reason : Substrate level phosphorylation (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
causes synthesis of ATP. 2.
5. Assertion : One way of indicating the ATP yield Column - I Column - II
from oxidative phosphorylation is the P/O ratio. A. Complex I I. Cytochrome bc 1 complex
Reason : The cell stores 40% of the chemical B. Complex II II. NADH dehydrogenase
energy.
6. Assertion : F1 particles are present in the inner C. Complex III III. ATP synthetase
mitochondrial membrane.
D. Complex IV IV. FADH2 dehydrogenase
Reason : An electron gradient formed on the
inner mitochondrial membrane, forms ATP. E. Complex V V. Cytochrome c oxidase
B-88 BIOLOGY
A B C D E 3. During glycolysis, glucose split into

(a) III V I IV II (a) two pyruvic acid molecules.
(b) II V I IV III
(b) two coenzyme A molecules.
(c) II IV I V III
(d) IV I II V III (c) two lactic acid molecules.
3. Column - I Column - II (d) one lactic acid plus one ethanol molecule.
(A) 4C compound I. Acetyl CoA 4. Which one is correct sequence in glycolysis?
(B) 2C compound II. Pyruvate (a) G 6-P ® PEP ® 3-PGAL ® 3-PGA
(C) 5C compound III. Citric acid (b) G 6-P ® 3-PGAL ® 3-PGA ® PEP
(D) 3C compound IV. a- ketoglutaric acid (c) G 6-P ® PEP ® 3-PGA ® 3-PGAL
V. Malic acid (d) G 6-P ® 3-PGA ® 3-PGAL ® PEP
(a) A – II; B – V; C – III; D – I 5. Which of the following is correct sequence in
(b) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – II Kreb’s cycle?
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (a) Isocitric acid ® Oxalosuccinic acid ® a-
(d) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II ketoglutaric acid
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid ® Isocitric acid ® a-
ketoglutaric acid
(A) Grana of chloroplast I. Krebs cycle (c) a-ketoglutaric acid ® Isocitric acid ®
(B) Stroma of chloroplast II. Light reaction Oxalosuccinic acid
(C) Cytoplasm III. Dark reaction (d) Isocitric acid ® a-ketoglutaric acid ®
Oxalosuccinic acid
(D) Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis
6. In glycolysis, there is one step where NADH +
(a) A ® (IV); B ® (III); C ® (II); D ® (I) H+ is formed from NAD+, this is when 3-
(b) A ® (I); B ® (II); C ® (IV); D ® (III) phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is converted to
1, 3-bisphosphyglycerate (BPGA). This reaction
(c) A ® (II); B ® (I); C ® (III); D ® (IV)
shows
(d) A ® (II); B ® (III); C ® (IV); D ® (I) (a) oxidative dehydrogenation
(b) oxidative phosphorylation
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (c) oxidative dehydration
(d) oxidation reduction
1. Energy accumulate in ATP in
7. If hexokinase, an enzyme that catalyzes the first
(a) disulphide bond
step reaction in glycolysis is blocked then what
(b) hydrogen bonds will be its impact on glycolytic pathway ?
(c) high energy phosphate bond (a) Glycolysis will speed up.
(d) ester bond (b) Glycolysis will slow down.
2. What is the function of molecular oxygen in (c) Glycolysis will stop.
cellular respiration? (d) Glycolysis will occurs normally.
(a) It causes the breakdown of citric acid. 8. How many ATP molecules could maximally be
generated from one molecule of glucose, if the
(b) It combines with glucose to produce carbon
complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to
dioxide.
CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful
(c) It combines with carbon from organic
chemical energy available in the high energy
molecules to produce carbon dioxide. phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ?
(d) It combines with hydrogen from organic (a) Thirty (b) Fifty seven
molecules to produce water. (c) One (d) Two
9. How many molecules of ATP are produced 13. Fermentation takes place
during glycolysis? (a) under anaerobic conditions in many
(a) 2 (b) 4 prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes.
(c) 6 (d) 8 (b) under aerobic conditions in many
10. The reasons for the involvement of different prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes.
enzyme in each step of glycolysis is that (c) under anaerobic conditions in all
(a) each step occurs in a different compartment prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes.
of a cell. (d) under aerobic conditions in all prokaryotes
(b) each step occurs in a different cells. and unicellular eukaryotes.
(c) each step involves a different chemical 14. In the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl
reaction. coenzyme A, NAD+ is
(d) each step involves a different change in (a) oxidized
potential energy. (b) reduced
11. For bacteria to continue growing rapidly when (c) broken into one-carbon units
they are shifted from an environment containing (d) isomerized
O2 to an anaerobic environment, they must 15. Initial step of TCA cycle to yield citric acid starts
(a) produce more ATP per mole of glucose with the condensation of
during glycolysis. (a) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & catalyzed
(b) produce ATP during oxidation of glucose. by the enzyme citrate synthase.
(c) increase the rate of glycolysis. (b) acetyl group with pyruvate & H2 O &
(d) increase the rate of TCA cycle. catalysed by the enzyme citrates synthase.
12. In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is produced (c) acetyl group with OAA & H2 O & is
during the independent of the enzyme.
(a) reduction of acetyldehyde to ethanol. (d) none of the above.
(b) oxidation of glucose.
(c) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA.
(d) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP.
B-90 BIOLOGY
Plant Growth and

15 Development
Fill in the Blanks : 7. Cells in a watermelon may increase in size by
upto 3,50,000 times.
1. The method that renders the seed coat permeable 8. Gibberellins are responsible for immature falling
to water so that embryo expansion is not of leaves.
physically retarded is called _______ .
2. In arithmetic growth rate, when length of the Conceptual MCQs :
organ is plotted against time, the nature of graph
1. Phytochrome is involved in
curve will be _______ .
(a) phototropism
3. The ability of plant to follow different pathways (b) photorespiration
and produce different structures in response to (c) photoperiodism
environment and phases of life is termed as
(d) geotropism
_______ .
2. What will be the effect on phytochrome in a
4. The hormones which was first isolated from plant subjected to continuous red light?
human urine is _______ .
(a) Level of phytochrome decreases
5. Gibberellin was first extracted from _______ . (b) Phytochrome is destroyed
6. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the (c) Phytochrome synthesis increases
plant with _______ . (d) Destruction and synthesis of phytochrome
7. Hormone responsible for bolting is _______ . remain in equilibrium.
8. The movement of plant and its parts in response 3. The method that renders the seed coat permeable
to light is called _______ . to water so that embryo expansion is not
9. Effect of low temperature which shortens veg- physically retarded is
etative period and hasten flowering is called (a) vernalization
_______. (b) stratification
(c) denudation
True/ False : (d) scarification
4. What reason will you assign for coconut milk
1. Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy used in tissue culture?
essential for growth activities. (a) Gibberellins (b) Cytokinins
2. IAA, NAA, IAB, 2, 4-D and 2, 4, 5-T are synthetic (c) Auxins (d) Ethylene
auxins. 5. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if
3. Long day plants flower if the night length is induced to root or dipped in
shorter than a critical period. (a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins
4. Vernalisation refers to the promotion of flowering (c) auxins (d) ethylene
by a period of low temperature. 6. Highest auxin concentration occurs
5. 17,500 new cells are produced per hour by a (a) in growing tips
single maize root apical meristem. (b) in leaves
6. With the help of length, growth of pollen tube is (c) at base of plant organs
measured. (d) in xylem and phloem
Plant Growth and Development B-91
7. In short day plants, flowering is induced by 17. Which one of the following generally acts as an
(a) photoperiod less than 12 hours antagonist to gibberellins?
(b) photoperiod below a critical length and (a) Zeatin (b) Ethylene
uninterrupted long night (c) ABA (d) IAA
(c) long night 18. Vernalization stimulates flowering in
(d) short photoperiod and interrupted long (a) zamikand (b) turmeric
night (c) carrot (d) ginger
8. “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the 19. Which one of the following is not used for ex-
discovery of situ plant conservation ?
(a) ABA (b) 2, 4-D (a) Seed banks
(c) IAA (d) GA (b) Shifting cultivation
9. One of the synthetic auxin is: (c) Botanical Gardens
(a) IAA (b) GA (d) Field gene banks
(c) IBA (d) NAA 20. Which of the following plant is LDP?
10. Movement of auxin is (a) Xanthium (b) Soyabean
(a) centripetal (b) basipetal (c) Wheat (d) Tobacco
(c) acropetal (d) both b and c
11. Apical dominance means – Diagram Based Questions :
(a) suppression of growth of apical bud by
axillary buds 1. The picture given below shows a graph drawn
(b) suppression of growth of axillary buds by on the parameters of growth versus time. Identify
the presence of apical bud. A, B, C marked in the given graph.
(c) stimulation of growth of axillary buds by A
removal of apical bud
(d) inhibition of growth of axillary buds by Size C
removal of apical bud.
12. Plant hormone associated with climacteric
respiration is B
(a) auxin (b) cytokinin Time
(c) ethylene (d) gibberellin A B C
13. The maximum growth rate occurs in (a) Exponential Log phase Stationary phase
(a) exponential phase (b) stationary phase phase
(c) senescent phase (d) lag phase
(b) Stationary Lag phase Log phase
14. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven
phase
distribution of:
(a) gibberellin (b) phytochrome (c) Log phase Stationary Logarithmic phase
(c) cytokinins (d) auxin phase
15. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support (d) Log phase Lag phase Stationary phase
is an example of:
(a) thigmotaxis (b) thigmonasty 2. The given diagram represents the germination and
(c) thigmotropism (d) thermotaxis seedling development in beam.
16. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, Young leaves
what do the temperature and light control in the Cotyledons
plants? B
(a) Apical dominance C
(b) Flowering Soil line D
(c) Closure of stomata
(d) Fruit elongation
A
B-92 BIOLOGY
Identify A, B, C and D marked in the given figure. (c) With limited nutrient supply, the growth rate
increases rapidly leading to a exponential
A B C D phase.
(a) Plumule Cotyledons Hypocotyl Epicotyl (d) Geometrical growth is typical for all cells,
tissues and organs of a plant.
(b) Radicle Seed coat Epicotyl Hypocotyl
5. The given figure shows the comparison of
(c) Hypocotyl Cotyledons Epicotyl Root hair growth rate of two leaves (A and B) over the
period of one day. Both the leaves A and B have
(d) Root hair Cotyledons Plumule Hypocotyl increased their area in a given time to produce
A’ and B’ leaves respectively. If AGR = absolute
growth rate and RGR = relative growth rate, then
3. Which of the following shows the correct graph select the correct option.
of arithmetic growth?
B'
(a) (b))
Growth A'
Growth
10 cm2 55 cm2
Time Time
2
(c) (d) 50 cm
2
5 cm
Growth Growth A B
Time Time
Time = 1 day Time = 1 day
4. The graph given below shows a geometrical
growth rate. A-Leaf B-Leaf
AGR RGR AGR RGR
(a) 1% 1 2% 2
(b) 100% 5 10% 5
(c) 5 100% 5 10%
(d) 0.5 100% 1.5 100%
6. Maryland Mammoth Tobacco is a short day

plant. Its critical duration of darkness is 10 hours.
Under which of the following conditions will
Maryland Mammoth tobacco not flower ?
Which of the following statement regarding the

above graph is incorrect?
(a) The initial growth is slow, thereafter
exponential phase and then stationary (a) (b) (c) (d)
phase. 24- hour critical critical critical critical
clock level level level level
(b) A sigmoidal curve is a characteristic of living
light dark
organism growing in a natural environment.
7. The following diagram shows four coleoptiles 6. Assertion : Gibberellins induce flowering in long
set up (I, II, III & IV) at the start of an experiment. day plants.
Reason : Genetically tall plant become dwarf by
application of Gibberellin.
7. Assertion : The apical bud is the only source of
auxins.
Reason : Removal of apical bud promotes lateral
bud growth.
8. Assertion : Ethylene cause climacteric ripening
I II III IV of fruits.
Fig : Experiment used to demonstrate that tip of the coleoptile Reason : Climacteric fruits show a rise in
is the source of auxin. Arrows indicate direction of light
respiration at the time of ripening.
Which two coleoptiles will both bend towards
9. Assertion : Dark period plays more important
the light source? part in flowering than light period.
(a) I and II (b) I and IV Reason : Flowering occurs in short-day plant if
(c) II and III (d) III and IV the dark period is interrupted by light break.
10. Assertion : Phytochrome exists in two forms Pr
Assertion/ Reason : and Pfr.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-12): These questions consist of Reason : Pr form stimulates and Pfr form inhibit
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. flowering.
While answering these questions you are required to 11. Assertion : Floral initiation is done by florigen.
choose any one of the following five responses. Reason : Floring is translocated from flowers to
leaves.
12. Assertion : Vernalization is a treatment to plant
given artifically.
Reason : Vernalization is perceived by whole
plant.
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
1. Assertion : Cytokinism are anti-senescent. (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
Reason : Effects of cytokinins in antagonistic (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
to ethylene. Column I can have correct matching with one
2. Assertion : Stratification of seeds may promote statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
their germination. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
Reason : Stratification promote gibberellin and which ONLY ONE is correct.
cytokinins. 1. Column -I Column -II
3. Assertion : The pigment which causes
(Plant hormone) (Function/other
photoperiodic stimulus is called phytochrome.
name)
Reason : Chemically phytochrome is a starch.
(A) Zeatin I. Flowering hormone
4. Assertion : Phototropism is a directional
(B) Florigen II. Synthetic auxin
growth movement.
Reason : Phototrophic movement occur in the (C) IBA III. Cytokinin
direction of light. (D) NAA IV. Natural auxin
5. Assertion : Sigmoid growth curve consists of (a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
four parts. (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
Reason : Lag phase is called as grand phase of (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
growth. (d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
B-94 BIOLOGY
2. Column -I Column -II Critical Thinking Type Questions :

(Growth Regulator) (Action)
(A) Abscisic acid I. Delays leaf senescence 1. Which of the following points is shown by cell
(B) Ethylene II. Inhibits seed germination at the root or shoot apex ?
(C) Cytokinin III. Herbicide (a) Rich in protoplasm, possesses lar ge
(D) Auxin IV. Hastens fruit ripening conspicuous triploid nucleus.
(a) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III. (b) Cell wall is cellulosic, primary in nature and
(b) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV with abundant plasmodesmata.
(c) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I. (c) Rich in protoplasm with large conspicuous
(d) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV nucleus.
3. Column -I Column -II (d) Both (b) and (c).
(A) Auxin I. Fruit ripening 2. Maximal size in terms of wall thickening and
(B) Cytokinins II. Apical dominance protoplasmic modification are achieved by
(C) Abscisic acid III. Antagonist to GAs (a) cells of divisional phase.
(D) Ethylene IV. Stomatal opening closing (b) cells of maturation phase.
V. Growth of lateral buds (c) cells of elongation phase.
(a) A-IV; B-V; C-III; D-I (d) cells of meristematic tissue.
(b) A-II; B-IV; C-III, IV; D-I 3. Arithmetic growth is expressed as
(c) A-II; B-V; C-III, IV; D-I (a) Lt = L0 + rt (b) L0 = L0 + rt
(d) A-III, IV; B-V; C-II; D-I (c) W1 = W0 ert (d) W0 = W1 ert
4. A sigmoidal curve is obtained in geometrical
(Growth (Processes) growth because
regulators) (a) it has lag, log and then stationary phase.
(A) Auxin I. Colouring test in lemon (b) one daughter cell remains meristematic while
(B) Gibberellin II. Cell division test in plants the other daughter cell differentiates and
(C) Cytokinin III. Avena curvature test matures.
(D) Ethylene IV. Dwarf corn test (c) of the effect of environment on mitosis.
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (d) none of the above
(b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III 5. Absolute growth rate is defined as the
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (a) synthesis of new intercellular an d
(d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III extracellular materials.
5. Column - I Column - II (b) measurement & the comparison of total
(Discovery) (Name of scientists) growth per unit time
(A) Foolish seedling I. Cousins (c) growth of the given system per unit time.
disease of rice (d) increased growth per unit time.
(B) Crystallized the II. F.W. Went 6. The exponential growth can be expressed as W1
Kinetic = W0ert. What is ‘r’ in the expression ?
(C) Release of ethylene III. Skoog and (a) Relative growth rate and depends on final
gas Miller size.
(D) Bioassay of Auxin IV. E. Kurosawa (b) Absolute growth rate & depends on initial
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II size.
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) Relative growth and also referred to as
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II efficiency index.
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (d) None of the above
7. A primary root grows from 5 cm - 19 cm in a 11. Experiments done by Charles Darwin and his son
week. Calculate the relative growth rate over the on plant phototropism showed that
period. (a) auxin is produced in the tip of the coleoptile.
(a) 20% (b) 40% (b) the tip of the coleoptile is the light receptor
(c) 60% (d) 80% of the plant.
8. De-differentiation is (c) within coleoptiles, auxin moves laterally
(a) regaining the lost capacity of division by away from the source of the light.
living cells. (d) more cell elongation takes place on the
(b) the ability of plant to produce different shaded side of the plant.
structure in response to environment. 12. Ethylene is used for
(c) the intrinsic factor affecting plant growth. (a) retarding ripening of tomatoes.
(d) none of the above. (b) ripening of fruits.
9. Which of the following represents the correct (c) slowing down ripening of apples.
sequence of the development process in a plant (d) both (b) and (c).
cell? 13. Skoog and Miller stimulated cell division in
(a) Cell division ® Elongation ® Senescence tobacco plants with degraded DNA. The active
® Maturation ingredient in stimulants, which resembles
(b) Meristematic cell ® Maturation elongation cytokinins, was modified
® Death (a) adenine (b) auxin
(c) Cell division ® Elongation ® Maturation (c) terpenes (d) carotenoids
® Plasmatic growth 14. Which hormone is used to induce rooting from
(d) Cell division ® Differentiation ® Maturation cut end of the stem?
® Senescence (a) Kinetin (b) Indole butyric acid
10. A phytohormones is (c) GA3 (d) Abscisic acid
(a) an ion that alters turgor pressure. 15. Plant hormone which is translocated to other
(b) small molecules of diverse chemical parts for growth of the plant is
composition. (a) indole-3-acetic acid
(c) a pigment responds to environmental (b) gibberellins
changes. (c) cytokinins
(d) a secondary metabolic compound. (d) none of these
B-96 BIOLOGY
Digestion and
16 Absorption
Fill in the Blanks : 5. Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the
proenzyme pepsinogen.
1. Glucose, some amino acids and sodium are 6. Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that
absorbed in to blood by _______ . are transported from intestine into blood
2. Enzyme trypsin is secreted by _______ . capillaries.
3. _______ are needed in the diet as components
7. Bile does not contain any digestive enzymes.
of teeth and bone, regulators of acid-base
8. The large intestine is shorter than the small
balance and water balance, and parts of certain
intestine.
enzymes.
4. The number of salivary glands present in human 9. Inside the small intestine, most of the water from
beings is _______ . the undigested food is absorbed by the body.
5. Teeth of adult man, not present in milk dentition
are _______ . Conceptual MCQs :
6. Milk protein is acted upon by a gastric enzyme 1. Hydrolysis of phospholipids yields –
in infant mammals. The enzyme is _______ . (a) glycerol, phosphoric acid and fatty acids
7. Muscular contraction in alimentary canal is (b) glycerol, phosphoric acid and nitrogen
called _______. base
8. The _______ is primarily a storage chamber (c) glycerol & fatty acids
within the digestive system, while the _______ (d) acetyl Co A
reabsorbs water, ions, and generates the faeces. 2. The food that gives more calories per unit mass
9. Most of the chemical digestion of food in humans of food is
is completed in the _______ . (a) protein
(b) carbohydrates
10. End product of protein digestion is _______ .
(c) fat
11. pH of saliva is _______ .
(d) water
True/ False : 3. The secretions that mix with food in the small
intestine are
1. The nutrients are absorbed from the small (a) saliva, gastric juice & bile
intestine into the blood and move through the (b) gastric juice, bile & pancreatic juice
circulatory system to the body cells. (c) bile, pancreatic juice & intestinal juice
2. The body cells send nerve impulses indicating a (d) pancreatic juice, intestinal juice and gastric
lack of nutrients to the small intestine, and the juice
small intestine sends the nutrients back to the 4. Essentially digestion means
cells. (a) breaking food for energy
3. Brunner’s glands are submucosal. (b) building of proteins from amino acids
(c) changing organic molecules
4. Glisson’s capsule is the connective tissue sheath
(d) breaking complex organic molecules into
of hepatic lobule.
smaller ones
Digestion and Absorption B-97
5. The work of HCl present in gastric juice is to – 14. Which of the following pair is characterised by
(a) convert pepsinogen to pepsin swollen lips, thick pigmented skin of hands and
(b) convert pro-rennin to rennin legs and irritability?
(c) kill pathogens present along with food (a) Thiamine – Beri-Beri
(d) All the above (b) Protein – Kwashiorkor
6. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. (c) Nicotinamide – Pellagra
One of them suddenly starts coughing while (d) Iodine – Goitre
swallowing some food. This coughing would 15. Glycogenolysis involves
have been due to improper movement of: (a) conversion of sugar into glycogen
(a) epiglottis (b) diaphragm (b) oxidation of sugar
(c) neck (d) tongue (c) conversion of glycogen into sugar
7. A person who is one along hunger strike and is (d) conversion of glycogen into fat
surviving only on water, will have 16. The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is
(a) less amino acids in his urine (a) dentoblast (b) ameloblast
(b) more glucose in his blood (c) osteoblast (d) odontoblast
(c) less urea in his urine 17. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated by
(d) more sodium in his urine (a) gastrin (b) secretin
8. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the (c) enterogasteron (d) enterokinase
conversion of 18. The vitamin essential for blood coagulation is
(a) pepsinogen into pepsin (a) vitamin B6 (b) vitamin A
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin (c) vitamin K (d) vitamin E
(c) caesinogen into caesin 19. Dentition in man is
(d) proteins into polypeptides (a) acrodont and homodont
9. Which one of the following enzymes carries out (b) thecodont, homodont and polyphyodont
the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans? (c) thecodont, heterodont and polyphyodont
(a) Pepsin (b) Rennin (d) thecodont, heterodont and diphyodont
(c) Lipase (d) Trypsin 20. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms
10. Which one of the following correctly represents normally occur in human body?
the normal adult human dental formula ? (a) Caecum
(b) Oral lining and tongue surface
3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 (c) Vermiform appendix and rectum
(a) , , , (b) , , ,
3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 (d) Duodenum
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 Diagram Based Questions :
(b) , , , (d) , , ,
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 1. The given flowchart shows the fate of
11. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an carbohydrate during digestion in the human
otherwise normal human, may lead to alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting at
(a) Indigestion (b) Jaundice stages indicated as A, B, C and D.
(c) Diarrhoea (d) Vomiting
12. Much developed larynx of human male is called
(a) Aristole's lantern (b) Syrinx
(c) Adam's apple (d) Muller's organ
13. Which of the following type of enzyme is not
matched correctly with the molecule that it breaks
down? S
(a) Amylase–starch
(b) Lipase–starch
(c) Protease–proteins
(d) Disaccharidase–sugars
B-98 BIOLOGY
(a) A= amylase, B = maltase, C = lactase, D =

1
invertase
(b) A = amylase, B = maltase, C= invertase, D= Inner-circular 2
lactase Outer-longitudinal
(c) A = amylase, B = invertase, C = maltase, D= 3
4
lactase
(d) A = amylase, B = lactase, C = maltase, D =
invertase.
2. The diagram given below shows the human 4. Which of the following structure forms glands
digestive system. Few structures are marked as in the stomach and crypts in between the bases
I, II, III and IV. Which region of the human of villi?
digestive system releases bile juice? (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
5. Which of the following part is made up of a thin
mesothelium with some connective tissue?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
(I)
Directions (Qs. 6 and 8): The given diagram shows
(II) the duct systems of liver, gall bladder and pancreas
(III)
in which few structures are marked as 1.2.3 and 4.
(IV) On the basis of this figure answer the questions.
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
3. The given figure shows a section of small
intestinal mucosa showing villi. What is the
function of structure marked as I in the given
figure?
(I)
6. Sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of digestive
juice by guarding which duct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
7. Which two ducts are responsible for the
formation of a duct that carry bile from the gall
bladder and conduct it into the first section of
(a) To absorb amino acids. the small intestine?
(b) To carry blood. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) To transport fat (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 1
(d) To transport glucose 8. Which of the following best describes the role
of the structure marked as Y in the given figure?
5. Assertion : The main part of carbohydrate

digestion takes place in small intestine.
Reason : Here pancreatic amylase converts
carbohydrates into lactose.
Y
(a) Serves a minor role in the chemical digestion
of fats. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
(b) Mucus is secreted to protect the oesophagus which ONLY ONE is correct.
from the stomach enzymes. 1. Column-I Column-II
(c) Digestive enzymes are secreted as food (Organs) (Functions)
passes from the oesophagus to th e (A) Mouth I. Reclaims water
stomach. and salts
(d) Connects the mouth to the stomach and (B) Stomach II. Carries out most
has no function in chemical digestion. of the digestion
and absorption of
Assertion/ Reason : nutrients.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-9): These questions consist of (C) Small intestine III. Releases amylase
enzyme that break
down
While answering these questions you are required to carbohydrates.
choose any one of the following five responses. (D) Large intestine IV. An acidic
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the compartment that
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. begins to break
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason proteins into
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. larger
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. polypeptides.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
1. Assertion : Starch is hydrolysed by ptyalin to (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
maltose. (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Reason : Sucrase hydrolyses sucrose to lactose. 2. Column-I Column-II
2. Assertion : Presence of HCl in stomach is (Food type) (Enzymes)
necessary for the process of digestion. (A) Starch I. Nucleases
Reason : HCl kills and inhibits the growth of
(B) Protein II. Lipase
bacteria in the stomach.
3. Assertion : Chewing is one of the important (C) Fats III. Amylase
process of digestion in animals. (D) Nucleic acid IV. Trypsin
Reason : It helps in enzyme action. (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
4. Assertion : Trypsin helps in blood digestion of (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
predator aimals. (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V
Reason : Trypsin hydrolyses fibrinogen. (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
B-100 BIOLOGY
3. Column-I Column-II (a) A ® III; B ® IV; C ® II; D ® I

(Digestive processes) (Description) (b) A ® III; B ® IV; C ® I; D ® II
(A) Ingestion I. Elimination of (c) A ® IV; B ® III; C ® II; D ® I
digestible solids. (d) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® IV
(B) Mechanical II. Enzymatic 6. Column - I Column - II
digestion degradation of (A) Hepatic lobule I. Base of Villi
food stuffs into (B) Crypts of leiberkuhn II. Blisson's
simpler molecules. capsule
(C) Chemical III. Taking food into (C) Sphincter of Oddi III. Gall bladder
digestion the digestive (D) Cystic duct IV. Hepato-
systems pancreatic
duct
(D) Defecation IV. Chewing, mixing,
churning and (a) A ® II; B ® I; C ® IV; D ® III
segmentation of (b) A ® I; B ® II; C ® IV; D ® III
food. (c) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® IV
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (d) A ® III; B ® IV; C ® II; D ® I
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III 7. Column - I Column - II
(A) Neck cells I. HCI, Intrinsic
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
factor
(d) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II (B) Peptic / Chief cells II. Mucus
4. Column-I Column-II (C) Parietal / Oxyntic III. Pepsinogen
(Organic molecules) (Description) (a) A ® II; B ® III; C ® I
(A) Carbohydrates I. It is made of fatty (b) A ® III; B ® II; C ® I
acids and glycerol
(c) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III
(B) Proteins II. It is mostly
(d) A ® II; B ® I; C ® III
ingested in the
form of starch Critical Thinking Type Questions :
(C) Nucleic acids III. It is built of long
chains of amino 1. In pancreatic juice, which of the followings are
secreted in inactive forms as proenzymes ?
acids
(a) Trypsin, chymotrypsin &
(D) Lipids IV. It is made of ribose
carboxypeptidases
or deoxyribose (b) Pepsin, trypsin and chymotrypsin
sugars and (c) Trypsin only
nitrogenous (d) Trypsin and chymotrypsin only
bases. 2. If the bile-pancreatic duct is blocked then which
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV of the following will not be affected ?
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (a) Digestion of proteins
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) Emulsification of fats
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) Level of blood glucose
5. Column - I Column - II (d) Digestion of starch
3. Which of the following is the correct
(A) Salivary amylase I. Proteins
chronological order for flow of food from mouth
(B) Bile salts II. Milk proteins to anus?
(C) Rennin III Starch (a) Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small intestine
(D) Pepsin IV. Lipids ® Large intestine
(b) Large intestine ® Oesophagus ® Stomach 7. The digestion of butter begins with
® Small intestine (a) saliva
(c) Small intestine ® Large intestine ® (b) gastric juice
Oesophagus ® stomach (c) pancreatic juice
(d) Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large
(d) intestinal juice
intestine ® Oesophagus
4. Which of the following occurs in the duodenum? 8. Removal of gall bladder in man would lead to
(a) Absorption of vitamins and minerals. (a) impairment of digestion of fats.
(b) Mixing of food with pancreatic juice and (b) impairment of digestion of protein.
bile. (c) jaundice
(c) Mastication of food. (d) increased acidity in intestine.
(d) Absorption of water. 9. During prolonged fasting
5. From deep to superficial, what are the tunics of (a) first fats are used up, followed by
the intraperitoneal portions of the alimentary carbohydrates from liver and muscles and
canal? proteins in the end.
(a) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa and (b) first carbohydrates are used up, followed
mucosa by fat and proteins towards end.
(b) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and (c) first lipids, followed by proteins and
serosa carbohydrates towards end.
(c) Adventia, muscularis, submucosa and (d) none of the above.
mucosa 10. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm
(d) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee
adventia adultrated with 2 gm vegetable ghee
6. If for some reason our goblet cells becomes non- (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin.
functional then this will adversely affect How many calories he is likely to get?
(a) production of somatostatin. (a) 144 (b) 126
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous (c) 164 (d) 112
glands. 11. If pH of stomach is 7 then which component of
(c) maturation of sperms. food would be affected?
(d) smooth movement of food down the (a) Starch (b) Protein
intestine. (c) Fat (d) Sucrose
B-102 BIOLOGY
Breathing and
17 Exchange of Gases
Fill in the Blanks : 9. About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by
haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
1. The structure which prevents the entry of food 10. Volume of residual air is higher than tidal volume.
into the windpipe is _______ .
2. Carbonic anhydrase is found in high Conceptual MCQs :
concentration in _______ . 1. Air is breathed through
3. Total lungs capacity is approximately _______ . (a) trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx —
4. The volume of the air that leaves the lungs in alveoli
human is measured by _______ . (b) nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus —
5. Residual air mostly occurs in _______ . alveoli — bronchioles
(c) nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea —
6. ____ in CO2 in your blood, which causes ____
bronchi — bronchioles — alveoli
in pH, would cause your breathing to speed up. (d) nose — mouth — lungs
7. The respiratory centre, which regulates respiration, 2. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet
is located in _______ . blood does not become acidic, because
8. As blood becomes fully O2 saturated, haemoglobin (a) it is absorbed by the leucocytes
combines with ______ molecule(s) of oxygen. (b) blood buffers play an important role in CO2
9. Partial pressure of oxygen in inspired and expired transport
air is _______ and _______ mm of Hg. (c) it combines with water to form which is
neutralized by NaCO3
10. p50 value denotes _______ .
(d) it is continuously diffused through tissues
True/ False : and is not allowed to accumulate
3. Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to
1. Tracheal rings are of hyaline cartilage . respiratory surface by only
2. Dorsal side of thoracic chamber is formed by (a) plasma and erythrocytes
(b) plasma
sternum.
(c) erythrocytes
3. Expiration occurs when there is negative pressure (d) erythrocytes and leucocytes
in lungs. 4. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
4. Solubility of CO2 is higher than O2 by 25 times. (a) sigmoid (b) hyperbolic
5. High conc. of hydrogen ion s favours (c) linear (d) hypobolic
oxyhaemoglobin formation. 5. The function of nasal cavity & nasopharynx is
6. Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar to –
ventilation. (a) warm the inspired air
7. In all animals oxygen is transported by blood. (b) moisten the inspired air
8. Haemoglobin is necessary for transport of (c) filter out the dust particles from the inspired
carbon dioxide and carbonic anhydrase for air
transport of oxygen. (d) All of the above
Breathing and Exchange of Gases B-103
6. In expiration, diaphragm becomes – Changes occurring are:

(a) flattened (b) relaxed (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) straightened (d) arched (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
7. Rate of respiration is directly affected by – 15. Which of the following are the correct statement
(a) concentration of carbon dioxide for respiration in human
(b) oxygen in trachea (a) Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation
(c) concentration of oxygen of bronchi
(d) diaphragm expansion (b) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in
8. Body tissues obtain oxygen from haemoglobin pons region of brain can increase the
because of its dissociation in tissues caused by– duration of inspiration
(a) low oxygen concentration and high carbon (c) Workers in grinding and stone - breaking
dioxide concentration industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
(b) low oxygen concentration (d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is
(c) low carbon dioxide concentration carried by haemoglobin as carbamino
(d) high carbon dioxide concentration haemoglobin.
9. The vital capacity of human lung is equal to 16. Volume of air breathed in and out during normal
(a) 3500 ml (b) 4800 ml breathing is called
(c) 500 ml (d) 1200 ml (a) Vital capacity (b) IRV
10. During inspiration – (c) ERV (d) Tidal volume
(a) the diaphragm gets raised and ribs get 17. The presence of CO2 in blood will lower pH
lowered because CO2 combines with____, with the rate
(b) both diaphragm and ribs get raised of reaction increased by_____ .
(c) both diaphragm and ribs get lowered (a) H2 O to form H+ and HCO3– , carbonic
(d) the diaphragm get flattered and ribs get anhydrase
(b) H2 O to form only HCO 3 – , carbonic
raised
anhydrase
11. Lungs have a large number of alveoli for –
(c) H2O to form only H+, carbonic ions
(a) having spongy texture and proper shape
(d) H+ to form HCO3–, oxyhaemoglobin
(b) more surface area for diffusion of gases
18. The amount of volume of air that can be inspired/
(c) more space for increasing volume of inspired air
expired normally is called
(d) more nerve supply
(a) tidal volume
12. The breathing controlling centre of medulla
(b) vital capacity
oblongata is mainly under –
(c) residual volume
(a) chemical control (b) physical control
(d) normal volume.
(c) neural control (d) all of the above 19. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because it
13. About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBC. (a) reacts with oxygen
The remaining 3% is (b) inhibits glycolysis
(a) dissolved in plasma and transported (c) reacts with haemoglobin
(b) retained in lungs (d) makes nervous system inactive
(c) attached to cell membranes 20. Dead space air in man is
(d) found inside mitochondria (a) 500 ml (b) 150 ml
14. Which two of the following changes (a–d) (c) 250 ml (d) 1.5 L
usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when
they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(i) Increase in red blood cell size
(ii) Increase in red blood cell production 1. The given diagram represents the human
(iii) Increased breathing rate respiratory system with few structures labelled
(iv) Increase in thrombocyte count as I, II, III and IV.
B-104 BIOLOGY
(a) I nasal-cavity (b) II pharynx

I (c) III trachea (d) IV lungs
4. In which one of the options given below, the
III
one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along
II
with its function?
IV
heart
D
The exchange of gases takes place in which
labelled structure? C
(a) I trachea (b) II Bronchi A
B
(c) III bronchioles (d) IV alveoli
2. In the given diagram of human respiratory
system what is the funciton of structure marked
as X ? (a) A- Alveolar cavity- It is the main site of
exchange of respiratory gases.
X
(b) B- Red blood cell- It transports mainly
carbon dioxide.
(c) C- Arterial capillary- It passes oxygen to
tissues.
heart
(d) D- Capillary wall- Here, exchange of O2 and
CO2 takes place.
system, few parts are marked as I, II, III, IV, V &
VI. Choose the correct combination of labelling
(a) To prevent food from entering into trachea.
from the given options.
(b) To filter and warm the air.
(c) To help in exchange of gases.
(d) To catch dust and bacteria.
system which marked label (I, II, III & IV) is the
common passageway where the nasal and oral
cavities meet?
I
II
III
(a) I- Nose; II- Bronchus; III- Larynx;

IV IV- Diaphragm; V- Trachea; VI- Lung
(b) I- Nose; II- Larynx; III- Bronchus; IV- Lung; carbon monoxide.
V- Diaphragm; VI- Trachea (c) The given graph illustrates the amount of
(c) I- Mouth; II- Trachea; III- Larynx; IV-Lung; HbO2 as similar to Hb at different pO2.
V- Diaphragm; Vi- Bronchus. (d) None of the above.
8. The given figure shows the respiratory system.
(d) I- Mouth; II- Diaphragm; III- Trachea; IV-
Identify the correct structure marked as 1, 2, 3
Bronchi; V-Larynx; VI- Lung
and 4 whose contraction initiated the inspiration
6. In the given figure, label A represents which in turn increases the volume of thoracic
____________ while label B represents chamber in the antero-posterior axis.
_________.
B
heart 3
4
1
2
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) A- Trachea; B- Bronchus (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) A- Alveolus; B- Bronchiole 9. The figure given below shows the mechanism
(c) A- Bronchiole; B- Trachea
of breathing. Identify the stage (X) of breathing
(d) A- Trachea; B- Bronchiole
explained & A, B and C marked in the figure.
7. Refer the given figure and answer the question.
% saturation of
haemoglobin
100 Ribs and

sternum Volume of
80 A thorax
60 B
40 Rib cage
20
Diaphragm
C
2 4 6 8 10 12 14
partial pressure
of oxygen (Kpa)
(a) X – Expiration, A– raised, B – decreased, C
Which of the following statement is correct – relaxed
regarding the above figure? (b) X – Inspiration, A – raised, B – decreased,
(a) When percentage saturation of haemoglobin C – relaxed
is plotted against the partial pressure of (c) X – Expiration, A – raised, B – increased, C
oxygen, a sigmoid curve is obtained. – contracted
(b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is (d) X - Inspiration, A– raised, B – increased, C
primarily related to partial pressure of – contracted
B-106 BIOLOGY
Assertion/ Reason : 10. Assertion : If there is no air in trachea, it will not

collapse.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-12): These questions consist of Reason : Trachea is having the cartilagenous
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. ring.
While answering these questions you are required to 11. Assertion : Inspiration occurs due to muscular
choose any one of the following five responses. relaxation.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the Reason : During inspiration, the diaphragm and
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. external intercostal muscle contract
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason simultaneously.
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. 12. Assertion : Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (SARS) originated in China.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false Reason : China is the most populated country
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. of the world.
1. Assertion : Most fish when out of water, die of
suffocation. Matching Based Questions :
Reason : Atmospheric air contains far less
oxygen content than the dissolved oxygen in
water.
2. Assertion : During inspiration, pressure of air
falls in the thorax. statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
Reason : There is a rise in volume of thorax during choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
inspiration. which ONLY ONE is correct.
3. Assertion : Vital capacity is higher in athletes
than non-athletes. 1. Column - I Column - II
Reason : Vital capacity is about 3.5-4.5 litres in a (Animals) (Mode of respiration)
normal adult person. (A) Earthworm I. Pulmonary
4. Assertion : Insects develop a complex system (B) Human II. Branchial
of air tubes called trachea for respiratory
(C) Prawn III. Tracheal
purpose.
Reason : Exchange through body surface is not (D) Insects IV. Cutaneous
possible in insects. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
5. Assertion : Forceful expiration occurs through (b) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
expiratory muscles. (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Reason : Expiratory muscles expires quickly. (d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
6. Assertion : Coughin g and sneezing are 2. Column-I Column-II
necessary. (Disorders) (Symptoms)
Reason : Coughing and sneezing are reflex (A) Asthma I. Inflammation of nasal
actions tract
7. Assertion : Histamine is involved in allergic and (B) Bronchitis II. Spasm of bronchial
inflammatory reactions. muscles
Reason : Histamine is a vasodilator. (C) Rhinitis III. Fully blown out alveoli
8. Assertion : Aerobic animals are not truely (D) Emphysema IV. Inflammation of bronchi
aerobic.
V. Cough with blood
Reason : They produce lactic acid anaerobically.
strained sputum
9. Assertion : Symptoms of emphysema develops (a) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I
when a person living on plains ascends and stays (b) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I
on a mountain. (c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV
Reason : Air pressure and partial pressure of (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
oxygen falls with the rise in altitude.
3. Column -I Column-II (c) bicarbonates

(Respiratory (Respiratory (d) carbamino compounds
capacities) volumes) 2. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
(A) Residual volume I. 2500 mL deoxyhaemoglobin at
(B) Vital capacity II. 3500 mL (a) low O2 pressure in tissue.
(b) high O2 pressure in tissue.
(C) Inspiratory reserve III. 1200 mL
(c) equal O2 pressure inside and outside tissue.
(D) Inspiratory capacity IV. 4500 mL
(d) all times irrespective of O2 pressure.
Which one of the following is the correct
3. Even when there is no air in it, human trachea
matching of two capacities and volume?
does not collapse due to presence of
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV.
(a) bony rings
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II.
(b) turgid pressure
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I.
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II. (c) chitinous rings
4. Column - I Column - II (d) cartilaginous rings
(Organs) (Functions) 4. Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
(A) Nose I. Stops food from going (a) pH increases.
down into lungs. (b) CO2 concentration increases.
(B) Epiglottis II. Produces sound. (c) O2 concentration decreases.
(C) Pharynx III. Traps bacteria as well as (d) 2, 3 D-P-G decreases.
dust. 5. During inspiration in mammals, the diaphragm
(D) Larynx IV. Allows air to pass from becomes
nose to oesophagus. (a) dome shaped (b) raised highly
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (c) flat (d) static
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II 6. During oxygen transport, the oxyhaemoglobin
(c) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III at the tissue level liberates oxygen to the cells
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I because in tissue
2. Column I Column II (a) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low.
(A) Tidal volume I. 2500 to 3000 ml (b) O2 concentration is low and CO2 is high.
(B) Inspiratory II. 1000 ml of air (c) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low.
reserve volume
(d) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension is high.
(C) Expiratory reserve III. 500 ml of air
7. Combining of haemoglobin with O2 in lungs can
(D) Residual volume IV. 3400 to 4800 ml of air
be promoted by
E. Vital capacity V. 1200 ml of air
(a) decreasing CO2 concentration in blood.
(a) A ® III; B ® IV; C ® II; D ® 1; V ® V
(b) decreasing O2 concentration in blood.
(b) A ® III; B ® I; C ® II; D ® 5; V ® IV
(c) A ® III; B ® I; C ® IV;; D ® 5; V ® IV (c) increasing CO2 concentration in blood.
(d) A ® V; B ® IV; C ® II; D ® 1; V ® II (d) introducting CO2 into blood.
8. When CO2 concentration in blood increases,
Critical Thinking Type Questions : breathing becomes
(a) slow and deep.
1. About 70% of CO2 is transported as (b) faster and deeper.
(a) carbonic acid (c) shallower and slow.
(b) darboxyhaemoglobin
(d) there is no effect on breathing.
B-108 BIOLOGY
9. What would happen if human blood becomes 11. Low oxygen tension in the blood causes
acidic (low pH)? (a) coughing (b) yawning
(a) Oxygen carying capacity of haemoglobin (c) hiccuping (d) sneezing
increases. 12. Arrange the following events in the correct order
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin as they occur during inspiration:
decreases. I. Air flows into the lungs.
(c) RBCs count increases. II. Alveolar volume increases.
(d) RBCs count decreases. III. Thoracic volume increases.
10. When, under certain conditions, the P50 value of IV. Pleural pressure decreases.
haemoglobin rises, the affinity of the pigment of V. Alveolar pressure decreases.
combining with O2 will (a) I – II – III – IV – V
(a) remain same (b) rise (b) III – IV – II – V – I
(c) fall (d) first rise and then fall (c) II – V – I – III – IV
(d) IV – V – II – I – III
Body Fluids and
18 Circulation
Fill in the Blanks : 8. Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells
which destroy foreign organisms entering the
1. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred body.
to as _______ . 9. A reduction in the number of WBC leads to
2. Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of clotting disorders which will lead to excessive
cholesterol is called _______ . loss of blood from the body.
3. Pulmonary vein, carrying oxygenated blood,
opens into _______ . Conceptual MCQs :
4. The pacemaker of the human heart is _______ . 1. Child death may occur in the marriage between
5. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins (a) Rh+ man and Rh + woman
by the command from _______ . (b) Rh+ man and Rh – woman
6. In mammals the blood from the right ventricle (c) Rh– man and Rh – woman
goes to _______ . (d) Rh– man and Rh + woman
7. Fish has _______ and ______ circulatory 2. A person with blood group A requires blood.
system. The blood group which can be given is
(a) A and B (b) A and AB
8. A blockage in aortic valve would directly reduce
(c) A and O (d) A, B, AB and O
blood flow to the _______ .
3. Blood group AB has
9. _______ plays an important role in blood (a) no antigen
clotting. (b) no antibody
(c) neither antigen nor antibody
True/ False : (d) both antigen and antibody
4. What is true about leucocytes ?
1. Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen (a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of
as compared to veins. blood cancer
2. Persons with blood group AB can donate blood (b) These are produced in thymus
to any person with any blood group under ABO (c) These are enucleated
system. (d) These can squeeze out thr ough the
3. Blood group AB is universal acceptor. capillary walls
4. Pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood to 5. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?
the lungs. (a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies
5. Blood from the lungs is returned to heart through are present
2-veins, one from each lung. (b) A antigen and b antibody
6. A healthy individual has 12 - 16 gms of (c) Antigen and antibody both absent
haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood. (d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies
7. RBC as an average life span of 120 days after 6. Which of the following statments is true for
which they are destroyed in the spleen. lymph?
B-110 BIOLOGY
(a) WBC and serum (a) QRS complex indicates atrial contraction
(b) all components of blood except RBCs and (b) QRS complex indicates ventricular
some proteins contraction
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma (c) Time between S and T represents atrial
(d) RBCs proteins and platelets systole
7. What is true about RBCs in humans? (d) P-wave indicates beginning of ventricular
(a) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2 contraction.
15. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially
(c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen
non - functional, what will be the immediate
only and the rest 20 per cent of it is effect?
transported in dissolved state in blood (a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
plasma slowed down
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all (b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
8. Antibodies are – (c) The blood will tend to flow back into the
(a) components of blood plasma left atrium
(b) RBCs (d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
(c) substances to inactivate antigens will be reduced
(d) WBC which destroy bacteria 16. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the
9. A vein differ from an artery in having – following organs in humans?
(a) strong muscular walls (a) Brain (b) Heart
(b) narrow lumen (c) Kidney (d) Pancreas
(c) valves to control direction of blood flow 17. Which one of the following plasma proteins is
opposite to heart involved in the coagulation of blood ?
(a) an albumin (b) serum amylase
(d) valves to control direction of blood flow
(c) a globulin (d) fibrinogen
towards heart
18. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:
10. The correct sequence of layers found in the (a) supply oxygenated blood to the different
walls of arteries from inside to outward is – organs
(a) tunica adventitia, tunica interna & tunica (b) break up into capillaries which reunite to
media form one visceral organ
(b) tunica interna, tunica externa & tunica media (c) break up into capillaries which reunite to
(c) tunica interna, tunica media & tunica externa form a vein
(d) tunica media, tunica externa & tunica interna (d) carry blood from one visceral organ to
11. In blood – another visceral organ
(a) WBCs are more than RBCs 19. Which one of the following statements is correct
(b) RBCs are more than WBCs regarding blood pressure ?
(c) RBCs are less than platelets (a) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and
(d) Platelets are less than WBCs requires treatment
12. Characteristics of cardiac muscles are that they – (b) 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood
(a) contract quickly and get fatigued pressure
(b) contract quickly and do not get fatigued (c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
(c) contract slowly and get fatigued (d) 90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like
(d) contract slowly and do not get fatigued brain and kidney
13. pH of human blood is – 20. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body
tissues into the blood is present as
(a) 6.2 (b) 9.4
(a) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(c) 7.4 (d) 10
(b) free CO2 in blood plasma
14. Which of the following correctly explains a
(c) 70% carbaminohaemoglobin and 30% as
phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard bicarbonate
electrocardiogram? (d) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
Body Fluids and Circulation B-111
Diagram Based Questions : 4. The given figure represents the pathway of

blood throughout the body.
1. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
Which one of its components is correctly Lungs
interpreted?
(3) (4)
Heart
(1) (2)
(a) Peak P and Peak R together - Systolic and
diastolic blood pressures Body
(b) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction tissues
only
Identify the correct match of marked number 1,
(c) Complex QRS - One complete pulse
2, 3 and 4.
(d) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac (a) 1- Artery
contraction
(b) 2- Pulmonary vein
2. The given diagram represents human heart with (c) 3- Pulmonary artery
four chambers labelled as I, II, III & IV? (d) 4- Vein
5. The given figure represents diagrammatic
presentation of an ECG. Each peak in the ECG is
identified with a letter from P to T that
corresponds to a specific electrical activity of
the heart.
I
III
II
IV
Which of the following letter shows the incorrect

Which labelled structure receives carbon dioxide activity of heart?
rich blood from the body? (a) QRS - Depolarization of the ventricles
(a) I (b) II (b) R wave - Marks the beginning of the
(c) III (d) IV systole.
3. Refer the given figure of human heart and identify (c) P- Electrical excitation (or depolarization)
the chamber (marked as 1, 2, 3 & 4) which receives of the atria
most of the blood returning from the brain. (d) T wave - Return of the ventricles from
excited to normal state (repolarization).
Assertion/ Reason :
4 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-11): These questions consist of
1 two statements each, printed as assertion and reason.
3 2 While answering these questions you are required to
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(c) 3 (d) 4 reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
B-112 BIOLOGY
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason 9. Assertion : Sline water is not given to patients
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. of hypertension.
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : Saline water can cause vomiting and
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false may drop blood pressure suddenly causing
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. cardiac arrest.
1. Assertion : Closed circulatory system is more 10. Assertion : Blood pressure is arterial blood
effective .than open type. pressure.
Reason : The closed circulatory system Reason : It is measured by sphygmomanometer.
considerably enhances the speed, precision and 11. Assertion : The muscle fibres of SA node
efficiency of circulation. possess the muscle fibres.
2. Assertion : An artificial pacemaker can replace Reason : Due to this fact, it can initiate excitory
the sinoatrial node of heart. waves at the highest rate
Reason : This is because, an artificial pacemaker Matching Based Questions :
is capable of stimulating the heart electrically to
maintain its beats. DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
3. Assertion : Heart of fish contains only (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
deoxygenated blood. (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
Reason : Oxygenated blood do not return back Column I can have correct matching with one
to the heart in fishes.
4. Assertion : The increased permeability of the
lymph capillaries is easily altered. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
Reason : The increased permeability of the which ONLY ONE is correct.
capillary walls leads to oedema or swelling. 1. Column-I Column-II
5. Assertion : Electorcardiogram is record or (Blood cell) (Description)
electrical activity of the heart which shows certain (A) Erythrocyte I. Most abundant white
waves called P, Q, R, S and T waves. blood cell, and the main
Reason : It gives important information phagocytic cell of the
concerning the spread of excitation to the blood.
different parts of heart and it is of value in the (B) Eosinophil II. Least abundant white
diagnosis of cases of abnormal cardiac rhythm blood cell; r eleases
and myocardial damage. histamine granules.
6. Assertion : WBCs accumulate at the site of (C) Lymphocyte III. Resist infections and are
wounds by diapedesis. associated with allergic
Reason : It is the squeezing of leucocytes from reactions.
the endothelium. (D) Neutrophil IV. Blood cell that contains
7. Assertion : EEG is of immense diagnostic value haemoglobin and
in the cardiac diseases. transports oxygen.
Reason : Defects in cardiac functions can be (E) Basophil V. Specialized antibody-
reflected in changes in the pattern of electrical producing white blood
cells.
potentials recorded in the EEG.
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II
8. Assertion : Heart valves resemble swing doors
in action. (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
Reason : Valves are present in the heart chamber, (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV
at the opening of the heart into large arteries (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – V
and veins.
Body Fluids and Circulation B-113
2. Column-I Column-II 5. Column - I Column - II

(Area of heart) (Receives blood from) (A) Fibrinogen I. Defence mechanism
(A) Right atrium I. Left atrium (B) Globulins II. Osmotic balance
(B) Right ventricle II. Vena cavae (C) Albumins III. Coagulaton of blood
(C) Left atrium III. Right atrium (a) A ® III; B ® I; C ® II
(D) Left ventricle IV. Pulmonary veins
(b) A ® I; B ® III; C ® II
(a) A- II; B- III; C- IV; D- I
(c) A ® III; B ® II; C ® I
(b) A- I; B- II; C- III; D- IV
(d) A ® II; B ® I; C ® III
(c) A- IV; B- I; C- II; D- III
(d) A- III; B- IV; C- I; D- II 6. Column - I Column - II
3. Column - I Column - II Types of Lucocytes / Their % (of
(A) Cardiac cycle I. 72 / min WBCs total WBC)
(B) Plasma II. 120/80 mmHg (A) Neutrophils I. 20 - 25
(C) Systolic/Diastolic III. 0.8 seconds (B) Basophils II. 2 - 3
(D) Haemoglobin IV. 12 -16 gms in every (C) Monocytes III. 6 - 8
100 ml of blood (D) Eosinophils IV. 0.5 - 1
(E) Heart beat V. 55 % of the blood
(E) Lymphocytes V. 60 - 65
A B C D E
(a) I II III IV V (a) A ® V; B ® IV; C ® III; D ® I; E ® II
(b) III V II IV I (b) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® V;; E ® IV
(c) III I V II IV (c) A ® V; B ® IV; C ® III; D ® II; E ® I
(d) V IV III I II (d) A ® II; B ® IV; C ® I; D ® III; E ® I
4. Column - I Column - II 7. Column - I Column - II
(Blood vessel) (Function) (A) Basophils I. Phagocytes
(A) Superior vena I. Carries deoxygenated (B) Neutrophils II. Secrete histamin,
serotonin, heparin
cava blood to lungs
and involved in
(B) Inferior vena II. Carries oxygenated inflammatory
cava blood to lungs response
(C) Pulmonary III. Brings deoxygenated (C) Monocytes III. Resist infections and
artery blood from lower parts are also involved in
of the body to the right allergic reaction
(D) Eosinophils IV. Immunity
atrium
(E) Lymphocytes V. 60 - 65
(D) Pulmonary vein IV. Brings oxygen ated
(a) A ® II; B and C ® I; D ® III; E ® IV
blood to the left atrium
(b) A ® II; B and C ® III; D ® I; E ® IV
V. Brings deoxygenated
(c) A ® III; B and C ® I; D ® II; E ® IV
blood from upper
(d) A ® IV; B and C ® III; D ® I; E ® II
parts of the body into
the right atrium
(a) A ® V; B ® I; C ® III; D ® II
(b) A ® V; B ® III; C ® I; D ® IV 1. Which is the correct route through which pulse
(c) A ® IV; B ® V; C ® III; D ® I making impulse travels in the heart?
(a) SA node ® AV node ® Bundle of His ®
(d) A ® V; B ® I; C ® II; D ® III
Purkinje fibres
B-114 BIOLOGY
(b) AV node ® Bundle of His ® SA node ® (a) capillaries surrounding the tissue cells.
Purkinje fibres ® heart muscles (b) arteries of the body.
(c) AV node ® SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® (c) capillaries surrounding the alveoli.
Bundle of His ® heart muscles
(d) left auricle of the heart.
(d) SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® Bundle of
His ® AV node ® heart muscles 8. A drop of each of the following, is placed
separately on four slides. Which of them will
2. If nerves of heart are cut, then heart will
not coagulate?
(a) beat rhythmically (b) stop
(a) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(c) beat arhythmically (d) shrink
(b) Blood plasma
3. Which one of the following will be the cardiac
(c) Blood serum
output (in litres per minute) of a heart that has a
(d) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic
stroke volume of 0.07 litres and is beating at a
system
rate of 90 per minute?
(a) 63.30 (b) 63.00 9. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of
(c) 00. 63 (d) 06.30 the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially
4. The blood returning to the heart through non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?
pulmonary vein has more (a) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
(a) RBC (b) haemoglobin will be reduced.
(c) oxygen (d) nutrient (b) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
slowed down.
5. First heart sound (LUBB) coincides with which
(c) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.
wave of ECG?
(a) R-wave (b) T-wave (d) The blood will tend to flow back into the
left atrium.
(c) P-wave (d) Q-wave
10. Which of the following set of events can occur
6. What happens when the pacemaker becomes
simultaneously?
non-functional?
(a) Only the auricles will contract rhythmically. (a) Auricular depolarization, ventricular
(b) The cardiac muslces do not contract in a depolarization, auricular systole.
coordinated manner rhythmically. (b) Ventricular depolarization, auricular systole,
(c) Only ventricles will contract rhythmically. ventricular diastole.
(d) Auricles and ventricles contract (c) Auricular depolarization, ventricular
simultaneously. repolarization, auricular diastole.
7. Maximum amount of oxygen is lost from the blood (d) Auricular depolarizaion, ventricular
in the diastole, auricular systole.
Excretory Products and their Elimination B-115
Excretory Products
19 and their Elimination
Fill in the Blanks : 4. During summer when body loses lots of water
by evaporation, the release of ADH is
1. The projections of renal pelvis are called suppressed.
_______ . 5. Counter-current flow of blood in vasa recta helps
2. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule constitute to retain the reabsorbed sodium in the renal
_______ . medulla.
3. Excretion of nitrogenous waste product in semi- 6. Urine is concentrated in Henle’s loop.
solid form occur in _______ .
7. Haemodialyser removes urea, uric acid, glucose
4. The ascending loop of Henle is permeable for
and proteins.
_______ .
8. Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule.
5. Ammonia is the main nitrogenous excretory
material in _______ .
6. Colloidal osmotic pressure in blood plasma is
Conceptual MCQs :
mainly due to _______ . 1. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian
7. The part of the nephron impermeable to water is nephron, which of the following is to be
_______ . expected?
(a) The urine will be more dilute
8. In the renal tubules the permeability of the distal
(b) There will be no urine formation
convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water
(c) There will be hardly any change in the
is controlled by _______ .
quality and quantity of urine formed
9. The hormone that promotes reabsorption of (d) The urine will be more concentrated
water from glomerular filtrate is _______ . 2. A terrestrial animal must be able to
10. In comparison to blood plasma, percentage of (a) excrete large amounts of water in urine
glucose in glomerular filtrate is _______ . (b) conserve water
11. The efferent arteriole emerging from the (c) actively pump salts out through the skin
glomerulus forms a fine capillary network around (d) excrete large amounts of salts in urine
the renal tubule called the _______ . 3. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His
urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities
True/ False : of:
(a) fats
1. Maximum number of nephrons in kidney are
(b) amino acids
juxta-medullary type.
(c) glucose
2. Malpighian capsules are present in the cortex (d) ketones
region. 4. Which one of the following statements is correct
3. Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing with respect to kidney function regulation ?
HCO3–. (a) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH
release is suppressed.
B-116 BIOLOGY
(b) Exposure to cold temperature blood flow 12. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of
stimulates formation of Angiotensin II. the excretory products of
(c) An increase in glomerular blood flow (a) earthworm (b) cockroach
stimulates formation of Angiotensin II. (c) frog (d) man
(d) During summer when body loses lot of 13. Which one of the following is not a part of a
water by evaporation, the release of ADH renal pelvis?
is suppressed. (a) Peritubular capillaries
5. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated (b) Convoluted tubules
mainly as (c) Collecting ducts
(a) urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult frog (d) Loops of Henle
(b) ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult frog 14. Which one of the following correctly explains
(c) urea in both tadpole and adult frog the function of a specific part of a human
(d) urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog nephron ?
6. Patients of diabeties have glucose in urine (a) Podocytes : create minute spaces (slite
because – pores) for the filtration of blood into the
(a) glucose is not absorbed from GF Bowman’s capsule
(b) glucose is absorbed from GF (b) Henle’s loop : most reabsorption of the
(c) glandular cells secreted glucose in GF major substances from the glomerular
(d) concentration of glucose is more in GF as filtrate
compared to its normal amount (c) Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption of
7. Which one of the following body functions is K + ions into the surrounding blood
not performed by kidneys ? capillaries
(a) Excretion (d) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away
(b) Osmoregulation from the glomerular towards renal vein.
(c) Regulation of blood volume 15. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous
(d) Destruction of dead blood corpuscles wastes is found in
8. Which secretes renin ? (a) Reptiles and Bird
(a) Stomach (b) Birds and Annelids
(b) Juxta cortical cell (c) Amphibians and Reptiles
(c) Juxta glomerular body (d) Insects and Amphibians
(d) Juxta medullary cell 16. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
9. The afferent and efferent vessels are – (a) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
(a) arterial in nature (b) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
(b) venous in nature (c) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin.
(c) one is arterial and the other is venous (d) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.
(d) none of the above 17. In which of the following minimum content of
10. Podocytes are present in – urea is present?
(a) afferent arteriole (a) Hepatic portal vein (b) Portal vein
(b) peritubular network (c) Renal vein (d) Vena cava
(c) efferent arteriole 18. Duct of Bellini is concerned with
(d) Bowman's cup (a) Filtration of urine
11. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the (b) Purification of urine
urinary bladder wall are totally removed? (c) Conduction of urine
(a) Micturition will continue (d) All the above
(b) Urine will continue to collect normally in 19. Which one is related to urine concentration in
the bladder mammals ?
(c) There will be no micturition (a) Testosterone hormone
(d) Urine will not collect in the bladder (b) Antidiuretic hormone
(c) Oxytocin hormone

(d) All of these A
B
20. A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is C
called
(a) deamination (b) entropy E
(c) anuria (d) None of these
Diagram Based Questions : D
1. The label X and Y in the given diagram of human

urinary system represents
X
3. The label X represents ___________ that

function in ______________.
(a) Vasa recta- Reabsorption of water, minerals
and digestive end products.
(X) (b) Henle's loop- Filtration of plasma leaving
the blood.
(c) Vasa recta- Filtration of plasma leaving the
blood.
(d) Henle's loop- Reabsorption of water,
(Y) minerals and digestive end products.
(a) X- Urethra, Y- Ureter 4. Which blood component would not usually pass
through the membranes from region A to region
(b) X- Ureter, Y- Urethra
B?
(c) X- Bladder, Y- Urethra (a) Mineral salts (b) Red blood cells
(d) X- Ureter, Y- Bladder (c) Urea (d) Water
5. After the blood enters the kidney, it travels to
2. The given figure shows the longitudinal section
the ____________.
of kidney with few structures labelled as I, II, III
(a) A (b) B
& IV identify renal vein in the given figure.
(c) C (d) D
Directions for (Q. 6 to 7): Refer the given figure of
IV nephron showing blood vessels and duct and answer
the questions.
I
II
III
(a) I renal artery (b) II renal vein

(c) III renal pelvis (d) IV renal column
Directions for (Q. 3-5): Refer the given diagrammatic
representation of a nephron of human excretory
system and answer the following questions.
B-118 BIOLOGY
6. Cells of which part is lined by simple cuboidal 6. Assertion : Kidneys maintain the osmotic
brush border epithelium that increases the surface concentration of the blood.
area for reabsorption? Identify the name also. Reason : Kidneys eliminate either hypotonic or
(a) 3, Descending limb of loop of Henle hypertonic urine according to the need of the
(b) 5, Vasa recta body.
(c) 6, Proximal convoluted tubule 7. Assertion : Hemodialysis can save and prolong
(d) 7, Collecting duct the life of uremic patients.
7. Which part is capable of reabsorption of HCO3 Reason : Waste products like urea can be
- and selective secretion of hydrogen and removed from the blood by the process of
potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the pH and hemodialysis.
sodium-potassium balance in blood? 8. Assertion : In the descending limb of loop of
(a) 1 (b) 3 Henle, the urine is hypertonic, while in ascending
(c) 5 (d) 7 limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypotonic.
Assertion/ Reason : Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to Na+,
while ascending limb is impermeable to H2O.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-11): These questions consist of 9. Assertion : The glomerular filtrate resembles the
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. protein free plasma in composition and osmotic
While answering these questions you are required to pressure.
choose any one of the following five responses. Reason : The glomerular capillary wall and inner
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the membrane of Bowman's capsule are impermeable
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. to large molecules..
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason 10. Assertion : During micturition, urine is
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. prevented from flowing back into the ureters.
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : Urethral sphincters relax during
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false micturition.
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. 11. Assertion : Secreting hypotonic urine is
1. Assertion : Urinary bladder and ureters are lined effective in reducing urinary loss of water.
by transitional epithelium. Reason : Hypotonic urine is more concentrated
Reason : Ureters carry the urine to urinary and higher in osmotic pressure than the blood.
bladder where it is stored temporarily.
2. Assertion : In vertebrates, the liver is also Matching Based Questions :
referred as an accessory excretory organ.
Reason : Liver helps kidneys in the secretion of DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
urine. (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
3. Assertion : Aquatic mammals like whales and (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
seals are said to be ureotelic animals. Column I can have correct matching with one
Reason : It is because of the fact that their main statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
nitrogenous waste product is urea. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
4. Assertion : Renal threshold of glucose is said which ONLY ONE is correct.
to be 180 mg per 100 ml. 1. Column-I Column-II
Reason : Glucose starts appearing in the urine (Function) (Parts of excretory
when its blood level exceed 180 mg per 100 ml of systems)
blood. (A) Ultra filtration I. Henle’s loop
5. Assertion : If human urine is allowed to stand (B) Concentration II. Ureter of urine
for some time, it smells strongly of ammonia. (C) Transport of III. Urinary bladder urine
Reason : Main constituent of human urine is (D) Storage of urine IV. Malpighian corpuscle
ammonia.
V. Proximal convoluted
tubule (B) Liver II. Eliminates water and salts in

(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III sweat and substances like
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I sterols, hydrocarbons and
(c) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III waxes through sebum.
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II (C) Skin III. Remove large amounts of
2. Column-I Column-II CO2 (18 litres / day) and also
(Disorders) (Feature) significant quantities of
(A) Uremia I. Excess of protein in urine water every day
(B) Hematuria II. Presence of high ketone (D) Kidney IV. Remove wastes (metabolic
bodies in urine by-products) and regulate
(C) Ketonuria III. Presence of blood cells in pH, ion concen tration,
urine volume and osmolarity of
(D) Glycosuria IV. Presence of glucose in blood
urine A B C D
(E) Proteinuria V. Excess of urea in blood (a) I II III IV
(a) A - V; B -III; C - II; D - IV; E - I (b) III I II IV
(b) A - IV; B - V; C - III; D - II; E - I (c) III I IV II
(c) A - V; B -III; C - IV; D - II; E - I
(d) II IV III I
(d) A - III; B -V; C - II; D - I; E - IV
(Parts of the (Functions) (A) Fall in GFR I. Activate the JG cells to
nephron) release renin
(A) Proximal I. Sodium is reabsorbed (B) Angiotensin II II. Increases the glomerular
convoluted tubules blood pressure and
actively in this thereby GFR
region. (C) Renin III. Carries out the
(B) Distal II. Sodium and water are
conversion of angioten-
convoluted tubules reabsorbed
under the influence of -sinogen in the liver to
hormone in this region. angiotensin I.
(C) Descending limb III. Primary site of glucose (D) Aldosterone IV. Causes reabsorption
and amino acid of Na+ and water from
reabsorption. the distal parts of the
(D) Ascending limb IV. Major substance tubule. This also leads
reabsorbed here is
to an increase in blood
water by osmosis.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV pressure and GFR.
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (E) An excessive v. Activate osmoreceptors
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I loss of fluid which stimulate the
(d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I from the body hypothalamus to
4. Column I Column II release ADH from the
(Types of (Role in excretion) neurohy-pophysis
organ) A B C D E
(A) Lungs I. Secretes bile-containing (a) I II III IV V
substances like bilirubin, (b) III V II IV I
biliverdin, cholesterol,
(c) III I V II IV
degraded steroid hormones,
(d) V IV III I II
vitamins and drugs.
B-120 BIOLOGY
6. Column I Column II 5. Ultrafiltration occurs in a glomerulus when

(Excretory organs) (Animals) (a) hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic
(A) Nephridia I. Hydra pressure.
(B) Malpighian tubules II. Leech (b) osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic
pressure.
(C) Protonephridia III. Shark
(c) capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds
(D) Kidneys IV. Round worms
glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
V. Cockroach
(d) colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular
(a) A ® II; B ® V; C ® IV;; D ® III pressure remain less than glomerular
(b) A ® IV; B ® II; C ® I; D ® V hydrostatic pressure.
(c) A ® V; B ® II; C ® IV;; D ® III 6. Filtration fraction is the ratio of
(d) A ® II; B ® IV; C ® V;; D ® I (a) glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to renal
plasma flow (RPF)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (b) glomerular filtrate to urine
(c) haemoglobin to oxyhaemoglobin
1. Workers in deep mines usually suffer from (d) O2 to CO2
dehydration because 7. In a mammalian kidneys, Bowman’s capsules
(a) water is lost due to evaporation. occur in (i) while loops of Henle are situated
(b) water is lost due to defecation. in (ii) .
(c) water is lost in the form of urine. (a) (i) – cortex, (ii) – medulla
(d) water is lost along with salts in the form of (b) (i) – medulla, (ii) – cortex
sweat. (c) (i) – cortex, (ii) – pelvis
2. Which of the following sets of animals produce (d) (i) – pelvis, (ii) – medulla
the same substances as their chief excretory 8. Urine is hypertonic
product? (a) in Bowman’s capsule.
(a) Fish, pigeon and frog (b) in PCT.
(c) in the middle of descending & ascending
(b) Camel, housefly and snake
limb of Henle’s loop.
(c) Frog, monkey and dog
(d) at the end of ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
(d) Amoeba, ant and antelope
9. Diuresis is a condition characterized by
3. Filtration slits are formed by (a) increase in urine volume.
(a) endothelial lining of glomerular capillaries. (b) increased glucose excretion.
(b) inner epithelium of Bowman’s capsule. (c) decrease in urine volume.
(c) basement membrane. (d) decrease in electrolyte balance.
(d) the participation of all of these. 10. In nephron water absorption is maximum in
4. The cells named podocytes occur in (a) proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
(a) inner wall of Bowman’s capsule (b) ascending limb of Henle.
(b) outer wall of Bowman’s capsule (c) descending limb of Henle.
(c) in the wall of glomerulus (d) distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
(d) in the wall of Henle’s loop
Locomotion and
20 Movement
Fill in the Blanks : 8. Muscle contraction is initiated by the signal sent
by CNS via a sensory neuron.
1. Glenoid cavity is found in _______ . 9. Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in the
2. The joint in our neck which allows us to rotate muscles can lead to the accumulation of lactic
our head left to right is _______ . acid.
3. In mammals the lower jaw is made of _______ .
Conceptual MCQs :
4. Number of floating ribs in human body is
_______ . 1. What is sarcomere?
(a) Part between two H-lines
5. A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur (b) Part between two A-lines
head is _______ . (c) Part between two I-bands
6. Red muscle fibres are rich in _______ . (d) Part between two Z-lines
7. Part of the body having a single pair of bones is 2. Long bones function in
called _______ . (a) support
(b) support, eryth rocyte and leucocyte
8. The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the synthesis
sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell join at the (c) support and erythrocyte synthesis
_______ . (d) erythrocyte formation
3. The number of floating ribs in the human body,
True/ False : is
(a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs
1. Ciliary movement help in passage of ova through (c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
female reproductive tract. 4. Cartilagenous joints –
2. The central part of thick filaments, not (a) permit slight movements
overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-band. (b) are found in symphysis
(c) are found in the bodies of vertebrae
3. Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull
(d) all the above
are joined by fibrous joint. 5. In old age stiffness of joints is due to the –
4. The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the (a) hardening of bones
floating ribs. (b) inefficiency of muscles
5. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh (c) decrease in synovial fluid
bone articulates. (d) enlargement of bones
6. During strenuous exercise, glucose is converted
6. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints
into –
causes their inflammation.
(a) glycogen (b) pyruvic acid
7. Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal (c) starch (d) lactic acid
reaches the motor end plate.
B-122 BIOLOGY
7. We move our hand while walking for 14. Sesamoid bone is derived from-
(a) faster movement (a) Cartilage (b) Areolar tissue
(b) balancing (c) Tendon (d) Ligament
(c) increasing blood circulation 15. Myofibrils are made up of
(d) relieving tension (a) Myosin and actin
8. Elbow joint is – (b) Myosin and troponin
(a) ball and socket joint (b) hinge joint (c) Actin and tropomyosin
(c) suture joint (d) gliding joint (d) All the above components
9. Hinge joints – 16. Humerus differs from the femur in having:
(a) are synovial joints (a) Sigmoid notch (b) Trochanter
(b) permit movement in one direction (c) Deltoid ridge (d) None of these
(c) are found in knee 17. Total number of bones in the hindlimb of a man
(d) all the above is
10. Immediate source of energy for muscle (a) 14 (b) 21
contraction is (c) 24 (d) 30
(a) glucose (b) GTP 18. The functional unit of contractile system in
(c) creatine phosphate (d) ATP striated muscle is
11. Select the correct statement regarding the (a) cross birdge (b) myofibril
specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system : (c) sacromere (d) Z-band
(a) Muscular dystroph y - age related 19. The joint between atlas and axis is called
shortening or muscles. (a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint
(b) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and (c) saddle joint (d) angular joint
higher chance of fractures with advancing 20. Ligament is mainly made up of
age. (a) reticulin (b) elastin
(c) Myasthenia gravis - Autoimmune disorder (c) myosin (d) collagen
which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(d) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra Diagram Based Questions :
deposition of calcium.
12. Which one of the following pairs of chemical 1. Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left
substances is correctly categorized? human hindlimb as seen from the front. It has
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid certain mistakes in labelling. Identify the two
hormones bones which are not correctly labelled.
(b) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive
enzymes secreted in stomach
(c) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins
in striated muscles Femur
(d) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide
hormones
13. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to Fibula
(a) The central gap between myosin filaments Tibia
in the A-band.
(b) The central gap between actin filaments Tarsals
extending through myosin filaments in the Phalanges
A-band
(c) Extension of myosin filaments in the central (a) Tibia and Tarsals
portion of the A-band. (b) Femur and Fibula
(d) The absence of myofibrils in the central (c) Fibula and Phalanges
portion of A-band. (d) Tarsals and Femur
Locomotion and Movement B-123
2. In the given diagram of skull, what does “a” (a) Attachment of myosin head to actin forming
represent? cross bridge.
(a) Frontal bone (b) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes
(a)
(b) Temporal bone shape to pull actin.
(c) Occipital bone (c) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head.
(d) Parietal bone The cross bridge detaches.
3. The diagram given below shows the pelvic girdle
(d) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin
and lower limb.
cocks into its high energy conformation.
d e
a 6. The given figure shows right pectoral girdle and
upper arm. Few parts are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Parts labelled as ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’ and ‘e’

respectively indicate
(a) Ilium, Femur, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum
(b) Pubis, Tibia, Femur, Ilium and Sacrum
(c) Ilium, Femur, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum
(d) Pubis, Femur, Tibia, Ilium and Sacrum
4. The label X in the given figure of an act in filament
represents Which of the following options shows the
X
correct labelling of marked parts?
1 2 3 4
(a) actin (b) myosin (a) Clavicle Scapula Humerus Radius
(c) tropomyosin (d) troponin
5. The given figure represents the cross bridge (b) Scapula Clavicle Radius Humerus
cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B (c ) Sacrum Scapula Ulna Tibia
in the figure represents? (d) Radius Clavicle Scapula Humerus
7. The given figure shows the structure of pectoral
Myosin head ADP
(high-energy
configuration)
P1 girdle and upper arm. Identify the structure
marked as "X" and its feature.
A
Thin filament
ADP Thick filament ADP

ATP
hydrolysis P1
D B
ATP
Myosin head
ATP (low-energy
configuration)
C
B-124 BIOLOGY
(a) Humerus: Longest bone of upper extremity 6. Assertion : Triceps is said to be an extensor
and is characterized by presence of deltoid muscle for elbow joint.
tuberosity for the attachment of muscles. Reason : Triceps relaxes durings extension of
(b) Radius: It is a smaller bone and formed by forearm at the elbow joint.
sesamoid bone.
7. Assertion : Muscle contraction force increases
(c) Ulna: The bone extending from the elbow
with rise in strength of stimulus.
to the wrist on the side opposite to the
thumb in humans. Reason : This is due to increased contraction of
(d) Femur: Longest and largest bone of body. individual muscle fibres with increase in stimulus
strength.
Assertion/ Reason : 8. Assertion : The phase of muscle contraction
occurs when myosin binds and releases actin.
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. Reason : Muscle contraction is initiated by a
While answering these questions you are required to signal sent by the peripheral nervous system
choose any one of the following five responses. via a motor neuron.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the 9. Assertion : Recurrent activation of the muscles
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. will become fatigue.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason Reason : Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. the muscles can lead to the accumulation of
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. lactic acid.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false Matching Based Questions :
1. Assertion : There are similarities between the DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
locomotion of unicellular organisms and (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
multicellular animal. (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
Reason : Ciliary, flagellar and amoeboid Column I can have correct matching with one
movement occur in unicellular organisms. statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
2. Assertion : Exra oxygen consumption in human choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
body is known as oxygen debt. which ONLY ONE is correct.
Reason : The extra oxygen is required by the 1. Column I Column II
body to oxidise the accumulated lactic acid (Type of synovial (Bone involved)
produced during strenous exercise. joint)
3. Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint (A) Ball and Socket I. Carpal and metacarpal
makes the joint painful. joint of thumb
Reason : Some toxic substances are deposited (B) Hinge joint II. Humerus and pectoral
at the joint. girdle
4. Assertion : Biceps and triceps are called (C) Pivot joint III. Knee
antagonistic muscles.
(D) Saddle joint IV. Atlas and axis
Reason : This is due to the fact that they contract
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
and relax together.
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
5. Assertion : Ball and socket joints are the most
mobile joints. (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
Reason : Synovial fluid is present here.
Locomotion and Movement B-125
2. Column-I Column-II A B C D
(A) Carpals I. Bones that form the (a) I II III IV
fingers and toes (b) III I IV II
(B) Tarsals II. Bones that form wrist (c) II I III IV
(C) Phalanges III. Bones that form the
(d) III IV II I
palms of the hands
(D) Metatarsals IV. Bones that form the
(Number of bones)
ankles
(A) Cranium / I. 29
(a) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
Brainbox
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(B) Skull (Branial II. 8
(c) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
and facial bones)
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(C) Face III. 14
(D) Hind limb IV. 12 pairs
(A) Thoracic I. 8
(E) Ribs V. 30
(B) Wrist bones II. 2 pairs
(a) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® V;; E ® IV
(C) False ribs III. 12
(D) Metatarsal IV. 3 pairs (b) A ® II; B ® I; C ® III; D ® V;; E ® IV
(E) Skull (cranial & facial) V. 26 (c) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® IV;; E ® V
VI. 5 (d) A ® V; B ® IV; C ® III; D ® II; A ® I
VII. 22 6. Column I Column II
A B C D E (A) False ribs I. 1st to 7th pair
(a) I VI II V III (B) True ribs II. 11th and 12th pair
(b) III I IV VI VII (C) Floating ribs III. 8th to 10th pair
(c) II VII III V I (D) Sternum IV. One
(d) II V VII I IV (a) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® IV
4. Column-I Column-II (b) A ® IV; B ® III; C ® II; D ® I
(A) Striated appearance I. Distribution (c) A ® I; B ® III; C ® II; D ® IV
of myofibril pattern of actin (d) A ® III; B ® I; C ® II; D ® IV
and myosin 7. Column I Column II
(B) Store house of II. Sarcoplasmic (A) Ribs are attached to the I. True ribs
calcium ions reticulum sternum ventrally and to
(C) Energy released III. Helps myosin the vertebrae dorsally.
from ATP hydrolysis head to bind to (B) Ribs are attached to II. False ribs
exposed active sternum through
sites on actin to coastal cartilage
form a cross (hyaline) of 7th rib
bridge (C) Ribs are not attached III. Floating ribs
(D) Globular head of IV. Active ATPase to sternum
meromyosin enzyme and has (a) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III
binding sites for (b) A ® 1; B ® III; C ® II
ATP and active (c) A ® II; B ® I; C ® III
sites for actin. (d) A ® III; B ® II; C ® I
B-126 BIOLOGY
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. The intercalated discs of________ muscle

________.
1. Which of the following represents the correct
(a) smooth; provide strong mechanical
order of vertebral regions from superior to
adhesion and rapid electrical
inferior?
I. Sacrum II. Thoracic communication
III. Cervical IV. Lumbar (b) skeletal; are the basis for all voluntary
V. Coccyx muscle action
(a) I – II – III – IV – V (b) II – IV – I – III – V (c) skeletal; make possible both fast twitches
(c) IV – I – II – V – I (d) III – II – IV – I – V and slow twitches
2. What is the correct order that a motor nerve
impulse travels when triggering a muscle (d) cardiac; provide strong mechanical
contraction? adhesion and rapid electrical communication
(a) Motor nerve®synaptic cleft®sarcolemma® 6. Convexity of one bone articulate with concavity
sarcoplasmic reticulum®troponin. of other bone in
(b) Motor nerve ® synaptic cleft ®
(a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint
sarcolemma ® troponin ® sarcoplasmic
reticulum. (c) gliding joint (d) ball and socket joint
(c) Motor nerve ® sarcoplasmic reticulum ® 7. All or None law is associated with
synaptic cleft ® sarcolemma ® troponin. (a) skeletal muscle fibre
(d) Motor nerve ® sarcolemma ®
(b) neuron
sarcoplasmic reticulum ® synaptic cleft ®
troponin. (c) cardiac muscle fibres
3. There are three blanks in the following statement. (d) all of the above
Mark the correct option having suitable words
8. Long uninucleate muscles are found in
for filling the blanks.
The thin filaments of myofibril contain ....... (a) diaphragm (b) alimentary canal
‘A’......actin and two filaments of ....... (c) tongue (d) eye
‘B’......protein along with 9. Which of the following is not exclusively
....... ‘C’......protein for masking binding site for supplied with involuntary muscles?
myosin.
(a) Muscles of iris
‘A’ ‘B’ ‘C’
(a) 1F troponin tropomyosin (b) Muscles of the ducts of gland
(b) 1F tropomyosin troponin (c) Muscles of urethra
(c) 2F troponin tropomyosin (d) Muscular coats of blood vessel
(d) 2F tropomyosin troponin 10. Muscles of alimentary canal are mainly
4. In which option the number of bones of two (a) striated and myogenic
corresponding parts are not the same? (b) striated and neurogenic
(a) Thigh and upper arm (c) unstriated and neurogenic
(b) Sole and palm
(d) unstriated and myogenic
(c) Ankle and wrist
(d) Leg and arm
Neural Control and Co-ordination B-127
Neural Control
21 and Co-ordination
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Somatic nervous system- Conducts impulses
from CNS to skeletal muscles.
1. The secretion of gastric juice is controlled by 7. The malleus is attached to the oval window and
_______ . the stapes is attached to the temporal membrane
2. The thinned-out portion of retina where only of the cochlea.
cones are densely packed is called _______ . 8. The space within cochlea called scala media is
3. At the base of cochlea, the canal that ends at filled with endolymph.
the oval window is _______ .
9. The vestibular apparatus is composed of two
4. The stereocilia of hair cells of organ of Corti are semi-circular canals and the otolith organ
covered with a thick elastic membrane called consisting of the saccule and utricle.
_______ .
5. The region of vertebrate’s eye where the optic Conceptual MCQs :
nerve passes out of the retina is called _______
. 1. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from
6. The amount of light that falls on retina is (a) effector organs to CNS
regulated by _______ . (b) receptors to CNS
(c) CNS to receptors
7. The nerves carrying impulses to CNS are known
(d) CNS to muscles
as _______ .
2. Iris is part of
8. The controlling centre of autonomic nervous
(a) sclerotic
system is _______ .
(b) choroid
9. Clusters of neuron cell bodies embedded in the (c) choroid and retina
white matter of the brain are referred to as (d) sclerotic and choroid
_______ . 3. Which of the following statements is correct for
‘nodes of Ranvier’ of nerve?
True/ False : (a) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(b) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
1. Electrical synapses are more common in our
(c) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are
neural system than chemical synapses.
discontinuous
2. Hypothalamus is the major coordination centre (d) Covered by myelin sheath
for sensory and motor signaling. 4. In the resting state of the neural membrane,
3. The tracts of nerve fibres that connect two diffusion due to concentration gradients, if
cerebral hemispheres are called corpora allowed, would drive
bigemina. (a) K+ into the cell
4. The ear ossicle attached to tympanic membrane (b) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
is malleus. (c) Na+ into the cell
5. The pressure on ear drum is equalized by (d) Na+ out of the cell
Eustachian tube.
B-128 BIOLOGY
5. Which part of the brain regulates the body 13. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained
temperature, hunger and water balance ? in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the
(a) Hypothalamus human eye, is a derivative of:
(b) Infundibulum (a) vitamin B1 (b) vitamin C
(c) Medulla oblongata (c) vitamin D (d) vitamin A
(d) Pons veroli 14. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one
6. Nerve fibres are surrounded by an insulating of which is :
fatty layer called – (a) Spinal cord
(a) adipose sheath (b) myelin sheath (b) Corpus callosum
(c) hyaline sheath (d) peritoneum (c) Cerebellum
7. In a nerve cell potassium concentration is (d) Hypothalamus
(a) less on the inside 15. Which part of the human ear plays no role in
(b) greater on the outside of membrane hearing as such but is otherwise very much
(c) more concentrated inside required?
(d) equal on both sides of membrane (a) Eustachian tube (b) Organ of corti
8. The pathway of reflex arc as : (c) Vestibular apparatus (d) Ear ossicles
(a) sense organ, spinal cord, motor neuron, 16. The most abundant intracellular cation is :
sensory nerve, muscle (a) Ca++ (b) H+
(b) sense organ, sensory, neuron, motor (c) K+ (d) Na+
neuron spinal cord, muscle 17. Fenestra ovalis is the opening of –
(c) sense organ, motor neuron, spinal cord, (a) Cranium (b) Tympanum
sensory neuron, muscle (c) Tympanic cavity (d) Brain
(d) sense organ, motor neuron, spinal cord, 18. Multipolar nerve cells are present in
sensory neuron, muscle (a) Cochlea
9. Energy transformation in nervous system is- (b) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
(a) chemical to radiant (c) Retina of eye
(b) chemical to mechanical (d) Brain
(c) chemical to electrical 19. Which cranial nerve has the highest number of
(d) chemical to osmotic branches?
10. No image formation occurs on blind-spot of (a) Facial nerve (b) Trigeminal
retina because– (c) Vagus nerve (d) None of these
(a) it is not present on the optical axis of the 20. The cavity of diencephalon is known as
eye (a) I ventricle (b) II ventricle
(b) here cones and rods are absent (c) III ventricle (d) iter
(c) on this part only cones are present
(d) the nerve fibres of this region do not Diagram Based Questions :
contribute in the formation of optic chiasma
11. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with 1. The following diagram represent the reflex arc.
the deficiency of: Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F and
(a) glutamic acid G and choose the correct option
(b) acetylcholine A C
(c) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) B
(d) dopamine
12. The nerve centres which control the body
temperature and the urge for eating are contained
in:
(a) hypothalamus (b) pons
(c) cerebellum (d) thalamus F E
G D
(a) A - sense organ; B - sensory nerve; C - 4. The given diagram chows the axon terminal and
dorsal horn; D - interneuron; E - ventral synapse with few part labelled as A, B, C & D.
horn; F - motor nerve ; G - effector Choose the correct combination of labelling from
(b) A - sense organ; B - sensory nerve; C - the given options.
ventral horn; D - interneuron; E - dorsal
horn; F - motor nerve; G - effector Ca 2+
Ac
tio
B
n
(c) A - effector; B - motor nerve; C - dorsal
po
te
n
Mitochondrion
tia
D
horn; D - interneuron; E - ventral horn; F -
l
Axon of
presynaptic
sensory nerve; G - effector neuron
A
(d) A - effector; B - motor nerve; C - ventral
horn; D - interneuron; E - dorsal horn; F -
sensory nerve; G - sense organ. C
2. In the given diagram which stage of conduction ion channel

(closed) ion channel (open)
of nerve impulse through nerve fibre is

(a) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Axon terminal, C-
observed?
Synaptic cleft, D- Postsynaptic membrane
(b) A- Axon terminal, B- Synaptic vesicle, C-
Postsynaptic membrane, D- Synaptic cleft.
(c) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Synaptic cleft, C-
Axon terminal, D- Post synaptic membrane
(a) Polarization (b) Resting potential (d) A- Post synaptic membrane, B- Axon terminal,
(c) Repolarization (d) Depolarization C- Synaptic vesicle, D- Synaptic cleft
5. The given diagram shows different parts of a
3. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a
human eye with one part labeled as X.
single loop of human cochlea with few part
labelled as A, B, C & D.
B
X
C
D
Which of the following statement is correct
regarding label X?
Which one of the following options correctly (a) It is the opening in lens that permits light
represents the name of three different parts? into the inner chambers of the eye.
(a) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane C: (b) It is the coloured portion of vascular tunic.
Endolymph (c) It is a biconcave structure that changes
(b) B: Tectorial membrane, C:Perilymph, D: shape to bring objects into focus.
Secretory cells (d) It is thick, jelly-like substance in the
(c) C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells, A: posterior compartment of the eye.
Serum 6. Which of the following options correctly
(d) D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph B: represents the name of 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the given
Tectorial membrane diagram of neuron?
B-130 BIOLOGY
1
Reason : Photosensitive pigment rhodopsin is
synthesised from vitamin A.
2 4
2. Assertion : Tongue is a gustatoreceptor.
Reason : Receptors for gustatory sensations are
located in the taste bud.
3
3. Assertion : Circular smooth muscles of iris
contract when bright light falls on the eye.
(a) 1- Axon, 2- Dendrites, 3- Node of Ranvier,
Reason : Pupil gets constricted by the
4- Myelin sheath
contraction of circular smooth muscles of iris.
(b) 1- Dendrites, 2- Axon, 3- Node of Ranvier,
4- Myelin sheath 4. Assertion : The chemical stored in the synaptic
vesicles are termed as neurotransmitters.
(c) 1- Dendrites, 2- Cell body, 3- Myelin sheath,
4- Node of Ranvier Reason : Synaptic vesicles release these
chemicals in the synaptic cleft.
(d) 1- Axon, 2- Cell body, 3- Dendrites, 4- Node
of Ranvier 5. Assertion : Nerve conduction is the one way
7. What is the function of label X in the given conduction.
diagram? Reason : Nerve impulse is transmitted from
dendrite terminals to axon terminals.
6. Assertion : Cerebrospinal fluid is present
X
throughout the central nervous system.
Reason : CSF has no such function.
7. Assertion : The brain stem contains centres for
controlling activities.
Reason : Brain stem is very sensitive.
8. Assertion : Medulla oblongata causes reflex
(a) It speeds up the impulse transmission.
actions like vomiting, coughing and sneezing.
(b) It provides electrical insulation.
Reason : It has many nerve cells which control
(c) It conducts impulse towards the nerve cell
autonomic reflexes.
body.
9. Assertion : The imbalance in concentration of
(d) It is the functional unit of nerve.
Na+, K+ and proteins generates resting potential.
Assertion/ Reason : Reason : To maintain the unequal distribution
of Na+ & K+, the neurons use electrical energy.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-10): These questions consist of 10. Assertion : The auditory ossicles help in hearing.
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. Reason : Auditory ossicles maintain the balance
While answering these questions you are required to of air pressure between two sides of the eardrum.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the Matching Based Questions :
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false Column I can have correct matching with one
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
1. Assertion : Vitamin A deficiency produces night choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
blindness. which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Column-I Column-II (c) III I V II IV

(A) Cerebrum I. Controls the pituitary (d) V IV III I II
(B) Cerebellum II. Controls vision and 4. Column I Column II
hearing (A) Cervical nerves I. 5 pairs
(C) Hypothalamus III. Controls the rate of (B) Thoracic nerves II. 1 pair
heart beat (C) Lumbar nerves III. 12 pairs
(D) Medulla IV. Maintains body (D) Coccygeal nerves IV. 8 pairs
oblongata posture (a) A ® I; B ® IV; C ® I; D ® III
(a) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III (b) A ® IV; B ® III; C ® I; D ® II
(b) A – IV; B – V; C – III; D – I (c) A ® III; B ® I; C ® II; D ® IV
(c) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(d) A ® IV; B ® I; C ® II; D ® III
(d) A – V; B – V; C – I; D – II
2. Column I Column II 5. Column I Column II
(Terms) (Definition) (A) Diencephalon I. Cerebellum
(A) Semi-circular I. Spiral organ of Corti (B) Telencephalon II. Medulla
canal (C) Myelencephalon III. Amygdala
(B) Vestibule II. Fluid found in the (D) Metencephalon IV. Thalamus
scala vestibule and
(a) A ® (IV); B ® (III); C ® (I); D ® (II)
scala tympani
(C) Cochlea III. Evaluates rotational (b) A ® (III); B ® (IV); C ® (I); D ® (II)
motion (c) A ® (IV); B ® (III); C ® (II); D ® (I)
(D) Perilymph IV. Fluid found within (d) A ® (I); B ® (II); C ® (III); D ® (IV)
the organ of Corti 6. Column I Column II
(E) Endolymph V. Responds to gravity (A) Unipolar neuron I. In cerebral cortex
and movements of
(B) Bipolar neuron II. In embryonic stage
the head
(a) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV (C) Multipolar neuron III. In retina of eye
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (a) A ® (I); B ® (II); C ® (III)
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V; E – I (b) A ® (I); B ® (III); C ® (II)
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – III (c) A ® (II); B ® (I); C ® (III)
3. Column I Column II (d) A ® (II); B ® (III); C ® (I)
(A) Sclera I. The visible coloured
portion of the eye.
(B) Choroid II. Its diameter is regulated by (A) Pinna I. Collects vibrations in the
the muscle fibres of iris. air which produces
(C) Pupil III. Composed of a dense sound
connective tissue (B) Ear canal II. Passage for sound wave
(D) Fovea IV. Portion of the retina where from
only the cones are densely pinna to ear drum
packed (C) Tympanic III. Transfers sound wave to
(E) Iris V. Contains many blood
membrane ear ossicles
vessels and looks bluish
in colour (D) Ear Ossicles IV. Increases the efficiency
A B C D E of transmission of sound
(a) I II III IV V waves to the innear ear
(b) III V II IV I
B-132 BIOLOGY
(E) Cochlea V. Has hearing receptors impulse is from dendrite to axon.

(F) Eustachian VI. Equalizes the pressure on 6. Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is
(a) Duramater – Arachnoid – Piamater
tube both sides of ear drum
(b) Duramater – Piamater – Arachnoid
(a) A ® (I); B ® (II); C ® (III); D ® (IV); (c) Arachnoid – Duramater - Piamater
E ® (V); F ® (VI) (d) Piamater- Arachnoid - Duramater
(b) A ® (I); B ® (VI); C ® (V); D ® (IV); 7. Which of these is an example of conditioned
E ® (III); F ® (II) reflex?
(a) Watering of mouth at the taste of food.
(c) A ® (I); B ® (II); C ® (IV); D ® (III);
(b) Withdrawal of hand on touching a hot plate.
E ® (V); F ® (VI) (c) Cycling.
(d) A ® (I); B ® (VI); C ® (V); D ® (IV); (d) Flowing of tears while peeling and cutting
E ® (III); F ® (II) onions.
8. You are watching a horror movie and you notice
Critical Thinking Type Questions : your heart is beating fast and mouth is dry. It is
because of
1. For sound (good) reflex actions we require intact (a) fight and flight response
(a) spinal cord (b) cerebellum (b) sympathetic nervous system
(c) hypothalamus (d) medulla oblongata (c) parasympathetic nervous system
2. Which one of the following is an example of a (d) both (a) and (b)
simple reflex? 9. During the transmission of nerve impulse
(a) Closing of eyes if an object suddenly through a nerve fibre , the potential on the inner
approaches them. side of the plasma membrane has which type of
(b) Climbing stairs in dark. electric charge?
(c) Watering of mouth at the sight of delicious (a) First positive, then negative and again back
food. to positive.
(d) Tying laces while talking to and looking at (b) First negative, then positive and again back
another person. to negative.
3. In a nerve if sodium pump is blocked, which of (c) First positive, then negative and continue
the following is most likely to happen ? to be negative.
(a) Na+ and K+ will increases outside the cell. (d) First negative, then positive and continue
(b) Na+ outside the nerve will increase. to be positive.
(c) Na+ inside the nerve will increase. 10. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds
(d) K+ inside the nerve will increase. a snake right in front on opening the door. Which
4. A person feels no sensation when he puts his one of the following is likely to happen in his
hand over flame. The part of the brain which has neuro-hormonal control system?
damaged is (a) Hypothalamus activates the
(a) cerebellum (b) medulla oblongata parasympathetic division of brain.
(c) diencephalon (d) hypothalamus (b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
5. An axon has four terminal ends connected with releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
dendrites of four different neurons. Its nerve from adrenal cortex.
impulse will. (c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(a) become weak due to distribution into four. releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
(b) travel in all the four neurons with equal from adrenal medulla.
strength.
(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the
(c) pass on to one neuron only. cleft and transmit a nerve impulse.
(d) travel to none because the movement of
Chemical Co-ordination
22 and Regulation
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Adenohypophysis is under direct neural
regulation of the hypothalamus.
1. The hormone that supports pregnancy and
stimulates mammary glands for the formation of 7. Endrocrine glands regulate neural activity and
alveoli for storing milk, is secreted from _______. nervous system regulates endocrine glands.
2. A gorilla like appearance with huge hands and 8. Glucagon is secreted by b-cells of Islets of
legs is due to abnormal secretion of _______ . langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis.
3. Abnormal secretion of thyroxine produces
_______ . Conceptual MCQs :
4. When amount of ADH decreases in blood, 1. ADH or vasopressin is
micturition _______ . (a) enzyme that hydrolyses peptides
5. Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion (b) hormone secreted by pituitary that
of _______ . promotes reabsorption of water from
6. Thymus in mammals is mainly concerned with glomerular filtrate
_______ . (c) hormone that promotes glycogenolysis
7. Triple ‘F’ gland for flight, fright and fight is (d) energy rich compounds connected with
_______ . muscle contraction.
8. Hormone which helps in implantation of embryo 2. According to the accepted concept of hormone
in uterus is _______ . action, if receptor molecules are removed from
9. Thyroxine acts on every organ of the body, target organs, then the target organ will
except _____ . (a) not respond to the hormone
(b) continue to respond to hormone without
True/ False : any difference
(c) continue to respond to the hormone but in
1. Neurohypophysis stores and release hormone the opposite way
by hypothalamus. (d) continue to respond to the hormone but
2. Norepinephrine is released by Sympathetic
will require higher concentration.
fibres.
3. Parathormone deficiency produces muscle
3. Somatostatin inhibits the release of growth
hormone. ramps or tetany as a result of
4. Calcitonin is released from parathyroid. (a) lowered blood Ca2+
5. Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, (b) enhanced blood Na+
heart, kidney and liver do not produce any (c) enhanced blood glucose
hormones. (d) enhanced blood Ca2+
B-134 BIOLOGY
4. Insulin differs from growth hormone in that it 11. Glucagon is secreted by –

(a) stimulates lipoprotein lipase in vicinity of (a) b (beta) cells of islets of langerhans
fat cells (b) a (alpha) cells of islets of langerhans
(b) increases the transport of amino acids (c) b cells of pancreas
across the cell membranes of muscles (d) Adrenal cortex
(c) increases mRNA/ribosome acitivity 12. Leydig cells are meant for –
(d) stimulates hormone sensitive lipase in fat (a) formation of sperm
cells. (b) to produce progesterone
5. Progesterone, the component of the oral (c) to produce testosterone
contraceptive pills, prevents pregnancy by
(d) nutrition of sperm
(a) preventing the cleavage of the fertilized egg
13. Role of thymus in Homo sapiens is chiefly
(b) preventing the formation of ova
(c) blocking ovulation concerned with–
(d) creating unfavourable chemical (a) reproduction
environment for the sperms to survive in (b) immunology
the female reproductive tract. (c) calcium balance
6. Acromegaly is caused by (d) blood coagulation.
(a) excess of growth hormone 14. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone ?
(b) excess of thyroxin (a) Androgen (b) Aldosterone
(c) deficiency of thyroxin. (c) Estrogen (d) Relaxin
(d) excess of adrenalin 15. Main similarity between hormone and enzyme is :
7. Chemically hormones are (a) both act at particular pH
(a) biogenic amines only (b) both are proteins
(b) proteins, steroids and biogenic amines (c) both are required in small amounts
(c) proteins only (d) both can be used again and again
(d) steroids only. 16. A health disorder that results from the deficiency
8. Which one of the following is not a second of thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) a
messenger in hormone action ? low metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is:
(c) cAMP (d) cGMP
(a) simple goitre
9. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(b) myxoedema
(a) Endrocrine glands regulate neural activity,
(c) cretinism
and nervous system regulates endocrine
glands (d) hypothyroidism
(b) Neither hormones control neural activity 17. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the
nor the neurons control endocrine activity secretion of which one of the following?
(c) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, (a) Aldosterone
but not vice versa. (b) Both Androstenedione and
(d) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but Dehydroepiandrosterone
not vice versa. (c) Adrenaline
10. Both adrenaline and cortisol are secreted in (d) Cortisol
response to stress. Which of the following 18. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of:
statements is true for both of these hormones ? (a) tetany (b) anaemia
(a) They act to increase blood glucose (c) angina pectoris (d) gout
(b) They are secreted by the adrenal cortex 19. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such
(c) Their secretion is stimulated by as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the
adrenocorticotropin hormone
(d) They are secreted into the blood within (a) calcitonin (b) prolactin
seconds of the onset of stress. (c) adrenaline (d) melatonin
Chemical Co-ordination and Regulation B-135
20. Which of the following statements is correct in Which of the following gland is correctly
relation to the endocrine system? matched with their secretions?
(a) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal Hormones Their secretions
tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce A I Melatonin
any hormones. B II Thymosin
(b) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the
C III Epinephrine
body in trace amount that act as intercellular
D IV Aldosterone
messenger are known as hormones.
(c) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are E V Testosterone
produced by the pituitary gland . (a) I, II and III only (b) I, IV and V only
(d) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural (c) II, IV, and V only (d) II, III and V only
regulation of the hypothalamus. 3. The hormone released by label "X" in the given
Diagram Based Questions : figure helps to restore Y. Identify X and Y.
1. The given figure shows the hormonal control of

female reproductive system in which few steps
are marked as A, B, C and D. Identify the correct
labelling.
X Y
(a) Thyroxine Too much calcium in the
blood.
(b) PTH Lowered levels of calcium in
blood.
(c) Thymosin Decreased level of blood
(a) A- GnRH; B - TSH; C - LTH; D - Uterus sugar.
(b) A - GnRH; B - FSH/LH; C - Estrogen or
(d) Adrenaline Excessive loss of sodium in
progesterone; D - urerus
(c) A - GnRH; B - STH; C - LH; D - Uterus extracellular
(d) A - GnRH; B - ACTH; C - LH, D - Uterus fluid.
2. The given diagram represents the location of 4. The label X represents ___i_____ and the
human endocrine glands I, II, III, IV and V. hormone released by it is _____ii______.
Identify (i) and (ii)
I
X
II
III
IV Y
(a) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Epinephrine

V (b) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Aldosterone
(c) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Epinephrine
(d) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Aldosterone
B-136 BIOLOGY
5. Which of the following disease is caused due to (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
over secretion of the structure marked as X? is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
1. Assertion : Failure of secretion of somatotropin
X from an early age causes dwarfism in the patient.
Reason : Somatotropin hormone stimulates the
body growth and elongation of long bones.
(a) Gigantism 2. Assertion : The tadpoles become giant tadpoles
(b) Diabetes mellitus when fed on thiourea.
Reason : Thiourea is an antithyroid substance.
(c) Diabetes insipidus
3. Assertion : Females have less stature than males
(d) Grave's disease after puberty.
6. Identify (i) and (ii) Reason : This happens because of the presence
of hCG in the blood of females.
4. Assertion : Aldosterone increases the volume
of blood and other extracellular fluids.
Reason : The secretion of aldosterone is
stimulated by a fall in the circulating volume of
blood.
5. Assertion : Steroid hormones easily pass
through the plasma - membrane by diffusion.
Reason : Steroids are lipid soluble.
(a) i- Pituitary gland , ii- Adrenal gland Matching Based Questions :

(b) i- Hypothalamus, ii- Pituitary gland DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
(c) i- Hypothalamus, ii- Adrenal gland (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
(d) i- Pituitary gland, ii- Hypothalamus (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
7. Identify the hormone represented by lines 1 and statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
2? choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
(a) 1- ACTH, 2- Aldosterone which ONLY ONE is correct.
(b) 1- ACTH, 2- Adrenaline 1. Column -I Column-II
(c) 1- TSH, 2- Thyroxine (A) ADH I. Pituitary
(d) 1- TSH, 2- Aldosterone (B) ACTH II. ineralocorticoid
(C) Aldosterone III. Diabetes mellitus
Assertion/ Reason : (D) Insulin IV. Diabetes
insipidus
(E) Adrenaline V. Vasodilator
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III; E – V
(b) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III; E – V
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – V
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II; E – V
2. Column-I Column-II (D) Aldosterone IV. Gonadocorticoids

(A) Hypothalamus I. Relaxin (a) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(B) Anterior pituitary II. Estrogen (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(C) Testis III. FSH and LH
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(D) Ovary IV. Testosterone
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
V. Gonadotropin
releasing 6. Column I Column II
hormone (A) Adrenohypophysis I. Epinephrine
(a) A – V; B – III; C – IV; D – II (B) Adrenal medulla II. Somatotropin
(b) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – IV (C) Parathyroid gland III. Thymosin
(c) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III (D) Thymus gland IV. Calcitonin
(d) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II.
(a) A ® III; B ® 1; C ® IV;; D ® II
(b) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® IV
(A) FSH I. Prepare
endometrium for (c) A ® II; B ® I; C ® IV;; D ® III
implantation (d) A ® IV; B ® III; C ® II; D ® I
(B) LH II. Develops female 7. Column I List - II
secondary (A) Somatostain I. Pineal gland
sexual characters (B) Melatonin II. Corpus luteum
(C) Progesterone III. Contraction of (C) Aldosterone III. Placenta
uterine wall
(D) Progesterone IV. Adrenal cortex
(D) Estrogen IV. Development of
(E) hCG V. Islet of
corpus luteum
Langerhans
V. Maturation of VI. Adenohy-
Graafian follicle
pophysis
(a) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(a) A ® V; B ® I; C ® VI; D ® III; E ® II
(b) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – I
(b) A ® I; B ® II; C ® IV;; D ® III; E ® V
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – V
(d) A – V; B – I; C – II; D – IV (c) A ® II; B ® VI; C ® IV;; D ® V; E ® III
4. Column-I Column-II (d) A ® V; B ® I; C ® IV;; D ® II; E ® III
(A) a-cell I. Inhibin 8. Column I Column II
(B) b-cell II. Glucagon (A) Adrenalin I. Myxoedema
(C) Leydig cell III. Insulin (B) Hyperparathyroidism II. Accelerates
heart beat
(D) Sertoli cells IV. Testosterone
(C) Oxytocin III. Salt-water
(a) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
balance
(b) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I (D) Hypothyroidism IV. Childbirth
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (E) Aldosterone V. Deminer-
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I alisation
5. Column-I Column-II (a) A ® II; B ® V; C ® IV;; D ® I; E ® III
(Hormones) (Categories) (b) A ® III; B ® IV; C ® V;; D ® III; E ® II
(A) FSH and LH I. Glucocorticoids (c) A ® V; B ® III; C ® II; D ® IV;; E ® I
(B) Cortisol II. Mineralocorticoids (d) A ® II; B ® III; C ® IV;; D ® V; E ® I
(C) Androgen III. Gonadotropins
B-138 BIOLOGY
9. Column I Column II 4. Pancreatic duct of a healthy dog is blocked.

(A) Gastrin I. Acts on gastric Which of the following function of pancreas will
gland and not be affected ?
stimulates secretion (a) Maintenance of normal blood sugar level.
(b) Carbohydrate digestion.
of HCl and
(c) Protein digestion.
pepsinogen
(d) Neutralization of chyme.
(B) Secretin II. Acts on the exocrine 5. A decrease in the level of estrogen and
part of pancreas and progesterone causes
stimulates secretion (a) growth and dilation of myometrium.
of water and (b) growth of endometrium.
HCO3– ions (c) constriction of uterine blood vessels
(C) CCK III. Acts on both leading to sloughing of endometrium or
pancreas and gall uterine epithelium.
bladder and (d) release of ovum from the ovary.
stimulates the 6. Which of the following endocrine glands grows
to the maximum size at puberty and then
secretion of both
diminishes gradually?
pancreatic enzymes
(a) Thymus (b) Pituitary
and bile juice (c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal
respectively 7. Which one is different from the category of other
(D) GIP IV. Inhibits gastric three?
secretion and (a) Gastrin (b) Ptyalin
motility (c) Secretin (d) Glucagon
(a) A ® IV; B ® III; C ® II; D ® I 8. Which of the following disorders are caused by
(b) A ® II; B ® IV; C ® III; D ® I hypersecretion of their concerned hormones ?
(c) A ® I; B ® II; C ® III; D ® IV (a) gigantism and exophthalmic goitre
(d) A ® I; B ® III; C ® II; D ® IV (b) tetany and myxoedema
(c) diabetes mellitus and goitre
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (d) rickets and diabetes insipidus
1. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are 9. Hormones produced by anterior lobe of pituitary
removed from target organ, the target organ will (a) control calcium level in blood.
(a) continue to respond to hormone. (b) stimulate thyroid and other endocrine
(b) not respond to hormone. glands.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher (c) initiate alarm reaction.
concentration. (d) regulate water balance in body.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite 10. Growth hormone of pituitary is more effective in
way. (a) presence of thyroxine.
2. The number of hormones secreted by anterior (b) absence of thyroxine.
pituitary is
(c) absence of insulin.
(a) 3 (b) 4
(d) presence of adrenaline.
(c) 6 (d) 8
3. Which hormone is related to mineral metabolism 11. Which of the following hormone helps a person
but is not a peptide / protein in nature ? who suffers from a marked fall in blood pressure?
(a) PTH (b) ANF (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine
(c) Aldosterone (d) All of the above (c) GH (d) Adrenaline
12. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism (a) salts (b) sugar

are (c) insulin (d) protein
(a) in sulin, glucagon, epinephrin e an d 15. Which hormone promotes cell division, protein
calcitonin synthesis and bone growth?
(b) in sulin, glucagon, epinephrin e an d (a) GH (b) ADH
glucocorticoids
(c) ACTH (d) PTH
(c) insulin, glucagon, cortisol and melatonin
16. Injection of glucagon will
(d) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and
melatonin (a) cause goitre
13. Which of the following hormones are identical? (b) cause galactosemia
(a) ACTH and adrenaline (c) cause hypoglycemia
(b) hCG and progesterone (d) increase blood sugar level
(c) Calcitonin and Oxytocin 17. A person who has protruding eyes, tachycardia
(d) Vasopressin and ADH. and higher body temperature is suffering from
14. A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks (a) cretinism (b) hyperthyroidism
water more frequently as he has to eliminate from (c) myxoedema (d) acromegaly
blood, the extra
B-140 BIOLOGY
23
Reproduction in
Organism
Fill in the Blanks : 8. Meiosis never occurs durin g sexual
reproduction.
1. The period from birth to the natural death of an 9. External fertilization is a rule during sexual
organism represents ________ . reproduction.
2. A clone is a group of individuals obtained Conceptual MCQs :
through _____ .
3. In protists and monerans, asexual reproduction 1. In all the methods of asexual reproduction –
occurs by ______ . (a) offsprin gs pr oduced are gen etically
4. Development of an egg without fertilization is identical to the parents
called ______. (b) offsprin gs pr oduced are gen etically
5. Viviparity is found in ________ . different from the parents
6. Sexual reproduction can be grouped into (c) offsprings produced may or may not be
_______ distinct states. identical to the parents
7. The term clone is used to describe such (d) none of the above
organism and ________ similar individual. 2. In sexual reproduction, offsprings resemble the
8. Many unicellular organisms reproduce by the parents –
process of ______ . (a) structurally but not functionally
(b) functionally but not structurally
True/ False :
(c) both structurally and functionally
1. Bamboo species flower only once in their life time, (d) neither structurally nor functionally
generally after 50-100 years and produce large 3. Common method of asexual reproduction is by
number of fruits and die.
(a) regeneration (b) budding
2. The reproductive phase is of same duration in
all organisms. (c) archeocytes (d) gemmulation
3. Stamens are male reproductive part whereas 4. Asexual reproduction takes place in –
carpels are female reproductive parts. (a) higher animals (b) lower animals
4. Vegetative propagation by leaves occurs in (c) plants (d) all the above
sweet potato. 5. As a result of binary fission number of
5. Water hyacinth is very difficult to get rid off individuals produced by one fission is –
these plants.
(a) two (b) three
6. Conidia are the asexual propagules restricted to
(c) four (d) five
kingdom Fungi.
7. Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help of 6. Fertilization is internal in
its underground roots. (a) toads (b) frogs
(c) dog fish (d) cat fish
Reproduction in Organism B-141
7. Which type of reproduction is found in Hydra ? 16. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:
(a) Polyembryony (b) Sexual and asexual (a) offset (b) rhizome
(c) Parthenogenesis (d) Encystment (c) sucker (d) runner
8. Gemmule formation in sponges is helpful in 17. Which one of the following is correctly matched
(a) parthenogenesis (a) Onion - Bulb
(b) sexual reproduction (b) Ginger - Sucker
(c) Chlamydomonas - Conidia
(c) only dissemination
(d) Yeast - Zoospores
(d) asexual reproduction
18. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence
9. Which is mode of reproduction in Amoeba ? of :
(a) Binary fission only (a) stamen and carpel of the same plant
(b) Binary fission and multiple fission (b) upper antheridium and lower oogonium on
(c) Binary fission and conjugation the same plant
(d) Multiple fission only (c) upper oogonium and lower antheridium on
10. Binary fission is found in – the same plant
(a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium (d) antheridiophore and archegoniophore on
(c) Planaria (d) all of these the same plant
11. Which are exclusively viviparous ? 19. Meiosis takes place in :
(a) Bony fishes (a) Conidia (b) Gemmule
(b) Cartilagenous fishes (c) Megaspore (d) Meiocyte
(c) Sharks 20. Consider the following statements and choose
(d) Whales the correct option
(i) the genetic constitution of a plant is
12. The polyestrous mammal is –
unaffected in vegetation propagation
(a) man (b) rabbit (ii) rhizome in ginger serves as an organ of
(c) cat (d) horse vegetative reproduction
13. Development of an egg without fertilization is (iii) totipotency of cells enables us to
called – micropropagate plants
(a) gametogenesis (b) metagenesis (a) statements (i) and (ii) alone are true
(c) oogenesis (d) parthenogenesis (b) statement (ii) alone is true
14. What is true in the process of fertilization – (c) statement (iii) alone is true
(d) all the three statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(a) Only one sperm reaches the egg and enters
it Diagram Based Questions :
(b) The entry of sperm activates the egg for
1. The given figure shows the members of fungi
completing meiosis
and simple plants such as algae which undergo
(c) Two haploid nuclei fuse and immediately
asexual reproduction. Identify the correct asexual
divide to produce two nuclei which are
reproductive structures found in the members
again haploid
A, B, C and D.
(d) Only the acrosome of the sperm enters the
egg
15. The function of egg cell is/are –
(a) it supplies a haploid set of chromosomes
to the future embryo
(b) it provides most of the cytoplasm to the
embryo (A) (B)
(c) it supplies food reserves to the embryo
(d) all the above Chlamydomonas Penicillium
B-142 BIOLOGY
3. The given figure represents the events marked

as (A, B, C and D) in the life of general
Mouth reproduction. Identify the events A, B, C and
(D)
n
Post-fertilization
(C) (D) A C
event
Pre-fertilization
B D
event
Hydra Sponge
fertilization
(a) A-Zoogamete, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D- 2n
Gemmule (a) A-Gamete transfer, B-Gametogenesis,
(b) A-Zoospore, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D- D-Zygote formation, E-Embryogenesis
Gemmule (b) A-Gametogenesis, B-Gamete transfer, D-
(c) A-Zoospore, B-Conidiosporangium, C-Bud, Zygote formation, E-Embryogenesis
D-Gemmule (c) A-Gametogenesis, B-Zygote formation, D-
(d) A-Aplanospore, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D- Gamete transfer, E-Embryogenesis
Gemmule (d) A-Gametogenesis, B-Gamete transfer,
2. The given figure shows some examples of D-Embryogenesis, E-Zygote formation.
angiosperms as A, B, C and D. All these are capable 4. The given figure refers to which type of
of giving rise to new offsprings with the help of reproduction in yeast?
vegetative propagules. Identify the correct unit of
vegetative propagules present in these angiosperms.
Bud Nodes
Leaf scar Buds
Node
A Adventitious B (a) Binary fission (b) Budding

root (c) Layering (d) Fusion
5. The given figures (A, B and C) are types of
gametes of different organisms. Identify gametes
(A, B and C) respectively.
(A) (B) (C)
C D (a) Heterogametes, Isogametes, Homogametes

A B C D (b) Isogametes, Homogametes, Heterogametes
(c) Homogametes, Isogametes, Heterogametes
(a) Tuber Rhizome Bulb Leaf buds
(d) Homo/Isogametes, Heterogametes,
(b) Offset Sucker Stolon Leaf buds Heterogametes
(c) Offset Stolon Sucker Leaf buds 6. Which of the following animal is a dioecious
organism ?
(d) Tuber Rhizome Bulbil Leaf buds
Assertion/ Reason :
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (d) If both the assertion and reason are false
1. Assertion: The genetic constitution of plants is
unaffected in vegetative propagation
Reason: Rhizome in ginger serves as an organ
7. The given figures (i to v) represent the process of vegetative reproduction.
of binary fission in Amoeba. 2. Assertion: Banana fruits are seedless.
Reason: Most of banana varities are triploid and
triploidy is associated with seedlessness.
(i) 3. Assertion: Basal half of an onion bulb is
removed and upper half is sown in the ground.
New plant will emerge normally.
Reason: Bud giving rise to a new plant is present
towards base of onion bulb.
(ii) 4. Assertion: Male gametes are non-motile
Reason: Male gametes are produced in small number.
5. Assertion: The entry of sperm activates the egg for
completing meiosis.
Reason: Onlythe acrosome ofthe sperm enters the egg.
(iii)
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A,
B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (1, 2,
(iv) 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column
I can have correct matching with one statement given
in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c)
and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(v) 1. Column-I Column-II

(A) Animals which give I. Hydra
birth to young one
Arrange the figures in the correct sequence and (B) Animal which produces II. Planaria
choose the correct option. bud
(a) (iv) ® (iii) ® (i) ® (ii) ® (v) (C) An animal which III. Viviparous
(b) (iii) ® (iv) ® (i) ® (ii) ® (v) shows regeneration
(c) (iii) ® (v) ® (ii) ® (iv) ® (i) (D) Provides nutrition IV. Placenta
(d) (iv) ® (iii) ® (ii) ® (v) ® (i) to the developing
embryo from the mother
B-144 BIOLOGY
(a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV 6. Column - I Column - II

(b) A – III; B – I; C – III; D – IV (A) Sponge I. Tuber
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (B) Yeast II. Offset
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (C) Potato III. Gemmules
2. Column-I Column-II (D) Water hyacinth IV. Budding
(Terms) (Examples) (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(A) Binary fission I. Algae (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(B) Zoospore II. Amoeba (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(C) Conidium III. Hydra (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(D) Budding IV. Penicillium 7. Column-I Column-II
E. Gemmules V. Sponge (A) Gemmules I. Agave
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – V; D – III; E – II (B) Leaf-buds II. enicillium
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III; E – V (C) Bulbil III. Water
hyacinth
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I
(D) Offset IV. Sponges
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – V
(E) Conidia V. Bryophyllum
3. Column -I Column- II
(Name of the (Haploid chromosome (a) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – III; E – II
organism) number in gamete) (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V
(A) Ophioglossum I. 23 (c) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II; E – I
(B) Rice II. 24 (d) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II
(C) Potato III. 12 8. Column-I Column-II
(D) Man IV. 630 (A) The pollen transferred I. Germination
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV from one flower to
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I another
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (B) The process in which II. Pollination
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I embryo develops into
4. Column-I Column-II seedling
(Organism) (Approximate (C) Fertilized egg in III. Menstruation
life span) humans gets implanted
(A) Butterfly I. 60 years in
(B) Crow II. 140 years (D) When egg in humans IV. Uterus
(C) Parrot III. 15 years is not fertilized
(D) Crocodile IV. 1 – 2 years process occur
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(Name of the (Chromosome number Critical Thinking Type Questions :
organism) in meiocyte) 1. After culturing the anther of a plant, a few diploid
(2n) plants were found along with haploid plants. The
(A) Housefly I. 20 diploid plants could have arisen from
(B) Fruit fly II. 34 (a) generative cell of pollen.
(C) Apple III. 8 (b) cells of anther wall.
(D) Maize IV. 12 (c) vegetative cell of pollen.
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(d) exine of pollen wall.
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
2. Seeds are regarded to be the product of sexual
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
reproduction because they
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (a) can be stored for a long period.
(b) give rise to new plants. phase ® Senescent phase

(c) are the result of fusion of male gamete with (iv) Vegetative phase ® Reproductive
the female gamete. phase ® Senescent phase
(d) none of the above (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
3. If basal half of an onion bulb is removed and (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
upper half is sown in the ground then the new 9. The primary biological importance of sexual
plant will reproduction in an organism is that it
(a) emerge normally. (a) is necessary for the survival of the
(b) not emerge. individual.
(c) be without leaves. (b) causes new mutation to occur in the
(d) be without flowers. offsprings.
4. If soil around stem of potato plant is constantly (c) promotes genetic variability among
removed from very young stage then only roots offsprings.
remain in the soil then the potato tubers in plant will (d) allows larger number of offsprings to be
(a) be larger (b) be smaller produced.
(c) be formed normally (d) not be formed 10. Plants that have lost their capacity to produce
seeds, reproduce by
5. Offsprings of oviparous animals are at greater
(a) spores
risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous
(b) vegetative propagation
animals because
(c) fission
(a) proper embryonic care and protection is lesser.
(d) regeneration
(b) embryo is not developed. 11. A feature of reproduction that is common to
(c) progenies are with more variation. Amoeba, Spirogyra and yeast is that
(d) progenies are larger. (a) they reproduce asexually.
6. Some organisms are capable of asexual or sexual (b) they are all unicellular.
reproduction. Under favourable conditions, (c) they reproduce only sexually.
reproduction proceeds asexually. When (d) they are all multicellular.
conditions become more stressful reproduction 12. Development of zygote depends on
switches to a sexual mode. Why? (a) life cycle of the organism
(a) Sexual reproduction is simple and more (b) environment it is exposed to
rapid allowing larger numbers of offspring (c) both (a) and (b)
to be produced. (d) nutrition of organism
(b) Sexual reproduction requires two separate 13. Sexual reproduction involves
individuals, who can mutually provide (a) meiosis only.
nutrient support during stress. (b) meiosis and fusion of gametes.
(c) Sexual reproduction produces individuals (c) both mitosis and meiosis.
with new combinations of recombined (d) all of the above
chromosomes increasing diversity. 14. In which of the following plant, the site of origin
(d) Asexual reproduction requires more energy. of new plants is called node
7. Which is the most common method of (a) Potato tuber (b) Onion bulb
reproduction in majority of fungi and bacteria ? (c) Rhizome ginger (d) All of these
(a) Binary fission 15. In a practical test, a student has to identify the
(b) Multiple fission organisms in which syngamy does not occur. In
(c) Budding those organisms the female gamete undergoes
(d) Spore formation development to form new organisms without
8. Select the correct sequence from the following. fertilization. This phenomenon is called "X".
(i) Juvenile phase ® Senescent Identify the organisms and the phenomenon "X".
phase ® Reproductive phase (a) Frog, Parthenogenesis
(ii) Juvenile phase ® Reproductive (b) Lizards, Gametogenesis
phase ® Senescent phase (c) Rotifers, Embryogenesis
(iii) Reproductive phase ® Juvenile (d) Honey bee, Parthenogenesis
B-146 BIOLOGY
Sexual Reproduction in
24 Flowering Plants
1. Anther is typically _________ . 1. Which of the following statement is correct ?
2. Ovules are attached to a parenchymatous (a) Flower is a modified root
cushion called _________ . (b) Flower is a modified shoot
3. The point at which funiculus touches the ovule (c) Flower is a modified leaf
is ______ . (d) Flower is a modified inflorescence
4. The most common type of ovule is_________ . 2. Which one is female gametophyte –
5. The device that guides the pollen tube in the (a) embryo (b) embryo sac
cavity of ovary is _________ . (c) endosperm (d) pistil
6. Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen at 3. Which is the most logical sequence with
reference to the life cycle of angiosperm ?
_________.
(a) Germination, endosperm formation, seed
7. The seed in which endosperm is used by embryo dispersal, double fertilization
is called __________ seed. (b) Cleavage, fertilization, grafting, fruit
8. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species formation
of _______ . (c) Pollination, fertilization, seed formation &
germination
True/ False : (d) Maturation, mitosis, differentiation
4. The mature male gametophyte in angiosperm is
1. During emasculation process, stigma is removed. represented by –
2. Emasculated flowers are bagged in order to (a) pollen grain
prevent self-pollination. (b) germinating pollen grain
3. Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for (c) embryo sac
months. (d) anther
4. Exine has apertures called germ pores where 5. Tapetum is –
sporopollenin is present. (a) parietal in origin usually the inner most layer
5. The PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus) of anther wall
develops into endosperm. (b) modified endothecium of anther wall
6. Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen. (c) outer most layer of sporogenous tissue
7. Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of modification
flowers of different plants. (d) parietal in origin and is the inner most layer
8. Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin of ovule wall
such as 2, 4-D. 6. Main function of endothecium (in anther) is –
9. Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid (a) mechanical (b) nutritive
female gametophyte. (c) dehiscence (d) none of above
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants B-147
7. Development of male gametophyte is – (c) flowers open

(a) in vivo (b) in situ (d) flowers gamopetalous
(c) both (d) none of the above 16. A fruit developed from hypanthodium
8. A polygonum type of embryo sac is inflorescence is called
(a) 7-celled and 8-nucleate (a) Sorosis (b) Syconus
(b) 8-celled and 7-nucleate (c) Caryopsis (d) Hasperidium
(c) 7 -celled and 7-nucleate 17. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts
(d) 8-celled and 8-nucleate in
9. Ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent (a) walnut and tamarind
to
(b) french bean and coconut
(a) a megasporangium (c) cashew nut and litchi
(b) a megagametangium (d) groundnut and pomegranate
(c) a micro spore 18. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or
(d) a mega spore maize is comparable to which part of the seed in
10. Filiform apparatus are found in other monocotyledons?
(a) antipodal cell (b) egg cell (a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm
(c) secondary nucleus(d) synergids (c) Aleurone layer (d) Plumule
11. The type of cells under going meiosis in the 19. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
flowers are (a) Citrus (b) Gossypium
(a) micro spore mother cell & mega spore (c) Triticum (d) Brassica
mother cell 20. Wind pollinated flowers are
(b) ovule & stamen (a) small, brightly coloured, producing large
(c) tapetal cells number of pollen grains
(b) small, producing large number of dry pollen
(d) placental cell
grains
12. Self-pollination means –
(c) large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(a) transfer of pollen from anthers to stigma in (d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
the same flowers
(b) transfer of pollen from one flowers to Diagram Based Questions :
another on the different plant
(c) occurence of male and female sex organ in 1. The given figure shows a typical stamen (a) and
the same flowers three dimensional cut section of an anther.
(d) germination of pollen Identify A to D respectively marked in the figures
(a & b)
13. When pollen grains of a flower are transferred
to stigma of another flower on a different plant,
the process is called A
(a) geitonogamy (b) xenogamy D
(c) autogamy (d) homogamy C
14. When anther and stigma mature at the same time Line of
dehiscence
it is called as
(a) dichogamy (b) allogamy
(c) xenogamy (d) homogamy
15. Chasmogamy refers to the condition where – B
(a) flowers remains closed
(b)
(b) flowers absent (a)
B-148 BIOLOGY
(a) Anther, Petiole, Pollen sac and Megaspore 4. Diagram given below shows the stages in
(b) Anther, Petiole, Megasporangium and embryogenesis in a typical dicot plant
Pollen grains (Capsella). Identify the structures A to D
respectively
(c) Anther, Pedicel, Megasporangium and
Pollen grains
(d) Anther, Filament, Pollen sac and Pollen
grains A
2. The given diagram refers to a T. S. of anther.
B
Identify A to E respectively
Zygote
D
Connective Heart-Shaped
C Embryo C
E Globular Mature
A Embryo Embryo
D
B (a) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(a) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, epidermis, (b) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
middle layer, endothecium (c) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons
(b) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, tapetum, (d) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Hypocotyls
middle layer, endothecium
5. The given figure represent the L.S of a flower
(c) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, middle layer,
showing growth of pollen tube. Few structures
tapetum, endothecium
are marked as A, B, C, D & E. Identify A, B, C, D
(d) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, middle layer,
epidermis, endothecium and E respectively.
3. Identify A, B, C, D and E structures marked in
the given figure of a mature embryo sac.
C
Chalazas end
A
D
Pollen tube
E A
C B
B Egg cell
Egg
Synergid
D
E
(a) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Style,
Micropylar end
Chalaza
Antipodal Central cell Polar Synergids Acrosome (b) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Style, Stigma,
(a)
cells nuclei
Antipodal Central cell Polar Synergids Filiform Chalaza
(b) cells nuclei apparatus (c) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma,
Synergids Central cell Polar Antipodal Filiform Chalaza, Style
(c) nuclei cells apparatus (d) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Chalaza,
Synergids Megaspore Polar Synergids Filiform Stigma, Style
(d) mother cell nuclei apparatus
6. In the given figure of pollen grain tetrad, identify (c) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
the parts marked as A, B, C, D and E. (d) If both the assertion and reason are false
A 1. Assertion : If pollen mother cells has 42
B chromosomes, the pollen has only 21
C
chromosomes.
D
Reason : Pollens are formed after meiosis in pollen
E mother cell.
2. Assertion: Endosperm is a nutritive tissue and
(a) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C - Intine, it is triploid.
D - Exine, E - Vegetative cell Reason: Endosperm is formed by fusion of
(b) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C - Exine, secondary nucleus to second male gamete. It is
used by developing embryo.
D - Intine, E - Vegetative cell
3. Assertion: The megaspore mother cell divide
(c) A - Intine, B - Exine, C - Germ pore, D - mitotically to produce four spores.
Generative cell, E - Vegetative cell Reason: Megaspore mother cells are diploid and
(d) A - Exine, B - intine, C - Vegetative cell, D - megaspore is haploid.
Germ pore, E - Generative cell 4. Assertion : Photomodulation of flowering is a
phytochrome regulated process.
7. Identified A, B, C and D in the given figure of
Reason : Active form of phytochrome (PFR )
false fruit of apple.
directly induces floral induction in shoot buds.
5. Assertion : Insects visit flower to gather honey.
Reason : Attraction of flowers prevents the
insects from damaging other parts of the plant.
6. Assertion : Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the
first male gametophytic cells.
Reason : Each PMC gives rise to four pollens.
7. Assertion : Chasmogamous flowers require
(a) A – Mesocarp, B – Endocarp, C – Seed, D – pollinating agents.
Thalamus Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose
(b) A – Seed, B – Thalamus, C – Mesocarp, D – their sex organs.
Endocarp
(c) A – Thalamus, B – Seed, C – Endocarp, D – Matching Based Questions :
Mesocarp
(d) A – Mesocarp, B – Endocarp, C – Seed, D – DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
Thalamus (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
Assertion/ Reason : Column I can have correct matching with one
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7): These questions consist of choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. which ONLY ONE is correct.
While answering these questions you are required to 1. Column-I Column-II
A. Zoophily I. Pollination by birds
B. Ornithophily II. Pollination by insects
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason C. Entomophily III. Pollination by bats
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. D. Chiropterophily IV. Pollination by animals
B-150 BIOLOGY
(a) A – III.; B – II; C – I; D – IV 5. Column-I Column-II

(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV A. Tapetum I. Irregular in shape with
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III abundant food reserve
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III B. Exine II. Acts as nutritive layer
2. Column-I Column-II C. Pollenkit III. Thick, rigid protective
layer
A. Funicle I. Mass of cells within ovule
D. Vegetative IV. Involve in the formation
with more food
cell of microspores
B. Hilum II. Basal part of ovule
E. Sporogenous V. Oily and sticky layer,
C. Integument III. One or 2 protective layers help in tissue
of ovule pollination.
D. Chalaza IV. Region where body of (a) A – II; B – III; C – V; D – IV; E – I
ovule fuses with funicle (b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V
E. Nucellus V. Stalk of ovule (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – V
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (d) A – II; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – III
(b) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I 6. Column-I Column-II
A. Coleorhiza I. Grapes
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III; E – V
B. Food storing tissue II. Mango
(d) A – I; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – IV C. Parthenocarpic fruit III. Maize
3. Column-I Column-II D. Single seeded fruit IV. Radicle
(Items) (Examples) developing from
A. Ovary I. Groundnut, mustard monocarpellary
superior ovary
B. Ovule II. Guava, orange, mango
E. Membranous seed coat V. Endosperm
C. Wall of ovary III. Pericarp (a) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
D. Fleshy fruits IV. Seed (b) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I; E – III
E. Dry fruits V. Fruit (c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II
(a) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I (d) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III 1. One of the most resistant known biological
material is
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose
A. Parthenocarpy I. Inactive state (c) sporopollenin (d) lignocellulose
B. Polyembryony II. Meiosis and syngamy 2. Which of the following is a female gamete in
are absent embryo sac ?
C. Apomixis III. Extra embryos (a) Synergid (b) Antipodal cell
(c) Oosphere (d) Central cell
D. Dormancy IV. Seedless fruit
3. The largest cell in a embryo sac is
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV (a) egg (b) central cell
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) synergid (d) antipodal cell
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III 4. Which one of the following is not related to other
three?
(d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(a) Archaegonium (b) Oogonium
(c) Ovule (d) Antheridium
5. Dicot embryo consists of (a) 100 (b) 75

(a) radicle and plumule. (c) 125 (d) 50
(b) radicle, plumule, cotyledons and radicle.
(c) radicle, plumule, cotyledons and tegmen. 11. The endosperm found in angiospermic seed is
(d) radicle, plumule, cotyledons, tegmen and testa. different from that of gymnosperms in the sense
6. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur that, in the former
respectively in (a) it is formed before fertilization while in the
(a) antipodal, egg and endosperm. latter it is formed after fertilization.
(b) egg, nucellus and endosperm.
(b) it is formed after fertilization.
(c) endosperm, nucellus and egg.
(d) antipodals, synergids and integuments. (c) it is cellular while in the latter it is nuclear.
7. Product of sexual reproduction generally (d) it is nutritive while in the latter it is protective.
generates 12. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore
(a) prolonged dormancy. mother cells after
(b) new genetic combination leading to (a) meiotic division.
variation. (b) mitotic division.
(c) large biomass. (c) formation of a thick wall.
(d) longer viability of seeds. (d) differentiation.
8. Sequence of development during the formation 13. In angiosperms, syngamy or fertilization refers
of embryo sac is to
(a) Archesporium ® Megaspore ® (a) fusion of a sperm with secondary nucleus.
Megaspore mother cell ® Embryo sac. (b) fusion of a sperm with oosphere.
(b) Megasporocyte ® Archesporium ® (c) fusion of one sperm with egg and other with
Megaspore ® Embryo sac. secondary nucleus.
(c) Megaspore ® Megaspore mother cell ® (d) fusion of one of the sperms with a synergid.
Archesporium ® Embryo sac. 14. Unisexuality of flowers prevents
(d) Archesporium ® Megaspore mother cell (a) geitonogamy but not xenogamy.
® Megaspore ® Embryo sac. (b) autogamy and geitonogamy.
9. Which of the following processes is necessary (c) autogamy but not geitonogamy.
for the complete development of male (d) both geitonogamy and xenogamy.
gametophyte? 15. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food
(a) One meiotic cell division and two mitotic mainly in
cell divisions. (a) perisperm (b) endosperm
(b) One meiotic cell division and one mitotic (c) cotyledons (d) hypocotyl
cell division. 16. Pollination occurs in
(c) Two meiotic cell divisions and one mitotic (a) bryophytes and angiosperms.
cell division. (b) pteridophytes and angiosperms.
(d) Two mitotic cell divisions. (c) angiosperms and gymnosperms.
10. Total number of meiotic division required for (d) angiosperms and fungi.
forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of wheat is
B-152 BIOLOGY
25 Human Reproduction
4. Graafian follicle releases primary oocyte from the

Fill in the Blanks :
ovary by ovulation.
1. The __________ lead to vas deferens that 5. At puberty only 60,000 – 80,000 primary follicles
ascends to the ______ and loops over the are left in each ovary.
__________. 6. Myometrium undergoes strong contraction at
2. A sac shaped like an upside down pear with a the time of delivery of baby.
thick lining and muscles in the pelvic area where 7. Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones: inner
a fertilized egg or zygote comes to grow into a cortex and outer medulla.
baby is called _______. 8. Infundibulum possess finger like projections
3. In the process of spermatogenesis, fir st which help in collection of ovum after the
maturation division is called _______. release of secondary oocyte.
4. Spermatids are transformed into sperm by a Conceptual MCQs :
process called_______.
5. Semen is a constituent of seminal plasma with 1. A mature sperm has –
_______. (a) a pair of flagella
6. Ejaculation of human male contains about 200 – 300 (b) a nucleus, an acrosome and a centriole
million sperms, of which for normal fertility ____ % (c) a nucleus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles
sperms must have normal shape and size and at least (d) a nucleus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles
____% must show energetic motility. and a tail
2. Ovulation occurs under the influence of –
7. At the time of implantation, the human embryo
is called _______. (a) LH (b) FSH
(c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone
8. Fusion of haploid nucleus of sperm and that of
3. Spermatozoa are nourished during their
ovum lead to the formation of _______.
development by –
9. Trophoblast and inner cell mass are the
(a) setroli cells
arrangements of blastomeres as outer and inner
(b) interstitial cells
layers respectively in _______.
(c) connective tissue cells
10. The placenta is formed from the _______ of the
embryo and the _______ of the mother.
4. Correct sequence in development is –
True/ False : (a) fertilization ® zygote ® cleavage ®
morula ® blastula ® gastrula
1. Each testes has highly coiled 250 compartments (b) fertilization ® zygote ® blastula ® morula
called seminiferous tubules. ® cleavage ® gastrula
2. Erection of the penis due to presence of special (c) fertilization ® cleavage ® morula® zygote
tissues facilitates insemination. ® blastula ® gastrula
3. The scrotum keeps the testes warmer, thus (d) cleavage ® zygote ® fertilization ®
helping it to promote the sperm formation. morula ® blastula ® gastrula
Human Reproduction B-153
5. Middle piece of mammalian sperm contains – (c) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(a) nucleus (b) vacuole (d) Primary follicle starts developing
(c) mitochondria (d) centriole 15. Which one of the following is the correct
6. Ovulation or release of ovum occurs on the day matching of the events occurring during
of menstrual cycle : menstrual cycle?
(a) 8-10 (a) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of
(b) 12-14 myometrium and maturation of Graffian
(c) 4-14 follicle.
(d) last two day of menstrual cycle (b) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory
7. At the end of first meiotic division, male germ phase and increased secretion of
cell differentiates into: progesterone.
(a) secondary spermatocyte (c) Menstruation: Breakdown of myometrium
(b) primary spermatocyte and ovum not fertilised.
(c) spermatogonium (d) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and
(d) spermatid sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
16. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
8. What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg of human ?
(a) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(a) Meroblastic (b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no
(b) Starts when egg reaches uterus calcium
(c) Starts in fallopian tubes (c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in
(d) It is identical to normal mitosis calcium
9. Which of the following organ is differentiated (d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
first during development? 17. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages
(a) heart (b) skin leading to the formation of sperms in a mature
(c) brain (d) neural tube human testes is:
10. At the end of first meiotic division, male sperm (a) spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid
differentiates into - sperms
(a) secondary spermatocyte (b) spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia
(b) primary spermatocyte - sperms
(c) spermatogonium (c) spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte
(d) spermatid - sperms
11. In 28 day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on
(d) spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid
(a) Day 1 (b) Day 5
(c) Day 14 (d) Day 28 - sperms
18. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves
12. The estrous cycle is a characteristic of
transfer of which one of the following into the
(a) human males only
fallopian tube?
(b) human females only
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(c) mammalian males other than primates (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell
(d) mammalian females other than primates stage
13. After ovulation the collapsed ovarian follicle (c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
shrinks and becomes filled with cell to form (d) Zygote only
(a) corpus luteum (b) corpus albicans 19. Sertoli cells are found in
(c) corpus atresia (d) corpus adiposum (a) ovaries and secrete progesterone
14. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which (b) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
one of the following is unlikely? (c) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate to germ cells
(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines (d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
B-154 BIOLOGY
20. The signals for parturition originate from (a) A: Spermatozoa, secretes testicular
(a) placenta only hormones that control spermatogenesis.
(b) placenta as well as fully developed foetus (b) B: Spermatogonium, it is also called male
(c) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
germ cells which undergo meiotic division
(d) fully developed foetus only
to from spermatozoa.
Diagram Based Questions : (c) C: Interstitial cells, present in the interstitial
spaces and store and transport the sperms
1. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a
from the testis to the outside through the
portion of human male reproductive system.
Select the correct set of the names of the parts urethra.
marked as A, B, C, and D. (d) D: Sertoli cells, it maintains low temperature
of the testis.
A 3. Identify the figure (A) whose sectional view is
B
given below and match with its characteristics
C
D (B) and its location (C).
A B C D
(a) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
vesicle gland
(b) Ureter Prostate Seminal Bulbourethral
vesicle gland
(c) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
deferens vesicle gland A B C
(d) Vas Seminal Bulbourethral Prostate Involved in
deferens vesicle gland Graafian
(a) the formation Ovary
follicle
2. Given below is the diagrammatic sectional view of ovum
of seminiferous tubule with their parts marked Involved in
as A, B, C, and D. Select the option which shows Seminiferous
(b) the formation Testis
the correct identification of the structure with tubule
of sperm
its characteristics.
Ovum
Process of Graafian
(c) surrounded
fertilization follicle
by sperm
A
Female
Mammary Involved in milk
(d) reproductive
gland secretion
B system
4. The given figure shows the diagrammatic
C
sectional view of female reproductive system with
few structures marked as A, B, C, D, E and F.
D
6. The figure given below shows the various

D
events occurring during a menstrual cycle with
E
few structures marked as A, B, C and D. Which
F
of the following options shows the correct
A
B labeling?
C
Which of the following options shows the

correct labeling of A–F?
(a) A ® Myometrium, B®Isthmus,
C®Endometrium, D ® Perimetrium, B
E®Ampulla, F® Infundibulum
(b) A®Infundibulum, B®Perimetrium,
C®Endometrium, D®Myometrium,
E®Ampulla, F®Isthmus
(c) A®Endometrium, B®Myometrium,
C®Perimetrium, D®Isthmus, E®Ampulla,
F®Infundibulum
C D E
(d) A®Perimetrium, B®Endometrium, (a) A®LH, B®Ovulation, C® Menstruation,
C®Isthmus, D®Infundibulum, E®Ampulla, D® Proliferative phase, E®Luteal phase
F®Myometrium
(b) A®FSH, B®Implantation, C®Follicular
5. The figure given below shows the structure of phase, D®Menstruation phase, E®Luteal
sperm. Identify the correct feature corresponding phase
to the marked structure A, B, C and D.
(c) A®Estrogen, B®Parturition, C®Luteal
phase, D®Follicular phase, E®Follicular
A phase
(d) A®Progesterone, B® Fertilization,
B
C® Menstruation phase, D®Secretory
C phase, E® Follicular phase
7. Study the given figure and conclude the correct
D explaination from the options given below:
(a) A – Head: Its anterior portion is covered by

a structure filled with enzymes that help in
the fusion of male and female gametes.
(b) B – Middle piece: It contains a haploid
nucleus.
(c) C – Neck: It possesses few ribosomes
which produces energy for the process of
fertilization.
(d) D – Tail: It releases energy source for
swimming of sperm.
B-156 BIOLOGY
(a) All the sperm attaches with ovum. Matching Based Questions :
(b) Transport of sperm towards the ovum.
(c) Ovum and surrounded sperms were going DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A,
to take part in fertilization. B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (1, 2,
(d) Sperm induces changes in the cells of 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column
corona radiata and blocks the entry of other I can have correct matching with one statement given
additional sperms. in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c)
and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Assertion/ Reason : 1. Column I Column II
(Structure of (Features)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-6): These questions consist of Male Reproductive
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. System)
While answering these questions you are required to (A) Seminiferous I. Network of
choose any one of the following five responses. tubule seminiferous
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the tubule
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. (B) Rete testis II. Secondary sexual
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason characters
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. (C) Leydig cells III. Meiosis and sperm
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. formation occurs
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false (D) Prepuce IV. Place of implantation
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. V. Terminal skin of penis
1. Assertion : During fertilization only head of (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
spermatozoa enters egg. (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V
Reason : If several spermatozoa hit the egg at (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
same time, all can enter the egg. (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V
2. Assertion : In morula stage, cells divide without 2. Column-I Column-II
increase in size. (Structures of female (Features)
Reason : Zona pellucida remain undivided till reproductive system)
cleavage is complete. (A) Ampulla I. It undergoes cyclical
3. Assertion : In humans, the gamete contributed changes durin g
by the male determines whether the child menstrual cycle.
produced will be male or female. (B) Labia majora II. It helps in collection
Reason : Sex in humans is a polygenic trait of ovum after
depending upon a cumulative effect of some ovulation.
genes on X-chromosome and some on Y- (C) Oviduct III. Wider part of
chromosome. fallopian tube
4. Assertion : Corpus luteum degenerates in the where fusion of
absence of fertilization. male and female
Reason : Progesterone level decreases. gametes takes place.
(D) Fimbriae IV. Larger hairy folds
5. Assertion : Clitoris is not remnant of penis in
which extend down
females.
from the mons pubis
Reason : It also have high blood supply and and surrounds the
erectile tissue. vaginal opening.
6. Assertion : Mammalian ova produces E. Endometrium V. Also called fallopian
hyaluronidase. tubes, which extend
Reason : The eggs of mammal are microlecithal from the periphery of
and telolecithal. each ovary to the
womb.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV formed and secretes

(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV a hormone which
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I m a i n t a i n s
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I endometrium and
implantation of
fertilized ovum and
(A) Primary oocyte I. It is formed when other even ts of
oogonia star ts pregnancy.
division and
(C) Follicular phase III. Formation of mature
temporarily arrested
Graafian follicle and
at prophase of
regeneration of
meiosis I.
en dometrium of
(B) Secondary oocyte II. A large haploid uterus.
cell which retains
(D) Ovulatory phase IV.Secretion of luteinizing
bulk of nutrient rich
hormone at its
cytoplasm of the
maximum level and
primary oocyte.
induces breakdown
(C) Primary follicle III. A large number of of mature follicle to
these degenerate release the female
during the phase gamete
from puberty to
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
birth.
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(D) Oogonia IV. Gamete mother cell.
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(E) Secondary follicle V. Surrounded by (d) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
more layers of 5. Column-I Column-II
granulosa cells and (Features of (Time of there
a new theca. developing child) occurrence)
F. Graafian follicle VI. Rupture to release (A) Heart sound I. By the end of the
ovum from the second month of
ovary. pregnancy
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V; F – VI (B) Foetus develops
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V; F – VI limbs and digit II. During the fifth
(c) A – VI; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I; F – III month
(C) Formation of III. First sign of growing
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I; F – VI
major organ foetus system
4. Column-I Column-II (D) First movement IV. By the end of 12
(Phases of (Features) of foetus and weeks
menstrual cycle) appearance of
(A) Menstrual phase I. Breakdown of hair on head
endometrial lining of (E) Body covered V. By theend of 24weeks
uterus along with its with hair, eyelid
blood vessels which separate, eyelashes
form liquid that are formed
comes out of vagina. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(B) Luteal phase II. A temporary (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
endocrine gland is (c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I
B-158 BIOLOGY
6. Column-I Column-II (E) Conception V. Release of egg from

(Hormones) (Functions) Graafian follicle
(A) Luteinizing I. Develop corpus VI. Process of milk
hormone luteum secretion
(B) Progesterone II. Essential for VII. Formation of zygote
maintenance of by fusion of the egg
uterine layer (called and sperm
endometrium) (a) A – I; B – II; C – VII; D – V; E – III
(C) Estrogen III. Develops female (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
secondary sexual (c) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – VI
characters (d) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II
(D) Follicle stimulating IV. Maturation of Critical Thinking Type Questions :
hormone Graafian follicle
(E) Oxytocin V. Causes uterine 1. The feature of some structures of male
contraction. reproductive system is given below. Identify the
(a) A – I; B – V; C – III; D – II; E – IV structure on the basis of the characteristics
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV; E – V which surrounds the primary sex organ of
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V male reproductive system.
(d) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (a) Its enlarged end is called glans penis.
7. Column-I Column-II (b) It travels through the penis and carry
(A) Fertilization I. Mitotic division semen as well as urine.
(B) Implantation II. Embryo with 8 to 16 (c) It is responsible for maintaining the low
blastomeres temperature by about 2 – 2.5º C from normal
(C) Cleavage III. Ampullary-isthmic body temperature to mature sperm.
junction (d) Stores sperms prior to ejaculation.
(D) Morula IV. Structure formed by 2. Read the following statement and answer the
the continuous question.
division of 8 to 16 “The urethra originates from a structure (called
blastomeres ‘X’) and extends through the male external
(E) Blastocysts V. Embedding of genitalia (called ‘Y’ which helps in introducing
blastocysts in the semen into the vagina) to its external opening
endometrium called urethral meatus.”
(a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – V; E – III Identify X and Y.
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V (a) X - Urinary bladder ; Y - Penis
(c) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II (b) X - Vas efferentia ; Y - Penis
(d) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV (c) X - Ejaculatory duct ; Y - Ureter
8. Column-I Column-II (d) X - Bulbourethral gland ; Y - Ureter
(Terms) (Definition)
3. Which of the following is not a uterine function?
(A) Parturition I. Duration between
pregnancy (of about (a) Waste removal for the developing embryo.
9 month) and birth (b) Nutritional support of the growing embryo.
(B) Ovulation II. Attachment of (c) Place of fusion of male and female gametes.
zygote to the (d) Mechanical protection of the developing
endometrium embryo.
(C) Gestation III. Child birth 4. The glandular tissue of mammary gland is
(D) Implantation IV. Stoppage of divided into “X” mammary “Y” containing
menstruation alveoli which secretes milk and store it in the
cavity of alveoli. Identify “X” and “Y”.
(a) X - 1 – 2 ; Y - Ducts 10. At the time of fertilization, chromosome number

(b) X - 100 - 200 ; Y - Lobes (a) is halved (b) remains haploid
(c) X - 50 - 100 ; Y - Ducts (c) becomes diploid (d) does not change
(d) X - 15 - 20 ; Y - Lobes 11. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
5. How many ova are released during the middle of (a) placenta only
the menstrual cycle?
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four (c) release of oxytocin from pituitary gland
6. Study the given statement and answer the (d) release of full developed corpus luteum
question. 12. After the transformation of spermatids into
“During ‘P’ phase of the menstrual cycle, if sperm, their heads become embedded in a cell
pregnancy doesn’t happen, the ‘Q’ withers and called “X” and are finally released from the “Y”
dies, usually around day 22 in a 28-day cycle. by the process called “Z”. Identify X, Y and Z.
The drop in ‘R’ levels causes the lining of the
uterus to fall away. This is known as ‘S’. X Y Z
Identify P, Q, R and S. (a) Spea matogonium Epididymis Insemination
(a) P ®Menstrual, Q®Graafian follicle, (b) Ley dig Vas deferens Parturition
R®Estrogen , S®Menarche
Seminiferous
(b) P ®Luteal, Q ®Corpus luteum, R (c) Sertoli Speamiation
tubule
®Progesterone S ®Menstruation
Seminiferous
(c) P ®Ovulatory, Q ®Endometrium, (d) Spea matocyte Speamiogenesis
tubule
R ®Follicle stimulating hormone, S
®Menopause 13. Select the option which shows the correct
(d) P ®Follicular, Q ®Secondary oocyte, R part of a sperm with its corresponding function.
®Luteinizing hormone S ®Menstruation (a) Head: Stimulate Leydig cell to produce
7. Which of the following hormones attains a peak androgen hormone.
level in the middle of menstrual cycle? (b) Neck: Essential for maturation and motility
(a) LH and estrogen of sperm.
(b) FSH and progesterone (c) Middle piece: Produces energy from
(c) FSH and LH mitochondria for tail movement which
(d) Estrogen and progesterone facilitate sperm motility.
8. Fertilization can only occurs if (d) Tail: Help in fertilization with the help of
(a) sperm reaches to the ampullary – isthmic enzyme present in acrosome.
junction before the ovum. 14. “A” cells starts division and enter in “B” stage
of meiotic division and get temporarily “C” at
(b) ovum reaches to the ampullary – isthmic
this stage, called “D”. Identify A, B, C and D.
junction before the sperm.
(a) A: Oogonia; B: Metaphase I; C: Arrested;
(c) sperms are transported to the uterus and D: Primary oocyte.
ovum to the fallopian tube simultaneously. (b) A: Oogonia; B: Anaphase I; C: Released;
(d) sperm and ovum are transported simultaneously D: Secondary oocyte.
to the ampullary – isthmic junction. (c) A: Oogonia; B: Prophase I; C: Arrested; D:
9. The acrosome enables the sperm to Primary oocyte.
(a) help in motility. (d) A: Oogonia; B: Telophase I; C: Released;
D: Secondary oocyte.
(b) produce energy for activity.
(c) penetrate vitelline membrane of ovum.
(d) fertilize more than one ovum.
B-160 BIOLOGY
26 Reproductive Health

1. Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian 1. Copper-T is a device that prevents
duct is called _________. (a) implantation of blastocyst
2. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the (b) ovulation
______ weeks of pregnancy. (c) fertilization
3. To form embryo in vitro, the male gamete is (d) egg maturation
transferred into female gamete directly. Such 2. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
technique is called_________. developing foetus by amniocentesis?
4. The transfer of zygote or early embryo (up to 8 (a) Sex of the foetus
blastomere) into fallopian tube is called (b) Down syndrome
_________. (c) Jaundice
5. The most important component of the oral (d) Klinefelter syndrome
contraceptive pills is _________. 3. Consider the statements given below regarding
6. The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
for the detection of prenatal disorder is called as (i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
_________. during first trimester is generally safe
7. The family planning programme in India were (ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until
initiated in _________. mother breast-feeds the infant upto two
years
True/ False : (iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are
1. According to 2001 census our population growth effective contraceptives
rate was 1.7%. (iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one
2. Marriageable age for male and female is week after coitus to prevent conception
respectively 18 and 21 years. Which two of the above statements are correct?
3. Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
STD. (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
4. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during 4. Which one of the following is the most widely
first trimester is generally safe. accepted method of contraception in India, as at
5. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg present ?
formation. (a) Cervical caps
6. Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease (b) Tubectomy
caused by herpes virus. (c) Diaphragms
7. In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality (d) IUDs. (Intra uterine devices)
rate and maternal mortality rate.
5. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
8. According to the WHO, reproductive health is considered safe up to how many weeks of
total well-being in the physical, social, emotional, pregnancy?
behavioural aspects of reproduction.
(a) Eight weeks (b) Twelve weeks
(c) Eighteen weeks (d) Six weeks
Reproductive Health B-161
6. The technique called gamete intrafallopian (c) IUD only (d) All of the above
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those 15. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
females: (a) Implants
(a) who cannot produce an ovum (b) Copper releasing IUDs
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus. (c) Non-medicated IUDs
(c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow (d) Hormone releasing IUDs
passage for the sperms 16. Which of the following is the component of oral pills?
(d) who cannot provide suitable environment (a) Progesterone (b) Oxytocin
for fertilisation (c) Relaxin (d) None of these.
7. Legally acceptable term of abortion is – 17. One of the legal methods of birth control is :
(a) MTP (b) MMTP (a) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17
(c) MTTP of the menstrual cycle
(d) None (b) by having coitus at the time of day break
8. The most important component of the oral (c) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
contraceptive pills is – (d) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(a) progesterone 18. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(b) growth hormone (a) IUI - semen collected from husband or
(c) thyroxin donor is artificially introduced either into
(d) luteinizing hormone the vagina or into the uterus.
9. Action of vaginal diaphragm is – (b) GIFT - transfer of embryos with more than
(a) To prevent the ova to come in the uterus 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube.
(b) To prevent the sperm to come in contact (c) ICSI - sperm directly injected into the ovum.
with ova (d) ZIFT - transfer of embryos with upto 8
(c) spermicidal blastomeres into the Fallopian tube.
(d) anti-implantational 19. Which of the following is not a sexually
10. Surgical removal or cutting and ligation of the transmitted disease?
ends of oviduct is known as – (a) Myasthenia gravis
(a) Tubectomy (b) Oviductomy (b) Trichomoniasis
(c) Chlamydiasis
(c) Vasectomy (d) Ovarioctomy (d) Syphilis
11. Surgical removal of testes is known as – 20. Saheli is
(a) Testectomy (b) Gonadectomy (a) an oral contraceptive for females
(c) Castration (d) None (b) a surgical sterilization method for females
(c) a diaphragm for females
12. Removal of a segment surgically and ligation of
(d) a diaphragm used by males
cut ends of vas deferens is known as –
(a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) Gonadectomy (d) Castration
1. The process done in the given figure
13. Test tube baby means a baby born when –
(a) It develops from a non-fertilized egg
(b) It developed in a test tube
(c) It is developed through tissue culture
method
(d) The ovum is fertilised externally and (a) Prevents egg from reaching the uterus for
thereafter implanted in the uterus implantation.
14. The mechanical measure of population control (b) Avoid insemination
includes – (c) Inhibits ovulation
(d) Increases contraceptive efficiency
(a) Condom only (b) Diaphragm only
B-162 BIOLOGY
2. Identify the figure given below. the entry of ejaculated semen into the
female reproductive tract.
(b) It is a female condom which is used to cover
the cervix and vagina just before the coitus.
(c) It is a condom which is used to cover penis
in male and vagina and cervix in female.
(d) It is one type of IUDs which makes the
(a) Male condom uterus unsuitable for implantation and
(b) Female condom cervix hostile to the sperms.
(c) Norplant 5. The given figure shows one of the elements
(d) Copper T releasing intrauterine device. Select the option
3. Which of the following option is correct which shows the correct identification of the
regarding the diagram given below? device and its feature.
(a) It is a device made of rubber and inserted (a) CuT; suppress sperm motility and its
into the female reproductive tract to cover fertilizing capacity.
the cervix during coitus.
(b) Cu7; make uterus unsuitable for the
(b) It is a device made of thin rubber/ latex
attachment of blastocysts.
sheath and are used to cover penis in the
male. (c) Lippes loop; protect the users from
(c) This device is inserted by doctors in the contracting AIDS and STDs.
uterus through vagina and increases (d) LNG - 20; acts as spermicidal means and
phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus. decrease the contraceptive efficiency.
(d) It is a set of 6-small plastic capsules (called
implant) which are placed under the skin of
Assertion/ Reason :
a women’s upper arm and it prevent
pregnancy.
4. Refer the given figure below and answer the
question. Which feature is correctly associated While answering these questions you are required to
with the given figure? choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) It is a male condom which is used to cover (e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
the penis just before the coitus to prevent
1. Assertion: IUDs suppresses the process of 2. Column-I Column-II

gametogenesis. (A) Non-medicated IUDs I. Lippes loop
Reason: It increases the phygocytosis of sperms (B) Hormone releasing II. Multiload 375
within the uterus. IUDs
2. Assertion: Introduction of sex education in (C) Copper releasing IUDs III. CuT
schools increased medical asistance. IV. Cu7
Reason: Encouraging myths and V. LNG - 20
misconceptions. VI. Progestasert
3. Assertion: Contraceptive device are introduced (a) A – I; B – II;VI; C – III; IV; V
into uterus to prevent implantation. (b) A – I; B – III; VI; C – II; III; IV
Reason: These devices acts as a physical barrier (c) A – II; B – III; VI; C – I; III; IV
for sperm entry. (d) A – II; B – I; VI; C – III; IV; V
4. Assertion : Cu-T and Cu-7 do not suppresses 3. Column-I Column-II
sperm-motility. (A) Hepatitis B I. Vitamin E
Reason : Hormones released by them affect (B) Saheli II. 7’April, 1948
sperm motility. (C) Normal functioning III. CDRI,
5. Assertion : Copper -T is an effective of reproductive organs Lucknow
contraceptive device in human females. (D) World Health IV. Detection of
Reason: Copper-T prevents passage of sperms organisation antibody/
from vagina upwards into Fallopian tubes. antigen
(E) ELISA technique V. Hepatitis B
virus
Matching Based Questions : (a) A – V ; B – III ; C – I; D – II; E – IV
(b) A – V ; B – II ; C – I; D – III; E – IV
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (c) A – V ; B – III ; C – IV ; D – II ; E – I
(d) A – V ; B – II ; C – IV ; D – III ; E – I
Column I can have correct matching with one 4. Column-I Column-II
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 (A) Natural methods I. Coitus
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of interruptus
which ONLY ONE is correct. (B) IUDs II. LNG - 20
(C) Barrier methods III. Diaphragms
1. Column -1 Column -II
(Method) (Mode of Action) (D) Surgical methods IV. Multiload 375
(A) The contraceptive I. Prevents sperms (E) Oral contraceptives V. Saheli
VI. Nirodh
pill reaching cervix
VII. Sterilization
(B) Condom II. Prevents
implantation VIII. Vasectomy
(C) Vasectomy III. Prevents IX. CuT
ovulation (a) A - I; B - II ; IV ; IX; C - III; VI; D - VII ;
(D) Copper T IV. Semen contains VIII; E-V
no sperms (b) A - I; B - II ; IV; C - III ; VI ; IX; D - VII ;
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV VIII; E-V
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A - I; B - II ; IV ; IX; C - III ; IX; D - VII ;
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III VIII; E-V ; VI
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (d) A - I; B - IV ; IX; C - II ; III ; VI; D - VII ;
VIII; E-V
B-164 BIOLOGY
5. female or due to very low sperm counts in

ejaculates leads to "A". It could be corrected by
Column I Column II "B". In "B" the "C" is collected and artificially
A. ICSI 1 Artificially introduction of semen introduced either into the vagina or into the "D"
into the vagina or uterus . (IUI - intra-uterine insemination) of the female."
Identify A to D.
B. IUI 2 Trans fer of ovum collected from a
donor into the fallopian tube A B C D
where fertilization occur Fallopian
C. IUT 3 Formation of embryo by directly a. STD Embryo transfer Urine tube
injecting s perm into the ovum b. MTP GIFT Ovum Uterus
D. GIFT 4 Transfer of the zygote or early c. Infertility Artificial technique Semen Uterus
embryo (with upto 8 blas tomeres) Fallopian
into a fallopian tube. d. Infertility ZIFT Sperm tube
2. Which of the following disease is completely
E. ZIFT 5 Trans fer of embryo with more curable if detected early and treated properly?
than 8 blas tomeres into the (a) Syphilis (b) Hepatitis B
uterus (c) Genital herpes (d) HIV infection
A B C D E 3. Present increase in India’s population has not
(a) 5 4 1 3 2 been due to decline in
(b) 1 2 3 4 5 (a) decrease in infant mortality rate
(c) 3 5 2 4 1 (b) decrease number of people reaching
(d) 3 1 5 2 4 reproductive age
6. (c) decline in death rate
(d) decline in maternal mortality rate
Column I Column II 4. The copper ions of IUDs
A. IUDs Prevent conception by blocking (a) suppress the motility and fertilization
capacity of sperms.
1 entry of sperm through cervix
(b) make the uterus unsuitable for
B. Condom Inhibits ovulation, implantation
implantation.
and entry of sperm by altering (c) increase phagocytosis of sperms.
2 the quality of cervical mucus (d) make cervix hostile to sperms.
C. Diaphragm Its mode of action is similar to 5. Progestogens in the contraceptive pill
3 pills (a) prevents ovulation
(b) inhibits estrogen
D. Implants Prevent ejaculated semen into
(c) checks attachment of zygote endometrium
4 the female genital tract (d) all of the above
E. Pills 5 LNG-20, Progestasert 6. Which of the following birth control measures
can be
A B C D E
considered as the safest?
(a) 5 4 1 3 2
(b) 1 2 3 4 5 (a) The rhythm method
(c) 3 5 2 4 1 (b) The use of physical barriers
(d) 3 1 5 2 4 (c) Temination of unwanted pregnancy
(d) Sterilization techniques
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 7. The success of birth control programmes in
1. Refer the following statement and answer the controlling population growth is dependent on
question. (a) use of contraceptives
"Inability of an individual to inseminate the (b) tubectomy
(c) vasectomy i. To get rid of unwanted pregnancies.

(d) acceptability of the above by the people ii. To prevent the fatality or harmfulness to
8. Assisted reproductive technologies (ART) the mother or to foetus or both due to the
(a) include social awareness programmes to continuation of pregnancy.
educate people about reproductive health iii. Termination of pregnancy is safe in each
and diseases. and every case.
(b) include research organization working on iv. If the foetus is male.
to produce new and more effective v. It plays an important role in decreasing the
contraceptives for birth control. population.
(c) include a number of special techniques which (a) i, ii, only (b) ii, iii only
assist infertile couples to have children. (c) iii, iv, v only (d) All of these
(d) both (b) and (c) 13. Given below are some examples of sexually
9. Which of the following abbreviation is related transmitted diseases. Identify the one or more
to induce abortion? which specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) IVF (b) IUD i. AIDS
(c) MTP (d) STD ii. Syphilis
10. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used iii. Gonorrhea
within iv. Genital warts
(a) 72 hours of coitus (a) i only (b) i, ii only
(c) ii, iii, iv only (d) All of these.
(b) 72 hours of ovulation
14. Which of the following infections can also be
(c) 72 hours of menstruation
transmitted by sharing of injection needles,
(d) 72 hours of implantation surgical instruments, etc., with infected persons,
11. Identify the type of most popular contraceptive transfusion of blood, or from an infected mother
device whose features are given below. to the foetus too?
i. They does not interfere the act of coitus. (a) Hepatitis B and HIV
ii. These are effective barriers for (b) Genital herpes and HIV
insemination. (c) Syphilis and Hepatitis B
iii. These help in reducing the risk of sexually (d) Chlamydiasis and Trichomoniasis
transmitted diseases. 15. Which of the following assisted reproductive
(a) IUD technology has been used for the longest time
(b) Condom period?
(c) Injectable (a) In vitro fertilization
(d) Oral contraceptives (b) Artificial insemination
12. Study the given reasons on the basis of which (c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
pregnancy can be terminated. Identify the (d) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
correct reasons.
B-166 BIOLOGY
27 Principles of Inheritance
and Variation
1. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian 1. What contribute to the success of Mendel ?
crosses are called __________. (a) Qualitative analysis of data
2. The monohybrid genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 in F2 (b) Observation of distinct inherited traits
generation indicates __________. (c) His knowledge of biology
3. The crossing of F1 to homozygous recessive (d) Consideration of one character at one time
parent is called __________. 2. Diploid chromosome number in humans is
4. ABO blood group system is due to _________. (a) 46 (b) 44
(c) 48 (d) 42
5. The number of phenotypes in ABO blood groups 3. ABO blood group system is due to
is __________.
(a) multifactor inheritance
6. The person with Turner ’s syndrome has (b) incomplete dominance
_______ and ______. (c) multiple allelism
7. A man has enlarged breasts, sparse hairs on the (d) epistasis
body and sex chromosomal formula XXY. He then 4. Haemophilia is more common in males because
suffers from __________. it is a
8. A character which is expressed in a hybrid is (a) recessive character carried by
called _______. Y-chromosome
(b) dominant character carried by
True / False : Y-chromosome
(c) dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
1. The discrete unit controlling a particular (d) recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
character is called a factor. 5. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex
2. Alleles do not show any blending and both the complement is
characters recover as such in F2 generation. (a) XO (b) XY
3. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show (c) XX (d) XXY
similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones. 6. A dihybrid condition is
4. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine (a) tt Rr (b) Tt rr
female sex in birds. (c) tt rr (d) Tt Rr
5. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce 7. Mendel’s last law is
male in Drosophila. (a) segregation
6. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal (b) dominance
aberrations. (c) independent assortment
7. In domesticated fowls, the sex of the progeny (d) polygenic inheritance
depends on the type of sperm that fertilizes the egg. 8. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian
8. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene crosses are called
disorder.
Principles of Inheritance and Variation B-167
(a) multiple alleles (b) allelomorphs 17. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant
(c) alloloci (d) paramorphs phenotype can be determined by
9. Multiple alleles control inheritance of (a) test cross (b) dihybrid cross
(a) phenylketonuria (b) colour blindness (c) pedigree analysis (d) back cross
(c) sickle cell anaemia (d) blood groups 18. Infectious proteins are present in
(a) Gemini viruses
10. A man of A-blood group marries a women of AB
(b) Prions
blood group. Which type of progeny would
(c) Viroids
indicate that man is heterozygous A?
(d) Satellite viruses
(a) AB (b) A
19. Which one of the following conditions correctly
(c) O (d) B describes the manner of determining the sex in
11. An organism with two identical alleles is the given example?
(a) dominant (b) hybrid (a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ)
(c) heterozygous (d) homozygous determine female sex in birds.
12. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in (b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine
(a) both homozygous and heterozygous states male sex in grasshopper
(b) second generation (c) XO condition in human as found in Turner
syndrome, determines female sex.
(c) heterozygous combination
(d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX)
(d) homozygous combination
produce male in Drosophila.
13. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO 20. Mutations can be induced with :
abnormality causes (a) infrared radiations
(a) Down's syndrome (b) I AA
(b) Kinefelter's syndrome (c) ethylene
(c) Turner's syndrome (d) gamma radiations
(d) Edward's syndrome
14. Sex is determined in human beings Diagram Based Questions :
(a) by ovum 1. Study the pedigree chart given below and
(b) at time of fertilization choose its correct representation.
(c) 40 days after fertilization
(d) seventh to eight week when genitals
differentiate in foetus
15. Select the incorrect statement from the
following:
(a) Galactosemia is an in born error of
metabolism (a) Inheritance of a condition like phenyl-
(b) Small population size results in random ketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait.
genetic drift in a population
(b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
(c) Baldness is a sex -limited trait
possible.
(d) Linkage is an exception to the principle of
independent assortment in heredity (c) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease
16. Point mutation involves like haemophilia.
(a) change in single base pair (d) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
(b) duplication metabolism like phenylketonuria.
(c) deletion 2. Which one of the following symbols and its
(d) insertion representation, used in human pedigree analysis
is correct?
B-168 BIOLOGY
(b) The parents could not have had a normal

(a) = mating between relatives
daughter for this character.
(b) = unaffected male (c) The trait under study could not be
colourblindness.
(c) = unaffected female (d) The male parent is homozygous dominant.
6. In Huntington’s disease, the unaffected persons
(d) = male affected are homozygous for normal allele h. The
following is erroneous because
3. The given figure represents the inheritance
pattern of a certain type of traits in humans.
1 2
3 4 5 6 7
FEMALE MALE
(Mother) (Father)
8 9 10 11
Daughter Son (a) it shows both male and female affected by
Huntingtons disease.
(b) either person 6 or 7 should have the disease,
if individual 11 shows the disease.
Which one of the following conditions could be
an example of this pattern? (c) at least one of the 2 children (8, 9) should
(a) Thalassemia (b) Haemophilia have the disease
(c) Phenylketonuria (d) Sickle cell anaemia (d) all of the above
4. The given figure is a h ighly simplified 7. Identify the type of inheritance shown in the
representation of the human sex chromosomes diagram.
from a karyotype. The gene a and b could be of
Gene a
Gene b
(a) colour blindness and body height.

(a) dominant X-linked
(b) attached ear lobe and Rhesus blood group.
(c) haemophilia and red-green colour blindness. (b) recessive X-linked
(d) phenylketonuria and haemophilia. (c) dominant Y-linked
5. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given (d) recessive Y-linked
below and select the correct conclusion which 8. Following is a pedigree for albinism (aa). What
can be drawn for the character. is the probability of II -1 to be a heterozygous ?
I
II 1 2 3
(a) The female parent is heterozygous.
III
1 1 7. Assertion : Mendel was successful in his

(a) (b) hybridization.
3 2
Reason : Garden pea proved ideal experimental
2 1 material.
(c) (d) 8. Assertion : In a monohybrid cross, F 1
3 4
generation indicate dominant characters.
Reason : Dominance occurs only in
Assertion/ Reason : heterozygous state.
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. Matching Based Questions :
While answering these questions you are required to DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
choose any one of the following five responses. (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. Column I can have correct matching with one
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. which ONLY ONE is correct.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false 1. Column-I Column-II
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. A. ABO blood groups I. Dihybrid cross
1. Assertion : The genetic complement of an B. Law of segregation II. Monohybrid cross
organism is called genotype. C. Law of Independent III. Base pairs
Reason : Genotype is the type of hereditary assortment substitution
properties of an organism. D. Gene mutation IV. Multiple allelism
2. Assertion : Haemophilia is a recessive sex linked (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
disease.
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Reason : Haemophilia occurs due to mutation
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
of a structural gene on chromosome 15.
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
3. Assertion : Persons suffering from haemophilia
fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.
A. Turner syndrome I. Trisomy
Reason : Prothrombin producing platelets in
B. Linkage II. AA + XO
such persons are found in very low concentration.
C. Y-chromosome III. Morgan
4. Assertion : DNA is associated with proteins.
D. Down's syndrome IV. Testis determining
Reason : DNA binds around histone proteins
factor
that form a pool and the entire structure is called
a nucleosome. (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
5. Assertion : Cross of F1 individual with recessive (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
homozygous parent is test cross. (c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
Reason : No recessive individual are obtained (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
in the monohybrid test cross progeny. 3. Column -I Column -II
6. Assertion : In Mirabilis, selfing of F1 pink A. Monoploidy I. 2n – 1
flower plants produces same phenotypic & B. Monosomy II. 2n + 1
genotypic ratio. C. Nullisomy III. 2n + 2
Reason : Flower colour gene shows incomplete D. Trisomy IV. 2n – 2
dominance. E. Tetrasomy V. n
VI. 3n
B-170 BIOLOGY
(a) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – III 7. Column-I Column-II

(b) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III A. Autosomal I. Down’s syndrome
(c) A – VI; B – V; C – III; D – IV; E – II recessive trait
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – VI; E – V B. Sex-linked II. Phenylketonuria
4. Column -I Column -II recessive trait
A. Incomplete dominance I. Drosophila C. Metabolic error III. Haemophilia
B. Mendelian disorder II. Antirrhinum sp. linked to autosomal
C. Transforming principle III. Griffith recessive
D. Dihybrid cross IV. Haemophilia D. Additional 21st IV. Sickle cell
chromosome anaemia
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
5. Column -I Column -II 8. Match column-I (Definition) with column-II
A. Alfred Sturtevant I. Mapped position of (Terms) and select the correct option from the
genes codes given below.
B. Henking II. X-body Column-I Column-II
C. Meischer III. Nuclein (Definition) (Terms)
D. Morgan IV. Dihybrid crosses in A. A single trait controlled I. Pleiotropy
Drosophila by three or more than
(a) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II three alleles
B. A single trait controlled II. Multiple alleles
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
by three or more than
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
three genes
(d) A – III; B – II; C – V; D – I C. A single gene exhibits III. Polygenic
6. Match the symbols used in human pedigree multiple phenotypic inheritance
analysis (given in column-I) with their name expression
(given in column-II) and choose the correct (a) A – II; B – III; C – I
option. (b) A – III; B – II; C – I
Column -I Column -II (c) A – I; B – II; C – III
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III
A. I. Consanguineous mating
B. II. Normal female Critical Thinking Type Questions
1. Harmful mutations does not get eliminated from
C. III. Mating gene pool because
(a) they are recessive and carried by homozygous
D. IV. Affected female individuals.
(b) they are recessive and carried by
heterozygous individuals.
(c) they are formed repeatedly.
E. V. Parents with male child (d) they show genetic drift.
affected with disease 2. In a normal couple, half the sons are haemophilic
VI. Sex unspecified while half the daughters are carriers. The gene
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV responsible for it is located on
(b) A – II; B – I; C – VI; D – III; E – IV (a) X-chromosome of father.
(b) Y-chromosome of father.
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
(c) one X-chromosome of mother.
(d) A – III; B – I; C – VI; D – V; E – IV (d) both the X-chromosomes of mother.
3. According to the law of independent assortment 7. In Down’s syndrome, karyotyping has shown
in a dihybrid cross that the disorder is associated with trisomy of
(a) there are four genotypes in F2. chromosome number 21 usually due to
(b) F2 contains 16 phenotypes. (a) non-disjunction during egg formation.
(b) non-disjunction during sperm cell
(c) there is a single individual which is
formation.
homozygous recessive for both the
(c) addition of extrachromosome during
characters.
cleavage of zygote.
(d) it is not possible to forecast the different
(d) non-disjunction durin g egg cells
phenotypes.
production and sperm production.
4. In case of codominance, the offsprings of F1 8. In genetics the term test cross means
generation have the trait (a) the crossing of F 1 individual with
(a) of either of two parents. homozygous recessive.
(b) of both the parents. (b) crossing an F1 individual with either of the
(c) of none of the parents. two parents.
(d) in between the traits of two parents. (c) crossing F1 individual with another F1
5. Regarding ABO blood group, if one parent is individual.
homozygous and other is heterozygous, what (d) crossing F1 individual with that of F2.
are the chances that their child will have ‘O’ blood 9. How would you test a pea plant whether it is a
group? pure or hybrid for tallness ?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (a) Cross the pea plant with another tall pea
(c) 75% (d) Zero plant of unknown genotype.
6. Which one of the following correctly represents (b) Cross the pea plant with a pure tall pea
the nature of blood in the ABO system of blood plant.
groups pertaining to the presence of antigens (c) Cross the pea plant with a homozygous
and antibodies? dwarf pea.
(a) Blood group A –Antibody A and antigen B (d) Cross the pea plant with any pea plant.
(b) Blood group B–Antigen B and antibody A
(c) Blood group AB–Both antibodies A and B
(d) Blood group O–No antigens and no
antibodies
B-172 BIOLOGY
28
Molecular Basis of
Inheritance
Fill in the Blanks : 3. When the small subunit of the ribosome
encounters an mRNA the process of translation
1. The transcription complex includes _____ and begins.
_____. 4. HGP was coordinated by US Department of
2. After an mRNA molecule is transcribed from a Energy and the National Institute of Health.
eukaryotic gene, portions called ____ are 5. The 23SrRNA acts as a catalyst for the formation
removed and the remaining ____ are spliced of peptide bond in prokaryotes.
together to produce an mRNA molecule with a 6. RNA was the first genetic material to evolve in
continuous coding sequence. the living systems.
3. Consider Griffith’s experiments on transformation 7. Eukaryotes have split gene arrangement.
in Streptococcus pneumoniae. Now imagine that 8. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for
you are extending these experiments by injecting protein.
a mixture of heat-killed strain R bacteria and live 9. Heterochromatin is the most highly condensed
strain S bacteria into a mouse. The result will be form of chromatin.
that the mouse will _______, and you will find
live strain _______ bacteria in its blood. Conceptual MCQs :
4. The genetic disorder Xeroderma Pigmentosum 1. DNA replication is
(XP) is a tragic example of the failure of DNA (a) conservative and discontinuous
repair mechanisms. Specifically, XP patients
(b) semiconservative and semidiscontinuous
possess a _______ allele that produces a
nonfunctional protein whose job it would (c) semiconservative and discontinuous
normally be to repair DNA damage caused by (d) conservative
_______. 2. The translation termination triplet is
5. DNA replication is an ______ process and (a) UAU (b) UAA
______ energy. (c) UAC (d) UGC
6. The central dogma of molecular biology states 3. A nucleotide is formed of
that _____ is transcribed into _____ which is (a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
translated into _____. (b) purine, sugar and phosphate
7. Segments of mRNA removed during splicing are (c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
called ______. (d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
4. The process of transfer of genetic information
True / False : from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA
1. DNA polymerase can synthesize mRNA in the 3' is
to 5' direction. (a) transversion (b) transcription
2. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short (c) translation (d) translocation
DNA segments.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance B-173
5. The process of translation is (c) The lac operon is induced

(a) ribosome synthesis (d) E.coli cells stop dividing
(b) protein synthesis 14. Okazaki fragments are seen during
(c) dNA synthesis (a) transcription (b) translation
(d) rNA synthesis (c) replication (d) transduction
6. During DNA replication, the strands separate 15. T.O. Diener discovered a:
by (a) free infectious DNA
(a) DNA polymerase (b) infectious protein
(b) topoisomerase (c) bacteriophage
(c) unwindase/Helicase (d) free infectious RNA
(d) gyrase 16. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a
defined order in a transcription unit is called:
7. Because most of the amino acids are represented
by more than one codon, the genetic code is (a) tailing
(b) transformation
(a) overlapping (b) wobbling
(c) capping
(c) degenerate (d) generate
(d) splicing
8. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
17. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and
(a) Griffith discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is
(b) Watson a ‘triplet’
(c) Boveri and Sutton (a) Hershey and Chase
(d) Hershey and Chase (b) Morgan and Sturtevant
9. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in (c) Beadle and Tantum
eucaryotes) is (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(a) GUA (b) GCA 18. Select the two correct statements out of the four
(c) CCA (d) AUG (a–d) given below about lac operon.
10. Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix (i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
in form of replication fork is repressor and inactivate it
(a) DNA gyrase (ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor
(b) DNA polymerase I binds with the operator region
(c) DNA ligase (iii) The z-gene codes for permease
(d) DNA topoisomerase (iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
11. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is Jacque Monod
transcribed over mRNA as The correct statements are:
(a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
12. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
19. Satellite DNA is useful tool in:
(a) lactose (b) promoter gene
(a) organ transplantation
(c) b -galactosidase (d) I-gene (b) sex determination
13. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in normal (c) forensic science
medium with glucose. They are transferred to a (d) genetic engineering
medium containing only lactose as sugar. Which
20. Which one of the following does not follow the
of the following changes takes place?
central dogma of molecular biology?
(a) The lac operon is repressed (a) Pea (b) Mucor
(b) All operons are induced (c) Chlamydomonas (d) HIV
B-174 BIOLOGY
3. The given figure represents the double stranded

poly-nucteotide chain. Some parts are labelled
1. The given figure shows the structure of as A, B, C, D and E. Identify the correct labelling
nucleosome with their parts labelled as A, B & of A, B, C, D & E.
C. Identify A, B and C.
A B
Core of histone molecules
(a) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; (a) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine,

C – Histone octamer C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end,
(b) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; E–Purine base
C – Histone octamer (b) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purin e base,
(c) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end,
C – H1 histone E–Pyrimidine
(d) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; (c) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine,
C – Histone octamer |C–Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end,
2. Name the types of synthesis A and B occurring E–Purine base
in the replication fork of DNA as shown below. (d) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purin e base,
5¢ 3¢ C–Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D– 5' end,
Template DNA E– Pyrimidine
(parental strands) 4. The diagram given below shows an important
concept (proposed by C) in the genetic
sis implication of DNA. The process occuring in
B
he
Sy
nt that concept are marked as A and B. Identify A,

n
Sy
th
es
A B and C.
is
3¢ 5¢
5¢ 3¢ A B
DNA mRNA Protein
(a) A - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of
leading strand); B - Discontinuous (a) A-Translation, B - Transcription, C-Erwin
synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand). Chargaff
(b) A - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of (b) A-Transcription, B - Translation, C-Francis
leading strand); B - Continuous synthesis Crick
(synthesis of lagging strand). (c) A-Translation, B - Extension, C-Rosalind
(c) A- Continuous synthesis (synthesis of Franklin
lagging strand); B - Discontin uous (d) A-Transcription, B - Replication, C-James
synthesis (synthesis of leading strand). Watson
(d) A - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of 5. Which one of the following correctly represents
lagging strand); B - Continuous synthesis the manner of replication of DNA ?
(synthesis of leading strand).
5'
3'
(a) 3'
5' A
B
5'
3'
3'
5'
(b) 5' C
3' (a) A – 3.4 nm, B – 0.34 nm, C – 2 nm
(b) A – 34 nm, B – 3.4 nm, C – 20 nm
3' (c) A – 3.4 Å, B – 0.34 Å, C – 20 Å
5'
(d) A – 34 Å, B – 3.4 Å, C – 2 Å
3'
5' 7. Given diagram represents the schematic structure
of a transcription unit with some parts labelled
(c) 5' as A, B, C and D. Select the option which shows
3' its correct labelling.
5' Transcription start site
3' A B
3' C
3¢ 5¢
5' D
5¢ 3¢
(d) 5'
3' A B C D
(a) Terminator Promoter
Template Coding
3'
strand strand
5'
(b) Promoter Terminator Coding Template
6. Given figure represent the DNA double helix
strand strand
model, proposed by Watson and Crick (1953).
(c) Promoter Terminator Template Coding
Select the option that shows correct strand strand
measurement of A, B and C marked in the figure. (d) Terminator Promoter Coding Template
strand strand
8. The given figure shows lac operon model and its functioning. Select the option which correctly labels A,
B, X, Y and Z marked in the figure and also identify the label which is primarily responsible for the
hydrolysis of the disaccharide, lactose, into galactose & glucose.
P i p o z y a
Transcription
mRNA
A X Y Z
B
A B X Y Z L
(a) Repressor Inducer b-Galacto-sidase Permease Trans-acetylase X
(b) Repressor Inducer Permease b-Galacto-sidase Trans-acetylase Y
(c) Inducer Repressor b-Galacto-sidase Permease Trans-acetylase Z
(d) Inducer Repressor b-Galacto-sidase Trans-acetylase Permease B
B-176 BIOLOGY
8. Assertion : In case of incomplete linkage, linked

Assertion/ Reason : gene show new combination along with parental
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-9): These questions consist of combination.
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. Reason : In case of incomplete linkage, linked
While answering these questions you are required to genes are separated by crossing over.
choose any one of the following five responses. 9. Assertion: Aneuploidy may be of hypoploidy or
hyperploidy type.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the Reason: Monosomy lacks one pair of chromo-somes.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason Matching Based Questions :
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A,
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (1, 2,
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column
1. Assertion: Clones are produced by sexual I can have correct matching with one statement given
reproduction. in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c)
Reason: These are prepared by group of cells and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
descended from many cells or by inbreeding of
a heterozygous line. 1. Column - I Column - II
2. Assertion: mRNA attaches to ribosome through (A) Helicase I. Joining of
its 3' end. nucleotides
Reason: The mRNA has F-capsular nucleotide (B) Gyrase II. Opening of DNA
and bases of lagging sequence. (C) Primase III. Unwinding of
3. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur DNA
in the nucleus but translation in the cytoplasm. (D) DNA polymerase III IV. RNA priming
Reason : m-RNA is transferred from the nucleus (a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
acids are available for protein synthesis.
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
4. Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
human genes are often transferred into bacteria
(prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
A. Splicing I. Lac operon
Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very
fast to form huge population which expresses (B) Okazaki fragments II. Lagging strands
the desired gene. (C) Jacob and Monad III. Lactose
5. Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation (D) Inducer IV. Removal of intron
may not even develop beyond the zygote. (a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
Reason: All types of gene mutations are lethal. (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
6. Assertion: Polytene chromosomes have a high (c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
amount of DNA. (d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
Reason: Polytene chromosomes are formed by 3. Column - I Column - II
repeated replication. (A) Operator site I. Binding site for
7. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur RNA polymerase
in the nucleus but translation occurs in the (B) Promoter site II. Binding site for
cytoplasm. repressor molecule
Reason : m RNA is transferred from the nucleus (C) Structural gene III. Codes for enzyme
into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino protein
acids are available for protein synthesis. (D) Regulator gene IV. Codes for repressor
molecules
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV 7. Column - I Column - II

(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(A) b -galactosidase I. Joining of DNA
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II fragments
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV (B) Permease II. Peptide bond
4. Column - I Column - II formation
(A) Termination I. Aminoacyl tRNA (C) Ligase III. Hydrolysis of
synthetase lactose
(B) Translation II. Okazaki fragments (D) Ribozyme IV. Increase
(C) Transcription III. GTP dependent permeability of
release factor -galactosidase
(D) DNA replication IV. RNA polymerase (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (d) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV 8. Column-I Column-II
5. Column - I Column - II (A) F. Meischer I. DNA double helix
(A) Griffith I. Nucleoid (B) Griffith II. Nuclein
(B) Hershey and Chase II. Active chromatin (C) Hershey and III. S. pneumoniae
(C) Prokaryotic DNA III. Transduction Chase
(D) Watson and Crick IV. Bacteriophages
(D) Euchromatin IV. Transformation
(E) Wilkins and V. X-ray diffraction
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II Franklin studies
(a) A – II; B – III; C –IV; D – I; E – V
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(b) A – V; B – IV; C –III; D – I; E – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(c) A – I; B – III; C –IV; D – II; E – V
(d) A – I; B – IV; C –III; D – II; E – V
(Codons) (Amino acids) Critical Thinking Type Questions
(A) UUU I. Serine
1. In tertiary structure of DNA, what is a histone
(B) GGG II. Methionine octamer ?
(C) UCU III. Phenylalanine (a) A complex consisting of eight positively
(D) CCC IV. Glycine charged histone proteins (two of each H2A,
H2B, H3 and H4) that aid in the packaging
(E) AUG V. Proline
of DNA.
(b) A complex consisting of eight negatively
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II charged histone proteins (two of each H2A, H2B,
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II H3 and H4) that aid in the packaging of DNA.
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II (c) A complex consisting of nine positively
charged histone proteins (H1 and two of
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) that aid in the
packaging DNA.
B-178 BIOLOGY
(d) A complex consisting of nine negatively 6. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15 N is
charged histone proteins (H1 and two of allowed to grow in 14N medium. The two strands
each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) that aid in the of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria
packaging of DNA. have
2. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine because (a) different density and do not resemble with
(a) DNA is negatively charged. their parent DNA.
(b) DNA is positively charged. (b) different density but resemble with their
(c) DNA has no charge. parent DNA.
(d) DNA is polar molecule. (c) same density and resemble with their parent
3. The most abundant type of RNA in the cell is DNA.
(a) r RNA (b) mRNA (d) same density but do not resemble with their
(c) t RNA (d) hn RNA parent DNA.
4. In terms of DNA and RNA structure, what is a 7. Which step of translation does not consume high
nucleotide ? energy phosphate bond?
(a) A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base. (a) Translocation
(b) A nucleotide is a sugar molecule covalently
(b) Peptidyl transferase reaction
bonded to a heterocyclic base.
(c) Amino acid activation
(c) A nucleotide is a sugar molecule bonded
(d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to A-site
to phosphate group and a heterocyclic base.
(d) A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base bonded 8. During elongation of polypeptide chain, sigma
to phosphate group. factor is
5. DNA exists in a double-stranded form whereas (a) functionless.
RNA is mainly a single stranded molecule. (b) retained for specific function.
What is the likely reason for DNA being double (c) released for re-use.
stranded ? (d) required during closing of chain.
(a) RNA strands cannot form base pairs. 9. Operon is a
(b) Double stranded DNA is a more stable (a) sequence of thr ee nitrogen bases
structure. determining a single amino acid.
(c) DNA cannot exist in the single stranded form. (b) set of closely placed genes regulating a
(d) It is easier to replicate double stranded DNA metabolic pathway in prokaryotes.
than single stranded RNA. (c) segment of DNA specifying a polypeptide.
(d) gene responsible for switching on and
switching off other genes.
29 Evolution
Fill in the Blanks : 6. The skull of modern human resembles more

closely to baby chimpanzee than to adult
1. The life appeared about ___________ million chimpanzee.
yrs. after the formation of earth. 7. Earth was formed about 4.6 million years ago.
2. _________ proposed the theory of abiogenesis. 8. Changes in allelic frequency in a population will
3. Our galaxy named, _________ is _________ lead to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
in shape.
Conceptual MCQs :
4. According to ___________ the earth is about
4000 yrs. old. 1. Evolution is
(a) progressive development of a race
5. The first cellular form of life originated about
(b) history and development of a race
___________ million yrs. ago.
alongwith variations
6. _________ theory believed that life originated (c) history of a race
on some other planet, and later got transferred (d) development of a race
on to earth. 2. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time
7. Experimental proof for the modern theory of of origin of life ?
origin of life was given by _________ He used (a) NH3 (b) H2
the gases ___________ with water vapours for (c) O2 (d) CH4
synthesis of complex organic compounds. 3. Evolutionary convergence is development of
8. Protenoid, the first living molecule, was named (a) common set of characters in group of
___________ by A. I. Oparin. different ancestry
9. ___________ and ___________ worked out (b) dissimilar characters in closely related
independently on the origin of life and supported groups
the theory of chemical evolution. (c) common set of characters in closely related
groups
True / False : (d) random mating
4. Theory of natural selection dwells on
1. Adaptative ability has a genetic basis (a) role of environment in evolution
2. Louis Pasteur belived that life appeared only from (b) natural selection acting on favourable
pre-existing life. variations
3. The thorns in Bougainvillea and tendrils in (c) changes in gene complex resulting in
cucurbits represent divergent evolution. heritable variations
(d) none of these
4. The similarity in the eyes of Octopus and
5. Genetic drift is change of
monkeys is the result of convergent evolution.
(a) gene frequency in same generation
5. The white-winged moths were completely wiped (b) appearance of recessive genes
out after industrialization.
B-180 BIOLOGY
(c) gene frequency from one generation to next 14. Among the human ancestors the brain size was
(d) none of the above more that 1000 cc in
6. Which one is irrelevant to evolution of man? (a) Homo erectus
(a) Perfection of hand for tool making (b) Ramapithecus
(b) Change of diet from hard nuts/roots to soft (c) Homo habilis
food (d) Homo neanderthalensis
(c) Increased ability to communicate or 15. Peripatus is a connecting link between:
develop community behaviour (a) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(d) Loss of tail (b) Annelida and Arthropoda
7. Homologous organs are (c) Coelenterata and Porifera
(a) wings of insects and Bat (d) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
(b) gills of Fish and lungs of Rabbit 16. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:
(c) pectoral fins of Fish and fore limbs of Horse (a) Industrial melanism
(d) wings of Grosshopper and Crow (b) Connecting link
8. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all (c) Adaptive radiation
vertebrates, supports the theory of (d) Convergent evolution
(a) biogenesis (b) recapitulation 17. What was the most significant trend in the
(c) metamorphosis (d) organic evolution evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from
9. The homologous organs are those that show his ancestors?
similarity in (a) Shortening of jaws
(a) size (b) origin (b) Binocular vision
(c) function (d) appearance (c) Increasing cranial capacity
10. Genetic drift operates only in
(d) Upright posture
(a) smaller populations
18. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000
(b) larger populations
years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa,
(c) mendelian populations
With short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating
(d) island populations
fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky
11. Which of the following are homologous organs?
bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was
(a) Wings of birds and locust
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral fins
(b) Neanderthal human
of fish
(c) Wings of bat and butterfly (c) Cro-magnan humans
(d) Legs of frog and cockroach (d) Ramapithecus
12. Which one of the following sequences was 19. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic (a) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum
evolution ? sativum.
(a) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, (b) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening
constancy of population size Primrose.
(b) Overproduction, variations, constancy of (c) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele
population size, natural selection frequencies in a population.
(c) Variations, constancy of population size, (d) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide
overproduction, natural selection variety of organisms during sea voyage.
(d) Overproduction, constancy of population 20. Which of the following cannot be explained by
Lamarckism?
size, variations, natural selection
(a) Absence of lips in snakes
13. Convergent evolution is illustrated by
(b) Long neck of giraffe
(a) dogfish and whale
(c) Degeneration of visual apparatus in cave
(b) rat and dog
dwellers
(c) bacterium and protozoan
(d) Dull progeny of noble laureate
(d) starfish and cuttle fish
Evolution B-181
3. Following is the diagrammatic representation of

the operation of natural selection of different
1. The given diagram r epresents Miller's traits. Which of the following options correctly
experiment. Choose the correct combination of identifies all the three graphs A, B and C
labelling A, B , C, D and E.
Peak gets
A higher
and
narrower
Spark discharge (A)
Mixture of Phenotypes
Medium-
sized
gases
Number of individuals
D favoured individuals
with phenotype
by natural are favoured
(B) Water out selection
Water in
(B)
Two peaks form

Water containing
Boiling organic compound
water C (C)
(a) A–Electrodes, B– NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4,

A B C
C– liquid water in trap, D–vacuum pump
(b) A– Electrodes, B–NH4 + H2 + CO2 + CH3, (a) Directional Stabilizing Disruptive
C– liquid water in trap, D – Vacuum pump (b) Stabilizing Directional Disruptive
(c) A– Electrodes, B–NH3 + H2O, C–liquid
water in trap, D – Tap (c) Disruptive Stabilizing Directional
(d) A– Electrodes, B–NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4, (d) Directional Disruptive Stabilizing
C – liquid water in trap, D– Vacuum pump 4. The given figure shows an example of
2. The given diagram of marsupials of Australia
provides an example of
Tasmanian
Flying Tendril
wolf
phalanger Banded anteater
Australian
Marsupials
Marsupial rat
Koala (a) homologous organs
Kangaroo
(b) convergent evolution
(a) convergent evolution (c) divergent evolution
(b) parallel evolution (d) both (a) and (c)
5. The diagram given below shows the skull of two
(c) recapitulation
different mammals. Which of the following
(d) divergent evolution accurately describes the differences between
these skulls?
B-182 BIOLOGY
Which statement best explains the variation in

the beaks of these four species?
(a) Over time, an abundance of seeds for food
led to increased similarities between the
species.
(b) Over time, an abundance of seeds for food
A B
led to increased differences between the
(a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B. species.
(b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull (c) Competition of limited food resources led
B. to selection for similar traits.
(c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an (d) Competition for limited food resources led
ape. to selection for different traits.
(d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human.
6. The given bones in the forelimbs of three Assertion/ Reason :
mammals figure shows.
For these mammals, the number, position, and
shape of the bones must likely indicates that (e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
they may have 1. Assertion: We have lost all the direct evidence
(a) developed in a common environment. of origin of life.
(b) developed from the same earlier species.
(c) identical genetic makeup. Reason: The persons responsible for protecting
(d) identical methods of obtaining food. evidences were not skilled.
7. The diagram below shows four species of birds 2. Assertion : Ginkgo biloba is a living fossil.
that evolved from an ancestral species that had
a small pointed beak. Today, all four species Reason : Organism which have persisted and
inhabit the same island. remain unchanged for the past several million
years while their relatives disappeared.
3. Assertion : Among the primates, chimpanzee is
the closest relative of the present day humans.
Reason : The banding pattern in the autosome
numbers 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee is
remarkably similar.
Evolution B-183
4. Assertion : From evolutionary point of view,

human gestation period is believed to be
shortening. DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
Reason : One major evolutionary trend in (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
humans has been the larger head undergoing (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
relatively faster growth rate in the foetal stage. Column I can have correct matching with one
5. Assertion : Natural selection is the outcome of
differences in survival and reproduction among
individuals that show variation in one or more
traits. 1. Column - I Column - II
Reason : Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to (A) Mutation I. Change in population’s
become more common; less adaptive ones allele frequencies due to
become less common or disappear. chance alone.
6. Assertion : Coacervates are believed to be the (B) Gene flow II. Differences in survival
precursors of life. and reproduction among
Reason : Coacervates were self-duplicating variant individuals.
aggregates of proteins surrounded by lipid
(C) Natural III. Immigration, emigration
molecules.
7. Assertion : The earliest organisms that appeared selection change allele frequencies.
on the earth were non-green and presumably (D) Genetic drift IV. Source of new alleles.
anaerobes. (a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
Reason :The first autotrophic organisms were
(b) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
the chemoautotrophs that never released
oxygen. (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
8. Assertion : Human ancestors never used their (d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
tails and so the tail expressing gene has 2. Column-I Column-II
disappeared in them.
(A) Human embryos I. Chemical evolution
Reason : Lamarck's theory of evolution is
popularly called theory of continuity of germ have gill
plasm. (B) Oparin and II. Stimulation
9. Assertion : Comparative biochemistry provides Haldane experiment
a strong evidence in favour of common ancestory (C) Miller and Urey III. Wings of bird and
of living beings.
butterfly
Reason : Genetic code is universal.
(D) Analogous IV. Ontogeny repeats
10. Assertion : Darwin's finches show a variety of
beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying organs phylogeny
insects and cactus seeds. (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin's (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
finches radiated out from South American
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
mainland to different geographical areas of the
Galapagos Islands, where they found (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
competitor-free new habitats.
B-184 BIOLOGY
3. Column-I Column-II (D) Industrial IV. Co-proposer of

(Name of the Scientist) (Contributions) melanism Natural selection
(A) Charles Darwin I. Mutation theory (a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(B) Lamarck II. Germ plasm theory (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(C) Hugo de Vries III. Philosophie (c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Zoologique (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(D) Ernst Haeckel IV. The Origin of
species Critical Thinking Type Questions
(E) August Weismann V. Biogenetic law 1. Which one of the following describes correctly
VI. Essay on the homologous structures?
population (a) Organs that have no function now, but had
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – II an important function in ancestors.
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – VI (b) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage
(c) A – IV; B – VI; C – V; D – III; E – I and disappearing later in the adult.
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – II (c) Organs with anatomical similarities, but
4. Column-I Column-II performing different functions.
(A) Mesozoic I. First amphibians (d) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but
(B) Devonian II. Proliferation of reptiles performing same function.
(C) Palaeocene III. Raise of modern 2. Select the correct order of geological time
mammals scale of earth.
(D) Permian IV. Radiation of primitive (a) Palaeozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Coenozoic
mammals (b) Archaeozoic ® Palaeozoic ® Proterozoic
V. 160 million years (c) Palaeozoic ® Mesozoic ® Coenozoic
(a) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II (d) Mesozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Proterozoic
(b) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – II 3. The first organisms were
(c) A – V; B – I; C – II; D – III (a) chemoautotrophs
(d) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) chemoheterotrophs
5. Column-I Column-II (c) autotrophs
(A) Saltation I. Darwin (d) eukaryotes
(B) Formation of life II. Louis Pasteur 4. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted
was preceded to different feeding habits on the Galapagos
(C) Reproductive fitness III. de Vries Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides
(D) Life comes from IV. Oparin and evidence for
pre-existing life haldane (a) intraspecific variations
(b) intraspecific competition
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(c) interspecific competition
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) origin of Species by natural selection
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
5. According to Oparin, which one of the following
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
was not present in the primitive atmosphere of
the earth?
(A) Wallace I. Essay on population
(a) Methane (b) Oxygen
(B) Malthus II. Biston
(c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
(C) Hardy-weinberg III. p2 + q2 + 2pq =1
law
Evolution B-185
6. Evolution of different species in a given area (c) reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian.
starting from a point and spreading to other (d) reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic.
geographical areas is known as. 9. Archaeopteryx is known as missing connecting link
(a) adaptive radiation because it is a fossil and shows the characters of
(b) natural selection (a) fishes and amphibians.
(c) migration (b) birds and reptiles.
(d) divergent evolution (c) reptiles and mammals.
7. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different (d) chordates and nonchordates.
patterns of structure, yet they perform similar 10. The shape of the heals of Darwins finches,
function. This is an example of industrial melanism, or the changes in horse teeth
(a) Homologous organs that have evolved due are all examples of
to divergent evolution. (a) artificial selection.
(b) Analogous organs that have evolved due (b) natural selection.
to convergent evolution. (c) convergent evolution.
(c) Analogous organs that have evolved due (d) homologous structures.
to divergent evolution. 11. Stabilizing selection favours
(d) Homologous organs that have evolved due (a) both extreme forms of a tract.
to convergent evolution. (b) intermediate forms of a tract.
8. Fossil remains of Archaeopteryx indicates that (c) environmental differences.
(a) it was a flying reptile from Triassic. (d) one extreme form over the other extreme
(b) it was a flying reptile from Permian. form and over intermediates forms of a tract.
B-186 BIOLOGY
30 Health and Disease
Fill in the Blanks : 2. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where

(a) DNA-probes are required
1. ________ is the causative agent of mad cow (b) southern bloting is done
disease. (c) alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
2. Hepatitis- B is ________ generation vaccine. (d) catalase is the key reagent
3. Prions were discovered by ________ 3. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because
4. ________ vaccine prevents from TB. it is
(a) caused by a virus.
5. ________ is used for testing typhoid fever
(b) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium.
6. Mantoux test is for ________ (c) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium.
7. Pregnancy test detects the presence of ________ (d) not an infectious disease.
hormone in urine 4. Select the correct statement with respect to
8. Kuru is commonly known as ________ diseases and immunisation?
(a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes
True / False : are damaged, the body will not produce
antibodies against a pathogen.
1. Injecting microbes during immunization induces (b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens
passive immunity. causes passive immunity.
2. Cell-mediated immune response is responsible (c) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
for graft rejection. produce hepatitis B vaccine.
3. Colostrum during initial days of lactation (d) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
provides active immunity to infant. bite is an example of active immunisation.
4. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by 5. Which one of the following acts as a
acetylation of morphine. physiological barrier to the entry of micro-
5. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver organisms in human body ?
somniferum. (a) Epithelium of urogenital tract
6. Marijuana interferes with the transmission of (b) Tears
dopamine. (c) Monocytes
(d) Skin
7. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
6. Which one of the following is categorised as a
8. Hashish causes after thought perceptions and parasite in true sense ?
hallucinations. (a) The female Anopheles bites and sucks
9. Benign tumours show the property of metastasis. blood from humans.
Conceptual MCQs : (b) Human foetus developing inside the uterus
draws nourishment from the mother.
1. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects (c) Head louse living on the human scalp as
(a) all lymphocytes (b) activator B cells well as laying eggs on human hair.
(c) cytotoxic T cells (d) T4 lymphocytes (d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest.
Health and Disease B-187
7. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually 13. Which one of the following depresses brain
show symptoms of AIDS? activity and produced feelings of calmness,
(a) When the infecting retrovirus enters host relaxation and drowsiness?
cells. (a) Morphine (b) Valium
(b) When viral DNA is produced by reverse (c) Amphetamines (d) Hashish
trancriptase. 14. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised
(c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper by administering
T-lymphocytes and damages large number (a) preformed antibodies
of these. (b) wide spectrum antibiotics
(d) Within 15 day of sexual contact with an (c) weakened germs
infected person. (d) dead germs
8. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the 15. The letter T in T -lymphocyte refers to
malarial parasite? (a) Thalamus (b) Tonsil
(a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles (c) Thymus (d) Thyroid
mosquito. 16. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick
(b) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering relief from
from malaria. (a) nausea (b) cough
(c) Spleen of infected humans. (c) headache (d) allergy
(d) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female 17. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for
Anopheles mosquito. ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same
9. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of kingdom of organisms as that of
(a) malaria (b) pneumonia (a) Taenia, a tapeworm
(c) tuberculosis (d) typhoid (b) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
(c) Rhizopus, a mould
10. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(d) Ascaris, a round worm
(a) Common cold, AIDS
18. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in :
(b) Dysentery, common cold
(a) Gut of female Anopheles
(c) Typhoid, tuberculosis
(b) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(d) Ringworm, AIDS
(c) Human RBCs
11. Which one of the following statements is (d) Human liver
correct?
19. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that :
(a) Benign tumours show the property of (a) Pneumonia is a communicable disease
metastasis. whereas the common cold is a nutritional
(b) Heroin accelerates body functions. deficiency disease.
(c) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis. (b) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
(d) Patients who have undergone surgery are attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the
given cannabinoids to relieve pain. common cold has no effective vaccine.
12. Select the correct statement from the ones given (c) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the
below? common cold is caused by the bacterium
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals make Haemophilus influenzae.
them tell the truth. (d) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
(b) Morphine is often given to persons who whereas the common cold affects nose and
have undergone surgery as a pain killer. respiratory passage but not the lungs.
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure 20. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake
and heart rate. of
(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery (a) Opium (b) Alcohol
as it stimulates recovery. (c) Tobacco (Chewing) (d) Cocaine
B-188 BIOLOGY
(c) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral

Diagram Based Questions : DNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host
1. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) given below DNA; D - New viral RNA produced
and select the right option giving their source (d) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral
and use. RNA; C - Viral RNA incorporates into host
CH3 DNA; D - New viral DNA produced
N O
CH3
3. Given figure shows the human lymphatic system
(a) O with some part marked as A, B, C and D identify
H the correct part
O
H
O
OH
A
(b)
O B
H
Molecule Source Use C

(a) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates
coca the transport
of dopamine
(b) (b) Heroin Cannabis Depressant
sativa and slows
down body
D
functions
(c) (b) Atropa Produces
Cannabinoid belladonna hallucinations (a) A - lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ),
(d) (a) Morphine Papaver Sedative and B - thymus (primary lymphoid organ), C -
somniferum pain killer spleen (secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone
2. Refer the given figure showing the mode of marrow (secondary lymphoid organ)
action of AIDS virus and identify the sequences (b) A - lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ),
labelled as A, B, C and D. B - thymus (secondary lymphoid organ), C
AIDS virus - spleen (primary lymphoid organ), D - bone
Virus infects
marrow (primary lymphoid organ)
A normal animal cell (c) A - lymph nodes (secondary lymphoid
organ), B - thymus (primary lymphoid
C organ), C-spleen (secondary lymphoid
B
organ), D - bone marrow (primary. lymphoid
D organ)
(d) A- lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ),
B - thymus (secondary lymphoid organ), C -
spleen (secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone
(a) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral marrow (secondary lymphoid organ)
DNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host
RNA; D - New viral RNA produced 4. The diagram given below shows an antibody
molecule with their parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E &
(b) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral
F. Identify the part marked as A, B, C, D, E and F.
RNA; C - Viral DNA incorporates into host
DNA; D - New viral DNA produced
A 2. Assertion : Rabies is an infection of mammals,

it involves central nervous system which may
result in paralysis and finally death.
B Reason : This is caused by neurotropic bacteria
D-chain in saliva of rabies animal.
C 3. Assertion : Cancer cells are virtually immortal
until the body in which they reside dies.
Reason : Cancer is caused by damage to genes
F E-chain regulating the cell division cycle.
Bond/Bridge 4. Assertion : Antigen can be easily recognized
because it has antigenic determinants.
(a) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region Reason : The recognition ability is innate.
(of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L- 5. Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and
Chain); D - Light polypeptide chain (L- Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal
Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H- diseases.
Chain); F - Disulfide bond. Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of
(b) A - Antigen binding site; B-Constant region diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of
fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.
(of L-Chain); C - Variable region (of L-
6. Assertion: Epstein– Barr virus is an oncovirus.
Chain); D - Light polypeptide chain (L- Reason: It stimulates the growth of cancer.
Chain); E-Heavy polypeptide chain (H- 7. Assertion: HIV infected person are prone to
Chain); F - Disulfide bond. oppurtunistic diseases.
(c) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region Reason: Immune system weakens during HIV
(of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L- infection.
Chain); D - Heavy polypeptide chain (L- 8. Assertion : Mast cells in the human body release
Chain); E - Light polypeptide chain (H- excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals
Chain); F - Hydrogen bond which cause allergic reactions.
Reason : Allergens in the environment on
(d) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region reaching human body stimulate mast cells in
(of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L- certain individuals.
Chain); D - Light polypeptide chain (L- 9. Assertion : Interferons are a type of antibodies
Chain); E - Heavy polypeptide chain (H- produced by body cells infected by bacteria.
Chain); F - Hydrogen bond Reason : Interferons stimulate inflammation at
the site of injury.
Assertion/ Reason : 10. Assertion : Organ transplantation patients are
given immunosuppressive drugs.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-13): These questions consist of Reason : Transplanted tissue has antigens
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. which stimulate the specific immune response
While answering these questions you are required to of the recipient.
choose any one of the following five responses. 11. Assertion : The antibodies separted from serum
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the are homogenous.
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. Reason : Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason immunological reagents.
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. 12. Assertion : Cocaine has a potent stimulating
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. action on central nervous system, producing a
sense of euphoria and increased energy.
Reason : It interferes with the transport of the
neuro-transmitter acetylcholine.
1. Assertion: There is no chance of malaria to a
13. Assertion : Active immunity is slow and takes
man on the bite of male Anopheles mosquito.
time to give its full effective response.
Reason: It carries a non-virulant strain of
Reason : Injecting the microbes intentionally
Plasmodium.
during immunization or infectious organisms
B-190 BIOLOGY
gaining access into body during natural infection (b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
induces active immunity. (c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
Matching Based Questions : 4. Disease Causative Mode of
organisms Infection
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (a) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements bancrofti water and
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in food
Column I can have correct matching with one (b) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 vivax Anopheles
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of mosquito
(c) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired
typhi air
1. Column-I Column-II (d) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
(components of (Description) pneumoniae infection
body defence) 5. Column I Column II
A. Active natural I. Injection of gamma A. Appearance of dry, I. Entamoeba
immunity globulins scaly lesions on histolytica
B. First line of II. Complement proteins various parts of the
defence and interferons body such as skin
C. Passive natural III. Direct contact with nails and scalp.
immunity the pathogens that B. Chronic II. Ascaris
have entered inside inflammation of lumbricoides
D. Second line of IV. Surface barriers the lymphatic
defence V. Antibodies transferred vessel of lower limbs.
through the placenta C. Fever, chills, cough, III. Haemophilus
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II headache and in severe influenzae
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V cases the lips and
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II finger nails may turn
(d) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I gray to bluish in colour
2. Column I Column II D. Constipation, IV. Wuchereria
(Drugs) (features) abdominal pain and bancrofti
A. LSD I. Euphorian effect cramps, stool with
B. Disulfiram II. Parasympatholytic excess mucous and
C. Cocaine III. Cannabis blood clots.
D. Scopolamine IV. Ergot alkaloid E. Internal bleeding, V. Microsporum
E. Hashish V. Antabuse muscular pain, fever,
(a) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III anaemia and
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – III blockage of
(c) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – III intestinal passage.
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III A B C D E
3. Column-I Column-II (a) I II III IV V
(Diseases) (Pathopen/prevention/ (b) III V II IV I
treatment) (c) III I V II IV
A. Amoebiasis I. Lassa virus (d) V IV III I II
B. Diphtheria II. Use only sterilized
food and water Critical Thinking Type Questions
C. Cholera III. DPT vaccine
D. Rabies IV. Use oral rehydration 1. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused
therapy by virus?
(a) A – II; B – III;C – IV; D – I (a) Typhoid and tetanus
(b) AIDS and syphilis 9. Which of these may cause hypothermia in

(c) Rabies and mumps humans ?
(d) Cholera and tuberculosis (a) Smoking
2. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering (b) LSD
from acquired immuno deficiency syndrome. (c) Dopamine
Which diagnostic technique will you recommend (d) Alcohol consumption
for its detection? 10. The main reason, why antibodies could not solve
(a) WIDAL (b) ELISA all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases,
(c) MRI (d) Ultrasound is the
3. Which of the following disease is caused by the (a) Development of mutant strains resistant to
member of retro-virus group? antibodies.
(a) Cancer (b) AIDS (b) Inactivation of antibodies by bacterial
(c) Dengue (d) Common cold enzymes.
4. A person suffering from a disease caused by (c) Decreased efficiency of the immune
Plasmodium experiences recurring chill and fever system.
at the time when (d) Insensitivity of the individual following
prolonged exposure to antibiotics.
(a) The sporozoites released from RBCs are
11. Which part of the brain is not affected by alcohol?
being rapidly killed and broken down inside
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
speen.
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Pons varolii
(b) The trophozoites reach maximum growth
12. Smoking addiction is harmful because it
and give out certain toxins. produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
(c) The parasite after its rapid multiplication which causes
inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the (a) reduction in oxygen transport.
stage to enter fresh RBCs. (b) retardation of growth of foetus.
(d) The micr ogametocytes and (c) increase in blood sugar level.
megagametocytes are being destroyed by (d) cancer.
the WBCs. 13. In alcoholics, liver gets damaged as it
5. Hormone produced against allergic reaction is (a) secretes more bile.
(a) epinephrine (b) stores excess of glycogen.
(b) nor-epinephrine (c) accumulates excess of fats.
(c) glucocorticoid (d) all of the above.
(d) mineralocorticocoid 14. There is a patient having a disease in which a
6. Vaccines produced through genetic engineering semi–solid material oozes out and forms a tough
are considered safe because they membrane over it in air passage. The disease is
(a) are active form of antigens. called
(b) are the least active forms. (a) diphtheria (b) pertussis
(c) contain antibodies for coat proteins only. (c) tetanus (d) TB
(d) contain antibodies against whole antigen. 15. Saline is given to a person suffering with cholera
7. If you keep the sanitary system around yourself because
sound then the disease which will not most (a) it causes lysis of bacterial cell wall.
probably break out is : (b) cholera results in severe diarrhoea leading
(a) cholera (b) malaria to loss of salts.
(c) beri-beri (d) scurvy (c) both (a) & (b)
8. In polio, the legs get paralyzed and atrophied (d) saline helps to produce antitoxins.
due to : 16. A person is injected with globulin against
(a) obstruction of muscles. hepatitis. This is
(b) death of some muscles. (a) naturally acquired active immunity.
(c) degeneration of bones. (b) naturally acquired passive immnity.
(d) shrinkage of muscles. (c) artificially acquired active immunity.
(d) artificially acquired passive immunity.
B-192 BIOLOGY
Strategies for
31 Enhancement in Food
Production
Fill in the Blanks : 4. Mutation is a sudden heritable change in a
character of an organism.
1. When breeding is between animals of the same
breed it is called ______________, while 5. The germplasm, stored in the gene bank are
crosses between different breeds are called actively utilized by breeders to develop novel
______________. varieties.
2. A branch of science that deals with the 6. In 2000, maize hybrids that had twice the amounts
maintenance of hives of honeybees for the of the amino acids, lysine and proline, compared
production of honey is called ______. to existing maize hybrids were developed.
3. 33 percent of India’s GDP (Gross Domestic 7. Single cell Spirulina can produce large
Product) comes from ______________ and quantities of food rich in protein, minerals,
employs _____________ percent of the vitamins, etc.
population. 8. Common button mushrooms are a very rich
4. The entire collection (of plants/ seeds) having source of vitamin C.
all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given 9. Pusa Sawani, a variety of Okra is resistant to
crop is called _________. collection. aphids.
5. In Abelmoschus esculentus (bhindi), resistance 10. Agriculture accounts for approximately 33% of
genes are transferred from a wild species against India's GDP and employs nearly 62% of the
yellow mosaic virus and resulted in a new variety population.
of A. Esculentus called _____ Conceptual MCQs :
6. A plant cell has potential to develop into full
plant. This property of the plant cell is called 1. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian
________ . fish ?
7. The scientific process by which crop plants are (a) Catla catla
enriched with certain desirable nutrients is called (b) Heteropneustes fossilis
________ . (c) Cyprinus carpio
8. The technique of obtaining large number of (d) Labeo rohita
plantlets by tissue culture method is called 2. The silkworm's silk is the product of
_______ . (a) cuticle of the larva
9. Protoplast of two different species are fused in (b) cuticle of the adult
_______ . (c) salivary gland of the larva
(d) salivary gland of the adult
True/ False :
3. Which one of the following is a viral disease of
1. By inbreeding, purelines cannot be evolved. poultry ?
2. Continued inbreeding, especially close (a) Coryza
inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity. (b) New castle disease
3. Haploid culture technique was developed by (c) Pasteurellosis
Guha and Maheshwari. (d) Salmonellosis.
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production B-193
4. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, 12. Heterosis is also called
vitamins and proteins is called (a) mutation (b) hybrid vigour
(a) somatic hybridisation (c) variation (d) hybrid sterility
(b) biofortification 13. Which of the following is not used as a
(c) biomagnification biopesticide ?
(d) micropropagation (a) Trichoderma harzianum
5. Three crops that contribute maximum to global (b) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
food grain production are (c) Xanthomonas campestris
(a) wheat, rice and maize (d) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) wheat, rice and barley 14. Consider the following four statements (A-D)
(c) wheat, maize and sorghum and select the option which includes all the
(d) rice, maize and sorghum correct ones only.
6. Jaya and Ratna developed for green revolution (1) Single cell Spirulina can produce large
in India are the varieties of quantities of food rich in protein, minerals,
(a) maize (b) rice vitamins etc.
(c) wheat (d) bajra (2) Body weight-wise the micro-organism
7. Himgiri developed by hybridization and selection Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able
for disease resistance against rust pathogens is to produce several times more proteins than
a variety of the cows per day.
(a) chilli (b) maize (3) Common button mushrooms are a very rich
(c) sugarcane (d) wheat source of vitamin C.
8. India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was (4) A rice variety has been developed which is
possible primarily due to very rich in calcium.
(a) hybrid seeds Options :
(b) increased chlorophyll content (a) Statements (3), (4)
(c) mutations resulting in plant h eight (b) Statements (1), (3) and (4)
reduction (c) Statements (2), (3) and (4)
(d) quantitative trait mutations (d) Statements (1), (2)
9. The technique of obtaining large number of 15. The process of RNA interference has been used
plantlets by tissue culture method is called in the development of plants resistant to
(a) plantlet culture (a) nematodes (b) fungi
(b) organ culture (c) viruses (d) insects
(c) micropropagation 16. Green revolution in India occurred during
(d) macropropagation (a) 1960.s (b) 1970.s
10. Inter generic crosses are rarely successful (c) 1980.s (d) 1950.s
through usual breeding techniques. Which of 17. In plant breeding programmes, the entire
the following may be used to achieve success in collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse
this regard? alleles for all genes in a given crop is called :
(a) Embryo culture (a) cross-hybridisation among the selected
(b) Hybridoma technology parents.
(c) Somatic hybridization (b) evaluation and selection of parents.
(d) None of the above (c) germplasm collection
11. The quickest method of plant breeding is (d) selection of superior recombinants.
(a) introduction (b) selection 18. The scientific process by which crop plants are
(c) hybridization (d) mutation breeding enriched with certain desirable nutrients is called
B-194 BIOLOGY
(a) crop protection 4. Assertion: Plant cells are totipotent.

(b) breeding Reason: A graft of a plant can generate a whole
(c) bio-fortification new individual out of just a small branch cutting.
(d) bio-remediation 5. Assertion: Hisardale is a new breed of sheep
developed in America by method of cross-
19. Desired improved varieties of economically
breeding.
useful crops are raised by
Reason: In this method, supermales of one breed
(a) migration
are mated with superior females of another
(b) biofertilizer breed.
(c) hybridization
(d) natural selection Matching Based Questions :
20. The process in which mature differentiated cells
reverse to meristematic activity to form callus is DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
called (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
(a) dedifferentiation (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
(b) differentiation Column I can have correct matching with one
(c) redifferentiation statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
(d) None of the above
Assertion/ Reason : 1. Column -I Column -II
(A) Pisciculture I. Micropropagation
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): These questions consist of (B) Apiculture II. Crop
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. production
While answering these questions you are required to (C) Tissue culture III. Rearing of
choose any one of the following five responses. fishes
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the (D) Green revolution IV. Fish-
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. production
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason E. Blue revolution V. Bee-keeping
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. (a) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D-I; E – II
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (b) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false (c) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II; E – IV
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. (d) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – IV
1. Assertion: Interbreeding is the mating of more 2. Column-I Column-II
closely related individuals within the same breed (A) Many people I. Single cell
for 4-6 generations have deficiencies proteins
Reason: Interbreeding increases homozygosity as they cannot buy
to develop a pure line animal. fruits & vegetables
2. Assertion: Animal husbandry is the industrial (B) Crops with higher II. Micropropagation
practice of breeding and raising livestock. vitamins, proteins
Reason: Dairy form management deals with and fats
(C) Growing microbes III. Somaclones
processes which improve the quality and
as the alternative
quantity of milk production
source of proteins
3. Assertion: Inbreeding is carried out in animal (D) Capacity to IV. Hidden hunger
husbandry generate plant
Reason: It increases homozygosity to develop a from a single cell
pure line animal or explant
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production B-195
(E) Production of V. Bio-fortification (c) Explant ® Cell division ® Callus ® Addi-

thousand plants tion of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristem-
through tissue culture atic property.
(F) Genetically VI. Totipotency (d) Callus ® Explant ® Cell division ® Addi-
tion of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristem-
identical plants
atic property.
(a) A – IV; B – V; C – VI; D – I; E – II; F – III 2. Which one of the following combination would
(b) A – IV; B – V; C – VI; D – I; E – III; F – II a sugarcane farmer look for in the sugarcane
(c) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – VI; E – II; F – III crop ?
(d) A – VI; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II; F – III (a) Thick stem, long internodes, high sugar
3. Column -I Column -II content and disease resistant.
(A) Semi Dwarf Wheat I. Sonalika (b) Thick stem, high sugar content and pro-
(B) Semi Dwarf Rice II. Kalyan sona fuse flowering.
(c) Thick stem, short internodes, high sugar
III. IR-8 content, disease resistant.
(d) Thick stem, low sugar content, disease re-
IV. Jaya
sistant.
V. Taichung 3. The biggest compulsion of plant breeding is
Native-1 (a) infrastructure.
VI. Ratna (b) trained manpower.
(a) A – I, III, V; B – II, IV, VI (c) transfer of genes from unrelated sources.
(b) A – III, IV, V, VI; B – I, II (d) availability of desirable gene in the crop
(c) A – I, II, IV; B – III, V, VI and its wild relatives.
(d) A – I, II; B – III, IV, V, VI 4. High milk yielding varieties of cows are obtained by
4. Column-1 Column-II (a) super ovulation
(Crop) (Resistance to
diseases) (b) artificial insemination
(A) Wheat I. Tobacco mosaic (c) use of surrogate mothers
virus and leaf curl (d) all of the above
(B) Brassica II. Bacterial blight 5. Crop improvement is possible through
(C) Cowpea III. Leaf and stripe rust (a) judicious combination of selection, intro-
(D) Cauliflower IV. White rust duction and hybridization.
(E) Chilli V. Black rot and curl (b) selection
blight black rot (c) scientific improvement of cultivated plants.
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V (d) introduction.
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I 6. In order to obtain virus-free plants through
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II tissue culture the best method is
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
(a) meristem culture
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (b) protoplast culture
(c) embryo rescue
1. Select the correct chronological order of the
events occuring during callus culture (d) anther culture
(a) Callus ® Cell division ® Explant ® Addi- 7. Which of the following is the process of
choosing parent organisms for the characteristic
tion of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristem-
that is wanted in their offspring?
atic property.
(a) Active selection
(b) Explant ® Callus ® Cell division ® Addi- (b) Reproductive selection
tion of cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristem- (c) Selective breeding
atic property. (d) None of the above
B-196 BIOLOGY
8. Which of the following is the consequence of (a) biofertilizer

plant diseases? (b) single cell protein (SCP)
(a) Reduced yield and lower quality of produce. (c) disease and insect resistant varieties
(b) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce and (d) all of the above
increased cost of production. 15. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice
(c) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce and (a) does not require chemical fertilizers and
poisonous produce. growth hormones.
(d) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce, (b) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A.
increased cost of production and (c) is completely resistant to all insect pests
poisonous produce. and diseases of paddy.
9. Sharbati sonora variety of wheat was obtained by (d) gives high yield but has no characteristic
(a) X-ray treatment. aroma.
(b) crossing with wild varieties of wheat. 16. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed
(c) hybridization between wild grasses. from pollen grains is due to
(d) irradiation of sonora 64 with gamma rays. (a) cellular totipotency
10. Plants derived sexually from the same plant are (b) organogenesis
_______while those derived from somatic tissue (c) double fertilization
from the same plant are ______________. (d) test-tube culture
(a) identical, different 17. Plants can be disease resistant by
(b) different, also different (a) breeding with their wild relatives.
(c) different, identical (b) colchicine treatment.
(d) identical, also identical (c) hormone treatment.
11. Which of the following pair of hormones are (d) heat treatment.
required for a callus to differentiate ? 18. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agri-
(a) Auxin and cytokinin cultural crops is
(b) Auxin and ethylene (a) extensive use of insecticides and pesti-
(c) Auxin and abscisic acid cides.
(d) Cytokinin and gibberellin (b) extensive mixed cropping.
12. In crop improvement programme, haploids are (c) introduction of high yielding varieties.
important because they (d) extensive use of fertilizers.
(a) require one half of nutrients. 19. Which of the following is not used for crop im-
(b) are helpful in study of meiosis. provement?
(c) grow better under adverse conditions. (a) Inbreeding
(d) form perfect homozygous. (b) Introduction
13. Which of the following techniques used in (c) Hybridization
animal biotechnology are required for the rapid (d) Mutations
multiplication and production of animals with a 20. Somaclonal variation appears in
desirable genotype ? (a) organisms produced through somatic hy-
(a) Protoplast fusion and embryo transfer. bridization.
(b) Hybrid selection and embryo transfer. (b) plants growing in highly polluted condi-
(c) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer. tions.
(d) All of the above (c) apomictic plants.
14. The way in which biotechnology is contributed (d) tissue culture raised plants.
to sustainable agriculture is
Microbes in Human Welfare B-197
Microbes in human
32 Welfare
Fill in the Blanks : found in rumen of cattle.
7. Biogas (commonly called gobar gas) is pure
1. The large vessels for growing microbes on an methane.
industrial scale are called _________ . 8. Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks
2. The chemical substances produced by some of sewage treatment plants is rich source of
microbes which can kill or retard the growth of aerobic bacteria.
other microbes are called _________ .
3. The symbiotic association between fungi and
Conceptual MCQs :
roots of higher plants is called __________ . 1. Conversion of sugar into alcohol during
4. The solids which settle after primary treatment fermentation is due to the direct action of
of sewage are called ___________ . (a) temperature
5. Methane content of biogas is _________ . (b) micro-organisms
6. The amount of oxygen required by microbes in (c) zymase
the decomposition of organic matter is called (d) concentration of sugar solution
_________ . 2. Which one of the following is not true about
7. Sewage treatment process in which part of antibiotics?
decomposer bacteria is recycled into starting of (a) First antibiotic was discovered by
the process is called __________ . Alexander Flemming.
8. Physical removal of large and small from the (b) The term 'antibiotic' was coined by S.
sewage through filtration and sedimentation is Waksman in 1942.
called _______. (c) Some persons can be allergic to a particular
9. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a antibiotic.
_______. (d) Each antibiotic is effective only against one
particular kind of germ.
True/ False : 3. Yogurt and buttermilk are produced with the use of
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Penicillium
1. Mycorrhizae are tolerant of salinity and (c) Lactobacillus (d) Aspergillus
absorption of phosphorous 4. Which one of the following is used in the
2. Organic farming utillizes genetically modified manufacture of alcohol ?
crops like Bt cotton. (a) Bacteria (b) Water molds
3. The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its (c) Yeasts (d) Slime molds
polluting potential. 5. Biogas consists of –
4. First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander (a) Carbon monoxide, methane and hydrogen.
Flemming. (b) Carbon dioxide, methane and hydrogen.
5. Each antibiotic is effective only against one (c) Carbon monoxide, ethane and hydrogen.
particular kind of germ. (d) Carbon dioxide, ethane and hydrogen.
6. Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium 6. What are the advantage of gobar gas over
B-198 BIOLOGY
conventual utilization? (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins

(a) More efficient source of energy 16. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial
(b) Used as good fertilizer infarction is normally immediately given :
(c) Reduces the chances of spreading of (a) Penicillin (b) Streptokinase
pathogens (c) Cyclosporin-A (d) Statins
(d) All of the above 17. Yeast is used in the production of
7. Sewage purification is done by (a) Citric acid and lactic acid
(a) microbes (b) fertilizers (b) Lipase and pectinase
(c) antibiotics (d) antiseptics (c) Bread and beer
8. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium (d) Cheese and butter
which can also form symbiotic association with 18. Which one of the following is an example of
the water fern Azolla is carrying out biological control of pests/diseases
(a) Anabaena (b) Tolypothrix using microbes ?
(c) Chlorella (d) Nostoc (a) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant
9. A common biocontrol agent for the control of pathogens
plant diseases is (b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust
(a) Baculovirus in Brassica
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis (c) Bt - cotton to increase cotton yield
(c) Glomus (d) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard
(d) Trichoderma 19. The domestic sewage in large cities
10. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is (a) has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum and anaerobic bacteria.
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia (b) is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic
11. Which one of the following is not used in bacteria in the secondary treatment in
organic farming? Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs).
(a) Glomus (b) Earthworm (c) when treated in STPs does not really require
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Snail the aeration step as the sewage contains
12. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising adequate oxygen.
soyabean crops is (d) has very high amounts of suspended solids
(a) Azotobacter (b) Azospirillum and dissolved salts.
(c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc 20. During sewage treatment, biogases are produced
13. Which one of the following help in absorption which include :
of phosphorus from soil by plants? (a) methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
(a) Glomus (b) Rhizobium (b) hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur
(c) Frankia (d) Anabaena dioxide
14. Which one of the following is a wrong matching (c) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
of a microbe and its industrial product, while the (d) methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon
remaining three are correct? dioxide
(a) Yeast - statins 21. A good producer of citric acid is :
(b) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid (a) Pseudomonas (b) Clostridium
(c) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid (c) Saccharomyces (d) Aspergillus
(d) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
15. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used Diagram Based Questions :
commercially in the production of :
(a) ethanol 1. The diagram below shows a typical biogas plant.
(b) streptokinase for removing clots from the With few structure labelled as A, B and C. Identify
blood vessels. A, B and C.
(c) citric acid
(a) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Oxygen, C –

Dung, water
(b) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide,
C– Dung, water
(c) A – Sludge, B – Ethylin, Carbon dioxide, C
– Dung, water
(d) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide,
C – Sewage
2. The given figure shows the sewage treatment with few steps are marked as 1, 2, 3, and 4. In which of the
following options, correct word for all the four numbers (1,2,3 and 4) are indicated-
(a) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemically agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic

(b) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanically agitation, 3 – Low, 4 – Anaerobic
(c) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemically agitation, 3 –Low, 4 – Aerobic
(d) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanically agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic
Assertion/ Reason : and less talkative.

3. Assertion : In plant tissue culture, somatic
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7): These questions consist of embryos can be induced from any plant cell.
Reason : Any viable plant cell can differentiate
into somatic embryos.
While answering these questions you are required to 4. Assertion : Cannabis sativa is a powerful anti-
choose any one of the following five responses. depressant.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the Reason : Hashish and Marijuana are derived from
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. it.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason 5. Assertion : Insect resistant transgenic cotton
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. has been produced by inserting Bt gene.
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false 6. Assertion: Interferons are effective against
viruses.
1. Assertion : A person who has received a cut
and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus Reason : Proteins which can be synthesized
treatment. only by genetic engineering are effective against
Reason : Anti-tetanus injection provides viruses.
immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus. 7. Assertion : In case of vegetatively propagated
2. Assertion : Dope test is used to estimate the crops, pure-line selection is not required.
level of blood alcohol by analyzing the breath of Reason : Hybrid vigour is mostly used in
persons drinking alcohol.
vegetatively propagated plants.
Reason : A drunken person usually feels tense
B-200 BIOLOGY

(A) Cyanobacteria I. Biopesticides
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (B) Mycorrhiza II. Solubilization of
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements phosphate
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in (C) Bacillus III. Cry protein
Column I can have correct matching with one thuringiensis
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 (D) Single cell protein IV. Rhizobia
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of (a) A and II (b) C and III
which ONLY ONE is correct. (c) C and IV (d) A and III
5. Type of Scientific Commercial
(A) Aspergillus niger I. Ethanol
(B) Clostridium II. Statins Microbe N ame Product
Bacterium A Clot buster
butydicum
(C) Saccharomyces III. Citric acid enzyme
cerevisiae B Aspergillus Citric acid
(D) Trichoderma IV. Butyric acid niger
polysporum Fungus Trichoderma C
(E) Monascus V. Cyclosporin A polysporum
purpureus Bacterium D Butyric acid
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V
(b) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III (a) A – Streptococcus, B – Fungus,
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II C – Cyclosporin-A, D – Clostridium butylicum
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II (b) A – Clostridium butylicum,
2. Column-I Column-II B – Streptococcus, C – Fungus,
(A) Lady bird I. D – Cyclosporin-A
Methanobacterium (c) A – Cyclosporin-A, B - Clostridium
(B) Mycorrhiza II. Trichoderma butylicum C – Streptococcus, D – Fungus
(C) Biological control III. Aphids (d) A – Fungus, B – Cyclosporin-A,
(D) Biogas IV. Glomus C – Clostridium butylicum,
(a) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I D - Streptococcus
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I 6. Column-I Column-II
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (A) Statins I. Yeast
(d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV (B) Ethanol II. Blood-cholesterol
3. Column-I Column-II lowering agent
(A) Escherichia coli I. ‘nif ’ gene (C) Dung III. Insect-resistant plant
(B) Rhizobium II. Digests (D) Bt-cotton IV. Biogas
meliloti hydrocarbons of (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
crude oil (b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(C) Bacillus III. Human insulin (c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
thuringiensis production (d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(D) Pseudomonas IV. Biocontrol of
putida fungal disease Critical Thinking Type Questions :
V. Biodegradable
1. Which of the following is the pair of
insecticide biofertilizers?
(a) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II
(a) Azolla and blue green algae
(b) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV
(b) Nostoc and legume
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) Rhizobium and grasses
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(d) Salmonella and E. coli
2. Microbes are diverse group which include (a) Prokaryotes

I. Bacteria II. Mosses (b) Nitrogen-fixers
III. Protozoans IV. Fungi (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, IV (d) Eukaryotes
(c) I, II (d) III, IV 10. Lactobacillus mediated change of milk to curd
3. Microbes are present in occurs due to
(a) coagulation and partial digestion of milk
I. soil II. air
fats.
III. water IV. thermal springs (b) coagulation and partial digestion of milk
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV proteins.
(c) I, II (d) III, IV (c) coagulation of milk proteins and complete
4. The following bacteria help in nitrogen fixation digestion of milk fats.
from atmosphere. (d) coagulation of milk fats and complete
I. Azotobacter II. Rhizobium digestion of proteins.
III. Azospirillum IV. Lactobacillus 11. Crystals of Bt-toxin produced by some bacteria
Identify the correct bacteria. do not kill the bacteria themselves because
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin.
(c) II, III, IV (d) I, II, III (b) toxin is inactive.
5. Which of the following is used as biofertilizer ? (c) toxin is immature.
I. Cyanobacteria (d) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sec.
II. Yeast 12. Choose the correct sequence of microbes
involved in biogas production.
III. Symbiotic bacteria
(a) Fragmentative microbes, decomposers,
IV. Free living bacteria methanogens.
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II, IV (b) Decomposers, methanogens, putrefying
(c) I, III, IV (d) II, III, IV microbes.
6. Some industrial products are given below which (c) Putrefying microbes, methanogens,
are synthesized from microbes. saprophytic microbes.
I. Antibiotics (d) Decomposers, fermentative microbes,
II. Fermented beverages methanogens.
III. Enzymes and chemicals 13. Which one of the micro-organism is used for
IV. Bioactive molecules production of citric acid in industries?
Choose the correct option. (a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (b) Penicillium citrinum
(c) I, III (d) I, II, III (c) Aspergillus niger
7. Methanogens grow anaerobically on cellulosic (d) Rhizopus nigricans
material and produces which of the following 14. A genetically engineered micro-organism used
gases ? successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
I. Methane II. Oxygen species of
III. Carbon dioxide IV. Hydrogen (a) Pseudomonas
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (b) Trichoderma
(c) II, III, IV (d) I, II (c) Xanthomonas
8. Cheese and yogurt are products of (d) Bacillus
(a) pasteurisation (b) fermentation 15. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
(c) dehydration (d) distillation used as
9. Which of the following is common to (a) biofertilizers
Azospirillum, Azotobacter, Anabaena, Nostoc (b) biometallurgical techniques
and Oscillatoria? (c) biomineralization processes
(d) bioinsecticidal plants
B-202 BIOLOGY
Biotechnology :
33 Principles and
Processes
Fill in the Blanks : 5. Selectable marker selectively permitting the
growth of the non-transformants.
1. The enzyme used for joining two DNA fragments 6. The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a
is called _______ . restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic
2. Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used in resistance genes.
_______ . 7. T-DNA transform normal plant cell into a tumor.
3. During heat shock to the bacterium, the 8. Retroviruses in animals have the ability to
temperature used for giving thermal shock is transform normal cell into cancerous cells.
_______ . 9. T plasmids of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
4. _______ is a procedure through which a piece modified into cloning vector which is more
of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. pathogenic to plants.
5. For transformation, micro-particles coated with
DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made
Conceptual MCQs :
up of _______ . 1. A genetic clone is
6. A device in which substances are treated to (a) a plant produced by asexual means.
stimulate transformation by living cells is called (b) hybrid produced by sexual means.
__________. (c) homozygous plant produced by sexual
(a) assimilator (b) digester means.
(c) bioreactor (d) agitator (d) heterozygous plant produced by sexual
7. The first restriction endonuclease reported was means.
_______ . 2. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) method is
8. The polymerase enzyme used in PCR is _______ . useful for
9. The first step in the PCR is _______ . (a) amplification of DNA for forming billions
of copies of itself .
True/False : (b) monoclonal antibody production.
1. Multiple copies of gene can be synthesized in (c) hybridoma production.
PCR. (d) All of the above
2. When cut by same restriction enzyme, the 3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic
resultant DNA fragments do not have the same engineering for
kind of sticky-ends. (a) DNA-mapping
3. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific (b) DNA-modification
sequence called recognition sites. (c) vector
4. ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling (d) DNA finger printing
the copy number of the linked DNA in cloning 4. A genetically engineered bacteria used for
vector. clearing oil spills is
Biotechnology : Principles and Processes B-203
(a) Escherischia coli 13. Which of the following is molecular scissors?

(b) Bacillus subtilis (a) EcoRI (b) Hind III
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (c) Bam H II (d) All of these
(d) Pseudomonas putida 14. The prerequisite for biotechnological production
5. Genetic engineering is of antibiotic is
(a) study of extra nuclear gene. (a) To isolate antibiotic gene
(b) manipulation of genes by artificial method. (b) To search an antibiotic producing micro-
(c) manipulation of RNA. organism
(d) manipulation of enzymes. (c) To join antibiotic gene with E.coil plasmid
6. Which of the following enzymes cut the DNA (d) all of these
molecule at specific nucleotide sequence ? 15. Restriction enzyme EcoRI always cleaves the
(a) Restriction endonuclease nitrogen sequence in DNA
(b) DNA - ligase (a) AAGCTT (b) GGATCC
(c) RNA - polymerase (c) GAATTC (d) TGGCCA
(d) Exonuclease 16. Which one of the following is used as vector for
cloning genes into higher organisms?
7. Which structure involved in genetic engineering?
(a) Baculovirus
(a) Plastid (b) Plasmid
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Codon (d) None of these (c) Rhizopus nigricans
8. Genetic engineering aims at (d) Retrovirus
(a) destroying wild gene 17. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
(b) preserving defective gene (a) make cuts at specific positions within the
(c) curing human disease by introducing new DNA molecule
gene (Haemophilia) (b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence
(d) all the above for binding of DNA ligase
9. Which of the following technique is used for (c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA
the separation of DNA fragments ? polymerase
(a) Gel electrophoresis (d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the
(b) Chromatography DNA molecule
(c) Transformation 18. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI.
(d) Transduction What does .co. part in it stand for ?
10. Which of the following is a cloning vector ? (a) colon (b) coelom
(a) Bacteriophage (b) Plasmid (c) coenzyme (d) coli
(c) Cosmid (d) All of these. 19. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length
Polymorphism are the methods for :
11. Which of the following is a tool of recombinant
(a) Study of enzymes
DNA technology ?
(b) Genetic transformation
(a) Cloning vectors (c) DNA sequencing
(b) Ligase enzymes (d) Genetic Fingerprinting
(c) Restriction enzymes 20. For transformation, micro-particles coated with
(d) All of the above DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made
12. Which of these is not correctly matched ? up of :
(a) Gene gun—bioplastics (a) Silver or Platinum
(b) Plasmids—extrachromosomal DNA (b) Platinum or Zinc
(c) DNA ligase—Biological scissors (c) Silicon or Platinum
(d) Bacteriophages—viruses. (d) Gold or Tungsten
B-204 BIOLOGY
Diagram Based Questions : (c) A-Exonuclease; B-Hydrolase; C-

Transduction
1. The given figure shows the E.Coli cloning (d) A-Restriction endonuclease; B-Ligases; C-
vector PBR322 showing restriction sites. Some Transformation
parts are labelled as A, B, C & D. Choose the 3. The given figure shows a simple stirred tank
option showing the correct labelling. bioreactor with their parts labelled as A, B, C
and D. Identify A, B, C and D.
Cla I Hind III
A
Pvu I
B A
Pst I B
C
C
tetR
pBR 322 Sal I
D
rop
D
(a) A - Motor, B-pH control, C-Foam braker, D
Pvu II - Sterile air
A B C D (b) A - pH control, B- Motor, C-Foam braker,
D-Sterile air
(a) Hind I EcoR I ampR ori
(c) A - pH control, B- Sterile air, C-Motor, D-
(b) Hind I BamH I kanR ampR Foam braker
(c) BamH I Pst I ori ampR (d) A- Motor, B-Sterile air, C-pH control, D-
(d) EcoR I BamH I ampR ori Foam braker
2. Which one of the following option is correct for 4. Identify the correct match for the given
A, B and C marked in the given diagram of apparatus.
recombinant DNA technology.
(Cutting both foreign
DNA and vector
DNA at
specific Vector
Foreign DNA point) DNA
A (plasmid)
B join foreign
DNA to plasmid
C Apparatus Function
(a) Gene gun Vectorless direct gene
E.coli
Cells
transfer
Divide (b) Column Separation of chlorophyll
chromatography pigments
(a) A-Exonuclease; B-Ligases; C- (c) Sparged stirred Carry out fermentation
Transformation tank bioreactor process
(b) A-En donuclease; B-gyrase; C- (d) Respirometer Finding out rate of
Transformation respiration
5. Identify the correct match of the technique with (a) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about
their role shown in the given figure. 98°C separating the two DNA strands.
(b) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about
Walls
50°C.
Largest Smallest
(c) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable
34
DNA polymerase.
(d) A - Annealing with two sets of primers.
2
1
Assertion/ Reason :
(a) Electrophoresis – Differential migration DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): These questions consist of
of DNA fragments two statements each, printed as assertion and reason.
(b) Column – Separation of While answering these questions you are required to
chromatography chlorophyll pigments
(c) Gene cloning – Technique of
obtaining identical (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
copies of a particular is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
DNA or a gene (c) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
segment (d) If both the assertion and reason are false
(d) Microinjection – Technique of
1. Assertion: The uptake of DNA during
introducing foreign transformation is an active, energy requiring
genes into a host cell process.
Reason: Transformation occurs in only those
6. The figure given below shows three steps (A, B,
bacteria. Which possess the enzymatic
C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select
machinery involved in the active uptake and
the option giving correct identification together recombination.
with what it represents? 2. Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology,
Region to be amplified human genes are often transferred into bacteria
(prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote). .
Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very
fast to form huge population, which express the
desired gene.
3. Assertion : Restriction enzymes cut the strand
of DNA to produce sticky ends.
Reason : Stickiness of the ends facilitates the
action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
4. Assertion : Insect resistant transgenic cotton
has been produced by inserting Bt gene.
Reason : The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
5. Assertion : “DNA finger printing” has become
a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity
of criminals in rape and assault cases.
Amplified
(~1billion times) Reason : Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva
and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.
B-206 BIOLOGY
Matching Based Questions : (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements 5. Column - I Column - II
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (A) Competent I. Thermus aquaticus
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in (B) Taq DNA II. Antibiotic
Column I can have correct matching with one polymerase
(C) Ampicillin III. Micro-injection
(D) Ethidium bromide IV. DNA staining
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(A) Plasmid I. Selectable marker
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(B) amp II. Extrachromosomal DNA
(C) Ti-plasmid III. Enzyme
(A) PCR I. Large scale culture
(D) Chitinase IV. Agrobacterium
(B) Bioreactor II. To induce alien DNA
tumefaciens
in host cell
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III (C) Gene gun III. Restriction
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III endonuclease
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II (D) EcoRI IV. Amplification of gene
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(A) Recombinant I. Vector (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
DNA technology (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(B) Cloning vehicles II. Sealing enzyme (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(C) Macromolecular III. Electrophoresis 7. Column - I Column - II
separation (A) Primers I. PCR
(D) DNA ligase IV. Genetic (B) Separation and II. C2H5OH
engineering purification of
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III products
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (C) Precipitation of III. Uptake of foreign
DNA DNAby
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
bacterium
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III (D) Transformation IV. Down stream
3. Column - I Column - II processing
(A) EcoRI I. Bacilius (a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
amyloliquefaciens
(B) Bam HI II. Haemophilus (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
influenza (c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(C) Hind III III. Escherichia coli (d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(D) pBR 322 IV. Artificial plasmid
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV Critical Thinking Type Questions :
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
1. Why the same basic techniques can be used to
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III analyze the DNA from species as diverse as
4. Column - I Column - II bacteria and humans? Because
(A) Restriction enzyme I. Jumping gene (a) all cells are identical.
(B) Transposons II. Cloning vehicle (b) every organism has the same amount of DNA.
(C) Bacteriophage III. Hind III (c) the DNA sequences of all organisms are
(D) Palindromes IV. MALAYALAM the same.
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV (d) DNA has a consistent structure in all
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III organisms.
2. A gene is said to be cloned if 8. In genetic engineering, genes can be inserted

(a) the DNA sequence of the gene is known. from one organism into another or back into the
(b) the function of the gene is known. original organism uses which of the following
(c) there is a DNA probe for the gene. techniques?
(d) the gene has been isolated and copied. (a) Polymerase chain reaction
3. Introduction of one or more genes into an (b) Gene gun
organism which normally does not possess them (c) DNA hybridization
or their deletion by using artificial means (not (d) Gel electrophoresis
by breeding) comes under a branch. called 9. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
________ . (a) DNA finger printing.
(a) molecular biology (b) Disarming pathogen vectors.
(b) cytogenetics (c) Transformation of plant cells.
(c) genetic hybridization (d) Constructing recombinant DNA molecules.
(d) genetic engineering 10. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
4. DNA fragments are separated using gel the plasmid vector became possible with
electrophoresis (a) DNA ligase
(a) because DNA is pulled through the gel (b) endonucleases
toward the negative end of the field. (c) DNA polymerase
(b) because larger DNA fragments move faster (d) exonucleases
through the gel than smaller DNA 11. Plasmid present in bacterial cells are
fragments. (a) circular double helical DNA molecules.
(c) to identify and isolate DNA fragments. (b) linear double helical DNA molecules.
(d) to synthesize DNA for cloning. (c) circular double helical RNA molecules.
5. DNA ligases are enzymes that can be used to (d) linear double helical RNA molecules.
(a) chop a large DNA molecule into small 12. What must be done before placing DNA into
fragments. the electrophoretic chamber ?
(b) copy DNA fragments. (a) It must be ground up with mortar and pestle.
(c) insert the DNA from one species into the (b) It must be cut by restriction endonucleases.
DNA of another species. (c) It must be treated with RNAase .
(d) separate DNA fragments based on their size. (d) None of the above
6. Imagine a gel through which DNA fragments have 13. Which of the following has the ability to
moved in response to an applied electrical current. transform normal cells into cancerous cells in
The band on this gel that is farthest from the top animals ?
(that is, from the place where the DNA fragments (a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
were added to the “well”) represents the (b) Retroviruses
(a) shortest fragments of DNA. (c) DNA-viruses
(b) longest fragments of DNA. (d) Plasmids
(c) restriction enzyme used to cut the DNA into 14. What are the properties of a good vector?
fragments. (a) It should be ideally more than 10 kb in size.
(d) ligase used to bind the DNA fragments (b) It should be able to replicate autonomously.
together. (c) It should have suitable marker genes.
7. A biologist intends to use a polymerase chain (d) It should not be easy to isolate and purify.
reaction to perform a genetic task. The biologist 15. A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation
probably is trying to of DNA is called
(a) discover new genes. (a) DNA replication
(b) clone a gene. (b) genetic engineering
(c) cut DNA into many small fragments. (c) denaturation
(d) isolate DNA from a living cell. (d) renaturation
B-208 BIOLOGY
Biotechnology and its

34 Applications
Fill in the Blanks : 8. DNA from one organism will not bond to DNA
from another animal.
1. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been 9. Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm infestation.
used for designing novel ___________. 10. Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in
2. Cry protein is obtained from ___________. transfer of R-DNA into the host.
3. RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been
devised to protect the plants from nematode is Conceptual MCQs :
silenced by ______ produced by the host plant. 1. Flavr Savr is the transgenic variety of
4. The first human drug made using recombinant (a) cotton (b) rice
DNA technology was ___________. (c) tomato (d) potato
5. E. coli are used in production of ___________. 2. Biopiracy is related to which of the following ?
6. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 (a) Traditional knowledge
to a 4 years old girl with enzyme deficiency of
(b) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources
___________.
genes isolated from bioresources
7. The site of production of ADA in the body is
(c) Bioresources
___________.
(d) All of the above
8. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic
library by using ___________. 3. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the
9. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive news. The prefix "Bt" means
molecule is called ___________ . (a) Barium treated cotton seeds
(b) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus
True/ False : thuringiensis.
(c) Produced by biotechnology method
1. Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus.
(d) Bigger thread variety of cotton with tensile
2. Human insulin is being commercially produced
strength.
from a transgenic species of Agrobacterium
4. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop, when
tumefaciens.
released for cultivation, it will help in
3. The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and
cry II Ab control cotton bollworms. (a) producing petrol like fuel from rice.
4. The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced (b) alleviation of vitamin A.
from transgenic Brassica napus seeds. (c) pest resistance.
5. “Flavr Savr” variety of tomato has enriched the (d) herbicide tolerance.
production of ethylene which improves its taste. 5. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
6. Golden rice, a genetically engineered rice has used for designing novel
high vitamin A (retinol) content. (a) biofertilizers
7. The current interest in the manipulation of (b) bio-metallurgical technique
microbes, plants and animal has raised serious (c) biominerallurgical process
ethical issues. (d) bioinsecticidal plants.
Biotechnology and its Applications B-209
6. The transgenic animals are those which have 14. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’
(a) foreign DNA in some cells. fermentation is done to:
(b) foreign DNA in all of their cells. (a) produce methane
(c) foreign RNA in all of their cells. (b) obtain antibiotics
(d) both (a) and (c). (c) purify enzymes
7. The transgenic plants are the plants having (d) degrade sewage
(a) no gene. 15. Consider the following statements (A-D) about
(b) genes in transposition. organic farming:
(c) genes with no function to perform. (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt
(d) genes of an other organism. cotton
8. Recombinant DNA technology can be used to (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like
produce quantities of biologically active form of compost
which one of the following products in E.coli? (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(a) Luteinizing hormone (D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and
(b) Ecdyson minerals
(c) Rifamycin Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) Interferon (a) (B), (C) and (D)
9. Which of the following combinations of risk are (b) (C) and (D) only
associated with genetically modified food ? (c) (B) and (C) only
I. Toxicity (d) (A) and (B) only
II. Allergic reaction 16. In history of biology, human genome project led
III. Antibiotic resistance in micro-organisms to the development of :
present in alimentary canal. – (a) biotechnology
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (b) biomonitoring
(c) I and III (d) II and III (c) bioinformatics
10. Which one of the following is commonly used (d) biosystematics
in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants? 17. Read the following four statements (A-D) about
(a) Meloidogyne incognita certain mistakes in two of them
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie
(c) Penicillium expansum produced milk which was human alpha-
(d) Trichoderma harzianum lactal albumin enriched.
11. What is true about Bt toxin? (B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation
(a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the of DNA from other macro-molecules.
Bacillus (C) Downstream processing is one of the steps
(b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of of R-DNA technology.
the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
multiplication. in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
(c) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins. Which are the two statements having mistakes?
(d) The inactive protoxin gets converted into (a) Statement (B) and (C)
active form in the insect gut. (b) Statement (C) and (D)
12. The most common substrate used in distilleries (c) Statement (A) and (C)
for the production of ethanol is (d) Statement (A) and (B)
(a) corn meal (b) soya meal 18. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have
(c) ground gram (d) molasses been developed by the introduction of DNA that
13. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals produced (in the host cells)
is of : (a) both sense and anti-sense RNA
(a) fish (b) mice (b) a particular hormone
(c) cow (d) pig (c) an antifeedant
(d) a toxic protein
B-210 BIOLOGY
19. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing 1. Column - I Column - II

transgenic plants resistant to: (A) Escherichia coli I. nif gene
(a) bollworms (B) Bacillus thuringiensis II. Interferon
(b) nematodes (C) Rhizobium meliloti III. Bt toxin
(c) white rusts (D) Agrobacterium IV. Vector
(d) bacterial blights tumefaciens
20. How many varieties of rice has been estimated (a) A – II; B – I; C – (IV); D – III
to be present in India? (b) A – II; B – I; C – (III); D – IV
(a) 2,000 (b) 20,000 (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(c) 200,000 (d) 2,000,000 (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Assertion/ Reason : (A) GMO I. Increased shelf
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): These questions consist of life
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. (B) Flavr - Savr tomato II. Bioresources
While answering these questions you are required to (C) Biopiracy III. rDNA
choose any one of the following five responses. (D) E.coli IV. Insulin
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the (b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. 3. Column - I Column - II
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (A) Gene therapy I. Rhizobium
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false (B) Biofertilizer II. Cry gene
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. (C) Bt cotton III. SCID
1. Assertion: Bt toxin does not kill bacteria. (D) Humulin IV. Diabetes
Reason: Bt toxin exist in inactive pro-toxin, it (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
gets activated when ingested by insects. (b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
2. Assertion: The clone having the mutated gene (c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
will not appear on the photographic film (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Reason: The probe will not be complementary 4. Column - I Column - II
with mutated gene. (A) Golden Rice I. Cry protein
3. Assertion: Plasmid is an autonomously extra (B) Bt toxin II. Rich in vitamin A
chromosomal circular DNA found in bacterial (C) RNAi III. First trangenic cow
cells. (D) Rosie IV. Gene silencing
Reason: Plasmid is a boon to biotechnology. (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
4. Assertion: Insulin is different from proinsulin. (b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
Reason: Insulin is synthesized as proinsulin.
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
5. Assertion: Second generation vaccines are
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
always safer to use.
Reason: They are produced by genetic engineering. (A) Forensic science I. AIDS
(B) ELISA II. Radioactive
Matching Based Questions : DNA/RNA
(C) Probe III. Emphysema
(D) a-1-antitrypsin IV. DNA
fingerprinting
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
which ONLY ONE is correct. (d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Biotechnology and its Applications B-211
Critical Thinking Type Questions : embryonic stages

9. Genetically engineered bacteria have been
1. Transgenic plants are the ones successfully used in the commercial production of
(a) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a (a) human insulin (b) testosterone
cell and regenerating a plant from that cell. (c) thyroxine (d) melatonin
(b) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial 10. Main objective of production/use of herbicide
medium. resistant GM crops is to
(c) grown in artificial medium after (a) eliminate weeds from the field without the
hybridization in the field. use of manual labour.
(d) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial (b) eliminate weeds from the field without the
medium. use of herbicides.
2. Transgenic animals has been successfully used (c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides.
for producing (d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio articles for health safety.
vaccine before use in humans. 11. Biotechnology deals with industrial scale
(b) transgenic models for studying new production of biopharmaceuticals and biological
treatments for certain cardiac diseases. products using genetically modified
(c) transgenic cow – rosie which produces high (a) microbes only
fat milk for making ghee. (b) fungi only
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they have (c) plants and animals only
super power. (d) all of the above
3. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing 12. Cry II Ab and cry I AC produce toxins that control
transgenic plants resistant to (a) cotton bollworms and corn borer
(a) bollworms (b) nematodes respectively.
(c) white rusts (d) bacterial blights (b) cotton borer and cotton bollworms
4. Which one of the following techniques made respectively.
it possible to genetically engineer living organism ? (c) tobacco budworms and nematodes
(a) Recombinant DNA techniques respectively.
(b) X-ray diffraction (d) nematodes an d tobacco budworms
(c) Heavier isotope labelling respectively.
(d) Hybridization 13. What is the disadvantage of using porcine
5. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown insulin (from pig) in diabetic patients?
in India by the farmers? (a) It leads hypercalcemia.
(a) Cotton (b) Brinjal (b) It is expensive.
(c) Soyabean (d) Maize (c) It may cause allergic reactions.
6. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving (d) It can lead to mutation in human genome.
the problem of night blindness in developing 14. Which technique would to be completely
countries is curative in SCID ?
(a) golden rice (b) Bt soyabean (a) Gene therapy in adult stage.
(c) flavr - savr tomato (d) starlink maize (b) Gene therapy in embryonic stage.
7. Which of these is used as vector in gene therapy (c) Bone marrow transplantation.
for SCID? (d) Enzyme replacement therapy.
(a) Arbovirus (b) Rotavirus 15. Which of the following is based upon the
(c) Retrovirus (d) Parvovirus principle of antigen-antibody interaction?
8. The genetic defect, adenosine deaminase (ADA) (a) PCR (b) ELISA
deficiency may be cured permanently by (c) r-DNA technology (d) RNA
(a) administering adenosine deaminase 16. Deliberate alteration of genome for treatment of
through injection disease is called
(b) bone marrow transplantation (a) transformation rescue
(c) enzyme replacement therapy (b) imprinting
(d) introducing isolated gene from marrow cells (c) exon shuffle
producing ADA into the cells at early (d) gene therapy
B-212 BIOLOGY
Organism and
35 Population
Fill in the Blanks : True/ False :
1. Deep (>500m) in the oceans, the environment is 1. Abiotic and biotic components interact
perpetually dark and its inhabitants are not aware constantly with each other.
of the existence of a celestial source of energy 2. Tuna fish are rarely caught beyond tropical
called_________. latitude in the ocean.
2. _____ is any attribute of the organism 3. Temperature progressively decreases from pole
(morphological physiological, behavioural) that to equator.
enables the organisms to survive and reproduce 4. Photoperiodic requirement is essential for many
in its habitat. plants for flowering.
3. _______________ is the number of individuals 5. Red algae can live in deeper water of sea because
of the population who left the habitat and gone of having pigment, phycoerythrin.
elsewhere durin g the time period under 6. All birds and mammals, and very few lower
consideration. vertebrates and invertebrates are capable of
4. _____________ in birds is an interesting osmoregulation and thermoregulation.
example of parasitism in which the parasitic bird 7. The smaller animals have larger surface area
lays its eggs in the nest of its host and the host relative to their volume.
incubates them. 8. Some xerophytic plants have special
photosynthetic pathway (CAM) that enables
5. Seagulls fiercely defend the areas around their their stomata close during day.
nests in their cliff-top breeding colonies. Within 9. Opuntia, have no leaves, they are reduced to
the colony, they would show a _____ dispersion spines.
pattern.
6. An oak tree produces thousands of acorns, but
Conceptual MCQs :
very few grow into mature oak trees. The oak tree 1. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of
exhibits a _____ survivorship curve. salinity are
7. In wild populations, individuals most often show (a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline
a _____ pattern of dispersion. (c) homeotherm (d) none of these
8. Plants are____ organisms, they frequently show 2. Diapause occurs in
a ______ spatial distribution, and their (a) algae (b) fungi
population density is most appropriately (c) phytoplanktons (d) zooplanktons
expressed in terms of ______ . 3. Water holding capacity is maximum in :
9. The maximum expansion rate of a population (a) gravel (b) silt
under the best conditions is referred to as _____. (c) clay (d) sand
There are abundant resources that last forever 4. What is wrong about xerophytes?
and no limits on growth. (a) Sunken stomata
10. 1000 A.D. to the present can be generally (b) Large number of stomata
characterized by ____ growth among human (c) Spiny leaves
populations. Hence, before 1000 AD._____ (d) Thick cuticle
growth was exhibited.
Organism and Population B-213
5. Mycorrhizae is an example of : Options :

(a) ectoparasite (b) endoparasite (a) (iii), (iv) (b) (i)
(c) decomposers (d) symbiosis (c) (iii), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii)
6. Which does not affect the population density ? 15. Cuscuta is an example of
(a) Natality (b) Mortality (a) ectoparasitism
(c) Photosynthesis (d) Immigration (b) brood parasitism
7. Which of the following occurs deepest in sea? (c) predation
(a) Green algae (b) Red algae (d) endoparasitism
(c) Brown algae (d) All of these 16. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the
8. Plants which grow on the scarcity of water are shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :
called : (a) Symbiosis
(a) mesophyte (b) halophyte (b) Commensalism
(c) xerophyte (d) hydrophyte (c) Amensalism
9. The formula of exponential growth is (d) Ectoparasitism
(a) dN/dt = rN (b) dN/rN = dt 17. A biologist studied the population of rats in
(c) rN/dN = dt (d) dt/DN = rN a barn. He found that the average natality was
10. The maximum growth rate occurs in 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and
(a) lag phase (b) exponential phase emigration 30. The net increase in population
(c) stationary phase (d) senescent phase is :
11. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) (a) 15 (b) 05
the black - coloured form became dominant over (c) zero (d) 10
the light- coloured form in England during 18. Presence of flagellated protozoans in the gut of
industrial revolution. termites are the example
This is an example of: (a) Symbiosis
(a) appearance of the darker coloured (b) Parasitism
individuals due to very poor sunlight (c) Antibiosis
(b) protective mimicry (d) Commensalism
(c) inheritance of darker colour character 19. Ratio of natality and mortality of a population
acquired due to the darker environment expressed in percentage is
(d) natural selection whereby the darker forms (a) vital index
were selected (b) growth rate
12. Which one of the following is one of the (b) survival rate
characteristics of a biological community? (d) biotic potential
(a) Stratification (b) Natality 20. Animals from colder climates generally have
(c) Mortality (d) Sex ratio smaller limbs. This is called
13. Large woody vines are more commonly found in (a) Niche rule (b) Allen's rule
(a) temperate forest (b) mangroves (c) Ehrlich rule (d) None of these.
(c) tropical rainforests (d) alpine forests 21. Pyramid of energy in a river ecosystem is
14. Consider the following four conditions (i) - (iv) (a) always upright (b) always erect
and select the correct pair of them as adaptation (c) constant (d) declining
to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions : Diagram Based Questions :
(i) Burrowing in soil to escape high
1. The given figure flows biome distribution with
temperature
respect to annual temperature and precipitation.
(ii) Losing heat rapidly from the body during
In this few parts are marked as A, B & C. Mark the
high temperature
correct identification from the following picture.
(iii) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(iv) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
B-214 BIOLOGY
Post-reproductive
Reproductive
Pre-reproductive
Expanding Stable Declining
(a) Expanding population
(b) Vanishing population
(c) Stable population
(d) Declining population
4. A country with a high rate of population growth
(A) (B) (C) took measures to reduce it. The figure below
shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B
(a) Tropical Temperate Coniferous twenty years apart.
forest forest forest Select the correct interpretation about them.
(b) Temperate Tropical Coniferous Age
forest forest forest 70+
(c) Temperate Coniferous Tropical 60 - 69
forest forest forest Male Female
(d) Coniferous Tropical Temperate 50 - 59
forest forest forest 40 - 49
age (in years)

2. The given figure shows the diagram match
representation of organismic response. Which 30 - 39
option gives the correct identification of three
types of organisms (marked as A, B & C) in 20 - 29
response to abiotic factor?
10 - 19
A 0-9
External level
B
15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15
‘A’
C Age
70+
60 - 69
Male Female
50 - 59
Internal level
(A) (B) (C) 40 - 49
age (in years)
(a) Partial Regulator Conformers

30 - 39
regulator
(b) Regulator Conformers Partial 20 - 29
regulator
(c) Conformers Regulator Partial 10 - 19
regulator
0-9
(d) Regulator Partial Conformers
regulator
3. What type of human population is represented
by the given age pyramid? 15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15
‘B’
(a) “B” is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized (c) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Mortality +
growth rate. Emigration
(b) “B” is more recent showing that population
is very young. (d) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality +
(c) “A” is the earlier pyramid and no change Immigration
has occurred in the growth rate. 6. Identify I to IV which affect the population
(d) “A” is more recent and shows slight density.
reduction in the growth rate.
5. The density of a population in a given habitat
during a given period, fluctuates due to changes Immigration
in four basic processes On this basis choose II
the correct option to fill up A and B boxes in the
given diagram. I
Population
Natality Mortality
Density
III
+ Population – IV
A Density B Emigration
(N)
(a) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + I II III IV

Emigration (a) Increase Decrease Increase Decrease
(b) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + (b) Decrease Increase Decrease Increase
Emigration (c) Increase Increase Decrease Decrease
(d) Decrease Decrease Increase Increase
7. Study the population growth curves given below.

(i)
K
(ii)
Population
density (N)
Time (t)
Which options is the best for curve (i) and (ii) ?
S. No. Type of (i) curve Type of (ii) curve Equation for curve (i) Equation for curve (ii)
dN æK-Nö dN
(a) Logistic curve Logistic curve = rN ç ÷ = rN
dt è K ø dt
dN dN æK-Nö
(b) Exponential curve Logistic curve = rN = rN ç ÷
dt dt è K ø
dN æ K - Nö dN
(c) Logistic curve Exponential curve = rN ç = rN
dt è K ÷ø dt
dN dN æ K - Nö
(d) Exponential curve Exponential curve = rN = rN ç
dt dt è K ø÷
B-216 BIOLOGY
Assertion/ Reason : 1.
Column-I Column-II
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): These questions consist of A. Pacific I. Produces a small
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. Salmon fish number of large
While answering these questions you are required to sized offspring
B. Mammals II. Produces a large
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the number of small
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. sized offspring
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason C. Oysters III. Breed only once in
their lifetime
D. Birds IV. Breed many times
during their lifetime
1. Assertion: Exotic species introduced in the
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
environment are not native. They become
invasive and start spreading fast. (b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
Reason: The invaded land does not have their (c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
natural predators (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
2. Assertion: Gause principle states that similar 2. Column-I Column-II
species cannot co-exist for a long time in the Population Example
same ecological niche. A. Predation I. Cuscuta and hedge
Reason: Competing for the same critical resources
within a environment. One of them will eventually plants
outcompete and displace the other. B. Commensalism II. Balanus and
3. Assertion: Predation is a relation between two Chathamalus
organisms in which one organism capture and C. Parasitism III. Cactus and moth
feed on other. D. Competition IV. Orchid and mango
Reason: In this process, both the organisms get (a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
benefit from one-another.
4. Assertion: Head louse living on the human scalp (b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
as well as laying egg on human hair is (c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
catagoriesed as parasite. (d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
Reason: Parasitism is the relation between
organisms in which one lives as a parasite on 3. Column I Column II
another and harm the host. A. Pacific salmon fish I Verhulst - pearl
5. Assertion: Very small animals are rarely found
logistic growth
in polar regions rt
Reason: Relative to their volume, small animals B. Nt = N0 e II Breed only once
have large surface area. They tend to lose energy in life time
very fast when in cold outside. C. Oyster III Exponential
growth
Matching Based Questions : IV A large number
- ù
é KN
D. dN/dt = rN ê úû of small sized
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements ë K
offsprings
(1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in (a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
Column I can have correct matching with one (b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 (c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
Critical Thinking Type Questions : (c) they do not have sweat glands.
(d) all of the above
1. Which one of the following do not account for 9. Many tribes living in the high altitude of
the formation of major biomes? Himalayas have a
(a) Annual variation in intensity of temperature. (a) higher WBC count than people living in the
(b) Annual variation in duration of temperature. plains.
(c) Annual variation in precipitation. (b) lower WBC count than people living in the
(d) Annual variation in texture of soil. plains.
2. Many freshwater fishes cannot live for long in (c) higher RBC count than people living in the
sea water and vice-versa mainly because of the plains.
(a) variation in light intensity. (d) lower RBC count than people living in the
(b) change in the levels of thermal tolerance. plains.
(c) osmosis. 10. Population ecology is an important area of
(d) spectral quality of solar radiation. ecology because
3. Factors that are important for aquatic organisms (a) it determines th e interaction among
include organisms and between the organisms and
(a) chemical composition of water its physical environment.
(b) pH of water (b) evolutionary changes through natural
(c) spectral quality of solar radiation selection take place at the population level.
(d) both (a) and (b) (c) it links ecology to population genetics and
4. Many animals use the diurnal and seasonal evolution.
variations in light intensity and photoperiod as (d) it links different types of communities
cues timing of together.
(a) for age only 11. Natural selection operates to evolve the desired
(b) reproductive activities only tracts at
(c) migration only (a) cellular level (b) species level
(d) all of these (c) community level (d) population level
5. To a large extent the vegetation in any area is 12. If in a pond, there is 20 lotus last year and through
determined by reproduction 8 new plants are added, taking current
(a) temperature and pH. population to 28. The birth rate per year is
(b) pH, mineral composition and light. (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4
(c) pH, mineral composition and topography. (c) 0.6 (d) 0.8
(d) types of minerals in soil. 13. If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40
6. Regarding temperature and osmotic fruitflies died during a specified time interval (i.e.,
concentration nearly all plants are a week), the death rate in the population during
(a) regulator (b) conformers that period is
(c) partial regulator (d) escaper in time (a) 1 (b) 0.1
7. Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions (c) 0.01 (d) 0.4
because 14. In an age pyramid, the number of individuals of
(a) they have a smaller surface area relative to reproductive age is lesser than pre-reproductive
their volume. but higher than post reproductive ones. The
(b) they have a larger volume relative to their population is
surface area. (a) growing
(c) they have smaller metabolic rate. (b) declining
(d) they have a larger surface area relative to (c) stable
their volume. (d) can not be predicted
8. The kangaroo rats of North American deserts do 15. If N is the population density at time t, then its
not need to drink water because density at time t + 1 is
(a) they meet their water requirement through (a) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) + (D + E)]
internal fat oxidation when the water is a (b) Nt + 1 = Nt – [(B + I) + (D + E)]
byproduct. (c) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(b) they are able to concentrate urine, to (d) Nt + 1 = Nt – [(B + I) – (D + E)]
minimize water loss.
B-218 BIOLOGY
36 Ecosystem
Fill in the Blanks : 7. The entire sequence of communities that

successively change in a given area are called
1. Vertical distribution of different species
sere(s).
occupying different levels is called ________ .
8. Any calculations of energy content, biomass or
2. Energy flow in an ecosystem is __________ .
number has to include one group of organism at
3. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living
that trophic level.
material at a particular time is known as
9. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
__________ .
inverted.
4. Ecosystems are ______ because resources ____
move from one ecosystem to another. Conceptual MCQs :
5. Energy pyramids are used to represent energy
transfer in an ecosystem because energy is 1. Biotic components of an ecosystem include
_______ between each trophic level. (a) producers (b) consumers
6. The greatest amount of energy is available at (c) decomposers (d) all of these
the _______ of a food chain. 2. In a food chain producers form the
7. The two vegetations of an ecosystem are (a) first trophic level
separated by _______ . (b) second trophic level
8. Chemosynthetic bacteria found around deep- (c) last trophic level
sea vents are examples of _______ . (d) none of these
3. Primary consumers are
9. All life on Earth depends on _______ energy.
(a) autotrophs (b) carnivores
10. Because of limitations on resources, organisms
(c) herbivores (d) omnivores
must _______ materials in order to survive.
4. Which one of the following is a one-way flow
rather than cyclic flow?
True/ False :
(a) Carbon (b) Phosphorus
1. An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature and (c) Nitrogen (d) Free energy
comprises abiotic and biotic components. 5. Who are the pioneers in a xerach ?
2. Abiotic components are organic materials. (a) Mosses (b) Lichens
3. Removal of 80% tigers resulted in increased (c) Insects (d) All of these
growth of vegetation, in food chain. 6. In nature, the cleaners are
4. The rate of biomass production is called productivity (a) decomposers (b) carnivores
and is expressed in terms of a kcal m–2. (c) consumers (d) producers
5. Net primary productivity is rate of production of 7. Most stable ecosystem is
biomass during photosynthesis. (a) forest (b) grassland
6. An important characteristic of all communities (c) ocean (d) desert
is that their composition and structure 8. Pyramid of biomass in a grassland is
constantly change in response to the changing (a) inverted (b) spindle shape
environmental conditions. (c) upright (d) none of these
Ecosystem B-219
9. Which is not a part of decomposition process? (iv) Production of chemicals such as nicotine,
(a) Humification (b) Fragmentation strychnine by the plants are metabolic
(c) Leaching (d) Leaf fall disorders
10. Carbon cycle is a The two correct statements are:
(a) sedimentary cycle (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
(b) gaseous cycle
18. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area
(c) hydrological cycle
at any time is called
(d) none of these (a) standing crop (b) deteritus
11. Which pyramid is always erect ? (c) humus (d) standing state
(a) Energy (b) Number 19. Which one of the following animals may occupy
(c) Biomass (d) Food more than one trophic levels in the same
12. What percentage of PAR is used by green plants ? ecosystem at the same time?
(a) 1–5% (b) 2–10% (a) Sparrow (b) Lion
(c) 5–20% (d) 2–20% (c) Goat (d) Frog
13. Ecosystem is a 20. Pheretima and its close relatives derive
(a) self-regulated nourishment from :
(b) self-sustained (a) sugarcane roots
(c) segment of environment (b) decaying fallen leaves and soil organic
matter.
(d) all of these
(c) soil insects
14. Tip of ecological pyramid is occupied by :
(d) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize,
(a) producers (b) herbivores etc.
(c) carnivores (d) omnivores
15. Which of the following represents the
sedimentary type of nutrient cycle ? 1. Refer the given nutrient cycle in a terrestrial
(a) Phosphorus (b) Nitrogen ecosystem with few labels marked as A, B, C and
(c) Oxygen (d) Carbon D. Identify A, B, C and D.
16. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere
is: B A
(a) Volvox ® Hydrilla ® Pistia ®Scirpus
Lantana ® Oak Litter fall
(b) Pistia ®Volvox ®Scirpus ®Hydrilla ® Detritus
Oak ®Lantana C
(c) Oak®Lantana ®Volvox ®Hydrilla ® Uptake
Soil solution
Pistia ®Scirpus Run off
(d) Oak ®Lantana ®Scirpus ®Pistia ® D
Hydrilla ®Volvox
17. Study the four statements (a–d) given below and Rock minerals
select the two correct ones out of them: (a) A – Consumers; B – Decomposition; C –
(i) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding Producers; D – Weathering
on grain are ecologically similar in being (b) A – Consumers; B – Weathering; C –
consumers Producers; D – Decomposition
(ii) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in (c) A – Producers; B – Consumers; C –
maintaining species diversity of some Decomposition; D – Weathering
invertebrates
(iii) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction (d) A – Consumers; B – Producers; C –
Decomposition; D – Weathering
of prey species
B-220 BIOLOGY
2. In the given food web few organisms are marked (a) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
as (1), (2), (3) and (4). Identify (1), (2), (3) and (4). (b) Pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
(c) Pyramid of biomass in a lake
(d) Energy pyramid in a spring
5. Which of the given pyramids represents the
variation in biomass at different trophic levels in
pond ecosystem?
SC
(a) PC
PP
SC
(b) PC
(1) (2) (3) (4) PP
(a) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat
SC
(b) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
(c) PC
(c) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
PP
(d) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
3. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. PC
What could be one of the possibilities about (d) PP
certain organisms at some of the different levels?
6. Two food chains are given below.
TC 10 (i) Tree ® aphid ® insectivorous bird ® prey
feed on bird
SC 50
(ii) Phytoplankton ® zooplankton ® plankton
PC 500
feeding fish ® carnivorous fish
PP 1 Which diagram is a pyramid of energy
(a) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small representing both food chains?
insectivorous birds”. Trophic level
(b) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and 4
(a)
“Whale” is on top level TC. 3
2
(c) Level PP is “pipal trees” and the level SC is 1
“sheep”.
(d) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats”. Trophic level
(b) 4
4. Given below is one of the types of ecological 3
pyramids. This type represents 2
1
(c) Trophic level

4
3
2
1
Ecosystem B-221
4. Assertion : In a food chain, members of

(d) Trophic level
4 successive higher levels are fewer in number.
3 Reason : Number of organisms at any trophic
2 level depends upon the availability of organisms
1 which serve as food at the lower level.
5. Assertion : Tropical rain forests are disappearing
7. The given diagram shows (I, II, III, and IV) the fast from developing countries such as India.
flow of materials between different trophic levels. Reason : No value is attached to these forests
Which arrow is incorrect? because these are poor in biodiversity.
6. Assertion : Leaf butterfly and stick insect show
Decomposers
mimicry to dodge their enemies.
Reason : Mimicry is a method to acquire body
Secondary consumers colour blending with the surroundings.
7. Assertion : Animals adopt different strategies
II III
to survive in hostile environment.
IV Reason : Praying mantis is green in colour which
Primary consumers
merges with plant foliage.
Producers 8. Assertion : Nitrogen-fixing enzyme in legume
I root nodules function at low oxygen
(a) I (b) II concentration.
Reason : Low oxygen concentration is provided
(c) III (d) IV
by leghaemoglobin.
Assertion/ Reason : 9. Assertion : The sex ratio of Kerala is highest in
India.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-12): These questions consist of Reason : In countries like India the population is
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. increasing at a rapid rate.
While answering these questions you are required to 10. Assertion : A network of food chains existing
choose any one of the following five responses. together in an ecosystem is known as food web.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the Reason : An animal like kite cannot be a part of
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. a food web.
11. Assertion : In tropical rain forests. O-horizon
and A-Horizon of soil profile are shallow and
nutrient-poor.
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : Excessive growth of micro-organisms
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false in the soil depletes its organic content.
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. 12. Assertion : A network of food chains existing
1. Assertion : Leguminous plants are nitrogen fixers. together in an ecosystem is known as food web.
Reason : Leguminous plants have Rhizobium in Reason : An animal like kite cannot be a part of
their root nodules. a food web.
2. Assertion : Cold blooded animals do not have
fat layer. Matching Based Questions :
Reason : Cold blooded animals use their fat for DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
metabolic process during hibernation. (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
3. Assertion: Insectivorous habitat of plants is to (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
cope up O 2 deficiency. Column I can have correct matching with one
Reason: Insectivorous plants are partly au- choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
totrophic and partly heterotrophic. which ONLY ONE is correct.
B-222 BIOLOGY
1. Column - I Column - II 5. Column - I Column - II

(A) Primary succession I. Autotrophs (A) Presence of 3-4 I. Blue-green algae
(B) Climax community II. Community that storey of plant
has completed growns in a forest
succession (B) A biome having II. Stratification
(C) Consumer III. Colonization grasses with
of a new scattered trees
environment (C) Man made III. Savannah
(D) Producer IV. Animals ecosystem
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I (D) Pioneer in hydrosere IV. Dam
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
2. Column - I Column - II (d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(A) Standing state I. Nitrogen, Carbon
(B) Gaseous cycles II. Amount of
nutrients 1. If CO2 is removed totally from the biosphere,
(C) Standing crop III. Sulphur, which organisms will be affected first ?
Phosphorus (a) Consumers
(D) Sedimentary cycles IV. Living matter at (b) Secondary consumers
different trophic levels (c) Producers
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (d) Primary producers
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV 2. The correct order of the process of
(c) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I decomposition is
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (a) Catabolism ® Fragmentation ® Leaching
3. Column - I Column - II ® Humification ® Mineralization
(A) Phosphorus I. Atmosphere (b) Catabolism ® Fragmentation ®
(B) Carbon II. Producers Humification ® Leaching ® Mineralization
(C) Goat III. Rock (c) Fragmentation ® Humification ®
(D) Grasses IV. T2 Catabolism ® Leaching ® Mineralization
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I (d) Fragmentation ® Leaching ® Catabolism
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II ® Humification ® Mineralization
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV 3. Productivity at the second trophic level is always
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (a) greater than the productivity at the first
4. Column - I Column - II trophic level.
(A) Pioneer community I. Crustose lichens (b) less than the productivity at the first trophic
on lithosphere level.
(B) Ecological II. Mesophytes
(c) equal to the productivityat the first trophic level.
succession
(d) extremely variable compared to the
(C) Climax community III. Ecosystem
productivity at the first trophic level.
development
4. Which one of the following animals may occupy
(D) Ecological pyramid IV. Elton
more than one trophic levels in the same
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II ecosystem at the same time?
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (a) Sparrow (b) Lion
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (c) Goat (d) Frog
Ecosystem B-223
5. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to 10. Which of the following contribute(s) to the
another is governed by the 2 nd law of carbon cycle ?
thermodynamics. The average efficiency of
(a) Respiration and photosynthesis
energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores is
(a) 5% (b) 10% (b) Fossil fuel combustion
(c) 25% (d) 50% (c) Decompostion of dead organisms
6. The phosphorus cycle differs from the carbon (d) All of these
cycle in that 11. In an upright pyramid of biomass, the herbivores
(a) the phosphorus does not enter living generally occupy which of the following
organisms, whereas carbon does.
(b) the phosphorus cycle does not include a position ?
gaseous phase, whereas the carbon cycle (a) First position
does. (b) Second position
(c) the phosphorus cycle includes a solid (c) Third position
phase, whereas the carbon cycle does not. (d) Fourth position
(d) the primary reservoir of the phosphorus
12. The primary succession r efers to the
cycle is the atmosphere, whereas the
primary reservoir for the carbon cycle is in development of communities on a
rock. (a) freshly cleared crop field.
7. Grasslands can support greater grazing rates by (b) forest clearing after devastating fire.
herbivores than forests because (c) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry
(a) net production of grassland is greater.
phase.
(b) more of the grassland is above the ground.
(c) grasslands receives more sunlight. (d) newly-exposed habitat with no record of
(d) grasslands produce less woody plant earlier vegetation.
tissue. 13. Which of the following compartments of the
8. Which of the following could not be considered global ecosystem would be characterized by
an ecosystem ? very slow movement of materials within the
(a) A small pond
(b) All the fish in a coral reef compartment ?
(c) Earth (a) Oceans (b) Fresh water
(d) A pile of dung in a pasture (c) Atmosphere (d) Land
9. There is no difference between 14. Which one of the following is not used for
(a) secondary consumers and herbivores. construction of ecological pyramids?
(b) primary consumers and herbivores. (a) Number of individuals
(c) first trophic level and herbivores. (b) Rate of energy flow
(d) primary carnivores and second trophic level. (c) Fresh weight
(d) Dry weight
B-224 BIOLOGY
Biodiversity and its

37 Conservation
Fill in the Blanks : 5. Endemic plants and animals are those which are
restricted to certain area.
1. More than 70% of all the species recorded so 6. Alpha diversity is present between community.
far, are ____ . 7. Sacred groves are found in Aravali Hills of
2. The taxa believed likely to join the endangered Rajasthan.
category in near future is called ____ 8. Biodiversity loss accurs due to alien species
. invasion.
3. The area where wild populations, traditional life 9. The major cause of loss of numbers of migratory
styles and genetic resources are protected is birds is urbanisation and pesticides.
called ____ .
4. Animals and plants are best protected in ____ .
Conceptual MCQs :
1. An in situ method of conservation is
5. A high density of a protected animal in a (a) Botanical garden
National Park can result into ____
(b) cryopreservation
6. Diversity of habitat over the total landscape is
(c) tissue culture
called ____
7. The highest number of species in the world is (d) national park
represented ____ by 2. Which one is hotspot of biodiversity ?
8. Diversity between two communities is called (a) Eastern Ghats
____ . (b) Western Ghats
9. In cryopreservation germplasm is maintained at (c) Aravali Hills
____ .
10. The Cichlid species of Lake Victoria were driven
3. First National Park established in India was
to, or nearly to, extinction by the introduction of
_________. (a) Bandipur (b) Kanha
(c) Corbett (d) Periyar
True/ False : 4. Main cause of extinction of species from tropics
1. Amazonian rain forest has greatest biodiversity is
on earth. (a) deforestation (b) pollution
2. According to Robert May estimates, the global (c) soil erosion (d) aforestation
species diversity is 7 million. 5. Which one is helpful in situ conservation ?
3. The number of species in an area increases with (a) Zoological parks
the size of the area.
(b) Botanical gardens
4. Hotspots of biodiversity means areas of the earth
(c) Wild-life safari parks
that contain many endemic species.
(d) All of these
Biodiversity and its Conservation B-225
6. The Convention on Biological Diversity was held (A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to
in Rio de Janeiro in the year : __(2)__ cold weather
(a) 1982 (b) 1992 (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base
(c) 2000 (d) 2002 represents __(3)__ human population
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example
7. Which one is the most species-rich taxomonic
of __(4)___
group?
(D) An area with high levels of species richness
(a) Reptilia (b) Annelida
is known as __(5)___
(c) Arthropoda (d) Mammalia Which one of the following options give the
8. What accounts for low biodiversity at the poles ? correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers
(a) Short days (b) Low productivity from (1) to (5) in the statements
(c) Severe climate (d) All of these (a) (2) - stable (4) commensalism, (5) marsh
9. The species in danger of extinction are placed in (b) (1) - aestivation, (5) - escape, (3) - stable, (4)
- mutualism
(a) Red list (b) Green list
(c) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (5)
(c) Blue list (d) Black list biodiversity park
10. Which among the following is an extinct animal? (d) (1)- hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) - expanding,
(a) Kiwi (b) Dodo (5) hot spot
(c) Ostrich (d) All of these 17. Which one of the following areas in India, is a
11. Which one of the following has maximum genetic hotspot of biodiversity?
diversity in India? (a) Eastern Ghats
(a) Mango (b) Wheat (b) Gangetic Plain
(c) Tea (d) Teak (c) Sunderbans
12. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the (d) Western Ghats
following national park? 18. If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct
(a) Sunderbans (b) Gir (a) Hyenas and wolves will become scare
(c) Jim Corbett (d) Ranthambhor (b) The wild area will be safe for man and
13. Which one of the following is an example of domestic animals
Ex-situ conservation? (c) Its gene pool will be lost for ever
(a) Wildlife sanctuary (b) Seed bank (d) The population of beautiful animals like
(c) Sacred groves (d) National park deers will be stabilized.
14. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse 19. A taxon facing an extremely high risk of extinction
alleles of all the genes of a crop is called in wild in the immediate future is called :
(a) herbarium (b) germplasm (a) critical endangered (b) endangered
(c) gene library (d) genome (c) vulnerable (d) extinct in wild
15. Which one of the following shows maximum 20. Indian rhinoceros are protected in
genetic diversity in India ? (a) Gir Forest
(a) Groundnut (b) Rice (b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Maize (d) Mango (c) Bandipur National Park
16. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each
(d) Ranthambore National Park
with one or two blanks.
B-226 BIOLOGY
Diagram Based Questions : (a) 17 percent of the bird species will be lost.
(b) 20 percent of the bird species will be lost.
1. Given below are pie diagrams A, B and C related
(c) All of bird species will be lost.
to proportionate number of species of major taxa
of invertebrates, vertebrates and plants (d) 93 percent of the bird species will be lost.
respectively. Critically study and fill in the blanks 3. Which of the following boxes show maximum,
I, II, III and IV. greater and minimum diversity ?
Other animal A B
groups
Mammals
Crustaceans Fishes Birds

I Insects
II Reptiles C
A B
Invertebrates Vertebrates
Mosses
Ferns and
allies (a) A- Minimum diversity; B - Greater diversity;
Birds
C - Maximum diversity
III
IV (b) A - Maximum diversity; B - Greater diversity;
Lichens C - Minimum diversity
A B Algae C
(c) A - Maximum diversity; B - Minimum
Plant diversity; C - Greater diversity
(a) I- Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV- (d) A - Minimum diversity, B - Maximum
Angiosperms
diversity, C - Greater diversity.
(b) I- Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III-
Angiosperms, IV-Fungi Assertion/ Reason :
(c) I- Hexapoda, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV-
Angiosperms DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): These questions consist of
(d) I- Turtles, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV- two statements each, printed as assertion and reason.
Angiosperms While answering these questions you are required to
2. Using the figure, determine the percentage of
bird species that will be lost if the island's (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the
inhabitable land area is reduced from 100,000 km2 reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
to 1 km2.
200
100
50
S : Number of bird species
30
1. Assertion: Nileperch is a large bredator fish,
20
Slope introduced in lake victoria of South Ofrica.
10
0.15
Reason: It begins to threaten the entire fresh
5
S = 1.89 water ecosystem by feeding on small
2
0.001 0.01 0.1 1 10 100 1000 10,000 100,000
herbivorous and detrivorous fish species of
A : Island land area (km2) lake victoria.
2. Assertion: Amphibians is more vunerable to (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

extinction. (b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
Reason: Amphibians are highly sensitive to (c) A – I; B – III; C – II ; D – IV
environmental changes which lead to extinction.
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
3. Assertion: Diversity observed in the entire
geographical area caused gamma diversity.
Reason: Biodiversity decreases from high A. Endemism I. Khasi and Jaintia
altitude to low altitude. hills Meghalaya
4. Assertion: Endemic plants and animals are those B. Hotspot of India II. Advanced ex-situ
species which are restricted to particular area. conservation
Reason: Endemic species are special as well as C. Sacred groove III. Species found in
more vulnerable to extinction. particular area only
5. Assertion: Global warming is the major cause of D. Cryopreservation IV. Zoological park and
extinction in future. Botanical garden
Reason: The greenhouse effect harmful gases E. Ex-situ V. Western Ghats
are CO2, CFCs, and other pollutants. conservation
(a) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E– V
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V; E – I
(A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (d) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – III
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 A. Narrowly I. Conserving biodiversity
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of utilitarian for major ecosystem
which ONLY ONE is correct. argument services
1. Column-I Column-II B. Broadly II. Conserving biodiversity
A. Nile Perch in I. Obvious reasons for utilitarian for the philosophically or
Lake Victoria biodiversity argument spiritually need to realise
conservation that every species has
B. Narrowly II. Habitat destruction intrinsic value and moral
utilitarian duty to pass our
C. Main cause for III. High endemism biological legacy in good
biodiversity loss order to future
D. Hotspots IV. Alien species generation.
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III C. Ethical III. Conserving biodiversity
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III argument for direct economic
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II ; D – IV benefits like food,
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV medicine, industrial
2. Column-I Column-II products etc.
A. Term biodiversity I. Edward Wilson (a) A – I; B – II; C – III
B. In-situ conservation II. Co-extinction
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II
C. Plant pollinator III. On-site conservation
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III
Mutualism
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II
D. Ex-situ IV. Off-site conservation
B-228 BIOLOGY
5. Column-I Column-II 5. Animal species should be preserved mainly

A. Over-exploitation I. Environmental because
by humans damage and treat to (a) zoologists want to study them.
native species (b) they are lovely creatures.
B. Introduction of II. Decline in plant (c) they are useful to mankind.
Nile Perch in Lake production (d) man cannot recreate a species of animals
Victoria
after its destruction.
C. Less solar energy III. Extinction of
6. Management of biosphere for providing
more than
maximum benefit to the present generation and
2000 species of
also maintaining its potential for future
native birds
D. Introduction of IV. Extinction of Cichlid generations, is the theme of
Water Hyacinth fish (a) afforestation
in India (b) conservation
E. Colonization of V. Extinction of (c) deforestation
tropical pacific Passenger (d) population
Islands pigeon 7. All forms of life should be conserved because
(a) A – II; B – V; C – IV; D – III; E – I (a) they maintain diverse genetic resources.
(b) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III (b) they have economic values.
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V (c) they are important for maintaining balance
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – III of nature.
(d) they will be otherwise lost.
8. Which one of the following pairs of organisms
1. Following arrangement is correct from the point
are exotic species introduced in India?
of view of decreasing biodiversity in
(a) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
angiosperms (N), fungi (F), pteridophytes (P)
(b) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
and algae (A).
(c) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
(a) N > F > P > A (b) N > F > A > P
(c) F > N > P > A (d) F > N > A > P (d) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
2. India’s share in global species diversity is around 9. The table below give the populations (in
(a) 8% (b) 14 % thousands) of ten species (A = J) in four areas (I
(c) 17 % (d) 2.4 % – IV) consisting of the number of habitats given
3. If S is species richness, A is area, Z is slope of within brackets against each area. Study the table
the line, and the C is Y-intercept, then the species and answer the questions.
richness will be shown as Area and Species and their population (in thousands) in the area
Number of
(a) S = C + Az (b) S = C + AZ Habitats A B C D E F G H I J
(c) S = C. AZ (d) S = C. Az I. (11) 2.3 1.2 0.52 6 – 3 1.1 9 – 10.3
4. In your opinion, which is the most effective way II. (11) 10.2 – 0.62 – 1.5 3 – 8.2 1.1 11
to conserve the plant diversity of an area? III. (13) 11.3 0.9 0.48 2.4 1.4 4.2 0.8 8.4 2.2 4.1
(a) By developing seed bank IV. (12) 3.2 10.2 11.1 4.8 0.4 3.3 0.8 7.3 11.3 2.1
(b) By tissue culture method Which area out of I to IV shows maximum species
(c) By creating botanical garden diversity?
(d) By creating biosphere reserve (a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
10. Two places in India show maximum biological (b) Their conservation may require
diversity. One of them is the Western ghats, international cooperation when they require
another is habitats in different countries.
(a) Eastern ghats (b) North – East (c) They are often prone to population number
India decline during their long migratory journeys.
(c) Coastal region (d) Foot hill of (d) They reside in biodiversity hotspots that
Himalaya are most susceptible to habitat degradation.
11. How many of the following can not be included 14. Biosphere reserves differ from national parks
in Wildlife – Human, Cultivated plants, Micro- and wildlife sanctuaries because in the former
organisms, Fossils and Domesticated animals. (a) human beings are not allowed to enter.
(a) Two (b) Three (b) people are an integral part of the system.
(c) Four (d) Five (c) plants are paid greater attention than the
12. The greatest threat to global biodiversity is animals.
(a) natural disasters such as storms (d) living organisms are brought from all over
(b) pollution the world and preserved.
(c) overexploitation of natural resources 15. Sacred groves are especially useful in
(d) alteration of habitats by humans (a) preventing soil erosion.
13. Why do migratory species present special (b) year-round flow of water in rivers.
preservation challenges? (c) conserving rare and threatened species.
(a) Because they are endemic, they are (d) generating environmental awareness.
especially susceptible to habitat destruction.
B-230 BIOLOGY
Environmental Issues
38
Fill in the Blanks : 3. Cultural eutrophication is an accelerated form of
eutrophication.
1. To improve the quality of environment (air, water 4. In the presence of prime contaminants, such as
and soil) the Govt. of India passed th e nitrates and phosphates, the growth of algae is
‘Environment (Protection) Act’ in year arrested.
_________ . 5. The water from electricity generating units
2. The diameter of particulate matter that causes enhances the growth of indigenous fauna and flora.
greatest harm to human health is _________ . 6. Recycled human waste from this can be used as
3. FOAM (Friends of the Arcata Marsh) is a group a natural fertilizer.
of citizens responsible for the integrated process 7. Troposphere, on top of stratosphere, is away
of _________ . from earth surface.
4. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because 8. The major contribution in green house gases is
it inhibits _________ . of CH4.
5. The waste water from Industries may contain 9. When organic waste enters into a water body
toxic heavy metals having density of more than its BOD increases.
_________ .
10. Plants are efficient absorbers of noise of low
6. Natural ageing of lake by biological enrichment
frequency.
of its water is called _________ .
7. Without Gr een house effect the average Conceptual MCQs :
temperature of earth surface would have been 1. Air pollution is mostly caused by
_________ . (a) automobile exhausts
8. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water (b) industrial effluents and sewage
also cause excess growth of planktonic (free-
(c) detergents and pesticides
floating) algae, called ___________.
(d) all of above
9. Slash and burn agriculture, which is commonly
2. Greenhouse effect is related to
known as Jhum cultivation in the north-eastern
(a) green trees in house
states of India, leads to _________ .
(b) grasslands
10. ___________ is a cyclical zero-waste
(c) global warming
procedure, where waste products from one
process are cycled in as nutrients for other (d) greenary in country
processes. 3. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a
river the BOD will
True/ False : (a) decrease (b) increase
(c) slightly decrease (d) slightly increase
1. Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used 4. Deforestation causes
in the crops in the vicinity. (a) soil erosion
2. Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined (b) loss of biodiversity
intially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis (c) disturbance in hydrological cycle
and also causes fish mortality. (d) all of the above
Environmental Issues B-231
5. Eutrophication causes reduction in (a) The Montreal Protocol

(a) dissolved CO2 (b) The Koyoto Protocol
(b) dissolved O2 (c) The Vienna Convention
(c) dissolved nutrients (d) Rio de Janeiro Conference
(d) none of the above 17. Which of the following plant species you would
6. Among the following which one is likely to have select for the production of bioethanol ?
highest concentration of DDT in the body ? (a) Zea mays (b) Pongamia
(c) Jatropha (d) Brassica
(a) Phytoplanktons
18. Steps taken by the Government of India to
(b) Zooplanktons
control air pollution include
(c) Fish (a) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control)
(d) Fish-eating bird certification of petrol driven vehicles which
7. Thickness of ozone is more at the tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.
(a) equator (b) poles (b) permission to use only pure diesel with a
(c) mountains (d) sea maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for
8. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? vehicles.
(a) O2 (b) CO2 (c) use of non-polluting Compressed Natural
(c) N2O (d) CH4 Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and
9. Montreal Protocol was called to check emission of trucks.
(a) e-wastes (b) UV radiation (d) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with
(c) CFCs (d) All of these petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel.
10. Increase in the concentration of pollutant at the 19. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely
higher tropic level is called : used in contemporary biology as
(a) insecticide
(a) eutrophication
(b) agent for production of dairy products
(b) biodegradation (c) source of industrial enzyme
(c) recycling (d) indicator of water pollution
(d) biomagnification 20. The logistic population growth is expressed by
11. Non-biodegradable waste is : the equation:
(a) DDT (b) leather æK-Nö
(c) wool (d) cotton (a) dt/dN = Nr ç ÷
è K ø
12. UV radiation from sun is absorbed by :
æK-Nö
(a) H2O (b) CH4 (b) dN/dt = rN ç ÷
(c) N2O (d) O3 è K ø
13. Ozone hole refers to (c) dN/dt = rN
(a) increased concentration of ozone æ N-K ö
(d) dN/dt = rN ç ÷
(b) reduction in thickness of ozone layer in the è K ø
stratosphere
(c) reduction in the thickness of ozone layer in Diagram Based Questions :
the atmosphere
1. According to size of air pollutants, range and
(d) hole in the ozone layer. types of chemical the device given below is best
14. Heating of environment is done by used to control which of the following pollutants?
(a) visible light (b) UV rays
(c) infrared waves (d) radiowaves
15. As a result of global warming, the sea level will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain the same (d) none of these
16. Global agreement in specific control strategies
to reduce the release of ozone depleting
substances, was adopted by
B-232 BIOLOGY
(a) Large particulates 3. The given graph shows the effect of sewage
(b) Charged particulate matter discharge on some important characteristics of a
(c) Dissolved gases river. few label are marked as A, B and C. Which of
(d) Fine particles the following is correct for the label A, B and C ?
2. Which of the following figures shows correct
Concentration
relative contribution of greenhouse gases to
global warming?
N2O
6%
CFCs Sewage
B Direction of Flow
14% Discharge
(a) (A) Dissolved oxygen, (B) Point of sewage
(a) CO2 discharge, (C) BOD
CH4
60% (b) (A) BOD, (B) Point of treated water
20% discharge, (C) Dissolved oxygen
(c) (A) Dissolved oxygen, (B) Point of treated
water discharge, (C) BOD
(d) (A) BOD, (B) Point of sewage discharge,
(C) Dissolved oxygen
CO2
4. The diagram below shows the effect of polluting
6%
a river with untreated whey. What does graph X
CFCs represent?
14%
N 2O
(b) CH4 60%
20%
N2O (a) Bacterial count.

6% (b) Number of fish.
CH4 (c) Mass of curds.
14% (d) Concentration of rennet.
5. The given diagram shows electrostatic
(c) CO2 precipitator. Identify A, B and C.
CFCs 60%
20%
CFCs
6%
N2 O (a) A - Discharge corona, B - Negatively
14% charged wire, C - Collection plate grounded
(b) A - Discharge corona, B - Positively
(d) CO2 charged wire, C - Collection plate grounded
CH4
60%
20% (c) A - Discharge corona, B - Negatively
charged wire, C - Collection plate burnt
(d) A - Uncharge corona, B - Positively charged
wire, C - Collection plate never grounded
6. What does ‘x’ indicate in the given figure? Reason : Introduction of multi-point fuel
(a) Greenhouse effect injection engines in automobiles has decreased
(b) El Nino Effect methane content in the exhausts.
(c) Ozone hole 5. Assertion : A suspended particulate matter
X
(SPM) is an important pollutant released by
(d) Marsh meadow stage
diesel vehicles.
7. Which of the following phenomenon is Reason : Catalytic converters greatly reduce
represented by the given figure? pollution caused by automobiles.
Sunlight 6. Assertion : Presently, the global atmosphere is
Green H
warming up.
ouse Gas
es
Reason : The depletion of stratospheric ozone
e
mo
sp her layer has resulted in increase in ultraviolet
At
radiations reaching the earth.
Radiant heat
Trapped by
GHGs Earth Surface
7. Assertion : Deforestation is one main factor
contributing to global warming.
Reason : Besides CO2, two other gases methane
and CFCs are also included under green house
(a) Green house effect gases.
(b) El Nino effect 8. Assertion : UV radiation causes photo-
(c) Ozone hole dissociation of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing
(d) Eutrophication damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason : Ozone hole is resulting in global
Assertion/ Reason :
warming and climate change.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-10): These questions consist of 9. Assertion : The concentration of methane in
two statements each, printed as assertion and reason. the atmosphere has more than doubled in the
While answering these questions you are required to last 250 years.
choose any one of the following five responses. Reason : Wetlands and rice fields are the major
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the sources of methane.
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. 10. Assertion (A) : Pollution is always caused by
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason human activities.
is not a correct explanation of the assertion. Reason (R) : Pollution is not different from
(c) If the assertion is true but reason is false. contamination.
(e) If the assertion is false but the reason is true. Matching Based Questions :
1. Assertion : Inhabitants close to very busy DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
airports are likely to experience health hazards. (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements
Reason : Sound level of jet aeroplanes usually (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) in Column II. Any given statement in
exceeds 160 dB. Column I can have correct matching with one
2. Assertion : Organochlorine pesticides are statement given in Column II. Each question has 4
organic compounds that have been chlorinated. choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of
Reason : Fenitrothion is one of the which ONLY ONE is correct.
organochlorine pesticides. 1. Column-I Column-II
3. Assertion : Agricultural output increased A. DDT I. CH4, CO2
several times after introduction of DDT. B. Platinum- palladium II. SO2
Reason : DDT was the first insecticide used on and Rhodium
a wide scale. C. Acid rain III. Biological
4. Assertion : Methane, component of green house magnification
gases, contributing to global warming is about D. Global warming IV. Catalytic
20 percent. converter
B-234 BIOLOGY
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I 5. Column-I Column-II

(b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV A. Ahmed Khan I. Spreading
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I information
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I and help on the
2. Column-I Column-II practice
A. Catalytic converter I. Particulate matter of integrated
B. Electrostatic II. Carbon monoxide organic farming
B. Ramesh Chandra II. Protecting wildlife
precipitator and nitrogen
Dagar
oxides
C. Amrita Devi III. A plastic sack
C. Earmuffs III. High noise level
Bishnoi manufacturer of
D. Land fills IV. Solid wastes Bangalore
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV developed
(b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV polyblend
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (a) A – III; B – I; C – I
(d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I (b) A – II; B – I; C – I
3. Column-I Column-II (c) A – I; B – II; C – II
A. Environment I. 1987 (d) A – III; B – II; C – II
(Protection) Act 6. Column-I Column-II
B. Air (Prevention and II. 1986 A. UV I. Biomagnification
Control of Pollution) Act B. Biodegradable
C. Water (Prevention and III. 1980 organic matter II. Eutrophication
Control of Pollution) Act C. DDT III. Snow blindness
D. Concept of Joint IV. 1974 D. Phosphates IV. BOD
Forest Management (a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
of Govt. of India (b) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV 7. Column-I Column-II
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV A. Colloidal materials I. Typhoid,
4. Column-I Column-II Jaundice, Cholera
(Organisms) (Concentration of B. Water-borne II. Irreparable
DDT) diseases computes and
A. Zooplankton I. 2 ppm other electronic
B. Small fish II. 0.04 ppm goods
C. Large fish III. 0.5 ppm C. E-wastes III. Faecal matter
D. Fish-eating birds IV. 25 ppm bacteria, cloth
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV and paper fibres
(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV D. Manure IV. Troposphere
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I E. Bad ‘Ozone’ V. Cattle excreta
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (dung)
(a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – V; E – IV (a) use of refrigerator.

(b) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV (b) increased combustion of oils and coal.
(c) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV (b) deforestation.
(d) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV; E – II (d) all of the above
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 7. Which constituent of the atmosphere is likely to
change if the forest cover is removed ?
1. CNG is better than petrol/ diesel, since (a) O2 level is increased
(a) CNG burns more efficiently.
(b) CO2 level is increased
(b) CNG burns more completely.
(c) O2 level is significantly increased
(c) CNG cannot be adulterated.
(d) CO2 level is significantly decreased
8. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is
2. In clean water, the concentration of
most likely to happen on a long term basis?
(a) BOD is low but DO is high.
(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death.
(b) Both BOD and DO are high.
(b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die
(c) BOD is high but DO is low.
due to lack of fodder.
(d) Both BOD and DO are low.
(c) Large areas will become deserts.
3. Fishes die by sewage because
(a) of its bad smell. (d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due
(b) it replaces food material of fishes. to a reduced availability of variety of
(c) it increases oxygen competition among germplasm.
fishes. 9. Which of these is not an advantage of CNG over
(d) CO2 is mixed in large amount in water. diesel?
4. A lake affected by high levels of artificial (a) Burns more efficiently.
eutrophication will have (b) It is cheap.
(a) high nutrient levels, large phytoplankton (c) Cannot be siphoned off by thieves.
populations, and low oxygen levels at depth. (d) Easy to lay down pipelines for delivery.
(b) high levels of nutrients, low phytoplankton 10. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic
levels, high oxygen levels in surface waters. converter are advised to use unleaded petrol
(c) low nutrient levels, large phytoplankton because
populations, and low oxygen levels at depth. (a) lead causes inactivation of catalyst.
(d) low nutrient levels, low phytoplankton (b) lead reduces the emission of poisonous
populations, and high oxygen levels at depth. gases.
5. Two lakes, A and B are identical in all aspects (c) lead is a heavy metal.
except that lake A has higher temperature. Which (d) lead decreases the efficiency of vehicle.
of the following is true ? 11. Which of the following steps is not taken for
(a) A has higher rate of oxygen dissolution. reducing vehicular pollution?
(b) B has higher rate of oxygen dissolution. (a) Use of unleaded petrol.
(c) Oxygen dissolution of both is the same. (b) Use of high-sulphur petrol and diesel.
(d) Both the lakes have same BOD. (c) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles.
6. Today the concentration of green house gases (d) Application of stringent pollution-level
is very high because of norms for vehicles.
B-236 BIOLOGY
12. Biomagnification refers to increase in (c) These toilets are hygienic, efficient,
concentration of the toxicant at successive practical & most effective for the disposal
trophic levels. This happens because of human waste.
(a) a toxic substance accumulated by an (d) All of the above
organism can not be metabolized. 14. Which one of the following statement pertaining
(b) a toxic substance accumulated by an to pollutants is correct?
organism can not be excreted. (a) DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant.
(c) a toxic substance is passed on to the next (b) Excess fluoride in drinking water causes
trophic level. osteoporosis, hardening of bones, stiff joints.
(d) all of the above (c) Excess cadmium in drinking water causes
black foot disease.
13. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(d) Methylmercury in water may cause "Itai
about ‘Eco San’ toilets?
Itai" disease.
(a) It is a sustainable system for handling
15. The effect of todays radioactive fall out will be
human excreta or faecal matter by using dry
harmful to children of future generation because
‘composting toilets’.
(a) infants are more susceptible to radiations.
(b) These are very useful for the rural areas
(b) susceptibility to radiation increase with age.
where sewer systems are not possible.
(c) mutated genes are frequently recessive.
(d) contamination of milk supply is not
cumulative.
Solutions
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Chapter 1 : The Living World

Fill in the Blanks : 1. One 2. Yoked key 3. division 4. subspecies 5. Kew, England 6. order 7. English and
French 8. Adolf Meyer 9. 9 10. Family 11. genus 12. classification
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c)
15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (*) 2. (*) 3. (*) 4. (*) 5. (*) 6. (*) 7. (*) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b)
15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
Chapter 2 : Biological Classification

Fill in the B lanks : 1. 2. Neurospora 3. Capsomers 4. RNA or DNA 5. basidiomycetes
6. chymosynthetic autotrophic bacteria 7. Bacteriphage 8. Capsid 9. Single stranded RNA 10. Provirus
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a)
15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a)
Matching Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c)
Chapter 3 : Plant Kingdom

Fill in the Blanks : 1. Bentham and Hooker 2. cytotaxonomy 3. anisogamous 4. Cones 5. antheridia, archegonia
6. 7. moss
True/ False : 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b)
15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 18. (b) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b)
Matching Based Question: 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d)
B-S- 2
BIOLOGY

Fill in the Blanks : 1. radially symmetrical 2. bilateral 3. eight 4. parapodia 5. mollusca 6. radially symmetrical,
bilaterally symmetrical 7. three 8. Choanocytes
True/ False : 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11.(c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d)
15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a)

Fill in the Blanks: 1. sugarcane 2. nodes, internodes and nodes 3. Pistia and Eichhornia 4. reticulate, parallel
5. light 6. angiosperms and sexual 7. bisexual 8. hilum 9. anther
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a) 12. (a) 14. (d)
15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a)
12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d)
Chapter 6 : Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Fill in the Blanks : 1. parenchyma 2. dead, without 3. collenchyma 4. roots, stems, leaves 5. lateral meristems.
6. cork cambium and cork, 7. sclerenchymatous 8. sieve tubes 9. exarch
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c)
15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (e) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (e) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a)
Matching Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Chapter 7 : Structural Organisation in Animals

Fill in the Blanks : 1. squamous epithelium 2. fibroblasts 3. cartilage cells 4. cartilage 5. insecta; arthropoda 6.
cardiac muscles
Solutions B-S- 3
True/ False : 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 10. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c)
Matching Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
Chapter 8 : Cell : The Unit of Life

Fill in the Blanks : 1. nuclear membrane 2. ribosomes 3. mesosome 4. Golgi apparatus 5. Elaioplasts
6. ribosome 7. 52, 40 8. phosphoglyceride
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False
Conceptual MCQs :
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a)
18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (b)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d)
Matching Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Chapter 9 : Biomolecules
Fill in the Blanks : 1. glycine 2. zwitterion 3. peptide bonds 4. nucleotide 5. haemoglobin 6. ester bond
7. ½ Vmax 8. high, high
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a)
15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d)
12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d)
Chapter 10 : Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Fill in the Blanks : 1. prophase 2. telophase 3. zygotene 4. pachytene 5. diplotene 6. diakinesis 7. Kinetochore
True/ False : 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
B-S- 4
BIOLOGY
Diagram Based Question 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d)
Matching Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c)
Chapter 11 : Transport in Plants

Fill in the Blanks : 1. Imbibition 2. symplast 3. active absorption 4. source, sink 5. phloem 6. phloem sap,
translocated 7. pressure flow hypothesis 8. hypertonic 9. Osmosis
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c)
Chapter 12 : Mineral Nutrition

Fill in the Blanks : 1. macronutrients, micronutrients 2. Magnesium 3. leghaemoglobin 4. nitrogenase,
N2-fixers 5. passive absorption 6. Pseudomonas 7. 10% 8. enzyme
True/ False : 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b)
15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a)
Chapter 13 : Photosynthesis
Fill in the Blanks : 1. purple & Green sulphur bacteria 2. P700, P680 3. Z-Scheme 4. Phosphoenol pyruvate
5. light exposure 6. PEPcase 7. mesophyll 8. Photorespiration 9. Blackman
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d)
Solutions B-S- 5
Matching Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d)
Chapter 14 : Respiration in Plants

Fill in the Blanks : 1. ATP 2. cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion 3. Pyruvic acid 4. two 5. oxaloacetic acid 6. 0
7. Oxygen 8. Cyt. a3
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c)
15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c) C C 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)
Matching Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
Chapter 15 : Plant Growth and Development

Fill in the Blanks : 1. scarification 2. linear 3. plasticity 4. indole-3-acetic acid 5. Gibberella fujikuroi
6. gibberellic acid 7. GA 8. phototropism 9. vernalization
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d)
15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 18. (b) 20. (c)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)
Matching Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
Chapter 16 : Digestion and Absorption

Fill in the Blanks : 1. active transport 2. pancreas 3. Minerals 4. 3 pairs 5. premolars 6. rennin 7. peristalsis 8.
stomach; hindgut 9. small intestine 10. amino acid 11. 6.5
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c)
15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b)
B-S- 6
BIOLOGY
Chapter 17 : Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Fill in the Blanks : 1. epiglottis 2. erythrocytes 3. 5800 ml 4. spirometer 5. alveoli 6. an increase, a drop
7. medulla oblongata 8. 4 9. 158, 40 10. partial pressure of O2
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a)
15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (b)
Matching Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b)
Chapter 18 : Body Fluids and Circulation

Fill in the Blanks : 1. atherosclerosis 2. atherosclerosis 3. left auricle 4. SA node 5. SA node 6. pulmonary
aorta 7. closed, single 8. lungs 9. Calcium
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b)
15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d)
Matching Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a)
Critical Thinking Type questions Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
Chapter 19 : Excretory Products and Elimination

Fill in the Blanks : 1. Calyces 2. Malpighian Corpuscle 3. Uricotelic animals 4. Sodium 5. Tadpole 6. albumin
7. ascending limb of Henle’s loop 8. vasopressin 9. vasopressin 10. equal 11. peritubular capillaries
True/ False : 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a)
15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d)
Matching Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
Chapter 20 : Locomotion and Movement

Fill in the Blanks : 1. Pectoral girdle 2. Pivot joint 3. Mandible 4. Two pairs 5. acetabulum 6. mitochondria
7. pelvic girdle 8. neuromuscular function
Solutions B-S- 7
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a)
Matching Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Chapter 21 : Neural Control and Co-ordination

Fill in the Blanks : 1. medulla oblangata 2. fovea 3. Scala vestibuli 4. tectorial membrane 5. blind spot 6. iris
7. afferent 8. hypothalamus 9. nuclei
True/ False : 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c)
15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
Matching Based Question : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
Chapter 22 : Chemical Co-ordination and Regulation

Fill in the Blanks :1. corpus luteum 2. G H 3. cretinism 4. increases 5. vasopressin 6. immunological functions.
7. adrenal 8. progesterone 9. testis
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d)
15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 17. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Question : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Matching Based Question : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (b) . 15. (a) G H 16. (d) 17. (b)
Chapter 23 : Reproduction in Organism
Fill in the Blanks : 1. Life span 2. Asexual reproduction 3. A binary fission. 4. Parthenogenesis 5. A placental
mammals. 6. A three 7. A genetically 8. A Binary fission
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
B-S- 8
BIOLOGY
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (c)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d)
Chapter 24 : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Fill in the Blanks : 1. bilobed 2. Placenta 3. hilum 4. Anatropous ovule 5. Synergids 6. (–196°C) 7. albuminous
8. angiospermic plants
True/ False : 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15.
(c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c)
Chapter 25 : Human Reproduction

Fill in the Blanks : 1. Epididymis, the abdomen and urinary bladder. 2. Uterus 3. Meiosis I 4. Spermiogenesis
5. spermatozoa 6. 60, 40 7. Blastocyst 8. Zygote 9. Blastocoel 10. (chorionic villi) (endometrium)
True/ False : 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c)
15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (c)
Chapter 26 : Reproduction Health

Fill in the Blanks : 1. tubectomy 2. 12 3. ICSI 4. ZIFT 5. progesterone 6. amniocentesis 7. 1951
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d)
15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a)
Solutions B-S- 9
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) T 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b)
Chapter 27 : Heredity and Variation

Fill in the Blanks : 1. Allelomorphs 2. Segregation 3. Test cross 4. Multiple allelism 5. 4 6. 44 autosomes and
X sex chromosome 7. Klinefelter’s syndrome 8. Dominant
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15.
(c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
Chapter 28 : Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Fill in the Blanks 1. promoter, regulator 2. introns, exons 3. die, S 4. recessive, UV light 5. endergonic, require
6. DNA, RNA, Protein 7. introns
True/ False 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c)
15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b)
Chapter 29 : Evolution
Fill in the Blanks : 1. 500 2. Aristotle 3. Milky way, disc 4. Bible 5. 750 6. Pansmermia 7. Oparin, Haldane
8. Cocervates 9. Oparin, Redi
True/ False 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False
Conceptual MCQs :
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d)
18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b)
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BIOLOGY
Chapter 30 : Health and Disease

Fill in the Blanks : 1. Prion 2. Second 3. Stanley B. Prusiner 4. BCG 5. Widal test 6. Tuberculosis 7. human
chrionic gonadotropin (hCG) 8. laughing sickness
True/ False : 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs: 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c)
15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c)
Chapter 31 : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Fill in the Blanks : 1. inbreeding; out-breeding 2. apiculture 3. agriculture; 62 4. genebank 5. Parbhani kranti
6. totipotency 7. bio-fortification 8. micropropagation 9. somatic hybridization
True/ False : 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d)) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d)
15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (e)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
Chapter 32 : Microbes in Human Welfare

Fill in the Blanks : 1. fermentors 2. antibiotics 3. mycorrhiza 4. primary sludge 5. 65% 6. biochemical oxygen
demand 7. activated sludge treatment 8. primary treatment 9. biological process
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c)
15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (d)
Diagram Based Questions : 1. (b) 2. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b)
Matching Based Questions : 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d)
Chapter 33 : Biotechnology Principles and Processes
Fill in the Blanks : 1. ligase 2. gel electrophoresis 3. 42°C 4. Transformation 5. gold or tungsten 6. bioreactor
7. Hind II 8. Taq polymerase 9. denaturation
Solutions B-S-11
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. 15. (c)
16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Matching Based Questions 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a)
12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b)
Chapter 34 : Biotechnology and Its Applications
Fill in the Blanks : 1. bio-insecticidal plants 2. Bacillus thuringiensis 3. dsRNA 4. insulin 5. interferon
6. adenosine deaminase (ADA) 7. lymphocytes 8. DNA probes 9. probe
True/ False : 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b) ii 11. (d) . 12. (d) 13. (b)
14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a)
Matching Based Questions 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (d)
12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d)
Chapter 35 : Organism and Environment
Fill in the Blanks : 1. Sun 2. Adaptation 3. Emigration 4. Brood parasitism 5. uniform 6. Type-III 7. Clumped
8. modular, unifor, biomass 9. biotic potential 10. exponential, logistic
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b)
15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a)
Diagram Based Questions 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Matching Based Questions 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 2 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13.
(b) 14. (a) 15. (c)
Chapter 36 : Ecosystem
Fill in the Blanks : 1. stratification 2. unidirectional 3. standing crop 4. open; can 5. lost 6. bottom 7. ecoline
8. secondary productivity 9. solar 10. recycle
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c)
15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Questions 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c)
B-S-12
BIOLOGY
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c)
Matching Based Questions 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5.(b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (d) 14. (c)
Chapter 37 : Biodiversity and Conservation
Fill in the Blanks : 1. animals 2. Vulnerable 3. biosphere reserve 4. national parks 5. intraspecific competition
6. g-diveristy (gamma) 7. fungi 8. beta diversity 9. –196° C 10. Nile perch
True/ False : 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15.
(b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Questions 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)
Matching Based Questions 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c)
Chapter 38 : Environmental Issues
Fill in the Blanks : 1. 1986 2. £ 2.5 µm 3. sewage and water treatment 4. calcium ATPase 5. 5 g / cm3
6. eutrophication 7. –18°C 8. algal bloom 9. deforestation 10. Integrated organic farming
True/ False : 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. True
Conceptual MCQs : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15.
(a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
Diagram Based Questions 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a)
Assertion/ Reason : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
Matching Based Questions 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b)
12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c)

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5. Work, Energy And Power P-26-P-31 29. Communication Systems P-171-P-176

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12. Kinetic Theory P-67-P-71

17. Current Electricity P-98-P-104 9. Hydrogen C-51-C-55

16. Solutions C-93-C-97 13. Photosynthesis B-76-B-82

17. Electrochemistry C-98-C-103 14. Respiration in Plants B-83-B-89

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1 Physical World, Units

Physical World, Units and Measurements P-3

21. The ratio of the dimension of Planck’s constant

(a) polonium sample and aluminium foil

(a) r2dA steradian (b) dA/r2 steradian

Assertion/ Reason : Reason : Smaller the unit of measurement smaller

Matching Based Questions :

Physical World, Units and Measurements P-5

Critical Thinking Type Questions : quantity?

(a) (t1 + t2)/2 (b) t1 t2 / (t2 – t1)

20. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers dis- 1

D E C (d) the motion is retarded and finally the particle

Matching Based Questions :

Assertion/ Reason : 4. Assertion : The horizontal range is same when

Matching Based Questions :

Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 3.5 (b) 5.9

Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs

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Diagram Based Questions : m 3F

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Reason : For same air resistance, acceleration of

Matching Based Questions :

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(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is

Critical Thinking Type Questions :

6 System of Particles and

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Assertion/ Reason : 4. Assertion: When axis of rotation passes through

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Assertion/ Reason : Reason : The intensity of gravitational field of

Matching Based Questions :

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 3GM 2 GM

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Diagram Based Questions : (a) OA (b) C

0.5 (a) Y 2 (b) Y

(a) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10–11 N/m2

is not a correct explanation for assertion A

Matching Based Questions :

Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 2pSY aDT (b) SY aDT

21. The terminal velocity vT of a small steel ball of

Assertion/ Reason : place is the same as magnitude of force exerted

Matching Based Questions :

7. Match the column I and column II

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Matching Based Questions :

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 1/ 4 1/ 4

(b) 11 × 10–6 cm shorter (c) çè ÷ø T (d) (97)1/4T