Disha 33 Years NEET Chapterwise & Topicwise Solved Papers Physics (2020 - 1988)

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EBD_8335
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CONTENTS
1. Physical World, Units and Measurements Topic 3: Acceleration due to Gravity
1-10 Topic 4: Gravitational Field, Potential and
Topic 1: Units of Physical Quantities Energy
Topic 2: Dimensions of Physical Quantities Topic 5: Motion of Satellites, Escape Speed and
Topic 3: Errors in Measurements Orbital Velocity
2. Motion in a Straight Line 11-22 8. Mechanical Properties of
Topic 1: Distance, Displacement & Uniform Solids103-106
motion Topic 1: Hooke's Law & Young's Modulus of
Topic 2: Non-uniform motion Elasticity
Topic 3: Relative Velocity Topic 2: Bulk and Rigidity Modulus & Work
Topic 4: Motion Under Gravity Done in Stretching a Wire
3. Motion in a Plane 23-35 9. Mechanical Properties of
Topic 1: Vectors Fluids107-111
Topic 2: Motion in a Plane with Constant Topic 1: Pressure, Density Pascal's Law &
acceleration Archimedes' Principle
Topic 3: Projectile Motion Topic 2: Fluid Flow, Reyonld's Number &
Topic 4: Relative Velocity in Two Dimensions & Bernoulli's Principle
Uniform Circular Motion Topic 3: Viscosity & Terminal Velocity
Topic 4: Surface Tension, Surface Energy &
4. Laws of Motion 36-50
Capillarity
Topic 1: Ist, IInd & IIIrd Laws of Motion
Topic 2: Motion of Connected Bodies, Pulley & 10. Thermal Properties of Matter 112-121
Equilibrium of Forces Topic 1: Thermometry & Thermal Expansion
Topic 3: Friction Topic 2: Calorimetry & Heat Transfer
Topic 4: Circular Motion, Banking of Road Topic 3: Newton's Law of Cooling
5. Work, Energy and Power 51-67 11. Thermodynamics 122-132
Topic 1: Work Topic 1: First Law of Thermodynamics
Topic 2: Energy To p i c 2 : S p e c i f i c H e a t C a p a c i t y &
Topic 3: Power Thermodynamic Processes
Topic 4: Collisions Topic 3: Carnot Engine, Refrigerator & Second
Law of Thermodynamics
6. System of Particles and Rotational
Motion68-88 12. Kinetic Theory 133-139
Topic 1: Centre of Mass, Centre of Gravity & Topic 1: Kinetic Theory of an Ideal Gas & Gas
Principle of Moments Laws
Topic 2: Angular Displacement, Velocity and Topic 2: Speeds of Gas, Pressure & Kinetic
Acceleration Energy
Topic 3: Torque, Couple and Angular Topic 3: Degree of Freedom, Specific Heat
Momentum Capacity & Mean Free Path
Topic 4: Moment of Inertia, Rotational K.E. and 13. Oscillations 140-154
Power Topic 1: Displacement, Phase, Velocity &
Topic 5: Rolling Motion Acceleration of SHM
7. Gravitation 89-102 Topic 2: Energy in Simple Harmonic Motion
Topic 1: Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion Topic 3: Time Period, Frequency, Simple
Topic 2: Newton's Universal Law of Pendulum & Spring Pendulum
Gravitation Topic 4: Damped SHM, Forced Ocillations &
Resonance
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14. Waves 155-171 21. Alternating Current 257-266

Topic 1: Basic of Mechanical Waves, Progressive Topic 1: Alternating Current, Voltage & Power
& Stationary Waves Topic 2: A.C. Circuit, LCR Circuit, Quality &
Topic 2: Vibration of String & Organ Pipe Power Factor
Topic 3: Beats, Interference & Superposition of Topic 3: Transformers & LC Oscillations
Waves 22. Electromagnetic Waves 267-272
Topic 4: Musical Sound & Doppler's Effect Topic 1: Electromagnetic Waves, Conduction
15. Electric Charges and Fields 172-182 & Displacement Current
Topic 1: Charges & Coulomb's Law Topic 2: Electromagnetic Spectrum
Topic 2: Electric Field, Electric Field Lines & 23. Ray Optics and Optical
Dipole Instruments273-289
Topic 3: Electric Flux & Gauss's Law Topic 1: Plane Mirror, Spherical Mirror &
16. Electrostatic Potential and Reflection of Light
Capacitance183-195 Topic 2: Refraction of Light at Plane Surface &
Topic 1: Electrostatic Potential & Equipotential Total Internal Reflection
Surfaces Topic 3: Refraction at Curved Surface, Lenses
Topic 2: Electric Potential Energy & Work Done & Power of Lens
in Carrying a Charge Topic 4: Prism & Dispersion of Light
Topic 3: Capacitors, Capacitance, Grouping Topic 5: Optical Instruments
of Capacitors & Energy Stored in a Capacitor. 24. Wave Optics 290-298
17. Current Electricity 196-222 Topic 1: Wavefront, Interference of Light,
Topic 1: Electric Current, Drift of Electrons, Coherent & Incoherent Sources
Ohm's Law, Resistance & Resistivity Topic 2: Young's Double Slit Experiment
Topic 2: Combination of Resistances Topic 3: Diffraction, Polarization of Light &
Topic 3: Kirchhoff's Laws, Cells, Thermo emf & Resolving Power
Electrolysis 25. Dual Nature of Radiation
Topic 4: Heating Effects of Current and Matter 299-313
Topic 5: Wheatstone Bridge & Different Topic 1: Matter Waves, Cathode & Positive Rays
Measuring Instruments Topic 2: Electron Emission, Photon Photoelectric
18. Moving Charges and Magnetism223-242 Effect & X-ray
Topic 1: Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic 26. Atoms 314-322
Field & Moment Topic 1: Atomic Structure, Rutherford's Nuclear
Topic 2: Magnetic Field, Biot-Savart's Law & Model of Atom
Ampere's Circuital Law Topic 2: Bohr Model & The Spectra of the
Topic 3: Force & Torque on a Current Carrying Hydrogen Atom
Conductor
27. Nuclei 323-337
Topic 4: Galvanometer and Its Conversion into
Topic 1: Composition and Size of the Nucleus
Ammeter & Voltmeter
Topic 2: Mass-Energy & Nuclear Reactions
19. Magnetism and Matter 243-248 Topic 3: Radioactivity
Topic 1: Magnetism, Gauss's Law, Magnetic
28. Semiconductor Electronics : Materials,
Moment & Properties of Magnet
Devices and Simple Circuits 338-356
Topic 2: The Earth's Magnetism, Magnetic
Topic 1: Solids, Semiconductors and P-N
Materials and their Properties
Junction Diode
Topic 3: Magnetic Equipments
Topic 2: Junction Transistor
20. Electromagnetic Induction 249-256 Topic 3: Digital Electronics and Logic Gates
Topic 1: Magnetic Flux, Faraday's & Lenz's Law
Topic 2: Motional and Static EMI & Applications
of EMI
NEET
NEET FAQs
Query Response
Up till now, there has been no intimation on
changes in the exam pattern. However, changes
will be disclosed with the information brochure of
NEET 2021
Any changes in the Topics – Physics, Chemistry, Biology
NEET exam pattern for 2021? Number of questions – 180
Maximum marks – 720 marks
Exam medium – 11 languages
Exam mode – offline, pen-paper test
Physics – 45 questions
How many questions will appear
Chemistry – 45 questions
from each section?
Biology – 90 questions (Botany and Zoology)
NEET Syllabus covers NCERT syllabus from classes
What will the syllabus for NEET be?
11 & 12 of all the subjects
Which type of questions will be asked? Objective type questions will be asked
4 marks will be allotted for every right response.
1 mark will be deducted for every incorrect
What is the marking scheme for NEET 2020?
response. No marks will be awarded if left
unanswered
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
In this section, we have mentioned some of the important NEET FAQs related to the eligibility criteria:
Q1. I have crossed more than 24 years of my age. Can I attempt for NEET 2021?
Ans: Yes, you can appear for NEET 2021. There is a minimum age criterion of 17 years but there are no
such stipulated criteria of maximum age.
Q2. I am a candidate from open school education. Can I apply for NEET 2021?
Ans: No, candidates who have passed 10+2 as the private candidates or from open schools are not eligible
to take the NEET exam.
Q3. What is the basic eligibility criteria to appear for NEET 2021?
Ans: Candidates have to make sure that they meet the following criteria. Failing to meet these specifications
will lead to rejection:
• Must have attained 17 years of age as on December 31, 2021.
• Must have completed class 12 or equivalent exams from a centrally recognized or state board
with major subjects as Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English.
• Must have qualifying marks of 50% if they belong to general category. For SC/ST/OBC, it is 40%.
• OCIs, PIOs, NRIs and foreign nationals can apply for the exam.
(v)
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NEET
Q4. Can I appear for NEET exams even if I have a gap of one year between my class 11 & 12?
Ans: Yes, you can appear for the NEET if you have a year gap. Earlier there was no rule regarding the year
gaps, but the amendments were made by the Delhi High Court.
Mode of Counselling: Online, Offline
As per the information brochure and the latest guidelines, NEET counselling is broadly of two types. One is
the All India counselling conducted by DGHS for 15% All India Quota seats in goverment medical colleges
and all seats in Central Institutions including AIIMS, JIPMER, AFMC, ESI, Delhi University (DU), BHU, AMU
and Deemed Universities. The second is the state counselling held by each individual state medical council
for the rest of the 85% of the seats in the government colleges, state run universities and the private medical
colleges of the state. Only students who qualify in NEET will be eligible for the counselling subject to certain
regulations.
NEET counselling is generally held in two rounds followed by a mop-up round for any vacant seats left after
the first two rounds. Candidates must apply for the counselling as per their eligibility. An important point
to note is that all candidates who qualify in NEET 2021 will be eligible to apply for the All India counselling.
However, for the respective state counselling processes, admissions will be based on factors like domicile,
residency in state etc. Candidates must check whether they meet the state admission criteria before applying
for the state counselling.
NEET seat allotment will be based on the All India Rank of the applicants, choice of colleges entered, seat
availability, reservation criteria etc.
NEET COUNSELLING GUIDELINES

Type of Counselling Counselling Body
Counselling for 15% AIQ Seats (except in Jammu & Kashmir) in
DGHS, on behalf of MCC
Government medical and dental colleges
Counselling for all MBBS seats in AIIMs and JIPMER
Counselling for all the seats in Central and Deemed Universities
including BDS at Jamia Millia Islamia, New Delhi
Counselling for 85% State Quota seats in DU colleges (MAMC,
LHMC, UCMS)
Counselling for IP Quota seats in ESIC Colleges
DGHS, on behalf of MCC and AFMC
Counselling for Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC)
Pune
Counselling for 85% State Quota seats and 100% state private Respective State Counselling Author-
colleges. ities
In case of Jammu & Kashmir - 100% of all government and pri-
vate colleges
NEET SEAT INTAKE: ( No. may increase in NEET 2021)

• AIIMS MBBS (15 institutes) - 1205 seats
• JIPMER MBBS (2 institutes) - 200 seats
(vi)
NEET
• MBBS seats in 532 colleges - 76,928
• BDS seats in 313 colleges - 26,949
• Ayush seats in 914 colleges - 52,720 seats
NEET CUT OFF FOR TOP MEDICAL COLLEGES

Students appearing in NEET 2020 can check Previous year cut off of some well-known medical institutes in
India from the table given below:
Name of the College Number of Seats Closing Rank
Maulana Azad Medical College 250 32
VMMC and Safdarjung Hospital 150 157
University College of Medical Science 150 171
Govt. Medical College 250 360
Seth G.S Medical College 180 638
Lady Hardinge Medical College 150 489
CSM Medical University 250 3692
S. M. S Medical College 250 356
Grant Medical College & Sir J. J. Hospital 200 382
Pt. B. D. Sharma PGIMS 200 600
King George Medical College NA 506
Sardar Patel Medical College 250 1083
Madras Medical College 250 501
Dr S.N Medical College 250 1128
T. D. Medical College 150 747
M. G. M. Medical College 100 1375
Rural Institute of Med Science & Research 150 1953
Note :- This is a rough estimate & many vary from year to year
NEET Result - Marks vs Rank 2019, 2018 and 2017

(will be updated with 2020 once results are out)
Marks Range Rank Range (2019) Rank Range (2018) Rank Range (2017)
701 - -
691-700 1 1-9
681-690 20 - 88 2-7 10 - 25
671-680 99 - 214 8 - 31 26 - 83
661-670 223 - 476 32 - 63 84 - 163
651-660 568 - 930 64 - 122 164 - 301
641-650 946 - 1714 123 - 232 302 - 535
(vii)
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NEET
631-640 1809 - 2570 233 - 398 534 - 870
621-630 2788 - 3956 399 - 639 871 - 1308
611-620 4074 - 5630 640 - 994 1309 - 1962
601-610 5692 - 7580 995 - 1505 1963 - 2786
591-600 7784 - 10036 1506 - 2169 2787 - 3874
581-590 10248 - 12898 2170 - 3084 3875 - 5229
571-580 13064 - 16008 3085 - 4202 5230 - 6788
561-570 16173 - 19478 4203 - 5615 6789 - 8736
551-560 19967 - 23501 5616 - 7433 8737 - 10851
541-550 23695 - 27650 7434 - 9493 10851 - 13353
531-540 27994 - 32317 9494 - 11885 13354 - 16163
521-530 32796 - 37464 11886 - 14629 16163 - 18876
511-520 37780 - 38736 14630 - 17816 18876 - 22372
501-510 38822 - 44553 17817 - 21337 22372 - 25842
491-500 45023 - 51086 21338 - 25229 25843 - 29557
481-490 51498 - 58114 25230 - 29528 29558 - 33893
471-480 58214 - 65316 29529 - 34037 33894 - 38152
461-470 65801 - 73197 34038 - 38947 38153 - 43019
451-460 73337 - 81607 38948 - 44227 43020 - 47809
441-450 82216 - 89872 44228 - 49907 47810 - 53184
431-440 90825 - 99323 49908 - 55928 53185 - 59177
421-430 99914 - 109429 55929 - 62506 59178 - 65280
411-420 109937 - 120258 62507 - 69529 65281 - 71938
(viii)
1 Physical World, Units

and Measurements
Trend Analysis with Important Topics & Sub-Topics
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Topic Sub-Topic Qns. LOD Qns. LOD Qns. LOD Qns. LOD Qns. LOD
Units of Physical Quantities Units of Physical Quantities 1 E
Dimensions of Physical Dimensions of Physical Q. 1 E
Quantities Application of Dimensions 1 A 1 A
Errors in Measurements Relative & % Error 1 E
Diameter = MSR + CSR
1 A 1 A
(L.C.) – Zero error
Significant figures 1 E
LOD - Level of Difficulty E - Easy A - Average D - Difficult Qns - No. of Questions
Topic 1: Units of Physical Quantities (a) 0.1 N (b) 1 N

(c) 10 N (d) 100 N
1. The unit of thermal conductivity is : [2019]
6. If x = at + bt2, where x is the distance travelled
(a) J m K–1 (b) J m–1 K–1
–1 by the body in kilometers while t is the time in
(c) W m K (d) W m–l K–1
seconds, then the unit of b is [1989]
2. The density of material in CGS system of units (a) km/s (b) kms
is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of (c) km/s2 (d) kms2
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the
value of density of material will be [2011M] Topic 2: Dimensions of Physical Quantities
(a) 0.4 (b) 40
7. Dimensions of stress are : [2020]
(c) 400 (d) 0.04 (a) [ML2T–2] (b) [ML0T–2]
3. The unit of permittivity of free space, eo is (c) [ML–1 T–2] (d) [MLT–2]
[2004] 8. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length
(a) Coulomb2/(Newton-metre)2
(b) Coulomb/Newton-metre e2
that can be formed out of c, G and is [c
(c) Newton-meter 2/Coulomb2 4 pe0
(d) Coulomb2/Newton-meter 2 is velocity of light, G is universal constant of
4. The unit of the Stefan-Boltzmann's constant is gravitation and e is charge] [2017]
(a) W/m2K4 (b) W/m2 [2002] 1/2 1/2
2 2é e2 ù 1 é e2 ù
(c) W/m K (d) W/m2K2 (a) c êG ú (b) ê ú
5. In a particular system, the unit of length, mass ëê 4 pe0 ûú c 2 ëê G 4 pe0 ûú
and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 1/2
1 e2 1 é e2 ù
0.1 s respectively. The unit of force in this (c) G (d) êG ú
system will be equivalent to [1994] c 4pe0 c 2 êë 4 pe0 úû
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2 PHYSICS
9. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are 16. Which two of the following five physical
chosen as the fundamental quantities, the parameters have the same dimensions? [2008]
dimensional formula of surface tension will be: (A) Energy density
[2015] (B) Refractive index
(a) [EV–1T–2] (b) [EV–2T–2] (C) Dielectric constant
(c) [E–2V–1T–3] (d) [EV–2T–1] (D) Young’s modulus
(E) Magnetic field
10. If dimensions of critical velocity uc of a liquid (a) (B) and (D) (b) (C) and (E)
flowing through a tube are expressed as
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (A) and (E)
[hxryrz], where h, r and r are the coefficient
17. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical
of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and
circuit, in terms of dimension of mass [M], of
radius of the tube respectively, then the values
length [L], of time [T] and of current [I], would
of x, y and z are given by : [2015 RS]
be [2007]
(a) –1, –1, 1 (b) –1, –1, –1 (a) [ML2T–2] (b) [ML2T–1I–1]
(c) 1, 1, 1 (d) 1, –1, –1 (c) [ML2T–3I–2] (d) [ML2T–3I–1]
11. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken 18. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by
as fundamental units, then the dimensions of b
v = at + , where a, b and c are constant.
mass are : [2014] t+c
The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively
(a) [F V T– 1] (b) [F V T– 2] [2006]
(c) [F V– 1 T– 1] (d) [F V– 1 T] (a) [L2, T and LT2] (b) [LT2, LT and L]
12. The pair of quantities having same dimensions (c) [L, LT and T2] (d) [LT–2, L and T]
is [NEET Kar. 2013] 19. The ratio of the dimension of Planck’s constant
(a) Young’s modulus and energy and that of the moment of inertia is the
(b) impulse and surface tension dimension of [2005]
(a) time
(c) angular momentum and work
(b) frequency
(d) work and torque (c) angular momentum
-1 (d) velocity
13. The dimensions of (m 0 Î0 ) 2 are 20. The dimensions of universal gravitational
[2012M, 2011] constant is [2004]
(a) [M–2 L2 T–1] (b) [M–1 L3 T–2]
(a) [L1/2 T–1/2] (b) [L–1 T]
(c) [M L2 T–1] (d) [M–2 L3 T–2]
(c) [L T–1] (d) [L–1/2 T1/2] 21. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are same
1 as [2001]
14. The dimension of e0 E 2 , where e is
2 0 (a) energy
permittivity of free space and E is electric field, (b) power
is: [2010] (c) momentum
(a) [ML2 T–2] (b) [ML–1T–2] (d) angular momentum
(c) [ML2T–1] (d) [MLT–1] 22. Which one of the following groups have
quantities that do not have the same
15. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are
dimensions? [2000]
given by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity will
(a) pressure, stress (b) velocity, speed
be: [2009] (c) force, impulse (d) work, energy
(a) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1 23. The dimensional formula for magnetic flux is
(b) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2 [1999]
(c) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2 (a) [ML2T–2A–1] (b) [ML3T–2A–2]
(d) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2 (c) [M0L–2T2A–2] (d) [ML2T–1A2]
Physical World, Units and Measurements 3
24. The force F on a sphere of radius ‘a’ is moving (a) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1

in a medium with velocity v is given by F = (b) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1
6phav. The dimensions of h are [1997] (c) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(a) [ML–3] (b) [ML–2] (d) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1
(c) [ML–1] (d) [ML–1T–1] 31. The dimensional formula for permeability µ is
æ a ö q given by [1991]
25. An equation is given as : ç P + 2 ÷ = b –2 –2
(a) [MLT A ]
è V ø V
where P = Pressure, V = Volume & q = (b) [M0L1T]
Absolute temperature. If a and b are constants, (c) [M0L2T–1A2]
then dimensions of a will be [1996] (d) None of the above
(a) [ML5T–2] (b) [M–1L5T2] 32. According to Newton, the viscous force acting
(c) [ML–5T–1] (d) [ML5T1] between liquid layers of area A and velocity
26. Which of the following will have the DV
dimensions of time [1996] gradient DV/DZ is given by F = -hA where
R
DZ
(a) LC (b) h is constant called coefficient of viscosity. The
L
L C dimensional formula of h is [1990]
(c) (d) (a) ML–2T–2 (b) M0L0T0
R L
27. Which of the following is a dimensional (c) ML2T–2 (d) ML–1T–1
constant? [1995] 33. The frequency of vibration f of a mass m
(a) Refractive index suspended from a spring of spring constant k
(b) Poissons ratio is given by a relation of the type f = c mx ky,
(c) Relative density where c is a dimensionless constant. The values
(d) Gravitational constant of x and y are [1990]
28. The time dependence of a physical quantity p is 1 1 1 1
(a) x = , y = (b) x = – , y = -
given by p = p0 exp (–at2), where a is a constant 2 2 2 2
and t is the time. The constant a [1993] 1 1 1 1
(a) is dimensionless (c) x = , y = – (d) x = – , y =
2 2 2 2
(b) has dimensions T–2
34. The dimensional formula of pressure is
(c) has dimensions T2
[1990]
(d) has dimensions of p
(a) [MLT–2] (b) [ML–1T2]
29. Turpentine oil is flowing through a tube of
length l and radius r. The pressure difference (c) [ML–1T–2] (d) [MLT2]
between the two ends of the tube is p. The 35. The dimensional formula of torque is [1989]
viscosity of oil is given by (a) [ML2T–2] (b) [MLT–2]
h=
(
p r2 - x2 ) 36.
(c) [ML–1T–2] (d) [ML–2T–2]
Dimensional formula of self inductance is
4vl [1989]
where v is the velocity of oil at a distance x
(a) [MLT–2A–2] (b) [ML2T–1A–2]
from the axis of the tube. The dimensions of h
are [1993] (c) [ML2T–2A–2] (d) [ML2T–2A–1]
(a) [M0L0T0] (b) [MLT–1] 37. Of the following quantities, which one has
(c) [ML2T–2] (d) [ML–1T–1] dimension different from the remaining three?
30. P represents radiation pressure, c represents (a) Energy per unit volume [1989]
speed of light and S represents radiation energy (b) Force per unit area
striking unit area per sec. The non zero integers (c) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
x, y, z such that Px Sy cz is dimensionless are (d) Angular momentum.
[1992]
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4 PHYSICS
38. The dimensional formula for angular zero of circular scale division coincides with
momentum is [1988] 25 divisions above the reference level. If
(a) [M0L2T–2] (b) [ML2T–1] screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
(c) [MLT–1] (d) [ML2T–2] the correct diameter of the ball is [2018]
39. If C and R denote capacitance and resistance, (a) 0.521 cm (b) 0.525 cm
the dimensional formula of CR is [1988] (c) 0.529 cm (d) 0.053 cm
0 0 1 45. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d
(a) [M L T ]
(b) [M0L0T0] are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%,
(c) [M0L0T–1] 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is
(d) not expressible in terms of M,L,T. a 3b 2
calculated as follows P = % error in P is:
Topic 3: Errors in Measurements cd
[2013]
40. Taking into account of the significant figures, (a) 10% (b) 7%
what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
(c) 4% (d) 14%
[2020] 46. If the error in the measurement of radius of a
(a) 9.98 m (b) 9.980 m sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination
(c) 9.9 m (d) 9.9801 m of volume of the sphere will be: [2008]
41. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and (a) 4% (b) 6%
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The (c) 8% (d) 2%
pitch of the screw gauge is : [2020] 47. The density of a cube is measured by measuring
(a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.5 mm its mass and length of its sides. If the maximum
error in the measurement of mass and length
(c) 1.0 mm (d) 0.01 mm
are 4% and 3% respectively, the maximum
42. In an experiment, the percentage of error error in the measurement of density will be
occurred in the measurement of physical [1996]
quantities A, B, C an D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% (a) 7% (b) 9%
respectively. Then the maximum percentage of (c) 12% (d) 13%
error in the measurement X, where X = 48. The percentage errors in the measurement of
A 2 B1/ 2 mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively.
will be : [2019]
C1/ 3 D3 The error in kinetic energy obtained by
measuring mass and speed will be [1995]
æ 3ö (a) 12% (b) 10%
(a) çè ÷ø % (b) 16%
13 (c) 8% (d) 2%
(c) –10% (d) 10% 49. In a vernier calliper N divisions of vernier scale
43. The main scale of a vernier callipers has n coincides with (N – 1) divisions of main scale
divisions/cm. n divisions of the vernier scale (in which length of one division is 1 mm). The
coincide with (n – 1) divisions of main scale. least count of the instrument should be [1994]
The least count of the vernier callipers is, (a) N (b) N – 1
[NEET Odisha, 2019] (c) 1/10 N (d) 1/N – 1
50. A certain body weighs 22.42 gm and has a
1 1 measured volume of 4.7 cc. The possible error
(a) cm (b) cm
n(n + 1) (n + 1)(n - 1) in the measurement of mass and volume are
1 1 0.01 gm and 0.1 cc. Then maximum error in
(c) cm (d) cm the density will be [1991]
n n2
44. A student measured the diameter of a small (a) 22% (b) 2%
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count (c) 0.2% (d) 0.02%
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 7 (a) 13 (c) 19 (b) 25 (a) 31 (a) 37 (d) 43 (d) 49 (c)
2 (b) 8 (d) 14 (b) 20 (b) 26 (c) 32 (d) 38 (b) 44 (c) 50 (b)
3 (d) 9 (b) 15 (d) 21 (d) 27 (d) 33 (d) 39 (a) 45 (d)
4 (a) 10 (d) 16 (c) 22 (c) 28 (b) 34 (c) 40 (a) 46 (b)
5 (a) 11 (d) 17 (c) 23 (a) 29 (d) 35 (a) 41 (b) 47 (d)
6 (c) 12 (d) 18 (d) 24 (d) 30 (c) 36 (c) 42 (b) 48 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) In steady state, the amount of heat flowing 4. (a) According to Stefan’s law, E = sAT4
from one face to the other face in time dt is where, E is energy dissipated per second,
given by A = surface area
kA(T1 - T2 )dt T = absolute temperature
H=
l E W
s= =
Þ
dH kA
= AT 4 m 2 K 4
DT (k = coefficient of thermal
dt l 5. (a) As we know force = Mass × Acceleration
conductivity) = Mass × length × time–2 = (10g)(10 cm)(0.1s)–2
ldH = (10–2 kg) (10–1m) (10–1s)–2 = 10–1N.
\ k=
A dt DT 6. (c) Given, x = at + bt2
Unit of k = Wm–1 K–1 where, x = distance in km
g t = time in sec
2. (b) In CGS system, density d = 4 3 By the principle of homogencity, the
cm dimensions of each terms of a dimensional
unit of length = 1 cm
unit of mass = 1 g equation on both sides are the same.
And in another system of units So, from equation, x = at + bt2
The unit of mass is 100g and unit of length is 10 dimension of left side = [L]
cm, so substitute these values dimension of right side should be = [L]
æ 100g ö æ 4 ö According to homogeneity’s law,
4ç çè ÷ [L] = [b][T2]
è 100 ÷ø 100 ø (100g)
Density = 3
= 3 3 [L]
æ 10 ö æ 1 ö (10cm) [b] = = dimension of acceleration
çè cm ÷ çè ÷ø [T +2 ]
10 ø 10
so unit of b should be km/sec2.
4 100g
= ´ (10)3 · = 40 unit Force
100 (10cm) 3 7. (c) Stress =
Area
Apart from fundamental and derived units, we have Dimensions of force = [MLT–2]
also used practical units e.g., horse power (h.p.) is Dimensions of area = [L2]
a practical units of power. Practical units may or
may not belong to a system but can be expressed [MLT –2 ]
\ Stress = = [ML–1T –2 ]
in any system of units. [L2 ]
8. (d) Let dimensions of length is related as,
q2 z
3. (d) eo = é e2 ù
( r 2 )4pF x y
[L] = [c] [G] ê ú
Þ unit of eo is (coulomb)2/ newton-metre2 êë 4pe 0 úû
EBD_8335
6 PHYSICS
e2 10. (d) Applying dimensional method :

Þ = [ML3T–2] vc = hxryrz
4pe0
here,
[L] = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y[ML3T–2]z
dimension of critical velocity, V0 = [LT–1]
[L] = [Lx + 3y + 3z M–y + z T–x – 2y – 2z]
Comparing both sides F
co-efficient of viscosity, h =
–y + z = 0 Þ y = z ...(i) 6prv
x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii) [MLT –2 ]
–x – 4z = 0 (Q y = z) ...(iii) so dimension of h = = [ML–1T–1]
[ L][ LT –1 ]
From (i), (ii) and (iii)
1 [M ]
z = y = , x = –2 dimension of density, r = = [ML–3]
2 [ L3 ]
1/2
dimension of radius, r = [L]
-2 é e2 ù
Hence, [L] = c êG × ú Put these values in equation (i),
ëê 4pe0 ûú [M0LT–1] = [ML–1T–1]x [ML–3T0]y [M0LT0]z
9. (b) As we know that, surface tension(s) = Equating powers both sides
Force[ F ] x + y = 0; –x = –1 \ x = 1
Length[ L] 1 + y = 0 \ y = –1
–x – 3y + z = 1
[ MLT –2 ]
So, [S] = = [MT–2] –1 – 3(–1) + z = 1
[ L] –1 + 3 + z = 1
Energy, (E) = Force × Displacement, \ z = –1
[E] = [ML2T–2] 11. (d) Force = mass × acceleration
displacement force
Velocity (V) = Þ Mass =
time acceleration
[V] = [LT–1] force
Let surface tension expressed as, = = [F V– 1 T]
velocity / time
s = Ea Vb Tc where a, b, c are constant. 12. (d) Work = Force × displacement
Put the value = [MLT–2][L]
[MLT –2 ] é Lù
b = [ML2T–2]
= [ML2T –2 ]a ê ú [T]c Torque = Force × force arm
[L] ëT û
From the principle of homogeneity, = mass × acceleration × length
Equating the dimension of LHS and RHS = [M] × [LT–2] × [L] = [M L2T–2]
[ML0T–2] = [MaL2a + b T–2a – b + c] If dimensions are given, physical quantity may not
Þ a = 1, 2a + b = 0, –2a – b + c = –2 be unique as many physical quantities have same
Þ a = 1, b = –2, c = –2 dimensions. e.g., If the dimensional formula of a
Hence, the dimensions of surface tension are physical quantity is [ML2T–2] it may be work or
energy or torque.
[E V–2 T–2]
1
Length, mass and time are arbitrarily chosen as 13. (c) (m0e0)–1/2 = Þ c = speed of light
fundamental quantities in mechanics. In fact any m0 e0
three quantities in mechanics can be termed as where e0 = permittivity of free space
fundamental as all other quantities can be expressed m0 = permeability of free space
in terms of these. If force (F) and acceleration (a) So dimensions of (m0e0)–1/2 will be [LT–1]
are taken as fundamental quantities, then mass will 1
be defined as force (F) and acceleration (a) will be 14. (b) e0 E 2 represents energy density i.e.,
termed as derived quantity. 2
energy per unit volume.
[ ML2 T -2 ] 19. (b) Dimension formula for the planck’s

é1 2ù
Þ ê 0 ú = e E = [ML–1T–2] constant, h = [ML2T1]
ë2 û [ L3 ] Dimension formula for the moment of inertia,
Force I = [ML2]
15. (d) Pressure =
Area So, the ratio between the plank’s constant and
–2 moment of inertia is
[MLT ]
Þ = [ML–1T –2 ]
2
[L ] h [ML2T –1 ]
Þ a = 1, b = –1, c = –2. Þ = Þ [T–1]
I [ML2 ]
Energy h
16. (c) Energy density = Þ = [T–1] Þ dimension of frequency
Volume I
[ML2T –2 ] G M 1m2 F r2
Þ = [ML–1T –2 ] 20. (b) F= Þ G =
[L3 ]
r2 M 1m2
Refractive index and dielectric constant have
no dimensions. [MLT -2 ][L2 ]
\dimension of G is
F l [ M ][M ]
Young’s Modulus = ´ = [M–1L3T–2]
A Dl
[MLT –2 ] [L] 21. (d) We know that E = hn
Þ × = [ML–1T–2].
[L2 [ [L] E [ML2 T -2 ]
h= = = [ML2 T -1 ]
F [MLT –2 ] n -1
[T ]
Magnetic field, B = =
il [A][L] Angular momentum = Iw
= [MT–2A–1]. = [ML2][T–1] = [ML2T–1]
17. (c) As we know that 22. (c) Force has dimension [MLT–2] while impulse
[V] w w has dimension [MLT–1 ], both have different
R= = = dimensions.
[I] q×i i ×t ×i
Dimension of Resistance 23. (a) Dimension of magnetic flux
= Dimension of magnetic field × Dimension
[ML2T -3I -1] of area
= = [ML2T–3I–2]
[T][I] [ML0T–2A–1] [L2] = [ML2T–2A–1]
18. (d) Dimension of a.t = dimension of velocity 24. (d) F= 6ph av
a.t = [LT–1] Þ [a = LT–2] F [MLT –2 ]
Dimension of c = dimension of t h= = = [ML–1 T -1 ]
6p av [L][LT –1 ]
(two physical quantity of same dimension
can only be added) æ a ö q
So, dimension of c = [T] 25. (a) çè P + 2 ÷ø = b V
V
b According to the principle of homogeneity
Dimension of = Dimension of velocity
t+c quantity with same dimension can be added or
b subtracted.
T–1][LT–1] Þ [b × T–1] = [LT–1]
= [LT a
T+T Hence, Dimension of P = Dimension of 2
Þ b = [L] V
So, answer is [LT–2], [L] and [T] Force a
Þ Dimension of = Dimension of 2
A dimensionally correct equation may or may not
Area V
be physically correct. In a dimensionally correct é MLT -2 ù a
equation, the dimensions of each term on both sides Þ ê 2
ú = 3 2 Þ a = [M L5 T–2]
of an equation must be the same. ëê L ûú [ L ]
EBD_8335
8 PHYSICS
30. (c) Let the expression, a = PxSycz ...(i)

To get the dimensions of physical constant, we
write any formula or equation incorporating the
and given that dimension of a = [M0L0T0] ...(ii)
given constant and then by substituting the = dimensionless
dimensional formula of all other quantities, we can Force
find the dimensions of the required constant or Dimension fo radiation pressure P =
Area
coefficients.
di [MLT –2 ]
26. (c) e = – L .........(1) = = [ML–1T–2]
dt [L2 ]
e = iR .........(2) Dimension of radiation energy/unit area unit
time
di
From (1) & (2), iR = – L [ML2T –2 ]
dt Energy
S= = = [MT–3]
\ Dimension of L.H.S. = Dimension of R.H.S. Area ´ Time [L2 ][T]
L Dimension of speed of light, c = [LT–1]
[A] R = L [AT–1] Þ =[T]
R By equation (i) we get,
L So, the dimension of a = [ML–1T–2]x [MT–3]y
is time constant of R-L circuit so, dimensions [LT–1]z
R
L According to equation (ii),
of is same as that of time.
R Þ [M0L0T0] = [ML–1T–2]x [MT–3]y [LT–1]z
27. (d) A quantity which has dimensions and a Þ [M0L0T0] = [Mx + y L–x + z T–2x – 3y – z]
constant value is called dimensional constant. Applying the principle of homegenity of
Therefore, gravitational constant (G) is a dimension we get,
dimensional constant. Value of G = 6.67 × 10– x+y=0 ...(iii)
11 m2/kg/sec2
–x + z = 0 ...(iv)
dimension of G = [M–1L3T–2] –2x – 3y – z = 0 ...(v)
Relative density, refractive index and poisson ratio After solving above three equation we get,
all the three are ratios, therefore they are x = 1; y = –1; z = 1
dimensionless constants.
Try out the given alternatives.
Angle is an exceptional physical quantity, which
When x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
though is a ratio of two similar physical quantities
Pc
æ arc ö PxSycz = P1S–1c1 =
ç angle = ÷ but still requires a unit but no S
è radius ø
dimensions. [ ML–1T –2 ] [ LT –1 ]
= = [ M 0 L0T 0 ]
28. (b) In p = p0 exp (–at2), where at2 where is [ ML2T –2 / L2T ]
dimensionless 31. (a) Permeability of free space,
1 1 -2 2p ´ force ´ distance
\ a = 2 = 2 = [T ] m0 =
t [T ] (current) 2 ´ length
p( r 2 – x 2 ) [ML–1T –2 ][L2 ] So, dimensional formula
29. (d) h = =
4vl [LT –1 ][L] [MLT –2 ][L]
m0 = T–2A–2]
= [MLT
= [ML–1T–1] [A 2 ][L]
According to the principle of homogeneity, the Also find the dimensional formula by using
dimensions of each term on the L.H.S. must be the relation,
equal to the dimensions of the terms on the R.H.S. 1
Only then dimensional equation or formula is Speed of light, c =
dimensionally correct. m 0e0
DV 40. (a) In subtraction the number of decimal places

32. (d) F = – hA in the result should be equal to the number of
DZ
decimal places of that term in the operation
FDZ
Þ h = (–1) which contain lesser number of decimal places.
AD V
So dimensional formula of h 9.99
- 0.0099
[MLT –2 ][L]
Þ 9.9801
[L2 ][LT –1 ]
Þ [ML–1T–1] As the least number of decimal places is 3. So,
33. (d) f = c mx ky; answer should be 9.98 m.
Spring constant k = force/length. 41. (b) Least count of screw gauge = 0.01 mm
[M0L0T–1] = [Mx][MT–2]y = [ Mx + y T–2y] Least count
1 Pitch
=
Þ x + y = 0, - 2 y = -1 or y = No. of divisions on circular scale
2
1 Pitch
Therefore, x = – Þ 0.01 mm =
2 50
Þ Pitch = 0.5 mm
The method of dimensions cannot be used to derive
relations other than product of power functions. A 2 B1 2
42. (b) Given, x =
34. (c) Pressure = Force / Area C1 3 D3
So dimensional formula Dx DA 1 DB
% error, ´ 100 = 2 ´ 100 + ´
-2 x A 2 B
[MLT ]
= = [ML–1T–2] 1 DC DD
[L2 ] 100 + ´ 100 + 3 ´ 100
3 C D
35. (a) t = Force × distance
1 1
So dimensional formula, = 2 ´ 1% + ´ 2% + ´ 3% + 3 ´ 4%
2 3
= [MLT–2] [L] = [ML2T–2]
= 2% + 1% + 1% + 12% = 16%
æ dt ö W é di ù W é di ù 43. (d) n VSD = (n – 1) MSD
36. (c) L = eç ÷ = ê ú = i × t êë dt úû
è dI ø q ë dt û ( n – 1)
1 VSD = MSD
n
[ML2T -2 ][T] ( n –1)
or, [L] = = [ML2T -2A -2 ]
[AT][A] L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD = 1 MSD – MSD
n
37. (d) For angular momentum, the dimensional 1 1 1 1
formula is [ML2 T–1 ]. For other three, it is = MSD = ´ = 2
n n n n
[ML–1T–2].
44. (c) Diameter of the ball
38. (b) Angular momentum = MSR + CSR × (least count) – zero error
= Momentum of inertia × Angular velocity = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
So dimensional formula, = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004 = 0.529 cm
= [ML2] × [T–1] a 3b 2
45. (d) Given, P =
= [ML2T–1] cd
DP Da
æ q öæ V ö æ i ×t ö Therefore, × 100% = 3 × 100%
39. (a) CR = ç ÷ç ÷ Þ ç ÷ Þ t = time P a
è V øè i ø è i ø
Db Dc Dd
= [T] = [M0L0T1] +2 × 100% + × 100% + × 100%
b c d
RC is the time constant of the circuit. = 3 × 1% + 2 × 2% + 3% + 4% = 14%
EBD_8335
10 PHYSICS
When we multiply or divide two measured æ Dm ö

48. (c) Percentage error in mass ç ´ 100 ÷ = 2
quantities, the relative error in the final result is equal è m ø
to the sum of the relative errors in the measured
quantities. And when we add or subtract two æ Dv ö
and percentage error in speed ç ´ 100 ÷ = 3 .
measured quantities the absolute error in the final è v ø
result is equal to the sum of the absolute error in 1 2
the measured quantities. Kinetic energy, k = mv .
2
46. (b) Given, error in the measurement of radius \ Error in measurement of kinetic energy
Dr DK Dm æ Dv ö
of a sphere ´100 = 2% = + 2ç ÷
r K m è v ø
4 3
Volume of the sphere V = pr æ 2 ö æ 3 ö 8
3 =ç ÷ + ç2´ ÷= = 8%
DV è 100 ø è 100 ø 100
\ Error in the volume ´ 100
V \ %age error = 8%.
Dr 49. (c) Least count = 1MSD – 1 VSD
= ±3 × ´ 100 = 3 × 2% = ±16%
r æ N –1ö
mass = 1MSD – ç ÷ MSD
47. (d) As we know, density = è N ø
volume 1 1 1 1
Maximum error in the measurement of density = MSD = ´ cm =
N N 10 10N
M
r= Smaller value of the least count, higher is the
L3 accuracy of measurement. Accuracy of
Dr DM DL measurement is higher when number of significant
\ = +3 figure after the decimal in measurement is larger.
r M L
% error in density = % error in Mass Mass(M)
50. (b) Density, D =
+3 (% error in length) Volume(V)
= 4 + 3(3) = 13% DD DM DV æ 0.01 0.1 ö
\ = + =ç + ÷ ´ 100 = 2%
D M V è 22.42 4.7 ø
Motion in a Straight Line 11
2 Motion in a
Straight Line
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Distance, Displacement Average Speed 1 A
& Uniform motion 1 E
Non-uniform motion
Relative Velocity Use of eqn. of motion 1 E
Motion Under Gravity Velocity-time graph 1 A
River-Man problem 1 A
Topic 1: Distance, Displacement 3. A particle covers half of its total distance with
& Uniform motion speed v1 and the rest half distance with speed
v 2 . Its average speed during the complete
1. A person travelling in a straight line moves with
journey is [2011M]
a constant velocity v1 for certain distance ‘x’
and with a constant velocity v2 for next equal v1v2 2v1v2
distance. The average velocity v is given by the (a) v1 + v2
(b) v1 + v2
relation [NEET Odisha 2019]
1 1 1 2v12 v2 2 v1 + v2
(a) v = v1v2 (b) = + (c) (d)
v v1 v2 v12 + v2 2
2
2 1 1 v v1 + v2 4. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu
(c) = + (d) =
v v1 v2 2 2 and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The
2. Preeti reached the metro station and found that average speed for this round trip is [2007]
the escalator was not working. She walked up vd vu
the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, (a) vu vd (b)
vd + vu
if she remains stationary on the moving escalator,
then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The 2 vd vu
vu + vd
time taken by her to walk up on the moving (c) (d)
escalator will be: [2017] 2 vd + vu
t1t2 t1t2 5. If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed
(a) (b) of 144 km/h in 20 s, it covers a distance of [1997]
t2 - t1 t2 + t1
(a) 2880 m (b) 1440 m
t1 + t2 (c) 400 m (d) 20 m
(c) t1 – t2 (d)
2
EBD_8335
12 PHYSICS
6. A bus travelling the first one third distance at a 13. The motion of a particle along a straight line is
speed of 10 km/h, the next one third at 20 km/ described by equation :
h and the last one-third at 60 km/h. The average x = 8 + 12t – t3
speed of the bus is [1991] where x is in metre and t in second. The
(a) 9 km/h (b) 16 km/h retardation of the particle when its velocity
(c) 18 km/h (d) 48 km/h becomes zero, is : [2012]
7. A car moves a distance of 200 m. It covers the (a) 24 ms–2 (b) zero
first half of the distance at speed 40 km/h and (c) 6 ms–2 (d) 12 ms–2
the second half of distance at speed v. The 14. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards
average speed is 48 km/h. Find the value of v east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes
(a) 56 km/h (b) 60 km/h [1991] 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration
(c) 50 km/h (d) 48 km/h of the body is [2011]
8. A car covers the first half of the distance between (a) 1 m/s2 (b) 7 m/s2
two places at 40 km/h and other half at 60 km/h. (c) 7 m/s2 (d) 5 m/s2
The average speed of the car is [1990]
(a) 40 km/h (b) 48 km/h 15. A particle has initial velocity (3$i + 4 $j ) and
(c) 50 km/h (d) 60 km/h has acceleration (0.4$i + 0.3 $j ) . It’s speed after 10
Topic 2: Non- uniform motion s is: [2010]
9. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where (a) 7 units (b) 7 2 units
A and B are constants, then the distance (c) 8.5 units (d) 10 units
travelled by it between 1s and 2s is : [2016] 16. A particle moves a distance x in time t according
3 to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of
(a) A + 4B (b) 3A + 7B
2 particle is proportional to: [2010]
3 7 A B (a) (velocity) 3/2 (b) (distance)2
(c) A+ B (d) + (c) (distance)–2 (d) (velocity)2/3
2 3 2 3
17. A particle starts its motion from rest under the
10. A particle of unit mass undergoes one- action of a constant force. If the distance
dimensional motion such that its velocity varies covered in first 10 seconds is S1 and that
according to v(x) = bx–2n covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then:
where b and n are constants and x is the position [2009]
of the particle. The acceleration of the particle
(a) S2 = 3S1 (b) S2 = 4S1
as the function of x, is given by: [2015]
(a) –2nb 2 x –4n–1 (b) –2b2x –2n+1 (c) S2 = S1 (d) S2 = 2S1
(c) –2nb2e –4n+1 (d) –2nb 2 x –2n–1 18. The distance travelled by a particle starting from
11. The displacement ‘x’ (in meter) of a particle of 4
rest and moving with an acceleration ms –2 ,
mass ‘m’ (in kg) moving in one dimension under 3
the action of a force, is related to time ‘t’ (in sec) in the third second is: [2008]
by t = x + 3 . The displacement of the particle (a) 6 m (b) 4 m
when its velocity is zero, will be 19
10
[NEET Kar. 2013] (c) m (d) m
(a) 2 m (b) 4 m 3 3
19.
(c) zero (d) 6 m
r r D
12. A particle has initial velocity (2i + 3 j ) and
Distance (s)
r r
acceleration (0.3i + 0.2 j ) . The magnitude of
velocity after 10 seconds will be : [2012]
(a) 9 2 units (b) 5 2 units A
Time (t)
(c) 5 units (d) 9 units
B
A particle shows distance-time curve as given 25. The displacement of a particle is represented by
in this figure. The maximum instantaneous the following equation : s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 5t + 8
velocity of the particle is around the point: where s is in metre and t in second. The
[2008] acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is [2000]
(a) 14 m/s2 (b) 18 m/s2
(a) B (b) C 2
(c) 32 m/s (d) zero
(c) D (d) A 26. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be
20. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant stopped by applying brakes at least after 2 m. If
acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms–1 the same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h,
to 20 ms–1 while passing through a distance 135 m what is the minimum stopping distance?[1998]
in t second. The value of t is: [2008] (a) 8 m (b) 6 m
(a) 10 (b) 1.8 (c) 4 m (d) 2 m
(c) 12 (d) 9 27. The displacement of a particle varies with time
(t) as: s = at2 – bt3. The acceleration of the
21. The position x of a particle with respect to time particle will be zero at time t equal to [1997]
t along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is in a a
metres and t in second. What will be the position (a) (b)
of this particle when it achieves maximum speed b 3b
along the +ve x direction? [2007] 3b 2a
(c) (d)
(a) 54 m (b) 81 m a 3b
(c) 24 m (d) 32 m. 28. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a
for some time, after which it decelerates at a
22. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration constant rate b and comes to rest. If the total
æ tö time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity
f, at time t, given by f = f 0 ç 1 - ÷ , where f0
è Tø acquired by the car is [1994]
and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has æ a2 + b 2 ö æ a2 – b 2 ö
zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 (a) çç ÷÷ t (b) çç ÷÷ t
and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity è ab ø è ab ø
(vx) is [2007] (a + b ) t abt
(c) (d)
1 2 ab a +b
(a) fT (b) f0T2
2 0 29. The displacement time graph of a moving particle
is shown below
1
(c) fT (d) f0T S
2 0
DISPLACEMENT
23. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a

time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of D
the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. C E F
How long would the particle travel before
coming to rest? [2006] Time
(a) 40 m (b) 56 m The instantaneous velocity of the particle is
(c) 16 m (d) 24 m negative at the point [1994]
24. The displacement x of a particle varies with (a) D (b) F
time t as x = ae -at + be bt, where a, b, a and b (c) C (d) E
are positive constants. The velocity of the 30. A particle moves along a straight line such that
particle will [2005] its displacement at any time t is given by
(a) be independent of a and b s = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) metres
(b) drop to zero when a = b The velocity when the acceleration is zero is
(c) go on decreasing with time [1994]
(d) go on increasing with time (a) 3 ms–1 (b) – 12 ms–1
(c) 42 ms–2 (d) – 9 ms–1
EBD_8335
14 PHYSICS
31. A body starts from rest, what is the ratio of the Topic 4: Motion Under Gravity
distance travelled by the body during the 4th
36. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
and 3rd seconds? [1993] velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the
7 5 ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s.
(a) (b) The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2) [2020]
5 7
(a) 340 m (b) 320 m
7 3
(c) (d) (c) 300 m (d) 360 m
3 7 37. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers
32. Which of the following curve does not represent distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds,
motion in one dimension? [1992] the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds
respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and
v v
h3 is [2013]
h2 h3
(a) h1 = =
(a) (b) 3 5
(b) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2
t t
(c) h1 = h2 = h3
v v (d) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3
38. A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20m height
drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 ms–2, the velocity
(c) (d) with which it hits the ground is [2011]
t t (a) 10.0 m/s (b) 20.0 m/s
(c) 40.0 m/s (d) 5.0 m/s
33. A car is moving along a straight road with a 39. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at
uniform acceleration. It passes through two t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another
points P and Q separated by a distance with ball is thrown downwards from the same platform
velocity 30 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. The with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18s.
velocity of the car midway between P and Q is What is the value of v? [2010]
(take g = 10 m/s2)
[1988]
(a) 75 m/s (b) 55 m/s
(a) 33.3 km /h (b) 20 2 km/ h (c) 40 m/s (d) 60 m/s
40. A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free
(c) 25 2 km/h (d) 35 km/h space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He
throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with
Topic 3: Relative Velocity a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches the floor,
34. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms–1 on a the distance of the man above the floor will be:
(a) 9.9 m (b) 10.1 m [2010]
straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake (c) 10 m (d) 20 m
the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 41. Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass
1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should 3 kg), are dropped from heights of 16m and 25m,
the scooterist chase the bus? [2009] respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them
(a) 40 ms–1 (b) 25 ms–1 to reach the ground is [2006]
(c) 10 ms–1 (d) 20 ms–1 (a) 12/5 (b) 5/12
35. A train of 150 metre long is going towards north (c) 4/5 (d) 5/4
direction at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at 42. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a
speed of 10 m/sec when it has reached one
the speed of 5 m/s towards south direction
half of its maximum height. How high does
parallel to the railway track. The time taken by the ball rise? [2005, 2001]
the parrot to cross the train is [1988] Take g = 10 m/s2.
(a) 12 sec (b) 8 sec (a) 10 m (b) 5 m
(c) 15 sec (d) 10 sec (c) 15 m (d) 20 m
43. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed (a) 20 m (b) 40 m

u, the distance covered during the last t seconds (c) 80 m (d) 160 m
of its ascent is [2003] 48. Three different objects of masses m1, m2 and m3
(a) (u + gt) t (b) ut are allowed to fall from rest and from the same
1 2 1 2 point O along three different frictionless paths.
(c) gt (d) ut – gt The speeds of the three objects on reaching the
2 2 ground will be in the ratio of [1995]
44. A man throws balls with the same speed
vertically upwards one after the other at an (a) m1 : m2 : m3 (b) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3
interval of 2 seconds. What should be the speed 1 1 1
of the throw so that more than two balls are in (c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) : :
the sky at any time? [Given g = 9.8 m/s2] [2003] m1 m2 m3
(a) Only with speed 19.6 m/s 49. The water drops fall at regular intervals from a
(b) More than 19.6 m/s tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is
(c) At least 9.8 m/s leaving the tap at an instant when the first drop
(d) Any speed less than 19.6 m/s touches the ground. How far above the ground
45. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with a is the second drop at that instant?
velocity of 40 m/s, then velocity of the ball after (Take g = 10 m/s2) [1995]
two seconds will be (g = 10 m/s2) [1996] (a) 1.25 m (b) 2.50 m
(a) 15 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 3.75 m (d) 5.00 m
(c) 25 m/s (d) 28 m/s 50. A body dropped from top of a tower fall through
46. A body is thrown vertically upward from the 40 m during the last two seconds of its fall. The
ground. It reaches a maximum height of 20 m in 5 height of tower is (g = 10 m/s2) [1991]
sec. After what time, it will reach the ground (a) 60 m (b) 45 m
from its maximum height position? [1995] (c) 80 m (d) 50 m
(a) 2.5 sec (b) 5 sec 51. What will be the ratio of the distances moved
(c) 10 sec (d) 25 sec by a freely falling body from rest in 4th and 5th
47. A stone released with zero velocity from the top seconds of journey? [1989]
of a tower, reaches the ground in 4 sec. The (a) 4 : 5 (b) 7 : 9
(c) 16 : 25 (d) 1 : 1
height of the tower is (g = 10m / s 2 ) [1995]
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 7 (b) 13 (d) 19 (b) 25 (c) 31 (a) 37 (a) 43 (c) 49 (c)
2 (b) 8 (b) 14 (d) 20 (d) 26 (a) 32 (b) 38 (b) 44 (b) 50 (b)
3 (b) 9 (c) 15 (b) 21 (a) 27 (b) 33 (c) 39 (a) 45 (b) 51 (b)
4 (d) 10 (a) 16 (a) 22 (c) 28 (d) 34 (d) 40 (b) 46 (b)
5 (c) 11 (c) 17 (b) 23 (b) 29 (d) 35 (d) 41 (c) 47 (c)
6 (c) 12 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 30 (d) 36 (c) 42 (a) 48 (c)
EBD_8335
16 PHYSICS
Hints & Solutions

4. (d) Average speed
x x
1. (c) As t1 v = and t2 = v total distance travelled
1 2 =
total time taken
x+ x 2x 2v1v2 Let s be the distance from X to Y.
\ v= t +t = x x =
1 2 v1 + v2 s+s 2s
+ \ Average speed = =
v1 v2 t1 + t2 s s
+
2 1 1 vu vd
\ = +
v v1 v2 2vu vd
=
2. (b) Let the distance be ‘d’ time taken by preeti vd + vu
to travel up the stationary escalator = t1 Velocity 5. (c) Initial velocity of car (u) = 0
d Final velocity of car (v) = 144 km/hr = 40 m/s
of preeti w.r.t. elevator v1 = Time taken = 20 s
t1
We know that, v = u + at
Since the distance is same let the time taken when 40 = a × 20 Þ a = 2 m/s2
preeti stands on the moving escalator = t2. Also, v2 – u2 = 2as
d v2 – u 2
Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v2 = Þ s=
t2 2a
Then net velocity of preeti w.r.t. ground
(40) 2 – (0) 2 1600
v = v1 + v2 Þ s= = = 400 m.
2´ 2 4
d d d
= + s
t t1 t2 6. (c) Average speed =
s/3 s/3 s/3
1 1 1 + +
= + 10 20 60
t t1 t2
s
tt = = 18km / h
\ t = 1 2 (time taken by preeti to walk s / 18
(t1 + t2 )
In case speed is continuously changing with time,
up on the moving escalator)
3. (b) Let the total distance covered by the ò vdt
then, Vav =
particle be 2s. Then ò dt
2s 2v1v2 7. (b) Given, Total distance = 200 m speed in first
vav = =
s s v1 + v2 half distance = 40 km/hr speed in second half
+
v1 v2 distance = vkm/hr.
Total distance covered
The average speed of an object is the total distance So, vav =
travelled by the object divides by the elapsed time Total time elapsed
to cover that distance. It’s a scalar quantity which
means it is defined only by magnitude. A related 200 ´10 –3
48 =
concept, average velocity, is a vector quantity. A æ 100 ´ 10 –3 ö æ 100 ´ 10 –3 ö
vector quantity is defined by magnitude and çç ÷÷ + çç ÷÷
è 40 ø è v ø
direction both.
1 1 2 1 For one dimensional motin, the angle between

or + = = velocity and acceleration is either 0° or 180° and it
40 v 48 24
does not change with time.
1 1 1 2 1
or = – = =
v 24 40 120 60 11. (c) Q t = x +3
or v = 60 km/h
Þ x = t – 3 Þ x = (t – 3)2 ...(i)
2v1v2 2 ´ 40 ´ v dx
vav = Þ 48 = v= = 2(t – 3) = 0
v1 + v2 40 + v dt
Þt=3
Þ v = 60 km/h
From equation (i)
8. (b) Total distance = s; \ x = (3 – 3)2
Total time taken Þx=0
s/2 s/2 5s s 12. (b) vr = ur + at
r
= + = =
40 60 240 48 v = (2iˆ + 3 ˆj) + (0.3iˆ + 0.2 ˆj) ´ 10 = 5iˆ + 5 ˆj
total distance r
\ Average speed = total time | v | = 52 + 52
r
s | v |= 5 2
= = 48km / h
s / 48 13. (d) x = 8 + 12t – t3
The final velocity of the particle will be zero,
2v1v2 2 ´ 40 ´ 60 because it retarded.
vav = = = 48 km/h
v1 + v2 40 + 60 \ v = 0 + 12 – 3t2 = 0
9. (c) Given : Velocity v = At + Bt2 3t2 = 12
t = 2 sec
dx Now the retardation
Þ = At + Bt2
dt
dv
By integrating we get distance travelled by the a= = 0 – 6t
particle between 1s and 2s, dt
x 2 a[t = 2] = –12 m/s2
ò dx = ò ( At + Bt ) dt retardation = 12 m/s2
2
Þ 14. (d) Average acceleration
0 1 40 m/s
Changein velocity
A ( 2 2 ) B ( 3 3 ) 3A 7B <a>=
x= 2 -1 + 2 -1 = + Total Time
2 3 2 3
| 40 ˆj - 30iˆ |
10. (a) Given, v (x) = bx–2n < a>=
10 30 m/s
dv dv dx
a= = × 2
< a > = 4 + (–3) 2
dt dx dt
< a > = 5 m/s2
dv r r
= v×
dx 15. (b) Given, u = 3i$ + 4 $j and a = 0.4$i + 0.3 $j
dv Þ ux = 3units, uy = 4 units
So, = –2 nb x–2n – 1 Þ ax = 0.4 units, ay = 0.3 units
dx
Acceleration of the particle as function of x, Along x-axis,
\ vx = ux + ax × 10 = 3 + 4 = 7 units
dv Along y-axis,
a=v = bx–2n {b(–2n)x–2n–1}
dx and vy = 4 + 0.3 × 10 = 4 + 3 = 7 units
= – 2nb2x–4n–1 Net final velocity
EBD_8335
18 PHYSICS
2 2 The instantaneous velocity of an object at a given

\ v = v x + v y = 7 2 units instant is first derivative of displacement with
r r
vi = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj and a = 0.4iˆ + 0.3 ˆj respect to time.
The slope of displacement-time graph at any
time, t = 10 sec.
r r r r instant of time gives the measure of instantanesous
Final velocity v f after time t = 10 sec, v f = vi + at velocity of an object at that instant.
r
v f = ( 3iˆ + 4 ˆj ) + ( 0.4iˆ + 0.3 ˆj ) (10) = 7iˆ + 7 ˆj 20. (d) Initial velocity, u = 10 ms–1
Final velocity, v = 20 ms–1
The particle speeds up i.e., the speed of the particle
r r Distance, s = 135 m
increases when the angle between a and v lies Let, acceleration = a
between 0° + 90°. The particle speeds down i.e., Using the formula, v2 = u2 + 2as
the speed of the particle decreases when the angle v2 – u 2
r r a=
between a and v lies between + 90° and 180°. 2s
1 ( 20)2 – (10 )2 = 400 – 100
16. (a) distance x = =
t +5 2 ´ 135 2 ´ 135
dx -1 300 150 10 –2
\ velocity v = = or, a = = = ms
dt (t + 5) 2 2 ´135 135 9
Now, using the relation, v = u + at
d2x 2
\ acceleration a = = = 2x3 v – u 20 – 10 10
dt (t + 5)3
2 t= = = ´ 9sec = 9 sec.
a 10 / 9 10
Therefore, v3/2 = –(t + 5)–3 dx d
So, a µ v3/2 21. (a) Speed v = = (9t 2 - t 3 ) = 18t – 3t2
dt dt
17. (b) u = 0, t1 = 10s, t2 = 20s
For maximum speed its acceleration should be
1 zero,
Using the relation, S = ut + at2
2 dv
Acceleration being the same in two cases, Acceleration = 0 Þ 18 - 6t = 0 Þ t = 3
dt
1 1 At t = 3 its speed is max
S1 = a ´ t12 , S2 = a ´ t22
2 2 Þ xmax = 81 – 27 = 54 m
2 2 Position of any point is completely expressed by
S1 æ t1 ö æ 10 ö 1
\ =ç ÷ =ç ÷ = two factors its distance from the observer and its
S2 è t2 ø è 20 ø 4 direction with respect to observer.
S2 = 4S1 That is why position is characterised by a vector
18. (c) Distance travelled in the nth second is known as position vector.
a æ tö
given by Sn = u + (2n – 1) 22. (c) Here, f = f 0 ç1 - ÷
2 è Tø
4 –2
Given u = 0, a = ms , n = 3 dv æ tö
3 or, = f0 ç 1 - ÷
4 10
dt è Tø
4 If f = 0, then
\ Sn = 0 + (2 × 3 –1) = ´ 5 = m
3´ 2 6 3 æ tö
ds 0 = f 0 ç1 - ÷ Þ t = T
19. (b) The slope of the graph is maximum at è Tø
dt
C and hence the instantaneous velocity is Hence, particle’s velocity in the time interval
maximum at C. t = 0 and t = T is given by
Instantaneous velocity, v =Vz T
r r é æ t öù
r Ds ds vx = ò dv = ò ê f 0 ç1 - T
è
÷údt
øû
vins = lim
Dt ® 0 Dt
=
dt v =0 t =0 ë
T ds
éæ t2 öù velocity, v = = 2at - 3bt 2
= f 0 êç t - ÷÷ ú dt
ç
ëêè 2T ø ûú0 dv
acceleration a = = 2 a - 6bt
dt
æ T2 ö æ Tö 1 Acceleration is zero at
= f0 ç T - ÷÷ = f 0 ç T - ÷ = f 0T .
ç 2T è 2 ø 2 a
è ø t=
3 2a – 6bt = 0 Þ
23. (b) x = 40 + 12 t – t 3b
dx v
v= = 12 – 3t 2 28. (d)
dt A
v max
12
For v = 0; t = = 2 sec
3
a b
So, after 2 seconds velocity becomes zero.
Value of x in 2 secs = 40 + 12 × 2 – 23
= 40 + 24 – 8 = 56 m A1 B t
24. (d) O t1 t2 t0
25. (c) Displacement
In Fig.
s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 5t +8;
AA1 = vmax. = at1 = bt2
ds
Velocity = = 9t2 + 14t + 5 v v
dt But t = t1 + t2 = max + max
a b
d 2s
Acceleration = = 18t + 14 æ 1 1ö æ a +b ö
dt 2 = vmax ç + ÷ = vmax ç ÷
Acceleration at (t = 1s) èa bø è ab ø
= 18 × 1 + 14 = 18 + 14 = 32 m/s2
26. (a) v2 – u2 = 2as æ ab ö
or, vmax = t ç ÷
è a +b ø
v2 – u2
Þa= If a body starting from rest accelerates at a
2s constant rate a for certain time and then retards
at constant b and comes to rest after t. second
u12
= – , from the starting point, then
2s
For same retarding force s µ u2 ab t 2
Distance travelled by the body =
2 (2a + 2b)
s2 u22 s2 æ 80 ö
Q = 2 Þ = ç ÷ =4 29. (d) At E, the slope of the curve is negative.
s1 u1 s1 è 40 ø
\ s2 = 4s1 = 8 m The line bending towards time axis represents
If F is retarding force and s the stopping decreasing velocity or negative velocity of the
1 particle. It means the particle possesses retardation.
distance, then mv 2 = Fs
2 ds
30. (d) Velocity, v = = 3t 2 – 12t + 3
For same retarding force, s a v2 dt
2 2 dv
s2 æ v2 ö æ 80km/h ö Acceleration, a = = 6t – 12; For a = 0, we
\ =ç ÷ =ç ÷ =4 dt
s1 è v1 ø è 40km/h ø have, 0 = 6 t – 12 or t = 2s. Hence, at t = 2 s the
\ s2 = 4s1 = 4 × 2 = 8 m velocity will be
27. (b) distance, s = at2 – bt3 v = 3 × 22 – 12 × 2 + 3 = –9 ms–1
EBD_8335
20 PHYSICS
a
S4 0 + 2 (2 ´ 4 - 1) 7 36. (c) u = 20 m/s
31. (a) = =
S3 0 + a (2 ´ 3 - 1) 5
2 T
O
Equation of the motion of uniformly accelerated W g
motion, the distance travelled in nth sec is given by, E
a R
Sn = u + (2 n – 1)
2 v = 80 m/s
32. (b) In one dimensional motion, the body can
have at a time one velocity but not two values
of velocities. Using v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh
33. (c) Let PQ = x, then
u = 30 km/h
v 2 - u 2 (80) 2 - (20) 2
v = 40 km/h Height, h = =
2g 2 ´ 10
402 – 302 350
a= = [Q v2 = u2 + 2as]
2x x 6400 - 400
= = 300 m
Also, velocity at mid point is given by vm, 20
Þ vm = u2 + 20(7) 1
350 x 37. (a) Q h = gt2
2
Þ vm – 302 = 2 ´ ´ 2
x 2 1
This gives v = 25 2 km/h \ h1 = g(5)2 = 125
2
34. (d) Let v be the relative velocity of scooter 1
w.r.t bus as v = vS – vB h1 + h2 = g(10)2 = 500
2
1000 Þ h2 = 375
v= = 10 ms –1 vB = 10ms –1
100 1
\ vS = v + vB, h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2 = 1125
2
S B Þ h3 = 625
h2 = 3h1, h3 = 5h1
1 km u =10 ms–1
h2 h
= 10 + 10 = 20 ms–1 or h1 = = 3
\ velocity of scooter = 20 ms–1 3 5
When two bodies are moving in same directions, The distance covered in time t, 2t, 3t, etc. will be in
relative velocity is between difference individual the ratio of 12 : 22 : 32 i.e., square of integers i.e., h
velocities. µ t2.
r r r
V AB = V A – VB
35. (d) Relative velocity of parrot w.r.t the train 38. (b) Here, u = 0
= 10 – (–5) = 15 ms–1. We have, v2 = u2 + 2gh
Time taken by parrot to cross the train Þ v = 2gh = 2 ´ 10 ´ 20 = 20 m/s
150 39. (a) Clearly distance moved by 1st ball in
= = 10 s
15 18s = distance moved by 2nd ball in 12s. ...(i)
Now, distance moved in 18 s by 1 st
When two bodies are moving in direction relative 1
velocity is sum of individual velocities. ball = × 10 × 182 = 90 × 18 = 1620 m
r r r 2
v AB = v A – v B Distance moved in 12 s by 2nd ball
The distance which bird has to travel to cross the
train is equal to the length of train. Now since the 1 2 1
= ut + gt Þ 12v + ´ 10 × (12)2
train and the bird are travelling in opposite 2 2
direction, therefore the speed will be added up.
Þ 12 v + 720 42. (a) For part AB

From equation (i) From 3rd equation of motion
\ 1620 = 12 v + 5 × 144 v2 = u2 – 2gH
Þ v = 135 – 60 = 75 ms–1 v
40. (b) No external force is acting, therefore,
momentum is conserved.
By momentum conservation,
50 u + 0.5 × 2 = 0
where u is the velocity of man.
1
u=- ms -1
50
Negative sign of u shows that man moves
upward. i
Time taken by the stone to reach the ground 0 = u2 – 2g(H/2) = u2 – gH
10
= 5 sec u 2 102
= H= = = 10 m
2 g 10
43. (c) Let body takes T sec to reach maximum height.
50 kg Then v = u – gT
v = 0, at highest point.
u
So, T = …(1)
2 ms -1 0.5 kg g
Velocity attained by body
10 m in (T – t) sec v = u – g(T – t)
u
v = u – gT + gt = u – g + gt (Q T = u/g)
g
1 or v = gt …(2)
Distance moved by the man = 5 ´ = 0.1m \ Distance travelled in last t sec of its ascent
50
\ when the stone reaches the floor, the 1
s = vt – gt 2
distance of the man above floor = 10.1 m 2
41. (c) Let t1 & t2 be the time taken by A and B 1 1
respectively to reach the ground then from the s = ( gt )t – gt 2 = gt 2
formula, 2 2
1
h = gt 2 , If a body is projected vertically upward, then,
2 final velocity, v = 0; intial speed, u = gt and height
1 2 22
For first body, 16 = gt12 u g t 1 2
2 attained, h = = = gt
2g 2g 2
1
For second body, 25 = gt2 2
2 44. (b) Let the required speed of throw be u
16 t1 2
t 4 ms–1. Then time taken to reach maximum height,
\ = 2 Þ 1= .
25 t2 t2 5 u
t=
g
If a body is a dropped from some height, the motion
For two balls to remain in air at any time, t must
is independent of mass of the body. The time taken
be greater than 2.
to reach the ground t = 2h / g and final
u
\ > 2 Þ u > 19.6 m/s
velocity V = 2 gh and initial velocity, u = 0. g
EBD_8335
22 PHYSICS
45. (b) Initial velocity (u) = 40 m/s Therefore, distance of the second drop above
Acceleration a = –g m/s2 = –10 m/s2 the ground = 5 – 1.25 = 3.75 m.
Time = 2 seconds 50. (b) Let the body fall through the height of
By Ist equation of motion, tower in nth seconds. From,
v = u + at a
v = 40 – 10(2) = 20 m/s Dn = u + (2 n – 1) we have, total distance
46. (b) hmax = 20 m and t = 5 sec. Time taken by 2
the body to reach the ground from some height travelled in last 2 seconds of fall is
is the same as taken to reach that height. D = Dt + D(t–1)
Therefore, time to reach the ground from its é g ù é g ù
maximum height is 5 sec. = ê0 + (2 n - 1) ú + ê0 + {2( n - 1) - 1}ú
ë 2 û ë 2 û
47. (c) Initial velocity (u) = 0; Time (t) = 4 sec and
gravitational acceleration (g) = 10 m/s2. g g g
= (2n - 1) + (2 n - 3) = (4n - 4)
Height of tower 2 2 2
1 2 1 10
h = ut + gt = (0 ´ 4) + ´ 10 ´ (4) 2 . = 80 m. = ´ 4(n - 1)
2 2 2
48. (c) The speed of an object, falling freely due or, 40 = 20 (n – 1) or n = 2 + 1 = 3s
to gravity, depends only on its height and not Distance travelled in t seconds is
on its mass V = 2 gh . Since the paths are where, t = 3 sec
frictionless and all the objects fall through the 1 1
s = ut + at 2 = 0 + ´ 10 ´ 32 = 45 m
same height, therefore, their speeds on reaching 2 2
the ground will be in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 1.
g
49. (c) Height of tap = 5m and (g) = 10 m/sec2. (2 ´ 4 –1)
x (4) 2 7
1 2 51. (b) = =
For the first drop, S = ut + gt x (5) g (2 ´ 5 – 1) 9
2 2
1
5 = (0 ´ t ) + ´ 10t 2 = 5t2 or t2 = 1 or t = 1 sec. é a ù
2 êëQSn th = u + 2 (2n - 1) and u = 0, a = g úû
It means that the third drop leaves after one
second of the first drop. Or, each drop leaves
In the absence of air resistance, all bodies irrespective
after every 0.5 sec. of the size, weight or composition fall with the
Distance covered by the second drop in 0.5 sec same acceleration near the surface of the earth. This
1 2 1 motion of a body falling towards the earth from a
= ut + gt = (0 ´ 0.5) + ´ 10 × (0.5)2 small altitude (h<<R) is called free fall.
2 2
= 1.25 m. g
Distance travelled in nth second hn = ( 2n - 1)
2
Motion in a Plane 23
3 Motion in a Plane
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Vectors Vectors Product 1 E
1 E
Motion in a Plane with
Motion in 2-D : Differs 1 E
Constant acceleration
Projectile Motion 1 A
Relative Velocity in Two River-Man Problem in 2D
Dimensions & Uniform Uniform Circular Motion 1 A
Circular Motion
Topic 1: Vectors 4. A particle is moving such that its position

r coordinate (x, y) are
1. The moment of the force, F = 4iˆ + 5 ˆj – 6kˆ at (2m, 3m) at time t = 0
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by (6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and
[2018] (13m, 14m) at time t = 5s.
ˆ r
ˆ ˆ
(a) –8i – 4 j – 7k (b) –4i – j – 8kˆ
ˆ ˆ Average velocity vector (Vav ) from t = 0 to
(c) –7iˆ – 4 ˆj – 8kˆ (d) –7iˆ – 8 ˆj – 4kˆ t = 5s is : [2014]
2. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal 1 ˆ 7 ˆ ˆ
to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, (a) (13i + 14 ˆj ) (b) (i + j )
5 3
the angle between these vectors is : [2016]
11 ˆ ˆ
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 2(iˆ + ˆj ) (d) (i + j )
(c) 45° (d) 180° 5
r r r r r r
3. If vectors A = cos wtiˆ + sin wtjˆ and 5. Vectors A, B and C are such that A × B = 0
r r r
r wt wt ˆ and A × C = 0. Then the vector parallel to A is
B= cos iˆ + sin j are functions of time, [NEET Kar. 2013]
2 2 r r r r
then the value of t at which they are orthogonal (a) B and C (b) A ´ B
to each other is : [2015 RS] r r r r
(c) B + C (d) B ´ C
p p r
(a) t= (b) t= 6. Six vectors, ar through f have the magnitudes
2w w
and directions indicated in the figure. Which
p of the following statements is true? [2010]
(c) t=0 (d) t=
4w
EBD_8335
24 PHYSICS
13. The angle between the two vectors

b r r
a c A = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ and B = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj - 5kˆ will be
[2001, 1994]
d e (a) zero (b) 45º
f
r r r r r r (c) 90º (d) 180º
(a) b + c = f (b) d + c = f 14. A particle moves with a velocity
r r r r r r
(c) d + e = f (d) b + e = f r
uur uur v = 6iˆ - 4 ˆj + 3kˆ m/s under the influence of a
7. A and B are two vectors and q is the angle r
uur uur uur uur constant force F = 20iˆ + 15 ˆj - 5kˆ N. The
between them, if | A ´ B |= 3( A .B ) , the value
of q is [2007] instantaneous power applied to the particle is
(a) 45° (b) 30° [2000]
(c) 90° (a) 45 J/s (b) 35 J/s
uur uur (d) 60°
8. The vectors A and B are such that (c) 25 J/s (d) 195 J/s
uur uur uur uur 15. What is the linear velocity if angular velocity
| A + B |=| A - B | r
The angle between the two vectors is vector w = 3iˆ - 4 ˆj + kˆ and position vector
[2006, 2001, 1996, 1991] r
(a) 60° (b) 75° r = 5iˆ - 6 ˆj + 6kˆ [1999]
(c) 45° (d) 90° (a) 6iˆ + 2 ˆj - 3kˆ (b) -18iˆ - 13 ˆj + 2kˆ
9. If a vector 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 8kˆ is perpendicular to the (c) 18iˆ + 13 ˆj - 2kˆ (d) 6iˆ - 2 ˆj + 8kˆ
vector 4 ˆj - 4iˆ + akˆ , then the value of a is 16. The angle between two vectors of magnitude
[2005] 12 and 18 units when their resultant is 24 units,
(a) 1/2 (b) –1/2 is [1999]
(c) 1 (d) –1 r (a) 63º51¢ (b) 75º52¢
r (c) 82º31¢ (d) 89º16¢
10. If the angle between the vectors A and B is q,
r r r 17. If a unit vector is represented by
the value of the product ( B ´ A) × A is equal to
[2005] 0.5iˆ + 0.8 ˆj + ckˆ, the value of c is [1999]
(a) BA2 sinq (b) BA2 cosq
(a) 1 (b) 0.11
(c) BA2 sinq cosq (d) zero
r r r r r r (c) 0.01 (d) 0.39
11. If | A ´ B |= 3 A × B then the value of | A + B | r
is [2004] 18. Find the torque of a force F = -3iˆ + ˆj + 5 kˆ
r
(a) ( A2 + B 2 + 3 AB )½ acting at the point r = 7iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ. [1997]
(b) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
(a) -21iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5 kˆ (b) -14 iˆ + 3 ˆj + 16 kˆ
½
æ 2 2 AB ö
(c) çA +B + ÷ (c) 4 iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6 kˆ (d) 14 iˆ - 38 ˆj + 16 kˆ
è 3ø
(d) A + B 19. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
12. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular [1996]
to their vector differences. In that case, the (a) displacement (b) electric field
forces [2003] (c) work (d) acceleration
(a) cannot be predicted 20. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(b) are equal to each other [1995]
(c) are equal to each other in magnitude
(a) speed (b) velocity
(d) are not equal to each other in magnitude
(c) torque (d) displacement
21. A body constrained to move in y-direction, is Assuming that the body is at rest at time t = 0,
subjected to a force given by the velocity of the body at t = 3s is [2002]
uur
F = (–2iˆ + 15 ˆj + 6kˆ) N . What is the workdone (a) 6iˆ + 6 ˆj (b) 18iˆ + 6 ˆj
by this force in moving the body through a (c) 18iˆ + 12 ˆj (d) 12iˆ + 18 ˆj
distance of 10m along y-axis? [1994] 29. Two particles A and B are connected by a rigid
(a) 190 J (b) 160 J rod AB. The rod slides along perpendicular
(c) 150 J (d) 20 J rails as shown here. The velocity of A to the
uur
22. The resultant of ( A ´ 0 ) will be equal to [1992] left is 10 m/s. What is the velocity of B when
angle a = 60º? [1998]
(a) zero (b) A
(c) zero vector (d) unit vector B
uur uur
23. The angle between A and B is q. The value
uur uur uur
of the triple product A × ( B ´ A ) is [1989]
(a) A2B (b) zero
(c) A2B sin q (d) A2B cosq a
uur uur uur
24. The magnitudes of vectors A , B and C are A
uur uur uur (a) 5.8 m/s (b) 9.8 m/s
3, 4 and 5 units respectively. If A + B = C , then
uur uur (c) 10 m/s (d) 17.3 m/s
the angle between A and B is [1988] 30. The position vector of a particle is
(a) p/2 –1
(b) cos 0.6 r
r = ( a cos wt )iˆ + ( a sin wt ) ˆj. The velocity of
(c) tan–17/5 (d) p/4 the particle is [1995]
(a) directed towards the origin
Topic 2: Motion in a Plane with
Constant acceleration (b) directed away from the origin
(c) parallel to the position vector
25. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any (d) perpendicular to the position vector
time are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, 31. A bullet is fired from a gun with a speed of 1000
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. m/s in order to hit a target 100 m away. At what
The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is
height above the target should the gun be
[2017]
aimed? (The resistance of air is negligible and
(a) 5 m/s2 (b) –4 m/s2
g = 10 m/s2) [1995]
(c) –8 m/s2 (d) 0
26. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in (a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm
the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm
( 3, 3) . The path of the particle makes with the Topic 3: Projectile Motion
x-axis an angle of [2007] 32. A projectile is fired from the surface of the
(a) 45o (b) 60o earth with a velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle q
(c) 0o (d) 30o with the horizontal. Another projectile fired
27. A particle moves in a plane with constant from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms – 1
acceleration in a direction different from the at the same angle follows a trajectory which is
initial velocity. The path of the particle is identical with the trajectory of the projectile
[2005] fired from the earth. The value of the
(a) an ellipse (b) a parabola acceleration due to gravity on the planet is
(c) an arc of a circle (d) a straight line (in ms–2) given g = 9.8 m/s2 [2014]
28. A body of 3 kg moves in the XY plane under the (a) 3.5 (b) 5.9
action of a force given by 6t 2iˆ + 4t ˆj . (c) 16.3 (d) 110.8
EBD_8335
26 PHYSICS
33. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A (a) Their maximum height will be same
( )
is 2$i + 3$j m/s. It’s velocity (in m/s) at point B (b) Their range will be same
(c) Their landing velocity will be same
is [2013]
(d) Their time of flight will be same
40. If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity
v at an angle of 30° to the horizontal and
another body B of the same mass is thrown
with the same speed at an angle of 60° to the
horizontal, the ratio of horizontal range of A to
B will be [1992]
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 1
(a) -2$i + 3 $j (b) 2$i - 3$j
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 :1
(c) 2$i + 3$j (d) -2$i - 3 $j 41. The maximum range of a gun of horizontal terrain
34. The horizontal range and the maximum height of is 16 km. If g = 10 ms–2, then muzzle velocity of
a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of a shell must be [1990]
the projectiles is : [2012]
(a) 160 ms –1 (b) 200 2 ms –1
æ ö
1
(c) 400 ms –1 (d) 800 ms–1
(a) q = tan–1 çè ÷ø (b) q = tan–1 (4)
4 42. Two bodies of same mass are projected with the
(c) q = tan–1 (2) (d) q = 45° same velocity at an angle 30° and 60°
35. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial respectively. The ratio of their horizontal ranges
velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of will be [1990]
the missile is [2011]
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(a) 40 m (b) 50 m
(c) 60 m (d) 20 m (c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 2
36. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the Topic 4: Relative Velocity in Two
horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at Dimensions & Uniform Circular Motion
its highest point as seen from the point of
projection is [2011M] 43. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/
–1 æ 1 ö s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
(a) 60° (b) tan ç ÷
è2ø flowing due east. If he is standing on the south
–1 æ 3 ö bank and wishes to cross the river along the
(c) tan ç ÷ (d) 45°
è 2 ø shortest path, the angle at which he should make
37. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v his strokes w.r.t. north is given by : [2019]
making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. When (a) 30°west (b) 0°
the particle lands on the level ground the (c) 60° west (d) 45° west
magnitude of the change in its momentum will 44. A particle moves so that its position vector is
be: [2008] r
given by r = cos wtxˆ + sin wtyˆ . Where w is a
(a) 2mv (b) mv / 2
(c) mv 2 (d) zero constant. Which of the following is true?[2016]
38. For angles of projection of a projectile (45° – q) (a) Velocity and acceleration both are
r
and (45° + q), the horizontal ranges described by perpendicular to r
the projectile are in the ratio of [2006] (b) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel
r
(a) 1: 3 (b) 1 : 2 to r
r
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 (c) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
39. Two projectiles are fired from the same point acceleration is directed towards the origin
r
with the same speed at angles of projection (d) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
60º and 30º respectively. Which one of the acceleration is directed away from the
following is true? [2000] origin
45. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 50. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long
10 km h –1 and a ship B 100 km South of A, is is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
moving Northwards with a speed of 10 km h –1. speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44
The time after which the distance between them seconds, what is the magnitude and direction
becomes shortest, is : [2015] of acceleration of the stone? [2005]
(a) p2 m s–2 and direction along the radius
(a) 5h (b) 5 2h towards the centre
(c) 10 2 h (d) 0 h (b) p2 m s–2 and direction along the radius
r away from the centre
46. The position vector of a particle R as a function
(c) p2 m s–2 and direction along the tangent
of time is given by:
r to the circle
R = 4sin(2 pt )iˆ + 4 cos(2 pt ) ˆj (d) p2/4 m s–2 and direction along the radius
towards the centre
Where R is in meter, t in seconds and iˆ and ĵ 51. The circular motion of a particle with constant
denote unit vectors along x-and y-directions, speed is [2005]
respectively. (a) periodic but not simple harmonic
Which one of the following statements is wrong (b) simple harmonic but not periodic
for the motion of particle? [2015 RS] (c) periodic and simple harmonic
v2 (d) neither periodic nor simple harmonic
(a) Magnitude of acceleration vector is ,
R 52. A stone is tied to a string of length l and is
where v is the velocity of particle whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of
(b) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 the string as the centre. At a certain instant of
meter/second time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a
(c) path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 speed u. The magnitude of the change in velocity
meter. as it reaches a position where the string is
r
(d) Acceleration vector is along R horizontal (g being acceleration due to gravity)
47. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with is [2004]
constant speed and time period 0.2 ps. The
acceleration of the particle is [2011] (a) 2g l (b) 2(u 2 - g l)
(a) 15 m/s2 (b) 25 m/s2
(c) 36 m/s2 (d) 5 m/s2 (c) u2 - g l (d) u - u2 - 2 g l
48. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track
of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 seconds in every æ 20 ö
53. A particle moves along a circle of radius ç ÷m
circular loop. The average velocity and average è pø
speed for each circular loop respectively, is with constant tangential acceleration. If the
[2006] velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of
(a) 0, 10 m/s (b) 10 m/s, 10 m/s the second revolution after motion has begun,
(c) 10 m/s, 0 (d) 0, 0 the tangential acceleration is [2003]
49. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a (a) 40 p m/s2 (b) 40 m/s2
ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts (c) 640 p m/s 2 (d) 160 p m/s2
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with 54. Two particles of mass M and m are moving in a
velocity v 1 . The boy at A starts running circle of radii R and r. If their time-periods are
simultaneously with velocity v and catches the same, what will be the ratio of their linear
other boy in a time t, where t is [2005] velocities? [2001]
(a) a / v 2 + v12 (b) a /(v + v1) (a) MR : mr (b) M : m
(c) R : r (d) 1 : 1
(c) a /(v–v1) (d) a 2 /(v 2 - v12 )
EBD_8335
28 PHYSICS
55. A small sphere is attached to a cord and rotates direction of flow of water. The speed of water
in a vertical circle about a point O. If the in stream is [1999]
average speed of the sphere is increased, the (a) 1.0 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s
cord is most likely to break at the orientation (c) 0.25 m/s (d) 0.43 m/s.
when the mass is at [2000] 59. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a
A string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal
m circle. The string will break if the tension is
l
more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed
C D with which the ball can be moved? [1998]
O
(a) 14 m/s (b) 3 m/s
(c) 5 m/s (d) 3.92 m/s
B
60. A body is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius
(a) bottom point B (b) the point C
20 cm. It has an angular velocity of 10 rad/s.
(c) the point D (d) top point A What is its linear velocity at any point on circular
56. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still path [1996]
water crosses a river of width 1 km along the (a) (b) 2 m/s
2 m/s
shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The (c) 10 m/s (d) 20 m/s
velocity of the river water in km/hr is
61. When a body moves with a constant speed along
[2000, 1998] a circle [1994]
(a) 3 (b) 4 (a) its velocity remains constant
(c) (d) 1 (b) no force acts on it
21
(c) no work is done on it
57. A stone tied with a string, is rotated in a vertical (d) no acceleration is produced in it
circle. The minimum speed with which the string 62. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of
has to be rotated [1999] 8 km h –1 . If the resultant velocity of boat is
(a) is independent of the mass of the stone 10 km h –1 , then the velocity of the river is
(b) is independent of the length of the string [1993]
(c) decreases with increasing mass of the (a) 12.8 km h–1 (b) 6 km h–1
stone (c) 8 km h–1 (d) 10 km h–1
(d) decreases with increasing length of the 63. An electric fan has blades of length 30 cm
string measured from the axis of rotation. If the fan is
58. A person swims in a river aiming to reach exactly rotating at 120 rpm, the acceleration of a point
opposite point on the bank of a river. His speed on the tip of the blade is [1990]
of swimming is 0.5 m/s at an angle 120º with the (a) 1600 ms–2 (b) 47.4 ms–2
(c) 23.7 ms–2 (d) 50.55 ms–2
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 8 (d) 15 (b) 22 (c) 29 (a) 36 (b) 43 (a) 50 (a) 57 (a)
2 (b) 9 (b) 16 (b) 23 (b) 30 (d) 37 (c) 44 (c) 51 (a) 58 (c)
3 (b) 10 (d) 17 (b) 24 (a) 31 (a) 38 (d) 45 (a) 52 (b) 59 (a)
4 (d) 11 (b) 18 (d) 25 (b) 32 (a) 39 (b) 46 (b) 53 (b) 60 (b)
5 (d) 12 (c) 19 (c) 26 (b) 33 (b) 40 (b) 47 (d) 54 (c) 61 (c)
6 (c) 13 (c) 20 (a) 27 (b) 34 (b) 41 (c) 48 (a) 55 (a) 62 (b)
7 (d) 14 (a) 21 (c) 28 (b) 35 (a) 42 (a) 49 (d) 56 (a) 63 (c)
Hints & Solutions

r r r When a point have coordinate (x, y) then its
1. (c) Moment of force, t = r ´ F
Y position vector = xiˆ + yjˆ
When a particle moves from point (x1, y1) to
r (x2, y2) then its displacement vector
r r
F r
r – r0 r = ( x2 - x1)iˆ + ( y2 - y1) ˆj
A
P
r 5. (d)
r0 r r Vector
r r tripler rproduct
r r r r
r A ´ ( B ´ C ) = B( A × C ) - C ( A × B ) = 0
r r r
r X Þ A || ( B ´ C )
r O r r r r
t = (r – r0 ) ´ F 6. (c) Using the law of vector addition, (d + e )
r r
r – r0 = (2iˆ + 0 ˆj – 3kˆ) – (2iˆ – 2 ˆj – 2kˆ) is as shown in the fig.
= 0iˆ + 2 ˆj – kˆ d
r
t = (0iˆ + 2 ˆj – kˆ)(4iˆ + 5 ˆj – 6kˆ)
iˆ ˆj kˆ
r
t= 0 2 –1 = –7iˆ – 4 ˆj – 8kˆ
4 5 –6
r r r r f
2. (b) A + B = A - B e
r r r
Squaring on both sides \ d +e = f
r r2 r r2 r r r r
A +r B r = Ar- B 7. (d) A ´ B = 3( A.B)
r r r
Þ A · A + 2A · B + B · B
r r r r r r Þ AB sin q = 3 AB cos q
= A · A – 2A · B + B · B
r r Þ tan q = 3 Þ q = 60°
Þ 4A · B = 0 Þ 4AB cos q = 0 ur uur ur uur
Þ cos q = 0 Þ q = 90° 8. (d) | A + B |2 = | A - B |2
r r ur uur
3. (b) Two vectors are = | A |2 + | B |2 + 2 A . B = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q
r r r r uur ur uur
A = cos wtiˆ + sin wtjˆ = | A - B |2 = | A |2 + | B |2 - 2 A . B
r wt wt ˆ = A2 + B2 – 2AB cos q
B = cos iˆ + sin j
2 r2 r So, A2 + B2 + 2AB cos q
For two vectors A and B to be orthogonal = A2 + B2 – 2AB cos q
r r
A.B = 0 4AB cos q = 0 Þ cos q = 0
r r wt wt q = 90°
A.B = 0 = cos wt.cos + sin wt.sin So, angle between A & B is 90º.
2 2
æ wt ö æ wt ö 9. (b) For two vectors to be perpendicular to each
= cos ç wt - ÷ = cos ç ÷ other
r r
è 2 ø è 2 ø A× B = 0
wt p p
So, = \ t= ( 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 8kˆ ) · ( 4 ˆj - 4iˆ + akˆ ) = 0
2 2 r w
–8 + 12 + 8a = 0
r D r (displacement)
4. (d) vav = 4 1
Dt (time taken) a=- =-
(13 - 2)iˆ + (14 - 3) ˆj 11 8 2
= 5- 0
= (iˆ + ˆj )
5
EBD_8335
30 PHYSICS
r r r r r
10. (d) ( B ´ A) × A = C × A = CA cos 90º = 0. 17. (b) rˆ = 0.5iˆ + 0.8 ˆj + ckˆ
®
C
| rˆ |= 1 = (0.5)2 + (0.8) 2 + c 2
® ® (0.5)2 + (0.8)2 + c2 = 1
B A c2 = 0.11 Þ c =
q 0.11
Dot product of any two perpendicular vector Unit vector is a vector which has a magnitude of
one. It is a vector divided by its magnitude. Unit
is zero. vector for
r r r
11. (b) | A ´ B |= A B sin q r A
r r A is Aˆ : Aˆ =
Ar.B = A B cosrq A
r r Unit vector gives direction.
| A ´ B |= 3 A.B Þ AB sin q = Ö3 AB cos q
r r
or, tan q = Ö3, \ q = 60º 18. (d) F = -3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ ; r = 7iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ
r r r r r
\ | A + B |= A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos60º Torque (t) = r ´ F
= (7iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ) ´ (-3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ)
= A2 + B 2 + AB
r r r = 7kˆ + 35( - ˆj ) - 9( - kˆ) + 15iˆ - 3 ˆj + (-iˆ)
12. (c) P = vector sum = A + B
r r r = 14iˆ - 38 ˆj + 16kˆ
Q = Vector
r differences
r = A -B
19. (c)
Since P and Q are perpendicular
r r r r r r 20. (a) A vector quantity has both magnitude and
(
\ P . Q = 0 Þ A+ B . A- B = 0 )( ) direction. In the given options, speed has only
r r magnitude, therefore, it is non-vector or scalar
Þ A2 = B2 Þ A = B
quantity.
uur uur
13. (c) A = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ , B = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj - 5kˆ If a physical quantity has magnitude and direction
uur uur both, then it does not always imply that it is a
A . B = (3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ) . (3iˆ + 4 ˆj - 5kˆ)
r r vector. for it to be a vector, laws of vector algebra
| A | | B | cos q = 9 + 16 - 25 = 0 has to be satisfied.
r r
| A | ¹ 0 , | B | ¹ 0 , hence, cos q = 0, q = 90° 21. (c) Since displacement is along the y-direction,
r
14. (a) As we know, hence displacement s = 10 ˆj .
ur r r r
P = F .v = (6iˆ - 4 ˆj + 3kˆ).(20iˆ + 15 ˆj - 5kˆ) Work done = F × s
= 6 × 20 – 4 × 15 –3 ×5 = 45 J/s = ( -2iˆ + 15 ˆj + 6kˆ) × 10 ˆj = 150 J
Instantanesous power can be calculated by 22. (c) When a vector is multiplied with a scalar,
r r
Pins = F×cos qv = F × v the result is a vector. r
r
which is the scalar product of force and velocity The cross product of A and B is a vector with its
r r
vector. direction perpendicular to both vector A and B .
15. (b) As we know that r
Vector A´ 0 is a zero vector because 0 is a scalar
r r r
v = w´ r = (3iˆ - 4 ˆj + kˆ) ´ (5iˆ - 6 ˆj + 6kˆ) then also the product is zero but a (scalar × vector)
= -18iˆ - 13 ˆj + 2 kˆ is also vector.
r r r
16. (b) We know that, R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos q 23. (b) Note that ( B ´ A) ^ A . Hence their dot
(24)2 = (12)2 + (18)2 + 2(12)(18) cos q product is zero.
108 Dot product of any two perpendicular vector
cos q = Þ q = 75°52¢
432 is zero
r r r
24. (a) ( A + B ) 2 = (C ) 2 4 t 2 4 32
r r Þ Vy = = × =6
Þ A2 + B 2 + 2 A × B = C 2 3 2 3 2
r r r r
Þ 32 + 42 + 2 A × B = 52 Þ V = 18t + 6T
r r r r r r 29. (a) Given, vA = 10m/sec
Þ 2 A × B = 0 or Þ A × B = 0 \ A ^ B
r r a = 60°
Here A2 + B2 = C2. Hence, A ^ B let length of the rod = L
25. (b) Given: From figure, B
x = 5t – 2t2 y = 10t Þ x2 + y2 = L
dx dy differentiation with y
vx = = 5 – 4t vy = = 10 L
dt dt respect to time ‘t’
dv x dv y dx dy a
ax = =–4 ay = =0 Þ 2x + 2 y =0 x
r dt dt dt dt A
a = a xi + a y j r
a = -4 i m / s 2 dx dy
Hence, acceleration of particle at (t = 2 s) = –4m/s2 Þ x +y =0
dt dt
y dx dy
26. (b) where, = v A and = vB
dt dt
So, xvA + yvB = 0
( 3,3) –x
vB = vA
q y
x x
(0, 0) where = cot a
y
Let q be the angle which the particle makes with So, vB = –vA cot a
x-axis. vB = 10 cot 60°
3 –10
From figure, tan q = = 3 vB = = –5.773 ; 5.8 m/sec
3 3
Þ q = tan -1 ( 3) = 60° 30. (d) Position vector,
r
r r = (a cos wt )iˆ + (a sin wt ) ˆj
If a vector R in X–Y plane then its orthogonal
Velocity vector,
vector RX = R cos q and RY = R sin q. r
r d (r ) d
R sin q RY v= = {(a cos wt )iˆ + (a sin wt ) ˆj}
And R cos q = tan q = R dt dt
X
= (- aw sin wt )iˆ + (aw cos wt ) ˆj
27. (b)
r = w[(- a sin wt )iˆ + (a cos wt ) ˆj ]
28. (b) F = 6t iˆ + 4t ˆj
Fx = 6t, Fy = 4t a sin wt
Slope of position vector = = tan wt
6t 4t a cos wt
a x = = 2t , a y = - a cos wt -1
3 3 Slope of velocity vector, = =
dv x a sin wt tan wt
= 2t2 \ velocity is perpendicular to the displacement.
dt
vx t 31. (a) Speed of the bullet (v) = 1000 m/s and
ò dVx = ò 2t 2dt horizontal distance of the target (s) = 100 m.
0 0 Time taken to cover the horizontal distance (t)
2 3 2 3 100
Þ vx = t = × 3 = 18 = = 0.1 sec .
3 3 1000
Vy t
dV y 4 4 During this time, the bullet will fall down
= t Þ ò dV y = 3 ò tdt vertically due to gravitational acceleration.
dt 3 0 1 2
0
\ height (h ) = ut + gt
2
EBD_8335
32 PHYSICS
1
= (0 ´ 0.1) + ´ 10(0.1) 2 (20) 2 sin(2 ´ 45°) 400 ´ 1
2 = = = 40.
10 10
= 0.05m = 5cm
36. (b) Maximum height,
32. (a) Trajectory is identical for both horizontal
u 2 sin 2 45° u 2
u 2sin 2q H= = ... (1)
range = 2g 4g
g
u 2 sin 90° u 2
gplanet (uplanet )2 Range, R = =
So that, = g g
gearth (uearth )2 R u 2
2 \ = ... (2)
æ3ö 2 2g
Therefore, gplanet = ç ÷ (9.8 m / s2 )
è5ø According to the required condition,
= 3.5 m/s2 H
33. (b) At point B the direction of velocity \ tan a =
R /2
component of the projectile along y-component Put the volues from equation (1) and (2)
reverses, while the x-component remains
unchanged. æ u2 ö
Hence, Vr = 2$i - 3 $j
ç ÷
æ 1ö
B Þ è 4 g ø tan a \ a = tan -1 ç ÷
æ u2 ö è 2ø
34. (b) Horizontal range, ç ÷
è 2g ø
u 2 sin 2q
R= ....(1)
g
Maximum height, u Max
H heigh
u 2 sin 2 q a
H= ....(2) 45°
2g R/2 R/2 Range
According to the condition,
R=H 37. (c) The momentum along a-axis remains
unchanged
u 2 sin 2q u 2 sin 2 q y
Þ =
g 2g
sin 2 q
Þ 2 sin q cos q =
2 v
sin q
2 cos q = v sin q
2 q= 45 ° v cos q
x
1 v cos q q
Þ cot q =
4 v
Þ tan q = 4 v sin q
Þ q = [tan –1(4)] Clearly, change in momentum along
In case of projective motion range R is n times the x-axis = mvcosq – mv cos q = 0
maximum height H Momentum changed only in vertical direction
u 2 sin 2q u 2 sin 2 q or y-axis.
i.e., R = nH Þ =n So, DP = DPvertical
g 2g
Þ Pfinal = Pinitial
4 æ4ö
Þ Tan q = Angle of projection q = tan–1 ç ÷ = mv sinq – (–mv sinq)
n ènø
= 2 mvsinq = 2mv × sin 45°
35. (a) For maximum range, the angle of 1
projection, q = 45°. = 2mv ´ = 2mv
2
u 2 sin 2q Hence, resultant change in momentum
\ R=
g = 2mv
38. (d) Horizontal range for projection angle ur ur ur

VSG = VSR + V RG
u 2 sin 2(45 – q) ur
(45° – q) is, R1 = V RG 10
g sin q = ur Þ sin q =
VSR 20
Horizontal range projection 1
u 2 sin 2(45 + q) Þ sin q = \ q = 30° west
angle (45° + q) is, R2 = 2
g i.e.,to cross the river along the shortest path,
swimmer should make his strokes 30° west.
R1 u 2 sin 2(45 – q) sin(90 – 2q) 44. (c) Given: Position vector
Þ = 2 = r
R2 u sin 2(45 + q) sin(90 + 2q) r = cos wt x̂ + sin wt ŷ
R1 cos 2q 1 r
Þ = = \ Velocity vector, v = – wsin wt x̂ + wcos wt
R2 cos 2q 1 ŷ acceleration vector,,
So, R1 : R2 : 1 : 1 r r
a = –w2 cos wt x̂ – w2sin wt ŷ = –w2 r
The angle of elevation (f) of the highest point of r r r r r
the projectile and the angle of projection q are r × v = 0 hence r ^ v and a is directed towards
the origin.
1
related to each other as tanf = tan q Nothing actually moves in the direction of the
2 r r
angular velocity vector w . The direction of w
39. (b) Given, u1 = u2 = u, q1 = 60º, q2 = 30º simply represents that the circular motion is taking
In 1st case, we know that range place in a plane perpendicular to it.
u 2 sin 2(60°) u 2 sin120° 45. (a) Let t be the time passed and x be distance
R1 = =
g g covered by the two ships after which the distance
u 2 sin(90° + 30°) between them becomes shortest.
= A X O
g
u 2 (cos 30°) 3u 2
= = (100 – x)
g 2g S
In 2nd case, when q2 = 30°, then
100 km
u 2 sin 60° u 2 3
R2 = = Þ R1 = R2 B
g 2g
[we get same value of ranges]. x
40. (b) Horizontal range is same when angle of
projection with the horizonatal is q and
(90° – q). distance(s) between the ship is given by,
v2
41. (c) Rmax = = 16000 [16km = 16000m] S = (100 – x ) 2 + x 2
g
or v = (16000 g )½ = (16000 ´ 10)½ = 400 ms–1 ds
For S to be minimum, =0
42. (a) Horizontal range is same when angle of dt
projection is q or (90° – q). ds 1
43. (a) Velocity of swimmer w.r.t. river VSR = 20 m/s Þ =
dt 9[(100 – x )2 + x 2 ]–1/2
Velocity of river w.r.t. ground VRG = 10 m/s
[–2(100 – x) + 2x] = 0
Þ 4x – 200 = 0 Þ x = 50 m
So, after both the ships have covered 50 m,
distance between them becomes shortest. Time
taken for it, will
x 50
t= = = 5hr..
10 10
EBD_8335
34 PHYSICS
46. (b) Here, x = 4sin(2pt) ...(i)

y = 4cos(2pt) ...(ii)
Squaring and adding equation (i) and (ii)
x 2 + y 2 = 42 Þ R = 4
Motion of the particle is circular r motion,
acceleration vector is along – R and its
V2 anet = ar = p2ms–2 and direction along the
magnitude =
R radius towards the centre.
Velocity of particle, V = wR = (2p) (4) = 8p If the force acting on a particle is always
47. (d) Centripetal acceleration ac = w2r perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, then
2 2 the path of the particle is a circle. The centripetal
æ 2p ö æ 2p ö
= ç ÷ r = ç ´ 5 ´ 10-2 = 5 m/s2 force (Fc) is always perpendicular to the velocity
èT ø è 0.2p ÷ø of the particle, i.e., Fc^n
48. (a) Distance covered in one circular loop =
51. (a) In circular motion of a particle with constant
2pr
speed, particle repeats its motion after a regular
= 2 × 3.14 × 100 = 628 m interval of time but does not oscillate about a
628 fixed point. So, motion of particle is periodic but
avg Speed = = 10 m / sec
62.8 not simple harmonic.
Displacement in one circular loop = 0 52. (b) Wmg = DK
0
avg Velocity = =0 Þ – mg l = ½ mv2 – ½ mu2
time
49. (d) According to the given condition, or, mv2 = m(u2 – 2 gl]
v
C or, v = u 2 - 2 g l ˆj
r
u = u iˆ
v v1 r r u
\ v - u = u 2 - 2 g l ˆj - u iˆ
r r
\| v - u |= [(u 2 - 2 g l) + u 2 ]½ = 2(u 2 - g l)
A B 20
a
53. (b) Given, r = m
Let both y boy meet at c: in time t then, p
8qp
AC = vt and BC = v1t vj = 80 m/sec Þ wf = Þ 4p
2q
From pythagorus theorem, q = 2reN = 4p radian
AC2 = AB2 + BC2 From equation,
v2t2 = a2 + v12t2 wf2 = w02 + 2aq [Q w0 = 0]
t2(v2 – v12) = a2 2
(4p) = 0 + 2.a.4p
a = 2p
a2
t2 = tangential acceleration
(v 2 – v12 ) at = a.r
20
a at = 2p × = 40 m/sec2
t= p
( v – v12 )
2
54. (c) Linear velocity v = rw
v1 = wr1, v2 = wr2
dv [w is same in both cases because time period is
50. (a) ar = w2 R & at = =0
dt same]
2 v1 r1 R
2æ 22 ö 2 = =
or, ar= (2pn)2R = 4p2n2R2 = 4p ç ÷ (1)
v2 r2 r
è 44 ø
55. (a) In the case of a body describing a vertical r

Velocity of person, vm = 0.5 m/s
circle,
A vw
sin 30° = v Þ vw = vm sin 30°
m
O vm 0.5m/s
C D Þ vw = = = 0.25m/s
2 2
q T
mv 2
59. (a) T=
q R
B mg cos q
mg sinq mg TR 25 ´ 1.96
v= =
m 0.25
mv 2 mv 2
T - mg cos q = ; T = mg cos q +
l l 5 ´ 14
= = 14 m / s
Tension is maximum when cos q = +1 and 5
velocity is maximum In the horizontal circular motion of the ball tension
Both conditions are satisfied at q = 0º (i.e., at in the string is balanced by the centrifugal force
lowest point B] æ mv2 ö
ç ÷ and hence the maximum tension in the string
è l ø
56. (a) river
v will be for the maximum speed of the ball.
2
5 km/hr 60. (b) Radius of circular path = 20 cm = m
4 km/hr 10
Angular speed of body = 10 rad/s
Linear velocity = radius × Angular speed
Speed along the shortest path
2
1 = ´ 10 = 2 m/s
= = 4 km/hr 10
15 / 60
61. (c) On circular motion, the force acts along
Speed of river v = 5 2 - 4 2 = 3 km/hr the radius and displacement at a location is
perpendicular to the radius i.e., q = 90°
57. (a) Minimum speed with which the string is uur uur
rotating in a vertical circle (v) = gr As work done = F .S = FS cos90° = 0
The minimum speed of stone is independent of 62. (b) vr = vR 2 – vB2

mass of stone.
58. (c) vw Reaching point

= 102 - 82 = 6 km h –1
63. (c) Centripetal acc. = w2r = 4p2v2r
s
m/
120 30
2
= 4 ´ (3.14) ´ ´ = 23.7 ms -2
0.5
60 100
v m=
[Q w = 2pv]
30°
120°
Starting point
EBD_8335
36 PHYSICS
4 Laws of Motion
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Ist, IInd & IIIrd Laws of
Motion
Motion of Connected Acceleration of Motion of
1 A
Bodies, Pulley & Equilibrium Connected Bodies
of Forces FBD 1 E
Friction Friction 1 A
Circular Motion, Banking Centripetal Force 1 A 1 A
of Road Maximum Safe Velocity 1 E
1 E
Topic 1: Ist, IInd & IIIrd Laws of Motion 3. A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the
1. A particle moving with velocity P ground with a certain momentum P. If the same
stone is dropped from a height 100% more than
is acted by three forces shown
the previous height, the momentum when it hits
by the vector triangle PQR. The the ground will change by : [2012M]
velocity of the particle will : (a) 68% (b) 41%
(a) increase [2019] (c) 200% (d) 100%
(b) decrease R Q 4. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with
(c) remain constant velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity.
(d) change according to the smallest force The impulse experienced by the body is [2011]
2. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is (a) MV (b) 1.5 MV
indicated by the force-time graph shown below. (c) 2 MV (d) zero
The change in momentum of the particle over 5. A body under the action of a force
r
the time interval from zero to 8 s is : [2014] F = 6 î – 8 ˆj+10 k,
ˆ acquires an acceleration of
6 1 m/s2. The mass of this body must be[2009]
3 (a) 10 kg (b) 20 kg
(c) 10 2 kg (d) 2 10 kg
0 6. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the
F(N)
2 4 6 8 t(s)
–3 rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the
belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s
will be: [2008]
(a) Mv newton (b) 2 Mv newton
(a) 24 Ns (b) 20 Ns
Mv
(c) 12 Ns (d) 6 Ns (c) newton (d) zero
2
Laws of Motion 37
7. A 0.5 kg ball moving with speed of 12 m/s thrust will be (g = 10 ms–2) [1998]
strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the (a) 127.5 kg s –1 (b) 187.5 kg s –1
wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at
(c) 185.5 kg s–1 (d) 137.5 kg s–1
the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the
wall for 0.25 seconds, the average force acting 12. A 10 N force is applied on a body produces an
on the wall is [2006] acceleration of 1 m/s2. The mass of the body is
(a) 5 kg (b) 10 kg [1996]
(c) 15 kg (d) 20 kg
13. A ball of mass 150 g, moving with an acceleration
30°
20 m/s2, is hit by a force, which acts on it for 0.1
sec. The impulsive force is [1996]
(a) 0.5 N (b) 0.1 N
(c) 0.3 N (d) 1.2 N
30° 14. If the force on a rocket moving with a velocity of
300 m/sec is 345 N, then the rate of combustion
of the fuel, is [1995]
(a) 0.55 kg/sec (b) 0.75 kg/sec
(a) 24 N (b) 12 N
(c) 1.15 kg/sec (d) 2.25 kg/sec
(c) 96 N (d) 48 N
8. If a cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 gm 15. A satellite in a force free space sweeps stationary
moving with a velocity of 20 m/s, then he interplanetary dust at a rate (dM/dt) = av. The
experiences a force of (Time taken to complete acceleration of satellite is [1994]
the catch is 0.1 sec.) [2001]
-2av 2 -av 2
(a) 300 N (b) 30 N (a) (b)
(c) 3 N (d) 0.3 N M M
9. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed
-av 2
of 10 m/s at an angle of 60º. It gets reflected with (c) (d) –av 2
the same speed and angle as shown here. If the 2M
ball is in contact with the wall for 0.20s, what is 16. Ph ysical independence of force is a
the average force exerted on the ball by the wall? consequence of [1991]
[2000] (a) third law of motion
(a) 150 N (b) second law of motion
60º
(b) zero (c) first law of motion
(d) all of these laws
(c) 150 3N 60º
17. A 600 kg rocket is set for a vertical firing. If
(d) 300N the exhaust speed is 1000 ms–1, the mass of
10. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the the gas ejected per second to supply the thrust
bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105 t where, F is needed to overcome the weight of rocket is
in newton and t in second. The force on the [1990]
bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the (a) 117.6 kg s–1 (b) 58.6 kg s–1
barrel. What is the average impulse imparted to (c) 6 kg s–1 (d) 76.4 kg s–1
the bullet? [1998] 18. A particle of mass m is moving with a uniform
(a) 1.8 N-s (b) zero velocity v1. It is given an impulse such that its
velocity becomes v2. The impulse is equal to
(c) 9 N-s (d) 0.9 N-s
[1990]
11. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The
exhaust speed is 800 ms–1. To give an initial 1
(a) m[| v2 | – | v1|] (b) m[v2 2 - v12 ]
upward acceleration of 20 ms–2, the amount 2
of gas ejected per second to supply the needed (c) m[v1 + v2] (d) m [v2 – v1]
EBD_8335
38 PHYSICS
Topic 2: Motion of Connected Bodies,

mv 2 mv 2
Pulley & Equilibrium of Forces (a) T+ (b) T –
l l
19. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to (c) Zero (d) T
the ends of a massless string. The string passes
22. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg
over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure).
and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a
The acceleration of the system in terms of
frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N
acceleration due to gravity (g) is: [2020]
is applied on the 4 kg block then the contact
force between A and B is [2015]
A B C
4 kg
(a) 6 N (b) 8 N
6 kg (c) 18 N (d) 2 N
23. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and
(a) g/2 (b) g/5
m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley
(c) g/10 (d) g P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are
on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of
20. Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m
friction = m). The pulley is frictionless and of
respectively are connected by a massless and
negligible mass. The downward acceleration of
inextensible string. The whole system is
mass m1 is : (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
suspended by a massless spring as shown in
figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and [2014]
B immediately after the string is cut, are
respectively : [2017] g(1 – gm)
(a)
g m2 m3
P
2gm
(b)
3
g(1 – 2m )
A 3m (c) m1
3
B m g(1 – 2m )
(d)
2
g
(a) ,g (b) g, g 24. A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down
3
with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much
g g g mass should be removed from it so that it starts
(c) , (d) g,
3 3 3 moving up with an acceleration ‘a’? [2014]
21. One end of string of length l is connected to a
2ma 2ma
particle of mass 'm' and the other end is (a) (b)
connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal g+a g-a
table. If the particle moves in circle with speed
ma ma
'v' the net force on the particle (directed (c) (d)
towards centre) will be (T represents the g+a g-a
tension in the string) : [2017]
Laws of Motion 39
25. Three blocks with masses m, 2 m and 3 m are (g = 10 m/s2) [2004]

connected by strings as shown in the figure.
2 kg
After an upward force F is applied on block m, A
the masses move upward at constant speed v.
What is the net force on the block of mass 2m?
(g is the acceleration due to gravity) [2013] B
(a) 2 mg (a) 0.4 kg (b) 2.0 kg
(b) 3 mg (c) 4.0 kg (d) 0.2 kg
30. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge
(c) 6 mg of inclination q. The whole system is accelerated
horizontally so that the block does not slip on the
(d) zero wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block
(g is acceleration due to gravity) will be [2004]
26. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass (a) mg/cos q (b) mg cos q
940 kg and presses the button on control panel. (c) mg sin q (d) mg
The lift starts moving upwards with an 31. A man weighing 80 kg, stands on a weighing
acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the tension scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
in the supporting cable is [2011] uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be
(a) 8600 N (b) 9680 N the reading on the scale? (g = 10 m/s2) [2003]
(c) 11000 N (d) 1200 N (a) 1200 N (b) zero
27. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the
(c) 400 N (d) 800 N
figure. To have the resultant force only along
the y- direction, the magnitude of the minimum 32. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical
additional force needed is: [2008] rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25
y
kg is suspended from it but will break if the mass
exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration
4N with which the monkey can climb up along the
1N rope? (g = 10 m/s2) [2003]
(a) 2.5 m/s 2 (b) 5 m/s 2
30° (c) 10 m/s2 (d) 25 m/s2
60° 33. A lift weighing 1000 kg is moving upwards with
x
an accelertion of 1 m/s2. The tension in the
2N supporting cable is [2002]
(a) 0.5 N (b) 1.5 N (a) 980 N (b) 10800 N
(c) 9800 N (d) 8800 N
3 34. Two blocks m1 = 5 gm and m2 = 10 gm are hung
(c) N (d) 3N
4 vertically over a light frictionless pulley as
28. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension shown here. What is the acceleration of the
in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its masses when they are left free? [2000]
acceleration is: [2009]
(a) 4 ms–2 upwards
(b) 4 ms–2 downwards
(c) 14 ms–2 upwards
(d) 30 ms–2 downwards m1
29. The coefficient of static friction, ms, between
block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in m2
the figure is 0.2. What would be the maximum (a) g / 3 (b) g / 2
mass value of block B so that the two blocks (c) g (d) g / 5
do not move? The string and the pulley are (where g is acceleration due to gravity)
assumed to be smooth and massless.
EBD_8335
40 PHYSICS
35. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is g g

(i) lifted up with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2, (a) a= (b) a =
cosec q sin q
(ii) lowered with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2. (c) a = g tan q (d) a = g cos q
The ratio of the tensions is [1998] 40. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 table. A light string connected to it passes over
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 1 a frictionless pulley at the edge of table and
36. A monkey is decending from the branch of a from its other end another block B of mass m 2
tree with constant acceleration. If the breaking is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic
strength is 75% of the weight of the monkey, the friction between the block and the table is µk.
minimum acceleration with which monkey can When the block A is sliding on the table, the
slide down without breaking the branch is tension in the string is [2015]
[1993] (m 2 – mk m1 ) g m1m 2 (1 + m k )g
3g (a) (m1 + m 2 ) (b) (m1 + m 2 )
(a) g (b)
4
m1m 2 (1 – m k )g (m 2 + m k m1 )g
g g (c) (d)
(c) (d) (m1 + m 2 ) (m1 + m 2 )
4 2
41. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually
Topic 3: Friction raised about the other end. As the angle of
37. A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal inclination with the horizontal reaches 30º the
surface (coefficient of friction = µ). A horizontal box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank
force is applied on the body, but it does not in 4.0s. The coefficients of static and kinetic
move. The resultant of normal reaction and the friction between the box and the plank will be,
frictional force acting on the object is given by respectively : [2015 RS]
F, where F is, [NEET Odisha 2019]
r r
(a) F = mg (b) F = mg + µ mg
r r
(c) F = µ mg (d) F £ mg 1+ m 2
38. Which one of the following statements is mg
q
incorrect? [2018]
(a) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
(a) 0.6 and 0.5 (b) 0.5 and 0.6
friction.
(b) Limiting value of static friction is directly (c) 0.4 and 0.3 (d) 0.6 and 0.6
42. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclina-
proportional to normal reaction.
tion q is perfectly smooth while lower half is
(c) Coefficient of sliding friction has
rough. A block starting from rest at the top of
dimensions of length. the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if
(d) Frictional force opposes the relative the coefficient of friction between the block and
motion. lower half of the plane is given by [2013]
39. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
2
wedge ABC of inclination q as shown in the figure. (a) m = (b) m = 2 tan q
The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the tan q
right. The relation between a and q for the block to 1
(c) m = tan q (d) m =
remain stationary on the wedge is [2018] tan q
A 43. A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of
m
2m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The
coefficient of friction between them is µ = 0.5.
The distance that the box will move relative to
a belt before coming to rest on it taking
g = 10 ms–2, is [2011M]
q (a) 1.2 m (b) 0.6 m
C B (c) zero (d) 0.4 m
Laws of Motion 41
44. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C (a) VM < VB [2000]
as shown in the Figure. [2010] (b) VM = VB
(c) they depend on the masses
(d) VM > VB
C m 49. A block has been placed on an inclined plane
with the slope angle q, block slides down the
plane at constant speed. The coefficient of
kinetic friction is equal to [1993]
(a) sin q (b) cos q
The coefficient of static friction between the (c) g (d) tan q
block and the cart is m . The acceleration a of 50. Consider a car moving along a straight
the cart that will prevent the block from falling horizontal road with a speed of 72 km/h. If the
satisfies: coefficient of static friction between the tyres
mg g and the road is 0.5, the shortest distance in
(a) a > (b) a > which the car can be stopped is (taking g = 10
m mm
m/s2 ) [1992]
g g (a) 30 m (b) 40 m
(c) a³ (d) a <
m m (c) 72 m (d) 20 m
45. A block B is pushed momentarily along a 51. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table
horizontal surface with an initial velocity V. If top. If the coefficient of friction between the
m is the coefficient of sliding friction between chain and the table surface is 0.25, then the
B and the surface, block B will come to rest maximum fraction of the length of the chain
after a time [2007] that can hang over one edge of the table is
[1991]
(a) 20% (b) 25%
B V (c) 35% (d) 15%
52. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45°
(a) g m /V (b) g/V inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide
down the same distance in the absence of
(c) V/g (d) V/(g m ). friction. The coefficient of friction between the
46. A 100 N force acts horizontally on a block of body and the inclined plane is [1988]
10 kg placed on a horizontal rough surface of (a) 0.80 (b) 0.75
coefficien t of friction m = 0.5. If th e (c) 0.25 (d) 0.33
acceleration due to gravity (g) is taken as 10
ms–2, the acceleration of the block (in ms–2) is Topic 4: Circular Motion, Banking of Road
[2002] 53. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the
(a) 2.5 (b) 10 inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
(c) 5 (d) 7.5 radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between
47. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a truck which the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
accelerates with acceleration 5m/s 2 . The 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
coefficient of static friction between the block the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
and truck is 0.6. The frictional force acting on the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its
the block is [2001] axis, will be : (g = 10 m/s2) [2019]
(a) 5 N (b) 6 N 10
(c) 5.88 N (d) 4.6 N (a) 10 rad/s (b) rad/s
2p
48. A person slides freely down a frictionless
(c) l0 rad/s (d) 10 p rad/s
inclined plane while his bag falls down vertically
from the same height. The final speeds of the 54. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled
man (VM) and the bag (VB) should be such that in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to
break when: [2014]
EBD_8335
42 PHYSICS
(a) the mass is at the highest point 59. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve
(b) the wire is horizontal of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the
(c) the mass is at the lowest point banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is :
(d) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical (a) 20 ms–1 (b) 30 ms–1 [2012]
55. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. (c) 5 ms –1 (d) 10 ms–1
The road is banked at an angle q. the coefficient 60. A car of mass m is moving on a level circular
of friction between the tyres of the car and the track of radius R. If ms represents the static
road is ms. The maximum safe velocity on this friction between the road and tyres of the car,
road is : [2016] the maximum speed of the car in circular motion
æ m + tan q ö is given by : [2012M]
(a) gR 2 ç s ÷
è 1 - m s tan q ø (a) m s mRg (b) Rg / m s
æ m + tan q ö (c) mRg / m s (d) m s Rg

(b) gR ç s ÷
è 1 - m s tan q ø 61. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m
with a velocity of 36 km/h. The centripetal force
g æ m s + tan q ö
(c) is [1999]
R çè 1 - m2 tan q ÷ø (a) 250 N (b) 750 N
g æ m s + tan q ö (c) 1000 N (d) 1200 N
(d) ç ÷ 62. A body of mass 0.4 kg is whirled in a vertical
R 2 è 1 - m s tan q ø
circle making 2 rev/sec. If the radius of the
56. What is the minimum velocity with which a circle is 1.2 m, then tension in the string when
body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of
the body is at the top of the circle, is [1999]
radius R so that it can complete the loop?
[2016] (a) 41.56 N (b) 89.86 N
(c) 109.86 N (d) 115.86 N
(a) gR (b) 2gR
63. What will be the maximum speed of a car on a
(c) 3gR (d) 5gR road turn of radius 30 m if the coefficient of
57. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2) [1995]
r
horizontal circles, the heavier one in radius (a) 10.84 m/s (b) 9.84 m/s
2
and the lighter one in radius r. The tangential (c) 8.84 m/s (d) 6.84 m/s
speed of lighter stone is n times that of the value 64. A particle of mass M is moving in a horizontal
of heavier stone when they experience same circle of radius R with uniform speed V. When
centripetal forces. The value of n is : [2015 RS] it moves from one point to a diametrically
(a) 3 (b) 4 opposite point, its [1992]
(c) 1 (d) 2 (a) kinetic energy changes by MV2/4
58. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track (b) momentum does not change
of radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/ (c) momentum changes by 2 MV
s. A bob is suspended from the roof of the car
(d) kinetic energy changes by MV2
by a light wire of length 1.0 m. The angle made
by the wire with the vertical is 65. When milk is churned, cream gets separated
[NEET Kar. 2013] due to [1991]
p (a) centripetal force
(a) 0° (b) (b) centrifugal force
3
p p (c) frictional force
(c) (d) (d) gravitational force
6 4
Laws of Motion 43
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 9 (c) 17 (c) 25 (d) 33 (b) 40 (b) 47 (a) 54 (c) 61 (c)
2 (c) 10 (d) 18 (d) 26 (c) 34 (a) 41 (a) 48 (b) 55 (b) 62 (a)
3 (b) 11 (b) 19 (b) 27 (a) 35 (a) 42 (b) 49 (d) 56 (d) 63 (a)
4 (c) 12 (b) 20 (a) 28 (a) 36 (c) 43 (d) 50 (b) 57 (d) 64 (c)
5 (c) 13 (c) 21 (d) 29 (a) 37 (d) 44 (c) 51 (a) 58 (d) 65 (b)
6 (a) 14 (c) 22 (a) 30 (a) 38 (c) 45 (d) 52 (b) 59 (c)
7 (a) 15 (b) 23 (c) 31 (a) 39 (c) 46 (c) 53 (c) 60 (d)
8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (a) 32 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) As three forces are forming closed loop
æ 2P – P ö
in same order, so net force is zero.
r P
Þ ç ÷ ´100% = ( 2 – 1) ´ 100%
è P ø
i.e., Fnet = 0
r Þ (1.414 – 1) × 100%
dv Þ 414 × 100% = 41.4%
or m =0
dt Which is changed by 41% of initial.
\ Velocity of the particle 4. (c) Impulse experienced by the body
r R Q
v = Constant = change in momentum
2. (c) Change in momentum, = MV – (–MV)
= 2MV
Dp = ò Fdt 5.
r
(c) F = 6 iˆ – 8 ˆj + 10 kˆ,
= Area of F-t graph r
= ar of D – ar of + ar of | F |= 36 + 64 + 100 = 10 2 N
=
1
2
´ 2 ´ 6 - 3 ´ 2 + 4 ´ 3 = 12 N-s (Q F = Fx2 + Fy2 + Fz2 )
Given, a = 1 ms–2
r
dp 10 2
According to Newton’s 2nd law. F µ ÞF Q F = ma Þ m= = 10 2 kg
dt 1
r r
dp dp d(Mv) dv dM
=K or,, F = [Q k = 1 in S.I & CGS system]
dt dt 6. (a) F = = M +v
r r dt dt dt
And dp = Fdt \ v is constant,
dM dM
3. (b) Momentum P = mv = m 2 gh \ F= v But = Mkg / s
dt dt
(Q v2 = u2 + 2gh; Here u = 0)
\ F = vM newton.
When stone hits the ground momentum,
7. (a) v 12 m/s
v cos 30°
P = m 2 gh 1 1
when same stone dropped from 2h (100% of 30º

initial) then momentum,
P¢ = m 2 g (2h) = 2 P v2 sin 30° v1 sin 30°
30º v cos 30°
( P¢ – P ) 2
50% change in momentum, ´100%
P v2
EBD_8335
44 PHYSICS
The magnetitude of both velocity v1 and v2 are = 600 × 3 × 10–3 – 105(3 × 10–3)2
equal. Components of velocity along the wall = 1.8 – 0.9 = 0.9 Ns
are equal and are in same direction. In case of impulse or motion of a charged particle
But the component of velocity perpendicular in an alternating electric field, force is time
to wall are equal but opposite in direction. dependent.
So, net change in momentum in perpendicular
direction, 11. (b) Given : Mass of rocket (m) = 5000 kg
DP = mv1 sin 30° – (–mv2 sin 30°) Exhaust speed (v) = 800 m/s
Þ 2mv sin 30° [|v1|v2|] Acceleration of rocket (a) = 20 m/s2
Average force acting on the wall will be given Gravitational acceleration (g) = 10 m/s2
by
vdm
Þ Fxt = 2mv sin 30° Thrust, Þ
dt
2mv sin 30°
Þ F= We know that upward force,
t F = m (g + a) = 5000 (10 +20)
2 ´ 0.52 ´ 12 ´ 1 = 5000 × 30 = 150000 N
Þ F= = 24 vdm
2 ´ 0.25 This thrust gives upward force, F =
F = 24N dt
Total Impulse We also know that amount of gas ejected
8. (b) Net force experienced = Time taken æ dm ö F 150000
Þ çè ÷= = = 187.5 kg/s
mDv 20 dt ø v 800
= = 0.15 ´ = 30 N
t 0.1 12. (b) By Newton’s IInd law of motion, F = ma
9. (c) Change in momentum along the wall Þ 10 = m (1) Þ m = 10 kg.
= mv cos60º – mv cos 60º = 0 150
Change in momentum perpendicular to the wall 13. (c) Mass = 150 gm = kg
1000
= mv sin60º – (– mv sin60º) = 2mv sin60º Force = Mass × acceleration
Change in momentum
\ Applied force = 150
Time = ´ 20 N = 3 N
1000
2 mv sin 60º
= Impulsive force = F×Dt = 3 × 0.1 = 0.3 N
0.20 14. (c) Velocity of the rocket (u) = 300 m/s and
2 ´ 3 ´ 10 ´ 3 force (F) = 345N. According to Newton’s second
= = 50 ´ 3 3 law, thrust (force) = Rate of change of linear
2 ´ 20
momentum.
= 150 3 newton
10. (d) Given F = 600 – (2 × 105t) F æ dm ö
=ç ÷ = 1.15kg / sec
The force is zero at time t, given by u è dt ø
0 = 600 – 2 × 105 t 15. (b) Thrust on the satellite,
600 -vdM
Þ t= = 3 ´10 –3 seconds F= = -v(av) = -av 2
2 ´ 105 dt
t 3´10 –3 F - av 2
5 Acceleration = =
\ Impulse = ò Fdt = ò (600 – 2 ´10 t ) dt M M
0 0
16. (c) Newton’s first law of motion is related to
3´10 –3 physical independence of force.
é 2 ´ 105 t 2 ù
= ê 600t – ú If no net force acts on a body, then the velocity of
êë 2 úû0 the body cannot change i.e., the body cannot
accelerate.
Laws of Motion 45
17. (c) Thrust = weight For block A: 3maA = 4mg – 3mg

udM dM mg 4mg – 3mg g
Þ = mg Þ = aA = =
dt dt u 3m 3
600 ´ 10 g
= = 6 kg s–1 aA =
1000 3
18. (d) Impulse = final momentum – initial For block B: maB = mg
momentum = m (v2 – v1) aB = g
19. (b) Given : Mass M1 = 4 kg and M2 = 6 kg. 4mg
Acceleration of the system,
(m - m2 ) g
a= 1
(m1 + m2 ) where m1 > m2 aA
A B
aB
(6 - 4) g g
\a = = mg
6+ 4 5
3mg
Here no option is given according to acceleration 21. (d) Net force on particle in uniform circular
of COM of the system.
æ mv 2 ö
20. (a) Before cutting the string motion is centripetal force çç ÷÷ which is
è l ø
kx provided by tension in string so the net force
will be equal to tension i.e., T.
F
22. (a) Acceleration of system, a = net
3m m M total
14 14
T = = = 2 m / s2
4 + 2 +1 7
mg
3mg
kx = T + 3 mg ...(i) 14N A B
4kg C
T = mg ...(ii) 2kg 1kg
Force an string,
Þ kx = 4mg The contact force between A and B
After cutting the string T = 0 = (mB + mC) × a = (2 + 1) × 2 = 6N
a F
m1 f1 F – f=
1 m2a
a=
F m1 + m2 + m3
B C
A a
( m2 + m3 ) F
F m1 m2 m3 f2 m2 f2 f1 – f=
2 m2a
f1 =
m1 + m2 + m3
a m3 F
m3 f2 = m2a f2 =
f2 m1 + m2 + m3
23. (c) Acceleration

m1g - m(m2 + m 3 )g g
= = (1 - 2m )
Net force in the direction of motion (m1 + m2 + m3 ) 3
=
Total mass of system (Q m1 = m2 = m3 = m given)
EBD_8335
46 PHYSICS
24. (a) Let upthrust of air be Fa then 27. (a) The components of 1 N and 2N forces
For downward motion of balloon, along + x-axis = 1 cos 60° + 2 sin 30°
Fa = mg – ma Þ Fa = m(g – a) ...(i) 1 1 1 3
For upward motion, = 1 ´ + 2 ´ = + 1 = = 1.5N
2 2 2 2
Fa – (m – Dm)g = (m – Dm)a ...(ii) Y
From equation (i) and (ii), 4 cos 30° + 1 sin 60°
4N
2 ma 1N
Therefore, Dm =
(g + a)
25. (d) 30°
60°
4 sin 30° 1cos 60° + 2 sin 30°
F T T' 30°
m v
mg
mg m 2m 3m 2N
2m 2cos30°
T T' T"
2mg
The component of 4 N force along –x-axis
mg 2mg 3mg
3m 1
= 4 sin 30° = 4 ´ = 2N .
2
Therefore, if a force of 0.5N is applied along + x-
6 mg axis, the resultant force along x-axis will become
From figure zero and the resultant force will be obtained only
F = 6 mg, along y-axis.
As speed is constant, acceleration a = 0 28. (a) Net force, F = T – mg
\ 6 mg = 6ma = 0, F = 6 mg ma = T – mg
\ T = 5 mg , T¢ = 3 mg 2000 a = 28000 – 20000 = 8000
T² = 0 8000
a= = 4 ms –2
Fnet on block of mass 2 m 2000
= T – T' – 2 mg = 0 29. (a) Condition for the max value of mass of
As all blocks are moving with constant speed, then block B so that two blocks do not move is,
acceleration is zero, so force is zero. mBg = ms mAg
Þ mB = ms mA
Q v = constant
or, mB = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 kg
so, a = 0, Hence, Fnet = ma = 0
30. (a) According to the condition,
26. (c)
a=1
T ma cos q
N
ma
q
sin q
ma mg sin q
q
19 = 940 kg cos mg
mg q
m = 60 kg N = m a sin q + mg cos q .....(1)
Also, m g sin q = m a cos q ....(2)
Total mass = (m + m) = (60 + 940) kg = 1000 kg From (1) & (2), a = g tan q
Let T be the tension in the supporting cable, sin 2q
\ N = mg + mg cos q .
then cos q
T – 1000g = 1000 × 1 [Q a = 1 m/sec] mg mg
Þ T = 11000 N = (sin 2 q + cos2 q) =
cos q cos q
Laws of Motion 47
mg 37. (d) Since body does not move hence it is in

or, N = equilibrium.
cos q
fr = frictional force which is less than or equal
The condition for the body to be at rest relative to to limiting friction.
the inclined plane, a = g sinq – b conq = 0 Horizontal Now N = mg
acceleration, b = g tanq. r r r
Hence F = N + f r
31. (a) Reading of the scale
r
F £ ( mg ) + ( mmg )
2 2
= Apparent wt. of the man = m(g + a)
= 80 (10 + 5) = 1200 N r 2
32. (a) T = Tension caused in string by monkey F £ mg 1 + m
= m (g + a) 38. (c) Coefficient of friction or sliding friction
\ T £ 25 × 10 Þ 20(10 + a) £ 250 has no dimension.
or, 10 + a £ 12.5 Þ a £ 2.5 f
33. (b) T – (1000 × 9.8) = 1000 × 1 f = msN Þ ms = = [M0L0T0]
N
Þ T = 10800 N 39. (c) Let the mass of block is m. It will remains
34. (a) Let T be the tension in the string. stationary if forces acting on it are in
equilibrium. i.e., ma cos q = mg sin q Þ a = g
tan q
T ma cos q
T ma
q
5g mg sin q
10g a
mg
\ 10g – T = 10a ....(i) q
T – 5g = 5a ....(ii) Here ma = Pseudo force on block, mg =
Adding (i) and (ii), weight.
g 40. (b) For the motion of both the blocks
2
5g = 15a Þ a = m/s m1a = T – mkm1g
3
m2g – T = m2a
Whe pulley have a finite mass m then acceleration, a
T
m1 - m2 m k m1g m1
a= m
m1 + m2 + mk
2
35. (a) In case (i) we have
m2
T1 – (1 × g) = 1 × 4.9 a
Þ T1 = 9.8 + 4.9 = 14.7 N
In case (ii), l × g – T2 = 1 × 4.9
m2g
Þ T2 = 9.8 – 4.9 = 4.9 N
m 2g – m k m1g
T1 14.7 3 a=
\ T = 4.9 = 1 m1 + m 2
2
36. (c) Let T be the tension in the branch of a æ m 2 g – m k m1g ö
tr ee when monkey is descending with m2g – T = (m2) ç m + m ÷
è 1 2 ø
acceleration a. Then mg – T = ma; and solving we get tension in the string
T = 75% of weight of monkey,
m m g (1 + m k ) g
æ 75 ö æ 1ö T= 1 2
\ ma = mg – ç mg = ç ÷ mg m1 + m 2
è 100 ø÷ è 4ø
41. (a) Coefficient of static friction, ms = tan q
g 1
or a = .
4 Þ ms = tan 30° = = 0.577 @ 0.6
3
EBD_8335
48 PHYSICS
So, distance covered by plank, For the block not to fall, frictional force,
1 2 Ff ³ mg
S = ut + at Þ m N ³ mg
2
where, u = 0 and a = g sinq – mk(g) cosq Þ mma ³ mg
1 1 Þ a ³ g/m
4= a(4)2 Þ a = = 0.5
2 2 When a cart moves with some acceleration towards
[Q q = 30°, s = 4m and t = 4s given] right then a psendo force (ma) acts on block towards
left. This force ma is action force by a block on cart.
0.9
Þ mk = = 0.5 45. (d) Friction is the retarding force for the
3 block
42. (b) F = ma = mR = mmg
Therefore, from the first equation of motion
v = u – at
S/2 h
oot S/2 sin q V
Sm 0 = V – mg × t Þ =t
q mg
S/2 F - mR 100 - 0.5 ´ (10 ´ 10)
gh 46. (c) a = = = 5 ms -2
Rou S/2 sin q m 10
q 47. (a) Maximum friction force = µmg
For upper half of inclined plane = .6 × 1 × 9.8 = 5.88 N
v2 = u2 + 2a S/2 = 2 (g sin q) S/2 = gS sin q But here required friction force
For lower half of inclined plane = ma = 1 × 5 = 5 N
0 = u2 + 2 g (sin q – m cos q) S/2 For a body placed on a moving body and Ist body
Þ – gS sin q = gS ( sinq – m cos q) not to slide - applied force F < limiting friction
Þ 2 sin q = m cos q (= Ms mg) combined system will move together
2 sin q F
Þ m= = 2 tan q with common acceleration a1 = a2 = .
cos q M +m
43. (d) Frictional force on the box f = mmg 48. (b) As there is onlygravitational field which works.
f mmg We know it is conservative field and depends
\ Acceleration in the box, a = = only on the end points. So, VM = VB
m m
a = mg = 5 ms–2 49. (d) When the block slides down the plane with
a constant speed, then the inclination of the
v2 = u2 + 2as
plane is equal to angle of repose (q).
Þ 0 = 22 + 2 × (5) s
Coeff. of friction = tan of the angle of repose
2 = tan q.
Þ s=– w.r.t. belt
5 50. (b) Here u = 72 km/h = 20 m/s; v = 0;
Þ distance = 0.4 m a = – mg = – 0.5 × 10 = – 5 m/s2
44. (c) Forces acting on the block are as shown As v2 = u2 + 2as,
in the fig. Normal reaction N is provided by
the force ma due to acceleration a \ s=
(v 2
- u2 )
(0 - (20)2
= = 40 m
Ff 2a 2 ´ ( -5)
51. (a) The force of friction on the chain lying on
the table should be equal to the weight of the
hanging chain. Let
r = mass per unit length of the chain
N = ma µ = coefficient of friction
l = length of the total chain
x = length of hanging chain
mg Now, µ(l – x) rg = xrg or µ(l – x) = x
\ N = ma or µl = (µ + 1)x or x = µl/(µ + 1)
Laws of Motion 49
0.25l 0.25l
\ x= = = 0.2l
(0.25 + 1) 1.25
x x
= 0.2 Þ ´ 100 = 20%
l l
52. (b) In presence of friction a = (g sinq – mg cos q) r
\ Time taken to slide down the plane
T
2s 2s
t1 = = v
a g (sin q - m cos q)
2s mg
In absence of friction, t 2 =
g sin q As the velocity is maximum at lowest point so
According to the condition, tension is maximum at the lowest position of
mass, so the chance of breaking is maximum.
t1 = 2t2 \ t12 = 4t22
55. (b) On a banked road,
2s 2s ´ 4 2
or , g (sin q - m cos q) = g sin q Vmax æ m + tan q ö
=ç s ÷
Rg è 1 - ms tan q ø
sin q = 4 sinq – 4m cos q
Maximum safe velocity of a car on the banked
3 3 road
m = tan q = = 0.75
4 4
é m + tan q ù
53. (c) Given mass of block, m = 10 kg; radius of Vmax = Rg ê s ú
cylindrical drum, r = 1m; coefficient of friction ë1 - ms tan q û
between the block and the inner wall of the
cylinder µ = 0.1; 56. (d) 5gR is the minimum velocity which the
Minimum angular velocity wmin body must possess at the bottom of the circle
For equilibrium of the block limiting friction so as to go round the circle completely.
f L ³ mg 57. (d) According to question, two stones
experience same centripetal force
Þ mN ³ mg
i.e., FC1 = FC2
Þ m rw 2 ³ mg
Hrere, N = mrw2 mv12 2mv 22
or, = or, V12 = 4V22
r (r / 2)
g
or, m³ So, V1 = 2V2 i.e., n = 2
rm
58. (d) Given; speed = 10 m/s; radius r = 10 m
g Angle made by the wire with the vertical is q.
or, w min = Then, T cos q = mg
rm
10 mv 2
\ w min = = 10 rad/s T sin q =
r
0.1 ´ 1
So,
T q
mv 2 mv2 2 2
54. (c) T - mg = [centripetal force ] = v 10
mv 2
r r tan q = = =1
rg 10 ´ 10 r
mv2
Þ T = mg + p mg
r Þ q = 45° =
4
EBD_8335
50 PHYSICS
62. (a) Given : Mass (m) = 0.4 kg

V2 Its frequency (n) = 2 rev/sec
59. (c) For banking, tan q =
Rg Radius (r) =1.2 m. We know that linear velocity
of the body (v) = wr = (2pn)r
V2 = 2 × 3.14 × 2 × 1.2 = 15.08 m/s.
tan 45° = =1
90×10 Therefore, tension in the string when the body
V = 30 m/s is at the top of the circle (T)
If friction is present then maximum safe speed, on mv2 0.4 ´ (15.08) 2

= - mg = - (0.4 ´ 9.8)
r 2
Rg ( m + tan q )
a banked frictional road, V = = 45.78 – 3.92 = 41.56 N
1 - m tan q
63. (a) r = 30 m and m = 0.4.
60. (d) For smooth driving maximum speed of car vmax = mrg = 0.4 ´ 30 ´ 9.8 = 10.84 m/s
v then, 64. (c) On the diametrically opposite points, the
mv 2 velocities have same magnitude but opposite
= m s mg directions. Therefore, change in momentum is
R MV – (– MV) = 2MV
v = m s Rg 65. (b) Cream gets separated from a churned milk
due to centrifugal force.
mv 2 500 ´ (10)2 Centrifugal force is a pseudo force that is equal
61. (c) Centripetal force = = and opposite to the centripetal force.
r 50
Centripetal force can be mechanical, electrical or
= 1000 N [Q 36 km/hr = 10 m/s]
magnetic force.
Work, Energy and Power 51
5 Work, Energy
and Power
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Work y2
Work done, w = ò F × dy 1 A
y1
Work-energy Theorem 1 A
Conservation of
Energy 1 A
Mechanical energy
Power Power, P = F.v 1 E
Collisions Elastic Collision 1 A
Coefficient of Restitution 1 A
Topic 1: Work (a) 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s

1. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y- (b) 18 m/s and 24.4 m/s
direction where F is in newton and y in meter. (c) 23 m/s and 24.4 m/s
Work done by this force to move the particle (d) 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s
from y = 0 to y = 1 m is : [2019] 3. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g
(a) 30 J (b) 5 J (c) 25 J (d) 20 J falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground
2. An object of mass 500 g, initially at rest, is with a speed of 50 m/s. Take 'g' constant with a
acted upon by a variable force whose X- value 10 m/s 2 . The work done by the (i)
component varies with X in the manner shown. gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force
The velocities of the object at the points X = 8 of air is [2017]
m and X = 12 m, would have the respective (a) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J
values of (nearly) [NEET Odisha 2019] (b) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
(c) (i) 10 J (ii) – 8.75 J
(d) (i) – 10 J (ii) –8.25 J
4. Two similar springs P and Q have spring
constants KP and KQ, such that KP > KQ. They
are stretched, first by the same amount (case
a,) then by the same force (case b). The work
done by the springs WP and WQ are related as,
in case (a) and case (b), respectively [2015]
(a) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ
(b) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
EBD_8335
52 PHYSICS
(c) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP

3 8 19 5
(d) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ (a) J (b) J (c) J (d) J
8 3 5 19
5. A uniform force of (3iˆ + ˆj) newton acts on a 9. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up
particle of mass 2 kg. The particle is displaced an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g = 10
m/s2, work done against friction is [2006]
from position (2$i + k$ ) meter to position (a) 100 J (b) zero
(4$i + 3 $j - k$ ) meter. The work done by the force (c) 1000 J (d) 200 J
on the particle is [2013] 10. A force F acting on an object varies with
(a) 6 J (b) 13 J distance x as shown here. The force is in N
(c) 15 J (d) 9 J and x in m. The work done by the force in
6. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is
varies with distance d as shown in the figure. [2005]
The work done on the particle during its F(N)
displacement of 12 m is [2011]
F(N)
3
2
2
1
d(m) x(m)
0 3 7 12 0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 18 J (b) 21 J
(a) 18.0 J (b) 13.5 J
(c) 26 J (d) 13 J
(c) 9.0 J (d) 4.5 J
7. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed
11. A force of 250 N is required to lift a 75 kg
on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above
mass through a pulley system. In order to lift
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically the mass through 3 m, the rope has to be pulled
on the spring so that the spring is compressed through 12m. The efficiency of system is
by a distance d. The net work done in the [2001]
process is [2007] (a) 50% (b) 75%
1 2 (c) 33% (d) 90%
(a) mg (h + d ) - kd
2 12. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a way
1 2 that the position of the particle as a function of
(b) mg (h - d ) - kd time is given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in
2
1 2 metres and t is in seconds. The work done during
(c) mg(h - d) + kd the first 4 seconds is [1998]
2
1 (a) 576 mJ (b) 450 mJ
(d) mg(h + d) + kd2 (c) 490 mJ (d) 530 mJ
2
8. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force 13. A position dependent force, F = (7 – 2x + 3x2)
which causes a displacement s in metres in it, N acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and
displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5 m. Work done
1 2 in joule is [1992]
given by the relation s = t , where t is in
3 (a) 35 (b) 70
seconds. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is (c) 135 (d) 270
[2006] 14. A bullet of mass 10g leaves a rifle at an initial
velocity of 1000 m/s and strikes the earth at
the same level with a velocity of 500 m/s. The jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is
work done in joules overcoming the resistance imparted to water? [2009]
of air will be [1989] 1 2
(a) mv2 (b) mv
(a) 375 (b) 3750 2
(c) 5000 (d) 500 1 2 2 1 3
(c) m v (d) mv
Topic 2: Energy 2 2
15. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle 21. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a
of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest
acceleration. What is the magnitude of this after attaining a height of 18 m. How much
acceleration if the kinetic energy of the energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10
particle becomes equal to 8 × 10–4 J by the m/s2) [2009]
end of the second revolution after the beginning (a) 30 J (b) 40 J
of the motion ? [2016] (c) 10 J (d) 20 J
(a) 0.1 m/s2 (b) 0.15 m/s2 22. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity
(c) 0.18 m/s2 (d) 0.2 m/s2 v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving
16. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with a velocity v2. Both of them have the same
with a constant speed of 10 ms–1, is subject to momentum but their different kinetic energies
a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then
from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be: [2004]
[2015] (a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2
(a) 450 J (b) 275 J E1 m1
(c) 250 J (d) 475 J (c) E = m (d) E1 > E2
2 2
17. A person holding a rifle (mass of person and 23. A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg
rifle together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth are dropped together from a 60 feet tall
surface and fires 10 shots horizontally, in 5 s. building. After a fall of 30 feet each towards
Each bullet has a mass of 10 g with a muzzle earth, their respective kinetic energies will be
velocity of 800 ms –1 . The final velocity in the ratio of [2004]
acquired by the person and the average force (a) 1 : Ö2 (b) Ö2 : 1
exerted on the person are [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 2
(a) –1.6 ms–1; 8 N (b) –0.08 ms–1; 16 N 24. When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its
–1
(c) –0.8 ms ; 8 N (d) –1.6 ms–1; 16 N potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched
18. A particle with total energy E is moving in a by 10 cm, the potential energy stored in it will
potential energy region U(x). Motion of the be [2003]
particle is restricted to the region when (a) 25 U (b) U/5
[NEET Kar. 2013] (c) 5 U (d) 10 U
(a) U(x) > E (b) U(x) < E 25. If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased
(c) U(x) = O (d) U(x) £ E by 300%, the momentum of the particle will
19. The potential energy of a system increases if increase by [2002]
work is done [2011] (a) 20% (b) 200%
(a) upon the system by a non conservative (c) 100% (d) 50%
force 26. In a simple pendulum of length l the bob is
(b) by the system against a conservative force pulled aside from its equilibrium position
(c) by the system against a non conservative through an angle q and then released. The bob
force passes through the equilibrium position with
(d) upon the system by a conservative force speed [2000]
20. An engine pumps water continuously through
(a) 2 g l(1 + cos q) (b) 2 g l sin q
a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v
and m is the mass per unit length of the water (c) 2gl (d) 2 g l(1 - cos q)
EBD_8335
54 PHYSICS
27. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
The ratio of their masses is [1999] 35. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 linear momenta will be [1988]
28. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on (a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1
a plane, where the acceleration due to gravity is (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
not shown. On bouncing it rises to 1.8 m. The ball Topic 3: Power
loses its velocity on bouncing by a factor of 36. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the
[1998] action of a time dependent force
16 2 r
(a) (b) F = (2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj ) N, where iˆ and ĵ are unit
25 5
vectors alogn x and y-axis. What power will be
3 9 developed by the force at the time t? [2016]
(c) (d)
5 25
(a) (2t2 + 3t3)W (b) (2t2 + 4t4)W
29. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are moving
with equal K.E. The ratio of their linear (c) (2t3 + 3t4) W (d) (2t3 + 3t5)W
momenta is [1997] 37. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine
that delivers a constant power of k watts. If the
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
particle starts from rest the force on the particle
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4 at time t is [2015]
30. The kinetic energy acquired by a mass (m) in (a) mk t –1/2 (b) 2mk t –1/2
travelling distance (s) starting from rest under
the action of a constant force is directly 1 mk –1/2
(c) mk t –1/2 (d) t
proportional to [1996, 1994] 2 2
(a) 1 / m (b) 1/m 38. The heart of man pumps 5 litres of blood
through the arteries per minute at a pressure of
(c) m (d) m0
150 mm of mercury. If the density of mercury
31. If the momentum of a body is increased by
be 13.6 ×103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2 then the
50%, then the percentage increase in its kinetic
power of heart in watt is : [2015 RS]
energy is [1995]
(a) 2.35 (b) 3.0
(a) 50% (b) 100%
(c) 1.50 (d) 1.70
(c) 125% (d) 200%
39. One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a suitcase
32. Consider a car moving along a straight
through a height of 2 m but the second coolie
horizantal road with a speed of 72 km/h. If the
takes 30 s to raise the same suitcase to the same
coefficient of static friction between road and
height. The powers of two coolies are in the
tyres is 0.5, the shortest distance in which the
ratio of [NEET Kar. 2013]
car can be stopped is [1994]
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(a) 30 m (b) 40 m
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
(c) 72 m (d) 20 m
40. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates
33. Two masses of 1g and 9g are moving with equal
so that the instantaneous power delivered to the
kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes
car has a constant magnitude P 0 . The
of their respective linear momenta is [1993]
instantaneous velocity of this car is
(a) 1 : 9 (b) 9 : 1
proportional to : [2012M]
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 2 1/2
(a) t P0 (b) t
34. A 4 kg mass and 1 kg are moving with equal
kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes t
(c) t–1/2 (d)
of their linear momenta is [1989] m
41. A body projected vertically from the earth (a) –20iˆ – 15 ˆj – 80kˆ (b) 4iˆ + 23 ˆj – 16kˆ
reaches a height equal to earth’s radius before
(c) –100iˆ – 35 ˆj – 8kˆ (d) 20iˆ + 15 ˆj – 80kˆ
returning to the earth. The power exerted by
the gravitational force is greatest [2011] 47. Two bullets are fired horizontally and
(a) at the highest position of the body simultaneously towards each other from roof
(b) at the instant just before the body hits the tops of two buildings 100 m apart of same
earth height of 200 m, with the same velocity of 25
(c) it remains constant all through m/s. When and where will the two bullets
(d) at the instan t just after the body is collide? (g = 10 m/s2) [NEET Odisha 2019]
projected (a) They will not collide
42. An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. (b) After 2 s at a height of 180 m
Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with (c) After 2 s at a height of 20 m
a velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of (d) After 4 s at a height of 120 m
water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power 48. A particle of mass 5 m at rest suddenly breaks
of the engine? [2010] on its own into three fragments. Two fragments
(a) 400 W (b) 200 W of mass m each move along mutually
(c) 100 W (d) 800 W perpendicular direction with speed v each. The
43. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of energy released during the process is,
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to [NEET Odisha 2019]
frictional force are 10% of energy. How much 4 2 3 2
power is generated by the turbine? [2008] (a) mv (b) mv
3 5
(g = 10 m/s2) 5 2 3 2
(c) mv (d) mv
(a) 8.1 kW (b) 10.2 kW 3 2
(c) 12.3 kW (d) 7.0 kW 49. A moving block having mass m, collides with
44. How much water, a pump of 2 kW can raise in another stationary block having mass 4m. The
one minute to a height of 10 m, take g = 10 lighter block comes to rest after collision.
m/s2? [1990] When the initial velocity of the lighter block
(a) 1000 litres (b) 1200 litres is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(c) 100 litres (d) 2000 litres (e) will be [2018]
Topic 4: Collisions (a) 0.5 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.8
45. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u
50. Two particles A and B, move with constant
collides with another body B of mass 2m, at r r
rest. The collision is head on and elastic in velocities v1 and v2 . At the initial moment
r r
nature. After the collision the fraction of their position vectors are r1 and r2
energy lost by the colliding body A is : [2019] respectively. The condition for particles A and
1 8 B for their collision is: [2015 RS]
(a) (b) r r r r
9 9 (a) r1 × v1 = r2 × v2
4 5 r r r r
(b) r1 ´ v1 = r2 ´ v2
(c)
9
(d)
9 r r r r
(c) r1 - r2 = v1 - v2
46. An object flying in air with velocity r r r r
r1 - r2 v2 - v1
(d) r r = r r
( 20iˆ + 25 ˆj – 12kˆ ) suddenly breaks into two | r1 - r2 | | v2 - v1 |
pieces whose masses are in the ratio 1 : 5. The 51. On a frictionless surface a block of mass M
smaller mass flies off with a velocity moving at speed v collides elastically with
another block of same mass M which is initially
(100iˆ + 35 ˆj + 8kˆ ) . The velocity of the larger at rest. After collision the first block moves at
piece will be [NEET Odisha 2019] an angle q to its initial direction and has a speed
EBD_8335
56 PHYSICS
v perpendicular to the original direction. The

. The second block’s speed after the collision mass A moves after collision in the direction.
3
is : [2015 RS] (a) Same as that of B [2012]
3 3 (b) Opposite to that of B
(a) v (b) v (c) q = tan–1 (1/2) to the x-axis
4 2
(d) q = tan–1 (–1/2) to the x-axis
3 2 2 57. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis)
(c) v (d) v
2 3 with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of
52. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a 3m moving vertically upward (along the y-axis)
height of 20 m with an initial velocity v0. It with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the
collides with the ground loses 50 percent of combination is [2011M]
its energy in collision and rebounds to the same
1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ 2 ˆ
height. The initial velocity v0 is : [2015 RS] (a) vi + v j (b) vi + vj
(Take g = 10 ms–2) 4 2 3 3
(a) 20 ms–1 (b) 28 ms–1 2 ˆ 1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ
(c) vi + vj (d) vi + vj
(c) 10 ms –1 (d) 14 ms–1 3 3 2 4
53. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at 58. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head
rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. on with another stationary ball of double the
Two pieces, each of mass (m) move mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5,
perpendicular to each other with equal speeds then their velocities (in m/s) after collision will
(v). The total kinetic energy generated due to be: [2010]
explosion is : [2014] (a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 1
(c) 1, 0.5 (d) 0, 2
3 59. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two
(a) mv2 (b) mv 2
2 parts go off at right angles to each other. These
(c) 2 mv2 (d) 4 mv2 two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity
54. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a of 12 ms–1 and 2 kg second part moving with a
horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right velocity of 8 ms–1. If the third part flies off
angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 with a velocity of 4 ms–1, its mass would be:
kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the sec- [2009]
ond part of mass 2 kg moves with speed 8 ms– (a) 7 kg (b) 17 kg
1. If the third part flies off with speed 4 ms–1 (c) 3 kg (d) 5 kg
then its mass is [2013] 60. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun
(a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg of mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05
(c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell
55. A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a is: [2008]
horizontal surface with velocity 4 ms–1 . It (a) 100 ms–1 (b) 80 ms–1
collides with a horizontal spring of force (c) 40 ms–1 (d) 120 ms–1
constant 200 Nm –1 . The maximum 61. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into
compression produced in the spring will be : two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The
[2012] velocity of 18 kg mass is 6 ms–1. The kinetic
(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.6 m energy of the other mass is [2005]
(c) 0.7 m (d) 0.2 m (a) 324 J (b) 486 J
56. Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 (c) 256 J (d) 524 J
respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B 62. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/
is moving with velocity v along x-axis. After s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with
v a nearly weightless spring of force constant
collision B has a velocity in a direction
2 k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the
spring would be [2004]
with a stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after the

collision, the two balls move together, the loss
in kinetic energy due to collision is [1997]
(a) 140 J (b) 100 J
(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.15 m (c) 60 J (d) 40 J
(c) 0.12 m (d) 1.5 m 68. A body of mass m moving with velocity 3 km/
63. A stationary particle explodes into two h collides with a body of mass 2 m at rest. Now
particles of masses m1 and m2 which move in the coalesced mass starts to move with a
opposite directions with velocities v1 and v2. velocity [1996]
The ratio of their kinetic energies E1/E2 is (a) 1 km/h (b) 2 km/h
[2003] (c) 3 km/h (d) 4 km/h
(a) m1v2/m2v1 (b) m2/m1
(c) m1/m2 (d) 1 69. A shell is fired from a cannon, it explodes in
64. A bomb ofmass 1 kg is thrown verticallyupwards mid air, its total [1994]
with a speed of 100 m/s. After 5 seconds it (a) momentum increases
explodes into two fragments. One fragment of (b) momentum decreases
mass 400 gm is found to go down with a speed (c) K.E. increases
of 25 m/s. What will happen to the second (d) K.E. decreases
fragment just after the explosion? (g = 10 m/s2) 70. Two identical balls A and B moving with
[2000] velocities +0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively,
(a) It will go upward with speed 40 m/s collide head on elastically. The velocities of
(b) It will go upward with speed 100 m/s the balls A and B after collision, will be,
(c) It will go upward with speed 60 m/s respectively [1991]
(d) It will also go downward with speed 40m/s (a) +0.5 m/s and +0.3 m/s
65. Two equal masses m1 and m2 moving along (b) – 0.3 m/s and +0.5 m/s
the same straight line with velocities + 3 m/s (c) +0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
and – 5m/s respectively, collide elastically. (d) –0.5 m/s and +0.3 m/s
Their velocities after the collision will be 71. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at rest into three
respectively. [1998] fragments with masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3.
(a) –3 m/s & +5 m/s (b) +4 m/s for both The fragments with equal masses fly in mutually
(c) –4 m/s & +4 m/s (d) –5m/s & +3 m/s perpendicular directions with speeds of 21 m/
66. A molecule of mass m of an ideal gas collides s. The velocity of heaviest fragment in m/s will
with the wall of a vessel with a velocity v and be [1989]
returns back with the same velocity. The
(a) 7 2 (b) 5 2
change in linear momentum of molecule is
[1997] (c) 3 2 (d) 2
(a) 2 mv (b) 4 mv 72. The co-efficient of restitution e for a perfectly
(c) 8 mv (d) 10 mv elastic collision is [1988]
67. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a (a) 1 (b) 0
velocity of 36 km/h has a head on collision (c) ¥ (d) –1
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 9 (a) 17 (c) 25 (c) 33 (c) 41 (b) 49 (b) 57 (a) 65 (d)
2 (d) 10 (b) 18 (b) 26 (d) 34 (c) 42 (d) 50 (d) 58 (a) 66 (a)
3 (c) 11 (b) 19 (d) 27 (d) 35 (c) 43 (a) 51 (d) 59 (d) 67 (c)
4 (b) 12 (a) 20 (d) 28 (b) 36 (d) 44 (b) 52 (a) 60 (a) 68 (a)
5 (d) 13 (c) 21 (d) 29 (c) 37 (d) 45 (b) 53 (b) 61 (b) 69 (c)
6 (d) 14 (b) 22 (b) 30 (d) 38 (d) 46 (b) 54 (a) 62 (b) 70 (b)
7 (a) 15 (a) 23 (d) 31 (c) 39 (a) 47 (b) 55 (b) 63 (b) 71 (a)
8 (b) 16 (d) 24 (a) 32 (b) 40 (b) 48 (a) 56 (d) 64 (b) 72 (a)
EBD_8335
58 PHYSICS
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Work done by variable force 1
yf y f =1 Wp k p x 2p kp × xp × xp Fx p kQ
= 2 = = =
Work done, W = ò Fdy Þ ò F × dy WQ 1
kQ xQ2
kQ × xQ × xQ FxQ kp
yi y =0 2
where, F = 20 + 10 y As kP > kQ \ WQ > WP
r
(d) Given : F = 3i$ + $j
1
5.
\ W = ò ( 20 + 10 y ) dy r
r r
0 ( ) (
r1 = 2$i + k$ , r2 = 4$i + 3 $j - k )
r r r r
é
= ê 20 y +
2 ù1
10 y
ú = 25 J
( ) (
r = r2 – r1 = 4$i + 3 $j - k – 2i$ + k$ )
r
ëê 2 ûú
0 or r = 2$i + 3$j – 2kˆ
2. (d) Using work-energy theorem, DK = work r r
So work done by the given force, w = f × r
= area under F – x graph
From x = 0 to x = 8 m ( )( )
= 3$i + $j × 2i$ + 3 $j - 2k$ = 6 + 3 = 9J
1 2 6. (d) Work done = area under F-d graph
mv = 100 + 30
2 é1 ù
= [2 ´ (7 - 3) ] + ê ´ 2 ´ (12 - 7) ú
\ v = 520 = 23 m/s ë 2 û
From x = 0 to x = 12 m =8+5
1 2 = 13 J.
mv = 100 + 30 – 47.5 + 20
2 7. (a)
\ v = 410 = 20.6 m/s h
3. (c) From work-energy theorem,
Wg + Wa = DK.E. d
1 2
or, mgh + Wa = mv - 0
2
1
10 ´10 ´ 10 + Wa = ´ 10-3 ´ (50) 2
-3 3
W = Potential energy stored in the spring +
2
Þ Wa = –8.75 J Loss of potential energy of mass
which is the work done due to air resistance 1 2
W = mg(h + d) – kd
Work done due to gravity = mgh 2
= 10–3 × 10 × 103 = 10 J Gravitational potential energy of ball gets converted
4. (b) Case (a): Suppose the two springs are into elastic potential energy of the spring.
stretched by the same distance x. Then 1 2
mg(h + d) = kd
1 2
WP k p x2 kp 1
2 Net work done = mg(h + d) - kd 2 = 0
= 1 = 2
WQ kQ
kQ x 2
2 d 2s 2
As kp > kQ so, Wp > WQ 8. (b) Acceleration = 2
= m/s2
dt 3
Case (b): Suppose the two springs stretched Force acting on the body
by distance xP and xQ by the same force F. 2
Then, F = k p x p = k Qx Q = 3 ´ = 2 newton
3
1 4 15. (a) Given: Mass of particle, M = 10g =

Displacement in 2 secs = ´ 2´ 2 = m
3 3 10
kg
4 8 1000
Work done = 2 ´ = J
3 3 radius of circle R = 6.4 cm
9. (a) Work done against gravity = mg sin q × d Kinetic energy E of particle = 8 × 10–4J
(d sin q = 10) acceleration at = ?
= 2 × 10 × 10
1 1 æ 10 ö 2
= 200 J mv 2 = E Þ ç ÷ v = 8 × 10–4
Actual work done = 300 J 2 2 è 1000 ø
Work done against friction = 300 – 200 Þ v2 = 16 × 10–2
= 100 J Þ v = 4 × 10–1 = 0.4 m/s
F(N) Now using
10. (b) v2 = u2 + 2ats (s = 4pR)
A B æ 22 6.4 ö
3 (0.4)2 = 02 + 2at ç 4 ´ ´ ÷
è 7 100 ø
2
7 ´ 100
1 C Þ at = (0.4)2 × = 0.1 m/s2
x(m) 8 ´ 22 ´ 6.4
0 16. (d) Given, m = 10 kg
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
u = 10 m/sec
Work done = area under F-x graph
Retarding force, F = 0.1x J/m
= area of trapezium OABC
1 F
= (3 + 6) (3) = 13.5 J Acceleration, a =
2 m
output work 0.1x
11. (b) Efficiency = input work a= = 0.01x
10
i.e., Efficiency, 2 2
From, v = u – 2as
75g ´ 3 75 ´ 10 ´ 3 30
= = = 0.75 = 75%
250 ´ 12 250 ´ 12 Þ v2 = (10)2 – 2 × 0.01 ò xdx
12. (a) x = 3t – 4t2 + t3 20
30
dx é x2 ù
= 3 - 8t + 3t 2 Þ v2 = 100 – 0.02 ê ú
dt ë 2 û 20
d2x 0.02
Acceleration = 2 = -8 + 6t Þ v2 = 100 – [(30)2 – (20)2]
dt 2
Acceleration after 4 sec Þ v2 = 100 – 0.01[900 – 400]
= –8 + 6 × 4 = 16 ms–2 Þ v2 = 100 – 0.01[500]
Displacement in 4 sec Þ v2 = 95 m/sec
= 3 × 4 – 4 × 42 + 43 = 12 m
\ Work = Force × displacement 1 2
Final K.E. = mv
= Mass × acc. × disp. 2
= 3 × 10–3 × 16 × 12 = 576 mJ 1
s s = ´ 10 ´ 95 Þ 475 J
13. (c) W = ò Fdx = ò (7 - 2 x + 3x 2 )dx 2
0 0 From, F = ma
= [7 x - x 2 + x3 ]50 = 135 J F 0.1x
= 0.01x = V
dV
a= =
1 2 2 m 10 dx
14. (b) W = DE = m(v1 - v2 ) v2 30
2 x
1 So, ò vdV = ò 100 dx
= ´ 0.01[(1000) 2 - (500) 2 ] = 3750J. v1 20
2
EBD_8335
60 PHYSICS
p2
2 V2 2 30 22. (b) E=
V x 30 ´ 30 20 ´ 20 2m
– = = –
2
V1
200 200 200 p12 p22
20 or, E1 = , E2 =
= 4.5 – 2 = 2.5 2 m1 2m2
p2 p22
1
2
( )
m V22 – V12 = 10 ´ 2.5 J = – 25J or, m1 = 1 , m2 =
2 E1 2 E2
m
Final K.E. m1 > m2 Þ 1 > 1
m2
1 2 1 2 1
= mv2 = mv1 – 25 = ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 10 – 25
2 2 2 p12 E2 E2
\ >1 Þ >1 [Q p1 = p2]
= 500 – 25 = 475 J E1P22 E1
17. (c) According to law of conservation of or, E2 > E1
momentum
MV + mnv = 0 Kinetic energy of body of mass m moving with
velocity v is
- mNv -0.01 kg ´ 10 ´ 800 m/s
ÞV = = 1 2
M 100 K.E. = mv
2
Þ – 0.8 m/s
1 mv 2 ´ m
According to work energy theorem, Þ K.E. =
2 m
Average work done = Change in average
[Multiplying both numerator and denominator by m]
kinetic energy
1 1 m2v 2
i.e., Fav ´ Sav = mVrms 2 Þ K.E. =
2 m
2
F V t 1 V2 1 p2
Þ K.E. = [Q Momentum, P = mv]
Þ av max = m rms 2 m
2 2 2 Þ P2 = 2m K.E.
Þ Fav = 8 N
Þ P = 2mK .E .
18. (b) As the particle is moving in a potential
23. (d)
energy region.
\ Kinetic energy > 0 Since height is same for both balls, their velocities
And, total energy E = K.E. + P.E. on reaching the ground will be same.
1
Þ U(x) < E m v2
K .E1 2 1 0 m1 2 1
\ = = = =
19. (d) When work is done upon a system by a K . E2 1 m v 2 m2 4 2
conservative force then its potential energy 2 0
2
increases. 24. (a) If k be the spring constant, then
20. (d) m = mass per unit length 1
\ Mass flowing per second = mv U = ´ k ´ (2)2 = 2k
2
1 1 1
Rate of K.E.= (mv) v2 = mv3 Ufinal = ´ k ´ (10) 2 = 50 k
2 2 2
21. (d) When the body is thrown upwards. its K.E
U 2k 1
is converted into P.E. Þ = =
The loss of energy due to air friction is the Ufinal 50k 25
difference of K.E and P.E. Þ Ufinal = 25U
1 1 25. (c) New K.E., E¢ = E + 3E = 4E
mv 2 – mgh = ×1×400 – 1×18×10
2 2 p = 2 mE and p ¢ = 2 mE ¢
= 200 – 180 = 20 J p' 2m ´ 4 E
= =2
p 2mE
p' Loss in velocity,

- 1 = 2 - 1 [on substrating 1 in both sides.]
p Dv = v1 – v2 = 2 gh1 – 2 gh2
p '- p \ Fractional loss in velocity,
´ 100 = (2 - 1) ´ 100 = 100%
p Dv 2 gh1 – 2 gh2 h2
= =1–
26. (d) If l is length of pendulum and q be angular v1 = 2 gh1 h1
amplitude then height
A 1.8 2
=1– = 1 – 0.36 = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4 =
5 5
q
29. (c) m1 = m, m2 = 4 m
l
l cos q K.E1 = K.E2
1 1 1 2 1
m1v12 = m2 v22 ; mv1 = 4m v22
C 2 2 2 2
p
h v1
B = 2 Þ v1 = 2v2
v2
h = AB – AC = l – l cos q = l(1 – cos q)
At extreme position, potential energy is Linear momentum of first body
maximum and kinetic energy is zero; At mean Linear momentum of second body
(equilibrium) position potential energy is zero m1v1 m.2v2 1
and kinetic energy is maximum, so from = = =
m2 v2 4mv2 2
principle of conservation of energy.
(KE + PE) at P = (KE + PE) at B 1 2
30. (d) K.E. = mv
1 2
0 + mgh = mv 2 + 0 Further, v2 = u2 + 2as = 0 + 2ad = 2ad
2
= 2(F/m)d
Þ v = 2 gh = 2 g l(1 – cos q) 1
1 Hence, K.E. = m ´ 2( F / m) d = Fd
(K.E )1 m1v12 m1v12 4
2
2 4
27. (d) = = Þ = or, K.E. acquired = Work done
(K.E ) 2 1
m2 v22
1 m2 v22 1 = F × d = constant.
2 i.e., it is independent of mass m.
2
(m1v1 ) m2 4 p12 m2 4 31. (c) Initial momentum (p 1 ) = p; Final
Þ = Þ ´ = momentum (p2) = 1.5 p and initial kinetic
(m2 v2 ) 2 m1 1 p 2 m1 1
2 energy (K1) = K.
[Given: p1 = p2]
p2
2
m1 1 Kinetic energy ( K ) = µ p2
m2 4 ´ p2 4 = 2m
= = ´1Þ
m1 1 ´ p2 1 m2 4 2 2
1 K1 æ p1 ö æ p ö 1
28. (b) According to principle of conservation of or, =ç ÷ =ç ÷ =
K 2 è p2 ø è 1.5 p ø 2.25
energy,
Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic or, K2 = 2.25 K.
energy Therefore, increase in kinetic energy is
2.25 K – K = 1.25 K or 125%.
1 2
Þ mgh = mv Þ v = 2 gh 32. (b) Force due to friction = kinetic energy
2 1
If h1 and h2 are initial and final heights, then m mg s = mv 2
2
v1 =2 gh1 and v2 =2 gh2 72000
[Here, v = 72 km/h = = 20m / s ]
60 ´ 60
EBD_8335
62 PHYSICS
v2 20 ´ 20 dV 2P 1
or , s = = = 40m
Hence, acceleration a = = ×
2mg 2 ´ 0.5 ´ 10 dt m 2 t
If a body of mass m moves with velocity u on a
rough surface and stops after travelling a distance Therefore, force on the particle at time ‘t’
S due to friction. Then, frictional force, F = ma =
mR Þ ma = mmg Þ a = mg 2 Km2 1 Km mK –1/2
= ma = × = = t
Using v2 = u2 – 2as m 2 t 2t 2
Þ 0 = u2 – 2mgS
38. (d) Work done by the heart, W = PDV
u2
Þ S= where, pressure P = rgh
2mg
and h = 150 mm – 0.15 m
1 1 g = 10 m/sec2
33. (c) (1)v12 = (9) v22
2 2 r = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3
2
v v1 W P × DV
Þ 12 = 9 or =3 So, Power = =
v2 v2 t t
Ratio of their linear momenta rgh ´ 5 ´ 10 –3
mv 1 1 Power =
= 1 1 = ´ (3) = 60
m2 v 2 9 3
13.6 ´ 103 ´ 10 ´ 0.15 ´ 5 ´ 10 –3
Þ
1 2 60
34. (c) E= mv . Hence, mv = (2mE)1/2.
2 Þ 1.7 watt
r r r
For same KE, momentum µ m. Power F × V = PAV = rghAV
Hence, the ratio is 2 : 1. é F ù
êëQ P = A and P = rgh úû
K1 p2 m 2
35. (c) = 1 ´ 22 [Q p = mv Þ K = p ]
K 2 m1 p2 \ P = 13.6 × 103 × 10 × 150 × 10–3 × 0.5 × 10–3/60
2m
102
p1 M1 1 1 = = 1.70 watt
Hence, p = M2
=
4 2
= 60
2
r W
36. (d) Given force F = 2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj 39. (a) Q Power P =
t
According to Newton's second law of motion, P1 t2 30 s 30 s 1
r Þ = = = =
dv P2 t1 1 minute 60 s 2
m = 2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj (m = 1 kg)
dt (t1 = 1 minute; t2 = 30 second given)
r
v t 40. (b) Constant power of car P0 = F.V = ma.v
r
ò ( 2tiˆ + 3t ˆj ) dt
2
Þ ò dv =
dv
0 0 P0 = m ×v
r dt
Þ v = t 2iˆ + t 3 ˆj
r r P0dt = mvdv Integrating
Power P = F ·v (2t iˆ + 3t 2 ˆj ) · (t 2iˆ + t 3 ˆj )
mv 2
= (2t3 + 3t5)W P0 × t =
2
dw
37. (d) As we know power P = 2P0 t
dt v=
1 m
Þ w = Pt = mV2
2 Q P0, m and 2 are constant
2Pt \ vµ t
So, v =
m
At constant power, P = constant W = Mgh = M × 10 × 10 = 100 M and t = 60 s.

This gives, M = 1200 kg
mdv æ mdv ö Its volume = 1200 litre as 1 litre of water
P = Fv = v=P çQ F = ÷
dt è dt ø contains 1 kg of its mass.
P 45. (b) m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
Þ vdv = dt
m 1 2 1 2
Integrating both sides, we get Also, m1u1 + m2u2
2 2
P
ò vdv = òmt 1 1
= m1v12 + m2v22
2 2
v2 P
For elastic collision
Þ = t + C1 ...(i)
2 m
At t = 0, v = 0 2m1u1
v2 =
\ C1 = 0 m1 + m2
From equation (i) we get as u2 = 0; u1 = u
1/2
2Pt æ 2Pt ö m1 = 4m and m2 = 2m
V2 = Þ V= ç ÷
m è m ø 4
so, v2 = u
41. (b) Power exerted by a force is given by 3
P = F.v 2
DKE 1 æ4 ö
When the body is just above the earth’s surface, = ´ 2m ´ ç u ÷
its velocity is greatest. At this instant, KE 2 è3 ø
gravitational force is also maximum. Hence, the 1 16
= ´2´
power exerted by the gravitational force is 2 9
greatest at the instant just before the body hits r r
46. (b) Pi = Pf
the earth.
r m r 5m r ö
42. (d) Amount of water flowing per second from mvi = æç v1 + v2 ÷
the pipe è6 6 ø
m l æmö r
m r v 5r
= = × = ç ÷v vi = æç 1 + v2 ö÷
time l t èlø è6 6 ø
Power = K.E. of water flowing per second r
ˆ ˆ ˆ
20i + 25 j –12k =
(100iˆ + 35 ˆj + 8kˆ ) 5v2
+
1æmö 2
= ç ÷v ×v 6 6
2è l ø ˆ
r 20iˆ + 115 ˆj – 80k
1æmö 3 v2 =
= ç ÷v 5
2è l ø r
\ v = 4$i + 23 $j – 16k$
2
1
= ´ 100 ´ 8 = 400 W
2 47. (b)
43. (a) Given, h = 60m, g = 10 ms–2,
Rate of flow of water = 15 kg/s
\ Power of the falling water
= 15 kgs–1 × 10 ms–2 × 60 m = 9000 watt.
Loss in energy due to friction
10
= 9000 ´ = 900 watt.
100
\ Power generated by the turbine
= (9000 – 900) watt = 8100 watt = 8.1 kW Bullets collide at time t
W x1 + x2 = 100 m
44. (b) P = . Here, P = 2kW = 2000 W.. 25t + 25t = 100
t
EBD_8335
64 PHYSICS
t = 2s
V1 V2
1 1
y = gt2 = × 10 × 22 = 20 m
2 2
h = 200 – 20 = 180 m B
A
48. (a) From conservation of linear momentum. A B
51. (d) Here, M1 = M2 and u2 = 0
V
u1 = V, V1 = ; V2 = ?
3
V1=V/3
r
0 = mvjˆ + mviˆ + 3mv1 u1=V u2=0 M1 q
r v M1 M2
v1 = – ( iˆ + ˆj ) M2 f
3
2
v1 = v V2=?
3
From figure, along x-axis,
2
1 1 1 æ 2ö 2 M1u1 + M2u2 = M1V1 cos q + M2V2 cos f ...(i)
Kf = mv2 + mv2 + (3m) ç ÷ v Along y-axis
2 2 2 è 3 ø
0 = M1V1 sin q – M2Vs sin f ...(ii)
mv 2 4 2 By law of conservation of kinetic energy,
= mv2 + = mv
3 3 1 1 1 1
4 M1u12 + M 2 u 22 = M1V12 + M 2 V22 ...(iii)
DKE = Kf – Ki = mv2 2 2 2 2
3 Putting M1 = M2 and u2 = 0 in equation (i), (ii)
v v=0 v=0 v¢ and (iii) we get,
49. (b) m m p
4m 4m q+ f= = 90°
Before Collision After Collision 2
According to law of conservation of linear 2 2 2
and u1 = V1 + V2
momentum, 2
æVö 2 é Vù
v V2 = ç ÷ + V2 êQ u1 = V and V1 = ú
mv + 4m × 0 = 4 mv¢ + 0 Þ v¢ = è3ø ë 3û
4
Coefficient of restitution, 2
æVö
Relative velocity of separation or, V2 – ç ÷ = V22
è3ø
e=
Relative velocity of approach
V2
v V2 - = V22
9
4
= 8 2 2 2
v or V22 = V Þ V2 = V
9 3
1
or, e= = 0.25 52. (a) When ball collides with the ground it loses
4 its 50% of energy
ur
50. (d) For collision V B/A should be along
r 1
B ® A ( rA/B ) mVf2
KEf 1 2 1
ur ur r r \ = Þ 1 =
V 2 - V1 r1 - r2
=
KEi 2 mVi2 2
So, V - V r1 - r2 2
2 1
Vf 1 M 3 2 1 2
or = Þ mv = kx
Vi 2 4 2
3 1
2gh 1 Þ ´ 3 ´ (4)2 = ´ 200 x 2
or, = 4 2
V02 + 2gh 2 36 2
M Þ = x Þ x = 0.6 m
100
or, 4gh = V02 + 2gh
56. (d)
\ V0 = 20 ms–1 y
53. (b) By conservation of linear momentum v/2 v¢

Magnitude of the momentum of heavier piece m2 m1 B
of mass (2m) = Magnitude of the vector sum B
v
A A
of momentum of each piece of mass (m)
q x
(2m)v1 = 2 2
( mv ) + ( mv ) [Before collision] [After collision]
v According to law of conservation of linear
Þ 2mv1 = 2mv Þ v1 = momentum along x-axis, we get
2 Þ m1(0) + m2v = m1v¢ cos q
As two masses of each of mass m move m2 v
perpendicular to each other. Þ cos q = ...(i)
m1v ¢
Total KE generated
Similarly, law of conservation of linear
1 2 1 2 1 2 momentum along y-axis, we get
= mv + mv + (2m)v1
2 2 2
ævö
mv2 3 2 Þ m1(0) + m2(0) = m1v¢ sin q + m2 ç ÷
= mv2 + = mv è2ø
2 2 m2 v
54. (a) y Þ sin q = ...(ii)
2m1v¢
2 kg m2 From equations, (i) and (ii),
8 m/sec
Presultant æ m2v ö æ m1v ¢ ö 1
tan q = – ç ÷´ = –
è 2mv ¢ ø çè m2v ÷ø 2
12 m/sec
m1
c x –1 æ –1 ö
/se q = tan ç ÷ to the x-axis.
4m 1 kg è 2 ø
v3 m3 Let A moves in the direction, which makes an angle
q with initial direction i.e.,
v y m2v m2v
Presultant = 122 + 162 tan q = v = 2m
x 1 2m1
= 144 + 256 = 20 1
m3v3 = 20 (momentum of third part) tan q =
2
20 æ1ö
or, m3 = = 5 kg Þ q = tan–1 ç ÷ to the x-axis.
4 è2ø
55. (b) At maximum compression the solid 57. (a) As the two masses stick together after
cylinder will stop so loss in K.E. of cylinder = collision, hence it is inelastic collision.
gain in P.E. of spring Therefore, only momentum is conserved.
1 2 1 2 1 2 2v
Þ mv + I w = kx
2 2 2
2
1 2 1 mR 2 æ v ö 1 2
Þ mv + ç ÷ = kx m x
2 2 2 è Rø 2 v 3m
EBD_8335
66 PHYSICS
r
\ mviˆ + 3m (2v ) ˆj = (4m )v 2 kg, 8 ms
–1
r v 6
v = iˆ + vjˆ
4 4
v 3 –1
= î + vjˆ 1 kg 12 ms
4 2 q
58. (a) Clearly v1 = 2 ms –1, v2 = 0
m1 = m (say), m2 = 2m
v1¢ = ?, v¢2 = ? M
60. (a) Let the initial velocity of the shell be v, then
v1¢ - v2¢ by the conservation of momentum mv = Mv¢
e= ....(i)
v2 - v1 where v¢ = velocity of gun.
By conservation of momentum,
æmö
2m = mv1¢ + 2mv2¢ ... (ii) \ v¢ = ç ÷ v
From (i), èMø
1 1
v ¢ - v1¢ Now, total K.E. = mv 2 + Mv'2
0.5 = 2 2 2
2
2
\ v2 ¢ = 1 + v1 ¢ 1 1 æmö
= mv 2 + M ç ÷ v 2
From (ii), 2 2 èMø
2 = v1 ¢ + 2 + 2 v1 ¢
Þ v1¢ = 0 and v2¢ = 1 ms–1
1 é mù
= mv 2 ê1 + ú
59. (d) Momentum of first part 2 ë Mû
Þ 1 × 12 = 12 æ1 öæ 0.2 ö 2
Momentum of second part = ç ´ 0.2 ÷ç 1 + ÷ v = (0.1 × 1.05)v
2
è2 øè 4 ø
Þ 2 × 8 = 16
But total K.E. = 1.05 kJ = 1.05 × 103 J
Resultant momentum, \ 1.05 × 103 = 0.1 × 1.05 × v2
= (12)2 + (16) 2 = 20
1.05 ´ 103
Then M1 be the mass of third part, Þ v2 = = 104
0.1 ´ 1.05
M × 4 = 20
\ v = 102 = 100 ms–1.
20 61. (b) From conservation of linear momentum
M= = 5 kg
4 m1v1 + m2v2 = 0
Let two parts of the rock move along x-axis and y- æ –m1 ö æ -18 ö -1
axis respectively. v2 = ç ÷ v1 = ç ÷ 6 = -9ms
m
è 2 ø è 12 ø
If M and v be the mass and velocities of third part
then 1 2 1 2
Mv cos q = 12 K.E. = m2v2 = ´ 12 ´ 9 = 486 J
2 2
Mv sin q = 16
1 2 1 2
16 4 62. (b) mv = kx
tan q = = 2 2
12 3
Þ mv2 = kx2
3
cos q = or 0.5 × (1.5)2 = 50 × x2
5 \ x = 0.15 m
v = 4 m/s 63. (b) From conservation law of momentum,
12 before collision and after collision linear
M=
v cos q momentum (p) will be same. That is,
12×5 60 initial momentum = final momentum.
M= = = 5kg Þ 0 = m1v1 – m2v2 Þ m1v1 = m2v2
4 × 3 12
p1 = p2
p2 10 ´ 2
Now, E = v= = 4 m/s
2m 5
1
E1 p 2 2m 2
K.E. (initial) = ´ 2 ´ (10) = 100 J
\ = 1 ´ 22 2
E2 2m1 P2
1 2
E1 m2 K.E. (Final) = ´ (3 + 2) ´ ( 4) = 40 J
Þ = 2
E2 m1 [p1 = p2]
Loss in K.E. = 100 – 40 = 60 J
64. (b) Speed of bomb after 5 second,
v = u – gt = 100 –10 × 5 = 50m/s 68. (a) Applying law of conservation of
Momentum of 400 g fragment momentum,
400 m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1 + m2)v
= ´ ( -25) [downward]
1000 or, m1u1 = (m1 + m2)v (Q u2 = 0)
600 (3 ´ 1000)
Momentum of 600g fragment = v Þ m = 3m(v)
1000 3600
Momentum of bomb = 1 × 50 = 50 1000
From conservation of momentum Þv= m / s = 1 km / hr
3600
Total momentum before splitting = total
momentum after splitting. 69. (c) When shell explodes in mid air its
chemical energy is partly converted into
400 600
Þ 50 = - ´ 25 + v mechanical energy, hence K.E. increases.
1000 1000
Þ v = 100 m/s [upward] 70. (b) When the identical balls collide head-on,
65. (d) In elastic collision, the velocities get their velocities are exchanged.
inter changed if the colliding objects have equal 71. (a) Momentum of Ist part = m × 21 = 21m
masses. Momentum of 2nd part = m × 21 = 21m
Initial momentum = mv Resultant momentum, = (m21) 2 + (m21) 2

mv Final momentum = m (–v)
66. (a) Resultant momentum = momentum of 3rd part
change in momentum
= mv – m(–v) = 2mv Þ 21 2 m = 3mv
67. (c) Applying conservation of momentum, Þ v = 7 2 m/sec
m1v1 = (m1 + m2)v
Masses of the pieces are 1, 1, 3 kg. Hence
m1v1
v= (1 × 21)2 + (1 × 21)2 = (3 × V)2
(m1 + m2 ) That is, V = 7 2 m/s
Here, v1 = 36 km/hr = 10 m/s
72. (a) e = |v1 – v2| / |u1 – u2| which is 1 for a
m1 = 2 kg, m2 = 3 kg perfectly elastic collision.
EBD_8335
68 PHYSICS
6 System of Particles
and Rotational
Motion
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Centre of Mass, Centre of Centre of mass of two particle 1 E
Gravity & Principle of
Moments Centre of mass definition 1 E
Angular Displacement, t=F×R=Ia 1 A 1 D 1 A
Velocity and Acceleration
Torque, Couple and Angular r r r
Torque, t = r ´ F 1 E
Momentum
Moment of Inertia, Rotational Moment of inertia 1 E 1 A 1 D
K.E. and Power Work Energy theorem in rotation 2 A
Rolling Motion Rolling Motion 1 A 1 E
Topic 1: Centre of Mass, Centre of Gravity 3. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg

& Principle of Moments respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat.
The length of the boat is 3.0 m and weighs
1. Two par ticles of mass 5 kg an d 10 kg
respectively are attached to the two ends of a 100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg
rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass. man and sits with him. If the boat is in still
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 water the centre of mass of the system shifts
kg particle is nearly at a distance of : [2020] by : [2012]
(a) 50 cm (b) 67 cm (a) 3.0 m (b) 2.3 m
(c) 80 cm (d) 33 cm (c) zero (d) 0.75 m
2. Which of the following statements are 4. Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g
correct? [2017] at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x =
(A) Centre of mass of a body always coincides 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from
with the centre of gravity of the body the origin is : [2012M]
(B) Centre of mass of a body is the point at (a) 40 cm (b) 45 cm
which the total gravitational torque on the (c) 50 cm (d) 30 cm
body is zero 5. Two particles which are initially at rest, move
(C) A couple on a body produce both towards each other under the action of their
translational and rotation motion in a body internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at
(D) Mechanical advantage greater than one any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of
means that small effort can be used to lift a the system will be: [2010]
large load (a) 2v (b) zero
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) 1.5 (d) v
(c) (C) and (D) (d) (B) and (D)
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 69
6. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position 12. A particle starting from rest, moves in a circle
vectors iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ and – 3iˆ – 2 ˆj + kˆ respec- of radius ‘r’. It attains a velocity of V0 m/s in
tively. The centre of mass of this system has a the nth round. Its angular acceleration will be,
position vector: [2009] [NEET Odisha 2019]
(a) –2 iˆ – ˆj + kˆ (b) 2 iˆ – ˆj – 2kˆ
V02 V0
(c) – iˆ + ˆj + kˆ (d) – 2 iˆ + 2 kˆ (a) rad/s2 (b) rad/s2
4pnr n
7. If the linear density (mass per unit length) of a
rod of length 3m is proportional to x, where x is V02 V02
the distance from one end of the rod, the distance (c) rad/s2 (d) rad/s2
2pnr 2 4pnr 2
of the centre of gravity of the rod from this end 13. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/
is [2002] sec2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/
(a) 2.5 m (b) 1 m sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an
(c) 1.5 m (d) 2 m angle (in radian) of [2007]
8. A solid sphere of radius R is placed on a smooth (a) 10 (b) 12
horizontal surface. A horizontal force F is applied (c) 4 (d) 6
at height h from the lowest point. For the 14. A wheel of radius 1m rolls forward half a
maximum acceleration of the centre of mass, revolution on a horizontal ground. The
[2002] magnitude of the displacement of the point of
(a) h = R the wheel initially in contact with the ground is
(b) h = 2R [2002]
(c) h = 0 (a) p (b) 2 p
(d) The acceleration will be same whatever h
may be (c) 2p (d) p 2 + 4
9. The centre of mass of a system of particles does 15. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving
not depend upon [1997] in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their
(a) masses of the particles speeds are such that each makes a complete
(b) forces acting on the particles circle in the same time t. The ratio of the angular
(c) position of the particles speeds of the first to the second car is [1999]
(d) relative distances between the particles (a) 1 : 1 (b) m1 : m2
10. In carbon monoxide molecule, the carbon and (c) r1 : r2 (d) m1 m2 : r1r2
the oxygen atoms are separated by a distance 16. If a flywheel makes 120 revolutions/minute,
1.12 × 10–10 m. The distance of the centre of then its angular speed will be [1996]
mass, from the carbon atom is [1997] (a) 8 p rad/sec (b) 6 p rad/sec
(a) 0.64 × 10 m–10 (b) 0.56 × 10 m –10 (c) 4 p rad/sec (d) 2 p rad/s
(c) 0.51 × 10–10 m (d) 0.48 × 10–10 m 17. The angular speed of an engine wheel making
90 revolutions per minute is [1995]
Topic 2: Angular Displacement, (a) 1.5 p rad/s (b) 3p rad/s
Velocity and Acceleration (c) 4.5 p rad/s (d) 6p rad/s
11. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform 18. Two racing cars of masses m and 4m are moving
circular motion in concentric circles of radii in circles of radii r and 2r respectively. If their
rA and r B with speed uA and uB respectively. speeds are such that each makes a complete
Their time period of rotation is the same. The circle in the same time, then the ratio of the
ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will angular speeds of the first to the second car is
be : [2019] [1995]
(a) rA : rB (b) uA : uB (a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(c) rB : rA (d) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
EBD_8335
70 PHYSICS
Topic 3: Torque, Couple and Angular 1

(a) mv02 (b) 2mv02
Mo ment um 4
19. Find the torque about the origin when a force 1
(c) mv02 (d) mv02
of 3j$ N acts on a particle whose position vector 2
24. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel
is 2k$ m . [2020] knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a
(a) 6j$ Nm (b) -6i$ Nm horizontal position. The knives are at a distance
d from each other. The centre of mass of the rod
(c) 6k$ Nm (d) 6i$ Nm is at distance x from A. The normal reaction on A
20. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is is [2015]
rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The Wd W(d – x)
torque required to stop after 2p revolutions is : (a) (b)
x x
[2019] W(d – x) Wx
(a) 2 × 10 N m
–6
(b) 2 × l0 N m
–3 (c) (d)
d d
(c) 12 × l0–4 N m (d) 2 × 106 N m 25. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54
21. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of km h–1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the
mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled rotation is 3 kg m2. If the vehicle is brought to rest
with a force of 30 N? [2017] in 15s, the magnitude of average torque transmitted
(a) 0.25 rad/s2 (b) 25 rad/s2 by its brakes to the wheel is: [2015 RS]
(a) 8.58 kg m2 s–2 (b) 10.86 kg m2 s–2
(c) 5 m/s2 (d) 25 m/s2
(c) 2.86 kg m2 s–2 (d) 6.66 kg m2 s–2
22. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is
26. Point masses m1 and m 2 are placed at the
free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L, and
to its plane and passes through its centre. It is negligible mass. The rod is to be set rotating
subjected to a torque which produces a constant about an axis perpendicular to it. The position
angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s–2 . Its net of point P on this rod through which the axis
acceleration in ms–2 at the end of 2.0s is should pass so that the work required to set the
approximately : [2016] rod rotating with angular velocity w0 is minimum,
(a) 8.0 (b) 7.0 is given by : w0 [2015 RS]
(c) 6.0 (d) 3.0
23. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth
m1 m2
horizontal plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0. P
The mass is attached to string which passes
x (L–x)
through a smooth hole in the plane as shown.
v0
m1 m
(a) x= L (b) x= 2L
m m2 m1
m2 L m1L
(c) x = m + m (d) x = m + m
r 1 2 1 2
The tension in the string is increased gradually 27. A force F = a î + 3jˆ + 6kˆ is acting at a point
r
R r = 2iˆ - 6jˆ - 12kˆ . The value of a for which
and finally m moves in a circle of radius 0 . angular momentum about origin is conserved
2
The final value of the kinetic energy is [2015] is : [2015 RS]
(a) 2 (b) zero
(c) 1 (d) –1
28. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 A

m
is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A F3
massless string is wound round the cylinder with
one end attached to it and other hanging freely. O
Tension in the string required to produce an B
angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s– 2 is : C
F2
(a) 25 N (b) 50 N [2014]
(c) 78.5 N (d) 157 N F1
29. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at (a) F1 + F2 (b) F1 – F2
end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless
string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When F1 + F2
(c) (d) 2(F1 + F2)
string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of 2
the rod is [2013] 33. A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless
vertical axle. Its radius R = 2 m and its moment of
inertia about the axle is 200 kgm2. It is initially at
rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the
platform and begins to walk along the edge at
the speed of 1 ms–1 relative to the ground. Time
taken by the man to complete one revolution is
(a) g /L (b) 2g/L 3p
(a) ps (b) s [2012M]
2g 3g 2
(c) (d) p
3L 2L (c) 2ps (d) s
30. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal 2
to the discs and passing through the centres of 34. The instantaneous angular position of a point
on a rotating wheel is given by the equation
the discs. Disc D1 has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m radius
q(t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on the wheel becomes
and initial angular velocity of 50 rad s–1. Disc
zero at [2011]
D2 has 4kg mass, 0.1 m radius and initial angular
(a) t = 1s (b) t = 0.5 s
velocity of 200 rad s–1 . The two discs are
brought in contact face to face, with their axes (c) t = 0.25 s (d) t = 2s
of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity 35. A circular disk of moment of inertia It is rotating
(in rad s–1) of the system is [NEET Kar. 2013] in a horizontal plane, its symmetry axis, with a
(a) 40 (b) 60 constant angular speed wi . Another disk of
(c) 100 (d) 120 moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto
31. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed the rotating disk. Initially the second disk has
point, its angular momentum is directed along : zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks
[2012] rotate with a constant angular speed w f . The
(a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation energy lost by the initially rotating disk to friction
(b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane is: [2010]
of rotation
1 Ib2 It2
(c) the radius (a) wi2 (b) wi2
(d) the tangent to the orbit (
2 t b I + I ) ( I t + I b )
32. ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. Ib - It 2 1 Ib It
ur ur ur (c) wi (d) wi2
F 1, F 2 and F 3 represent three forces acting ( It + I b ) 2 t b ( I + I )
along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If 36. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is
the total torque about O is zero the magnitude rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
ur vertical to its plane with a constant angular
of F 3 is : [2012, 1998] velocity w. If two objects each of mass m be
EBD_8335
72 PHYSICS
attached gently to the opposite ends of a (a) LA = LB

diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate (b) the relationship between L A an d L B
with an angular velocity: [2009, 1998] depends upon the slope of the line AB
wM w ( + 2m )
M (c) LA < LB
(a) (b) (d) LA > LB
M + 2m M
wM w ( M - 2m ) 40. A tube of length L is filled completely with an
(c) (d) incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at
M+m M + 2m
r both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a
37. If F is the force acting on a particle having horizontal plane about one of its ends with a
r r uniform angular velocity w. The force exerted by
position vector r and t be the torque of this
force about the origin, then: [2009] the liquid at the other end is [2006]
r r r r
(a) r . t > 0 and F . t < 0 ML2w
r r r r (a) (b) MLw2
(b) r . t = 0 and F . t = 0 2
r r r r ML2w 2 MLw 2
(c) r . t = 0 and F . t ¹ 0 (c) (d)
r r r r 2 2
(d) r . t ¹ 0 and F . t = 0 41. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I
38. A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free and 2I respectively about their axis of
to rotate about point A. The rod is released from rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation
rest in the horizontal position. Given that the
are equal, their angular momenta will be in
ml 2 the ratio [2005]
moment of inertia of the rod about A is ,
3 (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
[2007] (c) 2:1 (d) 1 : 2
42. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about
l its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about
this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s
A B rotation in one minute would be [2004]
p 2p
(a) N -m (b) N -m
18 15
mgl 3 p p
(a) (b) gl (c) N -m (d) N -m
2 2 12 15
43. Consider a system of two particles having masses
3g 2g
(c) (d) m1 and m2 . If the particle of mass m1 is pushed
2l 3l towards the centre of mass of particles through
39. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with
a distance d, by what distance would the particle
a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the
of mass m2 move so as to keep the centre of
angular momentum of the particle with respect
mass of particles at the original position?[2004]
to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is
at B, then [2007] m2 m1
(a) m d (b) m + m d
Y 1 1 2
B
A m1
(c) d (d) d
m2
44. A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about its
axis perpendicular to its plane and passing
through its centre is placed over another disc
X of moment of inertia I1 rotating with an angular
O
velocity w about the same axis. The final
angular velocity of the combination of discs 51. The angular momentum of a body with mass
is [2004] (m), moment of inertia (I) and angular velocity
I 2w (w) rad/sec is equal to [1996]
( I1 + I 2 )w
(a) (b) I + I I I
I 1 2 (a) Iw (b) Iw2 (c) (d) 2
1 w w
I1w
(c) w (d) I + I 52. Angular momentum is [1994]
1 2 (a) vector (axial) (b) vector (polar)
45. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is (c) scalar (d) none of the above
rotating about its axis with a constant angular 53. A particle of mass m = 5 is moving with a uniform
velocity w. Four objects each of mass m, are kept speed v = 3 2 in the XOY plane along the line
gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular y = x + 4. The magnitude of the angular momentum
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of of the particle about the origin is [1991]
the ring will be [2003] (a) 60 units (b) 40 2 units
( M - 4m)w Mw (c) zero (d) 7.5 units
(a) (b)
M + 4m 4m 54. A solid homogeneous sphere of mass M and
Mw ( M + 4 m) w radius R is moving on a rough horizontal surface,
(c) (d) partly rolling and partly sliding. During this kind
M + 4m M
46. A disc is rotating with angular velocity w. If a of motion of the sphere [1988]
child sits on it, what is conserved ? [2002] (a) total kinetic energy is conserved
(a) Linear momentum (b) the angular momentum of the sphere about
(b) Angular momentum the point of contact with the plane is
(c) Kinetic energy conserved
(d) Moment of inertia (c) only the rotational kinetic energy about the
47. A boy suddenly comes and sits on a circular centre of mass is conserved
rotating table. What will remain conserved? (d) angular momentum about the centre of
(a) Angular velocity [2002] mass is conserved.
(b) Angular momentum Topic 4: Moment of Inertia, Rotational
(c) Linear momentum K.E. and Power
(d) Kinetic energy 55. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
48. A constant torque of 1000 N-m turns a wheel of symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
moment of inertia 200 kg-m2 about an axis sphere is increased keeping its mass
through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 same.Which of the following physical quantities
seconds is [2001] would remain constant for the sphere? [2018]
(a) 1 rad/s (b) 5 rad/s (a) Angular velocity
(c) 10 rad/s (d) 15 rad/s (b) Moment of inertia
49. A weightless ladder 20 ft long rests against a (c) Angular momentum
frictionless wall at an angle of 60º from the (d) Rotational kinetic energy
horizontal. A 150 pound man is 4 ft from the top 56. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating
of the ladder. A horizontal force is needed to about their regular axis passing through centre
keep it from slipping. Choose the correct and perpendicular to the plane of disc with
magnitude of the force from the following angular velocities w1 and w2 . They are brought
(a) 175 lb (b) 100 lb [1998] into contact face to face coinciding the axis of
(c) 120 lb (d) 69.2 lb rotation. The expression for loss of energy
50. A couple produces [1997] during this process is:- [2017]
(a) no motion
1
(b) purely linear motion (a) I(w1 - w2 )2 (b) I(w1 - w2 )2
(c) purely rotational motion 4
(d) linear and rotational 1 1
(c) (w1 - w2 )2 (d) I(w1 + w2 )
2
8 2
EBD_8335
74 PHYSICS
57. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular causing the radius of the circular motion to
hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of
centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the the mass will [2011M]
remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular
axis, passing through the centre ? [2016] r
(a) 15 MR2/32 (b) 13 MR2/32
(c) 11 MR2/32 (d) 9 MR2/32
58. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m (a) remain constant
and radius r are placed as shown in figure. (b) increase by a factor of 2
Consider an axis XX' which is touching to two (c) increase by a factor of 4
shells and passing through diameter of third (d) decrease by a factor of 2
shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting 63. Four identical thin rods each of mass M and
of these three spherical shells about XX' axis is length l, form a square frame. Moment of inertia
(a) 3mr2 X [2015] of this frame about an axis through the centre
16 2 of the square and perpendicular to its plane is :
(b) mr
5 2 13
(c) 4mr2 (a) Ml 2 (b) Ml2 [2009]
3 3
11 2
(d) mr 1 4
5 X¢ (c) Ml 2 (d) Ml 2
59. The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring 3 3
64. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its
and a circular disc, of the same mass and radius, midpoint into two halves so that the angle
about an axis passing through their centres and between them is 90°. The moment of inertia of
perpendicular to their planes are the bent rod about an axis passing through the
[NEET Kar. 2013, 2008] bending point and perpendicular to the plane
(a) 2 :1 (b) 1: 2 defined by the two halves of the rod is:
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
60. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc ML2 ML2
(a) (b) [2008]
is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the 24 12
disc and passing through : [2012M]
ML2 2ML2
(c) (d)
C 6 24
D 65. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
B of radius R and mass M about an axis touching
A
the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc is
[2006, 2005]
(a) B (b) C 2 3
(a) MR 2 (b) MR 2
(c) D (d) A 5 2
61. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of
1
mass M and length L about an axis passing (c) MR 2 (d) MR2
through its midpoint and perpendicular to its 2
length is I0. Its moment of inertia about an axis 66. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc
passing th rough one of its ends an d about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc
perpendicular to its length is [2011] and of a circular ring of the same radius about a
(a) I0 + ML2/2 (b) I0 + ML2/4 tangential axis in the plane of the ring is [2004]
(a) 1 : Ö2 (b) 1 : 3
(c) I0 + 2ML2 (d) I0 + ML2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) Ö5 : Ö6
62. A small mass attached to a string rotates on 67. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are
frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle
the string is increased by pulling the string ABC of side l cm (as shown in the figure). The
moment of inertia of the system about a line 71. The moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and
AX perpendicular to AB and in the plane of radius R about an axis, which is tangential to the
ABC, in gram-cm2 units will be [2004] circumference of the disc and parallel to its
X diameter, is [1999]
3 2
m C
(a) MR 2 (b) MR 2
2 3
l l
5 4
(c) MR 2 (d) MR 2
B
4 5
A
m l m
72. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness.
3 2 3 2 The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure.
(a) ml ml (b) IAB, IBC and ICA are the moments of inertia of the
2 4
5 2 plate about AB, BC and CA as axes respectively.
(c) 2 ml2 (d) ml Which one of the following relations is correct?
4
68. A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration A [1995]
of the ball about an axis passing through its centre
of mass is K. If radius of the ball be R, then the
fraction of total energy associated with its 5
3
rotational energy will be [2003]
R2 K 2 + R2
(a) (b) 90°
K 2 + R2 R2 B 3 C
2
K K2
(c) (d) (a) I AB > I BC (b) I BC > I AB
R2 K 2 + R2
69. A composite disc is to be made using equal (c) I AB + I BC = I CA (d) ICA is maximum
masses of aluminium and iron so that it has as 73. In a rectangle ABCD (BC = 2 AB). The moment
high a moment of inertia as possible. This is of inertia is minimum along axis through[1993]
possible when [2002] F
(a) the surfaces of the discs are made of iron A D
with aluminium inside
(b) the whole of aluminium is kept in the core E G
and the iron at the outer rim of the disc
(c) the whole of the iron is kept in the core and
B C
the aluminium at the outer rim of the disc H
(d) the whole disc is made with thin alternate (a) BC (b) BD
sheets of iron and aluminium (c) HF (d) E G
70. There is a flat uniform triangular plate ABC such 74. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
that AB = 4 cm, BC = 3 cm and angle ABC = about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia
90º. The moment of inertia of the plate about about an axis ^ to its plane and passing through
AB, BC and CA as axis is respectively I1, I2 and a point on its rim will be [1990]
I3. Which one of the following is true?[2000] (a) 5 I (b) 3 I
A (c) 6 I (d) 4 I
75. The moment of inertia of a body about a given
axis is 1.2 kg m2. Initially, the body is at rest. In
order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of
1500 joule, an angular acceleration of
90º 25 radian/sec2 must be applied about that axis
B C for a duration of [1990]
(a) I3 > I2 (b) I2 > I1 (a) 4 seconds (b) 2 seconds
(c) I3 > I1 (d) I1 > I2 (c) 8 seconds (d) 10 seconds
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76 PHYSICS
76. A fly wheel rotating about a fixed axis has a (a) Disk [2016]
kinetic energy of 360 joule when its angular speed (b) Sphere
is 30 radian/sec. The moment of inertia of the (c) Both reach at the same time
wheel about the axis of rotation is [1990] (d) Depends on their masses
(a) 0.6 kg/m2 (b) 0.15 kg m2 83. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere
(c) 0.8 kg m2 (d) 0.75 kg m2 (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline
77. A ring of mass m and radius r rotates about an of angle ‘q’ without slipping and slipping down
axis passing through its centre and perpendicular the incline without rolling is : [2014]
to its plane with angular velocity w. Its kinetic (a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3
energy is [1988] (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5
1 2 2 84. A small object of uniform density rolls up a
(a) mr w (b) mrw 2
2 curved surface with an initial velocity ‘n’. It
1 3n 2
(c) mr 2 w 2 (d) mrw 2 reaches upto a maximum height of with
2 4g
Topic 5: Rolling Motion respect to the initial position. The object is a
78. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a [2013]
horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of (a) solid sphere (b) hollow sphere
20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it ? (c) disc (d) ring
[2019] 85. A drum of radius R and mass M, rolls down
(a) 3 J (b) 30 kJ without slipping along an inclined plane of
(c) 2 J (d) 1J angle q. The frictional force [2005]
79. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm (a) dissipates energy as heat
rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination (b) decreases the rotational motion
30°. The centre of mass of the cylinder has speed (c) decreases the rotational and translational
of 4 m/s. The distance travelled by the cylinder motion
on the inclined surface will be, [take g = 10 m/s2] (d) converts translational energy to rotational
[NEET Odisha 2019] energy
(a) 2.4 m (b) 2.2 m 86. A solid cylinder of mass m and radius R rolls
(c) 1.6 m (d) 1.2 m down an inclined plane of height h without
80. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling slipping. The speed of its centre of mass when it
motion a body possesses translational kinetic reaches the bottom is [2003, 1989]
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy
(Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for (a) (2 gh) (b) 4 gh / 3
the sphere is [2018]
(a) 7 : 10 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 3gh / 4 (d) 4g / h
(c) 2 : 5 (d) 10 : 7 87. A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder both of
81. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin the same mass and same external diameter are
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have released from the same height at the same time
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin on an inclined plane. Both roll down without
with the same angular speed w about their own slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first?
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) (a) Both together [2000]
required to bring them to rest, would satisfy (b) Solid cylinder
the relation [2018] (c) One with higher density
(a) WC > WB > WA (b) WA > WB > WC (d) Hollow cylinder
(c) WA > WC > WB (d) WB > WA > WC 88. A spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping.
82. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different Then the fraction of its total energy associated
masses roll off on two inclined planes of the with rotation is [1994]
same altitude and length. Which one of the two (a) 2/5 (b) 2/7
objects gets to the bottom of the plane first? (c) 3/5 (d) 3/7
89. A thin uniform circular ring is rolling down an (c) disc will reach the bottom first
inclined plane of inclination 30° without slipping. (d) all reach the bottom at the same time
Its linear acceleration along the inclination plane 91. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after
will be [1994] rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height
g g h from rest without sliding is [1992]
(a) (b)
2 3 10
g 2g (a) gh (b) gh
(c) (d) 7
4 3
90. A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the 6 4
(c) gh (d) gh
same mass and made of the same material are 5 3
allowed to roll down (from rest ) on the inclined 92. If a sphere is rolling , the ratio of the translational
plane, then [1993] energy to total kinetic energy is given by [1991]
(a) solid sphere reaches the bottom first (a) 7: 10 (b) 2 : 5
(b) solid sphere reaches the bottom last (c) 10 : 7 (d) 5 : 7
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 12 (d) 23 (b) 34 (a) 45 (c) 56 (a) 67 (d) 78 (a) 89 (c)
2 (d) 13 (a) 24 (c) 35 (d) 46 (b) 57 (b) 68 (d) 79 (a) 90 (a)
3 (c) 14 (d) 25 (d) 36 (a) 47 (b) 58 (c) 69 (b) 80 (b) 91 (a)
4 (a) 15 (a) 26 (c) 37 (b) 48 (d) 59 (a) 70 (b) 81 (a) 92 (d)
5 (b) 16 (c) 27 (d) 38 (c) 49 (d) 60 (a) 71 (c) 82 (b)
6 (a) 17 (b) 28 (d) 39 (a) 50 (c) 61 (b) 72 (b) 83 (a)
7 (d) 18 (d) 29 (d) 40 (d) 51 (a) 62 (c) 73 (d) 84 (c)
8 (d) 19 (b) 30 (c) 41 (d) 52 (a) 63 (d) 74 (c) 85 (d)
9 (b) 20 (a) 31 (a) 42 (d) 53 (a) 64 (b) 75 (b) 86 (b)
10 (a) 21 (b) 32 (a) 43 (c) 54 (b) 65 (c) 76 (c) 87 (b)
11 (d) 22 (a) 33 (c) 44 (d) 55 (c) 66 (d) 77 (a) 88 (b)
Hints & Solutions

y Load
2. (d) Mechanical advantage , M. A.=
Effort
5 kg 10 kg If M.A. > 1 Þ Load > Effort
1. (b) x (cm) Centre of mass may or may not coincide with
(xcm, 0)
(0, 0) (100, 0) centre of gravity. Net torque of gravitational pull
is zero about centre of mass.
Centre of mass of a system of two particles of
uur t g = Sti = Sri ´ mig = 0
masses
uur m 1 and m 2 having position vectors x1
3. (c) 55 65
and x2 is
m x + m2 x2
xcm = 1 1
m1 + m2
Taking particle of mass 5 kg at origin. 100 kg
5 ´ 0 + 100 ´ 10 200 3m
Þ xcm = = = 66.66 cm
5 + 10 3 There is no external force so centre of mass of
Þ xcm = 67 cm the system will not shift
EBD_8335
78 PHYSICS
m1 x1 + m2 x2 + m3 x3 3
é x3 ù
3
4. (a) X cm =
m1 + m2 + m3 ò x(kx dx) ê ú (3)3
ëê 3 ûú 0
300 ´ (0) + 500(40) + 400 ´ 70 \ xCG = 0 = = 3 = 2m
3 3
X cm = é x2 ù (3)3
300 + 500 + 400
500 ´ 40 + 400 ´ 70
ò
kx dx ê ú
ëê 2 ûú 0
2
X cm = 0
1200 8. (d) As friction is absent at the point of contact,
50 + 70 120 Force
X cm = = = 40 cm Accelerati on =
3 3 Mass
5. (b) If no external force action a system of It is independent of h
particles, the centre of mass remains at rest. So, 9. (b) Centre of mass of system depends upon
speed of centre of mass is zero. position and masses of particle. Also, it depends
Force acting on the rigid body,
upon relative distance between particles.
r r 10. (a) (12 amu)
–10
1.12×10 m (16 amu)
r Md 2r
F = Macm = 2
C c.m. O
dt d 1.12×10 – d
–10
When external force acting on the rigid body is From definition of centre of mass.
zero.
r d r r 16 ´ 1.12 ´ 10-10 + 12 ´ 0
F = M (Vcm ) = 0 Þ Vcm = Constant d=
dt 16 + 12
So, when no external force acts on a body its 16 ´ 1.12 ´10 -10
centre of mass will remain at rest or move with = = 0.64 × 10–10 m.
constant velocity. 28
6. (a) The position vector of the centre of mass 11. (d) Let TA and TB are the time periods of
of two particle system is given by particle A and B respectively. According to
v v question,
r m1 r1 + m2 r 2
R cm = TA = TB = T
( m1 + m2 ) If wA and wB are their
1 angular speeds, then
= [– 8iˆ – 4 ˆj + 4 k]
ˆ = – 2 iˆ – ˆj + kˆ
4 2p 2p
wA = and wB =
7. (d) Consider an element of length dx at a TA TB
distance x from end A.
Here, mass per unit length l of rod wA TB T
\ = = = 1:1
l µ x Þ l = kx wB TA T
\ dm = ldx = kx dx
12. (d) V2 = u2 + 2as
V02
A x dx B V02 = 0 + 2ra(2pr)n Þ a =
Position of centre of gravity of rod from end A. 4pnr 2
Since, q = w 0 t + 1 at 2
L
13. (a)
ò xdm 2
Where a is angular aceleration, w0 is the initial
0
xCG = angular speed.
L
ò dm t = 2s
1
0 q = 2 ´ 2 + ´ 3(2) 2 = 4 + 6 = 10 rad
2
P2
2
14. (d)
1m
1 1
( æ
)2p ö
´ ´ 2 ´ 4 ´10 –2 ç –3 ´ ÷
2 2 è 60 ø
Þ –t =
2
4p
1m 1m
Þ t = 2 × 10 N-m
–6
P1 pr 21. (b) Given, mass of cylinder m = 3kg

Linear distance moved by wheel in half R = 40 cm = 0.4 m
revolution = pr. Point P1 after half revolution F = 30 N ; a = ? 40
reaches at P2 vertically 2m above the ground. As we know, torque t = Ia cm
\ Displacement P1P2 F × R = MR2a
= p 2 r 2 + 22 = p 2 + 4 [Q r = 1m] F´ R
a=
15. (a) As time taken by both car to complete MR 2
one revolution is same.
30 ´ (0.4) F = 30 N
2p 1 a= or, a = 25rad / s 2
As w = Þ w µ , as T is same in both 2
3 ´ (0.4)
T T
cases. Hence 'w' will also be same. 22. (a) Given: Radius of disc, R = 50 cm
120 ´ 2 p Angular acceleration, a = 2.0 rads–2; time t = 2s
16. (c) Angular speed, w = = 4 p rad/sec Particle at periphery (assume) will have both
60 radial (one) and tangential acceleration
17. (b) Number of revolutions made by the
at = Ra = 0.5 × 2 = 1 m/s2
engine wheel (n) = 90 per minute.
Angular speed
Angular speed of the engine wheel
w = w0 + at
2pn 2 p ´ 90 w = 0 + 2 × 2 = 4 rad/sec
(w ) = = = 3p rad/s.
60 60 Centripetal acceleration
18. (d) We know that both the cars take the same ac = w2R = (4)2 × 0.5 = 16 × 0.5 = 8m/s2
time to complete the circle, therefore ratio of Linear acceleration, at = a.R = 1m/sec2
angular speeds of the cars will be 1 : 1. Net acceleration,
19. (b) Given :
r atotal = a 2t + a 2c = 12 + 82 » 8 m/s2
Force, F = 3 ˆj N
r The acceleration of the particle moving in a circle
Position vector, r = 2kˆ m
r r r has two components; tangential acceleration (at)
Torque, t = r ´ F = 2kˆ ´ 3 ˆj = 6(kˆ ´ ˆj ) = 6( -iˆ) which is along the tangent and radial acceleration
r (ar) which 15 towards the centre of circle. As the
Þ t = -6iˆ Nm
two components are mutually perpendicular
20. (a) According to the Work-energy theorem, therefore, net acceleration of the particle will be
W=
1
2
(
I wf2 - wi2 ) a = at2 + ar2
23. (b) Applying angular momentum conservation
Given that,
q = 2p revolution/minute v0
q = 2p × 2p = 4p2 rad m
2p
wi = 3 ´ rad / s
60
wf = 0 rad/s æR ö
mv0R0 = (m) (v) ç 0 ÷
Putting the values of wf and wi we get è 2 ø
\ v' = 2v0
Þ – tq =
1 1 2 2
2 2
(
´ mr 0 – wi2 ) 1 2
Therefore, final KE = m (2v0)2 = 2mv0
2
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80 PHYSICS
24. (c) By torque balancing about B 27. (d) From Newton's second law for rotational
NA (d) = W (d – x) motion,
uv
W(d – x) r dL r r
NA = t = , if L = constant then t = 0
d dt
NA NB r r r
So, t = r ´ F = 0
A B ( )
2iˆ - 6ˆj - 12kˆ ´ (aî + 3jˆ + 6k)
ˆ =0
Solving we get a = –1
d 28. (d) Here a = 2 revolutions/s2 = 4p rad/s2 (given)
x d–x 1 1 25
Icylinder =MR 2 = (50)(0.5)2 = Kg-m2
2 2 4
W As t = Ia so TR = Ia
25. (d) Given : Speed v = 54 kmh –1 = 15 ms–1
Moment of inertia, I = 3 kgm2 æ 25 ö
(4 p )
Time t = 15s Ia çè 4 ÷ø
ÞT= = N = 50 pN = 157 N
wi = v = 15 = 100 [Given wf = 0] R (0.5)
r 0.45 3 29. (d)
wf = wi + at
100 100
0= + (– a) (15) Þ a=
3 45
Average torque transmitted by brakes to the wheel,
100
t = (I) (a) = 3 × = 6.66 kgm2s–2 Weight of the rod will produce the torque
45
26. (c) From figure,
L mL2 é ML2 ù
Total moment of inertia of the rod, t = mg =Ia= a êQ Irod = ú
I = m1x2 + m2 (L–x)2 2 3 êë 3 ûú
I = m1x2 + m2 [L2 + x2 – 2Lx] 3g
Hence, angular acceleration, a =
I = m1x2 + m2L2 + m2x2 – 2m2 Lx 2L
dI 30. (c) Given: m1 = 2 kg m2 = 4 kg
As I is minimum, so, =0 ... (i) r1 = 0.2 m r2 = 0.1 m
dx
dI w1 = 50 rad s–1 w2 = 200 rad s–1
Þ = 2m1x + 2m 2 x – 2m 2 L As, angular momentum,
dx
Using equation (i) I1w1 + I2w2 = (I1 + I2)w1
Þ 2m1x + 2m2x – 2m2 L = 0 1 1
m r 2w + m r 2w
m2 L I1w1 + I 2 w2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2
x= \ wf = =
Þ ( m1 + m 2 ) I1 + I 2 1 1
m1r12 + m2 r22
2 2
When I is minimum, the work done by rotating a By putting the value of m1, m2, r1, r2 and solving
rod will be minimum. we get =ur100r rad –1
Work required to set the rod rotating with angular ur s
velocity w0.
31. (a) Q L = r ´ p
1 p
K.E. = Iw20 L
2
Work is minimum, when I is minimum. I is
minimum about the centre of mass. 0 r n
\ m1x1 = m2(L – x)
Þ m1x = m2L – M2x
m2 L
\ x= m +m
1 2
ur
By right hand screw, rule, the direction of L is ^ Loss in K.E., D K = Initial K.E. – Final K.E.
r ur 1 1
to the plane containing r and p . = It wi2 – ( It + Ib ) w2f
32. (a) F1 x + F2 x = F3 x 2 2
F3 = F1 + F2 1 2 1 (I + I )
It2
= I w
t i - t b wi2
33. (c) According to the conservation of angular 2 2 ( It + Ib )2
momentum, It I t Ib
1 1
When no external torque acts on system, the = wi2 I + I ( It + Ib - I t ) = wi2 I + I
angular momentum does not change. 2 t b 2 t b
36. (a) In absence of external torque, L = Iw
Lsystem = Lman + Lplatform = constant
= constant
Lman = –Lplatform
I1w1 = I 2w 2 , I1 = MR 2 , I2 = MR 2 + 2mR 2
Lman = mnR
(Moment of inertia of a thin circular ring about
where m is mass of man, n is speed of man
an axis vertical to its plane = MR2)
relative to ground, R is the radius of platform,
Lplatform =Iw I M
\ w2 = 1 w = w.
where I is moment of inertia, w is angular velocity. I2 M + 2m
r r r r r r r
L platform L man -mnR 37. (b) t = r ´ FÞ r .t =0 F.t = 0
Þ w= =– = r
I I I Since, t is perpendicular to the plane of
Speed of man relative to platform is r r r r
r and F , hence the dot product of t with r
mn R r
n platform = n - wR = n + R and F is zero.
I Radial component of force makes no contribution
é mR 2 ù to the torque. Only transverse component of
= n ê1 + ú force contributes to the torque.
êë I úû
Time taken by man to complete one revolution
is, l
2pR 2pr 2 38. (c)
t= = = 2´ p A B
n platform é mR ù 2 1 (1 + 1)
n ê1 + ú
êë I úû
Þ t = 2p second Weight of the rod will produce torque,
34. (a) q(t) = 2t3 – 6t2 l
t = mg ´
dq d 2q 2
Þ = 6t 2 - 12t Þ a = 2 = 12t - 12 = 0 Also, t = I a
dt dt
\ t = 1 sec.
ml 2
When angular acceleration (a) is zero then torque where, I is the moment of inertia =
3
on the wheel becomes zero. and a is the angular acceleration
35. (d) By conservation of angular momentum,
ml 2 l 3g
It wi =(It+Ib) w f \ a = mg ´ Þ a =
3 2 2l
where w f is the final angular velocity of disks 39. (a) Angular momentum = Linear momentum
× distance of line of action of linear momentum
æ It ö about the origin.
\ wf = ç ÷ wi
è It + Ib ø
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82 PHYSICS
Y 42. (d) I = 2kgm2, n0 = 60rpm = 1rps
B w0 = 2pn0 = 2p rad/sec
A
wf = 0 and t = 1 min = 60 sec
w f - w0 0 - 2p
So, µ = =
d t 60
0 X -p 2
a= rad / sec
LA = pA × d, LB = pB × d 30
As linear momenta are pA and pB equal, and Torque, t = I.a
therefore, LA = LB. æ -p ö -p
t = 2. ç ÷ =
40. (d) è 30 ø 15
w p
dx t = N-m
15
F 43. (c) To maintain the position of centre of mass
x at the same position, the velocity of centre of
mass ncm must be zero.
Rotation will create centrifugal force due to
m1n1 + m 2 n 2
which pressure will be created at the other end. That means, n cm = ( m + m ) = 0
Now, this centrifugal force will depend on 1 2
distance of the liquid from the axis as centrifugal dr1 dr2 é dr1 ù
m1 + m2
force = mw2r. dt dt êQ n1 = dt ú
Þ =0 ê ú
Let us consider a small part dx of the liquid ( m1 + m 2 ) ê n = dr2 ú
column which is at a distance of x. êë dt úû
2
Mass of this element will be, Þ m1 dr1 + m2 dr2 = 0
where, n1 and n2 are the velocities of the particles
M
dm = dx and dr1 and dr2 are the change in dosplacement
L
So, force exerted on this element will be, æ m1 ö
Þ df = dm.w2x of particles. Then, dr 2 = - ç m ÷ dr1
As the mass of liquid extends from x = 0 to x = L, è 2ø
the net force on the wall experienced by the mass As the centre of mass of a body is a point where
of the liquid is, the whole mass of the body is concentrated,
therefore, sum of moments of masses of all the
f L
M 2 particles of the body about the centre of mass is
Þ ò df = L òw .x.dx
i=n ur
0 0
f L zero, i.e., å mi ri = 0
M i -1
Þ ò df = L w2 ò x.dx
For two particle system
0 0 ur ur
m1 r1 + m2 r2 = 0
M 2 éL 2ù
Mw2 L
Þ f= w ê ú= ur
L ur m r
ëê 2 ûú 2
Þ 1 r = 11
41. (d) The relation between K.E. of rotation and m2

angular momentum, 44. (d) Angular momentum will be conserved
L2
K= Þ L2 = 2KI Þ L = 2 KI Iw
2I I1w = I1w' + I2w' Þ w ¢ = 1
I1 + I 2
L1 æ K öæ I ö æ K öæ I ö 1
= ç 1 ÷ç 1 ÷ = ç ÷ç ÷ = 45. (c) Applying conservation law of angular
L2 K I
è 2 øè 2 ø è K øè 2 I ø 2 momentum, I1w1 = I2w2
L1 : L2 = 1 : 2 I2 = (Mr2) + 4 (m) (r2) = (M + 4m)r2
(Taking w1 = w and w2 = w1) 50. (c) A couple is formed of two equal and
Þ Mr2 w = (M + 4m)r2w1 opposite forces at some separation; so net force
Mw is zero. Hence ,a couple does not produce
Þ w1 = translatory motion; but it causes change in
M + 4m
rotational motion.
46. (b) If external torque is zero, angular
51. (a) Let body contain m1, m2, m3 ........mn
momentum remains conserved.
masses at distance r1, r2, r3 ........ rn from axis OA.
L = Iw = constant
Angular momentum of body
External torque is zero because the weight of child = m1v1r1 + m2v2r2 .....+ mnvnrn
acts downward
= m1 (wr1 )r1 + m2 (wr2 )r2 ...... + mn (wrn )rn
47. (b) As net torque applied is zero.
= (m1r12 )w + (m2 r22 )w....... + ( mn rn2 )w
dL
Hence, t = æ n ö
dt
= ç å mi ri ÷ w = I w
2
dL çè i = 1 ÷ø
= 0 , L = constant.
dt r
L (angular momentum) remains conserved. 52. (a)
r r Angular momentum L is defined as
r
48. (d) t = 1000 N - m, I = 200 kg-m2 L = rr ´ m(v )
æ w - w0 ö So, L is an axial vector..
t = I.a and a = ç f ÷
è t ø 53. (a) Y
1000 mv
Þa= = 5 rad/sec2
200 4
w1 = w0 + at = 0 + 3 × 5 = 15 rad/s x+
P y=
49. (d) AB is the ladder, let F be the horizontal R
force and W is the weight of man. Let N1 and N2 q
Q X
be normal reactions of ground and wall, O
respectively. Then for vertical equilibrium y = x + 4 line has been shown in the figure when
W = N1 .....(1) x = 0, y = 4. So, OP = 4.
For horizontal equilibrium, N2 = F .....(2) The slope of the line can be obtained by
Taking moments about A, comparing with the equation of the straight line
N2(AB sin60°) – W(AC cos 60°) = 0 ......(3) y = mx + c
Using (2) and AB = 20 ft, BC = 4 ft, we get m = tan q = 1
Þ q = 45°
N2 B
ÐOQP = ÐOPQ = 45°
If we draw a line perpendicular to this line,
4 ft
length of the perpendicular = OR

C
OR
In DOPR, = sin 45°
OP
N1 W
Þ OR = OP sin 45°
60° 1 4
= 4´ = =2 2
A F O 2 2
æ Angular momentum of particle going along this
3ö æ 1ö
F ç 20 ´ ÷ – W ç16 ´ ÷ = 0 line = r × mv = 2 2 ´ 5 ´ 3 2 = 60 units
è 2 ø è 2ø
54. (b) Angular momentum about the point of
8W ´ 2 4W 150 ´ 4
ÞF= = = pound contact with the surface includes the angular
20 3 5 3 5 3 momentum about the centre. Due to friction linear
= 40 3 = 40 ´1.73 = 69.2 pound momentum is conserved.
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84 PHYSICS
55. (c) Angular momentum, remains conserved X

until the torque acting on sphere remains zero.
tex = 0 1
dL 2 3
So, =0
dt
i.e., angular momentum L = constant. X¢
So, I of the system along XX'
56. (a) Here, Iw1 + Iw2 = 2Iw = Idiameter + (Itangential) × 2
w1 + w2 2 2 æ5 2ö
Þ w= or, Itotal = Mr + ç Mr ÷ ´ 2
2 3 è3 ø
1 2 1 2 12
(K.E.)i = Iw1 + Iw2 = Mr 2 = 4Mr 2
2 2 3
2
1 2 æ w + w2 ö I
(K.E.)f = ´ 2Iw = I ç 1 ÷ 59. (a) Q I = MK2 \ K =
2 è 2 ø M
1 2 1
Loss in K.E. = (K.E) f - (K.E)i = I(w1 - w2 ) Iring = MR2 and Idisc = MR 2
4 2
57. (b) Moment of inertia of complete disc about
point 'O'. M K1 I1 MR 2
= = = 2 :1
K2 I2 æ MR 2 ö
MR 2 ç ÷
ITotal disc = è 2 ø
2 O R
Mass of removed disc 60. (a) According to parallel axis theorem of the
M R moment of Inertia
MRemoved = (Mass µ area) I = Icm + md2
4
Moment of inertia of removed disc about point d is maximum for point B so Imax about B.
'O'. 61. (b) By theorem of parallel axes,
IRemoved (about same perpendicular axis) I = Icm + Md2
= Icm + mx2 I = I0 + M (L/2)2 = I0 + ML2/4
2 2
M (R / 2) MæRö 3MR 2
= + ç ÷ = L2
4 2 4è2ø 32 62. (c) K.E. =
2I
Therefore the moment of inertia of the remaining
The angular momentum L remains conserved
part of the disc about a perpendicular axis
about the centre.
passing through the centre,
That is, L = constant.
IRemaing disc = ITotal – IRemoved I = mr2
MR 2 3 13 L2
= - MR 2 = MR 2 \ K.E. =
2 32 32 2mr 2
Moment of inertia of a part of a rigid body L2
(Symmetrically cut from the whose mass) is the In 2nd case, K.E. =
same as that of the whole body when whole mass 2(mr ¢ 2 )
is replaced by mass of that part. r
But r¢ =
58. (c) Moment of inertia of shell 1 along diameter 2
2 2 L2 4L2
Idiameter = Mr \ K .E ' = = Þ K.E.¢ = 4 K.E.
3 r2 2mr 2
Moment of inertia of shell 2 = M.I of shell 3 2m.
4
2 5 2
2 2
= Itangential = Mr + Mr = Mr \ K.E. is increased by a factor of 4.
3 3
When no torque is applied angular momentum y1 y'1

remains constant.
w2 I1
I1w1 = I2w2 Þ = 66. (d) Circular disc [1]
w1 I 2
1
I w2 2
E 2 2 2 2 I 2 æ I1 ö I
\ = = ç ÷ = 2
E1 1 MR 2 MR 2 5
I1w12 I1 è I 2 ø I2
Iy = \ I y¢ = + MR 2 = MR 2
2 1 4 1 4 4
So, if moment of inertia (mr2) decreases K.E. of y 2 y' 2
rotation increases and vice versa.
63. (d) Moment of inertia of a thin rod of length
l about an axis passing through centre and Circular ring [2]
1
perpendicular to the rod = Ml 2 .
12 MR 2 MR 2 3
Thus moment of inertia of the frame. Iy = \ I y¢ = + MR 2 = MR 2
ml2 ml 2 4ml2 ml2
2 2 2 2 2
+ = =
12 4 12 3 I y¢ = MK12 , I y¢ 2 = MK 22
ml 2
1
Total M.I. = 4 × K12 I y¢

3 \ = 1
Þ K1 : K 2 = 5 : 6
64. (b) Mass of each part = M/2 K 22 I y¢
2
Length of each part = L/2 67. (d) IAX = m(AB)2 + m(OC)2

= ml2 + m (l cos 60º)2
= ml2 + ml2/4 = 5/4 ml2
L/2
X
Cm
O
L/2
l l
Axis
Total M.I. = Sum of M.I.s of both parts 60º m

Am l
2 2 B
æ M öæ L ö 1 æ M öæ L ö 1 68. (d) As we know that,
= ç ÷ç ÷ ´ + ç ÷ç ÷ ´
è 2 øè 2 ø 3 è 2 øè 2 ø 3 1 1
Rotational energy = I (w) 2 = (mK 2 )w 2 And,
M L2 1 ML2 2 2
= 2´ ´ ´ = 1
2 4 3 I2 mw 2 R 2
65. (c) M.I. of a uniform circular disc of radius Linear kinetic energy =
2
‘R’ and mass ‘M’ about an axis passing \ Required fraction,
though C.M. and normal to the disc is 1
(mK 2 )w 2 æ K2 ö
2
= 1 = çç 2 2
÷÷
2 2 1
(mK )w + mw R 2 2 è K +R ø
2 2
69. (b) Moment of inertia = ò r 2dm .
r dm
1 2
I C.M. = MR
2
From parallel axis theorem, \ Since, riron > raluminium
1 3 So, whole of aluminium is kept in the core and
IT = IC .M . + MR 2 = MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2
2 2 the iron at the outer rim of the disc.
EBD_8335
86 PHYSICS
A 1 2 2 Er
70. (b) As Er = Iw , Þ w =
2 I
4 cm 2 ´1500
= = 50 rad / sec
1.2
B C From w 2 = w1 + at
3 cm
If we choose BC as axis. Distance is maximum. 50 = 0 + 25 t, t = 2 seconds
Hence, Moment of Inertia is maximum. 1
76. (c) Er = I w 2
Moment of Inertia depend upon mass and 2
distribution of masses as I = Smr2. 2Er 2 ´ 360
Further, as the distance of masses is more , more I= 2 = = 0.8 kg m 2
is the moment of Inertia. w 30 ´ 30
\ I2 > I1, I2 > I3 1 2
77. (a) Kinetic energy = I w
71. (c) Moment of inertia of disc about its 2
and for ring I = mr2
I 1 2 2
Hence, KE = mr w
2
R
1 Id 78. (a) Work done to stop the disc = change in
diameter is I d = MR 2 total kinetic energy of disc
4
Final KE = 0
Initial KE = Translational K.E. + Rotational K.E.
MI of disc about a tangent passing through rim
1 1
and in the plane of disc is = mv2 + lw2
1 5 2 2
I = I d + MR 2 = MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2 2
4 4 1 2 1 mR 2 æ v ö
= mv + ´ ´ ç ÷
72. (b) Since distances of centre of mass from the 2 2 2 èRø
sides are related as : xBC > xAB > xAC , therefore, 1 1 3
IBC > IAB > IAC or IBC > IAB. = mv 2 + mv2 = mv 2
2 4 4
The intersection of medians is the centre of mass of 3
= ´ 100 × (20 × 10–2)2 = 3J
the triangle. 4
|DKE| = 3J
73. (d) The M.I. is minimum about EG because 79. (a) Kinetic energy at the bottom
mass distribution is at minimum distance from EG.
1 1 3 2
= mv02 + Iw2 = mv0
Among so many parallel axis, moment of inertia 2 2 4
of the body is the minimum about on axis which 1 2
As Isolid cylinder = MR and V = Rw
is passing through the centre of mass of the body. 2
74. (c) M.I of uniform circular disc about its From work – energy theorem
diameter = I 3 2
mv0 = mgh = mgd sinq
According to theorem of perpendiclar axes, 4
3 2
1 2 mv0
M.I. of disc about its axis = mr = 2I
2 d= 4
mg sin q
æ 1 2ö
Applying theorem of | | axes, çèQ I = mr ÷ø 3 v02 3 16
4 Þ d= = × = 2.4 m
M.I of disc about the given axis 4 g sin q 4 10 ´1 / 2
= 2 I + mr2 = 2 I + 4 I = 6 I 80. (b) In rolling motion, rotational kinetic energy.
75. (b) I = 1.2 kg m2, Er = 1500 J, 1 2
a = 25 rad/sec2, w1 = 0, t = ? Kt = mv
2
1 2 1 2 84. (c)
And, Kt + Kr = mv + l w
2 2
2
1 2 1 æ 2 2 öæ v ö 7 2 3V 2
= mv + ç mr ÷ç ÷ = mv
2 2è5 øè r ø 10 4g V
1 2
mv
Kt 5
\ = 2 =
Kt + Kr 7 7 From law of conservation of mechanical energy,
mv 2
10 1 1 3v2
81. (a) Work done required to bring them rest Þ Iw2 + 0 + mv2 = mg ×
2 2 4g
DW = DKE (work-energy theorem) 1 2 3 1
1 2æ 1 2ö Þ Iw = mv2 – mv2
DW = I w ç DkErot = I w ÷ 2 4 2
2 è 2 ø 1 2 mv2 æ 3 - 1 ö
or, DW µ I (for same w) Þ Iw = ç ÷
2 2 è2 ø
2 1
1 æç V ö÷ mv2
2 2 2
Isolid sphere = MR , IDisk = MR 1
5 2 or, I 2 = or, I = mR2
IRing = MR2 \ WC > WB > WA 2 çè R ÷ø 4 2
Hence, object is a disc.
K2
82. (b) Time of descent µ 85. (d) Net work done by frictional force when
R2 drum rolls down without slipping is zero.
2
K Wnet = 0
Order of value of
R2
2
K 1
for disc; 2 = = 0.5
R 2
K2 2
for sphere; 2 = = 0.4
R 5 Wtrans. + Wrot. = 0; DKtrans. + DKrot. = 0
(sphere) < (disc) DKtrans = –DKrot.
\ Sphere reaches first i.e., converts translation energy to rotational
K2 energy.
The value is a measure of moment of
R2 1 2 1
inertia. Its. value is fixed for a particular shape 86. (b) K .E. = Ιw + m v 2
of the body and independent of mass and 2 2
readius of the body. 1æ 1 2ö 2 1
K .E. = ç m r ÷ w + m v 2
83. (a) For solid sphere rolling without slipping 2è 2 ø 2
on inclined plane, acceleration 1 1 3
g sin q = m v 2 + m v2 = m v2
4 2 4
a1 =
æ K2 ö Now, gain in K.E. = Loss in P.E.
çç1 + 2 ÷÷
è R ø 3 æ 4ö
m v2 = m g h Þ v = ç ÷ g h
For solid sphere slipping on inclined plane 4 è 3ø
without rolling, acceleration
a2 = g sin q 87. (b) f
a
Therefore required ratio = 1
a2
1 1 5 q
in
= = = gs
æ K 2 ö æ1 + 2 ö 7 m q
ç1 + 2 ÷ ç ÷
ç R ÷ø è 5ø Torque, Ia = f. R.
è
EBD_8335
88 PHYSICS
Using Newton's IInd law, mg sin q – f = ma g sin q g sin 30° g

Q pure rolling is there, a = Ra 89. (c) a= = =
Ia (1+ K 2
/R 2
) 1 +1 4
Þ mg sin q - = ma 2
R 90. (a) For solid sphere, K = 2
Ia æ aö R2 5
Þ mg sin q - 2 = ma çèQ a = ÷ø
R R 2
mg sin q For disc and solid cylinder, K = 1
or, acceleration, a =
( I / R 2 + m) R2 2
2
1 K
Using, s = ut + at2 As 2 for solid sphere is smallest, it takes
2 R
1 2 1 minimum time to reach the bottom of the
or, s = at Þ t a incline
2 a
t minimum means a should be more. This is When bodies of different shapes are allowed to
possible when I is minimum which is the case roll down an incline, then velocity at the bottom
for solid cylinder. of incline, acceleration and time taken in reaching
Therefore, solid cylinder will reach the bottom K2
first. the bottom depends on 2 . If the body has less
1 R
MK 2 w 2 K2
Kr 2 K2
88. (b) = = 2 moment of inertia then will be less, then it
E 1 2 R2
M w 2 [ K 2 + R2 ] K + R will take less time in reaching the bottom.
2
2/5 2 91. (a) P.E. = total K.E.
= =
1+ 2 / 5 7 7
mgh = mv 2 ,
2 10
Here, K 2 = R 2
5 10 gh
When a body is executing only linear motion, its \v =
7
1 2
K.E. is given by Et = mn when a body is 1 1
2 92. (d) E = Et + Er = mv 2 + I w 2
rolling without slipping, its centre of mas has 2 2
linear motion too. 1 2 1 æ 2 2ö 2
Therefore, its total kinetic energy = mv + ´ ç mr ÷ w
E = Et + Er 2 2 è5 ø
1 1 1 2 1 2 7
= mn 2 + Iw2 = mv + mv = mv 2
2 2 2 5 10
1 1 n2 1 2
= mn 2 + m (K 2 ) 2 mv
2 2 R Et 5
1 2æ K2 ö \ = 2 =
= mn ç 1 + 2 ÷ E 7 7
ç mv 2
2 è R ÷ø 10
Gravitation 89
7 Gravitation
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016
Kepler's Laws of Planetary Kepler's Law of Planetary 1 E
Motion Motion
Newton's Universal Law of Variation of g with height 1 A
Gravitation Acceleration due and depth
to Gravity Gravitational Force, Value
1 E
of g on Earth’s Surface
Gravitational Field, Potential Gravitational Potential 1 A
and Energy Energy
Gravitational Potential 1 D
Motion of Satellites, Escape Escape Speed
1 A
Speed and Orbital Velocity
Topic 1: Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion The relation between G and K is described as
1. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical [2015]
orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are (a) GMK = 4p2 (b) K = G
KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major 1
(c) K = (d) GK = 4p2
axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the G
position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. 3. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
Then [2018] about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice
the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the
B planet to move from C to D and t 2 is the time to
move from A to B then : [2009]
A C v
S m
B C
(a) KA < KB < KC (b) KA > KB > KC S

A D
(c) KB > KA > KC (d) KB < KA < KC
2. Kepler's third law states that square of period
of revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is (a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2
proportional to third power of average distance (c) t1 = t2 (d) t1 > t2
r between sun and planet i.e., T2 = Kr3 here K is 4. The period of revolution of planet A around the
constant. If the masses of sun and planet are M Sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from
and m respectively then as per Newton's law of the Sun is how many times greater than that of
gravitation force of attraction between them is B from the Sun? [1997]
GMm , (a) 2 (b) 3
F= here G is gravitational constant. (c) 4 (d) 5
r2
EBD_8335
90 PHYSICS
5. The distance of Neptune and Saturn from the 11. A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter
sun is nearly 1013 and 1012 meter respectively. DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near the
Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their surface of this planet will experience an
periodic times will be in the ratio [1994] acceleration due to gravity, equal to : [2012]
(a) 10 (b) 100 (a) 4GM P/DP2 (b) GM P mD / P2
(c) 10 10 (d) 1000 (c) GMP/DP2 (d) 4GMP mD / P2
6. A satellite A of mass m is at a distance of r from
12. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in
the surface of the earth. Another satellite B of
air and the gravitational force between them is
mass 2m is at a distance of 2r from the earth’s
F. The space around the masses is now filled
centre. Their time periods are in the ratio of
with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The
[1993]
gravitational force will now be [2003]
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 16
F
(c) 1 : 32 (d) 1 : 2 2 (a) (b) 3F
9
7. The distance of two planets from the sun are F
1013 and 1012 metres respectively. The ratio of (c) F (d)
3
time periods of these two planets is [1988] 13. What will be the formula of the mass in terms of
1 g, R and G (R = radius of earth) [1996]
(a) (b) 100
10 R R2
(a) g2 (b) G
(c) 10 10 (d) G g
10
8. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth G
R R2
(c) (d) g
from the sun are r1 and r2. Its distance from the g G
sun when it is at perpendicular to the major-axis Topic 3: Acceleration due to Gravity
of the orbit drawn from the sun is [1988] 14. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
r +r r1 + r2 What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
(a) 1 2 (b) r - r equal to half the radius of the earth? [2020]
4 1 2
2r1r2 (a) 32 N (b) 30 N
r1 + r2
(c) (d) (c) 24 N (d) 48 N
r1 + r2 3 15. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km
Topic 2: Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation above the earth is the same as at a depth d below
9. Two astronauts are floating in gravitation free the surface of earth. Then [2017]
space after having lost contact with their 3
(a) d = 1 km (b) d = km
spaceship. The two will [2017] 2
(a) move towards each other. 1
(b) move away from each other. (c) d = 2 km (d) d = km
2
(c) become stationary 16. The height at which the weight of a body
(d) keep floating at the same distance between becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of
them. earth (radius R), is : [2012]
10. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5 M and
(a) 5R (b) 15R
radii R and 2 R released in free space with initial
separation between their centres equal to 12 (c) 3R (d) 4R
R. If they attract each other due to gravitational 17. A roller coaster is designed such that riders
force only, then the distance covered by the experience “weightlesness” as they go round the
smaller body before collision is [2015] top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m.
(a) 4.5 R (b) 7.5 R The speed of the car at the top of the hill is
(c) 1.5 R (d) 2.5 R between: [2008]
Gravitation 91
(a) 14 m/s and 15 m/s (b) 15 m/s and 16 m/s Topic 4: Gravitational Field,
(c) 16 m/s and 17 m/s (d) 13 m/s and 14 m/s Potential and Energy
18. Imagine a new planet having the same density 24. The work done to raise a mass m from the
as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal
the earth in size. If the acceleration due to to the radius of the earth, is : [2019]
gravity on the surface of earth is g and that (a) mgR (b) 2 mgR
on the surface of the new planet is g¢, then 1 3
(c) mgR (d) mgR
[2005] 2 2
(a) g¢ = g/9 (b) g¢ = 27g 25. Assuming that the gravitational potential
(c) g¢ = 9g (d) g¢ = 3g energy of an object at infinity is zero, the
change in potential energy (final – initial) of
19. The density of a newly discovered planet is an object of mass m, when taken to a height h
twice that of earth. The acceleration due to from the surface of earth (of radius R), is given
gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to
by, [NEET Odisha 2019]
that at the surface of the earth. If the radius of
the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be GMm GMm
(a) (b) –
(a) ½ R (b) 2 R [2004] R+h R+h
GMmh
(c) 4 R (d) 1/4 R (c) (d) mgh
20. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A R (R + h)
is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on 26. At what height from the surface of earth the
planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2m on the gravitational potential and the value of g are
surface of A. What is the height of jump by the –5.4 × 107 J kg–1 and 6.0 ms–2 respectively?
same person on the planet B? [2003] Take the radius of earth as 6400 km : [2016]
(a) 2600 km (b) 1600 km
2 2 (c) 1400 km (d) 2000 km
(a) m (b) m
3 9 27. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field
(c) 18 m (d) 6 m (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of
21. Assuming earth to be a sphere of uniform earth is correctly represented by: [2014]
density, what is the value of ‘g’ in a mine 100
km below the earth’s surface? (Given, R = 6400 E E
km) [2001] R
(a) O (b) O
(a) 9.65 m/s2 (b) 7.65 m/s2 r R r
(c) 5.06 m/s2 (d) 3.10 m/s2
22. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
What is the gravitational force on it due to earth E E
at a height equal to half the radius of the earth R
from the surface? [2000] (c) O (d) O
r R r
(a) 32 N (b) 28 N
(c) 16 N (d) 72 N 28. A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s
23. In a rocket a seconds pendulum is mounted. Its surface to the height equal to twice the radius
period of oscillation decreases when the rocket (R) of the earth. The change in potential en-
[1991] ergy of body will be [2013]
(a) comes down with uniform acceleration
2
(b) moves round the earth in a geostationary (a) mgR (b) 3 mgR
orbit 3
(c) moves up with a uniform velocity 1
(c) mgR (d) mg2R
(d) moves up with uniform acceleration 3
EBD_8335
92 PHYSICS
29. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg 32. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre
are situated on x-axis at distances 1m, 2m, 4m, of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a.
8m, ..... respectively, from the origin. The re- The gravitational potential at a point situated at
sulting gravitational potential due to this sys- a
distance from the centre, will be: [2010]
tem at the origin will be [2013] 2
8 4 3GM 2 GM
(a) - G (b) - G (a) - (b) -
3 3 a a
(c) – 4 G (d) – G GM 4 GM
30. Which one of the following plots represents (c) - (d) -
a a
the variation of gravitational field on a particle 33. The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius
with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the
radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the surface of the Earth. The velocity of a body
spherical shell) [2012M] from this platform is f v, where v is its velocity
(a) E from the surface of the Earth. The value of f
is [2006]
1 1
(a) (b)
2 3
O r
R 1
(c) (d) 2
(b) E 2
34. Assuming the radius of the earth as R, the
change in gravitational potential energy of a
body of mass m, when it is taken from the earth's
O r surface to a height 3R above its surface, is
R [2002]
(c) E
3
(a) 3 mg R (b) mg R
4
3
(c) 1 mg R (d) mg R
O r 2
R
35. The potential energy of a satellite, having mass
(d) E m and rotating at a height of 6.4 × 106 m from
the earth surface, is [2001]
(a) – mgRe (b) – 0.67 mgRe
(c) – 0.5 mgRe (d) – 0.33 mgRe
O r
R 36. With what velocity should a particle be
31. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre projected so that its height becomes equal to
of spherical shell of mass M and radius a. The radius of earth? [2001]
magnitude of the gravitational potential at a
point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, 1/ 2 1/ 2
æ GM ö æ 8GM ö
(a) ç (b) ç
will be [2011M] è R ÷ø è R ÷ø
2GM 3GM
(a) (b)
a a æ 2GM ö
1/ 2
æ 4GM ö
1/ 2
(c) ç (d) ç
(c)
4GM
(d)
GM è R ÷ø è R ÷ø
a a
Gravitation 93
Topic 5: Motion of Satellites, Escape Speed the planet and the earth, respectively, then
and Orbital Velocity [NEET Kar. 2013]
37. The time period of a geostationary satellite is (a) VE = 1.5VP (b) VP = 1.5VE
24 h, at a height 6RE (RE is radius of earth) from (c) VP = 2VE (d) VE = 3VP
surface of earth. The time period of another 43. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at rest at a height
satellite whose height is 2.5 RE from surface 3R from the surface of earth, where ‘R’ is radius
of earth and ‘M’ is mass of earth. The minimum
will be, [NEET Odisha 2019]
speed with which it should be projected, so that
12 it does not return back, is (g is acceleration
(a) h (b) 6 2 h
2.5 due to gravity on the surface of earth)
24 [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) 12 2 h (d) h 1
2.5 1
38. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the æ GM ö 2 æ GM ö 2

(a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷
escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius è R ø è 2R ø
1 1
and mean density are twice as that of earth is :
æ gR ö 2 æ 2g ö 2
(c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 2 [2016] è 4 ø è 4 ø
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 2 44. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth
39. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit at a height of 5R above that surface of the earth,
around the earth. The mass of the satellite is R being the radius of the earth. The time period
very small compared to the mass of the earth. of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R
Then, [2015 RS] from the surface of the earth is : [2012]
(a) the total mechanical energy of S varies (a) 5 (b) 10
periodically with time. 6
(b) the linear momentum of S remains constant (c) 6 2 (d)
in magnitude. 2
(c) the acceleration of S is always directed 45. If ve is escape velocity and v0 is orbital velocity
towards the centre of the earth. of a satellite for orbit close to the earth’s
(d) the angular momentum of S about the surface, then these are related by : [2012M]
centre of the earth changes in direction, (a) v0 = 2ve (b) v0 = ve
but its magnitude remains constant.
(c) ve = 2v0 (d) ve = 2v0
40. A remote - sensing satellite of earth revolves
in a circular orbit at a height of 0.25 × 106 m 46. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is
above the surface of earth. If earth's radius is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest
6.38 × 106 m and g = 9.8 ms–2, then the orbital away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear
speed of the satellite is: [2015 RS] velocities at these points respectively, then the
(a) 8.56 km s–1 (b) 9.13 km s–1 v1
ratio is [2011]
(c) 6.67 km s–1 (d) 7.76 km s–1 v2
(a) (r1 /r2) 2 (b) r2/r1
41. A black hole is an object whose gravitational
field is so strong that even light cannot escape (c) (r2 /r1) 2 (d) r1/r2
from it. To what approximate radius would earth 47. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from
(mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be compressed the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The
to be a black hole? [2014] mass and the radius of the earth are,
(a) 10– 9 m (b) 10– 6 m respectively, M and R. G is gravitational
(c) 10– 2 m (d) 100 m constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on
42. The radius of a planet is twice the radius of the surface of the earth. The minimum value of
earth. Both have almost equal average mass- u so that the particle does not return back to
densities. If VP and VE are escape velocities of earth, is [2011M]
EBD_8335
94 PHYSICS
2GM 2GM radius of the earth becomes half, the escape

(a) (b) velocity would become [1997]
R R2 (a) 44.8 km/s
2GM (b) 22.4 km/s
(c) 2gR 2 (d)
R2 (c) 11.2 km/s (remains unchanged)
48. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A (d) 5.6 km/s
and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. 54. A ball is dropped from a satellite revolving
If the speed of satellite A is 3 V, then the speed around the earth at a height of 120 km. The ball
of satellite B will be: [2010] will [1996]
(a) 3 V/4 (b) 6 V (a) continue to move with same speed along
(c) 12 V (d) 3 V/2 a straight line tangentially to the satellite
49. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving in at that time
the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times (b) continue to move with the same speed
the mass of S2. Which one of the following along the original orbit of satellite
statements is true? [2007] (c) fall down to earth gradually
(a) The potential energies of earth satellites (d) go far away in space
in the two cases are equal. 55. The escape velocity from the surface of the
(b) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed. earth is ve.The escape velocity from the surface
(c) The kinetic energies of the two satellites of a planet whose mass and radius are three
are equal. times those of the earth, will be [1995]
(d) The time period of S1 is four times that of (a) ve (b) 3v e
S2. (c) 9v e (d) 1/3v e
50. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the
56. A satellite in force free space sweeps stationary
earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential
interplanetary dust at a rate dM/dt = av where
energy is [2005]
M is the mass and v is the velocity of the
1 1 satellite and a is a constant. What is the
(a) (b)
2 2 deceleration of the satellite? [1994]
(a) –av 2 (b) –av 2/2M
(c) 2 (d) 2 (c) –av 2/2M (d) –2av 2/M
51. The escape velocity on the surface of earth is 57. The escape velocity from earth is 11.2 km/s. If
11.2 km/s. What would be the escape velocity a body is to be projected in a direction making
on the surface of another planet of the same an angle 45° to the vertical, then the escape
mass but 1/4 times the radius of the earth? velocity is [1993]
(a) 22.4 km/s (b) 44.8 km/s[2000] (a) 11.2 × 2 km/s (b) 11.2 km/s
(c) 5.6 km/s (d) 11.2 km/s
52. The escape velocity of a sphere of mass m is (c) 11.2 / 2 km/s (d) 11. 2 2 km/s
given by (G = Universal gravitational constant; 58. The mean radius of earth is R, its angular speed
M = Mass of the earth and Re = Radius of the on its own axis is w and the acceleration due to
earth) [1999] gravity at earth’s surface is g. What will be the
radius of the orbit of a geostationary satellite?
GM 2GM [1992]
(a) (b)
Re Re (a) (R2g/w2)1/3 (b) (Rg/w2)1/3
(c) (R2w2/g)1/3 (d) (R2g/w)1/3
2GMm 2GM + Re
(c) (d) 59. A satellite of mass m is orbiting around the earth
Re Re in a circular orbit with a velocity v. What will
53. The escape velocity of a body on the surface be its total energy? [1991]
of the earth is 11.2 km/s. If the earth’s mass (a) (3/4) mv 2 (b) (1/2) mv 2
increases to twice its present value and the (c) mv2 (d) –(1/2)m v2
Gravitation 95
60. A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit around where R is separation between them, then a
the sun. If T, V, E and L stand respectively for particle in circular orbit under such a force
its kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, would have its orbital speed v proportional to
total energy and magnitude of angular [1989]
momentum about the centre of force, which of (a) 1/R2 (b) R0
the following is correct? [1990] (c) R1 (d) 1/R
(a) T is conserved 62. For a satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. If
(b) V is always positive the satellite is launched at an angle of 60° with
(c) E is always negative the vertical, then escape velocity will be [1989]
(d) L is conserved but direction of vector L
(a) 11 km/s (b) 11 3 km/s
changes continuously
61. If the gravitational force between two objects 11
(c) km / s (d) 33 km/s
were proportional to 1/R (and not as 1/R 2 ) 3
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 8 (c) 15 (c) 22 (a) 29 (c) 36 (a) 43 (b) 50 (a) 57 (b)
2 (a) 9 (a) 16 (c) 23 (d) 30 (b) 37 (b) 44 (c) 51 (a) 58 (a)
3 (b) 10 (b) 17 (a) 24 (c) 31 (b) 38 (b) 45 (d) 52 (b) 59 (d)
4 (a) 11 (a) 18 (d) 25 (c) 32 (a) 39 (c) 46 (b) 53 (b) 60 (c)
5 (c) 12 (c) 19 (a) 26 (a) 33 (a) 40 (d) 47 (a) 54 (b) 61 (b)
6 (d) 13 (d) 20 (c) 27 (b) 34 (b) 41 (c) 48 (b) 55 (a) 62 (a)
7 (c) 14 (a) 21 (a) 28 (a) 35 (c) 42 (c) 49 (b) 56 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Speed of the planet will be maximum Squarring both sides,
when its distance from the sun is minimum as 2
mvr = constant.
æ 2 pr r ö 4p2 3
T2 = ç ÷ = .r
B è GM ø GM
Perihelion VC
T 2 4p 2
A C Þ = =K
S r 3 GM
VA Aphelion Þ GMK = 4p2
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion. 3. (b) According to Kepler ’s law, the areal
Clearly, VA > VB > VC velocity of a planet around the sun always
remains constant.
So, KA > KB > KC
SCD : A1– t1 (areal velocity constant)
GM SAB : A2 – t2
2. (a) As we know, orbital speed, vorb = A1 A 2
r = ,
2 pr 2 pr t1 t2
Time period T = = r A
vorb GM t1 = t2 . 1 (given A1 = 2A2)
A2
EBD_8335
96 PHYSICS
2A2 2 r1 r2
= t2 . R=
A2 r1 + r2
\ t1 = 2t2 9. (a) Both the astronauts are in the condition
of weightlessness. Gravitational force between
The area covered by radius vector in dt seconds =
them pulls towards each other. Hence
1 2
r dq Astronauts move towards each other under
2
mutual gravitional force.
1 2 dq 1 2 æ dq ö
Area velocity = r = r w çQ w ÷ 10. (b) Let the distance moved by spherical body
2 dt 2 è dt ø of mass M is x1 and by spherical body of mass
1 5m is x2
= rv (Q v = wr)
2 Before collision At the time of collision
It follows that speed of the planet is maximum when 5M 5M
it is closest to the sun and is minimum when the M M
planet is farthest from the sun. 12R–3R=9R
4. (a) Let TA and TB be time period of A and B R 2R R 2R
about sun. 12R
TA = 8TB
As their C.M. will remain stationary
TA So, (M) (x1) = (5M) (x2) or, x1 = 5x2
=8 ...(1)
TB x1 + x2 = 9R
According to Kepler’s Law, T2 µ r3 So, x1 = 7.5 R
11. (a) Gravitational attraction force on particle
TA ( rA )3 æ rA ö
3
rA
= B,
TB (rB )3 ç ÷ =8 Þ r = 2
Þ
è rB ø B GM P m
5. (c) T2 µ R3 (According to Kepler’s law) Fg =
(DP /2) 2
T12 µ (1013)3 and T22 µ (1012)3 Acceleration of particle due to gravity
T12 T1 Fg 4GMP
\ = (10)3 or = 10 10 a= =
T22 T2 m DP2
6. (d) Also, T2 µ T3. 12. (c) Gravitational force is independent of
Time period does not depend on the mass. medium, Hence, this will remain same.
M 1M 2
Since, f = G therefore the affecting factor
7. (c) T2 µ R3 (Kepler’s law) d2
are:
3
T12 æ 1013 ö T (i) Mass of the two bodies i.e., f a M1M2 When
=
2 çç 12 ÷÷
Þ 1 = 10 10 mass increases gravitational force increase.
T2 è 10 ø T 2 (ii) The distance between thier centers; i.e., f a
8. (c) Applying the properties of ellipse, we have 1
2 1 1 r1 + r2 when the distance increases gravitational force
= + = d2
R r1 r2 r1 r2 decreases.
Instant position GMm

13. (d) We know that mg =
of satellite R2
Sun
GM gR 2
R \g = Þ M =
R2 G
major axis
14. (a) Weight of a body on the surface of the earth,
r1 r2 WS = mgs = 72 N
Gravitation 97
Acceleration due to gravity, g varies with height, 2

mv /R
R
h = (given)
2
mg
mgs 72 72
Wh = 2
= 2
=
æ hö æ R / 2ö (3 / 2) 2
1 + 1 +
èç R ø÷ èç ÷
R ø
4 2
= ´ 72 = 32 N
9 i.e., mg = mv
R
15. (c) Above earth surface Below earth
surface Þ v = gR = 10 ´ 20 = 14.1 ms–1
æ 2h ö æ d ö Hence, the speed of the car should be between
gh = g ç1 - ÷ gd = g ç 1 - ÷ 14 ms–1 and 15 ms–1.
è Re ø è Re ø 18. (d) We know that
According to question, gh = gd
æ4 ö
æ 2h ö æ d ö G ç pR 3 ÷ r
g ç1 - GM è3 ø 4
÷ = g ç1 - ÷ g= = = pGRr
è Re ø è Re ø R2
R 2 3
Clearly, g depends on radius of the planet
d = 2h = 2 km g ¢ R ¢ 3R
= = = 3 [As G & r are constants]
Graph of g, R and d: g R R
(i) g at surface of earth is maximum \ g¢ = 3g
(ii) g at centre of earth is zero
(iii) g is maximum at poles and minimum at the If the radius of a planet decreases by n%, keeping
equator. its mass unchanged, the acceleration due to gravity
on its surface increases by 2n%
Surface Dg 2 DR
= –
g g R
o ut
th
ar = –2(–n)
si d
eE
e
h
et = 2n%
th e
s id
in
E ar
th
GM 4
19. (a) g= . Also, M = r ´ pR 3
Depth R Altitude
R2 3
GM m 1 GM m 4
16. (c) = \ g = G rpR .
( R + h) 2
16 R 2 3
1 1 4
Þ = At the surface of planet, g p = G (2r ) pR¢ ,
2 3
(R + h) 16 R 2
4
R 1 At the surface of the earth g e = G rpR
Þ = 3
( R + h ) 4 ge = gp Þ rR = 2rR' Þ R' = R/2
R+h
Þ =4 20. (c) Applying conservation of total mechanical
R energy principle
Þ h = 3R
17. (a) For the riders to experience 1 2
mv = mg Ah A = mg B hB
weightlessness at the top of the hill, the weight 2
of the rider must be balanced by the centripetal Þ gAhA = gBhB
force.
EBD_8335
98 PHYSICS
æg ö Potential energy at the surface of the earth

Þ hB = ç A ÷ hA = 9 × 2 = 18 m -GMm
è gB ø Usurface =
R
The velocity of the mass while reaching the surface Potential energy at a height from the
of both the planets will be same. surface of the earth h = R
Þ 2 g ¢h¢ = 2 gh -GMm
U height =
2R
Þ 2 gh¢ = 2 ´ 9 g ´ 2 According to work-energy theorem, work
Þ 2h ¢ = 36 Þ h¢ = 18m done = change in PE
21. (a) We know that effective gravity g¢ at depth \ W = Uheight – Usurface
below earth surface is given by -GMm æ GMm ö
Þ -ç- ÷
æ dö 2R è R ø
g¢ = g ç 1 - ÷
è Rø GMm gR 2m mgR
Here, d = 100 km, R = 6400 km, = = = (Q GM = gR2)
2R 2R 2
æ 100 ö GMm
\ g¢ = 9.8 ç 1 - ÷ = 9.65 m/s
2
25. (c) As U = –
è 6400 ø r
22. (a) mg = 72 N (body weight on the surface) GMm GMm
\ (P.E)A = – ; (P.E)B = –
GM R R+h
g= \ DU = (P.E)B – (P.E)A
R2
GMm GMm GMmh
R = – + =
At a height H = , R+h R ( R )( R + h)
2
GM 26. (a) As we know, gravitational potential (V)
g¢ = 2 and acceleration due to gravity (g) with height
æ Rö
çè R + ÷ø -GM
2 V= = –5.4 × 107 …(1)
4 GM (R + h)
=
9 R2 GM
=6
and g = …(2)
R ( R + h )2
Body weight at height H = ,
2 Dividing (1) by (2)
4 æ GM ö -GM
mg ¢ = m ´ ç 2 ÷
9è R ø
Þ
(R + h) =
-5.4 ´ 107
4 4 GM 6
= m ´ ´ g = mg
9 9 ( R + h )2
4
= ´ 72 = 32 N 5.4 ´ 107
9
Þ =6
(R + h)
23. (d) T = 2 p l / g . When the rocket
Þ (R + h) = 9000 km so, h = 2600 km
accelerates upwards g increases to (g + a).
24. (c) Mass to be raised = m 27. (b) First when (r < R) E µ r and then when r ³
1
h=R R E µ . Hence graph (b) correctly dipicts.
r2
R The field strength of uniform solid sphere within it
decreases linearly with ‘r’ and becomes zero as
we reach at the centre of the sphere.
Gravitation 99
-GMm For r = R i.e., on the surface of the shell

28. (a) Initial P. E., Ui = ,
R GM
E= 2
-GMm R
Final P.E., Uf = [Q R' = R + 2R = 3R]
3R For r < R i.e., inside the shell
\ Change in potential energy, E=0
-GMm GMm
DU = + GM
3R R
R2 1
GMm æ 1ö 2 GMm 2 Eµ
= ç1 - 3 ÷ = = mgR E=0 r2
R è ø 3 R 3
æ GMm ö o
r=R r
çèQ = mgR ÷
ø 31. (b) VP = Vspherical shell + Vparticle
R
mgh GM GM 3GM
DU = = + =
h a a/2 a
1+
R M
By placing the value of h = 2R we get
2
DU = mgR. a
3
Work done against gravitational forces in taking a P
M a/2
body of mass m from the surface of earth to a
height h is the change in potential energy of the
body and is given by
GMmh At every point, inside a spherical shell of radius R,
Du =
R( R + h) the gravitational potential is same as that on that
GMmh surface of the shell, i.e.,
(a) if h << R, then W = GM
R( R + h)
V= –
GMm 1 R
(b) if h = R, then W = = mgh 32. (a) Potential at the given point = Potential at
2R 2
the point due to the shell + Potential due to the
29. (c)
particle
GM 2GM 3GM
m = - - = -
a a a
-Gm GMm
Gravitational potential V = 33. (a) Potential energy at height R = -
r 2R
G´2 G´2 G´2 G´2 If m be the mass of a body which is thrown with
V0 = – – – – --- ¥ velocity ve so that it goes out of gravitational
1 2 4 8
field from distance R, then
é 1 1 1 ù
V0 = – 2G ê1 + + + + ....¥ ú 1 GM GM
ë 2 4 8 û mve 2 = .m Þ ve =
2 2R R
1 1
V0 = – 2G × = – 2G × = – 4 G.. or, ve = gR
æ 1ö 1
ç 1 - ÷ Now, v = 2 gR , So, v = 2 ve
è 2ø 2
30. (b) The Gravitational field due to a thin v
or, ve =
spherical shell of radius R at distance r. 2
GM 1
E = 2 (If r > R) Comparing it with given equation, f = .
r 2
EBD_8335
100 PHYSICS
34. (b) Gravitational potential energy (GPE) on 38. (b) As we know, escape velocity,
the surface of earth, 2GM 2G æ 4 3 ö
GMm ve = = · ç pR r ÷
E1 = - R R è3 ø
R
ve µ R r
GMm GMm
GPE at 3R, E2 = - =-
( R + 3R ) 4R Ve R e re
\ =
\ Change in GPE Vp R p rp
GMm GMm 3GMm
= E2 - E1 = - + = Ve R re
4R R 4R Þ = e
Vp 2R e 2r e
3g R m2 æ GM ö
= çèQ g = 2 ÷ø Ve
4R R \ Ratio =1: 2 2
3 Vp
= mg R
4 39. (c) The gravitational force on the satellite will
35. (c) Mass of the satellite = m and height of be aiming towards the centre of the earth so
satellite from earth (h) = 6.4 × 106 m. acceleration of the satellite will also be aiming
We know that gravitational potential energy of towards the centre of the earth.
the satellite at height h, 40. (d) Given: Height of the satellite from the
GM e m gR 2 m earth's surface h = 0.25 × 106m
GPE = - =- e Radius of the earth R = 6.38 × 106m
Re + h 2 Re
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2
gRe m
=- = -0.5 mgRe Orbital velocity, v0 = ?
2
(where, GMe = gRe2 and h = Re) GM GM R 2
36. (a) From conservation of energy v0 = = .
(R + h) R 2 (R + h)
1 GMm 1 GMm
mu 2 – = m ´ (0) 2 – 9.8 ´ 6.38 ´ 6.38
2 R 2 (R + R) =
2GM 2GM GM 6.63 ´106
2
Þu = – =
R 2R R é GM ù
= 7.76 km/s êQ 2 = g ú
GM ë R û
Þu= 41. (c) From question,
R
Escape velocity
2 gh
Use v 2 = where h = R 2GM
æ hö
= = c = speed of light
ç1 + ÷ R
è R ø
2GM
v = gR =
GM Þ R=
R c2
37. (b) T2 µ r3 2 ´ 6.6 ´ 10 - 11 ´ 5.98 ´ 10 24
= m
T2 µ (RE + h)3 (3 ´ 108 )2
= 10–2 m
T12
=
( RE + 6RE )3 42. (c) Escape velocity,
T22 ( RE + 2.5RE )3 2GM E 2G æ 4 3 ö 8
T12 73
Ve = = ç pR E r E ÷ = R pGr E
RE RE è 3 ø 3
=
T22 æ7ö
3
V R
ç ÷ Þ Ve µ R Þ P = P = 2
è2ø VE RE
T2 = 6 2 h Þ VP = 2VE.
Gravitation 101
43. (b) As we know, the minimum speed with GM

which a body is projected so that it does not But g =
R2
return back is called escape speed.
GM 2GM
2GM 2GM 2GM \ u = 2· ·R Þ
Ve = = = R2 R
r R+h 4R
1 48. (b) Orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular
æ GM ö 2
=ç ÷ (Q h = 3R) orbit of radius a is given by
è 2R ø
44. (c) According to Kelpner’s law of period GM
v=
T2 µ R3 a
T12 R13 (6 R )3 1
= = =8 Þ vµ
T22 R23 (3 R )3 a
24 ´ 24 v2 a1
=8 Þ v1 = a2
T22
24 ´ 24 4R
T22 = = 72 = 36 × 2 \ v2 = v1 = 2 v1 = 6V
8 R
T2 = 6 2 49. (b) Since orbital velocity of satellite is
GM
2GM GM v= , it does not depend upon the mass
45. (d) ve = Þ v0 = r
R R of the satellite.
ve = 2v0 Therefore, both satellites will move with same
The orbital velocity of a satellite at a height h speed.
above the surface of earth, 50. (a) K.E. of satellite moving in an orbit around
the earth is
GM gR 2
v0 = = (Q GM = gR2)
( R + h) ( R + h)
Here, M = mass of earth,
R = radius of earth,
g = acceleration due to If the satellite is very
close to the surrface of earth gravity earth on
2
surface of then h = 0 1 2 1 æ GM ö GMm
K = mv = m ç ÷ =
gR 2 GM 2 2 è r ø 2r
\ v0 = = gR =
R R P.E. of satellite and earth system is
46. (b) Angular momentum is conserved GMm
\ L1 = L2 GMm K 1
Þ mr1v1 = mr2v2 U= Þ = 2r =
r U GMm 2
Þ r1v1 = r2v2
r
v r
Þ 1 = 2 2GM e
v 2 r1 51. (a) vearth =
Re
47. (a) The velocity u should be equal to the
escape velocity. That is, 2GM p 2GM e 8GM e
vplanet = =
u= 2gR Rp Re / 4 = Re
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102 PHYSICS
vplanet 8GM e Re 57. (b) Escape velocity does not depend on the
= ´ angle of projection.
vearth Re 2GM e = 2
The value of escape velocity is given by
\ vplanet = 2 × vearth = 2 × 11.2 = 22.4 km/s
2GM
52. (b) Escape velocity is the minimum velocity Ve =
R
with which a body is projected to escape from
Here, M = mass of earth, G = gravitational constant
earth's gravitational field R = radius of earth
1 2 GMm 2GM 2GM
mve = Þ ve = Ve =
2 Re Re R2
53. (b) Escape velcocity 2´G 4
´ pR3r æ 4 3 ö
= çQ M = pR r ÷
2GM e 2GM e¢ R 2 3 è 3 ø
ve = , v 'e =
Re Re¢ 8pGr
Ve = R
3
v 'e M e¢ Re
\ = ´ Thus, value of escape velocity depends upon the
ve M e R 'e mass M, density r and radius R of earth/planet
from which the body is projected and independent
Re
Given M e¢ = 2 M e and Re¢ = of angle of projection.
2
2 pr 2 pr 2pr 3/2 2p
v 'e 2M e R 58. (a) T= = = =
\ = ´ e = 4=2 v0 ( gR 2 / r )1/2 gR 2 w
ve Me Re / 2
v 'e = 2ve = 2 ´ 11.2 = 22.4 km/s gR2 3 gR 2
Hence, r 3 / 2 = or r = 2
54. (b) The orbital speed of satellite is w w
independent of mass of satellite, so the ball will or, r = (gR2/w2)1/3
behave as a satellite and will continue to move PE
with the same speed in the original orbit. 59. (d) Total energy = – K E =
2
55. (a) Escape velocity on surface of earth
-1 2
2GM e Me K.E = mv
ve = µ 2
Re Re . 60. (c) In a circular or elliptical orbital motion,
torque is always acting parallel to displacement
ve Me Rp or velocity. So, angular momentum is
\ = ´
vP Re Mp conserved. In attractive field, potential energy
is negative. Kinetic energy changes as velocity
Me 3Re 1
= ´ = =1 increase when distance is less. So, option (c)
Re 3M e 1 is correct.
or, vP= ve.
k Mv 2
æ dM ö 61. (b) F= = . Hence v µ R0
æ dM ö
çQ
F =ç 2 = av ÷ R R
56. (c) ÷ v = av
è dt ø
2
è dt ø
62. (
(a) Since, escape velocity ve = 2 gRe is )
-F av independent of angle of projection, so it will
\ Retardation = =-
M M not change.
Mechanical Properties of Solids 103
8 Mechanical
Properties of Solids
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Hooke's Law & Young's Hooke's Law & Young’s
Modulus of Elasticity Modulus and Stress-strain 1 E 1 A 1 A
Curve
Bulk Modulus 1 A
Topic 1: Hooke's Law & Young's Modulus of sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire
Elasticity is increased by Dl on applying a force F, how
1. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is much force is needed to stretch the second
hanging from a fixed support. The length of wire by the same amount? [2018]
the wire changes to L 1 when mass M is (a) 9 F (b) 6 F
suspended from its free end. The expression (c) F (d) 4 F
for Young's modulus is : [2020] 4. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of
brass. Two wires of same length and of same
Mg(L1 - L) MgL area of cross section, one of steel and another
(a) (b) AL
AL 1 of brass are suspended from the same roof. If
we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the
MgL MgL1 same level, then the weights added to the steel
(c) A(L - L) (d) and brass wires must be in the ratio of :
1 AL
2. The stress-strain curves are drawn for two [2015 RS]
different materials X and Y. It is observed that (a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
the ultimate strength point and the fracture (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
point are close to each other for material X 5. Copper of fixed volume ‘V; is drawn into wire
but are far apart for material Y. of length ‘l’. When this wire is subjected to a
We can say that materials X and Y are likely to constant force ‘F’, the extension produced in
be (respectively), [NEET Odisha 2019] the wi re is ‘Dl’. Which of the following graphs
(a) Plastic and ductile is a straight line? [2014]
(b) Ductile and brittle 1
(c) Brittle and ductile (a) Dl versus (b) Dl versus l2
l
(d) Brittle and plastic
3. Two wires are made of the same material and 1
have the same volume. The first wire has cross- (c) Dl versus 2 (d) Dl versus l
l
sectional area A and the second wire has cross-
EBD_8335
104 PHYSICS
6. The following four wires are made of the same by the same force, then increase in length will
material. Which of these will have the largest be in the ratio [1988]
extension when the same tension is applied ? (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
[2013] (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1
(a) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm Topic 2: Bulk and Rigidity Modulus & Work
(b) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm Done in Stretching a Wire
(c) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm 9. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long
(d) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes
7. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young’s (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in
modulus of steel and copper wires shown in the extended wire is : [2019]
the figure are p, q and s respectively, then the (a) Mgl (b) MgL
corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths
1 1
would be [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) Mgl (d) MgL
2 2
7q 10. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is 'B'. If
(a)
(5sp) Steel it is subjected to uniform pressure 'p', the
fractional decrease in radius is [2017]
5q
(b) 2m B 3p
(7 sp 2 ) (a) (b)
3p B
7q Copper p p
(c) (c) (d)
(5sp 2 ) 3B B
5m 11. When an elastic material with Young’s modulus
2q
(d) Y is subjected to stretching stress S, elastic
(5sp)
energy stored per unit volume of the material
8. Two wires A and B are of the same material. is
Their lengths are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the (a) YS / 2 (b) S2Y / 2 [1989]
diameter are in the ratio 2 : 1. If they are pulled 2
(c) S / 2Y (d) S / 2Y
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 3 (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (c) 11 (c)
2 (c) 4 (a) 6 (d) 8 (c) 10 (c)
Hints & Solutions

force Mg
2. (c) Fracture point and ultimate strength point
1. (c) Stress = = is close for material X, hence X is brittle in
cross-section area A nature and both points are far apart for material
change in length DL L1 - L Y hence it is ductile.
Strain = = =
F
original length L L 3. (a) Wire 1:
A, 3l
stress MgL
Young’s modulus, Y = = æ F ö
strain A( L1 - L ) Dl = ç ÷ 3l ...(i)
è AY ø
Mechanical Properties of Solids 105
Wire 2: F¢ 100 200

3A, l DL1 µ µ 100 and DL2 µ µ 50
2
1 22
æ F¢ ö
Dl = ç ÷l ...(ii) 300 100 50
è 3 AY ø DL3µ µ and DL4 µ µ 200
2 3 1
3
From equation (i) & (ii),
4
æ F ö æ F¢ ö
Dl = ç ÷ 3l = ç ÷ l or, F¢ = 9 F The ratio of
L
is maximum for case (d).
è AY ø è 3 AY ø D2
W l Hence, option (d) is correct.
4. (a) Young's modulus Y = .
A Dl 7. (c) From formula,
FL 4 FL
W1 W2 Increase in length DL = =
= AY pD 2Y
Y1 Y2
2 2
[Q A, l, Dl same for both brass and steel] DLS FS æ DC ö YC LS 7 æ 1 ö æ1ö
= ç ÷ = ´ç ÷ ç ÷q
DLC FC è DS ø YS LC 5 è pø èsø
7q
=
A, l, Dl l, A, Dl
(5sp 2 )
Y2 Y1
Brass Steel If a wire of length l is suspended from a rigid support
and A is the area of cross–section of the wire, then
mass of the wire, m = Alp. Then extension in the
wire due to its own weight can be find as follows.
mg ( l /2)
W1 Y1 Young Modulus, Y = ´
= =2 [Ysteel/Ybrass = 2 given] A Dl
W2 Y2 Here, L = l/2 because the weight of wire acts at
the mid point of wire.
F \ Extension in the wire due to its own weight
A Fl 2
5. (b) As Y = Dl Þ Dl = Dl =
l pg
AY
2Y
l
8. (c) We know that Young’s modulus
V F L
But V = Al so A = Y= ´
l pr 2 l
Since Y, F are same for both the wires, we have,
Fl 2
Therefore Dl = µ l2 L
VY lµ
Hence graph of Dl versus l2 will give a straight
r2
line. l 1 r22 ´ L1 (D 2 / 2) 2 ´ L1
or, = =
YA l 2 r12 ´ L 2 (D1 / 2) 2 ´ L 2
6. (d) F = × DL
L
l 1 D 22 ´ L1 D 22 L 1
or, = = ´ 2 =
L L l 2 D1 ´ L 2 (2 D 2 )
2 2 2 L2 8
So, extension, DLµ µ 2
A D So, l1 : l 2 = 1 : 8
[Q F and Y are constant]
EBD_8335
106 PHYSICS
9. (c) Here,
DR p
Kx 0 = Mg Þ =
R 3B
where K = force constant
If the object of mass m and radius r is sorrounded
1 2
DE = Kx 0 by a liquid in a cylindrical container
2
DR 1 DV
= ...(i)
1 Mg R 3 V
< ´ x 02
2 x0 DP
Bulk modulus, K = -V
1 DV
< Mgx 0 DV DP mg
2 æ mg ö
\ = = çQ DP = ÷
Stored elastic potential energy in extended V K AK è A ø
D R 1 mg
1 \ =
wire, < Mgl [here x0 = l] R 3 AK
(Here A = area of object)
2
10. (c) Bulk modulus is given by 11. (c) Energy stored per unit volume
p DV p 1
B= or = = × stress × strain
æ DV ö V B 2
ç ÷ 1
è V ø = × stress × (stress/Young’s modulus)
2
DR p DR
3 = (here, = fractional decreases in 1 S2
R B R 2
= × (stress) /(Young’s modulus) =
radius) 2 2Y
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 107
9 Mechanical
Properties of Fluids
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Pressure, Density, Pascal's Fluid Pressure 1 A
Law & Archimedes' Principle Pressure Density &
1 A
Archimedes’ Principle
Viscosity & Terminal Stoke’s Formula & Terminal 1 A

Velocity Velocity
Velocity of Efflux 1 A
Surface Tension, Surface 1 A 1 A
Energy & Capillarity 1 A
Topic 1: Pressure, Density Pascal's Law & water rises by 65 mm from its original level
Archimedes' Principle (see diagram). The density of the oil is
1. In a u-tube as shown in the fig. water and oil are [2017]
in the left side and right side of the tube Pa Pa
respectively. The heights from the bottom for
water and oil columns are 15 cm and 20 cm F
A
respectively. The density of the oil is E 10 mm
[take p water = 1000kg/m3] [NEET Odisha 2019] Final water level
65 mm
Oil D
Initial water level
65 mm
B C
Water
(a) 425 kg m–3 (b) 800 kg m–3

(c) 928 kg m –3 (d) 650 kg m–3
(a) 1333 kg/m3 (b) 1200 kg/m3 3. Two non-mixing liquids of densities r and nr
(c) 750 kg/m 3 (d) 1000 kg/m3 (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each
2. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and
is partially filled with water. Oil, which is density d is put in this container. The cylinder
immiscible with water, is poured into one side floats with its axis vertical and length pL(p < 1)
until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to :
water level on the other side. Meanwhile the
[2016]
EBD_8335
108 PHYSICS
(a) {1 + (n + 1)p}r (b) {2 + (n + 1)p}r the speed of the ejection of the liquid through
(c) {2 + (n – 1)p}r (d) {1 + (n – 1)p}r the holes is : [2015 RS]
4. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. VR 2 VR 2
The compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 (a) (b)
and density of water is 10 3 kg/m 3 .What nr 2 n3r 2
fractional compression of water will be obtained V 2R VR 2
at the bottom of the ocean ? [2015] (c) (d) 2 2
nr n r
(a) 1.0 × 10–2 (b) 1.2 × 10–2 10. A fluid is in streamline flow across a horizontal
(c) 1.4 × 10–2 (d) 0.8 × 10–2 pipe of variable area of cross section. For this
5. In rising from the bottom of a lake, to the top, which of the following statements is correct?
the temperature of an air bubble remains [NEET Kar. 2013]
unchanged, but its diameter gets doubled. If h (a) The velocity is minimum at the narrowest
is the barometric height (expressed in m of part of the pipe and the pressure is
mercury of relative density r) at the surface of minimum at the widest part of the pipe
the lake, the depth of the lake is [1994] (b) The velocity is maximum at the narrowest
(a) 8 rh m (b) 7rh m part of the pipe and pressure is maximum
at the widest part of the pipe
(c) 9 rh m (d) 12 rh m
(c) Velocity and pressure both are maximum
6. The compressibility of water is 4 × 10–5 per at the narrowest part of the pipe
unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in (d) Velocity and pressure both are maximum
volume of 100 cm3 of water under a pressure at the widest part of the pipe
of 100 atmosphere will be [1990]
Topic 3: Viscosity & Terminal Velocity
(a) 0.4 cm 3 –5
(b) 4 × 10 cm 3
3
11. Two small spherical metal balls, having equal
(c) 0.025 cm (d) 0.004 cm3
masses, are made from materials of densities r1
Topic 2: Fluid Flow, Reyonld's Number & and r2 (r1 = 8r2) and have radii of 1 mm and 2
Bernoulli's Principle mm, respectively, they are made to fall vertically
7. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is (from rest) in a viscous medium whose coefficient
present near the bottom of a fully filled open of viscosity equals h and whose density is 0.1r2.
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate The ratio of their terminal velocities would be,
of flow of water through the open hole would be [NEET Odisha 2019]
nearly: [2019]
–6 3 –6 3
79 79 19 39
(a) 12.6 10 m /s (b) 8.9 10 m /s (a) (b) (c) (d)
36 72 36 72
(c) 2.23 10–6 m3/s (d) 6.4 10–6 m3/s 12. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
8. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due
roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. to viscous force. The rate of production of heat
Assuming that the pressure inside the house is when the sphere attains its terminal velocity,
atmosphere pressure, the force exterted by the is proportional to [2018]
wind on the roof and the direction of the force (a) r 3 (b) r 2
will be (rair = 1.2 kg/m3) [2015] (c) r 4 (d) r 5
(a) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards 13. The terminal velocity vr of a small steel ball of
(b) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards radius r falling under gravity through a column
(c) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards of a viscous liquid of coefficient of viscosity
(d) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards h depends on mass of the ball m, acceleration
9. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius, due to gravity g, coefficient of viscosity h and
R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. Which of the following relations is
radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, dimensionally correct? [1992]
mgr (b) water rises upto a point a little below the

(a) vr µ (b) vr µ mg hr
h top and stays there
mg hmg (c) water does not rise at all.
(c) vr µ (d) vr µ
rh r (d) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube
Topic 4: Surface Tension, Surface and then starts overflowing like fountain.
Energy & Capillarity 17. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid
14. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of
and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface
the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another tension of the liquid, then : [2014]
capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in æ1 1 ö
water. The mass of water that will rise in this (a) energy = 4VT ç - ÷ is released
è r Rø
tube is : [2020]
æ1 1 ö
(a) 5.0 g (b) 10.0 g (b) energy = 3VT ç + ÷ is absorbed
è r Rø
(c) 20.0 g (d) 2.5 g
15. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown æ1 1 ö
(c) energy = 3VT ç - ÷ is released
from a detergent solution having a surface è r Rø
tension of 2.5 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside (d) energy is neither released nor absorbed
the bubble equals at a point Z0 below the free 18. The wetability of a surface by a liquid depends
surface of water in a container. Taking primarily on [2013]
g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the (a) surface tension
value of Z0 is : [2019] (b) density
(a) 100 cm (b) 10 cm (c) angle of contact between the surface and
(c) 1 cm (d) 0.5 cm the liquid
16. Water rises to a height 'h' in a capillary tube. If (d) viscosity
the length of capillary tube above the surface 19. The angle of contact between pure water and
of water is made less than 'h' then : [2015 RS] pure glass, is [1996]
(a) water rises upto the top of capillary tube (a) 0º (b) 45º
and stays there without overflowing (c) 90º (d) 135º
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 4 (b) 7 (a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 16 (a) 19 (a)
2 (c) 5 (b) 8 (b) 11 (a) 14 (b) 17 (c)
3 (d) 6 (a) 9 (a) 12 (d) 15 (c) 18 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Pressure at A = Pressure at B.
Pa + 0.15 × 103 × g = Pa + 0.20 × d0 g
0.15 ´ 103
d0 = = 0.75 × 103 = 750 kg/m3
0.20
EBD_8335
110 PHYSICS
2. (c) Here, h oil ´ roil ´ g = h water ´ rwater ´ g

r0g × 140 × 10–3 = rwg × 130 × 10–3
130
roil = ´ 103 » 928kg / m3
140
[Q rw = 1 kgm–3]
3. (d) As we know, = 2 ´ 10 -6 m 2 ´ 2 ´ 10 ´ 2 m/s
Pressure P = Vdg
= 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s
d
(1 – p)L = 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s
r
= 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
8. (b) According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
nr pL P +12 r v2 = P0 + 0
1
Here, L A d g = (pL) A (nr)g + (1 – p)L A r g So, DP = rv2
2
Þ d = (1 – p)r + pn r = [1 + (n – 1)p]r
1 P
When a body of volume V floats in a liquid then F = DPA = rv2A
2
Weight of the body = up thrust
1
Þ Vrg = Vin sg = × 1.2 × 40 × 40 × 250
Here, V = volume of body 2 P0
r = density of body = 2.4 × 105 N (upwards)
s = density of liquid 9. (a) Inflow rate of volume of the liquid =
Vin = volume of the body immersed in liquid Outflow rate of volume of the liquid
4. (b) Compressibility of water, pR 2 V VR 2
K = 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 pR2V = npr2(v) Þ v = =
npr 2 nr 2
density of water P = 103 kg/m3
10. (b) According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
depth of ocean, h = 2700 m
1
DV P + rv 2 = constant and Avv = constant
We have to find =? 2
V If A is minimum, v is maximum, P is minimum.
As we know, compressibility,
11. (a) Terminal velocity VT = (r – s)g
1 (DV / V)
K= = (P = rgh) 2 ´ (1) 2
B P VT1 = (r1 – 0.1r2)g
So, (DV/V) = Krgh 9h
= 45.4 × 10–11 × 103 × 10 × 2700 = 1.2258 × 10–2 2 ´1
VT1 = (8r2 – 0.1r2)g
4 3 4 3 9h
5. (b) (hrg + H ´ 1 ´ g ) pr = hrg ´ p(2r )
3 3 2 ´ (2) 2
This gives H = 7hr VT2 = (r2 – 0.1r2)g
9h
1 DV / V
6. (a) K = = . Here, P = 100 atm, VT1 7.9 79
B P \ = =
VT2 4(0.9) 36
K = 4 × 10–5 and V = 100 cm3.
Hence, DV = 0.4 cm3 12. (d) Power = rate of production of heat = F.V
7. (a) Volumetric flow rate of liquid = 6phr VT × VT = 6phrVT2
Q = au = a 2gh (Q F = 6phVT r stoke’s formula)
VT µ r2
2 r 2 (r – s) æ4 ö 4
Q VT = g 17. (c) Volume same Þ n ç pr3 ÷ = pR 3
9 h è3 ø 3
\ Power µ r5 R3
Þ n=
13. (c) Note that according to Stoke's law r3
6phrvr = mg Change in energy = TDA = T[4pR2 – n4pr2]
Hence, the valid relation is vr µ mg/rh
14. (b) Force of surface tension balances the é 2 R3 2 ù
weight of water in capillary tube. = 4pT ê R - 3 r ú
ëê r ûú
FS = 2prT cos q = mg
æ 4 3 ö é 1 1ù
Here, T and q are constant. = 3 ç pR ÷ T ê - ú
è3 ø ëR rû
So, m µ r
é 1 1ù
Let m1 and m2 be the mass of water in two = 3VT ê - ú ( R > r )
capillary tube. ëR rû
m2 r2 é1 1 ù
\ = = 3VT ê - ú is released
m1 r1 ër R û
m2 2r Energy released when n drops of radius r coalesec
Þ = (Q r2 = 2r)
5.0 r to form a body drop of radius R,
Þ m2 = 10.0 g 3 é 1 –1ù
Energy released = 4pR T ê
ë r R úû
15. (c) Pressure inside the soap bubble
4T
< P0 ∗ If this energy get converted into kinetic energy of
R big drop, then
And pressure at a point below the surface of 1 2 3 é 1 -1 ù
water = rgZ0 + P0 mv = 4pR T ê
[where P0 = atmospheric pressure]
2 ë r R úû
By equating these pressure we get, 1 é4 3 ù 2 3 é 1 - 1ù
Þ ê pR d ú V = 4pR T ê
4T 2 ë3 û ë r R úû
P0 ∗ < P0 ∗ rgZ0
R 6T é 1 -1ù
Þ v2 =
4T d êë r R úû
Z0 <
R ´rg 6T æ 1 -1ö
Þ Velocity of big drop V = ç ÷
,2 d èr Rø
4´ 2.5´10
Z0 < m
10,3 ´1000 ´10 (Where, d = density of big liquid drop)
Z0 = 1 cm 18. (c) Wetability of a surface by a liquid primarily
16. (a) Water rises upto the top of capillary tube depends on angle of contact between the
and stays there without overflowing. surface and liquid.
If angle of contact is acute liquids wet the solid
In case of capillary of insufficient length i.e. LÐh the
liquid will neither overflow from the upper end like a
and vice-versa.
fountain nor it will tickle along the vertical sides of the 19. (a) We know that angle of contact is the angle
tube. The liquid after reaching the upper end will between the tangent to liquid surface at the
increase the radius of its meniscus without changing point of contact and solid surface inside the
nature such that liquid. In case of pure water and pure glass, the
hr = Lr' (Here, r is the intial radius angle of contact is zero.
QL < h of tube and r' is the new
Qr ' > r radius)
EBD_8335
112 PHYSICS
10 Thermal Properties
of Matter
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Thermometry & Thermal Linear expansion of solids 1 A 1 A
Expansion
Calorimetry & Heat Transfer Heat Supplied through solids 1 A
Wein's & Stefan's law 1 A 1 A 1 A
Principle of Calorimetry 1 A
Newton's Law of Cooling
Topic 1: Thermometry 4. The density of water at 20°C is 998 kg/m3 and

& Thermal Expansion at 40°C 992 kg/m3. The coefficient of volume
expansion of water is [NEET Kar. 2013]
1. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of
(a) 10–4 /°C (b) 3 × 10–4/°C
unknown length have their increase in length
(c) 2 × 10–4/°C (d) 6 × 10–4/°C
independent of increase in temperature. The
5. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear)
length of aluminium rod is : (aCu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1
and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling
and aA1 = 2.2 × l0–5K–1) [2019] points of water are 39° W and 239° W
(a) 6.8 cm (b) 113.9 cm respectively. What will be the temperature on
(c) 88 cm (d) 68 cm the new scale, corresponding to a temperature
of 39° C on the Celsius scale? [2008]
2. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel
(a) 78° W (b) 117° W
rods are a1 and a2. Lengths of brass and steel
(c) 200° W (d) 139° W
rods are l1 and l2 respectively. If (l2 – l1) is
6. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept
maintained same at all temperatures, which one at 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then
of the following relations holds good? the relation between neutral temperature (Tn)
[2016, 1999, 1995] and temperature of inversion (Ti) is [2007]
(a) a1l 2 2 = a2l12 (b) a1l 2 = a2 l1 (a) Tn = 2Ti (b) Tn = Ti – T
(c) a1l 2 = a2l1 (d) a1l1 = a2l 2 (c) Tn = Ti + T (d) Tn = Ti/2
3. The value of coefficient of volume expansion 7. The temperature of inversion of a thermo-
of glycerine is 5 × 10–4 K–1. The fractional couple is 620°C and the neutral temperature
change in the density of glycerine for a rise of is 300°C. What is the temperature of cold
40°C in its temperature, is: [2015 RS] junction? [2005]
(a) 0.020 (b) 0.025 (a) 320°C (b) 20°C
(c) 0.010 (d) 0.015
(c) –20°C (d) 40°C
Thermal Properties of Matter 113
8. Mercury thermometer can be used to measure 3(K1 + K 2 )

(a) (b) K1 + K2
temperature upto [1992] 2
(a) 260°C (b) 100°C K1 + K 2
(c) 2 (K1 + K2) (d)
(c) 357°C (d) 500°C 2
9. A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are 13. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
dipped in boiling water. The water temperature radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius
is lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer were halved and the temperature doubled, the
registers 140°. What is the fall in temperature power radiated in watt would be : [2017]
as registered by the Centigrade thermometer? (a) 450 (b) 1000
(a) 80° (b) 60° [1990] (c) 1800 (d) 225
(c) 40° (d) 30° 14. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K.
The energy of radiation emitted by the body at
Topic 2: Calorimetry & Heat Transfer
wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500
10. A deep rectangular pond of surface area A, nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's
containing water (density = r), specific heat constant, b = 2.88 × 106 nmK. Which of the
(capacity = s), is located in a region where the following is correct? [2016]
outside air temperature is at a steady value of (a) U1 = 0 (b) U3 = 0
–26°C. The thickness of the frozen ice layer
in this pond, at a certain instant is x. (c) U1 > U2 (d) U2 > U1
Taking the thermal conductivity of ice as K, 15. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it
and its specific latent heat of fusion as L, the melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat
rate of increase of the thickness of ice layer, produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy
at this instant, would be given by of ice gets converted into heat during its fall.
[NEET Odisha 2019] The value of h is : [2016]
(a) 26K/rx(L + 4s) (b) 26K/rx(L – 4s) [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and g = 10 N/
(c) 26K/(rx2L) (d) 26K/(rxL) kg]
11. The power radiated by a black body is P and it (a) 34 km (b) 544 km
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, l0. If (c) 136 km (d) 68 km
the temperature of the black body is now 16. On observing light from three different stars
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at P, Q and R, it was found that intensity of violet
3 colour is maximum in the spectrum of P, the
wavelength l0 , the power radiated by it intensity of green colour is maximum in the
4
spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour
becomes nP. The value of n is [2018]
is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and
3 4
(a) (b) TR are the respective absolute temperature of
4 3 P, Q and R, then it can be concluded from the
81 256 above observations that [2015]
(c) (d)
256 81 (a) TP > TR > TQ (b) TP < TR < TQ
12. Two rods A and B of different materials are
(c) TP < TQ < TR (d) TP > TQ > TR
welded together as shown in figure. Their
thermal conductivities are K1 and K2 . The 17. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at
thermal conductivity of the composite rod will temperatures 100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat
be : [2017] flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the
ends are maintained at temperatures 200°C and
A K1 210°C, the rate of heat flow will be [2015]
T1 T2
(a) 16.8 J/s (b) 8.0 J/s
B K2
(c) 4.0 J/s (d) 44.0 J/s
d
EBD_8335
114 PHYSICS
18. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 23. A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness
10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam at
80°C, the mass of water present will be: [2014] 100°C. A block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1 °C–1 surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is
and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g–1] melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is :
(a) 24 g (b) 31.5 g (Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 ×
(c) 42.5 g (d) 22.5 g 105 J kg–1.) : [2012M]
19. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes (a) 1.24 J/m/s/°C (b) 1.29 J/m/s/°C
dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally (c) 2.05 J/m/s/°C (d) 1.02 J/m/s/°C
turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the 24. A cylindrical metallic rod in therrnal contact with
above observation is possible by using [2013] two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts
(a) Wien’s displacement law an amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is
(b) Kirchoff’s law melted and the material is formed into a rod of
(c) Newton’s law of cooling half the radius of the original rod. What is the
(d) Stefan’s law amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when
20. Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs
same temperature difference between their in time t? [2010]
ends. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and Q Q
K2 and cross sectional areas A 1 and A 2 , (a) (b)
4 16
respectively. If the rate of heat conduction in
Q
rod 1 is four times that in rod 2, then (c) 2 Q (d)
[NEET Kar. 2013] 2
25. The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to
(a) K1A1 = K2A2 (b) K1A1 = 4K2A2
the direction of incidence, received at a distance
(c) K1A1 = 2K2A2 (d) 4K1A1 = K2A2 R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose
21. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black outer surface radiates as a black body at a
body, what would be the temperature of the star, temperature T K is given by: [2010]
in which the rate of energy production is Q? 2 4
sr T2 4 s r T
[2012] (a) (b)
R2 4p r 2
(a) Q/4pR2 s (b) (Q/4pR 2s)–1/2
(c) (4pR2Q/s)1/4 (d) (Q/4pR2s)1/4 s r 4T 4 4 p s r 2T 4
(c) (d)
(s stands for Stefan’S constant) r4 R2
22. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant (where s is Stefan's constant)
pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. 26. The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform
Which one of the following graphs represents the cross-sectional area A are kept at two
variation of temperature with time? [2012] temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). The rate of
dQ
Temperature
Temperature
heat transfer, through the rod in a steady

dt
(a) (b) state is given by: [2009]
dQ k (T1 - T2 )
(a) =
Time Time dt LA
dQ
(b) = kLA (T1 - T2 )
Temperature
Temperature
dt
(c) (d) dQ kA (T1 - T2 )
(c) =
dt L
dQ kL (T1 - T2 )
Time Time (d) =
dt A
27. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate 34. Consider a compound slab consisting of two
of 7 cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727°C, different materials having equal thicknesses and
the rate of heat radiated in the same units will thermal conductivities K and 2K, respectively.
be: [2009] The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab
(a) 50 (b) 112 is [2003]
(c) 80 (d) 60 4 2
28. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220 V. How (a) K (b) K
3 3
much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from (c) (d) 3 K
3K
temperature 20° C? The temperature of boiling
35. Wien’s law is concerned with [2002]
water is 100° C. [2008]
(a) relation between emissivity and
(a) 6.3 min (b) 8.4 min
absorptivity of a radiating surface
(c) 12.6 min (d) 4.2 min (b) total radiation, emitted by a hot surface
29. A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a (c) an expression for spectral distribution of
rate which is proportional to [2007] energy of a radiation from any source
(a) (1000)4 (b) (1000)2 (d) a relation between the temperature of a
(c) 727)4 (d) (727)2 black body and the wavelength at which
30. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer there is maximum radiant energy per unit
surface of radius r, radiating like a black body wavelength
at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit 36. Radiation from which of the following sources,
surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a approximates black body radiation best? [2002]
distance R from the centre of the sun is [2007] (a) A tungsten lamp
r 2s(t + 273)4 16p 2 r 2st 4 (b) Sodium flame
(a) (b) (c) Hot lamp black
4pR2 R2 (d) A hole in a cavity, maintained at constant
r 2s(t + 273)4 4pr 2st 4 temperature
(c) (d) 37. Two rods of thermal conductivities K1 and K2, cross-
R2 R2
where s is the Stefan’s constant. sections A1 and A2 and specific heats S1 and S2 are
of equal lengths. The temperatures of two ends of
31. A black body at 1227°C emits radiations with
each rod are T1 and T2. The rate of flow of heat at
maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000Å. If
the steady state will be equal if[2002]
the temperature of the body is increased by
1000°C, the maximum intensity will be observed K1 K2
(a) = (b) K1A1 = K2A2
at [2006] A1S1 A2 S 2
(a) 5000Å (b) 6000Å (c) K1S1 = K2S2 (d) A1S1 = A2S2
(c) 3000Å (d) 4000Å 38. A black body has maximum wavelength lm at
32. Which of the following circular rods (given radius temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding
r and length l), each made of the same material wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be[2001]
and whose ends are maintained at the same
3 2
temperature will conduct most heat? [2005] (a) lm (b) lm
(a) r = r0 ; l = l 0 (b) r = 2r0 ; l = l0 2 3
(c) r = r0 ; l = 2l0 (d) r = 2r0 ; l = 2l0 4 9
(c) lm (d) lm
33. If lm denotes the wavelength at which the 9 4
radiative emission from a black body at a 39. A cylindrical rod having temperature T1 and T2
temperature T K is maximum, then [2004] at its end. The rate of flow of heat is Q1 cal/
(a) lm µ T–1 sec. If all the linear dimensions are doubled
(b) lm µ T4 keeping temperature constant, then the rate of
(c) lm is independent of T flow of heat Q2 will be [2001]
(d) lm µ T (a) 4Q1 (b) 2Q1
(c) Q1/4 (d) Q1/2
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116 PHYSICS
40. The presence of gravitational field is required Assuming that negligible heat is taken from the
for the heat transfer by [2000] surroundings, the temperature of water in the
(a) conduction tumbler becomes nearly (L = 80 cal/g)[1988]
(b) stirring of liquids (a) 31°C (b) 22°C
(c) natural convection (c) 19°C (d) 15°C
(d) radiation Topic 3: Newton's Law of Cooling
41. If 1 g of steam is mixed with 1 g of ice, then the
resultant temperature of the mixture is [1999] 47. An object kept in a large room having air
(a) 270ºC (b) 230ºC temperature of 25°C takes 12 minutes to cool
(c) 100ºC (d) 50ºC from 80°C to 70°C.
42. The radiant energy from the sun, incident The time taken to cool for the same object from
70°C to 60°C would be nearly.
normally at the surface of earth is 20 k cal/m2
[NEET Odisha 2019]
min. What would have been the radiant energy,
(a) 15 min (b) 10 min
incident normally on the earth, if the sun had a (c) 12 min (d) 20 min
temperature, twice of the present one?[1998] 48. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C
(a) 160 k cal/m2 min (b) 40 k cal/m2 min in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5
(c) 320k cal/m2 min (d) 80 k cal/m2 min minutes. The temperature of the surroundings
43. A black body is at temperature of 500 K. It emits is: [2014]
energy at rate which is proportional to [1997] (a) 45°C (b) 20°C
(a) (500)4 (b) (500)3 (c) 42°C (d) 10°C
(c) (500) 2 (d) 500 49. A beaker full of hot water is kept in a room. If it
44. If the temperature of the sun is doubled, the rate cools from 80°C to 75°C in t1 minutes, from 75° C
of energy received on earth will be increased by to 70°C in t2 minutes and from 70°C to 65°C in t3
a factor of [1993] minutes, then [1995]
(a) 2 (b) 4 (a) t1 = t2 = t3 (b) t1 < t2 = t3
(c) 8 (d) 16 (c) t1 < t2 < t3 (d) t1 > t2 > t3
45. Thermal capacity of 40 g of aluminium (s = 0.2 50. A body cools from 50.0°C to 48°C in 5s. How
cal /g K) is [1990] long will it take to cool from 40.0°C to 39°C?
(a) 168 joule /°C (b) 672 joule/°C Assume the temperature of surroundings to be
(c) 840 joule/°C (d) 33.6 joule/°C 30.0°C and Newton’s law of cooling to be valid.
46. 10 gm of ice cubes at 0°C are released in a (a) 2.5 s (b) 10 s [1994]
tumbler (water equivalent 55 g) at 40°C. (c) 20 s (d) 5 s
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 7 (c) 13 (c) 19 (a) 25 (a) 31 (c) 37 (b) 43 (a) 49 (c)
2 (d) 8 (c) 14 (d) 20 (b) 26 (c) 32 (b) 38 (b) 44 (d) 50 (b)
3 (a) 9 (c) 15 (c) 21 (d) 27 (b) 33 (a) 39 (b) 45 (d)
4 (b) 10 (d) 16 (a) 22 (a) 28 (a) 34 (a) 40 (c) 46 (b)
5 (b) 11 (d) 17 (c) 23 (a) 29 (a) 35 (d) 41 (c) 47 (a)
6 (d) 12 (d) 18 (d) 24 (b) 30 (c) 36 (d) 42 (c) 48 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) l¢Cu = lCu (1 + aCu DT) rT 1 rT 1
As rT 2 = =
DlCu = lCu aCu DT 1 + gDT 1 + g ( T2 - T1 )
998 998
l¢Al = lAl (1 + aAl DT) \ 992 = Þ 992 =
1 + g ( 40 - 20 ) 1 + 20 g
DlAl = lAl aAl DT
998 6
Since, change in length is independent of Þ 20g = -1 =
temperature 992 992
\ aCulCu = aAllAl 6 1
Þ g= ´ = 3 ´ 10-4 / °C
Þ 1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × lAl 992 20
5. (b) For different temperature scales, we have
1.7 ´ 88
Þ lAl = = 68 cm x – L.F.P
2.2 = constant
U.F.P. – L.F.P.
2. (d) From question, (l2 – l1) is maintained same Where L.F.P Þ Lower Fixed point
at all temperatures hence change in length for
U.H.F. Þ Upper fixed point
both rods should be same
where x is the measurement at that scale. Here, if
i.e., Dl1 = Dl2
C and W be the measurements on Celsius and
As we know, coefficient of linear expansion,
W scale then,
Dl C–0 W – 39
a= = (\ C = 39°C)
l 0 DT 100 – 0 239 – 39
l1a1DT = l2a2DT 39 ´ 200
l1a1 = l2a2 ÞW= + 39 = 78 + 39 = 117° W
100
3. (a) From question,
T +T
Rise in temperature Dt = 40°C 6. (d) Since Tn = i c = Neutral temperature
Coefficient of volume expansion 2
g = 5 × 10–4K–1 Ti + 0 Ti
Tn = =
Dr r 0 - rT 2 2
Fractional change in the density = [Tc = 0°C = temperature of cold junction]
r0 r0
q c + qi
rT = r0 (1 –gDt) 7. (c) q n =
2
Dr r0 - rT \ qc = 2qn – qi = 2(300) – 620 = –20°C
Þ = = gDT = (5 × 10–4)(40) = 0.020
r0 r0 8. (c) Mercury thermometer is based on the
Most substances (solid & liquid) expand when principle of change of volume with rise of
they are heated, so volume of a given mass of a temperature and can measure temperatures
substance increases on heating so density ranging from –30°C to 357°C.
decreases as
1 r¢ V V F - 32 C
9. (c) Using =
rµ Þ = = 180 100
V r V ¢ V + DV
V 1 140 - 32 C
= = Þ =
V + gVAq 1 + gDq 180 100
4. (b) Given Þ C = 60
T1 = 20° C, T2 = 40° C Temperature of boiling water = 100°C
r20 = 998 kg/m3, r40 = 992 kg/m3
We get, fall in temperature = 100 – 60 = 40°C
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118 PHYSICS
Centigrade (c) Fahrenheit (F) and Kelvin (K) scales r22T2 4

of temperature are related as P2 = P1
r12T14
C–0 F – 32
= Solving we get, P2 = 1800 watt
100 212 – 32 14. (d) According to Wein's displacement law,
K – 273.15 maximum amount of emitted radiation
=
373.15 – 273.15 b
corresponding to lm =
10. (d) We assume that at any instant thickness of T
ice is x. And time taken to form additional 2.88 ´106 nmK
thickness (dx) is dt. lm = = 500 nm
5760K
x
U2
–dx U U3
KA [26 – 0 ] dt Emitted U1
mL = (radiation) wave length l
x 250 nm 1000 nm
KA ( 26) dt 500 nm
Þ (Adx)rL =
x From the graph U1 < U2 > U3
dx 26 K
So, = At a given temperature, intensity of heat radiation
dt xrL
increases with wavelength, reaches a maximum at
11. (d) From Wien’s law a particular wavelength and with further increase
lmax T = constant in wavelength it decreases.
i.e., lmax T1 = lmax T2 15. (c) According to question only one-quarter of
1 2
3l the heat produced by falling piece of ice is
Þ l0 T = 0 T ¢ absorbed in the melting of ice.
4
4 mgh
Þ T¢ = T i.e., = mL
3 4
Power radiated P µ T4 4L 4 ´ 3.4 ´105
4 4 Þ h= = = 136 km .
P2 æ T¢ ö æ 4ö 256 g 10
So, = n = ç ÷ =ç ÷ = 16. (a) From Wein’s displacement law
P1 èT ø è 3ø 81
lm × T = constant
12. (d) Equivalent thermal conductivity of the
P – max. intensity is at violet
composite rod in parallel combination will be,
Þ lm is minimum Þ temp maximum
K1A(T1 - T2 ) K 2 A(T1 - T2 ) R – max. intensity is at green
K= +
d d Þ lm is moderate Þ temp moderate
K EQ 2A(T1 - T2 ) A(T1 - T2 ) Q – max. intensity is at red Þ lm is maximum Þ
= [K1 + K 2 ] temp. minimum i.e., Tp > TR > TQ
d d
Hence equivalent thermal conductivities for two 17. (c) As the temperature difference DT = 10°C
rods of equal area is given by as well as the thermal resistance is same for both
the cases, so thermal current or rate of heat flow
k1 + k 2 will also be same for both the cases.
K EQ =
2 18. (d) According to the principle of calorimetry.
13. (c) Given r1 = 12 cm , r2 = 6 cm Heat lost = Heat gained
T1 = 500 K and T2 = 2 × 500 = 1000 K mLv + mswDq = mwswDq
P1 = 450 watt Þ m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80)
Rate of power loss P µ r2T4 Þ 20 × 1 × (80 – 10)
P1 r12T14 Þ m = 2.5 g
= Therefore total mass of water at 80°C
P2 r22T24 = (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5 g
19. (a) Wein’s displacement law 24. (b) The rate of heat flow is given by
According to this law Q DT
1 = K. A.
lmax µ t l
T Area of Original rod A = pR2;
or, lmax × T = constant p R2
So, as the temperature increases l decreases. Area of new rod A¢ =
4
20. (b) Q1 = 4Q2 (Given)
A
K1 A1Dt K A Dt A' =
Þ = 4 2 2 Þ K1A1 = 4K2A2. 4
L L Volume of original rod will be equal to the volume
21. (d) Stefan’s law for black body radiation of new rod.
Q = se AT4 So, A¢l¢ = Al
1/ 4
or,
é Q ù 2
T=ê æRö
2 ú \ pR2l = p ç ÷ l¢
ëê s(4pR ) ûú è2ø
Here e = 1
l¢ R2
A = 4pR2 Þ = =4
22. (a) Initially liquid oxygen will gain the l æ R2 ö
çç ÷÷
temperature up to its boiling temperature then it
è 4 ø
change its state to gas. After this again its
temperature will increase, so corresponding Q¢ A¢ l 1 1 1
graph will be graph (a). \ = = × =
Q A l¢ 4 4 16
23. (a) According to condition,
Q
ice 0ºC \ Q' =
16
0.1 m A = 0.36 m2 S 4p r 2
4
25. (a) E = s T = 2
sT 4
S0 4p R
100°C (steam)
r2
Rate of heat given by steam = Rate of heat =s T4
taken by ice R2
where K = Thermal conductivity of the slab
dQ kA (T1 - T2 )
m = Mass of the ice 26. (c) =
L = Latent heat of melting/fusion dt L
A = Area of the slab [(T1 – T2) is the temperature difference]
dQ KA(100 - 0) dL Rate of heat flow is called heat current,
= =m
dt 1 dt dQ (T – T )
5 H= and H = 1 2
K ´ 100 ´ 0.36 4.8 ´ 3.36 ´ 10 dt R
=
0.1 60 ´ 60 L
K =1.24 J/m/s/°C and thermal resistance, R =
kA
In electrical conduction 27. (b) According to Stefan’s law E = sT4,
dq V –V sA T1 = 500 K
I= = 1 2 = (V1 – V2)
dt R l T2 = 1000 K
In thermal conduction, 4 4
dq
E2 æ T2 ö æ 1000 ö
q –q kA =ç ÷ =ç ÷ = 16
H= = 1 2 = (q1 – q2) E1 è T1 ø è 500 ø
dt R l
K = Thermal conductivity of conductor. \ E2 = 16 × 7 = 112 cal / cm2s
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120 PHYSICS
28. (a) Heat required to raise the temperature of

1kg water from 20°C to 100°C is given by TH - TL
We know that Q =
Q = msDq = (1× 4200 × 80) J R
Power of kettle (P) = VI = (220 × 4)W l l
=
Also, Thermal resistance R =
KA K pr 2
Q 1 ´ 4200 ´ 80
\ Time taken = = Heat flow will be maximum when thermal
P 220 ´ 4 resistance is minimum.
= 381.81 sec = 6.36 min 33. (a) From Wein’s displacement law
29. (a) According to Stefan's law, lmT = constant
E µ T4
Þ lm µ T–1
E µ (t + 273)4 K [727°C = (727 + 273)K]
34. (a) In series, equivalent thermal conductivity
E µ (727 + 273)4 K
2K1 K 2
E µ (1000)4 K Keq =
K1 + K 2
30. (c) Power radiated by the sun at t°C
2 ´ K ´ 2K 4
= s(t + 273)4 4pr2 or, Keq = = K
Power received by a unit surface K + 2K 3
In electricity equivalent resistance in series
s(t + 273)4 4pr 2 r 2s(t + 273)4 grouping Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 .....+ Rn
= = In heat-thermal resistance in series Rs = R1 + R2 +
4pR 2 R2 R3 ..... + Rn
31. (c) Applying Wein’s displacement law,
l1 + l 2 + .....l n l1 l l
lmT = constant = + 2 + ..... + n
Ks K1 A K2 A Kn A
5000 Å × (1227 + 273) = (2227 + 273) × lm
For n no. of rods of equal length
5000 ´ 1500
lm = = 3000Å n
1000 Ks = 1 1 1
+ ..... +
32. (b) From given option K1 K 2 Kn
(i) r = 2r0, l = 2l0
35. (d) According to Wein's displacement law, product
2l 0 l0 of wavelength belonging to maximum intensity and
\ R= 2
=
K p (2r0 ) 2 K pr02 temperature is constant i.e., lmT = constant.
(ii) r = 2r0, l = l0 36. (d)
37. (b) Rate of heat flow for one rod
l0 l0
\ R= = K A (T - T )
K p (2r0 ) 2
4 K pr02 = 1 1 1 2 ( d ® Length)
d
(iii) r = r0, l = 2l0 Rate of heat flow for other rod
2l 0 2l 0 K A (T - T )
\ R= 2
= = 2 2 1 2
K p r0 K pr02 d
(iv) r = r0, l = l0 K A (T - T )
In steady state, 1 1 1 2
l0 l0 d
\ R= 2
= K 2 A2 (T1 - T2 )
K p r0 K pr02 = Þ K1A1 = K2A2
It is clear that for option (b) resistance is d
minimum, hence, heat flow will be maximum. 38. (b) According to Wein's displacement law,
lmT = 2.88 × 10–3
(i) Rate of heat flow is directly proportional to
area When T = 2000 K,
(ii) inversely proportional to length. lm (2000) = 2.88 × 10–3 ....(1)
\ Heat flow will be maximum when r is maximum When T = 3000 K,
and l is minimum. l'm (3000) = 2.88 × 10–3 ....(2)
Dividing (1) by (2), (80 – 70 )

= K(75 – 25) ...(i)
2 lm l 3 2 12
= 1 Þ m = Þ l 'm = l m
3 l 'm l 'm 2 3 (70 - 60)
= K(65 – 25) ...(ii)
t¢
KA(q1 – q2 )t
39. (b) Q = Þ t¢ = 12 ×= 15 min
l
48. (a) Let the temperature of surroundings be q0
Rate of heat flow,
By Newton's law of cooling
Q KA(q1 – q 2 ) A
H= = i.e., H µ q1 - q 2 é q + q2 ù
t l l = kê 1 - q0 ú
Dimensions of area A = [L2 ], dimensions of t ë 2 û
distance l = [L] 70 - 60 é 70 + 60 ù
Þ = kê - q0 ú
H 2 L2 5 ë 2 û
\ H µL Þ = = 2 Þ H 2 = 2H1
H1 L1 Þ 2 = k[65 – q0] ...(i)
40. (c) Natural convection 60 - 54 é 60 + 54 ù
Similarly, =kê - q0 ú
In convection, the temperature gradient exists in 5 ë 2 û
the vertical direction and not in the horizontal
direction. So, up and down movement of particles 6
takes place which depends on the weight or gravity. Þ = k [57 – q0] ...(ii)
5
41. (c) Heat required by ice at 0°C to reach a By dividing (i) by (ii) we have
temperature of 100°C = mL + mcDq 10 65 - q0
= 1 × 80 + 1 × 1 × (100 – 0) = 180 cal = Þ q0 = 45º
Heat available with 1 g steam to condense into 6 57 - q0
1 g of water at 100°C = 536 cal. 49. (c) Let q 0 be the temperature of the
Obviously the whole steam will not be surrounding. Then
condensed and ice will attain a temperature of 80 – 75 æ 80 + 75 ö
100°C; so the temperature of mixture = 100°C. =kç - q0 ÷
42. (c) According to Stefan’s law, E µ T4 t1 è 2 ø
E1 T14
5
20 T4 or, = k (77.5 - q0 )
= 4 or = 4 4 t1
E2 T2 E2 2 T
Þ E2 = 320 kcal/m2. min. 5
or, t1 = … (1)
43. (a) According to Stefan’s Law E = seAT4 k (77.5 - q 0 )
E µ T4; so, E µ (500)4
44. (d) Amount of energy radiated µ T4 5
Similarly, t2 = …(2)
45. (d) Thermal capacity = ms = 40 × 0.2 = 8 cal/°C k (72.5 - q0 )
= 4.2 × 8 J = 33.6 joules/°C
46. (b) Let the final temperature be T 5
and t3 = … (3)
Heat gained by ice = mL + m × s × (T – 0) k (67.5 - q0 )
= 10 × 80 + 10 × 1 × T From (1), (2) & (3), it is obvious that
Heat lost by water = 55 × 1× (40 – T) t1 < t2 < t3
By using law of calorimetery,
50. (b) Rate of cooling µ temperature difference
800 + 10 T = 55 × (40 – T)
between system and surrounding.
Þ T = 21.54°C = 22°C
As the temperature difference is halved, so the
47. (a) According to Newton’s law of cooling
rate of cooling will also be halved.
(T1 – T2 ) = K æ T1 + T2 ö So time taken will be doubled
ç – T0 ÷ t = 2 × 5 sec. = 10 sec.
t è 2 ø
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122 PHYSICS
11 Thermodynamics
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

First Law of Ist Law of Thermodynamics 1 E
Thermodynamics
Specific Heat Capacity & Thermodynamic Processes 1 A 1 E 1 A 1 E 1 E
Thermodynamic Processes
Carnot Engine, Refrigerator Efficiency of Heat Engine 1 E 1 E
& Second Law of
COP of Refrigerator 1 A
Thermodynamics
Topic 1: First Law of Thermodynamics path abc the heat absorbed dQ2 = 36 J. The
amount of work done along the path abc is
1. 1 g of water, of volume 1 cm3 at 100°C, is
[NEET Kar. 2013]
converted into steam at same temperature under
normal atmospheric pressure (» 1 × 105 Pa). The
volume of steam formed equals 1671 cm3. If the d c
specific latent heat of vaporisation of water is
2256 J/g, the change in internal energy is,
[NEET Odisha 2019] P
(a) 2256 J (b) 2423 J
a b
(c) 2089 J (d) 167 J
2. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal V
pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires 54 cal of heat (a) 6 J (b) 10 J
energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume (c) 12 J (d) 36 J
of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in 4. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via
internal energy of the sample, is [2019] three different processes as indicated in the P-V
(a) 104.3 J (b) 208.7 J diagram : [2012M]
(c) 84.5 J (d) 42.2 J
3. A system is taken from state a to state c by two
A 1
paths adc and abc as shown in the figure. The P 2
internal energy at a is Ua = 10 J. Along the path B
3
adc the amount of heat absorbed dQ1 = 50 J and
the work done dW1 = 20 J whereas along the
V
Thermodynamics 123
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat a absorbed by the

gas along the three processes and DU1, DU2, V
DU3 indicate the change in internal energy along B
the three processes respectively, then A
(a) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and DU1 = DU2 = DU3
(b) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1= DU2 = DU3 O T
(c) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and DU1 > DU2 > DU3 2 2
(a) (b)
(d) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1> DU2 > DU3 5 3
5. The internal energy change in a system that has
2 1
absorbed 2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of (c) (d)
work is: [2009] 7 3
(a) 6400 J (b) 5400 J 12. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the
(c) 7900 J (d) 8900 J following diagram : [2017]
6. 110 joules of heat is added to a gaseous system
whose internal energy is 40J. Then the amount P
of external work done is [1993] IV
(a) 150 J (b) 70 J i f
(c) 110 J (d) 40 J I III
f 700
7. Which of the following is not thermodynamical f II 500 k
function ? [1993] k
f 300k
(a) Enthalpy (b) Work done V
(c) Gibb's energy (d) Internal energy
8. First law of thermodynamics is consequence Match the following
of conservation of [1988] Column-1 Column-2
(a) work (b) energy P. Process I A. Adiabatic
(c) heat (d) all of these Q. Process II B. Isobaric
Topic 2: Specific Heat Capacity R. Process III C. Isochoric
& Thermodynamic Processes S. Process IV D. Isothermal
9. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are (a) P ® C, Q ® A, R ® D, S ® B
connected to each other via a stop cock. A (b) P ® C, Q ® D, R ® B, S ® A
contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and (c) P ® D, Q ® B, R ® A, S ® C
pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire (d) P ® A, Q ® C, R ® D, S ® B
system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is 13. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial
suddenly opened. The process is : [2020] volume. The same gas is compressed separately
(a) adiabatic (b) isochoric through an adiabatic process until its volume is
(c) isobaric (d) isothermal again reduced to half. Then : [2016]
10. In which of the following processes, heat is (a) Compressing the gas isothermally will
neither absorbed nor released by a system ? require more work to be done.
[2019] (b) Compressing the gas through adiabatic
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
(c) Compressing the gas isothermally or
(c) isobaric (d) isochoric
adiabatically will require the same amount
11. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with
of work.
its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat (d) Which of the case (whether compression
absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change through isothermal or through adiabatic
from state A to state B, is [2018] process) requires more work will depend
upon the atomicity of the gas.
EBD_8335
124 PHYSICS
14. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken 5

P (10 Pa)
by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.
7
P B C 6 B
4
6×10 Pa 5
4
3 A
2 C
4
2×10 Pa 1
A 3 3
V (10 m )
0 2 4 6 8
– (a) 1000 J (b) zero
2 × 10 3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3
V (c) – 2000 J (d) 2000 J
In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the 19. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added gas is found to be proportional to the cube of
to the system. The heat absorbed by the system Cp
in the process AC will be [2015] its temperature. The ratio of for the gas is
Cv
(a) 500 J (b) 460 J
[2013]
(c) 300 J (d) 380 J
15. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial 5
(a) 2 (b)
volume by means of several processes. Which 3
of the process results in the maximum work done 3 4
on the gas? [2015 RS] (c) (d)
2 3
(a) Isobaric (b) Isochoric
20. Which of the following relations does not give
(c) Isothermal (d) Adiabatic
the equation of an adiabatic process, where
16. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a terms have their usual meaning?
volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V
and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final (a) PgT1–g = constant [NEET Kar. 2013]
1–g g
(b) P T = constant
5
pressure of the gas is : (take g = ) [2014] (c) PVg = constant
3
(d) TVg–1 = constant
(a) 64P (b) 32P
21. A thermodynamic system is taken through the
P cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected
(c) (d) 16P by the gas during the cyclic process is :[2012]
64
17. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic D C
process ABCDA as shown in fig. The work done 2P
by the system in the cycle is : [2014]
Pressure
(a) P0V0 P C B
(b) 2P0V0 3P0
P A B
2P0
P0 V0 V 3V
(c) P0 D Volume
2 A
(d) Zero (a) 2 PV (b) 4 PV
V0 2V0 V
1
18. A gas is taken through the cycle A ® B ® C ® (c) PV (d) P V
A, as shown in figure. What is the net work done 2
by the gas? [2013]
Thermodynamics 125
22. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial 25. If DU and DW represent the increase in internal
state A to final state B via two processes : It energy and work done by the system
first undergoes isothermal expansion from respectively in a thermodynamical process,
volume V to 3V and then its volume is reduced which of the following is true? [2010, 1998]
from 3V to V at constant pressure. The correct (a) DU = –DW, in an adiabatic process
P-V diagram representing the two processes (b) DU = DW, in an isothermal process
is : [2012]
(c) DU = DW, in an adiabatic process
(a) B
(d) DU = –DW, in an isothermal process
P
26. In thermodynamic processes which of the
A following statements is not true? [2009]
(a) In an isochoric process pressure remains
V
constant
3V
V (b) In an isothermal process the temperature
(b) A remains constant
(c) In an adiabatic process PVg = constant
(d) In an adiabatic process the system is
P
insulated from the surroundings
B 27. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat
added, change in internal energy and the work
V 3V
done in a closed cyclic process, then: [2008]
(c) A (a) W = 0 (b) Q = W = 0
(c) E = 0 (d) Q = 0
P
B
28. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial
temperature of T K does 6R joules of work
adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of
V 3V
V this gas at constant pressure and at constant
(d) A volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will
be [2004]
P (a) (T – 4) K (b) (T + 2.4) K
B
(c) (T – 2.4) K (d) (T + 4) K
V 3V 29. An ideal gas at 27ºC is compressed
V 8
23. During an isothermal expansion, a confined adiabatically to of its original volume. The
27
ideal gas does –150 J of work against its
surroundings. This implies that [2011] æ 5ö
rise in temperature is ç g = ÷ [1999]
(a) 150 J heat has been removed from the gas è 3ø
(b) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas (a) 475ºC (b) 402ºC
(c) no heat is transferred because the process (c) 275ºC (d) 175ºC
is isothermal 30. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant
(d) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas pressure to that at constant volume is g, the
24. A mass of diatomic gas (g = 1.4) at a pressure change in internal energy of a mass of gas, when
of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically the volume changes from V to 2V at constant
so that its temperature rises from 27°C to pressure P, is [1998]
927°C. The pressure of the gas in final state is R
[2011M] (a) (b) PV
( g - 1)
(a) 28 atm (b) 68.7 atm PV g PV
(c) 256 atm (d) 8 atm (c) (d)
( g - 1) ( g - 1)
EBD_8335
126 PHYSICS
31. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. PA = 3 × 104 Pa

The amount of work done by the gas is greatest, VA = 2 × 10-3 m3
when the expansion is [1997] PB = 8 × 104 Pa
(a) adiabatic (b) isobaric
(c) isothermal (d) equal in all cases VD = 5 × 10–3 m3.
32. An ideal gas undergoing adiabatic change has In process AB, 600 J of heat is added to the
the following pressure-temperature system and in process BC, 200 J of heat is
relationship [1996] added to the system. The change in internal
(a) Pg–1Tg = constant energy of the system in process AC would be
(b) PgTg–1 = constant [1991]
(c) PgT1–g = constant (a) 560 J (b) 800 J
(d) P1–gTg = constant (c) 600 J (d) 640 J
33. A diatomic gas initially at 18ºC is compressed 37. At 27° C a gas is compressed suddenly such
adiabatically to one eighth of its original that its pressure becomes (1/8) of original
volume. The temperature after compression pressure. Final temperature will be (g = 5/3)
will be
(a) 420 K (b) 300K [1989]
(a) 18ºC (b) 668.4ºK [1996]
(c) – 142°C (d) 327°C
(c) 395.4ºC (d) 144ºC
34. An ideal gas A and a real gas B have their Topic 3: Carnot Engine, Refrigerator &
volumes increased from V to 2V under Second Law of Thermodynamics
isothermal conditions. The increase in internal
energy [1993] 38. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
(a) will be same in both A and B between the freezing point and boiling point of
(b) will be zero in both the gases water, is [2018]
(c) of B will be more than that of A (a) 26.8% (b) 20%
(d) of A will be more than that of B (c) 12.5% (d) 6.25%
35. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A 1
to B along ACB and is brought back to A along 39. A carnot engine having an efficiency of as
BDA as shown in the PV diagram. The net work 10
done during the complete cycle is given by the heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work
area [1992] done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy
P absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature
B is : [2017, 2015]
P2
C (a) 90 J (b) 99 J
D
(c) 100 J (d) 1 J
P1
A 40. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It
A¢ B¢ is required to remove 600 calories of heat
V
every second in order to keep the temperature
(a) P1ACBP2P1 (b) ACBB'A'A
of the refrigerated space constant. The power
(c) ACBDA (d) ADBB'A'A required is:
36. A thermodynamic process is shown in the
(Take 1 cal = 4.2 joules) [2016]
figure. The pressures an d volumes
corresponding to some points in the figure are (a) 2.365 W (b) 23.65 W
P (c) 236.5 W (d) 2365 W
B C 41. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator
is 5. If the inside temperature of freezer is –20°C,
then the temperature of the surroundings to
which it rejects heat is [2015 RS]
A D (a) 41°C (b) 11°C
O V (c) 21°C (d) 31°C
Thermodynamics 127
42. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in efficiency is to be 60% with the same intake
series. The engine A receives heat from the temperature, the exhaust temperature must be
source at temperature T1 and rejects the heat (in K) [2002]
to the sink at temperature T. The second engine (a) 800 (b) 200
B receives the heat at temperature T and rejects
(c) 400 (d) 600
to its sink at temperature T2. For what value of
T the efficiencies of the two engines are equal? 49. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot
[NEET Kar. 2013] cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs 6
kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of
T1 + T2 T1 - T2 heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to
(a) (b)
2 2 [2002]
(c) T1T2 (d) T1T2 (a) 1.2 (b) 4.8
43. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the (c) 3.5 (d) 1.6
resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat 50. The temperature of source and sink of a heat
of ice to be 80 cal/°C, is [2011] engine are 127ºC and 27ºC respectively. An
(a) 273 cal/K (b) 8 × 104 cal/K inventor claims its efficiency to be 26%, then:
(c) 80 cal/K (d) 293 cal/K (a) it is impossible [2001]
44. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the (b) it is possible with high probability
temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its
(c) it is possible with low probability
efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
(a) 37°C (b) 62°C [2007] (d) data are insufficient.
(c) 99°C (d) 124°C 51. A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the
45. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an heat input into work. When the temperature of
efficiency of 40%. By how much should the the sink is reduced by 62ºC, the efficiency of the
temperature of source be increased so as to engine is doubled. The temperatures of the
increase, its efficiency by 50% of original source and sink are [2000]
efficiency ? [2006] (a) 99ºC, 37ºC (b) 80ºC, 37ºC
(a) 325 K (b) 250 K (c) 95ºC, 37ºC (d) 90ºC, 37ºC
(c) 380 K (d) 275 K
46. Wh ich of t he followi ng pr ocesses is 52. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating
reversible? [2005] between the temperatures of 100ºC and –23ºC
(a) Transfer of heat by conduction will be [1997]
(b) Transfer of heat by radiation 100 + 23 100 - 23
(c) Isothermal compression (a) (b)
100 100
(d) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire
47. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot (c) 373 + 250 (d) 373 - 250
cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 373 373
6 × 104 cals of heat at higher temperature. 53. An ideal carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%
Amount of heat converted to work is [2005] receives heat at 500 K. If its efficiency is 50%,
(a) 4.8 × 104 cals (b) 6 × 10 4 cals then the intake temperature for the same exhaust
4
(c) 2.4 × 10 cals (d) 1.2 × 104 cals temperature is [1995]
48. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 50% has (a) 600 K (b) 700 K
an exhaust temperature of 500 K. If the (c) 800 K (d) 900 K
EBD_8335
128 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 7 (b) 13 (b) 19 (c) 25 (a) 31 (b) 37 (c) 43 (d) 49 (a)
2 (b) 8 (b) 14 (b) 20 (a) 26 (a) 32 (d) 38 (a) 44 (c) 50 (a)
3 (a) 9 (a) 15 (d) 21 (a) 27 (c) 33 (b) 39 (a) 45 (b) 51 (a)
4 (a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 22 (d) 28 (a) 34 (b) 40 (c) 46 (c) 52 (d)
5 (c) 11 (a) 17 (d) 23 (d) 29 (b) 35 (c) 41 (d) 47 (d) 53 (a)
6 (b) 12 (a) 18 (a) 24 (c) 30 (c) 36 (a) 42 (d) 48 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) DQ = 2256 × 1 = 2256 J 6. (b) DQ = DU + DW
DW = P[Vsteam – Vwater] [Q dw = pdv] Þ DW = DQ – DU = 110 – 40 = 70 J
= 1 × 105[1671 – 1] × 106 = 167 J 7. (b) Work done is not a thermodynamical
As DQ = DU + DW function.
2256 = DU + 167
DU = 2089 J The fundamental thermodynamic equations follow
from five primary thermodynamic definitions and
2. (b) Using first law of thermodynamics equation,
describe internal energy, enthalpy, Helmholtz
DQ = DU + DW
energy and Gibb's energy.
Þ 54 × 4.18
= DU + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0) 8. (b) The first law of thermodynamics is just a
(Q DW = PDV) conservation of energy.
Þ DU = 208.7 J
9. (a) Entire system is thermally insulated. So,
3. (a) From first law of thermodynamics
no heat exchange with surrounding will take
Qadc = DUadc + Wadc
50 J = DUadc + 20 J place. Hence, process will be adiabatic.
DUadc = 30 J 10. (b) In adiabatic process, there is no exchange
Again, Qabc = DUabc + Wabc of heat, with the surroundings.
Wabc = Qabc – DUabc 5
= Qabc – DUadc 11. (a) Gas is monatomic, so Cp = R
2
= 36 J – 30 J
= 6J Given process is isobaric
4. (a) Initial and final condition is same for all \ dQ = n Cp dT
process æ5 ö
DU1 = DU2 = DU3 Þ dQ = n ç R ÷ dT
from first law of thermodynamics è2 ø
DQ = DU + DW dW = P dV = n RdT
Work done dW nRdT 2
DW1 > DW2 > DW3 (Area of P.V. graph) \ Required ratio = = =
dQ æ5 ö 5
So DQ1 > DQ2 > DQ3 n ç R ÷ dT
5. (c) According to first law of è 2 ø
thermodynamics 12. (a) Process I volume is constant hence, it is
Q = DU + W isochoric
DU = Q – W In process IV, pressure is constant hence, it is
= 2 × 4.2 × 1000 – 500 = 8400 –500 isobaric
= 7900 J
Thermodynamics 129
13. (b) Wext = negative of area with volume-axis P0 V0 P0 V0

W(adiabatic) > W(isothermal) = - =0
2 2
P 18. (a) Wnet = Area of triangle ABC
1
Adiabatic = AC × BC
2
1
= × 5 × 10–3 × 4 × 105 = 1000 J
2
Isothermal 19. (c) According to question P µ T3
O But as we know for an adiabatic process the
V0 2V0 V g
14. (b) In cyclic process ABCA g -1
pressure P µ T .
Qcycle = Wcycle
g 3 Cp 3
QAB + QBC + QCA = ar. of DABC So, =3Þg= or,, =
1 g -1 2 Cv 2
+ 400 + 100 + QC®A = (2 × 10–3) (4 × 104) 20. (a) Adiabatic equations of state are
2
Þ QC ® A = – 460 J Þ QA ® C = + 460 J PVg = constant TVg–1 = constant
1–g g
P T = constant.
15. (d) P
When a thermodynamic system undergoes a
change in such a way that to exchange of heat takes
place between system and surroundings, then the
Isothermal Adiabatic process is adiabatic process. In this process P, V
and T change but DQ = 0.
Isobaric 21. (a) Q Internal energy is the state function.

\ In cyclie process; DU = 0
According to 1st law of thermodynamics
V
DQ = DU + W
Since area under the curve is maximum for So heat absorbed
adiabatic process so, work done (W = PdV) on DQ = W = Area under the curve
the gas will be maximum for adiabatic process. = – (2V) (P) = –2PV
So heat rejected = 2PV
16. (c) For isothermal process P1V1 = P2V2 22. (d) 1st process is isothermal expansion which
P is only correct shown in option (d)
Þ PV = P2(2V) Þ P2 =
2 2nd process is isobaric compression which is
For adiabatic process correctly shown in option (d)
P2 V2g = P3V3g 23. (d) According to question work done by gas
is given –150J so that according to it answer will
æ Pö g g be (d).
Þ çè ÷ø (2v) = P316v) 24. (c) T1 = 273 + 27 = 300K
2
5/3
T2 = 273 + 927 = 1200K
3 æ 1ö P For adiabatic process,
Þ P3 = çè ÷ø =
2 8 64 P1–g Tg = constant
17. (d) Work done by the system in the cycle Þ P11–g T1g = P21–g T2g
= Area under P-V curve and V-axis 1-g g 1-g g
æP ö æ T1 ö æ P1 ö æ T2 ö
1 Þç 2÷ = ç ÷ Þç ÷ = ç ÷
= (2P0 - P0 )(2V0 - V0 ) + è P1 ø è T2 ø è T2 ø è T1 ø
2
1-1.4 1.4 -0.4
é æ 1ö ù æP ö æ 1200 ö æP ö 1.4
ê - çè 2 ÷ø (3P0 - 2P0 )(2V0 - V0 ) ú Þç 1÷ =ç ÷ Þç 1 ÷ = ( 4)
ë û è P2 ø è 300 ø è P2 ø
EBD_8335
130 PHYSICS
0.4 30. (c) Change in internal energy is equal to work

æP ö 1.4 done in adiabatic system
Þ ç 2÷ =4
è P1 ø DW = –DU (Expansion in the system)
æ 1.4 ö æ 7ö 1
ç ÷ ç ÷ =- ( PV - P V )
Þ P2 = P1 4è 0.4 ø = P1 4è 2 ø g -1 1 1 2 2
Þ P1 (27) = 2 × 128 = 256 atm 1
DU = ( P2V2 – PV
1 1)
1– g
25. (a) By first law of thermodynamics,
DQ = DU + DW Here, V1 = V ,V2 = 2V
In adiabatic process, DQ = 0 1 PV
\ DU = [ P ´ 2V – PV ] =
1– g 1– g
\ DU = -DW
In isothermal process, DU = 0 PV
Þ DU = -
\ DQ = DW g -1
26. (a) In an isochoric process volume remains 31. (b) In thermodynamics for same change in volume,
constant whereas pressure remains constant in the work done is maximum in isobaric process
isobaric process. because in P – V graph, area enclosed by curve and
27. (c) In a cyclic process, the initial state volume axis is maximum in isobaric process.
coincides with the final state. Hence, the change 32. (d) We know that in adiabatic process,
in internal energy is zero, as it depends only on PVg = constant ....(1)
the initial and final states. From ideal gas equation, we know that
PV = nRT
In case of cyclic process, uf = ui \ Du = uf – ui = 0
nRT
And also Du µ DT \ DT = 0 V= ....(2)
P
Puttingt the value from equation (2) in
5 equation (1),
28. (a) T1 = T, W = 6R joules, g =
3 g
æ nRT ö
PV - P V nRT - nRT Pç = constant
W= 1 1 2 2 = 1 2 è P ÷ø
g -1 g -1 P (1 – g) g
T = constant
nR(T1 - T2 ) 33. (b) Initial temperature (T1) = 18°C = 291 K
=
g -1 Let Initial volume (V1) = V
R (T - T2 )
n = 1, T1 = T Þ = 6R V
5 / 3 -1 Final volume (V2) =
8
Þ T2 = ( T–4)K According to adiabatic process,
29. (b) T = 27°C = 300 K TVg – 1 = constant
5 8 V1 27 According to question, T1V1g -1 = T2V2g -1
g = ; V2 = V1 ; =
3 27 V2 8 g -1
From adiabatic process we know that æV ö
Þ T2 = 293 ç 1 ÷
T1V1g -1 = T2V2g -1 è V2 ø
5 7
g -1 -1 -1
T2 æ V1 ö æ 27 ö 3 Þ T2 = 293(8) 5 = 293 × 2.297 = 668.4K
= =ç ÷
T1 çè V2 ÷ø è 8ø
é Cp 7ù
T2 9 9 9 ê For diatomic gas g = = ú
= Þ T2 = ´ T1 = ´ 300 = 675 K ë Cv 5 û
T1 4 4 4
34. (b) Under isothermal conditions, there is no
T2 = 675 – 273°C = 402°C change in internal energy.
Thermodynamics 131
35. (c) Work done = Area under curve ACBDA W 236.5 joule
36. (a) BC is isobaric process, Power P = = = 236.5 watt.
\ W = PB × (VD – VA) = 240 J t 1sec
DQ = 600 + 200 = 800 J 41. (d) Coefficient of performance,
Using DQ = DU + DW T2
Þ DU = DQ – DW = 800 – 240 = 560 J Cop =
T1 - T2
Since AB is an isochoric process i.e., DV = 0 so, no
273 - 20 253
work is done. 5= =
T1 - (273 - 20) T1 - 253
37. (c) T1g P11- g = T2g P21- g 5T1 – (5 × 253) = 253
g 1-g 5T1 = 253 + (5 × 253) = 1518
æT ö æPö
Þç 2÷ = ç 1÷ 1518
è T1 ø è P2 ø \ T1 = = 303.6
5
1-g or, T1 = 303.6 – 273 = 30.6 @ 31°C
æPö g
T
Þ T2 = T1. ç 1 ÷ = 300 × (8)–2/5= 142°C 42. (d) Efficiency of engine A, h1 = 1 - ,
èP ø 2 T1
æ T2 ö T2
38. (a) Efficiency of ideal heat engine, h = ç 1 – T ÷ Efficiency of engine B, h2 = 1 -
è 1ø T
Here, h1 = h2
Sink temperature, T2 = 100°C = 100 + 273 = 373 K
Source temperature, T1 = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K T T2
\ T = T Þ T = T1T2
æ T2 ö 1
Percentage efficiency, %h = ç 1– T ÷ ´ 100 43. (d) Change in entropy is given by
è 1ø
dQ DQ mLf
æ 273 ö æ 100 ö DS = or DS = =
= ç 1– ÷ ´100 = ç 373 ÷ ´ 100 = 26.8% T T 273
è 373 ø è ø 1000 ´ 80
DS = = 293cal / K.
1 273
39. (a) Given, efficiency of engine, h =
10 T2
work done on system W = 10J 44. (c) Since efficiency of engine is h = 1 -
T1
Coefficient of performance of refrigerator According to problem,
1 9
Q 2 1 - h 1 - 10 10 1
=1- 2
T
b= = = 1 = 1 =9 6 T1 .......... (1)
W h
10 10 When the temperature of the sink is reduced by
Energy absorbed from reservoir 62°C, its efficiency is doubled
Q2 = bW Q2 = 9 × 10 = 90 J æ 1ö T - 62
2ç ÷ =1- 2 .......... (2)
A refrigerator works along the reverse direction of è 6ø T1
a heat engine. Solving (1) and (2) T2 = 372 K
T1 = 99°C = Temperature of source.
40. (c) Given: T2 = 4°C = 4 + 273 = 277 K 45. (b) We know that efficiency of Carnot Engine
T1 = 30°C = 30 + 273 = 303 K T1 - T2
h=
Q2 T2 T1
b= =
W T1 - T2 where, T1 is temp. of source and T2 is temp. of sink
600 ´ 4.2 277 T1 - 300
\ b= = \ 0.40 = Þ T1 - 300 = 0.40T1
W 303 - 277 T1
Þ W = 236.5 joule
EBD_8335
132 PHYSICS
300 3000 1
0.6T1 = 300 Þ T1 = = = 500K = (h) ´ Heat input = ´ 6 = 1.2 kcal
.6 6 5
Now efficiency to be increased by 50%
Work done (W )
T1 - 300
\ 0.60 = T Þ T1 - 300 = 0.6T1 Efficiency of heat engine: n =
Heat in put ( Q1 )
1
300 300 ´ 10 Q T
0.4T1 = 300 Þ T1 = = = 750 = 1– 2 = 1- 2
.4 4 Q1 T1
Increase in temp = 750 – 500 = 250 K
46. (c) Isothermal process occur very slowly so it 300 100 1 1
50. (a) h = 1- = = h = ´ 100 = 25%
is quasi-static and hence it is reversible. 400 400 4 4
Hence, it is not possible to have efficiency more
The conditions for reversibility than 25%.
• Must take place infinitely slowly
51. (a) Initially the efficiency of the engine was
• The temperature of the system must not differ
appreciably 1 1
• There must be complete absence of dissipative which increases to when the sink
6 3
forces such as friction, viscosity, electric
resistance, etc. temperature reduces by 62º C.
1 T
47. (d) We know that h = = 1 - 2 , when T2 = sink temperature
6 T1
efficiency of carnot engine
5
T2 400 1 T1 = source temperature Þ T2 = T1
6
= 1 - T = 1 - 500 = 5 Secondly,
1
[ Q T1 = (273 + 227)K = 500 K 1 T - 62 T 62 5 62
= 1- 2 = 1- 2 + = 1- +
and T2 = (273 + 127)K = 400 K] 3 T1 T1 T1 6 T1
Work output or, T1 = 62 × 6 = 372K =372– 273 = 99ºC
Efficiency of Heat engine = Heat input 5
& T2 = ´ 372= 310 K= 310 - 273 = 37º C
6
or, 1 = work output T1
5 6×104 52. (d) h = 1 - T
Þ work output = 1.2 × 104 cal 2
T1 = –23°C = 250 K, T2 = 100°C = 373K
T2 50 500 250 373 - 250
48. (c) h = 1- or = 1- h =1- =
T1 100 T1 373 373
53. (a) Efficiency of carnot engine (h1) = 40%
Þ T1 = 1000 K = 0.4; Initial intake temperature (T1) = 500K and
60 T new efficiency (h2) = 50% = 0.5.
Also, = 1 - 2 Þ T2 = 400 K T
100 1000 T
Efficiency ( h) = 1 - 2 or 2 = 1 - h .
T1 - T2 T1 T1
49. (a) Efficiency = T1 T
Therefore in first case, 2 = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6 .
T1 = 227 + 273 = 500 K 500
Þ T2 = 0.6×500=300K
T2 = 127 + 273 = 400 K 300
And in second case, = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5
500 - 400 1 T1
h= =
500 5 300
Þ T1 = = 600 K
Hence, output work 0.5
12 Kinetic Theory
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Kinetic Theory of an Ideal
Ideal Gas Equation 1 A
Gas & Gas Laws
Speeds of Gas, Pressure & Pressure, Kinetic Energy 1 E
Kinetic Energy RMS Speed Formula 1 D 1 A
Degree of Freedom, Specific Law of Equipartition of
Heat Capacity & Mean Free Energy, Degree of Freedom 1 A
Path
Mean Free Path Formula 1 E
Topic 1: Kinetic Theory of an Ideal Gas & 4. At 10° C the value of the density of a fixed mass
Gas Laws of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At
110°C this ratio is: [2008]
1. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure
of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. [2020] 383
(a) x (b) x
Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1) 283
(a) 0.2 kg/m3 (b) 0.1 kg/m3 10 283
(c) 0.02 kg/m 3 (d) 0.5 kg/m3 (c) x (d) x
110 383
2. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases 5. When volume of system is increased twice and
A and B at the same temperature. The pressure temperature is decreased half of its initial
of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions,
temperature, then pressure becomes
the density of A is found to be 1.5 times the
density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A (a) 2 times (b) 4 times
and B is : [2015 RS] 1 1
3 (c) times (d) times
(a) (b) 2 2 4
4
1 2 6. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a
(c) (d) pressure P and temperature T, when occupying
2 3
3. In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation a volume V, will be [2004]
between pressure P1 and P2 ? [2013] (a) PV = (5/16) RT
(a) P2 > P1 P2 (b) PV = (5/32) RT
(b) P2 < P1 V P1 (c) PV = 5 RT
(d) PV = (5/2) RT
(c) Cannot be predicted q2
q1 (where R is the gas constant).
(d) P2 = P1
T
EBD_8335
134 PHYSICS
7. A gas at 27ºC temperature and 30 atmospheric 14. In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass
pressure is allowed to expand to the atmospheric of all the molecules is halved and their speed is
pressure. If the volume becomes 10 times its doubled, then the resultant pressure will be
initial volume, then the final temperature becomes [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) 100ºC (b) 173ºC [2001] (a) 4P (b) 2P
(c) 273ºC (d) –173ºC (c) P (d) P/2
8. The equation of state, corresponding to 8g of 15. At 0 K, which of the following properties of a
O2 is [1994] gas will be zero? [1996]
(a) PV = 8 RT (b) PV = RT /4 (a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy
(c) PV = RT (d) PV = RT/2 (c) Density (d) Mass
9. According to kinetic theory of gases, at absolute 16. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27°C to
zero temperature [1990] 927°C. The root mean square speed is [1994]
(a) water freezes
(b) liquid helium freezes (a) (927 / 27) times the earlier value
(c) molecular motion stops (b) remain the same
(d) liquid hydrogen freezes (c) gets halved
10. At constant volume, temperature is increased (d) get doubled
then [1989] 17. If Cs be the velocity of sound in air and C be the
(a) collision on walls will be less r.m.s velocity, then [1994]
(b) number of collisions per unit time will (a) Cs < C (b) Cs = C
increase (c) Cs = C (g/3)1/2 (d) none of these
(c) collisions will be in straight lines 18. Relation between pressure (P) and energy (E)
(d) collisions will not change. of a gas is [1991]
Topic 2: Speeds of Gas, Pressure 2 1
& Kinetic Energy (a) P = E (b) P = E
3 3
11. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a 1
container would lead to: [2019] (c) P = E (d) P = 3E
2
(a) increase in its mass 19. Three containers of the same volume contain
(b) increase in its kinetic energy three different gases. The masses of the
(c) decrease in its pressure molecules are m1, m2 and m3 and the number of
(d) decrease in intermolecular distance molecules in their respective containers are N1,
12. At what temperature will the rms speed of N2 and N3. The gas pressure in the containers
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for are P1, P2 and P3 respectively. All the gases are
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere? now mixed and put in one of these containers.
(Given : The pressure P of the mixture will be [1991]
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg (a) P < (P1 + P2 + P3)
Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
[2018] P1 + P2 + P3
(b) P=
(a) 2.508 × 104 K (b) 8.360 × 104 K 3
(c) 1.254 × 104 K (d) 5.016 × 104 K (c) P = P1 + P2 + P3
13. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have (d) P > (P1 + P2 + P3)
r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 20. N molecules each of mass m of a gas A and 2N
Nm –2 pressure. When the temperature and molecules each of mass 2m of gas B are contained
pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and in the same vessel which is maintained at
0.05 × 10 5 Nm –2 , the r.m.s. velocity of its temperature T. The mean square velocity of
molecules in ms–1 is : [2016] molecules of B type is v2 and the mean square
400 rectangular component of the velocity of A type
(a) 100 2 (b)
3 is denoted by w2. Then w2/v2 [1991]
100 2 100 (a) 2 (b) 1
(c) (d) (c) 1/3 (d) 2/3
3 3
Kinetic Theory 135
21. Two containers A and B are partly filled with The change in internal energy of the gas during
water and closed. The volume of A is twice that the transition is: [2015]
of B and it contains half the amount of water in (a) – 20 kJ (b) 20 J
B. If both are at the same temperature, the water (c) –12 kJ (d) 20 kJ
vapour in the containers will have pressure in Cp
the ratio of [1988] 26. The ratio of the specific heats C = g in terms
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 v
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 of degrees of freedom (n) is given by [2015]
æ nö æ 2ö
Topic 3: Degree of Freedom, Specific Heat (a) ç1 + 3 ÷ (b) ç1 + ÷
n
Capacity & Mean Free Path è ø è ø
æ nö æ 1ö
22. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular (c) ç1 + ÷ (d) ç1 + ÷
diameter d and number density n can be è 2ø è nø
expressed as : [2020] 27. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The
specific heat capacity of the gas at constant
1 1 volume is 5.0JK–1. If the speed of sound in this
(a) 2 (b) gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the heat capacity
2npd 2n 2pd 2
at constant pressure is (Take gas constant R =
1 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) [2015 RS]
1
(c) 2 2 2 (d) (a) 7.5 JK–1 mol–1 (b) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1
2n p d 2npd
(c) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1 (d) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1
28. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius
æ Cp ö ‘r’) is inversely proportional to : [2014]
23. The value of g = ç ÷ , for hydrogen, helium
è Cv ø (a) r3 (b) r2
and another ideal diatomic gas X (whose (c) r (d) r
molecules are not rigid but have an additional 29. The amount of heat energy required to raise the
vibrational mode), are respectively equal to, temperature of 1g of Helium at NTP, from T1K to
[NEET Odisha 2019] T2K is [2013]
3
7 5 7 7 5 9 (a) N k (T – T1)
(a) , , (b) , , 2 a B 2
5 3 5 5 3 7
3
5 7 9 5 7 7 (b) N k (T – T1)
(c) , , (d) , , 4 a B 2
3 5 7 3 5 5 3 T
24. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 (c) Nk 2
moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all 4 a B T1
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of 3
the system is :- [2017] (d) N k (T – T1)
8 a B 2
(a) 15 RT (b) 9 RT 30. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at
(c) 11 RT (d) 4 RT constant pressure and volume are denoted by
25. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a
transition from A to B along a path AB as shown Cp
in the figure. Cp and Cv, respectively. If g = and R is the
Cv
A universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to
5
[2013]
P(in kPa) 2 B R ( g - 1)
(a) (b)
( g - 1) R
4 6 1+ g
(c) gR (d)
V(in m3) 1- g
EBD_8335
136 PHYSICS
31. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of (c) monoatomic

an ideal gas is (7/2) R. The ratio of specific heat at (d) polyatomic
constant pressure to that at constant volume is 36. For hydrogen gas, Cp – Cv = a and for oxygen
(a) 8/7 (b) 5/7 [2006] gas, Cp – Cv = b, so the relation between a and b
(c) 9/7 (d) 7/5
is given by [1991]
32. If g be the ratio of specific heats of a perfect gas,
the number of degrees of freedom of a molecule (a) a = 16 b (b) 16 b = a
of the gas is [2000] (c) a = 4 b (d) a = b
25 3 g - 1 37. For a certain gas the ratio of specific heats is
(a) ( g - 1) (b) 2 g - 1 given to be g = 1.5. For this gas [1990]
2
2 (a) CV = 3R/J (b) CP = 3R/J
9
(c) (d) ( g - 1) (c) CP = 5R/J (d) CV = 5R/J
g -1 2
38. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas requires
33. The degree of freedom of a molecule of a triatomic 207 J heat to raise the temperature by 10 K when
gas is [1999] heated at constant pressure. If the same gas is
(a) 2 (b) 4 heated at constant volume to raise the
(c) 6 (d) 8 temperature by the same 10 K, the heat
34. The number of translational degrees of freedom required is
for a diatomic gas is [1993] [Given the gas constant R = 8.3 J/ mol. K] [1990]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 198.7 J (b) 29 J
(c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 215.3 J (d) 124 J
35. If for a gas, R 39. A polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom has
= 0.67 , the gas is made up of
Cv a mean energy per molecule given by [1989]
molecules which are [1992] nkT nkT
(a) diatomic (a) (b)
N 2N
(b) mixture of diatomic and polyatomic
molecules nkT 3kT
(c) (d)
2 2
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 6 (b) 11 (b) 16 (d) 21 (b) 26 (b) 31 (d) 36 (d)
2 (a) 7 (d) 12 (b) 17 (c) 22 (a) 27 (d) 32 (c) 37 (b)
3 (b) 8 (b) 13 (b) 18 (a) 23 (b) 28 (b) 33 (c) 38 (d)
4 (d) 9 (c) 14 (b) 19 (c) 24 (c) 29 (d) 34 (b) 39 (c)
5 (d) 10 (b) 15 (a) 20 (d) 25 (a) 30 (a) 35 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Given : Pressure P = 249 k Pa (249 ´ 103 )(2 ´ 10-3 )
= 249 × 103 N/m2 \r = = 0.2 kg/m3.
8.3 ´ 300
Mass of hydrogen, M = 2g = 2 × 10–3 kg 2. (a) From PV = nRT
Temperature, T = 27 + 273 = 300 K r M r M
Using, ideal gas equation, PV = nRT PA = A A and PB = B B
RT RT
PM æ Mö From question,
PM = rRT Þ r = çèQ r = ÷ø
RT V
Kinetic Theory 137
PA rA M A M 3 PV PV 30 ´ V 1 ´ 10V
= =2 A = 1 1
= 2 2 or, 300 = T
PB rB M B MB 2 T1 T2 2
MA 3 or, T2 = 100 K = –173°C.
So, M = 4 8. (b) 8g of oxygen is equivalent to (1/4) mole.
B
3. (b) P1 > P2 1
So, PV = RT
4
P2 9. (c)
10. (b) As the temperature increases, the average
velocity increases. So, the collisions are faster.
P1
V F
11. (b) U = nRT
q2 2
q1 As U µ T
T
As V = constant Þ Pµ T \ Increase in temperature would lead to the
Hence from V–T graph P1 > P2 increase in kinetic energy of gas.
From the Gay - Lussac's law, volume remain 12. (b) Let at temperature T rms speed of oxygen
constant, the pressure of a given mass of a gas is molecules become just sufficient for escaping
directly proportional to its absolute temperature. from the Earth’s atmosphere
\ PµT Vescape = 11200 m/s
P P1 P2
= constant Þ = 3k BT
T T1 T2 Also, Vrms = Vescape = mO2 = 11200 m/s
4. (d) Let the mass of the gas be m. Putting value of KB and mO2 we get,
At a fixed temperature and pressure, volume is
fixed. T = 8.360 × 104 K
m 13. (b) Here v1 = 200 m/s;
Density of the gas, r = temperature T1 = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 k
V
temperature T2 = 127° C = 127 + 273 = 400 k, v2 = ?
r m m
Now = = R.M.S. Velocity, v µ T
P PV nRT
m v2 400
Þ = x (By question) Þ =
nRT 200 300
Þ xT = constant Þ x1T1 = x2T2 200 ´ 2 400
Þ v2 = m/s Þ v = m/s
2
é Given ù 3 3
x1T1 283 ê
Þ x2 Þ = x T1 = 283K ú 1 mN 2
T2 383 ê ú 14. (b) Q P = vrms
êë T2 = 383K úû 3 V
where m = mass of each molecules
5. (d) N = total number of molecules
5 5 V = volume of the gas
6. (b) n= \ PV = RT [ Q PV = nRT]
T] When mass is halved and speed is doubled then
32 32
7. (d) Given : Initial temperature of gas 1 æmö N
Resultant pressure, P' = ´ ç ÷ ´ (2vrms )
2
(T1) = 27°C = 300 K 3 è2ø V

=2P
Initial pressure (P1) = 30 atm 15. (a) At 0 K, molecular motion stops. Hence,
Initial volume (V1) = V kinetic energy of molecules becomes zero.
Final pressure (P2) = 1 atm 16. (d) vrms µ T
Final volume (V2) = 10 V.
As temperature increases from 300 K to 1200 K
We know from the general gas equation that that is four times, so, vrms will be doubled.
EBD_8335
138 PHYSICS
Degree of freedom
gP
17. (c) Velocity of sound (CS) = Fdiatomic = 5
r fmonoatomic = 3
3P and, number of moles
R.M.S. velocity of gas molecules (C) = n(O2) = 2
r
n(Ar) = 4
Cs gP r g g
= ´ = Þ Cs = C ´ 5 3
C r 3P 3 3 Utotal = (2)RT + (4)RT = 11RT T
2 2
1 2 2 æ1 ö 2 2 25. (a) Change in internal energy from A ® B
18. (a) P = Nmc = ´ çè Nm÷ø c = K .E
3 3 2 3
f f
19. (c) According to Dalton’s law of partial DU = nRDT = nR (Tf – Ti)
pressures, we have P = P1 + P2 + P3 2 2
5
Dalton's law will be valid only if the gases = {PfVf – PiVi}
contained are non reacting. 2
For n non-reacting gases, P = P1 + P2 + P3 + ... Pn 5
Here P = Pressure exerted by mixture = {2 × 103 × 6 – 5 × 103 × 4}
2
P1, P2, P3 ..... Pn = Partial pressure of component
gas. 5
= {12 – 20} × 103 J = 5 × (–4) × 103 J
2
20. (d) The mean square velocity of A type DU = –20 KJ
molecules = w2 + w2 + w2 = 3w2
(As gas is diatomic \ f = 5)
1 2 1 2
Therefore, m (3w ) = (2m)v
2 2
26. (b) Let ‘n’ be the degree of freedom
This gives w 2 / v 2 = 2 / 3
æn ö
Mean kinetic energy of the two types of molecules Cpçè + 1÷ø R
2 æ 2ö
should be equal. g= = = ç1 + ÷
Cv æ nö è nø
21. (b) Vapour pressure does not depend on the çè ÷ø R
2
amount of substance. It depends on the
temperature alone. 27. (d) Molar mass of the gas = 4g/mol
Speed of sound
1
22. (a) Mean free path for a gas l m = g ´ 3.3 ´ 273
2npd 2 gRT
v= Þ 952 =
m 4 ´ 10-3
Here, d = diameter of a gas molecule and, n =
molecular density. 16 8
Þ g = 1.6 ==
23. (b) For Hydrogen f = 5 10 5
For Helium f = 3 CP 8
For gas X Also, g = C = 5
V
f = 7.
8´ 5
2 2 9 So, CP = = 8JK–1mol–1
g=1+ =1+ = 5
f 7 7 [CV = 5.0 JK–1 given]
æ7 5 9ö 1
So, ç , , ÷ 28. (b) Mean free path lm =
è5 3 7ø 2p d 2 n
24. (c) Internal energy of the system is given by where d = diameter of molecule and d = 2r
f 1
U= nRT \ lm µ 2
2 r
Kinetic Theory 139
29. (d) From first law of thermodynamics, For a gas having f degree of freedom specific heat
3 1 1
DQ = DU + DW = . R (T2 – T1) + 0 at constant volume, Cv = fR specific heat at
2 4 2
3 R constant pressure,
= NaKB (T2 – T1) [Q K = ]
8 N æ f ö
Cp = ç + 1÷ R
30. (a) Cp – Cv = R Þ Cp = Cv + R è2 ø
Cp Cv + R C R where, R = universal gas constant
Q g= = = v + 36. (d) Both are diatomic gases and Cp – Cv = R
Cv Cv Cv Cv
for all gases.
R R
Þg=1+ Þ = g–1 CP 15 3 2
Cv Cv 37. (b) g= = = Þ CV = CP
CV 10 2 3
R
Þ Cv =
g -1 R 2 R
C P - CV = Þ CP - CP =
J 3 J
7 7 5
31. (d) CP = R; CV = CP - R = R - R = R CP R 3R
2 2 2 Þ = Þ CP =
3 J J
CP 7 / 2 R 7
= = 5 3
CV 5 / 2 R 5 38. (d) Cp = R and Cv = R
32. (c) We know that ratio of specific heats, 2 2
We know that Qv = nCvDT and Qp = nCpDT
2 2
g = 1+ or n = Qv 3
n g -1
Þ Q =5.
[where n = Degree of freedom] p
33. (c) No. of degree of freedom = 3 K – N
where K is no. of atom and N is the number of Given Qp = 207 J Þ Qv @ 124 J
relations between atoms. For triatomic gas, 39. (c) According to law of equipartition of
K = 3, N = 3 C2 = 3 energy, the energy per degree of freedom is
No. of degree of freedom = 3 (3) – 3 = 6 1
34. (b) Number of translational degrees of kT .
2
freedom are same for all types of gases.
For a polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom,
35. (c) Since R = 0.67 Þ C = 3 R, hence gas 1
V
CV 2 the mean energy per molecule = nkT
2
is monoatomic.
EBD_8335
140 PHYSICS
13 Oscillations
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Displacement, Phase,
1 A 1 E
Velocity & Acceleration
of SHM
Average velocity, amplitude
2 A
in one vibration
Energy in Simple Harmonic
Motion
Time Period, Frequency, Time period, T = 2 p/ w 1 E 1 E
Simple Pendulum & Spring Spring constant, spring conne-
Pendulum cted in series and parallel 1 D
Damped SHM, Forced
Ocillations & Resonance
Topic 1: Displacement, Phase, Velocity & æ pt ö

Acceleration of SHM (b) y(t) = 4 sin çè ÷ø , where y in m
2
1. The phase difference between displacement
and acceleration of a particle in a simple æ 3pt ö
(c) y(t) = 3 çè ÷ , cos where y in m
harmonic motion is : [2020] 2 ø
3p p æ pt ö
(a) rad (b) rad (d) y(t) = 3 cos çè ÷ø , where y in m
2 2 2
(c) zero (d) p rad 3. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in
2. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, one complete vibration is: [2019]
initial position and sense of revolution are Aw
indicated in the fig. [2019] (a) (b) Aw
2
y
Aw2
P(t = 0) (c) (d) zero
2
T=4s 4. The displacement of a particle executing simple
harmonic motion is given by
x
y = A0 + A sinwt + B coswt. [2019]
3m Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by:
(a) A0 + A 2 + B2 (b) A 2 + B2
y - projection of the radius vector of rotating (c) A02 + (A + B) 2 (d) A+B

particle P is :
(a) y (t) = –3 cos2pt, where y in m
Oscillations 141
5. The distance covered by a particle undergoing (c) hyperbola

SHM in one time period is (amplitude = A), (d) ellipse
[NEET Odisha 2019] 9. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given
(a) 4A (b) Zero by
(c) A (d) 2A p
6. When two displacements represented by y = 3sin (50t - x )
2
y1 = a sin(wt) and y2 = b cos(wt) are super- Where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds.
imposed the motion is: [2015] The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the
a wave velocity is [2012M]
(a) simple harmonic with amplitude
b 3
(a) 2p (b) p
(b) simple harmonic with amplitude a + b 2 2 2
2
(a + b) (c) 3p (d) p
(c) simple harmonic with amplitude 3
2 10. A particle of mass m is released from rest
(d) not a simple harmonic
and follows a parabolic path as shown.
7. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal
Assuming that the displacement of the mass from
surface is represented by the equation,
the origin is small, which graph correctly
X = A cos (wt)
depicts the position of the particle as a function
where X = displacement at time t
of time [2011]
w = frequency of oscillation m
Which one of the following graphs shows V(x)
correctly the variation of ‘a’ with ‘t’? [2014]
a (x)
0
(a) O x(t)
T t
(a) 0 t
a
(b) O
T t
x(t)
a
(b) 0 t
(c) O
T t
x(t)
a
(d) O (c) 0 t
T t
8. A particle of mass m oscillates along x-axis x(t)

according to equation x = a sin wt. The nature of
the graph between momentum and displacement
of the particle is [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) straight line passing through origin (d) 0 t
(b) circle
EBD_8335
142 PHYSICS
11. Out of the following functions, representing 17. A par ticle executin g simp le har mon ic
motion of a particle, which represents SHM? motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum
(A) y = sin wt - cos wt [2011] speed of 31.4 cm/s. Its oscillation per second
(B) y = sin3 wt
(a) 4 (b) 3 [2005]
æ 3p ö (c) 2 (d) 1
(C) y = 5cos ç - 3wt ÷
è 4 ø 18. Which one of the following statements is true
for the speed v and the acceleration a of a
(D) y = 1 + wt + w 2 t 2 particle executing simple harmonic motion ?
(a) Only (A) (a) When v is maximum, a is zero [2004]
(b) Only (D) does not represent SHM (b) When v is maximum, a is maximum
(c) Only (A) and (C) (c) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the
(d) Only (A) and (B) value of v
12. Two particles are oscillating along two close (d) When v is zero, a is zero
parallel straight lines side by side, with the same 19. Two simple harmonic motions act on a particle.
frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, These harmonic motions are x = A cos (wt + d ),
moving in opposite directions when their p
y = A cos (wt + a) when d = a + , the resulting
displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean 2
positions of the two particles lie on a straight motion is [2000]
line perpendicular to the paths of the two (a) a circle and the actual motion is clockwise
particles. The phase difference is [2011M] (b) an ellipse and the actual motion is
(a) 0 (b) 2p/3 counterclockwise
(c) p (d) p/6 (c) an elllipse and the actual motion is
13. The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is clockwise
given by x = a sin2 wt. The motion of the particle (d) a circle and the actual motion is counter
corresponds to: [2010] clockwise
(a) simple harmonic motion of frequency w / p 20. A particle executing S.H.M. has amplitude 0.01m
(b) simple harmonic motion of frequency and frequency 60 Hz. The maximum acceleration
of the particle is [1999]
3w / 2 p
(c) non simple harmonic motion (a) 144 p2 m/s2 (b) 120 p2 m/s2
(c) 80 p2 m/s2 (d) 60 p2 m/s2
(d) simple harmonic motion of frequency w / 2p 21. Two simple harmonic motions with the same
14. Which one of the following equations of motion frequency act on a particle at right angles i.e.,
represents simple harmonic motion? [2009] along x and y axis. If the two amplitudes are
(a) Acceleration = – k(x + a) equal and the phase difference is p/2, the
(b) Acceleration = k(x + a) resultant motion will be [1997]
(c) Acceleration = kx (a) a circle
(d) Acceleration = – k0x + k1x2 (b) an ellipse with the major axis along y-axis
where k, k0, k1 and a are all postive. (c) an ellipse with the major axis along x-axis
15. Two simple harmonic motions of angular (d) a straight line inclined at 45º to the x-axis
frequency 100 and 1000 rad s–1 have the same 22. A particle starts simple harmonic motion from
displacement amplitude. The ratio of their the mean position. Its amplitude is A and time
maximum accelerations is: [2008] period is T.What is its displacement when its
(a) 1 : 10 (b) 1 : 102 speed is half of its maximum speed [1996]
(c) 1 : 103 (d) 1 : 104
16. The phase difference between the 2 3
(a) A (b) A
instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a 3 2
particle executing simple harmonic motion is
2 A
(a) p (b) 0.707 p [2007] (c) A (d)
(c) zero (d) 0.5 p 3 2
Oscillations 143
23. Which one of the following is a simple

harmonic motion? [1994] (a) x1 x2 (b) x1 x2
O O
(a) Ball bouncing between two rigid vertical
walls
(b) Particle moving in a circle with uniform (c) x1 x2 (d) x1 x2
O O
speed 30. The potential energy of a simple harmonic
(c) Wave moving through a string fixed at both oscillator when the particle is half way to its end
ends point is [2003]
(d) Earth spinning about its own axis. 1 2
24. A particle is subjected to two mutually per- (a) E (b) E
pendicular simple harmonic motions such that 2 3
its x and y coordinates are given by 1 1
(c) E (d) E
æ pö 8 4
x = 2 sin wt; y = 2sin çè wt + ÷ø where E is the total energy
4
31. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion
The path of the particle will be [1994]
of amplitude 'a'. Its potential energy is maximum
(a) a straight line (b) a circle
when the displacement from the position of the
(c) an ellipse (d) a parabola
maximum kinetic energy is [2002]
25. The composition of two simple harmonic
motions of equal periods at right angle to each (a) 0 (b) ± a
other and with a phase difference of p results in (c) ± a / 2 (d) – a/2
the displacement of the particle along [1990]
32. There is a body having mass m and performing
(a) circle (b) figures of eight
S.H.M. with amplitude a. There is a restoring
(c) straight line (d) ellipse
force F = –kx. The total energy of body depends
26. A particle moving along the X-axis, executes
upon [2001]
simple harmonic motion then the force acting
(a) k, x (b) k, a
on it is given by [1988]
(c) k, a, x (d) k, a, v
(a) – A kx (b) A cos (kx)
33. In a simple harmonic motion, when the
(c) A exp (– kx) (d) Akx
displacement is one-half the amplitude, what
where, A and k are positive constants.
fraction of the total energy is kinetic? [1996]
Topic 2: Energy in Simple Harmonic Motion 1
(a) 0 (b)
27. The particle executing simple harmonic motion 4
has a kinetic energy K0 cos2 wt . The maximum 1 3

(c) (d)
values of the potential energy and the total 2 4
energy are respectively [2007] 34. A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant
(a) K0/2 and K0 (b) K0 and 2K0 2 × 106 N/m and amplitude 0.01 m has a total
(c) K0 and K0 (d) 0 and 2K0. mechanical energy of 160 J. Its [1996]
28. The potential energy of a long spring when (a) potential energy is 160 J
stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched (b) potential energy is 100 J
by 8 cm, the potential energy stored in it is (c) potential energy is zero
(a) 8 U (b) 16 U [2006] (d) potential energy is 120 J
(c) U/ 4 (d) 4 U 35. A body executes S.H.M with an amplitude A. At
29. A particle of mass m oscillates with simple what displacement from the mean position is the
harmonic motion between points x1 and x2, the potential energy of the body is one fourth of its
equilibrium position being O. Its potential total energy ? [1993]
energy is plotted. It will be as given below in (a) A/4 (b) A/2
the graph. [2003] (c) 3A/4
(d) Some other fraction of A.
EBD_8335
144 PHYSICS
36. The angular velocity and the amplitude of a m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position.
simple pendulum is w and a respectively. At a The time period of oscillation is
displacement x from the mean position if its [2018]
kinetic energy is T and potential energy is V, (a) 2p s (b) p s
then the ratio of T to V is [1991] (c) 1 s (d) 2 s
40. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion
(a 2 - x 2w 2 ) x 2w 2
(a) (b) with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is
x 2w 2 (a 2 - x 2w 2 ) at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude
x2 of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration.
(a 2 - x 2 )
(c) (d) Then its time period in seconds is [2017]
x2 (a 2 - x 2 )
5 4p
Topic 3: Time Period, Frequency, Simple (a) (b)
2p 5
Pendulum & Spring Pendulum
2p 5
37. A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended (c) (d)
3 p
by a light string, in a frame attached to the truck. 41. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths
The truck suddenly moves to the right with an of ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and
acceleration of a. The pendulum will tilt the new force constant is k'. Then they are
[NEET Odisha 2019] connected in parallel and force constant is k¢¢ .
(a) to the left and angle of inclination of the Then k' : k¢¢ is [2017]
æ gö (a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 11
pendulum with the vertical is tan–1 çè a ÷ø (c) 1 : 14 (d) 1 : 6
42. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line.
(b) to the left and angle of inclination of the Its velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the
æ gö mean position are V1 and V2, respectively. Its
pendulum with the vertical is sin–1 çè a ÷ø time period is [2015]
(c) to the left and angle of inclination of the x 22 – x12 V12 + V22
(a) 2p (b) 2p
æ aö V12 – V22 x12 + x 22
pendulum with the vertical is tan çè g ÷ø
–1
V12 – V22 x 2 – x 22
(d) to the left and angle of inclination of the (c) 2p 2 2
(d) 2p 12
x1 – x 2 V1 – V22
æ aö
43. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion.
pendulum with the vertical is sin–1 çè g ÷ø
Its maximum acceleration is a and maximum
38. A mass falls from a height ‘h’ and its time of fall velocity is b. [2015 RS]
‘t’ is recorded in terms of time period T of a simple Then its time period of vibration will be :
pendulum. On the surface of earth it is found a b2
that t = 2T. The entire set up is taken on the (a) (b)
b a
surface of another planet whose mass is half of
that of earth and radius the same. Same
2pb b2
experiment is repeated and corresponding times (c) (d)
noted as t ¢ and T ¢. a a2
Then we can say [NEET Odisha 2019] 44. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended
(a) t ¢ = 2T ¢ (b) t ¢ = T ¢ from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along
(c) t ¢ > 2T ¢ (d) t ¢ < 2T ¢ with it another mass M is also suspended, the
39. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently period of oscillation will now be [2010]
high building and is moving freely to and fro (a) T (b) T / 2
like a simple harmonic oscillator. The
acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 (c) 2T (d) 2T
Oscillations 145
45. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic 51. The time period of a mass suspended from a
motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal
a parts and the same mass is suspended from one
period T. The speed of the pendulum at x = will
2 of the parts, then the new time period will be
be: [2009] T
(a) 2T (b) [2003]
pa 3p 2 a 4
(a) (b)
T T T
(c) 2 (d)
pa 3 pa 3 2
(c) (d) 52. A body of mass M, executes vertical SHM with
T 2T
46. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end periods t1 and t2, when separately attached to
of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a spring A and spring B respectively. The period
ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass of SHM, when the body executes SHM, as
is released from rest with the spring initially shown in the figure is t0. Then [2002]
unstretched. The maximum extension produced
in the length of the spring will be: [2009]
(a) 2 Mg/k (b) 4 Mg/k A B
(c) Mg/2k (d) Mg/k
47. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of M
period T and the equation of motion is given by
x = a sin (wt + p/6). After the elapse of what (a) t0–1 = t1–1 + t2–1 (b) t0 = t1 + t2
fraction of the time period the velocity of the
point will be equal to half of its maximum velocity? (c) t02 = t12 + t22 (d) t0–2 = t1–2 + t2–2
(a) T/8 (b) T/6 [2008] 53. The amplitude of a pendulum executing simple
(c) T/3 (d) T/12 harmonic motion falls to 1/3 the original value
48. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to after 100 oscillations. The amplitude falls to S
a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown times the original value after 200 oscillations,
in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan where S is [2002]
is negligible. When pressed slightly and (a) 1/9 (b) 1/2
released the mass executes a simple harmonic
(c) 2/3 (d) 1/6
motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What
should be the minimum amplitude of the motion 54. A simple pendulum has a metal bob, which is
so that the mass gets detached from the pan negatively charged. If it is allowed to oscillate
(take g = 10 m/s2)? [2007] above a positively charged metallic plate, then
(a) 10.0 cm m its time period will [2001]
(b) any value less than 12.0 cm (a) increase (b) decrease
(c) 4.0 cm (c) become zero (d) remain the same
(d) 8.0 cm 55. Masses MA and MB hanging from the ends of
strings of lengths LA and LB are executing simple
49. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation
with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is harmonic motions. If their frequencies are fA =
T. The minimum time taken by the particle to 2fB, then [2000]
travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium (a) LA = 2LB and MA = MB/2
position is [2007] (b) LA = 4LB regardless of masses
(a) T/8 (b) T/12 (c) LA = LB/4 regardless of masses
(c) T/2 (d) T/4 (d) LA = 2LB and MA = 2MB
50. Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 are 56. The time period of a simple pendulum is 2
joined in series. The effective spring constant seconds. If its length is increased by 4-times,
of the combination is given by [2004] then its period becomes [1999]
(a) k1k2 /(k1 + k2) (b) k1k2 (a) 16 s (b) 12 s
(c) (k1 + k2) /2 (d) k1 + k2 (c) 8 s (d) 4 s
EBD_8335
146 PHYSICS
57. Two simple pendulums of length 5m and 20m with an acceleration a, then the time period is
respectively are given small linear displacement
given by T = 2p (l / g ) , where g is equal to
in one direction at the same time. They will again
be in the phase when the pendulum of shorter [1991]
length has completed ....... oscillations [1998] (a) g (b) g – a
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) g+a (d) ( g 2 + a2 )
(c) 2 (d) 3
58. A mass m is vertically suspended from a spring 65. A mass m is suspended from a two coupled
of negligible mass; the system oscillates with a springs, connected in series. The force constant
frequency n. What will be the frequency of the for springs are k1 and k2. The time period of the
system, if a mass 4 m is suspended from the suspended mass will be [1990]
same spring? [1998] m
(a) T = 2p
n k1 – k2
(a) (b) 4n
4
mk1k2
n (b) T = 2p
(c) (d) 2n k1 + k2
2
59. If the length of a simple pendulum is increased
m
by 2%, then the time period [1997] (c) T = 2p
(a) increases by 2% k1 + k2
(b) decreases by 2% m(k1 + k2 )
(c) increases by 1% (d) T = 2p
(d) decreases by 1% k1k2
60. A hollow sphere is filled with water. It is hung by
Topic 4: Damped SHM, Forced Ocillations
a long thread. As the water flows out of a hole at
& Resonance
the bottom, the period of oscillation will [1997]
(a) first increase and then decrease 66. The damping force on an oscillator is directly
(b) first decrease and then increase proportional to the velocity. The unit of the
(c) go on increasing constant of proportionality is: [2012]
(d) go on decreasing (a) kgms–1 (b) kgms–2
61. If a simple harmonic oscillator has got a (c) kgs–1 (d) kgs
displacement of 0.02 m and acceleration equal 67. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave
to 2.0 m/s2 at any time, the angular frequency of becomes very sharp when the [2003]
the oscillator is equal to [1992] (a) quality factor is small
(a) 10 rad/s (b) 0.1 rad/s (b) damping force is small
(c) 100 rad/s (d) 1 rad/s (c) restoring force is small
62. A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude A (d) applied periodic force is small
and time period T. The time required by it to 68. Resonance is an example of [1999]
travel from x = A to x = A/2 is [1992] (a) tuning fork (b) forced vibration
(a) T/6 (b) T/4 (c) free vibration (d) damped vibration
(c) T/3 (d) T/2 69. A particle, with restoring force proportional to
63. A body is executing S.H.M. When the displacement and resistve force proportional to
displacements from the mean position are 4cm velocity is subjected to a force F sin w0. If the
and 5 cm, the corresponding velocities of the amplitude of the particle is maximum for w = w1
body are 10 cm per sec and 8 cm per sec. Then and the energy of the particle is maximum for
the time period of the body is [1991] w = w2, then [1989]
(a) 2p sec (b) p/2 sec (a) w1 = w0 and w2 ¹ w0
(c) p sec (d) (3p/2)sec (b) w1 = w0 and w2 = w0
64. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof (c) w1 ¹ w0 and w2 = w0
of a trolley which moves in a horizontal direction (d) w1 ¹ w0 and w2 ¹ w0
Oscillations 147
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 9 (b) 17 (d) 25 (c) 33 (d) 41 (b) 49 (b) 57 (c) 65 (d)
2 (d) 10 (a) 18 (a) 26 (a) 34 (b) 42 (a) 50 (a) 58 (c) 66 (c)
3 (d) 11 (c) 19 (d) 27 (c) 35 (b) 43 (c) 51 (d) 59 (c) 67 (b)
4 (b) 12 (b) 20 (a) 28 (b) 36 (c) 44 (d) 52 (d) 60 (a) 68 (b)
5 (a) 13 (a) 21 (a) 29 (b) 37 (c) 45 (c) 53 (a) 61 (a) 69 (c)
6 (b) 14 (a) 22 (b) 30 (d) 38 (a) 46 (d) 54 (b) 62 (a)
7 (c) 15 (b) 23 (c) 31 (b) 39 (b) 47 (d) 55 (c) 63 (c)
8 (d) 16 (d) 24 (c) 32 (b) 40 (b) 48 (a) 56 (d) 64 (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Displacement equation of a SHM 4. (b)
y = A sin(wt + f)
dy
\ Velocity, v = = Aw cos(wt + f)
dt
dv
Acceleration, a =
dt
or, a = - Aw 2 sin(wt + f)
Given equation
\ a = Aw 2 sin(wt + f + p) y = A0 + A sin wt + B sin wt
Hence, phase difference between displacement Now assume (y – A0) = g
and acceleration is p. y – A0 = Asin wt + B sin wt
2. (d) At t = 0, y = 3, which is maximum displacement g = A sin wt + B cos wt
so equation will be cosine function. = A 2 + B2 sin (wt + f)
which is S.H.M.
where cos
B
and sin f =
A 2 + B2
so, resultant amplitude
= A 2 + B2
2 p 2p p 5. (a) In one time period total distance travelled
w= = = rad/s ( Q T = 4 s)
T 4 2 by the particle is 4A.
p 6. (b) The two displacements equations are
y = a cos wt Þ y = 3cos t y1 = a sin(wt)
2
3. (d) Displacement of the particle in one complete æ pö
and y2 = b cos(wt) = b sin ç wt + ÷
vibration is zero, so, average velocity in one è 2ø
complete vibration will be yeq = y1 + y2
Displacement yf - yi = a sinwt + b coswt
= = =0
Time interval T
EBD_8335
148 PHYSICS
æ pö y = A sinwt + B coswt Þ y = a sin (wt + f). This

= a sinwt + b sin ç wt + ÷ 2 2
è 2ø is also a equation of S.H.M where f = A +B
Since the frequencies for both SHMs are same, B
resultant motion will be SHM. A = a cos f, B = a sinf and q = tan–1
A
p 12. (b) Equation of SHM is given by
Now amplitude, Aeq = a 2 + b 2 + 2ab cos
2 x = A sin (wt + d)
(wt + d) is called phase.
Þ A eq = a 2 + b 2 A 1
When x = , then sin (wt + d) =
7. (c) Displacement, x = A cos (wt) (given) 2 2
p
dx Þ wt + d =
Velocity, v = = - Aw sin (wt) 6
dt p
or f1 =
dv 6
Acceleration, a = = - Aw 2 cos wt For second particle,
dt
Hence graph (c) correctly dipicts the variation 1
of a with t. A
v2 y2 A
8. (d) As + = 1 This is the equation 2 x = A/2
2 2 2
a w a x=0
of ellipse. Hence the graph is an ellipse. P versus p 5p
x graph is similar to v versus x graph. f2 = p - =
6 6
p \ f = f2 - f1
9. (b) y = 3sin (50t - x)
2 4p 2p
= =
p ö 6 3
æ
y = 3sin ç 25pt - x ÷ on comparing with the a
è 2 ø 13. (a) x = a sin 2 wt = (1 –cos 2wt)
2
standard wave equation
dx a
y = a sin (wt – kx) = 2 w sin 2 wt
dt 2
w 25p
Wave velocity v = = = 50 m/sec. d2x 4w2 a
k p/2 Þ = × cos 2 wt
The velocity of particle dt 2 2
This represents an S. H. M. of frequency
¶y æ p ö
vp = = 75p cos ç 25pt - x÷ w
¶t è 2 ø =
p
vp max = 75p 14. (a) acceleration, a = – kX, where, X = x + a.
v pmax 75p 3p In simple harmonic motion acceleration is
then = = directly proportional to the displacement from
v 50 2 the mean position. Also the acceleration is in
10. (a) The given velocity-position graph depicts the opposite direction of displacement.
that the motion of the particle is SHM. 15. (b) Maximum acceleration of a particle in the
In SHM, at t = 0, v = 0 and x = xmax simple harmonic motion is directly proportional
So, option (a) is correct. to the square of angular frequency i.e.,
11. (c) Only functions given in (A) & (C) represent
i.e., a µ w2
SHM.
Oscillations 149
vmax Aw
a1 w12 (100 ) 2
1 22. (b) vmax = Aw when v = =
\ a = w2 = = 2 2
2 2 (1000 ) 2 100
v = w A2 - y 2
Þ a1 : a2 = 1 : 102.
Aw 3
16. (d) Let y = A sin wt Þ = w A2 - y 2 Þ y = ± A
2 2
dy The displacement at which the speed is n times
vinst = = Aw cos wt = Aw sin(wt + p / 2)
dt
the maximum speed is given by y = a 1 - n 2
Acceleration = - Aw 2 sin wt
= Aw2sin(p + wt) 23. (c) A wave moving through a string fixed at
both ends, is a transverse wave formed as a result
p
\f = = 0.5p of simple harmonic motion of particles of the
2 string.
17. (d) In S.H.M., v max = A w = A(2pf)
p
v 31.4 24. (c) As phase difference = , the resultant
f = max = = 1 oscillation per sec. 4
2pA 2(3.14) ´ 5 path of particle is an ellipse.
18. (a) When v is maximum, a is zero 25. (c) x = a sin wt
w2 x and y = b sin (wt + p) = – b sin wt
v=w A -x ; 2 2 a=
x y b
vmax at x = 0, but at x = 0, a = 0 or, = - or y = - x
a b a
19. (d) x = A cos (wt + d ) It is an equation of a straight line.
y = A cos(wt + a ) ....(1) If two mutually perpendicular S.H.M's of same
p frequency be x = 9, sinwt and y = a2 sin (wt + f)
When d = a + then general equation of Lissajous figure is
2
æp ö x2 y2 2 xy
x = A cos ç + wt + a ÷ + – cos f = sin2 f
è2 ø a12 a22 a1 a2
x = - A sin (wt + a ) ....(2)
x2 y2 2 xy
Squaring (1) and (2) and then adding For f = p + – cos ( p ) = sin 2 ( p )
a12 a22 a1a 2
x2 + y2 = A2 [cos2 (wt + a) + sin2 (wt + a)]
or x2 + y2 = A2, which is the equation of a circle. x y -a
The present motion is anticlockwise. Þ + =0 x + y =0 Þ y = 2 x
a1 a2 a a2 a1
20. (a) Amplitude (A) = 0.01 m, Frequency = 60 Hz
Maximum acceleration 26. (a) For simple harmonic motion, F = – Kx.
= Aw 2 = 0.01 ´ (2 pn ) 2 Here, K = Ak.
27. (c) We have, U + K = E
= 0.01 ´ 4p 2 ´ 60 ´ 60 = 144p 2 m/sec2
where, U = potential energy, K = Kinetic energy,
21. (a) Equation of two simple harmonic motions E = Total energy.
y = A sin(wt + f) ....(1) Also, we know that, in S.H.M., when potential
æ p ö energy is maximum, K.E. is zero and vice-versa.
x = A sin ç wt + f + ÷
è 2ø \U max + 0 = E Þ U max = E
Þ x = A cos(wt + f) ....(2) Further,
On squaring and adding equations (1) and (2),
x2 + y2 = A2 1
K .E. = mw 2 a 2 cos 2 wt
This is an equation of a circle. Hence, resulting 2
motion will be a circular motion.
EBD_8335
150 PHYSICS
33. (d) Total energy of particle executing S.H.M.

But by question, K .E. = K0 cos 2 wt
of amplitude (A).
1
\ K0 = mw 2 a 2 1
m w 2 A2
2 E=
2
1 K.E.of the particle
Hence, total energy, E = mw 2 a 2 = K 0
2
1 æ A2 ö æ Aö
\U max = K 0 & E = K0 . = mw 2 ç A2 - ÷ ç when x = ÷
2 è 4 ø è 2ø
1 2
28. (b) The potential energy of a spring = kx
1 3 1 3
2 = mw 2 ´ A2 = ´ mw 2 A2
1 1 2 4 2 4
U= k .(2)2 = 4 ´ k
2 2 KE 3
For x = 8 cm, Clearly , =
Total Energy 4
1 2 1
Energy stored = k .(8) = 64 ´ k 34. (b) Force constant k = 2 × 106 N/m
2 2 Amplitude (x) = 0.01 m
U
= 64 ´ = 16 U 1
4 Potential Energy = kx 2
29. (b) Potential energy µ (Amplitude)2 2
µ (Displacement)2 1
= ´ (2 ´ 106 ) ´ (0.01)2 = 100 J
P.E.is maximum at maximum distance. 2
P.E. is zero at equilibrium point. 1 2 2
P.E. curve is parabolic. 35. (b) P.E = mw x .
2
1 2
30. (d) P.E. = kx = E 1
2 Total energy E = mw 2 A2
2
At half way
1 1 2 2 1 2 2
1 2 P.E. = E Þ mw x = mw A
2 kx 4 2 8
1 æ xö E
P.E. = k ç ÷ = 2 = 1
2 è 2 ø 4 4 \ x = A.
31. (b) P.E. of particle executing S.H.M. 2
1 1
= mw x
2 2 36. (c) P.E., V = mw 2 x 2
2 2
1 1 2 2 2
At x = a, P.E. is maximum i.e. = mw a
2 2 and K.E., T = mw ( a - x )
2 2
1 2 2 2 T a 2 - x2
K.E. = mw (a - x ) \ =
2 V x2
At x = 0, K.E. is maximum. Hence, displacement 37. (c) Tsinq = ma
from position of maximum Kinetic energy = + Tcosq = mg q
- a. T
32. (b) Total Energy of body performing simple a
tan q = q
g
1 1
harmonic motion = mw 2 a 2 = ka 2 fp = ma
2 2 æ aö
q = tan–1 çè g ÷ø
where k = mw2 mg
1 1
38. (a) At surface of earth time taken in falling h
T .E. = K .E. + P.E. = m(a 2 - x 2 ) w2 + mw2 x 2 distance.
2 2
Hence energy depends upon amplitude and k 2h
(spring constant). t=
g
Oscillations 151
When they are connected in series

l
and T = 2p 1 1 1 1
g = + +
k ' 6k 3k 2k
Given t = 2T 1 6
Þ =
t k ' 6k
=2
T \ Force constant k' = k
For surface of other planet And when they are connected in parallel
k" = 6k + 3k + 2k
g
g¢ = Þ k" = 11k
2 Then the ratios
Time taken in falling h distance
k' 1
2h = i.e., k' : k" = 1 : 11
t¢ = = 2t k " 11
g¢
If a spring of force constant K is divided into n
l
and T¢ = 2p = 2T equal parts then spring constant of each part
g¢ will become nk and if these n parts connected
in parallel then keff = n2 k.
t¢ 2t
Here = =2
T¢ 2T 42. (a) As we know, for particle undergoing SHM,
\ t¢ = 2T
V = w A2 – X2
39. (b) From question, acceleration, a = 20 m/s2,
and displacement, y = 5m V12 = w2 (A 2 – x12 )
|a| = w2y
Þ 20 = w2(5) V22 = w2 (A 2 – x 22 )
Þ w = 2 rad/s Substracting we get,
Time period of pendulum,
V12 V2
2p 2p + x12 = 22 + x 22
T= = = ps w 2
w
w 2
40. (b) Given, Amplitude A = 3 cm V12 – V22
When particle is at x = 2 cm Þ = x 22 – x12
w2
According to question, magnitude of velocity
= acceleration V12 – V22
Þ w=
w A 2 - x 2 = xw2 x 22 – x12
æ 2p ö
(3) 2 - (2)2 = 2 ç ÷ x 22 – x12
è T ø Þ T = 2p
V12 – V22
4p 4p
5= Þ T= 43. (c) As, we know, in SHM
T 5 Maximum acceleration of the particle, a = Aw2
41. (b) Let l be the complete length of the spring. Maximum velocity, b = Aw
Length when cut in ratio, 1 : 2 : 3 are
a
l l l Þ w=
, and b
6 3 2
1 2p 2pb é 2p ù
Spring constant (k) µ
length ( l)
Þ T=
w
=
a êëQ w = T úû
Spring constant for given segments
k1 = 6k, k2 = 3k and k3 = 2k
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152 PHYSICS
2p p
44. (d) T = 2 p
M or, .t = Þ t = T
K T 6 12
48. (a) Mass gets detached at the upper extreme
T1 M1
position when pan returns to its mean position.
\ T2
= M2 At that point, R = mg – mw2a = 0
M2 i.e. g = w2a
2M
\ T2 = T1 M1 = T 1 Þ a = g / w 2 = mg / k
M
T2 = T1 2 = 2 T (where T1 =T) 2 ´ 10 é 2 kù
Þa= êë As = w = m úû
200
If the spring has a mass M and mass m is suspended
Þ a = 1 10 m = 10cm
M
from it, effective mass is given by meff = m + 49. (b) Displacement from the mean position
3
If the two mass m1 and m 2 are connected by a æ 2p ö
y = a sin ç ÷ t
spring and made to oscillate on horizontal surface, èT ø
1 1 1 According to problem y = a/2
reduced mass = +
mr m1 m2 æ 2p ö
a 2 = a sin ç ÷ t
mr èT ø
\ Time period T = 2 p
k p æ 2p ö
Þ = ç ÷ t Þ t = T 12
a 6 è T ø
45. (c) Speed v = w a 2 - x 2 , x = This is the minimum time taken by the particle to
2
travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium
a2 3a 2 2p a 3 pa 3
\ v = w a2 - =w =T 2 = T position.
4 4 1 1 1 1 k1 + k2
46. (d) Restoring force, f ¢ = – kx 50. (a) k = k + k Þ k = k k
eq 1 2 eq 1 2
where x is the extension produced in the spring.
k1k2
Weight of the mass acting downward = Mg. Þ keq =
In equilibrium k1 + k2
Mg m
kx = Mg or x = 51. (d) T = 2p
k k
When a spring is cut into n parts
æ pö
47. (d) We have x = a sin ç w t + ÷ Spring constant for each part = nk
è 6ø Here, n = 4
dx æ pö m T
\ Velocity, v = = aw cos ç w t + ÷ T1 = 2p =
dt è 6ø 4k 2
Maximum velocity = aw 52. (d) The time period of spring mass system,
According to question,
aw æ pö m
= aw cos ç w t + ÷ T = 2p k
2 è 6ø K
æ pö 1 p m
or, cos ç w t + ÷ = = cos 60° or cos
è 6ø 2 3 m
\ t1 = 2p .....(i)
p p k1
Þ wt + =
6 3 k1 k2
p p p
wt = - or, wt =
3 6 6 m
Oscillations 153
m 1 g
t 2 = 2p 55. (c) fA =
k2 .....(ii) 2p LA
fA 1 g
When springs are connected in parallel then and f B = 2 = 2p LB
Keff = k1 + k2
fA 1 g L
m m \ = ´ 2p B
So, t 0 = 2 p Þ 2p .... (iii) fA/ 2 2p LA g
k eff ( k1+k ) 2 LB L
Þ2= Þ 4= B ,
from (i), 1 1 k LA LA
= ´ 1
2
4p 2
m regardless of mass.
t 1
l
1 1 k2 56. (d) T = 2 p Tµ l
= ´ g
from (ii), 2
4p 2 m
t 2
If l is increased by 4 times, time period will
increase by two times.
1 1 ( k1 + k 2 ) 57. (c) Let the pendulums be in phase after t sec
from (iii), = ´
2
4p 2 m of start. Within this time, if the bigger pendulum
t 0 executes n oscillations, the smaller one will have
from above expressions, executed (n + 1) oscillations.
1 1 1 20
2
= 2+ 2 Now, the time of n oscillation = 2p ń
t 0 t1 t 2 g
& the time of (n + 1) oscillation
m 5
t = 2p = 2p ´ (n + 1)
k g
To be in phase
Þ k = Const. t -2 20 5
Here the springs are joined in parallel. So 2p ´ n = 2p ´ (n + 1)
g g
k0 = k1 + k2 or, 2n = n + 1
where k0 is resultant force constant or, n = 1
Hence, the no. of oscillations executed by shorter
\ Const. t0-2 = Const. t1-2 + Const. t2-2
pendulum = n + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2
or, t0-2 = t1-2 + t2-2 1 k
58. (c) n=
53. (a) In harmonic oscillator, amplitude falls 2p m
exponentially. 1 k 1 1 k
n¢ = = ´
1 2p 4 m 2 2 p m
After 100 oscillations amplitude falls to times.
3 n
On putting the value of n we get n ' =
\ After next 100 oscillations i.e., after 200 2
2
æ1ö 1 l
oscillations amplitude falls to ç ÷ = times. 59. (c) We know that T = 2π
è3ø 9 g
54. (b) We know that the time period (T) DT 1 Dl
l 1 ´ 100 = ´ 100
= 2p µ g' = geffective T 2 l
g' g' If length is increased by 2%., time period
increases by 1%.
Since the negatively charged bob is attracted
by the positively charged plate, therefore (i) If g is constant and length varies by n %. Then
acceleration due to gravity will increase and time DT n
% change in time period ´ 100 = %
period will decrease. T 2
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154 PHYSICS
369
(ii) If l is constant and g varies by n %. Then % \ a2 =
9
DT n Putting this value in equation (2) mentioned
change in time period ´ 100 = % above,
T 2
Valid only for percentage less than 10%. 369 225
10 = w - 16 Þ 10 = w
60. (a) Time period of simple pendulum 9 9
10 ´ 3
æl ö or, w = = 2 radian / sec.
T = 2p çç ÷÷ µ l where l is effective length. 15
ègø 2p 2p
Time period = = = p sec .
[i.e distance between centre of suspension and w 2
centre of gravity of bob] 64. (d) The effective value of acceleration due to
Initially, centre of gravity is at the centre of gravity is (a 2 + g 2 )
sphere. When water leaks the centre of gravity
goes down until it is half filled; then it begins to If a simple pendulum is suspended from a trolley
go up and finally it again goes at the centre. that is moving with constant speed v around a
That is effective length first increases and then
l
circle of radius r T = 2 p
decreases. As T µ l , so time period first 2
æ v2 ö
increases and then decreases. g2 + ç ÷
ç r ÷
acceleration 2.0 è ø
(a) w = =
2
61.
displacement 0.02 65. (d) The effective spring constant of two
kk
w = 100 or w = 10 rad/s
2
springs in series; K = 1 2 .
k1 + k 2
æ 2p ö Time period,
62. (a) For S.H.M., x = A sin çè t÷
T ø
m m(k1 + k2 )
æ 2p ö T = 2p = 2p
When x = A, A = A sin ç .t K k1k2
è T ÷ø
æ 2p ö 66. (c) F µ v Þ F = kv
\ sin ç .t = 1
è T ÷ø F [kgms -2 ]
k= Þ [k ] = = kgs–1
æ 2p ö æ pö v [ms -1 ]
Þ sin çè .t ÷ = sin ç ÷ Þ t = (T/4)
T ø è 2ø 67. (b) The resonance wave becomes very sharp
when damping force is small.
A A æ 2p ö
When x = , = A sin çè .t ÷ 68. (b) We know that if frequency of an external
2 2 T ø forced oscillation is equal to the natural frequency
p æ 2p ö of the body, then amplitude of the forced oscillation
or, sin = sin ç t or t = (T/12)
6 è T ÷ø of the body becomes very large. This phenomenon
Now, time taken to travel from x = A to is known as resonant vibration. Therefore,
x = A/2 is (T/4 – T/12) = T/6 resonance is an example of forced vibration.
63. (c) For S.H.M., Velocity, 69. (c) At maximum energy of the particle, velocity
resonance takes place, which occurs when
v = w a 2 - x 2 at displacement x. frequency of external periodic force is equal to
Þ 10 = w a 2 - 16 .....(1) natural frequency of undamped vibrations, i.e.
w2 = w0.
and 8 = w a 2 - 25 .....(2) Further, amplitude resonance takes place at a
52 a 2 - 16 25 frequency of external force which is less than
Dividing, 2
= 2
= the frequency of undamped natural vibrations,
4 a - 25 16
or, 16 a - 256 = 25a 2 - 625 Þ 9a 2 = 369
2 i.e., w1 ¹ w0 .
14 Waves
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Vibration of String & Resonance Produced at Air 1 A

Organ Pipe 1 D 1 A 1 E
Beats, Interference & Beat Frequency 1 A
Superposition of Waves
Musical Sound & Doppler's
1 E 1 A
Effect
Topic 1: Basic of Mechanical Waves, (a) decreases by a factor 10

Progressive & Stationary Waves (b) increases by a factor 20
1. A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having (c) increases by a factor 10
displacement along y-direction as 1m, (d) decreases by a factor 20
1 4. A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin
wavelength 2p m and frequency Hz is (wt – kx). For what value of the wavelength is
p
represented by [2013] the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle
(a) y = sin (2px – 2pt) velocity? [2010]
(b) y = sin (10px – 20pt) pA
(a) (b) pA
(c) y = sin (2px + 2pt) 2
(d) y = sin (x – 2t) (c) 2pA (d) A
2. Two waves are represented by the equations 5. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm.
y1 = a sin (wt + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos (wt The wave travels in the + ve direction of x axis
+ kx) m, where x is in meter and t in sec. The with a speed of 128 m/sec and it is noted that
phase difference between them is [2011] 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string.
(a) 1.0 radian (b) 1.25 radian The equation describing the wave is
(c) 1.57 radian (d) 0.57 radian [2009]
3. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm (a) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x – 2010t)
air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The (b) y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x + 2010t)
wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it (c) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x – 1005t)
enters brass from warm air [2011] (d) y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t)
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156 PHYSICS
6. The wave described by y = 0.25 sin (10px – y2 = 10–6 cos{100 t + (x/50)} m

2pt), where x is expressed in metres and t is
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds, is expressed in seconds, is approximately[2004]
a wave travelling along the: [2008] (a) 1.5 radians (b) 1.07 radians
(a) –ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz. (c) 2.07 radians (d) 0.5 radians
(b) +ve x direction with frequency p Hz and
12. The equation for a transverse wave travelling
wavelength l = 0. 2 m.
along the positive x-axis with amplitude 0.2 m,
(c) +ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and
velocity v =360 ms–1 and wavelength l = 60 m
wavelength l = 0.2 m
can be written as [2002]
(d) –ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and
wavelength l = 0.2 m é æ x öù
(a) y = 0.2sin ê 2p ç 6t - ÷ ú
7. Which one of the following statements is true ? ë è 60 ø û
[2006]
(a) The sound waves in air are longitudinal é æ x öù
(b) y = 0.2sin ê p ç 6t + ÷ ú
while the light waves are transverse ë è 60 ø û
(b) Both light and sound waves in air are é æ x öù
longitudinal (c) y = 0.2sin ê p ç 6t - ÷ ú
(c) Both light and sound waves can travel in ë è 60 ø û
vacuum é æ x öù
(d) Both light and sound waves in air are y = 0.2sin ê 2p ç 6t + ÷ ú
(d)
ë è 60 øû
transverse
8. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is 13. The equation of a wave is represented by:
p é xù
represented by y ( x, t ) = 8.0sin(0.5px - 4pt - ) y = 10 -4 sin ê100 t - ú . The velocity of the
4 ë 10 û
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The wave will be [2001]
speed of the wave is [2006] (a) 100 m/s (b) 250 m/s
p (c) 750 m/s (d) 1000 m/s
(a) 0.5 p m/s (b) m/s
14. A transverse wave is represented by the
4
(c) 8 m/s (d) 4p m/s 2p
equation y = y0 sin (vt – x )
9. The time of reverberation of a room A is one l
second. What will be the time (in seconds) of For what value of l is the maximum particle
reverberation of a room, having all the velocity equal to two times the wave velocity?
dimensions double of those of room A? [2006] [1998]
py0
1 (a) l = 2py0 (b) l =
(a) 4 (b) 3
2
py0
(c) 1 (d) 2 (c) l = (d) l = py0
10. A point source emits sound equally in all 2
15. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes
directions in a non–absorbing medium. Two is formed between two atoms having a distance
points P and Q are at distances of 2 m and 3 m 1.21 Å between them. The wavelength of the
respectively from the source. The ratio of the standing wave is [1998]
intensities of the waves at P and Q is[2005] (a) 1.21 Å (b) 2.42 Å
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 6.05 Å (d) 3.63 Å
(c) 9 : 4 (d) 4 : 9 16. In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a
11. The phase difference between two waves, particular point to move from maximum
represented by displacement to zero displacement is 0.170
y1 = 10–6 sin{100 t + (x/50) + 0.5} m sec. The frequency of the wave is [1998]
Waves 157
(a) 1.47 Hz (b) 0.36 Hz (a) 13.8 m (b) 25.3 m

(c) 0.73 Hz (d) 2.94 Hz (c) 41.5 m (d) 57.2 m
17. The speed of a wave in a medium is 960 m/s. If 25. A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate
3600 waves are passing through a point in the tumours in a tissue. The operating frequency of
medium in 1 min., then the wavelength of the the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed of sound in a
wave is [1997] tissue is 1.7 km/s. The wavelength of sound in
(a) 8 m (b) 12 m tissue is close to [1995]
(c) 16 m (d) 20 m (a) 4 × 10–4 m (b) 8 × 10–4 m
18. The equation of a travelling wave is (c) 4 × 10–3 m (d) 8 × 10–3 m
y = 60 cos (180 t – 6x)
26. A standing wave is represented by y = Asin
where y is in microns, t in second and x in
metres. The ratio of maximum particle velocity (100t) cos (0.01x), where y and A are in
to velocity of wave propagation is [1997] millimetre, t in seconds and x is in metre.
(a) 3.6 (b) 3.6×10–4 Velocity of wave is [1994]
4
(c) 3.6 × 10–6 (d) 3.6×10–11 (a) 10 m/s
19. Two sound waves having a phase difference of (b) 1 m/s
60º have path difference of [1996] (c) 10–4 m/s
l
(a) 2 l (b) (d) not derivable from above data
2
27. Which of the following equations represent a
l l
(c) (d) wave? [1994]
3 6
(a) y = A sin wt
20. What is the effect of humidity on sound waves
(b) y = Acos kx
when humidity increases? [1996]
(a) speed of sound waves is more (c) y = A sin (at – bx + c)
(b) speed of sound waves is less (d) y = A (wt – kx)
(c) speed of sound waves remains same 28. A wave of frequency 100 Hz is sent along a
(d) speed of sound waves becomes zero string towards a fixed end. When this wave
21. The equation of a sound wave is given as: travels back after reflection, a node is formed
y = 0.0015 sin (62.4 x + 316 t). The wavelength of at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end of
this wave is [1996] the string. The speeds of incident (and
(a) 0.4 unit (b) 0.3 unit reflected) waves are [1994]
(c) 0.2 unit (d) 0.1 unit (a) 5 m/s (b) 10 m/s
2p (c) 20 m/s (d) 40 m/s
22. From a wave equation: y = 0.5sin (64t - x ), 29. The temperature at which the speed of sound
3.2
the frequency of the wave is [1995] becomes double as was at 27°C is [1993]
(a) 5 Hz (b) 15 Hz (a) 273° C (b) 0° C
(c) 20 Hz (d) 25 Hz (c) 927° C (d) 1027°C
23. Two waves are approaching each other with a 30. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave
velocity of 20 m/s and frequency n. The through a material medium, the quantities
distance between two consecutive nodes is transmitted in the propagation direction are
[1995] (a) Energy, momentum and mass [1992]
(b) Energy
20 10
(a) (b) (c) Energy and mass
n n (d) Energy and linear momentum
5 n 31. The frequency of sinusoidal wave y = 0.40 cos
(c) (d)
n 10 [2000 t + 0.80] would be [1992]
24. The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 m/s. If (a) 1000 p Hz (b) 2000 Hz
3600 waves are passing through a point in the
medium in 2 min, then their wavelength is 1000
(c) 20 Hz (d) Hz
[1995] p
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158 PHYSICS
32. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For lengths 9.75 cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. The
a particular sound wave in air, a path difference speed of sound in air is, [NEET Odisha 2019]
of 40 cm is equivalent to phase difference of (a) 172 m/s (b) 500 m/s
1.6 p. The frequency of this wave is [1990] (c) 156 m/s (d) 344 m/s
(a) 165 Hz (b) 150 Hz 39. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a
(c) 660 Hz (d) 330 Hz glass tube. The length of the air column in this
33. The transverse wave represented by the equation tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At
room temperature of 27°C two successive
æ pö resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
y = 4sin ç ÷ sin (3x - 15t ) has [1990]
è 6ø of column length. If the frequency of the tuning
(a) amplitude = 4 fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at
p 27°C is [2018]
(b) wavelength = 4 (a) 330 m/s (b) 339 m/s
3
(c) speed of propagation = 5 (c) 300 m/s (d) 350 m/s
40. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
p
(d) period = pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
15 organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
34. When sound waves travel from air to water,
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
which of the following remains constant?
pipe is [2018]
[1989]
(a) 13.2 cm (b) 8 cm
(a) Velocity (b) Wavelength
(c) 16 cm (d) 12.5 cm
(c) Frequency (d) All of the above
41. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at
35. Equation of a progressive wave is given by
one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and
é æ t xö pù 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of
y = 4 sin ê p ç - ÷ + ú
ë è 5 9ø 6 û the system? [2017]
Then which of the following is correct? [1988] (a) 20 Hz (b) 30 Hz
(a) v = 5 cm (b) l = 18 cm (c) 40 Hz (d) 10 Hz
(c) a = 0.04 cm (d) f = 50 Hz 42. An air column, closed at one end and open at
36. The velocity of sound in any gas depends the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the
upon [1988] smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The
(a) wavelength of sound only next larger length of the column resonating with
(b) density and elasticity of gas the same tuning fork is : [2016]
(c) intensity of sound waves only (a) 66.7 cm (b) 100 cm
(d) amplitude and frequency of sound (c) 150 cm (d) 200 cm
43. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs
Topic 2: Vibration of String & Organ Pipe
vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass
37. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A
material are slightly out of tune and produce transverse pulse of wavelength l1 is produced
beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of
slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is
to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the l2 the ratio l2/l1 is [2016]
original frequency of B will be [2020]
(a) 524 Hz (b) 536 Hz m1 m1 + m 2
(c) 537 Hz (d) 523 Hz (a) m2 (b) m2
38. A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces
resonance in a resonance column tube with m2 m1 + m 2
upper end open and lower end closed by water (c) m1 (d) m1
surface. Successive resonance are observed at
Waves 159
44. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ 1500 2000

pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second (a) cm, cm
23 23
overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends.
1500 500
The length of organ pipe open at both the ends (b) cm, cm
is [2015] 23 23
(a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm 1500 300
(c) cm, cm
(c) 140 cm (d) 80 cm 23 23
45. A string is stretched between two fixed points
300 1500
separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have (d) cm, cm
resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. 23 23
There are no other resonant frequencies 50. A string of 7 m length has a mass of 0.035 kg. If
between these two. The lowest resonant tension in the string is 60.5 N, then speed of a
frequency for this string is : [2015 RS] wave on the string is [2001, 1989]
(a) 205 Hz (b) 10.5 Hz (a) 77 m/s (b) 102 m/s
(c) 105 Hz (d) 155 Hz (c) 110 m/s (d) 165 m/s
46. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies
51. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in
of three segments into which a string is divided,
then the original fundamental frequency n of its first overtone and another pipe P2, open at
the string is given by : [2014, 2012, 2000] both ends vibrating in its third overtone are in
resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio
1 1 1 1 of lengths of P1 and P2 respectively are given
(a) = + +
n n1 n 2 n 3 by [1997]
1 1 1 1 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(b) = + +
n n1 n2 n3 (c) 3 : 8 (d) 3 : 4
(c) n= n1 + n 2 + n 3 52. A cylindrical resonance tube open at both ends,
has a fundamental frequency, 'f ' in air. If half of
(d) n = n1 + n2 + n3 the length is dipped vertically in water, the
47. The number of possible natural oscillation of fundamental frequency of the air column will
air column in a pipe closed at one end of length be
85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz
are : (velocity of sound = 340 ms– 1) [2014] (a) 2f (b) 3f/2 [1997]
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) f (d) f/2
(c) 7 (d) 6 53. A stretched string resonates with tuning fork
48. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both frequency 512 Hz when length of the string is
ends, then which of the following statements 0.5 m. The length of the string required to
is not true ? [2013] vibrate resonantly with a tuning fork of
(a) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency 256 Hz would be [1993]
frequency will be generated
(b) All harmonics of the fundamental (a) 0.25 m (b) 0.5 m
frequency will be generated (c) 1 m (d) 2m
(c) Pressure change will be maximum at both 54. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is
ends excited to support the third overtone. It is found
(d) Antinode will be at open end that air in the pipe has [1991]
49. The length of the wire between two ends of a
(a) three nodes and three antinodes
sonometer is 100 cm. What should be the
positions of two bridges below the wire so that (b) three nodes and four antinodes
the three segments of the wire have their (c) four nodes and three antinodes
fundamental frequencies in the ratio of (d) four nodes and four antinodes
1 : 3 : 5? [NEET Kar. 2013]
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160 PHYSICS
Topic 3: Beats, Interference & 60. Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and
Superposition of Waves 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N
55. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, force. Mass per unit length of both the strings
when sounded with a source of known is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the
frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of
source of unknown frequency gives five beats beats is [2009]
per second, when sounded with a source of (a) 7 (b) 8
frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is (c) 3 (d) 5
[2013] 61. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and
(a) 246 Hz (b) 240 Hz 5.5m respectively, each propagate in a gas with
(c) 260 Hz (d) 254 Hz velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following number
56. Two sources P and Q produce notes of of beats per second [2006]
frequency 660 Hz each. A listener moves from (a) 0 (b) 1
P to Q with a speed of 1 ms–1. If the speed of (c) 6 (d) 12
sound is 330 m/s, then the number of beats 62. Two vi br at i n g t un i n g for ks pr oduce
heard by the listener per second will be progressive waves given by y 1 = 4 sin 500 pt
[NEET Kar. 2013] and y 2 = 2 sin 506 pt. Number of beats
(a) zero (b) 4 produced per minute is [2005]
(c) 8 (d) 2 (a) 360 (b) 180
57. Two sources of sound placed close to each (c) 60 (d) 3
other are emitting progressive waves given by 63. Two sound sources emitting sound each of
y1 = 4 sin 600 pt and y2 = 5 sin 608 pt. An wavelength l are fixed at a given distance apart.
observer located near these two sources of A listener moves with a velocity u along the line
sound will hear : [2012] joining the two sources. The number of beats
(a) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio heard by him per second is [2000]
25 : 16 between waxing and waning. u 2u
(b) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio (a) (b)
2l l
25 : 16 between waxing and waning
(c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio u u
(c) (d)
81 : 1 between waxing and waning l 3l
(d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 64. Two waves of lengths 50 cm and 51 cm produce
81 : 1 between waxing and waning 12 beats per sec. The velocity of sound is [1999]
58. Two identical piano wires kept under the same (a) 306 m/s (b) 331 m/s
tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 (c) 340 m/s (d) 360 m/s
Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of 65. Two waves of the same frequency and intensity
one of the wires which will lead to occurrence superimpose each other in opposite phases.
of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate After the superposition, the intensity and
together would be [2011M] frequency of waves will [1996]
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 (a) increase (b) decrease
(c) 0.04 (d) 0.01 (c) remain constant (d) become zero
59. A tuning fork of freqqency 512 Hz makes 4 66. A source of sound gives 5 beats per second,
beats per second with the vibrating string of a when sounded with another source of
piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats frequency 100/sec. The second harmonic of the
per sec when the tension in the piano string is source, together with a source of frequency
slightly increased. The frequency of the piano 205/sec gives 5 beats per second. What is the
string before increasing the tension was [2010] frequency of the source? [1995]
(a) 510 Hz (b) 514 Hz (a) 95 sec–1 (b) 100 sec–1
(c) 105 sec–1 (d) 205 sec–1
(c) 516 Hz (d) 508 Hz
Waves 161
67. For production of beats the two sources must

have [1992]
(a) different frequencies and same amplitude
(b) different frequencies
(c) different frequencies, same amplitude and 60°
S O
same phase (a) 103 Hz (b) 106 Hz
(d) different frequencies and same phase (c) 97 Hz (d) 100 Hz
68. A wave has S.H.M whose period is 4 seconds 73. A speeding motorcyclist sees trafic jam ahead
while another wave which also possess SHM
of him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds
has its period 3 seconds. If both are combined,
that traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of
then the resultant wave will have the period equal
him at 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of
to [1993]
(a) 4 seconds (b) 5 seconds 1392 Hz. If the speeds of sound is 343 m/s,
(c) 12 seconds (d) 3 seconds the frequency of the honk as heard by him will
69. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and the be : [2014]
frequency is reduced to one fourth, the (a) 1332 Hz (b) 1372 Hz
intensity of sound at the same point will be (c) 1412 Hz (d) 1464 Hz
[1989] 74. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards
(a) increasing by a factor of 2 a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency
(b) decreasing by a factor of 2 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object
(c) decreasing by a factor of 4 gets reflected back to the train as echo. The
(d) unchanged frequency of the echo as detected by the driver
of the train is : [2012M]
Topic 4: Musical Sound & Doppler's Effect
(speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)
70. Two cars moving in opposite directions (a) 3500 Hz (b) 4000 Hz
approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and (c) 5000 Hz (d) 3000 Hz
16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first 75. The driver of a car travelling with speed
car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. 30 m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of
The frequency heard by the driver of the second frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in
car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s] : [2017] air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected
(a) 361 Hz (b) 411 Hz sound as heard by driver is [2009]
(c) 448 Hz (d) 350 Hz (a) 555.5 Hz (b) 720 Hz
71. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz (c) 500 Hz (d) 550 Hz
moves away from an observer towards a cliff 76. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car
at a speed of 15ms–1. Then, the frequency of driver sounds a horn of frequency f. The
sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected sound heard by the driver has
reflected from the cliff is : [2016] frequency 2f. If v be the velocity of sound, then
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms–1) the velocity of the car, in the same velocity
(a) 765 Hz (b) 800 Hz units, will be [2004]
(c) 838 Hz (b) 885 Hz (a) v /2 (b) v /Ö2
72. A source of sound S emittin g waves of (c) v /3 (d) v /4
frequency 100 Hz and an observor O are located 77. An observer moves towards a stationary source
at some distance from each other. The source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of
is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms–1 at an angle sound. The wavelength and frequency of the
of 60° with the source observer line as shown sound emitted are l and f respectively. The
in the figure. The observor is at rest. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by
apparent frequency observed by the observer the observer are respectively. [2003]
is (velocity of sound in air 330 ms–1) (a) 0.8f, 0.8l (b) 1.2f, 1.2l
[2015 RS] (c) 1.2f, l (d) f, 1.2l
EBD_8335
162 PHYSICS
78. A whistle of frequency 385 Hz rotates in a perceives the sound to have a frequency n + n1.
horizontal circle of radius 50 cm at an angular Then (if the sound velocity in air is 300 m/s)
speed of 20 radians s–1. The lowest frequency [1998]
heard by a listener a long distance away at rest (a) n1 = 10n (b) n1 = 0
with respect to the centre of the circle, given (c) n1 = 0.1n (d) n1 = – 0.1n
velocity of sound equal to 340 ms–1, is [2002] 81. A star, which is emitting radiation at a
(a) 396 Hz (b) 363 Hz wavelength of 5000 Å, is approaching the earth
(c) 374 Hz (d) 385 Hz with a velocity of 1.50 × 106 m/s. The change
79. A source and an observer move away from each in wavelength of the radiation as received on
other, with a velocity of 10m/s with respect to the earth is [1996]
ground. If the observer finds the frequency of (a) 0.25 Å (b) 2.5 Å
sound coming from the source as 1950 Hz, then (c) 25 Å (d) 250 Å
original frequency of source is (velocity of 82. Two trains move towards each other with the
sound in air = 340 m/s) [2001] same speed. The speed of sound is 340 m/s. If
(a) 1950 Hz (b) 2068 Hz the height of the tone of the whistle of one of
(c) 2132 Hz (d) 2486 Hz them heard on the other changes 9/8 times, then
80. A vehicle, with a horn of frequency n is moving the speed of each train should be [1991]
with a velocity of 30 m/s in a direction (a) 20 m/s (b) 2 m/s
perpendicular to the straight line joining the (c) 200 m/s (d) 2000 m/s
observer and th e vehicle. The observer
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 11 (b) 21 (d) 31 (d) 41 (a) 51 (c) 61 (c) 71 (c) 81 (c)
2 (a) 12 (a) 22 (c) 32 (c) 42 (c) 52 (c) 62 (b) 72 (a) 82 (a)
3 (c) 13 (d) 23 (b) 33 (c) 43 (b) 53 (d) 63 (b) 73 (c)
4 (c) 14 (d) 24 (b) 34 (c) 44 (b) 54 (d) 64 (a) 74 (c)
5 (c) 15 (a) 25 (a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 65 (c) 75 (b)
6 (c) 16 (a) 26 (a) 36 (b) 46 (a) 56 (b) 66 (c) 76 (c)
7 (a) 17 (c) 27 (c) 37 (a) 47 (d) 57 (d) 67 (b) 77 (c)
8 (c) 18 (b) 28 (c) 38 (d) 48 (c) 58 (a) 68 (c) 78 (c)
9 (d) 19 (d) 29 (c) 39 (b) 49 (a) 59 (d) 69 (c) 79 (b)
10 (c) 20 (a) 30 (b) 40 (a) 50 (c) 60 (a) 70 (c) 80 (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) The standard equation of a wave travelling \ Y = 1 sin (x – 2t) [Q Amplitude, A = 1 m]
along x-axis (+ve direction) is given by,
Y = A sin (kx – wt) where, If the sign between t and x terms is negative the
angular frequency, w = 2pf wave is propagating along +(ve) X-axis and if the
sign is positive then wave moves in –(ve) X-axis
2p 1
Þ =2 [Q f = ] direction.
p p
2. (a) Here, y1 = a sin (wt + kx + 0.57)
2p 2p
angular wave number, k = Þ =1 so, f1 = 0.57
l 2p
[Q l = 2 p] and y2 = a cos (wt + kx)
Waves 163
ép ù 7. (a) Sound waves in air are longitudinal and the

= a sin ê + ( wt + kx ) ú light waves are transverse.
ë 2 û
so, f2 = p/2 Sound waves are longitudinal waves and require
medium for their propagation.
Phase difference, Df = f2– f1 Light waves i.e., electromagnetic waves are
p 3.14 transverse in nature and do not require medium
= - 0.57 = - 0.57 = 1.57 – 0.57
for their propagation.
2 2
= 1 radian 8. (c) Speed of a wave represented by the
3. (c) We have, v = nl equation
Þ v µ l (as n remains constant) w
y(x, t) = A sin (kx – wt + f) is v =
Thus, as v increases 10 times, l also increases k
10 times. By comparison, w = 4p; k = 0.5p
4. (c) y = A sin (wt – kx) w 4p
v= = = 8 m/sec
Particle velocity, k 0.5p
9. (d) The time gap between the initial direct
dy
vp = = A wcos (wt – kx) note and the reflected note upto the minimum
dt andibility level is called reverberation time.
\ vp max = Aw Sabine has shown that standard reverberation
w time for an auditorium is given by the formula
wave velocity =
k V
w TR = K
\ Aw = aS
k Where, V is volume of the auditorium, S is the
1 2p
i.e., A = But k = K .V
k l surface area. So, TR = = 1 (given)
aS
\ l= 2pA
K . l3
w TR =
5. (c) A = 2cm, = 128 ms–1, 5l = 4, l = 6al 2
k (Assuming auditorium to be cubic in shape)
4 K
m = l
5 6a
y = A sin (kx – wt), So, TR a l
2p 2p ´ 5 31.4 If dimension is doubled, reverberation time t
k= Þ = = 7.85
l 4 4 will be doubled. So, New TR = 2 sec.
y = 0.02 m sin (7.85x – 1005 t) 10. (c) Intensity = Energy/sec/unit area
w = 128 × 7.85 = 1005 Area µ r2 Þ I µ 1/r2
6. (c) y = 0.25 sin (10 px – 2pt) I1 r22 32 9
Comparing this equation with the standard wave Þ I = 2 = 2 =4
2 r1 2
equation
11. (b) y1 = 10–6 sin (100 t + x/50 + 0.5)m
y = a sin (kx – wt)
We get, k = 10p = 10–6 cos (100 t + x/50 – p/2 +
0.5)m
2p
Þ = 10p Þ l = 0.2 m y2 = 10–6 cos (100 t + x/50)m
l
And w = 2p or, 2pv = 2p Þ v = 1Hz. \ f = p/2 – 0.5 = 1.07 rad
The sign inside the bracket is negative, hence 12. (a) As we know that, velocity v = nl
the wave travels in +ve x-direction. v 360
Þ frequency, n = = =6
l 60
EBD_8335
164 PHYSICS
Amplitude, a = 0.2 2p
For a wave travelling along positive x-axis w = 180, k = 6 Þ =6
l
y = a sin (wt – kx) Wave velocity,
æ 2 px ö w 2p l 180
= a sin çè 2pnt - ÷ v= = ´ = = 30 m/s
l ø k T 2p 6
æ xö æ xö Differentiating (1) w.r.t. t,
= a sin 2p çè nt - ÷ø = 0.2sin 2p çè 6t - ÷ø Particle velocity,
l 60
dy
é xù vp = = -60 ´180 sin(180t - 6 x )
13. (d) y = 10-4 sin ê100t - ú dt
ë 10 û
vp max = 60 × 180 mm/s
æ 100 ö –1 = 10800 mm/s = 0.0108 m/s
frequency, n = ç ÷ sec , l = 2p10 m
è 2p ø vp max 0.0108
= = 3.6 ´ 10-4
æ 100 ö
÷ ( 2p´ 10 ) = 1000 m/s
v 30
velocity n = ln = ç
è 2p ø Wave velocity (v) is the distance travelled by the
2p disturbance in one second. It only depends on the
14. (d) y = y0 sin (vt - x )
properties of the medium and is independent of
l
Particle velocity, time and position.
dy 2p 2p l wl w
= y0 ´ v cos (vt - x ) V = nl =
T
=
2p
=
k
dt l l
2pv p
Maximum particle velocity = y0 ´ 19. (d) Phase difference = 60° =
l 3
Wave velocity = v [given] l
2pv Path difference = (phase diff .)
So, y0 ´ = 2v 2p
l l p l
l = p × y0 = ´ =
2p 3 6
15. (a) Let l be length of string
ælö g RT
l = ç ÷2 Þ l = l 20. (a) Velocity of sound =
M
è2ø
Hence, the wave length of standing wave When water vapour are present in air, average
Þ l = l = 1.21Å molecular weight of air decreases and hence
16. (a) Time taken to move from maximum to velocity increases.
21. (d) y = 0.0015 sin (62.4x + 316t)
T
zero displacement = On comparing with y = A sin (wt + kx)
4
w = 316, k = 62.4
\ Time period T = 4 × 0.170 second
2p
1 1 Þk= = 62.4 Þ l = 0.1 unit
\ Frequency, n = = = 1.47 Hz l
T 4 ´ 0.170 2p
17. (c) Given speed of wave (v) = 960m/s 22. (c) Given, y = 0.5 sin (64t - x )
3.2
Frequency of wave (f) = 3600/ min Standard equation of the wave is :
3600 2p
= rev/sec = 60 rev per sec. y = a sin
l
( vt - x)
60
v 960 Comparing the given equation with the standard
Wavelength of waves (l) = = = 16m. equation, we get v = 64 and l = 3.2. Therefore,
f 60
18. (b) y = 60 cos (180t – 6x) ....(1) frequency = 64 = 20 Hz .
3.2
Waves 165
23. (b) Distance between two successive nodes 2000 1000

l v 20 10 æ vö n Þ = Hz
2p p
Þ = Þ = çè where l = ÷ø
2 2n 2n n n l
24. (b) Speed of the wave (v) = 760 m/s; 32. (c) From Dx = Df,
2p
Number of waves = 3600 Dx 2p(0.4)
and time taken (t) = 2 min = 120 sec. l = 2p = = 0.5m
Df 1.6p
Frequecny of waves
v 330
3600 f = = = 660 Hz
(n) = = 30 / sec. l 0.5
120
æpö
v 760 33. (c) Given y = 4sin ç ÷ sin (3x - 15t )
\wavelength of waves (l) = = = 25.3m è6ø
n 30
25. (a) Frequency (n) = 4.2 MHz = 4.2 × 106 Hz Compare the given equation with standard form
and speed of sound (v) = 1.7 km/s = 1.7 × 103 m/ é 2px 2pt ù
y = A sin ê -
s. Wave length of sound in tissue, ë l T úû
v 1.7 ´ 103 2p 2p 2p
l= = = 4 ´ 10-4 m where, = 3, l = and = 15
n 4.2 ´106 l 3 T
26. (a) The wave equation is y = Asin (wt)cos 2p
(kx); T=
15
c = w/k = 100/0.01 = 104 m/s. Speed of propagation,
27. (c) y = A sin (at – bx + c) represents a wave, l 2p / 3
where a may correspond to w and b may v= = =5
T 2p /15
correspond to K. 34. (c)
28. (c) As fixed end is a node, therefore, distance 35. (b) The standard equation of a progressive
between two consecutive nodes wave is
l é æ t xö ù
= = 10 cm. y = a sin ê 2 p ç - ÷ + f ú
2 è T l ø
ë û
l = 20 cm = 0.2 m
The given equation can be written as
As v = nl \ v = 100 × 0.2 = 20 m/s
29. (c) We have c µ T é æ t x ö pù
y = 4 sin ê2 p ç - ÷ + ú
ë è 10 18 ø 6û
c1 T
\ = 1 \ a = 4 cm, T = 10 s, l = 18 cm and f = p/6
c2 T2
Hence, (b) is correct.
c1 (27 + 273)k 36. (b) Velocity of sound in any gas depends upon
Þ = density and elasticity of gas.
2c2 T2
1 T
Þ T2 = 1200 k = 927°C 37. (a) Frequency of string, f =
30. (b) With the propagation of a longitudinal 2l m
wave, energy alone is propagated. Frequency µ Tension
Energy is propagated along with the wave motion Difference of fA and fB is 6 Hz.
without any net transport of the matter. If tension decreases, fB decreases and becomes
f 'B.
31. (d) Given y = 0.40 cos [2000t + 0.80] Now, difference of fA and f 'B = 7 Hz (increases)
Comparing with the standard equation So, fA > fB
y = A cos(2pnt + f) fA – fB = 6 Hz
We get angular frequency, 2pn = 2000 Þ fA = 530 Hz Þ fB = 524 Hz (original)
EBD_8335
166 PHYSICS
38. (d) l1 = 9.75 cm 42. (c) For a closed organ pipe first minimum
l2 = 31.25 cm resonating length
l
l3 = 52.75 cm L1 = = 50 cm
4
e = end correction \ Next or second resonating length, L2
l 3l
+ e = 9.75 cm ...(i) Þ = 150 cm
4 4
3l If an open pipe is half submerged in water, it will
+ e = 31.25 cm ...(ii)
4 become a closed organ pipe of length half that of
3l l a open pipe. It’s fundamental frequency will
– = 31.25 – 9.75 become
4 4
l V V
n¢ = = equal to that of open pipe.
= 21.5 ælö 2 l
2 4ç ÷
è2ø
l = 43 cm
43. (b) From figure, tension T1 = m2g
v=l×f
T2 = (m1 + m2)g
v = 34400 × 10–2 As we know
Rigid support
\ v = 344 ms–1 Velocity µ T

39. (b) Two successive resonance are produced T2
So, l µ T
at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length m1
L
l l1 T
\ = (73 – 20) × 10–2 m Þ = 1 T1
2 l2 T2
Þ l = 2 × (73 – 20) × 10–2 m2
Velocity of sound, v = nl l2 m1 + m2
Þ =
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2 l1 m2
= 339.2 ms–1 44. (b) Fundamental frequency of closed organ
40. (a) For closed organ pipe, third harmonic pipe,
(2 N – 1)V 3V v
n= = (Q N = 2) vc =
4l 4l 4lc
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequenty Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe
NV V v
n= = (Q N = 1) v0 =
2l 2l ¢ 2l0
3V V Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe
According to question, =
4l 2l ¢ 3v
=
4l 2l 2 ´ 20 2l0
Þ l¢ = = = = 13.33 cm
3´ 2 3 3 v 3v
41. (a) Difference in two successive frequencies From question, =
4lc 2l0
of closed pipe,
Þ l0 = 6lc = 6 × 20 = 120 cm
2v 45. (c) Resonant frequencies, for a string fixed
Þ 260 – 220 = 40 Hz
4l at both ends, will be
2v nn
or = 40 Hz fn = where, n = 1, 2, 3.....
4l 2L
v The difference between two consecutive
Þ = 20Hz
4l resonant frequency is,
Which is the fundamental frequency of system (n + 1)n nn n
of closed organ pipe. Afn = f n +1 - f n Þ - =
2L 2L 2L
Waves 167
which is also the lowest resonant frequency 48. (c) Pressure change will be minimum at both
(n = 1). ends. In fact, pressure variation is maximum at
Thus, for the given string the lowest resonant l/2 because the displacement node is pressure
frequency will be antinode.
= 420 Hz – 315 Hz 1 T
= 105 Hz 49. (a) From formula, f =
x m
75 cm 1
Þ f µ
l
1 1 1
\ l1 : l2 : l3 = : :
f1 f 2 f3
The difference between any two successive = f2 f3 : f1 f3 : f1 f2
frequencies will be 'n' [Given: f1 : f2 : f3 = 1 : 3 : 5]
According to question, n = 420 – 315 = 105 Hz = 15 : 5 : 3
So the lowest frequency of the string is Therefore the positions of two bridges below
105 Hz. the wire are
In a stretched string all multiples of frequencies 15 ´ 100 15 ´100 + 5 ´100
cm and cm
can be obtained i.e., if fundamental frequency is n 15 + 5 + 3 15 + 5 + 3
then higher frequencies will be 2n, 3n, 4n ...
i.e., 1500 cm, 2000 cm
l1 l2 l3 23 23
46. (a)
50. (c) Given : Length (l) = 7 m
Mass (M) = 0.035 kg and tension (T) = 60.5 N.
1 T
n= Therefore, mass of string per unit length (m) =
2l m
0.035
1 = 0.005 kg / m
or, n µ or nl = constant, K 7
l
\ n1l1 = K, T
speed of wave, =
n2l2 = K, n3l3 = K m
Also, l = l1 + l2 +l3 60.5
Þ = 110 m/s
K K K K 0.005
or, = + +
n n1 n2 n3 51. (c) We know that the length of pipe closed at
3l
1 1 1 1 one end for first overtone (l1) =
or, n = n + n + n 4
1 2 3 and length of the open pipe for third overtone
47. (d) In case of closed organ pipe frequency, 4l
v (l2) = = 2l .
fn = (2n + 1) 2
4l
l 3l / 4 3
for n = 0, f0 = 100 Hz Therefore, the ratio of lengths 1 = =
l2 2l 8
n = 1, f1 = 300 Hz or l1 : l2 = 3 : 8.
n = 2, f2 = 500 Hz In an open pipe all harmonics are present whereas
n = 3, f3 = 700 Hz in a closed organ pipe only alternate harmonies of
n = 4, f4 = 900 Hz frequencies are present. Hence musical sound
n = 5, f5 = 1100 Hz produced by an open organ pipe is sweeter than
n = 6, f6 = 1300 Hz that produced by a closed organ pipe.
Hence possible natural oscillation whose 52. (c) Fundamental frequency of open pipe,
frequencies < 1250 Hz = 6(n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) v
f =
2l
EBD_8335
168 PHYSICS
When half of tube is filled with water, then the æ Tö

æ 1 ö
Þ log f = log ç ÷ + log ç ÷
æ lö è 2l ø
length of air column becomes half ç l ' = ÷ and è mø
è 2ø
the pipe becomes closed. æ 1 ö 1 æT ö
Þ log ç ÷ + log ç ÷
So, new fundamental frequency è 2l ø 2 èmø
v v v
f '= = = æ 1 ö 1
4l ' ælö 2l or log f = log ç ÷ + [log T - log m]
4ç ÷ è 2l ø 2
è 2ø
Clearly f ¢ = f. Differentiating both sides, we get
1 df 1 dT
1 éT ù 2
= (as l and m are constants)
53. (d) f = ê ú . When f is halved, the f 2 T
2l ë m û dT df
length is doubled. Þ = 2´
T f
54. (d) Third overtone has a frequency 7 n, which
Here df = 6
7l
means L = = three full loops + one half f = 600 Hz
4
loop, which would make four nodes and four dT 2 ´ 6
\ = = 0.02
antinodes. T 600
55. (d) When sounded with a source of known 59. (d) The frequency of the piano string
frequency fundamental frequency = 512 ± 4 = 516 or 508. When the tension is
= 250 ± 4 Hz = 254 Hz or 246 Hz increased, beat frequency decreases to 2, it
2nd harmonic if unknown frequency (sup- means that frequency of the string is 508 as
pose) 254 Hz = 2 × 254 = 508 Hz frequency of string increases with tension.
As it gives 5 beats 60. (a) The frequency of vibration of a string is
\ 508 + 5 = 513 Hz
Hence, unknown frequency is 254 Hz 1 T
given by, f = where m is mass per unit
Df n 2l m
56. (b) =
f c length.
(Beats) 2 n 1 T 1 T
Þ = f1 = , f2 = ,
f c 2l1 m 2l2 m
2 fv 1 T (l1 - l2 )
Þ Beats = =4
c f2 – f1 =
2 m l1 l 2
57. (d) 2p f1 = 600 p
f1 = 300 ... (1) T 20
= = 2 ´ 102 = 1.414 × 100
2p f2 = 608 p m 10 –3
f2 = 304 ... (2)
= 141.4
|f1 – f2| = 4 beats
l1 - l2 (51.6 - 49.1) ´ 10 2
I max ( A1 + A2 )2 (5 + 4)2 81
= = = l1 l 2 = 51.6 ´ 49.1
I min ( A1 + A2 )2 (5 – 4) 2 1
where A1, A2 are amplitudes of given two sound 2.5 ´ 102 1
= =
wave. 50 ´ 50 10
1 T 1 1
58. (a) For fundamental mode, f = \ f2 – f1= ´ 141.4 ´ = 7 beats
2l m 2 10
Taking logarithm on both sides, we get
Waves 169
61. (c) Frequencies of sound waves ar e 66. (c) Frequency of first source with 5 beats/ sec
330 330 = 100 Hz and frequency of second source with 5
and beats/sec = 205 Hz. The frequency of the first
5 5.5
source = 100 ± 5 = 105 or 95 Hz. Therefore,
i.e., 66 Hz and 60 Hz frequency of second harmonic of source = 210
Frequency of beat = 66 – 60 = 6 per second Hz or 190 Hz. As the second harmonic gives 5
Beat frequency is the number of beats produced beats/ second with the sound of frequency 205
per second. Hz, therefore, frequency of second harmonic
n = n1 ~ n2
source should be 210 Hz or frequency of source
62. (b) Equation of progressive wave is given by = 105 Hz.
y = A sin2pf t 67. (b) For production of beats different
Given y1 = 4sin500 pt and y2 = 2sin506pt. frequencies are essential. The different
Comparing the given equations with equation amplitudes affect the minimum and maximum
of progressive wave, we get amplitude of the beats and different phases
2f1 = 500 Þ f1 = 250 affect the time of occurrence of minimum and
2f2 = 506 Þ f2 = 253 maximum.
Beats = f2– f1 = 253 – 250 = 3 beats/sec 68. (c) Beats are produced. Frequency of beats
= 3 × 60 = 180 beats/minute.
will be 1 - 1 = 1 . Hence time period = 12 s.
63. (b) Frequency received by listener from the 3 4 12
rear source, Beat period (T) is the time interval between two
v -u v -u v v-u successive beats.
n¢ = ń = ´ =
v v l l 1 1
T= =
Frequency received by listener from the front Beat frequency n1 – n2
source,
69. (c) Intensity is proportional to (amplitude)2
v+u v v+u and also intensity a (frequency)2. Therefore,
n¢¢ = ´ =
v l l
No. of beats = n'' – n' 22 1
intensity becomes = th
2 4
v+u v -u v + u - v + u 2u 4
= - = =
l l l l 70. (c) As we known from Doppler’s Effect
64. (a) Given : Wavelength of first wave (l1)
é v + v0 ù é 340 + 16.5 ù
= 50 cm = 0.5 m fapprent = f0 ê v - v ú = 400 ê ú
Wavelength of second wave (l2) ë sû ë 340 - 22 û
= 51 cm = 0.51m fapprent = 448 Hz
frequency of beats per sec (n) = 12. vs = 22 m/s v0= 16.5 m/s
We know that the frequency of beats, A B
v v f0= 400 Hz
n = 12 = l - l 71. (c) According to Doppler's effect in sound
1 2
é 1 1 ù
Þ 12 = v ê - ú Observer source 15 m/s
ë 0.5 0.51 û
= v[2 - 1.9608] = v ´ 0.0392
12 Apparent frequency,
or, v = = 306 m/s v
0.0392 n¢ = n0
[where, v = velocity of sound] v - vs
65. (c) After the superposition, frequency and
intensity of waves will remain constant. =
330
(800 ) = 330 ´ 800 = 838 Hz
330 - 15 315
EBD_8335
170 PHYSICS
The frequency of sound observer hears in the 75. (b) From the given condition
echo reflected from the cliff is 838 Hz.
72. (a) Here, original frequency of sound, f0 = 100 f f' f" f'
–1 –1
Hz S 30 ms O O 30 ms S
f¢ is the apparent frequency received by an
Speed of source Vs = 19.4 cos 60° = 9.7
observer at the hill. f¢¢ is the frequency of the
19.4
reflected sound as heard by driver.
v
f '= f and
v - 30
v + 30 v + 30 360
f"= f' Þ f= ´ 600
alc v v - 30 300
60° = 720 Hz
S O 76. (c) Let f ' be the frequency of sound heard by
19.4 cos 60° = 9.7 cliff.
From Doppler's formula
vf
\f = ....(1)
æ V - V0 ö v - vc
f¢ = f0 ç ÷
è V - Vs ø Now, for the reflected wave, cliff acts as a
source,
æ V-0 ö
f¢ = 100 ç ÷ f ¢ (v + v c )
è V - (+9.7) ø \2 f = ....(2)
v
V 100 (v + vc ) f
f¢ = 100 = 2f =
æ 9.7 ö æ 9.7 ö v - vc
V ç1 - ÷ ç1 - ÷
è V ø è 330 ø
v
= 103Hz Þ 2v – 2 vc = v + vc or= vc
Apparent frequency ff = 103 Hz 3
73. (c) According to Doppler’s effect 77. (c) Wavelength remains constant (unchanged)
Apparent frequency, in this case.
æ v + v0 ö æ 343 + 10 ö æ u + u / 5ö 6
n¢ = n ç ÷ = 1392 ç ÷. f apparent = ç f = f = 1.2 f
è u ÷ø 5
è v + vs ø è 343 + 5 ø
= 1412 Hz 78. (c) Velocity of source, vs = rw
74. (c) Frequency of the echo detected by the = 0.50 × 20 = 10 ms–1
driver of the train is æ v ö 340 ´ 385
(According to Doppler effect in sound) n¢ = ç ÷n = = 374 Hz
è v + vs ø 340 + 10
æ v + uö 79. (b) According to Doppler’s effect
f '= ç f
è v - u ÷ø
æ v - v0 ö æ 340 - 10 ö 330
where f = original frequency of source of sound n' = ç ÷n = ç ÷n = ´ 1950
f ¢ = Apparent frequency of source because of è v - v sø è 340 + 10 ø 350
the relative motion between source and = `068 Hz
observer. 80. (b) As the source is not moving towards or
away from the observer in a straight line, so the
æ 330 + 220 ö Doppler’s effect will not be observed by the
f '= ç 1000 = 5000 Hz
è 330 - 220 ÷ø observer.
Velocity of sound direction is always taken from
If source and observer both are relatively at rest
source to observer. All the velocities in the
and if speed of sound is increased then frequency
direction of v are positive and in the opposite
heard by observer will not change.
direction of v are taken negative.
Waves 171
81. (c) Given : Wavelength (l) = 5000 Å [where Dl = Change in the wavelength]
velocity of star (v) = 1.5 × 106 m/s. 9
We know that wavelength of the approaching 82. (a) Here, n¢ = n
8
æc-vö Source and observer are moving in opposite
star (l¢) = l ç ÷ direction, therefore, apparent frequency
è c ø
l¢ c - v v (v + u )
or, = = 1- n¢ = n ´
l c c (v - u)
v l ¢ l - l ¢ Dl 9 æ 340 + u ö
or, = 1- = = n = n´ç ÷
c l l l 8 è 340 - u ø
Þ 9 × 340 – 9u = 8 × 340 + 8u
v 1.5 ´ 106
Therefore, Dl = l ´ = 5000 ´ = 25Å 340
c 3 ´ 108 Þ 17u = 340 ´ 1 Þ u = = 20 m/sec.
17
EBD_8335
172 PHYSICS
15 Electric Charges
and Fields
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Charges & Coulomb's Law Coulomb’s Law 1 A 1 D
Electrostatic Force 1 D 1 A
Electric Field, Electric Field Electric Field 1 A 1 A
Lines & Dipole
Electric Flux & Gauss's Law Gauss’s Law 1 E
Topic 1: Charges & Coulomb's Law 3. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron
differ slightly. One of them is – e, the other is
1. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q (e + De). If the net of electrostatic force and
and –Q respectively, are placed at certain gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms
distance apart and force acting between them is placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic
F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then size) apart is zero, then De is of the order of
force between the charges becomes : [2019] [Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg]
9F [2017]
(a) F (b) (a) 10–23C (b) 10–37 C
16
(c) 10–47 C (d) 10–20 C
16 F 4F 4. Two identical charged spheres suspended from
(c) (d)
9 3 a common point by two massless strings of
2. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d << l)
of radius 2R respectively have the same surface apart because of their mutual repulsion. The
charge density s. They are brought in contact charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a
and separated. What will be the new surface constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach
charge densities on them? [NEET Odisha 2019] each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a
function of the distance x between the spheres,
5 5 as : [2016]
(a) s1 = s, s2 = s
3 6 1
5 5 (a) vµ x2 (b) v µ x
(b) s1 = s, s2 = s 1
6 2 -
5 5 (c) v µx 2 (d) v µ x–1
(c) s1 = s, s2 = s 5. Two pith balls carrying equal charges are
2 6
suspended from a common point by strings of
5 5 equal length. The equilibrium separation
(d) s1 = s, s2 = s
2 3 between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly
Electric Charges and Fields 173
clamped at half the height. The equilibrium 10. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium
separation between the balls now become of force constant K, the maximum force of
[2013] attraction between two charges, separated by a
distance [1999]
(a) decreases K-times
(b) increases K-times
y (c) remains unchanged
y/2 1
(d) becomes times
K2
æ r ö æ 2r ö 11. Point charges + 4q, –q and +4q are kept on the
(a) ç3 ÷ (b) ç ÷
è 2ø è 3ø X-axis at points x = 0, x =a and x = 2a respectively.
2 Then [1988]
æ 2r ö æ r ö (a) only – q is in stable equilibrium
(c) ç 3 ÷ (d) ç ÷
è ø è 2ø (b) none of the charges is in equilibrium
6. A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of the line (c) all the charges are in unstable equilibrium
joining two equal charges ‘Q’. The system of (d) all the charges are in stable equilibrium.
the three charges will be in equilibrium if ‘q’ is Topic 2: Electric Field, Electric Field
equal to [NEET Kar. 2013, 1995] Lines & Dipole
(a) Q/2 (b) – Q/4
(c) Q/4 (d) – Q/2 12. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a
7. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.
are given charges of –1×10–2 C and 5×10–2 C, What is the magnitude of electric field at a point
respectively. If these are connected by a 15 cm from the centre of the sphere? [2020]
conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger æ 1 ö
sphere is : [2012M] ç = 9 ´ 109 Nm 2 / C 2 ÷
(a) 2 × 10–2 C (b) 3 × 10–2 C è 4pÎ0 ø
(c) 4 × 10–2 C (d) 1 × 10–2 C (a) 1.28 × 105 N/C (b) 1.28 × 106 N/C
8. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are (c) 1.28 × 107 N/C (d) 1.28 × 104 N/C
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
13. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
repulsion between the ions, the number of
charge densities +l C/m and –l C/m are placed
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being at a distance of 2R in free space. What is the
the charge of an electron) [2010] electric field mid-way between the two line
4pe0 Fd 2 4pe0 Fe 2 charges? [2019]
(a) (b) 2l
e2 d2 (a) zero (b) N/C
p Î0 R
4pe0 Fd 2 4pe 0 Fd 2
(c) (d) l l
q2 (c) N/C (d) N/C
e2 p Î0 R 2pe0 R
9. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a
hydrogen atom inra circular orbit of radius r. The 14. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
Coulomb force F between the two is [2003] charged. The electric field due to the sphere at
a distance r from the centre : [2019]
e2 r e2 (a) increases as r increases for r < R and for
(a) K r (b) K rˆ
r3 r2 r>R
e2 e2 r (b) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
(c) - K 3 rˆ (d) -K 3 r
r r r increases for r > R
æ 1 ö (c) zero as r increases for r < R, increases as
çè where K = 4pe ÷ø r increases for r > R
0
(d) decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
EBD_8335
174 PHYSICS
15. An electron falls from rest through a vertical (d) 8 along negative X-axis
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward 3R
directed electric field E. The direction of 20. The electric field at a distance from the
2
electric field is now reversed, keeping its centre of a charged conducting spherical shell
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance
from rest in it through the same vertical R
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in from the centre of the sphere is [2010]
2
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
E
[2018] (a) (b) zero
(a) smaller (b) 5 times greater 2
(c) equal (d) 10 times greater E
(c) E (d)
16. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless 2
horizontal plane surface under the influence 21. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is
r
of ar uniform electric field E . Due to the force 4 × 10–8 m. The electric field which can give on
q E , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the
one second duration. At that instant the metal will be in units of V/m [2009]
direction of the field is reversed. The car (a) 5 × 10–11 (b) 8 × 10–11
continues to move for two more seconds under (c) 5 × 107 (d) 8 × 107
the influence of this field. The average velocity 22. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given
and the average speed of the toy car between 0 a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O
to 3 seconds are respectively [2018] of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB
(a) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (b) 1 m/s, 3 m/s of the ring is E. The electric field at the centre
(c) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s (d) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring
17. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is is [2008]
A
aligned parallel to a uniform electric field E.
The energy required to rotate the dipole by 90° K
is [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) pE2 (b) p2E C B
(c) pE (d) infinity O
18. An electric dipole of moment ´p´ is placed in
an electric field of intensity É´. The dipole
acquires a position such that the axis of the D
dipole makes an angle q with the direction of
the field. Assuming that the potential energy (a) E along KO (b) E along OK
of the dipole to be zero when = 90°, the torque (c) E along KO (d) 3 E along OK
and the potential energy of the dipole will 23. Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at
respectively be : [2012] points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and
(a) p E sin q, – p E cos q (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude
(b) p E sin q, –2 p E cos q and direction of the electric dipole moment
(c) p E sin q, 2 p E cos q vector of this charge assembly are [2007]
(d) p E cos q, – p E cos q
19. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), (a) 2qa along the line joining points
all in meters in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
The electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/ (b) qa along the line joining points (x = 0,
meter is [2011M] y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(a) 8 along positive X-axis
(c) 2qa along +ve x direction
(b) 16 along negative X-axis
(c) 16 along positive X-axis (d) 2qa along +ve y direction
24. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length 32. An electric dipole, consisting of two opposite
10 cm and having a charge of 500 mC, at a point charges of 2 × 10–6 C each separated by a
on the axis at a distance 20 cm from one of the distance 3 cm is placed in an electric field of
charges in air, is [2001] 2 × 105 N/C. Torque acting on the dipole is
7
(a) 6.25 × 10 N/C (b) 9.28 × 10 N/C 7 [1995]
(c) 13.1 × 1011 N/C (d) 20.5 × 107 N/C (a) 12 × 10–1 Nm (b) 12 × 10–2 Nm
r (c) 12 × 10–3 Nm (d) 12 × 10–4 Nm
25. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a
r 33. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the
uniform electric field E , then torque acting on work done on moving a charge of 0.2 C through
it is given by [2001] a distance of 2 m along a line making an angle
r r r r r r 60° with x-axis is 4J, then what is the value of
(a) t = p.E (b) t = p ´ E
r r r r r r E? [1995]
(c) t = p + E (d) t = p - E (a) 3 N/C (b) 4 N/C
26. A semi-circular arc of radius ‘a’ is charged (c) 5 N/C (d) 20 N/C
uniformly and the charge per unit length is l. The
electric field at the centre of this arc is [2000] Topic 3: Electric Flux & Gauss's Law
l l 34. A sphere encloses an electric dipole with charges
(a) 2pe a (b)
2pe 0 a 2 ± 3 × 10–6 C. What is the total electric flux
0
across the sphere? [NEET Odisha 2019]
l l2 (a) 6 × 10–6 Nm2/C (b) –3 × 10–6 Nm2/C
(c) 2 (d)
4p e 0 a 2pe0 a (c) Zero (d) 3 × 10–6 Nm2/C
27. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given 35. The electric field in a certain region is acting
a positive charge of 10 mC. What will be the radially outward and is given by E = Aa. A
electric field at the centre of the sphere if its charge contained in a sphere of radius 'a' centred
radius is 2 metres? [1998] at the origin of the field, will be given by[2015]
(a) zero (b) 5 mCm–2
(c) 20 mCm–2 (d) 8 mCm–2 (a) A e0 a2 (b) 4 pe0 Aa3
28. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of (c) e0 Aa3 (d) 4 pe0 Aa2
an electrical dipole of dipole moment p. If the 36. What is the flux through a cube of side 'a' if a
distance of Q from the dipole is r (much larger point charge of q is at one of its corner : [2012]
than the size of the dipole), then the electric
field at Q is proportional to [1998] 2q q
(a) (b)
(a) p–1 and r–2 (b) p and r–2 e0 8e0
(c) p2 and r–3 (d) p and r–3 q q
29. From a point charge, there is a fixed point A. At (c) e (d) 2e
A, there is an electric field of 500 V/m and 0 0
potential difference of 3000 V. Distance between 37. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical
point charge and A will be [1997] surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then
(a) 6 m (b) 12 m the outward electric flux will [2011]
(c) 16 m (d) 24 m (a) increase four times
30. Intensity of an electric field (E) depends on
distance r, due to a dipole, is related as [1996] (b) be reduced to half
1 (c) remain the same
1
(a) E µ (b) E µ 2 (d) be doubled
r r 38. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of
1 1 the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E
(c) E µ 3 (d) E µ 4
r r (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle
31. The formation of a dipole is due to two equal
and dissimilar point charges placed at a [1996] q with the horizontal side of the square as
(a) short distance (b) long distance shown in Figure. The electric flux linked to the
(c) above each other (d) none of these surface, in units of volt. m, is [2010]
EBD_8335
176 PHYSICS
E
q
(a) EL2/2 (b) zero
(c) EL2 (d) EL2 / (2e0)
41. A charge q is located at the centre of a cube.
The electric flux through any face is [2003]
q 2 pq
(a) 6(4pe ) (b) 6(4pe )
0 0
(a) EL2 (b) EL2 cos q 4 pq pq
2
(c) EL sin q (d) zero (c) 6(4pe 0 ) (d) 6(4pe )
0
39. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within 42. A charge Q mC is placed at the centre of a cube,
it. If f is the electric flux in units of voltmeter the flux coming out from any surface will be
associated with the curved surface B, the flux [2001]
linked with the plane surface A in units of
voltmeter will be [2007] Q -6 Q -3
(a) 6e ´ 10 (b) 6e ´ 10
B 0 0
Q Q
A (c) 24e 0 (d) 8e 0
C
43. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube.
The electric flux through all the six faces of the
q f cube is [2000]
(a) 2e 0 (b)
3 (a) Q / 3e0 (b) Q / 6e0
q 1æ q ö (c) Q / 8e0 (d) Q / e0
(c) e - f (d) 2 ç e - f÷ 44. A point charge +q is placed at mid point of a
0 è 0 ø cube of side ‘L’. The electric flux emerging from
40. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane the cube is [1996]
uur
of the paper. A uniform electric field E (volt / q 6 q L2
m), also in the plane of the paper, is limited (a) e0 (b)
e0
only to the lower half of the square surface (see
figure). The electric flux in SI units associated q
(c) (d) zero
with the surface is [2006] 6 L2 e 0
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 6 (b) 11 (c) 16 (b) 21 (c) 26 (a) 31 (a) 36 (b) 41 (c)
2 (a) 7 (b) 12 (a) 17 (c) 22 (b) 27 (a) 32 (c) 37 (c) 42 (a)
3 (b) 8 (c) 13 (c) 18 (a) 23 (a) 28 (d) 33 (d) 38 (d) 43 (c)
4 (c) 9 (d) 14 (b) 19 (d) 24 (a) 29 (a) 34 (c) 39 (d) 44 (a)
5 (a) 10 (a) 15 (a) 20 (b) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (b) 40 (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) We know that, 4. (c) From figure T cos q = mg O
2
kQ 2 A
kq
B T sin q = q
F= +Q –Q x2
l
r2 r Tcosq T
Fe
If 25% of charges of A transfer to B then ;q
q
so, tan q = Kq 2
q Tsinq
q
Q 3Q Q -3Q mg x2
qA = Q - = and q B = - Q + = x
4 4 4 4 kq 2 mg
qA qB tan q = 2
r x mg
kq A q B x
F1 = 2 As q is small tan q » sin q =
r 2l
2
æ 3Q ö kq 2 x
kç ÷ \ =
Þ F1 = è
4 ø
=
9 kQ 9F
= x mg 2 2l
2 16 r 2 16
r or x3 µ q2 …(1)
2. (a) Q1 = s4pR12 = s4pR2 or x3/2 µ q …(2)
Q2 = s4p(2R)2 = s16pR2 Differentiating eq. (1) w.r.t. time
After redistribution dx dq dq
3x2 µ 2q but is constant
dt dt dt
Q1¢ R
¢
= Þ Q2¢ = 2Q1¢ ...(i) so x2(v) µ q
Q2 2 R Replace q from eq. (2)
Q1¢ + Q2¢ = 20spR2 ...(ii) x2(v) µ x3/2 or v µ x–1/2
From eq. (i) and (ii) 5. (a)
20 5
Q1¢ = spR 2 Þ s1¢ = s q q
3 3
40 5 Tcosq
Q2¢ = spR 2 Þ s¢2 = s q
q q
3 6 Tsinq
3. (b) Net charge on one H atom = –e + (e + De) = De F
According to question, the net electrostatic force mg
(FE) = gravitational force (FG) T cos q = mg
FE = FG T sin q = F
1 De 2 Gm2 F
= \ tan q =
or mg
4pe0 d 2 d2 Fe
From figure, tan q =
G æ 1 9ö mg
Þ De = m ç 4pe = k = 9 ´10 ÷
k è 0 ø kq 2
r/2 2
6.67 ´ 10-11 Þ = r
= 1.67 × 10–27 y mg
9 ´ 109
kq 2
De » 1.436 × 10–37 C [Q F = from coulomb’s law]
r2
EBD_8335
178 PHYSICS
Þ r3 µ y 4pe 0 Fd 2
When string is clamped at half the height \ n=
e2
y
r'3 µ If the charge of an electron (= 1.6 × 10–19 C) is
2
Dividing the above two equations, we have taken as elementary unit i.e., quanta of charge,
r the charge on any body will be some integral
r' 1
= 1/3 Þ r' = 3 multiple of e
r 2 2 i.e., Q = ± ne where n = 1, 2, 3....
6. (b) The system of three charges will be in
equilibrium. 9. (d) Charges (–e) on electron and (e) on
A q B proton exert a force of attraction given by
r O r r
Q Q (- e)(e) - Ke 2 r æQ rˆ = r ö
Force = ( K ) rˆ = 3 r ç
r ÷ø
For this, force between charge at A and B + force
between charge at point O and either at A or B is r2 r è
zero.
Magnitude of Coulomb force is given by
KQ 2 KQq 1 q2 q2
i.e., + =0 ,
(2r )2 (r )2 4pe 0 r 2
r 1 q1q2 r
By solving we get, but in vector form F = r
4pe 0 r 3
Q
q= - .
4 1 q1q2
7. (b) At equilibrium potential of both sphere 10. (a) In air, Fair = 4pe 2
becomes same if charge of sphere one x and 0 r
other sphere (Q – x) then
where Q = 4 × 10–2 C 1 q1q2
In medium, Fm = 4pe 2
V1 = V2 0 Kr
kx k (Q - x)
= Fm 1 F
1cm 3cm \ = Þ Fm = air (decreases K-times)
3x = Q – x Þ 4x = Q Fair K K
11. (c) Net force on each of the charge due to the
Q 4 ´ 10-2
x= = C = 1 ´ 10-2 other charges is zero. However, disturbance in
4 4
Q¢ = Q – x = 3 × 10– 2C any direction other than along the line on which
the charges lie, will not make the charges return.
Charge given to a conductor always resides on its 12. (a) If the charge on a spherical conductor of
outer surface. If surface is uniform the charge radius R is Q, then electric field at distance r
distributes uniformly on the surface and for
irregular surface the distribution of charge i.e.,
from centre is
charge density is not uniform. It is maximum where E=0 (if r ÐR )
the radius of curvature is maximum and vice-versa 1 Q
1 E= (if r ³ R )
i.e., s µ . 4p Î0 r 2
R Electric field at a distance 15 cm from the centre
8. (c) Let n be the number of electrons missing. of sphere will be
1 q2 9 ´ 109 ´ 3.2 ´ 10 -7
F= × E=
4pe 0 d 2
225 ´ 10 -4
Þ q = 4pe 0 d 2 F = ne = 0.128 ´ 106 = 1.28 ´ 105 N/C
13. (c) Electric field due to line charge (1) E

Q
r \ E 0 4 pr 2 =
l ˆ e0
E1 = iN/C 1
2pe0 R E0 µ
r2
1
Electric field due to line charge (2) \ E0 µ Ein = 0
r r2 r
l ˆ (2) (1) O r<R R r>R
E2 = iN/C + –
r=R
2pe0 R 15. (a) As we know, F = qE = ma
r r r + E1 –
+ – qE
Enet = E1 + E2 + Þ a=
R E2 – m
l ˆ l ˆ + –
= i+ i + – 1qE 2
2pe0 R 2pe0 R + – h= t
+ – 2m
l
= îN/C X
2hm
pe0 R \ t=
qE
r r
Both E1 and E 2 are in the same direction. i.e., time t µ m as ‘q’ is same for electron
Electric field at a point due to +ve charge (+q) and proton.
acts away from the charge and due to negative Since, electron has smaller mass so it will take
charge (–q) it acts towards the charge. smaller time.
14. (b) Charge Q will be distributed over the surface t=0 a t = 1 –a t = 2
B
of hollow metal sphere. 16. (b) vA= 0 –1
v=0
v = 6 ms
(i) For r < R (inside) C
[At a point inside the hollow sphere] t = 3 –1 –a
+ Q v = –6 ms
+ v –u 6–0
+ Acceleration, a = =
R t 1
r
+ + = 6 ms–2
C For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
1 2
+ + S1 = ´ 6(1) = 3 m ...(i)
+ 2
r uur q For t = 1 s = to t = 2 s,
By Gauss’s law, Ñò Ein ·dS = en = 0 1 2
e0 S2 = 6.1 – ´ 6(1) = 3m ...(ii)
As enclosed charge is = 0 2
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
So, Ein = 0 the electric field inside the hollow 1 2
sphere is always zero. S3 = 0 – ´ 6(1) = –3 m (iii)
2
(ii) For r > R (outside) Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
[At a point outside hollow sphere] 3
Average velocity = = 1 ms–1
+ + 3
+ Total distance travelled = 9 m
r 9
+ R + Average speed = = 3 ms–1
+ 3
+ + 17. (c) When electric dipole is aligned parallel
q = 0° and the dipole is rotated by 90° i.e.,
r uur q en q = 90°.
By Gauss’s law, Ñò E0 ·dS = e0
(Q qen = Q) Energy required to rotate the dipole
W = Uf – Ui = (–pE cos 90°) – (–pE cos 0°)
= pE.
EBD_8335
180 PHYSICS
18. (a) The torque on the dipole is given as uuur

t = pE sin q pnet = (qa)2 + (qa) 2 = 2qa along OP at
The potential energy of the dipole in the electric an angle 45° with positive X-axis.
field is given as y P
U = – pE cos q +q(0, a, 0)
B
B
r é dV ˆ dV ˆ dV ˆ ù
19. (d) E = - ê i+ j+ k
ë dx dy dz úû (–2q) A
x
45°
(0, 0, 0) O +q(a, 0, 0) O A
Given, V = 4x2
d (4 x 2 ) z
\ E = -i
dx 24. (a) Given : Length of the dipole (2l) = 10cm
= –8 x î volt/meter = 0.1m or l = 0.05 m
r Charge on the dipole (q) = 500 mC = 500 ×
\E = -8iˆ V / m
(1,0,2) 10–6 C and distance of the point on the axis from
20. (b) Electric field at a point inside a charged the mid-point of the dipole (r) = 20 + 5 = 25 cm =
conducting spherical shell is zero. 0.25 m. We know that the electric field intensity
21. (c) Energy = 2eV due to dipole on the given point (E) =
Þ eVo = 2eV Þ Vo = 2 volt 1 2( q.2l ) r
´
Vo 2 4pe 0 (r 2 - l 2 ) 2
E= =
d 4×10 –8 2(500 ´10 -6 ´ 0.1) ´ 0.25
= 9 ´109 ´
= 0.5 × 108 = 5 × 107 Vm–1 [(0.25) 2 - (0.05) 2 ]2
22. (b) By the symmetry of the figure, the electric
fields at O due to the portions AC and BD are 225 ´ 103
= -3
= 6.25 ´ 107 N / C
equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. 3.6 ´ 10
So, they cancel each other.
1
A The dipole field E µ decreases much rapidly
3
r
K as compared to the field of a point charge E µ
1
2
r
r
25. (b) Given : Dipole moment of the dipole = p
r
C B and uniform electric field = E . We know that
dipole moment (p) = q.a (where q is the charge
O and a is dipole length). And when a dipole of
r
dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric
r
field E , then Torque (t) = Either force ×
Perpendicular distance between the two forces =
D r r r
Similarly, the field at O due to CD and AKB qaEsinq or t = pE sin q or t = p ´ E (vector
are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. form)
Therefore, the electric field at the centre due to 26. (a) l = linear charge density;
the charge on the part ACDB is E along OK. Charge on elementary portion dx = l dx.
23. (a) Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are dE
placed at points B (x = 0, y = a, z = 0),
O (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and A(x = a, y = 0, z = 0) q
The system consists of two dipole moment O
vectors due to (+q and –q) and again due to (+q
q
and –q) charges having a
uuur equal magnitudesuuuqa r
dq
units – one along OA and other along OB . dx

Hence, net dipole moment, x A
ldx p
Electric field at O, dE = E= [For r > > l]
2
4pe 0 a 4 pe 0 .r 3
Horizontal electric field, i.e., perpendicular to 1
AO, will be cancelled. Apparently, E µ p and E µ 3
µ r -3 .
Hence, net electric field = addition of all electrical r
fields in direction of AO 29. (a) Given : Electric field (E) = 500 V/m
= SdE cos q and potential difference (V) = 3000 V.
ldx We know that electric field
ÞE=ò cos q
4 pe 0 a 2 V 3000
(E) = 500 = or d = = 6m
dx d 500
Also, dq = or dx = adq [where d = Distance between point charge
a
p/2
and A]
l cos qd q l
E= ò 4 pe a
=
4 pe a
[ sin q]p– p/ 2/ 2 30. (c) Intensity of electric field due to a Dipole
-p / 2 0 0
l l p 1
= 4pe a [1– (–1)] = 2pe a E= 2 Þ Eµ 3
0 0 4pe 0 r 3 3cos q + 1 r
27. (a) Charge resides on the outer surface of a 31. (a) Dipole is formed when two equal and
conducting hollow sphere of radius R. We unlike charges are placed at a short distance.
consider a spherical surface of radius r < R.
By Gauss's theorem, 32. (c) Charges (q) = 2 × 10–6 C,
+ + +++ Distance
++ +
+
+ + (d) = 3 cm = 3 × 10–2 m and
+ +
+ R + electric field (E)
+ O + = 2 × 105 N/C.
+ S +
+ r + Torque (t) = pE = qdE
+ E +
+ + T =(2 × 10–6) × (3 × 10–2) × (2 × 105)
+ +
++
+ + ++ = 12 × 10–3 N–m .
r r 33. (d) Charge (q) = 0.2 C;
Ñò
1
E.ds = ´ charge enclosed
e0 Distance (d) = 2m; Angle q = 60º and work done
(W) = 4J.
1
or, E. 4pr 2 = ´0 Þ E =0 Work done in moving the charge (W)
e0 = F.d cos q = qEd cos q
i.e. electric field inside a hollow sphere is zero.
W 4 4
or, E = = =
Electric field inside the charged conducting sphere qd cos q 0.2 ´ 2 ´ cos 60º 0.4 ´ 0.5
or shell, Ein = 0
= 20 N/C.
And for uniformly charged non-conducting
q
sphere, 34. (c) fTotal = enclosed
e0
1 Qr
Ein = 0
4p Î0 R3 fTotal = =0
e0
28. (d) Electric field at equatorial point
35. (b) Net flux emitted from a spherical surface
1p of radius a according to Gauss’s theorem
Eeq =
4pEo ( r 2 + l 2 )3/2 q
fnet = in
e0
EBD_8335
182 PHYSICS
qin
or, (Aa) (4pa2) = 1æ q ö
e0 Þ f' = ç - f÷
2 è e0 ø
So, qin = 4pe0 A a3 uur ur
Electric flux is equal to the product of an area 40. (b) Flux = E . A.
element A andr the perpendicular component of uur ur
electric field E integrated over a surface. E is electric field vector & A is area vector..
uur ur
f = E.A cos q Here, angle between E & A is 90º.
36. (b) Eight identical cubes are required to arrange uur ur
So, E . A = 0 ; Flux = 0
so that this charge is at centre of the cube formed
so flux. 41. (c) Cube has 6 faces. Flux through any face is
given by
q
f = q q 4p
8e 0 f = 6e = 6(4pe )
0 0
If charge (Q) is kept at the centre of cube

Q Q
ftotal = ,f =
e0 face 6e0
q
Q Q
a fcorner = , fedge =
2a 8e 0 12e0
a 42. (a) Total flux out of all six faces as per Gauss's
2a
Q ´ 10-6
theorem should be
37. (c) By Gauss’s theorem, Î0
Qin Therefore, flux coming out of each face
f= Î
Q
0
Thus, the net flux depends only on the charge = ´ 10-6 C
6 Î0
enclosed by the surface. Hence, there will be no
effect on the net flux if the radius of the surface 43. (c) According to Gauss's theorem, electric flux
is doubled. Q
through a closed surface = where q is
38. (d) Electric flux, f = EA cos q , where q e0
= angle between E and normal to the surface. charge enclosed by the surface.
p The charge is kept at a corner of a cube so it can
Here q = be visualised as being at the centre of 8 cubes.
2
Þ f=0 1
\ The flux through each cube will be of
8
q
39. (d) Since f total = f A + f B + fC = , q
e0 the flux
Eo
where q is the total charge.
As shown in the figure, flux associated with the q
\ Flux through all six faces =
curved surface B is f = fB 8Eo
Let us assume flux linked with the plane surfaces 44. (a) By Gauss theorem
A and C be Total ch arg e inside cube
fA = fC = f' Total electric flux =
e0
Therefore,
q
q
= 2f '+ f B = 2f '+ f Þ f=e
0
e0
16 Electrostatic Potential
and Capacitance
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016
Electrostatic Potential & Electrostatic pot. & field 1 E
Equipotential Surfaces Electrostatic pot. and dipole 1 E
Equipotential Surfaces 1 E
Capacitors, Capacitance, Capacitance of Capacitor 1 A

Grouping of Capacitors & Electrostatic Force between
Energy Stored in a Capacitor Isolated Parallel Plates 1 A
Grouping of Capacitors
Energy stored in a capacitor 1 A 1 A
10V 30V 40V

Topic 1: Electrostatic Potential & 20V
Equipotential Surfaces
(c) A B (d) A B
1. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2
m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V 10V
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in 20V 40V 30V
this region is : [2020] A positive charge is moved from A to B in each
(a) 0.5 N/C (b) 1 N/C diagram.
(c) 5 N/C (d) zero (a) In all the four cases the work done is the same
2. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of (b) Minimum work is required to move q in
16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the figure (a)
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the (c) Maximum work is required to move q in
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making figure (b)
an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is : [2020] (d) Maximum work is required to move q in
figure (c)
æ 1 ö
ç = 9 ´109 N m 2 / C2 ÷ 4. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as
è 4 pÎ0 ø V(x, y, z) = 6 xy – y + 2yz, the electric field
(a) 200 V (b) 400 V (in N/C) at point (1, 1, 0) is : [2015 RS]
(c) zero (d) 50 V (a) - (6iˆ + 5jˆ + 2k)
ˆ (b) - (2iˆ + 3jˆ + k)
ˆ
3. The diagrams below show regions of
equipotentials. [2017] (c) -(6iˆ + 9jˆ + k) ˆ (d) -(3iˆ + 5jˆ + 3k)
ˆ
20V 40V 20V 40V 5. In a region, the potential is represented by
V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts
A B (b) A
and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force
(a) B
experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at
point (1, 1, 1) is : [2014]
10 V 30V 10 V 30V
EBD_8335
184 PHYSICS
(a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N 1 2q
(a) (1 + 5)
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N 4p Î0 L
6. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a 1 2q æ 1 ö
charge Q. The electric potential and the electric 1+
4p Î0 L çè ÷
(b)
field at the centre of the sphere respectively are: 5ø
[2014] 1 2q æ 1 ö
(c) ç 1- ÷
Q 4p Î0 L è 5ø
(a) Zero and
4p e 0 R 2 (d) zero
Q 10. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b
(b) and Zero and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge
4p e 0 R
densities s , – s and s respectively. If VA, VB
Q Q and VC denotes the potentials of the three
(c) and
4p e 0 R 4p e 0 R 2 shells, then for c = a + b, we have [2009]
(d) Both are zero (a) VC = VB ¹ VA (b) VC ¹ VB ¹ VA
7. A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric (c) VC = VB = VA (d) VC = VA ¹ VB
field. The electric potential is [2013] 11. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given
r
by V = – x2y – xz3 + 4. The electric field E at that
A
B ® point is [2009]
E r
(a) E = î 2xy + ˆj (x + y ) + kˆ (3xz – y 2 )
2 2
C r
(b) E = î z3 + ˆj xyz + kˆ z 2
(a) maximum at B
r
(b) maximum at C (c) E = î (2xy – z3 ) + ˆj xy 2 + kˆ 3z 2 x
(c) same at all the three points A, B and C r
(d) maximum at A (d) E = î (2xy + z3 ) + ˆj x 2 + kˆ 3xz 2
8. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
12. The electric potential at a point in free space
one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts.
centre of the square is zero is : [2012] The electric field at that point is [2008]
(a) 4 pe0 Q×1022 volt/m
1 (b) 12 pe0 Q×1020 volt/m
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
q (c) 4 pe0 Q×1020 volt/m
1 (d) 12 pe0 Q×1022 volt/m
(c) Q = q (d) Q = 13. A solid spherical conductor is given a charge.
q
9. Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and – q are The electrostatic potential of the conductor is
placed at the corners of a square of side 2L (see (a) constant throughout the conductor
figure). The electric potential at point A, midway (b) largest at the centre [2002]
between the two charges +q and +q, is [2011] (c) largest on the surface
(d) largest somewhere between the centre and
+q –q the surface
14. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
such that the potential on its surface is 80 V. The
A potential at the centre of the sphere is [1994]
(a) zero (b) 80 V
(c) 800 V (d) 8 V
+q –q
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 185
Topic 2: Electric Potential Energy & Work y

Done in Carrying a Charge A
15. The potential energy of particle in a force field
AB
is U = 2
-
, where A and B are positive x
r r O B
constants and r is the distance of particle from æ - qQ 1 ö
the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, (a) zero (b) ç 4 pe 2 ÷ 2 a
è 0 a ø
the distance of the particle is : [2012]
(a) B / 2A (b) 2A / B æ qQ 1 ö a æ qQ 1 ö
çè 4pe 2÷
. (d) ç . 2a
è 4pe0 a 2 ÷ø
(c) A / B (d) B / A (c)
0 a ø 2
16. Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners 19. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as
of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC, AC shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is moved
and AB. D and E are the mid points of BC and along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm from C to
CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D D. The change in the potential energy of the
to E is [2011M] q3
A system is k , where k is [2005]
4p Î0
C q3
E
40 cm
q1 q2
B C A 30 cm B D
D
3qQ qQ (a) 8q1 (b) 6q1
(a) 8p Î 0 a (b) 4p Î 0 a (c) 8q2 (d) 6q2
20. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge
3qQ as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in
(c) zero (d) 4p Î 0 a uniform electric field E. If its dipole moment is
17. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B along the direction of the field, the force on it
respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is and its potential energy are respectively[2004]
the midpoint between A and B. The work done (a) q.E and max. (b) 2 q.E and min.
in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD (c) q.E and p.E (d) zero and min.
is [2007] 21. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2mC.
R Through what potential difference must it be
accelerated, starting from rest, to acquire a
speed of 10 m/s? [2004]
(a) 50 V (b) 5 kV
A C B D (c) 50 kV (d) 5 V
qQ qQ 22. Each corner of a cube of side l has a negative
(a) 2pe0 L (b) 6pe L charge, –q. The electrostatic potential energy
0
of a charge q at the centre of the cube is [2002]
qQ qQ
(c) - (d) 4q 2 3q 2
6pe 0 L 4pe0 L (a) - (b)
18. As per the diagram, a point charge +q is placed 2pe0 l 4pe 0l
at the origin O. Work done in taking another point
charge – Q from the point A [coordinates (0, a)] 4q 2 4q 2
(c) (d) -
to another point B [coordinates (a, 0)] along the 2 pe 0 l 3pe 0l
straight path AB is: [2005]
EBD_8335
186 PHYSICS
23. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at capacitor is connected in parallel. The total
rest in a uniform electric field E and then electrostatic energy of resulting system : [2017]
released. The kinetic energy attained by the (a) decreases by a factor of 2
particle after moving a distance y is [1998] (b) remains the same
(a) qEy2 (b) qE2 y (c) increases by a factor of 2
(c) qEy (d) q2 Ey (d) increases by a factor of 4
Topic 3: Capacitors, Capacitance, Grouping 28. 1 2
of Capacitors & Energy Stored in a
Capacitor.
24. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor V
with air as medium is 6 mF. With the 2m F 8m F
introduction of a dielectric medium, the
capacitance becomes 30 mF. The permittivity
of the medium is : [2020] A capacitor of 2mF is charged as shown in the
diagram. When the switch S is turned to position
( Î0 = 8.85 × 10 C N–1 m–2)
–12 2
2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated
(a) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2
is : [2016]
(b) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
(a) 0% (b) 20%
(c) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
(c) 75% (d) 80%
(d) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2
29. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C
25. Two identical capacitors C1 and C2 of equal
is connected to a cell of emf V and then
capacitance are connected as shown in the
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of
circuit. Terminals a and b of the key k are
connected to charge capacitor C1 using battery dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air
of emf V volt. Now disconnecting a and b the gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which
terminals b and c are connected. Due to this, of the following is incorrect ? [2015]
what will be the percentage loss of energy? (a) The energy stored in the capacitor
[NEET Odisha 2019] decreases K times.
(b) The chance in energy stored is
1 æ1 ö
CV 2 ç – 1÷
2 èK ø
(c) The charge on the capacitor is not
conserved.
(d) The potential difference between the plates
decreases K times.
(a) 25% (b) 75%
30. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity 'C'
(c) 0% (d) 50%
distance of separation between plates is 'd' and
26. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
potential difference 'V' is applied between the
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
plates. Force of attraction between the plates of
charge Q and area A, is [2018]
(a) independent of the distance between the plates the parallel plate air capacitor is : [2015 RS]
(b) linearly proportional to the distance CV 2 CV 2
between the plates (a) (b)
2d d
(c) inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates C2 V 2 C2 V 2
(c) (d)
(d) proportional to the square root of the 2d 2 2d 2
distance between the plates 31. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants
27. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery K1 and K2 (K1 < K2) are inserted between plates
is removed and another identical uncharged of a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the
figure. The variation of electric field ‘E’ 2C1 n2

between the plates with distance ‘d’ as measured (a)
n1 n2
(b) 16 n C1
from plate P is correctly shown by : [2014] 1
P + – Q n2 16C1
+
+
–
– (c) 2 n C1 (d) n n
+ – 1 1 2
+ –
+ – 34. Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q
+ –
+ – and –Q face each other at a certain distance
+ –
K1 K2 between them. If the plates are now dipped in
kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the
(a)
plates will [2010]
E (a) remain same (b) become zero
(c) increases (d) decrease
35. Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of
0 breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
d
(b) capacitance and breakdown voltage of the
combination will be [2009]
E V C
(a) 3C, (b) , 3V
3 3
C V
0 (c) 3C, 3V (d) ,
d 3 3
36. Two condensers, one of capacity C and other
E of capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt
battery, as shown. [2007]
(c)
0
d
V C C/2
E
(d) The work done in charging fully both the
condensers is [2007]
0 d 1 3
32. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric (a) CV 2 (b) CV
2
4 4
field E in the space between the plates. If the
1
distance between the plates is d and area of each (c) CV 2 (d) 2CV2.
plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is : 2
[2012M, 2011, 2008] 37. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a
potential difference of V volts. After
1
(a) e0 E 2 (b) E2 Ad/e0 disconnecting the charging battery the distance
2 between the plates of the capacitor is increased
1 using an insulating handle. As a result the
(c) e0 E 2 Ad (d) e0EAd
2 potential difference between the plates [2006]
33. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of (a) does not change (b) becomes zero
value C1, is charged by a source of potential
(c) increases (d) decreases
difference 4 V. When another parallel
combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, 38. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal
is charged by a source of potential difference V, to C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are
it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the connected to a battery as shown in the figure.
first combination has. The value of C2, in terms The ratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is: [2005]
of C1, is then [2010]
EBD_8335
188 PHYSICS
43. Energy stored in a capacitor is [2001]

1 1 2
(a) QV (b) QV (c) (d)
2 QV QV
44. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U.
The charging battery is disconnected. An
identical capacitor is now connected to the first
capacitor in parallel. The energy in each of the
4 3 capacitor is [2000]
(a) (b) (a) U / 2 (b) 3U / 2
7 22 (c) U (d) U / 4
7 22 45. A parallel plate condenser with oil between the
(c) (d)
4 3 plates (dielectric constant of oil K = 2) has a
39. Three capacitors each of capacity 4mF are to be capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then
connected in such a way that the effective capacitance of the capacitor becomes
capacitance is 6 mF. This can be done by [2003]
(a) 2C (b) 2C [1999, 97]
(a) connecting two in parallel and one in
series C C
(c) (d)
(b) connecting all of them in series 2 2
(c) connecting them in parallel 46. What is the effective capacitance between
(d) connecting two in series and one in points X and Y? [1999]
parallel C1=6m F
40. A capacitor C 1 is charged to a potential
difference V. The charging battery is then C3 =6m F C5=20m F C2=6m F
X Y
removed and the capacitor is connected to an A C B D
C4=6m F
uncharged capacitor C 2 . The potential
difference across the combination is [2002] (a) 24 mF (b) 18 mF
VC1 æ C2 ö (c) 12 mF (d) 6 mF
(a) (C1 + C2 ) (b) V ç1 + C ÷ 47. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity
è 1ø 6 mF is increased from 10 V to 20 V, then
æ C1 ö VC2 increase in its energy will be [1995]
(c) V ç1 + C ÷ (d) (C + C ) (a) 4 ´ 10 J- 4 -
(b) 4 ´ 10 J4
è 2ø 1 2
41. In a parallel plate capacitor, the distance (c) 9 ´ 10 -4 J (d) 12 ´ 10 -6 J
between the plates is d and potential difference 48. The four capacitors, each of 25m F are
across the plates is V. Energy stored per unit connected as shown in fig. The dc voltmeter
volume between the plates of capacitor is reads 200 V. The charge on each plate of
[2001] capacitor is [1994]
2 2
Q 1 V V
(a) (b) e0 – + – +
2V 2 2 d2
1 V2 1 V2 – + – +
(c) 2 2 (d) e 0
e0 d 2 d
42. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is
10 mF when the distance between its plates is (a) ± 2 ´10-3 C (b) ± 5 ´ 10 -3 C
8 cm. If the distance between the plates is (c) ± 2 ´10 C - 2 (d) ± 5 ´10-2 C
reduced to 4 cm then the capacity of this 49. A 4µF conductor is charged to 400 volts and
parallel plate condenser will be [2001] then its plates are joined through a resistance of
(a) 5 mF (b) 10 mF 1 kW. The heat produced in the resistance is
(c) 20 mF (d) 40 mF (a) 0.16 J (b) 1.28 J [1989]
(c) 0.64 J (d) 0.32 J
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 7 (a) 13 (a) 19 (c) 25 (d) 31 (c) 37 (c) 43 (a) 49 (d)
2 (a) 8 (a) 14 (b) 20 (d) 26 (a) 32 (c) 38 (b) 44 (d)
3 (a) 9 (c) 15 (b) 21 (c) 27 (a) 33 (d) 39 (d) 45 (d)
4 (a) 10 (d) 16 (c) 22 (d) 28 (d) 34 (d) 40 (a) 46 (d)
5 (d) 11 (d) 17 (c) 23 (c) 29 (c) 35 (b) 41 (b) 47 (c)
6 (b) 12 (a) 18 (a) 24 (b) 30 (a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 48 (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Since, electric potential is constant
r2 r
throughout the volume, hence electric field, uruur 2
dV ò ò
conditions dV = - Edr = - E.dr cos q
E= - = 0. r1 r1
dr
2. (a) Given, r ¶V $ ¶V $ ¶V $
5. (d) E=- i- j- k
Dipole moment of short electric dipole, ¶x ¶y ¶z
p = 16 × 10–9 C m.
where V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz
Distance from centre of dipole, r = 0.6 m
kp cos q = -[(6 - 8y)iˆ + (-8x - 8 + 6z)ˆj + (6y)k]
ˆ
Electric potential, V = r
r2 At (1, 1, 1), E = 2i$ + 10j$ - 6k$
r
9 ´ 109 ´ 16 ´ 10-9 ´ cos 60 Þ (E) = (2) 2 + (10) 2 + ( -6) 2 = 140 = 2 35
ÞV = = 200 V r
0.36
\ F = qE = 2 ´ 2 35 = 4 35
3. (a) As the regions are of equipotentials, so
6. (b) Due to conducting sphere
Work done W = qDV
At centre, electric field E = 0
DV is same in all the cases hence work - done
will also be same in all the cases. Q
but electric potential, V =
4. (a) Potential in a region is given by, 4p Î0 R
V = 6xy – y + 2yz 7. (a) Potential at B, VB is maximum
As we know the relation between electric VB > VC > VA
potential and electric field is As in the direction of electric field potential
ur æ ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ ö decreases.
E = –ç i+ j+ k÷ 8. (a) Let the side length of square be 'a' then
è ¶x ¶y ¶z ø
potential at centre O is
where V = 6xy – y + 2yz
ur AC = BD = a 2 + a 2 = a 2
E = – éë (6yiˆ + (6x - 1 + 2z)ˆj + (2y)kˆ ùû
a 2 a
r OA = OB = OC = OD = =
E = -(6iˆ + 5jˆ + 2k)
(1,1,0)
ˆ 2 2
–Q –q
- dv
With the help of formula E = , potential
dr O
difference between any two point in an electric
field can be determined by knowing the boundary
2Q 2q
EBD_8335
190 PHYSICS
k (–Q ) k (– q) k (2q) k (2Q ) é (b 2 – a 2 ) ù

V= + + + =0 σ
æ a ö a a a = êc – ú
ç ÷ ε0 êë b úû
è 2ø 2 2 2
+s
(Given) –s
= – Q – q + 2q + 2Q = 0 Þ Q + q = 0 b
+s
Þ Q=–q a
9. (c) Distance of point A from the two +q
charges = L. c
A
Distance of point A from the two –q B
C
charges = L2 + (2L)2 = 5L . é a 2 s b 2 s sc 2 ù
4p
+q –q VC = ê - + ú
4pEo ëê c c c ûú
σc 1 σ × 4πb2 1 σ × 4πa 2
VC = - . + .
A 2L ε 0 4pe 0 c 4πε 0 c
σ é (b 2 – a 2 ) ù
= êc – ú
ε 0 ëê c ûú
+q –q σ
=
ε0
[ c – (b – a)]
æ Kq ö æ Kq ö
\ VA = ç ´ 2÷ - ç ´ 2÷
è L ø è 5L ø VA= VC ¹ VB
2Kq é 1 ù
1- 11. (d) The electric field at a point is equal to
L êë ú
=
5û negative of potential gradient at that point.
1 2q æ 1 ö r ¶V é ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ ù
= . 1-
4p Î0 L çè 5 ÷ø E=– = – i– j– k
¶r êë ¶x ¶y ¶z úû
10. (d) c = a + b.
= [(2xy + z3 ) î + ˆj x 2 + kˆ 3xz 2 ]
1 é qA qB qC ù
VA =
4pEo ê a + b + a ú 12. (a) Given that, V = Q × 1011 volts
ë û
Electric potential at point is given by
1 é 4pa 2s 4pb2s 4pc 2s ù 1 Q 1 Q
= ê - + ú V = . or, Q × 10111 = .
4pEo êë a b c úû 4 p Î0 r 4p Î0 r
4 p é a 2s b 2s c 2s ù
1
- + Þ r= .10–11 m.
= ê ú 4pÎ0
4pEo ëê a b c ûú
σa σb σc σ V Q ´ 1011
Þ VA = – + = [c – (b – a)] As E = =
1
ε0 ε0 ε0 ε0 r .10-11
4 p Î0
1 é qA qB qC ù
Similarly VB = + + = 4p Î0 Q ´ 1022 volt m -1.
4pEo êë a b c úû
13. (a) Electric potential is constant
1 é 4psa 2 4psb2 4psc 2 ù
Þ VB = ê - + ú 1
4pEo kq
êë b b c úû (equal to ,where k = 4p Î )
R 0
–σb 1 σ × 4pa 2 σc within or on the surface of conductor.
VB = + . +
ε0 4pe 0 b ε0
14. (b) Potential at the centre of the sphere According to question,

= potential on the surface = 80 V. 1 (+ q)(-Q) 1 Qq
15. (b) for equilibrium UA = 4p Î =-
0 a 4 pe 0 a
dU –2 A B 2A
=0 Þ + 2 =0 r= 1 (+ q)(-Q) 1 Qq
dr r3 r B and UB = 4p Î =-
for stable equilibrium 0 a 4 pe 0 a
d 2U DU = UB–UA = 0
should be positive for the value of r. We know that for conservative force,
dr 2 W = –DU = 0
d 2U 6 A 2B 19. (c) We know that potential energy of discrete
Here = 4 - 3 is +ve value for
dr 2 r r system of charges is given by
2A 1 æ q1q2 q2 q3 q3 q1 ö
r= U = çè r + r + r ÷ø
B 4 p Î0 12 23 31
After displacing a charged particle from its Here, r12 = AB = 0.3m, r31 = AC = 0.4m
equilibrium position, if it return back then it is According to question,
said to be in stable equilibrium. If U is the potential
1 æ q1q2 q2 q3 q3 q1 ö
d 2U + +
4p Î0 çè 0.3 0.4 ÷ø
energy then in case of stable equilibrium is Uinitial =
dx 2
0.5
positive i.e., U is minimum.
r23 = (0.3) 2 + (0.4) 2 = 0.5m
16. (c) AC = BC qA When the charge moved to point D
VD = VE r12 = 0.3 m
r23 = 0.1 m
We have, E
r31 = 0.4 m
W = Q (VD – VE) q
ÞW=0 q 1 æ q1q2 q2 q3 q3 q1 ö
+ +
4p Î0 çè 0.3 0.4 ÷ø
B D C Ufinal =
17. (c) 0.1
R
1 æ q1q2 q2 q3 ö
-
4p Î0 çè 0.1 0.5 ÷ø
Ufinal – Uinitial =
+q –q
1 q3
A C B D = 4p Î [10q2 q3 - 2q2 q3 ] = (8q2 )
2L L 0 4p Î0
Potential at C = VC = 0 When we use the formula of potential energy of
Potential at D = VD system of charges, then we consider that potential
æ -q ö kq 2 kq energy of the system at infinity is zero.
=kç ÷ + =-
è L ø 3L 3 L 20. (d) When the dipole is in the direction of field
Potential difference then net force is qE + (–qE) = 0
E
-2 kq 1 æ 2 qö
VD – VC = 3 L = 4p Î çè - 3 . L ÷ø –q a q
0
Þ Work done = Q (VD – VC) and its potential energy is minimum
= – P.E. = –qaE
2 1 qQ -qQ
=- ´ = 1
3 4pe0 L 6pe 0 L 21. (c) qV = mv 2
2
18. (a) We know that potential energy of two
1 2
charge system is given by Þ 2 ´ 10-6 ´ V = ´ ´ 10 ´ 10
1 q1q2 2 1000
U= \ V = 50 kV
4 p Î0 r
EBD_8335
192 PHYSICS
22. (d) Length of body diagonal = 3l æ q0 ö

q = çè ÷ø
\ Distance of centre of cube from each corner 2
2 2
3 1 æ q0 ö 1 1 æ q0 ö 1
r= l Uf = çè ÷ø ´ + çè ÷ø ´
2 2 2 C 2 2 C
P.E. at centre 1
= 8 × Potential Energy of the charge (+q) due to Uf = CV2
4
charge (–q) at one corner
loss = 50%
Kq ´ ( -q ) 26. (a) Electrostatic force between the metal
=8×
r plates
1 -4 q 2 Q2
= 8´ ´ 2 ´ q ´ ( -q) = Fplate =
4pe 0 3 l 3pe0 l 2 Ae 0
23. (c) K.E. = Force × distance = qE.y For isolated capacitor Q = constant
24. (b) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with Clearly, F is independent of the distance between
air is plates.
e A 27. (a) When battery is replaced by another
C= 0 . . . (i) uncharged capacitor
d C q
Here, A = area of plates of capacitor,
d = distance between the plates
Capacitance of a same parallel plate capacitor
with introduction of dielectric medium of
dielectric constant K is
K e0 A C
C'= . . . (ii) As uncharged capacitor is connected parallel
d So, C' = 2C
Dividing (ii) by (i)
q1 + q 2
C' 30 and Vc =
Þ =KÞ =K Þ K =5 C1 + C2
C 6
q+0 CV
e Vc = = [Q q = cv]
ÞK= C+C C+C
e0
V
Þ Vc =
Þ e = K e 0 = 5 ´ 8.85 ´ 10-12 2
= 0.44 × 10–10 C2N–1m–2 1
25. (d) Initial Energy of system, Ui = CV 2 … (i)
2
2
1 æVö
Final energy of system, Uf = (2C) ç ÷
2 è2ø
1 æ1ö
= CV 2 ç ÷ …(ii)
2 è2ø
1
Ui = CV2 From equation (i) and (ii)
2
1
On switching key at point c Uf = Ui
2
q0 – q q
= i.e., Total electrostatic energy of resulting
C C system decreases by a factor of 2
2q = q0
28. (d) When S and 1 are connected 30. (a) Force of attraction between the plates,
The 2mF capacitor gets charged. The potential F = qE
difference across its plates will be V.
The potential energy stored in 2 mF capacitor s
= q´
2 Î0
1 1
Ui = CV 2 = ´ 2 ´ V 2 = V 2
2 2 q é 6 ù
When S and 2 are connected =q êQ E = ú
The 8mF capacitor also gets charged. During 2A Î0 ë 2Eo û
this charging process current flows in the wire
and some amount of energy is dissipated as heat. q2 C 2 V 2 CV2
The energy loss is = = =
æ Î0 A ö 2Cd 2d
2ç ´d
1 C1 C2 2 è d ÷ø
DU = 2 C + C (V1 - V2 )
1 2
Î0 A
Here, C1 = 2mF, C2 = 8 mF, V1= V, V2 = 0 Here, C = , q = CV, A = area
d
1 2 ´8 4 To find the force of attraction between the plates,
\ DU = ´ (V - 0) 2 = V 2
2 2+8 5 we use the concept that work done in displacing
the plates against the force is equal to the increase
The percentage of the energy dissipated
in energy of the capacitor.
4 2
V 1
DU 5 31. (c) Electric field, E µ
= ´ 100 = ´ 100 = 80% K
Ui V2
As K1 < K2 so E1 > E2
Q Hence graph (c) correctly dipicts the variation
29. (c) Capacitance of the capacitor, C =
V of electric field E with distance d.
After inserting the dielectric, new capacitance 32. (c) The energy stored by a capacitor
C' = K.C 1
New potential difference U = CV 2 ...(i)
2
V
V' = V is the p.d. between two plates of the capacitor
K potential difference V = E.d.
1 Q2 The capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor
Ui = CV 2 = (Q Q = CV)
2 2C Ae 0
2 2 2 2 C=
Q Q C V æU ö d
Uf = = = =ç i÷
2C 2KC 2KC è K ø Substituting the value of C in equation (i)
1 2 ì1 ü 1 Ae 0 1
DU = Uf – Ui = CV í –1ý U= ( Ed )2 = Ae 0 E 2d
2 îK þ 2 d 2
As the capacitor is isolated, so charge will
remain conserved and p.d. between two plates C1
33. (d) In series, Ceff =
of the capacitor n1
\ Energy stored,
Q V
V' = =
KC K 1 1 C1
ES = Ceff VS2 = 16V 2
When the battery remains connected, the capacity 2 2 n1
of capacitor and charge stored is changed. When C
the battery disconnected, charge remains same but = 8V 2 1
potential and capacitance are changed.
n1
In parallel, Ceff = n2 C2
EBD_8335
194 PHYSICS
1 1 1 1 1 C C + C3C1 + C1C2
Energy stored, Ep =n C V2 = + + = 2 3
\ Ceq. C1 C2 C3 C1C2C3
2 2 2
According to question Es = Ep C1C2C3
2 Þ Ceq. =
8V C1 1 C1C2 + C2 C3 + C3C1
\ = n2C2V 2
n1 2 C (2C )(3C ) 6
Þ Ceq. = = C
16C1 C (2C ) + (2C )(3C ) + (3C ) C 11
Þ C2 = Þ Charge on capacitors (C1 , C2 & C3) in
n1n2
series
34. (d) Electric field between two parallel plates
placed in vacuum 6C
= CeqV = V
11
s Q
Charge on capacitor C4 = C4V = 4C V
E= =
eo Aeo 6C
In a medium of dielectric constant K Charge on C2 11 V 6 1 3
= = ´ =
s– Charge on C4 4CV 11 4 22
E' = C ´ C2 4´4
Eo K 39. (d) For series, C ' = 1 = = 2mF
C1 + C2 4+ 4
For kerosene K > 1, \ E' < E
35. (b) In series combination of capacitors For parallel, Ceq = C '+ C3 = 2 + 4 = 6mF
Veff = V + V + V = 3V
1 1 1 1 A C1 C2 B
= + +
Ceff C C C
C3
C If C P is the effective capacity when n identical
Þ C eff =
3 capacitors are connected in parallel and Cs is their
Thus, the capacitance and breakdown voltage effective capacity when connected in series then
C Cp
of the combination will be and 3V.. = n2
3 Cs
36. (b) Work done = Change in energy
40. (a) Charge Q = C1V
2
1æ C ö 2 1 æ 3C ö 2 3CV Total capacity of combination (parallel)
= ç C + ÷ø V = çè ÷ø V =
2è 2 2 2 4 Q C1V
37. (c) If we increase the distance between the C = C1+ C2 P.D. = =
C C1 + C2
plates its capacity decreases resulting in higher
potential as we know Q = CV. Since Q is constant 41. (b) Energy stored per unit volume
(battery has been disconnected), on decreasing 2
C, V will increase. 1 1 æV ö 1 V2 æ Vö
= e 0 E 2 = e0 ç ÷ = e0 2 çèQ E = ÷ø
38. (b) 2 2 èdø 2 d d
42. (c) C = 10 mF d = 8 cm
C'=? d ' = 4 cm
A Î0 1
C= Þ Cµ
d d
If d is halved then C will be doubled.
Equivalent capacitance for three capacitors Hence, C ' = 2C = 2 × 10 mF = 20 mF
(C1, C2 & C3) in series is given by
43. (a) Energy stored in capacitor Equivalent circuit

1 2 1Q 2 1
= CV = .V (Q = CV ) = QV 6mF C2
2 2V 2 C1 6mF
6mF
44. (d) In first case, when capacitor C connected
X 20mF
6mF Y
with battery.
C3 6mF
1 1 Q2 6mF C4
Energy stored, u1 = CV 2 =
2 2 C
When battery is disconnected and another C1 C2
capacitor of same capacity is connected in Here, =
C3 C4
parallel to first capacitor, then
Hence, no charge will flow through 20mF
Ceq= C' = 2C C1 C2
Q
Voltage across each capacitor, V ' =
2C X Y
1 2
\ Energy stored, V2 = CV C3 C4
2
C'
2
1 æ Qö 1 1 Q 2 U1
= Cç ÷ . = =
2 è 2C ø 4 2 C 4 ÞX Y
45. (d) When oil is placed between space of
plates C''
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in
2 Ae0 é KAe 0 ù
C= ...(1) êQ C = d , if K = 2ú series.
d ë û Hence, C' = 3 mF, C'' = 3 mF
C' and C'' are in parallel.
When oil is removed C ' = Ae0 ...(2) Hence net capacitance = C' + C'' = 3 + 3
d = 6 mF
On comparing both equations, we get C' = C/2 47. (c) Capacitance of capacitor (C) = 6 mF = 6
× 10–6 F; Initial potential (V1) = 10 V and final
When dielectric is partially filled between the plates
potential (V2) = 20 V.
of a parallel plate capacitor then its capacitance
increases but potential difference decreases. To The increase in energy (DU)
maintain the capacitance and potential difference 1
of capacitor as before separatoin betweeen the = C (V22 - V12 )
2
plates has to be increased by d. In such case
1
t = ´ (6 ´10 -6 ) ´ [(20) 2 - (10) 2 ]
k= (Here, t = seperation between plates.) 2
t-d
= (3 ´10 -6 ) ´ 300 = 9 ´10 - 4 J .
46. (d) From given circuit, 48. (b) Charge on each plate of each capacitor
C1 6mF
Q = ± CV = ± 25 ´ 10-6 ´ 200
C3 C5 6mF = ± 5 ´ 10-3 C
X A Y 49. (d) The energy stored in th e capacitor
6mF 20mF C2
1 1
C4 = CV 2 = ´ 4 ´ 10 -6 ´ (400)2 = 0.32 J
2 2
6mF This energy will be converted into heat in the
resistor.
EBD_8335
196 PHYSICS
17 Current Electricity
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Electric Current, Drift of Resistivity vs temperature 1 A
Electrons, Ohm's Law, Colour code of resistor 1 E 1 E
Resistance & Resistivity
Mobility & Drift velocity 1 E
Resistance & Temp. coeff.
1 E 1 E
of resistance
Combination of Resistances
Kirchhoff's Laws, Cells, Kirchhoff's rule & Grouping 1 A
Thermo emf & Electrolysis of resistances
Heating Effects of Current Heating effect of current 1 A 1 A
Wheatstone Bridge & Different Meter bridge & other
1 A 1 E 1 E 1 A
Measuring Instruments measuring instrument
Topic 1: Electric Current, Drift of Electrons,

Ohm's Law, Resistance & Resistivity
1. Which of the following graph represents the r
variation of resistivity (r) with temperature (T)
(d)
for copper? [2020]
T
2. The solids which have the negative temperature
r coefficient of resistance are: [2020]
(a)
(a) insulators only
(b) semiconductors only
T (c) insulators and semiconductors
(d) metals
3. The color code of a resistance is given below
r
(b)
T Yellow Violet Brown Gold

The values of resistance and tolerance,
respectively, are [2020]
r
(c) (a) 47 kW, 10% (b) 4.7 kW, 5%
(c) 470 W, 5% (d) 470 kW, 5%
T
Current Electricity 197
4. A charged particle having drift velocity of 10. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly
7.5 × 10–4 m s–1 in an electric field of 3 × 10–10 by ten per cent. Its new resistance and specific
Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of : [2020] resistance become respectively: [2008]
(a) 2.5 × 106 (b) 2.5 × 10–6 (a) 1.2 times, 1.3 times
(c) 2.25 × 10–15 (d) 2.25 × 1015 (b) 1.21 times, same
(c) both remain the same
5. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) kW is to be marked
with rin gs of differen t colours for its (d) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
identification. The colour code sequence will be 11. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is
[2018] R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then
(a) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver (a) the resistance and the specific resistance,
(b) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver will both remain unchanged [2004]
(c) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold (b) the resistance will be doubled and the
(d) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold specific resistance will be halved
6. The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted (c) the resistance will be halved and the
and stretched to 'n' times its original length, its
specific resistance will remain unchanged
new resistance will be :- [2017]
(d) the resistance will be halved and the
R
(a) (b) n2R specific resistance will be doubled
n
12. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of
R the three metre long wire of uniform thickness
(c) (d) nR
n2 and resistance of 100 ohm. The difference of
7. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform potential between two points on the wire
cross section a constant potential difference is separated by a distance of 50 cm will be[2004]
applied. The quantity which remains constant
(a) 1.5 volt (b) 3 volt
along the conductor is : [2015]
(a) current (b) drift velocity (c) 3 volt (d) 1 volt
(c) electric field (d) current density 13. The resistivity (specific resistance) of a copper
8. A wire of resistance 4 W is stretched to twice its wire [2002]
original length. The resistance of stretched wire (a) increases with increase in its temperature
would be [2013] (b) decreases with increase in its cross-section
(a) 4 W (b) 8 W (c) 16 W (d) 2 W (c) increases with increase in its length
9. Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both (d) increases with increase in its cross-section
have a cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm2. Each is
1 meter long. One rod is of copper with a 14. Si and Cu are cooled to a temperature of 300 K,
resistivity of 1.7 × 10–6 ohm-centimeter, the other then resistivity? [2001]
is of iron with a resistivity of 10–5 ohm- (a) For Si increases and for Cu decreases
centimeter. (b) For Cu increases and for Si decreases
How much voltage is required to produce a
current of 1 ampere in the rods? (c) Decreases for both Si and Cu
V [NEET Kar. 2013] (d) Increases for both Si and Cu
15. A wire has a resistance of 3.1W at 30ºC and a
resistance 4.5W at 100ºC. The temperature
coefficient of resistance of the wire [2001]
(a) 0.008 ºC–1 (b) 0.0034 ºC–1
(c) 0.0025 ºC–1 (d) 0.0012 ºC–1
Cu Fe 16. The resistance of a discharge tube is [1999]
(a) 0.117 V (b) 0.00145 V (a) zero (b) ohmic
(c) 0.0145 V (d) 1.7 × 10–6 V (c) non-ohmic (d) infinity
EBD_8335
198 PHYSICS
17. There are three copper wires of length and cross 24. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R
1 1 and 3R respectively as shown in the figure.
sectional area (L, A), (2 L, A) , ( L, 2 A) . In
2 2 When some potential difference is applied
which case is the resistance minimum? [1997] between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA,
(a) It is the same in all three cases VB and VC respectively. Then [2015]
(b) Wire of cross-sectional area 2A
(c) Wire of cross-sectional area A B
1
(d) Wire of cross-sectional area A A
2 X Y
18. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 W at 50ºC C
and 7W at 100ºC, then the mean temperature
(a) VA ¹ VB = VC (b) VA = VB ¹ VC
coefficient of resistance (of the material) is
[1996] (c) VA ¹ VB ¹ VC (d) VA = VB = VC
(a) 0.001/ºC (b) 0.004/ºC 25. Two metal wires of identical dimension are
(c) 0.006/ºC (d) 0.008/ºC connected in series. If s1 and s2 are the
19. If a negligibly small current is passed through a conductivities of the metal wires respectively,
wire of length 15 m and of resistance 5W having the effective conductivity of the combination
uniform cross-section of 6 × 10–7 m2 , then is : [2015 RS]
coefficient of resistivity of material, is [1996] s1 + s 2 s1 + s 2
(a) 1 × 10–7 W-m (b) 2 × 10–7 W-m (a) 2s1s2 (b) s1s 2
(c) 3 × 10 W-m
–7 (d) 4 × 10–7 W-m
20. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recasted s1s 2 2s1s2
to half of its length, then the new resistance of (c) s1 + s 2 (d) s + s
1 2
the wire will be [1995]
(a) R / 4 (b) R / 2 26. A 12 cm wire is given a shape of a right angled
(c) R (d) 2R triangle ABC having sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm
as shown in the figure. The resistance between
21. The velocity of charge carriers of current (about
two ends (AB, BC, CA) of the respective sides
1 amp) in a metal under normal conditions is of
are measured one by one by a multi-meter. The
the order of [1991]
resistances will be in the ratio of
(a) a fraction of mm/sec
(b) velocity of light [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) several thousand metres/second A
(d) a few hundred metres per second
22. The masses of the three wires of copper are in 3 cm 5 cm
the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the
ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical
resistance is [1988] B C
4 cm
(a) 1 : 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 : 1 (a) 3 : 4 : 5 (b) 9 : 16 : 25
(c) 1 : 25 : 125 (d) 125 : 15 : 1 (c) 27 : 32 : 35 (d) 21 : 24 : 25
Topic 2: Combination of Resistances 27. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance
R0 = 12 W. Find the points A and B as shown in
23. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,are the figure, at which a current carrying conductor
connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and should be connected so that the resistance R of
internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I.
the sub-circuit between these points is equal
Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to
the same battery. Then the current drawn from 8
battery becomes 10 I. The value of'n' is [2018] to W . [2012]
3
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 9 (d) 20
l1 32. The current in the following circuit is [1997]

A
A B 2V 3W 3W
C
I B 3W
2
l2 (a) 1A (b) A
l1 1 3
l1 5
(a) = (b) =
l2 8 l2 3 2 1
(c) A (d) A
l1 3 l 1 9 8
(c) = (d) 1 = 33. What will be the equivalent resistance of circuit
l2 8 l2 2
28. A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent shown in figure between two points A and D
to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The [1996]
resistance between its two diametrically 10 W 10 W 10 W
opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure, A B
is [2009]
10 W 10 W
A B C D
10 W 10 W 10 W
(a) 10W (b) 20W
(c) 30W (d) 40W
(a) 3W (b) 6 p W 34. Two wires of the same metal have same length,
but their cross-sections are in the ratio 3:1. They
(c) 6W (d) 0. 6 p W
are joined in series. The resistance of thicker
29. When a wire of uniform cross–section a, wire is 10W. The total resistance of the
length l and resistance R is bent into a combination will be [1995]
complete circle, resistance between any two
(a) 10 W (b) 20 W
of diametrically opposite points will be [2005]
(c) 40 W (d) 100 W
R
(a) (b) 4R 35. In the circuit shown in Fig, the current in 4 W
4 resistance is 1.2 A. What is the potential
R R difference between B and C. [1994]
(c) (d)
8 2
30. Resistances n, each of r ohm, when connected i1 4W
in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R A
2W i
8W C
ohm. If these resistances were connected in B
series, the combination would have a resistance i2
in ohms, equal to [2004]
(a) nR (b) n2R
(c) R/n2 (d) R/n (a) 3.6 volt (b) 6.3 volt
31. The current (I) in the given circuit is [1999] (c) 1.8 volt (d) 2.4 volt
I B
36. Three resistances each of 4 W are connected to
RA = 3W RB = 6W form a triangle. The resistance between any two
4.8 V
terminals is [1993]
A R = 6W C (a) 12 W (b) 2 W
C
(a) 1.6 A (b) 2.0 A (c) 6W (d) 8/3W
(c) 0.32 A (d) 3.2 A
EBD_8335
200 PHYSICS
37. Current through 3 W resistor is
1 1
3W (a) A and 3 V (b) A and 4 V
4W 3 6
6W
1 1
(c) A and 9 V (d) A and 12V
9 12
+ –
0.8 amp., then potential drop through 4W resistor is Topic 3: Kirchhoff's Laws, Cells, Thermo emf &
(a) 9.6 V (b) 2.6 V [1993] Electrolysis
(c) 4.8 V (d) 1.2 V 42. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives
38. You are given several identical resistances each a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 W is
of value R = 10W and each capable of carrying a
[2013]
maximum current of one ampere. It is required to
make a suitable combination of these resistances (a) 0.5 W (b) 0.8 W
of 5W which can carry a current of 4 ampere. (c) 1.0 W (d) 0.2 W
The minimum number of resistances of the type 43. Cell having an emf e and internal resistance r is
R that will be required for this job is [1990] connected across a variable external resistance
(a) 4 (b) 10 R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of
(c) 8 (d) 20 potential difference V across R is given by :
39. In the network shown in the Fig, each resistance [2012M]
is 1W. The effective resistance between A and B
is [1990] (a) (b)
1W e e
V V
1W 1W
1W 1W
A 1W 1W B 0 0
R R
4 3
(a) W (b) W (c) (d)
3 2
e V
8 V
(c) 7 W W(d)
7
40. n equal resistors are first connected in series
and then connected in parallel. What is the ratio 0 0
R R
of the maximum to the minimum resistance ?
[1989] 44. A current of 2A flows through a 2W resistor
(a) n (b) 1/n2 when connected across a battery. The same
(c) n2 (d) 1/ n battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when
41. Two batteries of emf 4 V and 8V with internal connected across a 9W resistor. The internal
resistance 1 W and 2 W are connected in a circuit resistance of the battery is [2011]
with a resistance of 9 W as shown in figure. The (a) 0.5 W (b) 1/3 W
current and potential difference between the (c) 1/4 W (d) 1 W
points P and Q are [1988]
45. The rate of increase of thermo–e.m.f. with
1W 4V 8V 2W temperature at the neutral temperature of a
P Q thermocouple [2011]
r1 r2
(a) is positive
(b) is zero
(c) depends upon the choice of the two
9W materials of the thermocouple
(d) is negative
R
46. A thermocouple of negligible resistance 51. See the electric circuit shown in the figure.
produces an e.m.f. of 40 mV/°C in the linear range R
of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10
ohm whose sensitivity is 1mA/div, is employed
with the termocouple. The smallest value of
temperature difference that can be detected by
the system will be [2011M] i1 e1 r1
(a) 0.5°C (b) 1°C
(c) 0.1°C (d) 0.25°C
47. In the circuit shown in the figure, if potential at
point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point i2
B is [2011M]
R1 2V r2 e2
D
1A B Which of the following equations is a correct
equation for it? [2009]
R2
2A (a) e2 – i2 r2 – e1 – i1 r1 = 0
(b) - e2 – (i1 + i2) R+ i2 r2 = 0
(c) e1 – (i1 + i2) R + i1 r1 = 0
A
1V 1A C 2A (d) e1 – (i1 + i2) R– i1 r1 = 0
(a) –1V (b) + 2V 52. A student measures the terminal potential
(c) –2V (d) + 1V difference (V) of a cell (of emf E and internal
48. In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW resistance r) as a function of the current (I)
power at 125 V is being consumed. How much flowing through it. The slope and intercept, of
chlorine per minute is liberated? (E.C.E. of the graph between V and I, then, respectively,
chlorine is 0.367×10–6 kg / C) [2010] equal: [2009]
(a) 1.76 × 10–3 kg (b) 9.67 × 10–3 kg (a) – r and E (b) r and – E
(c) 17.61 × 10–3 kg (d) 3.67 × 10–3 kg
(c) – E and r (d) E and – r
49. Consider the following two statements:
(A) Kirchhoff's junction law follows from the 53. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100
conservation of charge. cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and
(B) Kirchhoff's loop law follows from the without bein g short circuited through a
conservation of energy. resistance of 10W. Its internal resistance is
Which of the following is correct? [2010] [2008]
(a) Both (A) and (B) are wrong (a) 1.0 ohm (b) 0.5 ohm
(b) (a) is correct and (B) is wrong (c) 2.0 ohm (d) zero
(c) (a) is wrong and (B) is correct 54. A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a
(d) Both (A) and (B) are correct copper voltameter for 10 minutes. If the
50. The thermo e.m.f E in volts of a certain electrochemical equivalent of copper is
thermocouple is found to vary with temperature 30 × 10–5 g coulomb–1 , the mass of copper
difference q in °C between the two junctions deposited on the electrode will be [2007]
according to the relation [2010] (a) 0.50 g (b) 0.67 g
q2 (c) 0.27 g (d) 0.40 g.
E = 30q - 55. In producing chlorine through electrolysis, 100
15
The neutral temperature for the thermocouple watt power at 125 V is being consumed. How
will be much chlorine per minute is liberated? E.C.E. of
(a) 30° C (b) 450° C chlorine is 0.367 × 10–6 kg/ coulomb. [2006]
(c) 400 ° C (d) 225° C (a) 21.3 mg (b) 24.3 mg
(c) 13.6 mg (d) 17.6 mg
EBD_8335
202 PHYSICS
56. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical 61. In electrolysis, the amount of mass deposited or
circuits are consequences of [2006] liberated at an electrode is directly proportional
(a) conservation of electric charge and energy to [2000]
respectively (a) square of electric charge
(b) conservation of electric charge (b) amount of charge
(c) conservation of energy and electric charge (c) square of current
respectively (d) concentration of electrolyte
(d) conservation of energy 62. A car battery has e.m.f. 12 volt and internal
57. Two cells, having the same e.m.f., are connected resistance 5 × 10–2 ohm. If it draws 60 amp current,
in series through an external resistance R. Cells the terminal voltage of the battery will be [2000]
(a) 15 volt (b) 3 volt
have internal resistances r1 and r2 (r1 > r2 )
(c) 5 volt (d) 9 volt
respectively. When the circuit is closed, the 63. If nearly 105 coulombs liberate 1 gm-equivalent
potential difference across the first cell is zero. of aluminium, then the amount of aluminium
The value of R is [2006] (equivalent weight 9), deposited through
r +r r1 - r2 electrolysis in 20 minutes by a current of 50 amp.
(a) 1 2 (b) will be [1998]
2 2
(a) 0.6 gm (b) 0.09 gm
(c) r1 + r2 (d) r1 - r2
(c) 5.4 gm (d) 10.8 gm
58. Two batteries, one of emf 18 volt and internal 64. Kirchoff’s first law, i.e. Si = 0 at a junction, deals
with the conservation of [1992, 1997]
(a) charge (b) energy
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum
65. Direct current is passed through a copper
sulphate solution using platinum electrodes. The
elements liberated at the electrodes are [1993]
(a) copper at anode and sulphur at cathode
(b) sulphur at anode and copper at cathode
resistance 2W and the other of emf 12 volt and (c) oxygen at anode and copper at cathode
internal resistance 1W, are connected as shown. (d) copper at anode and oxygen at cathode
The voltmeter V will record a reading of 66. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation
(a) 30 volt (b) 18 volt [2005] of [1991]
(c) 15 volt (d) 14 volt (a) energy
(b) energy and magnetic field
59. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 (c) charge
hours when the current flowing is 10A. The (d) magnetic field
battery on discharge supplies a current of 5A
for 15 hours. The mean terminal voltage during Topic 4: Heating Effects of Current
discharge is 14V. The “watt-hour” efficiency of 67. Six similar bulbs are
the battery is [2004] connected as shown in A B
(a) 87.5% (b) 82.5% the figure with a DC
(c) 80% (d) 90% source of emf E, and
60. The potential difference between the terminals zero internal
of a cell in an open circuit is 2.2 V. When a resistor resistance.
of 5W is connected across the terminals of the The ratio of power
consumption by the
cell, the potential difference between the bulbs when (i) all are
terminals of the cell is found to be 1.8 V. The glowing and (ii) in the
internal resistance of the cell is [2002] situation when two
10
from section A and one
7
(a) W (b) W from section B ar e E
12 9 glowing, will be:
9 12 (a) 4 : 9 (b) 9 : 4 [2019]
(c) W (d) W (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
10 7
68. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies (a) 4 volt (b) 8 volt
with time t as Q = at – bt2, where a and b are (c) 10 volt (d) 2 volt
positive constants. The total heat produced in 74. A current of 3 amp flows through the 2W
R is: [2016] resistor shown in the circuit. The power
a 3R a 3R dissipated in the 5-W resistor is: [2008]
(a) (b) 2W
6b 3b
3
a R a 3R
(c) (d)
2b b 4W
69. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is
sent from one city to another city through
copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8
volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 W.
The power loss in the wires is : [2014] 1W 5W
(a) 19.2 W (b) 19.2 kW
(c) 19.2 J (d) 12.2 kW
70. Ten identical cells connected in series are (a) 4 watt (b) 2 watt
needed to heat a wire of length one meter and
radius ‘r’ by 10ºC in time ‘t’. How many cells will (c) 1 watt (d) 5 watt
be required to heat the wire of length two meter 75. The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit
of the same radius by the same temperature in shown here is [2007]
time ‘t’? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) 10 (b) 20 6W
(c) 30 (d) 40
71. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt-100 Watt 3W
drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage
of the rated value by which the power would 4W 18 V
decrease is : [2012]
(a) 20% (b) 2.5% (a) 40 (b) 54
(c) 5% (d) 10% (c) 4 (d) 16
72. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the 76. Power dissipated across the 8W resistor in the
figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is: [2012M]
circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power dissipated
R
in watt units across the 3W resistor is
1W 3W i1
5W
i
10V
(a) 20 W (b) 15 W
(c) 10 W (d) 30 W
8W i2
73. If power dissipated in the 9-W resistor in the
circuit shown is 36 watt, the potential difference
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5 [2006]
across the 2-W resistor is [2011]
9W (c) 3.0 (d) 2.0
77. A 5–ampere fuse wire can withstand a
maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The
6W
resistance of the fuse wire is [2005]
(a) 0.04 ohm (b) 0.2 ohm
(c) 5 ohm (d) 0.4 ohm
V 2W
EBD_8335
204 PHYSICS
78. When three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt 85. Two electric bulbs, one of 200 V, 40W and other
rating are connected in series to a 200 volt of 200 V, 100W are connected in a domestic
supply, the power drawn by them will be circuit. Then [2000]
(a) 20 watt (b) 60 watt [2004] (a) they have equal resistance
(c) 180 watt (d) 10 watt (b) the resistance of 40W bulb is more than
79. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use 100W bulb
(c) the resistance of 100W bulb is more than
at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the
40 W bulb
resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in India is R,
(d) they have equal current through them
the resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in USA 86. Three equal resistors connected across a source
will be [2004] of e.m.f. together dissipate 10 watt of power.
(a) R/2 (b) R What will be the power dissipated in watts if the
(c) 2R (d) R/4 same resistors are connected in parallel across
80. An electric kettle has two heating coils. When the same source of e.m.f.? [1998]
one of the coils is connected to an a.c. source,
10
the water in the kettle boils in 10 minutes. When (a) 10 (b)
the other coil is used, the water boils in 40 3
minutes. If both the coils are connected in (c) 30 (d) 90
parallel, the time taken by the same quantity of 87. A 5ºC rise in temperature is observed in a
water to boil will be [2003] conductor by passing a current. When the
(a) 15 min (b) 8 min current is doubled the rise in temperature will be
(c) 4 min (d) 25 min approximately [1998]
81. Two 220 volt, 100 watt bulbs are connected first (a) 10ºC (b) 16ºC
in series and then in parallel. Each time the (c) 20ºC (d) 12ºC
combination is connected to a 220 volt a.c. 88. A (100 W, 200 V) bulb is connected to a 160V
supply line. The power drawn by the power supply. The power consumption would be
combination in each case respectively will be [1997]
[2003] (a) 125 W (b) 100 W
(a) 50 watt, 200 watt (b) 50 watt, 100 watt (c) 80 W (d) 64 W
(c) 100 watt, 50 watt (d) 200 watt, 150 watt 89. A heating coil is labelled 100 W, 220 V. The coil
82. Fuse wire is a wire of [2003] is cut in half and the two pieces are joined in
(a) low resistance and high melting point parallel to the same source. The energy now
(b) high resistance and high melting point liberated per second is [1995]
(c) high resistance and low melting point (a) 25 J (b) 50 J
(d) low resistance and low melting point (c) 200 J (d) 400 J
90. A 4 mF capacitor is charged to 400 volts and
83. If 25W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V bulbs are
then its plates are joined through a resistance of
connected in series across a 440 V line, then
1k W. The heat produced in the resistance is
[2001] [1994]
(a) only 25W bulb will fuse (a) 0.16 J (b) 1.28 J
(b) only 100W bulb will fuse (b) 0.64 J (d) 0.32 J
(c) both bulbs will fuse 91. Two identical batteries each of e.m.f 2V and
(d) none of these internal resistance 1W are available to produce
84. A battery of 10 V and internal resistance 0.5W is heat in an external resistance by passing a current
connected across a variable resistance R. The through it. The maximum power that can be
value of R for which the power delivered is developed across R using these batteries is
maximum is equal to [2001, 1992] [1990]
(a) 0.25W (b) 0.5W (a) 3.2 W (b) 2.0 W
(c) 1.0W (d) 2.0W 8
(c) 1.28 W (d) W
9
92. Forty electric bulbs are connected in series across (a) 0.4 V (b) 0.6 V
a 220 V supply. After one bulb is fused the (c) 0 V (d) 0.5 V
remaining 39 are connected again in series 97. The metre bridge shown is in balance position
across the same supply. The illumination will be P l1
[1989] with = . If we now interchange the position
(a) more with 40 bulbs than with 39 Q l2
(b) more with 39 bulbs than with 40 of galvanometer and cell, will the bridge work? If
yes, what will be balance condition?
(c) equal in both the cases
(d) in the ratio 402 : 392 [NEET Odisha 2019]
93. A current of 2 A, passing through a conductor
produces 80 J of heat in 10 seconds. The
resistance of the conductor in ohm is [1989]
(a) 0.5 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 20
Topic 5: Wheatstone Bridge & Different
Measuring Instruments
P l1 P l2 – l1
94. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a (a) yes, = (b) yes, =
Q l2 Q l2 + l1
metre bridge balances a 10 W resistance in the
right gap at a point which divides the bridge P l2
(c) no, no null point (d) yes, =
wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the Q l1
resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 W 98. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile
of the resistance wire is : [2020]
device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F.
(a) 1.0 × 10 m–1 –1
(b) 1.5 × 10 m because the method involves [2017]
(c) 1.5 × 10–2 m (d) 1.0 × 10–2 m (a) Potential gradients
95. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the (b) A condition of no current flow through the
voltmeters and the ammeters will be : [2019] galvanometer
i1 i2 (c) A combination of cells, galvanometer and
10 W 10 W
resistances
10 W (d) Cells
V1 A1 V2 A2 99. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a
constant potential difference is maintained
across it. Two cells are connected in series first
10 V 10 V
to support one another and then in opposite
Circuit 1 Circuit 2 direction. The balance points are obtained at 50
(a) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in
(b) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2 the two cases. The ratio of emf's is : [2016]
(c) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2 (a) 5 : 1 (b) 5 : 4
(d) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 3 : 2
96. The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit 100. A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and
shown is, [NEET Odisha 2019] resistance 8W. The resistance that must be
connected in series with the wire and an
accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so as to get a potential
gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is [2015]
(a) 40 W (b) 44 W
(c) 48 W (d) 32 W
101. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance
r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f.
E0 and a resistance r 1. An unknown e.m.f. E is
EBD_8335
206 PHYSICS
balanced at a length l of the potentiometer wire. 105. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have
The e.m.f. E will be given by : [2015 RS] negligible resistances. For VA = 12V, R1 = 500W
and R = 100W the galvanometer (G) shows no
E0r l E 0l deflection. The value of VB is : [2012]
(a) . (b)
(r + r1 ) L L R1
LE 0 r LE 0 r G
(c) (r + r1 )l (d) lr1
VA R VB
102. The resistances in the two arms of the meter
bridge are 5W and RW, respectively. When the
resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance,
the new balance point is at 1.6 l1. The resistance (a) 4 V (b) 2 V
‘R’ is : [2014] (c) 12 V (d) 6 V
106. A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The
5W RW potential gradient, across the potentiometer wire,
is k volt/cm and the ammeter, present in the
circuit, reads 1.0 A when two way key is switched
off. The balance points, when the key between
G the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged
in, are found to be at lengths l1 cm and l2 cm
A B respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors R
l1 100 – l1
and X, in ohms, are then, equal, respectively,
(a) 10W (b) 15W
to [2010]
(c) 20W (d) 25W
103. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for + –
()
finding the internal resistance of a given cell.
The main battery used across the potentiometer
wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal
resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4m
long, When the resistace R, connected across A 1 B
the given cell, has values of G
(i) infinity (ii) 9.5W 2
3
The balancing lengths’, on the potentiometer R X
–
wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively. A
The value of internal resistance of the cell is +
[2014] ()
(a) 0.25W (b) 0.95W (a) k (l2 – l1) and k l2
(c) 0.5W (d) 0.75W (b) k l1 and k (l2 – l1)
104. The resistance of the four arms P, Q, R and S in (c) k (l2 – l1) and k l1
a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 (d) k l1 and k l2
ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and
107. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2W and an
internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5
unknown resistance S form the four arms of a
ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance
Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance
is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will of 6W is connected in parallel to S the bridge
be [2013] gets balanced. What is the value of S?
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.1 A (a) 3W (b) 6W [2007]
(c) 2. 0 A (d) 1. 0 A
(c) 1W (d) 2W
108. In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is 2V 3V

connected between points A and B, the current (a) (b)
in this wire will [2006] R R
V V
A (c) (d)
R 2R
4W 4W 111. In a Wheatstone’s bridge all the four arms have
equal resistance R. If the resistance of the
galvanometer arm is also R, the equivalent
1W 3W resistance of the combination as seen by the
B battery is [2003]
R
(a) 2R (b)
(a) flow in the direction which will be decided 4
by the value of V R
(c) (d) R
(b) be zero 2
(c) flow from B to A 112. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is
(d) flow from A to B 10–7 Wm, the current flow through it is 0.1 A and
the cross-sectional area of wire is 10–6 m2 then
109. For the network shown in the Fig. the value
potential gradient will be [2001]
of the current i is [2005]
(a) 10–2 volt/m (b) 10–4 volt/m
(c) 10–6 volt/m (d) 10–8 volt/m
113. Potentiometer measures potential more
accurately because [2000]
(a) it measures potential in the open circuit
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null
deflection
(c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire
(d) it measures potential in the closed circuit
114. Five resistances have been connected as shown
in the figure. The effective resistance between
A and B is [2000]
9V 18V 5V 5V
(a) (b) (c) (d)
35 5 9 18 3W 4W
110. Five equal resistances each of resistance R are A 7W B
connected as shown in the figure. A battery of
V volts is connected between A and B. The 6W 8W
current flowing in AFCEB will be [2004]
14 20
(a) W (b) W
C 3 3
(c) 14W (d) 21W
115. In a metre-bridge, the balancing length from the
R left end when standard resistance of 1 W is in
F R
R right gap is found to be 20 cm. The value of
A unknown resistance is [1999]
R B
(a) 0.25W (b) 0.4W
D E
R (c) 0.5W (d) 4W
EBD_8335
208 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 15 (a) 29 (a) 43 (c) 57 (d) 71 (c) 85 (b) 99 (d) 113 (a)
2 (c) 16 (c) 30 (b) 44 (b) 58 (d) 72 (c) 86 (d) 100 (d) 114 (a)
3 (c) 17 (b) 31 (b) 45 (b) 59 (a) 73 (c) 87 (c) 101 (a) 115 (a)
4 (a) 18 (d) 32 (a) 46 (d) 60 (b) 74 (d) 88 (d) 102 (b)
5 (b) 19 (b) 33 (c) 47 (d) 61 (b) 75 (b) 89 (d) 103 (c)
6 (b) 20 (a) 34 (c) 48 (c) 62 (a) 76 (c) 90 (d) 104 (a)
7 (a) 21 (a) 35 (a) 49 (d) 63 (c) 77 (a) 91 (b) 105 (b)
8 (c) 22 (d) 36 (d) 50 (d) 64 (a) 78 (a) 92 (b) 106 (b)
9 (a) 23 (a) 37 (c) 51 (d) 65 (c) 79 (d) 93 (b) 107 (a)
10 (b) 24 (d) 38 (c) 52 (a) 66 (a) 80 (b) 94 (a) 108 (c)
11 (c) 25 (d) 39 (d) 53 (a) 67 (b) 81 (a) 95 (c) 109 (d)
12 (d) 26 (c) 40 (c) 54 (c) 68 (a) 82 (c) 96 (a) 110 (d)
13 (a) 27 (d) 41 (a) 55 (d) 69 (b) 83 (a) 97 (a) 111 (d)
14 (a) 28 (d) 42 (a) 56 (a) 70 (b) 84 (b) 98 (b) 112 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) For metals like copper, at temperature much 5. (b) Colour code for carbon resistor
lower than 0°C, graph deviates considerably from
0 Black
a straight line.
2. (c) For metals temperature coefficient of 1 Brown Tolerance : ± 5% Gold
resistance is positive while for insulators and 2 Red ± 10% Silver
semiconductors, temperature coefficient of
resistance is negative. 3 Orange ± 20% No colour
3. (c) According to colour coding - 4 Yellow
Yellow Violet Brown Gold 5 Green
4 7 1 5%
6 Blue
First colour gives first digit, second colour gives
the second digit and third colour gives the 7 Violet
multiplier and fourth colour gives tolerance. 8 Grey
\ Resistance, 9 White
R = 47 ´ 101 ± 5% = 470 ± 5%W (47 ± 4.7) kW = 47 × 103 ± 10%
4. (a) Given,
\ Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver
Drift velocity of charged particle,
Vd = 7.5 ´ 10-4 m/s rl
6. (b) We know that, R =
-10 –1 A
Electric field, E = 3 ´ 10 Vm
Vd 7.5 ´10 -4 rl 2
Mobility, m = = = 2.5 ´106 m2V–1s–1 or R= Þ R µ l2
E 3 ´10 -10 Volume
According to question l2 = nl1 11

l
R2 n 2l12 l' 10
= 2 \ R' = r ' = r
R1 A 9
l1 A
10
R2
or, = n2 11 l
R1 R' = r R ' = 1.21R
9 R
Þ R2 = n2R1 The new resistance increases by 1.21 times. The
7. (a) Here, metallic conductor can be considered specific resistance (resistivity) remains
as the combination of various conductors unchanged as it depends on the nature of the
connected in series. And in series combination material of the wire.
current remains same. After stretching if length of a conductor increases
by x% then resistance will increase by 2x%
(Valid only if x < 10%)
i
r l1
11. (c) R= , now l2 = 2l1
V A1
rl A2 = p(r2)2 = p (2r1)2 = 4p r12 = 4A1
8. (c) Resistance R = =4W
A r(2 l1 ) r l1 R
Q l¢ = 2 l \ R2 = = =
On stretching, volume of wire remains constant 4 A1 2 A1 2
\ lA¢ = l¢A¢ \ Resistance is halved, but specific resistance
A remains the same.
\ A¢ = 12. (d) R µ l
2
For 300 cm, R = 100 W
2l
\ R¢ r = 4R = 4 × 4 W = 16 W Þ lA = 2lA¢ 100 50
A For 50 cm, R ¢ = ´ 50 = W
2 300 3
\ IR = 6
Therefore the resistance of new wire becomes
16 W 6 6 50
Þ IR ¢ = ´ R¢ = ´ = 1volt.
9. (a) Copper rod and iron rod are joined in series. R 100 3
l æ lö 13. (a) Resistivity of copper wire increases with
\ R = RCu + RFe = (r1 + r2)
A
çèQ R = r ÷ø increase in temprature as rt = r0 (1 + at )
A
From ohm’s law V = RI
= (1.7 × 10–6 × 10–2 + 10–5 × 10–2) Copper being a metal has positive coefficient of
¸ 0.01 × 10–4 volt resistivity.
= 0.117 volt (Q I = 1A)
l 14. (a) For metals Pt = Po (1 + µ .t)
10. (b) Resistance of a wire is given by R = r So resistivity of copper decreases with decrease
a
If the length is increased by 10% then new in temperature. whereas of semiconductor or si
increases with decreases in temperature.
1 11 15. (a) R1 = 3.1 W at t = 30°C
length l' = l + = l
10 10 R2 = 4.5 W at t = 100°C
In that case, area of cross-section of wire would We have, R = R0 (1 + at)
decrease by 10% \ R1 = R0 [1 + a (30)]
\ New area of cross-section R2 = R0 [1 + a (100)]
A 9
A' = A - = A
10 10
EBD_8335
210 PHYSICS
R1 1 + 30a the same after recasting, therefore l1. A1 = l2

Þ = A2
R2 1 + 100a
l1 A2 l A2 A2
3.1 1 + 30a or l = A or 0.5l = A or A = 2 .
Þ = Þ a = 0.008°C -1 2 1 1 1
4.5 1 + 100a We also know that resistance of a wire (R)
16. (c) In discharge tube the current is due to flow
l l
of positive ions and electrons. Moreover, R= r´ .;R µ
secondary emission of electrons is also possible. A A
So V-I curve is non-linear; hence resistance is R l A l
\ 1 = 1´ 2 = ´2 = 4
non-ohmic. R2 l 2 A1 0.5 l
l R1 R
17. (b) R=r or , R2 = = .
A 4 4
L When wires are drawn from same volume but
R1 = r ... (1) with different area of cross-section, then
A
1
Rµ
2L (Area of cross-section)2
R2 = r ´2 ... (2)
A
21. (a)
L rL rl m
R3 = r = ... (3) 22. (d) R= 2
. But m = pr2 ld \ pr =
2.2 A 4 A pr 2 ld
Þ R3 < R1 < R2 2 2
rl d R = rl1 d R = rl2 d
2
18. (d) Resistance of a material at two different \R = , 1 , 2
m m1 m2
temperatures, T1 and T2 such that T2 > T, are
2
related as rl d
R3 = 3
R T2 = R T 1 [1 + a (T2 - T1 )] m3
Using this relation for the present case, we get l12 l2 2 l32
R100 = R50 [1 + a (100 – 50)] R1 : R2 : R3 = : :
m1 m2 m3
Þ 7 = 5[1 + a (50)]
25 9 1
(7 - 5) R1 : R2 : R3 = : : = 125 :15 :1
Þ a= = 0.008 / °C 1 3 5
250 23. (a) In series grouping equivalent resistance
19. (b) Given : Length of wire (l) = 15m Rseries = nR
Area (A) = 6 × 10–7 m2 In parallel grouping equivalent resistance
Resistance (R) = 5W.
R
We know that resistance of the wire material Rparallel =
n
l
R=r E
A I= ...(i)
nR + R
15
Þ 5 = r´ = 2.5 ´107 r E
6 ´10 -7 10 I = R ...(ii)
+R
5 n
Þr= = 2 ´10 -7 W - m
2.5 ´10 7 Dividing eq. (ii) by (i),
[where r = coefficient of resistivity] (n + 1) R
10 = 1
20. (a) Initial resistance (R1) = R; Initial length is æ ö
ç + 1÷ R
l1and final length (l2) = 0.5 l. Volume of a èn ø
wire = l. A. Since the volume of the wire remains Solving we get, n = 10
24. (d) Effective resistance of B and C R1R2 ( xl1 )( xl2 )

R ×R 1.5R ´ 3R 4.5R 2 equivalent resistance R =
= B C = = =R R1 + R2 xl1 + xl2
R B + R C 1.5R + 3R 4.5R
i.e., equal to resistance of voltmeter A. 8 ll
Þ =x 12
1.5R 3 l1 + l2
A B 8 l
=x 1 ...(i)
3 l1
R +1
C l2
3R also R0 = xl1 + x l2
In parallel potential difference is same so, 12 = x(l1 + l2)
VB = VC and in series current is same æ l1 ö
So, VA = VB = VC 12 = xl2 ç l + 1÷ ...(ii)
è 2 ø
25. (d) In figure, two metal wires of identical
dimension are connected in series xl1
8 æ l1 ö
A s1 s2 ç + 1÷
(i )
Þ 3 = è l2 ø =
l1
(ii ) 12 æl ö 2
xl2 ç 1 + 1÷ l æ l1 + 1ö
è l2 ø 2 çè l2 ÷ø
l l 1
l l leq
Req = + =
s1A s2 A seq Aeq 2
æ l1 ö 8 l1
ç + 1÷ ´ =
2l l æ s1 + s2 ö è l2 ø 36 l2
= ç ÷
seq A A è s1s 2 ø
8 l
(y2 + 1 + 2y) × = y (where y = 1 )
2s1s2 36 l2
\ seq =
s1 + s2 8y2 + 8 + 16y = 36y
26. (c) Resistance is directly proportional to length, Þ 8y2 – 20y + 8 = 0
1 1 1 (4 + 5) + 3 Þ 2y2 – 5y + 2 = 0
= + =
R AB 3 4 + 5 (3)(4 + 5) Þ 2y2 – 4y – y + 2 = 0
3 ´ (4 + 5) 27 Þ 2y (y – 2) – 1(y – 2) = 0
RAB = = Þ (2y – 1) (y – 2) = 0
3 + (4 + 5) 12
Similarly, l1 1
Þ y= = or 2
4 ´ (3 + 5) 32 l2 2
RBC = =
4 + (3 + 5) 12 28. (d)
5 ´ (3 + 4) 35
RAC = = pR
5 + (3 + 4) 12
\ RAB : RBC : RAC = 27 : 32 : 35
27. (d) Let x is the resistance per unit length then A B
R 1 = x l1
A B pR
R2 = x l2 Length of wire = 2pr = 2p (0.1) = 0.2pm
EBD_8335
212 PHYSICS
Resistances of complete circle/wire = 12 × 0.2p Equivalent Circuit
= 2.4p W F
\ Resistance of each semi-circle = 1.2p W
10W
Hence, equivalent resistance,
A
10W E 10W D
1.2 p 10W O
R AB = = 0.6 p W
2 10W 10W
G
Equivalent Resistance of circuit,
29. (a)
20 ´ 20
= 10W + + 10 = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30W
20 + 20
34. (c) Length of each wire = l; Area of thick wire
æ R Rö
çè . ÷ø (A1) = 3A; Area of thin wire (A2) = A and
R1R2 2 2
R eq = = R resistance of thick wire (R1) = 10 W. Resistance
R1 + R2 R R \ Req =
+ 4 l 1
2 2 ( R) = r µ (if l is constant)
A A
If a wire of resistance R is bent in the form of
circle, the effective resistance between the ends R1 A2 A 1
\ = = =
of diameter is R/4 R2 A1 3 A 3
r or, R2 = 3R1 = 3 × 10 = 30 W
30. (b) R= Þ r = nR
n The equivalent resistance of these two resistors
When connected in series, Req = nr in series
= n (nR) = n2R
= R1 + R2 = 30 + 10 = 40W.
31. (b) In circuit, RB and RC are in series, so, Rs =
6 + 6 = 12 W. This 12 W resistance is in parallel 35. (a) The potential difference across 4W
with RA = 3 W, resistance is given by
So, equivalent resistance of circuit V = 4 × i1 = 4 × 1.2 = 4.8 volt
3 ´ 12 36 12
R= = = W So, the potential across 8W resistance is also
3 + 12 15 5 4.8 volt.
V
\ Current in circuit, I = V 4.8
R Current i2 = = = 0.6 amp
4. 8 4. 8 ´ 5 8 8
= = = 2A Current in 2W resistance i = i1 + i2
æ 12 ö 12
ç ÷ \ i = 1.2 + 0.6 = 1.8 amp
è5ø
32. (a) Resistance of ACB, R' = 3W + 3W = 6W. Potential difference across 2W resistance
For net resistance between A and B; R' = 6W and VBC = 1.8 × 2 = 3.6volts
3W are in parallel. 36. (d) The two resistances are connected in
3 ´ 6 18 series and the resultant is connected in parallel
RAB = = = 2W with the third resistance.
3+ 6 9
E 2 1 1 1 3
Current in circuit ( I ) = = = 1A \ R¢ = 4 W + 4 W = 8W and = + =
RAB 2 R '' 8 4 8
10W O 10W F 10W
33. (c) A B
4W 4W
10W 10W 8
or R '' = W
G E 3
C D
10W 10W 10W 4W
If three identical resistors each of resistance R are 8

connected in the form of a triangle, the equivalent Now W is parallel to AB, that is, 2W, so total
3
resistance between the ends of a side is equal to
resistance
æ 2R ö
ç ÷. 8 / 3 ´ 2 16 / 3 16 8
è 3 ø
= = = = W
37. (c) Voltage across 3 W resistance = 3 × 0.8 = 8 / 3 + 2 14 / 3 14 7
2.4V This voltage is the same across 6 W C
r3 D
resistance. Hence current through this resistance
r2 r4 r6
V 2.4 r5
i= = = 0.4 amp
R 6
Total current in the circuit A r1 O r7 B
= 0.8 + 0.4 = 1.2 amp Between C & D, the equivalent resistance is given
by
Voltage across 4 W resistance
1 1 1 3
= 4 × 1.2 = 4.8 volts 1/ r = + = 1+ =
38. (c) To carry a current of 4 ampere, we need r3 (r4 + r5 ) 2 2
four paths, each carrying a current of one ampere. Equivalent resistance along
Let r be the resistance of each path. These are 2 8
ACDB = 1 + + 1 =
connected in parallel. Hence, their equivalent 3 3
resistance will be r/4. According to the given \ Effective resistance between A and B is
r 1 3 1 7 8
= 5 or r = 20W . = + = or R = W]
problem R 8 2 8 7
4
For this propose two resistances should be 40. (c) In series, Rs = nR
connected. There are four such combinations.
Hence, the total number of resistance = 4 × 2 = 8. 1 1 1
In parallel, = + + ...n terms
39. (d) At A current is distributed and at B currents Rp R R
are collected. Between A and B, the distribution
is symmetrical. It has been shown in the figure. \ Rs/Rp = n2 /1 = n2
It appears that current in AO and OB remains 8- 4 4 1
same. At O, current i4 returns back without any 41. (a) I= = = A;
change. If we detach O from AB there will not be 1 + 2 + 9 12 3
any change in distribution. 1
Now, CO & OD will be in series hence its total VP - VQ = 4 - ´ 3 = 3volt
resistance = 2W 3
It is in parallel with CD, so, equivalent resistance 42. (a) Given : emf e = 2.1 V
I = 0.2 A, R = 10W
2 ´1 2
= = W Internal resistance r = ?
2 +1 3 From formula.
This equivalent resistance is in series with AC e – Ir = V = IR
& DB, so, total resistance
2.1 – 0.2r = 0.2 × 10
2 8 2.1 – 0.2 r = 2 or 0.2 r = 0.1
= + 1+1 = W
3 3 0.1
Þ r= = 0.5 W
i3 D 0.2
C
i4 e 2.1
i2 i4 i= Þ 0.2 =
r+R r + 10
i2 1
Þ 2.1 = 0.2 r + 2 Þ r = = 0.5 W
A i1 O i1 B 2
EBD_8335
214 PHYSICS
43. (c) The current through the resistance R 45. (b) We have, e = at + bt2
æ e ö de
I =ç Þ = a + 2bt
è R + r ÷ø dt
At neutral temperature,
The potential difference across R
a
æ e ö t= -
V = IR = ç R 2b
è R + r ÷ø
e de
I r \ =0
dt
46. (d) 1 division = 1mA
40mV
Current for 1°C = = 4 mA
10
1
R 1mA = °C = 0.25°C.
4
47. (d) Current from D to C = 1A
e
V= e \ VD – VC = 2 × 1 = 2V
æ rö
çè1 + ÷ø V VA = 0 \ VC = 1V, \ VD – VC = 2
R
Þ VD – 1 = 2 \ VD = 3V
when R = 0, V = 0, \ VD – VB = 2 \ 3 – VB = 2 \ VB = 1V
0
R = ¥, V = e R
Thus V increases as R increases upto certain P 100 ´103 105
48. (c) I = = A= A
limit, but it does not increase further. V 125 60
44. (b) Let the internal resistance of the battery E.C.E. = 0.367 × 10–6 kg C –1
be r. Then the current flowing through the circuit
Charge per minute = (I × 60) C
is given by
E 105 ´ 60 6 ´106
= C= C
i= 125 125
R+r
In first case, 6 ´ 106
\ Mass liberated, = ´ 0.367 ´10-6
E 125
2= ...(1)
2+ r
In second case, 6 ´ 1000 ´ 0.367 ´10-3
=
125
E
0.5 = ...(2) = 17.616 × 10–3 kg
9+r 49. (d) Junction law follows from conservation of
From (1) & (2), charge and loop law is the conservation of
4 + 2r = 4.5 + 0.5 r energy
1
Þ 1.5 r = 0.5 Þ r = W. q2
3 50. (d) E = 30q -
15
If I1 be the current in a circuit with an external
dE
resistance R1 and I2 be the current in the circuit For neutral temperature, =0
with external resistance R, then internal resistance dq
of cell can be find using 2
0 = 30 – q
I 2 R2 - I1R1 15
r=
I1 - I 2 \ q = 15 ´ 15
= 225° C
Hence, neutral temperature is 225°C.
51. (d) 55. (d) Power = V × I

R
a b Power 100
I= =
i1+ i2 V 125
r1 E.C.E. of chlorine is 0.367 × 10–6 kg/coulomb
e1
f c 100
i1 i1 Charge passing in one minute = ´ 60
i2 125
= 48 coulomb
e d Chlorine precipitated = 0.367 × 10–6 × 48
i2 r2 e2 = 17.6 × 10–6 kg
Applying Kirchhoff ’s rule in loop abcfa = 17.6 mg
e1 – (i1 + i2) R – i1 r1 = 0. 56. (a) Kirchhoff ' s first law deals with
52. (a) The terminal potential difference of a cell conservation of electrical charge and the second
is given by V + Ir = E law deals with conservation of electrical energy.
V = VA – VB 57. (d) Current in the circuit
or V = E – Ir E+E 2E
= =
dV r1 + r2 + R r1 + r2 + R
Þ = – r, Also for, i = 0 then V = E
dI P.D. across first cell = E – ir1
\ slope = – r, intercept = E
2 E ´ r1
ER =E-
53. (a) Here E > , hence the lengths 110 cm (r1 + r2 ) + R
R+r
and 100 cm are interchanged. 2 Er1
Now, E = =0
Without being short-circuited through R, (r1 + r2 ) + R
only the battery E is balanced. 2 Er1
ÞE = Þ 2r1 = r1 + r2 + R
V V r1 + r2 + R
E = ´ l1 = ´ 110.....(i )
L L R = r1 – r2
V
When R is connected across E, Ri = ´ l2 In series grouping of cells their emf's are additive
L
or subtractive while their internal resistances are
æ E ö V always additive. If dissimilar plates of cells are
or, R ç ÷ = ´ 100.....( ii )
è R+rø L connected together their emf's are added to each
other while if their similar plates are connected
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
together their emf's are subtractive.
R + r 110 E1 E2
=
R 100
or, 100 R + 100 r = 110 R Eeq = E1 + E2 E1 E2
or, 10 R = 100 r req = r1 + r2 Eeq = E1 – E2 (E1 > E2)
10 R 10 ´ 10 req = r1 + r2
\ r= = (\ R = 10W )
100 100
Þ r = 1W. E1 E2 18 12
54. (c) We have, m = ZIt + +
r1 r2
where, Z is the electrochemical equivalent of 58. (d) V = = 2 1 = 14 V
1 1 1 1
copper. + +
r1 r2 2 1
Þ m = 30 ´ 10 -5 ´ 1.5 ´ 10 ´ 60
= 0.27 gm. (Since the cells are in parallel).
EBD_8335
216 PHYSICS
output E2 3E 2
59. (a) Efficiency is given by h = Power (Pi ) = = …(i)
input R eq 2R
When two from section A and one from section
5 ´ 15 ´ 14
= = 0.875 or 87.5 % B are glowing, then
10 ´ 8 ´ 15 i/2 R
60. (b) E = V + ir
R i
1.8
2.2 = 1.8 + ´r
5
10 i/2 R
Þ r= W
9
61. (b) By Faraday's Ist Law
Amount deposited (m) = Zit = Zq E
mµq R 3R
R eq = +R =
Amount deposited is directly proportional to 2 2
charge. 2E 2
62. (a) E = V – Ir Power (Pf) = …(ii)
3R
12 = V – 60 × 5 × 10–2 Dividing equation (i) by (ii) we get
12 = V – 3
Þ V = 15 volt Pi 3E 2 3R
= =9:4
63. (c) m = Zit, 9 = Z × 105, Z= 9 × 10–5 Pf 2R 2E 2
Again,
m = Zit = 9 × 10–5 × 50 × 20 × 60 = 5.4 gm 68. (a) Given: Charge Q = at – bt2
64. (a) We know from the Kirchhoff 's first law
that the algebraic sum of the current meeting at ¶Q
\ Current i= = a – 2bt
any junction in the circuit is zero (i.e. Si = 0) or ¶t
the total charge remains constant. Therefore,
a
Kirchhoff's first law at a junction deals with the {for i = 0 } Þ t=
conservation of charge. 2b
65. (c) In the electrolysis of CuSO4, oxygen is From joule's law of heating, heat produced
liberated at anode and copper is deposited at dH = i2Rdt
cathode. a /2b
66. (a) Faraday’s laws are based on th e
conversion of electrical energy into mechanical H= ò ( a - 2bt )2 Rdt
0
energy; which is in accordance with the law of
conservation of energy. a
67. (b) When all bulbs are glowing 3
( )
H = a - 2bt R
2b a 3R
R i/3 R i/3 =
-3 ´ 2b 0 6b
69. (b) Total resistance R = (0.5 W/km) × (150 km)
R i/3 R i/3 = 75 W
Total voltage drop = (8 V/km) × (150 km) = 1200 V
R i/3 R i/3
(DV)2 (1200) 2
Power loss = = W
R 75
= 19200 W = 19.2 kW
E 70. (b) Resistance is directly proportionl to length
R R 2R of the wire. As length is doubled so mass is
R eq = + =
3 3 3 doubled and resistance is doubled.
We have
V2
73. (c) We have, P=
(10E )2 (nE )2 t R
= t mS DT , Now= (2m)S DT
R 2R V2
2 2 2 2 Þ 36 =
n E t 10 E t 9
Þ =2
2R R Þ V = 18V
Þ n = 20 Current passing through the 9W resistor is
71. (c) Resistance of bulb is constant V 18
i1 = = = 2A
2
Dp 2DV DR R 9
V = +
P= Þ The 9W and 6W resistors are in parallel, therefore
R p V R
Dp 6
i1 = í
= 2 × 2.5 + 0 = 5% 9+ 6
p
where i is the current delivered by the battery.
72. (c) The power dissipated in the circuit.
2 ´ 15
V2 \i= = 5A
P= ...(i) 6
Req Thus, potential difference across 2W resistor is
V = 10 volt V = iR
=5×2
1 1 1 5+ R = 10V
= + =
Req R 5 5R 74. (d) Clearly, 2W , 4W and ( 1 + 5) W resistors are
in parallel. Hence, potential difference is same
æ 5R ö across each of them.
Req = çè ÷
5 + Rø \ I1 × 2 = I 2 × 4 = I 3 × 6
P = 30 W
Substituting the values in equation (i)
I1 2W
(10) 2 4W
30 =
æ 5R ö
çè ÷ I2
5 + Rø
15 R
= 10 I
5+ R I3 1W 5W
15R = 50 + 10R
5R = 50
R = 10 W
For a given voltage V, if resistance is changed Given I1 = 3A \ I1 × 2 = I 3 × 6
æRö
Given I1 = 3A.
from R to ç ÷ . Power consumed changes from \ I1 × 2 = I3 × 6 provides
ènø
P to nP. I ´ 2 3´ 2
I3 = 1 = = 1A.
V2 6 6
P=
R Now, the potential across the 5W resistor is
R V = I3 × 5 = 1 × 5 = 5V.
when R' = \ the power dissipated in the 5W resistor
n
V 2 nV 2 V 2 52
then P' = = = nP P= = = 5watt.
Rn R
R 5
EBD_8335
218 PHYSICS
75. (b) Power dissipiated = P R1
2 2 So, V1 = ( R + R ) V
V (18) 1 2
= = = 54 W
R 6 4
76. (c) Power = V . I = I2R i.e., V25 = ´ 440 = 352V
5
Power 2 1 1 R2
i2 = = = = A
R 8 4 2 and V2 = ( R + R ) V
1 2
1
Potential over 8W = Ri 2 = 8 ´ = 4V 1
2 i.e., V100 = ´ 440 = 88V
This is the potential over parallel branch. So, 5
4 From this, it is clear that voltage across 100 W
i1 = =1A bulb (= 88 V) is lesser than specified
4
(220 V) while across 25 W bulb (= 352 V) is greater
Power of 3W = i12R = 1 × 1 × 3 = 3W
than specified (220 V), so, 25 W bulb will fuse.
P 1 84. (b) Power is maximum when r = R, R = r = 0.5W.
77. (a) R= 2
= = 0.04W
I 25 If a cell of internal resistance r and emf E is
connected to an external resistance of radius R,
1 1 1 1 1 3
78. (a) = + + or = E
Peq P1 P2 P3 Peq 60 then current given by cell, I =
R+r
Þ Peq = 20 watt. Power dissipated in external resistance (load)
V2 V 2 (220)2 4(110) 2 P = VI = (IR) I = I2R
79. (d) P= ÞR= = = 2
R P 60 60 æ E ö
Þ P= ç ÷ R
(110)2 R èR+rø
R¢ = = when R = r
60 4
E2
10 ´ 40 400 Power, P =
4r
(Maximum)
80. (b) Time = = = 8 min
10 + 40 50
V 2 200 ´ 200
1 85. (b) R1 = = = 1000 W
81. (a) Power µ P1 40
Resistance
In series combination, resistance doubles. V 2 200 ´ 200
Hence, power will be halved. R2 = = = 400 W
P2 100
In parallel combination, resistance halves.
Hence, power will be doubled. \ R1 (for 40W) > R2 (for 100 W)
82. (c) Fuse wire : It is used in a circuit to control 86. (d) In series, Equivalent resistance = 3R
the maximum current flowing in circuit. It is a thin
wire having high resistance and is made up of a V2 V2
Power = Þ 10 = Þ V2 = 30R
material with low melting point. 3R 3R
83. (a) As for an electric appliance R = (Vs2 / W ) , 1 1 1 1 3
In parallel, = + + =
so for same specified voltage Vs R¢ R R R R
R25 100 R
= =4 \ Equivalent resistance R ¢ =
R100 25 3
i.e, R25 = 4 R with R100 = R V 2 30 R

\ Power = = = 90 W
Now in series potential divides in proportion to R¢ R / 3
resistance.
If voltage V remains same, then power consumed 94. (a) Let R1 be the resistance of resistance wire.
by a n equal resistors in parallel is n2 times that
R1 C 10 W
of power consumed in series.
87. (c) Since H µ I2 , doubling the current will G
l1 l2
produce 4 times heat. Hence, the rise in A B
temperature will also be 4 times i.e., rise in D
temperature = 4 × 5 = 20ºC.
88. (d) Power = 100 W, Voltage = 200 V
Resistance of bulb From the balancing condition of metre bridge,
2
V 200 ´ 200 R1 l1 3 30
= = = 400 W = = Þ R1 = = 15 W
P 100 10 l 2 2 2
When bulb is applied across 160 V,
Length of 15W resistance wire is 1.5 m.
160
Current in bulb = A \ Length of 1 W resistance wire
400
1.5
160 = = 0.1 m = 1.0 × 10 –1 m
Power consumption = VI = 160 ´ = 64 W 15
400
89. (d) Power of heating coil = 100 W and voltage 95. (c) Resistance for ideal voltmeter = ¥
(V) = 220 volts. When the heating coil is cut Resistance for ideal ammeter = 0
into two equal parts and these parts are joined For Ist circuit,
in parallel, then the resistance of the coil is
reduced to one-fourth of the previous value. 10
V1 = i1 ´10 = ´10 = 10 volt
Therefore energy liberated per second becomes 10
4 times i.e., 4 × 100 = 400 J. For IInd circuit,
90. (d) The energy stored in the capacitor
10
1 1 V2 = i 2 ´ 10 = ´ 10 = 10 volt
= CV 2 = ´ 4 ´ 10-4 ´ 400 ´ 400 = 0.32 J ; 10
2 2
This energy will be converted into heat in the 10V
V1 = V2 and, i1 = i 2 = = 1A
resistor. 10W
91. (b) For maximum current, the two batteries 2
should be connected in series. The current will 96. (a) Current in first branch = A
50
be maximum when external resistance is equal to
2
the total internal resistance of cells i.e. 2W. Current in second branch = A
Hence power devloped across the resistacne R 50
DV from A to P
will be
2
2
2 æ 2E ö æ 2 ´ 2ö DV1 = 2 – × 20
I R =ç R =ç ´ 2 = 2W 50
è R + 2r ÷ø è 2 + 2 ÷ø
92. (b) Since, the voltage is same for the two
1
combinations, therefore H µ . Hence, the
R
combination of 39 bulbs will glow more.
93. (b) H = I 2 Rt
H 80
or R = = 2 = 2W
2
(I t) (2 ´ 10)
EBD_8335
220 PHYSICS
DV from A to Q Let resistance of RW connected in series.
2 2V
DV2 = 2 – × 30
50
Þ Voltage difference = 0.4 V i
97. (a) For Balanced Bridge +0.4V
P l1 RW 8W
=
Q l2 2 10 –1 ´ 4 1
So, = =
R +8 8 20
Þ R + 8 = 40 or, R = 32 W
V
101. (a) EMF, E = Kl where K = potential gradient
L
V iR æ E 0 r ö l
K= = =ç
L L è r + r1 ÷ø L
E 0 rl
So, E = Kl =
(r + r1 )L
For balanced bridge (finally)
102. (b) This is a balanced wheatstone bridge
P Q condition,
=
l1 l2
5 l1 5 1.6l1
P l1 = and =
= R 100 - l1 R / 2 100 - 1.6l1
Q l2
Þ R = 15 W
On interchanging galvanometer and battery 103. (c) Internal resistance of the cell,
positions, the balance condition remains
unchanged. æ E-Vö æ l1 - l 2 ö
r= ç ÷R = ç ÷R
98. (b) Reading of potentiometer is accurate è V ø è l2 ø
because during taking reading it does not draw
any current from the circuit. æ 3 - 2.85 ö
99. (d) When two cells are connected in series i.e., =ç ÷ ´ (9.5) W = 0.5 W
è 2.85 ø
(E1 + E2) the balance point is at 50 cm. And
when two cells are connected in opposite 104. (a) Given : V = 7 V
direction i.e., (E1 – E2) the balance point is at 10 r = 5W
cm. According to principle of potential P Q
E1 + E 2 50
=
E1 - E 2 10
2E1 50 + 10 E1 3 5W
Þ = Þ =
2E 2 50 - 10 E2 2 7V
100. (d) Total potential difference across 40 ´ 120
potentiometer wire Req = W
40 + 120
= 10–3 × 400 volt = 0.4 volt
1mv V 7
potential gradient = I= =
cm R 40 ´ 120
5+
v 40 + 120
= 10–3 v/cm = 10–1 m 7 1
= = = 0.2 A.
5 + 30 5
105. (b) 108. (c) Current will flow from B to A

R1 A
G 4W 4W
C D
VA R VB
1W 3W
Since deflection in galvanometer is zero so

Potential drop over the resistance CA will be more
current will flow as shown in the above diagram.
due to higher value of resistance. So potential at
V 12 12 A will be less as compared with at B. Hence,
current I = A = =
R1 + R 500 + 100 600 current will flow from B to A.
109. (d) It is a balanced Wheatstone bridge. Hence
12 resistance 4W can be eliminated.
So VB = IR = ´ 100 = 2V
600 6 ´ 9 18
106. (b) (i) When key between the terminals 1 \ Req = =
6+ 9 5
and 2 is plugged in,
V 5V
P.D. across R = IR = k l1 \i= =
Req 18
Þ R = k l1 as I = 1A
110. (d) A balanced Wheststone’s bridge exists
(ii) When key between terminals 1 and 3 is
between A & B.
plugged in,
\ Req = R
P.D. across (X + R) = I(X + R) = k l2 Current through circuit = V/R
Þ X + R = k l2 Current through AFCEB = V/2R
\ X = k (l2 – l1) 111. (d) Since, Wheatstone's bridge is balanced,
then resistance of galvanometer will be
\ R = kl1 and X = k (l2 – l1) uneffective.
107. (a) A balanced wheatstone bridge simply
requires R R 2R
P R 2 2
= Þ = R
Q S 2 S
Therefore, S should be 2W. R R 2R
A resistance of 6W is connected in parallel.
In parallel combination, Wheat stone bridge is most sensitive if all the
arms of bridge have equal resistances.
1 1 1
= + 112. (a) Potential gradient = Potential fall per unit
R R1 R2
length.
1 1 1 In this case resistance of unit length.
= + Þ S = 3W
2 6 S rl 10 -7 ´ 1
R= = = 10-1 W
If the resistance is connected in parallel to the A 10-6
right gap resistor in the metre bridge, then Potential fall across R is
balancing length increases and hence jockey
moves towards right.
V = I .R = 0.1 ´ 10-1 = 0.01 volt/m.
= 10-2 volt / m
EBD_8335
222 PHYSICS
113. (a) Potentiometer measures potential current 115. (a) Let unknown resistance be X. Then
more accurately because it measure potential in condition of Wheatstone's bridge gives
open circuit and hence error in potential due to
X 20r
internal resistance is removed. = , where r is resistance of wire
R 80r
114. (a) It is a balanced wheatstone bridge
per cm.
æ 3 6ö X R = 1W
çQ = ÷ , so the 7W resistance is ineffective.
è 4 8ø
Equivalent resistance of 3W and 4W = 3 + 4
= 7W (series)
Equivalent resistance of 6W and 8W = 6 + 8
=14W (series)
P = 20r Q = 80r
Equivalent resistance of 7W and 14W (parallel) 20 cm
(100 – 20) cm
7 ´ 14 14
= = W 20 1
7 + 14 3 \X = ´ R = ´ 1 = 0.25 W
80 4
Moving Charges and Magnetism 223
18 Moving Charges
and Magnetism
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Motion of Charged Particle Radius of Circular path 1 E
in Magnetic Field & Moment
Bcentre of Solenoid 1 A
B due to Cylindrical Wire 1 E 1 A
Torque on a Current 1 E
Carrying Loop
1 A 1 E 1 A
Galvanometer and Its

Conversion into Ammeter & 1 E
Voltmeter
Topic 1: Motion of Charged Particle in energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it,
Magnetic Field & Moment are given by : [2012]
mn
1. Ionized hydrogen atoms and a-particles with (a) B = and K = 2mp2n2R2
same momenta enters perpendicular to a e
2pm n
constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their (b) B = and K = m2pnR2
e
radii of their paths rH : ra will be : [2019] 2pmn
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) B = and K = 2mp2n2R2
e
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 mn
2. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a (d) B = and K = m2pnR2
e
region of uniform magnetic field B, moving at 4. An a-particle moves in a circular path of radius
right angles to field B. If the radius of circular 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of
orbits for both the particles is equal and the 0.25 Wb/m2. The wavelength associated with
kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV the the particle will be : [2012]
energy acquired by the alpha particle will be: (a) 1 Å (b) 0.1 Å
[2015 RS]
(c) 10 Å (d) 0.01 Å
(a) 0.5 MeV (b) 1.5 MeV
5. A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is
(c) 1 MeV (d) 4 MeV
moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform
3. An alternating electric field, of frequency v, is
magnetic field. What should be the energy of
applied across the dees (radius = R) of a
an a-particle to describe a circle of same radius
cyclotron that is being used to accelerate
in the same field? [2012M]
protons (mass = m). The operating magnetic
(a) 2 MeV (b) 1 MeV
field (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic
(c) 0.5 MeV (d) 4 MeV
EBD_8335
224 PHYSICS
6. A uniform electric field and uniform magnetic (a) 3T (b) 2T

field are acting along the same direction in a (c) T (d) 4T
certain region. If an electron is projected in the 11. A beam of electron passes undeflected through
region such that its velocity is pointed along mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields.
the direction of fields, then the electron [2011] If the electric field is switched off, and the same
(a) will turn towards right of direction of magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move
motion (a) in a circular orbit [2007]
(b) speed will decrease (b) along a parabolic path
(c) speed will increase (c) along a straight line
(d) will turn towards left direction of motion (d) in an elliptical orbit.
7. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their 12. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the
centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated
Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two by an electric potential V and then made to
magnets at a distance D from the centre O as describe semicircular path of radius R using a
shown in the Figure [2010] magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant,
P æ charge on the ion ö
D the ratio ç ÷ will be
è mass of the ion ø
proportional to [2007]
(a) 1/R2 (b) R2
O (c) R (d) 1/R
S N N S
13. A charged paritcle (charge q) is moving in a
circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The
d associated magnetic moment µ is given by
The force on the charge Q is [2007]
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper (a) qvR2 (b) qvR2 /2
(b) zero (c) qvR (d) qvR/2
(c) directed along OP 14. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic
(d) directed along PO field a charged particle is moving in a circle of
8. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle radius R with constant speed v. The time period
of charge – 2 mC in a magnetic field of 2T acting of the motion [2007]
in y direction, when the particle velocity is (a) depends on both R and v
(b) is independent of both R and v
( )
2 iˆ + 3 ˆj ´ 106 ms –1, is [2009] (c) depends on R and not on v
(a) 4 N in z direction (d) depends on v and not on R
(b) 8 N in y direction 15. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
(c) 8 N in z direction uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field
(d) 8 N in –z direction B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the
9. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic circle is proportional to [2005]
field, a charged particle moves with constant B B
speed v in a circle of radius R. The time period (a) (b)
v v
of rotation of the particle: [2009] v v
(a) depends on R and not on v (c) (d)
B B
(b) is independent of both v and R 16. A charged particle moves through a magnetic
(c) depends on both v and R field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(d) depends on v and not on R (a) velocity remains unchanged [2003]
10. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic (b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic
r (c) direction of the particle remains
field of induction B . After 3 seconds, the unchanged
kinetic energy of the particle will be: [2008] (d) acceleration remains unchanged
r
17. In a certain region of space electric field E 23. A beam of electrons is moving with constant
r velocity in a region having simultaneous
and magnetic field B are perpendicular to each
perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of
other and an electron enters in region
r r strength 20 Vm–1 and 0.5 T respectively at right
perpendicular to the direction of B and E both angles to the direction of motion of the
and moves undeflected, then velocity of electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must
electron is [2001]
r be [1996]
E (a) 8 m/s (b) 20 m/s
r r r
(a) (b) E ´ B 1
B (c) 40 m/s (d) m/s
r 40
B r r
(c) r (d) E × B 24. An electron enters a region where magnetic
E field (B) and electric field (E) are mutually
18. A charged particle of charge q and mass m perpendicular, then [1994]
r (a) it will always move in the direction of B
enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B .
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then
(c) it always possesses circular motion
frequency of rotation is [2001]
(d) it can go undeflected also
qB qB 25. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction
(a) (b)
mp 2 pm is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in
qBE qB negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(c) (d) (a) remain unaffected [1993]
2pm 2 pE
19. A proton moving with a velocity 3 × 105 m/s (b) start moving in a circular path Y–Z plane
enters a magnetic field of 0.3 tesla at an angle (c) retard along X-axis
of 30º with the field. The radius of curvature (d) move along a helical path around X-axis
of its path will be (e/m for proton = 108 C/kg) 26. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is
[2000] describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre
(a) 2 cm (b) 0.5 cm in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field
(c) 0.02 cm (d) 1.25 cm B. The kinetic energy of the proton that
20. When a proton is accelerated through 1 V, then describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre
its kinetic energy will be [1999] in the same plane with the same B is [1991]
(a) 25 keV (b) 50 keV
(a) 1840 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(c) 200 keV (d) 100 keV
(c) 1 eV (d) 0.54 eV
27. A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles
21. A positively charged particle moving due east to the direction of motion of electron. As a
enters a region of uniform magnetic field result, the electron moves in a circular path of
directed vertically upwards. The particle will radius 2cm. If the speed of electron is doubled,
(a) continue to move due east [1997] then the radius of the circular path will be
(b) move in a circular orbit with its speed [1991]
unchanged (a) 2.0 cm (b) 0.5 cm
(c) move in a circular orbit with its speed (c) 4.0 cm (d) 1.0 cm
increased 28. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform
(d) gets deflected vertically upwards. magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its
22. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at plane becomes [1988]
right angles to a uniform field at magnetic (a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
induction 10– 4 Wb/m 2 (= 1.0 gauss). The (b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
orbital radius of the electron is [1996] magnetic field
(a) 12 cm (b) 16 cm (c) parallel to the magnetic field
(c) 11 cm (d) 18 cm (d) perpendicular to the magnetic field
EBD_8335
226 PHYSICS
Topic 2: Magnetic Field, Biot-Savart's Law & field at the centre P of the loop is,
Ampere's Circuital Law [NEET Odisha 2019]
29. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 m0i
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic (a) , inward
2R
field at the centre of the solenoid is : [2020] (b) Zero
(m0 = 4p × 10–7 T m A–1) (c) 3m0i/32R, outward
(a) 3.14 × 10–4 T (b) 6.28 × 10–5 T (d) 3m0i/32R, inward
(c) 3.14 × 10–5 T (d) 6.28 × 10–4 T 33. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
30. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying current I. The current is uniformly distributed
a constant current. The plot of the magnitude over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic
of the magnetic field, B with the distance, d, a
fields B and B¢, at radial distances and 2a
from the centre of the conductor, is correctly 2
represented by the figure : [2019] respectively, from the axis of the wire is :
[2016]
1 1
(a) (b)
(a) 4 2
(c) 1 (d) 4
34. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius
r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic
field produced at the centre has magnitude:
[2015]
(b)
m 0n 2 e
(a) Zero (b)
r
m0ne m0ne
(c) (d)
2r 2 pr
35. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown
(c) in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are
very long and parallel to X-axis while
semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z
plane. Magnetic field at point O is : [2015]
Z
(d)
I
31. Two toroids 1 and 2 have total no. of turns 200 R
Y
and 100 respectively with average radii 40 cm O
and 20 cm respectively. If they carry same
current i, the ratio of the magnetic fields along I
the two loops is, [NEET Odisha 2019]
X
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 ur
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 (a) B = –
m0 I $
4p R
(
mi ´ 2k$ )
32. A straight conductor carrying current i splits
ur
into two parts as shown in the figure. The radius
of the circular loop is R. The total magnetic
m I $
(b) B = – 0
4p R
(
pi + 2k$ )
ur m0 I
(c) B =
4p R
(
p$i – 2k$ ) (a)
m0 qf
2R
(b)
m0 q
2 fR
ur m0 I
(d) B =
4p R
(
p$i + 2k$ ) (c)
m 0q
2pf R
(d)
m0 qf
2 pR
36. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and 40. A particle having a mass of 10–2 kg carries a
COD are placed at right angle to each other, with charge of 5 × 10–8C. The particle is given an
one above other such that ‘O’ is their common initial horozontal velocityr of 105 ms–1 in the
point for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2
presence
r of electric field E and magnetic field
currents respectively. Point ‘P’ is lying at
B . To keep the particle moving in a horizontal
distance ‘d’ from ‘O’ along a direction
direction,
r it is necessary that [2010]
perpendicular to the plane containing the wires.
The magnetic field at the point ‘P’ will be : (1) B should be perpendicular to the direction
r
[2014] of velocity and E should be along the
æ
m0 I1 ö m0 direction of velocity.
(a) ç ÷ (b) ( I1 + I 2 ) r r
2pd è I 2 ø 2 pd (2) Both B and E should be along the
m0 2 m0 2 direction of velocity.
(c) ( I1 - I 22 ) (d) ( I1 + I 22 )1/2 r r
2 pd 2pd (3) Both B and E are mutually perpendicular
37. When a proton is released from rest in a room, and perpendicular to the direction of
it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards velocity.
west. When it is projected towards north with r
a speed v0 it moves with an initial acceleration (4) B should be along the direction of velocity
r
3a0 towards west. The electric and magnetic and E should be perpendicular to the
fields in the room are respectively [2013] direction of velocity.
ma0 2ma0 Which one of the following pairs of statements
(a) west, down
e ev0 is possible?
ma0 3ma0 (a) (2) and (4) (b) (1) and (3)
(b) east, up (c) (3) and (4) (d) (2) and (3)
e ev0
ma0 41. A current loop consists of two identical
3ma0
(c) east, down semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying
e ev0 in the x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If
ma0 2ma0 the current in the loop is i., the resultant
(d) west, up magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts
e ev0
at their common centre is [2010]
38. Two similar coils of radius R are lying
concentrically with their planes at right angles m0 i m 0i
to each other. The currents flowing in them are (a) (b)
2R 2 2R
I and 2 I, respectively. The resultant magnetic
m 0i m 0i
field induction at the centre will be: [2012] (c) (d)
2R 4R
5m 0 I 3m0 I 42. Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the
(a) (b)
2R 2R same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice
m0 I m0I that of the 2nd coil. What potential difference
(c) (d) in volts should be applied across them so that
2R R
39. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of the magnetic field at their centres is the same
radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a [2006]
uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude (a) 4 (b) 6
of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring (c) 2 (d) 3
is [2011M, 2010]
EBD_8335
228 PHYSICS
r
43. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a r m0 æ d l ´ rr ö
magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is (a) dB = iç ÷
4p è r ø
double and the number of turns per cm is halved,
r
the new value of the magnetic field is [2003] r m0 2 æ d l ´ rr ö
(a) 4B (b) B/2 (b) dB = i ç ÷
4p è r 2 ø
(c) B (d) 2B r
44. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same r m0 2 æ d l ´ rr ö
(c) dB = i ç ÷
current it is bent first to form a circular plane 4p è r ø
r
r m0 æ d l ´ rr ö
coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field
B at the centre of the coil. The same length is (d) dB = i ç ÷
now bent more sharply to give a double loop of 4p è r 3 ø
smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre 50. Two equal electric currents are flowing
of the double loop, caused by the same current is perpendicular to each other as shown in the
[2002] figure. AB and CD are perpendicular to each
(a) 4B (b) B/4 other and symmetrically placed with respect to
(c) B/2 (d) 2B the current flow. Where do we expect the
45. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both resultant magnetic field to be zero? [1996]
perpendicular to the plane of the paper with I
distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry C A
currents of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in
the same direction, then the magnetic field at a
point half-way between the wires is [2000] O
3m 0 m0 I
(a) (b)
2p p
3m 0 m0 B
(c) (d) D
2p 2p
(a) on AB
46. Magnetic field intensity at the centre of a coil
of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current (b) on CD
of 2 A is [1999] (c) on both AB and CD
(a) 0.5 × 10–5 T (b) 1.25 × 10–4 T (d) on both OD and BO
(c) 3 × 10–5 T (d) 4 × 10–5 T 51. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a
47. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current, current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of 1
then magnetic field is produced [1999] mm diameter carrying same current. The strength
(a) inside the pipe only of magnetic field far away is [1995, 97, 99]
(b) outside the pipe only (a) twice the earlier value
(c) both inside and outside the pipe (b) same as the earlier value
(b) no where (c) one-half of the earlier value
48. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain (d) one-quarter of the earlier value
length and then from the same length a coil of 52. At what distance from a long straight wire
two turns is made. If the same current is passed carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field
in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic be equal to 3 × 10–5 Wb/m2? [1995]
inductions at their centres will be [1998] (a) 8 × 10–2 m (b) 12 × 10–2 m
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 18 × 10–2 m (d) 24 × 10–2 m
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 53. The magnetic field at a distance r from a long
r
49. The magnetic field ( dB ) due to a small element wire carrying current i is 0.4 tesla. The magnetic
r field at a distance 2r is [1992]
(dl) at a distance (r ) and element carrying
(a) 0.2 tesla (b) 0.8 tesla
current i is [1996] (c) 0.1 tesla (d) 1.6 tesla
54. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at 2m0i 2 2m0i 2

a distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying (a) (b)
pd pd
wire is 10–3 T. The field of induction at a 2
distance 12 cm from the current will be m0i m0i 2
(c) (d)
[1990] 2pd 2 pd
(a) 3.33 × 10–4 T (b) 1.11 × 10–4 T 60. A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is
(c) 3 × 10–3 T (d) 9 × 10–3 T placed near and coplanar with a long straight
55. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force
the form of [1989] on the loop will be : [2016]
(a) electric field Y B C
(b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength L
I 1
(d) heat
56. Tesla is the unit of [1988]
(a) magnetic flux
X A D
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic induction
(d) magnetic moment L/2 L
2m0 Ii m0 Ii
(a) (b)
Topic 3: Force & Torque on a Current 3p 2p
Carrying Conductor 2m0 IiL m0 IiL
(c) (d)
57. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg 3p 2p
m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined 61. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1
plane which makes an angle of 30°with the m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically
horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down in a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 weber/
by flowing a current through it when a magnetic m2. The coil carries a current of 2A. If the plane
field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the of the coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with
vertical direction. The current flowing in the the direction of the field, the torque required
rod to keep it stationary is [2018] to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be :
(a) 7.14 A (b) 5.98 A [2015 RS]
(c) 11.32 A (d) 14.76 A (a) 0.20 Nm (b) 0.24 Nm
58. A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm (c) 0.12 Nm (d) 0.15 Nm
and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 mA 62. A current loop in a magnetic field [2013]
and subjected to magnetic field of strength 0.85 (a) can be in equilibrium in one orientation
T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180º (b) can be in equilibrium in two orientations,
against the torque is [2017] both the equilibrium states are unstable
(a) 4.55 mJ (b) 2.3 mJ (c) can be in equilibrium in two orientations,
(c) 1.15 mJ (d) 9.1 mJ one stable while the other is unstable
59. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires
(d) experiences a torque whether the field is
placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying
uniform or non-uniform in all orientations
same current 'I along the same direction is
shown in fig. Magnitude of force per unit length 63. A long straight wire carries a certain current
on the middle wire 'B' is given by [2017] and produces a magnetic field of 2 × 10 –4
weber
B d C at a perpendicular distance of 5 cm from
m2
90° the wire. An electron situated at 5 cm from the
wire moves with a velocity 107 m/s towards the
d wire along perpendicular to it. The force
experienced by the electron will be
A [NEET Kar. 2013]
EBD_8335
230 PHYSICS
(charge on electron =1.6 × 10–19 C) (a) a net repulsive force away from the
(a) Zero (b) 3.2 N conductor
(c) 3.2 × 10–16 N (d) 1.6 × 10–16 N (b) a net torque acting upward perpendicular
64. A circular coil ABCD carrying a current i is to the horizontal plane
placed in a uniform magnetic field. rIf the (c) a net torque acting downward normal to
magnetic force on the segment AB is F , the the horizontal plane
force on the remaining segment BCDA is (d) a net attractive force towards the
conductor
[NEET Kar. 2013, 2010]
67. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and
A
area of cross-section 1.5 × 10–4 m2 carries a
i
current of 2.0 A. It suspended through its centre
and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to
D B
turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic
field 5 × 10–2 tesla making an angle of 30° with
the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the
r C r
(a) (b) -F solenoid will be: [2010]
F
r r –2
(a) 3 × 10 N-m –3
(b) 3 × 10 N-m
(c) 3F (d) -3F (c) 1.5 × 10–3 N-m (d) 1.5 × 10–2 N-m
65. A current carrying loop in the form of a right 68. Q
angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in a
uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the
magnetic force on the arm BC is F, what is the P
force on the arm AC? [2011] F3
A F1
S R
F2
A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed
B C in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces
r r on segments PS, SR, and RQ are F1 , F2 and F3
(a) – 2 F (b) - F respectively and are in the plane of the paper
r r and along the directions shown, the force on
(c) F (d) 2F
the segment QP is [2008]
66. A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is
placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight (a) F3 – F1– F2 (b) (F3 – F1 )2 + F22
conductor carrying a steady current I 1 at a
distance d from the conductor as shown in (c) (F3 – F1 )2 – F22 (d) F3 – F1+F2
figure. The loop will experience [2011M]
I1 69. When a charged particle moving with velocity
r
v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction
r
d I B , the force on it is non-zero. This implies
that [2006]
r r
(a) angle between v and B can have any value
other than 90°
r r
(b) angle between v and B can have any value
I other than zero and 180°
r r
(c) angle between v and B is either zero Topic 4: Galvanometer and Its Conversion
or 180° into Ammeter & Voltmeter
r r
(d) angle between v and B is necessarily 90° 75. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
70. A very long straight wire carries a current I. galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
At the instant when a charge +Q at point P sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
r applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
has velocity v , as shown, the force on the
galvanometer is [2018]
charge is [2005]
(a) 40 W (b) 25 W
Y (c) 500 W (d) 250 W
76. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30V
and a resistance 40.8W all connected in series.
If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480W
and a shunt of 20W, the reading in the ammeter
O X
will be: [2015 RS]
(a) 0.25 A (b) 2A
(c) 1 A (d) 0.5 A
77. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes
through the galvanometer. If resistance of
(a) along OY (b) opposite to OY galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will
(c) along OX (d) opposite to OX be : [2014]
71. A particle having charge q moves with a velocity 1 499
r (a) G (b) G
v through a region in which both an electric 499 500
r r
field E and a magnetic field B are present .The 1 500
(c) G (d) G
force on the particle is [2002] 500 499
r r r r r r 78. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be
(a) qE + q( B ´ v ) (b) qE .( B ´ v )
r r r converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range.
r r r
(c) qv + q( E ´ B) (d) qE + q(v ´ B) The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be :
72. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 [2012]
metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current. (a) 0.001 (b) 0.01
The force of attraction per unit length between (c) 1 (d) 0.05
the two wires is [1998] 79. A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by
(a) 2 × 10–7 N/m (b) 2 × 10–8 N/m a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current
in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be
(c) 5 × 10–8 N/m (d) 10–7 N/m
put in series with the galvanometer is [2011M]
73. A coil carrying electric current is placed in
uniform magnetic field, then [1993] S2 SG
(a) (b)
(a) torque is formed (S + G) (S + G)
(b) e.m.f is induced
G2 G
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct (c) (d)
(d) none of the above (S + G) (S + G)
74. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying 80. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm
a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform and gives a full-scale deflection for 30 mA
magnetic field of induction 2 tesla. The magnetic current. It is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt
field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. range, the resistance required to be added will
The force on the wire is [1992] be [2010]
(a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N (a) 900 W (b) 1800 W
(c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N (c) 500 W (d) 1000 W
EBD_8335
232 PHYSICS
81. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 (c) a high resistance in series with its coil
W shows full scale deflection when a current (d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted 85. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25
into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp divisions. A current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a
by [2009] deflection of one per division. To convert this
(a) putting in series a resistance of 15W galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range
(b) putting in series a resistance of 240W of 25 volts, it should be connected with a
(c) putting in parallel a resistance of 15W resistance of [2004, 2002]
(d) putting in parallel a resistance of 240W (a) 2450 W in series (b) 2500 W in series.
82. A galvanometer of resistance 50 W is connected (c) 245 W in series. (d) 2550 W in series.
to battery of 3V along with a resistance of 2950 W 86. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms
in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If
obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing
this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in through the shunt will be [1998]
series should be [2008] (a) 0.25 amp (b) 0.8 amp
(a) 5050 W (b) 5550 W (c) 0.2 amp (d) 0.5 amp
(c) 6050 W (d) 4450 W 87. A galvanometer of resistance 20 W gives full
83. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 W and its scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A. To
scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the
After an additional shunt has been connected required shunt resistance should be
to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure (a) 0.38W (b) 0.21W [1996]
currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The (c) 0.08W (d) 0.05W
value of shunt-resistance is [2007] 88. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one
(a) 2 W (b) 0.2 W needs to connect a [1992]
(c) 2 k W (d) 20 W (a) low resistance in parallel
84. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have (b) high resistance in parallel
[2004, 2002] (c) low resistance in series
(a) a low resistance in series with its coil. (d) high resistance in series.
(b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 11 (a) 21 (b) 31 (b) 41 (b) 51 (b) 61 (a) 71 (d) 81 (c)
2 (c) 12 (a) 22 (c) 32 (b) 42 (None) 52 (a) 62 (c) 72 (a) 82 (d)
3 (c) 13 (d) 23 (c) 33 (c) 43 (c) 53 (a) 63 (c) 73 (a) 83 (a)
4 (d) 14 (b) 24 (d) 34 (c) 44 (a) 54 (a) 64 (b) 74 (b) 84 (c)
5 (b) 15 (c) 25 (a) 35 (b) 45 (d) 55 (b) 65 (b) 75 (d) 85 (a)
6 (b) 16 (b) 26 (d) 36 (d) 46 (b) 56 (b) 66 (d) 76 (d) 86 (b)
7 (b) 17 (a) 27 (c) 37 (a) 47 (b) 57 (c) 67 (d) 77 (c) 87 (c)
8 (d) 18 (b) 28 (d) 38 (a) 48 (b) 58 (d) 68 (b) 78 (a) 88 (a)
9 (b) 19 (b) 29 (d) 39 (a) 49 (d) 59 (c) 69 (b) 79 (c)
10 (c) 20 (c) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50 (a) 60 (a) 70 (a) 80 (a)
Hints & Solutions

mv P æ1ö
1. (a) Radius of the path = r = = Þ (2e) (0.83 × 10–2) ç ÷
qB qB è4ø
pH
For H+ion, rH = 6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 4
eB l=
For a particle 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 0.83 ´ 10-2
p l = 9.93 × 10–34 + 21 » 0.01 Å
ra = a 5. (b) According to the principal of circular
2eB motion in a magnetic field,
p
rH mv 2
= eB Fc = Fm Þ = qVB
ra p R
2eB mv P 2m.K
Þ R= = =
[as given pH = pa = p] qB qB qB
r 2 2(4m) K ¢
Þ H = Ra =
ra 1 2qB
mv 2
2. (c) As we know, F = qvB = R K
R =
Ra K¢
mv 2m(kE )
\R= = but R = Ra (given)
qB qB Thus K = K¢ = 1 MeV
r
Since R is same so, KE µ
q2 6. (b) vr and B are in same direction so that
m magnetic force on electron becomes zero, only
Therefore KE of a particle electric force acts. But force on electron due
q2
2
( 2 ) = 1 MeV to electric field is opposite to the direction of
= = velocity.
m 4
3. (c) Time period of cyclotron is r r r
(i) If v , E and B are all collinear. In this case the
1 2pm 2pm mu p magnetic force acting on the electron is zero and
T= = ; B= u; R = = r
u eB e eB eB only electric force will act. So, acceleration a =
r
2pmu F
Þ p = eBR = e ´ R = 2pmuR . The electron will undeflected in a straight line
e m
path with change in speed.
p 2 (2 pmuR )2 r r r
K.E. = = = 2p2mu2R2 (ii) When v , E and B are mutually perpendicular..
2m 2m r r r
4. (d) Wavelength In this case F = Fe + Fm = 0
h h Here, Fe = electric force
l = Þl = , Fm = magnetic force
p mv r
h = plank’s constant = 6.63 × 10–34 J.S r F
Here, a = =0
For circular motion = Fc = qvB m
The particle (electron) will pass with same velocity
mn 2 mv
=r without any deviation in path.
Þ = qnB Þ
r qB 7. (b) Force on a charged particle is given by F
mv = qvB. Here v = 0 and also resultant B is zero.
r= Þ mv = qrB
qB \ Force = 0
EBD_8335
234 PHYSICS
8. (d) The magnetic force acting on the charged z v

x
paraticle is given by
r r r
(
F = q v× B )
= (–2× 10–6) [{2iˆ + 3j)
ˆ ´ 106 } ´ (2ˆj)] v
14. (b)
ˆ
= –4(2k) x
= –8kˆ l
\ Force is of 8N along negative z-axis. When a test charge q0 enters a magnetic field
9. (b) The time period of the charged particle is r r
B directed along z-axis, with a velocity v
2πm making angles d with the z-axis. The time period
given by, T =
qB of the motion is independent of R and v.
Thus, time period is independent of both v and 15. (c) Magnetic field produced by moving
R. electron in circular path
10. (c) When a charged particle enters a m i
transverse magnetic field it traverse a circular B= o
2r
path. Its kinetic energy remains constant. Here, i = current
11. (a) If the electric field is switched off, and r = radius of circular path
the same magnetic field is maintained, the
q q é Distance 2pr ù
electrons move in a circular orbit and electron But i = = v êQ t = Velocity = v ú
will travel a magnetic field perpendicular to its t 2pr ë û
velocity. mo qv
\ Manetic field at centre, B = ´
12. (a) In mass spectrometer, when ions are 2 r 2pr
accelerated through potential V moqv V
1 2 Þ B= 2 Þ rµ
mv = qV ..........(i) 4pr B
2 16. (b) Magnetic force acts perpendicular to the
As the magnetic field curves the path of the ions velocity. Hence speed remains constant.
in a semicircular orbit 17. (a) Electron moves undeflected if force exerted
mv 2 BqR due to electric field is equal to force due to
Bqv = Þv= .......... (ii) magnetic field.
R m ur
Substituting (ii) in (i) r ur ur r |E|
2 q | v || B |= q | E | Þ | v |= ur
1 é BqR ù |B|
m = qV 18. (b) For circular path in magnetic field,
2 êë m úû
mrw2 = qvB
q 2V qvB
or = 2 2 Þ w =
2
As v = rw
m B R mr
Since V and B are constants, q(r w) B qB
\ w2 = Þ w=
q 1 mr m
\ µ 2
m R \ If n is frequency of rotation, then
13. (d) Magnetic moment, m = IA w qB
n= Þ n=
qv qvR 2p 2 pm
= ( pR 2 ) =
2pR 2 mv sin q 3 ´ 105 sin 30 º
19. (b) r = =
é q 2pR ù Be 0.3 ´ 10 8
êëQ I = T and T = v úû 1
3 ´ 105 ´
2 = 0.5 ´ 10 – 2 m = 0.5cm.
7
3 ´ 10
If the change particle is moving perpendicular to When q = 0°, 180° then particle will be moving
in a direction parallel or antiparallel to the field.
mv 2
the magnetic field then qVB = In such cases, the trajectory of the particle is a
r straight line.
mv 26. (d) For a charged particle orbiting in a circular
Þ r=
qB path in a magnetic field
If the charge particle is moving at an, angle (other
than 0°, 90°, 180°) to the field, then mv2 Bqr
= Bqv Þ v =
m( v sin q)2 mv sin q r m
q (v sin q)B = Þ r=
r qB or, mv 2 = Bqvr
20. (c) Potential difference (V) = 1V, Also,
K.E. acquired = qV 1 2 1 r Bqr B 2 q 2 r 2
= 1.6 × 10–19 × 1 EK = mv = Bqvr = Bq . =
2 2 2 m 2m
= 1.6 × 10–19 joules = 1 eV
21. (b) In a perpendicular magnetic field, the path B2 q2 r 2
For deuteron, E1 =
of a charged particle is a circle, and the 2 ´ 2m
magnetic field does not cause any change in B2 q 2r 2
energy. For proton, E2 =
2m
22. (c) K.E. of electron = 10 eV
1 E1 1 50keV 1
Þ mv 2 = 10 eV = Þ = Þ E2 = 100keV
2 E2 2 E2 2
1 -31 2 -19 mv
Þ (9.1 ´ 10 )v = 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 27. (c) r = or r µ v
2 qB
2 2 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 As v is doubled, the radius also becomes double.
Þ v = -31 Hence, radius = 2 × 2 = 4 cm
9.1 ´ 10
Þ v2 = 3.52 × 1012 Þ v = 1.88 × 106 m 28. (d) The plane of coil will orient itself so that
area vector aligns itself along the magnetic
Also, we know that for circular motion
field.
mv 2 mv
So, the plane will orient perpendicular to the
= Bev Þ r = = 11 cm
r Be magnetic field.
23. (c) The electron moves with constant velocity
29. (d) Magnetic field at the centre of solenoid,
without deflection. Hence, force due to
magnetic field is equal and opposite to force Bsolenoid = m 0 nl
due to electric field. Given : No. of turns / length,
E 20 N 100
qvB = qE Þ v = = = 40 m/s n= = = 200 turns/ m
B 0.5 L 50 ´ 10 -2
24. (d) When the deflection produced by electric
Current, I = 2.5 A
field is equal to the deflection produced by
magnetic field, then the electron can go \ Bsolenoid = m 0 nI = 4p ´ 10 -7 ´ 200 ´ 2.5
undeflected.
= 6.28 ´ 10 -4 T
25. (a) The force acting on a charged particle in
magnetic field is given by 30. (c) Inside (d < R)
r r r Magnetic field inside conductor
F = q ( v ´ B ) or F = qvB sin q,
When angle between v and B is 180°, B = Kd ..... (i)
F=0 This is straight line passing through origin
r r r r
Force, F = q (v ´ B ) = qvB sin q At surface (d = R)
EBD_8335
236 PHYSICS
m0 1 34. (c) Radius of circular orbit = r

B=
2p d No. of rotations per second = n
Maximum at surface 1
i.e., T =
Outside (d > R) n
m 1
B= 0
2p d O
1 r
or B µ \ Hyperbolic
d
m N×I
31. (b) B = 0 Magnetic field at its centre, Bc =?
2 pR As we know, current
B1 N1R2 200 20
\ = = =1 e e
B2 N 2 R1 100 40 i= = = en = equivalent current
T (1/ n)
B
So, 1 = 1 Magnetic field at the centre of circular orbit,
B2
m i m ne
32. (b) Net magnetic field at point ‘P’ Bc = 0 = 0
2r 2r
35. (b) Magnetic field due to segment ‘1’
uur m I
B1 = 0 [sin 90° + sin 0°] (–k)$
4 pR
– m0 I ur
=
4pR
()
k$ = B3
Magnetic field due to segment 2
B2 =
4R
–i =( )
m0 I $ – m0 I $
4pR
pi ( )
r r
Bnet = B1 + B2 Z
Hence, Bnet = B1 – B2
æ q ö m0i1 æ 2 p – q ö 2
i1 = i ç ÷ Þ B1 = ç ÷
è 2p ø 2 R è 2p ø
O Y
æ 2p – q ö m0i2 æ q ö 1
i2 = i ç ÷ Þ B2 = ç ÷ I I
è 2p ø 2 R è 2p ø 3
p
Here q =
2 ur X
Bnet = B1 – B2 = 0 \ B at centre
ur ur ur ur
33. (c) For points inside the wire i.e., (r £ R) Bc = B1 + B2 + B3 =
– m0I $
4pR
pi + 2k$ ( )
m0 Ir
Magnetic field B = 36. (d) Net magnetic field, B = B12 + B22
2 pR 2
For points outside the wire (r ³ R) 2
æ m0 I1 ö æ m0 I2 ö
2
m0 I = ç 2pd ÷ + ç 2pd ÷
Magnetic field, B¢ = è ø è ø
2 pR
æ m 0 I1 m 0 I2 ö
(
m0 I a / 2 ) çQ B1 = 2 pd and B2 = 2 pd ÷
è ø
B 2pa 2 = 1:1
\ = m0 I m0
B¢ = I12 + I 22
2p ( 2a ) 2pd
40. (d) Force due to electric field acts along the

direction of the electric field but force due to
the magnetic field acts along a direction per-
37. (a) pendicular to both the velocity of the charged
particle and the magnetic field. Hence both
statements (2) and (3) are true. In statement (2),
magnetic force is zero, so, electric force will
keep the particle continue to move in horizon-
When moves with an acceleration a0 towards tal direction. In statement (3), both electric and
west, electric field magnetic forces will be opposite to each other.
F ma0 If their magnitudes will be equal then the par-
E= = (West) ticle will continue horizontal motion.
q e
41. (b) Magnetic fields due to the two parts at
When moves with an acceleration 3a0 towards their common centre are respectively,
east, magnetic field m i m i
2ma0 B y = 0 and Bz = 0
4R 4R
B = ev (downward) z
0 i
38. (a)
B2
i
B1
y
The magnetic field, due the coil, carrying Resultant field = B y2 + Bz2
current I Ampere 2
2 m 0i m i
m I æ m iö æ m iö
B1 = 0 = ç 0 ÷ + ç 0 ÷ = 2. = 0
2R è 4R ø è 4R ø 4R 2 2 R
The magnetic field due to the coil, carrying 42. (None) If R1 & R2 be the radius of the circular
current 2I Ampere
m (2I ) wires, R1 = 2 . If same potential is applied on
B2 = 0 R2 1
2R
The resultant B them, current in Ist will be half that in the later.
If V potential is applied on them, current in them
Bnet = B12 + B22 + 2 B1B2 cos q, q = 90° V V
= & .
m0 (2 I ) 2R R
Bnet = B12 + B22 = 1+ 4 Now magnetic field at the centre of circular
2R
m I
5 m0 I coil, = 0
= 2r
2R
m0V
39. (a) When the ring rotates about its axis with a For first wire, field B1 =
uniform frequency f Hz, the current flowing in 2R ´ 2R
the ring is m0V
For second wire, field B2 =
q 2( R / 2) ´ R
I = = qf
T Given B1 = B2
Magnetic field at the centre of the ring is The given data do not provide any required
m0 I m qf result. There is a mistake in the framing of the
B= = 0 question.
2R 2R
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238 PHYSICS
43. (c) B = m0ni But for external points, the current behaves as
æ nö if it was concentrated at the axis only; so,
B1 = (m0 ) ç ÷ (2 i) = m 0 ni = B m i
è 2ø
outside, B0 = 0 . Thus, the magnetic field is
Þ B1 = B 2 pr
44. (a) Let I be current and l be the length of the produced outside the pipe only.
wire. 48. (b) Let l be length of wire.
l
m 0 In m 0 I ´ p Ist case : l = 2pr Þ r =
For Ist case : B = = 2p
2r l m0 In m0 I ´ 2 p m 0pI
where 2pr = l and n = 1 B= = = [ Q n = 1]…(1)
2r 2l l
l l
For IInd Case : l = 2(2pr¢) Þ r¢ = 2nd Case : l = 2(2pr¢) Þ r¢ =
4p 4p
m0nI m0 2 I 4m0 I p m0 In 2m0 I p æ m 0 pI ö
B¢ = = = = 4B B¢ = = = 4ç
2 r¢ l l l l ÷ = 4B ,
2 2 è l ø
4p 4p 2
45. (d) When the current flows in both wires in using (1) (where n = 2)
the same direction then magnetic field at half
way due to the wire P, If a current carrying circular loop (n = 1) is turned
into a coil having n identical turns then magnetic
uur m I m I m
B p = 0 1 = 0 1 = 0 (where I1= 2.5 amp) field at the centre of the coil becomes n2 times the
5 p .5 2p previous field i.e., B(n turn) = n2B(single turn)
2p
2
r 49. (d) According to Biot Savart law,
r
The direction of B p is downward r m i (d l ´ rr )
P Q dB = 0
4p r3
×
I
2.5 amp 5 amp 50. (a) C
C A
×
O I
5m
Magnetic field at half way due to wire Q B D
uur m I m Net magnetic field on AB is zero because
BQ = 0 2 = 0 [upward × ]
5 p magnetic field due to both current carrying wires
2p
2 is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.
[where I2 = 2.5 amp.] m 0i
Net magnetic field at half way 51. (b) B = and so it is independent of
ur ur ur 2pr
B = B P + BQ thickness.
m0 m0 m0 The current is same in both the wires, hence
= - + = (upward ) magnetic field induced will be same.
2p p 2p
m
Hence, net magnetic field at midpoint = 0 52. (a) Current (I) = 12 A and magnetic field (B)
2p = 3 × 10–5 Wb/m2. Consider magnetic field
46. (b) We know that magnetic field at the centre ur
of circular coil, B at distance r.
m In 4p ´ 10-7 ´ 2 ´ 50 Magnetic field, B = 0
m I
B= 0 = = 1.25 ´ 10-4 N
2r 2 ´ 0.5 2pr
47. (b) Inside a hollow pipe carrying current, the m0 I (4p ´ 10 -7 ) ´ 12
magnetic field is zero, since according to Þ r= = = 8 ´ 10 -2 m
2 pB 2 ´ p ´ (3 ´ 10 -5 )
Ampere’s law, Bi. 2pr = m0 × 0 Þ Bi = 0.
m0i 1 60. (a) The direction of current in conductor

53. (a) B= or B µ
2pr r Y FBC
When r is doubled, the magnetic field becomes B C
half, i.e., now the magnetic field will be 0.2 T. FAB FCD
m I 1 I i L
54. (a) B = 0 Þ B µ
2 pr r A L D
As the distance is increased to three times, the X
magnetic induction reduces to one third. Hence, FAD
1
B = ´ 10-3 tesla = 3.33 × 10–4 tesla XY and AB is same
3 \ FAB = ilB (attractive)
55. (b) Energy is stored in magnetic field. m0 I m iI
56. (b) Tesla is the unit of magnetic field. FAB = i(L). (¬) = 0 ( ¬)
æLö p
57. (c) From figure, for equilibrium, 2p ç ÷
0° è 2ø
mg sin 30° = I/B cos 30° B s3
co FBC opposite to FAD
B
mg Il
Þ I= tan 30° FBC () and FAD (¯)
lB 30
° 30° IlB
is n
Þ cancels each other
0.5 ´ 9.8 g
m 30° FCD = ilB (repulsive)
= = 11.32 A m0 I m iI
0.25 ´ 3 FCD = i(L) ( ®) = 0 ( ®)
58. (d) Work done, W = MB(cosq1–cosq2) æ 3L ö 3p
2p ç ÷
When it is rotated by angle 180° then è 2 ø
W = MB (cos0° – cos 180°) = MB (1 + 1) Therefore the net force on the loop
Fnet = FAB + FBC + FCD + FAD
W = 2MB
W = 2 (NIA) B m o iI m o iI 2m o iI
Þ Fnet = - =
= 2 × 250 × 85 × 10–6[1.25 × 2.1 × 10–4] × 85 × p 3p 3p
10–2 61. (a) Here, number of turns of coil, N = 50
Current through the coil I = 2A
= 9.1 mJ
Area A = l × b = 0.12 × 0.1m2 = 0.012 m2
59. (c) Force per unit length between two paral- r
lel current carrying conductors, Magnetic field B = 0.2 W/m2
m0 i1i 2
F=
2pd
Since same current flowing through both the 30° B
wires 60°
ii = i2 = i
m0i2 M
so F1 = = F2
2pd Torque required to keep the coil in stable
F1[due to wire A] equilibrium.
r r
t = M ´ B = MB sin 60° = Ni AB sin 60°
3
= 50×2×0.12×0.1×0.2×
2
F2[due to wire C]
= 12 3 ´ 10 -2 = 0.20784 Nm
\ Magnitude of force per unit length on the
middle wire 'B' Torque t = nIBA sin q
Here, q is the angle which a normal drawn on the
m0 i 2 plane of the coil makes with the direction of
Fnet = F12 + F22 = magnetic field.
2pd
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240 PHYSICS
62. (c) A current loop in a magnetic field is in 1

equilibrium in two orientations one is stable and = i 2x B ´
2
another unstable. r
r r r = ixB = | F |
Q t = M ´ B = M B sin q
The direction of the force on AC is
If q = 0° Þ t = 0 (stable)
perpendicular to the plane of the paper
r and going
If q = p Þ t = 0 (unstable)
out of it. Hence, force on AC = - F
I1
66. (d)
F1
I
F3 F4
63. (c) Given:

Magnetic field B = 2 × 10–4 weber/m2 F2
Velocity of electron, v = 107 m/s 1
F1 > F2 as F µ , and F3 and F4 are equal and
Lorentz force F = qvB sin q d
= 1.6 × 10–19 × 107 × 2 × 10–4 (Q q = 90°) opposite. Hence, the net attraction force will
= 3.2 × 10–16 N be towards the conductor.
r r r 67. (d) Torque on the solenoid is given by
64. (b) Here, FAB + FBCDA = 0
t = MB sin q
r r r where q is the angle between the magnetic field
Þ FBCDA = - FAB = - F
r and the axis of solenoid.
(Q FAB = F ) M = niA
65. (b) Let a current i be flowing in the loop ABC \ t = niA B sin 30°
1
in the direction shown in the figure. If the length = 2000 ´ 2 ´ 1.5 ´ 10 -4 ´ 5 ´ 10 -2 ´
of each of the sides AB and BC be x then 2
r = 1.5 × 10–2 N – m
| F| = i × B 68. (b) According to the figure the magnitude of
A force on the segment QM is F3 –F1 and PM is F2.
B C
Direction of
magnetic field
where B is the magnitude of the magnetic
force. Therefore, the magnitude of the force on
r
The direction of F will be in the direction segment PQ is ( F3 – F1 )2 + F22
perpendicular to the plane of the paper and going
69. (b) Force on a particle moving with velocity
into it. ur ur
By Pythagorus theorem, v in a magnetic field B is F = q (v ´ B)
r
If angle between vr & B is either zero or 180º,
AC = x 2 + x 2 = 2 x
then value
r of F will be zero as cross product of
\ Magnitude of force on AC r
v and B will be zero.
= i 2 × B sin 45° So option (b) is correct.
r
70. (a) The direction of B is along ( - kˆ ) 30
= = 0.5A
\ The magnetic force 40.8 + 19.2
ur r ur 77. (c) As 0.2% of main current passes through
F = Q (v ´ B) = Q (viˆ) ´ B( - kˆ) = QvBjˆ
r 998
Þ F is along OY. the galvanometer hence I current through
uur 1000
71. (d) Force due to electric field = qE the shunt.
ur uur
Force due to magnetic field = q(v ´ B ) 998I
uur ur uur 1000 S
Net force experienced = qE + q(v ´ B )
m 0 2i1i2 l - 7 2 ´ 1´ l ´ l
72. (a) F = ´ = 10 ´
4p r 1 G
= 2 × 10–7 N/m. I 2I
[This relates to the definition of ampere] 1000
73. (a) A current carrying coil has magnetic dipole æ 2I ö æ 998I ö G
ç ÷G = ç ÷S Þ S =
moment. Hence, a torque acts on it in magnetic è 1000 ø è 1000 ø 499
field. Total resistance of Ammeter
74. (b) F = Bil = 2 ×1.2 × 0.5 = 1.2 N æ G ö
SG ç ÷G G
75. (d) Current sensitivity of moving coil è 499 ø
R= = =
galvanometer S+G æ G ö 500
NBA ç ÷+G
è 499 ø
Is = ...(i) 78. (a) Galvanometer is converted into ammeter,
C
Voltage sensitivity of moving coil by connected a shunt, in parallel with it.
galvanometer,
G
NBA I
Vs = ...(ii)
CRG
Dividing eqn. (i) by (ii)
Resistance of galvanometer
Is 5 ´1 5000 S
RG = = = = 250 W
Vs 20 ´10 –3 20 GS VG 25 ´ 10-3
==
76. (d) From circuit diagram G+ S I 25
20W GS
= 0.001W
G+S
Here S << G so
A S = 0.001 W
480W In order to increase the range of ammeter n times,
the value of shunt resistance to be connected in
40.8W parallel to galvanometer is
G
S=
n –1
Here, G = resistance of galvanometer
E = 30V
79. (c) To keep the main current in the circuit
480 ´ 20 unchanged, the resistance of the galvanometer
Resistance of ammeter = = 19.2W.
480 + 20 should be equal to the net resistance.
Total resistance R = 40.8 + 19.2 = 60W æ GS ö
\G = ç + S¢
V è G + S ÷ø
Reading in the ammeter i = GS
R ÞG- = S¢
G+S
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242 PHYSICS
G2 83. (a) We know

\ S¢ = . I G
G +S = 1+
I I IS S
G G
S¢ 750 13
= 1+
100 S
S S Þ 2W
80. (a) Let the resistance to be added be R, then 84. (c) A galvanometer can be converted into a
30 = Ig (r + R) voltmeter by connecting the high ressistance
in series with the galvanometer so that only a
30 30
\ R= -r = - 100 small amount of current passes through it.
Ig 30 ´10-3 85. (a) Rg = 50W, Ig = 25 × 4 × 10–AW = 10–2 A
= 1000 – 100 = 900 W Range of V = 25 volts
81. (c) G = 60W, Ig = 1.0A, I = 5A. V = Ig(Re + Rg)
60W V
I Ig \ Re = - Rg = 2450W
G Ig
(I–Ig)
R
S A B
Let S be the shunt resistance connected in
parallel to galvanometer Ig Re Rg
Ig G = (I – Ig) S,
In order to increase the range of voltmeter n times
Ig G 1
S= = ´ 60 = 15W the value of resistance to be connected in series
I – Ig 5 – 1 with galvanometer is
R = (n – 1)G
Th us by puttin g 15 W in parallel, th e Here, G = resistance of galvanometer
galvanometer can be converted into an G 8
ammeter. 86. (b) Is = I ´ = 1´
82. (d) Total internal resistance = (50 + 2950) W S +G 2+8
= 3000 W 8
= = 0.8 amp .
Emf of the cell, e = 3V 10
e 3 87. (c) Maximum current which can pass through
\ Current = = = 1 ´ 10 -3 A = 1. 0 mA galvanometer, Ig = 0.004A
R 3000
RW
\ Current for full scale deflection of 30 C D
divisions is 1.0 mA. I–Ig
\ Current for a deflection of 20 divisions, I
æ 20 ö 2 A Ig 20W B
I = ç ´ 1 ÷ mA or I = mA
è 30 ø 3 Let R be the resistance of shunt.
Let the resistance be x W. Then We know potential drop across AB
= Potential drop across CD
e 3V 3 ´ 3 ´ 103
x== = W R (I – Ig) = Ig (20)
I æ2 -3 ö 2
ç ´ 10 A ÷ Þ R (1 – 0.004) = 0.004 × 20 Þ R = 0.08 W
è3 ø 88. (a) To convert a galvanometer into an
= 4500 W ammeter, one needs to connect a low resistance
But the resistance of the galvanometer is 50W. in parallel so that maximum current passes
\ Resistance to be added through the shunt wire and ammeter remains
= (4500 –50) W = 4450 W protected.
Magnetism and Matter 243
19 Magnetism
and Matter
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Magnetism, Gauss's Law,
Magnetic Moment &
Properties of Magnet
The Earth's Magnetism, Magnetic susceptibity and 1 A 1 E 1 E
Magnetic Materials and their permeability diamagnetic
Properties material
Angle of dip. 1 A 1 A
Magnetic Equipments Time period of oscillations
of freely suspended magnet
Topic 1: Magnetism, Gauss's Law, Magnetic 2. A bar magnet of length ‘l’ and magnetic dipole
Moment & Properties of Magnet moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown
in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will
1. Following figures show the arrangement of bar be [2013]
magnets in different configurations. Each
r
magnet has magnetic dipole moment m . Which
configuration has highest net magnetic dipole
moment ? [2014]
N S 3 2
A. B. S N (a) M (b) M
p p
S S N
M
(c) (d) M
2
N 3. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed
N at right angles to a magnetic induction B. If a
C. 30º D. force F is experienced by each pole of the magnet,
S 60º the length of the magnet will be
N
S N [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) A (b) B (a) F/MB (b) MB/F
(c) C (d) D (c) BF/M (d) MF/B
EBD_8335
244 PHYSICS
4. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a 10. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic
magnetic field requires 3 J of work to turn it moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian,
through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the is n times the corresponding work done to turn
needle in this position will be : [2012M] it through an angle of 60°. The value of n is
(a) 2 3J (b) 3J given by [1995]
(a) 2 (b) 1
3
(c) 3J (d) J (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
2
5. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4J T–1 Topic 2: The Earth's Magnetism, Magnetic
is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The Materials and their Properties
magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential
energy is [2011M] 11. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to
(a) –0.064 J (b) zero a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The
(c) –0.082 J (d) 0.064 J permeability of the material of the rod is :
6. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of (m0 = 4p × 10–7 T m A–1) [2020]
2× 104 JT–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. (a) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1
A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10–4 T exists (b) 2.4p × 10–5 T m A–1
in the space. The work done in taking the magnet (c) 2.4p × 10–7 T m A–1
slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a (d) 2.4p × 10–4 T m A–1
direction 60° from the field is [2009] 12. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of
(a) 12 J (b) 6 J dip, d = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s surface
(c) 2 J (d) 0.6 J the angle of dip, d = –25°. We can interpret that:
7. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of [2019]
side l is suspended between the ®
pole pieces of a (a) A and B are both located in the northern
permanent magnet such that B is in the plane of hemisphere.
the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque (b) A is located in the southern hemisphere and
t acts on it, the side l of the triangle is [2005] B is located in the northern hemisphere.
(c) A is located in the northern hemisphere and
1 1
æ t ö2 B is located in the southern hemisphere.
2 æ t ö2
(a) ç ÷ (b) 2 ç (d) A and B are both located in the southern
3 è B.i ø è 3B.i ÷ø hemisphere.
13. The relations amongst the three elements of
2 æ t ö 1 t
(c) ç ÷ (d) earth’s magnetic field, namely horizontal
3 è B.i ø 3 B.i component H, vertical component V and dip d
8. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number are, (BE = total magnetic field)
of turns N, then magnetic moment of the coil, M [NEET Odisha 2019]
is [2001] (a) V = BE, H = BE tand
Ni
(a) NiA (b) (b) V = BE tand, H = BE
A (c) V = BE sind, H = BE cosd
Ni
(c) (d) N2Ai (d) V = BE cosd, H = BE sind
A uur 14. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
9. A bar magnet, of magnetic moment M , is placed
ur between the poles of an electromagnet. When
in a magnetic field of induction B . The torque the current in the electromagnet is switched on,
exerted on it is [1999] then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of
uur ur uur ur
(a) M . B (b) – M . B the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod
uur ur ur uur gains gravitational potential energy. The work
(c) M ´ B (d) B ´ M required to do this comes from [2018]
(a) the current source (b) attracted by the north pole and repelled
(b) the magnetic field by the south pole
(c) the induced electric field due to the (c) attracted by both the poles
changing magnetic field (d) repelled by both the poles
(d) the lattice structure of the material of the 21. Curie temperature is the temperature above
rod which [2008, 2006]
15. If q1 and q2 be the apparent angles of dip (a) ferr omagnetic material becomes
observed in two vertical planes at right angles paramagnetic material
to each other, then the true angle of dip q is (b) paramagnetic material becomes
given by :- [2017] diamagnetic material
(a) tan2q = tan2q1 + tan2q2 (c) paramagnetic material becomes
(b) cot2q = cot2q1 – cot2q2 ferromagnetic material
(c) tan2q = tan2q1 – tan2q2 (d) ferr omagnetic material becomes
(d) cot2q = cot2q1 + cot2q2 diamagnetic material.
16. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for : 22. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room
(a) diamagnetic material only [2016] temperature. If the temperature is increased
(b) paramagnetic material only beyond Curie temperature, then it will show
(c) ferromagnetic material only (a) anti ferromagnetism [2007]
(d) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials (b) no magnetic property
17. There are four light–weight–rod samples (c) diamagnetism
A,B,C,D separately suspended by threads. A bar (d) paramagnetism
magnet is slowly brought near each sample and 23. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of
the following observations are noted [2011] diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and
(i) A is feebly repelled ferromagnetic material are denoted by md, mp and
(ii) B is feebly attracted mf respectively, then [2005]
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(a) md = 0 and mp ¹ 0 (b) md ¹ 0 and mp = 0
(iv) D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true ? (c) mp = 0 and mf ¹ 0 (d) md ¹ 0 and mf ¹ 0
(a) B is of a paramagnetic material 24. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic sus-
(b) C is of a diamagnetic material ceptibility of a substance at an absolute
(c) D is of a ferromagnetic material temperature T is proportional to [2003]
(d) A is of a non–magnetic material (a) T 2 (b) 1/T
18. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because (c) T (d) 1/T2
soft iron has [2010]
(a) low retentivity and high coercive force 25. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(b) high retentivity and high coercive force (a) perpendicular to the field [2003]
(c) low retentivity and low coercive force (b) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field
(d) high retentivity and low coercive force (c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
19. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is (d) in none of the above directions
(a) equal to zero [2010] Topic 3: Magnetic Equipments
(b) much greater than one
(c) 1 26. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a
(d) between zero and one horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole.
20. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near It : [2012]
the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it (a) will become rigid showing no movement
is: [2009, 1999] (b) will stay in any position
(a) repelled by the north pole and attracted (c) will stay in north-south direction only
by the south pole (d) will stay in east-west direction only
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246 PHYSICS
27. A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic 29. For protecting a sensitive equipment from the
meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet external electric arc, it should be [1998]
executes oscillations with a time period of 2 sec (a) wrapped with insulation around it when a
in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 current is passing through it
microtesla. When a horizontal field of 18 (b) placed inside an iron can
microtesla is produced opposite to the earth's (c) surrounded with fine copper sheet
field by placing a current carrying wire, the new (d) placed inside an aluminium can
time period of magnet will be [2010] 30. A bar magnet is oscillating in the earth’s magnetic
(a) 1 s (b) 2 s field with a period T. What happens to its period
(c) 3 s (d) 4 s of motion, if its mass is quadrupled [1994]
28. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M (a) motion remains simple harmonic with new
are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with period = T/2
the identical poles in the same direction. The (b) motion remains simple harmonic with new
time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are period = 2 T
placed with opposite poles together and vibrate (c) motion remains simple harmonic with new
with time period T2, then [2002] period = 4T
(a) T2 is infinite (b) T2 = T1 (d) motion remains simple harmonic and the
(c) T2 > T1 (d) T2 < T1 period stays nearly constant
ANS W E R K E Y
1 (c) 5 (a ) 9 (c) 13 (c ) 17 ( a) 21 (a ) 25 (b) 29 (b)
2 (a) 6 ( b) 10 (a) 14 (a ) 18 (d) 22 (d) 26 (b) 30 (b)
3 (b) 7 ( b) 11 (d) 15 ( d) 19 ( a) 23 (a ) 27 (d)
4 (b) 8 (a ) 12 (c) 16 (a ) 20 (d) 24 (b) 28 ( c)
Hints & Solutions

q
1. (c) Net magnetic dipole moment = 2 Mcos m ´ 3l 3
2 so, M' = m × r = = M
q p p
As value of cos is maximum in case (c) hence
2 MB
net magnetic dipole moment is maximum for 3. (b) Torque FL = MB Þ L =
F
option (c).
4. (b) According to work energy theorem
2. (a) Magnetic dipole moment
W =Ufinal – Uinitial = MB (cos 0 – cos 60°)
M=m×l M' = m × r
From figure MB
W= = 3J ...(i)
l 2
r r æ ö
t = M ´ B = MB sin 60° = ç MB 3 ÷ ...(ii)
r sin 30º r sin 30º è 2 ø
From equation (i) and (ii)
r 30º
30º
60º 2 3´ 3
t= = 3J
pr
2
3l
l= or r= 5. (a) For stable equilibrium
3 p
U= –MB
= – (0.4) (0.16) = MB (1–0) = MB.

= – 0.064 J Similarly, W 2 = MB (cos 0º – cos 60º)
When the magnetic dipole is aligned along the æ 1 ö MB
magnetic field it is stable equilibrium having = MB ç 1 - ÷ =
è 2ø 2
minimum potential energy
U = MB cos q = – MB cos q°
\ W1 = 2W2 or n = 2.
= – MB i.e., q = 0 ° 11. (d) Given : Magnetic susceptibility of iron,
When q = 180° cm = 599
U = – MB cos q = – MB cos 180° = MB (Maximum)
Using, m r = 1 + cm = 600
This is the position of unstable equilibrium
m = m r m 0 = 600 ´ 4p ´ 10-7 = 2400p ´ 10 -7
6. (b) Work done Hence, permeability of the material of the rod,
= MB (cos q1 – cos q2)
m = 2.4p ´ 10-4 T m A–1
= MB (cos 0° – cos 60°)
4 –4 12. (c) As we know that the angle of dip is the
æ 1 ö 2 ´10 ´ 6 ´10 angle between earth’s resultant magnetic field
= MB ç1 – ÷ = =6J
è 2ø 2 from horizontal.
7. (b) t = MB sinq A
t = iAB sin90º
t l l
\ A=
iB
Also, A = 1/2 (BC) (AD)
l/2 l/2
B C
D
2 At equator, dip is zero. At Northern hemisphere,
1 1 2 ælö dip is positive. At southern hemisphere, dip is
But ( BC )( AD ) = (l ) l - ç ÷
2 2 è 2ø negative.
3 2 3 2 t 13. (c) H = BE cosd
= l Þ (l ) =
4 4 Bi V = BE sind
1
14. (a) Rod gains gravitational potential energy
æ t ö2 which comes from energy of current source.
\ l = 2ç ÷
è 3 B.i ø 15. (d) If q1 and q2 are opparent angles of dip
8. (a) Magnetic moment linked with one turn = iA Let a be the angle which one of the plane make
Magnetic moment linked with, with the magnetic meridian.
N turns = iNA amp-m2. Here, A = Area of current v
tan q1 =
loop. H cos a
9. (c) We know that when a bar magnet is placed v
in the magnetic field at an angle q, then torque i.e., cos a = …(i)
H tan q1
acting on the bar
uur magnet
ur (t)
v
= MB sin q = M ´ B . tan q2 = ,
H sin a
The direction of torque (t) is perpendicular to
v
the plane containing M and B and is given by i.e., sin a = …(ii)
right hand screw rule. H tan q 2
Squaring and adding (i) and (ii), we get
10. (a) Magnetic moment = M; Initial angle
through which magnet is turned (q1) = 90º and 2
æV ö æ 1 1 ö
final angle through which magnet is turned (q2)= cos 2 a + sin 2 a = ç ÷ ç + ÷
è H ø è tan q1 tan 2 q2 ø
2
60º. Work done in turning the magnet through
90º(W1) = MB (cos 0º – cos 90º)
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248 PHYSICS
magnets and they also have permanent magnetic

V2 moment, i.e. mp ¹ 0.
i.e., 1 = 2 éëcot q1 + cot q2 ùû
2 2
H 1
24. (b) According to Curie’s law, cm µ
T
H2 25. (b) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field
or = cot 2 q1 + cot 2 q 2
V2 moves from stronger to the weaker parts of the
field.
i.e., cot 2 q = cot 2 q1 + cot 2 q2 26. (b) Since magnetic field is in vertical direction
16. (a) Magnetic susceptibility c for dia-magnetic and needle is free to totate in horizontal plane
materials only is negative and low |c| = –1; only so magnetic force cannot rotate the needle
for paramagnetic substances low but positive in horizontal plane so needle can stay in any
|c| = 1 and for ferromagnetic substances positive position.
and high |c| = 102. 27. (d) Time period of a vibration magnetometer,
17. (a) A ® diamagnetic
1 T1 B2
B ® paramagnetic Tµ Þ =
C ® Ferromagnetic B T2 B1
D ® Non magnetic
18. (d) Soft iron is a soft magnetic material soft B1 24 ´ 10-6
Þ T2 = T1 =2 = 4s
iron has low retentivity and low coercive force B2 6 ´ 10-6
or coercivity suitable for electromagnets.
Retentivity is the residual magnetism i.e., the I1 + I 2 I
magnetism remains in a materials even on the 28. (c) T1 = 2p = 2p
(M + 2M ) H 3MH
removal of the magnetising field.
Magnetic hard substance like steel has high I1 + I 2 I
coercivity and magnetic soft substance-soft iron T2 = 2p = 2p
(2M - M ) H MH
has low coercivity.
19. (a) The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic Obviously, T2 > T1
atom is equal to zero. 29. (b) The iron can produces a magnetic
20. (d) Diamagnetic substances do not have any screening for the equipment as lines of magnetic
unpaired electron. And they are magnetised in force can not enter iron enclosure.
direction opposite to that of magnetic field. When two magnets are placed in a vibration
Hence, when they are brought to north or south magnetometer such that identical poles in same
pole of a bar magnet, they are repelled by poles. direction then net magnetic moment Ms = M1 + M2
21. (a) Curie temperature is the temperature above And when two magnets placed such that north
which ferromagnetic material becomes facing south of other and vice versa then net
paramagnetic material. magnetic moment Md = M1 – M2
22. (d) Beyond Curie temperature, ferromagnetic
30. (b) The time period of a bar magnet in a
substan ces behaves like a paramagnetic
magnetic field is given by.
substance.
23. (a) The magnetic dipole moment of diamag- I
netic material is zero as each of its pair of electrons T = 2p ;
MB
have opposite spins, i.e., md = 0.
Here, I = moment of inertia µ m , M = moment of
Paramagnetic substances have dipole moment
> 0, i.e. mp ¹ 0, because of excess of electrons in magnet, B = magnetic field.
its molecules spinning in the same direction. T µ I µ m ; so, T becomes twice as mass
Ferro-magnetic substances are very strong becomes four times
Electromagnetic Induction 249
20 Electromagnetic
Induction
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Magnetic Flux, Faraday's & Df
f = B.A. = BA cos q, q = 1 A 1 A
Lenz's Law R
Eddy Current 1 E
Motional and Static EMI & Energy stored in inductor 1 E
Applications of EMI f
Self inductance, L = 1 E
I
Topic 1: Magnetic Flux, Faraday's (a) adcb

& Lenz's Law (b) The current will reverse its direction as the
1. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is electron goes past the coil
kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 10–5 (c) No current induced
T. When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° (d) abcd
around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf 4. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of
induced in the coil will be : [2019] radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a
(a) 2 V (b) 0.2 V horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure.
(c) 2 × l0–3 V (d) 0.02 V The potential difference developed across the
2. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 ring when its speed is v, is : [2014]
turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid,
Q B
a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed
with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis.
The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant r
rate to 0A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance P R
of the coil is 10p2W. the total charge flowing
through the coil during this time is :- [2017] (a) Zero
(a) 16 mC (b) 32 mC (b) Bvpr2 /2 and P is at higher potnetial
(c) 16 p mC (d) 32 p mC (c) prBv and R is at higher potnetial
3. An electron moves on a (d) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
a straight line path XY 5. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The
as shown. The abcd is frequency of change of direction of the in-
a coil adjacent to the b d duced e.m.f. is [2013]
path of electron. What (a) twice per revolution
will be the direction of (b) four times per revolution
current if any, induced c
(c) six times per revolution
in the coil? X electron Y (d) once per revolution
[2015 RS]
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250 PHYSICS
6. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of

inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with emf
the coil is [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) 2 Wb (b) 0.5 Wb T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
(c) 0 t
(c) 12.5 Wb (d) Zero
7. A coil of resistance 400W is placed in a
magnetic field. If the magnetic flux f (wb)
linked with the coil varies with time t (sec) as emf
f = 50t2 + 4. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec
is : [2012]
(a) 0.5 A (b) 0.1 A (d) 0 T/2 3T/4 T t
(c) 2 A (d) 1 A T/4
8. In a coil of resistance 10 W, the induced current
developed by changing magnetic flux through 10. A conducting circular loop is placed in a
it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its
magnitude of change in flux through the coil in plane perpendicular to the loop. [2010]
Weber is : [2012M] The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a
i(amp)
constant rate of 1 mm s–1. The induced e.m.f.
when the radius is 2 cm, is
(a) 2pm V (b) pm V
4
p
(c) mV (d) 2 m V
2
11. A rectangular, a square, a circular and an
elliptical loop, all in the (x – y) plane, are moving
out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant
0 0.1 t(s) r
(a) 8 (b) 2 velocity, V = v iˆ . The magnetic field is directed
(c) 6 (d) 4 along the negative z axis direction. The induced
9. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown emf, during the passage of these loops, out of
in the figure. The variation of induced emf with the field region, will not remain constant for
time would be [2011] [2009]
i (a) the circular and the elliptical loops.
(b) only the elliptical loop.
(c) any of the four loops.
(d) the rectangular, circular and elliptical
loops.
12. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform
0 t magnetic field of 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular
T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts
emf shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop
when the radius is 2 cm is [2009]
(a) 4.8 p mV (b) 0.8 p mV
(a) T/4 (c) 1.6 p mV (d) 3.2 p mV
0 t
T/2 3T/4 T 13. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in
a uniform magnetic field of induction
1
emf
p
( )
Wb / m 2 in such a way that its axis makes
r
an angle of 60° with B . The magnetic flux
linked with the disc is: [2008]
(b) 0 t (a) 0.02 Wb (b) 0.06 Wb
T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
(c) 0.08 Wb (d) 0.01 Wb
14. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked 19. The variation of EMF with time for four types of
to the closed loop shown in the Fig, generators are shown in the figures. Which
amongst them can be called AC?
[NEET Odisha 2019]
(a)
an e.m.f. V volt is induced in the loop. The work
done (joules) in taking a charge Q coulomb once
along the loop is [2005]
(a) QV (b) 2QV
(c) QV/2 (d) Zero
15. The magnetic flux through a circuit of (b)
resistance R changes by an amount Df in a time
Dt. Then the total quantity of electric charge
Q that passes any point in the circuit during
the time Dt is represented by [2004]
Df 1 Df (c)
(a) Q = R. (b) Q = .
Dt R Dt
Df Df
(c) Q = (d) Q =
R Dt
16. A magnetic field of 2 × 10–2 T acts at right angles
to a coil of area 100 cm2, with 50 turns. The average
e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0.1 V, when it is removed (d)
from the field in t sec. The value of t is [1991]
(a) 10 s (b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.01 s (d) 1 s (a) Only (a) (b) (a) and (d)
17. In the circuit of Fig, the bulb will become (c) (a), (b), (c), (d) (d) (a) and (b)
suddenly bright if [1989] 20. A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated with
L
constant angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a region
B
of magnetic field of 0.1 T which is
perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The
EMF generated between its centre and the rim
+ – is [NEET Odisha 2019]
B K (a) zero (b) 0.25 V
(a) contact is made or broken (c) 0.125 V (d) 0.5 V
(b) contact is made 21. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
(c) contact is broken certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
(d) won't become bright at all the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
Topic 2: Motional and Static EMI & Applications inductance [2018]
of EMI (a) 0.138 H (b) 138.88 H
(c) 13.89 H (d) 1.389 H
18. In which of the following devices, the eddy
current effect is not used ? [2019] 22. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current
(a) induction furnace of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked
(b) magnetic braking in train with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10–3 Wb.
(c) electromagnet The self inductance of the solenoid is : [2016]
(d) electric heater (a) 4H (b) 3H (c) 2H (d) 1H
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252 PHYSICS
23. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long 29. A varying current in a coil changes from 10A
staight wire carrying current I are located in the same to zero in 0.5 sec. If the average e.m.f induced
plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to in the coil is 220V, the self-inductance of the
the right with a constant velocity ‘V’. The emf coil is [1995]
induced in the frame will be proportional to (a) 5 H (b) 6 H
(c) 11 H (d) 12 H
X
[2015] 30. What is the self-inductance of a coil which
produces 5V when the current changes from 3
ampere to 2 ampere in one millisecond? [1993]
(a) 5000 henry (b) 5 milli-henry
l (c) 50 henry (d) 5 henry
V 31. If N is the number of turns in a coil, the value of
self inductance varies as [1993]
(a) N0 (b) N (c) N2 (d) N–2
32. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-
a section 25 sq. cm has a resistance of 100W. If
1 1 a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the
(a) 2 (b) plane of coil changes at a rate of 1000 tesla
(2x – a) (2x + a)2 per second, the current in the coil is [1992]
1 1 (a) 1 A (b) 50 A
(c) (2x – a)(2x + a) (d) 2 (c) 0.5 A (d) 5 A
x 33. The total charge induced in a conducting loop
24. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current when it is moved in a magnetic field depend on
of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux [1992]
magnetic flux linked with each turn of the (b) initial magnetic flux only
solenoid is 4 ×10–3 Wb. The self- inductance of (c) the total change in magnetic flux
the solenoid is [2008] (d) final magnetic flux only
(a) 2.5 henry (b) 2.0 henry 34. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1A.
(c) 1.0 henry (d) 40 henry Energy stored in its magnetic field is [1991]
25. Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are (a) 0.5 J (b) 1 A
placed so close together that the effective flux (c) 0.05 J (d) 0.1 J
in one coil is completely linked with the other. 35. If the number of turns per unit length of a coil of
The mutual inductance between these coils is solenoid is doubled, the self-inductance of the
[2006] solenoid will [1991]
(a) 6 mH (b) 4 mH (a) remain unchanged(b) be halved
(c) be doubled (d) become four times
(c) 16 mH (d) 10 mH
36. An inductor may store energy in [1990]
26. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, (a) its electric field
current changes with time according to relation (b) its coils
i = t2e–t. At what time emf is zero? [2001] (c) its magnetic field
(a) 4s (b) 3s (c) 2s (d) 1s (d) both in electric and magnetic fields
27. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. 37. The total charge induced in a conducting loop
The current changes in the first coil according when it is moved in a magnetic field depends on
to equation I = I0 sin wt, where I0 = 10A and [1990]
w = 100p radian/sec. The maximum value of (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
e.m.f. in the second coil is [1998]] (b) initial magnetic flux only
(a) 2p (b) 5p (c) p (d) 4p (c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only
28. A conductor of length 0.4 m is moving with a 38. The current in self inductance L = 40 mH is to be
speed of 7 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic increased uniformly from 1 amp to 11 amp in 4
field of intensity 0.9 Wb/m 2. The induced milliseconds. The e.m.f. induced in the inductor
e.m.f. across the conductor is [1995] during the process is [1990]
(a) 1.26 V (b) 2.52 V (a) 100 volt (b) 0.4 volt
(c) 5.04 V (d) 25.2 V (c) 4.0 volt (d) 440 volt
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 6 (c) 11 (a) 16 (b) 21 (c) 26 (c) 31 (c) 36 (c)
2 (b) 7 (a) 12 (d) 17 (c) 22 (d) 27 (b) 32 (c) 37 (c)
3 (b) 8 (b) 13 (a) 18 (d) 23 (c) 28 (b) 33 (c) 38 (a)
4 (d) 9 (a) 14 (a) 19 (c) 24 (c) 29 (c) 34 (c)
5 (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (c) 25 (b) 30 (b) 35 (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Given : 3. (b) Current will be induced,
Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T when e– comes closer the induced current will
Number of turns in coil N = 800 be anticlockwise
Area of coil A = 0.05 m2 when e– comes farther induced current will be
Time taken to rotate = Dt = 0.1 s clockwise
Initial angle q1 = 0°
Final angle q2 = 90°
Change in magnetic flux Df
= NBA cos 90° – BA cos 0° e– e–
= – NBA
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05 Presence of magnetic flux is not enough. The
amount of magnetic flux linked with the coil must
= –2 × 10–2 weber
change in order to produce any induced emf in the
Df -(-)2 ´ 10 -3 Wb coil.
q= - = = 0.02 V
Dt 0.1 s 4. (d) Rate of decreasing of area of semicircular
2. (b) Given, no. of turns N = 100 dA
radius, r = 0.01 m ring = = (2r)V
resistance, R = 10p2 W, n = 2 × 104 dt
As we know, From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
df e N df dq dA
e = -N Þ =- e= - = -B = - B(2rV)
dt R R dt dt dt
N df Dq N Df
DI = - Þ =-
R dt Dt R Dt
é N æ Df ö ù
Dq = - ê ç ÷ ú Dt
ë R è Dt ø û As induced current in ring produces magnetic
'–' ve sign shows that induced emf opposes field in upward direction hence R is at higher
the change of flux. potential.
5. (a) This is the case of periodic EMI
é æ Di ö ù 1 m nNpr 2 Di
Dq = ê m0 nNpr 2 ç ÷ ú Dt = 0 E
ë è Dt ø û R R
t
4p ´ 10-7 ´ 100 ´ 4 ´ p ´ (0.01)2 ´ 2 ´ 104
Dq =
10p2
Dq = 32mC
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254 PHYSICS
From graph, it is clear that direction is df dr

| e |= = Bp × 2 r
1 dt dt
changing once in cycle.
2 dr
6. (c) Given: current I = 2.5 A When r = 2 cm, = 1 mm s–1
dt
Inductance, L = 5H e = 0.025× p ×2 ×2 ×10–2×10–3
Magnatic flux, f = ? = 0.100 × p × 10–5 = p × 10–6 V = pmV
We know, f = LI Þ 5 × 2.5 Wb = 12.5 Wb 11. (a) The induced emf will remain constant
7. (a) According, to Faraday’s law of induction only in the case of rectangular and square
loops. In case of the circular and the elliptical
df
Induced e.m.f. e = - = - (100t ) loops, the rate of change of area of the loops
dt during their passage out of the field is not
Induced current i at t = 2 sec. constant, hence induced emf will not remain
constant for them.
e 100 ´ 2
= =+ = + 0.5 A 12. (d) Induced emf in the loop is given by
R 400
dA
The magnetic flux linked with a loop does not e = – B. where A is the area of the loop.
dt
change when magnet and loop are moving with the
same velocity. d dr
e = – B. (p r2) = – B p 2r
dt dt
8. (b) The charge through the coil = area of
r = 2cm = 2 × 10–2 m
current-time(i – t) graph
dr = 2 mm = 2 × 10–3 m
1 dt = 1s
q= ´ 0.1 ´ 4 = 0.2 C
2 2×10–3
Df e = – 0.04 × 3.14 × 2 × 2 ×10–2 × V
q= Q Change in flux (Df) = q × R 1
R = 0.32 p × 10–5V
Df = 3.2 p ×10–6V
q = 0.2 = = 3.2 p mV
10
Df = 2 Weber 1
13. (a) Here, B = (Wb/m2)
di p
9. (a) e = -L q = 60°
dt Area normal to the plane of the disc
T di
During 0 to , = const. pr2
4 dt = p r 2 cos 60° =
\ e = – ve 2
T T di Flux = B × normal area
During to , = 0 0.2 ´ 0.2
4 2 dt = = 0.02Wb
\e=0 2
T 3T di
During to , = const. 14. (a) x = W Þ V = W Þ W = QV
2 4 dt Q Q
\ e = +ve Df
Thus graph given in option (a) represents the 15. (c) = e = iR Þ Df = (i Dt ) R = QR
Dt
variation of induced emf with time.
Df
Inductance does not play any role till there is a ÞQ=
constant current flowing in the circuit. It opposes
R
any change in the current in the circuit. -(f2 - f1 ) -(0 - NBA) NBA
16. (b) e = = =
t t t
10. (b) Magnetic flux linked with the loop –2 –2
NBA 50 ´ 2 ´ 10 ´ 10
is f = Bpr 2 t= = = 0.1 s
e 0.1
17. (c) When a circuit is broken, the induced m0I m 0I

e.m.f. is largest. So the answer is (c). = lV – lV
18. (d) An electric heater works on the principle 2p (x – a / 2) 2 p (x + a/ 2)
of Joule’s heating effect and it does not involve 1
or, e µ
Eddy currents. (2x – a)(2 x + a)
19. (c) A current which changes its direction 24. (c) Total number of turns in the solenoid,
periodically is called alternating current. N = 500
20. (c) Using Faraday’s law, Current, I = 2A.
2
Bl 2 w 1 æ 1ö 1 Magnetic flux linked with each turn
e= = × 0.1 × çè ÷ø × 10 = = 0.125 V = 4 × 10–3 Wb
2 2 2 8
21. (c) From question energy stored in inductor, Nf
As, f = LI or N f = LI Þ L =
U = 25 × 10–3 J 1
Current, I = 60 mA
500 ´ 4 ´ 10- 3
1 2 = henry = 1 H.
Energy stored in inductor U = LI 2
2 25. (b) Mutual Inductance of two coils
1 –3 2
25 × 10–3 = ´ L ´ (60 ´ 10 ) M = M 1 M 2 = 2mH ´ 8mH = 4mH
2
25 ´ 2 ´ 106 ´10 –3 It is not possible to have mutual inductance without
L= = 13.89 Hm self inductance but if may or may not be possible
3600 self inductance without mutual in ductance.
22. (d) Here, number of turns n = 1000; current
through the solenoid i = 4A; flux linked with 26. (c) L = 2mH, i = t2e–t
each turn = 4 × 10–3 Wb di 2 -t -t
\ Total flux linked, E = - L = - L[ -t e + 2te ]
dt
= 1000[4 × 10–3] = 4 Wb when E = 0,
ftotal = 4 Þ L i = 4 –e–t t2 + 2te–t = 0
Þ L= 1H or, 2t e–t = e–t t2
Number of flux linkages with the coil µ current (I) Þ t = 2 sec.
Nf di d(i 0 sin wt )
N f µ I Þ N f = LI Þ L =
I
. 27. (b) e = - M = - 0.005´
dt dt
23. (c) Emf induced in side 1 of frame e1 = B1Vl = –0.005 × i0 ×(w cos wt)
mo I emax . = 0.005 ´ i0 ´ w (when cos wt = –1)
B1 =
2p (x – a/ 2) = 0.005 × 10 × 100p = 5p V
Emf induced in side 2 of frame e2 = B2 Vl 28. (b) Length of conductor (l) = 0.4 m; Speed (v)
= 7 m/s and magnetic field (B) = 0.9 Wb/ m2.
moI
B2 = Induced e.m.f. (V) = Blv sin q = 0.9 × 0.4 × 7 × sin
2p (x + a/ 2) 90º = 2.52 V.
x 29. (c) Initial current (I1) = 10 A; Final current (I2)
= 0; Time (t) = 0.5 sec and induced e.m.f. (e) =
I
1 2 220 V.
a v Induced e.m.f. (e)
x–
2 dI (I - I ) (0 - 10)
a = -L = -L 2 1 = -L = 20L
dt t 0.5
a
x+ 220
2 or, L = = 11H
Emf induced in square frame 20
e = B1Vl – B2Vl [where L = Self inductance of coil]
EBD_8335
256 PHYSICS
In building a steady current in the circuit, the source

e e dt 5 ´ 10 -3
30. (b) L= = = H = 5mH emf has to do work against self inductance of coil
di di (3 - 2) and whatever energy consumed for tis work stored
dt in magnetic field of coil-called magnetic potential
1 2 N fi
Nf m Ni energy (u) of coil u = LI =
31. (c) L= ; f = BA; B = 0 2 2
i 2R
mn2 A
2 35. (d) Self inductance of a solenoid =
N æ m0 Ni ö m N l
ÞL= ç ÷ A= 0 A Þ L µ N2
i è 2R ø 2R So, self induction µ n2
So, inductance becomes 4 times when n is
nAdB doubled.
e dt 36. (c) An inductor stores energy in its magnetic
32. (c) i= = field.
R R
df e 1 df
20 ´ (25 ´10 -4 ) ´1000 37. (c) e = ;i= =
= = 0.5A dt R R dt
100 1 df
Total charge induced = ò i dt = ò .dt
1 1 æ -d f ö R dt
q = ò idt =
Rò
33. (c) edt = ò ç ÷ dt 1 2
f
1
R è dt ø = ò d f = (f 2 - f1 )
Rf R
1 1
Rò
= df (taking only magnitude of e) di
38. (a) e = L
Hence, total charge induced in the conducting dt
loop depends upon the total change in magnetic Given that L = 40 × 10–3 H,
flux. di = 11 A – 1 A = 10 A
1 2 1 and dt = 4 × 10–3 s
34. (c) E = Li = ´ (100 ´ 10 -3 ) ´ 12 = 0.05 J æ 10 ö
2 2 \ e = 40 × 10–3 × ç = 100V
-3 ÷
è 4 ´ 10 ø
Alternating Current 257
21 Alternating Current
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Alternating Current, Alternating Current,
Voltage & Power Voltage & Power 1 E
Current, Power dissipated

1 A 1 A 2 A
A.C. Circuit, LCR Circuit, in LCR
Quality & Power Factor
LCR, Quality & Power 1 A
Factor
Transformers &
LC Oscillations
Topic 1: Alternating Current, V

Voltage & Power
(a) t
1. A 40 mF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz
T/2 T
ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is, nearly : [2020]
(a) 2.05 A (b) 2.5 A V
(c) 25.1 A (d) 1.7 A
2. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin wt is applied (b)
T/2 T
across an ideal capacitor C : [2016] t
(a) Current I (t), lags voltage V(t) by 90°. V
(b) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not
consume any energy from the voltage (c)
source. T/2 t T
(c) Current I (t) is in phase with voltage V(t). V
(d) Current I (t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.
3. The current (I) in the inductance is varying with t
time according to the plot shown in figure. [2012] (d)
T/2 T
I
4. The instantaneous values of alternating current
and voltages in a circuit are given as
T/2
t T 1
i= sin(100pt ) amper
Which one of the following is the correct 2
variation of voltage with time in the coil? 1
e= sin(100pt + p / 3) Volt
2
EBD_8335
258 PHYSICS
The average power in Watts consumed in the 10. In a region of uniform magnetic induction
circuit is : [2012M] B = 10–2 tesla, a circular coil of radius 30 cm and
1 3 resistance p2 ohm is rotated about an axis which
(a) (b)
4 4 is perpendicular to the direction of B and which
1 1 forms a diameter of the coil. If the coil rotates at
(c) (d) 200 rpm the amplitude of the alternating current
2 8
5. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200 induced in the coil is [1988]
2
(a) 4p mA (b) 30 mA
2 sin 100 t volts is connected to a capacitor
of capacity 1 mF. The r.m.s. value of the current (c) 6 mA (d) 200 mA
in the circuit is [2011] Topic 2: A.C. Circuit, LCR Circuit,
(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA Quality & Power Factor
(c) 200 mA (d) 20 mA 11. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
6. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown voltage source. When L is removed from the
in the figure is [2011M] circuit, the phase difference between current
V p
and voltage is . If instead C is removed from
V0 3
p
the circuit, the phase difference is again
O t 3
T/2 T between current and voltage. The power factor
(a) V0 (b) V0 / 2 of the circuit is : [2020]
(c) V0/2 (d) V0 / 3 (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
7. In an a.c circuit the e.m.f. (e) and the current (i) (c) –1.0 (d) zero
at any instant are given respectively by 12. A circuit when connected to an AC source of 12
e = E0 sin wt [2008] V gives a current of 0.2 A. The same circuit when
i = I0 sin (wt – f) connected to a DC source of 12 V, gives a current
The average power in the circuit over one cycle of 0.4 A. The circuit is [NEET Odisha 2019]
of a.c. is (a) Series LCR (b) Series LR
E 0 I0 E 0 I0 (c) Series RC (d) Series LC
(a) (b) sin f 13. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 mF and a
2 2
E 0 I0 resistor 50W are connected in series across a
(c) cos f (d) E0I0 source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
2 the circuit is [2018]
8. In an A.C. circuit with voltage V and current I (a) 0.79 W (b) 0.43 W
the power dissipated is [1997] (c) 1.13 W (d) 2.74 W
(a) dependent on the phase between V and I 14. Figure shows a circuit that contains three
1 identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 W each,
(b) VI two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0
2 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf e = 18 V.
The current 'i' through the battery just after the
(c) 1 VI switch closed is [2017]
2
(d) VI
9. In an a.c. circuit, the r.m.s. value of current, irms R R
+ L
is related to the peak current, i0 by the relation e–
[1994]
(a) I rms = 2 I 0 (b) I rms = p I0 R L C
1 1
(c) I rms = I0 (d) I rms = I0 (a) 0.2 A (b) 2A
p 2 (c) 0 (d) 2 mA
15. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 mF and a 21. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive
resistor 40W are connected in series across a reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source of emf V = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across
A.C. circuit is : [2016] the coil, the current in the coil will be [2011M]
(a) 0.51 W (b) 0.67 W (a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A
(c) 0.76 W (d) 0.89 W 20
16. A resistance 'R' draws power 'P' when connected (c) A (d) 2.0 A
to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed 13
in series with the resistance, such that the 22. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter
impedance of the circuit becomes 'Z', the power V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading
drawn will be [2015] of the voltmeter V 3 and ammeter A are
respectively [2010]
R æRö
(a) P (b) P ç ÷ L C R = 100 W
Z èZø
2
æRö V1 V2 V3
(c) P (d) P ç ÷
èZø A
17. A ser ies R-C circuit is connected to an ~
alternating voltage source. Consider two 220 V, 50 Hz
situations: [2015 RS] (a) 150 V, 2.2 A (b) 220 V, 2.2 A
(A) When capacitor is air filled. (c) 220 V, 2.0 A (d) 100 V, 2.0 A
(B) When capacitor is mica filled. 23. A condenser of capacity C is charged to a
Current through resistor is i and voltage across potential difference of V1. The plates of the
capacitor is V then : condenser are then connected to an ideal
(a) Va > Vb (b) ia > ib inductor of inductance L. The current through
the inductor when the potential difference across
(c) Va = Vb (d) Va < Vb
the condenser reduces to V2 is [2010]
18. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series
1/ 2 1/ 2
with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of æ C(V12 - V22 ) ö æ C (V1 - V2 ) 2 ö
the bulb decreases when [2013] (a) çè ÷ø (b) ç ÷ø
L è L
(a) number of turns in the coil is reduced
(b) a capacitance of reactance XC = XL is C(V12 - V22 ) C (V1 - V2 )
(c) (d)
included in the same circuit L L
(c) an iron rod is inserted in the coil 24. Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit
(d) frequency of the AC source is decreased connected to an a.c source of emf e is [2009]
19. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage 2
æ 1 ö
source are all connected in series. When L is (a) ε 2 R 2 + ç Lω - ÷
è Cω ø
removed from the circuit, the phase difference
between the voltage the current in the circuit is R
p/3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the é æ 1 ö ù
2
phase difference is again p/3. The power factor ε 2 êR 2 + ç Lω – ÷ ú
(b) êë è Cω ø ú
of the circuit is : [2012] û
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/ 2 R
e2 R
(c) 1 (d) 3/2 (c) 2
20. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and æ 1 ö
R 2 + ç Lω – ÷
an inductor L in series. If R and the inductive è Cω ø
reactance are both equal to 3W, the phase e2R
difference between the applied voltage and the
current in the circuit is [2011] é 2 æ 1 ö ù
2
(d) êR + ç Lω – ÷ ú
(a) p/6 (b) p/4 êë è Cω ø ú
û
(c) p/2 (d) zero
EBD_8335
260 PHYSICS
25. What is the value of inductance L for which the 31. An inductance L having a resistance R is
current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with connected to an alternating source of angular
C = 10 µF and w = 1000s– 1 ? [2007] frequency w. The quality factor Q of the
(a) 1 mH inductance is [2000]
(b) cannot be calculated unless R is known 2
R æ wL ö
(c) 10 mH (a) (b) çè R ÷ø
(d) 100 mH wL
1/ 2
26. A coil of inductive reactance 31 W has a æ Rö wL
(c) ç (d)
resistance of 8 W. It is placed in series with a è wL ÷ø R
condenser of capacitative reactance 25W. The 32. In an experiment, 200 V A.C. is applied at the
combination is connected to an a.c. source of ends of an LCR circuit. The circuit consists of
110 volt. The power factor of the circuit is [2006] an inductive reactance (XL ) = 50 W, capacitive
(a) 0.64 (b) 0.80 reactance (XC ) = 50 W and ohmic resistance (R)
(c) 0.33 (d) 0.56 = 10 W. The impedance of the circuit is
[1996]
27. In a circuit, L, C and R are connected in series (a) 10W (b) 20W
with an alternating voltage source of frequency (c) 30W (d) 40W
f. The current leads the voltage by 45°. The 33. An LCR series circuit is connected to a source of
value of C is [2005] alternating current. At resonance, the applied
1 1 voltage and the current flowing through the
(a) (b) circuit will have a phase difference of [1994]
pf (2pfL - R) 2pf (2pfL - R)
1 1 p
(c) (d) (a) p (b)
pf (2pfL + R) 2pf (2pfL + R) 2
p
28. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in (c) (d) 0
series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the 4
34. The time constant of C–R circuit is [1992]
combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 (a) 1/CR (b) C/R
volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is (c) CR (d) R/C
[2004] Topic 3: Transformers & LC Oscillations
(a) 20 seconds (b) 5 seconds 35. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is
(c) 1/5 seconds (d) 40 seconds working on 200V and 3kW power supply. If the
29. In a series resonant circuit, having L, C and R current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage
as its elements, the resonant current is i. The across the secondary coil and the current in the
power dissipated in the circuit at resonance is primary coil respectively are : [2014]
(a) 300 V, 15A (b) 450 V, 15A
i 2R (c) 450V, 13.5A (d) 600V, 15A
(a) æ 1 ö (b) zero [2002] 36. The primary of a transformer when connected
ç wL - ÷ to a dc battery of 10 volt draws a current of 1
è w Cø
mA. The number of turns of the primary and
(c) i 2 wL (d) i 2 R
secondary windings are 50 and 100 respectively.
where w is the angular resonance frequency. The voltage in the secondary and the current
30. A capacitor has capacity C and reactance X. If drawn by the circuit in the secondary are
capacitance and frequency become double, then respectively [NEET Kar. 2013]
reactance will be [2001] (a) 20 V and 0.5 mA
(a) 4X (b) X/2 (b) 20 V and 2.0 mA
(c) X/4 (d) 2X (c) 10 V and 0.5 mA
(d) Zero and therefore no current
37. A 220 volts input is supplied to a transformer. 41. A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit
The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and
at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of
is 80%, the current drawn by the primary frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to
windings of the transformer is [2010] 4C, the frequency will be [2006]
(a) 3.6 ampere (b) 2.8 ampere
(a) 8f (b) f /2 2
(c) 2.5 ampere (d) 5.0 ampere
(c) f/2 (d) f/4
38. The primary and secondary coil of a transformer
have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the 42. A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line
magnetic flux f linked with the primary coil is and supplies a load of 2 ampere. The ratio of the
given by f = f0 + 4t, where f is in webers, t is time primary and secondary windings is 1 : 25. The
in seconds and f0 is a constant, the output current in the primary is [1998]
voltage across the secondary coil is [2007] (a) 25 A (b) 50 A
(a) 120 volts (b) 220 volts (c) 15 A (d) 12.5 A
(c) 30 volts (d) 90 volts 43. The primary winding of a transformer has 500
39. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The
lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is primary is connected to an A.C. supply of 20 V,
0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is 50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of
approximately [2007]
[1997]
(a) 50% (b) 90%
(a) 2 V, 5 Hz (b) 200 V, 500 Hz
(c) 10% (d) 30%.
(c) 2V, 50 Hz (d) 200 V, 50 Hz
40. The core of a transformer is laminated because
[2006] 44. Eddy currents are produced when [1988]
(a) the weight of the transformer may be (a) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field
reduced
(b) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field
(b) rusting of the core may be prevented
(c) ratio of voltage in primary and secondary (c) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
may be increased (d) through a circular coil, current is passed
(d) energy losses due to eddy currents may
be minimised
ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 6 (b) 11 (b) 16 (d) 21 (a) 26 (b) 31 (d) 36 (d) 41 (b)
2 (b) 7 (c) 12 (b) 17 (a) 22 (b) 27 (d) 32 (a) 37 (d) 42 (b)
3 (d) 8 (a) 13 (a) 18 (c) 23 (a) 28 (b) 33 (d) 38 (a) 43 (d)
4 (d) 9 (d) 14 (b) 19 (c) 24 (d) 29 (d) 34 (c) 39 (b) 44 (a)
5 (d) 10 (c) 15 (a) 20 (b) 25 (d) 30 (c) 35 (b) 40 (d)
EBD_8335
262 PHYSICS
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Given : 200 2
Capacitance, C = 40 µF = 40 × 10–6 F 5. (d) Vrms = = 200V
Frequency, f = 50 Hz 2
\ w = 2pf = 100p 200
Vrms 1
e rms = 200 V Irms = =
X C 100 ´ 10- 6
e rms e rms
\ I rms = = = 2 × 10–2 = 20mA
XC 1
Cw (T / 2)V0 2 + 0 V
= 200 × 40 × 10–6 × 2p × 50 = 2.5 A. 6. (b) Vrms = = 0 .
T 2
2. (b) As we know, power P = Vrms · Irms cosf
as cosf = 0 (Q f = 90°) 7. (c) The average power in the circuit over one
\ Power consumed = 0 cycle of a.c. is given by
(in one complete cycle) Pav = erms ×irms × cosf
E0 I0 E I
3. (d) V = - L di = ´ ´ cos f = 0 0 cos f
dt 2 2 2
di T 8. (a) Power dissipated = Erms. Irms
Here is + ve for time and = (Erms) (Irms) cos q
dt 2
di T Hence, power dissipated depends upon phase
is – ve for next time so difference.
dt 2
4. (d) The average power in the circuit where I
9. (d) I rms = 0
cos f = power factory 2
< P > = Vrms × Irms cos f
E0 nBAw
180 10. (c) I0 = =
f = p/3 = phase difference = = 60 R R
3
1 Given, n = 1, B = 10–2 T,
2 = 1 volt A = p(0.3)2m2, R = p2
Vrms =
2 2 f = (200/60) and w = 2p(200/60)
1 Substituting these values and solving, we get
2 = æ 1ö A
Irms = ç ÷ I0 = 6 × 10–3 A = 6mA
2 è 2ø
11. (b) When L is removed,
p 1 Phase difference
cos f = cos =
3 2
| XC | p X
1 1 1 1 tan f = = tan = C ...(1)
< P>= ´ ´ = W R 3 R
2 2 2 8 When C is removed,
The instantaneous power is the power in circuit Phase difference
at any instant of time. It is equal to the product
|X | p X
of values of alternating voltage and alternating tan f = L = tan = L ...(2)
current at that time R 3 R
Pin = EI = (E0 sin wt) (I0 sin wt) From eqs. (1) and (2), X L = X C
(in non-inductive circuit)
Pin = (E0 sin wt) (I0 sin wt ± q) Since, X L = X C , the circuit is in resonance.
(in inductive circuit)
In this case, Z = R 15. (a) Given: L = 20 mH; C = 50 mF; R = 40 W

R V = 10 sin 340 t
\ Power factor, cos f = = 1.
10
Z
\ Vruns =
V 2
12. (b) I1 = 1 1
Z XC = = = 58.8 W
wC 340 ´ 50 ´10-6
12
I1 = = 0.2 A XL = wL = 340 × 20 × 10–3 = 6.8 W
R2 + ( X L – X C )
2
2
In second case, the capacitor would provide Impedance, Z = R 2 + ( XC - X L )
infinite resistance but current is present in
circuit, it means resistor and inductor can be = 2
40 2 + ( 58.8 - 6.8 ) = 4304 W
present in the circuit.
Since current with AC source and DC source Power loss in A.C. circuit,
are different, inductor must be present with 2
æV ö
resistance. P = i 2rms R = ç rms ÷ R
13. (a) Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit è Z ø
connected to an a.c. source of emf E 2
æ 10 / 2 ö 50 ´ 40
=ç ÷ ´ 40 = ; 0.51 W
2 2 4304
Erms R Erms R è 4304 ø
P = Erms irms cos f = =
Z2 æ 1 ö
2 16. (d)
R 2 + ç wL – ÷ Pure resistor L-R series circuit
è Cw ø
2 R R L
æ 10 ö
ç ÷ ´ 50
= è 2ø V V
2
Vs V
æ 1 ö Phasor diagram
(50) + ç 314 ´ 20 ´10 –3 –
2
–6 ÷
è 314 ´ 100 ´ 10 ø R
Solving we get, P = 0.79 W q
R
XL cos q =
Z Z
14. (b)
Z = impedance
At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3 For pure resistor circuit, power
V2
P= Þ V 2 = PR
R
For L-R series circuit, power
\ 2
V2 V 2 R PR æ Rö
P1 = cos q = . = .R =Pç ÷
Z Z Z Z2 è Zø
Current through battery just after the switch 17. (a) For series R – C circuit, capacitive
closed is reactance,
e 18 æ 1 ö
2
i= = = 2A Zc = R2 + ç
R2 ÷
9 è Cw ø
EBD_8335
264 PHYSICS
Xc = 1/cw net impedence Z = R 2 + ( X L - X C )2 = R

R
R power factor cos f = =1
C Z
20. (b) The phase difference f is given by
~ X
tan f = L
R
AC Source 3 p
V V = =1 Þ f = .
3 4
Current i = =
Zc 2 21. (a) If w = 50 × 2p then wL = 20W
æ 1 ö
R2 + ç ÷ If w¢ = 100 × 2p then w¢L = 40W
è Cw ø
Current flowing in the coil is
V 1 200 200 200
Vc = iXc = ´ I= = =
2 Cw Z R 2 + (w¢L)2 (30)2 + (40) 2
æ 1 ö
R2 + ç ÷ I = 4A.
è Cw ø
22. (b) As VL = VC = 300 V, resonance will take
V place
Vc =
(RCw)2 + 1 \ VR = 220 V
220
If we fill a di-electric material like mica instead of Current, I = = 2.2 A
100
air then capacitance C Þ Vc¯
So, Va > Vb \ reading of V3 = 220 V
18. (c) By inserting iron rod in the coil, and reading of A = 2.2 A
L Z I ¯ so brightness ¯ 23. (a) q = CV1 cos w
Inductive reactance, XL = wL. On inserting iron dq
rod in the coil, L increases. As a result Impedance Þi = = –wCv1 sin wt
dt
Z= X L2 + R 2 = (wL) 2 + R 2 also increases. 1
2
V
Also, w = and V = V1 cos w t
So, Current, I = decreases.
LC
Z At t = t1 , V = V2 and i = -wCV1 sin wt1
19. (c) V2
\ cos w t1 = V (–ve sign gives direction)
when L is removed from the circuit 1
1/ 2
R C æ V22 ö
p/3 Hence, i = V1 ç1 - 2 ÷
XC p L è V1 ø
= tan
R 3 Z1 1/2
XC æ C (V12 - V22 ) ö
=ç ÷
è L ø
p
X C = R tan ....(1) 24. (d) Power dissipated in series LCR;
3
when C is remove from the circuit 2 e2
P= I R = R
(Z) 2
XL p Z2
= tan
R 3 XL e2 R
p/3 =
é 2 æ 1 ö ù
2
p R êR + ç ωL – ú
X C = R tan ...(2) è ÷
3 êë ωC ø ú
û
2 1 1
Z = R 2 + æç ωL –
1 ö 29. (d) At resonance Lw = , w=
è ÷ Cw LC
ωC ø
is called the impedance of the circuit. E
Current through circuit i =
R
25. (d) Condition for which the current is maximum
Power dissipated at Resonance = i2R
in a series LCR circuit is,
1 1
w=
1 1 30. (c) Capacitive reactance, X = =
Þ 1000 = wC 2pfC
LC
L(10 ´10-6 ) 1
Þ L = 100 mH Þ Xµ
f C
R
26. (b) Power factor, f = X' f C f C 1
2 \ = ´ = ´ =
æ 1 ö 2 X f ' C ' 2 f 2C 4
çè wL - ÷ +R
wC ø X
8 8 8 Þ X '=
= = = = 0.8 4
(31 - 25)2 + 82 2
6 +8 2 10 31. (d) Quality factor
R
Power factor = cos q = Potential drop across capacitor or inductor
Z =
For purely inductive and purely capacitive Potential drop across R
circuits, q = 90°
Power factor = cos q = cos 90° = q I wL wL
For non-inductive circuit, q = 0° = =
IR R
cos q = cos 0° = 1
32. (a) Given : Supply voltage (Vac) = 200 V
27. (d) From figure, Inductive reactance (XL) = 50 W
Capacitive reactance (XC) = 50 W
æ 1 ö Ohmic resistance (R) = 10 W.
ç w - wL ÷ We know that impedance of the LCR circuit (Z)
è C ø
= {( X L - X C )2 + R 2 }
45º = {(50 - 50) 2 + (10) 2 } = 10 W

O R
1
1 33. (d) At resonance, wL = . The circuit
- wL wC
1
tan 45º = wC Þ - wL = R behaves as if it contains R only. So, phase
R wC difference = 0
1 æ 2p ö At resonance, impedance is minimum Zmin = R
Þ = R + wL çèQ w = = 2mf ÷
ø and current is maximum, given by
wC T
E E
1 1 I max = =
Z min R
C= =
w( R + wL) 2pf ( R + 2pf L) It is interesting to note that before resonance the
28. (b) Time constant is L/R current leads the applied emf, at resonance it is in
phase, and after resonance it lags behind the emf.
Given, L = 40H & R = 8W
LCR series circuit is also called as acceptor circuit
\ t = 40/8 = 5 sec. and parallel LCR circuit is called rejector circuit.
EBD_8335
266 PHYSICS
34. (c) The time constant for resonance circuit, this current is opposite to the current which
= CR produces it, so it will reduce the main current.
We laminate the core so that flux is reduced
Growth of charge in a circuit containing resulting in the reduced production of eddy
capacitance and resistance is given by the formula, current.
q = q0 (1 – e–t/CR)
41. (b) We know that frequency of electrical
CR is known as time constant in this formula.
oscillation in L.C. circuit is
Vs Is V (6)
35. (b) Efficiency h = Þ 0.9 = s 1 1
Vp Ip 3 ´ 103 f =
2p LC
Þ Vs = 450 V Now, L = 2 L & C = 4C
As VpIp = 3000 so
1 1 1 1 1
3000 3000 f '= = ´
Ip = = A = 15A 2p 2 L . 4C 2p LC 2 2
Vp 200
1
Þ f '= ´ f
36. (d) A transformer is essentially an AC device. 2 2
DC source so no mutual induction between coils N p Ep 1
42. (b) = =
Þ E2 = 0 and I2 = 0 Ns Es 25
\ Es = 25 Ep
V2 I V2 I 2
37. (d) = 0.8 1 Þ = 0.8
V1 I2 V1 I1 But EsIs = EpIp
V1 = 220 V, I2 = 2.0 A, V2 = 440 V 25Ep × 2 = Ep × Ip Þ Ip = 50 A
V2 I 2 10 440 ´ 2 ´10 If np is number of turns in primary coil and ns is

I1 = ´ = =5A number of turns in secondary coil, then
V1 8 220 ´ 8
Es I p ns
= = =k
38. (a) Since Vs = N s E p I s np
Vp N p Here, Ip = current in primary
Where k = Transformation ratio
Is = current is secondary
Ns = No. of turns across primary coil = 50 For a step up transformer, k > 1
Np = No. of turns across secondary coil For step down transformer, k < 1
= 1500
43. (d) The transformer converts A.C. high
df d voltage into A.C. low voltage, but it does not
and V p = = (f 0 + 4t ) = 4
dt dt cause any change in frequency. The formula for
1500 voltage is
Þ Vs = ´ 4 = 120 V
50 Es N Ns
= s Þ Es = × Ep
39. (b) Efficiency of the transformer Ep N p Np
Poutput 5000
100 = ´ 20 = 200V
h= ´ 100 = ´100 = 90.9% 500
Pinput 220 ´ 0.5 Thus, output has voltage 200 V and frequency
40. (d) When there is change of flux in the core of 50 Hz.
a transformer due to change in current around 44. (a) Eddy currents are produced when a metal
it, eddy current is produced. The direction of is kept in a varying magnetic field.
Electromagnetic Waves 267
22 Electromagnetic
Waves
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Electromagnetic Waves, Electromagnetic waves 1 E 1 E
Conduction & Displacement
Current E/B = C & F = QE 1 E 1 E
Electromagnetic Spectrum 1 E
Topic 1: Electromagnetic Waves, Conduction & (c) A chargeless particle

Displacement Current (d) An accelerating charge
5. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a
1. The ratio of contributions made by the electric perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
field and magnetic field components to the transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light)
intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : 2E 2E
( c = speed of electromagnetic waves) [2020] (a) (b) [2015]
C C2
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : c
(c) 1 : c2 (d) c : 1 E E
(c) (d)
2. An em wave r is propagating in a medium with a C2 C
velocity V = Viˆ . The instantaneous oscillating 6. Light with an energy flux of 25 × 104 Wm– 2 falls
electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm2, the
of the em wave will be along [2018] average force exerted on the surface is :[2014]
(a) –z direction (b) +z direction (a) 1.25 × 10– 6 N (b) 2.50 × 10– 6 N
(c) 1.20 × 10 N – 6 (d) 3.0 × 10– 6 N
(c) –x direction (d) –y direction
3. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the 7. An electromagnetic wave of frequency n = 3.0
root mean square value of the electric field is MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric
Erms = 6V/m. The peak value of the magnetic medium with relative permittivity e = 4.0. Then
[NEET Kar. 2013]
field is :- [2017]
(a) wavelength is doubled and frequency is
(a) 2.83 × 10–8 T (b) 0.70 × 10–8 T unchanged
(c) 4.23 × 10–8 T (d) 1.41 × 10–8 T (b) wavelength is doubled and frequency
4. Out of the following options which one can be becomes half
used to produce a propagating electromagnetic (c) wavelength is halved and frequency
wave ? [2016] remains unchanged
(a) A charge moving at constant velocity (d) wavelength and frequency both remain
(b) A stationary charge unchanged
EBD_8335
268 PHYSICS
8. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave (c) moving along – x direction with frequency
r 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.
in vacuum is given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 ×
108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and (d) moving along y direction with frequency
seconds respectively. The value of wave vector 2p × 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.
k is : [2012] 13. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a
(a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 medium of permittivity e0 and permeability m0 is
(c) 6 m–1 (d) 3 m–1 given by [2008]
9. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the Î0
amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic (a) (b) m0 Î0
m0
wave propagating in vacuum is equal to :
(a) the speed of light in vacuum [2012M] 1 m0
(b) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum (c) m0 Î0 (d) Î0
(c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the 14. The electric and magnetic field of an electro-
electric susceptibility of vacuum magnetic wave are [2007]
(d) unity (a) in opposite phase and perpendicular to
10. The electric and the magnetic field associated each other
with an E.M. wave, propagating along the (b) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
+z-axis, can be represented by [2011] (c) in phase and perpendicular to each other
r r (d) in phase and parallel to each other.
ˆ ˆ
(a) éë E = E 0 i, B = B0 jùû r r
r r r 15. If E and B represent electric and magnetic
(b) éë E = E 0 k, B = B0î ùû field vectors of the electromagnetic waves, then
r r the direction of propagation of the waves will
(c) éë E = E 0 ˆj, B = B0 iˆ ùû be along [2002]
r r r r r
(d) éë E = E 0 ˆj,B = B0 kˆ ùû (a) Br ´ E (b) Er r
11. Which of the following statement is false for the (c) B (d) E ´ B
16. The electromagnetic radiations are caused by
properties of electromagnetic waves? [2010]
(a) a stationary charge [1999]
(a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors
(b) uniformly moving charges
attain the maxima and minima at the same
(c) accelerated charges
place and same time. (d) all of above
(b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is 17. If e0 and m0 are the electric permittivity and
divided equally between electric and magnetic permeability in vacuum, e and m are
magnetic vectors corresponding quantities in medium, then
(c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are refractive index of the medium is [1997]
parallel to each other and perpendicular to e e 0m
the direction of propagation of wave (a) (b)
e0 em 0
(d) These waves do not require any material
medium for propagation. e 0m 0 em
(c) (d)
12. The electric field part of an electromagnetic em e 0m 0
wave in a medium is represented by Ex=0; 18. The oscillating electric and magnetic field
N éæ rad ö vectors of electromagnetic wave are oriented
E y = 2.5 cos êç 2π ×106 æ –2 rad ö ù ;
÷ t – ç π ×10 ÷x along [1994]
C ëè mø è s ø úû
(a) the same direction and in phase
Ez = 0. The wave is : [2009] (b) the same direction but have a phase
(a) moving along x direction with frequency difference of 90º
106 Hz and wave length 100 m. (c) mutually perpendicular directions and are
(b) moving along x direction with frequency in phase
106 Hz and wave length 200 m. (d) mutually perpendicular directions but has
a phase difference of 90º
19. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which 26. We consider the radiation emitted by the human
is best suited to observe a particle of radius body. Which of the following statements is true?
3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of [1991] [2003]
(a) 1015 (b) 1014 (a) the radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet
(c) 1013 (d) 1012 region and hence is not visible.
(b) the radiation emitted is in the infra-red
Topic 2: Electromagnetic Spectrum
region.
20. Which colour of the light has the longest (c) the radiation is emitted only during the
wavelength ? [2019] day.
(a) red (b) blue (d) the radiation is emitted during the summers
(c) green (d) violet and absorbed during the winters.
21. The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15
27. Which of the following electromagnetic
keV. To which part of the spectrum does it
radiations has the least wavelength? [2002]
belong? [2015 RS]
(a) Infra-red rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (a) gamma rays (b) infra-red
(c) g-rays (d) X-rays (c) ultraviolet (d) X-rays
22. The condition under which a microwave oven 28. Green-house effect is the heating up of earth's
heats up a food item containing water molecules atmosphere due to [2002]
most efficiently is [2013] (a) green plants (b) infra-red rays
(a) the frequency of the microwaves has no (c) X-rays (d) ultraviolet rays
relation with natural frequency of water 29. Which of the following is positively charged?
molecules. (a) a-particle (b) b-particle [2001]
(b) microwaves are heat waves, so always (c) g-rays (d) X-rays
produce heating. 30. The frequencies of X-rays, g-rays and ultraviolet
(c) infra-red waves produce heating in a rays are respectively a, b, and c. Then [2000]
microwave oven.
(a) a < b, b < c (b) a < b, b > c
(d) the frequency of the microwaves must
(c) a > b, b > c (d) a > b, b < c
match the resonant frequency of the water
molecules. 31. Which one of the following electromagnetic
23. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, radiations has the smallest wavelength? [1994]
microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is [2011] (a) ultraviolet waves (b) X-rays
(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays (c) g-rays (d) microwaves
(b) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, micro- 32. The structure of solids is investigated by using
waves (a) cosmic rays [1992]
(c) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, (b) X-rays
ultraviolet (c) g-rays
(d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma
(d) infra-red radiations
rays
24. If lv , lx and lm represent the wavelengths of 33. Pick out the longest wavelength from the
visi ble l igh t , X –r ays and m icr owaves following types of radiation. [1990]
respectively, then [2005] (a) blue light (b) gamma rays
(a) lm > lx > lv (b) lm > lv > lx (c) X-rays (d) red light
(c) lv > lx > lm (d) lv > lm > lx 34. Which of the following, has the longest
25. Which one of the following rays is not wavelength? [1989]
electromagnetic wave ? [2003] (a) X-rays (b) g-rays
(a) heat rays (b) X-rays (c) microwaves (d) radio waves
(c) g-rays (d) b-rays
EBD_8335
270 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 5 (a) 9 (b) 13 (c) 17 (d) 21 (d) 25 (d) 29 (a) 32 (b)
2 (b) 6 (b) 10 (a) 14 (c) 18 (c) 22 (d) 26 (b) 30 (b) 33 (d)
3 (a) 7 (c) 11 (c) 15 (d) 19 (b) 23 (a) 27 (a) 31 (c) 34 (d)
4 (d) 8 (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 20 (a) 24 (b) 28 (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) The energy in electromagnetic wave is As surface is perfectly reflecting so
divided equally between the electric and E
magnetic field. momentum reflect p' = –
C
So, in an electromagnetic wave, half of the
intensity is provided by the electric field and E E
half by the magnetic field. =P
C C
Hence, required ratio should be 1 : 1.
2. (b) As we know, So, momentum transferred
r r r E æ E ö 2E
E´B = V = P – P' = – ç – ÷ =
r C è Cø C
( Ejˆ) ´ ( B) = Viˆ Dp 2IA
6. (b) Average force Fav = =
(Q Electric field vector is along +y axis) Dt c
r (Q Power = F.V)
So, B = Bkˆ 2 ´ 25 ´ 104 ´ 15 ´ 10 - 4
i.e., direction of magnetic field vector is along =
3 ´ 108
+z direction.
= 2.50 × 10– 6 N
3. (a) Given, Erms = 6 V/m
Force F
E rms Pressure = =
=c Area A
Brms dp
Force is the rate of change of momentum F =
E rms dt
Þ Brms = ...(i) But energy, U = pc
c 1 U I
B0 \ Pressure = =
Brms = Þ B0 = 2 Brms A c . dt c
2 é U ù
E êëQ Intensity = Adt úû
B0 = 2 ´ rms From equation (i)
c 2I
For perfectly reflecting surface, Pr =
2 ´6 c
= = 2.83 × 10–8 T 2IA
3 ´ 108 \ For perfectly reflecting surface, Force =
c
4. (d) To generate electromagnetic waves we 7. (c) Given: frequency f = 2MHz, relative
need accelerating charge particle. permittivity Îr = 4
5. (a) Momentum of light falling on reflecting From formula,
E c c l
surface p = velocity n = = Þ l'=
C Îr 2 2
[Since frequency remains unchanged]
8. (a) On comparing the given equation to 13. (c) The velocity of electromagnetic radiation
r in a medium of permittivity Î 0 and permeability
E = a0iˆ cos (wt – kz) 1
w = 6 × 108 m0 is is equal to .
m0 Î 0
Wave factor,
2p w 14. (c) Variation in magnetic field causes electric
k= = field and vice-versa. r r
r c
In electromagnetic waves, E ^ B. Both
w 6 ´108 r r
k= = = 2 m-1 E and B are in the same phase.
c 3 ´ 108
9. (b) The average energy stored in the electric In electromagnetic waves
1 E = E0 sin(wt - kx )
2
field, U E = e 0 E
2 B = B0 sin(wt - kx)
The average energy stored in the magnetic field The electromagnetic waves travel in the
1 B2 r r
= UB = , direction of ( E ´ B).
2 m0
15. (d) Direction of propagation of electro-
According to conservation of energy UE = UB magnetic waves is perpendicular to Electric field
B2 and Magnetic field. Hence, direction is given by
e 0m 0 = 2
E ur ur
ur ur uur E ´ B
B 1 vector S = E ´ H = .
= e 0m 0 = m0
E c
In electromagnetic waves, the rate of flow of
The average energy density of electric field
energy crossing a unit area is described by
1 2
mE = Î0 E0 Poynting vector. The magnitude of poynting
4 vector
1 2 2 é E0 ù
Þ mE = Î0 ( c B0 ) êQ = cú r 1 EB
4 ë B0 û |S | = EB sin 90° =
m0 m0
1 1 é 1 ù
Þ mE = E0 B02 ´ êQ c = ú E2 æ Eö
4 m 0 Î0 ëê m 0 Î0 ûú = çQ B = ÷
m 0c è cø
1 B02
Þ mE = = mB 16. (c) A stationary charge produces electric
4 m0
Thus, the average energy density of electric field field only; an uniformly moving charge
equal to the average density of magnetic field. produces localised electromagnetic field; an
accelerated charge produces electromagnetic
10. (a) E.M. wave always propagates in a direction radiations.
perpendicular to both electric and magnetic 17. (d) We know that velocity of
fields. So, electric and magnetic fields should be electromagnetic wave in vacuum
along + X and + Y–directions respectively. 1
(v0 ) = and velocity of
Therefore, option (a) is the correct option. m0e 0
11. (c) Electromagnetic waves are the electromagnetic wave in medium is
combination of mutually perpendicular electric 1
and magnetic fields. So, option (c) is false. (v ) = .
12. (b) Comparing with the equation of wave. me
Therefore refractive index of the medium
Ey = E0 cos (wt – kx)
Vel. of E.M.wave in vacuum (v0 )
w = 2 pf = 2p × 106 \ f = 106 Hz (m ) =
2p Vel. of E.M. wave in medium (v)
= k = p × 10–2 m–1, l = 200 m
l
EBD_8335
272 PHYSICS
18. (c) The direction of oscillations of E and B 25. (d) b ray is not electromagnetic ray
fields are perpendicular to each other as well as 26. (b) Depends on the magnitude of frequency
to the direction of propagation. So, electro- 27. (a) Gamma ray has highest frequency and
magnetic waves are transverse in nature. lowest wavelength.
The electric and magnetic fields oscillate in same
28. (b) Infrared rays is the cause of Green house
phase.
effect. The glass transmits visible light and short
c infrared rays which are absorbed by plants.
19. (b) Size of particle = l =
n Then it emits long infrared rays, which are
reflected back by glass.
3 ´ 108
3 ´ 10 -6 = 29. (a) a rays contain Helium nuclei which
n
contains 2 unit of positive charge.
n = 1014 Hz
30. (b) g rays has lowest wavelength and highest
When frequency is higher than this, wavelength
frequency among them while ultraviolet ray has
is still smaller. Resolution becomes better.
highest wavelength and lowest frequency.
20. (a) lRed > lGreen > lBlue > lViolet. Red has the Order of frequency : b > a > c
longest wavelength. 31. (c) Rays Wavelength
21. (d) Energy of x-ray is (100 ev to 100 kev) [Range in m]
Hence energy of the order of 15 kev belongs to X-rays 1 × 10–11 to 3 × 10–8
x-rays. g-rays 6 × 10–14 to 1 × 10–11
22. (d) Required condition : Frequency of Microwaves 10–3 to 0.3
microwaves = Resonant frequency of water
Radiowaves 10 to 104
molecules.
23. (a) The decreasing order of the wavelengths Wavelength of U.V. Rays ranges from
is as given below : 6 × 10–8 to 4 × 10–7.
microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays. 32. (b) X-rays are used for the investigation of
structure of solids.
hc 1
24. (b) We know E =
l
Þ Eµ l 33. (d) Wavelength of red light is longest.
Þ Em < Ev < Ex 34. (d) Rays Wavelength
\ lm > lv > lx [Range in m]
X-rays 1 × 10–11 to 3 × 10–8
hc g-rays 6 × 10–14 to 1 × 10–11
Energy of electromagnetic wave, E =
l Microwaves 10–3 to 0.3
For em wave of lower energy, (n) is small and l is Radio waves 10 to 104
larger. For em wave of higher energy (n) is large
and l is small.
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 273
23 Ray Optics and

Optical Instruments
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Plane Mirror, Spherical Mirror
Mirror & Refl. of light 1 A 1 A
& Reflection of Light
Refraction of Light at Plane
Surface & Total Internal 1 A
Reflection
Refraction at Curved Surface,
Combination of Lenses 1 D
Lenses & Power of Lens
Prism & Dispersion of Light Prism & Dispersion 1 A 1 A 1 A 1 A
Rainbow 1 A
Optical Instruments Magnification of Telescope
1 E 1 A
& Microscope
Topic 1: Plane Mirror, Spherical Mirror & (R) m = +2 (C) Real image
Reflection of Light 1
(S) m = + (D) Virtual image
1. A beam of light from a source L is incident 2
normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain (a) P ® B and C, Q ® B and C, R ® B and D,
distance x from the source. The beam is reflected S ® A and D.
back as a spot on a scale placed just above the (b) P ® A and C, Q ® A and D, R ® A and B,
source I. When the mirror is rotated through a S ® C and D
small angle q, the spot of the light is found to (c) P ® A and D, Q ® B and C, R ® B and D,
move through a distance y on the scale. The S ® B and C
angle q is given by [2017] (d) P ® C and D, Q ® B and D, R ® B and C,
S ® A and D
y x 3. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70°. A ray
(a) (b) incident on one mirror at angle q after reflection
x 2y
falls on second mirror and is reflected from there
x y parallel to first mirror. The value of q is
(c) y
(d) [NEET Kar. 2013]
2x
2. Match the corresponding entries of column-1 (a) 50° (b) 45°
(c) 30° (d) 55°
with column-2 (Where m is the magnification
4. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal
produced by the mirror): [2016]
axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in
Column-1 Column-2
such a way that its end closer to the pole is
(P) m = –2 (A) Convex mirror 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the
1 image is : [2012M]
(Q) m = - (B) Concave mirror (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
2
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 5 cm
EBD_8335
274 PHYSICS
5. A person is six feet tall. How tall must a vertical 3 cm

mirror be if he is able to see his entire length?
(a) 3 ft (b) 4.5 ft [2000]
(c) 7.5 ft (d) 6 ft
6. If two mirrors are kept inclined at 60° to each 4 cm
other and a body is placed at the middle, then
total number of images formed is [1995]
(a) six (b) five coin
(c) four (d) three (a) 2.4 × 108 m/s (b) 3.0 × 108 m/s
7. Ray optics is valid, when characteristic 8
(c) 1.2 × 10 m/s (d) 1.8 × 108 m/s
dimensions are [1989] 13. A beam of light composed of red and green rays
(a) of the same order as the wavelength of light is incident obliquely at a point on the face of
(b) much smaller than the wavelength of light rectangular glass slab. When coming out on
(c) of the order of one millimetre the opposite parallel face, the red and green
(d) much larger than the wavelength of light rays emerge from [2004]
Topic 2: Refraction of Light at Plane Surface (a) one point propagating in the same direction
& Total Internal Reflection (b) two points propagating in two different
non-parallel directions
8. In total internal reflection when the angle of
(c) two points propagating in two different
incidence is equal to the critical angle for the
pair of media in contact, what will be angle of parallel directions
refraction ? [2019] (d) one point propagating in two different
(a) 180° directions
(b) 0° 14. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as
(c) equal to angle of incidence shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if
(d) 90° total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical
9. Which of the following is not due to total face, is [2002]
internal reflection? [2011] 45º
(a) Working of optical fibre
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth
of pond
(c) Mirage on hot summer days Glass
(d) Brilliance of diamond
10. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium
of refractive index m , falls on a surface
separating the medium from air at an angle of (a) 3/ 2 (b)
( 3 + 1)
incidence of 45°. For which of the following value 2
of µ the ray can undergo total internal reflection?
[2010] (c)
( 2 + 1) (d) 5 /2
2
(a) m = 1.33 (b) m = 1.40
15. The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise
(c) m = 1.50 (d) m = 1.25
and sunset is due to [2000]
11. The frequency of a light wave in a material is (a) the colour of the sky
2 × 1014 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The (b) the scattering of light
refractive index of material will be [2007] (c) the polarisation of light
(a) 1.50 (b) 3.00 (d) the colour of the sun
(c) 1.33 (d) 1.40 16. An air bubble in a glass slab (m = 1.5) is 5 cm
12. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker deep when viewed from one face and 2 cm deep
filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin when viewed from the opposite face. The
travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves thickness of the slab is [2000]
along its surface. How fast is the light travelling (a) 7.5 cm (b) 10.5 cm
in the liquid? [2007] (c) 7 cm (d) 10 cm
17. Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz [1999] 24. A beam of monochromatic light is refracted from
(a) 2 × 166 m (b) 3 × 106 m vacuum into a medium of refractive index 1.5,
(c) 4 × 10 m 6 (d) 5 × 106 m the wavelength of refracted light will be [1991]
18. Light enters at an angle of incidence in a (a) dependent on intensity of refracted light
transparent rod of refractive index n. For what (b) same
value of the refractive index of the material of (c) smaller
the rod the light once entered into it will not (d) larger
leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be 25. Green light of wavelength 5460 Å is incident on
the value of angle of incidence? [1998] an air-glass interface. If the refractive index of
(a) n > 2 (b) n = 1 glass is 1.5, the wavelength of light in glass would
(c) n = 1.1 (d) n = 1.3 be (c = 3 × 108 ms–1) [1991]
19. An electromagnetic radiation of frequency n, (a) 3640 Å (b) 5460 Å
wavelength l, travelling with velocity v in air (c) 4861 Å (d) none of the above
enters in a glass slab of refractive index (m). The Topic 3: Refraction at Curved Surface,
frequency, wavelength and velocity of light in Lenses & Power of Lens
the glass slab will be respectively [1997]
26. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal
l v v
(a) n, and (b) n, 2l and length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with
m m m each other such that the focal length of the
n l v 2p l combination is F1. When the space between the
(c) , and (d) , and v
m m m m m two lenses is filled with glycerin (which has the
20. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness same refractive index ( = 1.5) as that of glass)
t and refractive index m. If c is the speed of light then the equivalent focal length is F2. The ratio
in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this F1 : F2 will be : [2019]
thickness of glass is [1996] (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
tc (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
(a) mtc (b) 27. An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut into
m
two symmetrical halves by a plane containing
t mt
(c) (d) the principal axis. The power of one part will be,
mc c [NEET Odisha 2019]
21. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm thick is (a) P (b) 0
silvered. An object held 8 cm in front of the first
face forms an image 12 cm behind the silvered P P
(c) (d)
face. The refractive index of the glass is [1996] 2 4
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 28. A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm.
(c) 1.2 (d) 1.6 The radius of curvature of one of the surfaces is
22. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the double of the other. Find the radii if the refractive
5 index of the material of the lens is 1.5.
surface of water of refractive index . The [NEET Odisha 2019]
3
minimum diameter of a disc, which should be (a) 50 cm, 100 cm (b) 100 cm, 50 cm
placed over the source, on the surface of water (c) 25 cm, 50 cm (d) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm
to cut off all light coming out of water is [1994] 29. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses
(a) ¥ (b) 6 m (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of
(c) 4 m (d) 3 m curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex
23. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening
3 space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The
of thickness 4 mm whose refractive index is focal length of the combination is [2015]
2
is [1993] (a) –25 cm (b) –50 cm
(a) 2 × 10–4 sec (b) 2 × 108 sec (c) 50 cm (d) –20 cm
(c) 2 × 10–11 sec (d) 2 × 1011 sec
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276 PHYSICS
30. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of
concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel lens and intensity of image now will be
to each other. If lenses are made of different respectively: [2010]
materials of refractive indices m1 and m2 and R is
I 3f I
the radius of curvature of the curved surface of (a) f and (b) and
the lenses, then the focal length of the 4 4 2
combination is [2013] 3I f I
(c) f and (d) and
R R 4 2 2
(a) (b)
2 ( m1 - m 2 ) (m1 - m 2 ) 36. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in
contact and coaxial. The power of the
2R R combination is: [2008]
(c) (d)
(m 2 - m1 ) 2 ( m1 + m 2 )
f1 f2
31. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive (a) (b)
f2 f1
index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane
sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must f1 + f2 f +f
have refractive index. [2012] (c) (d) 1 2
2 f1f 2
(a) equal to that of glass
37. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight
(b) less then one
on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of
(c) greater than that of glass
focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the Sun is
(d) less then that of glass
1.39 ×109 m and its mean distance from the earth
32. A concave mirror of focal length ‘f1’ is placed at
is 1.5 × 1011 m. What is the diameter of the Sun’s
a distance of 'd’ from a convex lens of focal
image on the paper? [2008]
length ‘f2’. A beam of light coming from infinity
(a) 9.2 × 10–4 m (b) 6.5 × 10–4 m
and falling on this convex lens-concave mirror
(c) 6.5 × 10–5 m (d) 12.4 × 10–4 m
combination returns to infinity. [2012]
38. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having
The distance ‘d’ must equal :
(a) f1 + f2 (b) –f1 + f2 same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to
(c) 2f1 + f2 (d) –2f1 + f2 form a combination of lenses. The power in
33. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of diopters of the combination is [2006]
magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following (a) 50 (b) infinite
(c) zero (d) 25
options best describe the image formed of an
39. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along
object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens?
(i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let
(a) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm [2011]
f, f ', f '' be the focal lengths of the complete lens,
(b) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
of each half in case (i), and of each half in case
(c) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
(ii), respectively. [2003]
(d) Real, inverted, height = 1cm
34. A converging beam of rays is incident on a Y
diverging lens. Having passed through the lens
the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens
on the opposite side. If the lens is removed
the point where the rays meet will move 5 cm
closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens X' X
O
is [2011M]
(a) – 10 cm (b) 20 cm
(c) –30 cm (d) 5 cm
35. A lens having focal length f and aperture of Y'
diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Choose the correct statement from the following
d (a) f ' = 2f, f '' = 2f (b) f ' = f, f '' = 2f
Aperture of diameter in central region of (c) f ' = 2f, f '' = f (d) f ' = f, f '' = f
2
40. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose 47. If fV and fR are the focal lengths of a convex lens
refractive index is equal to the refractive index for violet and red light respectively and FV and
of the lens. Then its focal length will [2003] FR are the focal lengths of concave lens for violet
(a) remain unchanged and red light respectively, then we have [1996]
(b) become zero (a) fV < fR and FV > FR
(c) become infinite (b) fV < fR and FV < FR
(d) become small, but non-zero (c) fV > fR and FV > FR
41. A body is located on a wall. Its image of equal (d) fV > fR and FV < FR
size is to be obtained on a parallel wall with the 48. An achromatic combination of lenses is formed
help of a convex lens. The lens is placed at a by joining [1995]
distance 'd' ahead of second wall, then the (a) 2 convex lenses
required focal length will be [2002] (b) 2 concave lenses
d (c) 1 convex and 1 concave lens
(a) only (d) 1 convex and 1 plane mirror
4
49. A lens is placed between a source of light and a
d wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the
(b) only
2 wall for its two different positions. The area of
d d the source of light is [1995]
(c) more than but less than A1 + A2
4 2
(a) A1 A2 (b)
d 2
(d) less than 1 1
4 A1 - A2 +
42. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex (c) (d)
2 A 1 A 2
lens is 10 cm (of curved surface) and the refractive 50. Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum
index is 1.5. If the plane surface is silvered, then for [1994]
it behaves like a concave mirror of focal length (a) blue light (b) yellow light
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm [2000] (c) green light (d) red light
(c) 20 cm (d) 5 cm 51. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index
43. A plano-convex lens is made of material of
1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of the lens when
refractive index 1.6. The radius of curvature of
immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25
the curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of
the lens is [1999] will be [1988]
(a) 50 cm (b) 100 cm (a) 10 cm (b) 2.5 cm
(c) 200 cm (d) 400 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
44. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm Topic 4: Prism & Dispersion of Light
from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On
the other side of the lens, at what distance from 52. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 one surface of a small angle prism (with angle
cm be placed in order to have an upright image of of prism A) and emerges normally from the
the object coincident with it? [1998] opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
(a) 12 cm (b) 30 cm material of the prism is m, then the angle of
(c) 50 cm (d) 60 cm incidence is nearly equal to : [2020]
45. The focal length of converging lens is measured 2A
for violet, green and red colours. It is respectively (a) (b) mA
m
fv, fg, fr. We will get [1997]
(a) fv = fg (b) fg > fr μA A
(c) fv < fr (d) fv > fr (c) (d)
2 2m
46. A convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a 53. Pick the wrong answer in the context with
concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined rainbow. [2019]
together. What will be their resulting power? (a) When the light rays undergo two internal
(a) + 6.5 D (b) – 6.5 D [1996] reflections in a water drop, a secondary
(c) + 7.5 D (d) – 0.75 D rainbow is formed.
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278 PHYSICS
(b) The order of colours is reversed in the

secondary rainbow.
(c) An observer can see a rainbow when his
front is towards the sun. Blue
(d) Rainbow is a combined effect of Green
Red
dispersion, refraction and reflection of
sunlight. 45°
54. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
The prism will:
2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.One of the (a) separate all the three colours from one
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a another
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of (b) not separate the three colours at all
monochromatic light entering the prism from the (c) separate the red colour part from the green
other face will retrace its path (after reflection and blue colours
from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence (d) separate the blue colour part from the red
on the prism is [2018] and green colours
(a) 60° (b) 45° 59. The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its refracting
(c) Zero (d) 30° surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle
55. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back
of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is through the same path after suffering reflection
combined with another thin prism of glass of at the silvered surface. The refractive index m, of
refractive index 1.7. This combination produces the prism is : [2014]
dispersion without deviation. The refracting (a) 2 sin A (b) 2 cos A
angle of second prism should be [2017] 1
(a) 6° (b) 8° (c) cos A (d) tan A
2
(c) 10° (d) 4° 60. Rainbow is formed due to a combination of
56. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a [2000]
refracting surface of a prism is 45° . The angle of (a) dispersion and total internal reflection
prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation (b) refraction and absorption
through the prism, the angle of minimum (c) dispersion and focussing
deviation and refractive index of the material of (d) refraction and scattering
the prism respectively, are : [2016] 61. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence,
i, on one face of prism of angle A (assumed to be
1
(a) 45°, (b) 30°, 2 small) and emerges normally from the opposite
2 face. If the refractive index of the prism is m, the
angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to: [2012]
1
(c) 45°, 2 (d) 30°, mA
2 (a) mA (b)
2
57. The refracting angle of a prism is ‘A’, and
refractive index of the material of the prism is A A
cot(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is : (c) (d)
m 2m
[2015] 62. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to
(a) 180° – 2A (b) 90° – A be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must
(c) 180° + 2A (d) 180° – 3A be made of a material whose refractive index :
58. A beam of light consisting of red, green and
blue colours is incident on a right angled prism. (a) lies between 2 and 1 [2012M]
The refractive index of the material of the prism (b) lies between 2 and 2
for the above red, green and blue wavelengths (c) is less than 1
are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively. [2015 RS] (d) is greater than 2
63. A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of L L+I

refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another (a) -1 (b)
prism of glass of refractive index µ2 = 1.75. The I L-I
combination of the prism produces dispersion L L
without deviation. The angle of the second prism (c) (d) +1
I I
should be [2011M] 70. If the focal length of objective lens is increased
(a) 7° (b) 10° then magnefying power of : [2014]
(c) 12° (d) 5° (a) microscope will increase but that of
64. The refractive index of the material of a prism is telescope decrease.
Ö2 and its refracting angle is 30º. One of the (b) microscope and telescope both will increase.
refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror (c) microscope and telescope both will
inwards. A beam of monochromatic light enters decrease
the prism from the mirror surface if its angle of (d) microscope will decrease but that of
incidence of the prism is [2004, 1992] telescope increase.
(a) 30° (b) 45° 71. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a
(c) 60° (d) 0° converging power of 40D and the least
65. The refractive index of the material of the prism converging power of the eye lens behind the
is 3 ; then the angle of minimum deviation of cornea is 20D. Using this information, the
the prism is [1999] distance between the retina and the eye lens of
(a) 30º (b) 45º the eye can be estimated to be [2013]
(c) 60º (d) 75º (a) 2.5 cm (b) 1.67 cm
66. Angle of deviation (d) by a prism (refractive index (c) 1.5 cm (d) 5 cm
= m and supposing the angle of prism A to be 72. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When
small) can be given by [1994] it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance
between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm.
(a) d = (m - 1)A (b) d = (m + 1)A The focal length of lenses are : [2012]
A+ d (a) 10 cm, 10 cm (b) 15 cm, 5 cm
sin (c) 18 cm, 2 cm (d) 11 cm, 9 cm
d= 2 m -1 73. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece
(c) A (d) d= A
sin m +1 of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3
2 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the
Topic 5: Optical Instruments mark. How should the microscope be moved to
get the mark in focus again ? [2006]
67. An astronomical refracting telescope will have (a) 4.5 cm downward (b) 1 cm downward
large angular magnification and high angular (c) 2 cm upward (d) 1 cm upward
resolution, when it has an objective lens of [2018] 74. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm
(a) small focal length and large diameter diameter and is situated at a distance of one
(b) large focal length and small diameter kilometer from two objects. The minimum
(c) small focal length and small diameter distance between these two objects, which can
(d) large focal length and large diameter be resolved by the telescope, when the mean
68. A astronomical telescope has objective and wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order of
eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm (a) 5 cm (b) 0.5 m [2004]
respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from (c) 5 m (d) 5mm
the objective, the lenses must be separated by a 75. An astronomical telescope has a length of 44
distance : [2016] cm and tenfold magnification. The focal length
(a) 37.3 cm (b) 46.0 cm of the objective lens is [1997]
(c) 50.0 cm (d) 54.0 cm (a) 4 cm (b) 40 cm
69. In an astronomical telescope in normal (c) 44 cm (d) 440 cm
adjustment a straight black line of lenght L is 76. The hypermetropia is a [1995]
drawn on inside part of objective lens. The eye- (a) short-sight defect
piece forms a real image of this line. The length (b) long-sight defect
of this image is l. The magnification of the (c) bad vision due to old age
telescope is : [2015 RS] (d) none of these
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280 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1 (d) 10 (c) 19 (a) 28 (d) 37 (a) 46 (d) 55 (a) 64 (b) 73 (d)
2 (a) 11 (b) 20 (d) 29 (b) 38 (c) 47 (a) 56 (b) 65 (c) 74 (d)
3 (a) 12 (d) 21 (c) 30 (b) 39 (b) 48 (c) 57 (a) 66 (a) 75 (b)
4 (d) 13 (c) 22 (b) 31 (a) 40 (c) 49 (a) 58 (c) 67 (d) 76 (b)
5 (a) 14 (a) 23 (c) 32 (c) 41 (b) 50 (d) 59 (b) 68 (d)
6 (b) 15 (b) 24 (c) 33 (c) 42 (a) 51 (c) 60 (a) 69 (c)
7 (d) 16 (b) 25 (a) 34 (c) 43 (b) 52 (b) 61 (a) 70 (d)
8 (d) 17 (b) 26 (b) 35 (c) 44 (c) 53 (c) 62 (b) 71 (b)
9 (b) 18 (a) 27 (a) 36 (d) 45 (c) 54 (b) 63 (b) 72 (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) When mirror is rotated by angle q reflected 4. (d) According to the condition,
ray will be rotated by 2q. f = 10 cm
light B A
spot q
y –10 cm –20 cm
source 2q
Mirror
(L) x
The focal length of the mirror
1 1 1
y y – = +
= 2q Þq= f v u
x 2x For A end of the rod the image distance
2. (a) Magnitude m = +ve Þ virtual image When u1 = – 20 cm
m = –ve Þ real image
magnitude of magnification, -1 1 1
Þ = -
| m | > 1 Þ magnified image 10 v1 20
| m | < 1 Þ diminished image
1 -1 1 -2 + 1
= +
3. (a) v1 10 20 = 20
v1 = – 20 cm
For when u2 = – 30 cm
Incident ray
20° 1 1 1
20° = -
f v2 30
q q 1 -1 1 - 30 + 10 -20
70° = + =
40° v2 10 30 = 300 300
v2 = – 15 cm
From fig. 40° + q = 90° \ q = 90° – 40° = 50° L = v2 – v1 = – 15 – (– 20)
L = 5 cm
5. (a) To see his full image in a plane mirror a person 12. (d) 3 cm r = 90°
requires a mirror of at least half of his height.
6. (b) Angle between two mirrors (q) = 60º.
Number of images formed by the inclined mirror i
360º 360º 4 cm i
(n) = -1 = -1 = 6 -1 = 5
q 60º
When two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at coin
360 From pythagorus theorem,
an angle q then number of images (n) formed n =
q Hypotenuse comes out to be 5 cm.
when object is placed asymmetrically, and 1 sin i
360 Since, =
n= - 1 when object is placed symmetrically.. m sin 90°
q
1 5
m= =
7. (d) Characteristic dimensions must be much sin i 3
larger than the wavelength of light.
c 3 ´ 108
8. (d) For total internal reflection when i = ic, then Speed, v = = = 1.8 ´ 108 m/s
m 5/3
13. (c) Since refractive index for both the light
are different, so they emerge out moving in two
different parallel directions.
refracted ray grazes with the surface. That

means the angle of refraction r = 90°.
9. (b) Difference between apparent and real sin 45°
depth of a pond is due to the refraction of light, 14. (a) For point A, a m g =
sin r
not due to the total internal reflection. Other
three phenomena are due to the total internal 1
reflection. Þ sin r = 2 m
a g
10. (c) For total internal reflection,
For point B, sin (90° – r) = gma where,
1 (90° – r) is critical angle.
m³ >1.414
sin C ³ 2
45º Air
Þ µ = 1.50
11. (b) By using v = nl 90° –r r A
Here, n = 2 ´ 1014 Hz 90° – r

B
l = 5000Å = 5000 ´ 10 -10 m
Glass
v = 2 ´ 1014 ´ 5000 ´ 10 -10 = 108 m s
Refractive index of the material,
3 ´ 108 1 1
m = c/v = 8
=3 \ cos r = g m a = m Þ a m g = cos r
10 a g
In case of refraction of light frequency (and hence 1 1
= =
colour) and phase do not change while wavelength 2
1 - sin r 1
and velocity will change. 1-
2 amg 2
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282 PHYSICS
1 2 a m 2g B
Þ a mg
2
= =
1 2 a m 2g - 1 q
1-
2 a m 2g A r
i
3
Þ 2 a m 2g -1 = 2 Þ a mg =
2
15. (b) It is due to scattering of light. \ sin (90° – r) > sin C
1 or cos r > sin C ..(1)
Scattering µ 4 . Hence the light reaches us is sin i sin i
l From Snell’s law, n = Þ sin r =
sin r n
rich in red.
æ sin i ö
2
Re al depth ( R 1 ) \ cos r = 1 - sin 2 r = ç1 - 2 ÷
16. (b) 1.5 = è n ø
Apparent depth (5 cm)
\ R1 = 1.5 × 5 = 7.5 cm \ equation (1) gives
R1 5 cm sin 2 i sin 2 i
1– 2
> sin C Þ 1 – 2
> sin 2 C
n n
air bubble 1
Also, sin C =
R2 n
2 cm
For opposite face, sin 2 i 1 sin 2 i 1
\1 – 2
> 2
or 1 > 2
+
n n n n2
R
1.5 = 2 Þ R2 = 3.0 cm
2 1 2
\ Thickness of the slab = R1 + R2 or (sin i + 1) < 1 or n2 > (sin 2 i + 1)
= 7.5 + 3 = 10.5 cm n2
Maximum value of sin i = 1
If object and observer are situated in different medium
then due to refraction, object appears to be displaced \ n2 > 2 Þ n > 2
Real depth ( h ) 19. (a) For e.m. wave entering from air to glass
Refractive index, µ = Apparent depth h '
( ) slab (m), frequency remains n,
Real depth > Apparent depth l v
wavelength, l' = and velocity, v ' =
In case object is in rarer medium and object is in m m
h'
denser medium then, µ = When electromagnetic wave enters in other
h medium, frequency remains unchanged while
Real depth < apparent depth 1
wavelength and velocity become times.
17. (b) Frequency (n) = 100 Hz m
v=nl 20. (d) Total thickness = t; Refrative index = m
8 c
3 ´10
l= Speed of light in Glass plate =
100 m
[where, velocity of light (v) = 3 × 108 m/s] t mt
Time taken = = c .
l = 3 ´ 10 6 m . æ cö
18. (a) Let a ray of light enter at A and the refracted çè m ÷ø
beam is AB. This is incident at an angle q. For no
refraction at the lateral face, q > C where, t = thickness of glass plate
or, sin q > sin C But q + r = 90° Þ q = (90° – r)
Speed of light in medium 26. (b)

Speed of light in vaccum
v=
m of medium
21. (c) Thickness of glass plate (t) = 6 cm;
Distance of the object (u) = 8 cm.
And distance of the image (v) = 12 cm.
Let x = Apparent position of the silvered surface
Equivalent focal length in air
in cm.
Since the image is formed due to reflection at the 1 1 1 2
= + =
silvered face and by the property of mirror image F1 f f f
Distance of object from the mirror = Distance of f
image from the mirror Þ F1 = ...(i)
or, x + 8 = 12 + 6 – x Þ x = 5 cm. 2
When glycerin is filled inside, it behaves like a
Therefore, refractive index of glass
concave lens of focal length (–f )
Re al depth 6
= = = 1.2 .
Apparent depth 5
1 1 3 3
22. (b) sin C = = = Þ So, tan C =
m 5 5 4
3
r 3
Now, tan C = ; r = h tan C = 4 ´ = 3m
h 4
1 1 1 1
Diameter of disc = 2r = 6 m \ = + – Þ F2 = f ...(ii)
F2 f f f
Field of vision of a swimmer or fish,
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
h
Radius, r = h tan c = F1 1
m2 - 1 =
F2 2
ph2 27. (a) When lens is cut in two half then power of
Area, A = pr2 =
(m - 1)
2 one part will be same. i.e., P, as focal length
remains same.
c 3 ´ 108 1 æ 1 1ö
23. (c) vg = = = 2 ´ 108 m/s 28. (d) = ( m – 1) ç – ÷
m 3 f è R1 R2 ø
2
1 æ1 1 ö 1 æ 3 ö
= (1.5 –1) ç + = 0.5 ç ÷
t=
x
=
4 ´ 10 -3
= 2 ´ 10 -11 s 25 è R 2 R ÷ø 25 è 2R ø
vg 2 ´ 108
2R = 37.5 cm R = 18.75 cm
c nl v l 29. (b) Using lens maker’s formula,
24. (c) From m = = , lm = v
v nl m m æ 1
1 1 ö
Here, c = velocity of light in medium and = (m – 1) ç – ÷
f è R1 R 2 ø
v = velocity of light in vacuum;
µ = refractive index of the medium.
Hence, wavelength in medium (lm) < la
(Q m > 1, given)
So, the required wavelength decreases.
l a 5460
25. (a) lg = = = 3640Å
m 1.5 n = 1.5 n = 1.5
n = 1.7
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284 PHYSICS
Hence, focal length of the combination is

1 æ 1.5 öæ 1 1 ö
Þ f = ç 1 – 1÷ç ¥ – –20 ÷ R
1 è øè ø .
m1 - m 2
Þ f1 = 40cm
1 æ 1.7 1 æ mg öæ 1 1 ö
öæ 1 1 ö 31. (a) =ç - 1÷ç - ÷
Þ f = ç 1 – 1÷ç –20 – +20 ÷ f è m m ø è R1 R2 ø
2 è øè ø
1 æ 1 1 ö
100 If mg = mm, then = (1 - 1) ç - ÷
Þ f2= – cm f
7 è R1 R2 ø
Similarly, 1 1
Þ =0 f = =¥
1 æ 1.5 öæ 1 1 ö f 0
Þ f = ç 1 – 1÷ç ¥ – –20 ÷
3 è øè ø This implies that the liquid must have refractive
Þ f3 = 40 cm index equal to glass.
Now according to the condition A transparent solid is invisible in a liquid of same
1 1 1 1 refractive index because of no refraction.
= + +
f eq f1 f 2 f3
1 1 1 1 32. (c)
Þ = + + C
f eq 40 –100 / 7 40
\ feq = –50 cm
Therefore, the focal length of the combination
is – 50 cm. f2 2f1
d
For a system of lenses net focal length F net
d = f2 + 2f1
1 1 1 33. (c) R = 20 cm
= + + ... +
f1 f 2 fn h0 = 2
Net power Pnet = P1 + P2 + ... + Pn u = –30 cm
30. (b) From the question, 1 æ 1 1 ö
We have, = (m - 1) ç - ÷
f è R1 R2 ø
æ 3 ö é 1 æ 1 öù
= çè - 1÷ø ê - çè - ÷ø ú
Combination 2 ë 20 20 û
1 æ3 ö 2
Þ = ç - 1÷ ´
f è 2 ø 20
Plano-convex Plano-concave \ f = 20 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + = - Þ = +
f f1 f2 f v u 20 v 30
æ1 1 ö æ 1 1 ö 1 1 1 10
= (m1 – 1) ç - + (m2 – 1) ç - ÷ = - =
÷ v 20 30 600
è ¥ -R ø è¥ R ø
v = 60 cm
( m1 - 1) ( m 2 - 1) 1 m1 - m 2 hi v
=
= – Þ = m=
R R f R h0 u
R v 60
Þf= Þ hi = ´ h 0 = ´ 2 = – 4 cm
m1 - m 2 u 30
So, image is inverted.
34. (c) 38. (c) From the formula,

1 1 1 1 1
= + = - =0
f f1 f 2 25 25
S¢ S 1
Power of combination = =0
5 cm f
15 cm
10 cm 39. (b)
By lens formula,
1 1 1
- =
v u f
u = 10 cm 1 æ 1 1 ö
= (m - 1) ç - ÷
v = 15 cm f è R1 R2 ø
f= ? In this case, R1 and R2 are unchanged
Putting the values, we get So, f will remain unchanged for both pieces of
1 1 1 the lens
- =
15 10 f \f=f'
10 - 15 1 150 1 1 1
= \f = - = – 30 cm = +
150 f 3 f f1 f 2
35. (c) By covering aperture, focal length does not
1 This is combination of two lenses of equal focal
change. But intensity is reduced by times, as
4 lengths
d 1 1 1 2
aperture diameter is covered. \ = + =
f '' f '' f '' Þ
2 f '' = 2f.
f
I 3I
\ I' = I - = A symmetric lens is cut along optical axis in two
4 4
equal parts. Intensity of image formed by each
3I part will be same as that of complete lens. Focal
\ New focal length = f and intensity = . length is double the original for each part.
4
36. (d) The focal length of the combination
æ ö
1 1 1
= + 40. (c)
1
f
= ( l m g - 1) ç R1 - R1 ÷
f f1 f 2 è 1 2 ø
\ Power of the combinations, where, l m g = 1 is given.
f +f æ 1ö æ 1
P = 1 2 çQ P = ÷ 1 1 ö
f1f 2 è fø Þ f = (1 - 1) ç R - R ÷ = 0 Þ f = ¥
è 1 2 ø
v Size of image
37. (a) We have, = 1 1 1
u Size of object 41. (b) Using the lens formula = -
f v u
v
or, Size of image = ´ Size of object Given v = d, for equal size image v = u = d
u
By sign convention u = –d
æ 10 -1 ö 1 1 1
9 d
= çç
1.5 ´ 10 ÷ ´ (1.39 ´ 10 )
11 ÷ \ = + or f =
è ø f d d 2
= 0.92 ×10–3 m = 9.2 ×10–4 m 42. (a) The silvered plano convex lens behaves
\ Diameter of the sun’s image = 9.2 × 10–4 m. as a concave mirro; whose focal length is given
by
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286 PHYSICS
n
1 1
1
=
2
+
1 46. (d) We know that =å
F f1 f m f i = 1 fi
If plane surface is silvered 1 1 1
= +
R ¥ f f1 f 2 ; f1 = 80 cm, f2 = –50 cm
fm = 2 = = ¥ 1 1 1
2 2 = -
f 80 50
1 æ 1 1 ö
\ = (m –1) ç – ÷ 100 100
f1 R
è 1 R 2 ø 1
Þ P= = 1.25 – 2 = – 0.75D
æ 1 1 ö m –1 f
= (m – 1) ç – ÷ = 1 æ 1 1 ö
èR ¥ø R
47. (a) = (m - 1) ç - ÷
1 2(m – 1) 1 2(m – 1) f è R1 R2 ø
\ = + = According to Cauchy relation
F R ¥ R
B C
R m = A + 2 + 4 ... Hence f µ l .
F= l l
2(m –1)
Hence, red light having maximum wavelength
Here, R = 10 cm, m = 1.5 has maximum focal length.
10 \ f v < f r and also Fv > Fr as focal length is
\ F= = 10cm
2(1.5 –1) negative for a concave lens.
48. (c) If two or more lenses are combined together
43. (b) R1 = 60 cm, R2 = ¥ , m = 1.6
in such a way that this combination produces
1 æ 1 1 ö images of different colours at the same point and
= (m - 1) ç - ÷
f R
è 1 R 2 ø of the same size, then this property is called
‘achromatism’. Concave and convex type of
1 æ 1 ö
= (1.6 - 1) ç ÷ Þ f = 100 cm. lenses are used for this combination.
f è 60 ø 49. (a) Size of images = A1 and A2. From the
44. (c) f = 20 cm displacement method, the area of the source of
light = A1 A2 .
l
O 50. (d) For red light, focal length of lens is maximum
because f µ l and l is maximum for red light.
30 cm 10 cm æ mg ö
60 cm ç - 1 ÷ çæ 1.5 - 1 ÷ö 1
f a è ml ø = è 1.25 ø = 5 = 2
For the lens, 51. (c) =
fl (m g - 1) 1.5 - 1 1 5
1 1 1 1 1 1 2
- = ; - = Þ v = 60 cm
v u f v -30 20 5 5
Coincidence is possible when the image is fl = f a = ´ 2 = 5 cm
2 2
formed at the centre of curvature of the mirror. 52. (b) Light ray emerges normally from another
Only then the rays refracting through the lens surface, hence, e (angle of emergence) = 0
will fall normally on the convex mirror and retrace \ r2 = 0 r1 + r2 = A Þ r1 = A
their path to form the image at O. So, the distance
m1 × sin i = m 2 × sin r
between lens and mirror = 60 – 10 = 50 cm.
45. (c) Red light has wavelength greater than P
violet light. Therefore focal length of lens for
red is greater than for violet. (fr > fv) A
Cauchy relation r1
B C
m = A+ 2
+ ... Hence f µ l . Q R
l l4
Applying Snell's law on first surface PQ æ A + dm ö

sin ç
Þ m1 × sin i = m2 × sin r1 Þ sin i = m sin A è 2 ÷ø cos (A/ 2)
cot A/2 = =
For small angles (sin q » q) sin A / 2 sin (A / 2)
\ i = mA [Q µ = cot (A/2)]
53. (c) Rainbow will be observed only when the æ dm + A ö
Þ sin ç
è 2 ÷ø
sun is at the back side of observer. = sin(90° + A/2)
54. (b) For retracing the path, light ray should be Þ dmin = 180° – 2A
normally incident on silvered face.
A = r + O Þ r = 30° 58. (c) For total internal reflection,
incident angle (i) > critical angle (ic)
Applying Snell’s law at point M, So, sin i > sin ic
30°
sin i 2
= 60° 1
sin 30° 1 M
i 30° sin 45° > i=45°
1 m
Þ sin i = 2 ´
2 Þ m > 2 Þ 1.414 45°
m= 2
1 Since refractive index m of green and voilet are
or, sin i = i.e., i = 45°
2 greater than 1.414 so they will total internal
55. (a) For dispersion without deviation reflected. But red colour will be refracted.
(m - 1)A1 + (m '- 1)A 2 = 0 59. (b)
(m - 1)A1 = (m '- 1)A 2

(1.42–1) × 10° = (1.7–1)A2
4.2 = 0.7A2
A2 = 6°
In case of deviation without dispersion sin i
According to Snell’s law m =
A ' ( µV - µR ) sin r
= Þ (1) sin 2A = (m) sin A Þ m = 2 cos A
A' (µV' - µR') 60. (a) Rainbow is formed due to combination of
56. (b) Given: Angle of incidence i = 45° total internal reflection and dispersion.
angle of prism, A = 60° Rainbow is formed due to the dispersion of light
Angle of minimum deviation, suffering refraction and TIR in the droplets present
dm = 2i – A = 30° in the atmosphere. To observe rainbow observer
should stand its back towards sun.
Refractive index of material of prism.
61. (a) For normally emerge e = 0
æ A + dm ö Therefore r2 = 0 and r1 = A
sin ç ÷
è 2 ø Snell’s Law for incident ray’s
m = sin A / 2
( ) 1sin i = m sin r1 = msin A
For small angle
sin 45° 1 æ2ö i = mA
= = ·ç ÷ = 2
sin 30° 2 è1ø A
A Prism angle
57. (a) As we know, the refractive index of the 62. (b) angle of
dmin
material of the prism minimum
deviation
æ d + Aö Incident C e angle of
sin ç m r1 r2
è 2 ÷ø angle emergence
m=
sin (A/ 2)
B C
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288 PHYSICS
The angle of minimum deviation is given as 66. (a) When the angle of prism is small, d = (m – 1) A
d min = i + e–A 67. (d) For telescope, angular magnification
for minimum deviation f0
=
d min = A then fE
2A = i + e So, focal length of objective lens should be large.
in case of d min , i = e D
Angular resolution = So, D should be
A 1.22l
2A = 2i r1 = r2 = large.
2
i = A = 90° So, objective lens of refracting telescope should
from Snell’s law have large focal length (f0) and large diameter D
1 sin i = n sin r1 for larger angular magnification.
68. (d) Given: Focal length of objective, f0 = 40cm
A
sin A = n sin Focal length of eye – piece fe = 4 cm
2 image distance, v0 = 200 cm
A A A Using lens formula for objective lens
2 sin cos = n sin
2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1
A - = Þ = +
2 cos = n v0 u 0 f 0 v0 f 0 u 0
2
when A = 90° = imin 1 1 1 +5 - 1
Þ = + =
v0 40 -200 200
then nmin = 2
Þ v0 = 50 cm
i = A = 0 nmax = 2 Tube length l = |v0| + fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm.
63. (b) Deviation = zero
In a telescope, if field and eye lenses are
So, d = d1 + d2 = 0
æ fo ö
Þ (m1 – 1)A1 + (m2 – 1) A2 = 0 interchanged magnification will change from ç f ÷
Þ A2 (1.75 – 1) = – (1.5 – 1) 15° è eø
0.5 æ f ö 1
Þ A2 = - ´ 15° to ç e ÷ i.e., it will change from m to i.e., will
0.75 è fo ø m
or A2 = – 10°. æ 1 ö
Negative sign shows that the second prism is become çè 2 ÷ø times of its initial value.
m
inverted with respect to the first.
64. (b) Ðr = 30° (using law of triangle) 69. (c)
A
sin i 30°
Þm=
sin r
Þ 2 ´ sin 30° = sin i r
1
Þ sin i = Þ i = 45°.
2 B C
65. (c) Angle of minimum deviation
Magnification by eye piece
æ A + dm ö æ 60° + d m ö f
sin ç sin ç
è 2 ÷ø è 2 ÷ø m=
m= Þ 3= f +u
æ Aö æ 60° ö I fe f I fe
sin ç ÷ sin ç
è 2ø è 2 ÷ø - = = - e or, =
L fe + [ -(f0 + f e )] f0 L f0
æ d ö 3 d
Þ sin ç 30° + m ÷ = Þ 30° + m = 60° f0 L
è 2 ø 2 2 Magnification, M = f = I
Þ dm = 60°. e
70. (d) Magnifying power of microscope 73. (d) In the later case microscope will be focussed
for O'. So, it is required to be lifted by distance OO'.
LD 1
= µ OO' = real depth of O – apparent depth of O.
f 0f e f0
Hence with increase f0 magnifyig power of
O'
microscope decreases. Image
}
f0 O
Magnifying power of telescope = µ f0
fe
3 é real depth ù
Hence with increase f0 magnifying power of = 3- êµ = ú
telescope increases. 1.5 ë apparent depth û
71. (b) Pcornea = + 40 D
Pe = + 20 D é1 . 5 - 1 ù 3 ´ . 5
= 3ê ú= = 1 cm
Total power of combination = 40 + 20 = 60 D ë 1. 5 û 1. 5
1 x 1.22 l
Focal length of combination = ´ 100 cm 74. (d) Here, =
60 1000 D
5 1.22 ´ 5 ´ 103 ´ 10 -10 ´ 103
= cm
3 or, x =
10 ´ 10 -2
For minimum converging state of eye lens,
or, x = 1.22 × 5 × 10–3 m = 6.1 mm
5 \ x is of the order of 5 mm.
u = -¥ v =? f=
3 75. (b) Given : Length of astronomical telescope
From lens formula, æ f0 ö
1 1 1 5 (f0 + fe) = 44 cm and magnification ç f ÷ = 10.
= – Þ v = cm è eø
f v u 3
From the given magnification, we find that
Distance between retina and cornea-eye lens f0 = 10fe. Therefore, 10fe + fe = 44 or 11fe = 44 or fe
5 = 4. And focal len gth of the objective
= = 1.67 m (f0) = 44 – fe = 44 – 4 = 40 cm.
3
In case if objective and eye lens of a telescope are
f0 interchanged, it will not behave as a microscope
72. (c) M.P. = 9 =
fe but object appears very small.
Þ f0 = 9fe ...(1) 76. (b) A person suffering from hyper metropia
f0 + fe = 20 ...(2) can see objects beyond a particular point called
on solving the near point. If the object lies at a point nearer
f0 = 18 cm = focal length of the objective than this point, then image is not formed at the
fe = 2 cm = focal length of the eyepiece retina. This is also known as long-sight defect.
EBD_8335
290 PHYSICS
24 Wave Optics
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Wavefront, Interference of
Light, Coherent & Incoherent
Sources
1 A 1 A
1 A 1 A
Diffraction, Polarization of 1 E 1 A 2 A 1 A
Light & Resolving Power
1 E 1 E
Topic 1: Wavefront, Interference of Light, 4. Ratio of intensities of two waves are given by
Coherent & Incoherent Sources 4 : 1. Then the ratio of the amplitudes of the two
waves is [1991]
1. The periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
through a region at the same time in the same (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum 5. Interference is possible in [1989]
intensities is: [2008] (a) light waves only
(b) sound waves only
( )
2
(a) I1 + I2 (b) I1 + I2
(c) both light and sound waves
(d) neither light nor sound waves
( )
2
(c) I1 – I2 (d) 2(I1+ I2) 6. Which one of the following phenomena is not
2. Colours appear on a thin soap film and on soap explain ed by Huygens constr uction of
bubbles due to the phenomenon of [1999] wavefront? [1988]
(a) refraction (b) dispersion (a) Refraction (b) Reflection
(c) interference (d) diffraction (c) Diffraction (d) Origin of spectra
3. Interference was observed in interference Topic 2: Young's Double Slit Experiment
chamber where air was present, now the chamber
is evacuated, and if the same light is used, a 7. In Young's double slit experiment, if the
separation between coherent sources is halved
careful observer will see [1993]
and the distance of the screen from the coherent
(a) no interference sources is doubled, then the fringe width
(b) interference with brighter bands becomes : [2020]
(c) interference with dark bands (a) half (b) four times
(d) interference fringe with larger width (c) one-fourth (d) double
Wave Optics 291
8. In a double slit experiment, when light of What will be the width of each slit for obtaining
wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width ten maxima of double slit within the central
of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 maxima of single slit pattern ? [2015]
m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the (a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.5 mm
angular width of the first minima, if the entire (c) 0.02 mm (d) 0.2 mm
experimental apparatus is immersed in water? 14. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in
(mwater = 4/3) [2019] the ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima
(a) 0.266° (b) 0.15°
I
(c) 0.05° (d) 0.1° and minima in the interference pattern, max is:
9. In a Young’s double slit experiment, if there is Imin
no initial phase difference between the light 121 49
(a) (b) [2015 RS]
from the two slits, a point on the screen 49 121
corresponding to the fifth minimum has path 4 9
difference [NEET Odisha 2019] (c) (d)
9 4
l l 15. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the
(a) 11 (b) 5 intensity of light at a point on the screen where
2 2
the path difference is l is K, (l being the wave
l l
(c) 10 (d) 9 t length of light used). The intensity at a point
2 2 where the path difference is l/4, will be: [2014]
10. In Young's double slit experiment the separation
(a) K (b) K/4
d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength l of
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between (c) K/2 (d) Zero
the screen and slits is100 cm. It is found that the 16. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm
angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase apart and are illuminated by photons of two
the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same l wavelengths l1 = 12000Å and l2 = 10000Å. At
and D) the separation between the slits needs what minimum distance from the common cen-
to be changed to [2018] tral bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit
(a) 1.8 mm (b) 1.9 mm will a bright fringe from one interference pattern
(c) 1.7 mm (d) 2.1 mm coincide with a bright fringe from the other ?
11. Young's double slit experment is first performed [2013]
in air and then in a medium other than air. It is (a) 6 mm (b) 4mm
found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies (c) 3 mm (d) 8mm
where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive 17. In Young’s double slit experiment the distance
index of the medium is nearly [2017] between the slits and the screen is doubled. The
(a) 1.59 (b) 1.69 separation between the slits is reduced to half.
(c) 1.78 (d) 1.25 As a result the fringe width [NEET Kar. 2013]
12. The intensity at the maximum in a Young's (a) is doubled
double slit experiment is I0. Distance between (b) is halved
two slits is d = 5l, where l is the wavelength of (c) becomes four times
light used in the experiment. What will be the (d) remains unchanged
intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen 18. In Young’s double slit experiment carried out
placed at a distance D = 10 d ? [2016] with light of wavelength (l) = 5000Å, the distance
I0 between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is at
(a) I0 (b) 200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at
4
x = 0. The third maximum (taking the central
3 I0
(c) I0 (d) maximum as zeroth maximum) will be at x equal
4 2 to [1992]
13. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1
mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A (a) 1.67 cm (b) 1.5 cm
monochromatic light wavelength 500 nm is used. (c) 0.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm
EBD_8335
292 PHYSICS
19. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in the same slit is illuminated by another
Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by a monochromatic light, the angular width
monochromatic blue light of the same intensity decreases by 30%. The wavelength of this light
(a) fringe width will decrease [1992] is [NEET Odisha 2019]
(b) finge width will increase (a) 420 Å (b) 1800 Å
(c) fringe width will remain unchanged (c) 4200 Å (d) 6000 Å
(d) fringes will become less intense 26. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane
20. In Young’s experiment, two coherent sources surface of a material of refractive index 'm'. At a
are placed 0.90 mm apart and fringe are observed particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that
one metre away. If it produces second dark fringe the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular
at a distance of 1 mm from central fringe, the to each other. Which of the following options is
wavelength of monochromatic light used would correct for this situation? [2018]
be [1991, 1992] (a) Reflected light is polarised with its electric
(a) 60 × 10–4 cm (b) 10 × 10–4 cm vector parallel to the plane of incidence
(c) 10 × 10–5 cm (d) 6 × 10–5 cm (b) Reflected light is polarised with its electric
vector perpendicular to the plane of
21. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed
with blue and with green light of wavelengths incidence
4360Å and 5460Å respectively. If x is the distance æ1ö
of 4th maxima from the central one, then [1990] (c) i = tan –1 ç ÷
èmø
(a) x (blue) = x (green)
(b) x (blue) > x (green) æ1ö
(d) i = sin –1 ç ÷
(c) x (blue) < x (green) èmø
x (blue) 5460 27. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their
(d) =
x(green) 4360 axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised
22. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is
width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis
apparatus is immersed in water of refrative index makes an angle 45° with that of P1 . The intensity
of transmitted light through P2 is [2017]
4 I0 I
, without disturbing the geometrical 0
3 (a) (b)
4 8
arrangement, the new fringe width will be [1990] I0 I0
(a) 0.30 mm (b) 0.40 mm (c) (d)
(c) 0.53 mm (d) 450 microns 16 2
28. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical
Topic 3: Diffraction, Polarization of Light & microscope for two wavelengths l1 = 4000 Å
Resolving Power and l2 = 6000 Å is [2017]
23. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should (a) 9 : 4 (b) 3 : 2
be [2020] (c) 16 : 81 (d) 8 : 27
(a) 30° < ib < 45° (b) 45° < ib < 90° 29. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of
(c) ib = 90° (d) 0° < ib < 30° width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an
24. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is
coming from a star. The limit of resolution of incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum
telescope whose objective has a diameter of is observed at an angle of : [2016]
2 m is : [2020]
-1 æ 1 ö -1 æ 2 ö
(a) 1.83 × 10–7 rad (b) 7.32 × 10–7 rad (a) sin çè ÷ø (b) sin çè ÷ø
(c) 6.00 × 10–7 rad (d) 3.66 × 10–7 rad 4 3
24. Angular width of the central maxima in the æ 1ö æ 3ö
(c) sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
Fraunhofer diffraction for l = 6000Å is q0. When è 2ø è 4ø
Wave Optics 293
30. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of pattern is formed on a screen placed
wavelength 'l', diffraction is produced by a single perpendicular to the direction of the incident
slit whose width 'a' is of the wavelength of the beam. At the second minimum of the diffraction
light. If 'D' is the distance of the screen from the pattern, the phase difference between the rays
slit, the width of the central maxima will be :[2015] coming from the two edges of slit is
Dl [NEET Kar. 2013]
Da
(a) (b) (a) pl (b) 2p
a l
(c) 3p (d) 4p
2Da 2Dl 35. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter
(c) (d)
l a telescope at a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the
31. At the first minimum adjacent to the central order of [2005]
maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern, the (a) 106 rad (b) 10–2 rad
phase difference between the Huygen's wavelet (c) 10–4 rad (d) 10–6 rad
from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from
36. A paper, with two marks having separation d, is
the midpoint of the slit is : [2015 RS]
held normal to the line of sight of an observer at
p a distance of 50m. The diameter of the eye-lens
(a) radian (b) p radian
2 of the observer is 2 mm. Which of the following
p p is the least value of d, so that the marks can be
(c) radian (d) radian
8 4 seen as separate ? The mean wavelength of
32. A beam of light of l = 600 nm from a distant visible light may be taken as 5000 Å. [2002]
source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the (a) 1.25 m (b) 12.5 cm
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a
screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark (c) 1.25 cm (d) 2.5 mm
fringes on either side of the central bright fringe 37. In a Fresnel biprism experiment, the two positions
is: [2014] of lens give separation between the slits as 16
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm cm and 9 cm respectively. What is the actual
(c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm distance of separation? [1996]
33. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is inci- (a) 12.5 cm (b) 12 cm
dent normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent (c) 13 cm (d) 14 cm
screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. 38. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of
If the speed of the electrons is increased, which wavelength 5000Å is incident normally on a
of the following statements is correct ? [2013] single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is
(a) The angular width of the central maximum focussed by a convex lens on a screen placed in
of the diffraction pattern will increase. focal plane. The first minimum will be formed for
(b) The angular width of the central maximum the angle of diffraction equal to [1993]
will decrease. (a) 0° (b) 15°
(c) The angular width of the central maximum (c) 30° (d) 50°
will be unaffected.
39. Which of the following phenomenon is not
(d) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the
common to sound and light waves ? [1988]
screen in case of electrons.
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction
34. A parallel beam of light of wavelength l is
incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction (c) Coherence (d) Polarisation
ANS W ER KEY
1 (d ) 6 (d ) 11 (c) 16 (a) 21 (c) 26 (b ) 31 (b ) 36 (b )
2 (c) 7 (b ) 12 (d ) 17 (c) 22 (a) 27 (b ) 32 (d ) 37 (b )
3 (d ) 8 (b ) 13 (d ) 18 (b ) 23 (b ) 28 (b ) 33 (b ) 38 (c)
4 (a) 9 (d ) 14 (d ) 19 (a) 24 (d ) 29 (d ) 34 (d ) 39 (d )
5 (c) 10 (b ) 15 (c) 20 (d ) 25 (c) 30 (d ) 35 (d )
EBD_8335
294 PHYSICS
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) The resultant intensity of two periodic lD
waves at a point is given by 7. (b) Fringe width b =
d
I = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I 2 .cos f . Here, l = wavelength of light from coherent
Resultant intensity is maximum if sources,
cos f = –1 D = distance of screen from the coherent sources,
d = separation between coherent sources
i.e. Imax = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2
d
Resultant intensity is minimum if When, d ' = and D ' = 2 D
2
cosf = +1 l (2 D) 4lD
New Fringe width, b ' = =
d /2 d
i.e, Imin = I1 + I2 - 2 I1I 2
Þ b ' = 4b
Therefore, the sum of the maximum and minimum
Fringe width becomes 4 times.
intensities is Imax + Imin 8. (b) For double slit experiment angular fringe
= I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 + I1 + I2 - 2 I1I2 b
width q0 =
D
= 2 (I1 + I2) Angular fringe width (in water)
2. (c) We know that the colours for which the b q
condition of constructive interference is qw = = 0
mD m
satisfied are observed in a given region of the
film. The path difference between the light waves 0.2°
= = 0.15°
reaching the eye changes when the position of æ4ö
ç ÷
the eye is changed. Therefore, colours appear è3ø
on a thin soap film or soap bubbles due to the 9. (d) Path difference for destructive interference
phenomenon of interference. in YDSE
3. (d) In vaccum, l increases very slightly
( 2n – 1)
compared to that in air. As b µ l , therefore, Þ DXn = l n = 1, 2, 3…..
2
width of interference fringe increases slightly. 9l
D X 5th =
I1 a12 4 a1 2 2
4. (a) = = \ =
I 2 a22 1 a2 1 l
10. (b) Angular width =
d
If w1 and w2 are widths of two slits from which
l
intensities of light I 1 and I2 emanate, then So, 0.20° =
I1 a2 w1 2mm
= = ; a and b are amplitudes. Þ l = 0.20° × 2
I 2 b 2 w2
l
5. (c) Interference is a wave phenomenon shown Again, 0.21° =
d
by both the light waves and sound waves. Now putting the value of l
6. (d) Huygen's construction of wavefront does 0.20°´ 2mm
not apply to origin of spectra which is explained d=
0.21°
by quantum theory. \ d = 1.9 mm
Wave Optics 295
11. (c) According to question 13. (d) Here, distance between two slits,
8th bright fringe in medium = 5th dark fring in air d = 1mm = 10–3m
distance of screen from slits, D = 1 m
lD
Y8th bright = 8 wavelength of monochromatic light used,
md
l = 500nm = 500 × 10–9m
l D 9 lD width of each slit a = ?
Y5th dark = (2 × 5 – 1) =
2d 2 d Width of central maxima in single slit pattern
9 lD lD 2lD
Þ =8 =
2 d md a
16
= 1.78
lD
or, refractive index m = Fringe width in double slit experiment b =
9 d
In YDSE for constructive or bright fringes. 10 l D 2 l D
So, required condition =
nDl d a
Yn = for nth bright fringe and for destructive
d d 1
Dl Þ a= = ´ 10–3 m = 0.2 mm
or dark fringes. yn = (2n – 1) for nth dark 5D 5
2d
fringe. 1
14. (d) The ratio of slits width = (given)
25
12. (d) Let P is a point infront of one slit at which I1 25
intensity is to be calculated. From figure, \ I =
2 1
S1 P I1 A12 25 A 5
I µ A2 Þ = = or 1 =
I2 A 2 12 A2 1
d O B As we know that,
A max A1 + A 2 5 + 1 6 3
= = = =
S2 A min A1 - A 2 5 - 1 4 2
D
2 2
Imax A max æ3ö 9
Path difference = S2P – S1P \ = 2 =ç ÷ =
Imin A min è 2 ø 4
æ 1 d2 ö
= D2 + d 2 - D = D ç1 + ÷-D
In YDSE, the radio of
I max
is maximum when
è 2 D2 ø I min
both the sources have same intensity.
é d2 ù d2
= D ê1 + - 1ú = 15. (c) For path difference l, phase difference
ë 2D 2 û 2D
= 2p rad.
d2 d 5l l l
Dx = = = = For path difference , phase difference
2 ´10d 20 20 4 4
Phase difference, p
= rad.
2
2p l p As K = 4I0 so intensity at given point where
Df = ´ =
l 4 2 l
So, resultant intensity at the desired point 'p' is path difference is
4
f p I0 2 æ p ö æ p ö K
I = I0cos2 = I0cos2 4 = 2 K¢ = 4I0 cos ç ÷ ç cos = cos 45º÷ = 2I0 =
è 4ø è 4 ø 2
2
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296 PHYSICS
nlD l = 0.6 ´ 10 -6 m = 6 × 10–5 cm

16. (a) Q Y =
d
D
\ n1 l1 = n2l2 21. (c) Distance of nth maxima, x = nl µl
d
Þ n1 × 12000 × 10–10 = n2 × 10000 × 10–10 As l b < l g \ x blue < x green
or, n (12000 × 10–10) = (n + 1) (10000 × 10– Fringes with red light are thicker than those for
10) blue light.
Þn=5
\ lred > lblue
(Q l1 = 12000 ´10-10 m; l2 = 10000 ´10-10 m ) b' =

b 0. 4
= = 0.3 mm
22. (a)
m 4
3
If the whole YDSE set up is taken in another
medium then l changes. So B changes.
l
In water lw = a
mw
B 3
Þ bw = a = Ba
mw 4
nl1D
Hence, Ycommon = 23. (b) According to Brewster’s law, when a beam
d
of unpolarised light is reflected from a
=
( )
5 12000 ´ 10- 10 ´ 2 transparent medium of refractive index (m2), the
reflected light is completely polarised at certain
2 ´ 10- 3 angle of incidence called the angle of
(Q d = 2 mm and D = 2m ) polarisation (ib).
= 5 × 12 × 10–4 m m2
= 60 × 10–4 m tan ib =
m1
= 6 × 10–3m = 6 mm
lD For air, m1 = 1
17. (c) Fringe width b = ;
d \ tan ib = m 2 > 1
d
From question D¢ = 2D and d ¢ =
2 Þ tan ib >1 Þ 90° > ib > 45°
lD '
\b ' = = 4b 24. (d) Given :
d'
Wavelength, l = 600 nm = 600 × 10 –9 m
D 2
18. (b) x = (n)l = 3 ´ 5000 ´ 10–10 ´ and diameter of objective, d = 2 m
d 0.2 ´ 10–3 Limit of resolution of telescope,
–2
= 1.5 ´ 10 m = 1.5 cm
1.22l 1.22 ´ 600 ´ 10- 9
lD q= = = 3.66 × 10–7 rad
19. (a) As b = and l b < l y , d 2
d
Fringe width b will decrease 2l
25. (c) As q =
20. (d) For dark fringe a
2 ´ 6000
lD q0 = ...(i)
x = (2 n - 1) a
2d
q1 l
2 xd 2 ´ 10 –3 ´ 0.9 ´10 -3 = 1 ...(ii)
\l = = q0 6000
(2n - 1) D (2 ´ 2 - 1) ´ 1
Wave Optics 297
Þ l1 = 0.7 × 6000 (as q1 = 0.7 q0) First secondary maxima will be at

Þ 4200 Å 3l 3 æ 1 ö
sin q = = ç ÷ Þ q = sin–1 æç 3 ö÷
26. (b) When reflected light rays and refracted 2a 2 è 2 ø è 4ø
rays are perpendicular, reflected light is 30. (d) Linear width of central maxima Y
polarised with electric field vector 2D l l
perpendicular to the plane of incidence. = D(2q) = 2Dq = \ q=
Plane polarised
a a
reflected light
i
90°
m Partial polarised q
q Y
refracted light
Also, tan i = m (i = Brewester angle)

D
The central maxima lies between the first minima

27. (b) on both sides.
2l
The angular width ‘d’ central maxima = 2q =
b
2Dl
Linear width of central maxima = 2Dq =
b
b = width of slits and D = distance between slit
and screen.
According to Malus law, I = I0cos2 q
I 31. (b) For first minima at P
I1 = 0 AP – BP = l
2
I0 I0 1 I0 l
I2 = cos2 45° = ´ = AP – MP =
2 2 2 4 2
I0 I
I3 = cos2 45° = 0
4 8
P
28. (b) Resolvin g power of a microscope
2m sin q
=
l
1 R1 l 2 A f
i.e., R µ or, =
l R 2 l1
M f O
Given that the two wavelengths,
l1 = 4000Å and l 2 = 6000Å B
R1 6000Å 3
\ = = 2p l
R2 4000Å 2 So phase difference, f = ´ = p radian
l 2
29. (d) For the first minima, 32. (d) Given: D = 2m; d = 1 mm = 1 × 10– 3 m
hl l 1 l = 600 nm = 600 × 10– 6 m
q= Þ sin30° = = Width of central bright fringe (= 2b)
a a 2
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298 PHYSICS
2lD 2 ´ 600 ´ 10 - 6 ´ 2 q=
Y
= = m D
d 1 ´ 10 - 3
= 2.4 × 10– 3 m = 2.4 mm Y l lD
Þ = ÞY = ...(1)
D d d
Y
Here, wavelength l = 5000Å = 5 ´ 10 -7 m
D = 50 m
33. (b) d
Diameter of eye lens = 2 mm = 2 ´ 10 -3 m
From eq. (1), minimum separation is
nlD é Dl ù 5 ´ 10 -7 ´ 50
Y Y= = 12.5 ´ 10 -3 m = 12.5 cm
Angular width, q = = êQ Y = d ú 2 ´ 10 -3
D dD ë û
l 37. (b) Separation between slits are (r1=) 16 cm
so, q = , v l ¯ q ¯ and (r2=) 9 cm.
d
[For central maxima n = 1] Actual distance of separation = r1r2
Hence, with increase in speed of electrons
angular width of central maximum decreases. = 16 ´ 9 = 12cm
34. (d) Conditions for diffraction minima are 38. (c) For first minimum, a sin q = nl = 1l
Path diff. Dx = nl and Phase diff. df = 2np
l 5000 ´ 10 –10
Path diff. = nl = 2l sin q = = = 0.5
a 0.001 ´ 10 –3
Phase diff. = 2np = 4p (Q n = 2)
q = 30°
l 5000 ´ 10 -10 39. (d) Sound waves can not be polarised as they
35. (d) df = 1.22 = 1.22 = 6.1 ´ 10 -6
D 10 ´ 10-2 are longitudinal. Light waves can be polarised
\ Order = 10–6 as they are transverse.
l Polarisation of light is the restricting the vibration
36. (b) Angular limit of resolution of eye, q = ,
d of light in a particular direction perpendicular to
where, d is diameter of eye lens. the direction of wave motion. Light is an
Also, if Y is the minimum separation between electromagnetic wave and is transverse in nature.
two objects at distance D from eye then,
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 299
25 Dual Nature of
Radiation and Matter
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Matter Waves, Cathode & de-Broglie wavelength of 1 E 1 E 1 A 1 A
Positive Rays electron
De-Brglie of neutron 1 A
Electron Emission, Photon Einstein’s photoelectric 1 E 1 A 1 A
Photoelectric Effect & X-ray equation
Topic 1: Matter Waves, Cathode

l0 æ eE ö
& Positive Rays (a) (b) l0 ç1 + 0 t ÷
æ eE0 ö è mV0 ø
1. An electron is accelerated from rest through a ç1 + t÷
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie è mV0 ø
wavelength of the electron is 1.227 × 10–2 nm,
the potential difference is : [2020] (c) l0 (d) l0t
(a) 102 V (b) 103 V 5. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in
(c) 104 V (d) 10 V thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a
2. An electron is accelerated through a potential temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is :- [2017]
difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength
is, (nearly): (me = 9 10–31 kg) [2019] h 2h
(a) (b)
(a) 12.2 10–13 m (b) 12.2 10–12 m 3mkT 3mkT
(c) 12.2 10–14 m (d) 12.2 nm
2h h
3. A proton and an a–particle are accelerated from (c) (d)
rest to the same energy. The de Broglie mkT mkT
wavelengths lp and la are in the ratio, 6. An electron of mass m and a photon have same
[NEET Odisha 2019] energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 associated with them is : [2016]
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 1 1
1 æ E ö2
(b) æç
4. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity E ö2
(a)
r ç ÷
c è 2m ø è 2m ÷ø
V = V0iˆ (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field
1
r 1
E = – E0iˆ (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If l0 is its 1 æ 2m ö 2
(c) c(2mE) 2 (d) ç ÷
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- xc è E ø
Broglie wavelength at time t is [2018]
EBD_8335
300 PHYSICS
7. Which of the following figures represents the 13. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the
variation of particle momentum and the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
associated de-Broglie wavelength? [2015] gun can be increased by [2011]
p (a) increasing the potential difference between
p
the anode and filament
(b) increasing the filament current
(a) (b) (c) decreasing the filament current
(d) decreasing the potential difference between
l the anode and filament
p p l 14. In the phenomenon of electric discharge through
gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the
tube appears as a result of: [2008]
(c) (d) (a) excitation of electrons in the atoms
(b) collision between the atoms of the gas
l l (c) collisions between the charged particles
8. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
to 16 times its previous value, the percentage the gas
change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the (d) collision between different electrons of the
particle is : [2014] atoms of the gas
(a) 25 (b) 75 15. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength
(c) 60 (d) 50 as an electron moving with a velocity of 3×106
9. The wavelength le of an electron and lp of a ms–1. The velocity of the particle is: [2008]
photon are of same energy E are related by [2013] (a) 2.7× 10–18 ms–1 (b) 9 × 10–2 ms–1
(c) 3 × 10–31 ms–1 (d) 2.7×10–21 ms–1
(a) l p µ l e (b) l p µ l e (mass of electron = 9.1×10–31kg)
1 16. In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is
(c) lp µ (d) l p µ l e2 produced due to collisions between [2006]
le (a) negative electrons and neutral atoms /
10. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal molecules
equilibrium at temperature T is[NEET Kar. 2013] (b) photons and neutral atoms /molecules
30.8 3.08 (c) neutral gas atoms/molecules
(a) Å (b) Å (d) positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules
T T 17. Which of the following moving particles
0.308 0.0308 (moving with same velocity) has largest
(c) Å (d) Å
T T wavelength of matter waves? [2002]
11. If the momentum of electron is changed by P, (a) Electron (b) a-particle
then the de Broglie wavelength associated with (c) Proton (d) Neutron
it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of 18. Which one of the following statements is not
electron will be : [2012M] true for cathode rays? [2002]
(a) 200 P (b) 400 P (a) Cathode rays produce heat when incident
on metals
P
(c) (d) 100 P (b) Cathode rays travel in a straight line
200 (c) Cathode rays do not deflect in electric field
12. Electrons used in an electron microscope are (d) Cathode rays produce fluorescence when
accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage
they fall on certain meterials
is increased to 100kV then the de–Broglie
19. The wavelength associated with an electron,
wavelength associated with the electrons would
(a) increase by 2 times [2011] accelerated through a potential difference of 100
(b) decrease by 2 times V, is of the order of [1996]
(c) decrease by 4 times (a) 1000 Å (b) 100 Å
(d) increase by 4 times (c) 10.5 Å (d) 1.2 Å
20. Gases begin to conduct electricity at low 26. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with
pressure because [1994] monochromatic light of wavelength l. The
(a) at low pressures gases turn of plasma stopping potential for photo-electric current for
(b) colliding electrons can acquire higher this light is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated
kinetic energy due to increased mean free with light of wavelength 2l, the stopping
path leading to ionisation of atoms potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for
(c) atoms break up into electrons and protons this surface for photo-electric effect is [2015]
(d) the electrons in atoms can move freely at
low pressures l l
(a) 4l (b) (c) (d) 6l
21. An ionization chamber with parallel conducting 4 6
plates as anode and cathode has 5 × 10 7 27. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a
electrons and the same number of singly charged metal with work function 2.28 eV. The wavelength
positive ions per cm3. The electrons are moving of the emitted electron is: [2015 RS]
towards the anode with velocity 0.4 m/s. The (a) < 2.8 × 10-9 m (b) ³. 2.8 × 10-9 m
current density from anode to cathode is 4µA/ (c) £ 2.8 × 10-12 m (d) < 2.8 × 10-10 m
m2. The velocity of positive ions moving towards 28. A photoelectric surface is illuminated
cathode is [1992] successively by monochromatic light of
(a) 0.4 m/s (b) 1.6 m/s
(c) zero (d) 0.1 m/s l
wavelength l and . If the maximum kinetic
2
Topic 2: Electron Emission, Photon energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the
Photoelectric Effect & X-ray second case is 3 times that in the first case, the
22. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold work function of the surface of the material is :
frequency is incident on a photosensitive (h = Planck's constant, c = speed of light)
material. What will be the photoelectric current [2015 RS]
if the frequency is halved and intensity is
doubled? [2020] hc 2hc
(a) (b)
(a) four times (b) one-fourth l l
(c) zero (d) doubled hc hc
23. The work function of a photosensitive material (c) (d)
3l 2l
is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that 29. When the energy of the incident radiation is
can cause photon emission from the substance increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
is (approximately) [NEET Odisha 2019] photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface
(a) 310 nm (b) 3100 nm increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function
(c) 966 nm (d) 31 nm
of the metal is : [2014]
24. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver
(a) 0.65 eV (b) 1.0 eV
is 3250 × 10–10m. The velocity of the electron
ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light (c) 1.3 eV (d) 1.5 eV
of wavelength 2536 × 10–10 m is [2017] 30. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the
(Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1) cut-off frequency is n. If radiation of frequency
(a) » 0.6 × 106 ms–1 2n impinges on the metal plate, the maximum
(b) » 61 × 103 ms–1 possible velocity of the emitted electron will be
(c) » 0.3 × 106 ms–1 (m is the electron mass) [2013]
(d) » 6 × 105 ms–1 (a) hn / m (b) 2 hn / m
25. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
radiation of wavelength l, the stopping potential (c) 2 hn / m (d) hn / ( 2m )
is V. If the same surface is illuminated with 31. A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm
radiation of wavelength 2l, the stopping from a photocell and the stopping potential is
V found to be V0. If the distance between the light
potential is . The threshold wavelength for
4 source and photocell is made 25 cm, the new
the metallic surface is : [2016] stopping potential will be [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) 4l (b) 5l
(a) 2V0 (b) V0/2
5
(c) l (d) 3l
2 (c) V0 (d) 4V0
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302 PHYSICS
32. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light 40. A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per
of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% second of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source
efficient in converting electrical energy to light, S2 is producing 1.02×1015 photons per second
the number of photons of yellow light it emits of wavelength 5100Å Then, (power of S2) (power
per second is [2012] of S1) is equal to : [2010]
(a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 (a) 1.00 (b) 1.02
(c) 62 × 1020 (d) 3 × 1019 (c) 1.04 (d) 0.98
33. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron 41. The potential difference that must be applied to
on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a
the ground state irradiates a photosensitive nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV,
material. The stopping potential is measured to when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must
be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the be: [2010]
materials is : [2012] (a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V
(a) 4 × 1015 Hz (b) 5 × 1015 Hz (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V
(c) 1.6 × 1015 Hz (d) 2.5 × 1015 Hz 42. The number of photo electrons emitted for light
34. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and of a frequency n (higher than the threshold
2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive
frequency n 0) is proportional to: [2009]
metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio
(a) Threshold frequency ( n 0)
of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons
(b) Intensity of light
is : [2012M]
(c) Frequency of light ( n )
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 5 (d) n – n 0
35. Photoelectric emmision occurs only when 43. The figure shows a plot of photo current versus
the incident light has more than a certain anode potential for a photo sensitive surface
minimum [2011] for three different radiations. Which one of the
(a) power (b) wavelength following is a correct statement? [2009]
(c) intensity (d) frequency
photocurrent
36. The momentum of a photon of energy hn will be
[2011]
(a) hn/c (b) c/hn
(c) hn (d) hn/c2
37. Light of two different frequencies whose
photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV 2
3
respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose
work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio 1
of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
[2011] Retarding potential Anode potential
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 5 (a) Curves (1) and (2) represent incident
38. In photoelectric emission process from a metal radiations of same frequency but of
of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of different intensities.
most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The (b) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident
corresponding stopping potential is [2011] radiations of different frequencies and
(a) 1.8 V (b) 1.2 V different intensities.
(c) 0.5 V (d) 2.3 V (c) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident
39. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive radiations of same frequency having same
metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency intensity.
8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off (d) Curves (1) and (2) represent incident
voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly radiations of different frequencies and
(a) 2 V (b) 3 V [2011M] different intensities.
(c) 5 V (d) 1 V
44. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is 51. A photosensitive metallic surface has work
produced by a helium neon laser. The power function, hn0. If photons of energy 2 hn0 fall
emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons arriving on this surface, the electrons come out with a
per sec on the average at a target irradiated by maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m/s. When the
this beam is: [2009] photon energy is increased to 5 hn0, then
(a) 3 × 1016 (b) 9 × 1015 maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be
(c) 3 × 1019 (d) 9 × 1017 (a) 2 × 107 m/s (b) 2 × 106 m/s [2005]
6
(c) 8 × 10 m/s (d) 8 × 105 m/s
45. The work function of a surface of a
photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength 52. The work functions for metals A, B and C are
of incident radiation for which the stopping respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV.
potential is 5 V lies in the: [2008] According to Einstein’s equation, the metals
(a) Ultraviolet region which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation
(b) Visible region of wavelength 4100 Å is/are [2005]
(c) Infrared region (a) none (b) A only
(d) X-ray region (c) A and B only (d) all three metals
46. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz 53. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
the graph between the kinetic energy of
is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of
2 × 10–3 W. The number of photons emitted, on
incident radiation is [2004]
the average, by the sources per second is
(a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017
Kinetic Energy
Kinetic Energy
[2007]
(c) 5 × 1014 (d) 5 × 1015
47. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of
wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it (a) (b)
liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive Frequency Frequency
metallic surface. When the source is moved to a
distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons
Kinetic Energy
Kinetic Energy
liberated will be reduced by a factor of [2007]
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 2 (d) 4 (c) (d)
48. When photons of energy hn fall on an aluminium
Frequency Frequency
plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the 54. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point
frequency of the radiation is doubled, the source of light 1m away. When the source is
maximum kinetic energy of the ejected shifted to 2m then [2003]
photoelectrons will be [2006] (a) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of
(a) 2K (b) K the initial number
(c) K + hn (d) K + E0 (b) each emitted electron carries one quarter
49. A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to of the initial energy
convert [2006] (c) number of electrons emitted is half the initial
number
(a) change in the intensity of illumination into
(d) each emitted electron carries half the initial
a change in photoelectric current
energy
(b) change in the intensity of illumination into 55. When ultraviolet radiation is incident on a
a change in the work function of the surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. If a
photocathode second beam causes photoelectrons to be
(c) change in the frequency of light into a ejected, it may consists of [2002]
change in the electric current (a) infra-red waves (b) X-rays
(d) change in the frequency of light into a (c) visible light rays (d) radio waves
change in electric voltage 56. Einstein work on the photoelectric effect
50. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in provided support for the equation [2000]
kg m/s, will be [2006] (a) E = h n (b) E = mc2
(a) 7 × 10 –24 (b) 10–22
Rhc 1 2
(c) 5 × 10–22 (d) 0.33 × 106 (c) E = - 2 (d) K .E. = mv
n 2
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304 PHYSICS
57. As the intensity of incident light increases 65. The nature of ions knocked out from hot surfaces
(a) photoelectric current increases [1999] is [1995]
(b) K. E. of emitted photelectrons increases (a) Protons (b) Neutrons
(c) photoelectric current decreases (c) Electrons (d) Nuclei
(d) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons decreases 66. If the threshold wavelength for a certain metal is
58. The photoelectric work function for a metal 2000 Å, then the work-function of the metal is
surface is 4.125 eV. The cut off wavelength for (a) 6.2 J (b) 6.2 eV [1995]
this surface is [1999] (c) 6.2 MeV (d) 6.2 keV
(a) 4125 Å (b) 3000 Å 67. Kinetic energy of an electron, which is
(c) 6000 Å (d) 2062.5 Å accelerated in a potential difference of 100 V is
59. In a photo-emissive cell, with exciting wavelength
[1995]
l, the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
3l (a) 1.6 ´ 10 –17 J (b) 1.6 ´ 10 -19 J
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the
4 (c) 1.6 ´ 10 -21 J (d) 1.6 ´ 10 -25 J
fastest emitted electron will be [1998]
(a) (3/4)1/2. v 68. In photoelectric effect the work function of a
(b) (4/3)1/2. v metal is 3.5 eV. The emitted electrons can be
(c) less than (4/3)1/2 . v stopped by applying a potential of –1.2 V. Then
(d) greater than (4/3)1/2. v [1994]
60. The 21 cm radio wave emitted by hydrogen in (a) the energy of the incident photon is 4.7 eV
interstellar space is due to the interaction called (b) the energy of the incident photon is 2.3 eV
the hyperfine interaction in atomic hydrogen. (c) if higher frequency photon be used, the
The energy of the emitted wave is nearly photoelectric current will rise
(a) 10–17 J (b) 1 J [1998] (d) when the energy of photon is 3.5 eV, the
(c) 7 × 10–8 J (d) 10–24 J photoelectric current will be maximum
61. Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a sensitive 69. Doubly ionised helium atoms and hydrogen ions
plate with photo-electric work function of 1.9 are accelerated from rest through the same
eV. The kinetic energy of the photo-electrons potential drop. The ratio of the final velocities
emitted will be [1998] of the helium and the hydrogen ion is [1994]
(a) 0.58 eV (b) 2.48 eV (a) 1/2 (b) 2
(c) 1.24 eV (d) 1.16 eV
62. Which of the following statement is correct? (c) 1/ 2 (d) 2
[1997] 70. When light of wavelength 300 nm (nanometer)
(a) Photocurrent increases with intensity of light falls on a photoelectric emitter, photoelectrons
(b) Photocurrent is proportional to the applied are liberated. For another emitter, however, light
voltage of 600 nm wavelength is sufficient for creating
(c) Current in photocell increases with photoemission. What is the ratio of the work
increasing frequency functions of the two emitters? [1993]
(d) Stopping potential increases with increase (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
of incident light (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
63. The X-rays cannot be diffracted by means of an 71. Number of ejected photoelectron increases with
ordinary grating because of [1997] increase [1993]
(a) high speed (b) short wavelength (a) in intensity of light
(c) large wavelength (d) none of these (b) in wavelength of light
64. An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated (c) in frequency of light
from rest through a potential difference of V volt (d) never
in vacuum. Its final speed will be [1996] 72. Momentum of a photon of wavelength l is
eV
(a) eV (b) h
2m m (a) (b) zero [1993]
l
(c) 2eV (d) eV hl hl
m 2m (c) 2 (d)
c c
73. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed 77. A radio transmitter operates at a freqency 880
such that the work function changes from W1 to kHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of
W2 (W2 > W1). If the current before and after photons emitted per second is [1990]
changes are I1 and I2, all other conditions (a) 1.72 × 1031 (b) 1.327 × 1025
remaining unchanged, then (assuming hn > W2) (c) 1.327 × 1037 (d) 1.327 × 1045
[1992] 78. The momentum of a photon of an electromagnetic
(a) I1 = I2 (b) I1 < I2 radiation is 3.3 × 10–29 kgms–1. What is the
(c) I1 > I2 (d) I1 < I2 < 2 I1 frequency of the associated waves ? [1990]
74. The wavelength of a 1 keV photon is 1.24 × 10–9 m. [h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms–1]
What is the frequency of 1 MeV photon? (a) 1.5 × 1013 Hz
[1991] (b) 7.5 × 1012 Hz
(a) 1.24 × 1015 (b) 2.4 × 1020 (c) 6.0 × 103 Hz
(c) 1.24 × 1018 (d) 2 × 4 × 1023 (d) 3.0 × 103 Hz
75. Photoelectric work function of a metal is 1eV. 79. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an
Light of wavelength l = 3000 Å falls on it. The aluminium surface. K.E. of fastest electron
photo electrons come out with velocity [1991] emitted is (work function = 4.2 eV) [1989]
(a) 10 metres/sec (b) 102 metres/sec (a) 3.2 × 10–21 J
(c) 104 metres/sec (d) 106 metres/sec (b) 3.2 × 10–19 J
76. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom (c) 7 × 10–25 J
correspond to increasing values of energy i.e., (d) 9 × 10–32 J
EA < EB < EC. If l1, l2, l3 are the wavelengths of 80. The energy of a photon of wavelength l is
radiation corresponding to the transitions C to
hc
B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the (a) hcl (b) [1988]
following relation is correct? [1990, 2005] l
(a) l 3 = l1 + l 2 l lh
(c) (d)
hc c
l1l 2
(b) l3 = 81. The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect
l1 + l 2 on sodium corresponds to a wavelength of
(c) l1 + l 2 + l 3 = 0 5000 Å. Its work function is [1988]
(a) 4 × 10–19 J (b) 1 J
(d) l 3 2 = l1 2 + l 2 2 (c) 2 × 10–19 J (d) 3 × 10–19 J
ANSWER KEY
1 (c) 10 (a) 19 (d) 28 (d) 37 (b) 46 (d) 55 (b) 64 (c) 73 (a)
2 (b) 11 (a) 20 (b) 29 (b) 38 (c) 47 (d) 56 (a) 65 (c) 74 (b)
3 (b) 12 (b) 21 (d) 30 (b) 39 (a) 48 (c) 57 (a) 66 (b) 75 (d)
4 (a) 13 (a) 22 (c) 31 (c) 40 (a) 49 (a) 58 (b) 67 (a) 76 (b)
5 (a) 14 (c) 23 (a) 32 (a) 41 (b) 50 (c) 59 (d) 68 (a) 77 (a)
6 (a) 15 (a) 24 (a, d) 33 (c) 42 (b) 51 (c) 60 (d) 69 (d) 78 (a)
7 (a) 16 (a) 25 (d) 34 (b) 43 (a) 52 (c) 61 (a) 70 (b) 79 (b)
8 (b) 17 (a) 26 (a) 35 (d) 44 (a) 53 (a) 62 (a) 71 (a) 80 (b)
9 (d) 18 (c) 27 (b) 36 (a) 45 (a) 54 (a) 63 (b) 72 (a) 81 (a)
EBD_8335
306 PHYSICS
Hints & Solutions

12.27 h l0
1. (c) Using, l = Å = = ...(ii)
V é eE ù é eE0 ù
mV0 ê1 + 0 t ú ê1 + tú
ë mV0 û ë mV0 û
12.27 ´ 10-10
Þ V = -11
= 102 Dividing eqs. (ii) by (i),
1.227 ´ 10 l0
[Given, l = 1.227 ´ 10-11 m] de-Broglie wavelength l =
é eE0 ù
ê1 + tú
\ V = 10 4 volt ë mV0 û
2. (b) de-Broglie wavelength of electron 5. (a) We know that,
12.27 12.27 ´ 10 –10 h h
l= Å= = 12.27 ´ 10 –12 m de-Broglie wavelength l =
p
=
2m(KE)
V 10000
h h 3
= K.E. of thermal neutron = kT
3. (b) As l = 2
p 2mK
h
1 =
\ lµ (Kinetic energies are same) æ3 ö
m 2m ç kT ÷
è2 ø
lp ma
= h
la mp l=
3mkT
lp 2 6. (a) For electron De-Broglie wavelength,
\ =
la 1 h
le =
4. (a) Initial de-Brogile wavelength 2mE
h For photon E = pc
l0 = ...(i)
mV0 hc
Þ De-Broglie wavelength, l Ph =
ur E
E0 1/2
le h E æ E ö 1
– V0 \ = ´ =ç ÷
F l Ph 2mE hc è 2m ø c
h 1
Acceleration of electron 7. (a) According to De-broglie p = or P µ
l l
eE0 where
a= (Q F = ma = eE0) P = particle momentum;
m
l = de-Broglie wavelength
Velocity after time ‘t’
h = Plank’s constant
æ eE0 ö
V = ç V0 + t 1
è m ÷ø Pµ represents rectangular hyperbola.
l
h h 8. (b) As we know
So, l = =
mV æ eE ö h h
m çV0 + 0 t ÷ l= = (Q P = 2mKE)
è m ø P 2mK
l1 K2 16K 4 1
or = = = 12. (b) lµ
l2 K1 K 1 V
Therefore the percentage change in de-Broglie l1 V2 100keV
Þ = = =2
1- 4 l2 V1 25keV
wavelength = ´ 100 = - 75%
4
l1
E Þ l2 =
9. (d) As P = 2
c 13. (a) In the Davisson and Germer experiment,
hc the velocity of electrons emitted from the
lp = ...(i) electron gun can be increased by increasing the
E
potential difference between the anode and
h h2 filament.
le = Þ l e2 = ...(ii)
2mE 2mE 14. (c) In discharge tube, collisions between the
From equations (i) and (ii) charged particles emitted from the cathode and
atoms of the gas results to the coloured glow in
lp µ le2 the tube.
15. (a) Wavelength of particle
h
de-Broglie wavelength, l = p h h
(l1) = mv =
Here, h = plank's constant
(1 ´ 10-6 ) ´ v
p = momentum where v is the velocity of the particle.
Momentum, p = 2mk Wave length of electron,
h
h (l2 ) =
\ l=
2mE
( Here, E = kinetic energy )
(
9.1 ´ 10 -31
)(
´ 3 ´106 )
2 2
h h But l1 = l2 (Given)
\ E= Þ l2 =
2ml 2 2 mE
h h
\ =
10. (a) From formula l =
h
2 mKT
(1´10 ) ´ v
-6 (9.1 ´ 10 -31
) ´ (3 ´ 106 )
9.1 ´ 10-31 ´ 3 ´ 106

6.63 ´10 -34 Þ v= = 2.73×10–18 ms–1
= m 10-6
2 ´ 1.67 ´10 -27 ´1.38 ´10 -23 T 16. (a) When electrons emitted from cathode
collide with gas molecules or atoms, they knock
[By placing value of h, m and k]
out outer electrons and produce positively
30.8 charged ions. They become part of positive rays.
= Å
T h
17. (a) de-Broglie wavelength l =
11. (a) The de-Broglie’s wavelength associated mv
h 1
with the moving electron l = For same velocity, l µ
P m
Now, according to problem Out of given particles, the mass of electron is
minimum, so the associated de-Broglie
dl dp wavelength is maximum for electron.
=-
l P 18. (c) Cathode rays are negatively charged rays.
0.5 P Hence, when electric field is applied to them, then
= they deflect in direction opposite to electric field.
100 P '
19. (d) Potential difference = 100 V
P¢ = 200 P K.E. acquired by electron = e (100)
EBD_8335
308 PHYSICS
Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold

1 2 2e(100)
mv = e(100) Þ v = frequency v0 incident.
2 m
3
According to de Broglie's concept v = v0
2
h h If frequency is halved,
l= Þl=
mv 2e(100) v 3
m \ v ' = = v0
m 2 4
h Q v ' < v0
= = 1.2 ´ 10 -10 = 1.2Å
2me(100) \ No photoelectric emission will take place.
12400
h h 23. (a) As E =
de-Broglie wavelength, l e = p =
l
2mE 12400
Here, h = planck's constant l= = 3100 Å
4
m = mass of electron
Kinetic energy, E = eV \ l = 310 nm
Here, V = potential difference 24. (a, d) Both answers are correct
Given,
h
\ le l0 = 3250 × 10–10 m
2me eV l = 2536 × 10–10 m
Substituting h =6.63 × 10–34 Js
hc 4.14 ´ 10-15 ´ 3 ´108
e = 1.6 × 10–19 C f= = = 3.82eV
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg l0 3250 ´ 10-10
12.27 hc 4.14 ´10-15 ´ 3 ´108
we get l e = Å hv = l = = 4.89eV
V 2536 ´ 10-10
20. (b) The ionisation requires high energy electrons. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,
21. (d) Current = Ie + Ip ..........(i) Kmax = hv – f
Ie and Ip are current due to electrons and KEmax = (4.89–3.82)eV=1.077 eV
positively charged ions.
1
mv2 = 1.077 × 1.6 × 10–19
I = neAVd 2
where,
2 ´1.077 ´1.6 ´10-19
7 3
n = 5 ´ 10 / cm = 5 ´ 10 ´ 10 / m 7 6 3 Þv=
9.1´10-31
13 3
= 5 ´ 10 / m or, v = 0.6 × 106 m/s or 6 × 105 m/s
25. (d) According to Einstein's photoelectric
I e = 5 ´ 1013 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ A ´ 0.4
effect,
I p = 5 ´ 1013 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ A ´ v hc hc
eV = - …(i)
I = Ie + Ip (from equation (i)) l l0
= 5 ´ 1013 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ A(v + 0.4) hc hc
-6 2 eV/4 = - …(ii)
Given, I / A = 4 ´ 10 A/ m 2l l 0
4 ´ 10 -6
´ A = 5 ´ 10 -6
´ 1.6 ´ A(v + 0.4) Dividing equation (i) by (ii) by
1 1
4 -
= v + 0.4 Þ 0.5 = v + 0.4 Þ v = 0.1 m/s l l0
8
22. (c) For photoelectric emission, photoelectric Þ 4= 1 1 on solving we get,
-
current, incident light frequency should be 2l l 0
greater than threshold frequency. l0 = 3l
Threshold wavelength (l 0 ) is the maximum From question, Ek2max = 3Ek1max

wavelength of incident radiations required to eject Multiplying equation (i) by 3
the electrons from a metallic surface.
If incident wavelength l > l0 æ hc ö
3Ek1max = 3 ç - f ÷ ...(iii)
Þ No photoelectron emission occur èl ø
26. (a) As we know, From equation (ii) and (iii)
hc 3hc 2hc hc
eVs = –Y - 3f = - f \ f (work function) =
l l l 2l
hc 29. (b) According to Einstein’s photoelectric
3eVo = –Y ...(1) equation, hn = f0 + Kmax
l
We have
hc
eVo = –Y ...(2) hn = f0 + 0.5 ...(i)
2l and 1.2hn = f0 + 0.8 ...(ii)
3hc Therefore, from above two equations f0 = 1.0 eV.
3eVo = – 3Y ...(3)
2l Work function (f0) varies from metal to metal.
Multiplying eqn. (2) by (3) and subtracting it The material is better for photoelectric emission
from eqn (1) whose work function is least. As caesium has least
hc work function, hence it is best metal for
Y= photoelectric emission.
4l
So, threshold wavelength, 30. (b) From photo-electric equation,
hc hc hn' = hn + Kmax ...(i)
l th = = = 4l
Y hc / 4l 1
h.2n = hn + mV2max [\ n ¢ = 2 n]
27. (b) Given : Work function f of metal = 2.28 eV 2
Wavelength of light l = 500 nm = 500 × 10–9m 1 2hn
Þ hn = mV2max Þ Vmax =
hc 2 m
KEmax = –f
l 31. (c) Since, stopping potential is independent of
6.6 ´ 10 -34 8
´ 3 ´ 10 distance hence new stopping potential will remain
KEmax = – 2.28 unchanged i.e., new stopping potential = V0.
5 ´ 10-7 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 32. (a) Give that, only 25% of 200W converter
KEmax = 2.48 – 2.28 = 0.2 ev electrical energy into light of yellow colour
h h
lmin = = æ hc ö 25
p 2m ( KE )max çè ÷ø ´ N = 200 ´
l 100
20 Where N is the No. of photons emitted per
´ 10-34 second, h = plank’s constant, c, speed of light.
= 3
200 ´ 25 l
2 ´ 9 ´10 -31 ´ 0.2 ´1.6 ´10 -19 N= ´
100 hc
25
lmin =
9
× 10–9 200 ´ 25 ´ 0.6 ´ 10-6
= = 1.5 × 1020
= 2.80 × 10–9 nm \ l ³ 2.8 × 10–9 m 100 ´ 6.2 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
28. (d) Photoelectric equations 33. (c) n ® 2 – 1
E = 10.2 eV
hc
Ek1max = -f ...(i) kE = E – f
l Q = 10.20 – 3.57
hc h u0 = 6.63 eV
and Ek2max = -f
l /2
6.63 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
2hc u0 = = 1.6 × 1015 Hz
EK2max = -f ...(ii) 6.67 ´ 10-34
λ
EBD_8335
310 PHYSICS
34. (b) According to Einsten’s photoelectric ef- hc hc

fect, the K.E. of the radiated electrons 41. (b) Kmax = -W = - 5.01
l l
K.Emax = E – W
12375
1
mv 2 = (1 – 0.5) eV = 0.5 eV = l (in Å) - 5.01
2 1
1 12375
mv 2 = (2.5 – 0.5) eV = 2 eV = –5.01 = 6.1875 – 5.01 = 1.17775
2 2 2000
v1 0.5 1 ; 1.2 V
= = = 1: 2 The potential difference that must be applied
v2 2 4 to stop photoelectrons = –1.2V
35. (d) For occurence of photoelectric effect, the 42. (b) The number of photoelectrons emitted is
incident light should have frequency more than proportional to the intensity of incident light.
a certain minimum which is called the threshold Saturation current µ intensity..
frequency (v0). 43. (a) Retarding potential depends on the
frequency of incident r adiation but is
1 independent of intensity.
We have, mv 2 = hv - hv0
2
For photoelectric effect emission n > n0
44. (a) l = 667 × 10–9 m, P = 9 ×10 –3 W
where n is the frequency of the incident light. Nhc
36. (a) P= , N= No. of photons emitted/sec.
λ
37. (b) The maximum kinetic energy of emitted
electrons is given by 9 ´ 10–3 ´ 667 ´ 10 –9
N=
K.E = f – f0 6.6 ´ 10 –34 ´ 3 ´ 108
K.E1 = 1 eV – 0.5 eV = 0.5 eV
K.E2 = 2.5 eV – 0.5 eV = 2 eV 9 ´ 6.67 ´ 10 –10
= ; 3 ´ 1016 / sec
K.E1 0.5eV 1 3 ´ 6.6 ´ 10 –26
\ = =
K.E 2 2eV 4 45. (a) Work function, f0 = 6.2eV.
Stopping potential V0 = 5V.
v1 1 1
Þ = = As, eV0 = hv – f0
v2 4 2
38. (c) The stopping potential is equal to maximum hc
or eV0 +f0 =
kinetic energy. l
39. (a) K.E. = hn – hnth = eV0 (V0 = cut off voltage) hc
or l =
h eV0 + f 0
Þ V0 = (8.2 ´ 1014 - 3.3 ´ 1014 )
e
6.62 ´ 10-34 Js ´ 3 ´ 108 ms -1
6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 4.9 ´ 1014 l=
= » 2V. 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 5J + 6.2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 J
1.6 ´ 10-19
hc 6.62 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
40. (a) Energy emitted/sec by S1 , P1 = n1 = m
l1 1.6 ´ 10-19 (5 + 6.2)
hc 19.86 ´ 10-26
Energy emitted/sec by S2 , P2 = n2 = = 1.10 ´ 10-7 m.
l2 17.92 ´ 10-19
P2 n2 l1 Thus the wavelength of the incident radiation
\ = × lies in the ultraviolet region.
P1 n1 l 2
46. (d) Since p = nhn
1.02 ´ 1015 5000
= × = 1.0 p 2 ´ 10-3
1015 5100 Þn= = 15
hn 6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 6 ´ 1014 = 5 ´ 10
47. (d) Number of emitted electrons N E µ 12375

12375
Intensity Þ E= eV Þ E = eV
l (in Å ) 4100
1
µ Þ E » 3 eV
(Distance)2
So, only metals having work function less than
Therefore, as distance is doubled, NE decreases 3eV can emit photoelectrons for the incident
by (1/4) times. radiation of wavelength 4100Å.
48. (c) Applying Einstein's formula for photo- 53. (a) K.E. = hn – f
electricity \ graph of K.E. versus n is a straight line with
1 +ve slope h and K.E. > 0 for n such that hn > f.
h n = f + mv 2 ; hn = f + K 54. (a) Intensity µ No. of electrons emitted (N)
2
f = hn - K 1 1
Iµ 2 Þ Nµ 2
If we use 2n frequency then let the kinetic energy r r
becomes K' Energy crossing per unit area normally per second
So, h . 2n = f + K' is called Intensity.
2hn = hn – K + K' E P æ E ö
I= = çè Here, P = = radiation power ÷
K' = hn + K At A t ø
49. (a) A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect At a distance r from a point source of power P
to convert light energy into photoelectric P
current. intensity is given by I =
4pr 2
50. (c) 1 MeV = 106 × 1.6 × 10–19 joule
Momentum of photon, 1
ÞIµ 2
r
E 1.6 ´ 10-13
p= = 55. (b) Energy of photon of X-rays is more than
c 3 ´ 108 energy of photon of ultraviolet rays. Because
1.6 16 frequency of X rays is more than ultraviolet rays.
p= ´ 10 - 21 = ´ 10 - 22 56. (a) Einstein work on photoelectric effect
3 3
p = 5 × 10–22 kg m/sec supports the equation E = hn. It is based on
quantum theory of light.
Rest mass of photon is zero. But its effective mass 57. (a) K.E. of electrons emitted depends upon the
is given by
E = mc2 = hv frequency of incident rays rather than the
intensity. While number of photo electrons
E
Þm= 2 emitted depends upon intensity of radiation.
c 58. (b) Let l0 be cut off wavelength.
E
\ Momentum of photon, p = mc = 2 ´ C hc
c Work function = = 4.125 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
l0
E
Þ p=
c 6.626 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108
l0 = = 3000Å
51. (c) We know that 4.125 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
1 2 hc hc 1 2
1 2 59. (d) mv = - W0 or = mv + W0
h n - f = K max = mvmax 2 l l 2
2 and
According to question 1 2 hc
mv1 = - W0
5hn0 - hn0 v22 2 (3l / 4)
=
2hn0 - hn0 v12 4æ1 ö
= ç mv 2 + W0 ÷ - W0
3è2 ø
v2 = 2v1 = 2 × 4× 106 = 8 × 106 m/s.
1/ 2
hc æ 4ö
52. (c) E= So, v1 is greater than v ç ÷ .
è 3ø
l
EBD_8335
312 PHYSICS
hc 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108 K.E. = qV

60. (d) E = hn = = = 1.6 × 10–19 × 100 J = 1.6 × 10–17
l 0.21
6. 6
= ´ 10 - 24 = 0.94 ´ 10 -24 J 68. (a) hn = W0 + Ek = 3.5 + 1.2 = 4.7 eV
7
61. (a) K.E. = hn – hn0 1 2
69. (d) mv = eV , or, v = (2eV/m)1/2
hc 12375 2
= - hn 0 = - 1.9 The mass of helium ion is four times that of
l 5000 hydrogen ion. Further, the charge on helium ion
= 2.48 – 1.9 = 0.58 eV is twice that of hydrogen ion.
62. (a) According to photoelectric effect, speed
of electron (kinetic energy) emitted depends \ vHe / vH = 2
upon frequency of incident light while number 1
hc
of photoelectrons emitted depends upon 70. (b) W0 = or W0 µ l ;
intensity of incident light. Hence, as the intensity l0 0
of light increases, the photocurrent increases. W1 l 2 600
In a photo-cell, the photocurrent has no relation
Þ = = =2
W2 l1 300
with the applied voltage.
Stopping potential is the (negative) potential at 71. (a) Photoelectric current is directly
which the current is just reduced to zero. It is proportional to the intensity of incident light.
independent of intensity of light but depends on
the frequency of light similar to K.E. Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons varies with
frequency of incident radiation and it does not depend
63. (b) We know that the X-rays are of short upon the intensity of incident radiations. But, the
wavelength as compared to grating constant of number of photons emitted from the surface varies
optical grating. As a result of this, it makes directly with intensity of incident light.
difficult to observe X-rays diffraction with 72. (a) According to de Brogie wave equation,
ordinary grating.
h h h
64. (c) Kinetic energy of electron accelerated l= = \ p=
through a potential V= eV mv p l
1 2 73. (a) The work function has no effect on
Þ mv = eV photoelectric current so long as hn > W0. The
2
photoelectric current is proportional to the
2eV 2eV
Þ v2 = Þ v= intensity of incident light. Since there is no
m m change in the intensity of light, hence I1 = I2.
65. (c)
66. (b) Threshold wavelength (l) = 2000 Å hc
74. (b) Here, = 10 3 eV and hn = 106 eV
= 2000 × 10–10 m. l
hc
Work function (W ) = 10 3 c 10 3 ´ 3 ´ 10 8
l Hence, n = =
l 1.24 ´ 10 – 9
(6.6 ´ 1034 ) ´ (3 ´ 108 ) 20
= 2.4 × 10 Hz
=
2000 ´ 10 -10 1 2
75. (d) hn = W + mv or
9.9 ´ 10 -19 2
= 9.9 ´ 10 -19 J = = 6.2eV
1.6 ´ 10 -19
hc 1
67. (a) Potential difference (V) = 100 V. The kinetic = W + mv 2
energy of an electron = 1 eV = 1 × (1.6 × 10–19) l 2
= 1.6 × 10–19 J. Therefore kinetic energy in 100 Here l = 3000 Å = 3000 × 10–10 m
volts = (1.6 × 10–19) × 100 = 1.6 × 10–17J. and W = 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 joule
77. (a) No. of photons emitted per sec,

(6.6 ´ 10-34 )(3 ´ 108 )
\ Power
3000 ´10-10 n=
Energy of photon
1
= (1.6 ´ 10 -19 ) + ´ (9.1 ´10 -31 )v 2 P 10000
2 = = -
hn 6.6 ´ 10 34 ´ 880 ´ 103
Solving we get, v @ 10 6 m/s
= 1.72 × 1031
hc h
76. (b) ( E2 - E1 ) = hn = c
l 78. (a) As l = and l = ; so
p n
hc hc
\ = ( EC - EB ) , = ( EB - E A ) c cP 3.3 ´ 10 -29
l1 l2 n= = = 3 ´ 108 ´
l h 6.6 ´ 10 -34
13
= 1.5 × 10 Hz
hc
and l = ( EC - E A ) 79. (b) K.E. of fastest electron
3
= E – W0 = 6.2 – 4.2 = 2.0 eV
Now, = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 3.2 × 10– 19 J
( EC - E A ) = ( EC - EB ) + ( E B - E A ) hc
80. (b) Energy of a photon E = hn =
hc hc hc 1 1 1 l
or, l = l + l or l = l + l
3 1 2 3 1 2 hc
81. (a) W0 =
l0
1 l + l2 ll
\ = 1 or l 3 = 1 2
l3 l1l 2 l1 + l 2 6.63 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´108
= = 4 × 10–19 J
5000 ´10 -10
EBD_8335
314 PHYSICS
26 Atoms
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Atomic Structure, Distance of closest
Rutherford's Nuclear approach 1 A
Model of Atom
Bohr Model & The Spectra Bohr's model, Balmer and
Lyman Series 1 E 1 A
of the Hydrogen Atom
Kinetic energy and
potential energy of 1 E 1 E
electron in hydrogen atom
Topic 1: Atomic Structure, Rutherford's Nuclear a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the
Model of Atom distance of closest approach is r 0. The energy
of the projectile is [2009]
1. When an a-particle of mass 'm' moving with (a) directly proportional to Z1 Z2
velocity 'v' bombards on a heavy nucleus of (b) inversely proportional to Z1
charge 'Ze', its distance of closest approach from (c) directly proportional to mass M1
the nucleus depends on m as : [2016] (d) directly proportional to M1 × M2
1 1 4. J.J. Thomson’s experiment demonstrated that
(a) (b)
m m [2003]
1 (a) the e/m ratio of the cathode-ray particles
(c) (d) m changes when a different gas is placed in
m2 the discharge tube
1
2. An alpha nucleus of energy mv 2 bombards a (b) cathode rays are streams of negatively
2 charged ions
heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the (c) all the mass of an atom is essentially in the
distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus
nucleus will be proportional to [2010] (d) the e/m of electrons is much greater than
1 the e/m of protons
(a) (b) v 2
Ze 5. Who indirectly determined the mass of the
1 1 electron by measuring the charge of the
(c) (d) electron? [2000]
m v4
3. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a (a) Millikan (b) Rutherford
projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1approaches (c) Einstein (d) Thomson
Atoms 315
6. In Rutherford scattering experiment, what will 14. Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-
be the correct angle for a-scattering for an impact relativistic approach, the speed of electron in
parameter, b = 0 ? [1994] this orbit will be [given K = 9 × 109 constant,
(a) 90° (b) 270° Z = 2 and h (Plank's Constant) = 6.6 × 10–34 J s]
(c) 0° (d) 180° [2015]
7. What is the radius of iodine atom (At. no. 53, (a) 1.46 × 106 m/s (b) 0.73 × 106 m/s
mass no. 126) [1988]
(c) 3.0 × 108 m/s (d) 2.92 × 106 m/s
(a) 2.5 × 10–11 m (b) 2.5 × 10–9 m
(c) 7 × 10–9 m (d) 7 × 10–6 m 15. Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial
velocities u1 and u2. On collision, one of the
Topic 2: Bohr Model & The Spectra of the
Hydrogen Atom particles get excited to higher level, after
absorbing energy e. If final velocities of particles
8. For which one of the following, Bohr model is
not valid ? [2020] be v1 and v2 then we must have [2015]
(a) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) 1 1 1 1
(b) Deuteron atom (a) m1u12 + m2 u 22 = m1v12 + m2 v 22 – e
2 2 2 2
(c) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(d) Hydrogen atom 1 1 1 1
9. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an (b) m1u12 + m2 u 22 – e = m1v12 + m2 v22
2 2 2 2
orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies
are, respectively: [2019] 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1
(a) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV (b) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (c) m1 u1 + m 2 u 2 + e = m12 v12 + m 22 v22
2 2 2 2
(c) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (d) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
10. The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit, for (d) m12 u1 + m 22 u 2 – e = m12 v1 + m 22 v 2
the electron, in a hydrogen atom equals 0.51 Å
and its ground state energy equals –13.6 eV. If 16. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the
the electron in the hydrogen atom is replaced longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the
by muon (m–) [charge same as electron and mass longest wavelength in the Balmer series is
207 me], the first Bohr radius and ground state
[2015 RS, 2013]
energy will be, [NEET Odisha 2019]
(a) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –13.6 eV 9 27
(b) 0.53 × 10–13 m, –3.6 eV (a) (b)
4 5
(c) 25.6 × 10–13 m, –2.8 eV
(d) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –2.8 eV
5 4
11. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of (c) (d)
an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, 27 9
is [2018] 17. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : –1 monochromatic radiation of l = 975 Å. Number
(c) 1 : –2 (d) 2 : –1 of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted
12. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer will be [2014]
series and the last line of Lyman series is :-
(a) 3 (b) 2
(a) 1 (b) 4 [2017]
(c) 0.5 (d) 2 (c) 6 (d) 10
13. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107m–1, 18. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition
the wave number of the last line of the Balmer n1 ® n2 where n1 and n2 are principal quantum
series in hydrogen spectrum will be : [2016] numbers of the two states. Assuming Bohr’s
(a) 0.025 × 104 m–1 (b) 0.5 × 107 m–1 model to be valid the time period of the electron
(c) 0.25 × 107 m–1 (d) 2.5 × 107 m–1 in the initial state is eight times that in the final
EBD_8335
316 PHYSICS
19. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third 25. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground
excited state to second excited state and then state is – 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the
from second excited to the first excited state. first excited state will be [2010]
The ratio of the wavelength l1 : l2 emitted in (a) –13.6 eV (b) – 27.2 eV
the two cases is [2012] (c) – 54.4 eV (d) – 6.8 eV
26. The ionization energy of the electron in the
(a) 7/5 (b) 27/20 hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV.
(c) 27/5 (d) 20/7 The atoms are excited to higher energy levels
20. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum
passes from the fifth energy level to the ground wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds
level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a to the transition between [2009]
(a) n = 3 to n = 1 states
result of photon emission will be : [2012] (b) n = 2 to n = 1 states
24hR 25hR (c) n = 4 to n = 3 states
(a) (b) (d) n = 3 to n = 2 states
25m 24m
27. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
25m 24 m 13.6eV. When its electron is in the first excited
(c) (d) state, its excitation energy is [2008]
24hR 25hR (a) 3.4 eV (b) 6.8 eV
(m is the mass of the electron, R, Rydberg (c) 10.2 eV (d) 0
constant and h Planck’s constant) 28. The total energy of electron in the ground state
21. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy
of an electron in the first excited state is [2007]
hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet (a) 6.8 eV (b) 13.6 eV
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in (c) 1.7 eV (d) 3.4 eV.
the transition from : [2012M] 29. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV.
(a) 2 ® 1 (b) 3 ® 2 Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited
(c) 4 ® 2 (d) 4 ® 3 by monochromatic radiation of photon energy
12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral
22. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series lines emitted by hydrogen will be [2006]
for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second (a) three (b) Four
line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The (c) One (d) Two
atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is [2011] 30. The total energy of an electron in the first
(a) 3 (b) 4 excited state of hydrogen atom is about –3.4
eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is [2005]
(c) 1 (d) 2 (a) 3.4 eV (b) 6.8 eV
23. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from (c) –3.4 eV (d) –6.8 eV
excited state n to the ground state. The 31. The Bohr model of atoms [2004]
wavelength so emitted illuminates a (a) predicts the same emission spectra for all
photosensitive material having work function types of atoms
2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the (b) assumes that the angular momentum of
electrons is quantised
photoelectron is 10 V, the value of n is
(c) uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation
(a) 3 (b) 4 [2011M] (d) predicts continuous emission spectra for
(c) 5 (d) 2 atoms
24. Out of the following which one is not a possible 32. Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal
quantum number n is given by E = – 13.6/n2 eV.
energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen
The energy of photon ejected when the electron
atom according to Bohr’s atomic model? [2011M] jumps from n = 3 state to n = 2 state of hydrogen
(a) 1.9 eV (b) 11.1 eV is approximately [2004]
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 0.65 eV (a) 1.9 eV. (b) 1.5 eV.
(c) 0.85 eV (d) 3.4 eV
Atoms 317
33. In which of the following systems will the radius 39. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level,
of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum ? [2003] its radius is [1997]
(a) Hydrogen atom (a) four times its ground state radius
(b) Doubly ionized lithium (b) twice
(c) Singly ionized helium (c) same
(d) Deuterium atom (d) half
34. An electron changes its position from orbit 40. The spectrum obtained from a sodium vapour
n = 2 to the orbit n = 4 of an atom. The wavelength lamp is an example of [1995]
of the emitted radiations is (R = Rydberg’s (a) band spectrum
constant) [2001]
(b) continuous spectrum
16 16
(a) (b) (c) emission spectrum
R 3R
(d) absorption spectrum
16 16
(c) (d) 41. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground
5R 7R
state to an excited state, [1995]
35. The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En,
(a) P.E decreases and K.E. increases
then the energy in nth orbit of single ionised
helium atom will be [2001] (b) P.E. increases and K.E decreases
(a) 4En (b) En/4 (c) both K.E. and P.E. decrease
(c) 2En (d) En/2 (d) absorption spectrum
36. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to 42. The radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state
the second orbit, one gets the [2000] is 5.3 × 10–11 m. After collision with an electron
(a) second line of Lyman series it is found to have a radius of 21.2 × 10–11 m.
(b) second line of Paschen series What is the principal quantum number n of the
(c) second line of Balmer series final state of the atom [1994]
(d) first line of Pfund series (a) n = 4 (b) n = 2
37. Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen (c) n = 16 (d) n = 3
atom emits the photon of highest frequency? 43. Which source is associated with a line emission
[2000] spectrum ? [1993]
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 2 to n = 6 (a) Electric fire (b) Neon street sign
(c) n = 6 to n = 2 (d) n = 1 to n = 2 (c) Red traffic light (d) Sun
38. In the Bohr model of a hydrogen atom, the 44. In terms of Bohr radius a0, the radius of the
centripetal force is furnished by the coulomb second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is given
attraction between the proton and the electron. by [1992]
If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is (a) 4 a0 (b) 8 a0
the mass, e is the charge on the electron and e0
(c) 2 a0 (d) 2 a0
is the vacuum permittivity, the speed of the
electron is [1998] 45. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6
e eV. Following Bohr ’s theory, the energy
(a) 0 (b) corresponding to a transition between 3rd and
e 0 a0 m
4th orbit is [1992]
e 4pe 0 a0 m (a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV
(c) 4pe 0 a0 m (d) (c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV
e
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318 PHYSICS
46. The ground state energy of H-atom 13.6 eV. The (c) conservation of quantum frequency
energy needed to ionize H-atom from its second (d) conservation of energy
excited state. [1991] 48. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6
(a) 1.51 eV (b) 3.4 eV eV, the ionisation energy of helium atom would
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 12.1 eV be [1988]
47. To explain his theory, Bohr used [1989] (a) 13.6 eV (b) 27.2 eV
(a) conservation of linear momentum (c) 6.8 eV (d) 54.4 eV
(b) conservation of angular momentum
ANSW E R KE Y
1 (a) 7 (a) 13 (c) 19 (d ) 25 (a) 31 (b ) 37 (a) 43 (b )
2 (c) 8 (c) 14 (a) 20 (a) 26 (c) 32 (a) 38 (c) 44 (a)
3 (a) 9 (c) 15 (b ) 21 (d ) 27 (c) 33 (b ) 39 (a) 45 (d )
4 (b ) 10 (d ) 16 (c) 22 (d ) 28 (d ) 34 (b ) 40 (c) 46 (a)
5 (d ) 11 (b ) 17 (c) 23 (b ) 29 (a) 35 (a) 41 (d ) 47 (b )
6 (d ) 12 (b ) 18 (a) 24 (b ) 30 (a) 36 (c) 42 (b ) 48 (d )
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) At closest distance of approach, the kinetic 3. (a) The kinetic energy of the projectile is given
energy of the particle will convert completely by
into electrostatic potential energy. 1 Ze (2e)
mv2 =
1 2 2 4πε 0 r0
Kinetic energy K.E. = mv
2 Z1 Z 2
=
KQq 4πε 0 r0
Potential energy P.E. = Thus energy of the projectile is directly
r
proportional to Z1 Z2.
1 KQq 1 4. (b) Cathode rays are streams of negatively
mv 2 = Þ rµ
2 r m charged ions
2. (c) Kinetic energy of alpha nucleus is equall 5. (d)
to electrostatic potential energy of the system 6. (d) Impact parameter for Rutherford scattering
of the alpha particle and the heavy nucleus. That experiment,
is,
æ qö
1 2 1 qa Ze Ze2 cot ç ÷
mv = è 2ø æ qö
2 4 pe 0 r0 b= = 0 Þ cot ç ÷ = 0
4p Î0 ki è 2ø
where r0 is the distance of closest approach
q
2 qa Ze Þ = 90° or q = 180°
r0 = 2
4p e0 mv 2 For large value of b, alpha particle will go
1 1 undeviated and for small b the alpha particle will
Þ r0 µ Ze µ qa µ µ suffer large scattering.
m v2
Hence, correct option is (c).
Atoms 319
7. (a) 53 electrons in iodine atom are distributed 1 é 1 1 ù é1 1 ù

as 2, 8, 18, 18, 7 = RZ2 ê - ú = RZ2 ê - ú
lL 2 2
ë n1 n 2 û ë1 ¥ 2 û
2
\n=5 1
lL = ...(ii)
n2 R
rn = (0.53 ´ 10 –10 ) Dividing equation (i) by (ii)
Z
0.53 ´ 10 –10 ´ 52 4
= = 2.5 ´ 10–11 m lB R
53 =
lL 1
8. (c) Bohr model is only valid for single electron
R
species i.e., Hydrogen or hydrogen like atom
– He+, deuteron, etc. Singly ionised neon atom lB
Ratio of wavelengths is =4
has more than one electron in orbit. Hence, Bohr lL
model is not valid. 13. (c) According to Bohr's theory, the wave
9. (c) According to Bohr’s model of H-atom, the number of the last line of the Balmer series in
relation between kinetic energy, potential hydrogen spectrum,
energy and total energy For hydrogen atom Z = 1
P.E.
K.E. = TE = 1 æ 1 1 ö
= RZ2 ç -
2 l 2 2÷
so, K.E. = – (T.E.) è n 2 n1 ø
\ K.E. = 3.4 eV æ 1 1 ö
= 107 × 12 ç 2 - 2 ÷
and P.E. = 2 (T.E) è2 ¥ ø
Þ P.E. = – 6.8 eV 1
Þ wave number = 0.25 × 107 m–1
1 l
10. (d) r µ
m Last line of the series is called series limit. For
0.51 this line wavelength is minimum (lmin).
R= \ 2.56 × 10–13 m For minimum wavelength, n2 = ¥, n1 = n
207
Eµm n2
So, wavelength lmin =
\ (E)m = –13.6 × 207 = –2.8 keV R
11. (b) In a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom 14. (a) Speed of electron in nth orbit
Kinetic energy, 2p KZe 2
2 vn =
kze nh
k= Z
2rn
v = (2.19 × 106 m/s)
– kze 2 n
Total energy, E = 2
2rn v = (2.19 × 106) (Z = 2 and n = 3)
3
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
v = 1.46 × 106 m/s
12. (b) For last line of Balmer series :
15. (b) By law of conservation of energy,
n1 = 2 and n2 = ¥
K.Ef = K.Ei – excitation energy (e)
1 é 1 1 ù é1 1 ù
= RZ 2 ê - ú = R12 ê - ú 1 1 1 1
lB ë n1
2 2
n2 û ë2 2
¥2 û or mv12 + mv 22 = m1u12 + m 2 u 22 - e
2 2 2 2
4 16. (c) For Lyman series (2 ® 1)
lB = ...(i)
R
1 é 1 ù 3R
For last line of Lyman series : n1 = 1 and n2 = ¥ =R ê1 - 2 ú = 4
lL ë 2 û
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320 PHYSICS
For Balmer series (3 ® 2) In second case, nf = 2, ni = 3
1 é 1 1 ù 5R 1 é1 1ù é1 1ù 5
\ = Rê - ú = Rê - ú = R
lB
=R ê 4 - 9 ú = 36 l2 ë2 2 2
3 û ë 4 9 û 36
...(ii)
ë û
4 Divide (ii) by (i), we get
lL 3R 4 æ5ö 5 l1 5 144 20
Þ = = ç 3÷ = = ´ =
lB 36 36 è ø 27 l 2 36 7 7
5R
20. (a) For emission, the wave number of the
The wavelength of spectral lines increases with radiation is given as
the increases of order of the series.
lPFund > lBrackett > lPaschen > lBalmer > lLymen 1 æ 1 1 ö
= Rz 2 ç 2 - 2 ÷
l ç ÷
17. (c) For the l = 975 Å è n1 n2 ø
R = Rydberg constant, Z = atomic number
1 æ 1 1 ö
= Rç 2 - 2 ÷ æ1 1ö æ 1ö 1 24
l çn ÷ = R çè 2 - 2 ÷ø = R çè 1 - ÷ø Þ = R
è 1 n2 ø 1 5 25 l 25
where R is the Rydberg constant linear momentum
Solving we get n 2 = n = 4 h 24
p = = h × R× (de-Broglie hypothesis)
(Q n1 = 1 ground state) l 25
Therefore number of spectral lines 24hR 24hR
Þ mv = Þ v=
n(n - 1) 4(4 - 1) 25 25m
= = =6
2 2 1
21. (d) Q The frequency of the transition v µ 2 ,
18. (a) Q T µ n3 n
when n = 1, 2, 3.
3 22. (d) For first line of Lyman series of hydrogen
T1 8T2 æ n1 ö
= =
T2 T2 çè n2 ÷ø hc æ1
= Rhc ç -
1 ö
÷
l1 è12
22 ø
Hence, n1 = 2n2
For second line of Balmer series of hydrogen
19. (d) like ion
rd
n = 4 (3 excited state)
l1 hc æ 1 1 ö
nd
n = 3 (2 excited state) = Z2 Rhc ç -
l2 l2 2 2 ÷
è 2 4 ø
st
n = 2 (1 excited state) By question, l1 = l2
æ1 1 ö 2æ1 1ö
Þ ç - ÷ = Z ç - ÷ or Z = 2
n = 1 (excited state) è1 2 ø è 4 16 ø
According to Rydberg formula 23. (b) KEmax = 10eV
f = 2.75 eV
1 é 1 1 ù Total incident energy
= Rê - ú
l ê n2f ni2 ú E = f + KEmax = 12.75 eV
ë û
\ Energy is released when electron jumps
In first case, nf = 3, ni = 4 from the excited state n to the ground state.
1 é1 1 ù é1 1 ù 7 Q E4 – E1 = {– 0.85 – (–13.6) ev}
\ =Rê - ú=Rê - ú= R ...(i) = 12.75eV
l1 ë3 2 2
4 û ë 9 16 û 144
\ value of n = 4
Atoms 321
24. (b) Obviously, difference of 11.1eV is not 28. (d) Energy in the first excited state
possible. -13.6 -13.6
= = = -3.4 eV
–0.58eV n2 22
–0.85eV But K.E. = –(Total energy) = +3.4 eV.
–1.51eV 29. (a) Energy of ground state 13.6 eV
12.09eV n=2
–3.4eV Energy of first excited state
10.2eV
–13.6eV n=1 13.6
=- = -3.4 eV
25. (a) Energy of a H-like atom in it's nth state is 4
given by Energy of second excited state
2 13.6 13.6
En = - Z ´ 2 eV =- = -1.5 eV
n 9
For, first excited state of He+, n = 2, Z = 2 Difference between ground state and 2nd excited
4 state = 13.6 – 1.5 = 12.1 eV
\ EHe + = - 2 ´13.6 = -13.6 eV So, electron can be excited upto 3rd orbit
2
n(n – 1) No. of possible transition
26. (c) =6
2 1 ® 2, 1 ® 3, 2 ® 3
4 So, three lines are possible.
3
Z2
2 30. (a) K .E. = (13.6 eV)
n2
1 -Z 2
n2 – n – 12 = 0 Mechanical energy = (13.6 eV)
(n – 4) (n + 3) = 0 or n =4 n2
If electron falls from orbit n2 to n1 then the
\ K.E. in 2nd orbital for hydrogen
number of spectral lines emitted is given by = – Mechanical energy
( n2 - n1 + 1) ( n2 - n1 ) (1) 2
NE =
2 = (13.6) = +3.4eV
(2) 2
If an electron falls from nth orbit to ground
31. (b) In Bohr’s model, angular momentum is
state (n = 1) then number of spectral lines
n(n - 1) quantised i.e l = n æç h ö÷
emitted, NE =
2 è 2p ø
32. (a) DE = E3 – E2
27. (c) When the electron is in first excited state
(n = 2), the excitation energy is given by -13.6 13.6
= + 2
n=2 32 2
E2
ì1 1 ü
= 13.6í - ýeV = 1.9 eV
n=1 î4 9þ
E1 1
DE = E2 – E1 33. (b) r µ ; Z(=3) is maximum for Li2+.
Z
13.6 æ ö
We have, E n = - eV 34. (b) n = R ç 1 - 1 ÷ , where n1 = 2, n2 = 4
n2 çn 2 2 ÷
13.6 è 1 n2 ø
\ E2 = - eV = - 3.4eV æ1 1 ö
22 n = Rç - ÷
è 4 16 ø
Given E1 = –13.6eV
\ D E = ( – 3.4) – ( – 13.6) = 10.2 eV. 1 æ 12 ö 16
= Rç Þ l=
l è 4 ´ 16 ÷ø 3R
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322 PHYSICS
Hence, radius of first excited state is four times
-2p 2 mK 2 Z 2 e 4
35. (a) We have En = . For the radius in ground state.
n 2 h2 40. (c) Spectrum obtained from a sodium vapour
helium Z = 2. Hence requisite answer is 4En lamp is emission spectrum.
The energy required to ionise an atom is called A spectrum is observed, when light coming
ionisation energy. It is energy required to make directly from a source is examined with a
the electron Jump from the present orbit to the spectroscope.
infinite orbit.
æ Z2 ö KZe2 KZe 2
Eionisation = E¥ – En = 0 – çç -13.6 2 ÷÷ 41. (b) P.E. = - and K .E. = ,
n ø r 2r
è
2 where, r is the radius of orbit which increases
13.6 z eV
=+ as we move from ground to an excited state.
n2 Therefore, when a hydrogen atom is raised from
36. (c) When the electron drops from any orbit to the ground state, it increases the value of r. As
second orbit, then wavelength of line obtained a result of this, P.E. increases (decreases in
belongs to Balmer series. negative) and K.E. decreases.
42. (b) r µ n2
é1 1ù 1 é1 1ù
37. (a) n = R ê - ú or = R ê 2 - 2 ú radius of final state
2 2 l \ = n2
ëê n1 n2 ûú ëê n1 n2 ûú radius of initial state
é ù 21.2 ´ 10 -11
Frequency, n = Rc ê 1 - 1 ú = n2
2 2
5.3 ´ 10 -11
êë n1 n2 úû \ n2 = 4 or n = 2
Note : See the greatest energy difference and 43. (b) Neon street sign is a source of line emission
also see that the transition is from higher to lower spectrum.
energy level. Hence, it is highest in case of n = 2
to n = 1. 44. (a) As r µ n2 , therefore, radius of 2nd
Bohr’s orbit = 4 a0.
38. (c) Centripetal force = Coulombian force
45. (d) E = E4 – E3
2
mv 1 eé 13.6 æ 13.6 ö
= . =- -ç- ÷ = -0.85 + 1.51
a0 4pe 0 a02 4 2 è 32 ø
= 0.66 eV
e2 e 46. (a) Second excited state corresponds to n = 3
Þ v2 = Þv=
4pe 0 .a0 .m 4pe 0 .a0 .m 13.6
\ E= eV = 1.51eV
R n 2 32
39. (a) R= 0 47. (b) Bohr used con servation of angular
Z
momentum.
R0
Radius in ground state =
Z 48. (d) E µ Z 2 and Z for helium = 2
R0 ´ 4 \ (E)He = 4 ´ 13.6 = 54.4 eV
Radius in first excited state = (Q n =2)
Z
Nuclei 323
27 Nuclei
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Composition and Size of the
Nucleus
Mass-Energy & Nuclear Nuclear reaction 1 A
Reactions Mass – Energy 1 E
Radioactivity a particle composition 1 E
Rate of decay law 1 A 1 D
Topic 1: Composition and Size of the (a) 9.6 f m (b) 12.0 f m

Nucle us (c) 4.8 f m (d) 6.0 f m.
27 5. The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is
1. If radius of the 12 Al nucleus is taken to be RAl,
measured to be twice the radius of 9
then the radius of 125
nucleus is nearly: 4 Be . The
53 Te
[2015] number of nucleons in Ge are [2006]
(a) 74 (b) 75
5 3
(a) R Al (b) R Al (c) 72 (d) 73
3 5 6. The nuclei of which one of the following pairs
1/3 1/3
æ 13 ö æ 53 ö of nuclei are isotones? [2005]
(c) ç ÷ R Al (d) ç ÷ R Al
è 53 ø è 13 ø (a) 34Se
74 , 31Ga
71 (b) 38Sr
84
38Sr
86
,
2. 27
If the nuclear radius of Al is 3.6 Fermi, the 92 92 40 32
(c) 42Mo , 40Zr (d) 20Ca , 16S
approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in Fermi is : A
[2012] 7. A nucleus represented by the symbol Z X has
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (a) A protons and (Z-A) neutrons [2004]
(c) 4.8 (d) 3.6 (b) Z neutrons and (A-Z) protons
3. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio (c) Z protons and (A-Z) neutrons
of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would
(d) Z protons and A neutrons
be [2008]
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 8. The mass number of a nucleus is [2003]
(c) (3)1/3 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 (a) sometimes less than and sometimes more
27
than its atomic number
4. If the nucleus 13 Al has nuclear radius of about (b) always less than its atomic number
3.6 fm, then 125 (c) always more than its atomic number
32 Te would have its radius
(d) sometimes equal to its atomic number
approximately as [2007]
EBD_8335
324 PHYSICS
9. The volume occupied by an atom is greater than 18. The constituents of atomic nuclei are believed
the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about to be [1991]
[2003] (a) neutrons and protons
(a) 1015 (b) 101 (b) protons only
(c) 105 (d) 1010 (c) electrons and protons
10. Mn and Mp represent mass of neutron and proton (d) electrons, protons and neutrons.
respectively. If an element having atomic mass 19. In the nucleus of 11Na23, the number of protons,
M has N-neutron and Z-proton, then the correct neutrons and electrons are [1991]
(a) 11, 12, 0 (b) 23, 12, 11
relation will be [2001]
(c) 12, 11, 0 (d) 23, 11, 12
(a) M < [NMn + ZMp]
20. The nuclei 6C13 and 7N14 can be described as
(b) M > [NMn + ZMp] [1990]
(c) M = [NMn + ZMp] (a) isotones (b) isobars
(d) M = N[Mn + Mp] (c) isotopes of carbon (d) isotopes of nitrogen
11. Atomic weight of Boron is 10.81 and it has two Al 27 and
isotopes 5 B 10 and 5B 11 .Then the ratio 21. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13
10 Te125 is approximately [1990]

B11 in nature would be
52
5 B :5 [1998] (a) 6 : 10 (b) 13 : 52
(a) 19 : 81 (b) 10 : 11 (c) 40 : 177 (d) 14 : 73
(c) 15 : 16 (d) 81 : 19
12. The stable nucleus that has a radius half that of Topic 2: Mass-Energy & Nuclear Reactions
Fe56 is [1997] 235
(a) Li7 (b) Na21 22. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
(c) S16 (d) Ca40 89
13. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts, which a neutron, it generates 36 kr, three neutrons and :
have their velocity ratio equal to 2:1. What will [2020]
be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius)? 91 101
(a) 21/3 : 1 (b) 1 : 21/3 [1996]
(a) 40 Zr (b) 36 Kr
1/2
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 31/2 (c) 10336 Kr (d) 144
56 Ba
14. The mass number of a nucleus is equal to the
number of [1995] 23. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance
(a) protons it contains is : [2020]
(a) 4.5 × 1013 J (b) 1.5 × 1013 J
(b) nucleons it contains
(c) 0.5 × 1013 J (d) 4.5 × 1016 J
(c) neutrons it contains 24. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei
(d) electron it contains of thorium and helium. Then : [2015 RS]
15. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur (a) the helium nucleus has less momentum
is 32. The radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than than the thorium nucleus.
that of helium by [1994] (b) the helium nucleus has more momentum
(a) (b) 4 than the thorium nucleus.
8 (c) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy
(c) 2 (d) 8 than the thorium nucleus.
16. The nucleus which has radius one-third of the (d) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy
radius of Cs189 is [1993] than the thorium nucleus.
25. The Binding energy per nucleon of 7
3 Li and
(a) 4 (b) 7
2 He 3 Li
4
(c) 141 (d) 235 2 He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively..
56 Ba 92 U
17. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass In the nuclear reaction 73 Li + 11H ® 42 He + Q ,
number A as [1992] the value of energy Q released is : [2014]
(a) A 2 (b) A (a) 19.6 MeV (b) – 2.4 MeV
(c) constant (d) 1/A (c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV
Nuclei 325
26. A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to He- (a) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn –BE/c2
lium by the process of fusion. The mass defect (b) M (A, Z) = ZMp+ ( A–Z) Mn + BE
in fusion reaction is 0.02866 a.m.u. The energy (c) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE
liberated per a.m.u. is [2013] (d) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z)Mn + BE/c2
(Given : 1 a.m.u = 931 MeV)
34. A nucleus ZA X has mass represented by
(a) 26.7 MeV (b) 6.675 MeV
(c) 13.35 MeV (d) 2.67 MeV M(A, Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of proton
27. How does the binding energy per nucleon vary and neutron respectively and B.E. the binding
with the increase in the number of nucleons? energy in MeV, then [2007]
[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) B.E. = [ZMp + (A – Z)Mn – M(A, Z)]c2
(a) Increases continuously with mass number (b) B.E. = [ZMp + ZMn – M(A, Z)]c2
(b) Decreases continuously with mass number (c) B.E. = M(A, Z) – ZMp – (A – Z)Mn
(c) First decreases and then increases with (d) B.E. = [M(A, Z) – ZMp – (A – Z)Mn]c2
increase in mass number 35. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and
(d) First increases and then decreases with 4
increase in mass number that of 2 He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are
28. The power obtained in a reactor using U235
fused to form one 42 He , then the energy released
disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of
U235 per hour is [2011] is [2006]
(a) 10 microgram (b) 20 microgram (a) 23.6 MeV (b) 19.2 MeV
(c) 40 microgram (d) 1 microgram (c) 30.2 MeV (d) 25.8 MeV
29. A nucleus of mass M emits a photon of
frequency n and the nucleus recoils. The recoil 36. In the reaction, 12 H + 13 H 4 1
2 He + 0 n
, if
energy will be [2011]
(a) Mc2 – hn (b) h2n2 / 2Mc2 the binding energies of 12 H , 13 H and 42 He are
(c) zero (d) hn respectively, a, b and c (in MeV), then the energy
30. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature (in MeV) released in this reaction is [2005]
because [2011] (a) a + b + c (b) a + b – c
(a) nuclei break up at high temperature (c) c – a – b (d) c + a – b
(b) atoms get ionised at high temperature 37. In any fission process, the ratio
(c) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome
the coulomb repulsion between nuclei mass of fission products
is [2005]
(d) molecules break up at high temperature mass of parent nucleus
31. The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than (a) equal to 1
the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The (b) greater than 1
(c) less than 1
binding energy per nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is (d) depends on the mass of the parent nucleus
nearly [2010] 38. Fission of nuclei is possible because the
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV binding energy per nucleon in them [2005]
(c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV (a) increases with mass number at low mass
32. The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium numbers.
and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV, (b) decreases with mass number at low mass
respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse numbers.
to form a helium nucleus the energy released in (c) increases with mass number at high mass
the fusion is : [2010] numbers.
(a) 30.2 MeV (b) 23.6 MeV (d) decreases with mass number at high
(c) 2.2 MeV (d) 28.0 MeV mass numbers.
33. If M (A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the 39. If in nuclear fusion process the masses of the
A fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the
nucleus Z X, proton and neutron respectively
in units of u ( 1u = 931.5 MeV/c2) and BE resultant nucleus be m3, then [2004]
represents its bonding energy in MeV, (a) m3 > (m1 + m2) (b) m3 = m1 + m2
then [2008] (c) m3 = | m1 – m2 | (d) m3 < (m1 + m2)
EBD_8335
326 PHYSICS
40. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of (a) 2000 MeV (b) 200 MeV
a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy (c) 2 MeV (d) 200 keV
B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass 49. Which of the following is used as a moderator
M(N, Z) of the nucleus is given by (c is the in nuclear reactors? [1997]
velocity of light) [2004] (a) Plutonium (b) Cadmium
(a) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2 (c) Heavy water (d) Uranium
(b) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2
(c) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2 50. If the binding energy per nucleon in 3 Li 7 and
(d) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2 4 nuclei are respectively 5.60 MeV and 7.06
2 He
41. Solar energy is mainly caused due to [2003]
(a) gravitational contraction MeV, then the energy of proton in the reaction
(b) burning of hydrogen in the oxygen 7
+ p ® 2 2 He 4 is [1994]
(c) fission of uranium present in the Sun 3 Li
(d) fusion of protons during synthesis of (a) 19.6 MeV (b) 2.4 MeV
heavier elements (c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV
42. The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of 51. Heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear
neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The reactor. The function of the moderator is[1994]
(a) to control energy released in the reactor
binding energy of 42 He is [2003] (b) to absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction
(a) 0.061 u (b) 0.0305 j (c) to cool the reactor
(c) 0.0305 erg (d) 28.4 MeV (d) to slow down the neutrons to thermal energies.
43. For a nuclear fusion process, the suitable nuclei 52. Energy released in the fission of a single 235
are [2002] 92 U
(a) any nuclei nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of a
(b) heavy nuclei 235 filled reactor operating at a power level of
(c) light nuclei 92 U
(d) nuclei lying in the middle of the periodic table 5 W is [1993]
44. It is possible to understand nuclear fission on (a) 1.56 × 10–10 s–1 (b) 1.56 × 1011 s–1
the basis of the [2000] (c) 1.56 × 10–16 s–1 (d) 1.56 × 10–17 s–1
(a) liquid drop model of the nucleus 53. Solar energy is due to [1992]
(b) meson theory of the nuclear forces (a) fusion reaction
(c) proton-proton cycle (b) fission reaction
(d) independent particle model of the nucleus (c) combustion reaction
45. In nuclear reactions, we have the conservation (d) chemical reaction
of [2000] 54. The energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit
(a) mass only is [1992]
(b) energy only (a) 1.6 × 10–19 J (b) 6.02 × 1023 J
(c) momentum only (c) 931 MeV (d) 9.31 MeV
(d) mass, energy and momentum 55. An electron with (rest mass m0) moves with a
46. The explosion of the atomic bomb takes place speed of 0.8 c. Its mass when it moves with this
due to [1999] speed is [1991]
(a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion m0 5m0 3m0
(c) scattering (d) thermionic emission (a) m0 (b) (c) (d)
47. Complete the equation for the following fission 6 3 5
56. If the nuclear force between two protons, two
process : 92 U 235 + 0n1 ®38 Sr 90 + ... [1998] neutrons and between proton and neutron is denoted
(a) 54X143 + 3 0n1 (b) 54X145 + 3 0n1 by Fpp, Fnn and Fpn respectively, then [1991]
142
(c) 57X + 3 0n 1 (d) 54X142 + 0n1 (a) Fpp » Fnn » Fpn
48. In a fission reaction (b) Fpp ¹ Fnn and Fpp = Fnn
236
92 U ®117 X +117 Y + n + n (c) Fpp = Fnn = Fpn
the binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5
(d) Fpp ¹ Fnn ¹ Fpn
MeV whereas of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total
energy liberated will be about [1997]
Nuclei 327
57. Which of the following statements is true for 64. The half life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is
nuclear forces? [1990] 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which
(a) they obey the inverse square law of is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found
distance to be in the ratio of 1 : 7 in a sample of a the
(b) they obey the inverse third power law of given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to
distance be [2013]
(c) they are short range forces (a) 60 years (b) 80 years
(d) they are equal in strength to (c) 100 years (d) 40 years
electromagnetic forces. 65. a-particles, b-particles and g-rays are all having
58. The average binding energy of a nucleon inside same energy. Their penetrating power in a given
an atomic nucleus is about [1989] medium in increasing order will be
(a) 8 MeV (b) 8 eV [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) 8 J (d) 8 ergs (a) b, g, a (b) g, a, b
(c) a, b, g (d) b, a, g
Topic 3: Radioactivity
66. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials
59. a-particle consists of: [2019] A1 and A 2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s
(a) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only respectively. Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1
(b) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in the
(c) 2 electrons and 4 protons only mixture will become equal after : [2012]
(d) 2 protons only (a) 60 s (b) 80 s
60. The rate of radioactive disintegration at an (c) 20 s (d) 40 s
instant for a radioactive sample of half life 2.2 × 67. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days.
109 s is 1010 s–1. The number of radioactive The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time
atoms in that sample at that instant is,
[NEET Odisha 2019] 2
t2when of it has decayed and the time t1 when
(a) 3.17 × 1019 (b) 3.17 × 1020 3
(c) 3.17 × 1017 (d) 3.17 × 1018
1
61. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. of it had decayed is : [2012M]
If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the 3
time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of (a) 30 days (b) 50 days
450 nuclei is [2018] (c) 60 days (d) 15 days
(a) 20 (b) 10 68. The half life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 50
(c) 15 (d) 30 years. It decays to another element 'Y' which is
62. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8 l' stable. The two elements 'X' and 'Y' were found
and material 'B' has decay constant 'l'. Initially to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a
they have same number of nuclei. After what given rock. The age of the rock was estimated
time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material 'B' to be [2011]
(a) 150 years (b) 200 years
1 (c) 250 years (d) 100 years
to that 'A' will be ? [2017]
e m
69. A nucleus n Xemits one a-particle and two
1 1
(a) (b) b-particles. The resulting nucleus is [2011, 1998]
7l 8l
(a) m -6 (b) m-6
1 1 n -4 Z n Z
(c) (d) -4 -4
9l l (c) m X (d) m
n n-2 Y
63. A radio isotope ‘X’ with a half life 1.4 × 109 years
70. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample
decays to ‘Y’ which is stable. A sample of the
decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0,
rock from a cave was found to contain ‘X’ and
number of P species are 4 N0 and that of Q are
‘Y’ in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock is :[2014]
N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute
(a) 1.96 × 109 years (b) 3.92 × 109 years
where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are
(c) 4.20 × 109 years (d) 8.40 × 109 years
EBD_8335
328 PHYSICS
no nuclei of R present in the sample. When (a) 4 l (b) 2 l

number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the (c) 1/ 2 l (d) 1/4 l
number of nuclei of R present in the sample 77. In a radioactive decay process, the negatively
would be [2011M]
charged emitted b -particles are [2007]
9N 0
(a) 3N0 (b) (a) the electrons produced as a result of the
2 decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
5N0
(c) (d) 2N0 (b) the electrons produced as a result of
2 collisions between atoms
71. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured (c) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
as N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts (d) the electrons present inside the nucleus
per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) 78. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is
at which the activity reduces to half its value is R1 and at a later time t2, it is R2. If the decay
5 constant of the material is l, then [2006]
(a) log e 2 / 5 (b) [2010]
loge 2 (a) R1 = R2 e l (t1 -t2 ) (b) R1 = R2 e(t2 / t1 )
(c) 5 log 102 (d) 5 loge 2
72. The decay constant of a radio isotope is l. If A1 (c) R1 = R2 (d) R1 = R2 e -l (t1 -t2 )
and A2 are its activities at times t1 and t 2 79. The half life of radium is about 1600 years. Of
respectively, the number of nuclei which have 100 g of radium existing now, 25 g will remain
decayed during the time (t1 – t2) : [2010] unchanged after [2004]
(a) l( A1 - A2 ) (b) A1t1 - A2 t2 (a) 3200 years (b) 4800 years
(c) 6400 years (d) 2400 years
(c) A1 - A2 (d) ( A1 - A2 ) / l 80. A nuclear reaction is given by [2003]
73. The number of beta particles emitted by a A A 0 , represents
z X ® z +1 Y + -1e + v
radioactive substance is twice the number of (a) fission (b) b-decay
alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting (c) g-decay (d) fusion
daughter is an [2009] 81. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of
(a) isomer of parent (b) isotone of parent 10gm at an instant t=0. The approximate mass of
(c) isotope of parent (d) isobar of parent this element in the sample after two mean lives
74. In the nuclear decay given below: [2009] is [2003]
A A A– 4 A -4 (a) 6.30 gm (b) 1.35 gm
Z X ¾¾ ® Z-1 B*
® Z + 1Y ¾¾ ¾¾ ® Z -1B, (c) 2.50 gm (d) 3.70 gm
the particles emitted in the sequence are 82. A sample has 4 × 1016 radioactive nuclei of half
(a) g, b, a (b) b, g, a life 10 days. The number of atoms decaying in
(c) a, b, g (d) b, a, g 30 days is [2002]
75. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay (a) 3.9 × 1016 (b) 5 × 1015
constants 5l and l respectively. If initially they (c) 1016 (d) 3.5 × 1016
have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio 83. A deuteron strikes 8 O16 nucleus with subseq-
of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be
uent emission of an alpha particle. Identify the
1 nucleus so produced [2002]
after a time [2008]
e 7 10
(a) 3 Li (b) 5B
1
(a) l (b) l
2 (c) 7 N13 (d) 7 N14
1 e 84. The decay constant (l) and the half-life (T) of a
(c) (d)
4l l radioactive isotope are related as [2000]
76. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay loge 2 1
constants 5l and l respectively. At t = 0 they (a) l = (b) l = log 2.T
T e
have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of T 2
number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)2 (c) l = log 2 (d) l =
after a time interval [2007] e T
Nuclei 329
85. Atomic hydrogen has life period of [2000] 95. The mass of a-particle is [1992]
(a) one minute (a) less than the sum of masses of two protons
(b) one day and two neutrons
(c) a fraction of a second (b) equal to mass of four protons
(d) one hour (c) equal to mass of four neutrons
86. Alpha-particles are [1999] (d) equal to sum of masses of two protons and
(a) protons (b) positron two neutron
(c) neutrally charged(d) ionized helium atoms 96. The half life of radium is 1600 years. The fraction
87. After 1a and 2 b-emissions [1999] of a sample of radium that would remain after
(a) mass number reduces by 4 6400 years [1991]
(b) mass number reduces by 5 (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
(c) mass number reduces by 6 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16
(d) mass number increases by 4 97. The nucleus 6 C 12 absorbs an energetic neutron
88. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and
B are respectively 20 minutes and 40 minutes. and emits a beta particle (b). The resulting
Initially, the samples of A and B have equal nucleus is [1990]
number of nuclei. After 80 minutes the ratio of (a) 7N 14 (b) 7N 13
remaining numbers of A and B nuclei is [1998] (c) 5B13 (d) 6C13
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 4 : 1 98. A radioactive element has half life period 800
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1 years. After 6400 years what amount will remain?
89. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured [1989]
as 9750 counts per minute at t = 0 and as 975 1 1
counts per minute at t = 5 minutes. The decay (a) (b)
2 16
constant is approximately [1997] 1 1
(a) 0.922 per minute (b) 0.691 per minute (c) (d)
(c) 0.461 per minute (d) 0.230 per minute 8 256
90. A free neutron decays into a proton, an electron 99. An element A decays into element C by a two
and [1997] step process
(a) a beta particle (b) an alpha particle A ® B + 2 He 4
(c) an anti-neutrino (d) a neutrino
91. The most penetrating radiation of the following is B ® C + 2e -
[1997] Then [1989]
(a) gamma-rays (b) alpha particles (a) A and C are isotopes
(c) beta-rays (d) X-rays (b) A and C are isobars
92. What is the respective number of a and (c) A and B are isotopes
b-particles emitted in the following radioactive (d) A and B are isobars
100. Curie is a unit of [1989]
200
decay X 90 ®168 Y80 ? [1995] (a) energy of gamma-rays
(a) 6 and 8 (b) 6 and 6 (b) half-life
(c) 8 and 8 (d) 8 and 6 (c) radioactivity
93. The count rate of a Geiger Muller counter for (d) intensity of gamma-rays
the radiation of a radioactive material of half-life 101. A radioactive sample with a half life of 1 month
30 minutes decreases to 5 sec–1 after 2 hours. has the label : ‘Activity = 2 micro curies on 1–8–
The initial count rate was [1995] 1991. What would be its activity two months
(a) 20 sec–1 (b) 25 sec–1 earlier ? [1988]
(c) 80 sec–1 (d) 625 sec–1 (a) 1.0 micro curie (b) 0.5 micro curie
94. In a given reaction (c) 4 micro curie (d) 8 micro curie
X A ® z +1 Y A ® z -1 K A- 4 ® z -1 K A - 4 102. The nucleus 115 48 Cd , after two successive

z
Radioactive radiations are emitted in the b– decay will give [1988]
sequence of [1993] (a) 115 (b) 114
46 Pa 49 In
(a) a, b, g (b) g, a, b
113 115
(c) b, a, g (d) g, b, a (c) 50 Sn (d) 50 Sn
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330 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 12 (a) 23 (a) 34 (a) 45 (d) 56 (c) 67 (b) 78 (d) 89 (c) 100 (c)
2 (c) 13 (b) 24 (d) 35 (a) 46 (a) 57 (c) 68 (b) 79 (a) 90 (c) 101 (d)
3 (d) 14 (b) 25 (d) 36 (c) 47 (a) 58 (a) 69 (c) 80 (b) 91 (a) 102 (d)
4 (d) 15 (c) 26 (b) 37 (c) 48 (b) 59 (a) 70 (b) 81 (b) 92 (d)
5 (c) 16 (b) 27 (d) 38 (d) 49 (c) 60 (a) 71 (d) 82 (d) 93 (c)
6 (a) 17 (c) 28 (c) 39 (d) 50 (d) 61 (a) 72 (d) 83 (d) 94 (c)
7 (c) 18 (a) 29 (b) 40 (d) 51 (d) 62 (a) 73 (c) 84 (a) 95 (a)
8 (d) 19 (a) 30 (c) 41 (d) 52 (b) 63 (c) 74 (d) 85 (c) 96 (d)
9 (a) 20 (a) 31 (b) 42 (d) 53 (a) 64 (a) 75 (c) 86 (d) 97 (b)
10 (a) 21 (a) 32 (b) 43 (c) 54 (c) 65 (c) 76 (c) 87 (a) 98 (d)
11 (a) 22 (d) 33 (a) 44 (a) 55 (c) 66 (d) 77 (a) 88 (c) 99 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) As we know, R = R0 (A)1/3 1 æ M2 ö 1 æ3ö
where A = mass number = ´ç ÷ = ´ ç ÷ = 1 :1
RAI = R0 (27)1/3 = 3R0 3 è M1 ø 3 è1ø
5 3m
RTe = R0 (125)1/3 = 5R0 = RAI Nuclear density, r =
3 4pR03
2. (c) The radius of the nuclears is directly
Here, R0 = 1.2 × 10–15m m = Average of mass of a
proportional to cube root of atomic number i.e. nuclean (mass of proton + mass of neutron)
R µ A1/3 = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
R = R 0 A 1/3 , where R 0 is a constant of This formula suggest that density of nuclear matter
proportionality is same for all nuclei.
1/3 1/3
R2 æ A2 ö æ 64 ö 4 4. (d) It has been known that a nucleus of mass
=ç ÷ Þ ç ÷ = number A has radius
R1 è A1 ø è 27 ø 3
R = R0A1/3,
where R 1 = the radius of 27 Al, and where R0 = 1.2 × 10–15m
A1 = Atomic mass number of Al and A = mass number
R2 = the radius of 64Cu and A2 = Atomic mass
In case of 27 let nuclear radius be R1
number of C4 13 Al,
4 125
R2 = 3.6 ´ = 4.8m and for 32Te, nuclear radius be R2
3
27
r For 13 Al , R1 = R0 (27)1/ 3 = 3R0
3. (d) Requird ratio of nuclear densities = 1
r2 125
For 32Te, R2 = R0 (125)1/ 3 = 5R0
æ M1 ö 4 3
ç ÷ pR R2 5R0 5 5
è V1 ø = M1 ´ V2 1 3 2 = = R1 = ´ 3.6 = 6f m.
= = ´ R1 3R0 3 3
æ M 2 ö M 2 V1 3 4 pR 3
ç ÷ 3
1 5. (c) We use the formula,
è V2 ø R = R0 A1/3
3 3 This represents relation between atomic mass
1 æR ö 1 æR M ö
1/ 3
= ´ ç 2 ÷ = ´ çç 0 1/2 3 ÷÷ [\ R = R0M1/3] and radius of the nucleus.
3 è R1 ø 3 è R 0 M1 ø
Nuclei 331
For berillium, R1 = R0 (9)1/3 or, R 3 µ A Þ A µ R 3

For germanium, R2 = R0 A1/3 3 3
A2 æ R2 ö æ R1 / 2 ö 1
R1 (9)1/ 3 1 (9)1/ 3 \ =ç ÷ =ç ÷ =
= Þ = A1 è R1 ø R
è 1 ø 8
R2 ( A)1/ 3 2 ( A)1/ 3
A 56
1 9 A2 = 1 = =7
Þ = Þ A = 8 ´ 9 = 72 . 8 8
8 A 13. (b) Applying law of conservation of
6. (a) Isotones means equal number of neutrons
momentum,
i.e., (A–Z) = 74 –34 = 71 – 31 = 40.
m1v1 = m2v2
7. (c) ZA X has Z protons and (A – Z) neutrons v1 m2
=
8. (d) In case of hydrogen atom, v2 m1
Mass number = atomic number 4
3 As m = p r 3r Þ m µ r 3
ratom 3
9. (a) V µ r 3 Þ Vatom = 3
´ Vnucleus
rnuclers m2 r23
3 Hence, m = 3
rnucleus æ 1 ö 1 r1
But =ç 5 ÷ 1
ratom è 10 ø v r3 r2 æ 1 ö 3
\ 1 = 23 Þ =ç ÷
Hence, Vatom = 1015 × Vnucleus v2 r1 r1 è 2 ø
10. (a) Given : Mass of neutron = Mn
Mass of proton = Mp; Atomic mass of the 14. (b)
1/3 1/3
element = M ; Number of neutrons in the element Rs æ A ö æ 32 ö
= N and number of protons in the element = Z. 15. (c) =ç s ÷ =ç ÷ =2
RHe è AHe ø è 4 ø
We know that the atomic mass (M) of any stable 16. (b)
nucleus is always less than the sum of the masses 17. (c) The nuclear radius r varies with mass
of the constituent particles. number A according to the relation
Therefore, M < [NMn + ZMp].
X is a neutrino, when b-particle is emitted. r µ A1/ 3 or A µ r 3
11. (a) Suppose that, mass
The number of 10B type atoms = x density =
volume
and the number of 11B type atoms = y
Weight of 10B type atoms = 10x Further, mass µ A and volume µ r 3
Weight of 11B type atoms = 11y mass
Total number of atoms = x + y \ = constant
volume
10 x + 11 y 18. (a) Nucleus contains only neutrons and protons.
\ Atomic weight = = 10.81
x+ y 19. (a) Z = 11 i.e., number of protons = 11, A = 23
Þ 10x + 11y = 10.81x + 10.81 y \ Number of neutrons = A – Z = 12
x 19 Number of electron = 0 (No electron in nucleus)
Þ 0.81x = 0.19 y Þ = Therefore 11, 12, 0.
y 81
20. (a) As 6C13 and 7N14 have same no. of neutrons
If relative abundance of isotopes in an element has (13 – 6 =7 for C and 14 – 7 =7 for N), so they are
ratio n1 : n2 whose atomic massers are m1 and m2 isotones.
then atomic masses of elements is
21. (a) R µ ( A)1/ 3
n m + n 2 m2
M= 1 1 .
n1 + n2 \ RAl µ (27)1/ 3 and RTe µ (125)1/ 3
12. (a) The nuclear radius R = R0 A1/ 3 RAl 3 6
\ = =
or R µ A1/ 3 RTe 5 10
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332 PHYSICS
22. (d) It is a nuclear fission reaction. dm 1 dE 1

= = (Power in watt)
235 1
® 89 144
Ba + 13 n + Q dt c 2 dt c 2
92 U + 0 n ¾¾ 36 Kr + 56
1
23. (a) From the Einstein's mass-energy = ´ 1000 ´ 103
equivalence, the relation between the mass of a (3 ´ 108 ) 2
substance m and its energy E is dm
E = mc2 and mass decay per hour = ´ 60 ´ 60
dt
Here, c = speed of light 1
= 8 2
´ 106 ´ 3600 = 4 × 10–8 kg
\ E = 0.5 ´ 10 -3 ´ (3 ´ 108 ) 2 = 0.5 ´ 10 -3 ´ 9 ´ 1016 (3 ´ 10 )
= 4.5 × 1013 J. = 40 microgram
24. (d) In an explosion a body breaks up into two 29. (b) Momentum
pieces of unequal masses both part will have E hn
numerically equal momentum and lighter part will Mu = =
c c
have more velocity. Recoil energy
U ® Th + He 2
1 1 M2u 2 1 æ hn ö h 2 n2
P 2
P 2 Mu 2 = = ç ÷ =
KETh = , KEHe = 2 2 M 2M è c ø 2Mc2
2m Th 2m He 30. (c) When the coulomb repulsion between the
since mHe is less so KEHe will be more. nuclei is overcome then nuclear fusion reaction
25. (d) BE of 2He4 = 4 × 7.06 = 28.24 MeV takes place. This is possible when temperature
is too high.
BE of 73 Li = 7 × 5.60 = 39.20 MeV 31. (b) B.E. = 0.042 × 931 ; 42 MeV
7 1 4 4
3 Li +1 H ® 2 He + 2He + Q Number of nucleons in 37 Li is 7.
39.20 28.24 ´ 2(= 56.48 MeV) 42
Therefore, Q = 56.48 – 39.20 = 17.28 MeV. \ B.E./ nucleon = = 6 MeV ; 5.6 MeV
7
26. (b) Mass defect Dm = 0.02866 a.m.u.
32. (b) Binding energy of two 1H2 nuclei
Energy = 0.02866 × 931 = 26.7 MeV
As 1H2 + 1H2 ¾® 2He4 = 2(1.1 × 2) = 4.4 MeV
Energy liberated per a.m.u = 13.35/2 MeV Binding energy of one 2He4 nucelus
= 6.675 MeV = 4 × 7.0 =28 MeV
27. (d) BE/A \ Energy released = 28 – 4.4 = 23.6 MeV
33. (a) Mass defect = ZMp + (A –Z)Mn–M(A,Z)
B.E.
or, = ZMp + (A–Z) Mn–M(A,Z)
c2
B.E.
\ M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A–Z)Mn–
c2
A 34. (a) The difference in mass of a nucleus and its
constituents, DM, is called the mass defect and
is given by
From the graph of BE/A versus mass number A
it is clear that, BE/A first increases and then DM = [ ZM p + ( A - Z ) M n ] - M
decreases with increase in mass number.
and binding energy = DMc 2
28. (c) E = mc2
E = [{ZM p + ( A - Z )M n } - M ]c 2
m= 2
c
35. (a) 1 D 2 ¾¾ ® 2 He4
So, mass decay per second
Energy released = 28 – 2 × 2.2 = 23.6 MeV
Nuclei 333
Binding energy is energy released on formation of 48. (b) Binding energy

Nucleus = 117 × 8.5 + 117 × 8.5 – 236 × 7.6
= 234 × 8.5 – 236 × 7.6
36. (c) 12 H and 13 H requires a and b amount of = 1989 – 1793.6 = 200 MeV
energies for their nucleons to be separated. Thus, in per fission of Uranium nearly 200 MeV
energy is liberated
4 49. (c) Moderator used in nuclear reactor are
2 He
releases c amount of energy in its formation
graphite and heavy water.
i.e., in assembling the nucleons as nucleus.
Hence, Energy released =c – (a + b) = c – a – b Characteristics of moderator are
37. (c) Binding energy per nucleon for fission (i) Its atomic weight must be low
products is higher relative to Binding energy (ii) It should not absorb neutrons
(iii) It should undergo elastic collisions with
per nucleon for parent nucleus, i.e., more masses
neutrons and reduce their velocity.
are lost and are obtained as kinetic energy of
fission products. So, the given ratio < 1. 50. (d) Applying principle of energy conservation,
38. (d) B.E. per nucleon is smaller for lighter as Energy of proton
well as heavier nucleus. But fusion reaction = total B.E. of 2a – energy of Li7
occurs for small mass number nuclei and fission = 8 × 7.06 – 7 × 5.6
reaction occurs for larger mass number nuclei to = 56.48 – 39.2 = 17.28 MeV
attain reaction binding energy per nucleon. 51. (d) Moderator slows down the neutrons to
39. (d) m3 < (m1 + m2) (Q m1 + m2 = m3 + E ] thermal energies.
as E = [m1 + m2 – m3] C2 52. (b) Fission rate
Mass defect occur in both nuclear fission and fusion total power 5
= =
processes. Therefore, nuclear energy is released in energy 200 ´ 1.6 ´10 -13
both the processes as per Einstein mass energy fission
relation E = ( Dm) c = 1.56 × 1011 s–1
2
53. (a) Fusion reaction.

B.E 54. (c) 1 a.m.u = 931 MeV
40. (d) Mass defect =
c2 m0 m0 5m
Mass of nucleus = Mass of proton + mass of 55. (c) m = = = 0
v 2 2
c – (0.8c ) 2 3
neutron – mass defect 1- 2
41. (d) As a result of fusion, enormous amount of c c2
heat is liberated which is the main cause of source 56. (c) Nuclear force is same between any two
of solar energy. nucleons.
42. (d) Dm = (2 × 1.0074 + 2 × 1.0087 – 4.0015) 57. (c)
= 0.0307 Nuclear forces are short range attractive forces
E = (Dm) × 931 MeV = 0.0307 × 931 = 28.5 MeV which balance the repulsive forces between the
43. (c) For nuclear fusion process the nuclei with protons inside the nucleus.
low mass are suitable. 58. (a) Average B.E./nucleon in nuclei is of the
44. (a) order of 8 MeV.
According to liquid drop model of nucleus, an 59. (a) a-particle is nucleus of helium He++ which
excited nucleus breaks into lighter nuclei just like has two protons and two neutrons.
an excited drop breaks into tiny drops. ln 2 0.693
45. (d) 60. (a) t1/2 = =
l l
46. (a) 0.693
235 1 90 143 l= = 3.15 × 10–10
47. (a) 92 U + 0 n ® 38 Sr + 54 Xe 2.2 ´ 109
R= lN
+ 30 n1 + energy
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334 PHYSICS
Hence the estimated age of the rock is 60

R 1010 years
N= = = 3.17 × 1019
l 3.15 ´ 10–10 X ® Y0
61. (a) Number of nuclei remaining, N = 600 – 450 at t = 0 N0 0
= 150 after time ‘t’ at t = t N N0 – N
N 150 1 1 1
= = N N
N0 600 4 = = =
N0 – N 7 N0 8
N0 t = 3T
N = N0e–lt Þ ln = lt = 3 × 20 = 60 years
N
1 N0 65. (c) Increasing order of penetrating power :
Þ t= ln a < b < g.
l N
2.303 ´ T 1 For same energy, lighter particle has higher
2 N0 penentrating power.
Þ t= log10
0.693 N
66. (d) Let, the amount of the two in the mixture
2.303 ´10 will become equal after t years.
= log10 4
0.693 The amount of A1, which remains after t years
62. (a) Given, l A = 8l, l B = l N
N1 = t01
NA (2) /20
NB = The amount of A2, which remains, after t years
e
N
e -l A t N 2 = t02
Þ N o e -l B t = No (2) /10
e
According to the problem
e -lt = e -8lt e-1 N1 = N2
e -lt = e -8lt -1 40 160
=
Comparing both side powers (2) t/20
(2)t/10
-lt = -8lt - 1 æ t ö
–1 = 7lt t/20 çè - 2÷ø
10
2 =2
1
t=– t t
7l = -2
20 10
1
The best possible answer is t = t t
7l - =2
20 10
Nx 1
63. (c) As = (Given) t
Ny 7 =2
20
3 t = 40 s
Nx 1 æ1ö
Þ = =ç ÷
Nx + Ny 8 è 2 ø 1
67. (b) N1 = N0 e–lt N1 = N0
Therefore, age of the rock 3
t = 3T1/2 = 3 × 1.4 × 109 yrs = 4.2 × 109 yrs. N0
= N0 e -lt2
1 3
64. (a) The value of x is 1 2
8 Þ = e -lt ...(i)
3
x x
= 0 = 0 Þ t = 3T = 3 × 20 = 60 years 2
8 23 N2 = N0
3
Nuclei 335
2 t t t
N 0 = N0e -lt1 Þ = 2+ Þ = 2
3 1 2 2
2 Þ t = 4 min
Þ = e -lt1 ...(ii)
3 (4N0 ) N0
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii) NP = 4 /1
=
2 4
1 at t = 4 min.
= e -l (t2 -t1 )
2 N N
N0 = 0 = 0
l(t2 - t1 ) = ln2 4 4
or population of R
ln 2
t 2 - t1 = = T1/2 = 50 days æ N0 ö æ N0 ö
l çè 4N 0 - 4 ÷ø + çè N 0 - 4 ÷ø
68. (b) Let number of atoms in X = Nx
Number of atoms in Y = Ny 9N 0
By question =
2
Nx 1
=
N y 15 71. (d) N = N0 e-lt
1 Here, t = 5 minutes
\ Part of Nx = (N + N y )
16 x N0
= N0 × e-5l
1 e
= 4 (Nx + N y )
2 Þ 5l = 1 ,
So, total 4 half lives are passed, so, age of rock 1
l= ,
is 4 × 50 = 200 years 5
l n2
69. (c) When m n X emits one a-particle then its Now, T1/2 = = 5 l n2
l
atomic mass decreases by 4 units and atomic 72. (d) Activity is given by
number by 2. Therefore, the new nucleus
dN
-4 A= = -lN
becomes mn - 2 Y . But as it emits two b particles,
–
dt
its atomic number increases by 2. Thus the Activity at time t1 is
m-4 A1 = -l N1
resulting nucleus is n X.
and activity at time t2 is A2 = – l N2
No radioactive substance emits both a and b As t1 > t2, therefore, number of atoms
particles simultaneously. Also, y rays are emitted remained after time t1 is less than that re-
after the emission of a or beta particle. mained after time t2. That is, N1 < N2.
70. (b) Initially P ® 4N0 \ number of nuclei decayed in (t1 – t2)
Q ® N0 ( A - A2 )
= N 2 - N1 = 1
Half life TP = 1 min. l
TQ = 2 min. If a radioactive element A disintegrates to form
Let after time t number of nuclei of P and Q are another radioactive element B, which inturn
equal, that is disintegrates to form another element C,
4N0 N dN1
= t /02 Rate of disintegration of A = = -l1N1
2 t /1
2 dt
4N 1 dN 2
Þ t /1 = t / 2 Rate of disintegration of B = = -l 2 N 2
dt
2 2
Net rate of formation of B = Rate of disintegration
Þ 2 = 4.2t/2
t/1
of A – Rate of disiutegration of B = l1N1 - l 2 N 2
22.2t/2 = 2(2 + t/2)
EBD_8335
336 PHYSICS
73. (c) A radioactive substance when emits one 2 4l t

æ 1ö æ 1ö
Þ ç ÷ = e -4lt = ç ÷
alpha particles ( He) , its mass number reduces
4
2 è eø è eø
by 4 and charge no. reduces by 2 and after 1
Þ 4lt = 2 \t =.
emission of two b-particles its charge no. 2l
77. –
(a) In beta minus decay (b ), a neutron is
increase by 2 thus the charge no. i.e. atomic
number remains the same. transformed into a proton, and an electron is
emitted from the nucleus along with antineutrino.
Isotopes of an element have the same atomic
number but different mass number. n = p + e- + n
A A A A–4 * 78. (d) Let at time t1 & t2, number of particles be
74. (d) ZX ¾¾
® Z+1Y : b, Z + 1Y ¾¾
® Z -1B :a N1 & N2. So,
A –4 * -4 dN dN 2
Z -1 B ®A
¾¾ Z -1 B : g
(b, a, g) R1 = 1 = -lN1 ; R2 = = -lN 2
dt dt
Mass number and charge number of a nucleus R1 lN1 N1
remains unchanged during g decay) = = = e l ( t2 -t1 )
R2 lN 2 N1e (t2 -t1 )
-l
75. (c) Let the required time be t. Then R1 = R2 e l (t2 -t1 ) = R2 e -l (t1 -t2 )
N1 = N 0 e - l 1t
; N 2 = N0 e- l 2t 79. (a) 100 g will become 25 g in two half lives, so,
Where it is 3200 years.
N1 = number of nuclei of X1 after time t
80. (b) -1 e0 represents a b-decay..
N2 = number of nuclei of X2 after time t
N0 = initial number of nuclei of X1 and X2 81. (b) Using the relation for mean life.
each. æ 1ö æ 1ö
Given : t = 2t = 2 ç ÷ ç\ t = ÷
N N e - l 1t N 1 è lø è lø
Now, 1 = 0 - l t Here 1 = 2
N 2 N0 e 2 N2 e - l´
l1 = 5l ; l2 = l Then from M = M 0 e- lt = 10e l
1 e- 5l t 2
\ = - l t Þ e–1 = e–4lt Þ 4lt = 1 æ1ö
e e = 10ç ÷ = 1.35g
1 èeø
\t= The law of radioactive disintegration in terms of
4l
mass can be written as
76. (c) l A = 5l and l B = l
M = M0 e–lt
At t = 0, ( N0 ) A = ( N 0 ) B Here, M0 = mass of radioactive nuclei at time t = 0
2 M = mass of radioactive nuclei at time t
N A æ 1ö
Given, =ç ÷ 30
NB è eø æ 1 ö 10 1
According to radioactive decay, 82. (d) N = 4 ´ 10 ç ÷ = ´ 1016
16
è 2ø 2
N 1
= e -lt Atoms decayed = 4 × 1016 - ´10
16
N0 2
NA = 3.5 × 1016
\ = e -l At ..... (1)
( N0 ) A 83. (d) 16
+1 H 2 ¾¾
®2 He4 + 7 N 14
8O
NB
= e -l Bt ..... (2) 1
t=log
a a
( N0 )B 84. (a) when t = T, x =
l a-x 2
From (1) and (2),
1 a 1
NA T = log = log e 2 Þ l = 1 log e 2
= e - (5 l-l )t l
a-
a l T
NB 2
Nuclei 337
85. (c) Atomic hydrogen is unstable and it has 200 - 168

life period of a fraction of a second. 200 = 4n + 168 or n = =8.
4
86. (d) We know that alpha particles are the Also, 90 = 2n – m + 80
nucleus of ionized helium atoms which contain or, m = 2n + 80 – 90 = (2 × 8 + 80 – 90) = 6.
two protons and two neutrons. These are Thus, respective number of a and b-particles
emitted by the nuclei of certain radioactive will be 8 and 6.
substances. Streams of alpha particles, called 93. (c) Half-life = 30 minutes; Rate of decrease
a-rays, produce intense ionisation in gases (N) = 5 per second and total time = 2 hours = 120
through which they pass and are easily minutes. Relation for initial and final count rate
absorbed by matter.
time/half-life 120/30 4
87. (a) Emission of 1a particle led to decrease in N æ1ö æ1ö æ1ö 1
= =ç ÷ =ç ÷ =
atomic number by 2 while mass number by 4. On N 0 çè 2 ÷ø è2ø è2ø 16 .
the other hand, emission of 2b particles increases
atomic number by 2. Hence, overall emission of, Therefore, N0 = 16 × N = 16 × 5 = 80 s–1.
94. (c) Increase of charge number by 1 indicates
1a and 2b particles led to decrease in mass
number by 4. b emission. Decrease of mass number by 4 and
charge number by 2 indicates a emission. No
88. (c) 80 = 20 × nA Þ nA = 4
change of mass number and charge number
80 = 40 × nB Þ nB = 2 indicates g-emission.
æ 1ö
4 95. (a) a-particle = 2He4. It contains 2 p and 2 n.
çè ÷ø As some mass is converted into B.E.,
NA 2 1 1 1
= = ´ = therefore, mass of a particle is slightly less
NB æ 1 ö 2 2 2 4 than the sum of the masses of 2 p and 2 n.
çè ÷ø
2 N æ 1ö
6400 /1600
æ 1ö 1
4
96. (d) =ç ÷ =ç ÷ =
dN N0 è 2 ø è 2ø 16
89. (c) = KN
dt
97. (b) 6 C12 + 0 n1 ® 6 C13 ® 7 N13 + -1b 0 + Energy
9750 = KN0 ............. (1)
975 = KN ............. (2) t 6400
Dividing (1) by (2) 98. (d) No. of half lives, n = = =8
T 800
N 1 8
= N æ 1ö 1
N0 10 =ç ÷ =
N0 è 2 ø 256
2.303 N 2.303 99. (a) From eqn. (ii), B has 2 units of charge more
K= log 0 = log10
t N 5 than C.
= 0.4606 = 0.461 per minute From eqn. (i), A loses 2 units of charge by
90. (c) 0 n1 ¾¾ ® 1 p1 + -1e0 + X emission of alpha particle. Hence,
A and C are isotopes as their charge numbers
X must have zero charge and almost zero mass as are same.
electron is emitted. Hence X must be anti-neutrino. 100. (c) Curie is a unit of radioactivity.
91. (a) The penetrating power of radiation is 101. (d) In two half lives, the activity becomes one
directly proportional to the energy of its photon. fourth.
hc 1 Activity on 1–8–91 was 2 micro–curie
Energy of a photon = µ
l l \ Activity before two months,
\ Penetrating power µ 1 4 × 2 micro-curie = 8 micro curie
l Activity of substance decreases as number of
l is minimum for g-rays, so penetrating power is undecayed nuclei decreases with time.
maximum of g-rays.
1
92. (d) 200
X 90 ¾¾
®
168
Y80 . We know that Also, Activity µ
Half life
200
X 90 ¾¾ ® n2 He 4 + m-1b0 +168 Y80 . 102. (d) Two successive b decay increases the
Therefore, in this process, atomic number by 2. Therefore, (d) is correct.
EBD_8335
338 PHYSICS
28 Semiconductor
Electronics :
Materials, Devices
and Simple Circuits
2020 2019 2018 2017 2016

Depletion region in a p-n 1 E
Solids, Semiconductors Junction
and P-N Junction Diode P-type semiconductor,
p-n Junction diode 1 E 1 A 1 E 1 E
Structure of Transistor 1 E
Junction Transistor Current amplification
factor, base & Collector 1 A 1 A 1 A
current, Voltage and
power gain
Digital Electronics and Logic Logic gates and its 1 A 1 A 1 A 1 A
Gates combination
Boolean operation 1 A
Topic 1: Solids, Semiconductors and P-N wavelength of the light emitted will be equal to
Junction Diode [NEET Odisha 2019]
(a) 654 × 10–11 m (b) 10.4 × 10–26 m
1. The increase in the width of the depletion region
(c) 654 nm (d) 654 Å
in a p-n junction diode is due to : [2020]
4. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
(a) reverse bias only
due to heating [2018]
(b) both forward bias and reverse bias
(a) Affects only reverse resistance
(c) increase in forward current
(b) Affects only forward resistance
(d) forward bias only
(c) Affects the overall V-I characteristics of
2. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
p-n junction
following statements is true ? [2019]
(d) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(a) Electrons are the majority carriers and
5. Which one of the following represents forward
trivalent atoms are the dopants.
bias diode ? [2017, 2006, 2000]
(b) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent
R
atoms are the dopants. (a) –4V –3V
(c) Holes ar e the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are the dopants. –2V R +2V
(b)
(d) Electrons are the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are the dopants. 3V R 5V
(c)
3. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction diode
using GaAsP. The energy gap is 1.9 eV. The 0V R –2V
(d)
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 339
6. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value (b) It is a for a solar cell and point A and B
of current flowing through AB is : [2016] represent open circuit voltage and current,
A 1kW B respectively.
(c) It is for a photodiode and points A and B
+4V –6V represent open circuit voltage and current,
(a) 0 A (b) 10–2 A respectively.
(c) 10–1 A (d) 10–3 A (d) It is for a LED and points A and B represent
7. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V open circuit voltage and short circuit
is applied as shown, then the output across RL current, respectively.
will be [2015] 10. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends
+5V on: [2014]
RL
(A) type of semi conductor material
(B) amount of doping
–5V (C) temperature
10V Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) (b) (a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B) only
(c) (B) and (C) only (d) (A), (B) and (C)
–5V
11. In a n-type semiconductor, which of the
5V following statement is true? [2013]
(c) (d) (a) Electrons are minority carriers and
–10V pentavalent atoms are dopants.
8. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an (b) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent
external resistance R = 100 W and an e.m.f. of 3.5 atoms are dopants.
V. If the barrier potential developed across the (c) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent
diode is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be: atoms are dopants.
[2015 RS] (d) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent
D
atoms are dopants.
R = 100W
12. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from
the p-region to n-region because of
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) the potential difference across the p-n
junction
(b) the attraction of free electrons of n-region
3.5V (c) the higher hole concentration in p-region
(a) 40 mA (b) 20 mA than that in n-region
(c) 35 mA (d) 30 mA (d) the higher concentration of electrons in the
9. The given graph represents V - I characteristic n-region than that in the p-region
for a semiconductor device. 13. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as
shown in the circuit. The current supplied by
I the battery is : [2012]
A
D1 10W
V A B
B D2 20W
C D
Which of the following statement is correct ?
[2014] 5V
E F
(a) It is V - I characteristic for solar cell where,
point A represents open circuit voltage and (a) 0.75 A (b) zero
point B short circuit current. (c) 0.25 A (d) 0.5 A
EBD_8335
340 PHYSICS
14. C and Si both have same lattice structure, having R
4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is (C) –12V
insulator whereas Si is intrinsic semiconductor.
This is because : [2012] R
(a) In case of C the valence band is not
–5V
completely filled at absolute zero
temperature.
(b) In case of C the conduction band is partly (D)
filled even at absolute zero temperature. R
(c) The four bonding electrons in the case of
C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the +5V
case of Si they lie in the third. (a) (C) only (b) (C) and (A)
(d) The four bonding electrons in the case of (c) (B) and (D) (d) (A), (B) and (D)
C lie in the third orbit, whereas for Si they 18. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of
lie in the fourth orbit. electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of
15. In forward biasing of the p–n junction [2011] 1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases n h
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is
connected to p–side and the depletion of [2011M]
region becomes thick (a) n–type with electron concentration
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is ne = 5 × 1022 m–3
connected to n–side and the depletion (b) p–type with electron concentration
region becomes thin ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is (c) n–type with electron concentration
connected to n–side and the depletion ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
region becomes thick (d) p–type having electron concentration
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is ne = 5 × 109 m–3
connected to p–side and the depletion 19. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal
region becomes thin to 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
16. If a small amount of antimony is added to shown in figure. The current through the diode
germanium crystal [2011] is [2011M]
(a) it becomes a p–type semiconductor
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes 250W
in the semiconductor 20V 15V 1kW
(d) its resistance is increased
17. In the following figure, the diodes which are
forward biased, are [2011M, 2004] (a) 10 mA (b) 15 mA
+10V (c) 20 mA (d) 5 mA
20. Which one of the following statement is
R FALSE ? [2010]
(A) (a) Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives
+5V a p-type semiconductor
(b) Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor
R
are holes
(B) –10V (c) Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor
are electrons
(d) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor
decreases with increase of temperature
21. Which one of the following bonds produces a 27. Choose the only false statement from the
solid that reflects light in the visible region and following [2005]
whose electrical conductivity decreases with (a) In conductors, the valence and conduction
temperature and has high melting point?[2010] bands may overlap
(a) metallic bonding (b) Substances with energy gap of the order
(b) van der Waal's bonding of 10 eV are insulators
(c) ionic bonding (c) The resistivity of a semiconductor
(d) covalent bonding increases with increase in temperature
22. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a (d) The conductivity of a semiconductor
semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can increases with increase in temperature
28. Carbon, silicon and germanium atoms have four
detect a signal of wavelength [2009]
valence electrons each. Their valence and
(a) 4000 nm (b) 6000 nm
conduction bands are separated by energy band
(c) 4000 Å (d) 6000 Å gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge
23. Sodium has body centred packing. Distance respectively. Which one of the following
between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattice relationships is true in their case? [2005]
parameter is [2009] (a) (Eg)si > (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C
(a) 4.3Å (b) 3.0 Å
(b) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si
(c) 8.6 Å (d) 6.8 Å
24. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a (c) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si
band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of (d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge
the radiation that can be absorbed by the material 29. Application of a forward bias to a p–n junction
is nearly [2008] (a) widens the depletion zone [2005]
(a) 10 × 1014 Hz (b) 5 ×1014 Hz (b) increases the potential difference across
(c) 1 × 1014 Hz (d) 20 × 1014 Hz the depletion zone
25. For a cubic crystal structure which one of the (c) increases the number of donors on the n side
following relations indicating the cell (d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone
characteristics is correct? [2007] 30. Zener diode is used for [2005]
(a) a ¹ b ¹ c and a = b = g = 90° (a) amplification
(b) a = b = c and a ¹ b ¹ g = 90° (b) rectification
(c) a = b = c and a = b = g = 90° (c) stabilisation
(d) a ¹ b ¹ c and a ¹ b and g ¹ 90° (d) producing oscillations in an oscillator
26. In the energy band diagram of a material shown 31. In semiconductors, at room temperature [2004]
below, the open circles and filled circles denote (a) the conduction band is completely empty
holes and electrons respectively. The material is (b) the valence band is partially empty and
the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled and
Ec the conduction band is partially filled
(d) the valence band is completely filled
32. The peak voltage in the output of a half-wave
Eg diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal
without filter is 10V. The d.c. component of the
output voltage is [2004]
(a) 20/p V (b) 10/Ö2 V
(c) 10/p V (d) 10V
Ev
33. In a p-n junction photocell, the value of the
photo-electromotive for ce produced by
(a) an insulator [2007] monochromatic light is proportional to [2004]
(a) the voltage applied at the p-n junction
(b) a metal
(b) the barrier voltage at the p-n junction
(c) an n-type semiconductor
(c) the intensity of the light falling on the cell
(d) a p-type semiconductor (d) the frequency of the light falling on the cell
EBD_8335
342 PHYSICS
34. If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 42. A depletion layer consists of [1999]
50Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the (a) electrons (b) protons
ripple will be [2003] (c) mobile ions (d) immobile ions
(a) 100 Hz (b) 25 Hz 43. Which of the following when added acts as an
(c) 50 Hz (d) 70.7 Hz impurity into silicon produced n-type semi-
35. Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does conductor? [1999]
not depend on [2003] (a) P (b) Al
(a) doping density (b) diode design (c) B (d) Mg
(c) temperature (d) forward bias 44. In a junction diode, the holes are due to [1999]
36. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode [2003] (a) protons (b) extra electrons
(c) neutrons (d) missing electrons
(a) increases the minority carrier current
45. A semi-conducting device is connected in a
(b) lowers the potential barrier
series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A
(c) raises the potential barrier current is found to pass through the circuit. If
(d) increases the majority carrier current the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current
37. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series drops to almost zero. The device may be
combination of a resistor R and an ideal diode (a) a p-n junction [1998]
D as shown in the figure below. The potential (b) an intrinsic semi-conductor
difference across R will be [2002] (c) a p-type semi-conductor
R D (d) an n-type semi-conductor
46. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode
is [1998]
(a) depletion of positive charges near the
junction
(b) concentration of positive charges near the
junction
V (c) depletion of negative charges near the
(a) 2V when diode is forward biased junction
(b) Zero when diode is forward biased (d) concentration of positive and negative
(c) V when diode is reverse biased charges near the junction
(d) V when diode is forward biased 47. To obtain a p-type germanium semiconductor,
38. In a p-n junction [2002] it must be doped with [1997]
(a) The potential of the p and n-sides becomes (a) arsenic (b) antimony
higher alternately (c) indium (d) phosphorus
(b) The p-side is at higher electrical potential 48. When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon,
than the n side the resulting material is [1996]
(c) The n-side is at higher electrical potential (a) n-type semiconductor
than the p-side (b) p-type semiconductor
(d) Both the p and n-sides are at the same (c) n-type conductor
potential (d) insulator
39. The intrinsic semiconductor becomes an 49. Which of the following, when added as an
insulator at [2001] impurity, into the silicon, produces n-type semi-
(a) 0ºC (b) 0 K conductor? [1995]
(c) 300 K (d) –100ºC (a) Phosphorous (b) Aluminium
40. An alternating current can be converted into (c) Magnesium (d) Both b and c
direct current by a [2001] 50. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased the
(a) transformer (b) dynamo flow of current across the junction is mainly due
(c) motor (d) rectifier to [1994]
41. In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in (a) diffusion of charges
a p-n junction diode [1999] (b) drift of charges
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) depends on the nature of material
(c) remains constant (d) first ‘1’ then ‘2’ (d) both drift and diffusion of charges
51. In the diagram, the input is across the terminals 58. p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when
A and C and the output is across B and D. Then [1988]
the output is [1994] (a) the positive pole of the battery is joined to
B the p-semiconductor and negative pole to
the n-semiconductor
(b) the positive pole of the battery is joined to
the n-semiconductor and p-semiconductor
A C joined to negative pole of the battery
(c) the positive pole of the battery is connected
to n- semiconductor and p-semiconductor
D is connected to the positive pole of the
(a) zero (b) same as the input battery
(c) full wave rectifier (d) half wave rectifier (d) a mechanical force is applied in the forward
52. A piece of copper and other of germanium are direction
cooled from the room temperature to 80 K, then 59. At absolute zero, Si acts as [1988]
(a) resistance of each will increase [1993] (a) non-metal (b) metal
(c) insulator (d) none of these
(b) resistance of copper will decrease
(c) resistance of copper will increase while that Topic 2: Junction Transistor
of germanium will decrease
60. For transistor action, which of the following
(d) resistance of copper will decrease while that
statements is correct? [2020]
of germanium will increase
(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should
53. Diamond is very hard because [1993]
have same size.
(a) it is a covalent solid (b) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
(b) it has large cohesive energy junction are forward biased.
(c) high melting point
(c) The base region must be very thin and
(d) insoluble in all solvents
lightly doped.
54. Which one of the following is the weakest kind
(d) Base, emitter and collector regions should
of bonding in solids [1992]
(a) ionic (b) metallic have same doping concentrations.
(c) Vander Waal’s (d) covalent 61. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
55. For an electronic valve, the plate current I and voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
plate voltage V in the space charge limited region values of IB, IC and b are given by [2018]
are related as [1992] 20 V
(a) I is proportional to V3/2
(b) I is proportional to V2/3 Rc 4 kW
(c) I is proportional to V C
(d) I is proportional to V2 RB
Vi
56. The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is 500 kW B
caused by [1991] E
(a) drift of holes
(b) diffusion of charge carriers
(c) migration of impurity ions
(d) drift of electrons (a) IB = 40 mA, IC = 10 mA, b = 250
57. When n-type semiconductor is heated [1989] (b) IB = 25 mA, IC = 5 mA, b = 200
(a) number of electrons increases while that (c) IB = 40 mA, IC = 5 mA, b = 125
of holes decreases (d) IB = 20 mA, IC = 5 mA, b = 250
(b) number of holes increases while that of 62. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio
electrons decreases signal voltage across the collector is 3V. The
(c) number of electrons and holes remain same resistance of collector is 3 kW. If current gain is
(d) number of electrons and holes increases 100 and the base resistance is 2 kW, the voltage
equally. and power gain of the amplifier is [2017]
EBD_8335
344 PHYSICS
(a) 15 and 200 (b) 150 and 15000 67. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal
(c) 20 and 2000 (d) 200 and 1000 voltage across the collector resistance of 2kW
63. A npn transistor is connected in common emitter is 2V. If the base resistance is 1kW and the
configuration in a given amplifier. A load current amplification of the transistor is 100, the
resistance of 800 W is connected in the collector input signal voltage is : [2012]
circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If (a) 0.1 V (b) 1.0 V
the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the (c) 1 mV (d) 10 mV
input resistance of the circuit is 192W, the 68. Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0) vs
voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier input voltage (V1)] for a base biased transistor in
will respectively be : [2016] CE configuration is as shown in the figure. For
(a) 4, 3.84 (b) 3.69, 3.84
using transistor as a switch, it is used : [2012]
(c) 4, 4 (d) 4, 3.69
64. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having V0 I II
III
æ pö
a voltage gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos çè15t + ÷ø .
3
The corresponding output signal will be :
[2015 RS] Vi
(a) in region III
2p
(a) 75cos æç15t + ö÷ (b) both in region (I) and (III)
è 3ø (c) in region II
æ 5p ö (d) in region (I)
(b) 2cos ç15t + ÷ 69. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is
è 6ø
100 W. Base current is changed by 40 mA which
æ 4p ö results in a change in collector current by 2 mA.
(c) 300cos ç15t + ÷
è 3ø This transistor is used as a common emitter
æ pö amplifier with a load resistance of 4 KW. The
(d) 300cos ç15t + ÷ voltage gain of the amplifier is : [2012M]
è 3ø
(a) 2000 (b) 3000
65. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a (c) 4000 (d) 1000
voltage gain G, the transistor used has 70. A transistor is operated in common emitter
transconductance 0.03 mho and current gain 25. configuration at VC = 2V such that a change in
If the above transistor is replaced with another the base current from 100 mA to 300 mA produces
one with transconductance 0.02 mho and current a change in the collector current from 10mA to
gain 20, the voltage gain will be 2013] 20 mA. The current gain is [2011]
1 (a) 50 (b) 75
(a) 1.5 G (b) G (c) 100 (d) 25
3
71. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain
5 2
(c) G (d) G of 50, an input impedance of 100W and an
4 3
output impedance of 200 W. The power gain of
66. One way in which the operation of a n-p-n
the amplifier is [2010, 2007]
transistor differs from that of a p-n-p
[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) 500 (b) 1000
(a) the emitter junction is reversed biased in (c) 1250 (d) 50
n-p-n 72. For transistor action : [2010]
(b) the emitter junction injects minority carriers (1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
into the base region of the p-n-p have similar size and doping concentrations.
(c) the emitter injects holes into the base of (2) The base region must be very thin and
the p-n-p and electrons into the base region lightly doped.
of n-p-n (3) The emitter-base junction is forward
(d) the emitter injects holes into the base of biased and base-collector junction is
n-p-n reverse based.
(4) Both the emitter-base junction as well as (1 + a ) (1 - a )

the base-collector junction are forward (a) b= (b) b =
a a
biased. a a
(a) (3), (4) (b) (4), (1) (c) b = (d) b =
(c) (1), (2) (d) (2), (3) (1 - a ) (1 + a )
73. A transistor is operated in common-emitter 80. The transfer ratio b of a transistor is 50. The
configuration at Vc = 2 V such that a change in input resistance of the transistor when used in
the base current from 100 mA to 200 mA the common emitter configuration is 1 kW. The
produces a change in the collector current from peak value of the collector A.C. current for an
5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is [2009] A.C. input voltage of 0.01 V peak is [1998]
(a) 100 (b) 150 (a) 100 mA (b) 0.01 mA
(c) 50 (d) 75 (c) 0.25 mA (d) 500 mA
74. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% 81. The current gain for a transistor working as
negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain common-base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter
without feedback will be [2008] current is 7.2 mA, then the base current is
(a) 90 (b) 10 (a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA [1996]
(c) 1.25 (d) 100 (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA
75. A transistor is operated in common emitter 82. When an n–p–n transistor is used as an
configuration at constant collector voltage Vc = amplifier then [1996]
1.5V such that a change in the base current from (a) the electrons flow from emitter to collector
100 µA to 150 µA produces a change in the (b) the holes flow from emitter to collector
collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current (c) the electrons flow from collector to emitter
gain (b) is [2006] (d) the electrons flow from battery to emitter
(a) 75 (b) 100 83. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifer with
(c) 50 (d) 67 [1994]
76. An n-p-n transistor conducts when [2003] (a) positive feedback (b) negative feedback
(a) both collector and emitter are negative with (c) large gain (d) no feedback
respect to the base 84. The part of the transistor which is heavily doped
(b) both collector and emitter are positive with to produce large number of majority carriers is
respect to the base (a) emitter [1993]
(c) collector is positive and emitter is negative (b) base
with respect to the base (c) collector
(d) collector is positive and emitter is at same (d) any of the above depending upon the
potential as the base nature of transistor
77. In the case of a common emitter transistor 85. For amplification by a triode, the signal to be
amplified is given to [1992]
amplifier, the ratio of the collector current to the
(a) the cathode (b) the grid
emitter current Ic /Ie is 0.96. The current gain of
(c) the glass-envelope (d) the anode
the amplifier is [2002]
86. To use a transistor as an amplifier [1991]
(a) 6 (b) 48 (a) the emitter base junction is forward biased
(c) 24 (d) 12 and the base collector junction is reverse
78. For a common emitter circuit if I C = 0.98 then biased
IE (b) no bias voltage is required
current gain for common emitter circuit will be (c) both junctions are forward biased
(a) 49 (b) 98 [2001] (d) both junctions are reverse biased.
(c) 4.9 (d) 25.5 87. In a common base amplifier the phase difference
79. In the study of transistor as amplifier, if between the input signal voltage and the output
I I voltage is [1990]
a = C and b = C , where, IC, IB and IE are p
IE IB (a) 0 (b)
the collector, base and emitter currents, then 4
p
[2000] (c) (d) p
2
EBD_8335
346 PHYSICS
88. Radiowaves of constant amplitude can be 91. The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to
generated with [1989] the logic gate, [NEET Odisha 2019]
(a) FET (b) filter
+ 6V
(c) rectifier (d) oscillator
R
Topic 3: Digital Electronics and Logic Gates A 0
1
89. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:
B 0
[2020] 1
A LED(Y)
Y
R
B
(a) A B Y (a) NAND (b) NOR
(c) AND (d) OR
0 0 0
92. In the combination of the following gates the
0 1 1 output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and
1 0 1 B as [2018]
1 1 1 A
(b) A B Y B
Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
(a) A×B (b) A×B+ A×B
1 1 0
(c) A + B (d) A × B + A × B
(c) A B Y 93. The given electrical network is equivalent to :
0 0 1 [2017, 2006, 2000]
0 1 0 A Y
1 0 0 B
1 1 0 (a) OR gate (b) NOR gate
(d) A B Y (c) NOT gate (d) AND gate
94. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the
0 0 0 correct choice for the input is
0 1 0 [2016, 2012, 2010]
1 0 0 A
1 1 1 B
C Y
90. (a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(c) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
95. Which logic gate is represented by the following
combination of logic gate ? [2015]
Y1
The correct Boolean operation represented by A
the circuit diagram drawn is : [2019] Y
(a) AND (b) OR
(c) NAND (d) NOR B
Y2
(a) NAND (b) AND 100. The device that can act as a complete electronic
(c) NOR (d) OR circuit is [2010]
96. The output from a NAND gate is divided into (a) junction diode (b) integrated circuit
two in parallel and fed to another NAND gate. (c) junction transistor (d) zener diode
The resulting gate is a [NEET Kar. 2013] 101. The following Figure shows a logic gate circuit
with two inputs A and B and the output Y. The
A voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are given :
C¢
C A Logic gate
circuit Y
B B
(a) NOT gate (b) AND gate

(c) NOR gate (d) OR gate 1
A
97. The output(X) of the logic circuit shown in 0
figure will be [2013]
B 1
(a) X = A.B (b) X = A.B 1
(c) X = A + B (d) X = A + B Y 0
98. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs
A and B and the output C. The voltage wave t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
forms across A, B and C are as given. The logic The logic gate is : [2010]
circuit gate is : [2012] (a) NAND gate (b) NOR gate
(c) OR gate (d) AND gate
102. The circuit [2008]
NOR NAND NOT
A
B is equivalent to
(a) AND gate (b) NAND gate
(c) NOR gate (d) OR gate
C 103. In the following circuit, the output Y for all
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth
(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate table [2007]
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate A
99. Symbolic representation of four logic gate are A
shown as [2011, 2009] Y
B
B
(i) (ii) (a) A B Y (b) A B Y
011 001
011 010
101 100
(iii) (iv) 110 110
(c) A B Y (d) A B Y
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and
000 000
NOT gates, respectively
011 010
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iii), (ii) and (i)
101 100
(c) (iii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
111 111
EBD_8335
348 PHYSICS
104. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit (a) AND (b) NOR
with two inputs A and B and the output C. The (c) OR (d) NAND
voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown 109. The following circuit represents [1999]
below
A A
Logic gate
circuit C
B Y
1 B
A t (a) OR gate (b) XOR gate

1 (c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
110. Which of the following gates will have an output
B t of 1? [1998]
1 1 0
1 1
C t
(A) (B)
The logic circuit gate is [2006] 0 0
(a) NAND gate (b) NOR gate
(c) OR gate (d) AND gate 1 0
105. The output of OR gate is 1 [2004] (C) (D)
(a) if either input is zero
(a) D (b) A
(b) if both inputs are zero
(c) if either or both inputs are 1 (c) B (d) C
(d) only if both inputs are 1 111. The following truth table belongs to which of
106. Following diagram performs the logic function the following four gates? [1997]
of [2003]
A B Y
A 1 1 0
Y
B 1 0 0
0 1 0
(a) XOR gate (b) AND gate
0 0 1
(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
107. Which gate is represented by the following truth (a) NOR (b) XOR
table ? [2001, 1998, 1994] (c) NAND (d) OR
A B Y
112. The following truth table corresponds to the
0 0 1
logic gate [1991]
1 0 1
0 1 1 A B X
1 1 0 0 0 0
(a) XOR (b) NOT 0 1 1
(c) NAND (d) AND 1 0 1
108. A gate has the following truth table
1 1 1
P Q R
1 1 1 (a) NAND (b) OR
1 0 0 (c) AND (d) XOR
0 1 0
0 0 0
The gate is [2000]
ANSWER KEY
1 (a) 13 (d) 25 (c) 37 (d) 49 (a) 61 (c) 73 (c) 85 (b) 97 (b) 109 (b)
2 (b) 14 (c) 26 (d) 38 (b) 50 (b) 62 (b) 74 (d) 86 (a) 98 (a) 110 (d)
3 (c) 15 (d) 27 (c) 39 (a) 51 (c) 63 (a) 75 (b) 87 (a) 99 (d) 111 (a)
4 (c) 16 (c) 28 (a) 40 (d) 52 (d) 64 (c) 76 (c) 88 (d) 100 (b) 112 (b)
5 (d) 17 (b) 29 (c) 41 (b) 53 (b) 65 (d) 77 (c) 89 (d) 101 (a)
6 (b) 18 (d) 30 (c) 42 (d) 54 (c) 66 (c) 78 (a) 90 (c) 102 (c)
7 (c) 19 (d) 31 (c) 43 (a) 55 (a) 67 (d) 79 (c) 91 (d) 103 (c)
8 (d) 20 (b) 32 (c) 44 (d) 56 (b) 68 (b) 80 (d) 92 (b) 104 (d)
9 (a) 21 (a) 33 (c) 45 (a) 57 (d) 69 (a) 81 (a) 93 (b) 105 (c)
10 (d) 22 (c) 34 (a) 46 (d) 58 (a) 70 (a) 82 (a) 94 (d) 106 (b)
11 (b) 23 (a) 35 (b) 47 (c) 59 (c) 71 (c) 83 (a) 95 (b) 107 (c)
12 (c) 24 (b) 36 (c) 48 (a) 60 (c) 72 (d) 84 (a) 96 (b) 108 (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Due to reverse biasing, the width of the 5V
depletion region increases in a p-n junction
diode.
2. (b) In p-type semiconductor, trivalent impurities
are added to intrinsic semiconductor, which During –ve half cycle Diode ® reverse biased
creates holes which are majority charge carriers. output will not obtained.
12400 12400 V (3.5 - 0.5)
3. (c) l = Å= = 6526Å ~ 654 nm 8. (d) Current I = = A
Eg 1.9 R 100
[Q Barrier potential VB = 0.5V]
4. (c) On heating, number of electron-hole pairs
increases, so overall resistance of diode will 3
= = 30mA
change. 100
Hence forward biasing and reversed biasing On an average the potential barrier in P-N junction
both are changed. is n 0.5 V and the width of depletion region 10–6 m
V V2 V 0.5
5. (d) 1 Barrier electric field, E = = = 5 ´ 105 V/m
d 10 - 6
In forward bias, V1 > V2 i.e., in figure (d) p-side 9. (a) The given graph represents V-I
is at higher potential w.r.t. n-side of p-n junction characteristics of solar cell.
diode. 10. (d) The barrier potential of a p-n junction
6. (b) Since Diode is in forward bias, so the value depends on amount of doping, type of
of current flowing through AB semiconductor material and temperature.
DV 4 - ( -6 ) 10 11. (b) In a n-type semiconductor holes are
i= = = 3 = 10–2A minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are
R 1´103 10 dopants.
7. (c) Here P-N junction diode rectifies half of 12. (c) In p-region of p-n junction
the ac wave i.e., acts as half wave rectifier. During holes concentration > electrons concentration and
+ ve half cycle in n-region of p-n junction.
Diode ® forward biased output across will be electrons concentration > holes concentration.
EBD_8335
350 PHYSICS
13. (d) Here D1 is in forward bias and D2 is in (20 - 15)V 5V
reverse bias so, D1 will conduct and D2 will not (i)250W = =
conduct. Thus, no current will flow through DC. 250W 250W
V 5 1 20
I= = = Amp. = A = 20 mA
R 10 2 1000
14. (c) Electronic configuration of 6C
6C = 1s2, 2s2 2p2 \ (i) zener diode = (20 - 15) = 5mA.
The electronic configuration of 14Si 20. (b) Majority carriers in an n-type
14Si = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2 semiconductor are electrons.
As they are away from Nucleus, so effect of The current due to minority carriers in the junction
nucleus is low for Si even for Sn and Pb are diode is independent of the applied voltage. It only
almost metalic. depends upon the temperature of the diode.
15. (d) In forward biasing of the p-n junction, the 21. (a) For a metal, conductivity decreases with
positive terminal of the battery is connected to
increase in temperature.
p-side and the negative terminal of the battery
is connected to n-side. The depletion region Also, metal has high melting point.
becomes thin. hc
22. (c) l max =
An ideal junction diode when forward biased offers E
zero resistance. Voltage drop across such a junction 6.6 ´ 10 –34 ´ 3 ´ 108
diode is zero. In reverse bias diode offers infinite = ; 5000 Å
resistance and voltage drop across it is equal to 2.5 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 –19
voltage applied. Th e wavelength detected by photodiode
16. (c) When small amount of antimony should be less than l max . Hence it can detect a
(pentavalent) is added to germanium crystal signal of wavelength 4000Å.
then crystal becomes n-type semi conductor.
Therefore, there will be more free electrons than 3
23. (a) d = a
holes in the semiconductor. 2
17. (b) Only in (A) and (C) diodes are forward 3
biased as p-type should be at higher potential 3.7 = a
2
and n-type at lower potential.
2 ´ 3.7
18. (d) ni2 = nenh a= = 4.3Å
(1.5 × 1016)2 = ne (4.5 × 1022) 3
Þ ne = 0.5 × 1010 24. (b) Eg = 2.0 eV = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
or ne = 5 × 109 Eg = hv
Given nh = 4.5 × 1022 Eg 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 J
Þ nh >> ne \ v= =
\ Semiconductor is p-type and h 6.62 ´ 10-34 Js
ne = 5 × 109 m–3. = 0. 4833 × 1015 s–1 = 4.833 × 1014 Hz ; 5 ´ 1014 Hz
19. (d) Voltage across zener diode is constant. 25. (c) For a cubic crystal,
250W i i1kW a = b = c and a = b = g = 90°
26. (d) For a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor
5V i–i1kW energy level, as shown in the diagram, is slightly
20v 1kW above the top Ev of the valence band. With very
15V small supply of energy an electron from the
15V valence band can jump to the level EA and ionise
acceptor negatively.
Current in 1kW resistor,
In p–type semiconductor-acceptor energy level
15volt lies just above the valence band. And in N-type
(i)1kW = = 15 mA semiconductor-donor energy level lies just below
1kW
Current in 250W resistor, the conduction band.
27. (c) (a) is true as in case of conductors either 33. (c) Electromotive force depends upon
the conduction & valence band overlap or intensity of light falling, it does not depend on
conduction band is partially filled. frequency of barrier voltage.
(b) is true as insulators have energy gap of the 34. (a) In case of full wave rectifier,
order of 5 to 10 eV. Fundamental frequency = 2 × mains frequency
(c) is false as resistivity (opposite of = 2 × 50 = 100Hz.
conductivity) decreases with increase in 35. (b) Barrier potential does not depend on diode
temperature. design. Barrier potential depends upon
(d) is true as with increase in temperature more temperature, doping density, and forward
and more electrons jump to the conduction band. biasing.
So, conductivity increases. Potential barrier is the potential difference created
28. (a) Due to strong electronegativity of carbon. across the P-N junction due to the diffusion of
29. (c) electrons and holes.
36. (c) In reverse biasing, the conduction across
the p-n junction does not take place due to
majority carriers but takes place due to minority
carriers if the voltage of external battery is large.
The size of the depletion region increases
thereby increasing the potential barrier.
37. (d) In forward biasing, the diode conducts. For
ideal junction diode, the forward resistance is
zero; therefore, entire applied voltage occurs
across external resistance R i.e., there occurs no
potential drop, so potential across R is V in
forward biased.
38. (b) For conduction, p-n junction must be
forward biased. For conduction p-side should
be connected to higher potential and n-side to
lower potential.
39. (a) At 0K, motion of free electrons stop. Hence
conductivity becomes zero. Therefore, at 0K
Number of donors is more because electrons intrinsic semiconductor becomes insulator.
from –ve terminal of the cell pushes (enters) 40. (d)
the n side and decreases the number of 41. (b) We know that in forward bias of p-n
uncompensated pentavalent ion due to which junction diode, when positive terminal is
potential barrier is reduced. The neutralised connected to p-type diode, the repulsion of
pentavalent atom are again in position to holes takes place which decreases the width of
donate electrons. potential barrier by striking the combination of
30. (c) At a certain reverse bias voltage, zener holes and electrons.
diode allows current to flow through it and hence 42. (d) Depletion layer is formed by diffusion of
maintains the voltage supplied to any load. It is holes and electrons from p-type semiconductor
used for stabilisation. to n-type semiconductor and vice-versa. Hence,
31. (c) In semiconductors, the conduction band donor and acceptor atom get positive and
is empty and the valence band is completely negative charge leading to formation of p-n
filled at 0 K. No electron from valence band can junction. The donor and acceptor are immobile.
cross over to conduction band at 0K. At room 43. (a) n-type of silicon semiconductor is formed
temperature some electrons in the valence band when impurity is mixed with pentavalent atom.
jump over to the conduction band due to the Out of given choices only phosphorus is
small forbidden gap, i.e. 1 eV. pentavalent.
44. (d) Holes are produced due to missing of
V0 10 electrons.
32. (c) V= = V
p p
EBD_8335
352 PHYSICS
45. (a) In reverse bias, the current through a p-n 58. (a) For forward biasing of p-n junction, the
junction is almost zero. positive terminal of external battery is to be
46. (d) During the formation of a junction diode, connected to p-semiconductor and negative
holes from p-region diffuse into n-region and terminal of battery to the n-semiconductor.
electrons from n-region diffuse into p-region. In 59. (c) Semiconductors are insulators at room
both cases, when an electron meets a hole, they temperature.
cancel the effect of each other and as a result, a At absolute zero temperature (OK) conduction
thin layer at the junction becomes free from any band of semiconductor is completely empty i.e.,
of charge carriers. This is called depletion layer. s = 0. So semiconductor behaves as an insulator.
There is a potential gradient in the depletion
layer, negative on the p-side and positive on the 60. (c) In a transistor, emitter is heavily doped, the
n-side. The potential difference thus developed base region is lightly doped and thin. The size of
across the junction is called potential barrier. collector region is larger than other two regions.
47. (c) p-type germanium semiconductor is formed E B C
when it is doped with a trivalent impurity atom.
Doping is the process of addition of impurity.
When pure or intrinsie semiconductor is mixed
with small amounts of certain specific impurities Length profile in transistor is LC > LE > LB
with valency different from that of the parent and doping profile in transistor is E > C > B.
material the number of mobile electrons/holes
For transistor action Base-emitter junction is
transtically changes. forward biased and Base-collector junction is
48. (a) Arsenic contains 5 electrons in its reversed biased.
outermost shell. When Arsenic is mixed with 61. (c) From question, VBE = = 0, Vi = 20 V
silicon there is one electron extra in silicon VCE = 0
crystal. Hence, such type of semi conductor is Vb = 0 (earthed)
n-type semi conductor. IB = ?, IC = ?, b = ?
49. (a) Phosphorous (P) is pentavalent and silicon 20 V
is tetravalent. Therefore, when silicon is doped
with pentavalent impurity, it forms a n-type IC RC = 4 k W
semiconductor.
50. (b) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the RB
flow of current is due to drifting of minority Vi Vb
Ib 500 kW
charge carriers across the junction.
51. (c) The given circuit is a circuit of full wave rectifier.
52. (d) Copper is a conductor, so, its resistance
decreases on decreasing temperature as thermal
(20 – 0)
agitation decreases whereas germanium is IC = = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
semiconductor, therefore, on decreasing 4 ´ 103
temperature resistance increases. Vi = VBE + IBRB or, Vi = 0 + IBRB
53. (b) Diamond is very hard due to large cohesive Þ 20 = IB × 500 × 103
energy.
54. (c) Vander Waal’s bonding is the weakest 20
Þ IB = = 40 mA
bonding in solids. 500 ´ 103
55. (a) According to Child’s Law, IC 25 ´ 10 –3
Ia = KVa3/2 b= = = 125
Ib 40 ´ 10–6
Thus, I µ V 3 / 2 62. (b) Given, current gain b = 100, Rc = 3kW, Rb
56. (b) The depletion layer in the p-n junction = 2kW
region is caused by diffusion of charge carriers.
57. (d) Due to heating, when a free electron is Rc æ3ö
Voltage gain (Av) = b = 100 ç ÷ = 150
produced then simultaneously a hole is also Rb è2ø
produced. Power gain = Av b = 150 (100) = 15000
63. (a) Given: amplification factor a = 0.96 R out

load resistance, RL = 800 W G = 25 × 0.03 ...(ii)
25
input resistance, Ri = 192W
R out
a 0.96 \ G' = 20 × 0.02 ...(iii)
So, b = = Þ b = 24 20
1 - a 0.04 From eqs. (ii) and (iii)
Voltage gain for common emitter configuration 2
RL Voltage gain of new transistor G' = G
800 3
Av = b. R = 24 × = 100 66. (c) In p-n-p transistor holes are injected into
i 192
Power gain for common emitter configuration the base while electrons are injected into the
Pv = bAv = 24 × 100 = 2400 base of n-p-n transistor. Emitter-base junction
Voltage gain for common base configuration is forward biased.
67. (d) From the figure,
R 800 IC
Av = a, L = 0.96 × =4
RP 192
Power gain for common base configuration RC O/P = 2 Volt
Pv = Ava = 4 × 0.96 = 3.84
Input RB
Transistor provides good power amplification when
they are used in CE configuration. CC configuration
amplifier is a power amplifier or current booster.
64. (c) Given : Voltage gain AV = 150 The output voltage, across the load RC
p V 0 = IC R C = 2
Vi = 2cos æç 15t + ö÷ ; V0 = ? The collector current (IC)
è 3ø
For CE transistor phase difference between 2
IC = = 10 -3 Amp
input and output signal is p = 180° 2 ´ 103
V0 Current gain (b)
Using formula, AV = V I
i (b) current gain = C = 100
Þ V0 = AV × Vi IB
æ pö IC 10-3
= 150 × 2cos ç 15t + ÷ IB = = = 10 -5 Amp
è 3ø 100 100
Input voltage (Vi)
or V0 = 300 cos æç 15t + p + p ö÷
è 3 ø Vi = RB IB = 1 × 103 × 10–5 = 10–2 Volt
æ 4 ö Vi = 10 mV
V0 = 300 cos ç 15t + p ÷ 68. (b) I ® ON
è 3 ø III ® OFF
R In IInd state it is used as a amplifier it is active
65. (d) Voltage gain Av = b out
R in region.
R out Vout I out Rout
Þ G = 25 R ...(i) 69. (a) Voltage gain (AV) = V = I × R
in in in in
b 2 ´ 10 –3 4 ´ 103
Transconductance gm = AV = ´ = 2 × 100 = 2000
R in 40 ´ 10-6 100
b 25 In a common-emitter amplifier, the voltage signal
Þ Rin = = obtained across the collector and the emitter is 180°
gm 0.03
out of phase with the input voltage signal applied
Putting this value of Rin in eqn. (i) across the base and the emitter. This is indicated in
the equation for AV by its negative sign.
EBD_8335
354 PHYSICS
70. (a) The current gain But I e = I c + Ib = 0.96 I e + Ib
3
DIC 10mA 10 ´ 10 Þ Ib = 0.04 I e
b= = = = 50
DIB 200mA 200 I c 0.96 Ie
71. (c) Power gain = voltage gain × current gain \ Current gain, b = = = 24
Ib 0.04 I e
V I 78. (a) We have,
= VG × IG = 0 × 0
Vi I i a 0.98 0.98
b= = = = 49
V02 Ri 100 1 - a 1 - 0.98 0.02
= × = 50 ´ 50 ´ 79. (c) As we know that I e = I c + Ib
2 R 200
Vi 0
Divide both side by Ie
2500 Ie I 1 1
= = 1250 = 1+ b Þ = 1+
2 Ic Ic a b
72. (d) For transistor action, the base region a
must be very thin and lightly doped. Also, the b=
1- a
emitter-base junction is forward biased and
V 0.01
base-collector junction is reverse biased. 80. (d) ic = b × s = 50 ´ = 500 ´ 10 -6 A
73. (c) D IE = DIB + DIC Rin 1000
= 500 mA
DIC
b= 81. (a) Current gain (a) = 0.96
DI B Ie = 7.2 mA
DIC = (10 - 5)10 –3 Ic
= a = 0.96
= 5 ´ 10 –3 A Ie
DIB = (200 - 100)10 –6 I c = 0.96 ´ 7.2 mA = 6.91 mA
= 100 ´ 10 –6 A Ie = Ic + Ib
Þ Ib = Ie – Ic = 7.2 – 6.91 = 0.29 mA
5 ´ 10 –3 5
b= ´ 1000 = 50 82. (a) In an n-p-n transistor, the charge carriers,
–6 =
100
100 ´ 10 are free electrons in the transistor as well as in
74. (d) Negative feedback is applied to reduce the external circuit; these electrons flow from emitter
output voltage of an amplifier. If there is no to collector.
negative feedback, the value of output voltage 83. (a) A positive feed back from output to input
could be very high. In the options given, the in an amplifier provides oscillations of constant
maximum value of voltage gain is 100. Hence it amplitude.
is the correct option. Due to the presence of some in herent electrical
75. (b) DIb = +50µA, D Ic = 5 ´ 10 -3 A resistance amplitude of oscillation decreases. In
order to obtain oscillations of constant amplitude,
DI c 5 ´ 10-3 5 ´ 1000 an arrangement for positive feedback from the
b= = -
= = 100 output circuit to the input circuit so that the losses
DIb 50 ´ 10 6 50 in the circuit can be compensated.
76. (c) When the collector is positive and emitter 84. (a) The function of emitter is to supply the
is negative w.r.t. base, it causes the forward majority carriers. Emitter is heavily doped.
biasing for each junction, which causes
conduction of current. 85. (b) The amplifying action of a triode is based
on the fact that a small change in grid voltage
A transistor is mostly used in the active region of causes a large change in plate current. The AC
operation i.e., emitter base junction is forward input signal which is to be amplified is
biased and collector base junction is reverse biased. superimposed on the grid potential.
Ic 86. (a) To use a transistor as an amplifier the
77. (c) = 0.96 emitter base junction is forward biased while the
Ie
collector base junction is reverse biased.
Þ I c = 0.96 I e
87. (a) The phase difference between output A Y1 Y2 Y

voltage and input signal voltage in common base 93. (b) B
transistor or circuit is zero.
88. (d) Radiowaves of constant amplitude can be Y1 = A + B
produced by using oscillator with proper Y2 = Y1 + Y1 = Y1 = A + B
feedback.
Y = Y2 = A + B i.e. NOR gate
A
89. (d) A 94. (d) The Boolen expression for the given
Y combination is
B output Y = (A + B) · C
B Truth table
Y = A + B = A × B = A × B Þ AND Gate A B C Y = (A + B) · C
0 0 0 0
A B Y 1 0 0 0
Truth Table is :
0 1 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 1 1
1 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
90. (c) From the given logic circuit, LED will glow, Hence, A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
when voltage across LED is high. 95. (b) First two gates are NOT gates and the last
Truth Table gate is NOR gate.
A B Y Thus, Y1 = A, Y2 = B and Y = Y1 + Y2
0 0 1 The truth table corresponding to this is as follows:
Boolean expression Y = A.B
0 1 1 A B Y1 = A Y2 = B Y1 + Y2 Y = Y1 + Y2 A. B
1 0 1
0 0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 0
0 1 1 0 1 0 0
i.e.,circuit represents NAND gate.
1 0 0 1 1 0 0
91. (d) We assume that at any instant thickness of
ice is x. And time taken to form additional 1 1 0 0 0 1 1
thickness (dx) is dt. Thus the combination of gate represents AND
x gate.
–dx 96. (b) C ¢ = A × B Þ C = A × B = A × B
KA [ 26 – 0] dt Hence the resultant gate is AND gate.
mL = 97. (b)
x
KA ( 26) dt
Þ (Adx) rL =
x
i.e., output X = A.B
dx 26 K
So, = Truth Table
dt xrL
A
A B X
92. (b) A A× B
0 0 0
B
B
A Y 1 0 0
A× B 0 1 0
B
1 1 1
Y = (A × B + A × B)
EBD_8335
356 PHYSICS
98. (a) 105. (c) Output will be one if A or B or both are
A 0 1 1 0 one. Y= A + B
B 0 0 1 1 106. (b) A
C 1 1 1 1 Y
B X
OR gate
99. (d)
100. (b) Integrated circuit can act as a complete X = A.B
electronic circuit.
101. (a) From the given waveforms, the truth table \ Y = X = A.B
is as follows. Y = A. B by Demorgan theorem
A B Y
The above truth table is \ This diagram performs the function of AND gate.
for NAND gate. 1 1 0
De morgan’s theorem - the complement of the
Therefore, the logic gate 0 0 1 whole sum is equal to the product of individual
is NAND gate. complements and vice - versa, i.e.,
0 1 1
1 0 1 A + B = A.B and A.B = A + B
102. (c) Let A and B be inputs and Y the output.
107. (c) Y = A.B `
A Y1 Y2
Y A B Y
B 0 0 1
(
Then Y1 = A + B = A.B ) 0 1 1
(By De-Morgan’s theorem) 1 0 1
( )
Y2 = Y1 = A.B = A + B = A + B
1 1 0
Which is truth table of NAND gate.
\ Y = Y2 = A + B ( ) 108. (a) P, Q and R are related as R = P. Q which is
Hence, the given circuit is equivalent to a NOR gate. relation of AND gate.
NOR and NAND gates is a universal gates as they
109. (b) Output of upper AND gate = A. B
can be used to perform the basic logic functions.
AND, OR and NOT gate. Output of lower AND gate = A. B
A
103. (c) A
Y' \ Output of OR gate, Y = A. B + B. A
Y
B This is Boolean expression for XOR gate.
B
Y ' = A+ B ; Y = A+ B = A+ B 110. (d) (a) is a NAND gate so output is 1 ´ 1 = 1 = 0

Therefore truth table : (b) is a NOR gate so output is 0 + 1 = 1 = 0
A B Y
(c) is a NAND gate so output is 0 ´1 = 0 = 1
0 0 0
0 1 1 (d) is a XOR gate so output is 0 Å 0 = 0
1 0 1
0
1 1 1 1
104. (d) On the basis of given graph, following table 1
is possible.
Following is NAND Gate
A B C
0 0 0 Y = A.B
1 1 1
111. (a) The given truth table is of
0 1 0 (OR gate + NOT gate) º NOR gate
1 0 0 112. (b) This truth table is of identity, X = A + B,
hence OR gate.
It is the truth table of AND gate.

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30. (c) Let the expression, a = PxSycz ...(i)

DV 40. (a) In subtraction the number of decimal places

When we multiply or divide two measured æ Dm ö

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23. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a

43. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed (a) 20 m (b) 40 m

Hints & Solutions

1 1 2 1 For one dimensional motin, the angle between

2 2 The instantaneous velocity of an object at a given

Þ 12 v + 720 42. (a) For part AB

Trend Analysis with Important Topics & Sub-Topics

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Topic 1: Vectors 4. A particle is moving such that its position

13. The angle between the two vectors

Hints & Solutions

38. (d) Horizontal range for projection angle ur ur ur

46. (b) Here, x = 4sin(2pt) ...(i)

55. (a) In the case of a body describing a vertical r

The minimum speed of stone is independent of 62. (b) vr = vR 2 – vB2

58. (c) vw Reaching point

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Topic 2: Motion of Connected Bodies,

25. Three blocks with masses m, 2 m and 3 m are (g = 10 m/s2) [2004]

35. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is g g

æ m + tan q ö (c) mRg / m s (d) m s Rg

Hints & Solutions

when same stone dropped from 2h (100% of 30º

17. (c) Thrust = weight For block A: 3maA = 4mg – 3mg

23. (c) Acceleration

mg 37. (d) Since body does not move hence it is in

62. (a) Given : Mass (m) = 0.4 kg

If friction is present then maximum safe speed, on mv2 0.4 ´ (15.08) 2

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Topic 1: Work (a) 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s

(c) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP

v perpendicular to the original direction. The

with a stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after the

Hints & Solutions

1 4 15. (a) Given: Mass of particle, M = 10g =

p' Loss in velocity,

At constant power, P = constant W = Mgh = M × 10 × 10 = 100 M and t = 60 s.

53. (b) By conservation of linear momentum v/2 v¢

Initial momentum = mv Resultant momentum, = (m21) 2 + (m21) 2

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Topic 1: Centre of Mass, Centre of Gravity 3. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg

Topic 3: Torque, Couple and Angular 1

28. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 A

attached gently to the opposite ends of a (a) LA = LB

Hints & Solutions

14. Waves 155-171 21. Alternating Current 257-266