Professional Documents
Culture Documents
in
Physics
© Publisher
No part of this publication may be re-produced, stored in a retrieval system or by any
means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, web or otherwise
without the written permission of the publisher. Arihant has obtained all the information
in this book from the sources believed to be reliable and true. However, Arihant or its
editors or authors or illustrators don’t take any responsibility for the absolute accuracy of
any information published and the damage or loss suffered thereupon.
All disputes subject to Meerut (UP) jurisdiction only.
Head Office
Kalindi, TP Nagar, Meerut (UP) - 250002
Tel: 0121-7156203, 7156204
ISBN 978-93-25795-51-8
PO No : TXT-XX-XXXXXXX-X-XX
Published by Arihant Publications (India) Ltd.
For further information about the books published by Arihant, log on to
www.arihantbooks.com or e-mail at info@arihantbooks.com
Follow us on
PREFACE
Every year lakhs of students dreaming to get that venerable prefix Dr. before their names go through
intense rigors and grinds of pre-medical tests. In order to be eligible for admission to MBBS/BDS courses
for a particular academic year, it shall be necessary for a candidate to obtain minimum marks in the
concerned Pre-medical test held for the same academic year besides obtaining minimum prescribed marks
at the qualifying examination. The number of students appearing for medical entrance exams has
increased manifold over the years.
The pattern of the questions being asked in these exams has changed dramatically and the difficultly level
has also increased considerably. One needs to be highly motivated to get success in these entrance
examinations. You cannot expect to attain the level of devotion that such entrances require unless you’re
motivated from the inside. To succeed in these exams, and to actualise your dream, you are required to
prepare strategically and study in a focused manner. Clearity of concepts and expertise in problem solving
techniques are essential.
The book 40 Days Physics for NEET serves the above cited purpose in perfect manner. At whatever level of
preparation you are before the exam, this book gives you an accelerated way to master the whole NEET
Physics syllabus. It has been conceived keeping in mind the latest trend of questions and the level of
different types of students. The whole syllabus of Physics has been divided into day-wise learning modules
with clear groundings into concepts and sufficient practice with solved and unsolved questions on that
day. After every few days you get a Unit Test based upon the topics covered before that day. On last three
days you get three full-length Mock Tests, making you ready to face the test. It is not necessary that you
start working with this book in 40 days just before the exam. This will only keep you in good frame of mind
and relaxed, vital for success at this level
Salient Features
Ÿ Concepts discussed clearly and directly without being superfluous. Only the required material for
NEET being described comprehensively to keep the students focussed.
Ÿ Exercises for each day give you the collection of only the Best Questions of the concept, giving
you the perfect practice in less time.
Ÿ Each day has two Exercises; Foundation Questions Exercise having Topically Arranged Questions
& Progressive Question Exercise having higher Difficulty Level Questions.
Ÿ All types of Objective Questions included in Daily Exercises (Single Option Correct, Assertion &
Reason, etc).
Ÿ Along with Daywise Exercises, there above also the Unit Tests & Full Length Mock Tests.
Ÿ At the end of book, there are NEET Solved Paper 2021.
We are sure that 40 Days Physics for NEET will give you a fast way to prepare for Physics without any other
support or guidance.
Publisher
CONTENTS
Preparing NEET 2022 Physics in 40 Days !
Day 1. Physical World and Measurement 1-9
Day 2. Kinematics 10-21
Day 3. Scalar and Vector 22-30
Day 4. Laws of Motion 31-44
Day 5. Circular Motion 45-52
Day 6. Work, Energy and Power 53-65
Day 7. System of Particle and Rigid Body 66-74
Day 8. Rotational Motion 75-83
Day 9. Gravitation 84-96
Day 10. Unit Test 1 97-103
UNIT II Kinematics
Frame of reference, Motion in a straight line, Position-time graph, speed and velocity. Uniform and
non-uniform motion, average speed and instantaneous velocity. Uniformly accelerated motion,
velocity-time and position-time graphs, for uniformly accelerated motion (graphical treatment).
Elementary concepts of differentiation and integration for describing motion. Scalar and vector
quantities: Position and displacement vectors, general vectors, general vectors and notation, equality
of vectors, multiplication of vectors by a real number, addition and subtraction of vectors. Relative
velocity.
Unit vectors. Resolution of a vector in a plane-rectangular components.
Scalar and Vector products of Vectors. Motion in a plane. Cases of uniform velocity and uniform
acceleration- projectile motion. Uniform circular motion.
UNIT VI Gravitation
Kepler's laws of planetary motion. The universal law of gravitation. Acceleration due to gravity and its
variation with altitude and depth.
Gravitational potential energy, gravitational potential. Escape velocity, orbital velocity of a satellite.
Geostationary satellites.
CLASS 12th
UNIT I Electrostatics
Electric charges and their conservation. Coulomb's law-force between two point charges, forces
between multiple charges, superposition principle and continuous charge distribution.
Electric field, electric field due to a point charge, electric field lines, electric dipole, electric field due to
a dipole, torque on a dipole in a uniform electric field.
Electric flux, statement of Gauss's theorem and its applications to find field due to infinitely long
straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell (field
inside and outside).
Electric potential, potential difference, electric potential due to a point charge, a dipole and system of
charges, equipotential surfaces, electrical potential energy of a system of two point charges and of
electric diploes in an electrostatic field.
Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor, Dielectrics and electric
polarization, capacitors and capacitance, combination of capacitors in series and in parallel,
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between the plates,
energy stored in a capacitor, Van de Graaff generator.
UNIT VI Optics
Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula. Refraction of light, total internal reflection and its
applications optical fibres, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin lens formula, lens-maker's
formula. Magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact combination of a lens
and a mirror. Refraction and dispersion of light through a prism.
Scattering of light- blue colour of the sky and reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise
and sunset.
Optical instruments Human eye, image formation and accommodation, correction of eye defects
(myopia and hypermetropia) using lenses.
Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and refracting) and their magnifying powers.
Wave optics: Wavefront and Huygens' principle, reflection and refraction of plane wave at a plane
surface using wavefronts.
Proof of laws of reflection and refraction using Huygens' principle.
Interference, Young's double hole experiment and expression for fringe width, coherent sources and
sustained interference of light.
Diffraction due to a single slit, width of central maximum.
Resolving power of microscopes and astronomical telescopes. Polarisation, plane polarised light,
Brewster's law, uses of plane polarised light and Polaroids.
UNIT VII Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's observations, Einstein's photoelectric equation- particle
nature of light.
Matter waves- wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation. Davisson-Germer experiment
(experimental details should be omitted, only conclusion should be explained).
This Pdf Is
Downloaded From
www.exambites.in
VISIT NOW !!
DAY ONE
Physical
World and
Measurement
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Physics u Accuracy and Precision u Dimensions of Physical
u Units u Errors in Measurement Quantities
u Significant Figures
Physics
Physics is the study of matter and its motion, as well as space and time using concepts
such as energy, force, mass and charge. It is an experimental science, creating theories
that are tested against observation.
u
No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
No. of Correct Questions (z)—
Connection between physics, technology and society can be seen in many examples like (Without referring Explanations)
working of heat engines gave rise to thermodynamics. Wireless communication
technology arose from basic laws of electricity and magnetism. Lately discovery of u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
silicon chip triggered the computer revolution. u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
A complete set of these units, both fundamental and derived Supplementary Units
Supplementary
unit is known as the system of units.
Quantity Name and
The common systems are given below: Definition
Symbol
1. CGS System (Centimetre, Gram, Second) are often used Plane angle radian It is the angle subtended at the
in scientific work. This system measures, Length in (rad) centre by an arc of a circle having
centimetre (cm), Mass in gram (g), Time in second (s). a length equal to the radius of the
2. FPS System (Foot, Pound, Second) It is also called the circle.
British Unit System. This unit measures, Length in foot Solid angle steradian It is the solid angle which is having
(foot), Mass in pound (pound), Time in second (s). (sr) its vertex at the centre of the sphere,
it cuts-off an area of the surface of
3. MKS System In this system also length, mass and time
sphere equal to that of a square with
have been taken as fundamental quantities and
the length of each side equal to the
corresponding fundamental units are metre, kilogram radius of the sphere.
and second.
4. International System (SI) of Units It is an extended NOTE • Angle subtended by a closed curve at an inside points
version of the MKS (Metre, Kilogram, Second) system. It is 2π rad.
has seven base units and two supplementary units. • Solid angle subtended by a closed surface at an inside
Seven base quantities and two supplementary point is 4 π steradian.
quantities, their units along with definitions are
tabulated below.
Basic Units
Significant Figures
Base In the measured value of a physical quantity, the digits about
Name and
Quantity Definintion
Symbol the correction of which we are sure, plus the last digits which
Length metre The metre is the length of path travelled is doubtful, are called the significant figures.
(m) by light in vacuum during a time interval Larger the number of significant figures obtained in a
of 1/299, 792, 458 part of a second. measurement, greater is the accuracy of the measurement.
Mass kilogra It is the mass of the international prototype
m (kg) of the kilogram (a platinum iridium alloy
cylinder) kept at International Bureau of Accuracy and Precision
Weights and Measures, at Sevres (France). The accuracy of a measurement is a measure of how close the
Time second The second is the duration of 9, 192, 631, measured value is to the true value of the quantity. However,
(s) 770 periods of the radiation corresponding precision tells us to what resolution or limit, the quantity is
to the transition between the two hyperfine measured by a measuring instrument.
levels of the ground state of cesium-133
atom. Least Count
Electric Ampere The ampere is that constant current, The least count of a measuring instrument is the least value,
current (A) which if maintained in two straight,
that can be measured using the instrument. It is denoted as
parallel conductors of infinite length
LC.
placed 1 m apart in vacuum would
(i) Least count of vernier callipers
produce a force equal to 2 × 10−7 Nm −1
Value of 1 main scale division
on either conductor. LC =
Total number of vernier scale division
Thermodyn- Kelvin 1
The kelvin is th fraction of the
amic (K) 273.16 (ii) Least count of screw gauge
temperature Value of 1 pitch scale reading
thermodynamic temperature of the triple LC =
point of water. Total number of head scale division
DAY ONE PHYSICAL WORLD AND MEASUREMENT 03
According to this principle, a correct dimensional equation Photon flux density m −2 s −1 [L−2 T −1 ]
must be homogeneous, i.e. dimensions of all the terms in a Luminous energy Lm s [ML2 T −2 ]
physical expression must be same.
Luminance Lux [MT −3 ]
LHS = RHS
04 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY ONE
Dimensional Dimensional
Physical Quantity SI Unit Physical Quantity SI Unit
Formula Formula
Specific heat capacity Jkg −1 K −1 [L2 T −2 K −1 ] Magnetisation Am −1 [L−1 A]
− αz
17 Dimensions of the resistance in an electrical circuit in α kθ
terms of dimension of mass M, length L ,time T and 26 In the relation p = e , p is pressure, z is distance, k
β
current I, are
is Boltzmann constant and θ is temperature. The
(a) [ML2 T−3 A −1 ] (b) [ML2 T−2 ]
dimensional formula of β will be
(c) [ML2 T−1A −1 ] (d) [ML2 T−3 A −2 ] (a) [M0L2 T0 ] (b) [ML2 T ]
−
1 (c) [ML0 T−1] (d) [M0L2 T−1 ]
18 The dimensions of (µ 0ε 0 ) 2 are j CBSE-AIPMT 2011
−1 −1 −1/ 2
27 If momentum (p ), area (A) and time (T ) are taken to be
(a) [L T] (b) [LT ] (c) [L T1/ 2
] (d) [L1/ 2 T−1/ 2 ]
fundamental quantities, the energy has the dimensional
19 If L is the inductance, C capacitance and R resistance formula
the ratios L /R and R-C have the same dimensions as (a) [p A −1 T1] (b) [p 2 A1 T1] (c) [p1 A −1/ 2 T1] (d) [p1 A1/ 2 T−1]
those of
28 The refractive index of a material is given by the equation
(a) frequency (b) time (c) energy (d) length B
n=A+ , where A and B are constants. The
20 The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant and that λ2
of the moment of inertia is the dimensions of dimensional formula for B is
(a) frequency (b) velocity (a) [M0L2 T] (b) [M0L−2 T 0 ]
(b) angular momentum (d) time
(c) [M0L2 T−2 ] (d) [M0L2 T 0 ]
21 If energy (E ), velocity (v) and time (T ) are chosen as the 29 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by
fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of
surface tension will be j CBSE AIPMT 2015 [MaLb Tc ], then the physical quantity will be
j CBSE AIPMT 2009
(a) [Ev –1T−2 ] (b) [Ev –2 T−2 ]
–2 –1 −3 –2 −1 (a) pressure if a = 1, b = −1, c = −2
(c) [E v T ] (d) [Ev T ]
(b) velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = −1
22 If force (F ) , velocity (v ) and time (T ) are taken as (c) acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = −2
fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are (d) force if a = 0, b = −1, c = −2
j
CBSE AIPMT 2014
30 If F = 6πηar b v c ,where, F = viscous force,
(a) [FvT −1 ] (b) [FvT −2 ] (c) [Fv –1T−1 ] (d) [Fv –1T]
η = coefficient of viscosity, r = radius of spherical body,
1 v = terminal velocity of the body
23 The dimensions of ε 0 E 2 , where ε 0 is permittivity of free
2
space and E is electric field, are j
CBSE AIPMT 2010 The values of a, b and c are
2
(a) [ML T ] −2 −1 −2
(b) [ML T ] (c) [ML T ] 2 −1
(d) [MLT ]−1 (a)a = 1, b = 2, c = 1 (b) a = 1, b = 1, c = 1
(c)a = 2, b = 1, c = 1 (d) a = 2, b = 1, c = 2
γp
24 Velocity of sound in a gas is given by v = . 31 If dimensions of critical velocity vc of a liquid flowing
ρ
through a tube are expressed as [ ηx ρ y r z ], where η, ρ and
Dimensional formula for γ is
r are the coefficient of viscocity of liquid, density of liquid
(a) [MLT] (b) [M0L0 T 0 ] (c) [M0LT 0 ] (d) [ML0 T 0 ]
and radius of the tube respectively, then the value of x , y
25 In the equation y = a sin (ωt + kx ), the dimensional and z are given by j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
formula of ω is
(a) 1, − 1, − 1 (b) −1, − 1, 1
(a) [M0L0 T−1 ] (b) [M0LT−1 ]
(c) −1, − 1, − 1 (d) 1, 1, 1
(c) [ML0 T0 ] (d) [M0L−1T0 ]
5 The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are type f = Cm x k y , where C is a dimensionless constant.
16.2 cm and 10.1 cm, respectively. The area of the sheet The values of x and y are
in appropriate significant figures and error is 1 1 1 1
(a) x = ,y = (b) x = − ,y = −
(a)(164 ± 3) cm2 (b) (163 . 62 ± 2 . 6) cm2 2 2 2 2
(c)(163 . 6 ± 2 . 6) cm2 (d) (163 . 62 ± 3) cm2 1 1 1 1
(c) x = , y = − (d) x = − , y =
2 2 2 2
6 Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does
not have same dimensional formulae?
12 A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as
3.50 cm.Which instrument did he use to measure it?
(a) Work and torque
(b) Angular momentum and planck’s constant (a) A meter scale
(c) Tension and surface tension (b) A Vernier calliper, where the 10 divisions in Vernier
(d) Impulse and linear momentum scale matches with 9 divisions in main scale and main
scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm
7. If E , M , L and G denote energy, mass, angular
(c) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale
momentum and gravitational constant respectively, then
and pitch as 1 mm
the quantity (E 2L2/M 5G 2 ) has the dimensions of
(d) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale
(a) angle (b) length
and pitch as 1 mm
(c) mass (d) None of these
13 Resistance of a given wire is obtained by measuring the
8 van der Waals’, equation of state is
a current flowing in it and the voltage difference applied
p + 2 (V − b ) = nRT . The dimensions of a and b are
V across it. If the percentage errors in the measurement of
the current and the voltage difference are 3% each, then
(a)[ML3 T2 ], [ML3 T 0 ] (b) [ML5 T–2 ], [M0L3 T 0 ]
error in the value of resistance of the wire is
(c)[M2LT2 ], [ML3 T2 ] (d) [ML2 T], [ML2 T2 ]
(a) 6% (b) zero (c) 1% (d) 3%
9 According to Newton, the viscous force acting between
∆v 14 A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can
liquid layers of area A and velocity gradient is given e2
∆z be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity of light, G
dv 4πε 0
by F = − ηA , where η is constant called coefficient of
dz is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]
viscosity. The dimensional formula of η is j
NEET 2017
−2 −2 0 0 0 1/ 2 1/ 2
(a) [ML T ] (b) [M L T ] 1 e 2 e
2
(c) [ML2 T−2 ] (d) [ML−1T−1 ] (a) G (b) c 2 G
c 2 4 πε0 4 πε0
10 A physical quantity is given by X = [MaLb T c ]. The 1/ 2
1 e2 1 e2
percentage error in measurements of M, L and T are (c) (d) G
α , β and γ. Then, the maximum % error in the quantity X c 2 G 4 πε0 c 4 πε0
is 15. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is
(a) aα + bβ + c γ (b) aα + bβ − c γ
T = 2π L / g . Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known to
a b c
(c) + + (d) None of these 1mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the
α β γ
pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist watch of
11 The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from resolution.The accuracy in the determination of g is
a spring of spring constant k is given by a relation of the (a) 2% (b) 3% (c) 1% (d) 5%
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (d) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (a)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (a) 15 (b)
DAY ONE PHYSICAL WORLD AND MEASUREMENT 07
where, K is a constant called reduction Thus, the diameter of the ball is 0.529 cm. = [ML−1 T −1 ]
factor and φ is the angle of deflection.
Since, deflection has no unit. So, unit of
9 Volume of a sphere, V = 4 πr 3 Hence, Pascal-second has dimensions of
3 coefficient of viscosity.
reduction factor is same as of current, ∆V 3 × ∆r
∴ × 100 = × 100
i.e. ampere. V r 15 Spring constant, surface tension and
∆r surface energy have the same
3 The lumen (lm ) is the SI derived unit of Here × 100 = 2% dimensions, i.e. [ML0 T −2 ]. However,
luminous flux, a meausre of total r
∆V acceleration due to gravity has
quantity of visible light emitted by a ∴ × 100 = 3 × 2% = 6% dimensions [LT −2 ].
source. V
kg -m −1 /s 2
10 Density, ρ = m = m3 16 Pressure gradient = = [ML−2 T −2 ]
4 Young’s modulus, m
v l
stress N m/s
Y = = ∆ρ ∆m ∆l Velocity gradient = = [M 0 L0 T −1 ]
+ 3 × 100
or pascal
strain m2 ⇒ × 100 = ± m
ρ m l
kg -m2 /s 3 -A
[in SI system]
= ± (4 + 3 × 3)% = ± 13% Potential gradient =
dyne m
Y = [in CGS system]
cm2 11 Here, P =
a 3 b2 = [MLT −3 A −1 ]
Hence, Nm −1 is not the unit of Young’s cd kg -m2 /s 2
Energy gradient = = [MLT −2 ]
modulus. ∆P m
∴ × 100
P Hence option (d) is correct.
5 Unit of Young’s modulus Y in SI units is 3∆a 2 ∆b ∆c ∆d
Nm −2 . = + + + × 100 17 Resistance,
dyne a b c d
Here, Y = 18 × 1011 ∆a ∆b R=
Potential difference V
= =
W
cm2 =3 × 100 + 2 × 100 Current I QI
As, 1 dyne = 10−5 N a b
∆c ∆d W
1 cm = 10−2 m + × 100 + × 100
c d QV = Q
10−5
⇒ Y = 18 × 10
11
× Nm −2 =3 × 1 + 2 × 2 + 3 + 4
(10−2 ) 2 So, dimension of R
= 3 + 4 + 3 + 4 = 14%
= 18 × 1010 Nm −2 [Dimension of work] [ML2 T −2 ]
12 Let M ∝ [ F a Lb Tc ] = =
6 All measurements are correct upto two [Dimension of charge] [AT] [A]
places of decimal. However, the Writing dimensions of both sides and [Dimension of current]
absolute error in (a) is 0.01 mm, which using the principle of homogeneity of
is the least of all the four. So, 5.00 mm is dimensions, we have = [ML2 T −3 A −2 ]
most precise. [M1 L0 T 0 ] = K [MLT −2 ] a [L] b [T] c 1
18 We know that, c =
7 Number of significant figures in On comparing the powers both sides µ 0 ε0
23.023 = 5 a = 1, a + b = 0, −2a + c = 0 where, c is speed of light.
Number of significant figures in On solving, we have
Hence, dimensions of ( µ 0 ε0 )−1 /2 is equal
0.0003 = 1 b = − 1, c = 2, a = 1
to that speed of light [LT −1 ].
Number of significant figures in ∴ Units of mass is [FL−1 T2 ].
2.1 × 10−3 = 2 13 As we know that, 19 Dimensional formula of L is [ML2 T −2 A −2 ],
8 Given, least count of screw gauge, arc [ L] C is [M −1 L−2 T 4 A2 ] and that of R is
Angle = = = dimensionless
radius [L] [ML2 T −3 A −2 ]. Thus, dimensional formula
LC = 0.001 cm of L /R is [ T ].
Main scale reading, But unit of angle is radian.
Similarly, dimensional formula of R-C is
MSR = 5mm = 0.5cm 14 Pascal is unit of pressure, hence its [T].
Number of coinciding divisions on the dimensional formula is [ML−1 T −2 ].
∴ L /R and R-C has the dimensions of
circular scale, i.e. Vernier scale reading, ∴Dimensional formula of Pascal-second time.
VSR = 25 is [ML−1 T −1 ].
08 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY ONE
dv 12 If student measures 3.50 cm, it means Using Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
9 As, F =−η A 1 /2
dz that there is an uncertainly of order 1 Ge 2
F 0.01cm.
∴ η=− c 2 4 πε0
A
dv For Vernier scale with 1 MSD = 1 mm
dz = [L−2 T2 ][[ML3 T −2 ][M −1 L3 T −2 ]]1 /2
and 9 MSD = 10 VSD
= [L−2 T2 ][L3 T −2 ]
As F = [MLT −2 ], A = [L2 ] LC of Vernier calliper = 1 MSD – 1VSD = [L]
dv = [LT −1 ], dz = [L]
= 1 −
1 9 1
= cm
[MLT −2 ] [L] 10 10 100 15 Given, time period, T = 2π L
∴ η= 2 g
[L ] [LT −1 ]
13 From Ohm’s law, R = V Thus,changes can be expressed as
= [ML−1 T −1 ] I 2 ∆T ∆L ∆g
= =± ±
⇒ ln R = ln V − ln I T L g
10 Maximum possible % error is
∆R ∆V ∆I
∆X ⇒ = + According to the question, we can write
= × 100 R V I ∆L 0.1cm 1
X = =
∆M ∆L ∆T = 3% + 3% = 6% L 20.0cm 200
=a +b +c 90
M L T e2 e2 Again, time period, T = s and
14 As force, F = 2
⇒ = r2 ⋅ F 100
= aα + bβ + cγ 4πε0 r 4πε0 1 ∆T 1
∆T = s ⇒ =
Putting dimensions of r and F, 200 T 90
11 As, f = Cm x k y
we get, ∆g ∆L 2∆T
∴ = +
∴ (Dimension of f ) g L T
e2 3 −2
= C (dimension of m ) x ⇒ = [ML T ] …(i)
∆g ∆L
4πε0 or × 100% = × 100%
× (dimensions of k ) y g L
[T ] = C [M] [MT −2 ] y
−1 x Gm2
…(i) Also, force, F = 2∆T
r2 + × 100%
Applying the principle of homogeneity T
of dimensions, we get [MLT −2 ][L2 ]
⇒ [G ] =
= × 100 % + 2 ×
1 1
[M2 ] × 100%
x + y = 0, − 2 y = − 1 200 90
1 ⇒ [G ] = [M −1 L3 T −2 ] …(ii) = 2.72% = 3%
or y =
2 Thus, accuracy in the determination of g
and 1= 1
= [L−2 T2 ] ...(iii)
1 c 2 [L2 T −2 ]
∴ x=− is approximately 3 %.
2
DAY TWO
Kinematics
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Frame of Reference u Uniformly Accelerated u Elementary Concept of
u Motion in a Straight Line Motion Differentiation and
Graphs Integration for Describing
u Uniform and Non-uniform u
Motion
Motion
Frame of Reference
The frame of reference is a suitable coordinate system involving space and time used as a
reference to study the motion of different bodies. The most common reference frame is
the cartesian frame of reference involving (x, y, z and t).
(i) Inertial Frame of Reference A frame of reference which is either at rest or moving
with constant velocity is known as inertial frame of reference. Inertial frame of
reference is one in which Newton’s first law of motion holds good.
(ii) Non-Inertial Frame of Reference A frame of reference moving with some
acceleration is known as non-inertial frame of reference. Non-inertial frame of
reference in one which Newton’s law of motion does not hold good.
At rest s Slope = v = 0 t
Uniformly v So slope of v-t graph is
accelerated constant u = 0 i.e.
motion with v = at so, a = constant u = 0
t u = 0 and s = 0 i.e. v = 0 at t = 0
at t = 0
Uniform motion s Slope = constant, t
v = constant
Uniformly v Positive constant
a=0 accelerated acceleration because θ is
s =νt v = u + at
motion with u constant and <90º but the
t u ≠ 0 but s = 0 initial velocity of the particle
at t = 0 is positive
Uniformly s u = 0, i.e. t
accelerated Slope of s-t graph v
Uniformly Slope of v-t graphs = – a
motion with 1
s = at 2 at t = 0, should be zero. decelerated (retardation)
u = 0, s = 0 at 2 u
motion
t =0 v = u – at
t
16 A man throws balls with the same speed vertically (c) non-uniform accelerated motion
upwards one after the other at an interval of 2 s. What (d) Nothing can be said about the motion
should be the speed of the throw, so that more than two 24 A graph of x versus t is shown in figure. Choose incorrect
balls are in the sky at any time? (Given, g = 9.8 ms −2 ) statements from below.
(a)Any speed less than 19.6 ms −1 X
(b)Only with speed 19.6 ms −1
B C
(c)Greater than 19.6 ms −1 A
E
(d)At least 9.8 ms −1
17 A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances
h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 s, the next 5 s and the next 5 s, t
respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is D
h2 h3
(a) h1 = 2 h2 = 3 h3 (b) h1 = = j NEET 2013 (a) The particle was released from rest at t = 0
3 5
(b) At B, the acceleration a > 0
(c)h2 = 3 h1 and h3 = 3 h2 (d) h1 = h2 = h3
(c) At C, the velocity and the acceleration
18 A boy standing at top of a tower of 20 m height drops a (d) The speed at D exceeds than at E
stone. Assuming g = 10 ms −2 , the velocity with which it 25 A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this
hits the ground is j CBSE AIPMT 2011
figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity of the
(a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) 10 m/s particle is around the point
19 A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 x
D
starting from rest. After 6 s another ball is thrown
Distance
C
downwards from the same platform with speed v. The
two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v ? B
j
CBSE AIPMT 2010 A
Time
(a) 74 ms −1 (b) 55 ms −1
(c) 40 ms −1 (d) 60 ms −1 (a) B (b) C
(c) D (d) A
20 A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u. It passes
26 The position-time graph for a uniform motion is
three points A, B and C in its upward journey with
u u u represented as
velocity , and , respectively. The ratio of separations
2 3 4
x x
between points AB and between BC, i.e. AB is (a) (b)
BC
10 20 t t
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) (d)
7 7
21 When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity v 0, it x x
reaches a maximum height of h. If one wishes to triple the (c) (d)
maximum height, then the ball should be thrown with
t t
velocity
(a) 3 v 0 (b) 3 v 0 (c) 9 v 0 (d) 3 /2 v 0 27 Among the four graphs, there is only one graph for which
average velocity over the time interval ( 0 ,T ) can vanish for
22 From the top of a tower two stones, whose masses are in
suitably chosen T. Which one is it?
the ratio 1 : 2 are thrown on straight up with an initial
x
speed u and the second straight down with the same x
speed u. Then, neglecting air resistance,
(a) (b)
(a) the heavier stone hits the ground with a higher speed t
(b) the lighter stone hits the ground with a higher speed
(c) both the stones will have the same speed when they hit x x t
the ground
(d) the speed can not be determined with the given data
(c) (d)
23 The velocity-time graph of particle comes out to be a
non-linear curve. The motion is
(a) uniform velocity motion t t
(b) uniformly accelerated motion
DAY TWO KINEMATICS 15
28 A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal 32 A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional
plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric motion such that its velocity varies according to
field E . Due to the force qE , its velocity increases from 0
v ( x ) = β x −2 n
to 6 m/s in are second duration. At that instant, the
direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to where, β and n are constants and x is the position of the
move for two more second under the influence of this particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of
field. The average velocity and the average speed of the x, is given by j CBSE AIPMT 2015
toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively. (a) −2nβ 2 x −2n − 1 (b) −2nβ 2 x −4n − 1
j NEET 2018 (c) −2β 2 x −2n + 1 (d) −2nβ 2e −4n + 1
(a) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (b) 1 m/s, 3 m/s 33 A particle moves a distance x in time t according to
(c)2 m/s, 4 m/s (d) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s equation x = (t + 5)−1. The acceleration of particle is
29 A particle moving along X -axis has acceleration f , at time proportional to j CBSE AIPMT 2010
1 2 1
(a) f0T (b) f0T (c) f0T 2 (d) f0T (a) 3 A + 7B (b)
3 7
A+ B
2 2 2 3
30 The position x of a particle with respect to time t along A B 3
(c) + (d) A + 4B
X -axis is given by x = 9 t 2 − t 3 , where x is in metre and t 2 3 2
in second. What will be the position of this particle when 35 Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a
it achieves maximum speed along the + x direction? straight line and their positions are represented by
(a) 32 m (b) 54 m (c) 81 m (d) 24 m X P (t ) = at + bt 2 and X Q (t ) = ft − t 2 . At what time do the
31 An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is cars have the same velocity? j
NEET 2016
dv a −f a+f
deaccelerated at a rate given by = −2.5 v , where v is (a) (b)
dt 1+ b 2 (b − 1)
the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to a+f f −a
(c) (d)
come to rest would be 2 (1 + b) 2 (1 + b)
(a) 2 s (b) 4 s (c) 8 s (d) 1s
x 5
B C
O t (s)
t 0 1 2
DAY TWO KINEMATICS 17
ANSWERS
SESSION 1
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (d)
SESSION 2
SESSION 2 1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (d)
2
16 Time taken by ball to reach maximum 20 Here, for point A = u − u2 = − 2gh1 25 At instant instantaneous velocity of
height v = u − gt 4 particle is given by
At maximum height, final speed is zero u2 ds
for point B = − u2 = − 2gh2 v = = tanθ
i.e. v = 0 9 dt
So, u = gt u2 From figure shows that slop of curve is
In 2s, u = 2 × 9.8 = 19.6 ms −1 and for point C = − u2 = − 2gh3 maximum at point C.
16
If man throws the ball with velocity of C
26 For object at rest, the position-time
19.6 ms −1 , then after 2 s it will reach the graph is a straight line parallel to the
maximum height. When he throws B time axis.
second ball, first is at top. When he h 3 h2 x (m)
throws third ball, first will come to A
ground and second will at the top. h1 40
C=0
∫x 1
dx = ∫1 ( At + Bt 2 ) dt ( g + a0 ) ( g − a0 ) g − a0
2 2 2 t2 g + a0
⇒
f t2
v = f0 t − 0 ⋅ …(iii)
⇒ ∆x = x2 − x1 = A ∫1 t dt + B ∫1 t dt i.e.
t1
=
g − a0
> 1 ⇒ t2 > t1
T 2 2 2
t 2 t 3
Given, f = f 0 1 −
t = A + B 3 Displacement
T 2 1 3 1 = (2 × 4 − 2 × 2 + 2 × 4) = 12 m
Substituting, f = 0, t = T in Eq. (iii), =
A 2
(2 − 1 ) +
2 B 3
(2 − 13 ) Distance = 2 × 4 + 2 × 2 + 2 × 4 = 20 m
then velocity, 2 3
f T2 1 ∴ Distance travelled between 1s and 2s is 4 For a freely falling body,
v x = f 0T − 0 ⋅ = f 0T A B 1 2
T 2 2 ∆x = × (3) + (7) h= gt
2 3 2
30 Given, x = 9t 2 − t 3 …(i) 3 7 2
= A+ B h1 t 1
Velocity, v =
dx d
= ( 9t 2 − t 3 ) 2 3 ∴ =
dt dt h2 t 2
35 Velocity of each car is given by Given, h1 = 16 m, h2 = 25 m
= 18t − 3t 2 Q x = nx n − 1
d n dX p (t )
dx vP = = a + 2bt t1 h1 16 4
dt ∴ = = =
Also, Acceleration t2 h2 25 5
dX Q (t )
dv d and v Q = = f − 2t
a= = (18 t − 3t 2 ) = 18 − 6 t …(ii) dt 5 From equation, v 2 = u2 + 2as
dt dt
It is given that v P = v Q Given,
9
u = 0, a =
Now, speed of particle is maximum, ⇒ a + 2bt = f − 2t 8
when its acceleration is zero, i.e. a = 0 f −a
We have, v = 2 h
9
i.e. 18 − 6 t = 0 or t = 3 s ⇒ t =
2 (b + 1) 8
Putting in Eq. (i), we obtain position of When the stone released from this
particle at the time SESSION 2 balloon. It will go upward with velocity
gh
x = 9(3) 2 − (3) 3 = 54m v =
1 Given, x = 8 + 12t − t 3 2
31 Given, dv = − 2.5 v We know In this condition, time taken by stone to
dt dx dv
dv v= and acceleration a = reach the ground
⇒ = − 2.5 dt dt dt
v v 2gh
So, v = 12 − 3t 2 and a = − 6t t = 1 + 1+
0 −1 /2 t g v2
⇒ ∫6.25 v dv = − 2.5 ∫ dt
0
At t = 2 s, v = 0 and a = − 6 × 2
⇒ −2.5 [t ] t
= [2v 1 /2 ] 06.25 a = − 12 m/s2 gh / 2 2gh
= 1 + 1+
gh / 4
0
So, retardation of the particle g
⇒ Time t = 2 s
= 12 m/s 2
32 a = ∂v = ∂v × ∂x = ∂v × v
2 gh h
= =2
∂t ∂x ∂t ∂x 2 First of all note that, air resistance acts g g
We have v = βx −2 n in direction opposite to the motion of
∂v body. So, when a body is thrown up, 6 The distance, x = ut + 1 at 2
= − 2nβx −2 n − 1 2
∂x then both the deaccelerating forces, i.e.
gravity and air resistance act in same For free fall starting from rest,
Acceleration,
1
a = (−2nβx −2 n − 1 ) × ( βx −2 n ) direction. Thus, total deacceleration is u = 0, a = g ⇒ x = gt 2
2
a1 = g + a0 , where a0 is deacceleration
a = − 2nβ2 x −4 n − 1
due to air resistance which is assumed t 0 T 2T 3T
33 Given, x = ( t + 5)−1 to be constant. g 2 g g
x 0 T ( 4T 2 ) ( 9T 2 )
dx −1 If u be the initial velocity and t 1 be the 2 2 2
∴ v = = …(i)
dt ( t + 5) 2 time of ascent, then
u ∆t 0 to T T to 2T 2T to 3T
d2 x 2 t1 = or u = t 1 (g + a0 )
a= = …(ii) g + a0 ∆x
g 2
T
g
( 4 − 1) T 2
g g
( 9 − 4) T 2 = 5T 2
dt 2 ( t + 5) 3 2 2 2 2
u2
On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get and h= …(i)
2(g + a 0 ) ∴ Required ratio,
a ∝ (v )3 /2 g 2 g g
Also, t 2 is time of descent, then T : 3T 2 : 5T 2 = 1 : 3 : 5
34 Velocity of the particle is given as 1 2 2 2
h = ut + a2 t 22
v = At + Bt 2 2 7 As x-t graph is a straight line in either
where A and B are constants. As, a2 = g − a0 , during descent case, velocity of both is uniform. As the
dx Q v = dx u2 1 slope of x - t graph for P is greater,
⇒ = At + Bt 2 ⇒ = 0 + × [g − a0 ] × t 22
dt dt 2( g + a0 ) 2 therefore velocity of P is greater than
that of Q.
⇒ dx = ( At + Bt 2 ) dt [using Eq. (i)]
DAY TWO KINEMATICS 21
8 Given velocity (v )-position ( x ) graph is Similarly, v 2 = β t 2 Hence, the interval of falling of each
α t2 1
shown in figure. As, α t 1 = βt 2 ⇒ = …(i) water drop is = 0.25 s
β t1 4
v (ms–1) When the fifth drop starts its journey
1
x1 = 0 (t 1 ) + α (t 1 )2 …(ii) towards ground, the third drop would be
4 2 in air for 0.25 + 0.25 = 0.5 s
1
x2 = (αt 1 ) t 2 + (− β ) (t 2 )2 Height (distance) covered by third drop
2 in air is
1 1 1
x2 = ( βt 2 ) (t 2 ) − β (t 2 )2 h1 = gt 2 = × 10 × (0.5)2
2 2 2
x (m) [using Eq. (i)] = 5 × 0.25 = 1.25
O 2 1 Therefore, the third water drop will be
⇒ x2 = βt 22 …(iii)
We know that, acceleration, 2 at a height = 5 − 1.25 = 3.75 m
vdv From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get 17 At highest point of path, velocity = 0
a= … (i)
dx x1 αt 12 αt 1 β t 1 u
= = = …(iv) ⇒ 0 = u − gt ⇒ t =
From the graph, we have
x v
x2 βt 22 βt 2 α t 2 g
+ = 1 ⇒ 2x + v = 4 … (ii) [using Eq. (i)] Given, time for the particle to hit the
2 4 From Eqs. (i) and (iv), we get ground = nt …(i)
dv
⇒ = −2 … (iii) α t2 x 1
dx = = 2 Now, − H = u (nt ) − g (nt )2
β t1 x1 2
From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get u 1 2 u2
β t1 x x1 β t ⇒ − H = un − gn
a = (4 − 2 x ) (− 2) = − 8 + 4x ⇒ = = 1 ⇒ = = 1
α t2 x2 x2 α t 2 g 2 g2
⇒ a = 4x − 8
13 From the relation, u2 n2 u2
9 In (x - t ) graph OA → Positive slope → ⇒ −H =n −
1 2 g 2 g
h= gt …(i)
Positive velocity 2 ⇒ − 2gH = 2nu2 − n2u2
AB → Negative slope → Negative velocity 1
h − 15 = g (t − 1) 2 …(ii)
BC → Zero slope → Object at rest 2 ⇒ 2gH = n2u2 − 2nu2
1 2 1 ⇒ 2gH = nu2 (n − 2)
A gt − 15 = g (t − 1) 2
2 2
x [from Eq. (i)] 18 From v 2 − u2 = 2as, we get
1
C g [ t 2 − ( t − 1) 2 ] = 15 (80)2 − (60)2
B 2 =s
15 × 2 2a
(t + t − 1) (t − t + 1) = =3 6400 − 3600 1400
g ∴ Distance, s = =
O 2a a
t [Qg = 10 m/s2 ] The middle point of the train is to cover
At point ‘A’, there is change in sign of 2t − 1 = 3 ⇒ t = 2 s a distance
velocity, hence the direction of motion 1 s 700
∴ h = × 10 × 2 × 2 = 20 m =
must have changed at ‘A’. 2 2 a
10 Given, x = ae −αt + be βt 14 Time of fall = 2h Again, from v 2 − u2 = 2as,
g 700
dx v 2 − (60)2 = 2a × = 1400
Velocity, v =
dt Time taken by the sound to come out a
h v = 1400 + 3600
2
= − aαe − αt + bβe βt = A + B =
c
where, A = − aαe − αt , B = bβe βt 2 Velocity, v = 5000 = 70.7 kmh − 1
2h h 1
Total time = + =h +
The value of term A = − aαe − αt g c gh c 19 Let ball strike the nth step of stairs.
decreases and B = bβe βt increases with
time. As a result, velocity goes on 15 From the given graph, for 0 < t < 1s, Vertical distance travelled
1 2
increasing with time. slope of x-t graph is decreasing, this = ny = n × 0.20 = gt
implies v (velocity) is increasing. 2
11 h = 1 g t 12 ⇒ 2h = 1 g ( t 1 + t 2 ) 2 For 1 < t < 2s, slope of x-t graph is
2 2 Horizontal distance travelled
1 increasing, this implies v is increasing. = nx = ut
and 3 h = g (t1 + t2 + t3 )2 Thus, the above conditions is only
2 nx
⇒ t =
satisfied by the graph in option (d).
i.e. t 1 : (t 1 + t 2 ) : ( t 1 + t 2 + t 3 ) = 1 : 2 : 3 u
16 By the time fifth water drop starts 2
or t 1 : t 2 : t 3 = 1 : ( 2 − 1) : ( 3 − 2 ) 1 n2 x2
gt = g ⋅ = g
1 2 1 nx
falling, the first water drop reaches the ny =
12 Consider the diagram ground. This means, 2 2 u 2 u2
1 2u2 y
x1, t1 x2, t2 u = 0, h = gt 2 ⇒n =
2 g x
v=0 α β v=0 1
⇒ 5 = × 10 × t 2
2 2 × (1.8)2 × 0.2
= ≈4
Velocity, v 1 = 0 + α t 1 = α t 1 ⇒ t =1s 9.8 × (0.2) 2
DAY THREE
Scalar
and Vector
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Scalar and Vector Quantities u Multiplication or Division of a u Relative velocity
u Laws of Vector Addition Vector by a Scalar u Motion in a Plane
u Substraction of Vectors u Product of Vects u Projectile Motion
u Resolution of vector
is written as 0. The initial and final points of a zero vector overlap, so its direction is
arbitrary (not known to us). MIRROR
l
Unit Vector A vector of unit magnitude is known as an unit vector. Unit vector for A Your Personal Preparation Indicator
is A$ (read as A cap). u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
A=AA Direction u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
(Without referring Explanations)
Magnitude
l
Orthogonal Unit Vectors The unit vectors along X -axis,s, Y-axis Y u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
and Z-axis are denoted by $i, $j and k$ . These are the orthogonal unit j u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
vectors. i
X In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
$i = x , $j = y , k$ = z Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
k Level should be above 75.
x y z Z
DAY THREE SCALAR AND VECTOR 23
l
Parallel Vector Two vectors are said to be parallel, if they Thus, vector subtraction is
have same direction but their magnitudes may or may not really a special case of vector A B
be equal. addition. The geometric
l
Antiparallel Vector Two vectors are said to be anti-parallel construction for subtracting
two vectors is shown in the A – B –B
when
(i) both have opposite direction above figure.
(ii) one vectors is scalar non zero negative multiple of If θ be the angle between A
another vector. and B,
l
Collinear Vector Collinear vector are those which act along then | A − B| = A2 + B2 − 2 AB cos θ
same line.
l
Coplanar Vector Vector which lies on the same plane are If the vectors form a closed n sided polygon with all the sides
called coplanar vector. in the same order, then the resultant is zero.
l
Equal Vectors Two vectors A and B are equal, if they have
the same magnitude and the same direction. Multiplication or Division of a
Laws of Vector Addition Vector by a Scalar
The multiplication or division of a vector by a scalar gives a
1. Triangle Law vector. For example, if vector A is multiplied by the scalar
If two non-zero vectors are represented by the two sides of a number 3, the result, written as 3A, is a vector with a magnitude
triangle taken in same order than the resultant is given by the three times that of A, pointing in the same direction as A. If we
closing side of triangle in opposite order, i.e. multiply vector A by the scalar − 3, the result is − 3 A , a vector
R=A+B with a magnitude three times that of A, pointing in the direction
The resultant R can be calculated as opposite to A (because of the negative sign).
| A + B| = R = A2 + B2 + 2 AB cos θ
Product of Vectors
A +B The two types of products of vectors are given below
B sin θ
R= B
α θ
A B cos θ
Scalar or Dot Product
If resultant R makes an angle α with vector A, then The scalar product of two vectors A and B is defined as the
B sin θ product of magnitudes of A and B multiplied by the cosine of
tan α = smaller angle between them. i.e. A ⋅ B = AB cos θ
A + B cos θ
gx2
Motion in a Plane l
Equation of trajectory, y = u
2u2 O X
Let the object be at position A y y
2 B 2h
and B at timing t 1 and t 2 , where A l
Time of flight, T =
y P
OA = r1 , and OB = r2 1 g h x vx
β
Suppose O be the origin for r1 r2 2h
measuring time and position of
l
Horizontal range, R = u vy v
g Y
the object (see figure). A B
O x1 x2 l
Velocity of projectile at any
l
Displacement of an object time, v = u2 + g2t 2
form position A to B is
AB = r = r2 − r1 = ( x2 − x1 )i − ( y2 − y1 ) j
r −r
Projectile Motion Up an Inclined Plane
l
Velocity, v = 2 1 Let a particle be projected
t2 − t1
up with speed u from an Y P
X
in α
l
A particle moving in X -Y plane (with uniform velocity) inclined plane which u gs t=T
–
then, its equation of motion for X and Y axes are makes an angle α with the a x=
v = v $i + v $j, r = x $i + y $j and r = x$i + y$j horizontal and velocity of ay = g cos α
x y 0 0 0
projection makes an angle θ
α g
x = x0 + vx t , y = y0 + v y t θ with the inclined plane. O t = 0
l
A particle moving in xy-plane (with uniform acceleration),
then its equation of motion for X and Y-axes are 2u sin θ
l
Time of flight on an inclined plane T =
vx = ux + ax t , v y = u y + a yt g sin α
1 1
x = x 0 + ux t + ax t 2 , y = y0 + u yt + a yt 2 u2 sin2 θ
2 2 l
Maximum height, h =
2 g cos α
a = a i$ + a i$
x y
2u2 sin θ cos (θ + α )
l
Horizontal range, R =
g cos2 α
Projectile Motion l
Maximum range occurs when θ =
π α
−
Projectile is an object which Y 2 2
once projected in a given
u cos θ u2
A l
Rmax = when projectile is thrown upwards.
uy = u sin θ
co
u sin 2θ
2
= g cos α
°–
g
90
l
Horizontal range, R = OB = ux T , R = α A
α
g A
(a)
5
(b) 10 2 (c) 5 2 (d) 5 (a) 0 (b) 5 $i m/s 2 (c) −4 $i m/s 2 (d) −8 $i m/s 2
2
16 A particle has initial velocity ( 3i$ + 4$j ) and has
6 A and B are two vectors and θ is the angle between acceleration ( 0.4 i$ + 0.3 $j ) . Its speed after 10 s is
them, if | A × B | = 3 ( A ⋅ B ), the value of θ is j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°
(a) 7 unit (b) 7 2 unit (c) 8.5 unit (d) 10 unit
7 Given A = 4$i + 6$j and B = 2$i + 3$j. Which of the following
17 A particle is moving such that its position coordinates
is correct?
( x , y ) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m) at time
(a) A × B = 0 (b) A ⋅ B = 24
| A| 1 t = 2 s and (13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5 s. Average velocity
(c) = (d) A and B are anti-parallel vector ( vav ) from t = 0 to t = 5 s is
|B| 2
1 7 11 $ $
(a) (13 $i + 14 $j ) (b) ($i + $j ) (c) 2 ($i + $j ) (d) (i + j )
8 If A = 4$i + 4$j + 4k$ and B = 3$i + $j + 4k,
$ then angle between 5 3 5
vectors A and B is 18 The horizontal range and maximum height attained by a
(a) 180° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 0° projectile are R and H, respectively. If a constant
9 If two vectors 2 $i + 3$j + k$ and −4$i − 6$j − λk$ are parallel to horizontal acceleration a = g /4 is imparted to the
projectile due to wind, then its horizontal range and
each other, then value of λ is
maximum height will be
(a) zero (b) −2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) R + , 2H
H H
(a)(R + H ),
10 If A ⋅ B = A × B, then the angle between A and B is 2 2
(a) 45° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 90° (c)(R + 2H ), H (d) (R + H ), H
DAY THREE SCALAR AND VECTOR 27
19 A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an 22 The horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile
angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of are equal. The angle of projection is j CBSE AIPMT 2012
147 m/s. Then, the time after which its inclination with the
(a) θ = tan
−1
1 −1
(b) θ = tan (4)
horizontal is 45°, is 4
(a) 15 s (b) 10.98 s (c) 5.49 s (d) 2.745 s (c) θ = tan−1 (2) (d) θ = 45 °
20 The velocity of a particle is v = v 0 + gt + at . If its position is
3
23 A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial
x = 0 at t = 0, then its displacement after unit time (t = 1) is
velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s 2, the range of missile is
g
(a)v 0 = +a (b) v 0 = 2g + 3a j CBSE AIPMT 2011
2
g a (a) 50 m (b) 60 m
(c)v 0 + + (d) v 0 + g + a
2 3 (c) 20 m (d) 40 m
21 A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a 24 A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making
velocity of 5 m/s and angle θ with the horizontal. Another an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The magnitude of
projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 angular momentum of projectile about the point of
m/s at the same angle follows a trajectory which is projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is
identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the mvh
(a)zero (b)
earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the 2
planet is (in m/s 2) (given, g = 9.8 m/s 2) j CBSE AIPMT 2014 mvh 2
(c) (d) None of these
(a) 3.5 (b) 5.9 (c) 16.3 (d) 110.8 2
4 A projectile is given an initial velocity of (i + 2j ) m/s, when 8 A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a
i is along the ground and j is along the vetical. straight line in the XY -plane. Its coordinates at a later
If g = 10 m/s 2, the equation of its trajectory is time are ( 3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the
(a) y = x − 5 x 2 (b) y = 2 x − 5 x 2 X -axis an angle of
(c) 4 y = 2 x − 5 x 2 (d) 4 y = 2 x − 25 x 2 (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 0°
5 A police jeep is chasing a culprit going on a motorbike. 9 A ball is rolled off along the edge of the table with
The motorbike crosses a turning at a speed of 72 km/h. horizontal with velocity 4 m/s. It hits the ground after time
The jeep follows it at a speed of 90 km/h, crossing the 0.4 s. Which of the following statement is wrong.
turning 10 s later than the bike. Assuming that they travel (g = 10 m/s 2)
at constant speeds, how far from the turning will the jeep
(a) The height of table is 0.8 m.
catch up with the bike? (in km)
(b) It hits the ground of an angle of 60° with the vertical.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) It covers a horizontal distance 1.6 m from the table.
(d) It hits the ground with vertical velocity 4 m/s.
28 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THREE
10 A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km/h 12 The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is
and ship B 100 km South of A, is moving Northwards with given by R = 4 sin ( 2πt ) i$ + 4 cos ( 2πt ) $j
a speed of 10 km/h. The time after which the distance
between them becomes shortest, is j CBSE AIPMT 2015 where R is in metre, t is in seconds and $i and $j denote
(a) 0 h (b) 5 h (c) 5 2 h (d) 10 2 h unit vectors along x and y-directions, respectively. Which
one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of
11 Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities v1
particle? j CBSE AIPMT 2015
and v 2. At the initial moment, their position vectors are r1
and r2 respectively. The condition for particles A and B (a) Acceleration is along − R
for their collision is j CBSE AIPMT 2015 v2
(b) Magnitude of acceleration vector is , where v is the
r1 − r2 v − v1 R
(a) = 2 (b) r1 ⋅ v1 = r2 ⋅ v 2 velocity of particle
| r1 − r2 | | v 2 − v1 |
(c) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 m/s
(c) r1 × v1 = r2 × v 2 (d) r1 − r2 = v1 − v 2
(d) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 m
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (b)
SESSION 2 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (c)
13 Given, AB = Velocity of boat = 8 km/h 19 Horizontal component of velocity at 24 The angular momentum of a particle is
AC = Resultant velocity of boat = 10 km/h angle 60° = Horizontal component of given by
velocity at 45° r
B C i.e. u cos 60° = v cos 45°
θ
1 1 147
or 147 × = v × or v = m/s r
v cos 45°
2 2 2 h
θ Vertical component of θ
O
147 3 L =r × mv
A u y = u sin 60° = m
2 ∴ L = mvr sin θ
∴ BC = Velocity of river = AC − AB
2 2
Vertical component of From figure,
= (10) − (8) = 6 km/h
2 2 147 1 147
v y = v sin 45° = × = m L = r m (v cos 45° ) sin θ
2 2 2 mv mvh
14 From the figure, the x- component = (r sin θ) =
but v y = u y + at 2 2
remain unchanged, while the 147 147 3
y-component is reverse. Then, the ∴ = − 9. 8 t or t = 5.49 s
velocity at point B is ( 2$i − 3$j ) m/s.
2 2 SESSION 2
20 Velocity v = v 0 + gt + at 2 1 Given, x + y = 16
15 Given, x = 5t − 2t 2 dx
Velocity of the particle, = v 0 + gt + at 2
dt
dx d
vx = = (5t − 2t 2 ) = 5 − 4t Integrate on both sides,
dt dt y
∫ dx = ∫ v 0dt + ∫ gtdt + ∫ at
2 8N
dt
d
Acceleration, ax = v x = − 4 ms −2
dt 1 2 at 3
x = v 0t +gt + +C
Also, y = 10t 2 3
dy Given, x = 0 at t = 0 x
Velocity, vy = = 10 Also, y 2 = 82 + x2
dt ∴ C =0
dv y 1 1 or y 2 = 64 + (16 − y )2 [Q x = 16 − y ]
∴ Acceleration, a y = =0 x = v 0 t + gt 2 + at 3
2 3 or y 2 = 64 + 256 + y 2 − 32 y
dt
∴ Net acceleration of the particle, 1 1 or 32 y = 320 or y = 10 N
At t = 1 second, x = v 0 + g + a
2 3 ∴ x + 10 = 16 or x = 6 N
a net = ax $i + a y$j = (−4 ms −2 ) i$
gx2 2 Suppose two vectors are P and Q.
or a net = − 4 i$ ms −2 21 y = x tan θ −
2u cos 2 θ
2 It is given that| P + Q | = | P − Q |
16 Given, initial velocity (u ) = 3i$ + 4$j For equatorial trajectories for same angle Let angle between P and Q is φ.
Final velocity (v) = ? of projection ∴ P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cos φ
Acceleration (a ) = (0.4 i$ + 0.3 $j ) 8 = P 2 + Q 2 − 2PQ cos φ
= constant
Time (t) = 10 s u2 ⇒ 4PQ cos φ = 0
9.8 g ′ ⇒ cos φ = 0 [Q P , Q ≠ 0]
From first equation of motion, ⇒ = 2
v = u + at 52 3 π
9.8 × 9 ⇒ φ= = 90°
v = 3$i + 4$j + 10 (0.4i$ + 03
. $j ) g′ = = 3.528 m/s2 2
25
v = 7i + 7 j ⇒ |v| = 7 2
$ $ 3 For given vectors to be coplanar,
= 3.5 m/s2 A ×B × C = 0
( x2 − x1 ) $i + ( y 2 − y 1 ) $j
17 Velocity, v av =
t2 − t1 22 Given, Range (R) = maximum height (H) A = 2 $i + 3 $j − 2k$ ⇒ B = 5$i + n$j + k$
(13 − 2) $i + (14 − 3) $j u2 (2sin θ cos θ) u2 sin2 θ ∴ C = − $i + 2 $j + 3k$
= Also, R = ,H =
5− 0 g 2g 2 3 −2
11 $i + 11 $j 11 $ $ u2 (2sin θ cos θ) u2 sin2 θ 5 n 1 =0
= = (i + j ) ∴ =
5 5 g 2g −1 2 3
2u y u2y sin θ ⇒ 2(3 n − 2) − 3(15 + 1) − 2 (10 + n ) = 0
18 T = , H = and R = u x T ⇒ 2cos θ =
g 2g 2 ⇒ 6 n − 4 − 45 − 3 − 20 − 2n = 0
⇒ tanθ = 4 ⇒ 4 n = 72, n = 18
When a horizontal acceleration is also
given to the projectile u y, T and H will ⇒ θ = tan −1 (4) 4 The equation of trajectory of a particle,
remains unchanged while the range will fired, with an initial velocity u at an
23 Maximum range of projectile is given by angle of projection θ,
become 2
u
1 R max = gx2
R ′ = u x T + aT 2 g y = x tan θ − 2
2 2u cos 2 θ
Given, u = 20 m/s and g = 10 m/s2
1 g 4u y
2
gx2
=R+ =R+ H (20)2 400 = x tan θ − 2 sec2 θ
2 4 g 2 ∴ R max = = = 40 m 2u
10 10 gx2
and maximum height will be H. = x tan θ − 2 (1 + tan2 θ)
2u
30 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THREE
Laws
of Motion
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Concept of Forces u Principle of Conservation of u Equilibrium of concurrent
u Inertia Linear Momentum Forces
u Newton’s Laws of Motion u Free Body Diagram u Friction
u Impulse u Connected Motion
Concept of Forces
A push or a pull exerted on any object, is defined to be a force. It is a vector quantity.
Thus, we denote it with an arrow over it, just as we do for velocity and acceleration. Force
can be grouped into two types:
l
Contact forces are the forces that act between two bodies in contact, e.g. tension,
normal reaction, friction etc.
l
Non-contact forces are the forces that act between two bodies separated by a distance
without any actual contact. e.g. gravational force between two bodies and electrostatic
form between two charges etc.
Inertia
The inability of a body to change by itself its state of rest or state of uniform motion along
a straight line is called inertia of the body.
As inertia of a body is measured by the mass of the body. Heavier the body, greater the PREP
force required to change its state and hence greater is its inertia. inertia obviously three
types (i) inertia of rest (ii) inertia of motion (iii) inertia of direction.
MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
N
m F l
For a block system and a pulley as shown T
a in the figure, value of the acceleration of
θ
the system
θ
sin (m + m2 − m3 )g T2
mg mg cos θ
θ mg a= 1 T2
(m1 + m2 + m3 ) a
l
If a block of mass m is placed on a smooth movable wedge of 2 m1m3 g m3 m2 B
Tension, T1 = C
mass M, which in turn is placed on smooth surface, then a (m1 + m2 + m3 )
force F is applied on the wedge, horizontally. T1 a
2 m3 (m1 + m2 )g
The acceleration of the wedge and the block is Tension, T2 =
(m1 + m2 + m3 ) m1
A
N cos θ
and tension T
N
θ 4 m3 (m1 + m2 )g
T = 2 T2 =
m (m1 + m2 + m3 )
N sin θ
ma F l
For the pulley and block arrangement as shown in the
figure, we have
θ mg M T2 T1
M
F
a=
(M + m)
T2
T1
Force on the block, F = (M + m)a = (M + m)g tan θ a
l
For a block system shown in the figure, acceleration of the a
m2 (m 1 > m 2 )
system
m1
F
a=
m1 + m2 + m3 Net acceleration,
Net accelerating force (m1 − m2 )g
A B C a= =
F m1 T1 m2 T2
m3 Total mass (m1 + m2 + M )
34 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOUR
m1
g
sin
Applied
(m2 sin θ2 − m1 sin θ 1)g f = µN force F
Net acceleration, a = ,
(m1 + m2 )
for θ2 > θ 1, m2 > m1 The force of limiting friction f l between the surfaces of
two bodies is directly proportional to the normal reaction
and tension in the string, at the point of contact. Mathematically,
m m (sin θ 1 + sin θ2 )g
T = 1 2 f
(m1 + m2 ) fl ∝ N = µ l N ⇒ µ l = l
N
where, µ l is the coefficient of limiting friction for the
Equilibrium of Concurrent Forces given surfaces in contact.
3. Kinetic Friction It is the opposing force that comes into
If a number of forces act at the same point, they are called
play when one body is actually slides over the surface of
concurrent forces.
another body. Force of kinetic friction fk is directly
The necessary condition for the equilibrium of a body under f
the action of concurrent forces is that the vector sum of all the proportional to the normal reaction N and the ratio k is
N
forces acting on the body must be zero.
called coefficient of kinetic friction µ k , value of µ k is
Mathematically for equilibrium,
slightly less than µe (µ k < µ l ).
Σ Fnet = 0 or ΣFx = 0, ΣF y = 0
Whenever limiting friction is converted into kinetic
and ΣFz = 0 friction, body started motion with a lurch.
DAY FOUR LAWS OF MOTION 35
4. Rolling Friction It is the opposing force that comes into In limiting condition, f1 = mg sin φ
play when a body of symmetric shape (wheel or cylinder ⇒ N = mg cos φ
or disc, etc.) rolls over the surface of another body. Force f1
of rolling friction fr is directly proportional to the normal = tan φ
N
reaction N and inversely proportional to the radius (r ) of
f1
the wheel. ∴ = µ s = tan φ
N N N
Thus, fr ∝ or fr = µ r
r r
The constant µ r is known as the coefficient of rolling Acceleration of a Block on Applying
friction µ r has the unit and dimensions of length. a Force on a Rough Surface
Magnitudewise µ r << µ k or µ l . l
Acceleration of a block on a horizontal surface is as shown
l
The value of rolling friction is much smaller than the in the figure.
value of sliding friction. N
l
Ball bearings are used to reduce the wear and tear and
energy loss against friction.
f = µN F
Angle of Friction
Angle of friction is defined as the angle θ which the resultant R mg
of the force of limiting friction fl and normal reaction N,
subtends with the normal reaction. F − f F − µmg
a= =
The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to the coefficient m m
of friction. i.e. µ = tan θ =
F
− µg
N m
R
where, µ = coefficient of kinetic friction between the two
surfaces in contact.
θ
fl
l
Acceleration of block sliding down a rough inclined plane
Applied force F as shown in the figure is given by
a = g(sin α − µ cos α )
Angle of Repose N
µN
Angle of repose is the least angle of the inclined plane f=
(of given surface) with the horizontal such that the given body ma
placed over the plane, just begins to slide down, without α α
sin
getting accelerated. mg mg mg cos α
N α
fl
l
Retardation of a block sliding up a rough inclined plane as
shown in the figure is a = g(sin α + µ cos α )
sinφ φ
mg mg mg cos φ N
φ F
The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to the coefficient of ma
friction. α α
sin
Hence, we conclude that angle of friction is (θ) equal to the mg µN mg mg cos α
α
angle of repose (φ).
DAY PRACTICE SESSION 1
15 An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a 23 Two blocks of masses m1 = 4 kg and m2 = 2 kg are
horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to connected to the ends of a string which passes over a
each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a massless, frictionless pulley. The total downward thrust
speed of 12 ms −1 and the second part of mass 2 kg on the pulley is nearly
moves with 8 ms −1 speed. If the third part flies off with (a) 27 N (b) 54 N
(c) 2.7 N (d) None of these
4 ms −1 speed, then its mass is j NEET 2013
30 A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a 36 A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3
velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then, the connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass
coefficient of friction is m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.03 (d) 0.06
table (the coefficient of friction = µ).
The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The
31 A block of mass 4 kg is kept on a rough horizontal downward acceleration of m1 is
surface. The coefficient of static friction is 0.8. If a force (Assume, m1 = m2 = m3 = m) j CBSE AIPMT 2014
A
C m
Wall
F
B
S
30°
2kg wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at
friction µs , between block A
the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the
A of mass 2 kg and the wall for 0.25 s, the average force acting on the
table as shown in the T
wall is
30°
12 With what minimum acceleration can a fireman slide 15 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge
2
down a rope while breaking strength of the rope is of ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is
3 given an acceleration a towards the right. The relation
the weight? between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the
2 1 wedge is j NEET 2018
(a) g (b) g (c) g (d) Zero
3 3 A
m
13 Figure shows a uniform rod of length 30 cm having a
mass of 3.0 kg. The strings shown in the figure are pulled
a
by constant forces of 20 N and 32 N. Find the force
q
exerted by 20 cm part of the rod on the 10 cm part. All C B
the surfaces are smooth and the strings and pulleys are g
(a) a = g cos θ (b) a =
light j AFMC 2010 sin θ
g
F F (c) a = (d) a = g tan θ
cosec θ
20 N 10 cm 20 cm 32 N 16 Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To
have the resultant force only along the y-direction, the
(a) 36 N (b) 12 N
(c) 64 N (d) 24 N magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is
j CBSE AIPMT 2008
14 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m
respectively are connected by a massless 4N
and inextensible string. The whole system is
30°
suspended by a massless spring as shown A 3m
60°
in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of
B m
A and B immediately after the string is cut,
are respectively j
NEET 2017
g g g g 2N
(a) g, (b) , g (c) g, g (d) ,
3 3 3 3 3
(a) 0.5 N (b) 1.5 N (c) N (d) 3 N
4
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (c,d) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (d)
31 (a) 32 (c) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (b) 39 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (a)
3 Here, m = 5 kg; Force 11 The area under F - t graph gives change 17 Since, balloon is descending
F = (−3 i$ + 4 $j ) N in momentum. B
−3 i 4j 1
So, a =
F
= + N For 0 to 2 s, ∆ p1 = × 2 × 6 = 6 kg -m/s
m 5 5 2
a mg – B=ma ...(i)
For 2 to 4 s, ∆ p2 = 2 × − 3 = − 6 kg - m/s
Final velocity is along y-axis only when
For 4 to 8 s, ∆ p3 = 4 × 3 = 12 kg - m/s
its x-component of velocity is zero. So,
using vx = u x + ax t So, total change in momentum for 0 to 8 s mg
3 6× 5 ∆ p net = ∆ p1 + ∆ p2 + ∆ p3
⇒ 0= 6− ×t⇒ t = = 10 s
5 3 = (+ 6 − 6 + 12) B
= 12 kg -m/s = 12 N-s
4 The magnitude and direction of pseudo
force depends upon acceleration of frame 12 Resultant force is zero, as three forces a B – (m–m0)g=(m–m0)a ...(ii)
of reference in which observer is situated. acting on the particle has been
It does not depend upon direction and represented in magnitude and direction
by three sides of a triangle in same (m–m0)g
magnitude of acceleration of the block.
order. Hence, by Newton’s second law On adding, Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
i.e. the magnitude of pseudo force on
F = m dv , particle velocity (v) will be ⇒ mg – mg + m 0 g = ma + ma – m 0 a
the block is ma1 .
dt 2ma
⇒ m0 =
5 Time taken for 1 bullet = 1 same. g+a
n
Force = the rate of change of momentum 13 One can come off the frictionless surface 18 When lift is stationary,
= mvn following the law of conservation of
R = mg
momentum i.e. by splitting or sneezing
= 10 × 20 × 10 = 2000 dyne or throwing an object in opposite 49 = m × 9.8
49
6 Here, F = 6i$ − 8$j + 10k$ direction of motion. ⇒ m= = 5 kg
9.8
|F| = 36 + 64 + 100 14 According to the law of conservation of If a is downward acceleration of lift
momentum, p i = p f
= 10 2 N R = m(g − a)
⇒ (0.01 ) × 400 + 0 = 2 v + (0.01) v ′ ...(i)
R = 5 (9.8 − 5) = 24 N
a = 1 ms −2 Also, velocity v of the block just after
the collision is 19 Total mass (m) = Mass of lift + Mass of
10 2
∴ m= [QF = ma] v = 2gh = 2 × 10 × 0.1 = 2 ...(ii) person = 940 + 60 = 1000 kg
1 So, from the free body diagram
= 10 2 kg ⇒ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have T − mg = ma
7 2m ′ vn = mg v ′ ≈ 120 m/s Hence, T − 1000 × 10 = 1000 × 1
∴ velocity of each bullet 15 Concept Momentum is conserved T = 11000 N
mg 100 × 980
v = = = 980 cms −1 before and after collision. 20 Here, lift is accelerating upward at the
2m ′ n 2 × 5 × 10 We have, rate of a.
p1 + p2 + p3 = 0 [Q p = mv ] Hence, equation of motion is
8 From law of conservation of linear ∴ 1 × 12 $i + 2 × 8$j + p3 = 0 written as R − mg = ma
momentum,
⇒ 12 $i + 16$j + p = 0 28000 − 20000 = 2000a
momentum of boat = momentum of dog 3
⇒ p3 = − (12 $i + 16$j ) [Qg = 10 ms −2 ]
m1 v 1 = m2 v 2
Given, m1 = 40 kg ∴ p3 = (12)2 + (16)2
−1 R
v 1 = ?, m2 = 4 kg, v 2 = 10 ms = 144 + 256 = 20 kg-m/s a
∴ 40 × v 1 = 4 × 10 Now, p3 = m3 v3
4 × 10 p 20
⇒ v1 = = 1 ms −1 ⇒ m3 = 3 = = 5 kg
40 v3 4
9 From law of conservation of momentum mg
16 Acceleration of man in left a man = a k$
m1 v 1 = m2 v 2 8000
Acceleration of ball ⇒ a ball = g k$ ⇒ a= = 4 ms −2 upwards
Given, m1 = 0.25kg, v 1 = 100 m/s, 2000
m2 = 100 kg Here, k$ represents downwards direction
⇒ Relative acceleration 21 According to the question
0.25 × 100 = 100 × v 3 mg
v = 0.25m/s a rel = a base − a man = (g − a) k$ =
2 m (g − a)
∴ Acceleration observed by man
10 As we know that, impulse is imparted g
in lift = g − a 3 g − 3 a = 2g ⇒ a =
due to change in perpendicular 3
components of momentum of ball. Again for man standing outside
a man = 0 k$ 22 F sin30° + N = Mg
J = ∆p = mv f − mv i
= mv cos 60°− (− mv cos 60° ) So, a = g k$ − 0 k$ = g k$
relative The block lifts when N = 0
1 ∴ Acceleration observed by man 10 × 10
= 2mv cos 60° = 2mv × = mv ∴ F = = 200 N
2 standing outside = g 1 /2
42 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOUR
4
ms
Initial velocity = v
(m3 + m 4 )F
20
x = pt + qt 2 + rt 3 mg T
60° 60°
dx
⇒ = p + 2qt + 3rt 2
O
dt M
30°
d2 x
= 2q + 6 rt = acceleration (a)
dt 2 In equilibrium, T = Mg …(i) A
At t = 2 s,
If block do not move, then T = fs
a = 2q + 12r = 2 × 4 + 12 × 5
where, fs = frictional force ∆p = OB sin 30° − (− OA sin 30° )
= 68 m / s 2
= µ s R = µ s mg = mv sin 30° − (− mv sin 30° )
Now,|F| = |ma| = 2 × 68 = 136 N ∴ T = µ s mg …(ii) = 2 mv sin 30°
2 We know that, tan α = 0.8 Thus, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
Its time rate will appear in the form of
Mg = µ s mg
α = tan −1 (0.8) = 39° average force acting on the wall.
or M = µs m
The given angle of inclination is less ∴ F × t = 2 mv sin 30°
Given, µ s = 0.2, m = 2 kg
than angle of repose. So, 1 kg block has 2mv sin 30°
∴ M = 0.2 × 2 or F =
no tendency to move. Therefore, T = 0. t
= 0.4 kg
44 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOUR
Circular
Motion
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Concept of Circular Motion u Forces in Circular Motion
u Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion u Applications of Circular Motion
15 One end of the string of length l is connected to a particle of 19 A cyclist goes round a circular path of length 400 m in
mass m and the other end is connected to a small peg on a 20 s. The angle through which he bends from vertical in
smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with order to maintain the balance is
speed v, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) (a)sin−1 (0.64) (b) tan−1 (0.64)
will be (T represents the tension in the string) j NEET 2017 (c)cos−1 (0.64) (d) None of these
mv 2 mv 2 20 A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of
(a)T (b)T + (c)T − (d) Zero
l l radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is
16 A coin placed on a rotating turn table just slips, if it is 45°, the speed of the car is j CBSE AIPMT 2012
placed at a distance of 8 cm from the centre. If angular (a) 20 ms −1 (b) 30 ms −1 (c) 5 ms −1 (d) 10 ms −1
velocity of the turn table is doubled, it will just slip at a
21 Find the maximum velocity with which a train can be
distance of
moved on a circular track of radius 200m. The banking of
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 8 cm
the track is 5.71° (Given, tan 5.71° = 0.1) j AFMC 2011
17 What will be the maximum speed of a car on a road turn (a) 1.4 m/s (b) 14 m/s (c) 140 m/s (d) 0.14 m/s
of radius 30 m, if the coefficient of friction between, the
tyres and the road is 0.4? 22 A cyclist riding the bicycle at a speed of 14 3 m/s takes
a turn a circular road of radius 20 3 m without skidding.
(Take, g = 9.8 m/s 2)
What is his inclination to the vertical?
(a) 10.84 m/s (b) 9.84 m/s
(a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 48° (d) 60°
(c) 8.84 m/s (d) 6.84 m/s
23 A road of width 20 m forms an arc of radius 15 m, its
18 The maximum velocity with which a car driver must
outer edge is 2 m higher than its inner edge. For what
traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and coefficient of velocity the road is banked?
friction 0.6 to avoid skidding?
(a) 10 ms −1 (b) 14 .7 ms −1
(a) 60 (b) 30
(c) 15 (d) 25 (c) 9.8 ms −1 (d) None of these
X ω g g 1 1
3r (a) (b) (c) g (d) g
R sinα R cosα R cosα R sinα
11 A 70 kg man stands in contact against the inner wall of a
R θ R hollow cylindrical drum of radius 3 m rotating about its
θ θ vertical axis with 200 rev/min. The coefficient of friction
between the wall and his clothing is 0.15. When the floor
X′
(a) 8 rad/s (b) 2 rad/s
is suddenly removed, what is the minimum rotational
(c) 3.64 rad/s (d) 9.34 rad/s speed of the cylinder to enable the man to remain stuck
to the wall without falling (approximately)?
7 A heavy small-sized sphere is suspended by a string of
(a) 5 rad/s (b) 10 rad/s
length l. The sphere rotates uniformly in a horizontal
(c) 15 rad/s (d) 20 rad/s
circle with the string making an angle θ with the vertical.
Then, the time-period of this conical pendulum is 12 A national roadway bridge over a canal is in the form of
an arc of a circle of radius 49 m. What is the maximum
l l sin θ
(a) t = 2 π (b) t = 2 π speed with which a car can move without leaving the
g g
ground at the highest point? (take, g = 9.8 ms −2 )
l cos θ l
(c) t = 2 π (d) t = 2 π (a) 19.6 ms −1 (b) 40 ms −1
g g cos θ (c) 22 ms −1 (d) None of these
8 A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled 13 A motorcycle moving with a velocity 72 kmh −1 on a flat
in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone road takes a turn on the road at a point where the radius
makes 22 revolutions in 44 s, what is the magnitude and of curvature of the road is 20 m. The acceleration due to
direction of acceleration of the stone? gravity is 10 ms −2. In order to avoid skidding, he must not
π2 bent with respect to the vertical plane by an angle
(a) ms −2 and direction along the radius towards the
4 greater than
centre (a) θ = tan−1 (2) (b) θ = tan−1 (6)
(b) π 2 ms −2 and direction along the radius away from centre (c) θ = tan−1 (4) (d) θ = tan−1(25.92)
(c) π 2 ms −2 and direction along the radius towards the 14 A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius
centre 10.0 m with a constant speed of 10.0 ms −1. A plumb bob
(d) π 2ms −2 and direction along the tangent to the circle is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod
9 A cyclist is riding with a speed of 27 km/h. As he of length 1.00 m. The angle made by the rod with the
approaches a circular turn on the road of radius 80 m, he track is (take, g = 10 ms −2). j
AFMC 2010
applies brakes and reduces his speed at the constant (a) zero (b) 30°
rate of 0.5 m/s every second. What is the magnitude of (c) 45° (d) 60°
the net acceleration of the cyclist on the circular turn? 15 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road
(a) 0.5 m/s 2
(b) 0.86 m/s 2
(c) 0.72 m/s 2
(d) 0.3 m/s 2 is banked at angle θ. The coefficient of friction between
the tyres of the car and the road is µs . The maximum safe
10 A hemispherical bowl of radius R is rotating about its axis
velocity on this road is j
NEET 2016
of symmetry which is kept vertical. A small ball kept in the
bowl rotates with the bowl without slipping on its surface. If µ + tanθ g µ s + tanθ
(a) gR s (b)
the surface of the bowl is smooth and the angle made by 1 − µ s tanθ R 1 − µ s tanθ
the radius through the ball with the vertical is α. Find the g µ s + tanθ µ + tanθ
(c) (d) gR 2 s
angular speed at which the bowl is rotating. R 2 1 − µ s tanθ 1 − µ s tanθ
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (a)
50 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FIVE
time period 40 10
v = = 15.62 ms −1 12 Given, m = 100 g , r = 0.5 m, F = 10 N
So, distance t
d = 3.5 × 2 πR = 3.5 × 2 π × 10 = 220 m v 2 (1562. )2 mv 2
∴ a= = Centripetal force, F = ,
r 1.5
3 α = ω and ω = θ ⇒ α = θ2
r
− 163 ms −2
= 162.65 ~
t t t v = rF
but α = constant 9 Acceleration, a = rω2 m
θ1 (2) 2 θ1 1 where, ω is angular frequency given by 0.5 × 10 × 1000
So, = or = =
θ1 + θ2 (2 + 2) 2 θ1 + θ2 4 2π
ω= 100
θ 1 + θ2 4 θ 4 T
= 50 ms −1 = 7.07 ms −1
or = or 1 + 2 = 4 π2
θ1 1 θ1 1 As, a= ω r ⇒a= 2 r
2
T 13 Given M = 1.66 × 10−27 kg
θ2
∴ =3 Given, r = 5cm = 5 × 10−2 m, r = 010
. m
θ1
T = 0.2 π s F = 4 × 10–13 N
4 × π2 × 5 × 10−2
4 The acceleration vector is not tangent to ∴ a= = 5ms −2 mv 2
the circle. (0.2 π )2 Centripetal force F =
r
5 Initial velocity, u = 0 10 Centripetal acceleration of a particle F = m × 4 π2 n2 r
Final velocity, v = 80 m/s moving on a circular path is given by 4 × 10−13 = m × 4 π2 × n2 r
v2
Radius of circle, r = m
20
ac = Frequency
π R
4 × 10−13
Distance travelled In the given figure, n= −27
ac = a cos 30° = 15 cos 30° m/s2 1.66 × 10 × 4 × (314
. )2 × 010
.
s = 2 × (2 πr ) = 2 2 π × = 80 m
20
π v2 = 0.08 × 108 cycle/s
⇒ = 15 cos 30°
Now, by applying third equation of R 2
motion 3
14 The centripetal force, F = mv
⇒ v 2 = R × 15 × r
v 2 = u2 + 2as 2 mv 2
(80)2 = 0 + 2 × at × 80 r =
3
= 2.5 × 15 × F
at = 40 m/s2 2 ∴ r ∝ v 2 or v ∝ r
∴ v = 5.7 m/s [If m and F are constant]
6 Centripetal acceleration of rotating body
11 According to given v1 r1 1 1
is given by = = =
question, a v2 r2 2 2
v2 r 2ω2 0.5m
aC = = = rω2 uniform circular
r r disc of radius 15 Consider the string of length l
aC = 4rπ2 v 2 50 cm at rest is connected to a particle as shown in the
Here, r = 30 cm = 30 × 10−2 m = 030
. m free to turn about figure.
120 an axis which is
v = 120 rev/min = rev/s = 2 rev/s peg particle
60 perpendicular to its plane and passes v
aC = (030
. × 4 × 314
. × 314
. × 2 × 2) through its centre. l
= 47.4 m/s2 This situation can be shown by the Speed of the particle is v. As the particle
figure given below is in uniform circular motion, net force
7 Centripetal acceleration is given by
∴ Angular acceleration, α = 2 rad s −2 on the particle must be equal to
v2
a= (given) centripetal force which is provided by
r
Angular speed, ω = αt = 4 rad s −1 the tension (T ).
Given, r = 1 km = 1000 m ∴ Net force = Centripetal force
1000 Q Centripetal acceleration, ac = ω2 r
v = 900 km/h = 900 × ms −1 mv 2
3600 = (4)2 × 0.5 = 16 × 0.5 ⇒ =T
= 250 ms −1
l
ac = 8 m/s2
DAY FIVE CIRCULAR MOTION 51
16 We know that, centrifugal force 23 Condition for velocity on banked road Frequency ν = 40 rev / min
F = mrω2 v2 40 2
∴ tan θ = ⇒v = rg tan θ = rev /s = rev /s
1 rg 60 3
rω2 = constant, ω2 ∝ Centripetal force required for circular
r 2
2
But, tan θ ≈ θ ≈ sin θ = motion is obtained from the tension in
ω r 20 the string.
Given, ω2 = 2ω1 or 2 = 4 ⇒ 1 = 4 [for small angle]
ω1 r2 ∴Tension in the string = Centripetal
Given r = 154 m force
∴ r2 = 2 cm [Q r1 = 8 cm]
∴ v = 15 × 9.8 ×
2 mv 2 m(ωr )2
T = = = mrω2
17 If v is the velocity of the vehicle while 20 r r
rounding the curve, the centripetal force = 14.7 ms −1 = mr (2 π ν)2 (Q ω = 2 πν)
mv 2
required = = mr 4 π2 ν2
r SESSION 2 2 2
= 0.25 × 1.5 × 4 × × = 6.6 N
As this force is provided only by the 22 2
force of fricition, 1 Acceleration of the cyclist at point R 7 3
mv 2 = Centripetal acceleration (ac ) Maximum tension which can be with
≤ µmg ⇒ v 2 ≤ µrg
r v2 (10)2 100 stood by the string
ac = = =
v ≤ µrg ⇒ v max = µrg r 1000 1000 T max = 200 N
∴ = 01
. m/s2 , along RO mv 2max
v max = 0.4 × 30 × 9.8 ∴ T max =
r
= 10.84 m/s 2 Here, v = 20 m/s, r = 150 m; l = 1 m. If T max × r 200 × 1.5
⇒ v max =
2
= = 1200
18 Given, r = 150 m, µ = 0.6 θ is angle of banking, then m 0.25
Maximum velocity v = µrg ∴ v max = 1200 = 34.6 m/s
= 0.6 × 150 × 10 = 30 m/s 5 Given, that two stones of masses m and
19 Given, l = 400 m, t = 20 sec 2 m are whirled in horizontal circles,
mg r
θ the heavier one in a radius and lighter
Total length of circle, l = 2πr 2
mg mv 2 one in radius r as shown in figure.
400 = 2 πr sin θ =
2 cos θ r
400
v2 (20)2 v2
v 2
20 6.28 ⇒ tan θ = =
Qtanθ = = = = 0.64 rg 150 × 9.8
rg 400 9.8
g
= 0.2721
r/2
2m
2π
∴ −1
θ = tan (0.64) θ = 15.22°
Suppose that, h is the distance through r
2
20 Angle of banking, tanθ = v which the outer part of the wheel has to
m
rg be raised with respect to the inner rail. v1
h
Given, θ = 45° , r = 90 m, g = 10 m/s2 sin θ = As, lighter stone is n times that of the
l value of heavier stone when they
v2
∴ tan 45° = Since, θ is small, sin θ ≈ tan θ experience same centripetal forces, we
90 × 10 h v2
∴ = (Q tan θ = v 2 / rg ) get (Fc )heavier = (Fc )lighter
⇒v = 90 × 10 × tan 45° rg
l 2m (v )2 m (nv )2
= 900 = 30 m/s ⇒ = ⇒ n2 = 4 ⇒ n = 2
v2
20 × 1 2
(r / 2) r
⇒ h= l=
2 rg 150 × 9.8
21 Angle of banking, tanθ = v 6 Given, R = 0.2 m
rg = 0.272 m
Given, r = 200 m, θ = 5.71 ω
3 Given, m = 200 kg, r = 750 m,
⇒ v = rg tanθ
θ = 5° , µ s = 0.5
N sin 45°
= 200 × 10 × tan 5.71 The maximum speed,
1 /2
= 200 × 10 × 0.1 rg (µ s + tan θ) N °
v max = 45
= 14.14 m/s = 14 m/s
(1 − µ s tan θ) mrω2 N cos 45°
1 /2
22 Given, v = 14 3 m/s, r = 20 3 750 × 9.8(0.5 + tan 5° ) R sin 45º
= 3R
(1 − 0.5tan 5° )
v2
−1
Angle θ = tan 1 /2
mg
rg 750 × 9.8(0.5 + 0.087)
=
r
(14 3 ) 2 1 − 0.5 × 0.087 r = 3R + R sin 45°
= tan −1
20 3 × 9.8 v max = 672 . m/s N cos 45° = mrω2 and N sin 45° = mg
mg g
= tan −1 ( 3 ) 4 Mass of a stone m = 0.25 kg ⇒ tan 45° = = 2
mrω2 rω
θ = 60° Radius of the string r = 1.5 m
52 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FIVE
Mg Given, v = 10.0 ms –1 , r = 10 m
On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get l = 1.00 m
R
lω2 g = 10 ms –2
1
= or ω2 =
g N α
cos θ g l cos θ 90 – α (10)2
⇒ tan θ = = 1 ⇒ θ = 45°
2π l cos θ r 10 × 10
∴ Time period, t = = 2π
ω g mg 15 According to question, a car is
negotiating a curved road of radius R.
8 Since, speed is constant throughout the The road is banked at angle θ and the
motion, so it is a uniform circular N sin (90 − α ) = mg …(i)
coefficient of friction between the tyres
motion. Therefore, its radial and, N cos (90 − α ) = m ω2 r
of car and the road is µ s . So, this given
acceleration Also, r = R sin α situation can be drawn as shown in
2
2 π n 4 π2 n2 N = mω 2 R
a = r ω = r
So, …(ii) figure below.
=r×
2
t t2 N cos θ
From Eq. (i) and (ii), we get
Given, r = 2 m, n = 22, t = 44 sec m ω 2R N g
1 × 4 × π2 × (22)2 = ⇒ω =
= = π2 ms −2 mg N cos α R cos α θ
N sin θ
(44)2
11 Cylinder being vertical, the normal Fl cos θ
and direction along the tangent to the θ
circle reaction of the wall on the man acts fl
horizontally and provides the necessary fl sin θ
a
centripetal force, N = mrω2 θ
mg
The frictional force f , acting upwards
O m balances his weights f = mg
r Considering the case of vertical
Man will remain stuck to the wall after equilibrium
the floor is removed i.e. he will N cos θ = mg + f l sin θ
continue to rotate with the cylinder ⇒ mg = N cos θ − f l sin θ …(i)
9 Speed of the cyclist (v) = 27 km/h without slipping, if f ≤ µ N Considering the case of horizontal
5 Q 1 km/ h = 5 m/s mg ≤ µ mrω2 equilibrium,
= 27 × m/s
18 18 g g mv 2
ω2 ≥ ⇒ω ≥ N sin θ + f l cos θ = …(ii)
15 µr µr
= m/s R
2 Minimum angular speed of rotation of Divide Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
aT the cylindrical drum is v2 sin θ + µ s cos θ
= [ f1 = Nµ s ]
ωmin =
g Rg cos θ − µ s sin θ
a µr
θ
sin θ + µ s cos θ
O Given, µ = 015
. , r = 3 m, g = 9.8 m/s2 ⇒ v = Rg
ac cos θ − µ s sin θ
9.8
∴ ωmin = = 4.67 rad s −1 tan θ + µ s
. ×3
015 ⇒ v = Rg
−1 1 − µ s tan θ
≈ 5 rad s
DAY SIX
Work, Energy
and Power
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Work u Energy u Work-Energy Theorem u Power
u Conservative and u Law of Conservation of Mechanical u Collision
Non-conservative Force Energy
Work
When a body is displaced actually through some distance in the direction of applied
force, then work is said to be done by the force. The SI unit of work is joule (J) and in
CGS is erg.
1 joule (J) = 107 erg
(iii) Both F and s are finite but the angle θ between the directions of force and
In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
displacement is 90°. In such a case Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
W = F ⋅ s = F s cos θ = F s cos 90 ° = 0 Level should be above 75.
54 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SIX
mg cos θ +
mv 2 2. Perfectly Elastic Collision in a Plane
u r
A In a two dimensional (or oblique) collision between two
l
Tension at any point on vertical loop bodies, momentum remains conserved,
v1
mv2 m
T − mg cos θ = or T = [u2 − gr (2 − 3 cos θ)]
r r m1
A
Power A B θ
m1 u1
Power is defined as the rate of doing work. If an agent does u1
work W in time t , then its average power is given by Before collision
m2 φ
W B
Pav =
t m2
The shorter is the time taken by a person or a machine in v2
performing a particular task, the larger is the power of that
After collision
person or machine.
56 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SIX
∴ Along the X -axis If 0 < e < 1, the collision is said to be partially elastic. But if
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 cos θ + m2 v2 cos φ … (i) e = 0, then collision is said to be perfectly inelastic.
and along the Y-axis In a perfectly inelastic collision, e = 0 which means that
0 = m1v1 sin θ − m2 v2 sin φ … (ii) v2 − v1 = 0 or v2 = v1.
As the total kinetic energy remains unchanged. It can be shown that for an inelastic collision the final
1 1 1 1 velocities of the colliding bodies are given by
Hence, m1u21 + m2u22 = m1v21 + m2 v22 …(iii) m − em2 (1 + e) m2
2 2 2 2 v1 = 1 u1 + u2
We can solve these equations provided that either the m1 + m2 (m1 + m2 )
value of θ or φ is known to us. (1 + e) m1 m − em1
and v2 = u1 + 2 u2 .
(m1 + m2 ) m1 + m2
3. Inelastic Collision If a particle of mass m, moving with velocity u, hits an
In an inelastic collision, the total linear momentum as well identical stationary target inelastically, then final velocities of
as total energy remain conserved but total kinetic energy projectile and target are correlated as
after collision is not equal to kinetic energy before collision. v 1 −e
For the type of collision i.e. m1 = m2 = m and u2 = 0; 1 = .
v2 1 + e
m1v1
Common speed v =
m1 + m2
m1m2 (v1 − v2 )2
Rebounding of a Ball on Collision
and loss of kinetic energy ∆K =
2(m1 + m2 ) with the Floor
Here v2 = 0 l
Speed of the ball after the nth rebound
m1m2 v21 vn = e n v0 = e n 2 gh0
∴ ∆K =
2(m1 + m2 ) l
Height covered by the ball after the nth rebound
v1 v2 v hn = e2 n h0
m1 m2 m1 m2 l
Total distance (vertical) covered by the ball before it stops
Before collision v2=0 After collision bouncing
1 + e2
H = h0 + 2 h 1 + 2 h2 + 2 h3 + … = h0
1 − e
2
15 An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. 23 A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x-direction with a
Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass constant speed of 10 ms -1, is subjected to a retarding
per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m.
kinetic energy is imparted to water ? Its final KE will be j CBSE-AIPMT 2015
31 A stone of mass 1 kg is tied of a string 4m long and is 38 Three objects A, B and C are kept
m 2m m
rotated at constant speed of 40 m/s in a vertical circle. in a straight line on a frictionless
A B C
The ratio of the tension at the top and the bottom is horizontal surface. These have
(Take, g = 10 m/s 2 ) masses m, 2m and m, respectively. The object A moves
(a) 11 : 12 (b) 39 : 41 (c) 41 : 39 (d) 12 : 11 towards B with a speed 9 m/s and makes an elastic
5
32 A train of mass 2 ´ 10 kg has a constant speed of collision with it. Thereafter, B makes completely inelastic
æ 1 ö collision with C. All motions occur on the same straight
20 m/s up a hill inclined at θ = sin-1 ç ÷ to the horizontal line. Find the final speed (in m/s) of the object C.
è 50 ø
when the engine is working at 8 ´ 105 W. The resistance (a) 3 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) 1 m/s
to motion of train is 39 A particle A suffers on oblique elastic collision with a
(a) 400 N (b) 200 N (c) 600 N (d) 800 N particle B, i.e. at rest initially. If their masses are the
same, then after the collision
33 A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers
a constant power k watts. If the particle starts from rest 1. their KE may be equal
2. a continuous to move in the original direction while B
the force on the particle at time t is j CBSE AIPMT 2015
remains at rest
mk -1/ 2
(a) t (b) mk t -1/ 2 3. they will move in mutually perpendicular directions
2
1 4. a comes to rest and B starts moving in the direction of
(c) 2mk t -1/ 2 (d) mk t -1/ 2 the original motion of A
2
(a) 1, 3 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 3
34 An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water
40 A body of mass ( 4 m ) is lying in xy-plane at rest. It
passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of
suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of
2 m s -1. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is
mass m move perpendicular to each other with equal
100 kg m -1 . What is the power of the engine?
speeds v. The total kinetic energy generated due to
j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
explosion is j
CBSE AIPMT 2014
(a) 400 W (b) 200 W (c) 100 W (d) 800 W 3
(a) mv 2 (b) mv 2 (c) 2 mv 2 (d) 4 mv 2
35 Two particles of masses m1 and m2 move with initial 2
velocities u1 and u 2 . On collision, one of the particles get 41 For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies
excited to higher level, after absorbing energy E . If final (a) the total kinetic energy is conserved
velocities of particles be v1 and v 2 , then we must have (b) the total mechanical energy is not conserved
j
CBSE AIPMT 2015 (c) the linear momentum is not conserved
(d) the linear momentum is conserved
(a) m12u1
+ m22u2
-E = +m12v1 m22v 2
1 1 1 1 42 A moving neutron collides with a stationary α-particle.
(b) m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v12 + m2v 22 - E
2 2
2 2 2 2 The fraction of the kinetic energy lost by the neutron is
1 1 1 1 (a) 16 / 25 (b) 9/25 (c) 3/5 (d) 2/5
c) m1u1 + m2u2 - E = m1v1 + m2v 22
2 2 2
2 2 2 2
43 A block of mass m moving at a velocity v collides with
1 1 1 1
(d) m12u12 + m22u22 + E = m12v12 + m22v 22 another block of mass 2m at rest. The lighter block comes
2 2 2 2 to rest after collision. Find the coefficient of restitution.
36 Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s (a) 1/2 (b) 1 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/4
and – 0.3 m /s respectively, collide elastically in one 44 A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of
dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision 20m with an initial velocity v 0. It collides with the ground,
respectively will be j
NEET 2016 loses 50 % of its energy in collision and rebounds to the
same height. The initial velocity v 0 is (Take, g = 10 ms -2 )
(a) –0.5 m/s and 0. 3 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s and –0. 3 m/s j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
(c) –0. 3 m/s and 0.5 m/s (d) 0. 3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
(a) 14 ms - 1 (b) 20 ms - 1
37 An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal (c) 28 ms - 1 (d) 10 ms - 1
plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other.
45 A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v strikes a block
The first part of mass 1kg moves with a speed of 12 ms -1
of mass M at rest and gets embedded into it. The kinetic
and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms -1
energy of the composite block will be
speed. If the third part flies off with 4 ms -1 speed, then its
1 m 1 M
mass is j
NEET 2013 (a) mv 2 ´ (b) mv 2 ´
2 (m + M ) 2 (m + M )
(a) 3 kg (b) 5 kg 1 (M + m) 1 m
(c) 7 kg (d) 17 kg (c) mv 2 ´ (d) Mv 2 ´
2 M 2 (m + M )
60 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SIX
(a) 10 J (b) zero (c) 98 J (d) 196 J (a) 2gR (b) 3gR
2 A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with (c) 5gR (d) gR
velocity v = a x 3 / 2 , where a = 5 ms -2 . The work done by 8 A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of
the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 a time dependent force F = ( 2t i$ + 3t 2 $j ) N, where $i and $j
m is j NCERT Exemplar
are unit vectors along X and Y axes. What power will be
(a) 1.5 J (b) 50 J (c) 10 J (d) 100 J developed by the force at the time (t )? j NEET 2016
3 A particle free to move along X -axis has potential energy (a) (2 t 2 + 4 t 4 ) W (b) (2 t 3 + 3 t 4 ) W
-X 2 (c) (2 t 3 + 3 t 5 ) W (d) (2 t + 3 t 3 ) W
given as U( X ) = k (1 - e ), where k is a positive
constant of appropriate dimension. Then, for - a < X < ¥ 9 On a frictionless surface, a block of mass M moving at
(a) at points away from the origin, the particle is in unstable speed v collides elastically with another block of same
equilibrium mass M which is initially at rest. After collision the first
(b) for any finite non-zero value of x, there is a force block moves at an angle θ to its initial direction and has a
directed away from the origin v
k speed . The second block's speed after the collision is
(c) if its total mechanical energy is , it has its minimum 3
2 j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
kinetic energy at the origin
k 2 2 3
(d) if its total mechanical energy is , it has its maximum (a) v (b) v
2 3 4
kinetic energy at origin 3 3
(c) v (d) v
2 2
4. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius
6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is 10 A moving block having mass m, collides with another
the magnitude of this acceleration, if the kinetic energy of stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block
the particle becomes equal to 8 ´ 10-4 J by the end of the comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of
second revolution after the beginning of the motion? the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of
(a) 0.15 m/s 2 . m/s 2
(b) 018 j
NEET 2016 restitution (e ) will be j
NEET 2018
(c) 0.2 m/s 2 (d) 0.1 m/s 2 (a) 0.8 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.4
5 A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a
constant speed of 10 ms -1. It is subjected to a retarding 11 A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides
force F = - 0.1 x Jm -1, during its travel from x = 20 m to inelastically with another identical mass. After collision
x = 30 m. Its final kinetic energy will be v
the first mass moves with velocity in a direction
(a) 475 J (b) 450 J (c) 275 J (d) 250 J 3
6 A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless perpendicular to the initial direction of motion. Find the
track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just speed of the second mass after collision.
completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The
height h is equal to j
NEET 2018 v
—
√3
v At rest
B m m
h
Before collision After collision
2 v
A (a) v (b)
3 3
7 3 5
(a) D (b) D (c) D (d) D (c) v (d) 3 v
5 2 4
DAY SIX WORK, ENERGY AND POWER 61
12 Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to (a) 2Avρ cos θ (b) 2 Av 2ρ cos θ
operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional forces are (c) 2 Av 2ρ (d) 2Avρ
10% of energy. How much power is generated by the 14 A mass of 100 g strikes the wall with speed 5 m/s at an
turbine? ( Take, g = 10 m /s 2 ) j CBSE AIPMT 2008
angle as shown in figure and it rebounds with the same
(a) 8.1 kW (b) 10.2 kW speed. If the contact time is 2 ´ 10-3 sec, then what is the
(c) 12.3 kW (d) 7.0 kW force applied on the mass by the wall?
13 An intense stream of water of cross-sectional area A
strikes a wall at an angle θ with the normal to the wall and
returns back elastically. If the density of water is ρ and its
velocity is v, then the force exerted in the wall will be 60°
60°
θ 100 g
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (a) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (b) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (a) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (b) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (d) 42 (a) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (a)
SESSION 2 1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (c)
To complete the loop Tc ³ 0 10 Since, the collision mentioned is an From the conservation of vertical linear
mv c2 elastic head-on collision. Thus, momentum
So, mg = mv v
R according to the law of conservation of - mv ¢ sin θ = 0 ⇒ = v ¢ sin θ
Þ v c = gR …(iii) linear momentum, we get 3 3
...(iv)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii) by conservation of m1u1 + m2u2 = m1 v 1 + m2 v 2
On squaring and adding Eqs. (iii) and
energy where, m1 and m2 are the masses of the
(iv), we get
1 1 two blocks, respectively and u1 and u2
mv 20 = mv c2 + 2mgR v2
2 2 are their initial velocities and v 1 and v 2 v2 + = v ¢2 (sin2 θ + cos 2 θ)
are their final velocities, respectively. 3
Þ mv 20 = mgR + 2mgR ´ 2 Here, m1 = m, m2 = 4m 4v 2 2
u1 = v ,u2 = 0 ⇒ = v ¢2 ⇒ v ¢ = v
[Q v c = gR ] 3 3
and v1 = 0
Þ v 20 = gR + 4gR 12 Pgenerated = Pinput ´ 90
mv + 4m ´ 0 = 0 + 4mv 2
Þ v0 = 5gR 100
Þ mv = 4mv 2
mgh 90 15 ´ 10 ´ 60 90
v = ´ = ´
8 According to question, a body of mass 1 or v2 = …(i) t 100 1 100
4
kg begins to move under the action of = 8.1 kW
As, the coefficient of restitution is given
time dependent force,
as,
F = (2ti$ + 3t 2 $j ) N relative velocity of separation 13 Linear momentum of water striking per
where i$ and $j are unit vectors along X after collision
e = second to the wall
relative velocity of approach
and Y-axes. p i = mv = Avρv = Av 2ρ,
F v
Q F = ma Þ a = -0 similarly linear momentum of reflected
v2 - v1
m = = 4 [from Eq. (i)] water per second
2$ u2 - u1 0- v
(2t$i + 3t j ) p r = Av 2ρ.
Þ a= (Q m = 1 kg ) 1
1 = Y
4
Þ a = (2ti$ + 3t $j ) m / s 2
2
\ e = 0.25
dv
Q acceleration, a =
dt 11 Let mass A moves with velocity v and pi
Þ dv = a dt …(i) collides inelastically with mass B, which
is at rest. pr cosθ θ pi cosθ
Integrating both sides, we get X
θ θ
2 pr
ò dv = ò a dt = ò (2ti$ + 3t $j ) dt —
v
v = t 2 $i + t 3 $j A m √3 pr sinθ pi
pi sinθ
Q Power developed by the force at the
A B
time t will be given as v
m m Now, making components of
P = F × v = (2t$i + 3t 2 $j ) × (t 2 $i + t 3 $j ) θ
momentum along X and Y-axes. Change
At rest
= (2t .t 2 + 3t 2 × t 3 ) in momentum of water per second
P = (2t 3 + 3t 5 ) W m
B v′ = p i cos θ + p r cos θ = 2 Av 2ρ cos θ
9 By definition of force, force exerted on
v/ 3 According to problem mass A moves in a
M the wall = 2 Av 2ρ cos θ
perpendicular direction and let the mass
B moves at angle θ with the horizontal 14 Force = Rate of change of momentum
M v M u2=0 º θ with velocity v.
Initial momentum
Initial horizontal momentum of system
p1 = mv sin θ $i + mv cos θ $j
M (before collision) = mv ...(i)
Final horizontal momentum of system Final momentum
v2 p2 = - mv sin θ $i + mv cos θ $j
(after collision) = m v ¢ cos θ ...(ii)
According to law of conservation of From the conservation of horizontal Dp -2mv sin θ
kinetic energy, we have linear momentum \ F= =
1 1 v
2
1
Dt 2 ´ 10-3
Mv 2 + 0 = M æç ö÷ + Mv 22 mv = mv ¢cos θ ⇒ v = v ¢ cos θ ...(iii)
2 2 è3ø 2 On substituting, m = 0.1 kg ,
Initial vertical momentum of system
v = 5m/s, θ = 60°
2 v2 v2 8v 2 (before collision) is zero.
Þ v = + v 22 Þ v 2 - = v 22 Þ
9 9 9 Final vertical momentum of system Force on the ball, F = - 250 3 N to left
Velocity of second block after collision, mv
- mv ¢ sin θ. Negative sign indicates direction of the
2 2 3 force.
v2 = v
3
DAY SEVEN
System of Particles
and Rigid Body
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Centre of Mass u Radius of Gyration u Moment of Inertia for Simple
u Momentum Conservation u Theorems on Moment of Geometrical Objects
u Rigid Bodies Inertia
u Moment of Inertia u Radius of Gyration
Centre of Mass
Centre of mass of a system (body) is a point that moves when external forces are applied
on the body as though all the mass were concentrated at that point and all external forces
were applied there.
14 Two masses are joined with a light rod and the system is 21 Three particles each of mass m gram situated at the
rotating about the fixed axis as shown in the figure. The vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l cm
MI of the system about the axis is (as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia of the
system about a line AX perpendicular to AB and in the
plane of ABC in gcm 2 units will be
M/2 M/2 X
m C
l/2 l/2
l l
11 From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small 12 A uniform circular disc of radius a is taken. A circular
R portion of radius b has been removed from it as shown in
disc of radius is removed from the disc, the moment of
3 the figure. If the centre of holes is at a distance c from
inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular the centre of the disc, the distance x 2 of the centre of
to the plane of the disc and passing through O is mass of the remaining part from the initial centre of mass
O is given by
R/3
a
b
R O O O1
O2 X-axis
x2 c
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (d)
SESSION 2 1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (b)
m1 v 1 + m2 v 2 + m3 v 3
7 VCM = I remain =
13MR2 19 I = 1 MR2 = 1 ( πR2t × ρ) × R2 ⇒ I = R2
m1 + m2 + m3 32 2 2
4
5 × 5 + 4 × 4 + 2 × 2 45 R
4
=
= = 13 I .
02 1
Y ∴ 1 = 1 =
5+ 4 + 2 11 I2 R2 0.6 81
= 4. 09 = 4 m/s
1 kg (0, 0, 0) (2, 0, 0) 20 Generator axis of a cylinder in a line
8 As initially both the particles were at rest B 2 kg
X
lying on it’s surface and parallel to axis
therefore velocity of centre of mass was A
of cylinder. By parallel axis theorem,
zero and there is no external force on the
MR2 3
system so speed of centre of mass remains I = + MR2 = MR2
0)
constant i.e it should be equal to zero. 2 2
2,
,–
21 Moment of inertia of the system about
(–2
9 Here, on the entire system net external D (0
, 3,
4 kg 0) AX is given by
force on the system is zero hence centre
of mass remains unchanged. C 3 kg X
10 As the spherical bodies have their own I AB = I X = Σm i r i2 C
size, so the distance covered by both the D
body 12R − 3 R = 9 R, but individual = m1 r12 + m2 r22 + m3 r32 + m 4 r 42
l l
distance covered by each body depends = (1)(0)2 + 2(0)2 + 3(3)2 + 4(−2)2
upon their masses. 30°
= 27 + 16 = 43 kg-m2
5M
M 14 Total moment of inertia is A B
2 2 l
R 9R 2R I =
M l + M l
= m A r 2A + m B r B2 + mC rC2
12 R 2 2 2 2
9R–x Ml 2 Ml 2 Ml 2 = m (0)2 + m (l )2 + m (l sin 30° )2
x = + =
8 8 4 m l2 5
= m l2 + = m l2
We know that bodies are moving under 4 4
15 Moment of inertia of rod about an axis
the effect of mutual attraction only, so 2
through its centre of mass and
22 ML = Mk 2 ⇒ k = L
their position of centre of mass remains perpendicular to rod = (mass of rod) × 12 12
unaffected. (perpendicular distance between two
Let smaller body cover distance x just axes) 23 From theorem of parallel axis,
before collision from m1 r1 = m2 r2 , we 2 A
Ml 2 Ml 2
+ M =
l
get, Mx = 5M (9 R − x ) ⇒ x = 7.5R =
12 2 3
11 The position of point P on rod through Moment of inertia of the system
which the axis should pass, so that the
Ml 2 4 h
work required to set the rod rotating = × 4 = Ml 2
with minimum angular velocity ω 0 is 3 3
their centre of mass, we have 2 2
m2 L 16 I = Id = MR and I p = MR CM B
m1 x = m2 (L − x ) ⇒ x = 4 2
I = IG + Mh2 ⇒ I AB = ICM + Mh2
m1 + m2
Hence, I p = 2I
MK 2AB = MK CM
2
+ Mh2
12 Considering the I 17 Moment of inertia of disc passing ⇒ K 2AB = K CM
2
+ h2
information given through its centre of gravity and
in the question, let perpendicular to its plane is Given, K AB = 10 cm, h = 6 cm
us draw the figure R R/2 ∴ K CM = 8 cm
1
If the above figure I AB = MR2
2 24 The theorem of parallel axis for moment
is considered, then
Using theorem of parallel axes, we have of inertia.
moment of inertia of disc will be given as
ICD = I AB + MR2 I = ICM + Mh2 ,
I = I remain + I( R /2 ) ⇒ I remain = I − I( R /2 )
2
ML2
I = I 0 + M = I 0 +
Putting the values, we get 1 3 L
= MR2 + MR2 = MR2
M R 2 2 2 2 4
2
MR 2
4 2 M R 18 For semi-circle,
= − + 25 X
2 2 4 2 πr = l
l r dr
∴ r = 1
π
MR2 MR2 MR2
= − + Moment of inertia
2 32 16 mr 2
I = a 2 3
r r
MR2 MR2 + 2MR2 2
= − 2
2 32 m l m l2 X′
= =
2
16MR − 3MR
2 2 2 2 π 2 π2
=
MR
−
3MR
= I xx ′ = I1 + I2 + I3
2 32 32
74 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SEVEN
mr 2 + mr 2 + mr 2
2 2 3 According to the theorem of The distance between these two parallel
=
3 3 perpendicular axes, I Z = I X + I Y with axes (in figure) is R, the radius of the
ring.
+ mr 2 + mr 2
2 the hole, I x and I y both decrease and
3 gluing the removed piece at the centre Using the parallel axes theorem,
I xx ′ = 2mr 2 + 2mr 2 = 4 mr 2 of square plate does not affect I z . Hence, Tangent
I z decreases, overall. (axis-1)
26 I ICM
A b D
4 Moment of inertia of a R
L hollow sphere of radius Diameter (axis-2)
4 R about the diameter b C
passing through D is
According to theorem of parallel axes, 2
2 l A = MR2 C
ML2
+ M
L 3 B
I = ICM + Mx2 = MR2
12 4 Moment of inertia of solid sphere about I tangent = Idia + MR2 = + MR2
2
ML2 ML2 7ML2 diameter,
= + = 2 3
=MR2
12 16 48 l D = MR2 2
5
Moment of inertia of whole system 10 Moment of inertia of a cylinder about its
SESSION 2 about side AD is = l A + l D + l B + l C MR2
1 Let m1 = m, m2 = 2m, m3 = 3 m, centre and parallel to its length =
= MR2 + MR2 + Mb 2 + MR2
2 2 2 2
m4 = 4 m 3 5 3 R
+ Mb + MR2
Y 2 2
L
2m 3m 5
32
= MR + 2Mb
2 2
15 Moment of inertia about its centre and
a sin 60°
Rotational
Motion
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Concept of Rotational u Moment of Force or Torque u Equilibrium of a Rigid Bodies
Motion u Angular Momentum u Rigid Body Rotation
u Equation of Rotational u Law of Conservation
Motion of Angular Momentum
u
No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
No. of Correct Questions (z)—
If angular acceleration α is uniform, then equations of rotational motion may be written (Without referring Explanations)
as
1 Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
(i) ω = ω 0 + α t (ii) θ = ω 0 t + α t 2
u
O
l
The torque about axis of rotation is θ A dL
independent of choice of origin O, so B Hence, if τext = 0, then = 0 ⇒ L = constant
dt
long as it is chosen on the axis of
rotation AB. Therefore, in the absence of any external torque, total angular
momentum of a system must remain conserved.
l
Only normal component of force
contributes towards the torque. Radial component of force Comparison of Linear and Rotational Motion
does not contribute towards the torque. Linear Motion Rotational Motion
l
A torque produces angular acceleration in a rotating body. 1. Linear momentum, p = mv Angular momentum, L = Iω, L = 2 IE
Thus, torque, τ = Iα
2. Force, F = ma Torque, T = Iα
l
Moment of a couple (or torque) is given by product of
3. Kinetic energy, E = 1 mv 2 Rotational energy, E =
1 2
position vector r between the two forces and either force F. Iω
2 2
Thus, τ = r × F
l
If under the influence of an external torque, τ the given
body rotates by dθ, then work done, dW = τ ⋅ dθ. Equilibrium of a Rigid Bodies
l
In rotational motion, power may be defined as the scalar
product of torque and angular velocity, i.e. Power P = τ ⋅ ω. For mechanical equilibrium of a rigid body, two condition
need to be satisfied.
16 A mass m moves in a circle on a v0 22 Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with
smooth horizontal plane with velocity v 0 m moments of inertia I A and IB (IB > I A ) have equal kinetic
at a radius R 0. The mass is attached to energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular momenta
a string which passes through a respectively, then j NEET 2016
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (a)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (a)
1
2
2
1 1 1
= Iω21 + Iω22 − (2I ) ω1ω2 27 Rotational kinetic energy, K R = 1 Iω2
⇒ KE f = m (2v 0 ) = 2 mv 0
2
2 2 2 2
2 1 1 MR2 2 1
= I(ω1 − ω2 ) 2 KR = × × ω = mv 2
17 Tr = Iα 2 2 2 4
T Translational kinetic energy,
r
22 As we know that, the kinetic energy of a 1
rotating body, K T = mv 2
2
O 1 1 I 2ω2 L2 Total kinetic energy, = K T + K R
KE = Iω2 = =
r 2 2 I 2I 1 1 3
= mv 2 + mv 2 = mv 2
Also, angular momentum, L = I ω 2 4 4
Iα mr 2 α mrα 1
T = = × = Thus, K A = KB mv 2
Rotational Kinetic energy 1
r 2 r 2 2 = 4 =
1 L2A 1 L2B L I Total Kinetic energy 3 3
50 × 0.5 × 2 × 2 π ⇒ = ⇒ A = A mv 2
= N = 157 N 2 IA 2 IB LB IB 4
2 28 a slipping = g sinθ
LA IA g sin θ 5 a rolling
18 According to question by applying ⇒ = ⇒L ∝ I a rolling = = g sin θ ⇒ =
5
LB IB 2 7 a slipping 7
conservation of angular momentum K
1+
I1ω1 = I2ω2 ∴ L A < LB [Q I B > I A ] r2
In the given case 23 KE of sphere, 29 Torque on the rod = Moment of weight
I1 = MR2 or I2 = MR2 + 2 mR2 1 2 12 1
KS = Iω1 = mR2ω21 = mR2ω21 of the rod about P
ω1 = ω 2 2 5 5 L/ 2
I M KE of cylinder, P
Then, ω2 = 1 ω = ω 11 1
I2 M + 2m KC = mR2ω22 = mR2ω22
22 4 mg
19 Work done required to bring an object mR2ω21 L
1 τ = mg …(i)
to rest is given as W = Iω2 K 5 4 ω21 4 ω21 1 2
2 ∴ S = = = =
KC mR2ω22 5 ω22 5 (2ω1 ) 2 5 ∴ Moment of Inertia of rod about
where, I is the moment of inertia and ω
4 (given, ω2 = 2ω1 ) ML2
is the angular velocity. P = …(ii)
Since, here all the objects spin with the 2 3
L2 E L As τ = Iα
same ω, this means, W ∝ I 24 E = or E ∝ L2 or 2 = 2
2 2I E1 L1 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
As, I A (for a solid sphere) = MR2
5 L2 = 200% of (L1 ) + L1 L ML2
Q Mg = α
1 = 2L1 + L1 = 3L1 2 3
I B (for a thin circular disk) = MR2
2 2 3g
E2 3L1 ∴ α =
IC (for a circular ring) = MR2 ∴ = or E2 = 9E1 2L
E1 L1
∴ W A : W B : WC = I A : I B : IC
2 1 2 1 Increment in kinetic energy SESSION 2
= MR2 : MR2 : MR2 = : : 1
5 2 5 2 ∆E = E2 − E1 = 9E1 − E1
= 4 : 5 : 10 ∆E = 8E1 1 The moment of inertia of the uniform
⇒ W A < W B < WC ∆E rod about an axis through one end and
∴ = 8 or percentage increase = 800% perpendicular to length is
E1
DAY EIGHT ROTATIONAL MOTION 83
This Pdf Is
Downloaded From
www.exambites.in
VISIT NOW !!
DAY NINE
Gravitation
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Universal Law of Gravitation u Gravitational Potential Energy u Geostationary Satellite
u Acceleration due to Gravity u Escape Velocity u Kepler’s Laws of Planetary
u Gravitational Field u Artificial Satellite Motion
u Gravitational Potential
3GM 3
Gravitational field intensity at any point is defined as the V =− = Vsurface
2R 2
force experienced by any test mass devided by the magnitude
of test mass when placed at the desired point. For Spherical Shell
Mathematically, l
At a point outside the shell,
F
Gravitational field intensity, E = GM
m0 V =− where, r > R.
r
where, m0 is a small test mass. The SI unit of gravitational l
At a point on the surface of spherical shell,
intensity is N kg −1. GM
V =−
l
Gravitational intensity at a point situated at a distance r R
from a point mass M is given by l
At any point inside the surface of spherical shell
GM GM
E= 2 V =− = Vsurface
r R
86 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINE
6 The depth d at which the value of acceleration due to 16 Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E ) of earth
1 with distance (r ) from centre of earth is correctly
gravity becomes times the value at the surface,
n represented by j CBSE-AIPMT 2014
24 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S 2 are moving in the same (a) the angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth
orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass of S 2 . Which changes in direction, but its magnitude remains constant
one of the following statements is true? (b) the total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with
time
(a) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2
(c) the linear momentum of S remains constant in
(b) The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two
magnitude
cases are equal
(d) the acceleration of S is always directed towards the
(c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
centre of the earth
(d) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal
25 A remote sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular 34 A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the
orbit at a height of 0.25 × 10 m above the surface of
6 sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2 .
If v1 and v 2 are the linear velocities at these points
earth. If earth’s radius is 6.38 × 106 m and g = 9.8 ms − 2 ,
v
then the orbital speed of the satellite is j CBSE AIPMT 2015 respectively, then the ratio 1 is
v2 j CBSE AIPMT 2011
(a) 7.76 kms − 1 (b) 8.56 kms − 1 (c) 9.13 kms − 1 (d) 6.67 kms − 1
(a) r2 /r1 (b) (r2 /r1)2 (c) r1 / r2 (d) (r1 /r2 )2
26 The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the
earth are 4 R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite 35 The condition for a uniform spherical mass m of radius r
A is 3 v, then the speed of satellite B will be to be a black hole is
j CBSE AIPMT 2010
(G = gravitational constant and g = acceleration due to
gravity)
(a) 3v/4 (b) 6 v (c) 12 v (d) 3v/2 1/ 2 1/ 2
(a)
2 Gm
(b)
2 gm
27 The minimum energy required to send a 3000 kg ≤C =C
r r
spacecraft from the earth to a far away location where 1/ 2 1/ 2
(c)
2 Gm
(d)
gm
earth’s gravity is negligible, would be (Me = 6 × 10 24 kg , ≥C ≥C
r r
Re = 6400 km)
. × 1011 J (b) 9 × 1010 J (c) 1 × 1011 J
(a) 188 (d) 6 × 1011 J 36 The velocity with which a projectile must be fired to
28 For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the escape from the earth does not depend upon
ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is (a) mass of earth (b) mass of projectile
1 1 (c) radius of earth (d) None of these
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d) 2
2 2
37 A body is dropped from a height R e (radius of earth)
29 Network done on a satellite revolving in an elliptical orbit above the earth surface. It strikes the earth with speed vo ,
in one complete revolution v
if ve is the escape velocity from earth’s surface, then o is
(a) is zero (b) is non-zero ve
(c) may be zero (d) None of these (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
30 An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the 38 Escape velocity on the earth is 11.2 kms . What would −1
earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E 0. Its be the escape velocity on a planet whose mass is
potential energy is 1000 times and radius is 10 times that of earth?
(a) − E 0 (b) 1.5 E 0 (c) 2E 0 (d) E 0 (a) 112 kms −1 (b) 11.2 kms −1 (c) 1.12 kms −1 (d) 3.7 kms −1
31 A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at 39 A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so
a height h from its surface. The total energy of the strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what
satellite in terms of g 0, the value of acceleration due to
approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg)
gravity at the earth’s surface is j
NEET 2016
have to be compressed to a black hole?
mg0R 2 mg0R 2 2mg0R 2 2mg0R 2
(a) (b) − (c) (d) − j
CBSE AIPMT 2014
2(R + h) 2(R + h) R+h R+h −9 −6 −2
(a) 10 m (b) 10 m (c) 10 m (d) 100 m
32 An earth satellite is moved from one stable circular orbit 40 The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve ) to the escape
to another higher stable circular orbit. Which one of the
velocity at a planet (v p ) whose radius and mean density
following quantities increase for the satellite as a result of
are twice as that of earth is j
NEET 2016
this change?
(a) 1 : 2 2 (b) 1: 4 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1: 2
(a) Angular momentum (b) Kinetic energy
(c) Angular velocity (d) Linear orbital speed 41 If the distance between the earth and sun were half its
present value, the number of days in a year would have
33 A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the
been
earth. The mass of the satellite is very small as compared
to the mass of the earth. Then, j
CBSE AIPMT 2015 (a) 64.5 (b) 129 (c) 182.5 (d) 730
90 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINE
42 The ratio of mean distances of three planets from the sun 45 The figure shows elliptical orbit m v
C
are 0. 5 : 1 : 1. 5 , then the square of time periods are in the of a planet m about the sun S. B
ratio of The shaded area SCD is twice A S
(a) 1 : 4 : 9 (b) 1 : 9 : 4 (c) 1 : 8 : 27 (d) 2 : 1 : 3 the shaded area SAB. If t1 is D
43 Kepler’s third law states that square of period of the time for the planet to move
revolution (T ) of a planet around the sun, is proportional from C to D and t 2 is the time to
to third power of average distance r between sun and move from A to B, then j CBSE AIPMT 2009
planet (a) t1 > t 2 (b) t1 = 4 t 2 (c) t1 = 2 t 2 (d) t1 = t 2
46 How long will a satellite, placed in a circular orbit of
i.e. T 2 = Kr 3 . th
1
Here, K is constant. radius that is the radius of a geostationary satellite,
4
If the masses of sun and planet are M and m take to complete one revolution around the earth
respectively, then as per Newton’s law of gravitation (a) 12 h (b) 6 h (c) 3 h (d) 4 h
force of attraction between them is 47 The planet neptune travels around the sun with a period
GMm of 165 yr. What is the radius of orbit approximately, if the
F = , here G is gravitational constant.
r2 orbit is considered as circular?
The relation between G and K is described as (a) 20R1 (b) 30R1 (c) 25 R1 (d) 35 R1
j CBSE AIPMT 2015 48 At its aphelion, the planet mercury is 6 .99 × 1010 m from
(a) GK = 4 π 2
(b) GMK = 4 π 2 the sun and at its perihelion it is 4 .6 × 1010 m from the sun.
(c) K = G (d) K =
1 If its orbital speed of aphelion is 3.88 × 104 ms −1, then
G its perihelion orbital speed would be
44 A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of (a) 3 .88 × 104 ms−1 (b) 5 .90 × 104 ms−1
5 R above that surface of the earth, R being the radius of (c) 5 .00 × 104 ms−1 (d) 5 .5 × 104 ms−1
the earth. The time period of another satellite in hour at a 49 The time period of moon’s revolution is 27.3 days and
height of 2 R from the surface of the earth is radius of the earth is 6.37 × 106 m, distance to the moon is
j
CBSE AIPMT 2012 3.84 × 108 m, then the mass of the earth is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 6 2 (d) 6/ 2 (approximately)
(a) 1024 kg (b) 1016 kg (c) 1016 kg (d) 105 kg
11 The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves in a circle 19 A particle hanging from a spring stretches it by 1 cm at
of radius r with angular speed ω. The acceleration due to earth’s surface. How much will the same particle stretch
gravity on planet’s surface would be the spring at a place 800 km above the earth’s surface?
r 3ω r 2ω3 (Take, radius of the earth = 6400 km)
(a) (b)
R 2R (a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm
r 3ω2 r 2ω2 (c) 0.53 cm (d) 0.79 cm
(c) (d)
R2 R 20 The escape velocity of a body on the Earth’s surface is
12 A particle is fired vertically upwards with a speed of ve . A body is thrown up with a speed 5 ve . Assuming
−1 that the sun and planets do not influence the motion of
15 kms from the surface of earth. The speed with which
it moves in intersteller space, is the body, the velocity of the body at infinite distance is
v
(take escape speed from surface of earth as v ∞ . Then, the value of ∞ is
11.2 kms −1) ve
(a) zero (b) 3.8 kms −1 (a) zero (b) 1
(c) ≈ 10 kms −1 (d) ≈ 4 kms −1 (c) 2 (d) 3
92 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINE
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (d) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (a) 35 (c) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (c) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (c) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (b)
SESSION 2 1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (b) 18 (d) 19 (d) 20 (c)
11 g h = Acceleration due to gravity at 15 Total mechanical energy of any closed 21 Change in potential energy,
− −
height h above earth’s surface system is always negative. GMm GMm
∆U = −
2 R + 2R R
R
=g 2h 16 E in = − GMr
= g 1 − R3 E GMm GMm
R + h R R r =− +
GM O 3R R
g d = Acceleration at depth d below Eout = −
r2 2GMm 2 Q g = GM
earth’s surface = = mgR
17 πR = L 3R 3 R2
= g 1 −
d
R L mgh
∴ R= , 22 ∆U = ,h= R [given]
Given, when h = 1 km, g d = g h π 1 + h
πGM
R
or g 1 − = g 1 −
d 2h V =−
GM
=−
R R R L mgR
∴ ∆U =
⇒ d = 2h or d = 2 km 18 The resulting gravitational potential, 2
GM 1 v r1
23 v = or v ∝ ⇒ 2 =
V = −2G + + + +…
12 According to the question, 1 1 1 1
r v1 r2
1 2 4 8 r
GMm 1 GMm
= r1 R 2
(R + h )2 16 R2 ∴ v2 = v1 = v = v
V = −2G 1 + + + …
1 1 1
⇒ r2 R 3
where, m = mass of the body 2 22 23 R+
2
GM −1
= gravitational acceleration 24 Orbital velocity of satellite is v 0 = gR
V = −2G 1 −
and 1
R2 ⇒
2 which is independent of mass of satellite.
1 1
= 2G −2G Option (c) is correct.
(R + h )2 16R2 ⇒ v =− = = − 4G
1 − 1 1 25 Given, height of a satellite
R 1 R+ h
or = or =4 2 2 h = 0.25 × 10 6 m
R+ h 4 R
h = 3R 19 Gravitational potential at some height h
from the surface of the earth is given h
13 According to Newton’s law of by
gravitation force, GM R
GMm V =− …(i)
F = R+ h
R2
And acceleration due to gravity at some
Force on planet of mass M P and body of height h from the earth surface can be
mass m is given by given as
GM P m g′ =
GM Earth’s radius, Re = 6.38 × 106 m
F = …(ii)
(D P /2)2 (R + h )2 For the satellite revolving around the
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get earth, orbital velocity of the satellite
where, D P = diameter of planet
and R = radius of planet = D P |V | (R + h )2 GMe GMe
=
GM
× v0 = =
P
2 g′ (R + h ) GM Re h
Re 1 +
4GM P m Re
F = ⇒
|V |
=R+ h (iii)
D 2P g′ gRe
⇒ v0 =
h
As we know that, F = ma Q . × 107 J kg −2
V = − 54 1+
F Re
So, acceleration due to gravity a = and g ′ = 6.0 ms −2
m Substitutes the values of g , Re and h, we
4GM P Radius of earth, R = 6400 km. get
= Substitute these values in Eq. (iii), we
D 2P v 0 = 60 × 106 m/s
get
v 0 = 776
. × 103 m/s = 776
. km/s
14 Let a small element dy at a distance y . × 107
54
=R+ h 26 Orbital velocity of satellite is given by,
from the mass m be taken, then force 6.0
GM
due to this element ⇒ 9 × 10 = R + h
6 v=
r
dy m ⇒ h = (9 − 6.4) × 106 = 2.6 × 106 m Ratio of orbital velocities of A and B is
⇒ h = 2600 km given by,
y vA rB
20 Gravitational potential at point a/2 ⇒ =
Gravitational force on the mass due to vB rA
distance from centre is given by,
rod, R 1
x + l GMdym V =−
GM GM
− = =
F =∫ a a/2 4R 2
x
ly 2 ∴
vA
=
3v
=
1
3GM
GMm 1 1 GMm =− vB vB 2
= − = a
l x x+ l x ( x + l ) ∴ v B = 6v
94 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINE
27 Minimum energy required is given by GMe On putting the value of v 2 from Eq. (i),
37 vo =
Re 4 π2 r 2
mv 2 GMe m we get T 2 =
− =0 2GMe v 1 GM
2 Re while, v e = ⇒ o = = 1 : 2.
Re ve 2 r
GMe m 4 π2 r 3
K min = = 1.88 × 1011 J T2 = ...(ii)
Re 38 v e = 2gR = 2 GM
2
R or v e ∝
M
GM
R R
28 Potential energy of satellite, T = kr
2 3
...(iii)
Mass is 1000 times and radius is 10
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
GMe m times. Therefore, escape velocity will
|U | = 4 π2
Re become 10 times. = k ⇒ GMK = 4 π2
⇒ v e = 11.2 × 10 = 112 kms −1 GM
Kinetic energy of satellite,
2GM
44 From Kepler’s third law
1 GM e m 39 Ve = =C
K = R T 2 ∝ r3
2 Re
2GM where,T = time period of
⇒R =
K 1 GM e m Re 1 C2 satellite
Thus, = × = r = radius of elliptical orbit
|U | 2 R e GM e m 2 2 × 6.67 × 10−11 × 598
. × 1024 (semi major a xis)
=
(3 × 108 )2
29 The only force acting on satellite is Hence, T12 ∝ r13 and T22 ∝ r23
2 × 6.67 × 598
.
gravitational force which is conservative = × 10−3 m
9 T22 r23 (3R )3 T22 1
in nature and the work done by So, = = or =
= 8.86 × 10−3 m ≈ 10−2 m T12 r13 3
(6R ) T12 8
conservative force along a closed loop is
1 2 24
zero. 40 Since, the escape velocity of earth can be T22 = T1 ⇒ T2 = = 6 2h
given as 8 2 2
30 Potential energy = 2 × ( Total energy)
8 45 The line joining the sun to the planet
= 2E 0 v e = 2gR = R πGρ
3 sweeps out equal areas in equal time
GMm
Because we know that, U = − . [ρ = density of earth] interval i.e. areal velocity is constant.
r dA A A
8 = constant or 1 = 2
GMm ⇒ ve = R πGρ …(i) dt t1 t2
E0 = − 3
2r where, A1 = area under SCD
31 QTotal energy of a satellite at height h is
As it is given that the radius and mean A2 = area under ABS
density of planet are twice as that of A
= KE + PE =
GMm
−
GMm ⇒ t1 = 1 t2
2(R + h ) (R + h ) earth. So, escape velocity at planet A2
49 Since, moon is satellite of the earth, 3 Force will be zero at the point of zero KE + PE (at A) = PE (at B )
from Kepler’s third law, we have intensity
1 2GM GmM 2 99
2
4 π2 R 3 4 π2 R 3 m − 3R − R2
T2 = ⇒ ME = 2 R 2R3 100
GM E GT 2 d GMm
=−
Putting the values, we have (R + h )
Unit Test 1
(Mechanics)
1 Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive 7 Suppose, the kinetic energy of a body oscillating with
star in a circular orbit of radius R with a period of amplitude A and at a distance x is given by
revolutionT . If the gravitational force of attraction Bx
KE =
between the planet and the star is inversely proportional x 2 + A2
to R 5 / 2, then T 2 is proportional to
3 The dimensions of B are the same as that of
(a) R (b) R 7 / 2
(c) R 3/ 2
(d) R 3. 75 (a) work /time (b) work × distance
−1
(c) work /distance (d) work × time
2 The escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11kms .
A certain planet has a radius twice that of the earth, but 8 A soap bubble oscillates with time periodT , which in turn
its mean density is the same as that of the earth. The depends on the pressure ( p ), density (ρ ) and surface
value of the escape velocity from this planet would be tension ( σ ). Which of the following correctly represents
the expression for T 2 ?
(a) 22 kms −1 (b) 11 kms −1
(c) 5.5 kms −1 (d) 16.5 kms −1 (a) ρσ 2 /p 3 (b) ρp 3 /σ (c) p 3 σ/p (d) ρ /p 3 σ
3 A ball projected from ground at an angle of 45° just 9 A boat which has a speed of 5 kmh −1 in still water
across a wall in front. If point of projection is 4 m from crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest path in
the foot of wall and ball strikes the ground at a distance 15 min. The velocity of the river (in kmh −1) is
of 6 m on the other side of the wall, the height of the (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 41
wall is 10 The velocity of a particle at an instant is 10 ms −1 and
(a) 4.4 m (b) 2.4 m after 5 s the velocity of the particle is 20 ms −1. The
(c) 3.2 m (d) 1.6 m velocity 3 s before (in ms −1) was
4 The product of pressure and volume have the same units (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7
as the product of 11 A particle moving in a straight line covers half the
(a) charge and potential distance with speed of 3 ms −1. The other half of the
(b) electric field strength and distance distance is covered in two equal time intervals with
(c) electromotive force and capacitance
speed of 4.5 ms −1 and 7.5 ms −1, respectively. The
(d) magnetic moment and magnetic induction
average speed of the particle during this motion is
5 The radius of a ball is ( 5 . 2 ± 0 . 2) cm. The percentage (a) 4.0 ms −1 (b) 5.0 ms −1 (c) 5.5 ms −1 (d) 4.8 ms −1
error in the volume of the ball is approximately
12 What will be the ratio of the distance moved by a freely
(a) 11% (b) 4%
(c) 7% (d) 9% falling body from rest in 4th and 5th seconds of journey?
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 7 : 9 (c) 16 : 25 (d) 1 : 1
6 At time t = 0 s, particle starts moving along the X -axis. If
its kinetic energy increases uniformly with time t, then the 13 A particle moves in xy-plane according to the equation
net force acting on it must be proportional to x = 4 t 2 + 5 t + 16 and y = 5 t
(a) t (b) t −1 The acceleration of the particle is
1
(c) t (d) (a) 8 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 16
t
98 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TEN
14 The figure shows the position-time ( x - t ) graph of 22 Three solids of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected
one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4 kg. The with weightless string in succession and are placed on a
magnitude of each impulse is frictionless table. If the mass m3 is dragged with a force,
T the tension in the string between m2 and m3 is
2 m2 m3
(a) T (b) T
m1 + m2 + m3 m1 + m2 + m3
x (m)
m1 + m2 m2 + m3
(c) T (d) T
m1 + m2 + m3 m1 + m2 + m3
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
t (s) 23 A body of mass m slides down an incline and reaches
the bottom with a velocity v, if the same mass were in the
(a) 0.4N - s (b) 0.8 N - s (c) 1.6N - s (d) 0.2 N - s
form of a ring which rolls down this incline, the velocity of
15 The minimum velocity (in ms −1) with which a car driver the ring at bottom would have been
must traverse a curve of radius 150 m and coefficient of 1
(a) v (b) 2v (c) v (d) 2 /5 v
friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is 2
(a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 15 (d) 25
24 A bullet is shot from a rifle. As a result, the rifle
16 A particle is dropped vertically from rest, from a height. recoils. The kinetic energy of rifle as compared to that of
The time taken by it to fall through successive distances bullet is
of 1 m each will be, then (a) less (b) greater
(a) all equal, being equal to 2 /g second (c) equal (d) cannot be concluded
(b) in the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1, 2, 3,...
25 Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 and having velocities
(c) in the ratio of the difference in the square roots of v1 and v 2 respectively, moving along a straight line are
integers, i.e. 1, ( 2 − 1), ( 3 − 2 ), ( 4 − 3 ),K brought to rest by equal resistance forces. If one moves
(d) in the ratio of the reciprocals of square roots of the twice as that of the duration of other, but goes only 1/2 of
1 1 1 1 the distance covered by the other before coming to rest,
integers, i.e. , , , ,…
1 2 3 4 the ratio v1/v 2 and m1/m2 are
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
17 Let A = $i A cos θ + $j A sin θ be any vector. Another (a) ,8 (b) , (c) , (d) ,
4 2 4 8 2 4 6
vector B which is normal to A is
(a) $i B cosθ + $i B sinθ (b) $i B sinθ + $j B cosθ 26 The angle between the two vectors A = 3 $i + 4$j + 5 k$ and
(c) $i B sinθ − $j B cosθ (d) $i B cosθ − $j B sinθ B = 3 $i + 4$j − 5 k$ will be
18 A particle moves from position r1 = 3$i + 2$j − 6 k$ to (a) 90° (b) 0° (c) 60° (d) 45°
position r2 = 14$i + 13$j + 9 k$ under the action of force 27 If | A × B | = 3 A ⋅ B, then the value of | A + B | is
1/ 2
( 4$i + $j + 3 k$ ) N. The work done will be AB
(a) (A 2 + B 2 + AB)1/ 2 (b) A 2 + B 2 +
3
(a) 100 J (b) 50 J (c) 200 J (d) 75 J
(c) (A + B) (d) (A 2 + B 2 + 3 AB )1/ 2
19 An elevator car whose floor to ceiling distance is equal to
2.7 m starts ascending with constant acceleration of 28 A force acts on a 3.0 g particle in such a way that the
1.2 ms −2 . After 2 s of the start, a bolt begins falling from position of the particles as a function of time is given by
the ceiling of the car. The free fall time of the bolt is x = 3 t − 4 t 2 + t 3 , where x is in metre and t is in second.
(a) 6 s (b) 0.7 s (c) 1 s (d) 0.54 s The work done during the first 4 s is
20 Two balls of masses m1 and m2 are separated from each (a) 570 mJ (b) 450 mJ (c) 490 mJ (d) 530 mJ
other by a powder charge placed between them. The 29 The kinetic energy of a particle moving along a circle of
whole system is at rest on the ground. Suddenly, the radius R depends upon the distance s as K = as 2 . Then,
powder charge explodes and masses are pushed apart. the force acting on particle is
The mass m1 travels a distance s1 and stops. If the 1/ 2
coefficients of friction between the balls and ground are s2 s2
(a) 2a (b) 2as 1 + 2
same, the mass m2 stops after travelling the distance R R
m1 m m2 m2 (c) 2as (d) 2a
(a) s 2 = s1 (b) s 2 = 2 s1 (c) s 2 = 12 s1 (d) s 2 = 22 s1
m2 m1 m2 m1 30 A flywheel rotating about a fixed axis has a kinetic
21 A block slides from an inclination of 45°. If it takes time energy of 360 J when its angular speed is 30 rads −1.
twice with friction than to that without friction, then The moment of inertia of the flywheel about the axis of
coefficient of friction for surface is given by rotation is
(a) 1 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25 (a) 0.15 kg-m 2 (b) 0.75 kg-m 2
(c) 0.60 kg-m 2 (d) 0.80 kg-m 2
DAY TEN UNIT TEST 1 (MECHANICS) 99
31 A body of mass m is thrown upwards at an angle θ with 39 For a satellite, escape velocity is 11 kms −1. If the satellite
the horizontal with velocity v. While rising up the velocity is launched at an angle of 60° with the vertical, then
of the mass after t seconds will be escape velocity will be
(a) 11 kms −1 (b) 11 3 kms −1
(a) (v cosθ)2 + (v sinθ)2 (b) (v cosθ − v sin θ)2 − gt 11
(c) kms −1 (d) 33 kms −1
(c) v + g t − 2v sinθ gt
2 2 2
(d) v + g t − 2v cos θgt
2 2 2 3
40 Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest at
32 A tube of length L is filled completely with an infinite distance apart. They are then allowed to move
incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the towards each other under mutual gravitational attraction
ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about with the escape velocity. Their relative velocity of
one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω . The approach at a separation distance r between them is
1/ 2 1/ 2
force exerted by the liquid at the other end is (m1 − m2 ) (m1 + m2 )
(a) 2 G (b) 2 G
(a) Mω2L / 2 (b) Mω2L (c) Mω2L /4 (d) Mω2L2 / 2 r r
1/ 2 1/ 2
(d) (m1m2 )
33 Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in r 2G
(c)
2 G (m m ) r
circles of radii r1 and r2 , respectively. Their speeds are 1 2
such that each makes a complete circle in the same time
t. The ratio of the angular speeds of the first to the 41 The moon’s radius is 1/4 that of the earth and its mass is
second car is 1/80 times that of the earth. If g represents the
(a) 1 : 1 (b) m1 : m2 (c) r1 : r2 (d) m1m2 : r1 r2 acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth,
then on the surface of the moon its value is
34 A wheel is rotating at 900 rpm about its axis. When the
(a) ge /4 (b) ge /5 (c) ge /6 (d) ge /8
power is cut-off it comes to rest in 1 min. The angular
retardation (in rad s −2 ) is 42 A circular road of radius 1000 m has banking angle 45° .
(a) π / 2 (b) π /4 (c) π /6 (d) π /8 Calculate the maximum safe speed of a car having mass
200 kg will be, if the coefficient of friction between tyre
35 A long horizontal rod has a bead which can slide along and road is 0.5.
its length and initially placed at a distance L from one
(a) 172 ms −1 (b) 124 ms −1 (c) 99 ms −1 (d) 86 ms −1
end A of the rod. The rod is set in angular motion about
A with constant angular acceleration α. If the coefficient 43 A body of mass m hangs at one end of a string of length
of friction between the rod and the bead is µ and gravity l, the other end of which is fixed. It is given a horizontal
is neglected, then the time after which the bead starts velocity, so that the string would just reach, where it
slipping is makes an angle of 60° with the vertical. The tension in
µ µ 1 the string at bottom most point position is
(a) (b) (c) (d) infinitesimal
α α µα (a) 2mg (b) mg (c) 3mg (d) 3 mg
44 Three blocks of masses 4 kg,
36 A metallic sphere of diameter 10 cm and mass 0.5 kg is 14N
4 kg 2 kg
2 kg, 1 kg respectively are in 1kg
fixed to one end of a thin rod of length 50 cm and mass
1 kg as shown in the given figure. The rod with the contact on a frictionless table
sphere will balance horizontally, when it is supported at a as shown in the figure. If a
point whose distance from the free end of the rod is force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, the contact
force between the 4 kg and the 2 kg block will be
10 cm (a) 2 N (b) 6 N (c) 8 N (d) 14 N
50 cm 45 A solid sphere of radius R / 2 is cut-out of a solid sphere
(a) 45 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 35 cm (d) 30 cm of radius R such that the spherical cavity, so formed
37 Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 5 kg moving in concentric touches, the surface on one side and the centre of the
orbits of radius R and r such that their periods are the sphere on the other side, as shown in figure. The initial
same. Then, the ratio between their centripetal mass of the solid sphere was M. The gravitational field of
acceleration is the left over part of the sphere at a very far off point P
(a) R /r (b) r /R located as shown below.
(c) R 2 /r 2 (d) r 2 /R 2
38 The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular speed on
its own axis is ω and the acceleration due to gravity at O R/2
earth’s surface is g. What will be the radius of the orbit of P
a geostationary satellite? R
(a) (R 2g/ ω2 )1/ 3 (b) (Rg/ ω2 )1/ 3
(c) (R 2ω2 / g)1/ 3 (d) (R 2g/ ω)1/ 3 8 GM 7 GM GM 6 GM
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 R2 8 R2 8R 2
7 R2
100 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TEN
46 A wheel of radius 0.4 m can rotate freely about its axis as 48 If the angular momentum of any rotating body increases
shown in the figure. A string is wrapped over its rim and by 200%, then the increase in its kinetic energy
a mass of 4 kg is hung. An angular acceleration of (a) 400% (b) 800% (c) 200% (d) 100%
8 rad s −2 is produced in it due to the torque. Then,
49 A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If KE of rotation
moment of inertia of the wheel is (take, g = 10 ms −2 )
is 40% of KE in translatory state, then the body is a
(a) ring (b) cylinder (c) hollow ball (d) solid ball
50 Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I 2 and angular
speeds ω1 and ω 2 are rotating along collinear axes
passing through their centre of mass and perpendicular
to their plane. If the two are made to rotate combindly
4 kg along the same axis the rotational KE of system will be
2 I1ω1 + I 2ω2 (I1 + I 2 ) (ω1 + ω2 )2
(a) 2 kg-m (b) 1 kg-m 2 (a) (b)
(c) 4 kg-m 2 (d) 8 kg-m 2 2 (I1 + I 2 ) 2
(I1ω1 + I 2 ω2 )2
47 A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free to rotate (c) (d) None of these
2 (I1 + I 2 )
about point A. The rod is released from rest in horizontal
position. Given that, the moment of inertia of the rod 51 A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of
ml 2 radius r. The axis of the wheel is horizontal and moment
about A is , the initial angular acceleration of the rod
3 of inertia about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the end
will be of the cord and falls from the rest. After falling through a
distance h, the angular velocity of the wheel will be
l 1/ 2
2gh 2mgh
A B (a) (b) 2
I + mr I + mr
1/ 2
2g l 3 3g 2mgh
(a) (b) mg (c) gl (d) (c) 2
(d) 2gh
3l 2 2 2l I + 2mr
ANSWERS
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (a) 44 (b) 45 (b) 46 (a) 47 (d) 48 (b) 49 (d) 50 (c)
51 (b)
GM Hence, ves ∝ R 1 g × 16
Hence, v2 = 3 / 2 = 4 tan 45 ° −
R ⇒ ves = 2 × 11 = 22 kms −1 2 2 v20 cos2 45 °
2πR 10 × 16
∴ T = u2 sin 2 θ = 4×1 −
1
v 3 As, range = = 10 2 1
Hence, g 2 × 10 × 10 ×
2
4π 2 R2 10 g
⇒ u2 = ⇒ u2 = 10 g = 4 − 0.8 = 3.2
2 7 sin 2 × 45 °
4π R 2 2
GM = 4π R2
T2 = = v 4 ∴ [Pressure × Volume]
v2 R3 /2 GM
N
i.e. T ∝ R
2 7 /2
45º
Wall = × m3 = N-m = J
m2
4m 6m
10 m
DAY TEN UNIT TEST 1 (MECHANICS) 101
or v = 30 ms −1
102 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TEN
1
m1 v12 = µm1 gs1 25 Change in energy = Work done mv2 2 as2
Also, Centripetal force, Fc = =
2 1 F s R R
Hence, m1 v12 = and
1 2 2 ∴ Force acting on the particle is
and m2 v22 = µm2 gs2
2 1 2 as
2
m2 v22 = F s
F = F t2 + Fc2 = (2 as)2 +
m2 s2 m1 m12
2 R
Q = ⇒ s2 = ⋅ s1 m1 v12 1
m1 s1 m2 m22 This gives, = …(i) = 2 as 1 + s2 / R2
m2 v22 2
21 Acceleration without friction, 1
a1 = g sin θ. Also, change in momentum = impulse 30 As, K r = I ω2 . Here, K r = 360 J and
2
i.e. m1 v1 = F × 2 t
Acceleration with friction, ω = 30 rads −1 ⇒ l = 0.80 kg-m2
a2 = g sin θ − µg cos θ and m2 v2 = F × t
2s 31 Instantaneous velocity rising mass
Also, t = This gives,
m1 v1
=2 …(ii) after t second will be
a m2 v2
t1 a2 v t = v2x + v2y
Therefore, = On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
t2 a1 where, v x = v cos θ = horizontal
v1 1 m
= and 1 = 8 Component of velocity,
2 g sin θ v2 4 m2
Thus, = v y = v sin θ − g t = vertical
1 g sin θ − µ g cos θ A ⋅B Component of velocity,
3 3 26 ∴ cos θ =
This gives, µ = tan θ = × tan 45 ° | A | ⋅ | B|
4 4 v t = (v cos θ)2 + (v sin θ − gt )2
(3 i$ + 4$j + 5 k$ ) ⋅ (3 i$ + 4$j − 5 k$ )
3 3 =
= × 1 = = 0. 75 9 + 16 + 25 9 + 16 + 25 v t = v2 + g 2t 2 − 2 v sin θ g t
4 4
9 + 16 − 25 L
22 The tension pulls m2 and m1 with = =0 32 The centre of mass is at distance
50 2
acceleration, a =
⇒ cos θ = 0 from the axis. Hence, centripetal
T / (m1 + m2 + m3 ) force,
m1 + m2 ∴ θ = 90 ° L
Hence, F = T Fc = M ω2
m1 + m2 + m3 27 Q | A × B| = 3 A ⋅ B 2
23 When the body slides down the ⇒ AB sin θ = 3 AB cos θ So, the reaction at the other end will
incline, its kinetic energy is given as be equal to Fc .
⇒ tan θ = 3 ⇒ θ = 60 °
1 33 As we know, angular speed,
KE = mv2
2 ∴| A + B | = A 2 + B2 + 2 AB cos 60 ° 2π ω 2 π / T1
ω= ⇒ 1 = .
However, in the case of ring, total T ω2 2 π / T2
1
kinetic energy will be equal to the = A 2 + B2 + 2 AB × Here, T1 = T2 = t
sum of rotational and translational 2
ω1
1 1 = ( A + B + AB)
2 2 1 /2
∴ =1
kinetic energies = Iω2 + mv′2 ω2
2 2 2
d x
1 1 28 ∴ Acceleration = = − 8 + 6t 34 Using ω = ω 0 + at
= mR ω + mv′
2 2 2
[Q I = mR2 ] dt 2
2 2 Here, ω 0 = 900 rpm
d2 x
1
= mv2 + mv′2
1 ∴ W = ∫ Fdx = ∫ m 2 dx = (2 π × 900) / 60 rad/s
dt
2 2 ω = 0 and t = 60 s
d 2 x dx
Since, kinetic energy due to =∫m 2 dt So, ω0 = π / 2
translational will be equal to that dt dt
4 3
35 Bead starts moving when the
due to rotation.
∴W = ∫ (− 8 + 6 t ) centripetal force is equal to the
1 v 0 1000
∴ mv2 = mv′2 or v′ = friction. Hence, friction, f = µm a t .
2 2 (3 − 8 t + 3 t 2 ) dt where, a t is tangential acceleration.
24 In the given case, momentum would On solving, we get It will be given by
be conserved. W = 528 mJ ≈ 530 mJ v
a t = , where v is the linear speed.
Hence, pb = pr or p2b = p2r 1 t
29 Here, K = mv2 = as2 ⇒ mv2 = 2 as2 =Lω
2
Since, p2 = 2MK, we have Lω
On differentiating w.r.t. time t, Hence, f = µm
Mb K b = M r K r dv ds t
M ⇒ 2 mv ⋅ = 4 as = 4 asv Also, centripetal force = m Lω2
i.e. K r = b Kb dt dt
Mr dv µ m Lω
Because, Mb < M r . Hence, K r < K b ⇒ m⋅ = 2 as Hence, mL ω2 =
dv t
DAY TEN UNIT TEST 1 (MECHANICS) 103
Properties
of Matter
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Elastic Behaviour u Thermal Stress and Strain u Surface Tension
u Stress u Strain u Viscosity u Surface Energy
u Hooke’s Law u Streamline and Turbulent Flow u Angle of Contact
u Work Done (or Potential u Equation of Continuity u Capillary Rise or Capillarity
Energy) in a Stretched Wire u Bernoulli’s Theorem
Elastic Behaviour
Elasticity is the property of body by virtue of which a body regains or tends to regain its
original configuration (shape as well as size), when the external deforming forces acting
on it, is removed.
Stress
The internal restoring force per unit area of cross-section of the deformed body is called
stress.
Thus Stress, σ=
Restoring force F
=
PREP
Area A MIRROR
SI unit of stress is Nm −2 or pascal (Pa). Your Personal Preparation Indicator
Different types of stresses are given below u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
1. Normal or Longitudinal Stress u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
If area of cross-section of a rod is A and a deforming force F is applied along the length (Without referring Explanations)
of the rod and perpendicular to its cross-section, then in this case, stress produced in
the rod is known as normal or longitudinal stress. u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
F u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
Longitudinal stress = n
A
In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
Level should be above 75.
DAY ELEVEN PROPERTIES OF MATTER 105
Hooke’s Law
According to the Hooke’s law, for any body, within the elastic
Fixed face limit, stress developed is directly proportional to the strain
produced.
Stress ∝ Strain
Strain Stress = E × Strain
Strain is the ratio of change in configuration to the original The ratio of stress to strain, within the elastic limit, is called
configuration of the body. the coefficient (or modulus) of elasticity for the given
Being the ratio of two similar quantities, strain is a unitless material.
and dimensionless quantity. Depending on the type of stress applied and resulting strain,
(i) When the deforming force causes a change in length, it we have the following three of elasticity given as,
is called longitudinal strain. For a wire or rod, Stress
longitudinal strain is defined as the ratio of change in E =
Strain
length to the original length.
Change in length (∆L) There are three modulus of elasticity.
∴ Longitudinal strain =
Original length (L) 1. Young’s Modulus
(ii) When the deforming force causes a change in volume, Young’s modulus of elasticity (Y ) is defined as the ratio of
the strain is called volumetric strain. normal stress (either tensile or compressive stress) to the
Change in volume (∆V ) longitudinal strain within a elastic limit.
Volumetric strain =
Original volume (V ) Young’s modulus,
(iii) When the deforming force, applied tangentially to a Normal stress
Y =
surface, produces a change in shape of the body, the Longitudinal strain
strain developed is called shearing strain or shear. F/A FL
x = =
Shearing strain, φ = ∆ L / L A∆ L
L
106 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY ELEVEN
16 Two wires are made of the same material and have the 25 A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm × 2 cm)
same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the workdone is 3 × 10−4 J. The value
and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the of the surface tension of the liquid is j NEET 2016
length of the first wire is increased by ∆l on applying a (a) 0.250 N/m (b) 0.125 N/m (c) 0.2 N/m (d) 8.0 N/m
force F , how much force is needed to stretch the second
26 A soap bubble of radius r is blown up to form a bubble of
wire by the same amount? j NEET 2018
23 A small sphere of radius r falls from rest in a viscous 33 The wettability of surface by a liquid depends
liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. primarily on j
NEET 2013
The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its (a) viscosity (b) surface tension (c) density
terminal velocity, is proportional to j
NEET 2018 (d) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
(a) r 5 (b) r 2 (c) r 3 (d) r 4 34 A capillary tube of radius 0.25 mm is submerged
vertically in water, so that 25 mm of its length is outside
24 A 10 cm long wire is placed horizontaly on the surface of
−2 water. The radius of curvature of the meniscus will be
water and gently pulled up with a force of 2 × 10 N to
(ST of water = 75 × 10−3 Nm −1)
keep the wire in equilibrium. The surface tension in N/m.
of water (a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.4 mm
(c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.8 mm
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.001 (d) 0.002
DAY ELEVEN PROPERTIES OF MATTER 111
circular base. If the vessel is rotating with angular (a) (2) 3 v (b) (2) 2 v (c) (2) 3 v (d) (2) 4 v
velocity ω, then what is difference of the heights of liquid 9 In drops of a liquid, each with surface energy E , join to
at centre of vessel and edge form a single drop. In this process
rω r 2ω2 ω2 (a)some energy will be absorbed
(a) (b) (c) 2grω (d)
2g 2g 2gr 2 (b)energy absorbed is E (n − n 2 / 3 )
(c)energy released will be E (n − n 2 / 3 )
3 Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ 2 and ρ 3 (with ρ1 > ρ 2 > ρ 3 ) (d)energy released will be E (2 2 / 3 − 1)
having the same value of surface tensionT , rise to the
same height in three identical capillaries. The angle of 10 A small uniform tube is bent into a circle of radius r
contact θ1, θ 2 and θ 3 obey. j
NEET 2016
whose plane is vertical. The equal volumes of two fluids
π π whose densities are ρ and σ (ρ > σ ), fill half the circle.
(a) > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 > 0 (b) θ ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < Find the angle that the radius passing through the
2 2
π π interface makes with the vertical where : OO′ is line
(c) < θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π (d) π > θ1 > θ2 >
2 2 passing at fluid interface
4 A liquid of density ρ 0 is filled in a wide tank to a height h.
A solid road of length L, cross-section area A and density
ρ is suspended freely in the tank. The lower end of the
O
road touches the base of the tank and h = L (where,
η θ σVg
η > 1). Then, the angle of inclination of the rod with the O′
horizontal in the equilibrium position is ρVg
1 ρ− σ ρ− σ
1 ρ0 ρ (a) cotθ = (b) tanθ =
(a) θ = sin−1 (b) θ = sin−1 ρ+ σ ρ+ σ
η ρ η ρ0
ρ+ σ ρ
(c) sin θ = (d) sinθ =
ρ ρ ρ− σ σ
(c) θ = sin−1 η 0 (d) θ = sin−1 0
ρ ρ 11 A force of 200 N is applied at one end of a wire of length
5 A solid cylindrical rod of radius 3 mm gets depressed 2 m and having area of cross-section10−2 cm 2 . The
under the influence of a load through 8 mm. The other end of the wire is rigidly fixed. If coefficient of linear
depression produced in an identical hollow rod with outer expansion of the wire α = 8 × 10−6/C and Young’s
and inner radii of 4 mm and 2 mm respectively, will be modulus Y = 2.2 × 1011 N/m 2 and its temperature is
(a) 2.7 mm (b) 1.9 mm (c) 3.2 mm (d) 7.7 mm increased by 5°C, then the increase in the tension of the
wire will be
6 If the shear modulus of a wire material is
(a) 4.2 N (b) 4.4 N (c) 2.4 N (d) 8.8 N
5.9 × 1011 dyne/cm 2 , then the potential energy of a wire
of 4 × 10−3 cm in diameter and 5 cm long twisted through 12 The average depth of Indian ocean is about 3000 m. The
an angle of 10°, is ∆v
fractional compression. of water at the bottom of the
V
(a) 1.253 × 10−12 J (b) 2 × 10−12 J
(c) 1 × 10−12 J (d) 0.8 × 10−12 J ocean (given that the bulk modulus of the water
= 2.2 × 109N/m 2 and g = 10 m/s 2 ) is
7 A capillary tube is attached horizontally to a constant
heat arrangement. If the radius of the capillary tube is (a) 0.82% (b) 0.91% (c) 1.36% (d) 1.24%
112 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY ELEVEN
13 The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section from the mid-point of the wire, strain in the wire is
of 8 cm 2 , one end of which has 40 fine holes each of j NCERT Exemplar
area 10−8 m 2 . If the liquid flow inside the tube with a 2L
speed of 0.15 m/min, the speed with which the liquid is x
ejected through the holes is
m
(a) 50 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 0.05 m/s (d) 0.5 m/s
2
x x
14 A raindrop with radius 1.5 mm falls a cloud at a height (a) (b)
2L2 L
1200 m from ground. The density of water is 1000 kg/m 3
x2 x2
and density of air is 1.2 kg/m 3 . (c) (d)
L 2L
Assume the drop was spherical throughout the fall and 16 A body of mass m = 10 kg is attached to a wire of length
there is no air dry, the impact speed of the drop will be 0.3 m. The maximum angular velocity with which it can
(a) 27 km/h (b) 151.5 km/h be rotated in a horizontal circle is
(c) zero (d) 129 km/h (Breaking stress of wire = 4.8 × 107 N/m 2 and
15 A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area A area of cross-section of wire = 10−6 m 2 )
is stretched, well within elastic limit, horizontally between (a) 4 rad/s (b) 8 rad/s
two pillars as shown in figure. A mass m in suspended (c) 1 rad/s (d) 2 rad/s
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (a)
Now, we know that the Young’s 16 According to question 20 The aerofoils are so designed that,
modulus For wire 1 p top side < p lower side
MgL Area of cross section = A1
so that the aerofoils get a lifting force in
Y = 2 Force applied = F1
A⋅ l upward direction.
Increase in length = ∆l
L From the relation of Young’s modulus of According to Bernoulli’s theorem, where
[here, L = , l = extension] the pressure is large, the velocity will be
2 elasticity
MgL Fl minimum or vice-versa.
Y =
⇒ l= 2 A∆ l Thus, v top side > v lower side
AY Substituting the value for wire 1 in the
MgL
21 By Bernoulli’s theorem,
or l= above relation, 1 1
2 AY F l p1 + pv 12 = p2 + ρv 22 [assuming that
we get Y1 = 1 1 14243 142243
2
On putting the value of M from Eq. (i), A1 ∆l
inside outside
we get For wire 2 root width is very small]
ALρ ⋅ gL ρgL2 Area of cross-section = A2
l= or l = . Pressure difference,
2 AY 2Y Force applied = F2 1
p1 − p2 = ρ(v 22 − v 12 )
Increase in length = ∆l
FL L πd 2 2
8 ∆L = or ∆L ∝ Q A = F l
AY d2 4 Similarly Y2 = 2 2 1
p1 − p2 = × 1.2(402 − 02 )
A2 ∆l 2
Therefore, ∆L will be maximum for that Volume, V = Al 1
L = × 1.2 ×1600
wire which is maximum. V
l= 2
A A = 960 N/m2
Mg ALδg Substituting the value of l in Eqs (i) and
9 Breaking stress, S = = Force acting on the roof,
A A (ii), we get
f = 960 × 250 = 24 × 104
FV FV
S 2.2 × 108 Y1 = 1 and Y2 = 2
∴ L = = = 2500 m A1 ∆l
2
A22 ∆l = 2.4 × 105 N (upwards)
ρg 8.8 × 104
As it is given that the wires are made up 22 v = 2gh = 2 × 10 × 20 = 20 ms −1
MgL
10 Y = of same material
πr 2 l Y1 = Y2 23 The rate of heat generation is equal to
25000 × 980 × 100 F1V FV the rate of work done by the viscous
Y = = 2
3.14 × (0.2)2 × 2 A12 ∆l A22 ∆l force which in turn is equal to its power.
= 9.75 × 109 dyne cm −2 F1 A2 A2 1 Rate of heat produced,
dQ
= F × νT
= 1 = = dt
ALρg
2
L F2 A2 9 A2 9
MgL 2 L2ρ g F2 = 9F1 = 9F
where, F is the viscous force and v T is
11 l = = = the terminal velocity.
AY AY 2Y
17 A good lubricant generally possesses the As, F = 6πηr ν T
100 × 1500 × 10 following characteristics: dQ
= = 0.15 m ⇒ = 6πηr ν T × ν T = 6 πηr ν2T …(i)
2 × 5 × 106 (i) A high viscosity index dt
4 Fl (ii) Thermal stability From the relation for terminal velocity,
12 Y=
π D 2 ∆l (iii) Hydraulic stability 2 r 2 (ρ − σ )
νT = g , we get
4Fl 1 (iv) A high boiling point and low 9 η
∴ D = or D ∝
π. ∆lY Y freezing point νT ∝ r 2 …(ii)
Dcopper Yiron 18 For streamline flow, Reynold’s number From Eq. (ii), we can rewrite Eq. (i) as
Hence, =
D iron Ycopper rρ dQ dQ
NR ∝ ∝ r ⋅ (r 2 )2 or ∝ r5
η dt dt
13 By the relation of Hooke’s law
Stress should be less. For less value of N R , 24 Surface tensions,
= constant radius, density should be small and F 2 × 10−2
Strain
viscosity should be high. S = = = 01
. N/m
2l 2 × 10 × 10−2
2
9 × 1011 × 10−7 × 1
14 W = YAl = 19 d A = 2cm and d B = 4cm
2L 2 × 100 25 Increase in surface energy
∴ r A = 1 cm and r B = 2 cm = Work done in area × surface tension
= 4.5 × 10 J 2
From equation of continuity, QIncrease in surface area
15 Work done = Elastic potential energy av = constant ∆A = (5 × 4 − 4 × 2) × 2
stored vA a π(r B ) 2 = (20 − 8) × 2 = 24 cm2
∴ = B =
1 vB aA π(r A ) 2
or W = × stress × strain × volume So, work done W = T ⋅ ∆A
2
3 × 10−4 = T × 24 × 10−4
2
=
1 F l 1 2
or W = × × × AL = Fl 1 1
2 A L 2 T = = 0125. N/m
⇒ v A = 4 vB 8
114 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY ELEVEN
26 Energy spent 33 The value of angle of contact determines 3 According to ascent formula for
= T × increase in surface area whether a liquid will spread on the capaillary tube,
= T × 2[4 π(2r )2 − 4 πr 2 ] = 24 πTr 2 J. surface. 2S cos θ
h=
2S 2 × 75 × 10−3 ρgr
27 As volume remains constant therefore 34 h= = cos θ1 cos θ2 cos θ3
r ρg 0.25 × 10− 3 × 103 × 10 = = =K
R = n1 /3 r ρ1 ρ2 ρ3
Energy of big drop 4 πR2T = 60 mm
= Thus, cos θ ∝ K
Energy of small drop 4 πr 2T h ′ r ′ = hr
Given, ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3
R2 hr
= = (8)2 /3 = 4 or r′ = ∴ cos θ1 > cos θ2 > cos θ3
r2 h′ π
θ ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 <
60 × 025
. 2
28 The excess pressure in a bubble of gas in = = 0.6 mm
25 4 Here, L = length of rod
a liquid is given by 2S / r , where S is the
surface tension of the liquid-gas
SESSION 2 l = immersed length of rod
interface. There is only one liquid
surface in this case. (For a bubble of θ = angle of inclination of rod with
1 The object is spherical and the bulk
liquid in a gas, there are two liquid horizontal
modulus is represented by B. It is the
surfaces, so the formula for excess ratio of normal stress to the volumetric
pressure in that case is 4S / r ). The B
strain.
radius of the bubble is r. Now, the r
F/A
pressure outside the bubble po equals Hence, B = FB
∆V / V
atmospheric pressure plus the pressure
∆V P
due to 8.00 cm fo water column. That is ⇒ =
p 0 = (1.01 × 105 Pa + 0.08 m V B
∆V P L
× 1000 kg m − 3 × 9.80 ms −2 ) ⇒ = h=
V B η
w
= 1.01784 × 105 Pa Here, P is applied pressure on the object A
θ ρ0
2S cos θ ∆V
29 h= and is volume strain.
rdg V N
6 To twist the wire through an angle dθ 2 (21 /3 r ) 2 ( ρ − σ ) g For holes (40 × 10−8 )v = a2 v 2
v′= …(ii)
dW = τdθ 9 η a2 v 2 = a1 v 1
10 π π 8 × 10−4 × 015
and θ = 10′ = × = rad From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 40 × 10−8 × v =
.
60 180 1080 2 60
θ η πr θdθ
4
η πr 4θ2 v′
θ
W = ∫ τ dθ = ∫ = = (2)3 8 × 10−4 × 015.
0 0 2l 4l v v =
2 40 × 10−8 × 60
5.9 × 1011 × 10−5 × π (2 × 10−5 )4 π2 v ′ = (2) 3 v = 5m/s
W = or
10−4 × 4 × 5 × 10−2 × (1080)2
9 Energy is released in the process 14 Impact speed = 2gh
= 1.253 × 10−12 J
∴ ∆E = n × 4 π r 2 S − 4 π R2S = 2 × 9.8 × 1200
7 Volume of liquid flowing through 4 4 18
But πR3 = n × πr 3 or R = n1 /3 r = 1533
. ×
capillary per second is given by 3 3 5
Poiseuille’s formula as, ∴ ∆E = n × 4 πr 2S − 4 π n2 /3 r 2S = 551.5 km/h
4
πpr 4 V r or ∆E = 4 πr 2S (n − n2 /3 ) = E (n − n2 /3 )
V = ⇒ 2 = 2 15 Increase in length = BO + OC − BC
8 ηl V1 r1
4 10 Taking torque about the point O, L L
V2 = V1
110
∴ = V1 (11
. )4 ρVr sin (45 − θ) g = σVr sin(45 + θ) g B C
100 D
x
ρ− σ
= 1.4641 V ⇒ tanθ =
ρ+ σ O
∆V V2 − V1 1.4641 V − V
∴ = =
V V V 11 Increase in tension of wire = YAα ∆θ ⇒ ∆L = 2BO − 2L
= 0.46 or 46% = 8 × 10−6 × 22
. × 1011 × 10−6 × 5 = 2 [L2 + x2 ]1 /2 − 2L
8 Let r be the radius of the each drop. The = 8.8 N 1 /2
x2
terminal velocity of drop will be given 12 The pressure exerted by a 3000 m or ∆ L = 2 L 1 + − 2L
2 r2 (ρ − σ ) g L2
by v = …(i) coloumn of water on the bottom layer is
9 η P = hρg = 3000 × 1000 × 10 = x2 / L
where, ρ is density of drop and σ is = 3 × 107
∆L x2 / L x2
∆V P Strain = = =
density of viscous medium of coefficient Fractional compression = = 2L 2L 2 L2
of viscosity η. When two drops each of V B
radius r coalescence to form a new drop, 3 × 107 −2 16 Breaking strength = tension in wire
= . × 10 = 136
= 136 . %
then the radius of coalescenced drop 22. × 109 = mrω2
1
will be R= (2)3 r 13 According to equation of continuity, 4.8 × 107 × 10−6 = 10 × 03
. × ω2
Hence, new terminal velocity of area × velocity = constant 48
ω2 = = 16
For tube 8 × 10−4 ×
coalescenced drop will be .
015 . × 10
03
= a1 v 1
60 ⇒ ω = 4 rad/s
DAY TWELVE
Transfer
of Heat
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Heat u Calorimetry u Stefan’s Law
u Temperature u Latent Heat u Newton’s Law of Cooling
u Thermal Expansion u Heat Transfer u Wein’s Displacement Law
u Specific Heat u Perfectly Black Body u Green House Effect
Heat
Heat is a form of energy which characterises the thermal state of matter. It is transferred
from one body to the other due to temperature difference between them.
Heat is a scalar quantity with dimensions [ML2 T−2 ] and its SI unit is joule (J) while
practical unit is calorie (cal); 1 cal = 4.18 J
If mechanical energy (work) is converted into heat then, the ratio of work done (W ) to
heat produced (Q) always remains the same and constant.
W
i.e. = constant = J or W = JQ
Q
The constant J is called mechanical equivalent of heat.
PREP
Temperature MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
The factor that determines the flow of heat from one body to another when they are in
contact with each other, is called temperature. Its SI unit is kelvin. u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
No. of Correct Questions (z)—
Thermometer u
Scales of Temperature NOTE • The coefficients α , β and γ for a solid are related to each
other.
Three most common scales are Celsius scale or Centigrade
β γ
scale, Fahrenheit scale and Kelvin scale (Absolute scale). α= =
2 3
Ice point / lower Steam point / Upper • As temperature increases, density decreases according to
Scale Unit
reference point reference point relation,
ρ0
Celsius 0 100 °C ρ=
1 + γ∆T
Fahrenheit 32 212 °F
or ρ = ρ0 ( 1 − γ ∆T ) [valid for small ∆T]
Kelvin 273.15 373.15 K
Thermal Resistance
Calorimetry
∆Q KA ∆T
Calorimetry means measurement of heat. When a body at |H|= = ⋅ ∆T =
higher temperature is brought in contact with another body at ∆t l l / KA
lower temperature, the heat lost by the hot body is equal to l
The term is generally called the thermal resistance (R).
the heat gained by the colder body and provided no heat is KA
allowed to escape to the surrounding. A device in which heat l
Equation for rate of heat conduction can be written as
measurement can be made is called a calorimeter.
Q ∆T
If temperature changes, heat exchanged is given by H = =
t Rthermal
Q = ms∆T
As temperature of the body increases, it means heat is taken It is equivalent/analysis to ohm’s law which states that
V
by the body, otherwise given out by the body. I =
R(electrical)
Q
Latent Heat where, H = is equivalent of electric current and called as
t
In case of phase change, heat is consumed during melting and heat, ∆T is equivalent of voltage (PD) and Rthermal is
boiling while released during freezing and condensation. equivalent of Relectrical .
DAY TWELVE TRANSFER OF HEAT 119
K 1 + K2
l
For a perfect transmitter, a = r = 0, t = 1.
or Kp = [if A1 = A2 ]
2
Emissive Power and Emissivity
Formation and Growth of Ice on a Lake
Total emissive power of a given surface at a given
Time required for the thickness of the layer of ice to increase temperature is defined as the total amount of radiant energy
from d1 to d2 will be emitted per unit surface area per unit time by the body. SI
ρL f 2 unit of emissive power is Wm−2 .
t = (d2 − d21 )
2 KT Emissive power of a surface depends on the nature of the
where, ρ = density of ice, surface and its temperature.
L f = latent heat of fusion of ice Emissivity of a body at a given temperature is defined as the
ratio of the total emissive power of the black body (e) to the
and K = thermal conductivity of ice
total emissive power of perfectly black body (E) at that
temperature
2. Convection i.e. ε=
e
The process of heat-transmission in which the particles of the E
fluid move is called convection. A perfectly black body is also the perfect emitter i.e. it emits
radiations of all possible wavelengths at that temperature.
3. Radiation
The process of the transfer of heat from one place to another Absorptive Power
place without heating the intervening medium is called The ratio of the radiant energy absorbed by a surface in a
radiation. given time to the total radiant energy incident on the surface
in the same time, is called the absorptive power.
120 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWELVE
Stefan’s Law dT ~ T1 − T2 T1 + T2
− − and T =
dt t 2
According to the Stefan’s law, the emissive power of a
perfectly black body (energy emitted by black body per The Newton‘s law of cooling becomes
unit surface area per unit time) is directly proportional to T1 − T2 T + T
= k 1 2 − T0 .
the fourth power of its absolute temperature. t 2
Mathematically,
E ∝ T 4 or E = σT 4 Black Body Spectrum
where, σ is a constant known as the Stefan’s constant and The black body spectrum is Eλ
its value is 5.67 × 10 −8 Wm−2 K −4. a continuous spectrum as T4 > T3
shown in the figure. At a
For a body, whose emissivity is ε, Stefan’s law is modified
given temperature, initially
as, e = εσT 4. T3 > T2
the intensity of thermal
The total radiant energy Q emitted by a body of surface radiation increases with an
area A in time t, is given by T2 > T 1
increase in wavelength and
Q = Ate = AtεσT 4. reaches a maximum value
at a particular wavelength
The radiant power (P), i.e. energy radiated by a body per T1
λ m . On increasing the
unit time is given by λ
wavelength beyond λ m , the λm4 λ λ λ
Q m3 m2 m1
P = = AεσT 4 intensity of radiation E λ
t starts decreasing.
If a body at temperature T is surrounded by another body The total area under E λ -λ curve gives the total intensity of
at temperature T0 (where, T0 < T ), then Stefan’s law is radiation at that temperature.
modified as,
The area, in accordance with the Stefan’s law of radiation, is
E = σ (T 4 − T04) [black body] directly proportional to the fourth power of the temperature.
and e = εσ (T 4 − T04) [any body]
(d) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase (a) 24 g (b) 31.5 g (c) 42.5 g (d) 22.5 g
2 What will be the force developed in steel rod of 9 A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts
cross-sectional area 150 mm 2 , which is fixed between completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is
two fixed points, if temperature is increased by 20°C? absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted
(Assume, α = 10 −5 /°C and Y = 200 × 10 11N/m 2 ) into heat during its fall. The value of h is [Latent heat of
ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and g = 10 N / kg] j
NEET 2016
(a) 200 kN (b) 400 kN (c) 600 kN (d) 800 kN
(a) 544 km (b) 136 km (c) 68 km (d) 34 km
3 The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin
10 In a steady state, the temperature at the ends A and B of
is 5 × 10− 4 K − 1. The fractional change in the density of
20 cm long rod AB are 100°C and 0°C, respectively. The
glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its temperature is
temperature of a point 9 cm from A is
j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
(a) 45°C (b) 60°C (c) 55°C (d) 65°C
(a) 0.015 (b) 0.020
(c) 0.025 (d) 0.010 11 The heat is flowing through a rod of length 50 cm and
area of cross-section 5 cm 2 . Its ends are respectively at
4 A clock with a metal pendulum beating seconds keeps
25°C and 125°C. The coefficient of thermal conductivity
correct time at 0°C. If it loses 12.5 s a day at 25°C, the
of the material of the rod is 0.092 kcal/ms. The
coefficient of linear expansion of metal pendulum is
1 1 1 1 temperature gradient in the rod is
(a) /° C (b) /° C (c) /° C (d) /° C
86400 43200 14400 28800 (a) 2°C/cm (b) 2°C/m (c) 20°C/cm (d) 20°C/m
5 In similar calorimeters, equal volumes of water and alcohol 12 Three rods of same dimensions have thermal
when poured take 100 s and 74 s respectively to cool from conductivities 3 K, 2 K and K. They are arranged as
50°C to 40°C. If the thermal capacity of each calorimeter is shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The
numerically equal to volume of either liquid, then the temperature of their junction is
specific heat capacity of alcohol is 2K 50°C
(Given, relative density of alcohol as 0.8 and specific 3K
heat capacity of water as 1 cal/g/°C) 100°C
K 0°C
(a) 0.8 cal/g°C (b) 0.6 cal/g°C
200 100
(c) 0.9 cal/g°C (d) 1 cal/g°C (a) 75°C (b) °C (c) 40°C (d) °C
3 3
6 Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the
heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these 13 The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at
is at 100°C, while the other one is at 0°C. If the two temperatures 100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat flow in
bodies are brought into contact, then assuming no heat the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained
loss, the final common temperature is j
NEET 2016 at temperatures 200°C and 210°C, the rate of heat flow
will be j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
(a) 50°C (b) more than 50°C
(c) less than 50°C but greater than 0°C (a) 44.0 J/s (b) 16.8 J/s (c) 8.0 J/s (d) 4.0 J/s
(d) 0°C
122 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWELVE
14 The ratio of the emissive power to the absorptive power of 22 A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all of same
all substances for the particular wavelength is the same at material and of same mass are initially heated to same
given temperature. The ratio is known as high temperature
(a)the emissive power of a perfectly black body (a)plate will cool fastest and cube the slowest
(b)the emissive power of any type of body (b)sphere will cool fastest and cube the slowest
(c)the Stefan’s constant (c)plate will cool fastest and sphere the slowest
(d)the Wien’s constant (d)cube will cool fastest and plate the slowest
15 A black body is at 727°C. It emits energy at a rate which 23 A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7
is proportional to cal-cm −2 s −1. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat
2 4 2 4 radiated in the same units will be j CBSE AIPMT 2009
(a) (727) (b) (1000) (c) (1000) (d) (727)
16 A sphere has a surface area of 1.0m and a temperature 2 (a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 112 (d) 80
of 400 K and the power radiated from it is 150 W. 24 The initial temperature of a body is 80°C. If its
Assuming the sphere is a black body radiator, the power temperature falls to 64°C in 5 minutes and in 10 minutes
in kilowatt radiated when the area expands to 2.0 m 2 to 52°C, then the temperature of surrounding will be
and the temperature changes to 800 K is (a) 26°C (b) 49.6°C (c) 35°C (d) 42°C
(a) 6.2 (b) 9.6 25 A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes.
(c) 4.8 (d) 16
The room temperature isT . Assume that Newton’s law of
17 Two spheres of the same material have radii 1 m and cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the
4 m, temperature 4000K and 2000K, respectively. Then, end of next 10 minutes will be j NEET 2016
18 If a black body radiates 10 cal s −1 at 227°C, it will radiate 26 The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform
at 727°C cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures
dQ
(a) 10 cal s −1
(b) 80 cal s −1 T1 and T2 (T1 > T2 ). The rate of heat transfer, , through
dt
(c) 160 cal s −1 (d) None of these
the rod in a steady state is given by j
CBSE AIPMT 2009
19 The surface temperature of the sun isT K and the solar
dQ KL (T1 − T2 ) dQ K (T1 − T2 )
constant for a plate is S. The sun subtends an angle θ at (a) = (b) =
dt A dt LA
the planet. Then,
dQ dQ KA(T1 − T2 )
(a) S ∝ T 4 (b) S ∝ T 2 (c) = KLA(T1 − T2 ) (d) =
dt dt L
(c) S ∝ θ2 (d) S ∝ θ
27 There are two identical vessel filled with equal amount of
20 If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body,
ice. The vessels are of different metals. If the ice melts in
what would be the temperature of the star in which the
the two vessels in 20 min and 35 min respectively, the
rate of energy production is Q ? j
CBSE AIPMT 2012
1/ 2
ratio of the coefficient of thermal conductivity of the two
Q Q metals is
(a) (b)
4 πR σ 2 4 πR 2 σ
1/ 4
(a) 4 : 7 (b) 7 : 4
4 πR 2Q Q
1/ 4
(c) 16 : 49 (d) 49 : 16
(c) (d)
σ 4 πR 2 σ 28 A black body at a temperature of 2600 K has the
wavelength corresponding to maximum emission 1200 Å
where, σ stands for Stefan’s constant.
assuming the moon to be perfectly black body. The
21 The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the temperature of the moon, if the wavelength
direction of incidence, received at a distance R from the corresponding to maximum emission is 5000 Å, is
centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates (a) 7800 K (b) 624 K
as a black body at a temperature T K is given by (c) 5240 K (d) 3640 K
j
CBSE AIPMT 2011 29 Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the
σr T
2 4
σr T
2 4
first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The
(a) (b)
R2 4 πr 2 temperature of the surroundings is j
CBSE AIPMT 2014
σr 2 T 4 4 πσr 2 T 4 (a) 45°C (b) 20°C
(c) (d)
r 4
R2 (c) 42°C (d) 10°C
DAY TWELVE TRANSFER OF HEAT 123
30 If a body coated black at 600 K surrounded by then it can be concluded from the above observations
atmosphere at 300 K has cooling rate r0, the same body that j CBSE AIPMT 2015
at 900 K, surrounded by the same atmosphere, will have (a)TP > TQ > TR (b)TP > TR > TQ
cooling rate equal to (c)TP < TR < TQ (d)TP < TQ < TR
16 8
(a) r0 (b) r0 (c) 16r0 (d) 4 r0 34 If λ m denotes the wavelength at which the radiative
3 16
emission from a black body at a temperature T K is
31 The temperature of sun is 5500 K and it emits maximum
maximum, then
intensity radiation in the yellow region (5.5 × 10−7 m). The
(a) λm ∝ T 4 (b) λm is independent ofT
maximum radiation from a furnance occurs at
(c) λm ∝ T (d) λm ∝ T −1
wavelength 11 × 10−7 m. The temperature of furnace is
(a) 1125 K (b) 2750 K
35 A piece of iron is heated in a flame. If first becomes dull
(c) 5500 K (d) 11000 K red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to
white hot. The correct explanation for the above
32 A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of
observations is possible by using j NEET 2013
radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm isU1,
at wavelength 500 nm isU2 and that at 1000 nm isU3 . (a) Stefan’s law (b) Wien’s displacement law
(c) Kirchhoff’s law (d) Newton’s law of cooling
Wien's constant, b = 2.88 × 106 nmK. Which of the
following is correct ? j NEET 2016 36 Which of the following is the λ m -T graph for a perfectly
(a) U 3 = 0 (b) U1 > U 2 black body?
(c) U 2 > U1 (d) U1 = 0
33 On observing light from three different stars P, Q and R, (a) λm (b) λm
it was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in
the spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is T T
maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red
colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP , TQ and TR (c) λm (d) λm
are the respective absolute temperatures of P , Q and R,
T T
4 A wall has two layers A and B, each made of different 10 Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of
materials. Both the layers have the same thickness. The radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t ° C,
thermal conductivity for A is twice that of B and under the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the
steady condition, the temperature difference across the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun
wall is 36°C. The temperature difference across the layer is (where, σ is the Stefan’s constant.)
A is 4 πr 2t 4 r 2 σ (t + 273)4
(a) (b)
(a) 6°C (b) 12°C (c) 24°C (d) 18°C R 2
4π R2
5 Ice starts forming in lake with water at 0°C and when the 16 π 2r 2 σ t 4 r σ (t + 273)4
2
(c) (d)
atmospheric temperature is −10°C. If the time taken for R2 R2
1 cm of ice be 7 h, then the time taken for the thickness 11 A black body calorimeter filled with hot water cools from
of ice to change from 1 cm to 2 cm, is 60°C to 50°C in 4 min and 40°C to 30°C in 8 min. The
(a) 7 h (b) 14 h approximate temperature of surrounding is
(c) less than 7 h (d) more than 7 h
(a) 10°C (b) 15°C (c) 20°C (d) 25°C
6 A wall has two layers A and B each made of different 12 The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates
materials. The layer A is 10 cm thick and B is 20 cm maximum energy at wavelength, λ 0. If the temperature
thick. The thermal conductivity of A is thrice that of B. of the black body is now changed, so that it radiates
Under thermal equilibrium, temperature difference 3
maximum energy at wavelength λ 0, the power radiated
across the wall is 35°C. The difference of temperature 4
across the layer A is by it becomes nP. The value of n is j NEET 2018
16 Two slabs A and B of different materials but of the same 17 An experiment takes 10 min to raise temperature of water
thickness are joined end to form a composite slab. The from 0°C and 100°C and another 55 min to convert it
thermal conductivities of A and B are K1 and K 2 totally into steam by a stabilised heater. The latent heat
respectively. A steady temperature difference of 12°C is of vaporisation comes out to be
K
maintained across the composite slab. If K1 = 2 , the (a) 530 cal/g
2 (b) 540 cal/g
temperature difference across slabs A is (c) 550 cal/g
(a) 4°C (b) 6°C (d) 560 cal/g
(c) 8°C (d) 10°C
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (b) 34 (d) 35 (b) 36 (d)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (c)
30 Cooling rate ∝ T − 4
T 04 L B = l0 (1 + α B ∆T ) …(ii)
Let R A and R B be the radius of strips,
(900)4 − (300)4 L A = θR A
A B
r = …(iii)
4 0
r
(600) − (300)
4
L B = θR B …(iv)
16 as θ is the common angle.
= r0
3 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Heat current,
L A − L B = θ (R A − R B )
31 λ m1 T1 = λ m2 T2 H =
36
=
36 12
=
L − LB R + 2R 3R
5.5 × 10 −7 −7
× 5500 = 11 × 10 T ⇒ θ= A R
R A − RB
T = 550 × 5K = 2750 K ∴ Temperature difference across A
l0 (α A − α B ) ∆T 12
= …(v) = HR A = ×R
32 Given, temperature, T1 = 5760 K d R
Since, it is given that energy of Similarly from Eqs. (i), (ii), (iii), and = 12° C
radiation emitted by the body at (iv), we get ρL f
wavelength 250 nm in U 1 , at 2l + l0 (α A + α B ) ∆T
5 t= (d 22 − d 12 )
wavelength 500 nm is U 2 and that at R A + RB = 0 2KT
θ …(vi) ⇒ t ∝ (d 22 − d 12 )
1000 nm is U 3 .
Q According to Wien’s law, we get R A + RB t (d 22 − d 12 )
Mean radius, R = ⇒ =
λ mT = b 2 t ′ (d 2 ′2 −d 1 ′2 )
where, b = Wien’s constant 2l + l0 (α A + α B ) ∆T
= 0 …(vii) 7 (12 − 02 )
= 2.88 × 106 nmK 2θ ⇒ =
t ′ (22 − 12 )
b 2.88 × 106 nmK Putting the value of θ in Eq. (iii),
⇒ λm = ⇒ λm = we get ⇒ t ′ = 21 h
T 5760 K
6 RA =
10 Q R = l
⇒ λ m = 500 nm [2l0 + l0 (α A + α B ) ∆T ]
R= 3 KA KA
∆T
Q λ m = wavelength corresponding to 2 l0 (α A − α B )
maximum energy, so, U 2 > U 1 . d
33 We know from Wien’s displacement [2 + (α A + α B ) ∆T ] d A
⇒ R= 3K B K
law, 2 (α A − α B ) ∆T
λ mT = constant t
So, T ∝
1 2 ∆H = ∫ ms dt = m ∫ 0 (at 2 + bt + c ) dt
0 10 cm 20 cm
λm at 3
bt 2
As, λr > λg > λv = m 0 + 0 + ct 0
3 2 20 R A 1
RB = , =
So, Tr < Tg < Tv KA R B 6
Given, P → v max , Q → r max , R → g max mt 30 a mbt 20
= + + mct 0 So, let R A = R, then R B = 6R
Hence, TQ < T R < T p 3 2
Heat current,
34 According to Wien’s displacement law, 3 Radiated power of a black body, Temperature difference
the wavelength (λ m ) of maximum H =
P = σAT 4
Total resistance
intensity of emission of black body 35 5
radiation is inversely proportional to where, A = surface area of the body = =
T = temperature of the body 7R R
absolute temperature (T ) of the black
body. Therefore, Wien’s law is and σ = Stefan’s constant Now, temperature difference across A
5
λ mT = constant When radius of the sphere is halved, = H RA = × R = 5° C
new area, R
or λ m ∝ T −1
A
A′ =
4
128 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWELVE
Behaviour of
Perfect Gas and
Kinetic Theory
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Ideal Gas or Perfect Gas u Kinetic Theory of Gases u Specific Heat Capacities of
u Gas Law u Various Speeds of Gas Molecule Gases
u Equation of State of a u Degree of Freedom (f) u Mean Free Path
Perfect Gas u Law of Equipartition of Energy
Gas Law
Some important gas laws are given below in table form.
p
1
Boyle’s law V ∝ or pV = constant
p
V PREP
V
V
MIRROR
V ∝ T or = constant Your Personal Preparation Indicator
Charles’ law
T
u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
T
u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
p u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
p (Without referring Explanations)
Gay-Lussac’s law p ∝ T or = constant
T
T
u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
1 1 r M2 ρ2
Grahm’ law of diffusion r∝ ∝ or 1 = =
ρ M r2 M1 ρ1 In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
Level should be above 75.
Daltan’s law of partial pressure P = P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + .....+ Pn
130 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTEEN
6 Relationship between p, V and E for a gas is 14 The degrees of freedom of a molecule of a triatomic gas
(E = total translational kinetic energy) are
3 2 3 2 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
(a) p = EV (b)V = Ep (c) pV = E (d) pV = E
2 3 2 3 15 The temperature of argon, kept in a vessel, is raised by
7 When temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 1°C at a constant volume. The total heat supplied to the
27°C to 227°C. Its rms speed changed from 400 m/s gas is a combination of translational and rotational
to v s . The v s is energies. Their respective shares are
(a) 516 m/s (b) 450 m/s (c) 310 m/s (d) 746 m/s (a) 60% and 40% (b) 40% and 60%
(c) 50% and 50% (d) 100% and 0%
8 The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that in
helium gas, at 300 K is 16 One mole of ideal monoatomic gas (γ =5/3) is mixed with
one mole of diatomic gas (γ =7/5). What is γ for the
(a) (b)
2 1 3 6
(c) (d)
7 7 5 5 mixture? (γ denotes the ratio of specific heat at constant
pressure, to that at constant volume)
9 The molecules of a given mass of gas have rms speed
(a) 3/2 (b) 23/15 (c) 35/23 (d) 4/3
200 ms −1 at 27°C and105 Nm −2 pressure. When the
absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure is 17 The ratio of specific heats ( γ ) of an ideal gas is given by
1 R Cp
halved, the rms speed of the molecules of the same gas is (a) (b) 1 + (c) (d) All of these
(a) 200 ms −1
(b) 400 ms −1 1−
R CV Cp − R
(c) 200 2 ms −1 (d) 400 2 ms −1 Cp
DAY THIRTEEN BEHAVIOUR OF PERFECT GAS AND KINETIC THEORY 133
18 The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal 24 For the specific heat of 1 mole of an ideal gas at
gas is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant constant pressure (CP ) and at constant volume (Cv ),
pressure to that at constant volume is which is correct
(a) 7/5 (b) 8/7 (c) 5/7 (d) 9/7 5 7
(a) CP of hydrogen gas is R (b) Cv of hydrogen gas is R
2 2
19 The heat required to increase the temperature of 4 moles (c) H2 has very small values of CP and CV
of a monoatomic ideal gas from 273 K to 473 K at
(d) CP − CV = 199
. cal/mole-K for H2
constant volume is
(a) 200 R (b) 400 R 25 If the internal energy of n1 moles of He at temperature
(c) 800 R (d) 1200 R 10 T is equal to the internal energy of n 2 mole of
n
20 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 L at NTP. The specific heat hydrogen at temperature 6T. The mole of 1 is
n2
capacity of the gas at constant volume is
3 5
5.0 JK − 1 mol− 1. If the speed of sound in this gas at NTP (a) (b) 2 (c) 1 (d)
5 3
is 952 ms − 1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure
is (Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK − 1 mol− 1) 26 40 calories of heat is needed to raise the
temperature of 1 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas
CBSE AIPMT 2015
j
−1
(a) 8.0 JK mol −1
(b) 7.5 JK mol − 1
−1 from 20°C to 30°C at a constant pressure. The
(c) 7.0 JK − 1 mol − 1 (d) 8.5 JK − 1 mol − 1 amount of heat required to raised its temperature
Cp over the same interval of a constant
21 The ratio of the specific heats = γ in terms of degrees volume (R = 2 calorie mole −1K −2 ) is
CV
(a) 20 cal (b) 40 cal (c) 60 cal (d) 80 cal
of freedom (n ) is given by j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
27 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of
(a) 1 + (b) 1 + (c) 1 + (d) 1 +
1 n 2 n Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the
n 3 n 2 total internal energy of the system is j
NEET 2017
22 The amount of heat energy required to raise to (a) 4RT (b) 15RT (c) 9RT (d) 11RT
temperature of 1 g of helium at NTP, from T1K to T2K is 28 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process
j
NEET 2013
described by the equation pV 3 = constant. The heat
3 3
(a) NakB (T2 − T1) (b) NakB (T2 − T1) capacity of the gas during this process is j
NEET 2016
8 2 3 5
3 3 T (a) R (b) R (c) 2R (d) R
(c) NakB (T2 − T1) (d) NakB 2 2 2
4 4 T1
29 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant
23 When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and CV
pressure, fraction of heat energy supplied which Cp
increases the internal energy of gas, is respectively. If γ = and R is the universal gas
CV
2 3
(a) (b) constant, then CV is equal to j
NEET 2013
5 5
3 3 1+ γ R (γ − 1)
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) γR
7 4 1− γ (γ − 1) R
T1 T0 T0
3Mg /Ra 4Mg /Ra
T − ah T − ah
(c) p = p0 0 (d) p = p0 0
T0 T0
pV
nT
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (a)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (b)
SESSION 2 1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (a)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (b)
17 C p − C V = R f 29 As we know that
...(i) 22 We know that, Q = nR∆T
On dividing Eq. (i) by C p , we get
2 C p − CV = R
∴ Amount of heat required, C p = R + CV
C R 1 R Cp
1− V = or 1 − = = γ 3 1
Q = × × k B N a ∆T Cp
γ C p C V
Q
Cp Cp 2 4 and =γ (given)
CV
Cp 3
1
⇒ = 1−
R
or γ = = N a k B (T2 − T1 ) R + CV
γ Cp Cp − R 8 So, =γ
CV
C
18 We have given molar specific heat at 23 For monoatomic gas, γ = p = 5 ⇒ γCV = R + CV ⇒ γCV − CV = R
CV 3
constant pressure, R
7 ⇒ CV =
Cp = R We know that, γ −1
2
Mayer’s relation is ∆Q = µC p ∆T and ∆U = µC V ∆T
5 ∆U C V 3
SESSION 2
CV = C p − R = R = =
2 1 1 1
∆Q C p 5 1 λ= = ⇒λ∝
Hence, required ratio is λd 2 n 2 4 πr 2 n 2 r2
7 R i.e. fraction of heat energy to increase the
2 Number of moles,
Cp 2 7 3
γ = = = internal energy be . m 5
CV 5 R 5 5 n= =
molecular weight 32
2 24 For any gas So, from ideal gas equation,
19 Specific heat for a monoatomic gas, C P − C V = 1.99 ≈ 2 cal mol −1 K −1 5
pV = nRT ⇒ pV = RT
3
CV = R 32
25 n1C V1 ∆T1 = n2C V2 ∆T2
2
3 pV = nRT = m RT
∴ Heat, dQ = µC V ∆T n1 ×
3 5
R × 10 = n2 × R × 6 M
3 2 2 For first graph,
= 4 × × R (473 − 273) ` n1 m RT
2 =1 p= 1 …(i)
[Q µ = 4] M V1
n2
3
= 4 × × R × 200 p
2 26 At constant pressure,
∴ dQ = 4 × 300R (∆Q ) p = µC p ∆T
= 1200 R = 1 × C p × (30 − 20) = 40
20 Given, M = 4 gm, V = 22.4 L, C p = 4 cal mol −1 K −1 m2
C V = 5 JK −1 mol −1 CV = C p − R m1
Thermodynamics
Learning & Revision for the Day
A B
Adiabatic wall
2
In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
NOTE • For non-ideal gases, internal energy depends not only on the temperature but also on the Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
Level should be above 75.
pressure.
DAY FOURTEEN THERMODYNAMICS 139
Work
T1>T2
Consider a system in a cylinder with movable piston, whose
volume can be changed (a gas, liquid or solid). Suppose, the p
cylinder has a cross-sectional area A and pressure exerted by T1
system on the piston face is p. T2
Thermodynamic Processes Q2 Q1
A thermodynamic process is the process of change of state of
a system involving change of thermodynamic variables, e.g. p Q1 > Q2
p, V , T etc.
When a system undergo a thermodynamic change, then work
done either by system on surrounding or by surroundings on
system is called external work. V
V2 p-V graph for adiabatic process
Wext = ∫ p dV = area under p-V curve.
V1 The equation of state for an adiabatic process is
pV γ = constant or T V γ − 1 = constant or T γ p1 − γ = constant
1. Isothermal Process
l
Molar specific heat of a gas under adiabatic condition
It is that process in which temperature remains constant.
Here, exchange of heat with the surroundings is allowed. ∆Q 0
C= = =0
As temperature T remains constant in an isothermal m ⋅ ∆T m ⋅ ∆T
process, hence as per Boyle’s law dp p
l
Slope of an adiabatic at a point is =−γ .
1 dV V
p ∝ or pV = constant
V
140 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOURTEEN
l
Work done in an adiabatic process l
Indicator diagram for an isobaric process is a straight line
Vf µR µR parallel to X -axis.
∆W = ∫ p dV = (Ti − T f ) = − ∆T
Vi (γ − 1) (γ − 1)
During an adiabatic expansion ∆W = + ve, hence,
temperature of gas falls, i.e. an adiabatic expansion is p p
always accompanied with cooling.
V V
As per first law of thermodynamics, since, ∆Q = 0 in an (a) (b)
adiabatic process hence,
∆U = − ∆W Graph (a) represent isobaric expansion, graph (b) represent
isobaric compression.
l
Free expansion is an adiabatic process in which ∆W = 0.
Hence, in accordance with first law of thermodynamics
l
Work done in an isobaric process
Vf
∆U = 0 i.e. the final and initial values of the internal energy ∆W = ∫ p dV = p ∫ dV = p(V f − Vi ) = p∆V
Vi
are equal in free expansion.
l
Molar specific heat of a gas under isobaric condition
3. Isochoric Process
f
It is that thermodynamic process in which volume C p = + 1 R = CV + R
2
remains constant.
In an isochoric process for a given mass of gas
p Second Law of Thermodynamics
p ∝ T or = constant
T Two most common statements of second law of
l
Indicator diagram for an isochoric process is a straight line thermodynamics are given below
parallel to p-axis.
Clausius Statement
It is impossible for a self-acting machine, working in a cyclic
process to transfer heat from a colder body to a hotter body
without the aid of an external agency.
p p
Kelvin-Planck’s Statement
V V
(a) (b) It is impossible to design an engine which extracts heat from
a reservoir and fully converts it into work without producing
Graph (a) shows isometric heating graph in which pressure any other effect.
increases, temperature increases, ∆Q is positive and ∆U is
positive.
Similarly, Graph (b) shows isometric cooling graph in
Reversible and Irreversible
which pressure decreases, temperature decreases, ∆Q is Processes
negative and ∆U is negative. A reversible process is one which can be reversed in such a
l
Molar specific heat of a gas under isochoric condition way that all changes taking place in the direct process are
f exactly repeated in inverse order and in opposite sense, and
CV = R, where f is the number of degrees of freedom per
2 no changes are left in any of the bodies taking part in the
molecule. process or in the surroundings. Any process which is not
reversible exactly is an irreversible process.
l
Work done in an isochoric process ∆W = ∫ p dV = 0
W Q T
Heat Engine η=
Q1
=1− 2 =1− 2
Q1 T1
Any cyclic device by which heat is converted into mechanical
work is called a heat engine. The efficiency does not depend on the nature or quantity of
There are three main parts in an engine: the working substance.
(i) a hot body source
(ii) a working substance
Refrigerator
(iii) a cold body called sink.
A refrigerator or heat pump is basically a heat engine running
The efficiency of heat engine, in reverse direction. It takes heat from colder body (sink) and
W Q1 − Q2 Q after doing some work gives the rest heat to the hotter body
η= = =1− 2
Q1 Q1 Q1 (source). An ideal refrigerator can be regarded as Carnot’s
ideal heat engine working in the reverse direction.
A Coefficient of Performance of a
T1
p Q1
T1>T2 Refrigerator
B
p It is defined as the ratio of quantity of heat removed per cycle
D (Q2 ) to the work done (W ) on the working substance per cycle
T2 T1
Q2 C T2 to remove this heat.
Q Q2 T2 1−η
V β= 2 = or β = =
V W Q1 − Q2 T1 − T2 η
Carnot’s cycle Isothermal process
6 Ten moles of an ideal gas at constant temperature 600 K 12 An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to
is compressed from 100 L to 10 L. The work done in the 8/27 of its original volume. The rise in temperature is
process is (take, γ = 5/3)
(a) 4.11 × 104 J (b) − 4.11 × 104 J (a) 475°C (b) 150°C
. × 104 J
(c)114 (d) − 114
. × 104 J (c) 275°C (d) 402°C
7 One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to 13 A monoatomic gas ( γ = 5 / 3) at pressure p is suddenly
final state B via two processes. It first undergoes 1
compressed to th of its volume adiabatically. Then,
isothermal expansion from volumeV to 3V and then its 64
volume is reduced from 3V to V at constant pressure. pressure of gas is
The correct p-V diagram representing the two processes (a) 8 p (b) 42/3 p
is j CBSE AIPMT 2011 (c) 256 p (d) 1024 p
B A 14 A gas is compressed adiabatically till its temperature
is doubled. The ratio of its final volume to initial volume
A will be
(a) p (b) p B
(a)1/2 (b) more than 1/2
V V (c) less than 1/2 (d) between 1 and 2
V 3V V 3V
A A 15 One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature ofT K
does 6 R J of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific
(c) p B (d) p B heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant
volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will be
V
V 3V
V
V 3V (a) (T + 2.4) K (b) (T − 2.4) K
(c) (T + 4) K (d) (T − 4) K
8 In thermodynamic processes, which of the following
16 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is
statements is not true ? j
CBSE AIPMT 2009
found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature.
(a)In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the Cp
surroundings The ratio of for the gas is
(b)In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
CV j
NEET 2013
(c)In an isothermal process the temperature remains 4 5 3
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d)
constant 3 3 2
(d) In an adiabatic process pV γ = constant 17 A monoatomic gas at a pressure p, having a volume V
9 During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then
does –150 J of work against its surroundings. This adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the
implies that j
CBSE AIPMT 2011 5
gas is take γ =
(a) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas 3 j
CBSE AIPMT 2014
(b)no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal (a) 64p (b) 32p
(c) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas p
(d) 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas (c) (d) 16p
64
10 If ∆U and ∆W represent the increase in internal energy 18 Which of the following statements is correct for any
and work done by the system respectively in a thermodynamic system?
thermodynamical process, which of the following is true?
(a)The internal energy changes in all processes
j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
(b)Internal energy and entropy are state functions
(a) ∆U = − ∆W , in an adiabatic process (c)The change in entropy can never be zero
(b) ∆U = ∆W , in an isothermal process (d)The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero
(c) ∆U = ∆W , in an adiabatic process
(d) ∆U = − ∆W , in an isothermal process 19 We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U represents
11 A sample of perfect gas is compressed isothermally to the increase in its internal energy andW the work done
half its volume. If it is compressed adiabatically to the by the system, which of the following statements is true?
same volume, the final pressure of the gas will be (a) ∆U = − W in an adiabatic process j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
(a) more (b) less (c) same (b) ∆U = W in an isothermal process
(d)more or less depending on the initial temperature of the (c) ∆U = − W in an isothermal process
gas (d) ∆U = W in an adiabatic process
DAY FOURTEEN THERMODYNAMICS 143
20 3 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas performs a cycle as 26 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following
shown in figure. The gas temperaturesTA = 400 K, diagram j NEET 2017
TB = 800 K, TC = 2400 K, TD = 1200 K, work done by the P
gas is
p IV
f
B I III
C
II f
f 700 K
A f 500 K
D 300 K
V
T
Match the following :
(a) 10 kJ (b) 24 kJ (c) 30 kJ (d) 40 kJ Column-I Column-II
21 Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a P. Process I a. Adiabatic
gas to go from a state A to a state C. Q. Process II b. Isobaric
B R. Process III c. Isochoric
6×104 C
p (in Pa) S. Process IV d. Isothermal
(a) P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b
A (b) P → c, Q → a, R → d, S → b
2×104 (c) P → c, Q → d, R → b, S → a
(d) P → d, Q → b, R → a, S → c
30 A gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A, as 35 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between
shown in figure. What is the net work done by the gas? the freezing point and boiling point of water is
j NEET 2013 j NEET 2018
p(105 Pa) (a) 6.25% (b) 20% (c) 26.8% (d) 12.5 %
36 An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle
7 between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 104 cal of heat
6 B
at higher temperature. Amount of heat converted to work
5
is
4
(a)2.4 × 104 cal (b) 6 × 104 cal
3
A (c)1.2 × 104 cal (d) 4.8 × 104 cal
2 C
1 37 A reversible engine takes in heat from a reservoir of heat
0 V(10–3 m3) at 527°C and gives it to the sink at 127°C. How many
2 4 6 8 calorie/s it shall take from the reservoir to do a work of
(a) 2000 J (b) 1000 J (c) Zero (d) − 2000 J 750 W.
31 A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle (a) 257 cal s−1 (b) 357 cal s−1
ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas (c) 1500 cal s−1 (d) None of these
during the cycle is j CBSE AIPMT 2012
38 In refrigerator one removes heat from a lower
temperature and deposits to the surroundings at a higher
2p D C
temperature. In this process, mechanical work has to be
done, which is provided by an electrical motor. If the
Pressure
33 A bread gives a boy 5000 cal. How much height he can (a) 23.65 W (b) 236.5 W
(c) 2365 W (d) 2.365 W
climb by using this energy, if his efficiency is 28%?
(Mass of the boy = 60 kg) 42 The temperature inside a refrigerator is t 2 °C and the
(a) 2.5 m (b) 5 m (c) 10 m (d) 15 m room temperature is t1 ° C. The amount of heat delivered
to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed
34 A person of mass 60 kg wants to lose 5 kg by going up
ideally will be j
NEET 2016
and down a 10 m high stairs. Assume he burns twice as
t1 t1 + 273
much fat while going up than coming down. If 1 kg of fat is (a) (b)
t1 − t 2 t1 − t 2
burnt on expanding 7000 kilo calories, how many times t + 273 t1 + t 2
must be go up and down to reduce his weight by 5 kg? (c) 2 (d)
t1 − t 2 t1 + 273
(a) 10.5 × 103 (b) 24.3 × 103 (c) 16.3 × 103 (d) 9 × 103
DAY FOURTEEN THERMODYNAMICS 145
43 The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the 44 An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of
temperature inside freezer is − 20° C, the temperature of − 13°C. The coefficient of performance of the engine is 5.
the surroundings to which it rejects heat is The temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) will
j CBSE AIPMT 2015 be
(a) 31°C (b) 41°C (c) 11°C (d) 21°C (a) 325°C (b) 325 K (c) 39°C (d) 320°C
100
2
200 400 cc
Volume
V
(a) 100 J (b) 200 J (c) 31.4 J (d) 68.3 J (a)W1 = W2 (b) ∆U1 = ∆U 2
3 The p-V diagram of a system undergoing thermodynamic (c)W1 > W2 (d) Both (b) and (c) are true
transformation as shown in figure. The work done by the 8 Efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50% when temperature
system in going from a → b → c is 50 J and 20 cal heat of outlet is 500 K. In order to increase efficiency upto
is given to the system. The change in internal energy 60% keeping temperature of intake the same, what is
between a and c is temperature of outlet?
p c (a)200 K (b) 400 K (c) 600 K (d) 800 K
9 A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial
volume. The same gas is compressed separately
a b through an adiabatic process until its volume is again
V reduced to half. Then j
NEET 2016
(a) 34 J (b) 70 J (c) 84 J (d) 134 J (a)compressing the gas through adiabatic process will
4 Consider a Carnot’s cycle operating betweenT1 = 500 K require more work to be done.
and T2 = 300 K producing 1 kJ of mechanical work per (b) compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will
require the same amount of work.
cycle. Find the heat transferred to the engine by the
(c) which of the case (whether compression through
reservoirs. isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more
(a)1500 J (b) 1000 J work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
(c)2000 J (d) None of these (d) compressing the gas isothermally will require more work
1 to be done.
5 An engine has an efficiency of . When the temperature of
6 10 An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by
sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. means of several process. Which of the process results in
Temperature of the source is the maximum work done on the gas? j CBSE AIPMT 2015
(a) 124°C (b) 37°C (c) 62°C (d) 99°C (a) Adiabatic (b) Isobaric (c) Isochoric (d) Isothermal
146 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOURTEEN
11 A steam engine whose source is at 400 K, takes 200 cal in the cycle is 5J, the work done by the gas in the
of heat and rejects 150 cal to the sink. What is the process C → A is
temperature of the sink?
V (m3)
(a)800 K (b) 400 K C B
2
(c)300 K (d) None of these
12 1 mm 3 of a gas is compressed at 1 atmosphere
pressure and temperature 27°C to 627°C. What is the
final pressure under adiabatic condition? 1
A
(Take, γ for the gas = 1. 5) 10p (N/m2)
(a)27 × 105 N/m 2 (b) 80 × 105 N/m 2
(c) 36 × 105 N/m 2 (d) 56 × 105 N/m 2 (a) − 5 J (b) −10 J (c) −15 J (d) −20 J
1
13 When 1 g of water at 0°C and 1 × 10 N/m pressure is
5 2
17 A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of η = as heat
3 10
converted into ice of volume 1.091 cm , the external
engine is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the
work done will be
system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the
(a) 0.0091 J (b) 0.0182 J (c) − 0.0091 J (d) −0.0182 J
reservoir at lower temperature is j CBSE AIPMT 2015
14 The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible engine (a) 100 J (b) 99 J (c) 90 J (d) 1 J
cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is
18 A Carnot engine has an efficiency 50% when its sink is at
a temperature of 27°C. The temperature of the source is
2T0
(a) 273°C (b) 300°C (c) 327°C (d) 373°C
19 The volume (V ) of a monoatomic gas varies with its
temperature (T ), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work
T0
done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it
undergoes a change from state A to state B, is j NEET 2018
S0 2S0
1 2 1 1 V
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 4
15 Work done in the given p-V diagram in the cyclic process is
B
p A
(2p, V) (2p, 2V )
O T
1 2 2 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 5 7
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (d) 26 (b) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (c) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (a) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (b)
DAY FOURTEEN THERMODYNAMICS 147
39 Consider schematic diagram for a 42 For a refrigerator, we know that 2 Heat absorbed = πr 2
Carnot engine as shown below. Q1 Q1 T1
= = = 3.14 × (100 × 103 ) × (100 × 10−6 )
W Q 1 − Q 2 T1 − T2
T2 Low temperature = 31.4 J
reservoir where,
q2 Q 1 = amount of heat delivered to the 3 Heat added to system is given by
room ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
W E W = electrical energy consumed Here, ∆Q = 20 cal = 84 Jand ∆W = 50 J
T1 = room temperature = t 1 + 273 ⇒ ∆U = 84 − 50 = 34 J
q1 T2 = temperature of sink = t 2 + 273 4
Q 2 T2 3
= = ,Q 1 − Q 2 = 103 J
High temperature Q1 t 1 + 273 Q 1 T1 5
T1 ∴ =
reservoir 1 t 1 + 273 − (t 2 + 273)
Q 1 1 −
3
= 10 J
3
In case of engine, engine efficiency t + 273
⇒ Q1 = 1 5
work W t1 − t2
= = 5
heat absorbed q1 ⇒ Q1 = × 103 J = 2500 J,
43 Given, coefficient of performance of a 2
∴
W
=
1
⇒
10 J
=
1 refrigerator, β = 5 Q 2 = 1500 J
q1 10 q1 10 Temperature of surface, i.e. inside
freezer, 5 Efficiency of engine is given by
or q1 = 100 J
T2 = − 20°C = − 20 + 273 = 253 K T2
When this engine is reversed, it takes in η=1−
Temperature of surrounding, i.e. heat T1
work W and heat q2 from cold reservoir
rejected outside T1 = ? T2 1 5
and ejects 100 J of heat to hot reservoir. ∴ =1− η=1− = …(i)
T2 253 T1 6 6
∴ W + q2 = q1 ⇒ 10 + q2 = 100 So, β= ⇒ 5=
or q2 = 90 J T1 − T2 T1 − 253 In other case,
⇒ 5 T1 − 1265 = 253 T2 − 62 2 2
40
Q2
= 5, Q 2 = 5W, Q 1 = 6 W = 1 − η = 1 − = …(ii)
W ⇒ 5 T1 = 1518 T1 6 3
1518
T2 5 T
= = 2 ,T2 = 250 K = − 23° C T1 = = 303.6 K Using Eq. (i), we get
T1 6 300 5 2 2 6 1
T1 = 303.6 − 273 = 31° C T2 − 62 = T1 = × T2 or T2 = 62
3 3 5 5
41 Given, temperature of source, 44 Given that, the temperature of freezer, ∴ T2 = 310 K
T1 = 30°C T2 = − 13° C ⇒ T2 = − 13 + 273 = 260 K 6 6
Here, T1 = T2 = × 310
= 30 + 273 Coefficient of performance, β = 5 5 5
= 303 K The coefficient of performance is = 372 K = 372 − 273 = 99° C
Temperature of sink, defined as,
T2 = 4° C = 4 + 273 = 277 K 6 The efficiency of Carnot engine
T2 260
β= or 5 = T2
As, we know that T1 − T2 T1 − 260 η=1− .
Q 1 T1 T1
= 260
Q 2 T2 ∴ T1 − 260 = or T1 − 260 = 52 Here, T1 is the temperature of source
5 and T2 is the temperature of sink.
Q2 + W T
⇒ = 1 [Q W = Q 1 − Q 2 ] or T1 = (52 + 260) K = 312 K 40
Q2 T2 = (312 − 273°)C As given, η = 40% = = 0.4
100
where Q 2 is the amount of heat drawn ⇒ T1 = 39°C and T2 = 300 K
from the sink (at T2 ), W is workdone on 300 300
working substance, Q 1 is amount of heat SESSION 2 So, 0.4 = 1 − ⇒ T1 = = 500 K
T1 1 − 0.4
rejected to source (at room temperature V2 δU dV
T1 ). 1 ∆Q = ∫V 1
δV
Let temperature of the source be
increased by x, then efficiency becomes
⇒ WT2 + T2Q 2 = T1Q 2
⇒ WT2 = T1Q 2 − T2Q 2 From second law of thermodynamics η′ = 40% + 50% of η
⇒ WT2 = Q 2 (T1 − T2 ) 40 50
∂U = T ∂S − p = + × 0.4
T 100 100
∂V T ∂V T
⇒ W = Q 2 1 − 1 = 0.4 + 0.5 × 0.4 = 0.6
T
2 ∂p
= T − p, Hence, 0.6 = 1 −
300
∂T V
W = 600 × 4.2 × − 1
303 500 + x
⇒
277 RT a 300
p= − ⇒ = 0.4
V − b V2
W = 600 × 4 .2 ×
26 500 + x
277 ∂p ∂U
T and ∴ x = 750 − 500 = 250 K
RT a
W = 236.5 Joules = =
∂T V V − b ∂V T V 2
Work done 7 Work done depends upon the path
Power = Given, V1 = 1 L, V2 = 5 L followed by process
Time
W 236.5 1 1 So, W1 ≠ W2
= = ∆Q = a − = 0.11 kJ
t 1 V1 V2 Since, change in internal energy
= 236.5 W depends upon the initial and final state,
150 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOURTEEN
Iso
From First law of thermodynamics, ∆W = p∆V = p[V steam − V water ]
ia
P th
ba
er
m ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
. cc = 167.1 × 10 −6 m 3
tic
Unit Test 2
(General Properties of Matter)
1 A thick rope of density 1. 5 × 103 kgm −3 and Young’s 8 The work done in increasing the size of a soap film from
modulus 5 × 106 Nm −2 , 8 m in length when hung from the 10 cm × 6 cm to 10 cm × 11 cm is 3 × 10−4 J. The surface
ceiling of room, the increase in its length due to its own tension of the film is
weight is (a) 1.5 × 10−2 Nm −1 (b) 3.0 × 10−2 Nm −1
(a) 9.6 × 10 m−5
(b) 19. 2 × 10 −7
m (c) 6. 0 × 10−2 Nm −1 . × 10−2 Nm −1
(d) 110
(c) 9.6 × 10−2 m (d) 9.6 m 9 Figure below shows a cyclic
2 A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 g cm −3 ) over mercury process abcda. If ∆Q be the heat p c
(density = 13.6 g cm −3 ). A homogeneous sphere floats supplied to the system, ∆U be the
b
with half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other change in internal energy and
half in oil. The density of material of the sphere in (gcm −3 ) ∆W be the work done by the d
is system, then which of the a
(a) 3.3 (b) 6.4 (c) 7.2 (d) 2.8 following relations is correct? V
3 Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their (a) dQ − dU = 0 (b) dQ − dW = 0
lengths are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the diameter are in the (c) dU + dW = 0 (d) None of these
ratio 2 : 1. If they are pulled by the same force, their 10 How much force is required to produce an increase of
increase in length will be in the ratio 0.2% in the length of a brass wire of diameter 0.6 mm?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1 [Young’s modulus for brass = 0.9 × 1011 Nm −2 ]
4 Two capillary tubes P and Q are dipped in water. The (a) Nearly 17 N (b) Nearly 51 N
height of water level in capillary P is 2/3 to the height in Q (c) Nearly 34 N (d) Nearly 68 N
capillary. The ratio of their diameters is 11 If two drops of same radius are falling through air with a
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3 velocity of 5 cm s −1. If the two drops coalescence to form
5 For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times one drop, the terminal velocity of the drop is
that of rigidity modulus. Its poission’s ratio is (a) 2.5 cms −1 (b) 10 cms −1
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (c) 5 2 cms −1 (d) 5 × 41/ 3 cms −1
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.2 12 The pressure and density of a diatomic gas ( γ = 7/5)
6 The work done when n smaller equal size spherical changes adiabatically from ( p, ρ ) to ( p′ , ρ′ ). If ρ′ /ρ = 32,
drops combine to form a bigger size single spherical then ( p′ /p ) should be
drop of water is proportional to (a) 1/128 (b) 32 (c) 128 (d) None of these
14 70 cal of heat is required to increase, the temperature of 24 Newton’s law of cooling is the special case of Stefan’s
2 moles of an ideal gas from 30°C to 35°C at constant law, when
pressure. The amount of heat required to increase the (a)temperature of body is high
temperature of the same gas through the same (b)temperature of surroundings is high
temperature range (30°C to 35°C) at constant volume will (c)temperature difference of body and surroundings is
be [(Gas constant R = 2 cal/(mol −1K −1)]. small
(a) 30 cal (b) 50 cal (c) 70 cal (d) 90 cal (d)temperature difference of body and surroundings is high
15 125 ml of gas A at 0.60 atm and 150 ml of gas B at 25 It takes 10 min to cool a liquid from 61°C to 59°C. If room
0.80 atm pressure at same temperature is filled in a temperature is 30°C, then time taken in cooling from 51°C
vessel of 1 L volume. What will be total pressure of to 49°C is
mixture at the same temperature? (a) 10 min (b) 11 min
(a) 0.195 atm (b) 0.212 atm (c) 13 min (d) 15 min
(c) 0.120 atm (d) 0.140 atm 26 A planet of radius r radiates heat at a rate proportional to
16 At constant temperature, on increasing the pressure of a the fourth power of its surface temperatureT . The
gas by 5%, its volume will decrease by temperature of the planet is such that, this loss is exactly
(a) 5% (b) 5.26% compensated by the heat gained from the sun. If d is the
(c) 4.26% (d) 4.76% mean distance of planet from the sun, then the
17 The density of hydrogen is 0.09 kgm −3 . What is its root temperature T of planet is directly proportional to
mean temperature velocity at NTP ? (a) d (b) d 2 /3
1 1
(a)10/3 ms −1 (b) 10 /3 kms −1 (c) (d) 2 / 3
d d
(c) 10/ 3 ms −1 (d) (10/3) cm−1
27 A body when fully immersed in a liquid of specific gravity
18 The gas having average speed four times as that of SO 2 1.2 weight 44 gwt. The same body when fully immersed
(molecular mass = 64) is in water weight 50 gwt. The mass of the body is
(a)He (molecular mass 4) (b) O 2 (molecular mass 32)
(a) 36 g (b) 48 g
(c)H2 (molecular mass 2) (d) CH4 (molecular mass 16)
(c) 64 g (d) 80 g
19 Which of the graphs shown in the figure correctly 28 How much should the pressure of the gas be increased
represents the cooling of a body due to radiations?
to decrease the volume by 10% at a constant
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) None of these temperature?
20 The temperature of a given mass is increased from 27°C (a) 10% (b) 9.5%
to 327°C. The rms velocity of the molecules increases by (c) 11.11% (d) 5.11%
(a) 2 times (b) 2 times (c) 2 2 times (d) 4 times 29 A black body at 227°C radiates heat at a rate of 7 cal/cm 2 s.
21 The quantity of heat required to heat 1 mole of a At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in
monoatomic gas through 1 K at constant pressure is the same units will be
(a) 3.5 R (b) 2.5 R (a) 112 (b) 105
(c) 1.5 R (d) None of these (c) 101 (d) 89
22 The radiant energy from the sun, incident normally at the 30 The figure show the graph of pressure versus density for
surface of the earth is 20 kcal m −2 min –1. What would an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2 , then
have been the radiant energy, incident normally on the
earth, if the sun had a temperature, twice of the present T1
one?
(a)160 kcal m−2 min −1 (b) 40 kcal m−2 min −1
(c)320 kcal m−2 min −1 (d) 80 kcal m−2 min −1 p
T2
23 A solid ball of density half that of water falls freely under
gravity from a height of 19.6 m and then enters water.
Neglecting air resistance and viscosity effect in water,
the depth upto which the ball will go is ρ
( take, g = 9.8 m /s 2 ) (a)T1 > T2 (b)T1 = T2
(a) 19.6 m (b) 28.4 m (c) 9.8 m (d) 14.7 m (c)T1 < T2 (d) None of these
DAY FIFTEEN UNIT TEST 5 (GENERAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER) 153
31 One end of a conducting rod is maintained at Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) In each of the following questions
temperature 50°C and at the other end ice is melting at a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding
0°C. The rate of melting of ice is doubled, if statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the
correct answer as
(a) the temperature is made 200°C and the area of
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
cross-section of the rod is doubled
(b) the temperature is made 100°C and length of the rod is the correct explanation of the Assertion
made four times (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
(c) area of cross-section of rod is halved and length is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
doubled (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) the temperature is made 100°C and area of (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
cross-section of rod and length both are doubled
36 Assertion (A) If length of a rod is doubled the breaking
32 A small steel ball falls through a syrup at a constant
load remains unchanged.
speed of 1.0 m/s. If the steel ball is pulled upwards with
a force equal to twice its effective weight, how fast will it Reason (R) Breaking load is equal to the elastic limit.
move upward?
37 Assertion (A) The number of degrees of freedom of
(a) 1.0 m/s (b) 2.0 m/s (c) 0.5 m/s (d) zero triatomic molecules is 6.
33 A solid ball of density ρ1 and radius r falls vertically Reason (R) Triatomic molecules have three translational
through a liquid of density ρ 2 . Assume that the viscous
degrees of freedom and three rotational degrees of
force acting on the ball is F = krv , where k is a constant
freedom.
and v its velocity. What is the terminal velocity of the ball?
4 πgr 2 (ρ1 − ρ2 ) 2 πr (ρ1 − ρ2 ) 38 Assertion (A) If the same load is attached to lead and
(a) (b)
3k 3gk rubber wires of the same cross-sectional area, the strain
2 πg (ρ1 + ρ2 ) of lead is very much less than that of rubber.
(c) (d) None of these
3gr 2k Reason (R) Lead is more elastic than rubber.
34 A block of mass M is suspended from a wire of length L, 39 Assertion (A) The coefficient of real expansion of liquid is
area of cross-section A and Young’s modulus Y. The independent of the nature of container.
elastic potential energy stored in the wire is
Reason (R) γa = γr + γv
1 M 2g 2L 1 Mg 1 M 2g 2 A 1 MgY
(a) (b) (c) (d) where, γa = coefficient of apparent expansion,
2 AY 2 ALY 2 YL 2 AL
γr = coefficient of real expansion
35 22320 cal of heat is supplied to 100g of ice at 0° C. If the
latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g −1 and latent heat of and γv = coefficient of expansion of vessel.
vaporisation of water is 540 cal g −1, the final amount of
40 Assertion (A) Thermodynamic processes in nature are
water, thus obtained and its temperature respectively are
irreversible.
(a) 8g, 100°C (b) 100g, 100°C
(c) 92g, 100°C (d) 82g, 100°C Reason (R) Dissipative effects cannot be eliminated.
ANSWERS
1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (d) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (a) 39 (d) 40 (a)
154 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FIFTEEN
9 MgL 1
22 E ∝T4 [Stefan’s law] Therefore, volume becomes = V 34 ∆ l = FL = ; U = k (∆l )2
10 AY AY 2
4 4
E 1 T1 20 T1 Pressure =
10
p where, k =
YA
⇒ = ⇒ =
E 2 T2 E2 2T1 9 L
10 p 2
M2g2L
− p 1 YA MgL
⇒ E2 = 320 kcal m −2 min −1 ∴U = =
% increase = 9 × 100 = 11.11% 2 L AY 2 AY
p
23 Velocity of ball on reaching the water 35 Heat required to convert ice to water at
surface is v = 2gh = 2 × 9.8 × 19.6 100° C,
29 According to Stefan’s law E = σT 4
Oscillations
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Periodic Motion u Simple Pendulum
u Simple Harmonic Motion u Oscillations of a Spring
u Force and Energy in SHM u Free, Damped, Forced and Resonant Vibrations
Periodic Motion
A motion which repeats itself over a regular interval of time is called a periodic motion.
A periodic motion in which a body moves back and forth repeatedly about a fixed point
(called mean position) is called oscillatory or vibratory motion.
Periodic Function
A function which repeats its value after a fix interval of time is called a periodic
function. y(t ) = y(t + T )
where, T is the period of the function.
Trigonometric functions sin θ and cos θ are simplest periodic functions having period of
2π.
PREP
Simple Harmonic Motion MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) is that type of periodic motion in which the particle
moves to and fro or back and forth about a fixed point under a restoring force, whose u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
magnitude is directly proportional to its displacement u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
i.e. F ∝ x or F = − kx u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
where, k is a positive constant called the force constant or spring factor and x is (Without referring Explanations)
displacement.
u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
d2 y
Differential equations of SHM, for linear SHM, + ω2 y = 0, u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
dt 2
d2 θ In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
for angular SHM, + ω2 θ = 0 Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
dt 2 Level should be above 75.
DAY SIXTEEN OSCILLATIONS 157
O Time
general, expressed as number of oscillations executed by body per second. SI
y = A sin (ωt + φ). –a unit of frequency is hertz.
where, A is the amplitude of Angular frequency of a body executing periodic motion is
2π equal to product of frequency of the body with factor 2π.
SHM, ω is the angular frequency where ω = = 2 πν and
T Angular frequency, ω = 2 πn.
φ is the initial phase of SHM. However, displacement may
also be expressed as x = A cos (ωt + φ). Force and Energy in SHM
l
Amplitude The maximum displacement on either side of l
Force For an object executing SHM, a force always acts on
mean position is called amplitude of SHM.
it, which tries to bring it in mean position, i.e. it is always
l
Velocity The velocity of a particle executing SHM at an directed towards mean position.
instant is defined as the time rate of change of its The equation of motion, F = ma ,
displacement at that instant.
∴ F = − mω2 x [Q a = − ω2 x ]
dy
Velocity, = v = ω A2 − y 2
dt k
= − kx Qω =
At the mean position ( y = 0), during its motion m
v = Aω = vmax and at the extreme positions ( y = ± A), v = 0.
Here, negative sign shows that direction of force is always
Velocity amplitude = v max = Aω opposite to the direction of displacement.
Velocity l
Energy If a particle of mass m is executing SHM, then at a
T
displacement x from the mean position, the particle
T/2 possesses potential and kinetic energy.
O Time At any displacement x,
1 1
Potential energy, U = m ω2 x2 = k x2
2 2
l
Acceleration The acceleration of a particle executing SHM 1 1
Kinetic energy, K = m ω ( A − x2 ) = k ( A2 − x2 )
2 2
at an instant is defined as the time rate of change of 2 2
velocity at that instant. 1
Total energy, E = U + K = m ω A = 2 π 2 mν2 A2
2 2
d2 y 2
Acceleration, = a = − ω2 y
dt 2 If there is no friction, the total mechanical energy,
The acceleration is also a variable. E = K + U, of the system always remains constant even
At the mean position ( y = 0), acceleration a = 0 and at the though K and U change.
extreme position ( y = ± A), the acceleration is amax = − Aω2 .
∴ Acceleration amplitude amax = Aω2 Simple Pendulum
Acceleration A simple pendulum, in practice, consists of a heavy but small
sized metallic bob suspended by a light, inextensible and
flexible string. The motion of a simple pendulum is simple
T/2 T harmonic for very small angular displacement (α) whose time
O Time period and frequency are given by
l 1 g
T = 2π and ν =
g 2π l
l
Phase Phase is that physical quantity which tells about the
position and direction of motion of any particle at any where, l is the effective length of the string and g is
moment. It is denoted by φ. acceleration due to gravity.
l
Phase Difference If two particles perform S.H.M and their
l
If a pendulum of length l at temperature θ° C has a time
equations are period T, then on increasing the temperature by ∆θ° C its
time period changes to T × ∆T ,
y1 = a sin(ωt + φ 1) and y2 = a sin(ωt + φ2 )
∆T 1
phase difference ∆φ = (ωt + φ2 ) − (ωt + φ 1) = φ2 − φ 1 where, = α ∆θ
T 2
158 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SIXTEEN
l–T2
O x
Combination of Springs
l
If two springs of spring constants k 1 and k2 are
l
The graph between T 2 and 1/g is a straight line. joined in series (horizontally and vertically), then
y
their equivalent spring constant k s is given K1
1 1 1
by = +
T2 k s k 1 k2
k 1k2 K2
⇒ ks =
k 1 + k2
m
O x m m(k 1 + k2 )
1/g ∴ T = 2π = 2π (a)
ks k 1k2
DAY SIXTEEN OSCILLATIONS 159
l
If the two springs of spring constants k 1 and k2 are joined where, v is the velocity of the oscillator and b is a damping
in parallel as shown, then their equivalent spring constant constant.
k p = k 1 + k2 The displacement of the oscillator is given by
hence, T = 2π
m
= 2π
m x(t ) = Ae −bt / 2 m cos(ω′t + φ)
kp (k 1 + k2 )
where, ω′ = the angular frequency
k b2
ω′ = −
m 4 m2
k1 k2
The mechanical energy E of the oscillator is given by
1
E (t ) = kA2e −bt / m
2
m A
ing
mp
(b ) x
a
all d
t
Sm
Free, Damped, Forced and Larger
damping
Resonant Vibrations ω0 ω
(a) (b)
Some of the vibrations are described below
12 The maximum velocity of a simple harmonic motion Which one of the following graphs shows
π correctly the variation a with t ? j CBSE AIPMT 2014
represented by y = 3 sin 100t + is given by
6
3π π a a
(a) 300 (b) (c) 100 (d)
6 6 (a) (b) O T
O T t t
13 A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its
velocities at distances x1 and x 2 from the mean position
are v1 and v 2 , respectively. Its time period is
j CBSE AIPMT 2015 a a
(c) (d) O
x12 + x 22 x 22 − x12 O T t T t
(a) 2 π (b) 2 π
v12 + v 22 v12 − v 22
v12 + v 22 v12 − v 22 Here, a = acceleration at time t
(c) 2 π (d) 2 π
x12 + x 22 x12 − x 22 T = Time period
14 A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion 20 Which one of the following equations of motion
about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The represents simple harmonic motion? j CBSE AIPMT 2009
a
speed of the pendulum at x = will be (a) Acceleration = − k0 x + k1x 2
2 j CBSE AIPMT 2009
(b) Acceleration = − k (x + a)
πa 3 πa 3 π 2a πa 3 (c) Acceleration = k (x + a)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2T T T T (d) Acceleration = kx
(where, k, k0 , k1 and a are all positive.)
15 The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is 4 cm. At the
21 Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequency 100
mean position, the speed of the particle is 16 cm/s. The
rad s −1 and 1000 rad s −1 have the same displacement
distance of the particle from the mean position at which
the speed of the particle becomes 8 3 cm/s will be amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations is
(a) 2 3 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 1cm (d) 2 cm (a) 1 : 10 (b) 1 : 102 (c) 1 : 103 (d) 1 : 104
16 If at any time the displacement of a simple pendulum be 22 A system is subjected to two SHMs given by
0.02 m, then its acceleration is 2 ms . What is the−2 y1 = 6 cos ω t and y 2 = 8 cos ω t
angular speed of the pendulum at that instant? The resultant amplitude of SHM is given by
(a) 100 rads −1 (b) 10 rads −1 (c) 1 rads −1 (d) 0.1 rads −1 (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 20
17 The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple harmonic 23 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high
motion is shown below. The acceleration of the particle at building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple
t = 4 / 3 s is harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the
pendulum is 20 m / s 2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
1 position. The time period of oscillation is j
NEET 2018
x (cm)
40 A girl is sitting on the roof of a flat toy car of mass 6 kg. If (a) ν = ν1 + ν2 + ν3 (b) ν = ν1 + ν2 + ν3
no slipping takes place between car and the girl, then 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) = + + (d) = + +
what should be the mass of the child in order to have ν ν1 ν2 ν3 ν ν1 ν2 ν3
period of system equal to 0.758 s?
44 One-fourth length of a spring of force constant k is cut
away. The force constant of the remaining spring will be
3 4
(a) k (b) k (c) k (d) 4k
k = 600 N/m 4 3
45 The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a
spring of negligible mass is T . If along with it another
(a) 9 kg (b) 2.74 kg (c) 6 kg (d) 7.28 kg mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will
41 Two springs of force constants k1 and k 2 are connected now be j CBSE AIPMT 2010
k1 k2
Mh MA M
(a)T = 2 π (b)T = 2 π P
pA ph
M k1A k2 A
(c)T = 2 π (d) None of these (a) (b)
pAh k2 k1
kA k A
5 From the ceiling of a train, a pendulum of length l is (c) 1 (d) 2
k1 + k2 k1 + k2
suspended. The train is moving with an acceleration a 0
on horizontal surface. The period of oscillation of the 10 What will be the force constant of the spring system as
pendulum is shown in the figure?
l l
(a)T = 2 π (b)T = 2 π
g a02 + g2
K1 K1
l l
(c)T = π (d)T = π
a02 + g 2 g
k
m x
θ
M 2M
(a) 2 π (b) 2 π m m
2k k (a) 2 π (b) 4 π
k k
M sin θ 2M sin θ
(c) 2 π (d) 2 π k k
2k k (c) 2 π (d) 4 π
m m
8 A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section 12 The particle executing SHM has a kinetic energy
A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If it is given a small K 0 cos 2 ωt . The maximum values of the potential energy
vertical displacement from equilibrium it undergoes and the total energy respectively are
oscillation with a time periodT . Then, K0
1 1 1 (a)0 and 2K 0 (b) and K 0
(a)T ∝ ρ (b)T ∝ (c)T ∝ (d)T ∝ 2
A ρ m (c)K 0 and 2K 0 (d) K 0 and K 0
DAY SIXTEEN OSCILLATIONS 165
13 A load of mass m falls from a height h on 15 The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by
to the scale pan hung from a spring as 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, the potential
k
shown in figure. If the spring constant is k energy stored in it is
and mass of the scale pan is zero and U
(a) 4U (b) 8 U (c) 16 U (d)
the mass m does not bounce relative to 4
the pan, then the amplitude of vibration is m 16 A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a particle of mass
mg m and an ideal spring with spring constant k. The particle
(a) h
k oscillates with a time periodT . The spring is cut into two
mg 2hk
(b) 1+ equal parts. If one part oscillates with the same particle,
k mg
the time period will be j AIIMS 2012
mg mg 1 + 2hk
(c) + T T
k k mg (a) 2T (b) 2T (c) (d)
2 2
(d) None of these
17 A particle moves with simple hormonic motion in a
14 The angular frequency and amplitude of a simple
straight line. In first τ s, after starting from rest it travels a
pendulum are ω and A, respectively. At the
distance a and in next τ s it travel 2a, in same direction,
displacement y from the mean position, the kinetic
then
energy is K and potential energy is U. What is the ratio of
(a) Amplitude of motion is τa
K/U ?
(b) Time period of oscillation is 8τ
(a)MA 2ω2 sin2 ωt (b) MA 2ω2 cos2 ωt (c) Amplitude of motion is 4a
(c)(A − y ) /y
2 2 2
(d) y 2 /(A 2 − y 2 ) (d) Time period of oscillation is 6τ
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (d) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (a) 37 (d) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (d) 42 (c) 43 (c) 44 (b) 45 (d) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (d)
1 39 Effective force constant in case (iii) and 45 Time period of spring pendulum
and a2 ∝ [QE is same]
mn2 (iv) is K eff = 2k + 2k = 4k M
a12 m2 n22 m T = 2π
∴ = Therefore, T1 = T2 = 2 π k
a22 m1 n12 k
When mass is doubled,
Given, n2 > n1 and m1 = m2 ⇒ a1 > a2 m m
and T3 = T 4 = 2 π = π T ′ = 2π
2M
So, amplitude of B smaller than A. 4k k k
36 Potential energy of a simple harmonic 40 Time period of the system is T′
∴ = 2
oscillator m1 + m2 T
T = 2π
1 ⇒ T ′ = 2T
U = mω2 x2 k
2 Given, m1 = 6 kg, Hence, option (d) is true.
Kinetic energy of a simple harmonic m2 = m = mass of girl
oscillator k = 600 N/m, T = 0758
. s 46 T = 2π m ⋅ Since, T = 1
1 k n
K = mω2 (a2 − x2 ) 6+ m n∝ k
2 ∴ T = 2π = 0758
. Therefore,
600 1
Here, x = Displacement from mean Also, for a spring k ∝
position On squaring both sides, we get x
a = Maximum displacement 6 + m (0758
. )2 k2 x
= ⇒ m = 274
. kg Thus, = 1 =2
(or amplitude) from mean position 600 4 π2 k1 x2
Total energy is E = U + K 41 For series combination of springs, Therefore, new frequency
1 1 1
= mω2 x2 + mω2 (a2 − x2 ) = mω2 a2 1
=
1
+
1
, k =
k1 k2 k2
2 2 2 n2 = n1 × =n 2
k k1 k2 k1 + k2 k1
When the particle is half way to its end
point i.e. at half of its amplitude, then 42
a 47 Amplitude of damped oscillator
x=
2 P Q A = A 0 e − λt ; λ = constant, t = time
Hence, potential energy
2 For t = 1 min,
1 a 1 1 R S
U = mω2 = mω2 a2 A0
2 2 4 2 k = A 0 e − λt ⇒ e λ = 2
m 2
E
⇒U = For t = 3 min,
4 A0 A0
Spring P and Q, R and S are in parallel. A
37 As we know that A = A 0e − λ × 3 = = = 0
x = k + k = 2k λ 3
Then, [for P, Q] (e ) (2)3 X
m
Time period, T = 2π and y = k + k = 2k [for R, S] ⇒ X = (2)3
k x and y both in series
Case I T1 = 2 π
m
…(i) ∴
1 1
= +
1
=
1 48 Given, Damping force ∝ velocity
k k′ x y k F ∝v
Case II When the mass m is increased m m F
Time period, T = 2 π = 2π ⇒ F = kv ⇒ k =
m+1 k′ k v
by 1 kg, then, T2 = 2 π …(ii)
k unit of F kg - ms −2
43 The fundamental frequency of string Unit of k = =
From Eqs. (ii) and (i), we get
1 T k
unit of v ms −1
T2 m+1 ν= =
= 2l m l = kg s −1
T1 m
∴ ν1 l1 = ν2 l2 = ν3 l3 = k …(i)
5 m+1 25 m + 1 k k k
⇒ = ⇒ = From Eq. (i) l1 = , l2 = , l3 = , SESSION 2
3 m 9 m ν1 ν2 ν3
25 1 1 16 1 Let the minimum amplitude of SHM is
⇒ =1+ ⇒ = Original length l =
k
9 m m 9 a. Restoring force on spring
ν
9 F = ka
∴ m= kg Here, l = l1 + l2 + l3 mg
16 k k k k ∴ ka = mg or a =
= + + k
38 By the law of conservation of energy, ν ν1 ν2 ν3
Here, m = 2 kg, k = 200 Nm −1 ,
Kinetic energy of mass = Energy stored 1 1 1 1
= + + . g = 10 ms −2
in spring ν ν1 ν2 ν3
1 1
mv 2 = k x2 2 × 10 10
i.e. ∴ a= = m
2 2 44 By using k ∝ 1 200 100
l
mv 2 mv 2 10
∴ x2 = ⇒x= Since, one-fourth length is cut away, so = × 100 cm = 10 cm
k k 3 100
remaining length is th, hence, k
0.5 × 1.5 × 1.5 4 Hence, minimum amplitude of the
⇒ x= = 0.15 m 4 4
50 becomes times i.e. k ′ = k . motion should be 10 cm, so that the
3 3 mass gets detached from the pan.
DAY SIXTEEN OSCILLATIONS 169
Waves
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Wave Motion u Principle of u Standing or Stationary
u Speed of Waves Superposition of Waves Waves
u Sound Waves u Intensity u Power u Beats
u Displacement Relation for a u Reflection and Transmission u Doppler’s Effect
Progressive or Harmonic Wave of Waves
Wave Motion
Wave motion involves transfer of disturbance (energy) from one point to the other with
particles of medium oscillating about their mean positions i.e. the particles of the
medium do not travel themselves along with the wave. Instead, they oscillate back and
forth about the same equilibrium position as the wave passes by. Only the disturbance is
propagated.
1. Longitudinal Waves When particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction
of propagation of wave, then wave is called longitudinal wave. These waves
propagate in the form of compressions and rarefactions. They involve changes in
pressure and volume. The medium of propagation must possess elasticity of volume.
They are set up in solids, liquids and gases.
2. Transverse Waves When the particles of the medium vibrate in a direction
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave, then wave is called transverse
waves. These wave propagates in the form of crests and troughs. These waves can be
set up in solids, on surface of liquids but never in gases.
d2 y 1 d2 y
2
= 2 Effect of Temperature on Velocity With rise in
v dt 2
l
dx
temperature, the velocity of sound increases as
γRT v2 T
Speed of Waves v= ; = 2 i.e. v∝ T
M v1 T1
Speed of waves is divided in two types as per the nature of Speed of sound in air increases by 0.61 m/s for every 1°C
wave, these are given below rise in temperature.
l
Effect of Pressure for Gases Medium Pressure has no effect
1. Speed of Transverse Wave on the velocity of sound, provided temperature remains
The expression for speed of transverse waves in a solid and in constant.
case of a stretched string can be obtained theoretically l
Effect of Humidity When humidity in air increases, its
η density decreases and so velocity of sound increases.
l
In solids, v =
d Y K
For solids, v = . For liquids, v =
where, η is the modulus of rigidity and d is the density of D D
the medium. where, Y = Young’s modulus of elasticity
In a stretched string, v =
T Mg K = bulk modulus of elasticity.
l
=
m πr 2 d
where, T = the tension in the string,
m = the mass per unit length of the string,
Sound Waves
The longitudinal waves which can be heard are called sound
M = mass suspended from the string,
waves. They are classified into following categories
r = radius of the string and
l
Infrasonics The longitudinal waves having frequencies
d = density of the material of the string.
below 20 Hz are called infrasonics. These waves cannot be
heard. These waves can be heard by snakes.
2. Speed of Longitudinal Wave l
Audible waves The longitudinal waves having the
(or Sound Wave) frequency between 20 Hz and 20000 Hz are called audible
waves. Human can hear these waves.
Following are the expressions for the speed of longitudinal
waves in the different types of media l
Ultrasonics The longitudinal waves having the
frequencies above 20000 Hz are called ultrasonics. These
l
If the medium is solid,
waves are also called supersonic waves or supersonics.
4
B+ η
v= 3
ρ Displacement Relation for a
where B, η and ρ are values of bulk modulus, modulus of Progressive or Harmonic Wave
rigidity and density of the solid respectively.
The equation of a plane progressive or simple harmonic wave
If the solid is in the form of a long rod, then
travelling along positive direction of x-axis is
2π T
v=
Y y = a sin (ωt − kx) ⇒ y = a sin t − x .
ρ T λ
2π x
where, Y is the Young’s modulus of the solid material. ⇒ y = a sin (vt − x) ⇒ y = a sin ω t −
λ v
l
In a liquid,
B t x
v= ⇒ y = a sin 2π − .
ρ T λ
l
Acceleration of particle Constructive and Destructive Interference
d2 y 2π
= − ω2 a sin (vt − x) l
When the wave meet a point with some phase,
dt 2 λ constructuve interference is obtained at that point.
l
For a wave, velocity of sound wave (i) Phase difference between the waves at the point of
v = frequency (n) × wavelength (λ ) observation φ = 0 ° or 2πn.
⇒ v = nλ (ii) Resultant amplitude at the point of observation will
2π 2 πv be maximum, Amax = A1 + A2 .
l
Angular speed, ω = 2 πn = ⇒ω =
T λ l
When the waves meet a point with opposite phase,
destructive interference is obtained at that point.
(i) Phase difference between the waves at the point of
Relation between Phase Difference, observation φ = 180 ° or (2 n − 1)π.
Path Difference and Time Difference (ii) Resultant amplitude at the point of observation will
2π be minimum, Amin = A1 − A2 .
l
Phase difference (φ) = × path difference ( x)
λ
2πx φλ Intensity
⇒ φ= ⇒x=
λ 2π The intensity of waves is the average amount of energy
2π transported by the wave per unit area per second normally
l
Phase difference (φ) = × time difference (t )
T across a surface at the given point.
2πt Tφ Intensity (I 1) ∝ (Amplitude A)2
⇒ φ= ⇒t =
T 2π 2
T I 1 A1
l
Time difference (t ) = × path difference ( x) ∴ =
λ I2 A2
Tx λt If I 1 and I2 are intensities of the interfering waves and φ is
⇒ t = ⇒x=
λ T the phase difference, then resultant intensity is given by
I = I 1 + I2 + 2 I 1I2 cos φ
Principle of Superposition I max = I 1 + I2 + 2 I 1I2 = ( I 1 + I2 )2 , for φ = 2 πn
of Waves and I min = I 1 + I2 − 2 I 1I2
Two or more waves can traverse the same space I min = ( I 1 − I2 )2, for φ = (2 n + 1) π
independently of one another. The resultant displacement of
each particle of the medium at any instant is equal to the
vector sum of displacements produced by the two waves Power
separately. This principle is called principle of superposition If P is power of a sound source, then intensity (I ) follows
of waves. inverse square law of distance (d).
y = y1 + y2 + y3 + ..... P
I =
4πd2
Interference of Waves Reflection and Transmission
When two waves of same frequency (or A2 A
same wavelength) travelling along same
of Waves
path superimpose each other, there When sound waves are incident on a boundary separating two
φ
occurs redistribution of energy in the media, a part of it is reflected back into the initial medium while
medium. If at a given position (x being θ
the remaining is partly absorbed and partly transmitted into the
constant) displacement due to two A1 second medium.
waves be
y1 = A1 sin ωt Standing or Stationary Waves
and y2 = A2 sin (ωt + φ) Standing or stationary wave is formed due to superposition of
Then, resultant displacement two progressive waves of same nature, same frequency (or
y = y1 + y2 = A sin (ωt + φ) same wavelength), same amplitude travelling with same
speed in a bounded medium in mutually opposite directions.
where, A= A21 + A22 + 2 A1 A2 cos φ
If the incident wave be represented as y1 = A sin(ω t − kx)
A2 sin φ
and tan θ = and the reflected wave as y2 = A sin (ω t + kx),
A1 + A2 cos φ
then y = y1 + y2 = A sin(ω t − kx) + A sin(ω t + kx)
174 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SEVENTEEN
⇒ y = 2 A cos kx sin ωt λ1 v
l
First harmonic l = ⇒ f1 =
The resultant wave does not represent a progressive wave. 2 2l
Ratio of overtones = 3 : 5 : 7
Doppler’s Effect
l
λ 3λ
l
Position of nodes from closed end x = 0, , λ, , ... The phenomena of apparent change in frequency of source
2 2
due to a relative motion between the source and observer is
λ 3λ 5λ
l
Position of antinodes from closed end x = , , , ... called Doppler’s effect.
4 4 4 l
When Source is Moving and Observer is at Rest When
source is moving with velocity vs , towards an observer at
rest, then apparent frequency
Beats v vs
When two sound waves of nearly equal (but never equal) or n′ = n
v − vs S v O
slightly different frequencies and equal or nearly equal
amplitudes travelling along the same direction superimpose If source is moving away from observer, then
at a given point, the resultant sound intensity alternately rises v
n′ = n
and falls. This alternate rise and fall of sound at a given v + vs
position is called beats. l
When Source is at Rest and Observer is Moving When
l
Number of beats formed per second is called the frequency observer is moving with velocity vo , towards a source at
of beats. If two sound waves of frequencies ν 1 and ν2 rest, then apparent frequency.
superimpose, then frequency of beats = (ν 1 ~ ν2 ), v + vo vo
n′ = n
i.e. either (ν 1 − ν2 ) or (ν2 − ν 1). v S O
v
l
For formation of distinct beats, then difference between the When observer is moving away from source, then
frequencies of two superposing notes should be less than
v − vo vs vo
10 Hz. n′ = n
v S O
l
Our perception of loudness is better co-related with the v
second level measured in decibel (dB) and defined as l
When Source and Observer Both are Moving
follows (a) When both are moving in same direction along the
I direction of propagation of sound, then
β = 10 log 10 , where I 0 = 10 −12 Wm2 at 1kHz.
I0 v − vo
n′ = n
v − vs
Tuning Fork S
v
O
The tuning fork is a metallic device that produces sound of a vs vo
single frequency.
Suppose, a tuning fork of known frequency nA is sounded (b) When both are moving in same direction opposite to
together with another tuning fork of unknown frequency (nB ) the direction of propagation of sound, then
and x beats heard per second. v + vo
n′ = n
There are two possibilities to know frequency of unknown v + vs
tuning fork
vs vo
nA − nB = x …(i)
S O
nB − nA = x …(ii) v
We can find true frequency of tuning fork B from a pair of (c) When both are moving towards each other, then
tuning forks A and B, in which frequency of A is known,
v + vo
where x is the beats per second. n′ = n
v − vs
When B is loaded When B is filled v
(its frequency decreases) (its frequency increases) S O
vs vo
(i) If x increases, then (i) If x increases, then
nB = nA − x nB = nA + x (d) When both are moving in opposite direction, away
(ii) If x decreases, (ii) If x decreases, then from each other, then
then nB = nA + x nB = nA − x v − vo
n′ = n
(iii) If x remains same, (iii) If x remains same, then v + vs
then nB = nA + x nB = nA − x v
vo
(iv) If x becomes zero, (iv) If x becomes zero, then vs
O S
then nB = nA + x nB = nA − x
176 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SEVENTEEN
17 A wave travelling in the positive x-direction having 26 An organ pipe, open from both ends produced 5 beats/s
displacement along y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2π m when vibrated with a source of frequency 200 Hz in its
1 fundamental mode. The second harmonic of the same
and frequency of Hz is represented by
π pipe produces 10 beats/s with a source of frequency
(a) y = sin (x − 2 t ) (b) y = sin (2 πx − 2 πt ) 420 Hz. The fundamental frequency of pipe is
(c) y = sin (10 πx − 20 πt ) (d) y = sin (2 πx + 2 πt ) (a) 195 Hz (b) 205 Hz (c) 190 Hz (d) 210 Hz
18 Ratio of amplitude of two interfering waves is 2:1, then 27 The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is 220 Hz.
ratio of amplitude of maxima to minima is 1
If of the pipe is filled with water, the frequency of the Ist
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 4
4
overtone of the pipe now is
19 If two waves of amplitude a produce a resultant wave of
(a) 220 Hz (b) 440 Hz (c) 880 Hz (d) 1760 Hz
amplitude a, then the phase difference between them
will be 28 An organ pipe closed at one end has fundamental
frequency of 1500 Hz. The maximum number of
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 120° (d) 180°
overtones generated by this pipe which a normal person
20 A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a can hear is?
non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q are at (a) 4 (b) 13 (c) 6 (d) 9
distance of 2 m and 3 m respectively, from the source.
The ratio of the intensities of the waves at P and Q is 29 The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of
length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ
(a) 9 : 4 (b) 2 : 3
pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 4 : 9
open at both the ends is j
AIPMT 2015
21 The equation of a stationary wave is (a) 80 cm (b) 100 cm (c) 120 cm (d) 140 cm
πx
y = 0.8 cos sin 200 πt 30 The number of possible natural oscillations of air column
20
in pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose
where x is in cm and t is in second. The separation frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are (velocity of sound
between consecutive nodes will be = 340 ms −1 ) j
AIPMT 2014
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 6
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 30 cm
22 Standing waves are produced in 10 m long stretched 31 The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is
equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the
string. If the string vibrates in five segments and wave
length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of
velocity is 20 ms −1, then its frequency will be
the open organ pipe is j
NEET 2018
(a) 5 Hz (b) 2 Hz (c) 10 Hz (d) 15 Hz
(a) 12.5 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 13.3 cm (d) 16 cm
23 The length of a sonometer wire AB is 110 cm. Where
32 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end
should the two bridges be placed from A to divide the
and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is
wire in three segments whose fundamental frequencies the fundamental frequency of the system? j
NEET 2017
are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3.
(a) 10 Hz (b) 20 Hz
(a) 30 cm and 90 cm (b) 40 cm and 80 cm (c) 30 Hz (d) 40 Hz
(c) 60 cm, 30 cm and 20 cm (d) 30 cm and 60 cm
33 A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically
24 If n1, n 2 and n 3 are the fundamental frequencies of three from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to
segments into which a string is divided, then the original the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of
fundamental frequency n of the string is given by wavelength λ 1 is produced at the lower end of the rope.
j
AIPMT 2014 The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 the rope is λ 2 . The ratio λ 2 / λ 1 is j
NEET 2016
(a) = + + (b) = + +
n n1 n2 n3 n n1 n2 n3 m1 + m2 m2 m1 + m2 m1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (d) n = n1 + n2 + n3 m2 m1 m1 m2
178 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SEVENTEEN
34 The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the 42 A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beat/s with
same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency
metre long. The length of the open pipe will be decreases to 2 beat/s when the tension in the piano string
j NEET 2016 is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string
(a) L (b) 2L (c) L/ 2 (d) 4L before increasing the tension was j CBSE AIPMT 2010
12 beats/s, the velocity of sound is (a) 350 m/s (b) 339 m/s (c) 330 m/s (d) 300 m/s
−1 −1 −1 −1 45 A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork
(a) 360 ms (b) 306 ms (c) 331 ms (d) 340 ms
38 Two wave of wavelengths 99 cm and 100 cm both forming standing waves with five antinodes between the
−1
travelling with velocity 396 ms are made of interfere. two bridges when a mass of a 9 kg is suspended from a
wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire
The number of beats produced by them per second are
resonates with the same tuning fork forming three
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8
antinodes for the same positions of the bridges. The
39 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have value of M is
frequencies (n −1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give (a) 25 kg (b) 5 kg (c) 12.5 kg (d) 1/25 kg
beats. The number of beats produced per second will be
46 A train is approaching the platform with a speed of
j
NEET 2016
4 ms −1. Another train is leaving the platform with the same
(a) 1 (b) 4 speed. The velocity of sound is 320 ms −1. If both the
(c) 3 (d) 2
trains sound their whistles at frequency 280 Hz, the
40 Two sources of sound placed closed to each other, are number of beats heard per second will be
emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4 sin 600πt and (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
y 2 = 5 sin 608πt
47 A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him.
An observer located near these two sources of sound will He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that traffic has
hear j
CBSE AIPMT 2012 eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/h is
(a) 4 beat/s with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speed of sound
waning is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will
(b) 8 beat/s with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and be j
AIPMT 2014
waning (a) 1332 Hz (b) 1372 Hz (c) 1412 Hz (d) 1454 Hz
(c) 8 beat/s with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and 48 Doppler’s effect in sound in addition of relative velocity
waning between source and observer, also depends while
(d) 4 beat/s with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and source and observer or both are moving. Doppler effect
waning
in light depend only on the relative velocity of source and
41 A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beat/s when observer. The reason of this is
sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The (a) Einstein mass-energy relation
second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency (b) Einstein theory of relativity
gives 5 beat/s when sounded with a source of frequency (c) Photoelectric effect (d) None of the above
513 Hz. The unknown frequency is j
NEET 2013
49 Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each
(a) 254 Hz (b) 246 Hz
other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively.
(c) 240 Hz (d) 260 Hz
The driver of the first car blows a horn having a
DAY SEVENTEEN WAVES 179
frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of as shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The
the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s] j NEET 2017 apparent frequency observed by the observer (velocity
(a) 350 Hz (b) 361 Hz of sound in air is 330 ms − 1), is j CBSE AIPMT 2015
9 Two tuning forks P and Q when set vibrating, give 13 Two points on a travelling wave having frequency 500 Hz
4 beats/s. If a prong of the fork P is filed, the beats are and velocity 300 m/s are 60° out of phase, then the
reduced to 2/s. What is frequency of P, if that of Q is minimum distance between the two points is
250 Hz? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.1
(a) 246 Hz (b) 250 Hz (c) 254 Hz (d) 252 Hz (c) 0.5 (d) 0.4
10 An observer standing at station observes frequency 14 A longitudinal wave is represented by
219 Hz when a train approaches and 184 Hz when a train x
x = x 0 sin 2π nt −
goes away from him. If velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s, λ
then velocity of train and actual frequency of whistle will be The maximum particle velocity will be four times the wave
(a) 15.5 m/s, 200 Hz (b) 19.5 Hz, 205 Hz velocity, if
(c) 29.5 m/s, 200 Hz (d) 32.5 Hz, 205 Hz πx 0
(a) λ = (b) λ = 2 πx 0
11 A boy is sitting on a swing 4
πx 0
and blowing a whistle at a (c) λ = (d) λ = 4 πx 0
2
30°
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (d) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (a) 40 (d)
41 (a) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (b) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (c) 48 (b) 49 (d) 50 (b)
51 (b) 52 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (b)
DAY SEVENTEEN WAVES 181
37 Given, n1 − n2 = 12 44 For first resonance, l 1 = λ 49 Thinking Process When both source and
4 observer are moving towards each other,
v
−
v
= 12 3λ
For second resonance, l 2 = apparent frequency is given by
λ1 λ2 4 v + v0
v v 100 v 3λ λ fa = f0
− = 2v − ∴ (l2 − l1 ) = − v − vs
50 51 51 4 4
100 100 or λ = 2( l 2 − l 1 ) …(i) where, f 0 = original frequency
2v As, velocity of sound wave is given as, of source
⇒ = 12 ⇒ v = 306 ms −1
51 v = νλ v s = speed of source
184 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY SEVENTEEN
v 0 = speed of observer 330 330 4 When the sound is reflected from the
= 100 = 100 3203
v = speed of sound 300 − 97
. . cliff, it approaches the driver of the car.
Frequency of the horn, Therefore, the driver acts as an observer
= 103.02 Hz ≈ 103 Hz
f 0 = 400 Hz and both the source (car) and observer
Speed of observer in the second car, 52 Concept Use Doppler’s effect. are moving.
v 0 = 16. 5 m/s According to Doppler's effect, whenever Hence, apparent frequency heard by the
there is a relative motion between a observer (driver) is given by
vs = 22 m/s
source of sound and the observer v + vo
v0 f′= f …(i)
=16.5 m/s (listener), the frequency of sound heard v − vs
by the observer is different from the
Source observer where, v = velocity of sound,
actual frequency of sound emitted by
Speed of source, v o = velocity of car = v s
source.
v s = speed of first car = 22 m/s Thus, Eq. (i) becomes
hill
v + vo
Frequency heard by the driver in the ∴ 2f = f
second car Case I n n′ v − vo
v + v0 30 ms–1
fa = f0 340 + 16.5 s or 2v − 2v o = v + v o or 3v o = v
= 400 O
v − vs 340 − 22 v
or vo =
= 448 Hz n′ 3
Case II n′′
30 ms–1
50 According to question, situation can be O 5 When the source approaches the
v observer
drawn as follows. [for case I] n′ = n …(i) −1
v − 30 v v
f1 = f = f 1 − s
n = frequency emitted by car v − vs v
v = velocity of sound
≈ f 1 + s
Cliff v
15 m/s
v + 30 v
Source [for case II] n ′ ′ = n′ …(ii)
Observer v f1 − f v
Frequency of sound that the observer or × 100 = s × 100 = 10
hear in the echo reflected from the cliff n′ ′ = frequency heard by f v
is given by the driver after reflection In second case when the source recedes
v From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get the observer
f′= v + 30 360 −1
v − vs n′ ′ = n= × 600 = 720 Hz v v
v − 30 300 f2 = f = f 1 + s
where, f = original frequency of source; v + vs v
v = velocity of sound
≈ f 1 − s
v
v s = velocity of source SESSION 2 v
330 1 Frequency = 54 f2 − f
So, f′= 800 = 838 Hz ∴
v
330 − 15 60 × 100 = − s × 100 = − 10%
f v
54
and c = fλ= × 10 = 9 m/s
51 Given, as a source of sound S emitting 60 In the first case observed frequency
waves of frequency 100 Hz and an increases by 10% while in the second
observer O are located at some distance. 2 General equation for a plane progressive case observed frequency decreases by
Such that, source is moving with a wave is given by 10%.
speed of 19.4 m/s at angle 60° with y = A sin (ωt − kx )
6 Since, the apparent frequency does not
= A sin 2π νt −
source-observer line as shown in figure. x
…(i)
vs sin 60° λ depend on the distance between source
vs −1 and observer, hence option (d) is
Now, v = 360 ms , λ = 60 m [given]
correct.
v
⇒ ν = = 6 Hz 7 Fundamental frequency of open organ
λ
v
pipe =
Substituting A = 0.2 ms −1 , ν = 6 Hz, 2l
λ = 60 m in Fundamental of third harmonic of
60° 3v
Eq. (i), we get closed pipe =
S Doppler 4l
x
vs cos 60° line . sin 2 π 6t −
y = 02 3v v 3v 2v
60 ∴ = 100 + ⇒ − = 100
The apparent frequency heared by 4l 2l 4l 4l
observer v v
3 For end correction x, ⇒ = 100 ⇒ = 200 Hz
v l2 + x 3λ / 4 4l 2l
f 0 = fs = =3
v − v s cos 60 ° l1 + x λ/4 8 Distance between two consecutive
l − 3l1 λ
x= 2 nodes, = 46 − 16
330 2 2
= 100
1 . − 3 × 227
702 . λ = 60 cm = 0.6 m
330 − 19.4 × = = 1.05 cm
2 2 v = nλ = 500 × 0.6 = 300 m/s
DAY SEVENTEEN WAVES 185
9 There are four beats between P and Q, Potential energy = kinetic energy = 2 π nx 0 cos 2 π nt −
x
1 λ
therefore the possible frequencies of P mv 2 = 2mg (1 − cos 30° )
are 246 or 254 (i.e. 250 ± 4) Hz. 2
Particle velocity will be maximum when
v = 2.3 m/s
cos 2π nt − is maximum i.e. 1.
When the prong of P is filed, its x
v + v0
frequency becomes greater than the n max = ×n λ
original frequency. If we assume that the v − vs λ
original frequency of P is 254, then on 330 + 0 Wave velocity = = nλ
= × 1000 T
filing its frequency will be greater than 330 − 2.3 Now, 2 πnx 0 = 4nλ
254. The beats between P and Q will be
= 1007 Hz 2 π nx 0 πx 0
more than 4. But it is given that the λ= = .
4n 2
beats are reduced to 2, therefore 254 is 12 Equation of wave y = 0.2sin (1.5x + 60t )
not possible. Comparing with standard equation, we 15 When the source is coming to the
Therefore, the required frequency must get y = A sin(kx + ω t ) stationary observer,
be 246 Hz. (This is true, because on k = 1.5 and ω = 60 v
n′ = n
filing the frequency may increase to ω 60 v − vs
248 Hz, giving 2 beats with Q of ∴Velocity of wave v = =
k 1.5 350
frequency 250 Hz). = 40 m/s or 1000 = n
350 − 50
10 When train is approaching frequency Velocity of wave in a stretched string,
n = 1000 ×
T 300
heared by observer is v = or Hz
v 350
m
na = n When the source is moving away from
v − vs where, m is linear density and
T is tension in the string. the stationary observer.
340 v
219 = n …(i) So, T = v 2 m = (40)2 × 3 × 10−4 = 0.48
340 − v s n ′′ = n
v + vs
When train is goes away frequency 13 As v = nλ 350 1000 × 300
heard by the observer is V 300 3 =
∴ λ= = = m 350 + 50 350
v n 500 5
nr = n = 750 Hz
v + vs Now, phase difference
340 π v1
= 2 × path difference 16 Here, l1 = 18 cm, f =
184 = n …(ii) λ 4l1
340 + v s
2π
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 60° = × path difference ⇒ f =
3 v2
λ 4 l2
n = 200 Hz and v s = 29.5 m/s 60°× π 2 π × 5
or = × path difference where, l2 = x according to given
11 The maximum velocity of swing will be 180° 3
3 × 60° × π situation and also v 1 < v 2 as during
when it crosses the lowest point and ∴ Path difference = = 01
. summer temperature would be higher.
minimum velocity when it is at a height 2 π × 5 × 180° 3v 2 v v
of h, = 1 ⇒ l2 = 3l1 × 2
14 Particle velocity = d ( x ) 4l2 4l1 v1
i.e. at its maximum displacement the dt
⇒ x = 54 × (a quantity greater than 1)
potential energy = mgh = mgL (1 − cos θ) d x
= x 0 sin 2 π nt − ∴ x > 54
= 2mg (1 − cos 30° ) dt λ
DAY EIGHTEEN
Unit Test 3
(Waves and Oscillations)
1 When an observer moves towards a stationary source 5 Two sources of sound A and B produces the wave of
with a certain velocity, he observes an apparent 350 Hz, in the same phase. The particle P is vibrating under
frequency f . When he moves away from the source with the influence of these two waves, if the amplitudes at the
same velocity, the observed frequency is 0.8 f . If the point P produces by the two waves is 0.3 mm and 0.4 mm,
velocity of sound is v, then the speed of the observer is then the resultant amplitude of the point P will be when
v v AP − BP = 25 cm and the velocity of sound is 350 ms −1.
(a) (b)
4 8 (a) 0.7 mm (b) 0.1 mm (c) 0.2 mm (d) 0.5 mm
v
(c) (d) None of these 6 Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by
9
x
2 A transverse wave y = 0. 05 sin ( 20πx − 50 π t ) in metre, y = 0 . 6 sin 2π t − . On reflection from a denser
2
is propagating along positive X -axis on a string. A light
medium, its amplitude becomes 2/3 of the amplitude of
insect starts crawling on the string with the velocity of
the incident wave. The equation of the reflected wave is
5 cms −1 at t = 0 along the positive X -axis from a point
(a)y = 0. 6 sin 2 π t + (b) y = − 0. 4 sin 2 π t +
x x
where x = 5 cm. After 5s the difference in the phase of its
2 2
position is equal to
(c)y = 0. 4 sin 2 π t + (d) y = − 0. 4 sin 2 π t −
x x
(a) 150 π (b) 250 π 2 2
(c) 10 π (d) 5 π
3 Equation of a progressive wave is given by 7 Two travelling waves y1 = A sin [k ( x − ct )] and
π y 2 = A sin [k ( x + ct )] are superimposed on string. The
y = 0.2 cos π 0.04 t + 0.02 x − distance between adjacent nodes is
6
c c π π
The distance is expressed in cm and time in second. (a) (b) (c) (d)
π 2π 2k k
What will be the minimum distance between two particles
π 8 A source of sound is moving with constant velocity of
having the phase difference of ?
2 20 ms −1 emitting a note of frequency 1000 Hz. The ratio
(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm of frequencies observed by a stationary observer while
(c) 25 cm (d) 12.5 cm the source is approaching him and after it crosses him
will be (speed of sound, v = 340 ms −1)
4 Two waves represented by the following equations are
travelling in the same medium (a) 9 : 8 (b) 8 : 9 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 9 : 10
y1 = 5 sin 2π (75 t − 0.25x ) 9 A table is revolving on its axis at 5 rev/s. A sound source
y 2 = 10 sin 2π (150 t − 0.50 x ) of frequency 1000 Hz is fixed on the table at 70 cm from
the axis. The minimum frequency heard by a listener
I1
The intensity ratio of the two waves is standing at a distance very far from the table will be
I2
(speed of sound, v = 352 ms −1)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4 (a) 1000 Hz (b) 1066 Hz
(c) 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 16 (c) 941 Hz (d) 352 Hz
DAY EIGHTEEN UNIT TEST 3 (WAVES AND OSCILLATIONS) 187
10 The wavelength is 120 cm when the source is stationary. 19 The displacement of a particle varies with time according
If the source is moving with relative velocity of 60 ms −1 to the relation y = a sin ωt + b cos ωt .
towards the observer, then the wavelength of the sound (a)The motion is oscillatory but not SHM
wave reaching to the observer will be (b)The motion is SHM with amplitude a + b
(velocity of sound, v = 330 ms −1) (c)The motion is SHM with amplitude a 2 + b 2
(a) 98 cm (b) 140 cm (c) 120 cm (d) 1440 cm (d)The motion is SHM with amplitude a 2 + b 2
11 An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, 20 The length of a simple pendulum executing SHM is
with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is increased by 21%. The percentage increase in the time
the percentage increase in the apparent frequency? period of the pendulum of increased length is
(a) 5% (b) 20% (c) zero d) 0.5% (a) 10% (b) 11% (c) 21% (d) 42%
12 In the experiment for the determination of the speed of 21 Two tuning forks when sounded together produce
sound in air using the resonance column method, the 10 beats/s. The first fork has the frequency 5% less than
length of the air column that resonates in the the standard fork and the second has the frequency 8%
fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is 0.1 m. When this higher than a standard one. What are the frequencies of
length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork the forks?
resonates with the first overtone. Calculate the end
(a)73 Hz, 83 Hz (b) 83 Hz, 93 Hz
correction. (c)103 Hz, 93 Hz (d) 113 Hz, 103 Hz
(a) 0.012 m (b) 0.025 m (c) 0.05 m (d) 0.024 m
22 A source of sound gives five beats per second, when
13 Two bodies M and N of equal masses are suspended sounded with another source of frequency100 s −1. The
from two separate springs of constants k1 and k 2 , second harmonic of the source, together with a source of
respectively. If they oscillate with equal maximum frequency 205 s −1 gives five beats per second. What is
velocities, then the amplitudes of M and N are in the ratio the frequency of the source?
of
(a) 105 s −1 (b) 205 s −1 (c) 95 s −1 (d) 100 s −1
(a) k1/ k2 (b) k2 / k1 (c) k1/ k2 (d) k2 / k1
23 A column of air at 88° C and a tuning fork produce
14 Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 20 m 6 beats/s when sounded together. When temperature is
respectively are given small linear displacement in one 16° C the two produce only one beat per second. What is
direction at the same time. They will again be in the the frequency of tuning fork?
phase when the pendulum of shorter length has (a) 53.9 Hz (b) 97.7 Hz (c) 41.5 Hz (d) 87.7 Hz
completed, how many oscillations? 24 A steel wire of length 80 cm and area of cross-section
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 10−5 m 2 is joined with an aluminium wire of length 60 cm
15 A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude of 4 cm. and area of cross-section 3 × 10−5 m 2 . The composite
At the mean position the velocity of the particle is 10 cms −1. string is stretched by a tension 100 N. What is minimum
The distance of the particle from the mean position when frequency of tuning fork, which can produce standing
its speed becomes 5 cms −1 is wave in it with node at the joint?
(a) 3 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 2 3 cm (d) 2 5 cm (Given, ρsteel = 7800 kg m −3 and ρal = 2600 kg m −3 )
(a) 87.5 Hz (b) 97.8 Hz (c) 67.9 Hz (d) 89.5 Hz
16 In a Kundt’s tube experiment, the distance between
−1 25 A string of mass 2.5 kg is under a tension of 200 N. The
nodes was 8 cm. If velocity of sound in air is 330 ms
and total length of sounding rod is 160 cm, then what is length of the stretched string is 20.0 m. If the transverse
the velocity of sound in rod? jerk is struck at one end of the string, the disturbance will
(a) 6800 ms −1 (b) 7200 ms −1 reach the other end in
(c) 6200 ms −1 (d) 6600 ms −1 (a) 1 s (b) 0.5 s
17 A particle executes SHM between x = − A and x = + A. (c) 2 s (d) Data insufficient
The time taken for it to go from 0 to A /2 is T1 and to go 26 A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such
from A /2 to A is T2 . Then, that one piece is doubled the length of the other. Then,
(a)T1 < T2 (b)T1 > T2 (c)T1 = T2 (d)T1 = 2T2 the longer piece will have a force constant
18 A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on the (a) 2k / 3 (b) 3 k / 2 (c) 3k (d) 6k
earth’s surface and T2 when taken to a height R above 27 The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator
the earth’s surface, where R is the radius of the earth. when the particle is half way to its end point is
The value ofT2 / T1 is 1 1 1 2
(a) E (b) E (c) E (d) E
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 2 8 4 2 3
188 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY EIGHTEEN
28 An elastic ball is dropped from a height h on an elastic 36 When a certain volume of water is subjected to increase
floor. It collides against the floor elastically and rebounds of 100 kPa pressure, the volume of water decreases by
to the same height. What is the nature of its motion and 0.005%. The speed of sound in water must be
time period of return to the starting point? (a) 140 m/s (b) 300 m/s (c) 1400 m/s (d) 5000 m/s
(a) SHM, 8h /g (b) Oscillatory, 8h /g 37 A progressive wave moving along X -axis is represented
(c) SHM, 2 h /g (d) Oscillatory, 2 h /g 2π
by y = A sin ( vt − x ) . The wavelength ( λ ) at which
λ
29 In a transverse progressive wave of amplitude A , the
maximum particle velocity is four times the wave velocity. the maximum particle velocity is 3 times the wave
Then, the wavelength of the wave is velocity is
πA πA
(c) πA (d) πA
A 2A 3 2
(a) (b) (c) π A (d) 2 π A (a) (b)
2 4 3 (3 π ) 4 3
30 When a mass m is connected individually to two springs S1 38 The frequency of the first overtone of a closed pipe of
and S 2 , the oscillation frequencies are ν1 and ν 2 . If the length l1 is equal to that of the first overtone of an open
same mass is attached to the two springs as shown in pipe of length l2 . The ratio of their lengths ( l1 : l2 ) is
figure the oscillation frequency would be (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 5
S1 m S2 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 3 : 4
39 A particle is executing SHM. Then, the graph of velocity
−1 as a function of displacement is a/an
1 1
(a) ν1 + ν2 (b) ν12 + ν22 (c) + (d) ν12 − ν22 (a) straight line (b) circle
ν1 ν2
(c) ellipse (d) hyperbola
31 The equation of a simple harmonic is given by
π 40 A long spring, when stretched by a distance x, has
y = 3 sin ( 50 t − x ),
2 potential energy U. On increasing the stretching to nx,
the potential energy of the spring will be
where, x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The ratio
U
of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is (a) (b) nU
n
3 2
(a) 2 π (b) π (c) 3 π (d) π (c) n 2 U (d)
U
2 3 n2
32 A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a horizontal
surface with velocity 4ms −1. It collides with a horizontal 41 If the maximum velocity and acceleration of a particle
spring of force constant 200 Nm −1. The maximum executing SHM are equal in magnitude the time period
compression produced in the spring will be will be
(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.6 m (c) 0.7 m (d) 0.2 m (a) 1.57 s (b) 3.14 s
33 The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is 4 cm. As (c) 6.28 s (d) 12.56 s
the mean position, the speed of the particle is 16 cm/s. 42 Two pendulums have time periodT and 5T / 4. They start
The distance of the particle from the mean position at SHM at the same time from the mean position. What will
which the speed of the particle becomes 8 3 cm/s will be the phase difference between them after the bigger
be pendulum completed one oscillation?
(a) 2 3 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 1 cm (d) 2 cm (a) 45° (b) 90°
34 A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a particle of (c) 60° (d) 30°
mass m and an ideal spring with spring constant k. The 43 A sound has an intensity of 2 × 10−8 W/m 2 . Its intensity
particle oscillates with a time periodT . The spring is cut level (in decibel) is (log10 2 = 0 . 3)
into two equal parts. If one part oscillates with the same (a) 23 (b) 3
particle, the time period will be (c) 43 (d) 4.3
T T
(a) 2T (b) 2T (c) (d) 44 Two waves having the intensities in the ratio of 9:1
2 2
produce interference. The ratio of maximum to minimum
35 A train moving at a speed of 220 ms −1 towards a
intensity is equal to
stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz.
Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected (a) 10 : 8 (b) 9 : 1
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo as
detected by the driver of the train is (speed of sound in 45 Which of the following is independent from others?
air is 330 ms −1) (a) Wavelength (b) Velocity
(a) 3500 Hz (b) 4000 Hz (c) 5000 Hz (d) 3000 Hz (c) Frequency (d) Amplitude
DAY EIGHTEEN UNIT TEST 3 (WAVES AND OSCILLATIONS) 189
Direction (Q. Nos. 46-50) In each of the following 48 Assertion (A) A tuning fork is in resonance with a closed
questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a pipe. But the same tuning fork cannot be in resonance
corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the with an open pipe of the same length.
statements mark the correct answer as Reason (R) The same tuning fork will not be in resonance
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the with open pipe of same length due to end correction of
correct explanation of assertion pipe.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
49 Assertion (A) In everyday life, the Doppler’s effect is
not the correct explanation of Assertion
observed readily for sound waves than light waves.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false Reason (R) Velocity of light is greater than the sound.
46 Assertion (A) Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) is not a 50 Assertion (A) Velocity of particles while crossing mean
uniform motion. position (in stationary waves) varies from maximum at
anti-nodes to zero at nodes.
Reason (R) It is the projection of uniform circular motion.
Reason (R) Amplitude of vibration at anti-nodes is
47 Assertion (A) A hole were drilled through the centre of
maximum and at nodes, the amplitude is zero and all
earth and a ball is dropped into the hole at one end, it
particles between two successive nodes cross the mean
will not get out of other end of the hole.
position together.
Reason (R) It will come out of the other end normally.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)
Minimum frequency is heard when the Velocity of sound in solid 21 Let, frequency of standard fork = ν
16
source is receding the man. It is given Velocity of sound in air 95
Frequency of first fork, ν1 = ν
by Total length of rod 100
v =
f min = f Distance between nodes Frequency of second fork, ν2 =
108
ν
v + vs
v solid 160 × 10−2 100
352 =
= 1000 × = 941 Hz 330 8 × 10−2 Number of beats = ν2 − ν1
352 + 22 ⇒ ν2 − ν1 = 10
Therefore, v solid = 6600 ms −1 108 95
v or ν− ν = 10
10 f′= f 17 Let the equation of SHM be 100 100
v − vs 13
y = A sin ω t or ν = 10
v − vs 100
⇒ λ′ = λ A
Then, in the first case = A sinω T1
v 2 or ν = 76.92 ≅ 77 Hz
330 − 60 1 π
ω T1 = sin −1 = ν1 =
95
× 77 = 73 Hz
⇒ λ′ = 120 = 98 cm i.e. Therefore,
330 2 6 100
π 108
Therefore, T1 = ν2 = × 77 = 83 Hz
11 When observer moves towards 6ω 100
stationary source, then apparent T 2π π π
frequency Also, T2 = − T1 = − = 22 The frequency of source can be 100 + 5
4 4ω 6ω 3ω
v + vo v + v /5 and 100 − 5
f′= f = f Therefore, T1 < T2
v v i.e. 105 or 95
6 18 Time period of simple pendulum is 2nd harmonic is 210 or 200.
=f = 1.2 f given by
5 Since, 5 beats with 105 are possible, if
Increment in frequency = 0.2 f . T = 2π
l
= 2π
l source frequency is 210.
So, percentage change in frequency g GM /r 2 ∴Original frequency is 105 s −1 .
0.2f
= × 100 = 20% l 23 We know that ν ∝ v and v ∝ T
f = 2π r
GM
ν 88 v 88 273 + 88 19
12 Let x be the end correction, then l Therefore, = = =
Hence, T1 = 2πR ν16 v 16 273 + 16 17
according to question. GM
v
=
3v As ν16 < ν 88, hence frequency of tuning
l fork ν is less than the frequency of air
4 (l1 + x ) 4 (l2 + x ) And T2 = 2 π (2R )
GM column.
⇒ x = 2.5 cm = 0.025 m
Therefore,
T2
=2 Therefore, ν 88 = ν + 6
13 v max = Aω, for mass attached to spring ω T1 and ν16 = ν + 1
= k /M . Here, masses are equal. ν + 6 19
19 y = asin ω t + b cos ω t ∴ =
Therefore, A1 ω1 = A 2 ω2 ν+1 17
or A 1 k1 = A 2 k2 Let a = A cos θ ; b = A sinθ On solving, we get ν = 41.5 Hz
1 /2 ⇒ a2 + b 2 = A2 (cos 2 θ + sin2 θ ) = A2
A1 k2 k2 24 The frequency of the stretched string is
i.e. = =
A2 k1 A = a2 + b 2
or given by
k1
n T
Hence, Y = A cos θ sin ω t + A sin θ cos ω t ν=
14 nTs = (n − 1) T1 2l µ
= A sin(ω t + θ )
0.5 20 Therefore,
n 2π = (n − 1) 2 π = a2 + b 2 sin( ω t + θ )
g g n1 100
νsteel = …(i)
It is SHM with amplitude A = a2 + b 2 2 × 80 × 10−2 7800 × 10−5
or n = (n − 1) 40 ≅ 6 (n − 1)
Hence, n= 6/ 5≅ 1 20 Time period of a simple pendulum is and
given by n2 100
15 Here, v = ω [ A2 − y 2 ]1 /2 νal =
l 2 × 60 × 10−2 3 × 10−5 × 2600
or v 2 = ω2 [ A2 − y 2 ] T = 2π …(i)
g …(ii)
Also v max = ω A 21 121 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
i.e. 10 = ω × 4 21% increase l ⇒ l ′ = l + l= l
100 100 n1 4
=
⇒ ω = 2.5 l′ 121 /100l n2 3
Putting v = 5 cms −1 , ω = 2.5 Therefore, T ′ = 2π = 2π
g g 4 100
and A = 4 cm νsteel = = 89.5 Hz
11 2 × 0.8 7800 × 10−5
(5)2 = (2.5)2 [(4)2 − ( y )2 ] = T [using Eq. (i)]
10 [from Eq. (i)]
25
⇒ = (4)2 − ( y )2 Hence, percentage increase in the time In composite string, different harmonics
2.5 × 2.5 period, give rise to a common frequency.
⇒ y = 16 − 4
2
11
∴ νsteel = νal = 89. 5 Hz
T −T
T′−T
⇒ y 2 = 12 ⇒ y = 2 3 cm × 100 = 10 × 100 = 10%
T T
DAY EIGHTEEN UNIT TEST 3 (WAVES AND OSCILLATIONS) 191
Electrostatics
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Electric Charge u Motion of A Charged Particle u Electric Potential Energy
u Coulomb’s Law of Forces in An Electric Field u Equipotential Surface
between Two Point Charges u Electric Dipole u Conductors and Insulators
u Superposition Principle u Electric Flux (φE ) u Electrical Capacitance
u Electric Field u Gauss Law u Capacitor
u Continuous Charge Distribution u Electric Potential
If the charge in a body does not move, then the frictional electricity is known as static
electricity. The branch of physics which deals with static electricity is called
electrostatics.
Electric Charge
Electric charge is the property associated with matter due to which it produces and
experiences electric and magnetic effects.
Conservation of Charge
We can neither create nor destroy electric charge. The charge can simply be transferred
from one body to another. There are three modes of charge transfer:
(a) By friction (b) By conduction (c) By induction
Quantisation of Charge
Electric charge is quantised. The minimum unit of charge, which may reside
PREP
independently is the electronic charge e having a value of 1.6 × 10 –19 C, i.e. Q = ± ne, MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
where, n is any integer.
Important properties of charges are listed below u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
l
Like charges repel while opposite charges attract each other. u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
l
Charge is invariant i.e. charge does not change with change in velocity. (Without referring Explanations)
l
According to theory of relativity, the mass, time and length change with a change in
velocity but charge does not change. u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
l
A charged body attracts a lighter neutral body.
u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
l
Electronic charge is additive, i.e. the total charge on a body is the algebraic sum of all In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
the charges present in different parts of the body. For example, if a body has different Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
charges as + 2q, + 4q, − 3 q, − q, then the total charge on the body is + 2 q. Level should be above 75.
194 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINETEEN
Coulomb’s Law of Forces between Properties of electric field lines are given below
Electric field lines come out of a positive charge and go into
Two Point Charges l
r>R
r
E ∝ 12
∝
r Eliminating t , we have
E
O qE
O r=R r r=R r y= x2
2 mu2
(a) Variation of electric field (b) Variation of electric field
with distance for conducting with distance for y ∝ x2
cylinder non-conducting cylinder
This shows that the path of charged particle in
perpendicular field is a parabola.
4. Electric Field due to a Uniformly Charged
Infinite Plane Sheet
Electric field near a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet
Electric Dipole
having surface charge density σ is given by An electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite charges
σ separated by a small distance.
E=
2 ε0 A p B
–q +q
5. Electric Field due to a Uniformly Charged 2a
Electric Dipole
Thin Spherical Shell
For a charged conducting sphere/ E The dipole moment of a dipole is defined as the product
r<R of the magnitude of either charges and the distance
shell of radius R and total charge
Q, the electric field is given by between them. Therefore, dipole moment
Case I E = 0, for r < R p = q(2a)
Q O
Case II E = , for r = R R Electric Field due to a Dipole
4πε 0R 2 Variation of electric field
Q with distance for uniformly l
At a point distant r from the centre of a dipole, along its
Case III E = , for r > R charge spherical shell 1 2 pr
4πε 0r 2 axial line E = ⋅ 2
4πε 0 (r − a2 )2
[direction of E is the same as that of p]
Motion of a Charged Particle in For a short dipole, E =
1 2p
⋅ [r > > a]
4πε 0 r 3
an Electric Field l
At a point distant r from the centre of a dipole, along its
Let a charged particle of mass m and charge q, enters the
equatorial line
electric field along X -axis with speed u. The electric field E
1 p
is along Y-axis is given by E=− ⋅
F y = qE 4πε 0 (r 2 + a2 )3 / 2
and force along X -axis remains zero, i.e. [direction of E is opposite to that of p]
196 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINETEEN
1 p
For a short dipole E = − ⋅
4πε 0 r 3
[r > > a] Electric Flux (φE )
It is a measure of the flow of electric field through a surface. It
l
At a point distant r from the centre of a short dipole, along
can be defined as the total number of lines of electric field
a line inclined at an angle θ with the dipole axis
1 p passes through a surface placed perpendicular to direction of
E = ⋅ 3 cos2 θ + 1 field.
4πε 0 r 3
i.e. φ E = ∫ EdS cos θ = ∫ E ⋅ dS = ∫ E ⋅ n$ dS
E Er
β E
EQ P (r, θ) ∆s n
z
A surface placed perpendicular
θ to electric field
–q O +q
2d
Electric Field at (r, θ) position Gauss Law
ds
l
E subtends an angle β from r such that The total electric flux linked with a E
1 1
tan β = tan θ closed surface is equal to times,
2 ε0
θ
the net charge enclosed by that
Torque on a Dipole in a Uniform surface. Thus,
1
Electric Field φ E = ∫ E ⋅ dS = [Qenclosed ]
S ε0 Illustration on Gauss Law
When a dipole is placed in an external electric field, making i= n
an angle θ with the direction of the uniform electric field E, it where, Q enclosed Σ qi is the algebraic sum of all the charges
i= 1
experiences a torque given by
inside the closed surface.
τ = qE × AC
τ=p×E
τ = pE sin θ
Electric Potential
The amount of work done in bringing a unit positive charge,
or qE × 2 d sin θ = (q × 2 d) E sin θ
without any acceleration, from infinity to that point, along
A any arbitrary path.
qE
+q W
E V =
2d θ q0
Electric potential is a state function and does not depend on
the path followed.
qE – C
q B
Rotation of Electric Dipole 1. Electric Potential Due to a Point Charge
Potential due to a point charge Q, at a distance r is given
1 Q
Work Done in Rotating a Dipole by V = ⋅
4πε 0 r
If an electric dipole initially kept in an uniform electric field E,
making an angle θ 1, is rotated so as to finally subtend an angle 2. Electric Potential Due to a System of Charges
θ2 , then the work done for rotating the dipole is, If a number of charges q 1, q2 , q3 ,… are present in space,
W = pE (cos θ 1 − cos θ2 ) then the electric potential at any point will be
V = V1 + V2 + V3 +…
Potential Energy of a Dipole 1 q 1 q2 q3
= + + +…
4πε 0 r1
It is the amount of work done in rotating an electric dipole
from a direction perpendicular to electric field to a particular
r2 r3
n
direction. 1 qi
Hence, U = − pE cos θ or U = − p ⋅ E
=
4πε 0
∑
ri
i= 1
DAY NINETEEN ELECTROSTATICS 197
3. Electric Potential Due to an Electric Dipole In general, for a system of n charges, the electric potential
energy is given by
1 p cos θ
At any general point, V = 1 q iq j
4πε 0 r2 U= Σ ,i ≠ j
1 p 2 4πε 0rij
On the dipole axis, θ = 0 ° and V = ⋅
4πε 0 r 2 1
is used as each term in summation will appear twice
On the equitorial axis θ = 90 ° and V = 0 2
Electrical Capacitance + –
Capacitor V
Three Capacitor in Parallel
A capacitor is a device which stores electrostatic energy. It
consists of conductors of any shape and size carrying charges
of equal magnitudes and opposite signs and separated by an
insulating medium.
Capacitance of a Parallel Plate
A B
Capacitor
+Q –Q
1. Capacitor without Dielectric Medium
between the Plates
If the magnitude of charge on each plate of a parallel plate
capacitor be Q and the overlapping area of plates be A,
then
d
σ Q
A Capacitor l
Electric field between the plates, E = =
ε0 ε0 A
There are two types of combination of capacitors: l
Potential difference between the plates
σd Qd
1. Series Grouping V = E ⋅d = = , where d = separation between the two
ε0 ε0 A
In a series arrangement, V = V1 + V2 + V3 +…
plates.
1 1 1
and V1 : V2 : V3… = : : :… Q ε A
C1 C2 C3 l
Capacitance, C = = 0
V d
DAY NINETEEN ELECTROSTATICS 199
2 Identify the wrong statement in the following Coulomb’s 6 A small uncharged metallic sphere is positioned exactly
law correctly described the electric force that at a point midway between two equal and opposite point
(a) binds the electrons of an atom to its nucleus charges. If the sphere is slightly displaced towards the
(b) binds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of positive charge and released, then
an atom (a) it will oscillate about its original position
(c) binds atoms together to form molecules (b) it will move further towards the positive charge
(d) binds atoms and molecules to form solids (c) its electric potential energy will decrease and kinetic
energy will increase
3 The excess (equal in number) of electrons that must be (d) its total energy remains constant but it non-zero
placed on each of two small spheres spaced 3 cm
apart, with force of repulsion between the spheres to be 7 A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and − q. If the
10−19N, is coulomb repulsion between them when they are
Q
(a) 25 (b) 225 (c) 625 (d) 1250 separated is to be maximum, the ratio of should be
q
4 When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant 1 1
(a) 2 (b) (c) 4 (d)
K. The maximum force of attraction between two charges 2 4
separated by a distance
8 Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
(a)increases K −1 times (b) increases K times separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion
(c)decreases K times (d) remains constant between the ions, the number of electrons missing from
200 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINETEEN
each ion will be (e being the charge on an electron) (c) The dipole will experience a force towards left
j CBSE AIPMT 2010 (d) The dipole will experience a force upwards
4 πε0Fd 2 4 πε0Fe 2 4 πε0Fd 2 4 πε0Fd 2 15 An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q
(a) 2
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d)
e d e q2 and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform
electric field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction
9 The electric field due to a charge at a distance of 3 m
the field, the force on it and its potential energy are
from it is 500 NC −1. The magnitude of the charge is
respectively
[1/ 4 πε0 = 9 × 109 Nm2C −2 ]
(a) 2.5 µC (b) 1.0 µC (a)2qE and minimum (b) qE and pE
(c) 2.0 µC (d) 0.5 µC (c)zero and minimum (d) qE and maximum
10 An electron is sent in electric field of intensity 16 The electric potential at a point ( x , y , z ) is given by
−1
9.1 × 10 NC . The acceleration produced is
6 V = − x 2 y − xz 3 + 4. j CBSE AIPMT 2009
(mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 −31 kg) The electric field E at that point is
(a)1.6 ms −2 (b) 1.6 × 1018 ms −2 (a) E = (2 xy + z 3 )$i + x 2 $j + 3 xz 2 k$
(c)3.2 × 1018 ms −2 (d) 0.8 × 1018 ms −2 (b) E = 2 xy $i + (x 2 + y 2 )$j + (3 xz − y 2 )k$
(c) E = z 3 $i + xyz$j + z 2 k$
11 A charged particle of mass 0.003 g is held stationary (d) E = (2 xy − z 3 )$i + xy 2 $j + 3 z 2 xk$
in space by placing it in a downward direction of
17 Which one of the following graphs represents the variation
electric field of 6 × 104 NC −1. Then, the magnitude of
of electric field strength E with distance r from the centre
the charge is
of a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere?
(a) 5 × 10−4 C (b) 5 × 10−10 C (c) 18 × 10−6 C (d) −5 × 10−9 C
12 A point charge +q, is placed at a distance d from an
isolated conducting plane. The field at a point P on the (a) E (b) E
other side of the plane is
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the
plane R r R r
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the
plane
(c) directed radially away from the point charge (c) E (d) E
(d) directed radially towards the point charge
13 A , B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The
R r R r
electric potential is j
NEET 2013
18 An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field
A
of intensity E . The dipole acquires a position such that the
B
E axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the direction of
C the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole
to be zero when θ = 90° , the torque and the potential
(a) maximum at A (b) maximum at B
energy of the dipole will respectively be j CBSE AIPMT 2012
(c) maximum at C
(d) same at all the three points A, B and C (a) pE sinθ, − pE cosθ (b) pE sinθ, − 2 pE cosθ
(c) pE sinθ, 2 pE cosθ (d) pE cosθ, − pE sinθ
14 Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric
19 The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that enclose the
dipole p is placed as shown in figure. Which of the
charged particles in free space is
following statements is correct? (Given q1 = − 14 nC, q 2 = 78.85 nC, q 3 = − 56 nC)
Gaussian surface A
q1
–q P q3
+q q2 Gaussian surface B
36 A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 10 5 Vm −1 43 A parallel plate capacitor is located horizontally such that
between the plates. If the charge on the capacitor plates one of the plates is submerged in a liquid while the other
is 1 µC, the force on each capacitor plate is is above the liquid surface. When plates are charged, the
(a)0.5 N (b) 0.05 N level of liquid
(c)0.005 N (d) None of these
37 If a battery is disconnected from the capacitor and then a
dielectric substance between two plates of condenser is
introduced the capacity, potential and potential energy Charged Liquid
respectively
(a) increases, decreases, decreases
(a) rises
(b) decreases, increases, increases
(b) falls
(c) increases, increases, increases
(d) decreases, decreases, decreases (c) remains unchanged
(d) may rise or fall depending on the amount of charge
38 Two identical metal plates are given positive charge Q1
and Q 2 such that Q 2 < Q1. If they are now brought close 44 A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field
V
to each other to form a parallel plate capacitor of E in the space between the plates. If the distance
m
capacitance C, the potential difference between them is
A B between the plates is d(m) and area of each plate is
σ1+ +σ2 A (m 2 ). The energy (joule) stored in the condenser is
+ + j CBSE AIPMT 2011
EA P + Q R EA 1
+ (a) ε0E 2 (b) ε0EAd
EB EB EA EB 2
+ + 1 Ad
(c) ε0E 2 Ad (d) E 2
+ + 2 ε0
Q1 + Q2 Q1 + Q2
(a) (b) 45 Two capacitors of capacitances 3 µF and 6 µF are
2C C
Q − Q2 Q − Q2 charged to a potential of 12 V each. They are now
(c) 1 (d) 1
C 2C connected to each other, with the positive plate of each
joined to the negative plate of the other. The potential
39 A 0.2 µF capacitor is charged to 600 V. After removing it difference across each will be
from battery it is connected to another capacitor 1.0 µF in (a) 4 V (b) 6 V
parallel. The voltage on the capacitor will become (c) zero (d) 3 V
(a) 300 V (b) 600 V
46 Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of
(c) 100 V (d) 120 V
breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
40 A thin aluminium sheet is placed between the plates of a capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination
parallel plate capacitor. Its capacitance will will be j
CBSE AIPMT 2009
(a)increase (b) decrease C V V
(a) , (b) 3 C,
(c)remain same (d) become infinite 3 3 3
C
(c) , 3V (d) 3C, 3V
41 Work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10−18 C on a 3
condenser of capacity 100 µF is
47 Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K 2
(a) 16 × 10−32 J (b) 31 × 10−26 J
(K1 < K 2 ) are inserted between plates of a parallel plate
(c) 4 × 10−10 J (d) 32 × 10−32 J
capacitor, as shown in the figure.
42 A number of condensers, each of the capacitance 1µF P + – Q
and each one of which gets punctured, if a potential
+ –
difference just exceeding 500 V is applied, are
+ –
provided. An arrangement suitable for giving
+ –
capacitance of 2 µF across which 3000 V may be
+ –
applied requires at least.
+ –
(a) 6 component capacitors –
+
(b) 12 component capacitors –
+
(c) 72 component capacitors K1 K2
(d) 2 component capacitors
DAY NINETEEN ELECTROSTATICS 203
The variation of electric field E between the plates with 51 What will be the equivalent capacitance of the system as
distance d as measured from plate P is correctly shown shown in the figure, where two spherical conductors A
by j CBSE AIPMT 2014 and B of radii a and b (b > a ) are placed concentrically in
air with a charge + Q on A and B being earthed?
E E B
A
(a) (b) + + +
+ +
0 0 + a +
+ +
d d + +
+ +
b + + +
Q
E E
ab
(c) (d) (a)4 πε0 (b) 4 πε0 (a + b)
b − a
0 0 b2
d d (c)4 πε0 b (d) 4 πε0
b − a
48 A capacitor having capacity of 2.0 µF is charged to 200 V
and then the plates of the capacitor are connected to a 52 The following figure shows seven capacitors, a switch S
resistance wire. The heat produced in joule will be and a source of emf connected together. Initially S is
(a) 2 × 10−2 (b) 4 × 10−2 open and all capacitors are uncharged.
(c) 4 × 104 (d) 4 × 1010 59 V S
+ –
49 The equivalent capacitance of the following combination
is 21µF 3 µF 4 µF
7µF
10 mF A
5 mF
10 mF 28 µF 2 µF 1 µF
Q
x x
q1 q1 (x, 0) +q
q3 q3
(iii)
(a) (b)
C A
–Q +Q
B C
1 q q
(a) Q 2 /(4 πε0a 2 ) (b) −Q 2 /(4 πε0a 2 ) (a) − φ (b)
2 ε0 2 ε0
(c) zero (d) Q 2 /(2 πε0a 2 )
φ q
(c) (d) −φ
3 The ratio of electrostatic and gravitational forces acting 3 ε0
between electron and proton separated by a distance
5 × 10 −11m, will be (Charge of electron = 1.6 × 10 −19 C, 6 Two infinitely long parallel conducting plates having
mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 −31kg, mass of proton surface charge densities + σ and − σ respectively, are
= 1.6 × 10 −27 kg, G = 6.7 × 10 −11N-m 2 kg −2 ) separated by a small distance. The medium between the
(a) 2.36 × 1039 (b) 2.36 × 1040 plates is vacuum. If ε 0 is the dielectric permittivity of
(c) 2.34 × 104 (d) 2.34 × 1042 vacuum, then the electric field in the region between the
4 A point positive charge is brought near an isolated plates is
conducting sphere, in figure shown. The electric field (a) zero (b) σ/2 ε0 Vm−1
is best given by (c) σ/ε0 Vm−1 (d) 2 σ/ε0 Vm−1
7 When n identical mercury droplets charged to the same
potential V coalescence to form a single bigger drop. The
+q potential of the new drop will be
V
(a) (b) nV (c) nV 2 (d) n 2 / 3V
(i) n
DAY NINETEEN ELECTROSTATICS 205
8 Charges + q and − q are placed at points A and B between the plates d and area A of the plates
respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is the respectively are
mid-point between A and B. The work done in moving a (a)6.6 × 10−6 m ; 103 m2 (b) 6.6 × 10−5 m ; 104 m2
charge + Q along the semi-circle CRD is (c)6.6 × 10−4 m ; 105 m2 (d) 6.6 × 10−6 m ; 102 m2
qQ qQ 14 A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is
(a) (b)
4 πε0L 2 πε0L connected to a cell of emfV and then disconnected from
qQ qQ it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can
(c) (d) −
6 πε0L 6 πε0L just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
9 Two charges q1 and q 2 are placed 30 cm apart, as j CBSE AIPMT 2015
A 30 cm B D
(a) 8 q2 (b) 8 q1 K1 = 8 K2 = 4
(c) 6q2 (d) 6q1
10 The electrostatic potential inside a charged spherical ball
is given by V = ar 2 + b, where r is the distance from the (a) 12 (b) 6
centre and a, b are constants. Then, the charge density (c) 8/3 (d) 3
inside the ball is 16 A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value
(a) − 3 a ε0r (b) − 6a ε0 C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V .
(c) + 3 a ε0 r (d) zero
When another parallel combination of n 2 capacitors, each
11 Three point charges + q , − 2 q and + q are placed at of value C2 , is charged by a source of potential difference
points ( x = 0 , y = a, z = 0), ( x = 0 , y = 0 , z = 0) and V , it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first
( x = a, y = 0, z = 0), respectively. The magnitude and combination has. The value of C2 , in terms of C1, is then
direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
charge assembly are 2C1 n n 16C1
(a) (b) 16 2 C1 (c) 2 2 C1 (d)
(a) 2 aq along + y-direction n1n2 n1 n1 n1n2
(b) 2 aq along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0)
and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) 17 The equivalent capacitance between A and B for the
(c)qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) combination of capacitors shown in figure, where all
and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) capacitances are in microfarad is
(d) 2 aq along + x-direction 1 mF
12 27 small drops each having charge q and radius r 4 µF
coalesce to form big drop. How many times charge and
capacitance will become?
(a) 3, 27 (b) 27, 3 3 µF
A 6 mF
(c) 27, 27 (d) 3, 3 B
13 A parallel plate capacitor of value 1.77 µF is to be
designed using a dielectric material (dielectric constant 8 µF
= 200), breakdown strength of 3 × 10 6 Vm −1 . In order to 2 µF
make such a capacitor which can withstand a potential
(a) 6.0 µF (b) 4.0 µF (c) 2.0 µF (d) 3.0 µF
difference of 20 V across the plates, the separation
206 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINETEEN
2
18 Charge Q is divided into two parts which are then kept (a) k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4 (b) k = (k1 + k2 + k3 ) + 2k4
some distance apart. The force between them will be 3
2 3 1
maximum, if the two parts are having the charge (where (c) = + (d) None of these
k k1 + k2 + k3 k4
e = electronic charge )
Q Q 3Q 24 The electric field in a certain region is acting radially
(a) each (b) and
2 4 4 outward and is given by E = Ar . A charge contained in a
Q 2Q
(c) and (d) e and (Q − e) sphere of radius ‘a’ centred at the origin of the field' will
3 3
be given by j CBSE AIPMT 2015
function of the distance x between the sphere, as (b) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
j NEET 2016 (c) independent of the distance between the plates
1 1 (d) inversely proportional to the distance between the
−
(a) v ∝ x (b) v ∝ x 2 (c) v ∝ x −1 (d) v ∝ x 2 plates
30 An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in 32 A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal
a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E . plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric
The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its field E. Due to the force q E, its velocity increases from 0
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant, the
in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to
of the electron, move for two more seconds under the influence of this
in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is field. The average velocity and the average speed of the
(a) 10 times greater (b) 5 times greater toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively
(c) smaller (d) equal (a) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
(b) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
31 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an
(c) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and (d) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
area A, is j NEET 2018
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (a ) 30 (b)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (b) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (c)
41 (d) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (c)
51 (a) 52 (a) 53 (d) 54 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (b)
208 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINETEEN
20 At any point over the spherical gaussian 29 If potential at centre is zero, then 38 Let plate A and plate B be carrying
surface, net electric field is the vector V1 + V2 + V3 + V 4 = 0 charge Q 1 and Q 2 , respectively.
sum of electric field due to + q1 , − q1 –q 2q Q1 Q2
and q2 . Hence, electric field will be due
to all the charges.
21 For a closed surface outward flux is
taken as positive and inward flux is – Q2 – Q1
O
taken as negative.
Total charge enclosed
Net flux, φ =
ε0 –Q 2Q A B
1
= ×Q
ε0 −
kQ
−
kq
+
k 2Q
+
k 2q
=0
When they are brought closer, they
∴ Q = ε 0 ( φ2 − φ1 ) r r r r induce equal and opposite charge on
− Q − q + 2q + 2Q = 0 each other, i.e. − Q 2 on plate A and − Q 1
22 Electric field is perpendicular to area Q = −q on plate B.
vector. Hence, the total flux, Therefore, net charge on plate
30 Potential at the centre of a hollow
φ=0 [Q φ = E ds cos θ] A = Q 1 − Q 2 and net charge on plate
metallic sphere
1 Q B = − (Q 1 −`Q 2 ). So, the charge on
23 The electric flux through any surface is V = capacitor is given as
equal to the product of electric field 4 πε 0 R
Q1 − Q2
intensity at the surface and component 1 q
31 Electric potential, V = Potential difference between the plates
of the surface perpendicular to electric Q − Q2
4 πε 0 r is V = 1
field
C
= E × π R 2 = πR 2 E Here, V = 2V+ ve + 2V – ve
1 2q 2q 39 Charge on capacitor plates is given by
24 From Gauss’ theorem, V = − q = CV
Net charge enclosed by the surface 4 πε0 L L 5
φ= Substituting C = 0.2 µF and V = 600 V,
ε0 V =
2q 1 − 1 we get q = 120 µC …(i)
The net charge due to a dipole is zero, 4 πε 0 L 5
When 0.2µF capacitor is joined to
hence φ = 0 1.0 µF capacitor in parallel combination,
32 As E = v / d and mg = qE .
Net enclosed charge then equivalent capacitance.
25 Total flux (φ T ) = So,
ε0 Now, voltage across the capacitor is
mgd 1.6 × 10−14 × 9.8 × 10 × 10−3 q 120µC
V = = given by V ′ = = = 100 V
Hence, we can say the electric flux q 1.6 × 10−19 C′ 1.2µF
depends only on net enclosed charge by
V = 104 V
the surface. 40 The combination shows two capacitors
33 In a conducting sphere charge is present connected in series. Resultant
26 Flux of electric field E through any area capacitance is
A is defined as φ = E A cos θ. Now, angle on the surface of the sphere. So, electric
1 1 1
between normal and field lines is (90 − θ). field inside will be zero and potential = +
remains constant from centre to surface C ′ C1 C2
So, φ = EA cos (90 − θ)
1 Q Kε 0 A
= EA sin θ of sphere and is equal to . C = , where A is area, d is the
4 πε0 R d
= EL sin θ
2
42 Minimum number of condensers in each 47 Graph (c) will be the right graph, the If q be the charge on each capacitor,
3000 q q q q q
row = =6 electric field inside the dielectrics will then + + + + = 59
500 be less than the electric field outside the 21 7 28 3 7
If Cs is capacity of 6 condensers in a dielectrics. The electric field inside the or q = 84µC
row, dielectrics could not be zero. ∴ Potential difference across A
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 q 84
= + + + + + =6 = = = 12V
Cs 1 1 1 1 1 1 7 7
1 E 2
Cs = µF 53 Stored energy, W = Q
6 2C
Let there be m such rows in parallel, (2Q )2 4Q 2
Total capacity = m × Cs W1 = = = 4W
2C 2C
1 0
2= m× d
6 54 The equivalent capacitance, for
∴ m = 12 As K 2 > K 1 , the drop in electric field for capacitors in series is
Total number of capacitors = 6 × 12 = 72 K 2 dielectric must be more than K 1 . 1 1 1
= +
Cs C1 C2
43 When plates of the capacitor are 48 Heat produced in wire
= Energy stored in capacitor 1 1
charged, then opposite charges are = +
1 1 10 20
induced on water, so due to attractive
= C V 2 = × (2 × 10−6 ) (200)2 20
force water level will rise. 2 2 ⇒ Cs = µF
3
44 The energy stored in the condenser = 4 × 10−2 J
10 µF 20 µF
1 Aε
CV 2 ⇒ U = 0 (Ed )2
1
U = 49 Both 10µF capacitances are in series.
2 2 d
Hence, equivalent capacitance can be
QC = Aε0 and V = Ed calculated as, i.e.
d 1 1 1 1
= + = ⇒ C1 = 5µF
1 C1 10 10 5
U = ε0 E 2 Ad
2 Now, C1 = 5 µF and C2 = 5 µF, both are 30 V
45 Common potential is given by in parallel. 20
Hence, equivalent capacitance, Also, q = CV =
× 30 = 200 µC
C V − C2V2 3
V = 1 1 C = C1 + C2 = 5 + 5 = 10 µF
C1 + C2 This charge on the two capacitors in
50 The two condensers in the circuit are in series is same.
Substituting
parallel order, hence Hence, q ′ = 200 µC, q ′′ = 200 µC
C1 = 3µF, C2 = 6 µF, V1 = V2 = 12 V, C 3C
C′=C + =
we get, potential difference, V = 4 V 2 2 SESSION 2
46 In series arrangement charge on each The work done in charging the 1 As q2 , q3 are positive charges and net
plate of all the capacitors have same equivalent capacitor is stored in the force on q1 is along + x-direction,
magnitude. The potential difference is form of potential energy. therefore q1 must be negative as shown
distributed inversely in the ratio of 1
Hence, W = U = C ′ V 2 in figure.
capacitors, 2
When a positive charge Q is added at
i.e. V = V1 + V2 + V3 1 3C 2 3
= V = CV
2
( x, 0), it will attract (− q1 ) along + x
[QV1 = V2 = V3 = V ] 2 2 4 direction, in figure. Therefore, force on
Here, V = 3V 51 If the outer sphere is earthed, then q1 will increase along the positive
inside of outer sphere and outside of x-axis.
The equivalent capacitance Cs is given by
inner sphere constitute a spherical y y
C1 C2 C3
+Q –Q +Q –Q +Q –Q capacitor. So, the capacitance of the
ab +q2 +q2
system is C = 4 πε0 .
V1 V2 V3 b −a
Q
52 The equivalent circuit is x x
(–)q1 O (–)q1 O (x, 0)
+ – 59 V
S
V –q3 +q3
21 µF 7 µF
1 1 1 1 (a) (b)
= + +
Cs C1 C2 C3 7 µF A
5 Gauss’ law states that the net electric 8 In first case, when charge + Q is situated
flux through any closed surface is equal at C.
F
F' +Q
to the net charge inside the surface +q –q
+Q
divided by ε0 .
120° A A C B
q
F i.e. φ total = L L
ε0
2L
F '' Let electric flux linked with surfaces
A, B and C are φA , φ B and φ C , Electric potential energy of system
respectively. 1 (q )(− q ) 1 (− q )Q
U1 = +
B C i.e. φ total = φ A + φ B + φC 4 πε0 2L 4 πε0 L
–Q +Q
[Q φC = φA ] 1 qQ
+
q 4 πε0 L
Now, from figure ∴ 2φ A + φ B = φ total =
ε0 In second case, when charge + Q is
F = F ′2 + F ′′2 + 2F ′ F ′′ cos 90°
1 q moved from C to D
Now, the force normal to BC or φA = − φB +q –q +Q
2 ε0
at vertex A is
A B D
F ′′ = F 2 − F ′2 = 0 [Q F ′ = F ] [Q φ B = φ]
2L L
1 q
Hence, φA = − φ Electric potential energy of system in
3 Electrostatic force between electron and 2 ε0
proton is given by that case
6 Given that conducting plates have 1 (q )(− q ) 1 qQ
1 q1 q2 U2 = +
Fe = surface charge densities + σ and −σ, 4 πε0 2L 4 πε0 3L
4 πε0 r 2
respectively. Since, the sheet is large, 1 (− q )(Q )
+
1 4 πε0
Substituting = 9 × 109 Nm2C −2 the electric field E at energy point near L
4 πε0 the sheet will be perpendicular to the
∴ Work done = ∆U = U 2 − U 1
sheet.
q1 = 1.6 × 10−19C , q2 = 1.6 × 10−19C , 1 q2 1 qQ 1 qQ
= − + −
r = 5 × 10−11 m, we get + –
4 πε0 2L 4 πε0 3L 4 πε0 L
+ –
−8 –
Fe = 9.22 × 10 N +
– 1 q2 1 qQ 1 qQ
+
– − − − +
E E
Now, gravitational force between E +
+
E – 4 πε0 2L 4 πε0 L 4 πε0 L
electron and proton is given by + –
qQ (1 − 3) qQ
= =−
M M 4 πε0 3L 6 πε0 L
Fg = G 1 2 The resultant electric field is given by
r2 E ′ = E + E = 2E 9 When charge q3 is at C, then its potential
Substituting G = 6.67 × 10−11 , If σ is surface charge density, then
σ energy is
M1 = 9.1 × 10−31 k g , electric field E = 1 q1q3 + q2 q3
2ε0 UC =
M2 = 1.61 × 10 −27
kg and 4 πε0 0.4 0.5
2σ σ
∴ E ′ = 2E = = Vm −1 When charge q3 is at D, then
r = 5 × 10 −11
, we get 2ε0 ε0
1 q1q3
+ 2 3
q q
UD =
F g = 3.9 × 10−47 N 7 Volume of n mercury droplets 4 πε0 0.4 .
01
= Volume of bigger drop
So, the ratio of electrostatic and Hence, change in potential energy
4 4
gravitational forces is given by ⇒ n × πr 3 = πR3 ⇒ nr 3 = R3 ∆U = U D − U C
3 3
1 q1q3
+ 2 3
q q
Fe 9.22 × 10−8 ⇒ R = n1 /3 r …(i) =
= = 2.36 × 1039 4 πε0 01
. 0.5
Fg 3.9 × 10−47 Now, charge on bigger drop = n q3
But ∆U = k
(Charge on each mercury drop) 4πε0
4 When a point positive charge is brought ⇒ q ′ = nq …(ii)
near an isolated conducting sphere, q3 1 q2 q3 q2 q3
Therefore, potential of bigger drop ∴ k = −
there developes some negative charge on 4 πε0 4 πε0 01
. 0.5
becomes,
left side of the sphere and an equal 1 q′ ⇒ k = q2 (10 − 2) = 8q2
V′ =
positive charge on the right side of the 4 πε0 R dV
sphere. Electric lines of force emitting
10 E = − = − 2ar
Using Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get dr
from the point positive charge and 1 nq From Gauss’ theorem,
normally on the left side of the =
4 πε0 n1 /3 r E (4 πr 2 ) = q / ε0 ⇒ q = − 8 π ε0 ar 3
sphere,the electric lines of force dq dq dr
1 q ρ= = ×
emanate normally from the right ⇒ V ′ = n2 /3 =n V
2 /3
dv dr dv
side.The electric field is best given by 4 πε0 r
1
Fig (i). 1 q = (− 24 π ε0 ar 2 ) ×
here,V = 4 πε r 4 πr 2
0
⇒ ρ = − 6 ε0 a
212 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY NINETEEN
19 Energy stored in a system of capacitors 22 QTorque on an electric dipole in an 26 Force between plates of parallel
1 electric field, capacitor,
= Σ CV 2
2 τ = p × E ⇒ |τ| = pE sin θ σ
where, θ is angle between E and p F =q E =q
⇒ 4 = p × 2 × 105 × sin 30 2ε0
q
⇒ p = 4 × 10−5 cm QSurface charge density σ =
A
∴q 2 l = 4 × 10−5 [Q p = q 2 l ]
q q2
+ – where, 2l = 2 cm = 2 × 10−4 m ∴ F =q ⇒ F =
2 Aε0 2 Aε0
4 × 10−5
V ∴ q = ⇒ 2 × 10−3 C = 2 mC So, net charge across a capacitor, q = CV
2 × 10−2
Also, potential drop remains same in
F =
C 2V 2 C = Aε0
parallel across both capacitors. 23 Given capacitor is equivalent to 2 Aε0 d
Initially stored energy, capacitors K 1 , K 2 and K 3 in parallel and Aε0 × CV 2
part of K 4 in series with them 2
1
U 1 = CV 2 d CV
⇒ F = =
2 2 A ε0 2d
Finally, potential drop across each C1 C2 C3
K1 K2 K3 27 As we know that relation between
capacitor will be still V. So, finally
potential difference and electric field E
K4 K4 K4
stored energy, C4/3 C4/3 C4/3 in a particular region is given by,
1 1 1 dV
U 2 = CV 2 + CV 2 = (2C ) V 2 E= −
2 2 2 dr
1 3 3d 3d As V = 6 x − 8 xy − 8 y + 6 yz
= 2 CV 2 = 2U 1 + = +
1
2 C1 C 4 2K 1 ε0 A 2K 4 ε0 A So, E = −
dV
3d 1 1 dr
= +
2ε0 A K 1 K 4 = − [(6 − 8y )$i + (−8 x − 8 + 6z )$j
20 Net charge on one H-atom
q = − e + e + ∆e = ∆e + 6yk$ ]
Kε 0 A
Net electrostatic repulsive force between ⇒ Ceq = The value of E at coordinate (1, 1, 1)
two H-atoms d
2ε0 A K 1 K 4 K2K 4 K3K 4 E = − [−2i$ − 10$j + 6k$ ]
Kq 2 K (∆e )2 = + +
Fr =
d2
=
d2 3d K 1 + K 4 K 2 + K 4 K 3 + K 4 So, Enet = (−2)2 + (−10)2 + 62
Similarly, net gravitational attractive 2 K1K 4 K2K 4 K3K 4 = 2 35 N/C
K = + +
Gm2r 3 K 1 + K 4 K 2 + K 4 K 3 + K 4 and force on charge q due to Enet is
force between two H-atoms, FG =
d2 So, none of these option is correct. given by
It is given that, F = q Enet = 2 × 2 35 = 4 35 N
24 Given, E = Ar …(i)
F r − FG = 0
K (∆e )2 Gm2r 28 Case I Fe cos θ = mg sin θ
⇒ − =0 Fe
d2 d2 ⇒ = tanθ
mg
Gm2r
⇒ (∆e )2 = F
K ⇒ mg = e …(i)
−11 a tanθ
(6.67 × 10 ) (1.67 × 10−27 ) 2 q
(∆e )2 = Fe cosθ
9 × 10 9
⇒ ∆e = 1.437 × 10−37 C θ
y
This Pdf Is
Downloaded From
www.exambites.in
VISIT NOW !!
DAY TWENTY
Current
Electricity
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Electric Current u Temperature Dependence u Meter Bridge
u Ohm’s Law of Resistance u Potentiometer
u Resistance of u Electric Energy and Power u Galvanometer
Different Materials u Electric Cell u Ammeter
u Series and Parallel u Potential Difference and emf of a Cell u Voltmeter
Combinations u Kirchhoff’s Laws
of Resistors u Wheatstone’s Bridge
Electric Current
Electric current is defined as the amount of charge flowing across any section of wire per
unit time. If charge ∆q passes through the area in time interval ∆t at uniform rate, then
∆q
current i is defined as i=
∆t
SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
l
Conventional direction of flow of current is taken to be the direction of flow of positive
charge or opposite to the direction of flow of negative charge.
Electric current is a scalar as it does not follow the vector law of addition.
PREP
l
Electrical Resistance
Electrical resistance is defined as the ratio in the potential
Colour Code for Resistors
difference (v) across the ends of the conductor to the current (i) The electronic colour code is
flowing through it, used to indicate the values or
V ratings of electronic components.
i. e., R= The resistance value and
i A B C R
tolerance can be determined Colour coded resistor
The SI unit of electrical restristance is Ω (ohm) and its from the standard resistor colour
dimension is [ML2 T −3 A−2 ]. code. The following diagram shows a carbon resistor. A
variation on the colour code is used for precision resistors
which may have five colour bands.
Electrical Resistivity
In that case, the first three bands indicate the first three digits
The resistance of a resistor (an element in a circuit with some of the resistance. Value and the fourth band indicates the
resistance R) depends on its geometrical factors (length, number of zeros. In the five band code, the fifth band is gold
cross-sectional area) as also on the nature of the substance of for 1% resistors and silver for 2%.
which the resistor is made. Electrical resistance of a
rectangular slab depends on its length (l ) and its Resistor Code Colour
cross-sectional area ( A). Resistance value 0 Black (B)
i. e., R∝l First three bands 1 Brown(B)
1
and R∝ 1st band-1st digit 2 Red (R)
A 2nd band-2nd digit 3 Orange (O)
Combining the two dependences, we get 3rd band-number of zeros 4 Yellow (Y)
l
R∝ 5 Green (G)
A
6 Blue (B)
ρl
or R= 7 Violet (V)
A
8 Grey (G)
where, ρ is a constant of proportionality called resistivity.
m 9 White (W)
ρ= 2
ne τ Shortcut to learn the series
B B R O Y Great Britain Very Good Wife.
DAY TWENTY CURRENT ELECTRICITY 217
Series Combination
A series circuit is a circuit in
Electric Cell
R1 R2 R3
which resistors are arranged in a V An electric cell is a device which maintains a continuous flow
chain, so the current has only one of charge (or electric current) in a circuit by a chemical
path to take. The current is the reaction. In an electric cell, there are two rods of different
I
same through each resistor. The Three resistor in series metals called electrodes.
total resistance of the circuit is
found by simply adding up the resistance values of the
individual resistors. Equivalent resistance of resistors in series
Internal Resistance of a Cell
Thus, when a current is drawn through a source, the potential
R = R1 + R2 + R3 + K
difference between the terminal of the source is
V = E − ir
Parallel Combination
This can also be shown as below
A parallel circuit is a circuit in I1 R1
E r
which the resistors are arranged I I2 I
A B
with their heads connected R1 R2 I
together and their tails connected V I3 R3 V A − E + Ir = VB or V A − VB = E − Ir
together. The current in a parallel
circuit breaks up, with some Three resistor in parallel Following three special cases are possible
flowing along each parallel branch (i) If the current flows in opposite direction (as in case of
and recombining, when the branches meet again. The voltage charging of battery), then V = E + Ir
across each resistor is parallel is the same.
(ii) V = E , if the current through the cell is zero.
The total resistance of a set of resistors in parallel is found by
(iii) V = 0, if the cell is short circuited.
adding up the reciprocals of the resistance values, and then,
taking the reciprocal of the total. This is because current in the circuit,
E
The equivalent resistance of resistors in parallel, I = or E = Ir
1 1 1 1 r
= + + +K
R R1 R2 R3 ∴ E − Ir = 0 or V = 0
and in Parallel F
R3
E
R5
A group of cells is called a battery. Two common grouping of (a) (b)
cells are
However, it is always possible to analyze such circuits by
applying two rules, devised by Kirchhoff.
1. Series Grouping
In series grouping, if all the cells are joined so as to supply
current in the same direction, then resultant Junction Rule
emf, Eeq = E 1 + E2 + E3 + … The algebraic sum of the currents at any junction is zero.
However, if one or more cells are joined so as to supply
current in reverse direction, then emf of that/those cells is i2
i1
taken as negative, while calculating the equivalent emf.
E1 E2 E3 i3
+ve –ve i4
r1 r2 r3
Three cell in series Illustration of Junction Rule
E1
Wheatstone’s Bridge
For measuring accurately any resistance Wheatstone bridge is
widely used. There are two known resistors, are variable i i
resistor and one unknown resistors, one variable resistor and
L
one unknown resistor connected in bridge form as shown. A B
B i C
i2 =0
P Q
G
P G E2 , r
A C
Potentiometer
S2 Potential gradient,
R S
Potential difference across AB
k =
E
D Total length
V AB iR AB
S1 = = = iλ
L L
Wheatstone’s Bridge
R
where, λ = AB = resistance per unit length of
L
Meter Bridge potentiometer wire.
(Special Case of Wheatstone Bridge) The emf of source balanced between points B and C
R
This is the simplest form of Wheastone bridge and is specially E2 = kl = i CB × l = iRCB
useful for comparing resistances more accurately. The l
construction of the meter bridge is shown in the figure. It Here, AB is a long uniform resistance wire (length AB may be
consists of one metre resistance wire clamped between two ranging from 1 m to 10 m). E 0 is a battery whose emf is known
metallic strips bent at right angles and it has two points for supplying a constant current I for flow through the
connection. potentiometer wire. If R be the total resistance of
There are two gaps; in one of whose value is to be determined potentiometer wire and L its total length, then potential
is connected. The galvanometer is connected with the help of gradient, i.e. fall in potential per unit length along the
jockey across BD and the cell is connected across AC. After potentiometer will be
making connections, the jockey is moved along the wire and V IR E 0R
k = = =
the null point is found. Wheatstone bridge, wire used is of L L (R0 + R) L
uniform material and cross-section. the resistance can be
found with the help of the following relation where, E 0 = emf of battery,
S
R0 = resistance inserted by means of rheostat Rh
R
k = potential gradient.
B
L → balancing length
J → jockey.
G
A D C Applications of Potentiometer
I1 100 I1
(i) To find emf of an unknown battery
Metre sale E1 E1
V K1 i i i i
Meter Bridge
l1 l1
R l1 l1 A B A B
= or R =S i C1 i C2
S (100 − l 1) 100 − l 1
i2 =0 i2 =0
G G
Potentiometer Ek EU
Principle Potentiometer is an ideal device to measure the We calibrate the device by replacing E2 by a source of known
potential difference between two points. It consists of a long emf E k and then by unknown emf Eu . Let the null points are
resistance wire AB of uniform cross-section in which a steady obtained at lengths l 1 and l2 . Then,
direct current is set up by means of a battery.
220 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY
E K = i( ρl 1) and EU = i ( ρl2 )
Ammeter
Here, ρ = resistance of wire AB per unit length
An ammeter is a device used to measure current directly in
E K l1 l ampere or its submultiples.
∴ = or EU = 2 E K
EU l2 l1
I – Ig S
So, by measuring the lengths l 1 and l2 , we can find the emf of +ve –ve
G
an unknown battery. I Ig
R Voltmeter
E l1 A voltmeter is a device used to measure potential difference
Then, = across a circuit element in volts.
V l2
E R+r
Since, = {Q E = i(R + r ) and V = iR} +ve –ve
V R G
Ig R Ig
R + r l1 l
or = ⇒ r = 1 − 1 R
R l2 l2 Voltmeter
A galvanometer may be converted into a voltmeter by
connecting a suitable high resistance R in series with
Galvanometer galvanometer. Value of series resistance,
V
It is a sensitive instrument used to detect and measure very R= −G
small currents even of the order of few micro ampere. Ig
Figure of merit of a galvanometer is defined as the current where, V = range of voltmeter.
which gives one division deflection in galvanometer. The equivalent resistance of voltmeter = G + R.
DAY PRACTICE SESSION 1
shape of a circle. Note that as the current progresses (a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω (c) 8 Ω (d) 16Ω
along the wire, the direction of J (current density)
10 6 Ω and 12 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. This
changes in an exact manner, while the current I
remains unaffected. The agent that is essentially combination is connected in series with a 10 V battery
responsible for is and 6 Ω resistor. What is the potential difference
(a) source of emf between the terminals of the12 Ω resistor?
(b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the (a) 4 V (b) 16 V (c) 2 V (d) 8 V
surface of wire
11 The resistance R t of a conductor
(c) the charges just behind a given segment of wire which
push them just the right way by repulsion varies with temperature t as shown
(d) the charges ahead in figure. If the variation is
represented by R
3 Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section,
R t = R 0 (1 + α t + β t ). Then,
2
a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity
(a) α and β both negative
which remains constant along the conductor is
(b) α is positive and β is negative t
(a) current density (b) current j CBSE AIPMT 2015 (c) α and β both are positive
(c) drift velocity (d) electric field (d) α is negative and β is negative
4 Which of the following characteristics of electrons 12 An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the
determines the current in a conductor? coils is connected to an AC source, the water in the
(a) Drift velocity alone (b) Thermal velocity alone kettle boils in 10 min. When the other coil is used the
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity water boils in 40 min. If both the coils are connected in
(d) Neither drift velocity nor thermal velocity parallel, the time taken by the same quantity of water to
boil will be
5 Charge passing through a conductor of cross-section
(a) 8 min (b) 4 min (c) 25 min (d) 15 min
area A = 0.3 m 2 is given by q = 3 t 2 + 5 t + 2 in coulomb,
where t is in second. What is the value of drift velocity at 13 Three equal resistors connected in series across a
t = 2s? (Take, n = 2 × 1025 /m 3 ) source of emf together dissipate 10 W power. If the same
resistors are connected in parallel across the same
(a) 0.77 × 10−5 m/s (b) 1.77 × 10−5 m/s
source, the power dissipated will be
(c) 2.08 × 105 m/s (d) 0.57 × 105 m/s
10
(a) 90 W (b) W (c) 30 W (d) 10 W
6 A resistor of 6 kΩ with tolerance 10% and another of 3
4 kΩ with tolerance 10% are connected in series. The
14 Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from
tolerance of combination is about
one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 15% potential per km is 8 V and the average resistance per km
7 A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k Ω is to be marked with is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is j CBSE AIPMT 2014
rings of different colours for its identification. The colour (a) 19.2 W (b) 19.2 kW
code sequence will be j
NEET 2018 (c) 19.2 J (d) 12.2 kW
(a) Yellow - Green - Violet - Gold 15 If voltage across a bulb rated 220 V-100 W drops by
(b) Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value
(c) Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver
by which the power would decrease is j CBSE AIPMT 2012
(d) Green - Orange - Violet - Gold
(a) 20% (b) 2.5% (c) 5% (d) 10%
222 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY
16 If power dissipated in the 9 Ω resistor in the circuit shown 22 When the resistance of 9 Ω is connected at the ends of a
is 36W, the potential difference across the 2 Ω resistor is battery, its potential difference decreases from 40 V to
j CBSE AIPMT 2011 30 V. The internal resistance of the battery is
9Ω (a) 6 Ω (b) 3 Ω (c) 9 Ω (d) 15 Ω
23 A 50 V battery is connected across 10 Ω resistor. The
6Ω current is 4.5 A. The internal resistance of the battery is
(a) zero (b) 0.5 Ω (c) 1.1 Ω (d) 5.0 Ω
24 The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current
+ – of 0.2 A through a resistance of10 Ω is j NEET 2013
V 2Ω (a) 0.2 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω (c) 0.8 Ω (d) 1.0 Ω
(a) 8 V (b) 10 V (c) 2 V (d) 4 V 25 A current of 2 A flows through a 2 Ω resistor when
17 A resistance coil and a battery are given. In which of the connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a
following cases, the heat generated is maximum? current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 Ω resistor. The
internal resistance of the battery is j CBSE AIPMT 2011
31 In the circuit shown, the cells A and B have negligible 36 The resistances of the four arms P , Q , R and S in a
resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 Ω and R = 100 Ω, the Wheatstone bridge are10 Ω, 30 Ω, 30 Ω and 90 Ω,
galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value ofVB is respectively. The emf and internal resistance of the cell
j CBSE AIPMT 2012 are 7 V and 5 Ω, respectively. If the galvanometer
R1 resistance is 50 Ω, the current drawn from the cell will be
G j NEET 2013
(a) 1.0 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 0.1 A (d) 2.0 A
VA R VB 37 In the Wheatstone’s bridge shown in figure, where
P = 2 Ω, Q = 3 Ω, R = 6 Ω and r = 8 Ω. In order to obtain
balance, shunt resistance across S must be
(a) 4 V (b) 2 V (c) 12 V (d) 6 V
32 See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of P
the following equations is a correct equation for it ? Q
j CBSE AIPMT 2009
R
ε1 r1
i1
S R
i2
r2 ε2
(a) ε1 − (i1 + i 2 )R − i1r1 = 0 (b) ε2 − i 2r2 − ε1 − i1r1 = 0
(c) − ε2 − (i1 + i 2 ) R + i 2 r2 = 0 (d) ε1 − (i1 + i 2 )R + i1r1 = 0 (a) 2 Ω (b) 3 Ω
(c) 6 Ω (d) 8 Ω
33 Consider the following two statements:
38 In a meter bridge, the balancing length from the left end
I. Kirchhoff’s junction law follows from the conservation
of charge. (standard resistance of one ohm is in the right gap) is
II. Kirchhoff’s loop law follows from the conservation of found to be 20 cm. The value of the unknown resistance is
energy. (a) 0.8 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω
(c) 0.4 Ω (d) 0.25 Ω
Which of the following is correct? j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
(a) Both I and II are wrong (b) I is correct and II is wrong
39 For a cell of emf 2V, a balance is obtained for 50 cm of
(c) I is wrong and II is correct(d) Both I and II are correct the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a 2 Ω
34 The resistance of each arm of the Wheatstone’s bridge is resistor and the balance is obtained across 40 cm of the
10 Ω. A resistance of 10 Ω is connected in series with wire, then the internal resistance of the cell is
galvanometer, then the equivalent resistance across the (a) 0.025 Ω (b) 0.50 Ω
(c) 0.80 Ω (d) 1.00 Ω
battery will be
(a) 10 Ω (b) 15 Ω (c) 20 Ω (d) 40 Ω 40 Figure shows a simple potentiometer circuit for
measuring a small emf produced by a thermocouple.
35 Thirteen resistances each of resistance R ohm are
connected in the circuit as shown in the figure below. 2.00 Driver cell R
The effective resistance between A and B is
R R
0.600 m
P Q
R R Thermocouple
R R Galvanometer
6.00 mV
A R B
The meter wire PQ has a resistance of 5 Ω and the driver
R R cell an emf of 2.00 V. If a balance point is obtained
R 0.600 m along PQ when measuring an emf of 6.00 mV,
R
what is the value of resistance R ?
(a) 95 Ω (b) 995 Ω
R R (c) 195 Ω (d) 1995 Ω
2R 4R
(a) R Ω (b) Ω (c) Ω (d) 2R Ω
3 3
224 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY
41 A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 Ω. 45 Two cells of emfs approximately 5 V and 10 V are to be
The resistance that must be connected in series with the accurately compared using a potentiometer of length
wire and an accumulator of emf 2 V, so as to get a 400 cm.
potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is (a) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have
j CBSE AIPMT 2015 voltage of 8 V
(a) 32 Ω (b) 40 Ω (b) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of
(c) 44 Ω (d) 48 Ω 15 V and R adjusted, so that the potential drop across
the wire slightly exceeds 10 V
42 A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the
(c) The first portion of 50 cm of wire itself should have a
internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used
potential drop of 10 V
across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a
(d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistances
negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire and not voltages
itself is 4 m long. When the resistance R connected
across the given cell, has values of 46 A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω gives full scale
deflection for 10 mA current. What should be the value of
(i) infinity
shunt, so that it can measure a current of 100 mA?
(ii) 9.5 Ω
The ‘balancing length’, on the potentiometer wire are (a) 11.11 Ω (b) 9.9 Ω
(c) 1.1 Ω (d) 4.4 Ω
found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively.
47 A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a
The value of internal resistance of the cell is
resistance 40.8 Ω all connected in series. If the ammeter
j CBSE AIPMT 2014
(a) 0.25 Ω
has a coil of resistance 480 Ω and a shunt of 20 Ω, then
(b) 0.95 Ω reading in the ammeter will be j CBSE AIPMT 2015
2 A metal rod of the length 10 cm and a rectangular 7 Two batteries of emf E 1 and E 2 E1
(E 2 > E 1) and internal resistances r1 r1
cross-section of 1 cm × 1/2 cm is connected to a battery
across opposite faces. The resistance will be and r2 respectively are connected
A B
in parallel as shown in figure.
(a) maximum when the battery is connected across
1 cm × 1/2 cm faces (a) The equivalent emf Eeq of the two r2
E2
(b) maximum when the battery is connected across cells is between E1 and E 2 , i.e.
10 cm × 1 cm faces E1 < Eeq < E 2
(c) maximum when the battery is connected across (b) The equivalent emf Eeq is smaller than E1
10 cm × 1/2 cm faces (c) The Eeq is given by Eeq = E1 + E 2 always
(d) same irrespective of the three faces (d) Eeq is independent of internal resistances r1 and r2
3 Each of the resistors showing in figure has resistance R. 8 A, B and C are voltmeters of
resistance R ,1.5R and 3R B
Find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
respectively as shown in the A
X Y
a b figure. When some potential C
difference is applied between X
f and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA , VB and VC ,
e h
A B g respectively. Then, j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
(a)VA = VB = VC (b)VA ≠ VB = VC
d c (c)VA = VB ≠ VC (d)VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
l2 2 σ1 σ 2 σ1 + σ 2
(a) (b)
l 5 l 1 l 3 l 1 σ1 + σ 2 2 σ1 σ 2
(a) 1 = (b) 1 = (c) 1 = (d) 1 =
l2 8 l2 3 l2 8 l2 2 σ + σ2 σ σ
(c) 1 (d) 1 2
σ1 σ 2 σ1 + σ 2
12 When a copper voltmeter is connected with a battery of
emf 12 V. 2g of copper is deposited in 30 min. If the 18 In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the
same voltmeter is connected across a 6 V battery, then galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the
the mass of copper deposited in 45 min would be resistance of ammeter will be j CBSE AIPMT 2014
1.5Ω 1.5Ω
(a) 0.6 π Ω (b) 3 Ω (c) 6 π Ω (d) 6 Ω
2µF
22 The charge following through a resistance R varies with
E F time t as Q = at − bt 2 , where a and b are positive
constants. The total heat produced in R is j
NEET 2016
3µF 6µF
a 3R a 3R a 3R a 3R
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 4 V (b) 2 V (c) 6 V (d) None of above 3b 2b b 6b
DAY TWENTY CURRENT ELECTRICITY 227
23 In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW power at 25 A battery consists of a variable number n of identical
125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute cells (having internal resistance r each) which are
is liberated (Take, ECE of chlorine is 0.367 ×10−6 kg C−1 ) connected in series. The terminals of the battery are
j CBSE AIPMT 2010 short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of
−3
. × 10 kg
(a) 176 the graphs shows the correct relationship between I
(b) 9.67 × 10− 3 kg and n ? j NEET 2018
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (d)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (d) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (c) 44 (b) 45 (b) 46 (a) 47 (a) 48 (a) 49 (a) 50 (c)
51 (a)
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (b)
SESSION 2 11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (c)
2
V2
8 When wire is bent to form a complete 13 In series, 10 = V ⇒ = 30 21 For n identical cells (series grouping),
circle, then 3R R nE n × 1.5
I = ⇒ 0.6 =
R/ 2 nr + R n × 0.5 + 20
V2
In parallel, P = = 3 × 30 = 90 W This gives, n = 10
R
A B
3 22 The internal resistance of battery is
given by
14 Resistance = 150 × 0.5 = 75 Ω
r = − 1 R = − 1 × 9
R/ 2 E 40
∆V 8 V 30
∴ I = = = 16 A
R ∆R 0.5
2 πr = R ⇒ r = 9 × 10
2π Therefore, power, = =3Ω
30
Resistance of each semi-circle P = I 2 R = (16)2 × 75 W
πR R 23 By applying kirchhoff’s loop law, we get
= πr = = = 19200 = 19.2 kW
2π 2
2
E = I(R + r )
Thus, net resistance in parallel 15 Power, P = V
R So, 50 = 4.5 (10 + r )
combination of two semi-circular
∆P 4.5 r = 50 − 45 = 5
R R R2 For small variation, × 100 % 5
× P ⇒ r = = 11
. Ω
resistances, R ′ = 2 2 = 4 = R 2∆V 4.5
R R R 4 = × 100 % = 2 × 2.5 = 5%
+ V 24 Current in the circuit,
2 2
Therefore, power would decrease E
9 When a wire is stretched, both its area by 5%. I = or E = I (R + r )
R+ r
and length changes. So, the new
resistance of wire, 16 Electric power, P = i 2 R ⇒ . = 0.2(10 + r )
21
R ′ = n2 R = 22 × 4 = 16 Ω P ⇒ r = 10.5 − 10 = 0.5Ω
∴ Current, i =
R
10 6Ω 25 Current, I = E
For resistance of 9 Ω, R+ r
I1 6Ω 36 E
i1 = = 4 = 2A 2= …(i)
12Ω
9 2+ r
I2
i × R 2× 9 E
and i2 = 1 = =3A and 0.5 = …(ii)
6 6 9+ r
Q I = i1 + i2 = 2 + 3 = 5A
On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
So, V2 = IR2 = 5 × 2 = 10 V 2 9+ r 9+ r
= ⇒4 = ⇒3r = 1
10 V 17 Since, battery supplies constant emf. 0.5 2 + r 2+ r
6 × 12 6 × 12 V2 1 1
∴ R= = = 4Ω So, power, P = or Power ∝ ⇒ r = Ω
6 + 12 18 R R 3
Total resistance, So, R should be minimum to generate
26 For maximum power, external
Req = 6 + 4 = 10 Ω maximum heat. In option (c), resistance
resistance = internal resistance
V 10 would be minimum. So, heat generated
∴ Current, I = = = 1A would be maximum. 2Ω = 2Ω
R 10
The current in 12 Ω resistor is 18 ∴ Average current, 27 At the node A, I x + 07
. + 03
. = 2.2
R1 6 50 + 100 + 50 200 i.e. I x = 1.2 A
I2 = I =1× I = = mA
R1 + R2 6 + 12 3 3
m 3m m At the node B, 2.2 A enters the node,
1 z= = =
⇒ I2 = Q while the other three currents leave the
3 I t 200 × 10−3 × 30 2
node. The unknown current at B is
The potential difference in 12 Ω 2.2 − (1.0 + 0.4) = 0.8 A
19 ∴Chemical energy reduced = VI t
resistor, Then, at the node C, 0.8 + 0.4 = I y
1 = 6 × 5 × 6 × 60 = 10800 = 1.08 × 104 J
V = I2 × R = × 12 = 4 V i.e. I y = 1.2 A
3
20 H is same, therefore t ∝ R 28 At the node A,1.8 = 1.2 + I x
11 Graph indicates that resistance 2
V i.e. I x = 0.6 A
increases with increase in temperature, Q H = t
so α and β both are positive. R Then, at the node B,
V2 H t R1 10 l x + 03
. = I = 0.6 + 03. = 0.9 A
12 H = t⇒ = = constant ∴ = =2
R V2 R R2 5
∴ t∝R 0.3 A
When the coils are connected in series, 1.2 A
R1 R2 Reff = R1 + R2 = 3R2 Ix B
Q Rp = A
R1 + R2 t 3 R2
=
t t 10 × 40 5 R2 1.8 A I
∴ tp = 1 2 = = 8 min
t 1 + t 2 10 + 40
∴ t = 15min
DAY TWENTY CURRENT ELECTRICITY 229
25 mV G 25 mV
across 10 cm × 1 cm faces, then 5 Power, Q = V t or Q = P ∝ 1
So that, S ≈ ⋅ = l = 1 / 2 cm, A = 10 × 1 cm2 , R t R
G i 25 PP RQ
= 0.001 Ω ρ × 1/2 ⇒ = >1
R2 = PQ RP
10 × 1
49 Potential, V = I g G ⇒ nV = I g (G + R ) ρ
= Ω ∴ R P < RQ
On dividing, R = (n − 1) G 20
6 Net resistance of the circuit
50 The circuit is as shown in figure. (c) When the battery is connected = r1 + r2 + R
20 kΩ across 10 cm × 1/2 cm faces, then Net emf in series = E + E = 2E
V
R l = 1 cm, A = 10 × 1 / 2 cm2 , E
100 V E
ρ× 1 ρ
R3 = = Ω
(10 × 1 / 2) 5
r2 r1 > r2
r1
3 The figure can be redrawn as follows I
110 V
Potential difference across voltmeter = 5R R/2
a b
∴ Current in the circuit
5 R
= = 0.25 × 10−3 A R/2 R/2
20 × 103 R A B R Therefore, from Ohm’s law, current in
e, f g, h the circuit,
Voltage across R1 , net emf
V1 = 110 − 5 = 105 V R/2 R/2 I=
net resistance
V 105
Hence, R = 1 = 2E
I 0.25 × 10−3 d c ⇒ I= …(i)
R/2 r1 + r2 + R
= 420 × 103 = 420 k Ω 3R/2
e,f g, h It is given that, as circuit is closed.
51 Required resistance to convert a ⇒ A B For first call, i.e. E − Ir1 = 0
R R
galvanometer into voltmeter of 30 V is E
3R/2 ⇒ I= …(ii)
V r1
given by, R = −G 3R
ig R AB =R+ + R
4 Equating Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Symbols have their usual meaning 11R E 2E
= = = r1 − r2
30 4 r1 r1 + r2 + R
= − 100 = 900 Ω
30 × 10−3
DAY TWENTY CURRENT ELECTRICITY 231
Unit Test 4
(Electrostatics and Current Electricity)
B D
5 Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed
C
3Ω 5Ω inside a cube. The total electric flux coming out of the
(a) 1 V (b) 3 V cube will be
(c) 2.5 V (d) None of these
8e 16e
(a) (b)
2 In given figure, potential difference across 5 Ω resistor is ε0 ε0
nearly 3 V, 1 Ω e
(c) (d) zero
ε0
21 Five identical plates, each of area A are joined as shown 27 Assertion (A) If the distance between parallel plates of a
in figure. The distance between the plates is d. The capacitor is halved and dielectric constant becomes
plates are connected to a potential differenceV volt. The three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
charge on plates 1 and 4 will be
Reason (R) Capacity of the capacitor does not depend
upon the nature of the material.
(a)
5
C (b)
3
C (c)
3C
(d)
10 C (a) 50 Ω (b) 100 Ω (c) 200 Ω (d) 400 Ω
3 5 10 3 43 In the circuit given. the points A, B
−1
39 A wire has linear resistance ρ (in Ωm ). Find the B and C are 70V, zero and 10V 20 Ω
resistance R between points A and B, if the side of the respectively. Then, 10 Ω
big square is d A
(a) The point D will be at a D
A potential of 60V 30 Ω
(b) The point D will be at a
C
potential of 20V
(c) Currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of
1:2:3
(d) Current in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of
B 3:2:1
ρd
(a) (b) 2 ρd
2 44 For the circuit shown, a shorting wire of negligible
(c) 2ρd (d) None of these resistance is added to the circuit between points A and
40 The equivalent resistance between the points P and Q in B. When this shorting wire is added, bulb 3 goes out.
the network given here is equal to R. Which bulbs (all identical) in the circuit are brighten?
1
A
R R
R
3
P Q E 2 B
R R
4
R
R R
46 Three infinite planes have a uniform surface charge 48 One-fourth of a sphere of radius R is removed as shown
distribution σ on its surface. All charges are fixed. On in figure. An electric field E exists parallel to the xy-plane.
each of the three infinite planes, parallel to the yz-plane Find the flux through the remaining curved part.
placed at x = − a, x = 0, and x = a, there is a uniform y
surface charge of the same density, σ. The potential
difference between A and C is E
y
A B C
+ +
45°
+
+ + + x
+ + +
+ + +
+ + + + + +
+ + +
+ + + + + +
x
+ + + + + + + + +
+ + +
+ + + + + σ+ +
+ σ +
+ +
σ + +
Z
2σ σ (a) πR 2E
(a) a (b) a
ε0 ε0 (b) 2 πR 2E
σa (c) πR 2E / 2
(c) (d) None of these
2 ε0 (d) None of the above
47 In the given arrangement of capacitors, 6 µF charge is 49 A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If φ
added to point a. Find the charge on upper capacitor be the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with
the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane
surface A in units of voltmeter will be
3 µF
B
A
2 µF 1 µF
C A
1 q q φ q
(a) 3 µC (b) 1µC (a) – φ (b) (c) (d) –φ
2 ε0 2 ε0 3 ε0
(c) 2 µC (d) 6 µC
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (a)
238 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY ONE
15 Current will flow only through the 20 The bulbs are in series. When two of the 24 Resistance of wire in terms of length
branch containing resistance R2 . bulbs burn out and the remaining 18 are and area of cross-section is given by
E 5 connected in series, the effective l
∴ I= = = 1A R=ρ
R2 + r 4+ 1 resistance will be reduced. As a result, a A
Potential difference across higher current flows through the mass
Since, volume = and
R2 = 1 × 4 = 4 V combination. Hence, the illumination density
If q be the charge on each plate of the will be more with 18 bulbs than with 20
Volume
capacitor, then bulbs. Area =
q q 2q Length
+ = 4 or =4 21 The equivalent circuit of given network
C C C l2
2q is given as, Thus, R=ρ d
or = 4 or q = 6 µC M
3 × 10−6 l12 l2 l2
1 + –– 2 ⇒ R1 : R2 : R3 = : 2 : 3
+
+– M1 M2 M3
16 In a potentiometer experiment, the emf
of a cell can be measured, if the 3+ – 2 Here, M1 : M2 : M3 = 1 : 2 : 3
potential drop along the potentiometer +–
and l1 : l2 : l3 = 3 : 2 : 1
wire is more than the emf of the cell to + – ⇒ R1 : R2 : R3 = 27 : 6 : 1
be determined. As values of emf’s of 3 + –– 4
two cells are approximately 5 V and 10 +
+– 25 Resistance of wire of length L and
V, therefore the potential drop along the diameter d is given by
5+ – 4
potentiometer wire must be more than +– L 4ρ L
10 V. Hence, option (b) is correct. R =ρ or R =
Each capacitor has a value π (d /2) 2 π d2
2 2
17 R = V = (115) Ω ε A
i.e. C= 0 Now, resistance when length is 4 L and
P 500 d
diameter 2d will be
Percentage drop in heat output when The equivalent capacitance of the ρ4L
voltage drops 110 V circuit is R′ =
2
π
110 × 110 4C = 4ε0 A / d 2d
500 − × 500
115 × 115 2
= × 100 = 8.5% Thus, the charge on the combination
500 ρ (4 L )
will be or R′ =
4q = 4ε0 AV /d π d2
18 Energy of a parallel plate capacitor is
4ρ L
given by In parallel connection total charge is ⇒ R′ = R =
1 1 ε A divided in the ratio of capacitances. π d2
U= CV 2 = 0 V 2
2 2 d Therefore, charge on first plate is q and
26 If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant
Given that, d = x fourth plate is − 2q.
K is filled in between the plates of a
1 ε A l −l
Therefore, we have U = 0 V 2 22 Here, r = 1 2 × 2 Ω condenser while charging it, the
2 x l2 potential difference between the plates
dU 1 1 dx does not change, but the capacity
Therefore, = ε0 AV 2 (−1) where, l1 = 240 cm, l2 = 120 cm
dt 2 x2 dt becomes K times. Therefore,
240 − 120 V ′ = V , C ′ = KC
dU 1 ε0 AV 2 So, r = ×2
or =− (v ) 120 ∴ Energy stored in the capacitor,
dt 2 x2
120 1 1
Potential energy decreases as or r= ×2=2Ω U ′ = C ′ V ′2 = (KC ) ( V 2 )
120 2 2
1 ε0 AV 2
=− (v ) 1 2
2 x2 = CV K = KU
23 Potential drop across battery, V = 20 V 2
dU
⇒ ∝ x −2 Thus, energy stored becomes K times.
dt Thus, current from the battery,
V 20 Surface charge density,
I= = =2A
19 Resistance of the bulb is R 10 q ′ C ′ V ′ KCV q
σ ′= = = =K =K σ
R1 = V 2 /P = 60 × 60/120 = 30 Ω A A A A
E = 120 V, r = 10 W
R1 = 30 Ω R=? 27 The capacitance of a capacitor,
Kε 0 A K
C = ∝
d d
I
L C1 K d K d /2 1
Hence, = 1 × 2 = 1 × =
50 W, 100 V C2 d1 K2 d 3K 6
120 V
Current through each lamp is given by or C2 = 6 C1
Current through the bulb is P 50
IL = = ⇒ I L = 0.5 A Q
I = P / V = 120 / 60 = 2 A V1 100 Again, capacity of a capacitor C =
V
120
I= = 2, R + R1 = 60 Since, total current from battery is 2 A
R + R1 Therefore, capacity of a capacitor does
and each lamp requires 0.5 A, therefore not depend upon the nature of the
R = 60 − R1 = 60 − 30 = 30 Ω maximum 4 lamps can be connected. material.
240 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY ONE
Magnetic Effects
of Current
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Concept of Magnetic Field u Cyclotron
u Biot-Savart’s Law u Magnetic Force on a Current Carrying Conductor
u Ampere’s Circuital Law u Current loop as a Magnetic Dipole
u Force on a Moving Charge in Uniform u Torque
Magnetic Field and Electric Field u Moving Coil Galvanometer
Oersted’s Experiment
A magnetic field is established around a current carrying conductor just as it occurs
around a magnet.
+– K +– K – + K
Conducting
wire
A B A B A S B
S N
N
PREP
No current, key is open When key is pressed,
needle suffers deflection
When key is pressed, it suffers
deflection in opposite direction
MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
µ I
B= 0
Current Loop 2 πr
l
If there is a circular coil of radius R and N number of turns, l
When the wire XY is of infinite length, but the point P lies
carrying a current I through the turns, then magnetic field near the end X or Y, then φ1 = 0 ° and φ2 = 90 ° and hence,
at the centre of coil is given by µ I
B= 0
µ NI 4πr
B= 0
2R l
When point P lies on axial position of current carrying
l
If there is a circular arc of wire R conductor, then magnetic field at P,
subtending an angle θ at the centre B = 0.
of arc, then the magnetic field at O θ I l
When wire is of infinite length, then magnetic field near
the centre point the end will be half, that of at the perpendicular bisector.
R
µ I θ
B= 0 2. Magnetic Field due to a Thick (Cylindrical) Wire
2R 2π
l
At a point O situated at a distance Magnetic field at a point
r from centre of a current outside the wire
carrying circular coil along its
I R µ I
B = 0 , where r is the B
axial line. O P 2 πr r P
I
The magnetic field is distance of given point
from centre of wire and I
µ 0 NIR2
B = r r > R.
2(R2 + r 2 )3 /2 R
Circular current l
Magnetic field at a point Thick cylindrical wire
If r >> R, then at a point along the carrying loop
inside the wire at a
µ NIR2 distance r from centre of wire (r < R) is
axial line, B = 0 3
2r µ I r
B= 0 ⋅ 2
2π R
Ampere’s Circuital Law l
Magnetic field inside a hollow current carrying
conductor is zero.
The line integral of the magnetic
in
field B around any closed path is
equal to µ 0 times the net current I
3. Magnetic Field due to a Solenoid
B
threading through the area dI
A current carrying
i2
enclosed by the closed path. solenoid behaves as a bar
Mathematically, ∫ B ⋅ dl = µ 0 ΣI i1
i3 magnet. The face, where
in current is flowing
Now, consider the diagram above. clockwise behaves as
Illustration of the
Here, ∑ I = i 1 + i2 − i3 Ampere’s circuital law South pole and the face,
Hence, ∫ B ⋅ dl = µ 0 ⋅ (i 1 + i2 − i3 ) where current is seen (a) (b)
flowing anti-clockwise,
behaves as North pole.
Applications of Ampere’s law For such a solenoid, the magnetic field inside it is uniform
and directed axially.
1. Magnetic field due to Straight Current l
For a solenoid coil of infinite length at a point on its
Carrying Wire axial line, the magnetic field, B = µ 0nI
X
The magnetic field due to a current where, n is number of turns per unit length.
carrying wire of finite length at a I
1
point P situated at a normal distance φ2
l
At the end of solenoid, B = µ 0nI
2
r is r φ1
P l
At the end field is half of at the centre, this is called
µ I end effect.
B = 0 (sin φ1 + sin φ2 )
4πr
Y
l
If point P lies symmetrically on the Straight current
4. Toroidal Solenoids
perpendicular bisector of wire XY, carrying wire For a toroid (i.e. a ring shaped closed solenoid) magnetic
then φ1 = φ2 = φ (say) and hence field at any point within the core of toroid B = µ 0nI ,
µ I
B = 0 ⋅ 2 sin φ = µ 0I sin φ where n =
N
, R = radius of toroid.
4πr 2 πr 2πR
244 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY TWO
N S observation
µ 0 2I µ 0 2I π
14 A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are (a) [ 2 + π] (b) 2 +
acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an 4π r 4 π r 4
µ I µ I π
electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is (c) 0 [ 2 + π] (d) 0 2 +
4π r 4 π r 4
pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron
(a) speed will decrease j CBSE AIPMT 2011
21 The magnetic field due to a straight conductor of uniform
(b) speed will increase cross-section of radius a and carrying a steady current is
(c) will turn towards left of direction of motion
(d) will turn towards right of direction of motion
represented by
25 An irregular loop carrying current 5 A is placed in a 31 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a
uniform magnetic field B = 0.5 T, as such straight circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre
segment AB of length 10 cm is out of magnetic field. The of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n
magnitude and the direction of the magnetic force acting turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n
on the loop are turns will be j NEET 2016
× × × × × × × × × (a) nB (b) n 2B
A B
× × × × × × × × × (c) 2nB (d) 2n 2B
× × × × × × C× × ×
32 A rectangular loop carrying a current I is situated near a
× × × × × × × × ×
long straight wire, such that the wire is parallel to one of
× × × × × × × × ×
the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a
× × × × × × × × ×
B steady current I is established in the wire as shown in the
× × × × × × × × ×
figure, the loop will j WB JEE 2013
× × × × × × × × × I
(a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(a) ON and unlike parallel to BC
(b) move away from the wire
(b) 0.25 N and unlike parallel to BC
(c) 0.25 N and like parallel to BC (c) move towards the wire I
(d) None of the above (d) remain stationary
26 An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform 33 An α-particle describes a circular path of radius r in a
speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of magnetic field B. What will be the radius of the circular
the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to path described by the proton of same energy in the
B v v B same magnetic field ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) r
v B B v (a) (b) r (c) 2 (d) 2r
2
27 An electron is revolving around a proton in a circular
path of diameter 0.1 nm. It produces a magnetic field
34 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a
charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with
4 W m −2 on the proton. What is the angular speed of the
constant speed v. The time period of the motion
electron?
(a) depends on v are not on R
(a) 1.4 × 1016 rad s −1 (b) 2.2 × 106 rad s −1
(b) depends on both R and v
(c) 6.4 × 1016 rad s −1 (d) 8.8 × 1016 rad s −1
(c) is independent on both R and v
28 A beam of electrons passes undeflected through (d) depends on R and not on v
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If 35 A 250 turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width
the electric field is switched OFF and the same magnetic 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 µA and subjected to a
field is maintained, the electrons move magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating
(a) in an elliptical orbit (b) in a circular orbit the coil by 180° against the torque is j
NEET 2017
(c) along a parabolic path (d) along a straight line (a) 9.1 µJ (b) 4.55 µJ (c) 2.3 µJ (d) 1.5 µJ
29 A square conducting loop of side length L carries a 1
36 If a shunt of th of the coil resistance is applied to a
current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is 10
(a) independent of L (b) proportional to L2 moving coil galvanometer, its sensitivity becomes
(c) inversely proportional to L (d) linearly proportional to L 1
(a) 10 fold (b) fold
30 Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are 10
1
placed at right angle to each other, with one above other (c) 11 fold (d) fold
such that O is their common point for the two. The wires 11
carry I1 and I 2 currents, respectively. Point P is lying at 37 A thin ring of radius R metre has charge q coulomb
distance d from O along a direction perpendicular to the uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates about its axis with
plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the a constant frequency of f revolution/s. The value of
point P will be j
CBSE AIPMT 2014 magnetic induction in Wb m −2 at the centre of the ring is
µ0 I1 µ0 j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
(a) (b) (I1 + I 2 )
2 πd I2 2 πd µ qf µ q µ q µ qf
(a) 0 (b) 0 (c) 0 (d) 0
µ µ 2 πR 2 π fR 2f R 2R
(c) 0 (I12 − I 22 ) (d) 0 (I12 + I 22 )1/ 2
2 πd 2 πd
DAY TWENTY TWO MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT 249
ma0 2ma0 ma0 2ma0 13 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence
(a) West, up (b) West, down
e ev 0 e ev 0 of a transverse magnetic field of 3. 57 × 10−2 T. If the value
(c)
ma0
East,
3ma0
up (d)
ma0
East,
3ma0
down . × 1011 C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the
of e/m is176
e ev 0 e ev 0 electron is j NEET 2016
9 Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire, (a) 1 GHz (b) 100 MHz (c) 62.8 MHz (d) 6.28 MHz
but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. 14 An alternating electric field of frequency ν, is applied
What is the ratio of potential difference applied across across the dees (radius = R) of a cyclotron, i.e. being
them, so that the magnetic field at their centres is the used to accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating
same? magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 2 energy (K ) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given
10 Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is by j CBSE AIPMT 2012
mν
5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection (a) B = and K = 2mπ 2 ν2R 2
e
per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of 2 π mν
the galvanometer is j NEET 2018 (b) B = and K = m 2 πνR 2
e
(a) 250 Ω (b) 25 Ω 2 π mν
(c) B = and K = 2mπ 2 ν2R 2
(c) 40 Ω (d) 500 Ω e
mν
(d) B = and K = m 2 πνR 2
11 An arrangement of three parallel d C e
B
straight wires placed perpendicular 15 A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E)
90°
to plane of paper carrying same and magnetic fields (B). The fields are adjusted such that
current I along the same direction is d the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the
shown in figure. Magnitude of force cathode rays is given by
per unit length on the middle wire B j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
A
is given by j
NEET 2017 B2 2VB 2 2VE 2 E2
µ0I2 2µ 0 I 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) 2VE 2 E2 B2 2VB 2
2 πd πd
16 A closed loop PQRS carrying a Q
2µ 0 I 2 µ0I2
(c) (d)
πd 2 πd current is placed in a uniform
magnetic field. If the magnetic P
12 A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. forces on segments PS , SR and F3
The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively F1
The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B′ at radial and are in the plane of the paper
a
distances and 2 a respectively, from the axis of the and along the directions shown S R
2 in figure, the force on the F2
wire is j
NEET 2016 segment QP is
1
(a) (b) 1 (a) F3 − F1 − F2 (b) (F3 − F1)2 + F22
2
(c) 4 (d)
1 (c) (F3 − F1)2 − F22 (d) F3 − F1 + F2
4
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (d) 19 (d) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (d) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (d)
31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (d)
SESSION 2 1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (b)
DAY TWENTY TWO MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT 251
22 The magnetic force in a uniform field is 28 If both electric and magnetic fields are 32 Wires placed close to each other carry
F = I ( l × B) present and perpendicular to each current in the same direction and hence
I = 4 i$ + 4 $j + 4 k$ other; and the particle is moving attract. Wires placed far apart carry
perpendicular to both of them with current in opposite direction and hence
B = (1.2 $i + 2 $j ) × 10−4 T repel each other. But here attraction is
Fe = F m . In this situation, E ≠ 0 and
F = 8 × 10−4 [( i$ + $j + k$ ) B ≠ 0. strong and repulsion is weak. So, loop
× (1 .2 i$ + 2 $j )] N Fe moves towards the wire.
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get For the smaller loop, m(2πRν)
∴ Radius, R =
I 2 eB
RG = S × π
…(iii) a I a
VS B × 2π = µ 0 × 2πmν
2 πa2 2 Magnetic field, B =
Here, IS = 5div/mA = 5 × 10−3 div/A 1 µ 0I e
= µ 0I × = 1
and VS = 20 div/V 4 4 Kinetic energy, K = m(2 πRν)2
µ I a 2
Substituting the given values in Eq. (iii), ⇒ B I = 0 , at distance from the
5 × 103 4 πa 2 = 2 mπ2 ν2 R2
we get RG = = 250
20 axis of the wire.
15 As the electron beam is not deflected,
Similarly, for bigger amperian loop,
∴ The resistance of the galvanometer is then
B ′ × 2 π (2a) = µ 0 I [total current
250 Ω. F m = Fe or Bev = Ee
enclosed by Amperian loop is 2]
11 As force on wire B due to A and C are µ I E
⇒ B′ = 0 , or v = …(i)
attractive, so we have following 4 πa B
condition At distance 2a from the axis of the wire. As the electron moves from cathode to
F B µ I 4 πa anode, its potential energy at the cathode
B So, ratio of, = 0 × =1
B ′ 4 πa µ 0 I appears as its kinetic energy at the
anode. If V is the potential difference
13 As we know that, radius of a charged between the anode and cathode, then
particle in a magnetic field B is given by potential energy of the electron at
mv cathode = eV . Also, kinetic energy of the
r = K (i)
qB 1
electron at anode = mv 2 .
F Resultant where, r = charge on the particle 2
µ I2 and v = speed of the particle. According to law of conservation of
F = 0 energy,
2 πd ∴The time taken to complete the circle,
1
Resultant force on T =
2πr mv 2 = eV
v 2
B= F12 + F22 2eV
⇒
T
=
m
[from Eq. (i)] or v = …(ii)
µ 0 I2 2π qB m
= 2F = 2×
2 πd 2 π qB From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
∴ ω= = 2eV E
µ 0 I2 T m =
=
2 πd e m B
Q q = e and = 1.76 × 1011 C/kg
m e E2
12 Consider two amperian loops of radius or =
a B = 3.57 × 10−2 T m 2VB 2
and 2a as shown in the figure.
2 16 As the net force on closed loop is equal
⇒
2π eB
= f =
1 e Q 1 = f to zero. So, force on QP will be equal
B
T m 2π m T and opposite to sum of forces on other
1 −2 three sides.
a/2 = × 1.76 × 10 × 3.57 × 10
11
2π F1 F3
= 1.0 × 109 Hz = 1 GHz
2a
14 Frequency, ν = eB
2 πm
1 mν
KE = mν2 and radius R =
2 eB F2
Applying Ampere’s circuital law for
πR 2 πR So, from vector laws,
these loops, we get Here, velocity, v = = = 2 πRν
∫ B ⋅ dL = µ 0 Ienclosed T /2 T FQP = (F3 − F1 )2 + F22
DAY TWENTY THREE
Magnetism
Learning & Revision for the Day
A naturally occurring ore of iron, magnet attracts small piece of iron towards it. The
phenomenon of attraction of small bits of iron, steel, cobalt, nickel, etc., towards the ore
is called magnetism.
M = iA = −
evr
2
eh
= − n
2πm
nh
Q mvr = 2π
PREP
MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
Magnetic Field due to a Bar Magnet u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
The magnetic field in free space, at a point having distance r from the given bar magnet u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
(or magnetic dipole) is calculated in two conditions, along axial line and along u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
equatorial line. (Without referring Explanations)
µ 2 Mr
l
Along axial line B = 0 2
4π (r − l 2 )2 u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
and the direction of B is the same as the direction of M. For a short dipole (or for a far
away point on the axis) when r > > l , the above relation is simplified as In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
µ 2M Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
B= 0 3 Level should be above 75.
4π r
256 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY THREE
l
Along the equatorial line l
Potential energy of a magnetic dipole placed in a uniform
µ M magnetic field, is given by UB = − M ⋅ B = − MB cos θ
B= 0 2
4π (r + l 2 )3 / 2 l
The magnetic compass (needle) of magnetic moment M
µ M and moment of inertia I oscillate in the magnetic field B.
If r > > l , the relation is modified as, B = 0 3 Then, its time-period is
4π r
T = 2 π I / MB
However, along the equatorial line, the direction of B is
opposite to that of M. l
Behaviour of a magnetic dipole in a magnetic field, is
In general, in a direction making an angle θ with the similar to the behaviour of an electric dipole in an electric
magnetic axis, the magnetic field is given by 1 µ
field. However, the constant is replaced by 0 .
µ M 4πε 0 4π
B = 0 3 (3 cos2 θ + 1)
4π r l
If a magnetic dipole is in the form of a wire or a thin rod,
In these relations, µ 0 is a constant having a value of when bent, its magnetic dipole moment M changes because
4π × 10 −7 T mA −1 and it is known as the magnetic the separation between its poles has changed.
permeability of free space.
For solenoid B = µ 0ni The Earth’s Magnetism
where, n is number of turns per unit length of solenoid and i The earth is a natural source of magnetic field, a magnetic
the current through it. field is always present everywhere near the surface of the
earth.
A freely suspended magnet always points in the north-south
Magnetic Field Lines direction even in the absence of any other magnet. This
The magnetic field lines is defined as the path along which suggests that the earth itself behaves as a magnet which
the compass needles are aligned. They are used to represent causes a freely suspended magnet (or magnetic needle) to
magnetic field in a region. point always in a particular direction : north and south. The
l
Magnetic field lines are closed continuous curves. shape of earth’s magnetic field resembles that of a bar magnet
of length one-fifth of earth’s diameter buried at its centre.
l
Tangent drawn at any point on magnetic field lines gives
the direction of magnetic field at that point. Magnetic field of earth is shown in the figure given below.
l
Two magnetic field lines cannot intersect each other. Geographical L
North
l
Outside a magnet, they are directed from north to south Magnetic P α O
pole and inside a magnet they are directed from south to North H δ
north.
Geographical S
B
meridian
Magnetic N
meridian M V
S N BE
Q R
6 The correct value of the dip angle at a place is 45°. The 14 The permeability of the paramagnetic substance is
dip circle is rotated through 45° out of the magnetic (a) very large (b) small, but more than 1
meridian. The apparent angle of dip will be (c) less than 1 (d) negative
(a) tan−1 ( 2 ) (b) tan−1
1
(d) tan−1
−1 1 15 What is the relation between permeability µ, permeability
(c) tan (2 )
2 2
of free space µ 0 and susceptibility χ m ?
7 A uniform magnetic field parallel to the plane of paper, (a) µ = µ 0 (1 + χm )
existed in space initially directed from left to right. When (b) µ = µ 0 (1 − χm )
a bar of soft iron is placed in the field parallel to it, the (c) µ 0 = µ (1 + χm )
lines of force passing through it will be represented by (d) µ 0 = µ (1 − χm )
figure 16 Hysteresis cycle for the material of permanent magnet
should be
(a)high and high (b) high and thin
(a) (b) (c)low and high (d) low and thin
17 Electromagnets are made of soft iron, because soft iron
has j CBSE AIPMT 2010
(a) low retentivity and high coercive force
(c) (d) (b) high retentivity and high coercive force
(c) low retentivity and low coercive force
(d) high retentivity and low coercive force
8 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the North or 18 There are four light weight rod samples A, B, C and D
the South pole of a bar magnet, it is j
CBSE AIPMT 2009 separately suspended by thread. A bar magnet is slowly
(a) repelled by both the poles brought near each sample and the following observations
(b) repelled by the North pole and attracted by the South are noted
pole (i) A is feebly repelled
(c) attracted by the North pole and repelled by the South (ii) B is feebly attracted
pole (iii) C is strongly attracted
(d) attracted by both the poles (iv) D remains unaffected
9 Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room Which one of the following is true? j
CBSE AIPMT 2011
temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond (a) C is of a diamagnetic material
Curie temperature, then it will show (b) D is of a ferromagnetic material
(a) paramagnetism (b) anti-ferromagnetism (c) A is of a non-magnetic material
(c) no magnetic property (d) diamagnetism (d) B is of a paramagnetic material
21 A curve between magnetic moment and temperature of 27 The period of oscillation of a magnet in a vibration
magnet is magnetometer is 8s. The period of oscillation of magnet
whose magnetic moment is four times that of the first
M M
magnet is
(a) (a) 1 s (b) 4 s (c) 8 s (d) 16 s
(b)
28 Two identiucal bar magnets each of dipole
moment pm and length l are perpendicular N S
T T N
to each other as shown in the figure. The
M M dipole moment of the combination is
(c) (d) (a) 2 pm (b) 2 pm
pm pm S
(c) (d)
2 2
T T 29 A thin bar magnet vibrates in the horizontal plane with a
period of 8 s. The magnet is cut into two halves
22 A tangent galvanometer of reduction factor 1A is placed
perpendicular to magnetic axis. Then, the period of
with the plane of its coil parallel to the magnetic meridian,
vibration of each half is approximately
when a current of 1A is passed through it, the deflection
(a) 4 s (b) 2 s
produced is
(c) 1 s (d) 0.5 s
(a) 45° (b) zero
(c) 30° (d) 60° 30 If the magnet is suspended at an angle 30° to the
magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle of 60°
23 How much work is done to rotate a magnet of dipole
with the horizontal. What is the true dip?
moment pm in a magnetic field B through 180°?
(a) tan−1 (3) (b) tan−1 (3/2)
B
(a) pm (b) pm B (c) tan−1 (2/3) (d) tan−1 (1/3)
2
B 31 A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side
(c) 3 pm (d) 2pm B
2 0.02 m is suspended from its vertex, such that it is
24 A current loop in a magnetic field j
NEET 2013 hanging in a vertical plane between the pole pieces of
permanent magnet producing a uniform field of
(a) experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or
non-uniform in all orientations 5 × 10−2 T. If a current of 0.1 A is passed through the coil,
(b) can be in equilibrium in one orientation what is the torque acting on it?
(c) can be equilibrium in two orientations, both the (a) 5 3 × 10−7 N-m (b) 5 3 × 10−10 N-m
3
equilibrium states are unstable (c) × 10−7 N-m (d) None of these
(d) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable, 5
while the other is unstable 32 A North pole of 40 A-m is placed 20 cm apart from a
25 A compass needle which is allowed to move in a South pole of 80 A-m. Calculate the distance of a point
horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It form the South pole on the line joining, the two poles
j
CBSE AIPMT 2012 where the resultant field due to these poles is zero
(a) will become rigid showing no movement (a) 8.2 cm towards North pole
(b) will stay in any position (b) 8.2 cm away from North pole
(c) will stay in North-South direction only (c) 48.2 cm towards North pole
(d) will stay in East-West direction only (d) 48.2 cm away from North pole
26 Two bar magnets of the same mass, same length and 33 A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in an
breadth, but having magnetic moments M and 2M are arbitrary orientation in an external magnetic field B. The
joined together pole to pole and suspended by a string. work done to rotate the loop by 30° about an axis
The time period of assembly in a magnetic field of perpendicular to its plane, is
strength B is 3s. If now the polarity of one of the magnet MB
(a) MB (b) 3
is reversed and the combination is again made to 2
MB
oscillate in the same field, then the time of oscillation is (c) (d) zero
2
(a) 3 s (b) 3 3s (c) 3 s (d) 6 s
DAY TWENTY THREE MAGNETISM 261
N
2 N
S 30° 60°
S N S N
(a)0 (b) 215 × 10−5 T 3 4
(c)2.15 × 10−5 T (d) 0.215 T (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
4 Two tangent galvanometer having coils of the same 9 A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment M
radius are connected in series. A current flowing in is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new
them, produces deflection of 60° and 45°, respectively. magnetic dipole moment will be j
NEET 2013
The ratio of the number of turns in the coils is
4 ( 3 + 1) 3 ( 3 + 1)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 1 1 ( 3 − 1)
11 A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the 15 Two small magnets A and B of dipole BH
poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the moments M 0 and 2M 0 respectively, are
electromagnet is switched ON, then the diamagnetic rod fixed perpendicular to each other with
is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence, their North poles in contact. The B
A α
the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work combination is placed on a floating β
required to do this comes from j NEET 2018
body, so as to move freely in earth’s S1 S2
(a) the lattice structure of the material of the rod magnetic field, the value of α is
(b) the magnetic field
(b) sin−1
1
(c) the current source (a) tan−1 (2)
2
(d) the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic
(c) cos−1
1
field (d) 20°
2
12 Two magnets placed one above the other oscillate with a
16 A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in
period of 17 s. If one of them is reversed the time period
the XY -plane with centre at the origin. Half of the loop
becomes 8 s. The ratio of their magnetic moment is
with x > 0 is now bent, so that it now lies in theYZ -plane.
nearest to
8 9 1 1 (a)The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b)The magnetic moment does not change
17 14 4 2
(c)The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z >> R increases
13 A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform (d)The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z >> R unchanged
horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The
17 A bar magnet is suspended with unspun thread. It lies in
energy required to rotate it by 60° is W . Now the torque
the magnetic meridian. The upper end of the thread is
required to keep the magnet in this new position is
turned through 150°. It turns the magnet by 30° with the
j
NEET 2016
magnetic meridian. Through what angle should the upper
W 3W 2W end of the thread be turned to rotate the magnet through
(a) (b) 3W (c) (d)
3 2 3 90°?
14 A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 × 104 JT −1 (a) 360° (b) 330° (c) 300° (d) 270°
is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A horizontal
18 If θ1 and θ 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in
magnetic field B = 6 × 10−4 T exists in the space. The work
two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the
done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction parallel
true angle of dip θ is given by j
NEET 2017
to the field to a direction 60° from the field is
(a) cot 2 θ = cot 2 θ1 + cot 2 θ2 (b) tan2 θ = tan2 θ1 + tan2 θ2
j
CBSE AIPMT 2009 (c) cot 2 θ = cot 2 θ1 − cot 2 θ2 (d) tan2 θ = tan2 θ1 − tan2 θ2
(a) 0.6 J (b) 12 J (c) 6 J (d) 2 J
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (d) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (c) 33 (d)
SESSION 2 1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (a)
DAY TWENTY THREE MAGNETISM 263
33 Let magnetic moment M of current loop 25/ 4 11 As the source of current is switched ON,
or T ′ = = 2s
be making an angle α with the direction 21 / 4 a magnetic field sets up in between the
of B. When a current circular loop is poles of the electromagnet.
rotated in a magnetic field by 30° about 7 Time period in vibration magnetometer, As we know that a diamagnetic
an axis perpendicular to its plane, there I 1 substance when placed in a magnetic
T = 2π ⇒T ∝
is no change in the angle α between M × BH BH field acquires a feeble magnetism
magnetic moment M and magnetic field opposite to the direction of magnetic
T1 (B H )2 2 18
B. Therefore, θ1 = α, θ2 = α. ⇒ = ⇒ = field.
T2 (B H )1 T2 24
Also, in the presences of the field
Work done, W = MB (cos θ1 − cos θ2 ) T = 2.3s ≈ 2s (non-uniform), these substances are
= MB(cos α − cos α) = 0 attracted towards the weaker field, i.e.
8 (1) M1 = m √2 they move from stronger to weaker
SESSION 2 magnetic field.
1 At magnetic poles, the angle of dip Due to these reasons, the rod is repelled
m by the field produced to the current
is 90°.
source. Hence, it is pushed up, out of
2 B = B H tanθ horizontal field and gains gravitational
m
µ 0 2M potential energy.
= 0.4 × 10−4 tan 60°
4π r3 (2) m 1 /2
⇒ M2 = 0 I1 + I2
µ 0M 12 T1 = 2 π
= 0.4 × 10−4 tan 60° m −
2 π (0.2)3 m1
( p p m2 ) B
(3) 1 /2
0.4 × 2 π × (0.2)3 × (10−4 ) × 3 l1 + l2
⇒M = m and T2 = 2 π
µ0 (p m1 + p m2 ) B
= 277
. A-m2 30° T2 p m1 + p m2
m Therefore, 1 = .
3 Magnetic field due to magnet 1, T22 p m1 − p m2
µ 0 2M1 M3 = m (1 + cos 30° ) 2
B1 = This gives,
4 π r13 T12 − T22 (17)2 − (8)2
3 =
p m2
=
−7 =m 1 + 2
10 ×2×2 2 T12 + T22 p m1 (17)2 + (8)2
=
3
(03
. ) 225 9
= m 2+ 3 = ≡
B1 = 1.48 × 10−5 T 353 14
DAY TWENTY THREE MAGNETISM 265
13 QWork done in rotating the magnet, M1 sin α = M2 sin(90 − α ) 18 Let B H and B V be the horizontal and
W = MB (cos θ 0 − cos θ) [Qα + β = 90°] vertical component of earth’s magnetic
where, M = magnetic moment of M1 sin α = M2 cos α field B.
the magnet M 0 sin α = 2M 0 cos α
Plane 1 Magnetic meridian
and B = magnetic field. ⇒ tanα = 2
W = MB (cos 0° − cos 60° ) α = tan −1 (2)
1 MB
= MB 1 − = 16 The magnetic moment, M = I × πR2 . It
2 2
acts perpendicular to the loop along BH sin θ
∴ MB = 2W …(i)
θ′
z-direction. When half of the current
°–
Torque on a magnet in this position is
90
loop is bent in YZ-plane, then magnetic
given by θ1
moment due to half current loop in
τ = M×B
XY-plane, M1 = I ( πR2 / 2) acting along BH cos θ Plane 2
= MB ⋅ sin θ = 2W ⋅ sin 60°
z-direction. B B
[from Eq. (i)] tan θ = V ⇒ cot θ = H ...(i)
3 Magnetic moment due to half current BH BV
= 2W = 3W loop in YZ-plane, M2 = I ( πR2 / 2) along
2 Let planes 1 and 2 are mutually
x-direction. perpendicular planes making angle θ and
14 When magnetic dipole is rotated from (90° − θ) with magnetic meridian. The
initial position θ1 to final position θ2 , Effective magnetic moment due to entire
vertical component of earth’s magnetic
then work done bent current loop,
field remain same in two plane, but
= MB(cos θ1 − cos θ2 ) M′ = M12 + M22 effective horizontal components in the
Given, θ1 = 0°, θ2 = 60° two planes is given by
= (IπR2 / 2)2 + (IπR2 / 2)2
B1 = B H cos θ′ ...(ii)
Magnetic moment, M = 2 × 10 J/T 4
IπR2 and B2 = B H sin θ′ ...(iii)
−4 = 2< M
Magnetic field, B = 6 × 10 T 2 B BV
Then, tan θ1 = V =
1 i.e. Magnetic moment diminishes. B1 B H cos θ′
So, W = MB 1 −
2 17 The twist in the thread is B cos θ′
cot θ1 = H ...(iv)
150° − 30° = 120°. BV
Qcos 0° = 1
and cos 60° = 1 / 2 Restoring torque, B BV
Similarly, ⇒ tan θ2 = V =
2 × 10 × 6 × 10
4 −4 B B2 B H sin θ′
= = 6J p m B sin 30° = p m ⋅
2 B sin θ′
2 ⇒ cot θ2 = H ...(v)
p mB BV
15 For equilibrium, Hence, ∝ 120° …(i)
2 From Eqs. (iv) and Eq. (v), we get
M1 sin α = M2 sin β
[∴ α + β = 90° ]
In the second case, let the thread be ⇒ cot2 θ1 + cot2 θ2
turned through angle θ. Then, twist in B 2H cos 2 θ′
B 2 sin2 θ′
M2
BH
M1 the thread (θ − 90°). And restoring = + H
2
BV B 2V
torque is
β α ⇒ cot θ1 + cot θ2
2 2
p m B sin 90° = p m B .
Therefore, p m B ∝ (θ − 90° ) …(ii) B2
A α B = H (cos 2 θ′ + sin2 θ′ )
β From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get B 2V
θ = 330° ⇒ cot θ1 + cot2 θ2 = cot2 θ
2
DAY TWENTY FOUR
Electromagnetic
Induction
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Magnetic Flux ( φB ) u Motional Emf u Mutual Induction
u Faraday’s Law of u Rotational Emf u Combination of Inductors
Electromagnetic Induction u Self-Induction u Eddy Currents
u Lenz’s Law
Magnetic Flux ( φB )
ds
The flux associated with a magnetic field is defined in a similar B
manner to that used to define electric flux. Consider an element
θ
of area ds on an arbitrary shaped surface as shown in figure. If
the magnetic field at this element is B, the magnetic flux
through the element is,
dφB = B ⋅ ds = Bds cos θ
Here, ds is a vector that is perpendicular to the surface and has a
magnitude equal to the area ds and θ is the angle between B and ds at that element.
Magnetic flux is a scalar quantity. Outward magnetic flux is taken as positive
(i.e. θ < 90 °) and inward flux is taken as negative (i.e. θ > 90 °).
SI unit of magnetic flux is 1 weber (1 Wb).
where, 1 Wb = 1 T × 1 m2 = 1 T-m2
Dimensional formula of magnetic flux is [ML2 T−2 A−1 ] . PREP
MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction
u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
This law states that, the induced emf in a closed loop equals the negative of the time rate
of change of magnetic flux through the loop. u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
No. of Correct Questions (z)—
dφ B
u
Motional Emf + –
Let a conducting rod of length l be moving with a uniform K Rh
velocity v perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B, an l
Inductance is the inherent property of electrical circuits and
induced emf is set up.
is known as the electrical inertia.
X X X X + X X X X
l
l
An inductor is said to be an ideal inductor if its resistance is
X X X X v X X X X
zero.
X X X X – X X X X l
An inductor does not oppose current but opposes changes
The magnitude of the induced emf will be (growth or decay of current) in the circuit.
|e | = B l v
l
If the rod is moving such that it makes an angle θ with the Self-Inductance
direction of the magnetic field, then Flux linked with the coil is
| e| = B l v sin θ Nφ B ∝ I or Nφ B = LI,
Hence, for the motion parallel to B, the induced emf where the constant L is known as the coefficient of
is zero. self-induction or self-inductance of the given coil.
l
When a conducting rod moves horizontally, then an It may be defined as the magnetic flux linked with the coil,
induced emf is set up between its ends due to the vertical when a constant current of 1 A is passed through it.
component of the earth’s magnetic field. However, at the
Induced emf due to self-induction,
magnetic equator, induced emf will be zero, because
B V = 0. dφ dI
e=–N =–L
dt dt
l
If during landing or taking off, the wings of an aeroplane
are along the East-West direction, an induced emf is set SI unit of inductance is henry.
up across the wings (due to the effect of BH ).
Magnetic Potential Energy of an Inductor
In building, a steady current in an electric circuit, some
Motional Emf in a Loop
l
R R that inductor.
B2 l2 v 1
U = L I2
l
Magnetic force, Fm = BIl = Thus,
R 2
268 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY FOUR
Formulae for Self-Inductance For a pair of two magnetically coupled coils of self-inductances
L1 and L2 respectively, the mutual inductance,
l
For a circular coil of radius R and N turns, the
self-inductance, M 12 = M21 = M = k L1L2
1 where, k is the coupling coefficient.
L = µ0 π N2 R
2
l
For a solenoid coil having length l, total number of turns N Formulae for Mutual Inductance
and cross-sectional area A, l
Assuming the coupling coefficient k = 1 and medium to be
µ0 N2 A N a free space or air. Mutual inductance of a pair of concentric
L= = µ 0 n Al
2
where, n =
l l circular coils is
For a toroid of radius R and number of turns N, µ 0N 1N2 πr 2
M=
l
1 2R
L = µ0 N2 R
2 where, r = radius of the coil (of small radius)
l
For a square coil of side a and number of turns N, and R = radius of the coil (of larger radius).
2 2 l
For a pair of two solenoid coils, wound one over the
L= µ0 N2 a µ N N A
π other, M= 0 1 2
l
For a pair of concentric coplanar square coils,
Mutual Induction 2 2 µ 0N 1N2 a2
Mutual induction is the phenomenon due to which an emf is M=
πb
induced in a coil when the current flowing through a
neighbouring coil changes. where, a = side of the smaller coil and b = side of the larger
coil.
For a given pair of coils, mutually coupled, then according
Mutual Inductance
l
to theorem of reciprocity,
Mutual inductance of a pair of coils is defined as the magnetic M 12 = M21 = M
flux linked with one coil, when a constant current of unit
magnitude, flows through the other coil.
Mathematically, NφB2 = MI 1 Combination of Inductors
where, M is known as the mutual inductance for the given l
If two coils of self-inductances L 1 and L 2 are placed quite
pair of coils. far apart and are arranged in series, then their equivalent
Induced emf due to mutual inductance, inductance,
dφB2 dI L s = L1 + L 2
e2 = – N =–M 1
dt dt l
If the coils are placed quite close to each other, so as to
Hence, mutual inductance for a pair of coils is numerically mutually affect each other, then their equivalent inductance,
equal to the magnitude of induced emf in one coil when L s = L1 + L2 ± 2 M
current in the other coil changes at a rate of 1 As −1. Here, M has been written with ± sign depending on the fact
SI unit of mutual inductance M, is henry. whether currents in the two coils are flowing in same sense
or opposite sense.
Mutual inductance of a pair of coils is maximum, when the
two coils are wound on the same frame. However, mutual
l
If two coils of self-inductances L1 and L 2 are connected in
inductance is negligible when the two coils are oriented parallel, then equivalent inductance L p is given by
mutually perpendicular to each other (see figure). In this 1 1 1 L1L 2
= + ⇒ Lp =
context, we define a term coupling coefficient k. L p L1 L 2 L1 + L 2
S
S
Eddy Currents
P S Currents induced in the body of bulk of the conductors due to
P
charge in magnetic flux linked to them, are called the eddy
P currents. The production of eddy currents in a metallic
(a) (b) (c)
conductor leads to a loss of electric energy in the form of
Coupling coefficient is given by heat energy.
Magnetic flux linked with secondary coil Eddy currents can be minimised by taking the metal
k =
Magnetic flux developed in primary coil (generally soft iron) core in the form of a combination of thin
laminated sheets or by slotting process.
It is observed that 0 ≤ k ≤ 1.
DAY TWENTY FOUR ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 269
a
14 The current from A to B is
increasing in magnitude. What is
the direction of induced current, b d
if any in the loop as shown in A B
figure. c
(a) No current is induced (b) Clockwise current X Y
(c) Anti-clockwise current (d) Alternating current (a) abcd (b) adcb
(c) The current will reverse its direction as the
15 Three identical coils A, B and C are electron goes past the coil
placed with their planes parallel to (d) No current induced
one another. Coils A and C carry
19 A thin semi-circular conducting ring (PQR ) of radius r is
currents as shown in figure. Coils B
falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field
and C are fixed in position and coil A B C
B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed
A is moved towards B. Then,
across the ring when its speed is v, is
current
X X X X X X
induced in B is in
B
(a) clockwise current X X X X X X
Q
(b) anti-clockwise current X X X X X X
(a) (b) (a) once per revolution (b) twice per revolution
t (c) four times per revolution (d) six times per revolution
t
23 A disc of radius 0.1 m is rotating with a frequency
E E 10 rev/s in a normal magnetic field of strength 0.1 T. Net
induced emf is
(a) 2 π × 10−2 V (b) π × 10−2 V
(c) (d) π
(c) × 10−2 V (d) None of these
t t 2
24 The coefficients of self-induction of two coils are L1 and
L 2. To induce an emf of 25 V in the coils change of current
18 An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown.
of 1A has to be produced in 5 s and 50 ms, respectively.
The abcd is a coil adjacent in the path of electron. What
The ratio of their self-inductances L1 : L 2 will be
will be the direction of current, if any induced in the coil?
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 200 : 1 (c) 100 : 1 (d) 50 : 1
j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
DAY TWENTY FOUR ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 271
6 A square metal wire loop PQRS of side 10 cm and 10 The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the
resistance 1 Ω is moved with a constant velocity vc in a figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be
uniform magnetic field of induction B = 2 Wbm −2 , as j CBSE AIPMT 2011
shown in figure. The magnetic field lines are i
perpendicular to the plane of the loop (directed into the
paper). The loop is connected to net work ABCD of
resistors each of value 3 Ω. The resistance of the lead
0 t
wires SB and RD are negligible. The speed of the loop so T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
as to have a steady current of 1 mA in the loop is
j CBSE AIPMT 2010
B emf
emf
× × × ×
× ×P × × S 3Ω 3Ω
T/4 T/2 3T/2 T
3Ω
(b) 0 t
× × × × (a) 0 t
A C T/4 T/2 3T/2 T
× × × ×
× ×Q × × R 3Ω 3Ω emf emf
× × × ×
D
(a) 2 ms −1 (b) 2 × 10−2 ms −1 (d)
(c) T/4
(c) 20 ms −1 (d) 200 ms −1 0
T/2 3T/4 T
t 0 t
T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
7 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns per
metre. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns
and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with
the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a
11 In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the
constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of form of semi-circle of radius r rotates about the diameter of
the coil is10π 2 Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil the circuit with angular frequency ω. If the total resistance
during this time is j
NEET 2017 of the circuit is R, the mean power generated per rotation
(a) 32 π µC (b) 16 µC (c) 32 µC (d) 16π µC of rotation is
8 A uniform but time varying Bπr 2ω (Bπr 2ω)2
××
× ××× × × × r P (a) (b)
magnetic field B(t ) exists in a ×× × 2R 8R
× × × ×
circular region of radius a and is ×× × × × (Bπrω)2
× ×
× × × a
×× (c) (d) None of these
× 2R
directed into the plane of the × × × × ××
× × × × × ×
×
paper as shown in figure. The × × × × × 12 A loop made of straight edges has six corners at
× × × ×
magnitude of induced electric A ( 0, 0, 0), B (L , 0, 0), C (L , L , 0), D ( 0, L , 0), E ( 0, L , L ) and
field at point P at a distance r F ( 0, 0, L ). A magnetic field B = B0( $i + k$ ) T is present in the
from the centre of the circular region region. The flux passing through the loop ABCDEFA (in
(a) is zero (b) decreases as 1/ r that order) is
(c) increases as r (d) decreases as 1 / r 2 (a) B 0 L2 Wb (b) 2 B 0 L2 Wb
V V
(a) (b) B
t
T/2 T T/2 T
t v
V V
(c) (d) mgR mg B 2l 2 mgB
(a) 2 2
(b) 2 2
(c) (d)
t B l B l R mgR l 2R
T/2 t T T/2 T
DAY TWENTY FOUR ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 273
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (a)
SESSION 2 1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (d)
Alternating
Current
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Peak and RMS Values of u Quality Factor u Choke Coil
Alternating Current/Voltage u L-C Oscillatons u AC Generator
u Different Types of AC Circuits u Power in an AC Circuit u Transformer
u Series AC Circuits u Wattless Current
An alternating current is the current (or voltage) whose magnitude keeps on changing
continuously with time, between zero and a maximum value and its direction also
reverses periodically.
I0/V0
VI
t
0
T T 3T T
4 2 4
R I
0 V In pure capacitive circuit, current increases with an
π
increase in frequency and leads the voltage by (or
V = V0 sin wt 2
V π
(a) (b) (c) voltage lags behind the current by ) and is thus, given by
2
Current and voltage are in the same phase, i.e. current is π
given by I = I 0 sin ωt . I = I 0 sin ωt +
2
278 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY FIVE
ω ω
2. Series R-C Circuit ω0 ω0
Variation of I with Variation of Z with
The potential difference across a resistance in AC circuit
ω in L-C circuit ω in L-C circuit
is in phase with current and it lags in phase by 90° with
the current in the capacitor.
E = E 0 sin ωt 4. Series L-C-R Circuit
E E0
and I = 0 sin (ωt + φ) For L-C-R circuit E = E 0 sin ωt , I = sin (ωt − φ)
Z Z
2 2
1 1
where, Z = R2 + where, Z = R2 + ωL −
ωC ωC
X X − XC
Current leads the voltage by φ. and tan φ = = L
R R
−1 / ωC
and tan φ = VL
R
C R L C R VL – VC
VR
I V
VC VR φ
φ
I
V VR
VC
E = E0 sin ωt E = E0 sin ωt
VC
Phasor diagram for L-C-R
∴ V = VR2 + VC2 series circuit for XL>XC
Transformer is used to suitably increase or decrease the voltage The efficiency of a transformer is given by
in an AC circuit. Transformer which transforms strong AC at output power Vs I s
low voltage into a weaker current at high alternating voltage is η= =
input power V p I p
called a step-up transformer. A step-down transformer
transforms weak current at a higher alternating voltage into a For an ideal transformer, η = 100% or 1. However, for practical
strong current at a lower alternating voltage. transformers, η ≈ 85 - 90%.
e V N Ip Possible causes of energy loss in transformer are
For an ideal transformer s = s = s = =k
ep Vp Np Is l
Heating due to winding resistance
where, k is known as the transformation ratio. l
Eddy current losses
For a step-up transformer, k > 1 but for a step-down l
Magnetic flux leakage and
transformer, k < 1. l
Hysteresis loss. To minimise these losses, the transformer
In a transformer, the input emf and the output emf differ in core is made up of a laminated soft iron strips.
phase by π radians.
12 An AC circuit contains a resistance R, capacitance C and 20 The instantaneous values of alternating current and
inductance L in series with a source of emf voltages in a circuit are given as
E = E 0 sin (ωt + φ ). The current through the circuit is 1
maximum, when I= sin (100 πt ) ampere
2
1
(a) R = L = C (b) ω L = (c) ω2 = LC (d) ω = RLC
ωC e=
1
sin (100πt + π / 3) volt
2
13 The bandwidth of a series resonant circuit is 500 Hz and
the resonant frequency is 5000 Hz. The quality factor of The average power (in watts) consumed in the circuit is
the circuit will be j CBSE AIPMT 2013
(a) 40 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 5 1 3
(a) (b)
14 Which of the following combinations should be selected 4 4
1 1
for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for (c) (d)
2 8
communication? j NEET 2016
(a) R = 20Ω, L = 15. H, C = 35 µF 21 The potential differences across the resistance,
(b) R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45 µF capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V
(c) R = 15Ω ,L = 3.5 H, C = 30 µF
respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this
(d) R = 25 Ω , L = 15
. H, C = 45 µF
circuit is j NEET 2016
(Take, f = 50 Hz) 1 1 3
(a) 0.052 H (b) 2.42 H (c) 16.2 H (d) 16.2 mH (a) (b) (c) 1 (d)
2 2 2
3 An AC source is connected with a resistance R and an
uncharged capacitance C in series. 9 A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a
bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb
The potential difference across the resistor is in phase decreases when j NEET 2013
with the initial potential difference across the capacitor (a) frequency of the AC source is decreased
for the first time at the instant (assume that, at t = 0, emf (b) number of turns in the coil is reduced
is zero) (c) a capacitance of reactance XC = XL is included in the
π 2π π 3π same circuit
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4ω ω 2ω 2ω (d) an iron rod is inserted in the coil
10 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 µF and a resistor 40 Ω
4 An AC circuit having supply voltage E consists of a
are connected in series across a source of emf
resistor of resistance 3 Ω and an inductor of reactance
V = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in AC circuit is
4 Ω as shown in the figure. The voltage across the
j
NEET 2016
resistance at t = π / ω is
(a) 0.67 W (b) 0.76 W (c) 0.89 W (d) 0.51 W
3Ω 4Ω
11 In a circuit, L , C and R are connected in series with an
alternating voltage source of frequency f . The current
leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is
E = 10 sin ω t 1 1
(a) (b)
(a) 6.4 V (b) 10 V (c) zero (d) 4.8 V 2 πf (2 πfL + R) πf (2 πfL + R)
5 A coil of inductive reactance 31 Ω has a resistance of 1 1
(c) (d)
8 Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of 2 πf (2 πfL − R) πf (2 πfL − R)
capacitative reactance 25 Ω. The combination is 12 In the given AC circuit, when switch S is at position 1,
connected to an AC source of 110 V. The power factor π
the source emf leads current by . Now, if the switch is
of the circuit is 6
(a) 0.56 (b) 0.64 (c) 0.80 (d) 0.33 at position 2, then
6 The maximum current in the circuit, if a capacitor of L = √ 3 mH
1
capacitance 1 µF is charged to a potential of 2 V and is S
connected in parallel to an inductor of inductance10−3 H is R
(a) 320 W (b) 176 W 16 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 µF and a resistor
(c) 144 W (d) 0 W 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf,
V = 10 sin 314 t . The power loss in the circuit is
14 Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical
j
NEET 2018
resistors with resistance R = 9.0 Ω each, two identical
(a) 2.74 W (b) 0.43 W (c) 0.79 W (d) 1.13 W
inductors with inductance L = 2 .0 mH each, and an ideal
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (d)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (*) 15 (b) 16 (c)
Hence, L =
1 P = I rms
2
R ∴ P = E V l V cos θ
(1000)2 × 10 × 10−6 ε2rms R ε R
2 6 2
= = = 6× ×
= 0.1 H = 100 mH 2 1
2 2 5 5
|Z |
R + ωL −
12 When ω L = 1 /ωC . The circuit is in ωC = 14.4 W
resonance. Impedance is equal to
As, I V rms 24 Power output = 3k W × 90 = 2.7 kW
resistance alone. rms =
Z 100
fr 5000 Ib = 6 A
13 Q = = = 10
20 Given equation,
f2 − f1 500 2.7 kW
1 VS = = 450 V
I = sin(100 πt ) ampere 6A
14 For better tuning, peak of current growth 2
must be sharp. This is ensured by a high 3 kW
1 IP = = 15 A
value of quality factor Q. and e = sin (100 πt + π / 3) volt 200 V
2
Now, quality factor is given by 1 1
∴ I0 = and e 0 = 25 Efficiency is defined as the ratio of
1 L
Q = 2 2 output power and input power,
R C P
We know that, average power, i.e. η % = out × 100
From the given options, highest value of Pinput
Pav = V rms × I rms cos φ
Q is associated with R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H
1 1 Vs is
and C = 30 µF = × × cos 60° = × 100
2 2 Vp i p
1
15 Resonant frequency, n = I V
2π LC Q I rms = 0 and V rms = 0 2 × 440
2 2 80 = × 100
1 λ2 220 × i p
LC = ⇒C = 1 1 1 1
= × × = W
4 π2 n2 4 π2c 2 L 2 2 2 8 ⇒ i p = 5A
λ= 4 π2 c2 LC
DAY TWENTY FIVE ALTERNATING CURRENT 285
8
SESSION 2 ∴ cos φ = 9 Current in the circuit is given by
30 40 (8) + (31 − 25)2
2
E
1 I =
V
= sin 50 t + cos 50t I = , where E is the voltage
8 ω2 L2 + R2
R 10 10 =
64 + 36 of an AC source
I = 3 sin 50 t + 4 cos 50t
cos φ = 0.80 µ 0µ r N 2 A
⇒ I = 5 cos 50 t + sin 50 t
4 3 Hence,
As L = ⇒ L ∝µr
5 5 6 Charge on capacitor, q 0 = CV l
= 5 [cos 37° cos 50t + sin 37° sin 50t ] q 0 = 2 × 10−6 C When iron rod is inserted,
= 5cos[50 t − 37° ] L increases, therefore current
q = q 0 sinω t
I 5 I decreases.
Now, I rms = 0 = A For maximum current,
2 2 dq
I0 = = ωq 0 10 Given, inductance, L = 20 mH
2 I = P = 60 = 6 A dt
Capacitance, C = 50 µF
V 10 1
Also, ω = = (109 )1 /2 Resistance, R = 40 Ω
LC
⇒ V = V R2 + V L2 emf, V = 10 sin 340 t
I 0 = (109 )1 /2 (2 × 10−6 )
(100)2 = (10)2 + V L2 = 10 × 104 × 2 × 10−6 Q Power loss in AC circuit will be given
as
⇒ V L = 99.5 V = 2 10 × 10−2 A 2
V L = IX L = I (2 π νL ) EV E
= 4000 mA Pav = I 2V R = ⋅R QI = V
Z V 2
99.5 = 6 × 2 × 314
. × 50 L
⇒ L = 0.052 H
7 R 10
2
= ⋅ 40
2
3 V = V 0 sinω t [as, V = 0 at t = 0]
1
V R = V 0 sinω t 2
340 × 20 × 103
π
VC = V 0 sin ω t − 402 + − 1
2 P0 = V rms I rms = V rms
V rms
340 × 50 × 10
−6
R
V and V R are in same phase. While VC 100 1
QV = × 40 ×
= I rms R ⇒ V rms = I rms 2 1600 + (6.8 − 58.8)2
lags V (or V R ) by 90°. Now, V R is in same rms R
phase with initial potential difference 2000
V 2
= ≈ 0.46W ≈ 0.51 W
P0 = rms 1600 + 2704
across the capacitor for the first time R
when ⇒ V rms
2
= P0 R 1
ωL −
π 3π 3π 11 tan φ = ωC
ωt = − + 2 π = ⇒t = L R R
2 2 2ω
φ being the angle by which the current
4 Z = (3) + (4) = 5 Ω
2 2
leads the voltage.
10
I0 = =2A Given, φ = 45°
Z
X P = V rms I rms cos φ 1 1
φ = tan −1 L = tan −1 = 53°
4 ωL − ωL −
R 3 = V rms
2 R
= P0 R
R ωC ωC
∴ tan 45° = ⇒1 =
Z2 Z2 R R
∴ I = 2 sin (ω t − 53° )
π R2 1 1
At t = or ω t = π, P = P0 ⇒ R = ωL − ⇒ ωC =
ω Z2 ωC (ω L − R )
I = 2 sin ( π − 53° ) 8 Here, phase difference, ⇒ C =
1
=
1
4
= 2 × = 1.6 A XL − X C ω (ω L − R ) 2 πf (2 πfL − R )
5 tan φ =
V R = IR = 4.8 V
R 12 In position 1,
π XL − X C π ωL (1000) ( 3 × 10−3 )
⇒ tan = tan = =
5 Power factor of AC circuit is given by 3 R 6 R R
R
cos φ = …(i) When L is removed, then 1 3
Z XC ⇒ = ⇒ R = 3Ω
3= ⇒ X C = 3R 3 R
where, R is resistance employed and Z R 1
the impedance of the circuit.
When C is removed, then XC ωC
X In position 2, tan φ = =
Z= R2 + ( X L − X C )2 …(ii) 3 = L ⇒ XL = 3R R R
R 1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Z = R2 + ( X L − X C )2 = R 1000
R 1000 × × 10−6
cos φ = …(iii) 3
[Q X L = X C ] tan φ = =1
R + ( X L − X C )2
2
3
cos φ =
Z
=
R
=1 π
Given, R = 8 Ω , X L = 31 Ω , X C = 25 Ω ⇒ φ=
R R 4
286 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY FIVE
Electromagnetic
Waves
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Electromagnetic Waves and u Properties of Electromagnetic Waves
their Characteristics u Transverse Nature of Electromagnetic Waves
u Maxwell’s Equations u Spectrum of Electromagnetic Radiation
1 1 B2
It is that current which comes into play in the region, ue = ε 0Eu2B =
2 2 µ0
whenever the electric field and hence the electric flux is
changing with it. u
l
Momentum delivered, p = (absorbing surface)
dφ E c
id = ε 0
dt 2u
The generalised form of the Ampere’s law is p= (reflecting surface)
c
dφ E hc
∫ B ⋅ d l = µ 0(i + id ) = µ 0 i + ε 0 dt l
Energy of wave =
λ
= hν
8 Which of the following pairs of space and time varying (c) 300 km (d) 400 km
E = ( $i E x + $j E y + k$ E z ) and B = ( $i Bx + $j By + k$ Bz ) would 16 The wave of wavelength 5900Å emitted by any atom or
generate a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in the molecule must have some finite total length which is
z-direction? known as the coherence length. For sodium light, this
(a) E x , B z (b) E y , B z (c) E z , B x (d) E x , B y length is 2.4 cm. The number of oscillations in this length
9 Consider the following two statements, regarding a will be
linearly polarised plane electromagnetic wave. (a) 4.068 × 108 (b) 4.068 × 104
I. Electric field and the magnetic field have equal average (c) 4.068 × 106 (d) 4.068 × 105
values. 17 21 cm radio wave emitted by hydrogen in intersteller
II. Electric energy and the magnetic energy have equal space is due to the interaction called the hyperfine
average values. interaction in atomic hydrogen, the energy of the emitted
(a) I is true (b) II is true
wave is nearly
(c) Both statements are true (d) Both statements are false
(a) 10−17 J (b) 1J
10 In an apparatus, the electric field was found to oscillate (c) 7 × 10−8 J (d) 10−24 J
with an amplitude of 18 Vm −1. The magnitude of the
18 The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a
oscillating magnetic field will be
food item containing water molecules most efficiently is
(a) 4 × 10−6 T (b) 6 × 10−8 T j NEET 2013
(c) 9 × 10−9 T (d) 11 × 10−11 T
(a) the frequency of the microwave must match the
11 An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is resonant frequency of the water molecules
described by E = E 0 sin(kx − ωt ); B = B0 sin(kx − ωt ). (b) the frequency of the microwave has no relation with
Which of the following equations is true ? natural frequency of water molecules
(a) E 0k = B 0ω (b) E 0ω = B 0k (c) microwave are heat waves, so always produce heating
(c) E 0B 0 = ωk (d) None of these (d) infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven
12 The electric and the magnetic field associated with an 19 The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave,
electromagnetic wave, propagating along the +Z-axis, ultraviolet and gamma rays is j
CBSE AIPMT 2011
can be represented by j
CBSE AIPMT 2011
(a) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(a) E = E 0 k$ , B = B 0 $i (b) E = E 0 $j, B = B 0 $j (b) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(c) E = E 0 $j , E = B 0 k$ (d) E = E 0 $i , B = B 0 $j (c) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
13 A radio can tune into any station in the 7.5 MHz to (d) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
12 MHz band. The corresponding wavelength band is 20 On required 11eV of energy to dissociate a carbon
(a) 5 m to 15 m (b) 2 m to 16 m monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms. The
(c) 25 m to 40 m (d) 30 m to 45 m minimum frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic
14 If a source is transmitting electromagnetic wave of radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in
frequency 8.2 × 10 6 Hz, then wavelength of (a) visible region (b) infrared region
electromagnetic waves transmitting from the source will be (c) ultraviolet region (d) microwave region
(a) 36.6 m (b) 40.5 m 21 The energy of an electromagnetic waves is of the order of
(c) 42.3 m (d) 50.9 m 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it belong?
j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
15 An electric charge oscillating with a frequency of
1 kilo cycle/s can radiate electromagnetic wave of (a) X-rays (b) Infrared rays
(c) Ultraviolet rays (d) γ-rays
wavelength?
(a) 100 km (b) 200 km
DAY TWENTY SIX ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 291
(b) A chargeless particle (c) An accelerating charge (a) 1.41 × 10−8 T (b) 2.83 × 10−8 T
(d) A charge moving at constant velocity (c) 0.70 × 10−8 T (d) 4.23 × 10−8 T
2 An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is 8 In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field
described by E = E 0 sin(kx − ωt ). oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 × 1010 Hz and
Which of the following is independent of wavelength? amplitude 48 Vm −1. Then, which one of the following
statement is true?
(a) k (b) ω (c) k/ω (d) k ω
2 (a) Wavelength of the wave is 2 × 105 m
3 Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm falls on a
(b) Amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is 48 T
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface
(c) Average energy density of electric field equals the
has an area of 20 cm 2 , the average force exerted on the average energy density of magnetic field
surface during a span 30 min is (d) None of the above
(a) 1.2 × 10−6 N (b) 10−3 N
9 The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a
(c) 4 × 10−7 N (d) 5 × 10−4 N
medium is represented by E x = 0;
4 The electric field associated with an electromagnetic
N rad − 2 rad
wave in vacuum, is given by E = $i 40 cos (kz − 6 × 108 t ), E y = 2.5 cos 2π × 10 6 t − π × 10 x ;
where E , z and t are in Volt/m, metre and second, C m s
respectively. The value of wave vector k is E z = 0. The wave is j
CBSE AIPMT 2009
j
CBSE AIPMT 2012 (a) moving along y-direction with frequency 2 π × 106 Hz
−1 −1 −1 −1 and wavelength 200 m
(a) 2 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 6 m (d) 3 m
(b) moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and
5 An EM wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity
wavelength 100 m
v = v $i . The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this
(c) moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and
EM wave is along +Y -axis. Then, the direction of oscillating wavelength 200 m
magnetic field of EM wave will be along j
NEET 2018 (d) moving along – x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and
(a) −y-direction (b) + z-direction wavelength 200 m
(c) −z-direction (d) −x-direction
10 A uniform electric field and an uniform magnetic field are
6 A linearly polarised electromagnetic wave given as acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an
E = E 0 $i cos (kz − ω t ) is incident normally on a perfectly electron is projected in the region, such that its velocity is
reflecting infinite wall at z = a. Assuming that the material pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron
of the wall is optically inactive, the reflected wave will be (a) speed will decrease j
CBSE AIPMT 2011
given as (b) speed will increase
(a) Er = − E 0 $i cos (kz − ω t ) (b) Er = E 0 $i cos (kz + ω t ) (c) will turn towards left of direction of motion
(d) will turn towards right of direction of motion
(c) Er = − E 0 $i cos (kz + ω t ) (d) Er = E 0 $i sin (kz − ω t )
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (a)
SESSION 2 1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (a)
292 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY SIX
Unit Test 5
(Magnetostatics EMI
and AC, EM Waves)
1 The magnetic field of a given length of wire carrying a 7 A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a
current for a single turn circular coil at centre is B, then region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and
its value for two turns for the same wire, when same magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm −1 and 0.5 T,
current is passing through it, is respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of
B B the electrons. Then, the velocity of electrons must be
(a) (b) (c) 2B (d) 4B
1
4 2 (a) 8 ms −1 (b) 20 ms −1 (c) 40 ms −1 (d) ms −1
40
2 A long solenoid carrying a current, produces a magnetic
field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the 8 A straight wire of length 0.5 m and carrying a current of
number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the 1.2 A is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 T.
magnetic field is The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the
B wire. The force on the wire is
(a) 2B (b) 4B (c) (d) B
2 (a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N (c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N
3 Magnetic field due to 0.1A current flowing through a 9 Two wires are held perpendicular to the plane of paper
circular coil of radius 0.1 m and 1000 turns at the centre and are 5 m apart. They carry currents of 2.5 A and 5 A
of the coil is in same direction. Then, the magnetic field strength B at
(a) 0.2 T (b) 2 × 10−4 T a point midway between the wires will be
(c) 6.28 × 10−4 T (d) 9.8 × 10−4 T µ0 µ0 3µ 0 3µ 0
(a) T (b) T (c) T (d) T
4 The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire 4π 2π 2π 4π
carrying current I is 0.4 T. The magnetic field at a
10 An uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the
distance 2 r, is
direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron
(a) 0.2 T (b) 0.8 T
moves in a circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of
(c) 0.1 T (d) 1.6 T
electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path
5 A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters will be
perpendicularly in a magnetic field B. If kinetic energy of (a) 2.0 cm (b) 0.5 cm
the particle is E , then frequency of rotation is (c) 4.0 cm (d) 1.0 cm
qB qB qBE qB 11 The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment
(a) (b) (c) (d)
mπ 2 πm 2 πm 2 πE M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the
6 A charge q moves in a region, where electric field E and corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of
magnetic field B both exist, then the force on it, is 60°. The value of n is given by
(a) 2 (b) 1
(a) q (v × B) (b) q E + q (v × B) (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
(c) q B + q (B × v) (d) q B + q (E × v)
DAY TWENTY SEVEN UNIT TEST 5 (MAGNETOSTATICS EMI AND AC, EM WAVES) 295
29 An alternating current generator has an internal resistance Direction (Q. Nos. 35-39) In each of the following
R g and an internal reactance X g . It is used to supply questions, a statement of Assertion is given followed by a
power to a passive load consisting of resistance R g and a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the
statements mark the correct answer as
reactance X L . For maximum power to be delivered from
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the generator to the load, the value of X L is equal to
the correct explanation of the Assertion
(a) zero (b) X g (c) −X g (d) R g
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
30 The primary winding of transformer has 500 turns, not correct explanation of the Assertion
whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
connected to an AC supply of 20V-50 Hz. The secondary (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
will have an output of 35 Assertion (A) In an electromagnetic wave, the average
(a)2 V, 5 Hz (b) 200 V, 500 Hz energy density of electric field is equal to the average
(c)2 V, 50 Hz (d) 200 V, 50 Hz
energy density of the magnetic field.
31 If ε 0 and µ 0 are respectively, the electric permittivity and
Reason (R) Electric and magnetic fields are related
magnetic permeability of free space, ε and µ are the
as E = cB.
corresponding quantities in a medium, the index of
refraction of the medium is 36 Assertion (A) Two parallel wires carrying currents in the
ε0 µ 0 εµ ε0 µ ε same direction, attract each other due to magnetic force
(a) (b) (c) (d)
εµ ε0 µ 0 ε µ0 ε0 between them.
32 A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and Reason (R) They attract each other, if the currents
supplies current of 2 A to a load. The ratio of the primary flowing in them are in opposite direction.
and secondary windings is 1 : 25. The current in the
primary coil is 37 Assertion (A) The torque on the coil is maximum, when
(a) 15 A (b) 50 A (c) 25 A (d) 12.5 A coil is suspended in a radial magnetic field.
33 Two coil of self inductance L1 and L2 are placed clear to Reason (R) The torque tends to rotate the coil about its
each other so that focal flux in one CaCl is completely own axis.
linked with other. If M is mutual inductance between 38 Assertion (A) When a magnet is brought near iron nails,
them, then only translatory force act on it.
L1
(a) M = L1L2 (b) M = (c) M = L1L2 (d) M = (L1 L2 )2
L2 Reason (R) The field due to a magnet is generally
uniform.
34 An LCR series circuit with R = 100 Ω is connected to a
200 V, 500 Hz a.c source when only the capacitance is 39 Assertion (A) Susceptibility is defined as the ratio of
removed, the current leads the voltage by 6s. When only intensity of magnetisation I to magnetic intensity H.
the inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage
Reason (R) Greater the value of susceptibility, smaller
by 60°. The current in the circuit is
the value of intensity of magnetisation I.
3 2
(a) 2 A (b) 7 A (c) A (d) A
2 3
ANSWERS
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (a) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (d)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (c)
DAY TWENTY SEVEN UNIT TEST 5 (MAGNETOSTATICS EMI AND AC, EM WAVES) 297
This Pdf Is
Downloaded From
www.exambites.in
VISIT NOW !!
DAY TWENTY EIGHT
Ray Optics
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Reflection of Light u Total Internal Reflection u Human Eye
u Mirror formula (TIR) u Optical Instruments
u Refraction of Light u Deviation by a Prism u Resolving Power of an
u Lens u Dispersion by a Prism Optical Instrument
Reflection of Light
The phenomena of bouncing back of light on striking a smooth surface is called
reflection of light.
l
According to the laws of reflection, (i) the incident ray, reflected ray and the normal
drawn on the reflecting surface at the point of incidence lie in the same plane and (ii)
the angle of incidence ∠i = angle of reflection ∠r.
l
Laws of reflection are true for reflection from a polished mirror or from an unpolished
surface or for diffused reflection.
l
Whenever reflection takes place from a denser medium, the reflected rays undergo a
phase change of π.
1 1 1
The lens formula is given by − =
v u f
Power of a Lens
The power of a lens is mathematically given by the
For a thin object of height h placed perpendicular to the 1
principal axis at a distance u, if the height of image formed is h′, reciprocal of its focal length, i.e. power P =
f (m)
then lateral or transverse magnification m is given by
h′ v f f −v SI unit of power is dioptre (D). Power of a converging lens is
m= = = = positive and that of a diverging lens is negative.
h u f +u f
For a small sized object placed linearly along the principal axis,
its axial or longitudinal magnification is given by
Lens Maker’s Formula
2 2 2 For a lens having surfaces with radii of curvature R1 and R2
dv v f f − v respectively, its focal length is given by
Axial magnification = − = = =
du u f + u f 1 1 1
P = = (n21 − 1) −
f R1 R2
Silvering of Lens where, n21 =
n2
= refractive index of the lens material w.r.t.
n1
When one surface of a lens is silvered, it behaves as a mirror.
The focal length of silvered lens is the surroundings.
1 2 1
F
= +
fl fm
Cutting and Combination of a Lens
If a symmetrical convex f 2f 2f f f
In case of plano-convex lens
lens of focal length f is
l
When curved surface is silvered, then focal length of cut into two parts along
silvered lens is its optic axis, then focal
R
F = length of each part
2µ (a plano-convex lens) is
2 f [fig(b)]. However, if the (a) (b) (c) (d)
two parts are joined as
+ shown in the figure (c) and (d),
the focal length of the combination is again f .
If a symmetrical convex lens of focal length f is cut into two
F fl fm parts along the principal axis, then the focal length of each
part remains unchanged, as f [Fig. f].
where, R = 2 fm or R = fl (µ − 1)
If these two parts are joined with the curved ends on one
l
When plane surface is silvered, then
f
R R side, the focal length of the combination is [Fig. g]. But on
F = and fl = , fm = ∞ 2
2(µ − 1) (µ − 1) joining the two parts in opposite sense, the net focal length
becomes ∞ (or net power = 0) (Fig. h).
f f f ∞
+ 2
F fl fm
l
When double convex lens is silvered, f
R R (e) (f) (g) (h)
F = and fl =
2(2µ − 1) 2(µ − 1) l
The equivalent focal length of co-axial combination of two
R 1 1 1 d
⇒ fm = . lenses is given by = + −
2 F f1 f2 f1 f2
f1 f2
+
d < f1 d < f2
O1 O2
F fl fm
d
302 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY EIGHT
l
If a number of lenses are in contact, then Common Examples of Total Internal Reflection
1 1 1
= + + ... l
Looming An optical illusion in cold countries.
F f1 f2 l
Mirage An optical illusion in deserts.
l
If two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact, l
Brilliance of diamond Due to repeated internal reflections
then their equivalent focal length diamond sparkles.
1 1 1
= + l
Optical fibre Each fibre consists of core and cladding. The
feq f 1 f2
refractive index of core material is higher than that of
In terms of power, Peq = P1 + P2 cladding. Light entering at small angle on one end
undergoes repeated total internal reflections along the fibre
Important Results and finally comes out.
l
Effective diameter of light transmitting area is called
aperture. Intensity of image ∝ (Aperture)2 Deviation by a Prism
2
f A prism is a homogeneous, A
l
Relation between object and image speed, vi = vo transparent medium
f + u
bounded by two plane n n′
l
Newton’s formula states, f 2 = x 1 x2 where, x 1 and x2 = surfaces inclined at an δ
distance of object and image from first and second i i′
angle A with each other.
r r′
principlal foci. This formula is also called thin lens These surfaces are called as
formula. refracting surfaces and the
l
If lens immersed in a liquid, then angle between them is
B C
fl (aµ g − 1) (aµ g − 1) called angle of prism A.
= =
fa (l µ g − 1) aµ g Deviation produced by a prism is, δ = i + i′ − A ⇒ r + r ′ = A
− 1
aµ l For grazing incidence i = 90 °
l
Displacement method for finding focal length of lens is and grazing emergence i′ = 90°
D2 − x2 For minimum deviation
f = δ + A
sin m
4D 2
(i) i = i′ and r = r ′ (ii) µ =
A
sin
Total Internal Reflection (TIR) 2
In case of minimum deviation, ray is passing through prism
When a ray of light goes from a denser to a rarer medium, it
symmetrically.
bends away from the normal.
For maximum deviation (δ max ), i = 90 ° or i′ = 90 °
For a certain angle of incidence iC , the angle of refraction in
rarer medium becomes 90°. The angle iC is called the critical For thin prism, δ = (µ − 1) A
angle.
Rarer
Dispersion by a Prism
r
90° n1 Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting of white light
into its constituent colours on passing light through a prism.
i ic i r This is because different colours have different wavelength and
hence different refractive indices.
Denser Angular dispersion = δ v − δ r = (nv − nr ) A
n2 where, n v and n r represent refractive index for violet and red
n1 1 lights.
sin iC = = n − nr n + nr
n2 n21 Dispersive power, ω = v , where n = v is the mean
n−1 2
For the angle of incidence greater than the critical angle
refractive index.
(i > iC ) in the denser medium, the light ray is totally internally
reflected back into the denser medium itself. By combining two prisms with angle A and A′ and refractive
index n and n′ respectively, we can create conditions of
Conditions for Total Internal Reflection (n − 1) A
l
Dispersion without deviation when, A′ = −
l
The light ray should travel from the denser medium (n′ − 1)
towards the rarer medium. l
Deviation without dispersion when,
l
The angle of incidence should be the greater than the
n − nr
critical angle. A′ = − v A
n′v − n′r
DAY TWENTY EIGHT RAY OPTICS 303
eye near point is at 25 cm, but far point comes closer to eye
Refraction Through a Prism from infinite. Causes of near sightedness are
A ray of light suffers two refractions at the two surfaces on (i) decrease in focal length of eye lens, or
passing through a prism. Angle of deviation through a prism (ii) elongation of eye ball. The defect can be rectified by use
δ = i + e − A. diverging lens.
where, i is the angle of incidence, e is the angle of emergence
If a myopic person cannot see objects situated beyond a
and A is the angle of prism.
distance x, then he should use lens of focal length f = − x.
So, concave lens is used to correct this.
Scattering of Light l
A person suffering from hypermetropia or long sightedness
Molecules of a medium after absorbing incoming light can see distant objects clearly, but cannot see nearby
radiations, emit them in all directions. This phenomenon is objects distinctly. It means that his near point has shifted
called scattering. According to Rayleigh, intensity of scattered away from 25 cm to distance x. Possible causes of
1 hypermetropia are
light ∝ 4 .
λ (i) increase in focal length of eye lens, or
There are some phenomenon based on scattering (ii) shortening of eye ball.
l
Sky looks blue due to scattering. To rectify hypermetropia, the person should use a
l
At the time of sunrise and sunset, sun looks reddish. converging lens of focal length f , so that it forms virtual
image of an object situated at distance (D = 25 cm) at near
l
Danger signals are made of red colour. xD
point x of defective eye, f = .
x−D
Human Eye So, convex lens is used for its correction.
The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive
Some Other Defects of Vision
sense organs of human being. The cornea, acqueous humour,
crystalline lens and vitreous humour together form a lens l
Presbyopia is due to weakness of ciliary muscles due to
system which forms an inverted and real image on retina for advancing age. Generally, defective eye suffers from near
the objects situated in front of eye. sightedness as well as long sightedness. To rectify the
The optic nerve transmits this image to the brain which defect bifocal lenses are used.
makes it erect and analyses it. l
Astigmatism is due to non-uniformity of curvature of the
Cornea cornea. The defective eye cannot concentrate
Iris simultaneously along horizontal as well as vertical. To
Retina
Vitreous rectify this defect, cylindrical lenses are used.
Humour
Yellow spot
Pupil Crystalline
lens
Defects of Images
Blind spot The two types of defects which are occurred commonly,
Optic nerve given below
Aqueous
humour Ciliary muscles Spherical Aberration
This defect is present in spherical mirrors as well as in
The eye lens has power of accommodation to adjust its focal lenses, whose aperture is comparatively large.
length, so as to focus objects situated at different distances
In mirrors, the spherical aberration can be almost eliminated
from eye at the retina.
by taking a paraboloidal mirror instead of a spherical mirror.
l
The least distance of distinct vision (D) or near point of an
L
eye is generally 25 cm. Far point of a normal eye is at Marginal rays
infinity. Ciliary muscles play an important role in changing
focal length of eye lens. Paraxial rays
Fp
C Fm
1
Persistence of vision is s, i.e. if time interval between
10
two consecutive light pulses is lesser than 0.1 s, eye cannot In a lens, we can minimise the aberration by
distinguish them separately.
1 °
(a) using plano-convex lens with plane surface on the side of
Resolving limit for eye is 1′ = more convergent/divergent light beam.
60
(b) by using a combination of two lenses separated by a
l
A person suffering from myopia can see near objects clearly distance d = f1 − f2 .
but can not see distant objects. For a myopic (near sighted)
304 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY EIGHT
Image
Optical Instruments
If m o and m e be the magnifications produced by the
An optical instrument is used to enhance and analyses the objective and the eyepiece respectively, then total
light waves. The light waves are in the form of photons, magnification of microscope m = m o × m e .
hence optical instruments also determine the characteristics
If final image is formed at the near point (D) of the eye,
properties of light waves.
then
v D
Microscope m = − o 1 +
uo fe
It is an optical instrument which forms a magnified image of
L D
a small nearby object and thus, increases the visual angle or m=− 1 + (approx)
fo fe
subtended by the image at the eye, so that the object is seen
to be bigger and distinct. If final image is formed at infinity, then
v D L D
m =− o ⋅ = − ⋅ (approx)
1. Simple Microscope (Magnifying Glass) uo fe fo fe
It consists of a single convex lens of small focal length and Length of tube of microscope, L = vo + ue .
forms a magnified image of an object placed between the
optical centre and the principal focus of the lens. • Huygens’ eyepiece is free from chromatic and spherical
NOTE
aberration, but it cannot be used for measurement
A'
purposes.
L
• Ramsden’s eyepiece can be used for precise measurement
as cross wires can be fixed in this eyepiece. It slightly suffers
A
A'' from spherical and chromatic aberrations.
b
a F
B'
F B C Telescope
Telescope is an optical instrument which increases, the
f visual angle at the eye by forming the image of a distant
object at the least distance of distinct vision, so that the object
If the image is formed at the near point of eye, then
is seen distinct and bigger.
D
m = 1 +
f 1. Refracting Telescope
But, if the image is formed at infinity, then It consists of an objective lens of large focal length fo and
D large aperture.
m=
f The eyepiece consists of a convex lens of small aperture and
small focal length fe . Distance between the two lenses is set
where, D = normal viewing distance (25 cm),
f = focal length of magnifying lens. as, L = fo + fe
DAY TWENTY EIGHT RAY OPTICS 305
In normal adjustment, the final image is formed at infinity resolving power. Limit of resolution of a normal human eye
and magnifying power of the telescope is is 1′ .
f The minimum distance (or angular distance) between two
m=− o
fe points of an object whose images can be formed distinctly by
the lens of an optical instrument, is called its limit of
In practical adjustment, the final image is formed at the near
resolution.
point of the observer’s eye. In this arrangement,
fo f
m=−
fe
1 + e
D
Resolving Power of a Telescope
If the aperture (diameter) of the telescope objective be the D,
2. Reflecting Telescope then the minimum angular separation (dθ) between two
It consists of an objective which is a large paraboloid concave distant objects, whose images are just resolved by the
mirror of maximum possible focal length fo and the eyepiece telescope, is
is a convex lens of small focal length and small aperture, then 1. 22 λ
dθ =
f D
Magnifying power, m=− o
fe and resolving power of the telescope,
1 D
Reflecting type telescope is considered superior as it is free RP = =
from spherical and chromatic aberrations, is easy to install dθ 1. 22 λ
and maintain, and can produce image of greater intensity.
Resolving Power of a Microscope
NOTE
• The large aperture of telescope objective, helps in forming
The least distance (d) between two points, whose images
a brighter image.
are just seen distinctly by a microscope is given by
• If diameter of pupil of human eye is d and that of telescope
2
1. 22 λ
be D, then image formed by telescope will be times
D
d=
d 2 nm sin θ
brighter than the image of the same object, seen directly by
where,
the unaided eye.
λ = wavelength of light used to illuminate the object,
nm = refractive index of the medium between the object and
Resolving Power of the objective lens, and
an Optical Instrument θ = semi angle of the cone of light from the point object.
Resolving power of an optical instrument is its ability to The term nm sin θ is generally called the numerical aperture of
produce distinct images of two points of an object (or two the microscope.
nearby objects) very close together. Resolving power of an ∴ Resolving power of the microscope,
optical instrument is inverse of its limit of resolution. 1 2 nm sin θ (NA)
Smaller the limit of resolution of a device, higher is its RP = = =
d 1. 22 λ 0.61 λ
4 The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 12 A concave mirror of focal length f1 is placed at a distance
30 cm is a quarter of the size of the object. The distance of d from a convex lens of focal length f2 . A beam of light
of the object from the mirror is coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens-
(a) 30 cm (b) 90 cm (c) 120 cm (d) 60 cm concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The
5 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 1014 Hz distance d must be equal j CBSE AIPMT 2012
9 A lens has focal length 10 cm. An object is placed 15 cm 18 A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of
in front of it. Where should a convex mirror be placed, so refractive index µ falls on a surface separating the
that image is formed at the object itself, when focal medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For
length of convex mirror is 12 cm? which of the following value of µ, the ray can undergo
(a) 6 cm from lens (b) 8 cm from lens total internal reflection? j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
(c) 5 cm from lens (d) 4 cm from lens (a) µ = 1.33 (b) µ = 1.40 (c) µ = 1. 50 (d) µ = 1. 25
10 The distance of the image from the focus of a lens is x 19 A hollow prism is filled with water and placed in air. It will
and that of object is y. What is the nature of the graph y deviate the incident rays
versus x? (a) towards the base
(a) Straight line (b) Ellipse (b) away from base
(c) Parabola (d) Hyperbola (c) parallel to base
(d) towards or away from base depending on the location
11 A lens when placed on a plane mirror,
then object needle and its image 20 A thin prism of angle 7° and refractive index 1.5 is
coincide at 15 cm. The focal length of combined with another prism of angle θ and refractive
the lens is index 1.7. The emergent ray goes undeviated. What is
(a) 15 cm (b) 30 cm the value of θ?
(c) 20 cm (d) ∞ (a) 3° (b) 5° (c) 9° (d) 1°
DAY TWENTY EIGHT RAY OPTICS 307
21 What is the refractive index of a prism whose angle 27 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a
A = 60° and angle of minimum deviation dm = 30°? converging power of 40 D and the least converging
1 1 power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using
(a) 2 (b) (c) 1 (d)
2 3 this information, the distance between the retina and the
22 A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be j NEET 2013
is incident on a right angled prism. The refractive index of (a) 5 cm (b) 2.5 m (c) 1.67 cm (d) 1.5 cm
the material of the prism for the above red, green and 28 A person can see clearly objects only when they lie
blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively. between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. ln order to
j CBSE AIPMT 2015 increase, the maximum distance of distinct vision to
A
infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the
Blue
person has to use, will be j NEET 2016
35 The focal length of objective lens is increased, then 36 The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for
magnifying power of j CBSE AIPMT 2014 two wavelengths λ 1 = 4000 Å and λ 2 = 6000 Å is
(a) microscope will increase, but that of telescope decrease j NEET 2017
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase (a) 8 : 27 (b) 9 : 4
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrease (c) 3 : 2 (d) 16 : 81
(d) microscope will decrease, but that of telescope will
increase
C
y = x2 20 cm
1, 1
2 4 40 cm
B (a) 32 cm (b) 0.6 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 0.5 cm
x
6 A thin plano-convex lens of focal length f is split into two
(a) 30° (b) 60°
halves. One of the halves is shifted along the optical axis.
(c) 45° (d) None of these
The separation between object and image plane is 1.8 m.
3 A 4 cm thick layer of water The magnification of the image formed by one of the half
covers a 6 cm thick glass 4 cm h1 Water lens is 2. Find the focal length of the lens and separation
slab. A coin is placed at the between the two halves.
bottom of the slab and is
being observed from the air 6 cm h2 Glass
side along the normal to the
surface. Find the apparent O
Coin
position of the coin from
(a) 7.0 cm (b) 8.0 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 5 cm
1.8m
4 A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled
with a liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the (a) 0.1 m (b) 0.4 m (c) 0.9 m (d) 1 m
surface of the liquid and moves along its surface as 7 A thin convergent glass lens ( µ = 1.5) has a power of
shown in figure. + 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of
3 cm refractive index µl , it acts as a divergence lens of focal
length 100 cm. The value of µl should be
(a) 3/2 (b) 4/3 (c) 5/3 (d) 2
4cm
9 A ray of light incident at an angle θ on a refracting face of 16 Two identical glass ( µ g = 3 / 2) equi-convex lenses of
a prism emerges from the other face normally. If the focal length f each are kept in contact. The space
angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made of a between the two lenses is filled with water ( µw = 4 / 3).
material of refractive index 1.5, the angle of incidence is The focal length of the combination is j NEET 2016
4f 3f
(a) 7.5° (b) 5° (a) f / 3 (b) f (c) (d)
(c) 15° (d) 2.5° 3 4
10. The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive index 17 A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave
lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If
of the material of the prism is cot(A/2). The angle of
lenses are made of different materials of refractive
minimum deviation is j CBSE AIPMT 2015
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (d) 34 (c) 35 (d) 36 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (b)
f
3 In the first case, m = =4
u− f Bubble
f x t − x t
In the second case, =3 + = 3 + 5 ⇒ = 8 cm
(u + 3) − f µ µ µ The mirror placed normal sends them
3 back. Hence, image is formed at the
On solving, we find f = 36cm ⇒ t = 8 × µ ⇒ t = 8 × = 12 cm
2 object itself.
DAY TWENTY EIGHT RAY OPTICS 311
through it only when medium has same O 90° Silvered Apparent depth
refractive index as that of biconvex lens. 2A r =A real depth 3
16 Real and apparent depth are explained = = = 2 cm
µ refractive index 1.5
on the basis of refraction only. The
concept of TIR is not involve here. So, ∠MON = 90°− A As image appears to be raised by 1 cm,
v i2 = 0 (∴ r2 = 0°)
As, r1 + r2 = A
ic r1 = A − r2 = 5 − 0 = 5°
45°
sin i1
10 cms–1 µ2 –1 From µ = , sin i1 = µ sin r1
sin r1
5
In the ceiling mirror, the original Given, R = 3 cm, h = 4 cm ⇒ µ = = 1.5 × sin 5° = 1.5 × 0.087 = 01305
.
3
velocity will be seen. i1 = sin −1 (01305
. ) = 7.5°
c 3 × 10 8
But v = = = 1.8 × 108 ms −1
2 Given, y = x2 µ 5/ 3 A
dy 1
∴ = 2x = 2 × = 1 5 According to Cartesian sign convention, 5°
dx 2
u = − 40 cm , R = − 20 cm, N2
⇒ tanθ = 1 ⇒ θ = 45°
The slope of normal at B, µ 1 = 1, µ 2 = 1.33 N1 90°
Applying equation for refraction i1
1 1 r1
m2 = − = − = − 1 ⇒ θ = − 45° through spherical surface, we get
m 1 µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1
− =
From the figure, angle of incidence is 45°. v u R
Hence, angle of reflection is 45°.
DAY TWENTY EIGHT RAY OPTICS 313
Wave Optics
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Wavefront u Young’s Double Slit Experiment u Diffraction
u Huygens’ Principle u Coherent Sources u Polarisation of Light
u Interference of Light u Interference in Thin Films u Brewster’s Law
u Polaroids
According to Huygens’, light is a form of energy, which travels in the form of waves
through a hypothetical medium ‘ether’. The medium was supposed to be all pervading,
transparent, extremely light, perfectly elastic and an ideal fluid.
Light waves transmit energy as well as momentum and travel in the free space with a
constant speed of 3 × 10 8 ms −1. However, in a material medium, their speed varies from
medium to medium depending on the refractive index of the medium.
Wavefront
A wavefront is the locus of all those points (either particles) which are vibrating in the
same phase. The shape of the wavefront depends on the nature and dimension of the
source of light.
l
In an isotropic medium, for a point source of light, the wavefront is spherical in nature.
l
For a line (slit) source of light, the wavefront is cylindrical in shape.
l
For a parallel beam of light, the wavefront is a plane wavefront.
Huygens’ Principle
Every point on a given wavefront, acts as secondary source of light and emits secondary PREP
wavelets which travel in all directions with the speed of light in the medium. A surface
touching all these secondary wavelets tangentially in the forward direction, gives the new
MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
wavefront at that instant of time.
Laws of reflection and refraction can be determined by using Huygens’ principle. u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
Interference of Light u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
(Without referring Explanations)
Interference of light is the phenomenon of redistribution of light energy in space when
two light waves of same frequency (or same wavelength) emitted by two coherent u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
sources, travelling in a given direction, superimpose on each other. If a1 and a2 be the u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
amplitudes of two light waves of same frequency and φ be the phase difference
between them, then the amplitude of resultant wave is given by In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
AR = a21 + a22 + 2 a1a2 cos φ Level should be above 75.
316 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY NINE
fringe is known light coincides with the 4th bright fringe of 10 Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio
an unknown light. From this idea, the wavelength of an 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in
unknown light is I
the interference pattern max is
(a) 885.0 nm (b) 442.5 nm (c) 776.8 nm (d) 393.4 nm Imin j CBSE AIPMT 2015
9 121
5. In a Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are (a) (b)
4 49
placed 0.90 mm apart and the fringes are observed one 49 4
(c) (d)
metre away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a 121 9
distance of 1 mm from the central fringe, then wavelength
of monochromatic light used would be 11 In Young’s double slit experiment, when wavelength used
−4 is 6000 Å and the screen is 40 cm from the slits, the
(a) 60 × 10 cm 4
(b) 10 × 10 cm
(c)10 × 10−5 cm (d) 6 × 10−5 cm fringes are 0.012 cm wide. What is the distance between
the slits?
6 In the given figure, O ′ is the position of first bright range
(a) 0.024 cm (b) 2.4 cm
towards right from OP is the position of 5th bright fringe (c) 0.24 cm (d) 0.2 cm
on the other side of O with respect to O ′. If wavelength of
used light is 6000 Å, then value of S1B will be 12 In Young’s double slit experiment using sodium light
S1 ( λ = 5898 Å ), 92 fringes are seen. If given colour
B
( λ = 5461 Å ) is used, how many fringes will be seen?
S0 O O′ (a) 62 (b) 67
(c) 85 (d) 99
S2 ∠S1S2 B = 2° P
13 In Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are
(a) 2.4 × 10−4 m (b) 2.4 × 10−2 m 0.90 mm apart and fringes are observed at a distance
(c) 2.4 × 10−3 m (d) 2.4 × 10−6 m of 1 m, if 2nd dark fringe is at 1 mm distance from
7 A narrow slit S transmitting light of wavelength λ is central fringe, then wavelength of the monochromatic
placed a distance d above a large plane mirror as light will be
shown. The light coming directly from the slit and that (a)60 × 10−4 cm (b) 10 × 10−4 cm
after reflection interfere at P on the screen placed at a (c)10 × 10−5 cm (d) 6 × 10−5 cm
distance D from the slit. What will be x, for which first 14 In Young’s double slit experiment, the spacing between
maxima occurs? the slits is d and wavelength of light used is 6000 Å. If the
P angular width of a fringe formed on a distant screen is 1°,
then value of d is
S
x (a) 1 mm (b) 0.05 mm
d (c) 0.03 mm (d) 0.01 mm
O
15 In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart
D
and are illuminated by photons of two wavelength
λ 1 = 12000 Å and λ 2 = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance
4d λD 2d D from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2cm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
λD 4d D 2d from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern
coincide with a bright fringe from the other? j
NEET 2013
8 In the Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of
(a) 8 mm (b) 6 mm
light at a point on the screen, where the path difference (c) 4 mm (d) 3 mm
in λ is K (λ being the wavelength of light used). The
λ 16 Young’s double slit experimental arrangement is as
intensity at a point, where the path difference is , will be
4 shown in figure. If λ is the wavelength of light used and
j
CBSE AIPMT 2014 ∠S1CS 2 = θ, then the fringe width will be
K K S1
(a) K (b) (c) (d) zero
4 2
θ
9 The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with C
blue and with green light of wavelengths 4360 Å and
5460 Å, respectively. If x is the distance of 4th maxima S2
from the central one, then λ λ 2λ
(a) (b) (c) λθ (d)
(a) xblue = xgreen (b) xblue > xgreen θ 2θ θ
(c) xblue < xgreen (d) xblue / xgreen = 5460 / 4360
320 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY TWENTY NINE
17 In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation d 24 For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength
between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light λ, diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width a is
used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and of the order of the wavelength of the light. If D is the
slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the
fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to central maxima will be j CBSE AIPMT 2015
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (d)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (b)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c)
17 In a YDSE, angular width of a fringe is 24 sin θ = λ index = µ) and if reflected and refracted
given as a light are perpendicular to each other.
λ 1 θ d Then, the reflected light is completely
θ= ⇒θ∝ or 1 = 2 …(i)
d d θ2 d 1 plane polarised at a certain angle of
a θ 2λ incidence. This means, the reflected
Here, θ1 = 0.20 ° , θ2 = 0.21°, d 1 = 2 mm
light has electric vector perpendicular to
Substituting the given values in incidence plane.
Eq. (i), we get
0.20° d2
= y λ
= ⇒y =
λD SESSION 2
0.21° 2 mm D a a 2π 2π λ π
⇒ d2 = 2 ×
0.20 0.40
= = 1.9 mm 2λD 1∴ φ= ∆x = × =
Width of central maxima is . λ λ 6 3
0.21 0.21 a I = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I2 cos φ
18 The position of 30th bright fringe, 25 Distance between first order dark fringes π
30 λ D I ′ = I + I + 2I cos = 3I
Y30 = = Width of principal maxima 3
d 2λD 2 × 600 × 10−9 × 2 and I 0 = I + I + 2I cos 0° = 4I
Position shift of central fringe is x= = I′ 3
30 λ D D
d 10−3 ∴ =
Y0 = ⇒ Y0 = ( µ − 1 )t I0 4
d d = 2400 × 10−6
30 λ D D = 2.4 × 10−3 m = 2.4 mm 2 At S3 , ∆ x = S1S3 − S2S3 = 0
⇒ = ( µ − 1 )t
d d 2π
26 For first minima at P, asin θ = nλ ∴ φ= ∆x = 0
30 λ λ
⇒ ( µ − 1) =
t I3 = I 0 + I 0 + 2 I 0 × I 0 cos 0 °
30 × (6000 × 10−10 ) P
(µ − 1) = = 0.5 I3 = 4I 0
3.6 × 10−5 A The path difference at S 4 is
µ = 1. 5 θ ∆x ′ = S 1S 4 − S 2S 4 =
dY
5 Given, d = 1 mm = 1 × 10−3 m, From the above diagram, intensity According to question, the intensity at
transmitted through P3 , maximum in this Young’s double slit
D = 1 m, λ = 50 × 10−9 m I
I2 = 0 cos 2 45° experiment is I 0 .
2 ⇒ I max = I 0
2
⇒ I2 = 0 ×
I 1 I0 Q Path difference
⇒ I2 =
2λ 2 2 4 d ×
d
a
a Similarly, intensity transmitted through =
dYn
= 2 = d = λ [Q d = 5λ]
P2 , D 10d 20 4
s 2 A path difference of λ corresponds to
I I 1
I3 = 0 cos 2 45° ⇒ I3 = 0 × phase difference 2π.
4 4 2
Width of central maxima So, for path difference λ / 4, phase
I0 1 I0
= Width of ten maxima ⇒ I3 = × ⇒ I3 = difference,
2λ λD 4 2 8 2π λ
= 10 φ= × = π / 2 = 90°
a d 8 It is given that, λ 4
2d 2 × 10−3 I2 φ
⇒ a= = = n ⇒ I2 = nI1 As we know, I = I 0 cos 2
10D 10 × 1 I1 2
90°
⇒ a = 2 × 10−4 m ∴ Ratio of intensities is given by ⇒ I = I 0 cos 2
I max − I min 2
a = 0.2 mm 2
I max + I min 1 I0
2 ⇒ I = I0 × ⇒I =
a + a2 2 2
6 Q I max = 25 or 1 25 ( I2 + I1 ) − ( I2 −
2 2
= =
I1 )
I min 9 a1 − a2 9
( I1 + I2 )2 + ( I2 − I1 )2 ) 10 As the first minimum is observed at an
where, a denotes amplitude. 2 2 angle of 30° in a diffraction pattern due to a
a + a2 5 a I2 I
or 1 = or 1 = 4 + 1 − 2 − 1 single slit of width a.
a1 − a2 3 a2 I1 I1
= i.e. n = 1, θ = 30°
As, (amplitude)2 ∝ intensity I2
2
I
2
Q According to Bragg’s law of
+ 1 + 2 − 1
I1 a1
2
I1 I1 diffraction,
Hence, = = 16 a sin θ = nλ ⇒ a sin 30° = (1) λ
I2 a2 ( n + 1)2 − ( n − 1)2
= [Q n = 1]
( n + 1)2 + ( n − 1)2
a = 2λ …(i) Q sin 30° =
7 According to the question, 1
⇒
2 n 2
=
P1 P3 P2 n+1 For first secondary maxima,
3λ 3λ
9 a sin θ1 = ⇒ sin θ1 = …(ii)
2 2a
I0 I1 I2 I3 Screen
Substituting the value of a from
Eq. (i) into Eq. (ii), we get
S1 2.5λ 3λ 3
sin θ1 = ⇒ sin θ1 =
90° 5λ 4λ 4
⇒ θ1 = sin −1
S2 O 3
45° 50λ 4
DAY THIRTY
Unit Test 6
(Optics)
1 Sun is visible a little before the actual sunrise and until a 7 A beam of monochromatic light is refracted from vacuum
little after the actual sunset. This is due to into a medium of refractive index 1.5. The wavelength of
(a) total internal reflection (b) reflection refracted light will be
(c) refraction (d) polarisation (a) dependent on intensity of refracted light
(b) same
2 The magnification of a compound microscope is 30 and
(c) smaller
the focal length of its eye piece is 5cm. The (d) larger
magnification produced by the objective, when the
8 There is a prism with refractive index equal to 2 and
image is to be formed at least distance of distinct vision
the refracting angle equal to 30°. One of the refracting
(25 cm), is
surface of the prism is polished. A beam of
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
monochromatic light will retrace its path, its angle of
3 A simple microscope consists of a concave lens of incidence over the refracting surface of the prism is
power −10 D and a convex lens of power +20 D in (a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
contact. If the image is formed at infinity, then the
9 What is Brewster angle for air to glass transition? ( µ of
magnifying power (D = 25 cm ) is
glass is 1.5)
(a) 2.5 (b) 3.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
(a) 56.3° (b) 57.5° (c) 59.1° (d) 83°
4 Interference is possible in
10 In a double slit experiment 5th dark fringe is formed
(a) light waves only
opposite to one of the slits. The wavelength of light is
(b) sound waves only
(c) both light and sound waves d2 d2 d2 d2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) neither light nor sound waves 6D 5D 15 D 9D
5 The axes of the polariser and analyser are inclined to 11 Angle of deviation (δ ) by a prism (refractive index = µ,
each other at 45°. If the amplitude of the unpolarised and supposing the angle of prism A to be small) can be
light incident on the polariser is a ,then what is the given by
amplitude of the light transmitted through the analyser? (a) δ = (µ − 1) A (b) δ = (µ + 1) A
a a 3 3 A+δ
(a) (b) (c) a (d) a sin
2 2 2 4 2 µ −1
(c) µ = (d) δ = A
6 A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one sin
A µ+1
surface of a prism of small angle A and emerges 2
normally from opposite surface. If the refractive index of 12 The illuminance of a surface 2 m away from a point
the material of prism is µ, the angle of incidence i is source is 4 Wm −2 . It will be 2 Wm −2 when the distance of
nearly equal to the point from the source is
A A µA (a) 2 2 m (b) 2 / 2 m
(a) (b) (c) µ A (d)
µ 2µ 2 (c) 2 m (d) 1/ 2 m
326 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY
13 A wavefront is represented by the plane y = 3 − x . The 23 A transparent cube contains small air bubble. Its
propagation wave takes place at apparent distance is 2cm when seen through one face
(a) 45° with the + ve x -direction and 5 cm when seen through other face. If the refractive
(b) 135° with the + ve x-direction index of the material of the cube is 1.5, the real length of
(c) 60° with the + ve x-direction
the edge of cube must be
14
(d) no sufficient data (a) 7 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 10.5 cm (d) cm
3
14 In Young’s double slit experiment with monochromatic
24 Transmission of light in optical fibre is due to
light of wavelength 600 nm, the distance between slits is
(a) scattering (b) diffraction
10−3 m . For changing fringe width by 3 × 10−5 m
(c) polarisation
(a)the screen is moved away from the slits by 5 cm (d) multiple total internal reflections
(b)the screen is moved by 5 cm towards the slits
(c)the screen is moved by 3 cm towards the slits 25 Diameter of human eye lens is 2 mm. What will be the
(d)Both (a) and (b) be correct minimum distance between two points to resolve them,
which are situated at a distance of 50 m from eye?
15 A lens is placed between a source of light and wall. It
(The wavelength of light is 500 Å)
forms images of area A1 and A 2 on the wall, for its two
different positions, the area of the source of light is (a) 2.32 m (b) 4.28 mm (c) 1.25 cm (d) 12.48 cm
A1 + A 2 A1 − A 2 1 1 26 Two nicol prisms are placed with their principal planes at
(a) A 1A 2 (b) (c) (d) +
2 2 A1 A 2 60°. What percentage of light incident on the
combination is transmitted?
16 A convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens
of focal length 50 cm are combined together. What will (a) 75% (b) 60% (c) 25% (d) 12.5%
be their resulting power? 27 In Young’s double slit experiment, if the slit widths are in
(a) + 6.5 D (b) − 6.5 D (c) + 7.5 D (d) − 0.75 D the ratio 1 : 9, the ratio of the intensity at minima to that at
−2 maxima will be
17 Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm is incident on the
combination of three polaroids. The first and last (a) 1 (b) 1/9 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/3
polaroids are crossed. If the intensity of the light 28 Two coherent light sources S1 and S 2 (λ = 6000 Å) are
transmitted through the combination be 3 Wm −2 , then 1 mm apart from each other. The screen is placed at a
what is the angle between the transmission axes of first distance of 25 cm from the sources. The width of the
two polaroids? fringes on the screen should be
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
(a) 0.015 cm (b) 0.025 cm (c) 0.010 cm (d) 0.030 cm
18 Two lamps of powers P1 and P2 are placed on either side 29 Light from two coherent sources of same amplitude ( A )
of a paper having an oil spot. The lamps are at 1m and and wavelength ( λ ) illuminates the screen. The intensity
2m respectively, on either side of the paper and the oil of central maximum is I 0. If the source were incoherent,
spot is invisible. What is the value of P1/P2 ? the intensity at the same point will be
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.60
(a) I 0 / 2 (b) I 0 (c) 2I 0 (d) 4I 0
19 An astronomical telescope of ten-fold angular
30 What will be the angle of diffraction for the first minimum
magnification has a length of 44 cm. The focal length of
the objective is due to Fraunhoffer diffraction with sources of light of
wavelength 550 nm and slit of width 0.55 mm?
(a) 440 cm (b) 44 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 4 cm
(a) 1 rad (b) 0.1 rad (c) 0.01 rad (d) 0.001 rad
20 The wavefront due to a source situated at infinity is
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical 31 Young’s double slit experiment is performed with light of
(c) planar (d) None of these wavelength 550 nm. The separation between the slits is
21 The refractive index of the material of an equilateral 1.10 mm and the screen is placed at a distance of 1m.
prism is 3, then the angle of minimum deviation of the What is the distance between the consecutive bright and
prism is dark fringes ?
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75° (a) 0.5 mm (b) 1.0 mm
22 A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a (c) 1.5 mm (d) None of these
narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is 32 To produce an achromatic combination, a convex lens of
observed on a screen 1m away. It is observed that the focal length 42 cm and dispersive power 0.14 is placed
first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the centre in contact with a concave lens of dispersive power 0.21.
of the screen . Find the width of the slit. The focal length of the concave lens is
(a) 0.2 mm (b) 1.0 mm (c) 4.1 mm (d) 0.6 mm
(a) 21 cm (b) 42 cm (c) 63 cm (d) 84 cm
DAY THIRTY UNIT TEST 6 (OPTICS) 327
33 The focal length of a lens for red and violet colours are A
42 If the refractive index of a glass prism is cot and A is
16.4 cm and 16 cm. What is its dispersive power? 2
angle of prism, then angle of minimum deviation is
(a) 0.050 (b) 0.025 (c) 0.012 (d) 0.006
π π − A
(a) − A (b) 2 π − (c)
A
34 A concave mirror of focal length 20cm produces an (d) (π − 2A)
2 2 2
image twice the size of the object. If the image is real,
then the distance of the object from the mirror is 43 If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave
lens of focal length 50 cm are combined together, what
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) –30 cm (d) 60 cm
will be their resultant power?
35 The luminous efficiency of the lamp is 5 lm W −1. If the (a) + 0.65 D (b) − 0.65 D (c) + 075
. D (d) − 075
. D
luminous intensity of the lamp be 35 Cd, then power of
the lamp is 44 A convex lens forms a full image of the object on a screen.
(a) 28 W (b) 88 W (c) 112 W (d) 140 W If half of the lens is covered with an opaque object, then
(a) the image disappears (b) half of the image is seen
36 A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism, such
(c) full image is seen and of same intensity
that an angle of incidence is equal to the angle of (d) full image is seen and of decreased intensity
emergence and the latter is equal to 3/4 th the angle of
prism. The angle of deviation is 45 What is the focal length of a convex lens of focal length
30 cm in contact with a concave lens of focal length
(a) 45° (b) 39° (c) 20° (d) 30°
20 cm. Is the system a converging or a diverging lens?
37 One face AC of the glass prism is A (Ignore thickness of the lenses.)
silvered as shown and the principle
α (a) 60 cm, diverging (b) 40 cm, converging
section of the glass prism is an (c) 50 cm, converging (d) 40 cm, diverging
isosceles triangle ABC with Direction (Q. Nos. 46-50) In each of the following
AB = AC. The ∠BAC, if the ray β β questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a
incident normally on the face AB and B C corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the
after two reflections, it emerges from the base BC, statements mark the correct answer as :
perpendicular to it, is (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion
(a) 70° (b) 36° (c) 72° (d) 44°
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
38 A man having height 6 m, observes image of 2 m height not correct explanation of the Assertion
erect, then mirror used is (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(a) concave (b) convex (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(c) plane (d) None of these 46 Assertion (A) The resolving power of a telescope is
39 A vessel consists of two more, if the diameter of the objective lens is more.
plane mirrors at right angle
Reason (R) Objective lens of large diameter collects
(as shown in the figure). The more light.
vessel is filled with water.
The total deviation in incident 47 Assertion (A) The focal length of the objective of the
telescope is larger than that of eyepiece.
ray is 90°
Reason (R) The resolving power of telescope increases
(a) 0° (b) 90° when the aperture of objective is small.
(c) 180° (d) None of these
48 Assertion (A) Convergent lens property of converging
40 An object is placed at a distance equal to focal length of remain same in all mediums.
convex mirror. If the focal length of the mirror be f, then
Reason (R) Property of lens whether the ray is diverging
the distance of the image from the pole of the mirror is or converging is independent of the surrounding
(a) less than f (b) equal to f (c) more than f (d) infinity medium.
41 If a ray light is incident on an P 49 Assertion (A) If Brewster’s angle be θ, then critical angle
equilateral glass prism PQR is sin−1(cot θ ).
placed on a horizontal table, 1
C Reason (R) The refractive index of medium µ = ,
then for the minimum deviation B D sin C
C being critical angle.
which of the following is true? A 50 Assertion (A) In Young’s double slit experiment
(a) AB is horizontal interference pattern disappear when one of the slits is
(b) CD is horizontal Q R closed.
(c) Either AB or CD is horizontal
(d) BC is horizontal Reason (R) Interference occurs due to superimposition of
light waves from two coherent sources.
328 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY
ANSWERS
1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (d)
31 (a) 32 (c) 33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (a)
41 (d) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (a) 47 (c) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (a)
A
42 The refractive index ( µ ) of a prism of 45 Here, f1 = 30 cm, f2 = − 20 cm, f = ?
angle A, and minimum deviation δ m is 1 1 1
As, = +
given by f f1 f2
α A + δm
i sin ∴
1
=
1
−
1
=
2−3
=−
1
2
i µ = f 30 20 60 60
sin A / 2
β f = − 60 cm
r ∴ The combination of lenses behaves as
A a concave lens. The system is diverging.
y y δm
90º
B C 46 Resolving power telescope is = a
1.22 λ
where, a is the diameter of objective
Again, from figure,
lens and λ is the wavelength of light
β = 90° – 2i C
B used. It is obvious that on increasing a,
β = 90° – 2 A [Q from Eq. (iii)] more light is collected by objective lens
or 2 A = 90° – β A and so, the image formed is more bright.
2A = γ …(iv) Given, µ = cot
2 Thus, resolving power telescope
Again, from figure, ( A + δm ) increases.
γ = 90° – β = γ = 2 A sin
A 2
∴ cot = 47 The magnifying power telescope in
∴ γ = 2A …(v) 2 sin( A / 2) fo
∴In ∆ABC, relaxed state is m =
A ( A + δm ) fe
A + B + C = 180° cos sin
⇒ 2 = 2
A + γ + γ = 180° sin( A / 2) sin( A / 2)
So, for high magnification, the focal
A + 2 A + 2 A = 180° ⇒ A = 36° length of objective length should be larger
A + δm
= sin
A
⇒ cos than that of eyepiece.
38 The magnification of image is less than 2 2 d
1, so mirror used is convex. Resolving power of a telescope =
+ δ m 1.22 λ
∴ sin 90° − = sin
A A
39 The deviation produced by combination 2 2 For high resolving power, diameter (d )
of two plane mirrors is A A + δm of objective should be higher.
π ⇒ 90° − =
δ = 2 π − 2θ = 2 π − 2 × [θ = 90° ] 2 2 48 In air or water, a convex lens made of
2 ⇒ 180° − A = A + δ m glass behaves as a convergent lens but
⇒ δ = π = 180° ⇒ δ m = 180° − 2 A = π − 2 A when it is placed is carbon disulphide,
Hence, total deviation in incidnet ray is it behaves as a divergent lens.
180° 43 Combined focal length
1 1 1 Therefore, when a convergent lens is
= + placed inside a transparent medium of
f f1 f2
refractive index greater than that of
Given, f1 = 80 cm, f2 = − 50 cm material of lens, it behaves as a
(concave) divergent lens.
1 1 1
∴ = − It simply concludes that property of a
f 80 50
lens whether the ray is diverging or
90° 30
=− converging depends on the surrounding
4000 medium.
40 Image formed by convex mirror as 1 – 30 × 100
∴ P = = 49 According to Brewster’s law
shown in figure. f 4000
µ = tan θ …(i)
−3
= = − 075
. D where, µ is the refractive index of
4
medium and tanθ is the tangent of the
A 44 The various rays from the object, after angle of polarisation
refraction through different parts of the 1
µ = tan θ = …(ii)
A′ lens, will still converges at the point, cot θ
only their number will be less. When 1
Also, we know that, µ = …(iii)
B F C
half the lens is covered with an opaque sinC
B′
f f object. Hence, still the full image of the From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
object is obtained but its intensity will 1 1
be less. = and sin C = cot θ
sin C cot θ
−1
Object (Half lens covered) C = sin (cot θ)
41 For minimum deviation the refracted
ray passes parallel to the base of the 50 Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Image Reason is correct explanation.
prism. Hence, BC is horizontal.
DAY THIRTY ONE
Matter Waves
Learning & Revision for the Day
u de-Broglie Waves u X-Rays
u Davisson-Germer Experiment u Moseley’s Law
de-Broglie Waves
Light is said to have dual character, i.e. it behaves like matter (particle) and wave both.
Some properties like interference, diffraction can be explained on the basis of wave
nature of light, while the phenomena like photoelectric effect, black body radiation, etc.
can be explained on the basis of particle nature of light.
In 1942, Louis de-Broglie explained that like light, matter also show dual behaviour,
there is a wave associated with moving particle, known as matter waves or de-Broglie
waves.
de-Broglie Relation
According to quantum theory, energy of photon
E = hν …(i)
If mass of the photon is taken as m, then as per Einstein’s equation
E = mc2 …(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get, hν = mc2 PREP
c
h = mc2 , MIRROR
λ Your Personal Preparation Indicator
where, λ = wavelength of photon u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
h
λ= u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
mc u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
de-Broglie asserted that the above equation is completely a general function and applies (Without referring Explanations)
to photon as well as all other moving particles.
u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
h h
So, λ= = u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
mv 2 mE
where, m is mass of particle and v is its velocity. In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
Level should be above 75.
332 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY ONE
l
de-Broglie wavelength associated with charged particle Clearly from figure, we have θ + φ + θ = 180 °
h h h
λ= = =
p 2 mE 2 mqV
l
de-Broglie wavelength of a gas molecule θ φ
D
h θ d
λ=
3 mkT
where, T = absolute temperature
k = Boltzmann’s constant = 1.38 × 10 −23 J / K
l
Ratio of wavelength of photon and electron The X-Rays
wavelength of photon of energy E is given by
X-rays were discovered by Roentgen. X-rays are produced
hc
λp = while the wavelength of an electron of kinetic when fast moving electrons strike a metal of high atomic
E weight and high melting point.
h
energy K is given by λ c = ⋅ Therefore for same The phenomena of thermionic emission is used to produce
2 mK
energy, the ratio electrons in coolidge tube. Intensity of X-rays is directly
proportional to the square of the strength of the current in the
λp c 2 mc2 K filament which heats the cathode.
= 2 mK =
λe E E2 Quality of X-rays is measured in terms of their penetrating
power and depends upon the potential difference applied to
Davisson-Germer Experiment the X-ray tube. X-rays are diffracted by crystals in accordance
with Bragg’s law.
l
The de-Broglie hypothesis was confirmed by
Davisson-Germer experiment. It is used to study the
scattering of electron from a solid or to verify the wave Properties of X-Rays
nature of electron. l
X-rays are electromagnetic waves with wavelength range
l
A beam of electrons emitted by electron gun is made to fall 0.1 Å to 100 Å.
on nickel crystal cut along cubical axis at a particular l
X-rays are invisible.
angle. Ni crystal behaves like a three dimensional l
X-rays carry no charge, so they are not deflected by electric
diffraction grating and it diffracts the electron beam and magnetic fields.
obtained from electron gun.
l
They travel in straight line with speed 3 × 10 8 ms −1 through
l
The diffracted beam of electrons is received by the detector
which can be positioned at any angle by rotating it about vacuum.
the point of incidence. l
They obey phenomenon of interference, diffraction and
l
The energy of the incident beam of electrons can also be polarisation of light.
varied by changing the applied voltage to the electron gun. l
They ionise gases.
l
According to classical physics, the intensity of scattered l
They effect photographic plate.
beam of electrons at all scattering angle will be same but l
They can pass through flesh and blood, but not through
Davisson and Germer found that the intensity of scattered bones.
beam of electrons was not same but different at different l
They produce photoelectric effect and Compton effect.
angles of scattering.
l
They are not used in RADAR as they are not reflected by the
l
It is maximum for diffracting angle
target. X-rays can be used to detect diseases and to cure them.
50° at 54 V potential difference.
54 V
Incident beam
l
If the de-Broglie waves exist for
electrons, then these should be Types of X-Rays
diffracted as X-rays. X-rays are classified into two types on the basis of penetrating
Using the Bragg’s formula 50°
power
2d sin θ = nλ ,
we can determine the wavelength of
1. Soft X-rays
these waves, l
These types of X-rays produced when the potential
where d = distance between diffracting planes, difference across the cathode and target is less than 20000 V.
180 − φ l
They have low penetrating power.
θ=
2 l
These are used in the field of medicine.
= glancing angle for incident beam = Bragg’s angle. l
These are having large wavelengths.
DAY THIRTY ONE MATTER WAVES 333
2. Hard X-rays l
If the electron striking the target ejects an electron from
L-shell of the target atom, an electron from the M, N,…
l
These type of X-rays produced when the potential difference shells jumps to the L-shell, so that X-rays photons of lesser
across the cathode and target is more than 30000 V. energy are emitted. These photons form the L-series of
l
These rays are more penetrating than soft X-rays. spectrum.
l
They have low wavelength of the order of 1Å. l
In similar way, the formation of M-series, N-series, etc. may
l
These are used in the field of science and industry. be explained.
l
Intensity wavelength graph is given by
Typese of X-rays Spectra
X-rays spectra are of two types
Kα
Intensity
Lγ
l
X-rays of all wavelengths but having different intensities
K-series
are emitted by the tube.
L-series
l
As incident electron loses its energy continuously, due to
collisions with atoms of the target, the loss of energy is
found as X-rays. Hence, X-rays of all wavelengths are λmin Wavelength
produced.
Moseley’s Law
30kV Moseley studied the characteristic of X-ray spectrum of a
Intensity
6 If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times 16 The X-ray tube is operated at 50 kV. The minimum
its previous value, the percentage change in the wavelength produced, is
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is j CBSE AIPMT 2014 (a) 0.5 Å (b) 0.75 Å
(a) 25 (b) 75 (c) 60 (d) 50 (c) 0.25 Å (d) 1.0 Å
7 The following particles are moving with the same velocity, 17 What kV potential is to be applied on X-ray tube, so that
then maximum de-Broglie wavelength will be for minimum wavelength of emitted X-ray may be 1 Å
j
CBSE AIPMT 2002 (Take, h = 6.6 × 10−34 J - s )
(a) proton (b) α-particle (c) neutron (d) β-particle (a) 12.42 kV (b) 12.84 kV
(c) 11.98 kV (d) 10.78 kV
8 Nuclear radii may be measured by scattering high
18 If f1, f2 and f3 are the frequencies of corresponding
energy electrons from nuclei. What is the de-broglie
K α , Kβ and Lα , X-rays of an electron, then
wavelength for 200 MeV electrons?
(a) f1 = f2 = f3 (b) f1 − f2 = f3
(a) 8.28 fm (b) 7.98 fm
(c) 6.45 fm (d) 6.20 fm (c) f2 = f1 + f3 (d) f22 = f1f3
DAY THIRTY ONE MATTER WAVES 335
19 According to the Moseley’s law, the frequency of 20 Two elements A and B with atomic numbers Z A and Z B
characteristic X-rays is related to the atom in number of are used to produce characteristics X-rays with
target element as frequencies ν A and νB , respectively. If Z A : Z B = 1 : 2,
(a) Z (b) Z 2 then ν A : νB will be
(c) Z −1 (d) Z −2 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 8 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
2 The de-Broglie wavelength of a bus moving with speed v 7 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
is λ. Some passengers left the bus at a stoppage. Now, equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (kelvin)
when the bus moves with twice its initial speed, its kinetic and mass m, is j NEET 2017
(a)
E 2
(c)
1 2m 2
(d)
1 E 2
electrons is increased, then which of the following (b) c (2mE ) 2
2m c E c 2m
statement(s) is/are correct? j
NEET 2013
(a) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the 11 An electron of mass m with a velocity v = v 0i$ (v 0 > 0)
case of electrons enters an electric field E = − E 0$i (E 0 = constant > 0) at
(b) The angular width of the central maximum of the
t = 0. If λ 0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
diffraction pattern will increase
de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
(c) The angular width of the central maximum will be
eE 0
decrease (a) λ 0 t (b) λ 0 1 + t
(d) The angular width of the central maximum will be mv 0
unaffected λ0
(c) (d) λ 0
eE 0
6 The potential energy of a particle of mass m varies as 1 + t
mv 0
U(x) = E 0 for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1
0 for x > 1
336 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY ONE
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (d)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (c)
Photoelectric
Effect
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Photon u Laws of Photoelectric Emission Effect
u Photoelectric Effect u Energy and Momentum of Photon
Photon
A particle of light called a photon has energy E that is related to the frequency f and
wavelength λ of light wave.
hc
By the Einstein equation, E = hf = …(i)
λ
where, c is the speed of light (in vacuum) and h is Planck’s constant.
h = 6.626 × 10 −34 J-s = 4136
. × 10 −15 eV-s
Since, energies are often given in electron volt (1eV = 1.6 × 10 −19 J) and wavelengths are
in Å, it is convenient to the combination hc in eV-Å. We have,
hc = 12375 eV-Å
12375
Hence, Eq. (i), in simpler form can be written as, E ( in eV) = …(ii)
λ ( in Å)
PREP
The propagation of light is governed by its wave porperties whereas the exchange of
energy between, light with matter is governed by its particle properties. The MIRROR
Your Personal Preparation Indicator
wave-particle duality is a general property of nature. For example, electrons (and other
so called particles) also propagate as waves and exchange energy as particles. u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
Particle Nature of Light u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
(Without referring Explanations)
Photoelectric effect gave evidence to the strange fact that light in interaction with matter
behaved as if it was made of quanta or packets of energy, each of energy hν. Einstein u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
hν Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
stated that the light quantum can also be associated with momentum ⋅ u
c
This particle like behaviour of light was further confirmed, in 1924, by the experiment of In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
A.H. Compton on scattering of X-rays from electrons. Level should be above 75.
DAY THIRTY TWO PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT 339
Photoelectric Effect
Photoelectric current
l
Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon of emission of
electrons (known as photoelectrons) from the surface of
ν 3 > ν 2 > ν1
metals when light radiation of suitable frequency are
Saturation
incident on them. ν3 current
l
The minimum energy of incident radiation needed to eject ν2
ν1
the electrons from metal surface is known as work function
(φ0) of that surface.
– V03 – V02 – V01 0 Collector plate
l
The frequency or wavelength corresponding to the work Stopping potential potential
function is called threshold frequency or threshold
A photon may collide with a material particle. The total
wavelength. Work function is related to threshold
energy and the total momentum remain conserved in such a
frequency as,
collision. Photoelectric emission is an instantaneous
hc
φ 0 = hν 0 = phenomenon.
λ0
V0
where, λ 0 = threshold wavelength.
hc 12400
l
In electron volt units, φ (eV) = =
eλ 0 λ (Å) O
ν0 ν
l
For photoemission to take place energy of incident light (E )
is related as, E ≥ p0
– φ0
l
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
hν = φ0 + K max
1 Variation of stopping potential V0 with frequency ν of incident
where, K max = mv2max = maximum kinetic energy of radiation is as shown in above figure.
2
h φ
ejected photoelectron. As, eV0 = h(ν − ν 0) = hν − φ0 ⇒ V0 = ν − 0
e e
h
Effect of Intensity on Thus, V0- ν graph is a straight line whose slope is and
e
Photoelectric Emission intercept is − φ0 eV. The graph meets the ν-axis at ν 0.
For a light of given frequency ν > ν 0 (or given wavelength Photocurrent ∝ ∝ λ
1
λ < λ 0), if the intensity of light incident on photosensitive metal ν
surface is increased, the number of photoelectrons and
consequently the photoelectric current I increases. However, the
stopping potential V0 remain constant.
Energy and Momentum of Photon
l
From Einstein’s mass-energy relation E = hν = mc2
Photoelectric
hν
Kinetic mass of photon is m =
current
I 1 > I2 > I3 c2
I1 c
I2 But ν = , where λ is wavelength of the photon.
I3 λ
h c h
Saturation ∴Kinetic mass of photon, m = 2 =
Stopping
current c λ cλ
potential
hν h
Kinetic mass of photon, m = 2 =
–V0 O Collector plate c cλ
Stopping potential potential l
Momentum of photon,
p = kinetic mass of photon × velocity of photon
Effect of Frequency on hν
= 2 ×c =
hν
c c
Photoelectric Emission c
Also, ν =
If keeping the intensity of incident light constant, the λ
frequency of incident light is increased, then the stopping hc h
potential V0 (and hence, K max ) increases, but the photoelectric ∴Momentum of photon, p = =
c λ λ
current I remains unchanged.
340 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY TWO
frequency Photocurrent
(c) Independence of velocity of photoelectrons of intensity
of radiations b
(d) Instantaneous photoelectric emission c a
3 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident 7 Consider a beam of electrons (each electron with energy
light has more than a certain minimum j
CBSE AIPMT 2011 E 0) incident on a metal surface kept in an evacuated
(a) wavelength (b) intensity chamber. Then,
(c) frequency (d) power (a) no electrons will be emitted as only photons can emit
electrons
4 The number of photoelectrons emitted for light of a
(b) electrons can be emitted, but all with an energy E 0
frequency ν (higher than the threshold frequency ν 0 ) is (c) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a
proportional to j
CBSE AIPMT 2009 maximum of E 0 - φ (φ is the work function)
(a) ν − ν0 (d) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a
(b) threshold frequency (ν0 ) maximum of E 0
(c) intensity of light
8 From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph of
(d) frequency of light (ν)
kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the
5 What is E in the Einstein’s photoelectric equation metal versus the frequency of the incident radiation gives
E = hν − φ 0 , where ν is the frequency of incident a straight line graph, whose slope
radiations and φ 0 is the work function? (a) depends on the intensity of the incident radiation
(a) Kinetic energy of every photoelectron (b) depends on the nature of the metal and also on the
(b) Mean kinetic energy of photoelectrons intensity of incident radiation
(c) Minimum kinetic energy of photoelectrons (c) is same for all metals and independent of the
(d) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons intensity of the incident radiation
(d) depends on the nature of the metal
DAY THIRTY TWO PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT 341
9 Light of wavelength λ falls on a metal having work 18 A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by
hc λ
function . Photoelectric effect will take place only, if monochromatic light of wavelength λ and . If the
λ0 2
(a) λ ≥ λ 0 (b) λ ≥ 2 λ 0 (c) λ ≤ λ 0 (d) λ = 4 λ 0 maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in
the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work
10 The work functions for metals A , B and C are
function of the surface of the material is j CBSE AIPMT 2015
respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to
Einstein’s equation, the metal (s) which will emit (where, h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light)
hc hc 2 hc hc
photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are (a) (b) (c) (d)
2λ λ λ 3λ
(a) Only A (b) A and B
(c) All of these (d) None of these 19 In an experiment, photoelectrons are emitted when light
11 Ultraviolet beam of wavelength 280 nm is incident on of wavelength 4000 Å is incident on it. They can be
lithium surface of work function 2.5eV. The maximum stopped by a retarding potential of 2V. If the wavelength
velocity of electron emitted from metal surface is of the incident light be 3000Å, the stopping potential will
(a)8.2 × 105 m/s (b) 106 m/s be
(c)7 × 105 m/s (d) 3 .8 × 106 m/s (a) 1 V (b) 1.5 V (c) 2 V (d) 3 V
12 A light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a sensitive plate 20 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work
with photoelectric work function 1.90 eV. Kinetic energy function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic
of the emitted photoelectrons will be electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping
(Take, h = 6.62 × 10−34 Js) potential is j CBSE AIPMT 2011
(a) 0.1 eV (b) 2 eV (c) 0.58 eV (d) 1.581 eV (a) 1.3 V (b) 0.5 V (c) 2.3 V (d) 1.8 V
13 The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 21 Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in
3250 × 10−10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected from a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted
a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are
2536 × 10−10 m is (Take, h = 4.14 × 10−15 eVs and incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A,
c = 3 × 108 ms −1 ) j
NEET 2017 if the stopping potential of A relative to C is j NEET 2016
(a) ≈ 6 × 105 ms −1 (b) ≈ 0.6 × 106 ms −1 (a) + 3 V (b) + 4 V (c) – 1 V (d) – 3 V
(c) ≈ 61 × 103 ms −1 (d) ≈ 0.3 × 106 ms −1
22 A certain metallic surface is illuminated with
14 When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by monochromatic light of wavelength λ. The stopping
20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3V0. If
from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength
The work function of the metal is j
CBSE AIPMT 2014 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold
(a) 0.65 eV (b) 1.0 eV (c) 1.3 eV (d) 1.5 eV wavelength for this surface for photoelectric effect is
15 For photoelectric emission from certain metal, the cut-off j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
frequency is ν. If radiation of frequency 2ν impinges on the λ λ
(a) 6λ (b) 4λ (c) (d)
metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted 4 6
electron will be (where, m is the electron mass) j NEET 2013 23 Photons absorbed in matter are converted to heat. A
hν hν 2hν hν source emitting n photon/s of frequency ν is used to
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
(2m) m m m convert 1kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C. Then, the
time T taken for the conversion
16 If a surface has a work function 4.0 eV, what is the
(a) increases with increasing n with ν fixed
maximum velocity of electrons liberated from the surface
when it is irradiated with ultraviolet radiation of (b) increases with n fixed ν increasing
wavelength 0.2 µm? (c) remains constant with n and ν changing such that,
nν = constant
(a)4.4 × 105 m/s (b) 8.8 × 107 m/s
(d) increases when the product nν increases
(c)8.8 × 105 m/s (d) 4.4 × 107 m/s
24 When a monochromatic point source of light is at a
17 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have
distance r from a photoelectric cell, the cut-off voltage is
energies 1eV and 2.5 eV respectively, illuminate a
V and the saturation current is I. If the same source is
metallic surface whose work function is 0.5eV
placed at a distance 3 r away from the photoelectric cell,
successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted
then
electrons will be j
CBSE AIPMT 2011
(a) no change in saturation current and stopping potential
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 4
342 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY TWO
(b) saturation current will decrease and stopping potential (a) 9 × 1017 (b) 3 × 1016
will not change (c) 9 × 1015 (d) 3 × 1019
(c) saturation current will increase and stopping potential 28 A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly
will decrease
reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the
(d) None of the above
surface is (where, c = velocity of light) j CBSE AIPMT 2015
25 A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of (a)
E
(b)
2E
wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25 % efficient in c c
converting electrical energy to light, the number of 2E E
(c) (d)
photons of yellow light it emits per second is c2 c2
j CBSE AIPMT 2012 29 Photon and electron are given same energy (10−20 J).
Wavelength associated with photon and electron are λ p
(a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 (c) 62 × 1020 (d) 3 × 1019
and λ e , the correct statement will be
26 A source S1 is producing 1015 photons/s of wavelength
(a) λ p > λe (b) λ p < λe
5000 Å. Another source S 2 is producing1.02 × 1015 λ
(c) λ p = λe (d) e = c
photon/s of wavelength 5100 Å. Then, λp
(power of S 2 )/ (power of S1 ) is equal to j CBSE AIPMT 2010
30 The wavelength λ e of an electron and λ p of a photon of
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.02 (c) 1.04 (d) 0.98
same energy E are related by j NEET 2013
27 Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced
(a) λ p ∝ λ2e (b) λ p ∝ λe
by a helium-neon laser. The power emitted is 9 mW. The
1
number of photons arriving per second on the average at (c) λ p ∝ λe (d) λ p ∝
λe
a target irradiated by this beam is j CBSE AIPMT 2009
2 Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using 4 Two identical photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1
and f2 . If the velocities of the photoelectrons (of mass m)
three different metal plates p, q and r having work
coming out are respectively v1 and v 2 , then
functions φ p = 2 eV, φ q = 2.5 eV and φ r = 3 eV,
1/ 2
(b) v1 + v 2 = (f1 + f2 )
respectively. A light beam containing wavelengths of 2h 2h
(a)v12 − v 22 = (f1 − f2 )
m m
550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with equal intensities
1/ 2
(d) v1 − v 2 = (f1 − f2 )
illuminates each of the plates. 2h 2h
(c)v12 + v 22 = (f1 + f2 )
The correct I-V graph for the experiment is m m
I I
p 5 In a photoelectric experiment, it was found that the
q
(a) r (b) q stopping potential decreases from 1.85 V to 0.82 V as
p r
the wavelength of incident light is varied from 300 nm to
V V 400 nm. Planck constant from this data is
(a)6.634 × 10−34 eVs (b) 4.12 × 10−15 eVs
I p I
q p (c)2 × 10−30 eVs (d) 6.63 × 10−15 eVs
(c) r (d) q
r
6 A horizontal cesium plate (φ = 1.9 eV) is moved vertically
V V downward at a constant speed v in a room full of
radiation of wavelength 250 nm and above. The minimum
DAY THIRTY TWO PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT 343
value of v, so that the vertically upward component of 10 What will be the number of photons emitted per second
velocity is non-positive for such a photoelectron. by a 10 W sodium vapour lamp assuming that 90% of the
−1 −1
. × 10 ms
(a)104 6
(b) 3 × 10 ms 4 consumed energy is converted into light?
(c)2 × 103 ms −1 (d) None of these [Take wavelength of sodium light is 590 nm and
7 A totally reflecting mirror placed horizontally h = 6.63 × 10−34 J-s]
faces a parallel beam of light as shown in (a) 0. 267 × 1018 (b) 0. 267 × 1019
figure. The mass of the mirror is 20g. (c) 0. 267 × 1020 (d) 0. 267 × 1017
Assume 30% of the light emitted by the 11 When the light of frequency 2ν 0 (where, ν 0 is threshold
source passes through the lens frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum
unabsorbed. The power of the source velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of
needed to support the mirror the incident radiation is increased to 5ν 0, the maximum
(a) 104 W (b) 10 2 W (c) 10 8 W (d) 10 −1 W velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v 2 .
8 Ultraviolet light of wavelength 66.26 nm and intensity The ratio of v1 to v 2 is j NEET 2018
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (a,b) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (a)
SESSION 2 1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (c)
Atoms and
Nuclei
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Scattering of α-particles u Ionisation Energy and u Concept of Nucleus
u Rutherford‘s Model of the Atom Potential u Isotopes, Isobars, and
u Bohr’s Model u Excitation Energy and Isotones
Potential
u Hydrogen Spectrum
Atom is the smallest particle of an element which contains all properties of element.
Nuclei refer to a nucleus of an atom, having a given number of nucleons.
Scattering of α-particles
In 1911, Rutherford successfully explained the scattering of α-particles on the basis of
nuclear model of the atom.
Number of α-particles scattered through angle θ is given by
Z2
N (θ) ∝
sin (θ /2) K 2
4
where, K is the kinetic energy of α-particle and Z is the atomic number of the metal.
At distance of closest approach the entire initial kinetic energy of α-particles is PREP
converted into potential energy, so MIRROR
1 1 Ze(e) 1 2 ze2 ze2 Your Personal Preparation Indicator
mv2 = ⇒ r0 = × = K ×
2 4πε 0 r0 4πε 0 mv2 mv2 u No. of Questions in Exercises (x)—
u No. of Questions Attempted (y)—
u No. of Correct Questions (z)—
Rutherford’s Model of an Atom (Without referring Explanations)
On the basis of scattering of α-particles, Rutherford postulated the following model of
the atom
u Accuracy Level (z / y × 100)—
−10
u Prep Level (z / x × 100)—
l
Atom is a sphere of diameter about 10 m. Whole of its positive charge and most of
its mass is concentrated in the central part called the nucleus. In order to expect good rank in NEET, your
l
The diameter of the nucleus is of the order of 10 − 15 m. Accuracy Level should be above 85 & Prep
Level should be above 75.
348 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY THREE
l
The space around the nucleus is virtually empty with 1 v me 4
l
Orbital frequency is given by f = = = 2 3 3
electrons revolving around the nucleus in the same way as T 2πr 4 ε 0n h
the planets revolve around the sun.
l
The total energy of the orbital electron is
l
The electrostatic attraction of the nucleus provides me 4Z 2
centripetal force to the orbiting electrons. E = − 2 2 2
8ε 0h n
l
Total positive charge in the nucleus is equal to the total
negative charge of the orbiting electrons. me 4 Z 2
= − 2 3 ch 2
Rutherford’s model suffers from the following drawbacks 8ε 0ch n
(a) stability of the atomic model. Z2 Z2
= − Rch 2
= −13.6 2 eV
(b) nature of energy spectrum. n n
me 4Z 2 me 4Z 2
KE = , PE = −
8n h ε 0
2 2 2
4 n2 h2 ε20
Bohr’s Model l
The kinetic, potential and total energies of the electron
Bohr’s added the following postulates to the Rutherford’s with r as the radius of the orbit are as follows
model of the atom
1 1 Ze2
KE = ,
The electrons revolve around the nucleus only in certain 2 4πε 0 r
l
Brackett n=4
– 0.85
n=3
Some Characteristics of an Atom –1.51
Paschen
Infrared
l
The orbital radius of an electron is Balmer n=2
–3.40
2 2
n h n 2 Visible light
rn = 4πε 0 = 0.53 Å Lyman
4 π Zme
2 2
Z
series
l
The orbital velocity of an electron is n=1
–13.60
1 2 Zπ e2 c Z 6 Z
Ultraviolet
vn = = = 2.2 × 10 m/s
4πε 0 nh 137 n n Hydrogen spectrum
DAY THIRTY THREE ATOMS AND NUCLEI 349
6 In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, the electron 15 If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd
has the angular momentum orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ.
π h h 2π When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
h π 2π h corresponding wavelength of the photon will be
7 Taking the Bohr radius as a 0 = 53 pm, the radius of Li + + j NEET 2016
16 9 20 20
ion in its ground state, on the basis of Bohr’s model, will (a) λ (b) λ (c) λ (d) λ
be about 25 16 7 13
(a) 53 pm (b) 27 pm (c) 18 pm (d) 13 pm 16 Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
8 How many revolutions does an electron complete in one monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of
second in the first orbit of hydrogen atom? spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be
. × 1015 rev/s
(a) 657 (b) 100 rev/s
j CBSE AIPMT 2014
(c) 1000 rev/s (d) 1 rev/s (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 10
9 The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an 17 The ionisation energy of the electron in the hydrogen
electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited
(a) 2 : − 1 (b) 1 : − 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : − 2 to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths.
Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to
10 Which of the following transition in hydrogen atoms limit
the transition between j CBSE AIPMT 2009
photons of highest frequency?
(a) n = 3 to n = 2 states (b) n = 3 to n = 1 states
(a) n = 1to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 6 (c) n = 2 to n = 1 states (d) n = 4 to n = 3 states
(c) n = 6 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
18 Monochromatic radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a
11 Given that, R is Rydberg’s constant. When an electron in
hydrogen sample. In ground state, hydrogen atom
an atom of hydrogen jumps from an outer orbit n = 3 to
absorbs a fraction of light and subsequently emits
an inner orbit n = 2, the wavelength of emitted radiations
radiation of three different wavelengths. The wavelength
will be equal to
λ is
R 62
(a) (b) (a) 102.73 nm (b) 121.6 nm
62 R (c)110.3 nm (d) 45.2 nm
5R 36
(c) (d)
36 5R 19 The limit of Balmer series is 3646 Å. The wavelength of
first member of this series will be
12 An excited hydrogen atom returns to the ground state.
(a) 6563 Å (b) 3646 Å
The wavelength of emitted photon is λ. The principal (c) 7200 Å (d) 1000 Å
quantum number of the excited state will be
1/ 2 1/ 2
20 According to Bohr’s theory (assuming infinite mass of the
λR λR − 1
(a) (b) nucleus), the frequency of the second line of the Balmer
λR − 1 λR
series is
1/ 2
1 (a) 6.16 × 1014 Hz (b) 6.16 × 1010 Hz
(c) [λR (λR − 1)]1/ 2 (d)
λ R (λ R − 1) (c) 6.16 × 1013 Hz (d) 6.16 × 1016 Hz
13 In an inelastic collision, an electron excites a hydrogen 21 In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest
atom from its ground state to a M-shell state. A second wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest
electron collides instantaneously with the excited wavelength in the Balmer series is j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
4 9 27 5
hydrogen atom in the M-state and ionises it. At least how (a) (b) (c) (d)
9 4 5 27
much energy the second electron transfers to the atom in
the M-state? 22 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series
(a) + 3.4 eV (b) + 1.51 eV and the last line of Lyman series is j
NEET 2017
(c) – 3.4 eV (d) – 1.51 eV (a) 2 (b) 1
14 A hydrogen like atom emits radiations of frequency (c) 4 (d) 0.5
2.7 × 10 15 Hz when it makes a transition from n = 2 to n = 1. 23 The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen
The frequency emitted in a transition from n = 3 to n = 1 like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation
will be will be obtained in the transition from
(a) 1.6 × 1015 Hz (b) 3.2 × 1015 Hz (a) 2 → 1 (b) 3 → 2
(c) 4.8 × 1015 Hz (d) 6.4 × 1015 Hz (c) 4 → 2 (d) 5 → 3
352 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY THREE
24 The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom (c) the series limit of Lyman series, second member of
−13.6 Balmer series and second member of Paschen series
is expressed as E n = eV. The shortest and longest
n2 (d) the series limit of Lyman series, third member of Balmer
wavelength of Lyman series will be series and second member of Paschen series
(a) 910 Å , 1213 Å (b) 5463 Å , 7858 Å 27 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV.
(c) 1315 Å , 1530 Å (d) None of these When its electron is in the first excited state, its excitation
25 ν1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series, ν 2 energy is
is the frequency of the first line of Lyman series and ν 3 is (a) 3.4 eV (b) 6.8 eV (c) 10.2 eV (d) zero
the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series.
28 The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is
Then,
– 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited
(a) ν1 − ν2 = ν3 (b) ν1 = ν2 − ν3 state will be j CBSE AIPMT 2010
1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) = + (d) = + (a) –13.6 eV (b) –27.2 eV (c) – 54.4 eV (d) – 6.8 eV
ν2 ν1 ν3 ν1 ν2 ν3
29 The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The
26. In figure, the energy levels of the hydrogen atom have energy required to remove an electron from the second
been shown along with some transitions marked A, B and orbit of hydrogen will be
C. The transitions A, B and C respectively, represents (a)27.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(c)3.4 eV (d) None of these
Continuum 0 eV
30 The total energy of the electron orbiting around the
n=5 – 0.54 eV nucleus in the ground state of the atom is
n=4 – 0.85 eV (a) less than zero
C
n=3 –1.51 eV (b) zero
B
n=2 – 3.40 eV (c) more than zero
A (d) sometimes less and sometimes more than zero
n=1 –13.60 eV
(a) the first member of the Lyman series, third member of 31 The ratio of nuclear radii of the gold isotope 79 Au 197 and
107
Balmer series and second member of Paschen series the silver isotope 47 Ag is
(b) the ionisation potential of H, second member of Balmer (a) 0.233 (b) 2.33 (c) 1.225 (d) 12.25
series and third member of Paschen series
6 The binding energy of a H-atom, considering an electron K = 9 × 109 constant, Z = 2 and h (Planck constant)
me 4
= 6.6 × 10 −34 J-s] j CBSE AIPMT 2015
moving around a fixed nuclei (proton), is B = −
8 n 2 ε 20 h 2 (a)2.92 × 106 m/s (b) 1.46 × 106 m/s
(where, m = electron mass) (c)0.73 × 106 m/s (d) 3.0 × 108 m/s
If one decides to work in a frame of reference, where the 11 Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited
electron is at rest, the proton would be moving around it. state to second excited state and then from second
By similar arguments, the binding energy would be excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the
Me 4 wavelengths λ 1 : λ 2 emitted in the two cases is
B=−
8 n 2 ε 20 h 2 j CBSE AIPMT 2012
(where, M = proton mass) (a) 7/5 (b) 27/ 20 (c) 27/5 (d) 20/ 7
12 The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for
This last expression is not correct, because
hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of
(a) n would not be integral
Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number
(b) Bohr quantisation applies only to electron
Z of hydrogen like ion is j CBSE AIPMT 2011
24 hR 25 hR 24 m 25 m
MH = 1.67 × 10 −27 kg) (a) (b) (c) (d)
25 m 24 m 25 hR 24 hR
(a)2.2 ms −1 (b) 4.18 ms −1
(c)6.2 ms −1 (d) 1 ms −1 14 Hydrogen (1H1 ), deuterium (1H2 ), singly ionised helium
8 A hydrogen atom moves with velocity u and makes head ( 2 He4 )+ and doubly ionised lithium ( 3 Li8 )+ + all have one
on inelastic collision with another stationary H-atom. Both electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron
atoms are in ground state before collision. The minimum transition from n = 2 to n =1 . If the wavelengths of emitted
value of u, if one of the them is to be given a minimum radiation are λ 1, λ 2 , λ 3 and λ 4 respectively, for four
excitation energy is elements, then approximately which one of the following
(a)2.64 × 104 ms −1 (b) 6.24 × 104 ms −1 is correct?
(c)2.64 × 108 ms −1 (d) 6.24 × 108 ms −1 (a) 4 λ1 = 2 λ 2 = 2 λ 3 = λ 4 (b) λ1 = 2 λ 2 = 2 λ 3 = λ 4
9 Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. (c) λ1 = λ 2 = 4 λ 3 = 9λ 4 (d) λ1 = 2 λ 2 = 3 λ 3 = 4 λ 4
Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by 15 The radius of the orbit of an electron in a hydrogen like
monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. The atom is 4.5 a 0, where a 0 is the Bohr radius. Its orbital
spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atoms according to 3h
angular momentum is . It is given that h is Planck’s
Bohr’s theory will be 2π
(a) one (b) two constant and R is Rydberg’s constant. The possible
(c) three (d) four wavelength(λ ), when the atom de-excites, is (are)
10 Consider 3rd orbit of He + (helium), using non-relativistic (a)
9
(b)
9
(c)
9
(d)
4
approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [Take, 32R 16R 10R 3R
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (c)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 ( b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (a)
354 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY THREE
18 As H-atom emits three spectral lines, For last line of Balmer series, 28 Energy E of an atom with principal
n(n − 1) n1 = 2 and n2 = ∞ quantum number n is given by
=3 1 1 1 R −13.6 2
2 ⇒ = Z2 R − = E = Z
λB 22 ∞2 4 n2
Q n=3
[QZ = 1] For first excited state n = 2 and for He + ,
∴ ∆E = E 4 − E1 = 13.6 − 1.51
Similarly, for last line of Lyman series, Z =2
= 12.09 eV n1 = 1 and n2 = ∞ −13.6 × (2)2
1 1 1 So, E = = − 13.6 eV
∴ λ=
1242
= 102.73 nm ⇒ = Z2 R − =R (2)2
12.09 λ2 12 ∞2
1 R 29 The potential energy of hydrogen atom,
= R −
1 1 1
19 ∴ λB 1 En = −
13.6
eV
λ limit 4 ∞ ∴ = 4 =
1 R 4 n2
1 1 1 λL So, the potential energy in second orbit
⇒ = R −
λ first 4 9 is
λL 1
⇒ = 13.6
36 λB 4 E2 = − eV = − 3.4 eV
∴ λ first = 3646 × = 6563 Å ( 2 )2
4× 5 λΒ
⇒ =4 Now, the energy required to remove an
λΛ
20 Wavelength of Balmer series is given by electron from second orbit to infinity, is
1 1 1 23 Infrared radiation corresponds to least U = E ∞ − E2
= R −
λ 2
n1 n22 1
value of −
1
, i.e. from Paschen,
[from work-energy
theorem and E ∞ = 0]
ν 1 1
2
n1 n22
= R − [Qc = νλ] ⇒ U = 0 − (−3.4) eV
c 2
n1 n22 Brackett and Pfund series. Thus, the or U = 3.4 eV
transition corresponds to 5 → 3.
1 1 Hence, the required energy is 3.4 eV.
ν = cR − 1 1 1
2
n1 n22 24 ∴ =R − 30 The total energy of the electron orbiting
λ max (1 )2
(2 )2 around the nucleus in the ground state
For second line of Balmer series, 4
⇒ λ max = ≈ 1213 Å of the atom is less than zero.
n1 = 2; n2 = 4
3R
1 1 31 Q R = R 0 A1 /3
ν = 3 × 108 × 10967800 − 1 1 1
22 42 and =R −
λ min (1)
2 ∞ R (Au197 ) 197
1 /3
= 6 .16 × 1014 Hz ∴ = = (1.841)1 /3
⇒ λ min =
1
≈ 910 Å R (Ag 107
) 107
21 In hydrogen atom, wavelength of R
1
characteristic spectrum, = antilog log(1.841)
25 We know that, frequency, 3
1 1 1
= RZ 2 − 1 1
λ 2
n22 ν = RC − 1
n1 2
n22 = antilog × 0.2650
n1 3
For maximum wavelength in Lyman
ν1 = RC 1 − = RC
1
series, n1 = 1, n2 = 2 …(i) = antilog(0.08833) = 1.225
1 ∞
1 1
= RZ 2 − …(i) 1 3
λ1 (1)2
(2 )2 ν2 = RC 1 − = RC …(ii) SESSION 2
4 4
For maximum wavelength in Balmer 1 The energy of hydrogen atom when the
ν3 = RC − =
1 1 RC
series, n1 = 2, n2 = 3 …(iii) electron revolves in nth orbit, is
4 ∞ 4 −13.6
1 1 1 E = eV
= RZ 2 − …(ii) On comparing Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we n2
λ2 (2)
2
(3)2 get In the ground state, n = 1
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i) we get ⇒ ν1 − ν2 = ν3 −13.6
E = = −13.6 eV
12
RZ 2 −
1 1 5 26 A represents series limit of Lyman
λ1 4 9 36 series, B represents third member of −13.6
= = For n = 2, E = = −3.4 eV
λ2 22
RZ 2 1 −
1 3 Balmer series and C represents second
4 4 member of Paschen series. So, kinetic energy of electron in the first
27 In the ground state, n = 1 excited state (i.e. for n = 2), is
λ1 5 4 5
∴ = × = KE = −E = −(−3.4) = 3.4 eV
λ2 36 3 27 E1 = −
13.6
= −13.6 eV
12 2 KE of a particle = 2 eV
22 Wavelength of spectral lines are given For the first excited state (i.e. for n = 2), 2(Ze )(e ) 2Ze 2 × 9 × 109
by −13.6 r = =
1 E2 = = −3.4 eV 4 πε0 (KE ) 2eV
1 1 22
= Z2 R −
λ 2
n1 n22 ∴ ∆ E = E2 − E1 = − 3.4 + 13.6 ⇒ r =
2 × Ze × 9 × 109
2V
= 10.2 eV
356 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY THREE
Radioactivity
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Law of Radioactive Decay u Nuclear Fusion
u Nuclear Fission u Mass Defect and Binding Energy
Again, number of nuclei decayed in time t will be If the principle of conservation of energy is to hold for nuclear
− λt reactions it is clear that mass and energy must be regarded as
N − N 0 = N 0 [e − 1]
equivalent. The implication of E = mc2 is that any reaction
= number of daughter nuclei produced at time t .
producing an appreciable mass decrease is a possible source
of energy.
Half-Life Period (T1/2 ) l
At the rest, mass energy of each of electron and positron, is
It is the time in which, activity of the sample falls to one-half E 0 = m0 c2 = 9.1 × 10 −31 × (3 × 10 8)2 J
of its initial value.
= 0.51 MeV
T N R
Thus, for t = , N = 0 and R = 0 Therefore, an energy of atleast 1.02 MeV is needed for pair
2 2 2
production.
l
The half-life period is related to decay constant λ as
0.693
T1/ 2 =
λ Mass Defect and Binding Energy
l
After n half-lives, the quantity of a radioactive substance l
The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituent
left intact (undecayed) is given by nucleons is called the mass defect of that nucleus. Thus,
n
t Mass defect, ∆M = Zm p + ( A − Z )mn − M
1 1 T
N = N 0 = N 0 1 /2 where, M is the mass of a given nucleus.
2 2
l
Packing fraction of an atom is the difference between mass
of nucleus and its mass number per nucleon. Thus,
Mean Life Period ( τ ) Packing fraction =
M−A
.
l
Mean life of a radioactive sample is the time, at which both A
1 The energy equivalent of the mass defect of a nucleus is
N and R have been reduced to or e −1 or 36.8% of their
l
32 56 100
S Fe Mo
1 becquerel = Bq = 1 disintegration per second (SI unit)
16 12
l O I
12
8 C
l
1 curie = 1 Ci = 3 . 7 × 10 10 Bq 4
18
O 184
W 197
He 14 An 238
U
l
1 rutherford = 1 Rd = 10 6 Bq 6
N
6
Li
1
2 neutrons are released. These released neutrons may
2
further, trigger more fissions causing more neutrons being
Nuclear Fusion
formed, which in turn may cause more fission. Thus, a self Nuclear fusion is the process, in which two or more light
sustained nuclear chain reaction is formed. To maintain the nuclei combine to form a single large nucleus.
nuclear chain reaction at a steady (sustained) level, the extra The mass of the single nucleus, so formed is less than the sum
neutrons produced, are absorbed by suitable neutron of the masses of parent nuclei and this difference in mass,
absorbents like cadmium or boron. results in the release of tremendously large amount of energy.
l
Neutrons formed as a result of fission have an energy of The fusion reaction going on in the central core of sun is a
about 2 MeV, whereas for causing further fission, we need multistep process, but the net reaction is
slow thermal neutrons having an energy of about 0.3 eV.
4 11 H + 2 ε – → 4
2 He + 2 ν + 6γ + 26.7 MeV
For this purpose, suitable material called a moderator is
used, which slow down the neutrons. Water, heavy water When two positively charged particles (protons or deuterons)
and graphite are commonly used as moderators. combine to form a larger nucleus, the process is hindered by
l
A nuclear reactor is an arrangement in which nuclear the Coulombian repulsion between them.
fission can be carried out through a sustained and a To overcome the Coulombian repulsion, the charged particles
controlled chain reaction and can be employed for are to be given an energy of atleast 400 keV.
producing electrical power, for producing different isotopes For this, proton/deuterons must be heated to a temperature of
and for various other uses. about 3 × 10 9 K.
nE
l
Power of a reactor, P = , where n = number of atoms Nuclear fusion reaction is therefore, known as thermo nuclear
t fusion reaction.
undergoes fission in time t seconds and E = energy released
in each fission.
220
(c) 84 Sn (d) None of these . × 109 yr
(a) 196 (b) 3.92 × 109 yr
4 A nucleus X emits one α-particle and two β-particles.
m (c) 4.20 × 109 yr (d) 8.40 × 109 yr
n
The resulting nucleus is j CBSE AIPMT 2011
13 The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 20 yr. It decays to
(a) m −n6 Z (b) m −n4 X (c) m −4
n −2
Y (d) m −6
n −4
Z another element Y which is stable. The two elements X and
5 The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive Y were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a sample of a given
substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be j NEET 2013
by it. The resulting daughter is an j CBSE AIPMT 2009 (a) 40 yr (b) 60 yr (c) 80 yr (d) 100 yr
(a) isobar of parent (b) isomer of parent 14 If the half-life of any sample of radioactive substance is
(c) isotone of parent (d) isotope of parent 4 days, then the fraction of sample will remain
6 Radioactive material A has decay constant 8λ and undecayed after 2 days, will be
material B has decay constant λ. Initially, they have 1 2 −1 1
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d)
same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of 2 2 2
1
number of nuclei of material B to that A will be ? 15 The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 min. The
e
time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85%
j NEET 2017
decay of the same radioactive substance is j NEET 2016
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 60
λ 7λ 8λ 9λ
16 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 min. If initially
7 Samples of two radioactive nuclides A and B are taken.
there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in min) for
λ A and λ B are the disintegration constants of A and B,
the disintegration of 450 nuclei is j
NEET 2018
respectively. In which of the following cases, the two
samples can simultaneously have the same decay rate at (a) 30 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 15
any time? 17 If a radioactive substance decays for time interval equal
(a) Initial rate of decay of A is twice the initial rate of decay to its mean life, then the fraction of the substance
of B and λ A = λB remaining undecayed, will be
(b) Initial rate of decay of A is twice the initial rate of decay 1 1
(a) (b) (c) e 2 (d) e
of B and λ A > λB e e2
(c) Initial rate of decay of B is twice the initial rate of decay 18 A neutron causes fission in 235
producing 40 Zr 97 and
92 U
of A and λ A > λB 134
Te ; and some neutrons. The atomic number of Te will
(d) Initial rate of decay of B is always same
be
8 The half-life of a radioactive material is 3 h. If the initial (a) 50 (b) 51 (c) 52 (d) 53
amount is 300 g, then after 18 h, it will remain 235
19 If 200 MeV energy is obtained per fission of , then
92 U
(a) 4.68 g (b) 46.8 g the number of fissions per second to produce 1kW
(c) 9.375 g (d) 93.75 g
power will be
9 The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 yr. It decays (a) 1.25 × 1018 (b) 3.2 × 10−8
to another element Y which is stable. The two elements X (c) 3.125 × 1013 (d) 0.125 × 1013
and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample
20 On fission of one nucleus of U 235 , the amount of energy
of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be
obtained is 200 MeV. The power obtained in a reactor is
j
CBSE AIPMT 2011
1000 kW. Number of nuclei fissioned per second in the
(a) 200 yr (b) 250 yr (c) 100 yr (d) 150 yr reactor, is
10 The half-life of radioactive element is 600 yr. The fraction (a) 9.4 × 1016 s −1 (b) 2.3 × 108 s −1
of sample that would remain after 3000 yr, is (c) 3.125 × 1016 s −1 (d) 4.2 × 108 s −1
(a) 1 / 2 (b) 1 / 16 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/32
21 1014 fissions per second are taking place in a nuclear
11 A radioactive sample has an initial activity of 50 dpm, reactor having efficiency 40%. The energy released per
20 min later, the activity is 25 dpm. How many atoms of fission is 250 MeV. The power output of the reactor is
the radioactive nuclide were there originally? (a) 2000 W (b) 4000 W
(c) 1600 W (d) 3200 W
(a) 20 (b) 80 (c) 1443 (d) 5441
DAY THIRTY FOUR RADIOACTIVITY 361
22 Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature, (a) neutrons are heavier than protons
because j CBSE AIPMT 2011 (b) electrostatic force between protons is repulsive
(a) atoms get ionised at high temperature (c) neutrons decay into protons through β -decay
(b) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the (d) nuclear forces between neutrons is weaker than that
Coulomb repulsion between nuclei between protons
(c) molecules break up at high temperature 29 If all the atoms of 1kg of deuterium undergo nuclear
(d) nuclei break up at high temperature fusion, then the amount of energy released will be
23 If mass of proton = 1.008 amu and mass of (a) 6 × 10 27 cal (b) 2 × 107 kWh
neutron = 1.009 amu, then the binding energy per (c) 56.9 × 1013 J (d) 8 × 1023 MeV
nucleon for 4 Be9 (mass = 9.012 amu) will be 30 The mass of uranium required per day to generate 1MW
235
(a) 0.0672 MeV (b) 0.672 MeV power from the fission of 92 U , will be
(c) 6.72 MeV (d) 67.2 MeV (a) 1.05 g (b) 2.05 g (c) 3.05 g (d) 4.05 g
40 7
24 The mass of 18 Ar is 39.9480 amu. Its mass defect will 31 The binding energy per nucleon of and 42 He nuclei
3 Li
be (Take, mp =1.0078 amu and mn =1.0087 amu) are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the nuclear
(a) 0.3694 amu (b) 0.3318 amu reaction 73 Li + 11H → 42He + 42He + Q, the value of energy
(c) 0.3480 amu (d) 0.3838 amu Q released is j CBSE AIPMT 2014
25 The binding energy of neutron in deuterium 1H2 will be (a) 19.6 MeV (b) −2.4 MeV (c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV
(Take, mp = 1.0078 amu, mn = 1.0087 amu and 32 A certain mass of hydrogen is changed to helium by the
md = 2.0141 amu) process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is
(a) 2.2344 MeV (b) 4.4688 MeV 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u, is
(c) 1.1172 MeV (d) 7.8 MeV
(Take, 1u = 931 MeV) j
NEET 2013
26 The energy released in the following β-decay process (a) 2.67 MeV (b) 26.7 MeV
will be 0n
1
→ 1p1 + −1q
0
+ν (c) 6.675 MeV (d) 13.35 MeV
−27
Take, mn = 1.6747 × 10 kg, 33 Consider the nuclear reaction X 200 → A110 + B 80. If
the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B are
mp = 1.6725 × 10 −27 kg and me = 0.00091 × 10 −27 kg
7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.1 MeV, respectively. Then, the
(a) 0.931 MeV (b) 0.731 MeV
energy released in the reaction is
(c) 0.511 MeV (d) 0.271 MeV
(a) 70 MeV (b) 200 MeV (c) 190 MeV (d) 10 MeV
27 If the mass defect in a fusion process is 0.3%, then the 7
energy released in the fusion of 1kg of material will be
34 The mass of a 3 Li
nucleus is 0.042u less than the sum of
−14 the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per
(a) 2.7 × 10 J
14
(b) 2.7 × 10 J
nucleon of 73 Li nucleus is nearly j
CBSE AIPMT 2010
(c) 2.7 × 1014 erg (d) 2.7 × 1014 eV
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV
28 Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. (c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV
This is because of the fact, that
5 Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 min. The time 11 In the nuclear decay given below
between 20% and 80% decay will be A−4 * A−4
A
Z X → A
Z + 1Y → Z − 1B → Z − 1 B,
(a) 20 min (b) 40 min (c) 80 min (d) 60 min
the particles emitted in the sequence are
6 The number N of nuclei of a radioactive element X , at j CBSE AIPMT 2009
time t, if at time t = 0 , the element has N0 number of
(a) β, α, γ (b) γ, β, α
nuclei. Nuclei of the element X is being produced at a
(c) β, γ, α (d) α, β, γ
constant rate α and the element has a decay constant λ, is
α λ 12 In the reaction 21H + 31 H → 42 He+ 01n, if the binding
(a) N = (1 − e − λ t ) + N 0 e − λ t (b) N = (1 − e − λ t ) + N 0 e − λ t
λ α energies of 21H, 31 H and 42 He are respectively a, b and c (in
α λ
(c) N = ( e − λ t − e) + N 0 (d) N = (e − λ t − e) + N 0 MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
λ α j CBSE AIPMT 2005
7 The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of (a) c + a − b (b) c − a − b
4
is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one (c) a + b + c (d) a + b − c
2 He,
4 13 The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is
2 He, then the energy released is
(a) 25.8 MeV (b) 23.6 MeV (c) 19.2 MeV (d) 30.2 MeV 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The binding energy of
2 He is (mass of helium nucleus = 4.0015 u)
4
8 A nuclear explosive is designed to deliver 1 MW power in
the form of heat energy. If the explosion is designed with a
j CBSE AIPMT 2003
nuclear fuel consisting of U235 to run a reactor at this (a) 28.4 MeV (b) 0.061 u
power level for one year, then the amount of fuel needed (c) 0.0305 J (d) 0.0305 erg
is (Take, energy per fission is 200 MeV) 14 The variation of decay rate of two radioactive samples A
(a) 1 kg (b) 0.01 kg
and B with time is shown in figure.
(c) 3.84 kg (d) 0.384 kg
235
9 A uranium reactor 92 U takes 30 days to use up 2 kg of
fuel, each fission gives 185 MeV of usable energy, then dN
dt
power output is
(a) 32.23 MW B
(b) 22.28 MW
(c) 58.46 MW A
(d) None of these t
10 A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
and helium. Then, j
CBSE AIPMT 2015
(a) Decay constant of A is greater than that of B, hence A
(a) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the
always decays faster than B
thorium nucleus
(b) Decay constant of B is greater than that of A, but its
(b) the helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium
decay rate is always smaller than that of A
nucleus
(c) Decay constant of A is greater than that of B, but it
(c) the helium nucleus has more momentum than the
does not always decay faster than B
thorium nucleus
(d) Decay constant of B is same as that of A, but still its
(d) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the
thorium nucleus decay rate becomes equal to that of A at a later instant
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (d) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (b)
SESSION 2 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (c)
DAY THIRTY FOUR RADIOACTIVITY 363
N B = N 0e − λt 103
...(ii) = 4.20 × 109 yr =
200 × 10 × 1.6 × 10−19
6
It is given that, n
=
N 1 = 3.125 × 1013 fission/s
NA
=
1
[QN B > N A ]
13 As,
N 0 2
NB e 20 Power received = 1000 kW
3
= =
N 1 1
Now, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get As, = 1000 × 1000 W = 106 Js −1
e −8λt 1 N 0 2 8
= 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10−13 J
e − λt e Number of half-lives = 3 ⇒ T = 20 yr
106
Rearranging ∴ T =
t ∴P = = 6.25 × 1018 MeVs −1
1.6 × 10−13
⇒ e −1 = e −7λt ⇒ 7λt = 1 n
1 or t = T × n = 20 × 3 = 60 yr Number of nuclei fissioned (per second)
⇒ Time, t = 6.25 × 1018
7λ 14 From Rutherford-Soddy’s law, the is = = 3.125 ×1016s −1
fraction left after n half-lives is 200
7 The two samples of two radioactive n
N = N 0
nuclides A and B can simultaneously 1 21 Total energy released per second
have the same decay rate at any time, if 2
= 250 × 1.6 × 10−13 × 1014 = 4000 J
initial rate of decay of A is twice the where, n is number of half-lives.
initial rate of decay of B and λ A > λ B . Time ( t ) 2 1 40
n= = = Power output = 4000 × = 1600 W
Half - life (T1 /2 ) 4 2 100
8 Number of half-lives, n = t = 18 = 6
T 3 1 /2 22 Fusion reaction takes place at high
=
N 1 N 1
Amount remained after n half-lives, ∴ ⇒ = temperature, because kinetic energy is
N 0 2 N0 2
high enough to overcome the Coulomb
repulsion between nuclei.
364 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY FOUR
23 Mass defect, 33 For X, energy = 200 × 7.4 = 1480 MeV The fraction of material decayed
∆m = (4 × 1.008 + 5 × 1.009) − 9.012 For A, energy = 110 × 8.2 = 902 MeV = 1 − 0.656 = 0.344 = 34.4%
= 4.032 + 5.045 − 9.012 For B, energy = 80 × 81
. = 648 MeV
= 9.077 − 9.012 = 0.065amu 4 Fraction remains after n half-lives,
Therefore, energy released n t/T
BE 0.065 × 931
= =
= (902 + 648) − 1480 N 1 1
∴ = = 6.72 MeV
A 9 = 1550 − 1480 = 70 MeV N 0 2 2
24 ∆m = Zm p + ( A − Z )m n − M (Z , A ) N
34 If m = 1 u, c = 3 × 108 ms −1 , then Given, N = 0
e
= 18 × 1.0078 + (40 − 18) E = 931 MeV, i.e. 1 u = 931 MeV 5/ T
× 1.0087 − 39.9480 =
N0 1
Binding energy = 0.042 × 931 ⇒
= 18.1404 + 22.1914 − 39.9480 eN 0 2
= 3910
. MeV
= 0.3838 amu 5/ T
∴ Binding energy per nucleon 1 1
25 BE = {(m p + m n ) − md } × 931 MeV ⇒ =
=
3910
.
= 558
. ≈ 56. MeV e 2
= {(1.0078 + 1.0087) − 2.014} × 931 7 Taking log on both sides, we get
= 2.2344 MeV 5 1
SESSION 2 log 1 − log e = log
BE T 2
∴ = 1.1172 MeV
A 1 According to law of radioactivity, 5
⇒ − 1 = (− log 2) ⇒ T = 5log e 2
N T
26 Mass defect, = e − λt …(i)
N0 Now, let t be the time after which acitvity
∆m = (1.6747 −1.6725 − 0.0091) × 10−27
N0 reduces to half
= 0.0012 × 10−27 kg ⇒ = e λt t ′ /5 log e 2
N 1 = 1 ⇒ t ′ = 5 log e 2
0.0012 × 10−27 × (3 × 108 )2
∴ ∆E = On taking logarithm both sides of Eq. 2 2
−13
1.6 × 10 (i), we get
5 Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20
= 0.731 MeV N
log e 0 = log e (e λt ) min, i.e. t 1 /2 = 20 min
N
27 ∴∆ m = 0.3 × 1 = 0.003 kg For 20% decay, we have 80% of the
100 = λ t log e e = λ t substance left,
∆E = ∆mc 2 As we know that, log e x = 2.3026 80N 0
log 10 x = N 0e −λt20 ...(i)
⇒ = 0.003 × (3 × 108 ) 2 100
Making substitution, we get
= 2.7 × 1014 J where, N 0 = initial undecayed
2.3026 log 10
9750
substance and t 20 is the time taken for
28 Heavy nuclei, which are stable contain 975
λ= 20% of the substance left, hence
more neutrons than protons in their 5 20N 0
nuclei. This is because, electrostatic 2.3026 2.3026 = N 0 e −λ t 80 ...(ii)
= log 10 10 = min −1 100
force between protons is repulsive, 5 5
which may reduce stability. On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
= 0.461 min −1
29 Fusion reaction of deuterium, 4 = e λ( t 80 − t20 )
2 For 40 g amount,
1H
2
+ 1 H2 → 2 He 4 + 23.6 MeV ln 4 = λ(t 80 − t 20 )
20 s 20 s
Energy released in 1 kg of deuterium 40 g → 20 g → 10 g 2 ln 2 =
0.693
( t 80 − t 20 )
half - life
6.02 × 1023 × 103 × 23.6 × 1.6 × 10−13 t 1 /2
= For 160 g amont,
2× 2 ⇒ t 80 − t 20 = 2 × T1 /2 = 40 min
10 s 10 s
= 56.9 × 1013 J 160 g → 80 g → 40 g
dN
30 Energy per day = 106 × 24 × 60 × 60 J 6∴ = α − λN
10s
→ 20 g → 10 g
10s dt
Energy received per fission = 200 MeV
= 3.2 × 10−11 J ⇒
dN
= dt
Mass of U235 per day So, after 40 s, A 1 and A 2 remain same. α − λN
235 × 1.67 × 10−27 × 106 × 24 N On integrating both sides,
× 60 × 60 T log 10 0
= N log e (α − λN )
3.2 × 10−11 3∴ t = =t + A
log 10 2 −λ
= 1.05 × 10−3 kg = 1.05 g
N where, A is integration constant.
or t ∝ log 10 0
31 Q = 2 (BE of He) − (BE of Li) N At t = 0, N = N 0
= 2 × (4 × 7.06) − (7 × 5.60) log e (α − λN 0 )
log
100 = A
= 56.48 − 39.2 = 17.3 MeV −λ
5 90
∴ =
32 Here, ∆m = 0.02866 u 20 N Equation becomes,
log 0
∴ Energy liberated N log e (α − λN ) log e (α − λN 0 )
=t +
0.02866 × 931 26 .7 −λ −λ
= = MeV 4
= = 0.656
N 9
4 4 or ⇒ log e (α − λN ) − log(α − λN 0 ) = − λt
N 0 10
= 6 . 675 MeV
DAY THIRTY FOUR RADIOACTIVITY 365
A −4
α − λN 9 Number of atoms in 2 kg fuel (U235 ) is A
Y → β + α24
log e = − λt Z +1 Z −1
α − λN 0 6.02 × 1026 A−4
β → A −4
β + γ 00
= × 2 = 5.12 × 1024 Z +1 Z −1
α − λN − λt 235
⇒ =e The nuclei of these atoms are fissioned
α − λN 0 12 Given, binding energy of
− λt − λt
in 30 days. (21 H + 31 H) = a + b
λN = α(1 − e ) + λN 0 e
Therefore, fission rate is
Binding energy of 42 He = c
α
N = (1 − e − λt ) + N 0 e − λt 5.12 × 1024
λ = = 1.975 × 1018s −1 In a nuclear reaction, the resultant
(30 × 24 × 60 × 60)
7 The reaction can be written as nucleus is more stable than the
Each fission gives 185 MeV of energy.
reactants. Hence, binding energy of 42 He
1H
2
+ 1 H2 → 2 He 4 + energy Hence, energy obtained in 1,
The energy released in the reaction, is i.e. power output is will be more than that of (21 H + 31 H) .
difference of binding energies of P = 185MeV × (1.975 × 1018 ) Thus, energy released per nucleon
daughter and parent nuclei. −1 = resultant binding energy
= 365.4 × 10 MeVs
18
Hence, energy released = binding energy
Binding energy of product − Binding
of 2 He 4 − 2 × binding energy of 1 H2 But 1MeV = 1.6 × 10−13 J
energy of reactants
= 28 − 2 × 2.2 = 23.6 MeV ∴ P = (365.4 × 1018 MeVs −1 ) = c − (a + b ) = c − a − b
8 Energy released per fission is × (1.6 × 10−13 J / MeV) 13 2 He 4 contains 2 neutrons and
E = 200 MeV = 58.46 × 106 Js −1 2 protons.
−13 −11
So, mass of 2 protons
= 200 × 1.6 × 10 = 3.2 × 10 J = 58.46 × 10 W = 58.46 MW
6
= 2 × 1.0073 = 2 .0146 u
Number of fissions to produce 1MW 10 92 U
238
→ 92 Th
238
+ 2 He 4 So, mass of 2 neutrons
(= 106 W = 106Js −1 ) power is = 2 × 1.0087
According to law of conservation of
106 Js −1 linear momentum, we have = 2 .0174 u
=
3.2 × 10−11 J |PTh | = |PHe| = P Total mass of 2 protons and 2 neutrons
= 3.125 × 1016s −1 ⇒ As, kinetic energy of an element, = (2 .0146 + 2 .0174) u = 4.032 u
P2 Mass of helium nucleus = 4.0015 u
Total energy required to run a 1 MW KE =
reactor for one year, is 106Js −1 2m Thus, mass defect is lacking of mass in
× (365 × 24 × 60 × 60) = 315
. × 1013 J where, m is mass of an element. forming the helium nucleus from 2
1 protons and 2 neutrons.
Since, 1 fission (1 atom of U 235) Thus, KE ∝
M ∴ ∆m = mass defect
produces 3 . 2 × 10−11 J of energy, total
So, M He < M Th = (4.032 − 4.0015) u
number of U 235 atoms required is ⇒ K He > K Th = 0.0305 u
3.15 × 1013 So, helium nucleus has more kinetic
= = 9.84 × 1023 As we know that, 1u = 931 MeV
3 . 2 × 10−11 energy than the thorium nucleus.
Hence, binding energy
Now, 6. 02 × 1023 atoms of U 235 are 11 Alpha particles are positively charged ∆E = (∆m ) × 931 = 0.0305 × 931
particles with charge +2e and mass 4
contained in 235 g of U 235 = 28.4 MeV
m. Emission of an α-particle reduces the
∴ Mass of U 235
containing mass of the radionuclide by 4 and its 14 From the given figure, we find that rate
9.84 × 1023 atoms is atomic number by 2. β-particles are of decay of A is faster than that of B. It
235 negatively charged particles with rest means, decay constant of A is greater
M = mass as well as charge same as that of than that of B. However, the two curves
6.02 × 10 23 atoms electrons. γ -particles carry no charge intersect at P, beyond P, B decays faster
× 9.84 × 1023 atoms and mass. than A. And at P, decay rate of both A
= 384 g = 0.384 kg Radioactive transition will be as follows and B is the same.
Z X → Z + 1 Y + β −1
A A 0
DAY THIRTY FIVE
Unit Test 7
(Dual Nature of Matter,
Atoms and Nuclei)
1 The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton 8 The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus
1 ( Z = 50) of radius 9.0 × 10−13 cm, is
moving with a velocity, equal to th of the velocity of
20 (a) 9 × 105 V (b) 8 × 106 V (c) 80 V (d) 9 V
light 9 K α wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic number
(a) 2.75 × 10−14 m (b) 1.5 × 10−7 m Z = 11 is λ. Find the atomic number for an atom that
(c) 1.5 × 107 m (d) 2.634 × 1014 m emits K α radiation with wavelength 4λ, is
2 An electron has been accelerated from rest through a (a) Z = 6 (b) Z = 4 (c) Z = 11 (d) Z = 44
potential difference of 100 V, its de-Broglie wavelength is 10 The ratio of minimum wavelengths of Lyman and Balmer
(a) 225 Å (b) 1.225 Å (c) 225 m (d) 1.225 cm series will be
3 The experiments of Frank and Hertz showed that (a) 1.25 (b) 0.25 (c) 5 (d) 10
(a) an atom has energy states having a continuous
11 What will be the amount of energy absorbed when an
distribution
electron jumps from first orbit to second orbits, if the
(b) nothing can be send a bond energy states of atom
value of energy in nth orbit of H-atom is expressed as
(c) at atom has energy states, having discrete values
13.6
(d) atom is an indivisible particle E n = − 2 eV ?
n
4 A photon and an electron have same energy, the ratio of
(a) − 3.4 eV (b) −6.6 eV
their wavelengths is (c) −8.1 eV (d) −10. 2 eV
m E 2mc 2 mc
(a) (b) (c) (d) 12 An electron changes its position from orbit n = 2 to the
E m E E2
orbit n = 4 of an atom. The wavelength of the emitted
5 If the wavelength of incident light changes from 400 nm radiations is (R = Rydberg’s constant)
to 300 nm, the stopping potential for photoelectrons 16 16
(a) (b)
emitted from a surface becomes approximately R 3R
(a) 1.0 V greater (b) 1.0 V smaller 16 16
(c) (d)
(c) 0.5 V greater (d) 0.5 V smaller 5R 7R
6 The photosensitive surface is receiving light of 13 Imagine an atom made of a proton and a hypothetical
wavelength 5000 Å at the rate of 10 −8 Js −1. The number particle of double the mass of the electron but having same
of photons received per second, is charge as the electron. Apply Bohr atom model and
(a) 2 .5 × 1010 (b) 2 .5 × 1011 consider all possible transitions of the hypothetical particle
(c) 2 .5 × 1012 (d) 2 .5 × 109 to the first excited level. The longest wavelength photon that
7 The wavelength of quantum of radiant energy emitted, if will be emitted has wavelength λ equal to
an electron transmitted into radiation and converted into 9 36
(a) (b)
one quantum, is 5R 5R
18 4
(a) 0.0242 Å (b) 2.42 Å (c) 532 Å (d) 0.532 Å (c) (d)
5R R
DAY THIRTY FIVE UNIT TEST 7 (DUAL NATURE OF MATTER, ATOMS AND NUCLEI) 367
14 lonisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. 24 C14 has half-life 5700 yr. At the end of 11400 yr, actual
Hydrogen atoms in ground state are excited by amount left is
monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. (a) 0.5 of original amount (b) 0.25 of original amount
According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by (c) 0.125 of original amount (d) 0.0625 of original amount
hydrogen will be 208 208
25 Ra has half-life 120 days. The amount of Ra, if the
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1 activity level is one mCi
15 In Bohr’s model the atomic radius of the first orbit is r0, (a) 0.184 µg (b) 0.184 mg (c) 0.134 µg (d) 0.314 mg
the radius of the third orbit will be
26 The counting rate observed from a radioactive source at
r0
(a) 9r0 (b) 3 r0 (c) r0 (d) t = 0 s was 1600 count per second, and at t = 8 s, it was
3
100 count per second. The counting rate observed at
16 Taking Rydberg’s constant RH = 1.097 × 107 m first and t = 6 s was
second wavelength of Balmer series in hydrogen
(a) 400 (b) 300 (c) 200 (d) 150
spectrum, are
27 Mean life of a radioactive sample is 100 s. Then, its
(a) 2000 Å, 3000 Å (b) 1575 Å, 2960 Å
half-life (in minute) is
(c) 6529 Å, 4280 Å (d) 6562 Å, 4863 Å
(a) 0.693 (b) 1 (c) 10−4 (d) 1.155
17 Which of the following lines of the H-atom spectrum
28 If parent decays to daughter nucleus with a rate r and
belongs to Balmer series?
daughter nucleus has average life τ and number of
(a) 1025 Å (b) 12184 Å (c) 4861 Å (d) 18751 Å nuclei of daughter nucleus at any instant is N, then for
18 The density of uranium is of the order of radioactive equilibrium to be achieved, we have
(a) 1020 kgm−3 (b) 1017 kgm−3 (c) 1014 kgm−3 (d) 1011 kgm−3 (a) r = Nτ (b) r = τN (c) r τ = N (d) τ = r
19 Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 29 In a specific case, angular momentum is an even integral
10λ and λ, respectively. If initially they have the same h
multiple of . The longest possible wavelength emitted
number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of 2π
A to that of B will be 1/e after a time. by hydrogen in visible region in such a world, according
1 1 11 1 to Bohr’s model is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10λ 11λ 10λ 9λ (a) 273 nm (b) 470 nm (c) 523 nm (d) zero
20 In an experiment, a radioactive isotope is being 30 If the binding energies of a deuteron and an α-particle
dN are 1.125 MeV and 7.2 MeV, respectively. Then, the
produced at a constant rate =R. Its half life is t1/ 2 .
dt more stable of the two is
After t > > t1/ 2 , the number of active nuclei will become (a) deuteron
constant. The value of this constant is (b) α-particle
Rt1/ 2 t1/ 2 R 0.693 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
0.693 R t1/ 2 Rt1/ 2 (d) sometimes deuteron and sometimes alpha particle
31 The nuclei of which one of the following pairs of nuclei
21 If R is the radius and A is the mass number, then log R
are isotones?
versus log A graph will be 74 71 92 92
(a) 34 Se , 31Ga (b) 42 Mo , 40 Zr
(a) a straight line (b) a parabola 84 86 40 32
(c) 38 Sr , 38Sr (d) 20 Ca , 16S
(c) an ellipse (d) a hyperbola
22 Two radioactive materials X and Y have 3000 and 6000 32 In the nuclear reaction,
number of nuclei respectively at initial. If decay constant −α −β −α −γ
72 X
180
→ Y
→ Z → A
→ P
of material X and Y are 12 minute −1 and 10 minute −1,
then the time, in which both elements have same number the atomic mass and atomic number of P are,
of nuceli: respectively
(a) loge
1 1 2
(b) loge (a) 170, 69 (b) 172, 69 (c) 172, 70 (d) 170, 70
2 2
1 1 33 A nuclei X with mass number A and charge number Z,
(c) loge (d) loge [2]
2 2 disintegrates into one α-particle and one β-particle. The
resulting nuclide R has atomic mass and atomic number,
23 A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months.
equal to
Three-fourth of the substance will decay in
(a) (A − Z ) and (Z − 1) (b) (A − Z ) and (Z − 2)
(a) 3 months (b) 4 months
(c) (A − 4) and (A − 2) (d) (A − 4) and (Z − 1)
(c) 8 months (d) 12 months
368 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY FIVE
+
6 → B 5 + β + X
34 In a nuclear reaction, C 11 11
40 Assertion (A) If high pressure is applied on a radioactive
What does X stand for? substance, rate of radioactivity will increase.
(a) An electron (b) A proton
Reason (R) Radioactivity is a nuclear process.
(c) A neutron (d) A neutrino
41 Assertion (A) At time t = 0, activity of a radioactive
35 The particle A is converted into C via following reaction, substance is 10 units. At t = 1 s, it remains 90 units. Then,
A → B + 2He , B → C + 2 e
4 − at t = 2 s it should remain 80 units.
Reason (R) In equal interval of time, percentage change
Then,
is same in a radioactive substance.
(a) A and C are isobars (b) A and C are isotopes
(c) A and B are isobars (d) A and B are isotopes 42 Assertion (A) If light continuously falls on a metal
36 A nucleus with mass number 220 initially emits α-particle. surface, then emission of electrons will stop after some
If the Q value of the reaction is 5.5 MeV. Then, the kinetic time.
energy of the α-particle is Reason (R) We cannot extract all the electrons of a
(a) 4.4 MeV (b) 5.4 MeV metal.
(c) 5.6 eV (d) 6.5 eV
43 The energy spectrum of β-particles number N(E ) as a
Direction (Q. Nos. 37-42) These questions consist of two function of β energy E emitted from a radioactive
statements, each linked as Assertion and Reason. While source, is
answering of these questions, you are required to choose any
one of the following.
N(E)
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is N(E)
the correct explanation of the Assertion (a) (b)
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not
correct explanation of the Assertion
E E
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true
37 Assertion (A) If wavelength of incident photons is N(E) N(E)
halved, then maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron
will become two times. (c) (d)
1
Reason (R) Energy of photon ∝ .
λ E E
38 Assertion (A) Second orbit circumference of hydrogen
44 If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into
atom is two times the de-Broglie wavelength of electrons
oxygen nuclei, the energy released per oxygen nucleus
in that orbit.
is [Mass of He nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of
Reason (R) de-Broglie wavelength of electron in ground oxygen nucleus is 15.9994 amu]
state is minimum. (a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.9 MeV
39 Assertion (A) Energy E 1 is required to remove first
electron from helium atom and energy E 2 is to required 45 A nuclear transformation is denoted by X (n, α ) Li. 7
3
to remove the second electron. Then, E 1 < E 2 . Which of the following is the nucleus of element X ?
Reason (R) Ionisation energy of single electron of He + is (a) 11
4 Be (b) 95 B (c) 10
5 B (d) 12
6 C
54.4 eV.
ANSWERS
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (d)
41 (d) 42 (c) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (c)
DAY THIRTY FIVE UNIT TEST 7 (DUAL NATURE OF MATTER, ATOMS AND NUCLEI) 369
= R H − = 1.097 × 107 ×
1 1 1 1 t 2.64 eV.
⇒ 2 = ⇒ t = 8 months
λ∞ 22 ∞ 4 4 1242 Q λ ∝ 1
λ= = 470 nm
4 −7 n 2.64 E
λ∞ =
1.097 × 107
= 3.646 × 10 m 24 From Rutherford law, N = N 0 1
2 30 In order to compare the stability of the
= 3646 Å where, n is number of half-lives. nuclei of different atoms, binding
Only 4861Å is between the first and last 11400 energy per nucleon is determined.
n= =2
line of the Balmer series. 5700 Higher the binding energy per nucleon
2 more stable is the nucleus.
=
18 Mass of uranium nucleus = Mass of N 1
∴ ∴ BE per nucleon of deuteron
proton + Mass of neutron N 0 2 1125
.
= 92 × 1.6725 × 10−27 + 143 N 1 = = 0.5625 MeV
⇒ = = 0. 25 ⇒ N = 0. 25 N 0 2
× 1.6747 × 10−27 N0 4
BE per nucleon of α-particle =
72
.
−27
= (153.87 × 10 + 239.48 × 10−27 ) N = 0.25 of original amount 4
= 393.35 × 10 −27 = 1.8 MeV
kg 25 λN = 3.7 × 107
Since, binding energy per nucleon of
Radius of nucleus is of the order of λ=
0.693 α-particle is more. Hence, it is more
10−15m, hence volume is t 1 /2 stable.
V ∝ (10−15 )3 m3 ∝ 10−45 m3 .
. × 107 × t 1 /2
37 31 The nuclei which have same number of
Mass ∴N = = 533
. × 1014
∴ Density = 0.693 neutrons but different atomic number
Volume and mass number are known as
6.023 × 1023 nuclides = 208 g
. × 10−27
39335 isotones. In choice (a) nuclei of 34 Se74
= = 1020 kgm −3 ∴ 5.3 × 1014 nuclides
10−45 and 31 Ga 71 are isotones, as
208 × 53
. × 1014
19 Number of nuclei remain undecayed = A − Z = 74 − 34
6.023 × 1023 = 71 − 31
N A = N 0 e −10 λ t
= 1.837 × 10−7 g = 0.184 µg = 40
and N B = N 0 e − λt
NA 1 26 Number of half-lives, n = 100 = 1600 32 When an atom emits an α-particle, its
⇒ = = e ( −10 λt + λt )
n mass number decreases by 4 and atomic
NB e 2
or n = 4 or 4t 1 /2 = 8 s number by 2, when it emits a β-particle
or 9 λt = 1 its atomic number increases by 1, while
1 ∴ t 1 /2 = 4 s
∴ t = N 1600 there is no change in mass number and
9λ N = 0 = = 200 atomic number in γ-ray emission
23 8
remains same.
20 After t > > t 1 /2 , the equilibrium will be 27 Mean life τ = 1.44 T1 /2
72 X
180
−
α
→ 70 Y 176 −
β
→
achieved, so that 100
dN ∴ T1 /2 = = 69.44 s 71 Z
176
−
α
→ 69 A
172
−
γ
→ 69P
172
= λN 1.44
dt 69.44 33 When an α-particle is emitted, mass
R R t 1 /2 = ≈ 1155
. min
⇒ R = λN ⇒ N = = 60 number of nuclide X is reduced by 4
λ 0.693 and its charge number reduced by 2.
DAY THIRTY FIVE UNIT TEST 7 (DUAL NATURE OF MATTER, ATOMS AND NUCLEI) 371
But when a β-particle is emitted, mass 37 From Einstein’s photoelectric equation 41 In 1s only 90% remains.
number of nuclide remains the same hc
K = −W At t = 2 s, activity will remain 90% of 90,
and its charge number is increased by 1. λ i.e. 81 units.
Hence, the resulting nuclide has atomic
− W = 2 − W + W
hc hc
K′ =
mass (A − 4) and atomic number (Z − 1 ). λ /2 λ 42 Already emitted electrons will repel the
new electrons, hence assertion is true
34 X is neutrino because mass number and =2K + W
1 but reason is false.
atomic number of neutrino is zero. Energy ∝
λ 43 In the process of β-decay, either electron
35 Let x be the mass number of A and y be
the atomic number. Then, since atomic 38 From Bohr’s orbit concept, or positron is emitted because either a
neutrino or an antineutrino is emitted.
mv 2 r2 = 2
number and mass number remain h
Thus, β-rays have a continuous energy
conserved, we have 2π
y A
x
→ y − 2 B x − 4 + 2 He 4 h
spectrum. The maximum kinetic energy
2 πr2 = 2 = 2 λ2 or end point energy (E ) must be equal to
x −4 x −4
y −2B
→ yC + 2 −1 e 0
mv 2 disintegration energy. When electron (or
h positron) has maximum energy, the
Hence, we observe that A and C are Further λ = (de-Broglie concept)
isotopes as their atomic numbers are p energy carried by the daughter nucleus
same but mass numbers are different. ∴ Speed of momentum is maximum in and neutrino is nearly zero.
36 220
X → 216
+ 4
He ground state. 44 When four helium nuclei are fused
z −2 y 2
Hence, λ is minimum. together, one oxygen nucleus is formed.
0 = 216 v 1 + 4 v 2
−4 v 2 v 39 E H = 13.6 eV [ionisation energy] The reaction is
⇒ v1 = =− 2 4 × 2 He 4 → 8O 16 + Q
216 54 E = 13.6 (z )2
He +
1 1 Mass defect, ∆m = 4 × m He − mO2
m1 v 12 + m2 v 22 = Q = 13.6 (2)2 = 54.4 eV
2 2 = 4 × 4.0026 − 15.9994 = 0.011 amu
⇒ E1 < E2
108v 12 + 2v 22 = 55
. MeV Energy produced,
Also, ionisation energy of single electron of
E = 0.011 × 931 = 10.24 MeV
He + is 54.4 eV.
2
v
108 − 2 + 2v 22 = 55
. MeV
54 40 Rate of nuclear process cannot be altered 45 Z X A
+ 0n
1
→ 3 Li7 + 2 He 4
v 22 by altering pressure or temperature. A + 1 = 7 + 4; A = 11 − 1 = 10
+ 2v 22 = 55
. MeV Because any nuclear process involves
27 Z + 0 = 3 + 2; Z = 5
huge amount of energy, also radioactivity
⇒ 2 v 22 = 5.4 MeV The element X is 5 B10 .
is a nuclear phenomena.
DAY THIRTY SIX
Electronic
Devices
Learning & Revision for the Day
u Energy Bands in Solids u Diode as a Rectifier u Transistor
u Semiconductors u Special Purpose Diodes u Logic Gates
u Semiconductor Diode
l
The number of electrons reaching from valence band to This layer containing immobile ions is called depletion layer.
− E / 2 kT
conduction band, n = AT 3 / 2e g The thickness of depletion layer is approximately of the order
where, k = Boltzmann’s constant, T = absolute temperature of 10 −6 m.
and A = atomic weight. The potential difference developed across the p-n junction
due to diffusion of electrons and holes is called the potential
barrier Vb (or emf of fictitious battery).
Superconductors
When few metals are cooled, then below a certain critical For germanium diode barrier potential is 0.3 V, but for Si
temperature, their electrical resistance suddenly becomes diode, its value is 0.7 V. The barrier electric field developed
zero. In this state, these substances are called due to it, is of the order of 10 5 Vm–1.
superconductors and this phenomena is called
superconductivity. Mercury become superconductor at 4.2 K, Mobility of Charge Carriers
lead at 7.25 K and niobium at 9.2 K.
The mobility of a charge carrier is defined as the velocity
gained by its per unit electric field, i.e. µ = Vd / E .
Types of Extrinsic Semiconductor
NOTE Current in semiconductor is, i = i e + i h = eA( neVe + nhVh )
1. n-type Semiconductor Conductivity, σ =
J
=
i
= e( neµ e + nhµ h )
To prepare an n-type semiconductor, a pentavalent E AE
impurity, e.g. P, As, Sb is used as a dopant with Si or Ge. (where, J = current density = nqV)
Such an impurity is called donor impurity, because each
dopant atom provides one free electron. I-V Characteristics in Forward
In n-type semiconductor ne > > nh , i.e. electrons are and Reverse Bias
majority charge carriers and the holes are minority charge
carriers, such that ne ⋅ nh = n2i . An n-type semiconductor is When we join an external potential source, such that p-side of
p-n junction is joined to positve of voltage source and n-side
electrically neutral and is not negatively charged. to negative of voltage source, the junction is said to be
Conductivity, σ ≈ ne µe e forward biased and applied electric field E opposes the
barrier electric field Eb .
2. p-type Semiconductor As a result, width of depletion layer is reduced and on
To prepare a p-type semiconductor, a trivalent impurity, applying a voltage V > Vb , a forward current begins to flow.
e.g. B, Al, In, Ga, etc., is used as a dopant with Si or Ge. Resistance offered by p-n junction in forward bias is small
Such an impurity is called acceptor impurity as each (about 10-50 Ω).
impurity atom wants to accept an electron from the crystal E IF
E Eb (mA)
lattice. Thus, effectively each dopant atom provides a hole. Eb
In p-type semiconductor nh > > ne , i.e. holes are majority r sr s r ss rr s
r s s ss rr r VR VF
s sr r r s
charge carriers and electrons minority charge carriers, p r ss rr s n
p r sr s n
such that nh ⋅ ne = n2i . A p-type semiconductor is + – – +
electrically neutral and is not positively charged. IR (µA)
(a) FB (b) RB Variation of forward and
The number of free electrons in a semiconductor varies reverse current with forward
with temperature as T 3 / 2 . and reverse voltage.
(c)
Conductivity, σ ≈ nhµ he
If connections of potential source are reversed [Fig. (b)], i.e.
p -side is connected to negative terminal of battery and n-side
Semiconductor Diode to positive terminal, the junction is said to be reverse biased
and in this case E and Eb , being in same direction, are added
A p-n junction is obtained by joining a small p-type crystal
with a small n-type crystal without employing any other up. So, the depletion layer broadens and potential barrier is
binding material in between them. Whenever a p-n junction fortified.
is formed, electrons from n-region diffuse through the Consequently, an extremely small leakage current flows
junction into p-region and the holes from p-region diffuse across the junction due to minority charge carriers and
into n-region. − 10 5 Ω).
junction resistance is extremely high (~
As a result of which neutrality of both n and p-regions is For a sufficiently high reverse bias voltage (25 V or even
disturbed, and a thin layer of immobile negative charged ions more), the reverse current suddenly increases. This voltage is
appear near the junction in the p-crystal and a layer of called Zener voltage or breakdown voltage or avalanche
positive ions appear near the junction in n-crystal. voltage.
374 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY SIX
Infrared
Amber
1. Half Wave Rectifier A rectifier, which rectifies only
Yellow
Green
Blue
I (mA)
Red
one-half of each AC input supply cycle, is called a half
wave rectifier.
A half wave rectifier gives discontinuous and pulsating
Forward current
DC output. As no output is obtained corresponding to
alternate half cycles of the AC input supply, its efficiency
is quite low.
2. Full Wave Rectifier A rectifier, which rectifies both
halves of each AC input cycle is called a full wave
VF
rectifier.
The output of a full wave rectifier is continuous, but
pulsating in nature. However, it can be made smooth by Photodiode
using a filter circuit. It is a special diode used in reverse bias which conducts only
As output is obtained corresponding to both the half when light of suitable wavelengths is incident on the junction
cycles of the AC input supply, its efficiency is more than of diode. The energy of incident light photon must be greater
that of half wave rectifier. than the band gap of semiconductor (i.e. hν > E g ). Materials
used are Cds, Se, Zns, etc.
NOTE • The ripple factor is defined as the ratio of rms value of AC
component in the output of the rectifier to the DC
component in the input. Solar Cell
It is a special p-n junction, in which one of the
semiconductors is made extremely thin, so that solar
Special Purpose Diodes radiation falling on it reaches junction of diode without any
absorption. A solar cell directly converts, solar energy into
Zener Diode electrical energy. Popularly used solar cells, Ni-cd, PbS cell,
etc.
It is a highly doped p-n junction diode which is not
n
damaged by high reverse current. It is always used
p
in reverse bias in breakdown voltage region and is
chiefly used as a voltage regulator.
Transistor
A transistor is a combination of two p-n junctions joined in
l
Zener Diode as Voltage Regulator The following circuit is
series. A junction transistor is known as Bipolar Junction
used for stabilising voltage across a load RL . The circuit
Transistor (BJT). It is a three terminal device.
consists of a series voltage-dropping resistance R and a
Zener diode in parallel with the load RL . Transistors are of two types
+ I R (i) n-p-n transistor,
+
(ii) p-n-p transistor
A transistor has three regions
Fluctuating n Constant
p n Zener VZ RL DC output
(i) An emitter (E), which is most heavily doped, and is of
DC input
voltage diode voltage moderate size. It supplies large number of charge carriers,
p
which are free electrons in an n-p-n transistor and holes
in a p-n-p transistor.
–
– (ii) A base (B), which is very lightly doped and is very thin
The Zener diode is selected with Zener voltage Vz equal (thickness ~ 10 −5m).
to the voltage desired across the load. (iii) A collector (C), which is moderately doped and is
thickest.
DAY THIRTY SIX ELECTRONIC DEVICES 375
A transistor is symbolically represented as shown in figures. where, RC and RB are net resistances in collector and base
n-p-n p-n-p circuits, respectively.
E E C
l
In common base configuration, AC current gain is defined
C ∆I
as α = C
∆I V = constant
CE
B B
l
Value of α is slightly less than 1. In fact, 0.95 ≤ α ≤ 1.
(a) (b)
∆P
l
Power gain = o = β2AC × Resistance gain
∆Pi
Transistor Action
For proper functioning of a transistor, the emitter-base NOTE • Current gains α and β are correlated as
α β
junction is forward biased, but the collector-base junction is β= or α =
reverse biased. In an n-p-n transistor, electrons flow from 1−α 1+ β
emitter towards the base and constitute a current I E .
Due to larger reverse bias at base-collector junction, most of Transistor as an Amplifier
these electrons further pass into the collector, constituting a A transistor consisting of two p-n junctions, one forward
collector current IC . But a small percentage of electrons (less biased and the other reverse biased can be used to amplify a
than 5%) may combine with holes present in base. These weak signal. The forward biased junction has a low resistance
electrons constitute a base current I B . It is self evident, that path, whereas the reverse biased junction has a high
I E = IC + I B . resistance path. The weak input signal is applied across the
Action of p-n-p transistor is also same, but with one forward biased junction, and the output signal is taken across
difference that holes are moving from emitter to base and the reverse biased junction.
then to collector. A transistor can be connected in either of Since, the input and output currents are almost equal, the
the following three configurations output signal appears with a much higher voltage. The
(i) Common Emitter (CE) configuration transistor, thus acts as an amplifier. Common-emitter
configuration of transistor amplifier is given below
(ii) Common Base (CB) configuration n-p -n C
(iii) Common Collector (CC) configuration.
B
Generally, we prefer common emitter configuration, because
power gain is maximum in this configuration.
E Output
Input
Characteristics of a Transistor
In common emitter configuration, variation of current on the – +
+ –
input side with input voltage (I E versus VBE ) is known as the
input characteristics, and the variation in the output current
with output voltage (IC versus VCE ) is known as output
characteristics. From these characteristics, we obtain the Transistor as an Oscillator
values of following parameters An electronic oscillator is a device that generates electrical
∆VBE oscillations of constant amplitude and of a desired frequency,
l
Input resistance, ri =
∆I B V = constant without any external input.
CE
The circuit providing such oscillation, is known as a tank
∆VCE
l
Output resistance, ro = oscillator, is using positive feedback.
∆ IC I B = constant
∆ IC
l
AC current gain, β= L′
∆I B
Inducting coupled
VCE = constant
C
The current gain for common-emitter configuration
B
β ranges from 20 to 200. n- p- n
B2
∆ IC β
l
Transconductance, g m = = E
∆VBE ri
C
l
A transistor can be used as an amplifier. The voltage gain L
of an amplifier will be given by
V R
A V = o = β⋅ C K
Vi RB B1
376 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY SIX
Some of the properties of the oscillator are The Boolean expression for OR gate is Y = A + B
l
Oscillator is using positive feedback. This indicates Y equals A OR B.
l
To work as an oscillator, Truth table for OR gate ( Y = A + B )
|Aβ| = 1; β → feedback factor
A B Y
1 1
l
f = frequency of oscillation = × . 0 0 0
2π LC
0 1 1
Transistor as a Switch 1 0 1
Load
Truth table for AND gate ( Y = A ⋅ B )
Flywheel Relay
Diode Output A B Y
Ic 0 0 0
RB ia Vce 0 1 0
+ β
Vin Ω R 1 0 0
– 1 1 1
y′
Combination of Logic Gates A
y
B
1. NAND Gate
The logic symbol of NOR gate is shown as
In this type of gate, the output of AND gate is fed to input of a
NOT gate and final output is obtained at output of NOT gate. A
y=A+B
A B
Y′
Y
B
The Boolean expression for NOR gate is Y = A + B, which
indicates that ‘A OR B are negated’
The logic symbol of NAND gate is shown as Truth table for NOR gate
A A B Y′ Y
Y
B 0 0 0 1
1 0 1 0
The Boolean expression of NAND gate is Y = A ⋅ B, which 0 1 1 0
indicates A and B are negated. 1 1 1 0
Truth table for NAND gate
NOTE • NAND and NOR gates are known as universal gate.
A B Y′ Y
• The Boolean expressions obey the commutative law,
0 0 0 1 associative law as well as distributive law.
1 0 0 1 Commutative law
0 1 0 1 (i) A + B = B + A (ii) A ⋅ B = B ⋅ A
1 1 1 0 Associative law
(iii) A + (B + C ) = ( A + B ) + C (iv) ( A ⋅ B ) ⋅ C = A ⋅ (B ⋅ C )
2. NOR Gate Distributive law
In this type of gate, the output of OR gate is fed to input of (v) A ⋅ (B + C ) = A ⋅ B + A ⋅ C (vi) A + A ⋅ B = A + B
the NOT gate and final output is obtained at output of the (vii) A + A ⋅ B = A (viii) A ⋅ ( A + B ) = A
NOT gate. (ix) A ⋅ ( A + B ) = A ⋅ B (x) A ⋅ B = A + B
O T O T
378 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY SIX
5 The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with 12 The contribution in the total current flowing through a
increase in temperature because 3 1
semiconductor due to electrons and holes are and . If
(a) number density of free current carriers increase 4 4
(b) relaxation time increases
5
the drift velocity of the electron is times that of holes at
(c) both number density of carriers and relaxation time 2
increase this temperature, then the ratio of concentration of
(d) number density of current carriers increase, relaxation time electrons and holes is
decreases but effect of decrease in relaxation time is (a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3
much less than increase in number density
13 Depletion layer contains
6 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following (a) Only immobile negative and positive ions
statement is true? ª NEET 2013 (b) Only free charge carrier
(c) Both free carrier and immobile ions
(a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are
(d) None of the above
dopants
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are 14 In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the
dopants p-region to n-region because
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are (a) free electrons in the n-region attract them
dopants (b) they move across the junction by the potential difference
(d) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants (c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to
(d) it becomes a p-type semiconductor n-region
7 A specimen of silicon is to be made p-type (d) All of the above
semiconductor. For this one atom of indium, on an 15 The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on
average, is doped in 5 × 107 silicon atoms. If the number I. Type of semiconductor material
density of silicon is 5 × 1028 atoms/m 2 , then the number
II. Amount of doping
of acceptor atoms per cm 3 will be
III. Temperature
(a) 2.5 × 1030 (b) 1.0 × 1013
(c) 1.0 × 1015 (d) 2.5 × 1036 Which one of the following is correct? ª CBSE AIPMT 2014
8 The resistivity of an n-type extrinsic semiconductor is (a) I and II (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
0.25 Ω-m. If the electron mobility is 8.25 m / V-s, then the
2 16 In forward biasing of the p-n junction ª CBSE AIPMT 2011
concentration of donor atoms will be (in m −3 ) (a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side
(a) 3.0 × 1016 (b) 3.0 × 1017 (c) 3.0 × 1018 (d) 3.0 × 1019 and the depletion region becomes thin
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side
9 The number of densities of electrons and holes in pure
and the depletion region becomes thick
silicon at 27°C are equal and its value is 1.5 × 10 16 m −3 .
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side
On doping with indium, the hole density increases to
and the deplection region become thin
4.5 × 10 27 m −3 . The electron density in doped silicon will be
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side
(a) 50 × 109 m−3 (b) 5 × 109 m−3 and the depletion region becomes thick
(c) 108 m−3 (d) 107 m−3
17 Which one of the following represents forward bias
10 In n-type germanium, the mobility of electrons is diode? ª NEET 2017
3900 cm 2 / Vs and their conductivity is 5 mho / cm. If the R –2 V
0V
cotter contribution is negligible, then impurity (a)
concentration will be –4V R –3 V
(b)
(a) 8 × 1015 per cm3 (b) 9.25 × 1014 per cm3
(c) 6 × 1013 per cm3 (d) 9 × 1013 per cm3 –2V R +2 V
(c)
11 The ratio of electron and hole currents in a
3V R 5V
5 (d)
semiconductor is and the ratio of drift velocities of
4
7 18 If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is
electrons and holes is , then the ratio of concentrations
4 applied, as shown, ª CBSE AIPMT 2015
of electrons and holes will be 100 W
+5V
25 49 7 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
49 25 5 7 RL
-5V
DAY THIRTY SIX ELECTRONIC DEVICES 379
then the output across RL will be 27 In a common emitter amplifier, the output resistance is
5000 Ω and the input resistance is 2000 Ω. If the peak
10V
value of the signal voltage is 10 mV and β = 50, then the
(a) (b) peak value of the output voltage is
–10V (a) 1. 25 V (b) 125 V
(c) 5 × 10−6 V (d) 2.5 × 10−4 V
5V 28 The input and output resistances in a common base
(c) (d)
–5V amplifier circuit are 400 Ω and 400 k Ω. If the current gain
α is 0.98 and emitter current is 2 mA, then the base
19 Current through the ideal diode as shown in figure, is current is
100 W
(a) 0.02 mA (b) 0.08 mA (c) 0.05 mA (d) 0.04 mA
29 A p-n-p transistor is used in common emitter mode in an
2V 5V amplifier circuit. A charge of 40 µA in the base current
brings a charge of 2 mA in collector current and of 0.04 V
in base emitter voltage. The base current amplification
factor is
(a) zero (b) 20 A (c) (1/20) A (d) (1/50 )A (a) 5 (b) 50 (c) 500 (d) 0.5
20 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current 30 The input resistance of a CE amplifier is 333 Ω and the
flowing through AB is ª NEET 2016 load resistance is 5 kΩ. A change of base current by
15 µA a result in the change of collector current by 1 mA.
A 1KΩ B The voltage gain of the amplifier is
+4V – 6V
(a) 550 (b) 51 (c) 101 (d) 1001
(a) 10−2 A (b) 10−1 A (c) 10−3 A (d) 0 A 31 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an
21 LED has a voltage drop of 2 V across it, and passes a input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of
current of 10 mA. When it operates with a 6 V battery 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is ª CBSE AIPMT 2010
through a limiting resistor R. The value of R is (a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1250 (d) 50
(a) 40 kΩ (b) 4 kΩ (c) 200 Ω (d) 400 Ω 32 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
22 The electrical conductivity of semiconductor increases across the collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 4 V. If the
when electromagnetic radiation of wavelength shorter current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and
than 2480 nm is incident on it. The band gap (in eV) for the base resistance is l kΩ, then the input signal voltage
the semiconductor is is ª NEET 2016
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.5 (d) 1.1 (a) 10 mV (b) 20 mV (c) 30 mV (d) 15 mV
23 A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor 33 A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration
with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of at Vc = 2 volt such that a change in the base current from
wavelength ª CBSE AIPMT 2009 100 µA to 200 µA produces a change in the collector
(a) 6000 Å (b) 4000 nm (c) 6000 nm (d) 4000 Å current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is
24 In a transistor, the base is ª AFMC 2012 ª CBSE AIPMT 2009
35 The combination of the gates shown in the figure below (a) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
produces (c) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (d) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
A
42 What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the
three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1? ª NEET 2016
Y
B A
P
B Q
(a) NOR gate (b) OR gate Y
(c) AND gate (d) XOR gate C
B
Y2
A
(a) OR (b) NAND (c) AND (d) NOR
37 A proper combination of 3 NOT and 1 AND gates is
shown. If A = 0 , B = 1 and C = 1, then the output of this B
combination is
A
C
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
B Y
(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
C
44 To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown below, the
(a) 1 (b) zero
input must be ª CBSE AIPMT 2010
(c) not predictable (d) None of these
A
38 The output ( X ) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be B Y
ª NEET 2013 C
A A B C A B C
X
B (a) 0 1 0 (b) 0 0 1
(c) 1 0 1 (d) 1 0 0
(a) X = A ⋅ B (b) X = A ⋅ B
(c) X = A ⋅ B (d) X = A + B 45 In the following circuit, the outputY for all possible inputs
A and B is expressed by the truth table
39 Digital circuit can be made by repetitive use of this gate
A
(a) AND (b) OR Y
(c) NOT (d) NAND B
40 The given electrical network is equivalent to ª NEET 2017 (a) A B Y (b) A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 1
A Y
B 0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
(a) AND gate (b) OR gate
1 1 1 1 1 0
(c) NOR gate (d) NOT gate
(c) A B Y (d) A B Y
41 To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct 0 0 1 0 0 0
choice for the input is ª NEET 2016 0 1 0 0 1 1
A 1 0 0 1 0 1
B Y
1 1 0 1 1 1
C
DAY THIRTY SIX ELECTRONIC DEVICES 381
A t
7 A potential difference of 2.5 V is applied across the
1 faces of a germanium crystal plate. The face area of the
crystal is 1cm 2 and its thickness is 1.0 mm. The free
B t
electron concentration in germanium is
1
2 × 1019 m −3 , and the electron and hole mobilities are
C t 0.33 m 2 / Vs and 0.17 m 2 / Vs, respectively. The current
across the plate will be
The logic circuit gate is
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.4 A
(a) AND gate (b) NAND gate (c) 0.6 A (d) 0.8 A
(c) NOR gate (d) OR gate
8 The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a
2 In the combination of the following gates the outputY can semiconductor device. Which of the following statement is
be written in terms of inputs A and B as ª NEET 2018 correct? ª CBSE AIPMT 2014
A
B
I
Y
A
V
(a) A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B (b) A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B B
(c) A ⋅ B (d) A + B
3 In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to (a) It is V-I characteristic for solar cell, where point A
heating represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit
(a) does not affect resistance of p-n junction current.
(b) affects only forward resistance (b) It is for a solar cell and points A and B, represent open
(c) affects only reverse resistance circuit voltage and current, respectively.
(d) affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction (c) It is for a photodiode and points A and B, represent open
4 In the given circuit, all diodes are ideal. The current circuit voltage and current, respectively.
through battery is (d) It is for a LED and points A and B, represent open circuit
voltage and short circuit current respectively.
D1
5Ω
9 C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding
electrons in each. However, C is insulator, whereas Si is
intrinsic semiconductor. This is because ª CBSE AIPMT 2012
3Ω (a) in case of C, the valence band is not completely filled at
3Ω
D2
absolute zero temperature
(b) in case of C, the conduction band is partly filled even at
2Ω absolute zero temperature
(c) the four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the
20 V second orbit, whereas in the case of Si, they lie in the third
(a) 2 A (b) 1 A (c) 3 A (d) 4 A (d) the four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third
5 How many gates are required to design P = X + XY ? orbit, whereas for Si, they lie in the fourth orbit
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
382 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY SIX
10 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as 15 In a common emitter transistor amplifier, the audio signal
shown in the figure below. The current flowing through voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of
the resistance R1 will be ª NEET 2016 collector is 3 kΩ. If current gain is 100 and the base
2Ω resistance is 2 kΩ, the voltage and power gain of the
amplifier is ª NEET 2017
R1 D2 (a) 200 and 1000 (b) 15 and 200
D1
(c) 150 and 15000 (d) 20 and 2000
10 V
R2 3Ω R3 2Ω 16 A n-p-n transistor is connected in common emitter
configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of
(a) 2.5 A (b) 10.0 A (c) 1.43 A (d) 3.13 A 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the
voltage drop across it is 0.8V. If the current amplification
11 The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage
factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuits is
π
gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos 15 t + . The corresponding 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the
3
amplifier will respectively be ª NEET 2016
output signal will be ª CBSE AIPMT 2015
(a) 3.69, 3.84 (b) 4, 4
π 2π
(a) 300 cos 15 t +
(b) 75 cos 15 t + (c) 4, 3.69 (d) 4, 3.84
3 3
5π 4π
(c) 2 cos 15 t + (d) 300 cos 15 t +
17 In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltageVi is 20
3 3 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB , IC and β are
given by ª NEET 2018
12 The base resistance RB in the circuit, is (given hFE = 90)
20 V
RC 2 kW RC 4 kW
C
RB + RB
4V 9V Vi
– 500 kW B
E
3V
ANSWERS
SESSION 1 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (c)
41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (d)
SESSION 2 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (d) 18 (b)
∆ Ic × R L
22 Band gap, E = hc 30 Voltage gain, A V = 38 X = AB = A ⋅ B (i.e. AND gate)
λ ∆ Ib × R i
If the output X of NAND gate is
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 19.8 × 10−17 (1 × 10−3 ) × (5 × 10−3 )
= J= = ≈ 1001
connected to the input of NOT gate
2480 × 10−9 2480 (15 × 10−6 ) × 333 (made from NAND gate by joining two
−20
8 × 10 inputs) from the given figure, then we
= 8 × 10−20 J = eV 31 Voltage gain = β × impedance gain get back an AND gate.
1.6 × 10−19
−1 200
= 5 × 10 = 0.5 eV ⇒ 50 = β × ⇒ β = 25 39 We know that, the repetitive use of
100 NAND and NOR gate gives digital
c Also, power gain = β2 × impedance gain
23 Energy, E = hν = h circuits.
λ 200
hc = (25)2 × = 1250 40 Truth table for given network is
⇒ λ= 100
E
32 Given, collector resistance = Rout = 2 kΩ NOR NOR NOT
Substituting the values of h, c and E in A Y
Current amplification factor, β = 100 B Y1 Y2
the above equation
Base resistance, R in = 1 k Ω
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 Output signal voltage = 4 V
λ= = 5000 Å A B Y1 Y2 Y
2.5 × 1.6 × 10−19 Putting all the values in given equation,
we get 0 0 1 0 1
As, 4000 Å < 5000 Å
R 2 kΩ
A V = β out = 100 × ⇒A V = 200 1 0 0 1 0
Signal of wavelength 4000 Å can be R in 1 kΩ
detected by the photodiode. (V out )AC 0 1 0 1 0
Now, AV = = 200
24 In a transistor, the base is a conductor of (V in )AC 1 1 0 1 0
low resistance. 4
⇒ (V in )AC = = 20 mV Output Y of network matches with that
25 To switch ON the transistor, the 200 of NOR gate.
emitter-base junction of a transistor is 33 Here, ∆IC = 10 × 10−3 − 5 × 10−3 41 Consider the given figure,
forward biased while collector-base
= 5 × 10−3 A The resultant boolean expression of the
junction is reverse biased. The cut-off
voltage for silicon is ~1 V, so to switch ∆I B = 200 × 10−6 − 100 × 10−6 above logic circuit will be
ON a silicon transistor a potential = 100 × 10−6 A Y = ( A + B )⋅ C
Only option (c) is the correct choice, i.e.
difference of 1 V approximately, is ∴Current gain,
required between the base and emitter. ∆I 5 output Y = 1 only when inputs
β= C = × 1000 = 50 A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1.
IC IC ∆I B 100
26 ∴ α = =
42 Output of the given circuit is given by
IE I B + IC 34 The symbols given in problem are
0.97 0.97 y = ( AB ) (C )
= = = 0.97 (i) OR (ii) AND
0.03 + 0.97 1.00 When A = B = C = 0,
(iii) NOT (iv) NAND
27 We have, R L = 5000 Ω, R i = 2000 Ω, Y1 = (0) (0) (0) = 0 = 1
35 Y = A ⋅ B = A + B
B = 50 Thus, the combination of the gates When A = B = C = 1,
The AC voltage gain is given by produces OR gate. Y2 = (1) (1) = 0
R 50 × 5000
β× L = = 125
Ri 2000 36 43 From the given waveforms, the
Thus, the peak output voltage = voltage A B Y1 Y2 Y following truth table can be made
gain × signal voltage 0 0 1 1 0 Input Output
= 125 × 10 mv 0 1 1 0 0
= 1250 mV = 1.25V 1 0 0 1 0
A B C
Unit Test 8
(Electronic Devices)
1 In the figure shown below, which of the diodes are 4 The graph given below represents the I-V characteristics
forward biased? of a zener diode. Which part of the characteristics curve
+5V +10V is most relevant for its operation as a voltage regulator?
R R R I (mA)
Forward bias
+5V –10V Reverse bias
a
(1) (2) (3) VZ
d c b V (volt)
e
–10V R R
I (mA)
(4) –5V (5) –10V
(a) ab (b) bc
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 5 (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4 (c) cd (d) de
2 The resistance of a germanium junction diode whoseV -I 5 Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in
graph is shown in the figure, is (Vk = 0.3 V). figure is
I 10 mA A
Y
Vk 2.3V V
(d)
10
(a) 5 kΩ (b) 0.2 kΩ (c) 2.3 kΩ kΩ
2.3 B
7 The reverse saturation of p-n diode 14 The following configuration of gates is equivalent to
(a) depends on doping concentrations A
(b) depends on diffusion length of carriers
B AND
(c) depends on the doping concentrations and diffusion G1
length Y
(d) depends on the doping concentrations, diffusion length G3
and device temperature
8 A p-n-p transistor is said to be in active region of G2
(a) A + B (b) A ⋅ B
(c) A ⋅ B (d) A + B D1 30Ω
12 In the CB mode of a transistor, when the collector voltage
is changed by 0.5 V. The collector current changes by
20Ω
0.05 mA. The output resistance will be + –
(a) 10 k Ω (b) 20 k Ω 5V
(c) 5 k Ω (d) 2.5 k Ω (a)
3
A (b)
5
A
50 50
13 The current gain of a transistor in common emitter mode 4 2
(c) A (d) A
is 49. The change in collector current and emitter current 50 50
corresponding to the change in base current by 5.0 µA, Ic
will be 18 For a transistor = 0.96, the current gain in
Ie
(a) 245 µA, 250 µA (b) 240 µA, 235 µA
common-emitter configuration is
(c) 260 µA, 255 µA (d) None of the above
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48
DAY THIRTY SEVEN UNIT TEST 8 (ELECTRONIC DEVICES) 389
19 For a given circuit of ideal p-n junction diode, which of 24 The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure, has a
the following is correct ? constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all currents and a
Diode maximum power rating of 100 mW. What should be the
R
value of the resistor R, connected in series with the diode
for obtaining maximum current?
0.5 V
R
V
(a)In forward biasing the voltage across R is V I
(b)In reverse biasing the voltage across R is V 1.5 V
(c)In forward biasing the voltage across R is 2V
(d)In reverse biasing the voltage across R is 2V
(a) 1.5 Ω (b) 5 Ω
20 Identify the operation performed by the circuit given (c) 6.67 Ω (d) 200 Ω
below 25 In a forward biased p-n junction diode, the potential
–
A
barrier in the depletion region is of the form
A
V V
Y
–
B
B (a) (b)
28 The circuit shown in the figure 70 Ω 33 The ratio of electron and hole current in a semiconductor
contains two diodes, each with a is 7/4 and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and
forward resistance of 30 Ω and 70 Ω holes is 5/4, then ratio of concentrations of electrons and
with infinite backward resistance. holes will be
If the battery is 3 V, the current + 50 Ω
(a) 5/7 (b) 7/5 (c) 25/49 (d) 49/25
(in ampere) through the 50 Ω 3V 34 In a junction diode, the direction of diffusion current is
resistance is
(a) from n-region to p-region
(a) zero (b) 0.01 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.03
(b) from p-region to n-region
29 Which of the following is not equal to 1 in Boolean (c) from n-region to p-region, if the junction is forward
algebra? biased and vice versa, if it is reverse biased
(a) A ⋅ A (b) A ⋅ A (d) from p-region to n-region if the junction is forward
biased and vice versa, if it is reverse biased
(c) A + A (d) A + 1
30 The output Y of the logic circuit shown in figure, is best 35 The direction of flow of current in the given diagram is
represented as +5 V 200Ω +3 V
A
B Y (a) zero (b) 10−2 A (c) 10 A (d) 0.025 A
III
C II
I Direction (Q. Nos. 36-41) In each of the following questions
(a) A + B ⋅ C (b) A + B ⋅ C a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding
(c) A + B ⋅ C (d) A + B ⋅ C statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the
correct answer as
31 A p-n junction diode shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
An alternating current source (V ) is connected in the circuit. the correct explanation of the Assertion
The current (I ) in the resistor (R ) can be shown by (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not correct explanation of the Assertion
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
V R
36 Assertion (A) In a common emitter transistor amplifier,
the input current is much less than the output current.
Reason (R) The common emitter transistor amplifier has
I I
very high input impedance.
(a) (b)
37 Assertion (A) The logic gate NOT can be built using
t t diode.
Reason (R) The output voltage and the input voltage of
I I
the diode have 180° phase difference.
(c) (d)
38 Assertion (A) A transistor amplifier in common emitter
t t configuration, has a low input impedance.
Reason (R) The base to emitter region is forward biased.
32 In the circuit as shown in figure, A and B represent two 39 Assertion (A) NAND or NOR gates are called digital
inputs and C represents the building blocks.
A Reason (R) The repeated use of NAND or NOR gate can
produce all the basic or completed gates.
C
R
40 Assertion (A) The resistivity of a semiconductor
B
increases with temperature.
Reason (R) The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with
(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate larger amplitudes at higher temperatures thereby
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate increasing its resistivity.
DAY THIRTY SEVEN UNIT TEST 8 (ELECTRONIC DEVICES) 391
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)
15 The given output equation can be 20 The output of the circuit is consequence of this is the effective
written as barrier potential reduces. Hence, the
Y = A + B = A⋅B
graph (d) is correctly shown.
A
A A·B = A ⋅ B [Q A = A and B = B ]
26 Here, emitter is forward biased, and is
which is the output of an AND gate. common between input and output
21 Output of gate-1, Y1 = A ⋅ B circuit. Thus, the circuit is of n-p-n
Y
transistor with a common emitter
A amplifier mode.
1
B
A·B B 27 As, V B = V knee + IR
B
3 Y or 4 = 07. + 10−3 R
Y = A ⋅B ⋅ A⋅B 3.3
C 2 or R = = 3.3kΩ
= (A + B)⋅ (A + B) 10−3
(Using de Morgan's theorem)
Output of gate 2, Y2 = C 28 In the circuit, the upper diode D1 is
= A A + B B + BA + A B
Output of gate 3, Y = Y1 ⋅ Y2 = ( A ⋅ B ) ⋅ C reverse biased and the lower diode D2 is
= AB + A B forward biased. Thus, there will be no
Thus, from the given options output
This Boolean expression for XNOR gate. will be zero, if A = 1, B = 1 and C = 1 current across upper diode junction.
The effective circuit will be as shown in
16 We can see from the truth table that 22 NAND gate is obtained when the output
output is 1, only when its both inputs figure.
of AND gate is made as the input of
are 1. This is possible only for AND NOT gate. Boolean expression for 70Ω
gate. The Boolean expression for AND NAND gate is
gate is Y = A ⋅ B , which satisfies the
truth table as given below. A
0⋅ 0 = 0 Y
B 3V
1⋅ 0 = 0 + – 50Ω
Y = A⋅B
0⋅1 = 0
Total resistance of circuit,
1⋅1 = 1 Input (A) Input (B) Output (Y) R = 50 + 70 + 30 = 150 Ω
Here, symbol (⋅) represents AND 0 0 1 Current in circuit,
operation. V
1 0 1 I =
17 In the circuit, diode D1 is forward R
0 1 1 3
biased and diode D2 is reverse biased. = = 0.02 A
1 1 0 150
Therefore, no current flows in the arm
containing D2 and all of the current 23 Here, p-n junction is forward biased. If 29 (a) A ⋅ A = A + A = A + A = 1
flows through arm containing D1 . p-n junction is ideal, its resistance is (b) A ⋅ A = 0
zero. The effective resistance across A (c) A + A =1
Thus, current flowing through the
and B
circuit =
5
=
5
A 10 × 10 (d) A + 1 = 1
20 + 30 50 = = 5 kΩ Hence, all the options give the output 1
10 + 10
except option (b).
18 Given, Ic = Current gain (α ) = 0.96 Current in the circuit,
Ie V 30 2 30
I = = = A
So, current gain in common emitter R 15 × 103 103
A Y3
configuration is 2
α Current in arm, AB = I = B
B 2 Y2
3
β= 10 1
1−α Potential difference across A and B
C Y1
0.96 0.96 2
= = = 24 = × 5 × 103 = 10 V The output at gate 1, Y1 = B ⋅ C
1 − 0.96 0.04 103
Output at gate 2, Y2 = A + B ⋅ C
19 In forward biasing, the diode conducts. 24 Current through circuit, Final output, Y3 = Y 2 = A + B ⋅ C
For ideal junction diode, the forward P 100 × 10−3
resistance is zero. Therefore, entire I = = = 0.2 V
V 0.5 31 The given circuit represents a circuit of
applied voltage occurs across resistance
Voltage drop across, half wave rectifier. In this, during the
R, i.e. there occurs no voltage drop.
R = 1.5 − 0.5 = 1.0 V positive half cycle of input, p-n junction
Thus, voltage across R is V in forward
1 is forward biased. Hence, current flows
biasing. Hence, R = = 5Ω
0.2 in the load. But in the negative half
While in reverse biasing, the diode does
cycle of input, p-n junction is reverse
not conduct, so it has infinite 25 In forward biased p -n junction, the
biased. Thus, no current flows. So,
resistance. Thus, voltage across R is applied potential is opposite to the
zero in reverse biasing. option (b) is correct.
junction barrier potential V B . The
DAY THIRTY SEVEN UNIT TEST 8 (ELECTRONIC DEVICES) 393
32 The circuit represents OR gate, as the 35 Here, p-n junction as forward biased with 38 As base to emitter region is forward
output at C is 1, when either A or B or voltage = 5 − 3 = 2 V biased. Hence, it will work as simple
both A and B have input at level 1. But 2 forward biased diode and resistance is
∴ Current I =
output at C is zero, when both A and B 200 low.
are at zero level, since for OR gate, the 1
= = 10−2 A 39 NAND or NOR gates are called
Boolean expression is C = ( A + B ). 100 universal (digital) building blocks
33 As, I = Anev d or I ∝ nv d 36 The common emitter transistor amplifier because using repeated order of these
has input resistance equal to 1 k Ω two types of gates we can produce all
Ie n v
∴ = e e (approx.), and output resistance equal to 10 the basic gates namely OR, AND or
Ih nh v h complex gates.
kΩ (approx.). The output current in CE
ne I v 7 4 7
or = e × h = × = amplifier is much larger than the input 40 Resistivity of a semiconductor
nh Ih ve 4 5 5 current. Hence, option (c) is correct. decreases with the temperature. The
37 NOT gate inverts the signal applied to it. atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with
34 In a p-n junction, the direction of
But in diode, the input and output are in larger amplitudes at higher
diffusion current is from p-region to
same phase. Thus, NOT gate cannot be temperature, thereby increasing its
n-region only.
built by a diode. Hence, option (d) is conductivity, not resistivity.
correct.
DAY THIRTY EIGHT
Mock Test 1
Instruction
l This question paper contains of 50 Multiple Choice Questions of Physics, divided into two Sections;
section A and section B.
l Section A contains 35 questions and all questions are compulsory.
l Section B contains 15 questions out of which only 10 questions are to be attempted.
l Each question carries 4 marks.
(b) a vertical path with an acceleration g 2 − a 2 (a) a and p are positive while b and q are negative
(b) a, p and b are positive while q is negative
(c) a parabola with an acceleration g 2 + a 2
(c) a, q and b are positive while p is negative
(d) a parabola with an acceleration g
(d) All a, b, p and q are positive
5 Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 2 kg are placed
side by side on an incline as shown in the figure. A 7 A body is projected from A at an angle of 90° with the
force F = 20 N is acting on 2 kg block along the plane AB. It again touches the plane at B after time T .
incline. Then, what is the length AB?
DAY THIRTY EIGHT MOCK TEST 1 395
20 In the shown circuit the reading of ammeter is same 26 In an L-R circuit, the AC source has voltage 220 V. The
when both the switches are open, and when both the potential difference across the inductance is 176 V. The
switches are closed. Assume the ammeter to be ideal, potential difference across the resistance will be
the value of R satisfying above condition is (a) (220 − 176) V
100Ω (b) (220 + 176) V
A
(c) 220 × 176 V
R (d) (220) 2 − (176) 2 V
50Ω
27 A copper wire of length 1.0 m and a steel wire of length
0.5 m having equal cross-sectional areas are joined end
to end. The composite wire is stretched by a certain load
300Ω 1.5V
which stretches the copper wire by 1 mm. If the Young’s
(a) 100 Ω (b) 400 Ω (c) 600 Ω (d) 440 Ω modulus of copper and steel are respectively
21 The power and voltage rating of a heater is 1000 W and 1. 0 × 1011Nm –2 and 2 . 0 × 1011Nm –2 , the total extension of
100 V, respectively. What should be the value of R in the composite wire is
the given circuit, so that heater operates with power of (a) 1.75 mm (b) 2.0 mm
62.5 W? (c) 1.50 mm (d) 1.25 mm
10Ω IH
28 The earth’s magnetic field lines resemble that of a dipole
I
Heater at the centre of the earth. If the magnetic moment of this
R dipole is close to 8 × 1022 A -m 2 , the value of earth’s
IR magnetic field near the equator is close to (radius of the
100V earth = 6 . 4 × 106 m)
(a) 10 Ω (b) 7 .5 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 2.5 Ω (a) 0.6 gauss (b) 1.2 gauss
(c) 1.8 gauss (d) 0.32 gauss
22 It takes 16 min to boil some water in an electric kettle.
Due to some defect, it becomes necessary to remove 29 The radioactivity of a sample is A1 at a time t1 and A 2 at
10% turns of the heating coil of the kettle. After repairs, time t 2 . If mean life of specimen is T, the number of
how much time will it take to boil the same mass of atoms that have disintegrated in the time interval of
water? t 2 − t1 is
(a) 17.7 min (b) 14.4 min A1 − A2
(a) A1 − A2 (b)
(c) 20.9 min (d) 13.7 min T
(c) (A1 − A2 ) T (d) A1t1 − A2 t 2
23 A long wire carries a current of 20 A along the axis of
solenoid. The field due to the solenoid is 4 mT. The 30 The human eye can barely detect a yellow light 6000 Å
resultant field at a point 3 mm from the solenoid axis . × 10− 18 W to the retina. Nearly, how many
that delivers 17
inside solenoid is photons per second does the retina receive?
(a) 1.33 mT (b) 4.2 mT (a) 50 (b) 5
(c) 5.33 mT (d) 2.87 mT (c) 500 (d) More than 5 million
24 A mass of 50g of water in a closed vessel, with 31 According to Bohr’s theory (assuming infinite mass of in
surroundings at a constant temperature takes 2 min to
nucleus), the frequency of the second line of the Balmer
cool from 30°C to 25°C. A mass of 100g of another liquid
series is
in an identical vessel with identical surroundings takes
the same time to cool from 30°C to 25°C. The specific (a) 6.16 × 1014 Hz
heat of the liquid is (The water equivalent of the vessel is (b) 6.16 × 2010 Hz
30 g) (c) 6.16 × 1013 Hz
(a) 2.0 kcal/kg (b) 4 kcal/kg (d) 6.16 × 1016 Hz
(c) 3 kcal/kg (d) 0.5 kcal/kg 32 Select the correct statement from the following.
25 A 50 Hz, AC current of crest value 2 A flows through the (a) Electromagnetic waves cannot travel in vacuum
primary of a transformer. If the mutual inductance (b) Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves
between the primary and secondary is 0.25 H, the crest (c) Electromagnetic waves are produced by charges
voltage induced in the secondary is moving with uniform velocity
(a) 50 V (b) 100 V (c) 200 V (d) 300 V (d) Electromagnetic waves carry both energy and
momentum as they propagate through space
DAY THIRTY EIGHT MOCK TEST 1 397
33 In the network shown, 40 The velocity of a particle in SHM varies with time as
D1 v (teq ) = (sin 6 t − cos 6 t ) ms − 1
4Ω
The maximum acceleration of the particle in ms − 2 is
(a) 12 2 (b) 6 2
D2 (c) 6 (d) 12
41 One mole of an ideal diatomic gas is heated from 20°C
+ – to 60°C at a constant pressure of 1 atm. The
5V
change in internal energy of the gas is nearby (R = 8 . 31
(a) the potential difference across D2 is 5 V
(b) current through resistor equals 2.25 A Jmol −1K −1)
(c) current through diode D1 and resistance is 1.25 A (a) 561 J (b) 712 J
(d) current through diode D2 and resistance is 1.25 A (c) 831 J (d) 1013 J
34 The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface 42 The frequency of a note emitted by a source changes by
tension 0.06 Nm − 1
from 2 cm radius to 5 cm radius is 20% as it approaches an observer. As it recedes away
(a) 0.004168 J (b) 0.003168 J from him, the apparent frequency will differ from the
(c) 0.003158 J (d) 0.004568 J actual frequency by
35 A body is dropped from a height h. If t1 and t 2 be the (a) 20% (b) 16.67%
times in covering first half and the next half distances (c) 14. 3% (d) 19.4%
respectively, then the relation between t1 and t 2 is 43 A spherical droplet having a potential of 2.5 V is obtained
t2 as a result of merging of 125 identical droplets. Find the
(a) t1 = t 2 (b) t1 = 2 t 2 (c) t1 = 3 t 2 (d) t1 =
( 2 − 1) potential of constituent droplet.
(a) 0.4 V (b) 0.5 V (c) 0.2 V (d) 0.1 V
Section-B
44 Charge q of mass m is placed in a uniform electric field
36 Eight equal drops of water are falling through air with a E , then kinetic energy after time t
steady velocity of 10 cms − 1. If the drops combine to form qEt qE 2t 2 2m q 2E 2t 2
a single drop big in size, then the terminal velocity of this (a) (b) (c) (d)
2m 2m q 2E 2t 2 2m
big drop is
(a) 80 cms −1 (b) 30 cms −1 45 A system of four gates is set up as shown. The ‘truth
(c) 10 cms −1 (d) 40 cms −1 table’ corresponding to this system is
37 Two rings of the same radius and mass are placed, such A
that their centres are at a common point and their planes Y1
II
are perpendicular to each other. The moment of inertia of
the system about an axis passing through the centre and
Y′
perpendicular to the plane of one of the rings is I IV Y
(mass of ring = m and radius = r )
1 Y2
(a) mr 2 (b) mr 2 III
2
3 B
(c) mr 2 (d) 2 mr 2
2
(a) Input Output
38 Statement I Kinetic friction is used in stopping relative
motion by using brakes in machines and automobiles. A B Y
Statement II We are able to walk because of static 0 0 1
friction. 0 1 0
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true. 1 0 0
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false. 1 1 1
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (b)
Input Output
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
A B Y
39. The ratio of the kinetic energy required to be given to the 0 0 0
satellite to escape the earth’s gravitational field to the
0 1 0
kinetic energy required to be given, so that the satellite
1 0 1
moves in circular orbit just above earth’s atmosphere, is
(a) one (b) two (c) half (d) infinity 1 1 1
398 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY EIGHT
Answers
1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (d) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (d) 36 (d) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (c)
DAY THIRTY EIGHT MOCK TEST 1 399
d1 λ Ammeter reading is
14 A. The magnetic flux through the = 1
rectangular loop abcd increases, d2 λ2 I ×R 1 .5 R
I2 = 0 =
due to the motion of the loop into 0.1 6000 0.1 5 100 + R 300 (100 + R ) + 100 R
= ⇒ =
the region of magnetic field. Thus, d2 4800 d2 4 As, I1 = I2 which gives R = 600 Ω.
the induced current must flow
0.4
along the path bcdab, so that it ⇒ d2 = = 0.08 mm 21 Resistance of heater is given by
opposes the increasing flux. 5
V2 100 × 100
B. Due to the outward motion, 18 Here, the ball is charged in sinusoidal RH = = = 10 Ω
magnetic flux through the triangular P 1000
manner, so charge on the ball at any
loop abc decreases. Thus, the instant, q = q 0 sin ω t If heater dissipates 62.5 W, then voltage
induced current must flow along where, q 0 = maximum charge. across, it is given by
bacb, so as to oppose the change in
flux. Displacement current, ( V ′ ) 2 = 62 .5 × R H = 62 .5 × 10
dq d
C. As the magnetic flux decreases due Id = = [q 0 sin ωt ] ⇒ V′ = 25 V
to the motion of the irregular shaped dt dt
The remaining 75 V should drop across
loop abcd out of the region of = q 0 cos ω t . ω = q 0 ω cos ωt
10 Ω resistance. In other words, current
magnetic field, the induced current For maximum displacement current, I in the circuit should be 7.5 A. It is
flows along cdabc, so as to oppose
cos ωt = 1 clear from the circuit that
the change in flux.
∴ ( Id ) max = q 0 ω V
I = I H + I R or I = H + R
V
Hence, A → 3, B → 1 and C → 2.
= 10 − 6 × 2 π × 106 RH R
15 ∴ Intensity of sound, I ∝ 12 = 2 π = 6.28 A Substituting,
r
I = 7 .5 A , VH = VR = 25 V and
IP (25 ) 2 19 Maximum amount of charge hold by R H = 10 Ω, we get R = 5 Ω
∴ = and amplitude2 ∝ intensity
IQ (9 ) 2 first capacitor, 2
q 1 = C 1 V1 = 1 × 10 −6 × 6 × 103 22 Heat produced by kettle, H = V t .
A 2P IP R
= = 6000 µC
A 2Q IQ Here, heat taken by the water in both
Similarly, q 2 = C 2 V2
conditions, is same and voltage across
AP IP A (25 ) 2 = 2 × 10 − 6 × 4 × 103 = 8000 µC
⇒ = ⇒ P = the kettle is also same. So,
AQ IQ AQ (9 ) 2 In series order, charge on both the t R
t ∝ R or 1 = 1
AP 25 capacitors is same and is the least value. t2 R2
∴ =
AQ 9 So, in series combination of above two
capacitors, the charge should be Resistance of the kettle is directly
16 From law of refraction, 6000 µC. proportional to the number of turns in
q the coil.
A ∴Voltage on first capacitor V1 = t1 n
C1 So, = 1
6000 t2 n2
= = 6000 V = 6 kV
1 16 100
i1 i2 q ⇒ =
r2 6000
r1 Similarly, V2 = = = 3000 V t2 90
C2 2 16 × 90
⇒ t2 = = 14.4 min
O = 3 kV 100
Voltage on the system,
23 Magnetic field due to solenoid,
B C V = V1 + V2 = 6 + 3 = 9 kV
B1 = 4 mT (along the axis)
sin i 1 20 When both switches are open,
µ = Magnetic field due to a long straight
sin r1 ammeters reading wire,
1 .5
Here, µ = refractive index of material of I1 = µ I 4 π × 10 − 7 × 20
300 + 100 + 50 B2 = 0 =
prism. 2 πr 2 π × 3 × 10 − 3
So, i 1 ∝ r1 When both switches are closed, circuit 4
would be as shown = × 10 − 3 T
Maximum value of i 1 is 90°. If i 1 is 90°, 3
then r1 = C , critical angle at the other 100Ω 4
= mT (perpendicular to the axis)
surface of the prism. Also, there will be A
I2 3
no emergent rays, if the angle of So, resultant magnetic field,
incidence at surface AC is more than the 2
R
critical angle, i.e. r2 > C . B21 + B22 = 42 +
4
50Ω B= = 4 . 2 mT
Angle of prism, A = r1 + r2 3
A = C + r2 I0 24 As, ∆Q = ms∆θ [for water]
Here, r2 > C
So, A > 2C = 50 × s × 5
300Ω 1.5V
⇒
dQ
17 For microscope, limit of resolution is = rate of cooling
1 .5 dt l
proportional to the wavelength of light I0 =
100 R 250 25
used, 300 + = =
i.e. d ∝λ 100 + R 2 × 60 12
DAY THIRTY EIGHT MOCK TEST 1 401
Kinetic energy required to escape from Now, the source recedes away from 47 Resistivity of a material is given by
the earth’s gravitational field observer,
1 m
1
K2 = mv2e v v 6 ρ= =
so, n ′′ = n= n= n σ ne 2 τ
2 v + vs v + v/ 6 7
where, ve = escape velocity. n − n ′′ ρ thus depends inversely both on the
Per cent change = × 100
We know that, ve = 2 vo n number n of free electrons per unit
volume and on the average time τ
∴ K2 = m ( 2 vo )2 = 2 mv2o n − 6 n
1 1
2 between collisions. For insulators and
2 7
= × 100 = 14 .3% semiconductors, n increases with
= 2 K1 n temperature.
∴ Kinetic energy required to escape
= K2 − K1 = 2 K1 − K1 = K1 43 Let the radii of bigger and smaller drops This increase of n is more effective than
K − K1 be R and r. any decrease in τ, so that for such
Required ratio = 2 =1 materials ρ decreases with temperature.
K1 Volume of 125 small drops
= Volume of big drop Therefore, Assertion and Reason are
40 v ( t ) = (sin 6 t − cos 6 t ) 4
∴ 125 × πr 3 = πR 3
4 correct but Reason is not the correct
Acceleration, 3 3 explanation of Assertion.
dv ( t ) d ⇒ 5r = R
a (t) = = [sin 6 t − cos 6 t ] nq 48 A → 3, B → 1, C → 2, D → 1.
dt dt Potential on big drop V = k
= cos 6 t × 6 − ( − sin 6 t ) × 6 R
Moment
= 6 [cos 6 t + sin 6 t ] q Body
Potential on small drop V ′ = k of inertia
1 1 r
=6 × 2 cos 6 t + sin 6 t A. Thin circular ring of radius R 1. MR 2
2 kq 5q
2 V′ = =k raving anis perpendicular to
π π R /5 R
= 6 2 sin cos 6 t + cos sin 6 t
the plane and passing
4 4 V′ = 5
V
=5 ×
2 .5 though units
π n 125 2. MR 2 /2
= 6 2 sin + 6 t
B. Thin circular ring of radius R
4 2 .5 having axis passing throyh
= = 0 .1 V
25 its diameter
For maximum acceleration,
π
sin + 6 t = 1. 44 When charge q is placed in uniform C. Thin rod of length L about 3.
4 an axis perpendicular to the ML2 /12
electric field E, then its acceleration,
rod and passing through
∴ [a ( t )] max = 6 2 ms −2 qE
a = mid point
m
41 Change in internal energy, D. Circular disc of radius R 4. MR 2 /2
So, its motion will be uniformly
about an axis perpendicular
dU = dQ − dW . accelerated motion and its velocity after
to the disc and passing
time t is given by,
dQ = amount of heat given at constant qE
through the untie.
pressure v = at = t
7 m
= nC p ∆t = 1 × R × (60 − 20 ) = 140 R 1 49 In sum position,
2 KE = mv2 I1 + I2
2 T1 = 2 π
dQ = work done at constant pressure 2 ( M1 + M2 ) H
R ∆t 1 qEt q 2 E2 t 2
= pdV = p = m =
P 2 m 2m In difference position,
I1 + I2
= R ∆T = R (60 − 20 ) = 40 R T2 = 2 π
45 Output of gate I is Y’ = A + B ( M1 − M2 ) H
∴ dU = 140 R − 40 R
= 100 R = 100 × 8.31 = 831J Output of gate II is Y1 = A + Y ′ T1 1
Therefore, =
T2 3
42 When source approaches the observer, Output of gate III is Y2 = B + Y ′
then apparent frequency 50 Change in angular momentum of
Output of gate IV is Y = Y1 + Y2
v
n′ = n electron,
v − vs The truth table of the combination is in
∆L = L2 − L1
where, v = velocity of sound, option (a).
n h n h
vs = velocity of source = 2 − 1
46 According to Wien’s law, the peak 2π 2π
120 n
Here, n ′ = emission wavelength of a body is h
100 inversely proportional to its absolute or ∆L = ( n2 − n1 )
120 n v 2π
∴ = ×n temperature.
100 v − vs 6.6 × 10 −34
= (5 − 4)
6 v λ m T = constant 2 × 3.14
⇒ =
5 v − vs ⇒ λm =
constant = 1.05 × 10 −34 J-s
v T
6 v − 6 vs = 5 v ⇒ vs =
6 Higher T implies lower λ m .
DAY THIRTY NINE
Mock Test 2
Instruction
l This question paper contains of 50 Multiple Choice Questions of Physics, divided into two Sections;
section A and section B.
l Section A contains 35 questions and all questions are compulsory.
l Section B contains 15 questions out of which only 10 questions are to be attempted.
l Each question carries 4 marks.
6 The speed of sound in hydrogen at NTP is 1270 ms −1. The corresponding works involved areW1 = 2200 J,
Then, the speed in a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen in W2 = − 825 J, W3 = − 1100 J and W4 , respectively. The
the ratio 4:1 by volume will be value of W4 is
(a) 317 ms −1 (b) 635 ms −1 (c) 830 ms −1 (d) 950 ms −1 (a) 1315 J (b) 275 J (c) 765 J (d) 675 J
7 A large number of water drops each of the radius r 14 A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue
combine to have a drop of radius R. If the surface colours, is incident on a right-angled prism. The
tension is T and the mechanical equivalent of heat is J, refractive indices of the material of the prism for the
then the rise in temperature will be above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44
2T 3T 3T 1 1 2T 1 1 and 1.47, respectively. The prism will
(a) (b) (c) − (d) −
rJ RJ J r R J r R (a) separate part of the red colour from the green and blue
colours
8 A train of 150 m length is going towards North direction (b) separate part of the blue colour from the red and green
at a speed of 10 ms –1. A parrot flies at a speed of 5 ms –1 colours
towards south direction parallel to the railway track. The (c) separate all the three colours from one another
time taken by the parrot to cross the train is equal to (d) not separate even partially any colour from the other two
(a) 12 s (b) 8 s (c) 15 s (d) 10 s colours
9 Which of the four resistances P, Q, R and S generate the 15 The kinetic energy K of a particle moving along a circle
greatest amount of heat, when a current flows from A to B ? of radius R depends on the distance covered s, as
P=2Ω Q=4Ω K = as 2 , where, a is a constant. The force acting on the
particle is
1/ 2
A B s2 s2
(a) 2a (b) 2as 1 + 2
R=1Ω S=2Ω
R R
2
R
(a) Q (b) S (c) P (d) R (c) 2as (d) 2a
s
10 A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a large square 16 A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius
plate of copper. The electric field at a point very 10 m with a constant speed of 10 ms −1. A plumb bob is
close to the centre of the plate is 10 Vm −1. If the suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod of
copper plate is replaced by a plastic plate of the same length 1.00 m. The angle made by the rod with track is
geometrical dimensions and carrying the same charge Q (a) zero (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
∧
uniformly distributed, then the electric field at the point P 17 A thin semi-circular ring of radius r j
will be
has a positive charge q distributed
(a) 5 Vm −1 (b) zero (c) 10 Vm −1 (d) 20 Vm −1 ∧
uniformly over it. The net field E at the i
O
11 The speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum centre O is
depends upon the source of radiation. It q $i q $j
(a) (b) −
(a) increases as we move from γ-rays to radio waves 4 π 2 ε0r 2 4 π 2 ε0r 2
(b) decreases as we move from γ-rays to radio waves q $j q $j
(c) − (d)
(c) is same for all of them 2 π 2 ε0r 2 2 π 2 ε0r 2
(d) None of the above
12 Ice starts freezing in a lake with water at 0°C, when the 18 The plot given below is of the average power delivered to
atmospheric temperature is −10°C. If the time taken for an L-R-C circuit versus frequency. The quality factor of
1 cm of ice to be formed is 12 minutes, the time taken the circuit is
Average power (microwatts)
involved in these steps are Q1 = 5960 J, Q 2 = − 5585 J, (a) 5.0 (b) 2.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 0.4
Q 3 = − 2980 J and Q 4 = 3645 J, respectively.
DAY THIRTY NINE MOCK TEST 2 405
19 Two identical wires A and B have the same length L and 26 Rain is falling vertically downwards with a velocity of
carry the same current I. Wire A is bent into a circle of 4 kmh −1. A man walks in the rain with a velocity of 3 kmh −1.
radius R and wire B is bent to form a square of side a. If The raindrops will fall on the man with a velocity of
B1 and B2 are the values of magnetic induction at the (a) 1 kmh −1 (b) 3 kmh −1 (c) 4 kmh −1 (d) 5 kmh −1
centre of the circle and the centre of the square
respectively, then the ratio B1/B2 is 27 A machine gun is mounted on a 200 kg vehicle on a
(a) (π / 8)
2
(b) (π / 8 2 ) (c) (π / 16)
2 2
(d) (π / 16 2 )
2 horizontal smooth road (friction is negligible). The gun
fires 10 bullets per sec with a velocity of 500 ms −1. If the
20 In non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of the mass of each bullet be 10 g, what is the acceleration
circuit for frequencies higher than the resonant frequency?
produced in the vehicle?
(a) Resistive (b) Capacitive (a) 25 cm s −2 (b) 35 cm s −2 (c) 50 cm s −2 (d) 50 ms −2
(c) Inductive (d) None of these
21 A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of 28 The displacement of a particle executing periodic motion
is given by y = 4 cos 2 (t / 2) sin (1000 t )
constant radius r, such that centripetal acceleration ac
varying with time is ac = k 2r t 2 , where k is a constant. This expression may be considered to be a result of
What is the power delivered to the particle by the force superposition of
acting on it? (a) two waves (b) three waves
(c) four waves (d) five waves
(a) 2mkr 2t (b) mkr 2t 2 (c) mk 2r 2t (d) mk 2r t 2
29 If the series limit wavelength of the Lyman series for
22 The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased
hydrogen atom is 912Å, then the series limit wavelength
by 5%. Keeping the angle of projection constant, what is
for the Balmer series for the hydrogen atom is
the percentage increase in horizontal range?
912
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20% (a) 912 Å (b) 912 × 2 Å (c) 912 × 4 Å (d) Å
2
23 A spot of light S rotates in a horizontal plane with a
30 Match the examples given in Column I with the type of
constant angular velocity of 0.1 rads −1. The spot of light
motion they are executing in Column II. There is no
P moves along the wall at a distance of 3 m from S. The
information about nature of surfaces of bodies is given.
velocity of spot P, where θ = 45°, is
(a) 0.5 ms −1 (b) 0.6 ms −1 (c) 0.7 ms −1 (d) 0.8 ms −1 Column I Column II
24 White light may be considered to be a mixture of wave
with λ ranging between 3000 Å to 7800 Å. An oil film of
thickness 10000 Å is examined normally by the reflected
A. 1. Rolling
light. If µ = 1.4, then the film appears bright for
(a) 4308 Å, 5091 Å, 6222 Å A block over an
(b) 4000 Å, 5091 Å, 5600 Å inclined plane
(c) 4667 Å, 6222 Å, 7000 Å
(d) 4000 Å, 4667 Å, 5600 Å, 7000 Å
25 A rectangular loop of B. 2. Translation
wire, supporting a mass A cylinder over an
m, hangs with one end P Q inclined plane
in uniform magnetic y
field B pointing out of i
the plane of the paper. a x C. 3. Rotation
A clockwise current is S R
mg
setup, such that A spinning top
i > mg / Ba, where a is the width of the loop. Then,
(a) the weight rises due to vertical force caused by the S E
magnetic field but work is done on the system D. 4. Precession
(b) the weight rises due to vertical force by the no work field
Earth-Sun system
and work is extracted shown on the electric field
(c) the weight rises due to vertical force caused by the A B C D
magnetic field but no work is done on the system (a) 2 1 3 4
(d) the weight rises due to vertical force caused by the no (b) 2 3 1 2
work field and work is extracted shown on the magnetic (c) 3 1 2 1
field (d) 3 1 2 4
406 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY NINE
31 Assuming that about 20 MeV of energy is released per 38 A mixture of n1 moles of monoatomic gas and n 2 moles
fusion reaction 1H 2 + 1H 3 → 0 n 1 +2 He 4 , then the mass of Cp
2 of diatomic gas has = γ = 1.5. Then,
1H consumed per day in a fusion reactor of power 1 MW CV
will approximately be (a) n1 = n2 (b) 2n1 = n2 (c) n1 = 2n2 (d) 2n1 = 3n2
(a) 0.001 g (b) 0.1 g (c) 10.0 g (d) 1000 g
39 A charged particle with some initial velocity is projected
32 A light ray falls on a square glass in a region where non-zero electric and/or magnetic
slab as shown in the figure. The 45° Incident ray fields are present. In Column I, information about the
index of refraction of the glass, if existence of electric and/or magnetic field and direction
total internal reflection is to occur of initial velocity of charged particle are given, while in
at the vertical face, is equal to Column II the probable path of the charged particle is
( 2 + 1) 5 mentioned. Match the entries of Column I with the entries
(a) (b)
2 2 of Column II and select the correct answer from the
3 3 Diagram codes given below.
(c) (d)
2 2
Column I Column II
33 A coil has an inductance of 0.7 H and is joined in series A. E = 0, B ≠ 0, E ≠ B and initial 1. Straight line
with a resistance of 220 Ω. When an alternating emf of velocity is at any angle with B
220 V at 50 cps is applied to it, then the wattless (θ ≠ 90° )
component of the current in the circuit, is B. E = 0, B ≠ 0 and initial velocity 2. Helical path with
(a) 5 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.7 A (d) 7 A is perpendicular to B uniform pitch
C. E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0, E|| B and initial 3. Circular
34 Which of the following statements is/are true?
velocity is ⊥ to both
(a) A clock, when taken on a mountain can be made to give
correct time, if we change the length of pendulum D. E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0, E perpendicular 4. Helical path with
to B and v perpendicular to non-uniform pitch
suitably
both E & B
(b) An increase in value of g makes a clock go slow
(c) If the length of a pendulum is increased, the clock A B C D
becomes fast (a) 2 3 4 1
(d) A clock, when taken to a deep mine or carried to the top (b) 1 3 4 2
of a mountain becomes slow (c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
35 I. Electric field, electric displacement and electric
polarisation are related by the relation as D = ε 0E − P . 40 A train standing at the outer signal of a railway station
II. Electric field vector (E), electric displacement vector blows a whistle of frequency 400 Hz in still air. The train
(D) and electric polarisation vector (P) are mutually begins to move with a speed of 10 ms −1 towards the
perpendicular to each other. platform. What is the frequency of the sound for an
III. Electric field vector (E), electric displacement observer standing on the platform? (sound velocity in air
vector (D) and electric polarisation vector (P) are = 330 ms −1)
mutually parallel to each other. (a) 412.5 Hz (b) 312.6 Hz (c) 500 Hz (d) 616.6 Hz
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Both II and III
41 A dip needle arranged to move freely in the magnetic
(c) Both I and III (d) Only III
meridian dips by an angle θ. If the vertical plane in which
the needle moves is rotated through an angle α to the
Section-B magnetic meridian, then the needle will dip by an angle
(a) θ (b) α (c) more than θ (d) less than θ
36 Electric potential is given by
V = 6x − 8xy 2 − 8y + 6yz − 4z 2 42 The coming rays are forming rainbows
Then, electric force acting on 2 C on point charge placed
on origin will be
(a) 2 N (b) 6N (c) 8 N (d) 20 N Red Violet Violet Red Yellow Red
−6 2
37 There is a current of 40 A in a wire of10 m area of
cross-section. If the number of free electrons per cubic
metre is 1029, then the drift velocity is
Human eye Human eye
(a) 250 × 10−3 ms −1 (b) 25 . 0 × 10−3 ms −1 Human eye
(1) (2) (3)
(c) 2 .50 × 10−3 ms −1 (d) 1. 25 × 103 ms −1
DAY THIRTY NINE MOCK TEST 2 407
(a) Figure (1) forms primary rainbow 46 A body is projected with a velocity of 2 × 11.2 km/s from
(b) Figure (1) and (3) form primary rainbow
(c) Figure (2) forms secondary rainbow the surface of earth. The velocity of the body when it
(d) Figure (1) forms secondary rainbow escapes the gravitational pull of the earth is
(a) 3 × 11.2 km/s (b) 11.2 km/s
43 I. The phenomenon of splitting of light into different
colours is known as dispersion. (c) 2 × 11.2 km/s (d) 0.5 × 11.2 km/s
II. Dispersion takes place because the refractive index 47 Assertion The detection of neutrino particles is
of medium for different frequencies (colours) is extremely difficult.
different.
Reason Neutrinos interact very weakly with matter.
III. Thin lenses show chromatic aberration due to
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
dispersion of light.
the correct explanation of Assertion.
Which of the following statement is incorrect? (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
(a) Only I (b) Only II not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Only III (d) I, II and III (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
44 A table tennis ball which has been covered with a
conducting paint is suspended by a silk thread, so that it 48 In an adiabatic process, wherein pressure is increased
hangs between two metal plates. One plate is earthed. 2 Cp 3
When the other plate is connected to a high voltage by %. If = , then the volume decreases by about
3 CV 2
generator, the ball 4 2 9
(a) % (b) % (c) 4% (d) %
(a) is attracted to the high voltage plate and stays there 9 3 4
(b) hangs without moving
(c) swings backward and forward hitting each plate in turn 49 The wavelength of the K α line for an element of atomic
(d) is repelled to the earthed plate and stays there number 43 is λ. Then, the wavelength of the K α line for
an element of atomic number 29, is
45 Two blocks of masses m and M are
(a) λ (b) λ (c) λ (d) λ
43 42 9 4
connected by means of a metal wire of 29 28 4 9
cross-sectional area A passing over a
frictionless fixed pulley as shown in the 50 For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain
T (a) remains constant for all frequencies
figure. The system is then released. If T
m (b) is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the
M = 2m, then the stress produced in the wire
is M middle frequency range
2mg 4gm (c) is low at high and low frequencies and constant at
(a) (b)
3A 3A mid-frequencies
gm 3mg (d) None of the above
(c) (d)
A 4A
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
408 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY NINE
x ua
l pa
θ
rve
u 2 sin 2 θ
K⋅dq h =
= ∫ r2
sin θ ( − $j) 2g A B
u sin 2θ
2
K qr R = 25 The net force on the RS is in downward
∫ πr d θ sin θ ( − j)
E= $
2 g direction which increase the weight
r
K q π R u 2 sin 2θ u 2 sin 2 θ attached to it but there is no change in
π ∫0
= ⋅ sin θ ( − $j) ∴ = / magnetic flux. Hence, there, no induced
r2 h g 2g
410 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY THIRTY NINE
emf which implies there is no work 24 × 36 × 108 From Eq. (i), it is clear that D, E and P
=
done on the system. 32 × 10 −13 are in same direction, i.e. they are
26 Relative velocity of man w.r.t. rain, = 27 × 1021 mutually parallel to each other.
v rm = v r − v m = 4 j − 3i = − 3i + 4 j Mass of 6 × 1023 atoms = 2 g
36 E x = − ∂V = − (6 − 8 y2 )
∴ Mass of 27 × 1021 atoms ∂x
or |v rm |= ( −3 ) + (4 ) = 9 + 16
2 2
∂V
=
2
× 27 × 1021 = 0.1 g Ey = − = − ( − 16 xy − 8 + 6 z )
−1 ∂y
= 25 = 5 kmh 6 × 1023
∂V
Ez = − = − (6 y − 8 z )
27 Momentum carried by each bullet = mv 32 From figure, we get r = sin −1 1 ∂z
= 0.010 × 500 = 5 kg ms –1 3
At origin x = y = z = 0, so
Now, force = change in momentum in 1 s 45°
E x = − 6, E y = 8 and E z = 0
= 5 × 10 = 50 N
50 r ⇒ E= E2x + E2y = 10 NC −1
Hence, acceleration, a = ms −2
200 Hence, force F = QE = 2 × 10 = 20 N.
−2 r
= 25 cm s 90–r 37 Drift velocity,
90–r I
28 y = 4 cos ( t / 2 ) sin (1000 t )
2 r vd =
neA
= 2 [2 cos2 ( t / 2 ) sin (1000 t )] 1 40
For critical angle, sin C = =
= 2 (1 + cos t ) sin (1000 t ) µ 1029 × 1 .6 × 10 −19 × 10 −6
= 2 sin (1000 t ) + 2 sin (1000 t ) cos t Now, by Snell’s law, we have = 2 .5 × 10 −3 ms −1
= 2 sin (1000 t ) + sin (1001 t ) µ sin i
=
+ sin (999 t ) 1 sin r 38 fav
Thus, given wave represents the sin 45 ° 1/ 2 total number of degrees of freedom
superposition of three waves. = = =
1 1/ 3 total number of molecules
sin sin −1
29 For series limit of Balmer series, 3 n 1 N A f1 + n 2 N A f2
=
n2 = 2 , n1 = ∞ 3 n1 N A + n2 N A
µ =
1 1 1 2
=R − n 1 f1 + n 2 f2 3 n 1 + 5 n 2
λ 2 2 = =
n
2 n 1
33 Wattless component of current n1 + n2 n1 + n2
1 1 R Ev 2
= R − = = I v sin θ = sin θ Also, γ = 1 + =1.5 or fav = 4
(2 )
2
( ∞ )2 4 Z fav
4 4 220 ωL 3 n1 + 5 n2
∴ λ= = m = × ∴ = 4 or n 1 = n 2
R 10967800 R +ω L
2 2 2
R + ω2 L2
2
n1 + n2
= 4 × 912 × 10 −10 m 220 × ωL
= 39
= 4 × 912 Å ( R 2 + ω2 L2 )
A. Since, E = 0 and B ≠ 0 and E ≠ B,
30 A — 2; Block is in translation. 220 × (2 π × 50 × 0.7 ) the magnetic force act on it and the
=
B — 1; Cylinder is rolling. (220 )2 + (2 π × 50 × 0.7 ) 2 path will be helical (with uniform
C — 3; Spinning top is in rotational 220 × 220 1
= = = 0.5 A pitch) if v is at any angle to B (
motion
(220 )2 + (220 )2 2 θ ≠ 90 °).
D — 4; Precession
34 Above or below the earth’s surface, B. Since, E = 0, B ≠ 0 and v ⊥ B, then a
31 Energy produced, force called Lorentz force,
value of acceleration due to gravity
U = Pt F = q ( v × B), acts on charged
l
= 106 × 24 × 36 × 102 decreases, so time period T = 2 π
g particle, which provide centripetal
= 24 × 36 × 108 J force to it and hence the path will
increases i.e. clock will become slow.
Energy released per fusion reaction be circular.
= 20 MeV Q T ∝ 1 C. Since, E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0, E || B, so path
g
= 20 × 106 × 1 .6 × 10 −19 will be helical with non-uniform
= 32 × 10 −13 J pitch as both electric and magnetic
35 The statement III is correct but rest are forces act on it.
Energy released per atom of 1H 2 incorrect and these can be corrected as,
D. Since, E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0, E ⊥B and v is
= 32 × 10 −13
J Electric field vector ( E), electric
displacement vector (D) and electric perpendicular to both E and B,
Number of 1H 2 atoms used polarisation vector ( P ) are related as then the particle will move in a
D = ε0 E + P …(i) straight line due to the resultant
where, ε0 is permittivity of free space.
DAY THIRTY NINE MOCK TEST 2 411
Mock Test 3
Instruction
l This question paper contains of 50 Multiple Choice Questions of Physics, divided into two Sections;
section A and section B.
l Section A contains 35 questions and all questions are compulsory.
l Section B contains 15 questions out of which only 10 questions are to be attempted.
l Each question carries 4 marks.
Section A
(a) at B, force is zero
1 The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave
(b) at B, there is a force but towards motion
has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of electric
(c) at B, there is a force which opposes the motion
field strength is
(a) 3 V/m (b) 6 V/m (c) 9 V/m (d) 12 V/m (d) None of the above
2 The value of resistance is 10.85452 Ω and the value of 6 Block A of weight 100 kg rests on a block B and is tied
current is 3.23 A. The potential difference is 35.02935 V. with a horizontal string to the wall at C. Block B weighs
Its value in significant number would be 200 kg. The coefficients of friction between A and B is
(a) 3.8 V (b) 35.0 V (c) 35.03 V (d) 35.029 V 0.25, and between B and surface is 1/3. The horizontal
force F necessary to move the block B should be
3 A body initially at rest is accelerate at the rate of 2 ms −2 ( g = 10 ms −2 )
for 5s. If the body continues with uniform velocity for next
10 s, the total distance covered by the body is
(a) 50 m (b) 125 m (c) 165 m (d) 225 m
4 Assertion Angle between i + j and i is 45°. C A
t
DAY FOURTY MOCK TEST 3 413
8 The force acting on a body moving along X -axis varies 13 A metal disc of radius r floats on the surface of water.
with the position of the particle as shown in the figure. The water layer goes down and makes an angle θ with
The body is in stable equilibrium at the vertical edge of the disc. If it displaces a weight w of
F water and the surface tension of water is T, then weight
of the disc is
(a) 2 πr T cosθ (b) 2 πr T
(c) 2 πr T cosθ + w (d) 2 πr T cosθ − w
14 If at the same temperature and pressure, the densities
x2 X of two diatomic gases are d1 and d 2 , respectively. The
x1
ratio of mean kinetic energy per molecule of gases will
(a) x = x1 (b) x = x 2 be
(c) Both x1 and x 2 (d) Neither x1 nor x 2 (a) 1 : 1 (b) d1 : d2
(c) d1 : d2 (d) d2 : d1
9 Statement I Velocity-time graph for an object in a uniform
motion along a straight line is, parallel to the time axis. 15 If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and that of given
slab of glass immersed in it is 5/3, what is the critical
Statement II In uniform motion of an object, velocity
angle for a ray of light tending to go from glass to water?
increases as the square of time elapsed.
(a) sin−1 (b) sin−1 (c) sin−1
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true. 3 3 4
4 5 5
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (d) Data given is insufficient to make any calculation
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true. 16 A block of ice at − 10° C is slowly heated and converted
to steam at 100°C. Which of the following curves
10 The I −V characteristic of an LED is represent the phenomenon qualitatively?
R Y G B R
Temperature
G
Temperature
I
Y
(a) I (b) (b)
R (a)
O V O V
Heat supplied Heat supplied
V O
-Red Temperature
Temperature
R -Yellow
(c) I (d) I -Green (c) (d)
Y
G -Blue
B
O V Heat supplied
Heat supplied
11 Which one of the following represents simple harmonic
17 In a compound microscope, magnifying power is 95 and
motion ? 1
the distance of object from objective lens is cm and
(a) x 2 = a + bv (b) x = a + bv 2 3.8
(c) x = a − bv (d) x = a − bv 2
1
the focal length of objective lens is cm, the
4
12 A graph is shown between stress and strain for metal. The magnification of eye-piece is
part in which Hooke’s law holds good is (a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 100 (d) insufficient data
A C
incident on the first polaroid, then the intensity of
D
transmitted light will be
B I0 3 I0
(a) (b)
4 4
O Strain 3 I0 I0
(c) (d)
(a) OA (b) AB (c) BC (d) CD 8 8
414 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOURTY
19 In Young’s experiment, light of wavelength 4000 Å is 27 A series L-R circuit is connected to an AC source of
used to produce bright fringes of width 0.6 mm, at a frequency ω and the inductive reactance is equal to 2R.
distance of 2 m. If the whole apparatus is dipped in a A capacitance of capacitive reactance equal to R is
liquid of refractive index 1.5, then the fringe width will be added in series with L and R. The ratio of the new power
(a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.3 mm factor to the old one is
(c) 0.4 mm (d) 1.2 mm 2 2 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 A ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis 3 5 2 2
with angular velocity ω. Two identical bodies each of 28 The total binding energy of a nucleus is defined as the
mass m, are now gently attached at the two ends of a product of mass defect (in kg) and a constant. The value
diameter of the ring. Because of this, the kinetic energy of constant is
loss will be (a) 8 . 854 × 10−12 Fm−2 (b) 3 × 108 ms −1
m (M + 2m) 2 2 Mm (c) 9 × 1016 m2s −2 (d) 931 MeV
(a) ωR (b) ω2R 2
M (M + 2m)
29 A radioactive element X with a half-life of 2 h decays
Mm (M + m) M 2 2
(c) ω2R 2 (d) ωR giving a stable element Y. After a time of t hours, the ratio
(M − 2m) (M + 2m)
of X to Y atoms is 1 : 7. Then, its time period is
21 White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) in between 4 and 6 (d) 14
Young's double slit experiment. The separation between
slits is b and the screen is at a distance d ( > > b ) from the 30 Generally, semiconductor can be used safely between
slits. At a point on the screen directly infront of one of the the temperatures
slits, certain wavelengths are missing. One of the missing (a) − 75°C and 200°C (b) 0°C and 75°C
wavelengths is (c) − 25°C and 300°C (d) − 40°C and 1000°C
(a) λ = b 2 /d (b) λ = 2 b 2 /d 31 Assuming that the silicon diode (having negligible
(c) λ = 3 b 2 /d (d) λ = 2 b 2 /3 d
resistance), the current through the diode is (knee
22 A charge q is distributed over two concentric hollow voltage of silicon diode is 0.7 V)
conducting sphere of radii r and R ( > r ), such that their R = 100 Ω
surface charge densities are equal. The potential at their
common centre is 3V 0V
q (r + R ) (a) zero (b) 7 mA (c) 2.3 mA (d) 23 mA
(a) zero (b)
4 πε0 (r 2 + R 2 ) 2 32 A ray falls on a prism ABC ( AB = BC ) and travels as
q 1 1 q (r + R ) shown in figure. The minimum refractive index of the
(c) + (d)
4 πε0 r R 4 πε0 (r 2 + R 2 ) prism material should be
23 When resonance is produced in a series L-C-R circuit,
then which of the following is not correct? A
(a) Current in the circuit is in phase with the applied voltage 90°
(b) Inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
(c) If R is reduced, the voltage across capacitor will increase
(d) Impedance of the circuit is maximum
90°
24 In a meter bridge with a standard resistance of 5 Ω in the B C
left gap, the ratio of balancing lengths on the meter (a) 4/3 (b) 2 (c) 15
. (d) 3
bridge wire is 2 : 3. The unknown resistance is
(a) 3.3 Ω (b) 7.5 Ω (c) 10 Ω (d) 15 Ω 33 In an experiment on photoelectric Metal A
effect, a student plots stopping Metal B
25 The inductance of a coil, in which a current of 0.2 A is potential V0 against reciprocal of Vo
increasing at the rate of 0.5 As −1 represents a power flow the wavelength λ of the incident
of 0.5 W, is light for two different metals A and 1/l
(a) 2 H (b) 5 H (c) 10 H (d) 20 H
B. These are shown in the figure.
26 An ideal choke of 10 H is joined in series with resistance Looking at the graphs, you can most appropriately say
of 5 Ω and a battery of 5V. The current in the circuit in 2 s that
after joining in ampere, will be (a) work function of metal B is greater than that of metal A
(a) e −1 (b) 1 − e −1 (b) work function of metal A is greater than that of metal B
(c) 1 − e (d) e (c) data is not sufficient
(d) None of the above
DAY FOURTY MOCK TEST 3 415
34 A gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCDA as shown in 39 Two coherent sources with intensity ratio α interfere.
figure. The part ABC of process is semi-circular. The Imax − Imin
Then, the ratio is
work done by the gas is Imax + Imin
2 α 2 4 α
(a) 2 α (b) (c) (d)
B 1+ α 1− α 1+ α
50
p 40 A body of mass 100 g is sliding from an inclined plane of
(in Nm–2) 30 A
C inclination 30°. What is the frictional force, if µ = 0.7 ?
D
2 0.7 3
(a) 0.7 N (b) N
3 2
0.7 2
20 60 (c) 0.7 3N (d) N
V(m3) 3
(a) 400 π J (b) 2456 J 41 A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected with
(c) 200 π J (d) 1828 J external resistance R. The graph between terminal
35 In a given process on an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0, voltage and current is
then for the gas E Elr E
(a) the temperature will decrease Elr
(b) the volume will increase
(a) (b)
(c) the pressure will remain constant
(d) the temperature will increase V = E –ir
I
Section-B I
E E
36 The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a Elr
constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all currents and a
(c) (d)
maximum power rating of 100 mW. What should be the
Elr
value of the resistor R, connected in series with the
diode, for obtaining maximum current I ? I I
R
42 Statement I To obtain same change in the value of g,
D depth d below the surface of earth must be equal to
I
twice the height h above the surface of the earth.
Statement II g changes less with depth than with height.
1.5V (a) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(a) 200 Ω (b) 6.67 Ω (b) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(c) 5 Ω (d) 1.5 Ω (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
37 Statement I Inertia and moment of inertia are same d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
quantities.
43 In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is
Statement II Moment of inertia represents the capacity
10 mA. If 90% of the electrons reach emitted the
of a body to oppose its state of motion.
collector, then
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(a) Ie = 1 mA, Ib = 11 mA
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(b) Ie = 11 mA, Ib = 1 mA
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (c) Ie = − 1 mA, Ib = 9 mA
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true. (d) Ie = 9 mA, Ib = 1 mA
38 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m 44 A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
respectively are connected by a massless removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is
and inextensible string. The whole system is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of
A 3m
suspended by a massless spring as shown resulting system
in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of B m
(a) increases by a factor of 4
A and B immediately after the string is cut, (b) decreases by a factor of 2
are respectively (c) remains the same
g g g g (d) increases by a factor of 2
(a) g, (b) ,g (c) g, g (d) ,
3 3 3 3
416 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS DAY FOURTY
45 Assertion For projection angle tan−1(4), the horizontal 49 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following
and maximum height of a projectile are equal. diagram
Reason The maximum range of projectile is directly P
proportional to square of velocity and inversely
proportional to acceleration due to gravity. IV
f
(a) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the I III
correct explanation for Assertion II f
f 700 K
(b) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a
f 500 K
correct explanation for Assertion 300 K
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false V
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true
Match the following :
46 The output of a two input OR gate is 1, if Column-I Column-II
(a) both inputs are zero P. Process I a. Adiabatic
(b) either or both inputs are 1
Q. Process II b. Isobaric
(c) only both inputs are 1
(d) either input is zero R. Process III c. Isochoric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal
47 If A and B are unit vectors, then ( A × B) ⋅ ( A × B) is equal
to (a) P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b
(a) 1 (b) zero (b) P → c, Q → a, R → d, S → b
1 (c) P → c, Q → d, R → b, S → a
(c) (d) −1 (d) P → d, Q → b, R → a, S → c
2
48 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns per 50 One end of the string of length l is connected to a
metre. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns particle of mass m and the other end is connected to a
and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle
the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at moves in circle with speed v, the net force on the particle
a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance (directed towards center) will be (T represents the
of the coil is 10π 2 Ω, the total charge flowing through the tension in the string)
mv 2
coil during this time is (a)T (b)T +
(a) 32 π µC (b) 16 µC l
(c) 32 µC (d) 16π µC mv 2
(c)T − (d) Zero
l
Answers
1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (a) 17 (a) 18 (c) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (b)
31 (d) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (b) 44 (d) 45 (b) 46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (a)
DAY FOURTY MOCK TEST 3 417
3 n
Z = ( X L − XC )2 + R 2 = 0 + R 2 ⇒ 1 = 1
or n = 3
Zmin = R 2 2 kx
R R Hence, required time period, (3m+m)
Power factor, cos φ = = =1
Z R t = n T1 / 2 = 3 × 2 = 6 h A 3m
∴ φ = 0° Cutting
Hence, current and voltage are in same 30 Semiconductors can be used safely 4 mg plane
B m
phase and impedance of the circuit is between temperatures 0°C and 75°C.
minimum. Hence, option (d) is not ∴ kx = 4 mg
31 Current through diode, When string is cut at the location as
correct.
∆V 3 − 0 . 7 2.3 shown above.
I= = = A = 23 mA
24 For meter bridge, R 100 100 Free body diagram for m is
unknown resistance,
l 3 32 ∠ i at both faces will be 45°. For TIR to m
R = 2 × X = × 5 = 7.5 Ω
l1 2 take place,
i > θC
25 Energy stored in inductance, mg
1 or sin i > sin θC
U = L I2 So,force on mass m = mg
2 1 1
∴ > or µ > 2 ∴ Acceleration of mass, m = g
dU d 1 2 dI 2 µ
Power, P = = LI = L I For mass 3m; free body diagram is
dt dt 2 dt
33 We have, eV0 = hc − φ kx=4mg
∴ L=
P
=
0.5
=5 H λ
dI 0 . 2 × 0 . 5 hc φ
I× ⇒ V0 = − a 3m
dt eλ e
V0 = mx + c
26 Time constant τ = L = 10 = 2 s 3 mg
R 5 Q Data is not sufficient.
I0 =
e 5
= = 1A If a = acceleration of block of mass 3m,
34 Work done, W = Area ABCDA then
R 5
∴ Current in 2 s, π R2 π × (20 ) 2 Fnet = 4 mg − 3 mg
= = ⇒ 3m ⋅ a A = mg
2 2
I = I0 (1 − e − t / τ ) = 1(1 − e −2 / 2 ) = 1 − e −1 g
= 200 π J or aA =
3
27 For L-R circuit, So, accelerations for blocks A and B are
35 From first law of thermodynamics,
Z1 = R 2 + (2 R )2 = R 5 g
dQ = dU + dW aA = and a B = g
∴ cos φ1 = power factor 3
R R 1 we have, dQ = dU [as, dW = 0]
= = = But dQ < 0 I max – I min
z1 R 5 5
∴ dU < 0
39 R =
I max + I min
Now, for L-C-R circuit, n C V ∆T < 0
Z2 = R 2 + (2 R − R )2 = R 2 (a 1 + a 2 ) 2 − (a 1 − a 2 ) 2
or ∆ T<0 =
R R 1 Hence, the temperature will decrease. (a 1 + a 2 ) 2 + (a 1 − a 2 ) 2
∴ cos φ2 = = = 4a 1 a 2 2a 1 a 2 2 ( a 2 /a 1 )
Z2 R 2 2
36 Current in the circuit, = = =
1 2 (a 21 + a 22 ) a 21 + a 22 a
2
P 100 × 10 −3 1 + 2
cos φ2 5 I= = = 200 × 10 −3 A a1
∴ = 2 = V 0.5
cos φ1 1 2 2
Voltage across resistance R, a a
5
V′ = 1.5 − 0.5 = 1.0 V Given, 2 = α and 2 = α
a1 a1
28 Total binding energy, E = ( ∆m ) c 2 , ∴ Resistance,
V′ 2 α
R = =
1
=5 Ω ∴ R =
where, ∆m = mass defect. 1+α
I 200 × 10 −3
Therefore, the value of constant in the
40 Friction force, F = µ mg cos θ
above product is given by 37 The inertia of a body depends only
= 0 . 7 × 100 × 10 −3 × 10 cos 30 °
c 2 = 9 × 1016 m 2s −2 . upon the mass of the body but the
3 0.7 3
moment of inertia of a body about an = 0.7 × = N
29 Initial amount of radioactive element 2 2
= X+ Y =1 + 7 =8 axis not only depends upon the mass of
n the body but also on the distribution of 41 Terminal voltage decreases as current
Now, N = N0
1
2 mass about the axis of rotation. increases.
n −2
1 = 8 = g 1 +
1 g h
∴ 38 Initially system, is in equilibrium with a 42 g h =
2 1 + h
2 R
total weight of 4mg over spring.
R
DAY FOURTY MOCK TEST 3 419
or g h ≈ g 1 −
2h 2gh So, finally stored energy ∆t = 0.05 s, ∆i = 4 − 0 = 4 A
or g − g h =
R R 1 1 Charge flowing through the coil is given
U2 = CV2 + CV2 by
...(i) 2 2
∆φ 1
and g d = g 1 −
d 1
= (2C ) V2 ∆q = ( ∆t )
R 2 ∆t R
∆i 1
= 2 CV2 = 2 U1 = µ 0 N1 N2 πr 2
gd 1
or g − g d = ...(ii) ∆t
R 2 ∆t R
For same change in value of g, = 4 π × 10 −7 × 2 × 104 × 100 × π
45 Horizontal range of projectile,
g − g h = g − gd
× (10 −2 ) 2 ×
4 1
u 2 sin 2θ u2 × × 0.05
2gh gd R = , R max = [at θ = 45 ° ] 0.05 10 π2
or = g g
R R = 32 × 10 −6 C = 32 µC
The maximum height attained by
or d = 2h
projectile 49 In isochoric process, the curve is
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), it is obvious that g u 2 sin 2 θ
H= parallel to y-axis because volume is
changes less with depth than with height.
2g constant.
u 2 sin 2 θ u 2 sin 2θ Isobaric is parallel to x-axis because
43 Given, Ic = 10 mA If H = R , then = , pressure is constant.
90 2g g
Also, 90% of Ie = 10 ⇒ Ie = 10 Along the curve, it will be isothermal
100 sin 2 θ because temperature is constant.
100 = 2 sin θ cos θ
∴ Ie = mA ≈ 11 mA 2 So, P→ c
9 Q→ a
So, tan θ = 4
Again, I b = Ie − Ic = 11 − 10 = 1 mA R→ d
∴ θ = tan − 1 (4 )
44 Thinking Process Energy stored in a S→ b
system of capacitors 46 Output of two input OR gate is
50 Consider the string of length l
1
= Σ CV2 Y = A + B. connected to a particle as shown in the
2 i.e. Y = 1, if either or both inputs are 1. figure.
Also, potential drop remains same in
parallel across both capacitors.
47 As ( A × B) is parallel to A × B, hence peg particle
dot product will be unity. v
l
48 Thinking Process Current induced in Speed of the particle is v. As the particle
the coil is given by
is in uniform circular motion, net force
1 dφ
= on the particle must be equal to
+ – R dt centripetal force which is provided by
V ∆q 1 ∆φ the tension ( T ).
⇒ =
Initially stored energy ∆t R ∆t ∴ Net force = Centripetal force
1 mv2
U1 = CV2 Given, resistance of the solenoid,
⇒ =T
2 R = 10 π2 Ω l
Finally, potential drop across each
capacitor will be still V. Radius of second and coil r = 10 −2
EXAM BITES
This Pdf Is
Downloaded From
www.exambites.in
VISIT NOW !!
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 01
NEET (National)
SOLVED PAPER 2019
Held on : 5 May 2019
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 180
Important Instructions
Test Booklet contains 45 questions.
Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 180.
1. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following 5. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm 2 is present
statements is true ? near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height
(a) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the 2 m.
dopants. Taking g = 10 m/s 2, the rate of flow of water through
(b) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the open hole would be nearly
the dopants.
(a) 8.9 ´ 10-6 m 3 /s (b) 2. 23 ´ 10-6 m 3 /s
(c) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms
are the dopants. (c) 6.4 ´ 10-6 m 3 /s (d) 12.6 ´ 10-6 m 3 /s
(d) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the 6. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y-direction,
dopants.
where F is in newton and y in meter.
2. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How Work done by this force to move the particle from
much will it weigh half way down to the centre of the y = 0 to y = 1 m is
earth ? (a) 5 J (b) 25 J (c) 20 J (d) 30 J
(a) 200 N (b) 250 N (c) 100 N (d) 150 N
7. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and -Q
3. In which of the following processes, heat is neither respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and
absorbed nor released by a system? force acting between them is F.
(a) Adiabatic (b) Isobaric (c) Isochoric (d) Isothermal If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force
between the charges becomes
4. Six similar bulbs are connected as 9F 16F 4F
shown in the figure with a DC A B (a) (b) (c) (d) F
16 9 3
source of emf E and zero internal
resistance. 8. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long
The ratio of power consumption by smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60º with
the bulbs when (i) all are glowing horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane.
and (ii) in the situation when two But when the inclination is decreased to 30º and the
from section A and one from section same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel
B are glowing, will be x 2 distance. Then x1 : x 2 will be
(a) 9 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 E (a) 2:1 (b) 1: 3
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 9 (c) 1:2 3 (d) 1: 2
02 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
16. An electron is accelerated through a potential 24. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20mF is being
charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing
difference of 10,000 V. at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the
Its de-Broglie wavelength is, (nearly) : connecting wires and the displacement current through
(me = 9 ´ 10 -31 kg) the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively.
(a) 12.2 ´ 10-12 m (b) 12.2 ´ 10-14 m (a) 60 mA, 60 mA (b) 60 mA, zero
(c) 12.2 nm (d) 12.2 ´ 10-13 m (c) zero, zero (d) zero, 60 mA
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 03
25. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire 33. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a
of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + l). horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20
The elastic potential energy stored in the extended cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?
wire is
(a) 30 kJ (b) 2 J
1 1
(a) MgL (b) Mgl (c) MgL (d) Mgl (c) 1 J (d) 3 J
2 2
34. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in
26. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly the measurement of physical quantities A , B, C and D
charged. are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Then the maximum
The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from percentage of error in the measurement X , where,
the centre A 2B1 / 2
(a) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases for X = 1 / 3 3 will be
r>R C D
3
(b) zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r increases for (a) 16% (b) -10% (c) 10% (d) æç ö÷ %
r>R è 13 ø
(c) decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
(d) increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R 35. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with
another body B of mass 2m, at rest. The collision is
27. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the
vertical circle. fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is
The wire is most likely to break when: (a)
8
(b)
4
(c)
5
(d)
1
(a) the wire is horizontal 9 9 9 9
(b) the mass is at the lowest point
36. The radius of circle, the period of y
(c) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical P(t=0)
(d) the mass is at the highest point revolution, initial position and
sense of revolution are indicated in T=4 s
28. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength? the alongside figure. x
(a) Blue (b) Green (c) Violet (d) Red y-projection of the radius vector of 3m
rotating particle P is
29. A particle moving with velocity v is acted by three pt
forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. (a) y(t ) = 4sinæç ö÷, where y in m
è2 ø
The velocity of the particle will 3pt ö
(b) y(t ) = 3cosæç ÷, where y in m
P è 2 ø
pt
(c) y(t ) = 3cosæç ö÷, where y in m
è2 ø
(d) y(t ) = -3cos 2pt , where y in m
30. Ionised hydrogen atoms and a -particles with same 38. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is
momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque
field, B. required to stop after 2p revolutions is
The ratio of their radii of their paths rH : ra will be (a) 2 ´ 10-3 N-m (b) 12 ´ 10-4 N-m
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1 (c) 2 ´ 106 N-m (d) 2 ´ 10-6 N-m
31. The unit of thermal conductivity is : 39. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner
(a) J m -1
K -1
(b) W m K -1
(c) W m -1
K -1
(d) J m K -1 wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the inner
32. A coil of 800 turns effective area 0.05 m 2 is kept wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular
perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 ´ 10 -5 T. When the velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block
plane of the coil is rotated by 90 º around any of its stationary when the cylinder is vertical and rotating
co-planar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will about its axis, will be (g = 10 m/s 2 )
be 10
(a) rad/s (b) 10 rad/s (c) 10p rad/s (d) 10 rad/s
(a) 0.2 V (b) 2 ´ 10-3 V (c) 0.02 V (d) 2 V 2p
04 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
40. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a 42. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container
constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the would lead to
magnetic field B with the distance d from the centre of (a) increase in its kinetic energy
the conductor, is correctly represented by the figure (b) decrease in its pressure
B
(c) decrease in intermolecular distance
B
(d) increase in its mass
(a) (b) 43. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of
unknown length have their increase in length
R d R d independent of increase in temperature. The length of
B B aluminium rod is
(a) 113.9 cm (b) 88 cm
(c) (d)
(c) 68 cm (d) 6.8 cm
Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a)
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 05
E
06 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
The given situation can also be depicted as shown in the 8. (b) The motion of object shot in two cases can be depicted as
figure below. below
2m u u
60° 30°
Q′ A =
75 3
(Q A) = Q 11. (b) According to Bohr’s model, the kinetic energy of electron
100 4 in term of Rydberg constant R is given by
−3
Rhc
KE = 2
Q′B = Q + QB = Q − Q =
25 1 … (i)
Q
100 A 4 4 n
where, h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light
So, the force between the two charges now becomes and n = principal quantum number.
K − Q
3Q 3 Similarly, potential energy is given by,
K Q′ A Q′B 4 4 2Rhc
F′ = = PE = − 2 … (ii)
r2 r2 n
−9KQ 2
9 Rhc
∴Total energy, E = PE + KE = − 2 [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
= = F [from Eq. (i)]
16r 2 16 n
⇒ KE = − E and PE = 2E
Thus, the new force between the charges is 9/16 time the
Given, E = − 34
. eV
initial force between the charges.
∴ KE = − (− 34
. ) = 34
. e V and PE = 2 (− 34. ) = − 6.8 eV
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 07
12. (b) The angle of dip (δ) is the angle BV Case II When glycerine of same
Glass
between the horizontal refractive index at that of the glass Glass
component of earth’s magnetic –ve is filled in the space between two
field and the total magnetic field lens, then the combination will
of the earth. Its value is different δ now comprises of three lenses; first
BH
at different places. It is zero at δ bi-convex, second bi-concave and Glycerine (µ=1.5)
equator, as the dip neddle third is bi-convex. So, the focal
becomes parallel to horizontal +ve length of the combination now is given as
component. It varies from − 90° in 1 1 1 1 1
= + + = ⇒ F2 = f … (ii)
South pole to + 90° in the North pole. F2 f (− f) f f
This means the values δ is positive in northern hemisphere
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get F1 : F2 = 1 : 2
and is negative in southern hemisphere.
∴For point A, δ = + 25°, 16. (a) Given, potential difference, V = 10000 V
So, A lies in the northern hemisphere. If electron is accelerated through a potential of V volt, then
Similarly, for B, δ = − 25°, so the wavelength associated with it is given by
h
B lies in the southern hemisphere. λ= … (i)
2eVme
13. (c) Electric heaters are not based on the eddy current effect.
Rather their working is based on Joule’s heating effect of where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 J-s,
current. According to this effect, the passage of an electric e = electronic charge = 1.6 × 10−19C
current through a resistor produces heat. and me = mass of electron = 9 × 10−31 kg
However, when a changing magnetic flux is applied to a bulk Substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
piece of conducting material, then circulating current is
12.27 12.27 12.27 × 10−10
induced in the body of this conductor, which is usually λ= Å= × 10−10 = = 12.27 × 10−12 m
known as eddy currents. This current shows both heating V 10000 100
and magnetic effects. 17. (b) The LED will glow when the current flows through it, i.e.
Thus, it is the basic principle behind the working of when the voltage across it is high. The truth table can be
magnetic braking in train, electromagnet and induction formed from this
furnace. +6V
Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 21. (d) Given, speed of river, vR = 10 m/s
4T 4T
p0 + = p0 + Z0ρg ⇒ Z0 = … (iii) speed of swimmer in still water and vSN = 20 m/s.
r rρg
−2 vR
Here, T = 2.5 × 10 N/m, ρ = 10 kg/m ,
3 3
River flow
g = 10 ms−2 and r = 1 mm = 1 × 10−3 m
N
Substituting these values in Eq. (iii), we get vSN vS
4 × 2.5 × 10−2 W E
Z0 = = 10 × 10−3 m = 1 cm
1 × 10−3 × 103 × 10 θ
S
19. (a) The displacement of given particle is
For the shortest path to cross the river, he should swim at
y = A0 + Asinωt + B cosωt … (i) an angle (90° + θ) with the stream flow. From the figure
The general equation of SHM can be given as above, v SN = v R + v S
x = a sinωt + b cosωt … (ii) So, angle θ is given by
So, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we can say that A0 be the value of v 10 1
sinθ = R = =
mean position, at which y = 0. v SN 20 2
∴Amplitude, R = A2 + B2 + 2 AB cosθ ⇒ θ = 30°
As two function sine and cosine have phase shift to 90°. As the river is flowing in East direction, so he should swim
towards West.
∴ R= A 2 + B2 [Q cos 90° = 0]
22. (b) Consider two infinite line charges with linear charge
20. (b) Key Idea Amount of work done in moving the given body densities + λ C/m and − λ C/m respectively, which are lying
from one point to another against the gravitational force is in y-direction as shown in the figure below.
equal to the change in potential energy of the body. +λ –λ
+ EB –
As we know, the potential energy of body of mass m of the + EA –
surface of earth is + –
+ –
GMm R
U1 = − … (i) + –
R + –
+ 2R –
where, G = gravitational constant,
A B
M = mass of earth and R = radius of earth.
Then, the electric field due to line A at the mid way between
When the mass is raised to a height h from the surface of the
the two line charges, i.e. at R is
earth, then the potential energy of the body becomes
λ
|E A| = N/C … (i)
2πε0 R
h=R which lies along +ve x-axis (outward), i.e. from A to B.
Similarly, the electric field due to line B at the mid-way
between the two line charges, i.e. at R is
λ
R |EB| = N/C … (ii)
2πε0 R
M Due to negative charge on B, EB also lies along
+ve x-axis (inward), i.e. from A to B.
So, the resultant electric field at R is given as
|ER| = |E A| + |EB|
GMm
U2 = − Substituting the values from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
(R + h) λ λ
|ER|= +
Here, h = R (given) GMm 2πε0 R 2πε0 R
⇒ U2 = − … (ii)
2R λ
= N/C
Thus, the change in potential energy, ∆U = U 2 − U1 πε0 R
Substituting the values from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Which also lies along the + ve x-axis, i.e. from A to B.
GMm GMm GMm gR2m
Qg = 2
GM
∆U = − + = = 23. (c) Among given devices fuse is used in electric circuit as a
2R R 2R 2R R protective device.
mgR
= It helps in preventing excessive amount of current to flow in
2 the circuit or from short circuiting.
Thus, the work done in raising the mass to a height R is It has low melting point and low resistivity, so when excess
mgR
equals to . amount of current flow in the circuit, it melts and break the
2 circuit.
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 09
Given, C = 20µF = 20 × 10−6 F and (ii) The electric field at the surface (r = R),
dV
= 3 V/s
dt Q
E=
The displacement current in a circuit is given by 4 πε0 R
dφ
I d = ε0 [from Maxwell’s equation) (iii) The electric field inside hollow sphere is
dt
Q
d E= =0 [Q Qinside = 0]
= ε0 (EA) [Q φ = EA] 4 πε0 r
dt
Thus, the electric field is zero inside the hollow sphere
= ε0 A
d V
[Q V = Ed] maximum at the surface and decreases as r increases for
dt d
r > R. This can be shown graphically as
ε A dV
= 0 E
d dt
ε A Emax
As the capacitance, C = 0
d
dV E ∝ 12
∴ Id = C E=0 r
dt
Substituting the given values, we get r
O
I d = 20 × 10−6 × 3 = 60 × 10−6 A = 60 µ A R
As displacement current is in between the plates of capacitor 27. (b) Let the mass m which is attached to a thin wire and is
and conduction current is in the connecting wires which are whirled in a vertical circle is shown in the figure below.
equal to each other. So, I c = I d = 60 µA C
25. (b) In stretching a wire, the work done against internal
restoring force is stored as elastic potential energy in wire
and given by
D B
T
L L l m
P
θ mg cos θ
A
mg
l
The tension in the string at any point P be T.
M According to Newton’s law of motion, In equilibrium, net force
towards the centre = centripetal force
Mg mv2
⇒ T − mg cosθ =
1
U=W= × Force (F) × Elongation ()
l l
2 Here, l = length of wire and v = linear velocity of the particle
1 1 1 whirling in a circle.
= Fl = × Mg × l = Mgl
2 2 2 mv2
⇒ T = mg cosθ +
l
26. (a) As the hollow sphere is uniformly charged, so the net mv2
charge will appear on the surface of the sphere. At A, θ = 0° ⇒ TA = mg +
l
(i) The electric field at a point outside the hollow sphere is mv2
At B, θ = 90° ⇒ TB =
φ = ∫ E ⋅ dS = enclosed
Q
[from Gauss’ law] l
ε0 mv2
S
At C, θ = 180° ⇒ TC = − mg +
E l
mv2
At D, θ = 90° ⇒ TD = TB =
dS l
++ + So, from the above analysis, it can be concluded that the
+
+ + tension is maximum at A i.e. the lowest point of circle, So
+ chance of breaking is maximum.
+
R +
+ O
r
28. (d) Different colours of white light have different
+ + wavelengths. The descending order of the wavelength of the
+ Q component of white light is
+ + + λ Red > λ Green > λ Blue > λ Violet
10 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
29. (b) As the three forces are represented by three sides of a Thus, substituting the given values in Eq. (ii), we get
triangle taken in order, then they will be in equilibrium. 800 × 5 × 10−5 × 0.05 × [cos 90° − cos 0° ]
e=−
P .
01
= 2000 × 10−5 = 0.02 V
⇒ (4m)u + (2m)u′ = (4m)v1 + (2m)v2 37. (c) The total internal reflection Normal
4mu = 4mv1 + 2mv2 or 2 u = 2v1 + v2 … (i) is the phenomenon of reflection
The kinetic energy of A before collision is back of light in the denser
1 medium when it travel from
KE A = (4m)u2 = 2mu2 ic
2 denser to rarer medium, when Denser
Kinetic energy of B before collision, KE B = 0 the angle of incidence is greater
The kinetic energy of A after collision is than the critical angle. While r=90°
the critical angle for a pair of Rarer
1
KE′A = (4m)v12 = 2 mv12 given media in contact is the
2
angle of incidence in denser
Kinetic energy of B after collision, medium for which the angle of
1
KE′B = (2m)v22 = mv22 refraction in rarer medium is 90°.
2
As, Initial kinetic energy of the system = Final kinetic energy 38. (d) Key Idea According to work-energy theorem, the
of the system change in kinetic energy of a particle is the amount
of work done on the particle to move, i.e.
⇒KE ′A + KE ′B = KE ′A + KE B′
W = − ∆KE = KE f − KE i
2mu2 + 0 = 2mv12 + mv22
2mu2 = 2mv12 + mv22 or 2u2 = 2v12 + v22 … (ii) Given, mass of cylinder, m = 2 kg
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get radius of cylinder, r = 4 cm = 4 × 10−2 m
1 4 2π π
v1 = u and v2 = u rotational velocity, ω = 3 rpm = 3 × = rad/s and θ = 2π
3 3 60 10
or the final velocity of A can be directly calculated by using revolution = 2π × 2π = 4 π rad.
2
the formula.
The velocity after collision is given by The work done in rotating an object by an angle θ from rest is
m − m2 given by W = τθ
2m2u2
v1 = 1 u1 + As the cylinder is brought to rest, so the work done will be
m1 + m2 m1 + m2 negative.
4m − 2m 2(2m) × 0 According to work-energy theorem,
= u + [Q u2 = u′ = 0]
4m + 2m (4m + 2m) Work done = Change in rotational kinetic energy
2m 1 1 1 1 I(−ω2i )
= u= u − τθ = Iω2f − Iωi2 = I(ω2f − ωi2) ⇒ τ =
6m 3 2 2 2 2θ
∴Net decreases in kinetic energy of A [Qω f = 0]
∆KE = KE A − KE ′A = 2mu2 − 2mv12 = 2m(u2 − v12) ω2
= mr 2 i I = 1 MR2 (for cylinder)
1 1
Substituting the value of v1 , we get 22 θ 2
u2 16 mu2 1 ω 2
∆KE = 2m u2 − = = mr 2 [Qωi = ω]
9 9 4 θ
∴The fractional decreases in kinetic energy is π
2
= × 2 × (4 × 10−2)2 × ×
1 1
∆KE 16 mu2 1 8 4 10 4π2
= × =
KE A 9 2mu2 9 1 π2 1
= × 2 × 16 × 10−4 × ×
36. (c) Let O be the centre of circle, then at t = 0, the 4 100 4 π 2
2
displacement y is maximum and have value 3 m. = × 10−4 = 2 × 10−6 N-m
y 100
t=0 39. (b) Given, mass of cylinder m = 10 kg,
t=t radius of cylinder, r = 1 m ω
ωt coefficient of friction, µ = 01 ..
The given situation can be as shown
O x fl
3m in the figure given alongside.
From the above figure, it can be mrω 2 N
concluded that the block will be
T=4s mg
stationary when the limiting friction
As, the general equation of displacement of a particle will be ( fl) is equal to or greater than the
in the form y = A cosωt downward force or weight of block,
Here, A = 3m i.e.
2π 2π π
Then, ω= = = [given, T = 4 s] fl ≥ mg …(i)
T 4 2
Also, the magnitude of limiting friction between two bodies
π
∴ y = 3cos t (in metre) is directly proportional to the normal reaction (N) between
2 them, i.e. fl ∝ N or fl = µ N …(ii)
12 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Similarly, for circuit 2, the addition of 10 Ω to voltmeter does
µN ≥ mg or µ( mrω2 ) ≥ mg [Q N = mrω2] not affect the current and hence
10 Ω i2
g
⇒ ω≥
rµ
10 Ω
Thus, the minimum angular velocity is V2
A2
g 10
ωmin = = = 10 rad/s
rµ 1 × 01.
41. (b) For an ideal voltmeter, the resistance is infinite and for an 44. (d) α-particles are doubly ionised helium nucleus (He 2+ )
ideal ammeter, the resistance is zero.
which are emitted in any radioactive process. So, they have
10 V i1 two protons, 2 neutrons in its nucleus and no electron.
NEET (Odisha)
SOLVED PAPER 2019
Held on : 20 May 2019
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 180
Important Instructions
Test Booklet contains 45 questions.
Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 180.
1. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of The velocity of the larger piece will be
radius 2R respectively have the same surface charge (a) 4$i + 23$j − 8k$ (b) − 100$i − 35$j − 8k $
density σ. They are brought in contact and separated. (c) 20$i + 15$j − 80k$ (d) − 20 i − 15 j − 80k
$ $ $
What will be the new surface charge densities on them?
5 5 5 5 6. An object kept in a large room having air temperature
(a) σ1 = σ, σ 2 = σ (b) σ1 = σ, σ 2 = σ of 25°C takes 12 minutes to cool from 80°C to 70°C.
6 2 2 6
5 5 5 5 The time taken to cool for the same object from 70°C to
(c) σ1 = σ, σ 2 = σ (d) σ1 = σ, σ 2 = σ
2 3 3 6 60°C would be nearly
(a) 10 min (b) 12 min
2. The distance covered by a particle undergoing SHM in (c) 20 min (d) 15 min
one time period is (amplitude = A)
(a) zero (b) A 7. Two small spherical metal balls, having equal masses,
(c) 2A (d) 4A are made from materials of densities ρ1 and ρ2 (ρ1 = 8 ρ2)
and have radii of 1 mm and 2 mm, respectively. They
3. A mass falls from a height ‘h’ and its time of fall ‘t’ is are made to fall vertically (from rest) in viscous
recorded in terms of time period T of a simple medium whose coefficient of viscosity equals η and
pendulum. On the surface of earth it is found that t = 2 whose density is 0.1 ρ2 . The ratio of their terminal
T. The entire set up is taken on the surface of another velocities would be
planet whose mass is half of earth and radius the same. 79 19
Same experiment is repeated and corresponding times (a) (b)
72 36
noted as t′ and T ′.
39 79
(a) t ′ = 2 T ′ (b) t ′ > 2 T ′ (c) (d)
72 36
(c) t ′ < 2T ′ (d) t ′ = 2 T ′
8. A particle starting from rest, moves in a circle of radius
4. A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces resonance ‘r’. It attains a velocity of v0 m/s in the nth round. Its
in a resonance column tube with upper end open and angular acceleration will be
lower end closed by water surface. Successive resonance v0 v 02
are observed at length 9.75 cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. (a) rad/s 2 (b) rad/s 2
n 2 πnr 2
The speed of sound in air is v 02 v2
(a) 500 m/s (b) 156 m/s (c) 344 m/s (d) 172 m/s (c) rad/s 2 (d) 0 rad/s 2
4πnr 2 4πnr
5. An object flying in air with velocity (20 $i + 25$j − 12k)
$
9. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a
suddenly breaks in two pieces whose masses are in the coin. The coin reaches the floor in time t1 if the elevator
ratio 1 : 5. The smaller mass flies off with a velocity is at rest and in time t2 if the elevator is moving
(100 $i + 35 $j + 8 k$ ). uniformly.
14 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
The which of the following option is correct? (a) 10.4 × 10−26 m (b) 654 nm
(a) t 1 < t 2 or t 1 > t 2 depending upon whether the lift is going up (c) 654 Å (d) 654 × 10−11 m
or down
(b) t 1 < t 2 14. The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the
logic gate,
(c) t 1 > t 2
(d) t 1 = t 2 +6V
0 R
A
10. A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended by a light
1
string, in a frame attached to the truck. The truck, 0
B
suddenly moves to the right with an acceleration of a. 1
The pendulum will tilt LED (Y)
(a) to the left and the angle of inclination of the pendulum with R
the vertical is sin−1
g
a
(b) to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the (a) NOR (b) AND
a (c) OR (d) NAND
vertical is tan−1
g Cp
(c) to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the 15. The value of γ = , for hydrogen, helium and
a
CV
vertical is sin1−
g another ideal diatomic gas X (whose molecules are not
rigid but have an additional vibrational mode), are
(d) to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the
respectively equal to
vertical is tan−1
g
a 7 5 9 5 7 9
(a) , , (b) , ,
5 3 7 3 5 7
11. In a u-tube as shown in a figure, water and oil are in the 5 7 7 7 5 7
(c) , (d) , ,
left side and right side of the tube respectively. The 3 5 5 5 3 5
heights from the bottom for water and oil columns are
15 cm and 20 cm respectively. The density of the oil is 16. An equi-convex lens has power P it is cut into two
[take ρwater = 1000 kg/m 3 ] symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal
axis. The power of one part will be
P P
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d) P
2 4
Water Oil 18. A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm. The
(a) 1200 kg/m 3 (b) 750 kg/m 3 radius of curvature of one of the surfaces is doubled of
(c) 1000 kg/m 3 (d) 1333 kg/m 3 the other. Find the radii, if the refractive index of the
material of the lens is 1.5.
12. A deep rectangular pond of surface area A, containing (a) 100 cm, 50 cm
water (density = ρ, specific heat capacity = s), is located (b) 25 cm, 50 cm
in a region where the outside air temperature is a (c) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm
steady value at the − 26 °C. The thickness of the frozen (d) 50 cm, 100 cm
ice layer in this pond, at a certain instant is x.
Taking the thermal conductivity of ice as K, and its 19. Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously
specific latent heat of fusion as L, the rate of increase of towards each other from roof tops of two buildings 100
the thickness of ice layer, at this instant would be given m apart and of same height of 200 m with the same
by velocity of 25 m/s. When and where will the two
(a) 26K/ρ r(L−4s) (b) 26K/(ρx2 − L) bullets collides. (g = 10 m/s 2 )
(c) 26K/(ρxL) (d) 26K/ρr(L + 4s) (a) After 2s at a height 180 m
(b) After 2s at a height of 20 m
13. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction diode using (c) After 4s at a height of 120 m
GaAsP. The energy gap is 1.9 eV. The wavelength of the (d) They will not collide
light emitted will be equal to
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 15
20. The stress-strain curves are drawn for two different 26. A straight conductor carrying current i splits into two
materials X and Y. It is observed that the ultimate parts as shown in the figure. The radius of the circular
strength point and the fracture point are close to each loop is R. The total magnetic field at the centre P at the
other for material X but are far apart for material Y. We loop is
can say that materials X and Y are likely to be
(respectively)
i1
(a) ductile and brittle (b) brittle and ductile R
(c) brittle and plastic (d) plastic and ductile
i P
21. A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal surface 90º
(coefficient of friction = µ). Horizontal force is applied on i2
the body, but it does not move. The resultant of normal
i
reaction and the frictional force acting on the object is
given F, where F is (a) Zero (b) 3 µ 0 i / 32 R, outward
(a) |F| = mg + µ mg (b) |F| = µmg µ i
(c) 3 µ 0 i /32R, inward (d) 0 , inward
(c) |F| ≤ mg 1 + µ 2 (d) |F| = mg 2R
22. A particle of mass 5 m at rest suddenly breaks on its 27. The variation of EMF with time for four types of
own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m generators are shown in the figures. Which amongst
each move along mutually perpendicular direction with them can be called AC?
each speed v. The energy released during the process is E E
3 5
(a) mv 2 (b) mv 2
5 3
3 4 (a) t (b) t
(c) mv 2 (d) mv 2
2 3
28. The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit for the
10
electron, in a hydrogen atom equals 0.51 Å and its
x (m) ground state energy equals − 13.6 eV. If the electron in
4 5 8 10 12 the hydrogen atom is replaced by muon (µ −1) [Charge
–10 same as electron and mass 207 me ], the first Bohr
radius and ground state energy will be
–20 (a) 0.53 × 10−13 m, − 3.6 eV (b) 25.6 × 10−13 m, − 2.8 eV
–25
(c) 2.56 × 10−13 m, − 2.8 keV (d) 2.56 × 10−13 m, − 13.6 eV
(a) 18 m/s and 24.4 m/s (b) 23 m/s and 24.4 m/s
(c) 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s (d) 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s 29. The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown
is
24. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm rolls up 20 Ω 30 Ω
an inclined plane of angle inclination 30°. The centre of
mass of cylinder has speed of 4 m/s. The distance
travelled by the cylinder on the inclined surface will be : V
(Take g = 10 m/s 2 )
(a) 2.2 m (b) 1.6 m (c) 1.2 m (d) 2.4 m 30 Ω 20 Ω
25. Two toroids 1 and 2 have total number of turns 200 and
100 respectively with average radii 40 cm and 20 cm 2V
respectively. If they carry same current i, the ratio of the
(a) 0.6 V (b) 0 V
magnetic fields along the two loops is (c) 0.5 V (d) 0.4 V
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
16 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
30. The meter bridge shown in the balance position with 37. A sphere encloses an electric dipole with charge
P l1
= . If we now interchange the positions of ± 3 × 10 −6 C. What is the total electric flux across the
Q l2 sphere?
galvanometer and cell, will the bridge work? If yes, that (a) − 3 × 10−6 N-m 2 /C (b) zero
will be balanced condition? (c) 3 × 106 N-m 2 /C (d) 6 × 10−6 N-m 2 /C
b
l1 l2
V C1 C2
P l2 − l1
(a) yes, = (b) no, no null point
Q l2 + l1
P l P l1
(c) yes, = 2 (d) yes, =
Q l1 Q l2 Terminals a and b of the key k are connected to charge
capacitor C1 using battery of emf V volt. Now,
31. The relations amongst the three elements earth’s disconnecting a and b the terminals b and c are
magnetic field, namely horizontal component H, connected. Due to this, what will be the percentage
vertical component V and dip δ are, (BE = total magnetic loss of energy?
field) (a) 75% (b) 0% (c) 50% (d) 25%
(a) V = BE tan δ, H = BE
(b) V = BE sinδ, H = BE cos δ 39. The main scale of a vernier calliper has n divisions/cm.
(c) V = BE cos δ, H = BE sin δ n divisions of the vernier scale coincide with (n −1)
(d) V = BE , H = Be E tan δ divisions of main scale. The least count of the vernier
callipers is
32. The rate of radioactive disintegration at an instant for a 1 1
(a) cm (b) cm
radioactive sample of half life2 .2 × 10 9 s is 10 10 s −1 . The (n + 1) (n − 1) n
number of radioactive atoms in that sample at that 1
(c) 2 cm (d)
1
cm
instant is n n (n + 1)
. × 1020
(a) 317 . × 1017
(b) 317
. × 10
(c) 317 18
. × 1019
(d) 317 40. A person travelling in a straight line moves with a
constant velocity v1 for certain distance ‘x’ and with a
33. The time period of a geo-stationary satellite is 24 h, at a constant velocity v2 for next equal distance. The
height 6 RE (RE is the radius of earth) from surface of average velocity v is given by the relation
earth. The time period of another satellite whose height 1 1 1 2 1 1
(a) = + (b) = +
is 2.5 RE from surface will be v v1 v 2 v v1 v 2
24 12 v v + v2
(a) 6 2 h (b) 12 2 h (c) h (d) h (c) = 1 (d) v = v1v 2
2.5 2.5 2 2
34. A circuit when connected to an AC source of 12 V gives 41. Assuming that the gravitational potential energy of an
a current of 0.2 A. The same circuit when connected to a object at infinity is zero, the change in potential energy
DC source of 12 V, gives a current of 0.4 A. The circuit is (final – initial) of an object of mass m, when taken to a
(a) series LR (b) series RC height h from the surface of earth (of radius R) is given
(c) series LC (d) series LCR by,
GMm GMmh
35. A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated with constant (a) − (b)
angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a region of magnetic field R+ h R (R + h)
of 0.1 T which is perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. GMm
(c) mgh (d)
The EMF generated between its centre and the rim is R+ h
(a) 0.25 V (b) 0.125 V
42. 1g of water, of volume 1 cm 3 at 100°C is converted into
(c) 0.5 V (d) zero
steam at same temperature under normal atmospheric
36. For a transparent medium relative permeability and − 1 × 10 5 Pa). The volume of steam formed
pressure= (~
permittivity µ r and ∈r are 1.0 and 1.44 respectively. The equals 1671 cm 3 . If the specific latent heat of
velocity of light in this medium would be vaporisation of water is 2256 J/g, the change in
(a) 2.5 × 108 m/s (b) 3 × 108 m/s internal energy is
(c) 2.08 × 10 m/s
8
(d) 4.32 × 108 m/s (a) 2423 J (b) 2089 J (c) 167 J (d) 2256 J
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 17
43. Angular width of the central maxima in the 44. The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0
Fraunhoffer diffraction for λ = 6000 Å is θ 0 . When the eV. This longest wavelength of light that can cause
same slit is illuminated by another monochromatic photon emission from the substance is (approximately)
light, the angular width decreases by 30%. The (a) 3100 nm (b) 966 nm (c) 31 nm (d) 310 nm
wavelength of this light is
(a) 1800 Å 45. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated from rest to
(b) 4200 Å the same energy. The de-Broglie wavelengths λ p and
(c) 6000 Å λ α are in the ratio
(d) 420 Å (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 :1 (d) 4 : 1
Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a)
where, l is the length of the pendulum. From Eq. (i) and (ii), As the object breaks in two pieces, so the momentum of the
since ‘h’ and ‘l’ are constant so, we can conclude that, system will remains conserved i.e. the total momentum
1 1 t (before breaking) = total momentum (after breaking)
t∝ and T ∝ ∴ =1
m 5m v 5v 2
g g T mv = v1 + v2 ⇒ v = 1 +
Thus, the ratio of time of fall and time period of pendulum is 6 6 6 6
independent of value of gravity (g) or any other parameter like Here, v = 20$i + 25$j − 12k
$
mass and radius of the planet. Thus, the relation between t′ and v1 = 100$i + 35$j + 8k $
T′ on another planet irrespective of its mass or radius will
$ = (100$i + 35$j + 8k) + 5v 2
$
remains same as it was on earth i.e. ⇒ 20$i + 25$j − 12k
t ′ = 2T ′ 6 6
⇒ (120$i + 150$j − 72k$ ) = (100$i + 35$j + 8k
$ ) + 5v
2
4. (c) For vibrating tunning fork over a resonance tube, the first
1
resonance is obtained at the length ⇒ v 2 = (20$i + 115$j − 80k) = 4$i + 23$j − 16k
$ $
A 5
6. (d) Key Idea From Newton’s law of cooling, the time taken (t )
l1 λ/4 by a body to cool from T1 to T2 when placed in a medium of
N temperature T0 can be calculated from relation
T1 − T2 1 T1 + T2
= − T0
t K 2
λ
l1 = …(i) When the object cool from 80°C to 70°C in 12 minutes, then
4
from Newton’s law of cooling,
and for second resonance,
80 − 70 1 80 + 70
A = − 25 [QT0 = 25° C]
12 K 2
λ/4 5 1
= 50 …(i)
6 K
N
Similarly, when object cool from 70°C to 60°C we get
70 − 60 1 70 + 60
− 25 ⇒
l2 10 1
= = 40 …(ii)
λ/2 t K 2 t K
Divide Eq. (i) and (ii), we get
5 t 50 5
× = ⇒ t = × 12 = 15 minutes
6 10 40 4
λ λ 3λ 7. (d) The terminal velocity achieved by ball in a viscous fluid is
l2 = + = …(ii)
4 2 4 2(ρ − σ)r 2 g
vt =
From Eq. (i) and (ii), we get 9η
3λ λ λ
l 2 − l1 = − = where, ρ = density of metal of ball,
4 4 2
σ = density of viscous medium,
⇒ λ = 2(l 2 − l1)
r = radius of ball and
v
⇒ v = 2 f (l 2 − l1) …(iii) Q λ = η = coefficient of viscosity of medium
f
Terminal velocity of first ball,
Here, f = 800 Hz, l1 = 9.75 cm, l 2 = 31.25 cm 2(ρ − σ)r12 g 2(8ρ2 − σ)r12 g
Substituting the given values in Eq. (iii), we get vt1 = 1 = …(i) [Qρ 1 = 8ρ2]
9η 9η
⇒ v = 2 × 800(31.25 − 9.75)
Similarly, for second ball
= 34400 cm/s = 344 m/s
2(ρ2 − σ)r22 g
vt2 = …(ii)
5. (a) Let m be the mass of an object flying with velocity v in air. 9η
When it split into two pieces of masses in ratio 1 : 5, the mass From Eq. (i) and (ii), we get
5m
of smaller piece is m/6 and of bigger piece is . vt1 2(8ρ2 − σ)r12 g 9η
6 = ×
vt2 2(ρ2 − σ)r22 g 9η
This situation can be interpreted diagrammatically as below
2
v1 8ρ − 01. ρ2 r1
= 2 …(iii) [Qσ = 0.1ρ2]
m/6 ρ2 − 01
. ρ2 r2
Here, r1 = 1 mm and r2 = 2 mm
m v
Substituting these values in Eq. (iii), we get
5m/6 vt1 7.9ρ2 1 2 79
⇒ = =
v2 vt2
0.9ρ2 2 36
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 19
8. (c) From third equation of motion for circular motion 12. (c) Key Idea If area of cross-section of a surface is not uniform
ω2 − ω20 = 2αθ …(i) or if the steady state condition is not reached, the heat flow
where, ω = final angular velocity of particle equation can be applied to a thin layer of material
ω0 = initial angular velocity perpendicular to direction of heat flow.
α = angular acceleration and The rate of heat flow by conduction for growth of ice is given
θ = angular displacement by,
v
Here, ω = 0 rad/s (where, r radius of the circle) dθ KA(θ 0 − θ 1)]
r =
dt x
ω0 = 0 (initially particle is at rest)
θ = 2πn (for n rounds) where, dθ = ρAdxL, θ 0 = 0 and θ 1 = − θ
Substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
2
Given, θ0 = 0° C, θ1 = − 26° C
2
v0 − 0 = 2α(2πn) ⇒ α = v0 rad/s 2 The rate of increase of thickness can be calculated from Eq.
r 4 πnr 2 dθ KA(θ0 − θ1)
=
dt x
9. (d) Let h be the height through which the coin is dropped.
ρAdxL KA(θ0 − θ1)
Then, according to the equation of motion, it is given as ⇒ =
1 2h dt x
h = ut + gt 2 ⇒ t = [Qu = 0] dx KA(θ0 − θ1) K [0 − (−26)] 26K
2 g ⇒ = = =
1 dt ρAxL ρxL ρxL
⇒ t∝
g
13. (b) The energy of light of wavelength λ is given by
As the elevator is moving uniformly i.e. its velocity is constant,
hc hc
so the acceleration is zero. E = hν = ⇒ λ= …(i)
∴Relative acceleration of the lift when it is either moving λ E
upward or downward is given as, g′ = g ± a = g ± 0 = g Here, h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 J-s
Hence, the time for the coin to reach the floor will remains same
i.e. t1 = t2. c = speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s
10. (b) As the truck move to the right, so the bob will move to the E = energy gap = 1.9 eV = 1.9 × 1.6 × 10−19 J
left due to inertia of rest with acceleration a. Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
Thus, the given situation can be drawn as
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
⇒ λ=
ma θ 1.9 × 1.6 × 10−19
a ⇒
θ = 6.54 × 10−7 m ≈ 654 nm
mg
Thus, the wavelength of light emitted from LED will be 654
(a) (b) nm.
From the above diagram (b) as the string moves by an angle of θ 14. (a) From the circuit diagram given below, it can be seen that
with the vertical then the tangent angle is the current will flow to ground if any of the switch is closed.
a
⇒ θ = tan−1 Also, the LED will only glow when current flows through it.
ma
tanθ =
mg g
+6V
11. (b) According to Pascal’s law ‘‘Pressure applied to an enclosed R
fluid is transmitted undiminished to every point of the fluid A 0
and the walls of the containing vessel.’’ 1
In the given situation as shown in the figure below B 0
1
LED (Y)
R
20 cm
15 cm
Thus, the truth table for the circuit diagram can be formed as
circuit diagram in given solution.
Water Oil A B Y
Pressure due to water column of height 15 cm = Pressure due to 0 0 1
oil column of height 20 cm
0 1 0
⇒ hwρw g = h0ρ0 g
15 1 0 0
15ρw = 20ρ0 ⇒ ρ0 = ρω
20
1 1 0
15
ρ0 = × 1000 (Qgiven, ρw = 1000kg m −3)
20 The output (Y) is equivalent to that of NOR gate.
= 750 kgm −3
20 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
15. (a) The poisson’s ratio, 19. (a) Given, distance between the two buildings
γ= P
C
…(i) d = 100 m
CV height of each tower, h = 200 m
where, Cp = molar heat capacity constant pressure speed of each bullet, v = 25 ms−1
and CV = molar heat capacity at constant volume
The situation can be shown as below
Also, Cp = CV + R (from Mayer’s relation)
f
CV = R (where, f =degree of freedom) x 25 m/s
2
Cp = + 1 R
f
⇒ 200 m 200 m
2
So, Eq. (i) becomes,
2
⇒ γ =1 +
f 100 m
For hydrogen gas, which is diatomic, the degree of freedom is 5 where, x be the vertical distance travelled from the top of the
(3 translational, 2 rotational). building and t be the time at which they collide.
2 7 As two bullets are fired toward each other,
∴ γ =1 + =
5 5 So, their relative velocity will be
For helium gas, which is monoatomic, the degree of freedom is vrel = 25 − (−25) = 50 ms−1
3 (3 translational only). d 100
Then, time t = = = 2s
2 5
∴ γ =1 + = vrel 50
3 3
The distance or height at which they collide is calculated from
The diatomic gas X also have vibrational motion, so degree of equation of motion,
freedom is 7 (3 translational, 2 rotational and 2 vibrational). 1
2 9 x = ut + at 2
∴ γ =1 + = 2
7 7
The bullet is initially a rest i.e. u = 0 and as it is moving under
16. (d) When the lens is cut along its principal axis, the focal the effect of gravity a = − g, so
length of the two halves will remain same because the radius 1 1
x = − gt 2 ⇒ x = − × 10(2)2 = − 20 m
of curvature of both the surfaces are still same. So, the power 2 2
also remains same as
The negative sign shows that the bullets will collide 20 m
1 below the top of tower i.e. at a height of (200 − 20) = 180 m
P=
f from the ground after 2 s.
f
20. (b) The stress-strain curve for a material is shown
The frictional force, f = µN = µ mg [QN = mg] 24. (d) When a body rolls i.e. have rotational motion, the total
From Free body diagram (FBD), the resultant force is kinetic energy of the system will be
|F| = N + f = (mg) + (µmg) = mg 1 + µ
2 2 2 2 2 1 k2
KE = mv2 1 + 2
This is the minimum force required to move the object. But as
2 R
the body is not moving where, m = mass of body, v = velocity and
k = radius of gyration
∴ |F|≤ mg 1 − µ 2
Then, the magnetic field due to larger arc AB is mass of muon, mµ = 207me and
µ i 270 mass of nucleus, M = 1836 me
B1 = 0 1 × …(i)
2R 2π When electron in hydrogen atom is replaced by muon, the
which acts in inward direction according to right hand thumb reduced mass of muon is
rule. mµ M
mµ ′ = …(i)
And magnetic field due to smaller arc AB is mµ + M
µ i 90 Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
B2 = 0 2 × …(ii)
2R 2π 207me × 1836me
mµ′ = ≈ 186 me …(ii)
which acts in outward direction. 207me + 1836me
The resultant magnetic field The radius of first orbit in hydrogen atom for electron is given
BR = B1 + B2 by,
µ i × 270 µ 0 i 2 × 90 h2ε0
=− 01 + [From Eq. (i) and (ii)] …(iii) r1 = …(iii)
4 πR 4 πR πme e 2
which acts in inward direction as B1 > B2. The radius of first orbit for muon is
Two arcs can also be seen as the two resistances in parallel h2ε0
combination. r1 ′ = [Qcharge of µ = charge of e − ]
πmµ′ e 2
So, the potential across them will be same i.e.
h2ε0
V1 = V2 = [from Eq. (ii)]
π × 186me e 2
i1 R1 = i 2R2 …(iv)
h2ε0 1 r
where, R1 and R2 = Resistance of respective segments = = 1 [from Eq. (iii)]
πme e 186 186
2
The wire is uniform so
R1 L1 R × 270 0.51
= = [Qlength of arc = radius × angle] = Å [Q r1 = 0.51Å]
R2 L2 R × 90 186
= 2.74 × 10−13 m [Q1 Å = 10−10 m]
From Eq. (iv), we get The total energy of electron is given by
i1 R2 90 1 − mZ 2e 4 1
⇒ = = = En =
i 2 R1 270 3 ⇒ En ∝ m
8ε20 h2 n2
or 3i1 = i 2 …(v) For electron in first orbit of hydrogen atom,
From Eq. (iii) and (v), we get E1 = kme …(iv)
µ µ e4
BR = 0 (−270i1 + 90i 2) = 0 [−270i1 + 90(3i1)] where, k = 2 2 = constant.
4 πR 4 πR 8ε0 h
µ
= 0 (−270i1 + 270i1) = 0 For muon in first orbit
4 πR
E1 ′ = kmµ ′ = k × 186me [from Eq. (i)]
27. (b) The emf generated due to a rotating conductor in a = 186kme = 186E1 [from Eq. (iv)]
generator is given by = 186(−136. ) eV (given)
dφB = − 2529.6 eV = − 2.5 keV
E=−
dt ∴ The values are closest to that of options (c).
where, φB = magnetic flux linked with conductor 29. (d) The given circuit diagram can be drawn as shown below
From the above equation we can conclude that the emf I1 20Ω B 30Ω
generated is a varying function of time with opposite polarity. A E
So, all the graph are correct for the given variations.
V
28. (c) Key Idea Hydrogen atom can be considered to be the system
30Ω 20Ω
of two charges, positive charged nucleus and negative D F
charged electron. A system of this kind is equivalent to a single I2 C
particle of mass m′ that revolves around the position of the I
heavier particle. Then, the reduced mass of electron is
mM
m′ =
m+ M
where, m = mass of electron and 2V
M = mass of nucleus The equivalent resistance of circuit is given by
Its values is less than m. 1 1 1 1 1
= + = +
Req RAE RDF (20 + 30) (30 + 20)
Given, radius of first orbit for electron r1 = 0.51 Å, 1 1 2
ground state energy of electron, E1 = − 136 . eV, = + =
50 50 50
mass of electron = me ⇒ Req = 25 Ω
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 23
V 2 R
The current in circuit, I = = A ⇒ R = λN or N= …(i)
R 25 λ
As the resistance of two branches is same i.e. 50Ω. Also, the half life is given by,
So, the current I1 = I 2 ⇒ I = I1 + I 2 0.693 0.693
T1 / 2 = ⇒ λ= …(ii)
2 1 λ T1 / 2
= 2I1 ⇒ I 2 = I1 = A
25 25 From Eq. (i) and (ii), we get
1 1010 × 2.2 × 109
∴The voltage across AB, V1 = I1 R1 = × 20 N=
R
× T1 / 2 = = 317
. × 1019
25 0.693 0.693
1
and voltage across CD, V2 = I 2R2 = × 30
25 33. (a) From Kepler’s third law, the time period of revolution of
30 20 10 satellite around earth is
∴Voltmeter reading = V2 − V1 = − = = 0.4 V
25 25 25 T 2 ∝ r 3 or T ∝ r 3/ 2 …(i)
where, r is the radius of satellite’s orbit.
30. (d) For balanced position in a meterbridge
Here, r1 = 6RE + RE , T1 = 24 h
r2 = 2.5RE + RE , T2 = ?
P Q where RE = radius of earth
So, from Eq. (i), we get
G 3/ 2 3/ 2
T1 r1 24 6RE + RE
3/ 2
=
7
= ⇒ =
l1 l2 T2 r2 T2 2.5RE + RE 35
.
P l1
= 24 24 12
⇒ T2 = 3/ 2 = = = 6 2h
Q l2 (2) 2 2 2
Now, if position of G and cell is interchanged,
34. (a) When the circuit is connected to AC source,
G
Voltage, V = 12V
Current, I = 0.2 A
P Q
V 12
⇒ Impedance Z = = = 60 Ω
I 0.2
When it is connected to DC source,
l1 l2 Voltage, V = 12V
The balance condition still remains the same if the jockey points Current, I = 0.4 A
as the same point as given in the initial condition, for which V 12
⇒ Resistance, R = = = 30 Ω
there is no deflection in the galvanometer or no current will be I 0.4
drawn from the cell. Thus, the bridge will work as usual and
As in case of DC supply, the capacitor act as an open circuit and
balance condition is same, P / Q = l1 / l 2
no current flows through the circuit. So the given circuit will
31. (b) Let BE be the net magnetic field at same point. H and V be not have capacitor in series combination. Therefore the circuit
should be a series LR circuit.
the horizontal and vertical components of BE . Let δ be the
angle of dip, which is the angle between direction of earth’s 35. (b) When a conducting disc or wheel of radius r rotates with
magnetic field BE and horizontal line in the magnetic constant angular velocity of ω about its axis in a uniform
meridian. magnetic field perpendicular to its plane and parallel to its
H axis of rotation, then,
δ
P
r=0.5m
BE
Thus, from figure, we can see that
H = BE cosδ and V = BE sinδ
Axis
32. (d) Given, half life T1 / 2 = 2.2 × 109 s 1
Induced emf is given by, e = Bωr 2 …(i)
Rate of disintegration, R = 1010 s−1 2
If N be the number of nuclei present, then the rate of Here, B = 01
. T, ω = 10 rad/s, r = 0.5 m
disintegration is Substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
dN 1 1
= λN (λ = decay constant) ∴ e = × 01 . × 10 × (0.5)2 = V = 0125. V
dt 2 8
24 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS NEET Solved Paper 2019
36. (a) The speed of any electromagnetic wave (EM) like light in The loss of energy due to redistribution of charge is given by
C1 C2
any medium of permeability, µ and permittivity, ε is given by ∆U = (V1 − V2)2
1 2(C1 + C2)
v=
µε C×C 1
= (V − 0)2 = CV 2 [QC1 = C2]
2(C + C) 4
Also, µ = µ 0µ r and ε = ε0 εr
where, µ 0 and ε0 are permeability and permittivity in free space 1
CV 2
and µ r and εr are relative permeability and relative permittivity ∆U
∴Percentage loss = × 100 = 4 × 100 = 50%
of medium respectively. U 1 2
CV
Here, µ r = 1.0 2
εr = 1.44 39. (c) As it is given that n divisions of vernier scale coincide
1 with (n − 1) divisions of main scale i.e.
∴ v=
µ r εr µ 0 ε0 n(VSD) = (n − 1) MSD
(n − 1)
c 1 ⇒ 1VSD = MSD …(i)
= Q c = n
µ r εr µ 0 ε0 The least count is the difference between one main scale
3 × 108 division (MSD) and one vernier scale division (VSD).
=
1 × 1.44 ∴Least Count (LC) = 1 MSD − 1VSD
(n − 1)
= 2.5 × 108 ms −1 = 1 MSD − MSD [From Eq. (i)]
n
(n − 1)
= 1 −
37. (b) When a sphere encloses a charged dipole, 1
MSD = MSD
n n
1
Here,1 MSD = cm
n
+q –q
1 1 1
⇒ LC = × cm = 2 cm
n n n
40. (b) For distance x, the person moves with constant velocity
v1 and for another x distance, he moves with constant
velocity of v2, then
Total distance travelled, D = x + x = 2x
Here, q = ± 3 × 10−6 C
Total time-taken, T = t1 + t2
Thus, according to Gauss’s law, the net electric flux across the
x x Distance
closed surface is equal to the net charge enclosed by it divided = + Q t = Velocity
by ε0 , i.e. v1 v2
q +3 × 10−6 − 3 × 10−6 total distance D
φE = in = =0 The average velocity, Vav = =
ε0 ε0 total time T
Hence, electric flux across the sphere is zero. 2x 2
v= = [Qvav = v]
x x 1 1
38. (c) When C1 is connected to voltage source, it is charged to a + +
v1 v2 v1 v2
potential V and this will be stored as a potential energy in the
capacitor given by 1 1 2
⇒ + =
1
U = CV 2 v1 v2 v
2
a k c 41. (b) The gravitational potential energy of an object placed at
earth’s surface is
b
GMm
V C2 U1 = − …(i)
C1 R
where, G = gravitational constant,
When key is disconnected from battery and b and c are M = Mass of earth, m = mass of object and
connected, the charge will be transformed from the capacitor C1 R = radius of the earth
to capacitor C2, The negative sign in the above relation indicates that it is the
then work done in bringing the object from infinity to a distance R.
a k c
The gravitational potential energy of object at a height h above
b the surface of earth is
GMm
V
C1
C2 U2 = − …(ii)
(R + h)
NEET Solved Paper 2019 40 DAYS ~ NEET PHYSICS 25
So, the change in potential energy is As slit width is constant, so using Eq. (i) for these values, we
GMm GMm get
∆U = U 2 − U1 = − − −
R+ h R θ0 λ
= 1 ⇒ λ 2 = λ1 × 0.7 = 6000 × 0.7 = 4200 Å
[From Eq. (i) and (ii)] 0.7θ0 λ 2
1 1 h 44. (d) The work function of material is given by
= − GMm − = − GMm −
(R + h) R R(R + h) φ = hν
…(i) Q ν =
hc c
=
GMmh φ=
R(R + h) λ λ
where, h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 J-s
42. (b) Given, mass of water, m = 1 g
c = speed of length = 3 × 108 ms −1 and
Volume of 1 g of water = 1 cm 3 = 10−6 m 3
Volume of 1 g of steam = 1671 cm3 = 1671 × 10−6 m3 λ = wavelength of light
Pressure, p = 1 × 10 Pa
5 Here, φ = 4 eV = 4 × 1.6 × 10−19 J
Latent heat of vaporization of water, L = 2256 J/g Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
Change in volume, ∆V = (1671 − 1) × 10−6 m3 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
⇒ 4 × 1.6 × 10−19 =
= 1670 × 10−6 m3 …(i) λ
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
Heat supplied, ∆Q = mL = 1 × 2256 = 2256 J …(ii) or λ=
4 × 1.6 × 10−19
As the steam expands, so the work done in expansion is
∆W = p∆V = 3108
. × 10−7 m ~
− 310 nm
= 1 × 105 × 1670 × 10−6 [from Eq. (i)]
45. (a) The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a charged
= 167 J …(iii)
particle is given by
According to first law of thermodynamics, h
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W λ=
p
⇒ ∆U = ∆Q − ∆W where, h = planck’s constant and
= 2256 − 167 [from Eq. (ii) and (iii)] p = momentum = 2mKE (here, KE is the kinetic energy of the
= 2089 J charged particle)
h
⇒ λ=
43. (b) The angular width of central maxima is given by 2mKE
2λ For proton and α-particle, the wavelengths are respectively
2θ = …(i)
a given as,
h h
where, λ = wavelength of light used λp = and λ α =
2mpKE p 2mαKE α
a = width of the slit
λp 2mαKE α
For λ1 = 6000Å, 2θ = θ0 (given) ∴ = …(i)
λα 2mPKE P
For another light of wavelength λ 2 (says), the angular width
Here, KE α = KE P and mα = 4mp
decreases by 30% so,
Substituting these above mentioned relations in Eq. (i), we get
100 − 30
2θ = θ λP 4mP 2
100 0 ⇒ = =
λα mp 1
70
= θ0 = 0.7θ0
100 or λP : λα = 2 :1
NEET
SOLVED PAPER 2020
1. The phase difference between displacement and 6. The average thermal energy for a monoatomic gas is
acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is (where, kB is Boltzmann constant and T is absolute
3π π temperature.)
(a) rad (b) rad
2 2 3 5
(a) kBT (b) kBT
(c) zero (d) π rad 2 2
7 1
(c) kBT (d) kBT
2. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns 2 2
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the
centre of solenoid is (Take, µ 0 = 4 π × 10 −7 T m A −1 ) 7. Find the torque about the origin when a force of 3 $j N
. × 10−4 T
(a) 314 acts on the particle whose position vector is 2 k$ m.
(b) 6.28 × 10−5 T (a) 6 $j N-m (b) − 6 $i N-m
−5
. × 10
(c) 314 T (c) 6 k$ N-m (d) 6 $i N-m
−4
(d) 6.28 × 10 T
8. The mean free path λ for a gas, with molecular
3. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends diameter d and number density n can be expressed as
of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley 1 1
(a) (b)
which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of 2 nπd 2 2 n2 πd 2
the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity g is 1 1
(c) (d)
2 n2 π 2d 2 2 nπd
235
13. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with a 20. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation
89 between coherent sources is halved and the distance of
neutron, it generates 36 Kr, three neutrons and
91
the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then
(a) 40 Zr (b) 101
36 Kr the fringe width becomes
103
(c) 36 Kr (d) 144
56 Ba (a) half (b) four times
−4 −1 (c) one-fourth (d) double
14. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10 ms
−10 −1
in an electric field of 3 × 10 Vm , has a mobility 21. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is
2 −1 −1
(in m V s ) of A
(a) 2.5 × 106 (b) 2.5 × 10−6 Y
(c) 2.25 × 10−15 (d) 2.25 × 1015 B
24. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 32. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A)
some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the and emerges normally from the opposite surface. lf the
tower is (g =10 m/s 2 ) refractive index of the material of the prism is µ, then
(a) 340 m (b) 320 m
the angle of incidence is nearly equal to
2A
(c) 300 m (d) 360 m (a) (b) µA
µ
25. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What µA A
is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half (c) (d)
2 2µ
of radius of the earth?
(a) 32 N (b) 30 N 33. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz AC
(c) 24 N (d) 48 N supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is,
26. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are nearly
attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m (a) 2.05 A (b) 2.5 A
with negligible mass. (c) 25.1 A (d) 1.7 A
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle 34. Dimensions of stress are
is nearly at a distance of (a) [ML2 T − 2 ] (b) [ML0 T − 2 ]
(a) 50 cm (b) 67 cm
(c) 80 cm (d) 33 cm (c) [ML−1T − 2 ] (d) [MLT − 2 ]
27. The increase in the width of the depletion region in a 35. The Brewster’s angle ib for an interface should be
p-n junction diode is due to (a) 30° < i b < 45°
(a) reverse bias only (b) 45° < i b < 90°
(b) both forward bias and reverse bias (c) i b = 90°
(c) increase in forward current (d) 0° < i b < 30°
(d) forward bias only
36. A wire of length L, area of cross-section A is hanging
28. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is
from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to
incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the
L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The
photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and
expression for Young’s modulus is
intensity is doubled?
Mg (L1 − L) MgL
(a) Four times (b) One-fourth (a) (b)
AL AL1
(c) Zero (d) Doubled
Mg L MgL1
(c) (d)
29. Assume that, light of wavelength 600 nm is coming A(L1 − L) AL
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose
objective has a diameter of 2 m is 37. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
. × 10
(a) 183 −7
rad (b) 7.32 × 10 −7
rad 16 × 10 −9 C-m. The electric potential due to the dipole
(c) 6.00 × 10−7 rad (d) 3.66 × 10−7 rad at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the
dipole, situated on a line making an angle of 60° with
30. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre 1
bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a the dipole axis is = 9 × 10 9 Nm 2 /C 2
4 πε 0
point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If
the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the (a) 200 V (b) 400 V
length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is (c) zero (d) 50 V
. × 10−1 m
(a) 10 . × 10−1 m
(b) 15 38. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material
. × 10−2 m
(c) 15 . × 10−2 m
(d) 10 are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency
2 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat
31. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm falls on a
frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be
surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy received by the surface
(a) 524 Hz
during time span of 1 min is
(b) 536 Hz
(a) 12 × 10 J
3
(b) 24 × 10 J
3
(c) 537 Hz
(c) 48 × 10 J
3
(d) 10 × 103 J (d) 523 Hz
4 NEET Solved Paper 2020
39. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential 43. Which of the following graph represents the variation
difference of V volt. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for copper?
electron is 1.227 × 10 −2 nm, the potential difference is
ρ ρ
(a) 102 V
(a) (b)
(b) 103 V
(c) 104 V
(d) 10 V T T
ρ ρ
40. The solids which have the negative temperature
coefficient of resistance are (c) (d)
(a) insulator only
(b) semiconductors only T T
(c) insulators and semiconductors 44. For transistor action, which of the following statements
(d) metals is correct?
−20 (a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.
41. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10
(b) Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are
J. This value (in eV) is nearly
forward biased.
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.06 (c) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(c) 0.006 (d) 6 (d) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same
dopping concentrations.
42. The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature
of two solid copper spheres of radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) 45. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
through 1 K are in the ratio valid?
9 3 (a) Singly ionised helium atom (He + )
(a) (b)
4 2 (b) Deuteron atom
5 27 (c) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne + )
(c) (d) (d) Hydrogen atom
3 8
Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c)
= µ 0 nI = µ 0 ⋅ I
N m 2g
l
NEET Solved Paper 2020 5
From the above free body diagram, the relation for Pitch of the screw gauge = least count ´ number of division
acceleration of the given system can be given as on circular scale
æ m - m1 ö æ6 - 4ö g = 0.01 ´ 50 = 0.5 mm
a=ç 2 ÷× g= ç ÷ ´ g= Hence, correct option is (b).
è m1 + m2 ø è4 + 6ø 5
Hence, correct option is (b). 11. (a) Since, the entire system is thermally insulated. Thus, their
will be no transfer of heat between the system and the
4. (d) We know that, surrounding. Hence, when the stop cock is suddenly opened,
E0 a sudden process of expansion will takes place with no heat
=c transfer. Thus, the given process will be adiabatic, as it is a
B0
process that occurs without transferring heat or mass
where, E 0 and B0 are the peak values of electric field and between a thermodynamic system and its surroundings.
magnetic field, respectively.
Hence, correct option is (a).
\ E0 : B 0 = c : 1
Hence, correct option is (d). 12. (a) Given, pressure p = 249 kPa = 249 ´ 103 Pa
Temperature, T = 27° C = 273 + 27 K = 300 K
5. (d) Given, volume, V = 0.2 m3
Density, r = ?
Electric potential = 5V = constant As, from ideal gas equation,
Electric field = ? pV = nRT
We know that, for constant electric potential the value of m é as n = m ù
Þ pV = RT êë
electric field is zero. M M úû
- dV - d(5) Þ pVM = mRT
i.e., E= = =0
dr dr m é as m = r ù
Þ pM = RT = rRT êë V úû
Hence, correct option is (d). V
pM 249 ´ 103 ´ 2 ´ 10-3
6. (a) The average thermal energy of a system with degree of Þ r= =
freedom f is equals to its average energy, which is given as RT 8.3 ´ 300
f [Qfor hydrogen gas, M = 2 g = 2 ´ 10-3 kg]
= kB × T
2 Þ r = 0.2kg/m 3
For monoatomic gas, f = 3 Hence, correct option is (a).
3
\ Average thermal energy = kB × T 13. (d) Here,
2 235
92 U + 10 n ¾® 89 1
36 Kr + Z X + 3 ( 0 n)
A
Hence, correct option is (a).
According to the law of conservation,
7. (b) Given, position vector, r = 2k$ m (Atomic number) Reactant = (Atomic number) Product
Force, F = 3$j N 92 + 0 = 36 + Z Þ Z = 92 - 36 = 56
As, torque, t = r ´ F = 2k$ ´ 3$j Similarly,
= 6(- $i) = - 6$i N-m (Atomic masses) Reactant = (Atomic masses) Product
235 + 1 = 89 + A + 3 ´ 1 Þ A = 144
Hence, correct option is (b).
\ Other element is 144
56 Ba.
8. (a) The mean free path l for a gas, with molecular diameter d
and number density n is given by the relation Hence, correct option is (d).
l=
1 14. (a) Given, drift velocity, vd = 7. 5 ´ 10-4 m/s
2 npd 2 Electric field, E = 3 ´ 10-10 V-m
Hence, correct option is (a). Mobility, m = ?
-3 vd 7. 5 ´ 10-4
9. (a) Given, m = 0. 5 g = 0. 5 ´ 10 kg As, m= =
E 3 ´ 10-10
Relation for energy equivalent of mass is
= 2.5 ´ 106 m2 V -1s -1
E = mc 2
Hence, correct option is (a).
where, c is speed of light.
= 0. 5 ´ 10-3 ´ (3 ´ 108) 2 15. (a) The difference between 9.99 m and 0.0099 m is
13 = 9.99 - 0.0099 = 9.9801 m
= 4.5 ´ 10 J
Taking significant figures into account, as both the values has
Hence, correct option is (a). two significant figures after decimal.
10. (b) Given, least count = 0.01 mm So, their difference will also have two significant figures after
decimal, i.e. 9.98 m.
Number of divisions on circular scale = 50
Hence, correct option is (a).
6 NEET Solved Paper 2020
19. (d) Relation for height of water in capillary tube is Hence, correct option is (d).
2S cos q 22. (c) According to the carbon color code for resistors,
h=
rgr Code of yellow = 4
1 Code of violet = 7
Þ hµ
r Code of brown, i.e. multiplier = 101
h1 r2 2r
Þ = = =2 Code of gold, i.e. tolerance = ± 5%
h2 r1 r
Hence, resistance of resistor = 47 ´ 101 W , 5%
As m = A × h×r
m2 Ah2r = 470 W , 5%
\ =
m1 Ah1r Hence, correct option is (c).
h2 1 23. (b) Given,C0 = 6mF
= =
h1 2 Cm = 30mF
m 5 \ As, dielectric constant
Þ m2 = 1 = = 2.5g
2 2 C 30
K = er = m = =5
Hence, correct option is (d). C0 6
NEET Solved Paper 2020 7
(c) B (d) B
r r
60º
6. A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 90° lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis
with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of
3. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, then the
which direction will it move? distance d (in cm) will be
(a) 25 (b) 15
(c) 50 (d) 30
8. Column I Gives certain physical terms associated with 13. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,
flow of current through a metallic conductor. when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken by
Column II Gives some mathematical relations a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at a
involving electrical quantities. Match Column I and room temperature same at 20°C, is
Column II with appropriate relations. 13 13
(a) t (b) t
10 5
Column I Column II 10 5
(c) t (d) t
A. Drift velocity 1. m 13 13
ne 2ρ
14. The number of photons per second on an average
B. Electrical resistivity 2. nevd emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
C. Relaxation period 3. eE τ
m 3.3 × 10 −3 W will be (h = 6.6 × 10 − 34 J-s)
E
(a) 1018 (b) 1017
D. Current density 4.
(c) 1016 (d) 1015
J
15. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
Codes frequency n, the frequency of its potential energy is
A B C D
(a) n (b) 2n
(a) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3n (d) 4n
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 1 4 2 16. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current
(d) 3 2 4 1 of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of
A 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular
9. A radioactive nucleus Z X undergoes spontaneous
distance between the electron and the conductor is
decay in the sequence 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the
Z X → Z − 1 B → Z − 3C →
A
Z − 2 D, where Z is the force experienced by the electron at that instant.
atomic number of element X . The possible decay Speed of Electron v=105 m/s
particles in the sequence are
(a) α, β − , β + (b) α, β + , β −
(c) β + , α, β − (d) β − , α, β + 20 cm
31. The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor 37. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
is the same as hole concentration in a p-type applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the
semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied output at the terminal?
across each of them. Compare the currents in them. t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
(a) Current in n-type = Current in p-type 5
(b) Current in p-type > Current in n-type A
0
(c) Current in n-type> Current in p-type
(d) No current will flow in p-type. current will only flow in n-type
5
B
32. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and 0
identify the correct answer.
(A) A Zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
used as a voltage regulator. 5
C
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 0
V to 0.3 V.
A
(a) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(b) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(c) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. B Y
36. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 39. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass
5 m/s 2 . At t = 4s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and
acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s? (Take, g = 10 m/s 2 ) another unknown mass m is suspended from the rod at
160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of m
(a) 20 m/s, 5 m/s 2 (b) 20 m/s, 0
such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s 2 )
(c) 20 2 m/s, 0 (d) 20 2 m/s,10 m/s 2
NEET Solved Paper 2021 5
40. A point object is placed at a distance of 44. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity
60 cm from a convex lens of focal length v = kve (k < 1) from the surface of the Earth.
30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the (Here, ve = escape velocity)
principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm The maximum height above the surface reached by the
from it, the final image would be formed at a distance particle is
2 2
of k k
(a) R (b) R
1 − k 1 + k
R2k Rk 2
(c) (d)
1+ k 1 − k2
48. From a circular ring of mass M and radius R, an arc 50. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment speed takes a time T to complete one revolution.
of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an If this particle were projected with the same speed at
axis passing through the centre of the ring and an angle θ to the horizontal, the maximum height
perpendicular to the plane of the ring is K times MR 2 . attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection θ is
Then, the value of K is then given by
3 7 1/ 2
(a) (b) gT 2
4 8 (a) θ = cos − 1 2
1 1 π R
(c) (d)
4 8 1/ 2
π2R
(b) θ = cos − 1 2
49. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are gT
placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding.
1/ 2
If R1 >> R2 , the mutual inductance M between them π2R
(c) θ = sin− 1 2
will be directly proportional to gT
R1 R2
(a) (b) 1/ 2
R2 R1 2gT 2
(d) θ = sin− 1 2
R12 R 22 π R
(c) (d)
R2 R1
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (d)
Answer with Explanations
1. (d) The given circuit diagram as shown below 3. (b) We know that, the direction of electric dipole moment is
from negative charge to positive charge.
L C R
40 V 10 V 40 V • •
p
+q –q E
E1 E2
V
Given,
VL = 40 V, VC = 10 V The strength of the electric field at + q is greater than that of - q
and VR = 40 V charge, i.e.| E1 | > | E 2 |.
The amplitude of the current flowing in the L-C-R series circuit, So, the net force on the dipole act towards the right side.
We know that, a system always moves to decrease in its
I 0 = 10 2 A …(i) potential energy.
We know that, rms current in the L-C-R series circuit, So, the given dipole move towards right side as its potential
energy will decreases.
I
Irms = 0
2 4. (a) Given, AC source voltage,
10 2 V = V0 sin wt …(i)
Þ Irms = [from Eq. (i)]
2 We know that,
Þ Irms = 10 A Q = CV …(ii)
\ Vrms = VR2 + (VL - VC) 2 Here, Q is the charge on the capacitor,
C is the capacitance of the capacitor,
Þ Vrms = (40)2 + (40 - 10)2
V is the AC source voltage.
Þ Vrms = 50 V On differentiate Eq. (ii) w.r.t. time, we get
The impedance of the L-C-R series circuit, dQ d(CV)
=
V 50 V dt dt
Z = rms Þ Z = or Z = 5W
Irms 10 A dQ Cd(V0 sin wt)
Þ = [from Eq. (i)]
dt dt
2. (a) Given, the refractive index of the glass, n2 = 3
dQ
The refractive index of the air, n1 = 1 Þ = CwV0 cos wt
dt
The path of ray incident on the prism is as shown below As we know, the displacement current,
dQ
Id = Þ I d = V0 w C cos wt
30º dt
r1
r2 5. (c) Magnetic field inside the conducting cylindrical cable,
e m0 I
B= r
60º 2pR2
Here, R is the radius of the cylindrical cable,
From the given figure, r1 = 0°
r is the distance from the axis of the cylinder,
As, A = r1 + r2
I is the current carrying in the cylindrical cable.
where, A is the angle of prism .
Þ Bµr
30° = 0° + r2 Þ r2 = 30°
\ The graph of magnetic field B with r is a straight line passing
Using the Snell's law, in glass and air interference, through origin.
n2 sin q2 = n1 sin q1 For a point outside the cylinder,
Þ n2 sin r2 = n1 sin e m I 1
B= 0 Þ Bµ
3 2pR R
Þ 3 sin 30° = 1 ´ sin e Þ sin e =
2 The graph of magnetic field (B) with r is a rectangular hyperbola
Þ sin e = sin 60° Þ e = 60° passing through the outer surface of the cylinder.
8 NEET Solved Paper 2021
\ The variation of the magnetic field B due to the cable with the Substituting in the Eq. (i), we get
distance r from the axis of the cylindrical cable is as shown in h
the figure. ld =
hc
2m æç ö÷
èlø
B Squaring both sides of the above equation, we get
h2 2mc ö
l2d = Þ l = æç 2
÷ ´ ld
hc è h ø
r=R r 2m æç ö÷
èlø
6. (b) Given, the focal length of convex lens A,
f1 = + 20 cm 8. (a) As we know that, the expression of the drift velocity,
The focal length of concave lens B, eE
vd = t
m
f2 = - 5 cm
Here, e is the electric charge,
The convex lens is the converging lens and the concave lens is
the diverging lens. E is the electric field,
d m is the mass of an electron,
t is the relaxation time.
Consider the conductor having length l, area of the
F cross-section A and the charge density n.
5 cm m
Electrical resistivity, r = 2
A ne t
20 cm B
Rearranging the above expression,
When the parallel beam of light passes through the convex m
lens, it converges at the focal point F and the distance between Relaxation period, t= 2
ne r
lens A to F point is 20 cm.
As we know that, the expression of current density,
Now, after emerging from the lens B, the beam is still parallel in
nature. So, the net focal length of the lens A and B will be I neAvd
J= = = nevd
infinite. A A
As we know, E E 1
Again, = = =r
1 1 1 d J sE s
= + - E
f f1 f f1 f2 \ Electrical resistivity, r =
J
1 1 1 d
Þ = - + The correct match is A® 3, B® 4, C® 1, D® 2.
¥ 20 5 20 ´ 5
3 d 9. (c) As we know that,
Þ =
20 20 ´ 5 In a-decay, the atomic number is decreased by 2 units.
or d = 3 ´ 5 = 15 cm X ZA ¾® A-4
+ 42He
Z - 2Y
7. (c) We know that, de-Broglie wavelength, In b + -decay, the atomic number is decreased by 1 unit.
h
ld = X ZA ¾® A 0
mv Z - 1Y + +1 e + n
Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons, In b - -decay, the atomic number is increased by 1 unit.
1 2 ´ KE 0
KE = mv2 Þ v = X ZA ¾® A
Z + 1Y + -1 e + n
2 m
From the above relations, the spontaneous decay given in
Here, m is the mass of photoelectrons. question can be written as
Substituting the value of v in de-Broglie
b
+
a b-
wavelength equation, we get X ZA ¾® Z - 1B ¾® Z - 3C ¾® Z - 2 D
h
ld = …. (i) The possible decay particles in the sequence are b + , a, b - .
2mKE
Since, work-function of photosensitive surface is negligible, 10. (d) The four resistances have equal length, equal
hence the kinetic energy of photoelectron is equal to the energy cross-sectional area and same material.
of the photon of electromagnetic wave, So, R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = R (say)
1 hc
KE = mv2 = Given, the effective resistance,
2 l
Req = 0.25 W
NEET Solved Paper 2021 9
4 2 1 æ e0 A ö 2
Þ vp = 2Gr ´ pRp U= ç ÷ (Ed) [Q from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
3 2è d ø
1 1
4 U = (e0 A)(E)2 d = e0 E 2 Ad
vp = 2Gr ´ p(4Re)2 (Q Rp = 4Re) 2 2
3
4
31. (c) Given, the electron concentration in n- type
vp = 4 2Gr ´ p(Re)2 …(ii) semiconductor is equal to the hole's concentration in p-type
3 semiconductor.
On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get When electric field is applied across the semiconductor, the
4 electrons and holes will move opposite to each other. The
4 2Gr ´ p(Re)2 mobility of n-type semiconductor is greater than mobility of
vp 3
= p-type semiconductor.
ve 4
2Gr ´ pR2e So, the current in the n-type semiconductor is greater than
3 current in the p-type semiconductor.
Þ vp = 4ve = 4v
32. (c) Zener diode is a type of special p-n junction diode that
28. (a) Given, length of balancing point, L1 = 36 cm operates in reverse bias. Thus, it is used as a voltage regulator.
So, the statement (A) is correct.
E1 =1.5V The potential barrier of p-n junction for silicon is 0.6-0.7 V and
E 2 = 2.5V for germanium is 0.2-0.35 V.
We know that, So, the statement (B) is incorrect.
E
Potential gradient = 33. (d) In polar molecules, the positive charge and negative
L charge do not overlap each other. So, the total charge on the
E1 E 2 polar molecule is zero. Thus, these types of molecules have
Q = permanent electric dipole moment. e.g. Water is polar
L1 L2
molecule.
where, L2 is the length of the balancing point for cell of emf E 2.
34. (a) The dimensions of energy [E] = [F]× [d]
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get
1.5 2.5 Þ [E] = [MLT-2] [L] Þ [E] = [ML2T-2]
= Þ L2 = 60 cm
36 L2 As we know that, the expression of gravitational force,
Therefore, in the y-direction, the acceleration is equal to the The velocity with which the ball just reaches to the same
acceleration due to gravity, height,
a y = g = 10 m/s2 v2 = 2gh
Þ v2 = 210
( )(10)
The velocity of the ball in the y-direction,
vy = u + a yt Þ v y = 0 + 10 ´ 2 Þ v2 = 10 2 m/s
Let's draw the ray diagram of the convex lens and mirror. æ $i $j k$ ö
ç ÷
$ $ $
4 i - 20 j + 12k = ç 2 4 6÷
çç ÷
èB B B0 ÷ø
O1 I2 I1 $ = $i(4B - 6B) - $j(2B - 6B) + k
$ (2B - 4B)
Þ 4$i - 20$j + 12k 0 0
As we know, 1 1 k2
Þ = -
R+ h R R
F = q (v ´ B)
Here, q = 1 (given) R
Þ =R+ h
1 - k2
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get
$ = ()[( $ ) ´ (B$i + B$j + B k
$ )] R
4$i - 20$j + 12k 1 2$i + 4$j + 6k 0 Þ h= -R
1 - k2
NEET Solved Paper 2021 15
Now, the moment of inertia of the remaining part, Thus, the mutual inductance is directly proportional to the
MR 2 R22
I ¢ ¢ = I - I ¢ = MR2 - .
4 R1
3MR2 50. (d) Given, the radius of the circular path = R
Þ I¢ ¢ =
4 The time taken by the particle to complete one revolution = T
Comparing with I ¢ ¢ = KMR2 When the particle is projected with the same speed (by which it
The value of K = 3/ 4 × is moving in circular orbit) at angle q to the horizontal, the
maximum height attained it is given as
49. (d) Since, both conducting circular loops are in same plane
u2 sin2 q
and their centres are coinciding. Hmax = …(i)
2g
Hence, magnetic flux,f = Mi …(i)
Here, M is the mutual inductance. Hmax = 4R (given)
Also, the magnetic flux, f = BA Also, we know that,
Here, B is the magnetic field and 2pR
speed of the particle in circular path, u =
T
A (= pR22) is the area of the inner circular loop.
Substituting the values in the Eq. (i), we get
If the current passing through the outer loop is i, then the 2
magnetic field, æ 2pR ö sin2 q
ç ÷
è ø
m i 4R = T
B= 0 2g
2R1
1/ 2
m0 i æ 2gT 2 ö
Magnetic flux, f = BA Þ f = pR22 …(ii) Þ sin q = ç 2 ÷
2R1 èp Rø
Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 1/ 2
æ 2gT 2 ö
m Þ q = sin-1 ç 2 ÷
M = 0 pR22 èp Rø
2R1
EXAM BITES
This Pdf Is
Downloaded From
www.exambites.in
VISIT NOW !!