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 Contents
• Latest Revised Syllabus for Academic Year (2021-2022) i–iii
(Issued by CBSE on 28-07-2021)

• CBSE Sample Paper 2021-22 with solutions SQP 2021-2022 – 1-10

(Issued by CBSE on 02-09-2021)

• Objective Questions and Solutions  SQP 2020-2021 – 1-4

CBSE Sample Paper 2020-21

• Objective Questions and Solutions  SP 2020 – 1-2

All India CBSE Board 2020 Solved Paper

• Objective Questions and Solutions  QB 2021 – 1-10

CBSE Questions Bank

10 Sample Papers with OMR Answer Sheets

• Sample Paper-1 SP-1-SP-6

• Sample Paper-2 SP-7-SP-14

• Sample Paper-3 SP-15-SP-22

• Sample Paper-4 SP-23-SP-30

• Sample Paper-5 SP-31-SP-38

• Sample Paper-6 SP-39-SP-46

• Sample Paper-7 SP-47-SP-54

• Sample Paper-8 SP-55-SP-62

• Sample Paper-9 SP-63-SP-70

• Sample Paper-10 SP-71-SP-78

SOLUTIONS TO SAMPLE PAPERS 1-10 S-1-S-32

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 EBD_7358
Note for Students
Dear Aspirants,

All sample papers of Disha’s “Super-10 Mock Test”, Class-12, Chemistry are as per latest CBSE SAMPLE
PAPER 2021-22 issued by CBSE on 02nd September, 2021

Each SAMPLE PAPER contains

• Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

• Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

• Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.

Marking Scheme

• Each question carries equal marks i.e., 35/40 = 0.87.

• There is no negative marking.

• If total marks scored by a candidate is in fraction, then the same will be rounded off to the next higher
numerical number, for example, if the child gets 16.1 marks then the total marks will be rounded off
to 17 and so on.
All SAMPLE PAPERS based on Revised Academic curriculum for the session 2021-22 issued by CBSE
on 28th July, 2021

For detailed revised CBSE Syllabus & Latest SAMPLE PAPERS, visit

http://www.cbseacademic.nic.in/Term-wise-curriculum_2022.html

http://www.cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/SQP/ClassXII_2021_22/Chemistry-SQP.pdf

All the best

Disha Experts

(4)
 Latest Revised Syllabus Issued by CBSE
for Academic Year (2021-2022)
CHEMISTRY (Code no. 043)
Term-I

S.NO. UNIT Periods MARKS

1 Solid State 8 10
2 Solutions 8
3 p-Block Elements 7 10
4 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9 15
5 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 9
6 Biomolecules 8
Total 49 35

Solid State
Classification of solids based on different binding forces: molecular, ionic, covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline
solids (elementary idea). Unit cell in two dimensional and three dimensional lattices, calculation of density of unit cell, packing
in solids, packing efficiency, voids, number of atoms per unit cell in a cubic unit cell, point defects.
Electrical and magnetic properties. Band theory of metals, conductors, semiconductors and insulators and n and
 p type semiconductors

Solutions
Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in liquids, solubility of gases in liquids, solid solutions,
colligative properties - relative lowering of vapour pressure, Raoult’s law, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing point,
osmotic pressure, determination of molecular masses using colligative properties.
 Abnormal molecular mass, Van’t Hoff factor

Some p -Block Elements

Group -15 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, oxidation states, trends in physical and chemical
properties; Nitrogen preparation properties and uses; compounds of Nitrogen, preparation and properties of Ammonia and Nitric
Acid, Oxides of Nitrogen(Structure only) ; Phosphorus - allotropic forms, compounds of Phosphorus: Preparation and Properties
of Phosphine, Halides and Oxoacids (elementary idea only).
Group 16 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical
properties, dioxygen: Preparation, Properties and uses, classification of Oxides, Ozone, Sulphur -allotropic forms; compounds of
Sulphur: Preparation Properties and uses of Sulphur-dioxide, Sulphuric Acid: properties and uses; Oxoacids of Sulphur (Structures
only).
 Industrial process of manufacture of sulphuric acid
Group 17 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical
properties; compounds of halogens, Preparation, properties and uses of Chlorine and Hydrochloric acid, interhalogen compounds,
Oxoacids of halogens (structures only).
Group 18 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties, uses.

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Haloalkanes: Nomenclature, nature of C-X bond, physical and chemical properties, mechanism of substitution reactions.
Haloarenes: Nature of C-X bond, substitution reactions (Directive influence of halogen in monosubstituted compounds only).
Optical rotation; Uses and environmental effects of - dichloromethane, trichloromethane, tetrachloromethane,
 iodoform, freons, DDT
(i)
 EBD_7358
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Alcohols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties (of primary alcohols only), identification of
primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols, mechanism of dehydration.
Phenols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, acidic nature of phenol, electrophillic substitution
reactions, uses of phenols.
Ethers: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses.
 Uses with special reference to methanol and ethanol

Biomolecules
Carbohydrates: Classification (aldoses and ketoses), monosaccahrides (glucose and fructose), D-L configuration.
Proteins: Elementary idea of - amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides, proteins, structure of proteins - primary, secondary,
tertiary structure and quaternary structures (qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins; enzymes.
Nucleic Acids: DNA and RNA.
Oligosaccharides (sucrose, lactose, maltose), polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen); Importance of carbohydrates; Hormones
 - Elementary idea excluding structure; Vitamins - Classification and functions

CHEMISTRY (Code no. 043)

Term-II

S.NO. UNIT Periods MARKS

1 Electrochemistry 7
2 Chemical Kinetics 5 13
3 Surface Chemistry 5
4 d-and f-Block Elements 7
9
5 Coordination Compounds 8
6 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 10
13
Amines 7
Total 49 35

Electrochemistry
Redox reactions, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivity, variations of conductivity with concentration,
Kohlrausch’s Law, electrolysis and law of electrolysis (elementary idea), EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential, Nernst
equation and its application to chemical cells, Relation between Gibbs energy change and EMF of a cell.
 Dry cell-electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells, lead accumulator; Fuel cells, corrosion

Chemical Kinetics
Rate of a reaction (Average and instantaneous), factors affecting rate of reaction: concentration, temperature, catalyst; order and
molecularity of a reaction, rate law and specific rate constant, integrated rate equations and half-life (only for zero and first order
reactions).
 Concept of collision theory (elementary idea, no mathematical treatment). Activation energy, Arrhenious equation

Unit V: Surface Chemistry

Adsorption: physisorption and chemisorption, factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids, colloidal state distinction between
true solutions, colloids and suspension; lyophilic, lyophobic multi-molecular and macromolecular colloids; properties of colloids;
Tyndall effect, Brownian movement, electrophoresis, coagulation.
 Catalysis, homogenous and heterogenous activity and selectivity; enzyme catalysis; Emulsion - types of emulsions

(ii)
“d” and “f” Block Elements
General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence and characteristics of transition metals, general trends in properties
of the first row transition metals - metallic character, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states, ionic radii, colour, catalytic property,
magnetic properties, interstitial compounds, alloy formation.
Lanthanoids: Electronic configuration, oxidation states, chemical reactivity and lanthanoid contraction and its consequences.
Preparation and properties of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4, Actinoids - Electronic configuration, oxidation states and
 comparison with lanthanoids.

Unit IX: Coordination Compounds

Coordination compounds - Introduction, ligands, coordination number, colour, magnetic properties and shapes, IUPAC nomenclature
of mononuclear coordination compounds. Bonding, Werner’s theory, VBT, and CFT.
Structure and stereoisomerism, importance of coordination compounds (in qualitative inclusion, extraction of
 metals and biological system)

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Aldehydes and Ketones: Nomenclature, nature of carbonyl group, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties,
mechanism of nucleophilic addition, reactivity of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes, uses.
Carboxylic Acids: Nomenclature, acidic nature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties; uses.

Amines
Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses, identification
of primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Cyanides and Isocyanides - will be mentioned at relevant places in text; Diazonium salts: Preparation, chemical
 reactions and importance in synthetic organic chemistry

Note: Topics/Chapters/units in the boxes are not in the syllabus for the academic year 2021-22.
(iii)
(iv)
EBD_7358
 CBSE Sample Paper 2021-2022
with Solutions (Term-1)
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A

This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Which of the following statements is true:
(a) Melting point of Phosphorous is less than that of Nitrogen
(b) N2 is highly reactive while P4 is inert
(c) Nitrogen shows higher tendency of catenation than P
(d) N-N is weaker than P-P
2. Which of the following is a non-stoichiometric defect?
(a) Frenkel defect (b) Schottky defect (c) metal deficiency defect (d) interstitial defect
3. Identify the law which is stated as:
“For any solution, the partial vapour pressure of each volatile component in the solution is directly proportional to its mole
fraction.”
(a) Henry’s law (b) Raoult’s law (c) Dalton’s law (d) Gay-Lussac's Law
4. Pink colour of LiCl crystals is due to:
(a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect (c) Metal excess defect (d) Metal deficiency defect
5. Which of the following isomer has the highest meltingpoint:
(a) 1,2-dichlorobenzene (b) 1,3 -dichlorobenzene
(c) 1,4-dichlorobenzene (d) all isomers have same melting points
6. Which one of the following reactions is not explained by the open chain Structure of glucose:
(a) Formation of pentaacetate of glucose with acetic anhydride.
(b) formation of addition product with 2,4 DNP reagent.
(c) Silver mirror formation with Tollen’s reagent.
(d) existence of alpha and beta forms of glucose.
7. Williamson’s synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is an:
(a) SN1 reaction (b) Elimination reaction
(c) SN2 reaction (d) Nucleophilic addition reaction
8. Chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing because:
(a) HCl gas is produced, due to the action of sunlight.
(b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the presence of light.
(c) HOCl and hydrogen gas is produced.
(d) a mixture of HCl and ClO3 is produced, due to the action of sunlight.
 EBD_7358
SQP 21-22-2 Chemistry

9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with concentrated H2SO4, the initiation step is:
(a) protonation of alcohol molecule (b) formation of carbocation
(c) elimination of water (d) formation of an ester
10. Amorphous solids are:
(a) isotropic (b) anisotropic (c) isotopic (d) isomeric
11. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare salicylaldehyde?
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Etard reaction
(c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (d) Stephen’s reduction.
12. Which of the following is an example of a solid solution?
(a) sea water (b) sugar solution (c) smoke (d) 22 carat gold
13. The boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of hydrocarbons of comparable masses due to:
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Ion – dipole interaction
(c) Dipole-dipole interaction (d) Van der Waal’s forces.
14. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point:
(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
15. Which of the following statement is correct:
(a) Fibrous proteins are generally soluble in water
(b) Albumin is an example of fibrous proteins
(c) In fibrous proteins, the structure is stabilised by hydrogen bonds and disulphide bonds
(d) pH does not affect the primary structure of protein.
16. Major product obtained on reaction of 3-Phenyl propene with HBr in presence of organic peroxide :
(a) 3- Phenyl 1-bromopropane (b) 1-Phenyl-3-bromopropane
(c) 1-Phenyl-2-bromopropane (d) 3-Phenyl-2-bromopropane
17. Which of the following is a correct statement for C2H5Br?
(a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane.
(b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous solution of AgNO2
(c) It gives C2H5OH on boiling with alcoholic potash.
(d) It forms diethylthioether on heating with alcoholic KSH.
18. Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
19. Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise in temperature because dissolution is an:
(a) endothermic and reversible process
(b) exothermic and reversible process
(c) endothermic and irreversible process
(d) exothermic and irreversible process
20. All elements of Group 15 show allotropy except:
(a) Nitrogen (b) Arsenic (c) Antimony (d) Bismuth
21. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
(a) glucose (b) maltose (c) glycogen (d) lactose
22. Substance having the lowest boiling point:
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Nitrogen (d) Helium
23. Lower molecular mass alcohols are:
(a) miscible in limited amount of water (b) miscible in excess of water
(c) miscible in water in all proportions (d) immiscible in water
24. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Chlorine is:
(a) +1 (b) +3 (c) +5 (d) +7
25. In which of the following cases blood cells will shrink:
(a) when placed in water containing more than 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution.
(b) when placed in water containing less than 0.9% (mass /volume) NaCl solution.
(c) when placed in water containing 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution.
(d) when placed in distilled water.
 CBSE Sample Paper 2021-2022 SQP 21-22-3

SECTION-B

This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. How much ethyl alcohol must be added to 1 litre of water so that the solution will freeze at –14°C?
(Kf for water = 1.86°C/mol)
(a) 7.5 mol (b) 8.5 mol (c) 9.5 mol (d) 10.5 mol
27. Which reagents are required for one step conversion of chlorobenzene to toluene?
(a) CH3Cl / AlCl3 (b) CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether
(c) CH3Cl / Fe dark (d) NaNO2 / HCl / 0-5°C
28. On partial hydrolysis, XeF6 gives:
(a) XeO3 + 4HF (b) XeO2F + HF (c) XeOF4 + H2 (d) XeO2F2 + 4HF
29. Which one of the following statement is correct about sucrose:
(a) It can reduce tollen’s reagent however cannot reduce fehling’s reagent
(b) It undergoes mutarotation like glucose and fructose
(c) It undergoes inversion in the configuration on hydrolysis
(d) It is laevorotatory in nature .
30. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction easily due to:
(a) acidic nature of phenol
(b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond
(c) partial double bond character of C-C bond
(d) instability of phenoxide ion
31. Which of the following has highest ionisation enthalpy?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus (c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur
1 1
32. Metal M ions form a ccp structure. Oxide ions occupy octahedral and tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the oxide?
2 2
(a) MO (b) MO2 (c) MO3 (d) M2O3
33. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives ‘X’ while that of toluene with Cl2 in presence of light gives ‘Y’.
Thus ‘X’ and ‘Y’are:
(a) X = benzyl chloride Y = o and p – chlorotoluene
(b) X = m – chlorotoluene Y = p – chlorotoluene
(c) X = o and p–chlorotoluene Y = trichloromethylbenzene
(d) X= benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene
34. Ozone is a/ an __________ molecule and the two O-O bond lengths in ozone are (i)_______and (ii) ________
(a) linear ,110pm; 148pm (b) angular, 110pm; 148pm
(c) linear, 128pm; 128pm (d) angular, 128pm; 128pm
35. Water retention or puffiness due to high salt intake occurs due to:
(a) diffusion (b) vapour pressure difference
(c) osmosis (d) reverse osmosis
36. In the following reaction, identify A and B:
Acetic anhydride
C6H12O6 A
Conc.nitric acid

B
(a) A = COOH – (CH2)4 – COOH, B = OHC –(CHOCOCH3)4 – CH2OCOCH3
(b) A = COOH – (CH2)4 – CHO, B = OHC – (CHOCOCH3)4 – CH2OCOCH3
(c) A = OHC – (CHOCOCH3)3 – CH2OCOCH3, B = COOH – (CH2)4 – CHO
(d) A = OHC – (CHOCOCH3)4 – CH2OCOCH3, B = COOH – (CH2)4 – COOH
37. In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of coloured ‘floating lake’. It is due to:
(a) Absorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]–
(b) Absorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
(c) Adsorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]–
(d) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
 EBD_7358
SQP 21-22-4 Chemistry

38. A unit cell of NaCl has 4 formula units. Its edge length is 0.50 nm. Calculate the density if molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g/mol.
(a) 1 g/cm3 (b) 2 g/cm3 (c) 3 g/cm3 (d) 4g/cm3
39. Which one of the following are correctly arranged on the basis of the property indicated:
(a) I2 < Br2 < F2 < Cl2 [increasing bond dissociation enthalpy]
(b) H2O > H2S < H2Te < H2Se [ increasing acidic strength]
(c) NH3 < N2O < NH2OH < N2O5 [ increasing oxidation state]
(d) BiH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3 [ increasing bondangle]
40. What would be the reactant and reagent used to obtain 2, 4-dimethyl pentan-3-ol?
(a) Propanal and propyl magnesium bromide
(b) 3-methylbutanal and 2-methyl magnesium iodide
(c) 2-dimethylpropanone and methyl magnesium iodide
(d) 2-methylpropanal and isopropyl magnesium iodide
41. o-hydroxy benzyl alcohol when reacted with PCl3 gives the praduct as (IUPAC name)
(a) o- hydroxy benzyl chloride
(b) 2-chloromethylphenol
(c) o-chloromethylchlorobenzene
(d) 4-hydroxymethylphenol
42. Which of the following statements is true:
(a) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
(b) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent as well as the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
(c) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent as well as the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.
(d) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent and the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.
43. Identify the secondary alcohols from the following set:
(i) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (ii) (C2H5)3COH

OH
OH
(iii) (iv) CH3

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
44. Alkenes decolourise bromine water in presence of CCl 4 due to formation of :
(a) allyl bromide (b) vinyl bromide (c) bromoform (d) vicinal dibromide
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
45. Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of Flourine but greater than Nitrogen.
Reason (R): Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order Nitrogen > Oxygen > Fluorine
46. Assertion (A): Alkyl halides are insoluble in water.
Reason (R): Alkyl halides have halogen attached to sp3 hybrid carbon.
47. Assertion (A): Molarity of a solution changes with temperature.
Reason (R): Molarity is a colligative property.
48. Assertion (A): SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an oxidising agent.
Reason (R): Reducing property of dioxide decreases from SO2 to TeO2.
49. Assertion (A): Cryoscopic constant depends on nature of solvent.
Reason (R): Cryoscopic constant is a universal constant.
 CBSE Sample Paper 2021-2022 SQP 21-22-5

SECTION-C

This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the following:

I II
(i) Amino acids (A) Protein
(ii) Thymine (B) Nucleic acid
(iii) Insulin (C) DNA
(iv) Phosphodiester linkage (D) Zwitter ion
(v) Uracil

Which of the following is the best matched options?

(a) (i) – A; (v) – D; (iii) – C; (iv) – B
(b) (i) – D; (ii) – C; (iii) – A; (iv) – B
(c) (i) – D; (v) – D; (iii) – A; (iv) – B
(d) (i) – A; (ii) – C; (iii) – D; (iv) – B
51. Which of the following analogies is correct:
(a) Nitrogen: 1s22s22p3 : : Argon: 1s22s22p6
(b) Carbon: maximum compounds :: Xenon: no compounds
(c) XeF2 : Linear : : ClF3: Trigonal planar
(d) Helium: meteorological observations : : Argon: metallurgical processes
52. Complete the following analogy:
Same molecular formula but different structures: A : : Non superimposable mirror images: B
(a) A : Isomers : : B : Enantiomer (b) A : Enantiomers : : B : Racemic mixture
(c) A : Sterioisomers : : B : Retention (d) A : Isomers : : B : Sterioisomers
Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.
Early crystallographers had trouble solving the structures of inorganic solids using X-ray diffraction because some of the
mathematical tools for analyzing the data had not yet been developed. Once a trial structure was proposed, it was relatively easy
to calculate the diffraction pattern, but it was difficult to go the other way (from the diffraction pattern to the structure) if nothing
was known a priori about the arrangement of atoms in the unit cell. It was important to develop some guidelines for guessing the
coordination numbers and bonding geometries of atoms in crystals. The first such rules were proposed by Linus Pauling, who
considered how one might pack together oppositely charged spheres of different radii. Pauling proposed from geometric
considerations that the quality of the “fit” depended on the radius ratio of the anion and the cation.
If the anion is considered as the packing atom in the crystal, then the smaller cation fills interstitial sites (“holes”). Cations will find
arrangements in which they can contact the largest number of anions. If the cation can touch all of its nearest neighbour anions then
the fit is good. If the cation is too small for a given site, that coordination number will be unstable and it will prefer a lower coordination
structure. The table below gives the ranges of cation/anion radius ratios that give the best fit for a given coordination geometry.
Coordination number Geometry = rcation /ranion
2 linear 0-0.155
3 triangular 0.155-0.225
4 tetrahedral 0.225-0.414
4 square planar 0.414-0.732
6 octahedral 0.414-0.732
8 cubic 0.732-1.0
12 cuboctahedral 1.0
(Source: Ionic Radii and Radius Ratios. (2021, June 8). Retrieved June 29, 2021, from https://chem.libretexts.org/@go/page/183346)
 EBD_7358
SQP 21-22-6 Chemistry

53. The radius of Ag+ ion is 126pm and of I– ion is 216pm. The coordination number of Ag+ ion is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 8
54. A solid AB has square planar structure. If the radius of cation A is 120pm, calculate the maximum possible value of anion B–
+

(a) 240 pm (b) 270 pm (c) 280 pm (d) 290 pm

55. A “good fit” is considered to be one where the cation can touch:
(a) all of its nearest neighbour anions.
(b) most of its nearest neighbour anions.
(c) some of its nearest neighbour anions.
(d) none of its nearest neighbour anions.
1. (d) N-N is weaker than P-P;
(a) Phosphorus has a higher melting point due to bigger size than Nitrogen.
(b) Nitrogen is inert due to formation of triple bonds and has a lower covalence due to non- availability of d-orbitals.
(c) Since nitrogen atom is smaller there is greater repulsion of electron density between two nitrogen atoms, thereby
weakening the N-N bond. Hence, Nitrogen shows lesser tendency of catenation than phosphorus.
2. (c) Metal deficiency defect (cation is missing from lattice site); in Frenkel defect the smaller ion occupies the interstitial
sites and Schottky defect equal number of cations and anions are missing. Interstitial defect an atom or molecule occupies
interstitial sites so in these three defects the ratio of positive and negative ions (Stoichiometry) of a solid is not disturbed.
3. (b)
4. (c) Pink colour of LiCl crystal is due to metal excess defect and formation of anionic vacancies (F-Centre).
5. (c) 1,4-dicholorbenzene (para isomers are more symmetric than ortho and meta isomers)
6. (d) Glucose is found to exist in two different crystalline forms which are named as and which can not be explained by
open chain structure of glucose.
7. (c) Reaction since alkoxide ion reacts with primary alkyl halide in a single step to form ether. Hence, it is SN2 reaction.
8. (b) Chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing because in the presence of light a mixture of hypochlorous acid
(HOCl) and hydrochloric acid are fomed.
H2O + Cl2 HOCl + HCl
9. (a) Protonation of alcohol molecule
Step 1: Formation of protonated alcohol
H H H H H
| | | | |
•• Fast
H – C – C – O – H + H+ H – C – C – O+ – H
| | •• | | ••
H H H H
Ethanol Protonated alcohol
(Ethyl oxonium ion)

Step 2: Formation of carbocation: It is the slowest step and hence, the rate determining step of the reaction.
H H H H H
| | | Slow
| |
H – C – C – O+ – H H – C – C + – H2O
| | •• | |
H H H H
Step 3: Formation of ethene by elimination of a proton.
H H
| | H
H–C–C + C=C + H+
| | H
H H Ethene
10. (a) The value of any physical property of amorphous solids is same along any direction. Hence, amorphous solids are
isotropic.
11. (c) Kolbe’s reaction is used to prepare salicylic acid, Etard reaction for benzaldehyde, Reimer- Tiemann reaction for
salicylaldehyde and Stephen’s reduction for aldehyde.
12. (d) 22 carat gold (it is an alloy so solid in solid solution)
13. (a) Alcohols form intermolecular hydrogen bonds due to which their b.pt. is high.
14. (b) Boiling point increases down the group but water forms strong hydrogen bonds so it has higher boiling point than
H2S.
15. (d) pH does not affect the primary structure of protein while pH affects the tertiary structure.
 EBD_7358
SQP 21-22-8 Chemistry

Organic peroxide
16. (b) C6H5CH2CH = CH2 + HBr
Anti Markovnikov’s
Addition
C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br
1-bromo-3-phenylpropane

17. (b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous solution of AgNO2.

(C2H5Br reacts with metallic Na to give butane, gives ethene on boiling with alcoholic potash and forms C2H5SH (thiol) on
heating with alcoholic KSH)
18. (c) Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to 4 due to non availability of d-orbitals.
19. (b) Exothermic and reversible process (according to Le -Chatlier principle Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise
in temperature)
20. (a) Nitrogen does not show allotropy due to small size and high electronegativity as N-N is weak.
21. (c) Glycogen (It is a polymer of glucose)
22. (d) Helium is monoatomic and has low atomic mass.
23. (c) Miscible in water in all proportions. Lower molecular mass alcohols are able to form hydrogen bonds with water
24. (d) (Cl : 1s22s22p63s23p5)
3rd
excited
state : ns1 np3 nd 3
(7 unpaired electrons account for +7 oxidation state)
25. (a) When placed in water containing more than 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution because fluid inside blood cells is
isotonic with 0.9% NaCl solution.
26. (a) 7.5 mol
Tf = Kf m
n2 1000
Tf Kf
w1

n2 1000
14 1 .86
1000
n2 = 7.5 mol

Cl CH3

Ether
27. (b) + Na + CH3Cl Wurtz
fittig rxn
Chlorobenzene Toluene
28. (d) XeF4 + H2O XeO2F2 + 4HF
29. (c) It undergoes inversion in the configuration on hydrolysis.
30. (b) Due to partial double bond character of C–OH bond.
31. (a) High IE of N is because of smallest size in the group and have stable half - filled p subshell.
32. (d) Metal M ions form ccp structure. Let number of ions of M be : X
No. of tetrahedral voids = 2x
No. of octahedral voids = x
1 1 3
Number of oxide ions will be x (2x)
2 2 2x
MxO3
Formula of oxide M 2 O3
2x
33. (c) The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives ‘X’ due to electrophilic substitution reaction taking place at
ortho and para positions and reaction in the presence of light gives ‘Y’, due to substitution reaction occurring via free
radical mechanism.
Thus X = o and p–chlorotoluene Y = trichloromethylbenzene
 CBSE Sample Paper 2021-2022 Solutions SQP 21-22-9

CH3 CH3 CH3

Cl
FeCl3
+ Cl2 +

Cl
o-chlorotoluene p-chlorotoluene

X
CH3
CCl3
h
+ Cl2

Y
34. (d) angular, 128pm; 128pm (Ozone is a resonance hybrid of two equivalent structures)
35. (c) Osmosis
36. (d) A = OHC – (CHOCOCH3)4 – CH2OCOCH3
B = COOH – (CH2)4 – COOH
CHO COOH
| |
HNO3
(CHOH)4 (CHOH)4
| |
CH2OH COOH
Glucose Saccharic acid

CHO CHO
| |
(CHOH)4 + 5(CH3CH) 2O (CHOCOCH3)4 + 5CH3COOH
Acetic anhydride O
||
CH2OH CH2O – C – CH3
Glucose Glucose penta acetate

37. (d) In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of coloured ‘floating lake’ due to adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3.
38. (c) 3 g/cm3
Using formula

(Z M)
Density
(a 3 Na)

4 58.5
D 3.1 g / cm3
–7 3
(0.5 10 ) 6.023 10 23

39. (d) BiH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3 [increasing bond angle] correct order
(a) I2 < Br2 < F2 < Cl2 [increasing bond dissociation enthalpy]: incorrect order , correct order is Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I2.
(b) H2O > H2S < H2Te < H2Se [increasing acidic strength]: incorrect order , correct order is
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(c) NH3 < N2O < NH2OH < N2O5 [increasing oxidation state]: incorrect order NH3 (Oxidation state-3) N2O (Oxidation state +1)
NH2OH(Oxidation state-1) N2O5 (Oxidation state + 5)
H H H
| | H2O |
40. (d) CH3 – CH – C = O + (CH3)2CHMgI (CH )
3 2 CH – C – OMgI (CH3)2CH – C – OH
| Isopropyl magnesium iodide | |
CH3 CH(CH3)2 CH(CH3)2
2-Methylpropanal 2, 4-Dimethylpentan-3-ol
 EBD_7358
SQP 21-22-10 Chemistry

CH2OH CH2Cl
OH OH
41. (b) + PCl5

2-chloromethylphenol

42. (a) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
The reducing character of hydrides increases down the group due to decrease in bond dissociation enthalpy.
43. (a)
(i) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (secondary)
(ii) (C2H5)3COH (tertiary)
OH
(iii) (Phenol not an alcohol)

OH

(iv) CH3 (secondary)

44. (d) CH2 = CH2 + Br2 BrCH2 – CH2Br

vicinal dibromide
45. (c) Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of Flourine but greater than Nitrogen.
Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order: Fluorine >Nitrogen > Oxygen
46. (b) Alkyl halides are insoluble in water.
Alkyl halides have halogen attached to sp3 hybrid carbon.
Alkyl halides are insoluble in water because they are unable to form hydrogen bonds with water or break pre-existing
hydrogen bonds.
47. (c) Molarity of a solution changes with temperature.
Molarity is not a colligative property.
Molarity is a means to express concentration. It is not a physical property.
48. (a) SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an oxidising agent and reducing property of dioxide decreases from SO2 to TeO2 .
49. (c) Cryoscopic constant depends on nature of solvent.
Cryoscopic constant is not a universal constant.
Cryoscopic constant varies with type of solvent.
50. (b) i-D, ii-C, iii- A, iv-B
Amino acids form proteins and exist as zwitter ion, Thymine is a nitrogenous base in DNA, Insulin is a protein, phosphodiester
linkage is found in nucleic acids so also in DNA and Uracil is nitrogenous base found in RNA which is a nucleic acid.
51. (d) Helium: meteorological observations :: Argon: metallurgical processes
(a) Nitrogen: 1s22s22p3 : : Argon:1s22s22p6 is configuration of Neon not Argon
(b) Carbon: maximum compounds : : Xenon: no compounds , Xenon forms compounds
(c) XeF2: Linear : : ClF3: Trigonal planar , ClF3 is T shaped not trigonal planar
52. (a) A : Isomers : : B: Enantiomer
Isomers have Same molecular formula but different structure
Enantiomers are Non superimposable mirror images
53. (c) The radius of Ag+ ion is 126pm and of I– ion is 216pm. The coordination number of Ag+ ion is:
= rcation/ranion = 126/ 216 = 0.58
Radius ratio lies in the range 0.414 – 0.732, so has coordination number 6 or 4 according to the table.
Since none of the options is 4, so the answer is 6.
54. (d) 290 pm
Square planar means radius, ratio is between 0.414 – 0.732
If radius of cation is 120 pm then anion should be in the range = rcation/ranion
0.414 = 120/ x so x = 289.8 = 290 pm
0.732 = 120/ x so x = 163.9 = 164 pm
55. (a) All of its nearest neighbour anions.
 Objective Questions and Solutions
CBSE Sample Paper 2020-2021
SECTION-A
Direction: Each Question carry one mark.
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
An efficient, aerobic catalytic system for the transformation of alcohols into carbonyl compounds under mild conditions,
copper-based catalyst has been discovered. This copper-based catalytic system utilizes oxygen or air as the ultimate,
stoichiometric oxidant, producing water as the only by-product
R1 5% CuCl; 5% Phen; R1
2 2 equiv. K2CO 3;
R OH O
5% DBADH2; O2
H 1 Toluene; 70° to 90°C
R2 2

A wide range of primary, secondary, allylic, and benzylic alcohols can be smoothly oxidized to the corresponding aldehydes
or ketones in good to excellent yields. Air can be conveniently used instead of oxygen without affecting the efficiency of
the process. However, the use of air requires slightly longer reaction times.
This process is not only economically viable and applicable to large-scale reactions, but it is also environmentally friendly.
(Reference:Ohkuma, T., Ooka, H., Ikariya, T., & Noyori, R. (1995). Preferential hydrogenation of aldehydes and ketones.
Journal of the American Chemical Society, 117(41), 10417-10418.)
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:
(i) The Copper based catalyst mention in the study above can be used to convert:
(a) propanol to propanonic acid (b) propanone to propanoic acid
(c) propanone to propan-2-ol (d) propan-2-ol to propanone
(ii) The carbonyl compound formed when ethanol gets oxidised using this copper-based catalyst can also be obtained by
ozonolysis of:
(a) But-1-ene (b) But-2-ene
(c) Ethene (d) Pent-1-ene
OR
Which of the following is a secondary allylic alcohol?
(a) But-3-en-2-ol (b) But-2-en-2-ol
(c) Prop-2-enol (d) Butan-2-ol
(iii) Benzyl alcohol on treatment with this copper-based catalyst gives a compound ‘A’ which on reaction with KOH gives
compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. Compound ‘B’ on oxidation with KMnO4 - KOH gives compound ‘C’. Compounds ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
respectively are:
(a) Benzaldehyde, Benzyl alcohol, potassium salt of Benzoic acid
(b) Benzaldehyde, potassium salt of Benzoic acid, Benzyl alcohol
(c) Benzaldehyde, Benzoic acid, Benzyl alcohol
(d) Benzoic acid, Benzyl alcohol, Benzaldehyde
(iv) An organic compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C3H8O on reaction with this copper based catalyst gives compound
‘Y’ which reduces Tollen’s reagent. ‘X’ on reaction with sodium metal gives ‘Z’ . What is the product of reaction of
‘Z’ with 2-chloro-2-methylpropane?
(a) CH3CH2CH2OC(CH3)3 (b) CH3CH2OC(CH3)3
(c) CH2= C(CH3)2 (d) CH3CH2CH=C(CH3)2
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The amount of moisture that leather adsorbs or loses is determined by temperature, relative humidity, degree of porosity,
and the size of the pores. Moisture has great practical significance because its amount affects the durability of leather, and
in articles such as shoes, gloves and other garments, the comfort of the wearer. High moisture content accelerates
deterioration and promotes mildew action. On the other hand, a minimum amount of moisture is required to keep leather
properly lubricated and thus prevent cracking.
 EBD_7358
SQP 20-21-2 Chemistry

The study indicates that adsorption of moisture by leather is a multi-molecular process and is accompanied by low
enthalpies of adsorption. Further at 75-percent relative humidity, the adsorption is a function of surface area alone.
Hide is tanned to harden leather. This process of tanning occurs due to mutual coagulation of positively charged hide with
negatively charged tanning material. Untanned hide and chrometanned leathers have the largest surface areas. The
leathers tanned with vegetable tanning materials have smaller surface areas since they are composed of less hide substance
and the capillaries are reduced to smaller diameters, in some cases probably completely filled by tanning materials. The
result of the study indicated that untanned hide and chrome-tanned leather adsorb the most water vapour.
(Source:Kanagy, J. R. (1947). Adsorption of water vapor by untanned hide and various leathers at 100 F. Journal of
Research of the National Bureau of Standards, 38(1), 119-128.)
2. In these questions (Q. No 5-8, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(i) Assertion: Vegetable tanned leather cannot adsorb a large amount of moisture.
Reason: Porous materials have higher surface area.
(ii) Assertion: Animal hide soaked in tannin results in hardening of leather.
Reason: Tanning occurs due to mutual coagulation.
(iii) Assertion: Adsorption of moisture by leather is physisorption.
Reason: It is a multimolecular process and is accompanied by low enthalpies of adsorption
(iv) Assertion: Leathers tanned with vegetable tanning materials have smaller surface areas
Reason: The capillaries present in leather are reduced to smaller diameters
OR
Assertion: Leather absorbs different amount of moisture.
Reason: Some moisture is necessary to prevent cracking of leather.
3. Following questions (No. 3-11) are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each:
Which of the following option will be the limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH if the limiting molar conductivity of
CH3COONa is 91 Scm2mol-1? Limiting molar conductivity for individual ions are given in the following table.

S. Ions limiting molar conductivity /Scm2mol–1

No.
1 H+ 349.6
2 Na+ 50.1
+
3 K 73.5
–
4 OH 199.1
(a) 350 Scm2mol–1 (b) 375.3 Scm2mol–1
(c) 390.5 Scm2mol–1 (d) 340.4 Scm2mol–1
4. Curdling of milk is an example of:
(a) breaking of peptide linkage
(b) hydrolysis of lactose
(c) breaking of protein into amino acids
(d) denauration of proetin
OR
Dissachrides that are reducing in nature are:
(a) sucrose and lactose
(b) sucrose and maltose
(c) lactose and maltose
(d) sucrose, lactose and maltose
5. When 1 mole of benzene is mixed with 1 mole of toluene The vapour will contain: (Given : vapour of benzene
= 12.8kPa and vapour pressure of toluene = 3.85 kPa).
(a) equal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms an ideal solution
(b) unequal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms a non ideal solution
(c) higher percentage of benzene
(d) higher percentage of toluene
 CBSE Sample Paper 2020-2021 SQP 20-21-3

6. Which of the following is the reason for Zinc not exhibiting variable oxidation state
(a) inert pair effect (b) completely filled 3d subshell
(c) completely filled 4s subshell (d) common ion effect
OR
Which of the following is a diamagnetic ion: (Atomic numbers of Sc, V, Mn and Cu are 21, 23, 25 and 29 respectively)
(a) V2+ (b) Sc3+
(c) Cu 2+ (d) Mn3+
7. Propanamide on reaction with bromine in aqueous NaOH gives:
(a) Propanamine (b) Ethanamine
(c) N-Methyl ethanamine (d) Propanenitrile
OR
IUPAC name of product formed by reaction of methyl amine with two moles of ethyl chloride
(a) N,N-Dimethylethanamine
(b) N,N-Diethylmethanamine
(c) N-Methyl ethanamine
(d) N-Ethyl - N-methylethanamine
8. Ambidentate ligands like NO2– and SCN– are :
(a) unidentate (b) didentate
(c) polydentate (d) has variable denticity
OR
The formula of the coordination compound Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is
(a) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 (b) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl3
(c) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)Cl]Cl2 (d) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl
9. Which set of ions exhibit specific colours? (Atomic number of Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V=23, Mn = 25, Fe = 26,
Ni = 28 Cu = 29 and Zn =30)
(a) Sc3+, Ti4+, Mn3+ (b) Sc3+, Zn2+, Ni2+
3+ 2+
(c) V , V , Fe 3+ (d) Ti3+, Ti4+, Ni2+
10. Identify A,B,C and D:
D
KCN
AgCN alc. KOH
C ¬¾¾¾¾¾ C2H5Cl ¾¾¾¾¾® A
Aq. KOH

B
(a) A = C2H4, B = C2H5OH, C = C2H5NC, D = C2H5CN
(b) A = C2H5OH, B = C2H4, C = C2H5CN, D = C2H5NC
(c) A = C2H4, B = C2H5OH, C = C2H5CN, D = C2H5NC
(d) A = C2H5OH, B = C2H4, C = C2H5NC, D = C2H5CN
11. The crystal showing Frenkel defect is :

A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B–
A
(a) B– A+ B– A+ (b) B– A+ B– A+

B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B–

A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B–

(c) B– A+ B– A+ (d) B– A+ A+

A+ e– A+ B– B– A+ B–
 EBD_7358
SQP 20-21-4 Chemistry

In the following questions (Q. No. 12 - 16) a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
12. Assertion: The two strands of DNA are complementary to each other
Reason: The hydrogen bonds are formed between specific pairs of bases.
13. Assertion: Ozone is thermodynamically stable with respect to oxygen.
Reason: Decomposition of ozone into oxygen results in the liberation of heat
14. Assertion: Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold waters rather than in warm waters.
Reason: Different gases have different KH values at the same temperature
OR
Assertion: Nitric acid and water form maximum boiling azeotrope.
Reason: Azeotropes are binary mixtures having the same composition in liquid and vapour phase.
15. Assertion: Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols.
Reason: Phenols are ortho and para directing.
16. Assertion: Methoxy ethane reacts with HI to give ethanol and iodomethane
Reason: Reaction of ether with HI follows SN2 mechanism

1. (i) (d) (ii) (b) OR (a)

(iii) (a) (iv) (c)
2. (i) (b) (ii) (a)
(iii) (a) (iv) (a) OR (b)
3. (c) 4. (d) OR (c)
5. (c) 6 (b) OR (b)
7. (b) OR (d) 8. (a) OR (a)
9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (b) OR (b)
15. (b) 16. (a)
 Objective Questions & Solutions
All India CBSE Board 2020 Solved Paper
Direction: Each Question carry one mark
Read the given passage and answer the questions number 1 to 5 that follow:
The substitution reaction of alkyl halide mainly occurs by SN1 or SN2 mechanism. Whatever mechanism alkyl halides follow for
the substitution reaction to occur, the polarity of the carbon halogen bond is responsible for these substitution reactions. The rate
of SN1 reactions are governed by the stability of carbocation whereas for SN2 reactions steric factor is the deciding factor. If the
starting material is a chiral compound, we may end up with an inverted product or racemic mixture depending upon the type of
mechanism followed by alkyl halide. Cleavage of ethers with HI is also governed by steric factor and stability of carbocation,
which indicates that in organic chemistry, these two major factors help us in deciding the kind of product formed.
1. Predict the stereochemistry of the product formed if an optically active alkyl halide undergoes substitution reaction by SN1
mechanism.
2. Name the instrument used for measuring the angle by which the plane polarised light is rotated.
3. Predict the major product formed when 2-bromopentane reacts with alcoholic KOH.
4. Give one use of CHI3.
5. Write the structures of the products formed when anisole is treated with HI.
Questions number 6 to 8 are one word answers:
6. Identify which liquid will have a higher vapour pressure at 90°C if the boiling points of two liquids A and B are 140°C and
180º, respectively.
7. Out of zinc and tin, whose coating is better to protect iron objects?
8. Give the structure of the monomer of PVC.
Questions number 9 to 11 are multiple choice questions:
9. Out of the following, the strongest base in aqueous solution is
(a) Methylamine (b) Dimethylamine (c) Trimethylamine (d) Aniline
10. Iodoform test is not given by
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal (c) Pentan-2-one (d) Pentan-3-one
11. Out of the following transition elements, the maximum number of oxidation states are shown by
(a) Sc(Z = 21) (b) Cr(Z = 24) (c) Mn(Z = 25) (d) Fe(Z = 26)
For questions number 12 to 14, two statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below:
(i) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(ii) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(iii) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect statement.
(iv) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct statement.
12. Assertion (A) : F – F bond in F2 molecule is weak.
Reason (R) : F atom is small in size.
13. Assertion (A) : Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds because of ambidentate ligand.
Reason (R) : Ambidentate ligand like NO2 has two different donor atoms i.e., N and O.
14. Assertion (A) : The molecularity of the reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr appears to be 2.
Reason (R) : Two molecules of the reactants are involved in the given elementary reaction.
 EBD_7358
SP 2020-2 Chemistry

1. Inversion occurs more than retention, leading to partial racemization.

2. Polarimeter
3.


2-bromopentane pent-2-ene
(major product)

4. Iodoform (CHI3) is used as a disinfectant.

5.

6. Liquid A has higher vapour pressure.

7. Zn coating is better to protect iron objects.
8. CH2 = CHCl
vinyl chloride
9. (b) Order of basicity in aqueous solution for amines :
2° > 1° > 3° > NH3
10. (d) The iodoform test is a test for the presence of carbonyl compounds with the structure RCOCH3 and CH3CHO; and
alcohols with the structure R – CH(OH)CH3.
11. (c) Mn(25) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2
Mn has maximum number of oxidation states from +1 to +7 due to 3d54s2.
12. (i) Because of small size of F atoms, there is repulsion of electrons in F2 molecule. Thus, F-F bond in F2 molecule is
weak.
Hence, reason is the correct explanation of given assertion.
13. (i) Ambidentate ligand like NO2 has two different donor atoms i.e. N and O. Thus, it can form coordinate bonds through
N and O both or we can say that it can form linkage isomers.
14. (i) The molecularity of a reaction depends only on the stoichiometry of the reaction. Hence, molecularity of the reaction
H2 + Br2 → 2HBr is two.
Hence, reason is the correct explanation of given assertion.
 Objective Questions and Solutions
CBSE Questions Bank-2021
CHAPTER-SOLUTIONS
(II) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
Boiling point or freezing point of liquid solution would be
affected by the dissolved solids in the liquid phase. A soluble
solid in solution has the effect of raising its boiling point and
depressing its freezing point. The addition of non-volatile
substances to a solvent decreases the vapor pressure and the
added solute particles affect the formation of pure solvent
crystals. According to many researches the decrease in freezing
point directly correlated to the concentration of solutes
dissolved in the solvent. This phenomenon is expressed as
freezing point depression and it is useful for several
applications such as freeze concentration of liquid food and to
find the molar mass of an unknown solute in the solution.
Freeze concentration is a high quality liquid food concentration
method where water is removed by forming ice crystals. This
is done by cooling the liquid food below the freezing point of
the solution. The freezing point depression is referred as a
colligative property and it is proportional to the molar
concentration of the solution (m), along with vapor pressure
lowering, boiling point elevation, and osmotic pressure. These
are physical characteristics of solutions that depend only on
the identity of the solvent and the concentration of the solute.
The characters are not depending on the solute's identity.
(Jayawardena, J. A. E. C., Vanniarachchi, M. P. G., &
Wansapala, M. A. J. (2017). Freezing point depression of
different Sucrose solutions and coconut water.)
1. When a non volatile solid is added to pure water it will:
(a) boil above 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(b) boil below 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(c) boil above 100°C and freeze below 0°C
(d) boil below 100°C and freeze below 0°C
2. Colligative properties are:
(a) dependent only on the concentration of the solute
and independent of the solvent's and solute's identity.
(b) dependent only on the identity of the solute and the
concentration of the solute and independent of the
solvent's identity.
(c) dependent on the identity of the solvent and solute
and thus on the concentration of the solute.
(d) dependent only on the identity of the solvent and
the concentration of the solute and independent of
the solute's identity.
3. Assume three samples of juices A, B and C have glucose
as the only sugar present in them. The concentration of
sample A, B and C are 0.1M, .5M and 0.2 M respectively.
Freezing point will be highest for the fruit juice:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) All have same freezing point
4. Identify which of the following is a colligative property :
(a) freezing point (b) boiling point
(c) osmotic pressure (d) all of the above
SOLUTIONS:
1. (c) When non-volatile solid is added to pure solvent
the boiling point of solution increases and freezing point
of solution decreases.
2. (d)
3. (a) Since the concentration of sample A is less, so it
will show less depression in freezing point. Consequently,
its freezing point will be higher than other solutions.
4. (c) Elevation in boiling point, freezing point depression
and osmotic pressure are colligative properties.
CHAPTER-p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
(XI) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
In the last 10 years much has been learned about the molecular
structure of elemental sulfur. lt is now known that many
different types of rings are sufficiently metastable to exist at
room temperature for several days. It is known that at high
temperature, the equilibrium composition allows for a variety
of rings and chains to exist in comparable concentration, and
it is known that at the boiling point and above, the vapor as
well as the liquid contains small species with three, four, and
five atoms.

QB-2
The sulfur atom has the same number of valence electrons as
oxygen. Thus, sulfur atoms S2 and S3 have physical and
chemical properties analogous to those of oxygen and ozone.
S2 has a ground state of 38 3s2 *3s2 3pz2 3px2 = 3py2 *3px1
= *3py1. S3, thiozone has a well- known uv spectrum, and has
a bent structure, analogous to its isovalent molecules O3, SO2,
and S2O. The chemistry of the two elements, sulphur and oxygen,
differs because sulfur has a pronounced tendency for catenation.
The most frequently quoted explanation is based on the electron
structure of the atom. Sulfur has low-lying unoccupied 3d
orbitals, and it is widely believed that the 4s and 3d orbitals of
sulfur participate in bonding in a manner similar to the
participation of 2s and 2p orbitals in carbon.
(Source: Meyer, B. (1976). Elemental sulfur. Chemical
Reviews, 76(3), 367-388. doi:10.1021/cr60301a003 )
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed
by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer
out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.
A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong
statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct
statement.
1. Assertion: Sulphur belongs to same group in the periodic
table as oxygen.
Reason: S2 has properties analogous to O2.
2. Assertion: Thiozone has bent structure like ozone.
Reason: Ozone has a lone pair which makes the molecule
bent.
3. Assertion: S2 is paramagnetic in nature.
Reason: The electrons in *3px and *3py orbitals in S2
are unpaired.
4. Assertion: Sulphur has a greater tendency for catenation
than oxygen.
Reason: 3d and 4s orbitals of Sulphur have same energy.
SOLUTIONS:
1. (b) Sulphur and oxygen both belong to group 16 of the
periodic table.
+
S constant 79) is 300000 times faster than in ethanol (dielectric
O –
2. (b) O O S S
Ozone Thiozone
Ozone molecule is found to have bent shape because lone
pair presenton central oxygen atom repels the electrons
of the two bonds.
3. (a) S3 also found to adopt bent shape.
EBD_7358
Chemisty
4. (c) Sulphur has a greater tendency for cateration them
oxygen because lone pair of oxygen repel the bond
O – O bond to a greater extent than the lone pairs of
S – S bond. According to aufbau principle, the 4s orbital
is lower in energy than the 3d orbital.
CHAPTER-HALOALKANE AND HALOARENE
(V) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
Nucleophilic substitution reaction of haloalkane can be
conducted according to both S N1 and S N2 mechanisms.
However, which mechanism it is based on is related to such
factors as the structure of haloalkane, and properties of leaving
group, nucleophilic reagent and solvent.
Influences of halogen: No matter which mechanism the
nucleophilic substitution reaction is based on, the leaving group
always leave the central carbon atom with electron pair. This
is just the opposite of the situation that nucleophilic reagent
attacks the central carbon atom with electron pair. Therefore,
the weaker the alkalinity of leaving group is, the more stable
the anion formed is and it will be more easier for the leaving
group to leave the central carbon atom; that is to say, the
reactant is more easier to be substituted. The alkalinity order
of halogen ion is I– < Br– < Cl– < F– and the order of their
leaving tendency should be I– > Br– > Cl– > F–. Therefore, in
four halides with the same alkyl and different halogens, the
order of substitution reaction rate is RI > RBr > RCl > RF. In
addition, if the leaving group is very easy to leave, many
carbocation intermediates are generated in the reaction and
the reaction is based on SN1 mechanism. If the leaving group
is not easy to leave, the reaction is based on SN2 mechanism.
Influences of solvent polarity: In SN1 reaction, the polarity
of the system increases from the reactant to the transition state,
because polar solvent has a greater stabilizing effect on the
transition state than the reactant, thereby reduce activation
energy and accelerate the reaction. In SN2 reaction, the polarity
of the system generally does not change from the reactant to
the transition state and only charge dispersion occurs. At this
time, polar solvent has a great stabilizing effect on Nu than
the transition state, thereby increasing activation energy and
slow down the reaction rate. For example, the decomposition
rate (SN1) of tertiary chlorobutane in 25°C water (dielectric
constant 24). The reaction rate (SN2) of 2-bromopropane and
NaOH in ethanol containing 40% water is twice slower than
in absolute ethanol. In a word, the level of solvent polarity
has influence on both SN1 and SN2 reactions, but with different
results. Generally speaking, weak polar solvent is favorable
for SN2 reaction, while strong polar solvent is favorable for
CBSE Questions Bank-2021 QB-3
1
SN reaction, because only under the action of polar solvent CHAPTER-BIOMOLECULES
can halogenated hydrocarbon dissociate into carbocation and
halogen ion and solvents with a strong polarity is favorable (XII) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
for solvation of carbocation, increasing its stability. Generally
speaking, the substitution reaction of tertiary haloalkane is Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the energy-carrying molecule
based on SN1 mechanism in solvents with a strong polarity found in the cells of all living things. ATP captures chemical
(for example, ethanol containing water). energy obtained from the breakdown of food molecules and
releases it to fuel other cellular processes. ATP is a nucleotide
(Ding, Y. (2013). A Brief Discussion on Nucleophilic Substitution
Reaction on Saturated Carbon Atom. In Applied Mechanics and that consists of three main structures: the nitrogenous base,
Materials (Vol. 312, pp. 433-437). Trans Tech Publications Ltd.) adenine; the sugar, ribose; and a chain of three phosphate
1. SN1 mechanism is favoured in which of the following groups bound to ribose. The phosphate tail of ATP is the actual
power source which the cell taps. Available energy is contained
solvents:
(a) benzene (b) carbon tetrachloride in the bonds between the phosphates and is released when
(c) acetic acid (d) carbon disulphide they are broken, which occurs through the addition of a water
2. Nucleophilic substitution will be fastest in case of: molecule (a process called hydrolysis). Usually only the outer
phosphate is removed from ATP to yield energy; when this
(a) 1-Chloro-2,2-dimethyl propane
(b) 1-Iodo-2,2-dimethyl propane occurs ATP is converted to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), the
(c) 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethyl propane form of the nucleotide having only two phosphates.
(d) 1-Fluoro-2,2-dimethyl propane The importance of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) as the main
source of chemical energy in living matter and its involvement
3. SN1 reaction will be fastest in which of the following solvents?
(a) Acetone (dielectric constant 21) in cellular processes has long been recognized. The primary
(b) Ethanol (dielectric constant 24) mechanism whereby higher organisms, including humans,
(c) Methanol (dielectric constant 32) generate ATP is through mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation.
For the majority of organs, the main metabolic fuel is glucose,
(d) Chloroform (dielectric constant 5)
4. Polar solvents make the reaction faster as they: which in the presence of oxygen un dergoes complete
(a) destabilize transition state and decrease the activation combustion to CO2 and H2O:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
energy
The free energy ( G) liberated in this exergonic ( G is
(b) destabilize transition state and increase the activation
energy negative) reaction is partially trapped as ATP in two consecutive
(c) stabilize transition state and increase the activation processes: glycolysis (cytosol) and oxidative phosphorylation
(mitochondria). The first produces 2 mol of ATP per mol of
energy
glucose, and the second 36 mol of ATP per mol of glucose.
(d) stabilize transition state and decrease the activation
energy Thus, oxidative phosphorylation yields 17-18 times as much
1
5. SN reaction will be fastest in case of: useful energy in the form of ATP as can be obtained from the
same amount of glucose by glycolysis alone.
(a) 1-Chloro-2-methyl propane
The efficiency of glucose metabolism is the ratio of amount of
(b) 1-Iodo-2-methyl propane
(c) 1-Chlorobutane energy produced when 1 mol of glucose oxidised in cell to the
(d) 1-Iodobutane enthalpy of combustion of glucose. The energy lost in the process
is in the form of heat. This heat is responsible for keeping us warm.
SOLUTIONS: (Source: Erecinska, M., & Silver, I. A. (1989). ATP and Brain
1. (c) SN1 mechanism is favoured by polar protic solvent. Function. Journal of Cerebral Blood Flow & Metabolism, 9(1),
2. (b) Iodine is a better leaving group then Cl, Br and F. 2-19. https://doi.org/10.1038/jcbfm.1989.2 and https://
3. (c) Methanol has higher dielectric constant (32) than www.britannica.com/science/adenosine-triphosphate)
other given compounds. 1. Cellular oxidation of glucose is a:
4. (d) (a) spontaneous and endothermic process
5. (b) Since I is a better leaving group, and upon leaving (b) non spontaneous and exothermic process
it will form seconday carbocation (stable) in the (c) non spontaneous and endothermic process
compound I-Iodo-2 methyl propane. (d) spontaneous and exothermic process

QB-4
2. What is the efficiency of glucose metabolism if 1 mole of
glucose gives 38ATP energy? (Given: The enthalpy of
combustion of glucose is 686 kcal, 1ATP= 7.3kcal)
(a) 100% (b) 38%
(c) 62% (d) 80%
3. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) ATP is a nucleoside made up of nitrogenous base
adenine and ribose sugar .
(b) ATP consists the nitrogenous base, adenine and the
sugar, deoxyribose.
(c) ATP is a nucleotide which contains a chain of three
phosphate groups bound to ribose sugar.
(d) The nitrogenous base of ATP is the actual power source.
4. Nearly 95% of the energy released during cellular
respiration is due to:
(a) glycolysis occurring in cytosol
(b) oxidative phosphorylation occurring in cytosol
(c) glycolysis in occurring mitochondria
(d) oxidative phosphorylation occurring in mitochondria
5. Which of the following statements is correct:
(a) ATP is a nucleotide which has three phosphate
groups while ADP is a nucleoside which three
phosphate groups.
(b) ADP contains a nitrogenous bases adenine, ribose
sugar and two phosphate groups bound to ribose.
(c) ADP is the main source of chemical energy in living
matter.
(d) ATP and ADP are nucleosides which differ in
number of phosphate groups.
SOLUTIONS:
1. (d)
2. (b) Glucose catabolism yields a total of 38 ATP. 38
ATP × 7.3 kcal/mol ATP = 262 kcal. Glucose has 686
kcal. Thus the efficiency of glucose metabolism is 262/
686 × 100 = 38%.
3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
CHAPTER-BIOMOLECULES
(XV) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
EVIDENCE FOR THE FIBROUS NATURE OF DNA
The basic chemical formula of DNA is now well established.
As shown in Figure 1 it consists of a very long chain, the
backbone of which is made up of alternate sugar and phosphate
groups, joined together in regular 3' 5' phosphate di-ester
linkages. To each sugar is attached a nitrogenous base, only
four different kinds of which are commonly found in DNA.
Two of these- adenine and guanine- are purines, and the other
EBD_7358
Chemisty
two thymine and cytosine-are pyrimidines. A fifth base, 5-methyl
cytosine, occurs in smaller amounts in certain organisms, and a
sixth, 5-hydroxy-methyl-cytosine, is found instead of cytosine
in the T even phages. It should be noted that the chain is
unbranched, a consequence of the regular internucleotide
linkage. On the other hand the sequence of the different
nucleotides is, as far as can be ascertained, completely irregular.
Thus, DNA has some features which are regular, and some
which are irregular. A similar conception of the DNA molecule
as a long thin fiber is obtained from physicochemical analysis
involving sedimentation, diffusion, light scattering, and
viscosity measurements. These techniques indicate that DNA
is a very asymmetrical structure approximately 20 A wide and
many thousands of angstroms long. Estimates of its molecular
weight currently center between 5 × 106 and 107 (approximately
3 × 104 nucleotides). Surprisingly each of these measurements
tend to suggest that the DNA is relatively rigid, a puzzling
finding in view of the large number of single bonds (5 per
nucleotide) in the phosphate-sugar back bone. Recently these
indirect inferences have been confirmed by electron microscopy.
(Source: Watson, J. D., & Crick, F. H. (1953, January). The
structure of DNA. In Cold Spring Harbor symposia on
quantitative biology (Vol. 18, pp. 123-131). Cold Spring
Harbor Laboratory Press.)
1. Purines present in DNA are:
(a) adenine and thymine
(b) guanine and thymine
(c) cytosine and thymine
(d) adenine and guanine
2. DNA molecule has ________ internucleotide linkage and
___________ sequence of the different nucleotides.
(a) regular, regular
(b) regular, irregular
(c) irregular, regular
(d) irregular, irregular
3. DNA has a ________ backbone.
(a) phosphate-purine
(b) pyrimidines-sugar
(c) phosphate-sugar
(d) purine-pyrimidine
4. Out of the four different kinds of nitrogenous bases which
are commonly found in DNA, ________ has been replaced
in some organisms.
(a) adenine (b) guanine
(c) cytosine (d) thymine
SOLUTIONS:
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c)
4. (c) In some organisms cytosine has been replaced with
5 hydroxy methyl cytosine and 5 methyl cytosine.
CBSE Questions Bank-2021
CHAPTER-CHEMICAL KINETICS
(III) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
The rate of a reaction, which may also be called its velocity or
speed, can be defined with relation to the concentration of any
of the reacting substances, or to that of any product of the
reaction. If the species chosen is a reactant which has a
concentration c at time t the rate is –dc/dt, while the rate with
reference to a product having a concentration x at time t is
dx/dt. Any concentration units may be used for expressing
the rate; thus, if moles per liter are employed for concentration
and seconds for the time, the units for the rate are moles
liter –1sec–1. For gas reactions pressure units are sometimes
used in place of concentrations, so that legitimate units for the
rate would be (mm. Hg) sec–1 and atm. sec–1.
The order of a reaction concerns the dependence of the rate
upon the concentrations of reacting substances; thus, if the
rate is found experimentally to be proportional to the th power
of the concentration of one of the reactants A, to the th power
of the concentration of a second reactant B, and so forth, via.,
rate = k CA CB (1)
the over-all order of the reaction is simply
n = + + ________ (2)
Such a reaction is said to be of the th order with respect to the
substance A, the th order with respect to B and so on..
(Laidler, K. J., & Glasstone, S. (1948). Rate, order and molecularity
in chemical kinetics. Journal of Chemical Education, 25(7), 383.)
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed
by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer
out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion: Rate of reaction is a measure of change in
concentration of reactant with respect to time.
Reason: Rate of reaction is a measure of change in
concentration of product with respect to time.
2. Assertion: For a reaction: P + 2Q Products, Rate = k
[P]1/2[Q]1 so the order of reaction is 1.5.
Reason: Order of reaction is the sum of stoichiometric
coefficients of the reactants.
3. Assertion: The unit of k is independent of order of
reaction.
Reason: The unit of k is moles L–1s–1.
4. Assertion: Reactions can occur at different speeds.
Reason: Rate of reaction is also called speed of reaction.
QB-5
SOLUTIONS:
1. (b) A + B C+O
d[A] d[B] d[C] d[O]
Rate
dt dt dt dt
2. (c) Order of reaction is the experiment determined entry.
3. (d) The units of K, depend on the overall reaction order.
4. (b)
CHAPTER-SURFACE CHEMISTRY
(VIII) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
Some colloids are stable by their nature, i.e., gels, alloys, and
solid foams. Gelatin and jellies are two common examples of
a gel. The solid and liquid phases in a gel are interdispersed
with both phases being continuous. In most systems, the major
factor influencing the stability is the charge on the colloidal
particles. If a particular ion is preferentially adsorbed on the
surface of the particles, the particles in suspension will repel
each other, thereby preventing the formation of aggregates that
are larger than colloidal dimensions. The ion can be either
positive or negative depending on the particular colloidal system,
i.e., air bubbles accumulate negative ions, sulphur particles
have a net negative charge in a sulphur sol, and the particles in
a metal hydroxide sol are positively charged. Accumulation of
charge on a surface is not an unusual phenomenon-dust is
attracted to furniture surfaces by electrostatic forces. When salts
are added to lyophobic colloidal systems the colloidal particles
begin to form larger aggregates and a sediment forms as they
settle. This phenomenon is called flocculation, and the
suspension can be referred to as flocculated, or colloidally
unstable. If the salt is removed, the suspension can usually be
restored to its original state; this process is called deflocculation
or peptization. The original and restored colloidal systems are
called deflocculated, peptized, or stable sols.
Why does a small amount of salt have such a dramatic effect on
the stability of a lyophobic colloidal system? The answer lies in
an understanding of the attractive and repulsive forces that
exist between colloidal particles. Van der Waals forces are
responsible for the attractions, while the repulsive forces are
due to the surface charge on the particles. In a stable colloid,
the repulsive forces are of greater magnitude than the attractive
forces. The magnitude of the electrical repulsion is diminished
by addition of ionized salt, which allows the dispersed particles
to aggregate and flocculate. River deltas provide an example of
this behaviour. A delta is formed at the mouth of a river because
the colloidal clay particles are flocculated when the freshwater
mixes with the salt water of the ocean.
(Source: Sarquis, J. (1980). Colloidal systems. Journal of
Chemical Education, 57(8), 602. doi:10.1021/ed057p602 )

QB-6
1. Gelatin is a ___________ colloidal system.
(a) Solid in solid (b) Solid in gas
(c) Liquid in solid (d) Liquid in gas
2. Colloidal solutions are stable due to:
(a) presence of charges on the colloidal particles
(b) formation of aggregates by colloidal particles
(c) preferential adsorption on the surface
(d) preferential absorption on the surface
3. Settling down of colloidal particles to form a suspension
is called:
(a) flocculation (b) peptization
(c) aggregation (d) deflocculation
4. When Van der Waals forces are greater than forces due
to the surface charge on the particles,
(a) flocculation occurs. (b) the colloid is stable.
(c) peptization takes place. (d) deflocculation occurs.
5. The particles in suspension will repel each other, thereby
preventing the formation of aggregates that are larger
than colloidal dimensions. This statement explains:
(a) formation of delta
(b) river water is a colloidal of clay particles
(c) effect of salt on lyphobic colloid
(d) phenomenon of flocculation
SOLUTIONS:
1. (c)
2. (c) If a particular ion is preferentially adsorbed on the
surface of the particles. The particles in suspension
will repeat each other hereby preventing the for
mention of aggregates.
3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
CHAPTER-d AND f BLOCK ELEMENTS
(VI) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
Within the 3d series, manganese exhibits oxidation states in
aqueous solution from +2 to +7, ranging from Mn2+(aq) to
MnO4– (aq). Likewise, iron forms both Fe2+(aq) and Fe3+(aq) as
well as the FeO 2– 2–
4 ion. Cr and Mn form oxyions CrO 4 , MnO4 ,
–
owing to their willingness to form multiple bonds. The pattern
with the early transition metals-in the 3d series up to Mn, and for
the 4d, 5d metals up to Ru and Os is that the maximum oxidation
state corresponds to the number of “outer shell” electrons. The
highest oxidation states of the 3d metals may depend upon
complex formation (e.g., the stabilization of Co3+ by ammonia)
or upon the pH (thus MnO42– (aq) is prone to disproportionation
in acidic solution). Within the 3d series, there is considerable
variation in relative stability of oxidation states, sometimes on
moving from one metal to a neighbor; thus, for iron, Fe3+ is more
EBD_7358
Chemisty
stable than Fe2+, especially in alkaline conditions, while the reverse
is true for cobalt. The ability of transition metals to exhibit a wide
range of oxidation states is marked with metals such as vanadium,
where the standard potentials can be rather small, making a switch
between states relatively easy.
(Cotton, S. A. (2011). Lanthanides: Comparison to 3d metals.
Encyclopedia of inorganic and Bioinorganic Chemistry.)
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed
by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer
out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.
A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong
statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct
statement.
1. Assertion: Highest oxidation state is exhibited by
transition metal lying in the middle of the series.
Reason: The highest oxidation state exhibited
corresponds to number of (n-1)d electrons.
2. Assertion: Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+.
Reason: Fe3+ has 3d5 configuration while Fe2+ has 3d6
configuration.
3. Assertion: Vanadium had the ability to exhibit a wide
range of oxidation states.
Reason: The standard potentials Vanadium are rather small,
making a switch between oxidation states relatively easy.
4. Assertion: Transition metals like Fe, Cr and Mn form
oxyions.
Reason: Oxygen is highly electronegative and has a
tendency to form multiple bonds.
5. Assertion: The highest oxidation states of the 3d metals
depends only on electronic configuration of the metal.
Reason: The highest oxidation state is maximum for
Mn(+7), Ru(+8) and OS(+8) in 3d, 4d and 5d transition
series respectively. They lie in the middle of the series.
SOLUTIONS:
1. (c) The highest oxidation state is maximum for Mn(+7),
Ru(+8) and OS(+8) in 3d, 4d and 5d transition series
respectively. They lie in the middle of the series.
2. (a) Fe3+ has stable half filled electronic configuration
hence, it is more stable than Fe2+.
3. (a) Shat
4. (b) Oxygen is highly electronegative and has tendency
to form multiple bonds. It can stabilise the highest
oxidation state of transition metal oxides.
5. (d)
CBSE Questions Bank-2021 QB-7

CHAPTER-d AND f BLOCK ELEMENTS 4. Assertion: Nickel is a transition element that belongs to
group 10 and period 4 of the modern periodic table.
(XIV) Read the passage given below and answer the following Reason: Electronic configuration of Nickel is [Ar]183d84s2
questions:
The d block elements are the 40 elements contained in the SOLUTIONS:
four rows of ten columns (3-12) in the periodic table. As all 1. (a) Group 12 element (Zn, Cd and Hg) are excluded
the d block elements are metallic, the term d-block metals is from transition metals as they have completely filled d-
synonymous. This set of d-block elements is also often orbital.
identified as the transition metals, but sometimes the group 2. (b) d-block elements have tendency to lose electron and
12 elements (zinc, cadmium, mercury) are excluded from the possess metallic characters.
transition metals as the transition elements are defined as those 3. (d) In mendeleevis periodic table, Group I to VII contain
with partly filled d or f shells in their compounds. Inclusion of normal elements and group VIII contains transition
the elements zinc, cadmium and mercury is necessary as some elements.
properties of the group 12 elements are appropriate logically 4. (a) Ni(28) : [Ar]8 3d8 4s2
to include with a discussion of transition metal chemistry. n = 4 Period = 4
The term transition element or transition metal appeared to valence electron = 10 Group = 10
derive from early studies of periodicity such as the Mendeleev
periodic table of the elements. His horizontal table of the CHAPTER-p BLOCK ELEMENTS
elements was an attempt to group the elements together so
(I) Read the passage given below and answer the following
that the chemistry of elements might be explained and
questions:
predicted. In this table there are eight groups labeled I-VIII
In spite of the predictions of stable noble gas compounds since
with each subdivided into A and B subgroups. Mendeleev
at least 1902, unsuccessful attempts at their synthesis gave
recognized that certain properties of elements in Group VIII
rise to the widely held opinion that noble gases are not only
are related to those of some of the elements in Group VII and
noble but also inert. It was not until 1962 that this dogma was
those at the start of the next row Group I. In that sense, these
shattered when Bartlett in Canada published the first stable
elements might be described as possessing properties
noble gas compound XePtF6. This discovery triggered a
transitional from one row of the table to the next.
worldwide frenzy in this area, and within a short time span
(Source: Winter, M. J. (2015). D- block Chemistry (Vol. 27).
many new xenon, radon, and krypton compounds were
Oxford University Press, USA.)
prepared and characterized. The recent discoveries show the
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed
ability of xenon to act as a ligand. The discovery by Seppelt's
by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer
group that more than one xenon atom can attach itself to a
out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.
metal center which in the case of gold leads to surprisingly
A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and
stable Au-Xe bonds. The bonding in [AuXe4]2+ involves 4 Xe
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
ligands attached by relatively strong bonds to a single Au(II)
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but
center in a square planar arrangement with a Xe-Au bond
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
length of about 274 pm This discovery provides not only the
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong
first example of multiple xenon ligands but also represents
statement.
the first strong metal-xenon bond.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(Source: Christe, K. O. (2001). A renaissance in noble gas
1. Assertion: Group 12 elements are not considered as
chemistry. Angewandte Chemie International Edition, 40(8), 1419-
transition metals.
1421.)
Reason: Transition metals are those which have
1. In the complex ion [AuXe4]2+, Xe acts as:
incompletely filled d-shell in their compounds.
(a) central atom (b) ligand
2. Assertion: All d-block elements are metallic in nature.
(c) chelating agent (d) electrophile
Reason: The d-block elements belong to Group 3 -12 of
2. Hybridisation shown by Au in [AuXe4]2+ is:
the periodic table.
(a) sp3 (b) sp3d
3. Assertion: Group VII elements of Mendeleev periodic
(c) sp3d2 (d) sp2
table are transition elements.
3. Compounds of noble gases except ________ are known.
Reason: Group I-VIII in Mendleev periodic table is
(a) Krypton (b) Radon
divided into two subgroups, A and B.
(c) Helium (d) Xenon

QB-8
4. Xe is a ________ ligand
(a) ambidentate
(b) bidantate
(c) unidentate
(d) hexadentate
SOLUTIONS:
1. (b) Xe acts as a ligand in the complex [AuXe4]2+ and
forms very stable Au-Xe bonds.
2. (b) [AuXe4]2+, Au is in + 2 oxidation state in and is a
cationic complex with a square planar configuration.
3. (c) Helium does not form compounds because its
valence hall orbital is completely filled (1s2) has
high ionisation enthalphy and positive electron gain
enthalpy.
4. (c)
CHAPTER-ALDEHYDE, KETONES
AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
(IV) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
Reduction of carboxylic acids and their derivatives plays an
important role in organic synthesis, in both laboratory and
industrial processes. Traditionally, the reduction is performed
using stochiometric amounts of hydride reagents, generating
stochiometric amounts of waste. A much more attractive, atom-
economical approach is a catalytic reaction using H2; however,
hydrogenation of carboxylic acid derivatives under mild
conditions is a very challenging task, with amides presenting
the highest challenge among all classes of carbonyl compounds.
Very few examples of the important hydrogenation of amides
to amines, in which the C-O bond is cleaved with the liberation
of water (Scheme 1), were reported. C-O cleavage of amides
can also be affected with silanes as reducing agents.
Scheme - 1
2 H2
R – H2O
R N
H H3C – C – NH – CH3
We have now prepared the new, dearomatized, bipyridine-based
pincer complex 3, catalyst 3(Here refered as Cat. 3).
Remarkably, it efficiently catalyzes the selective hydrogenation
of amides to form amines and alcohols (eq 1). The reaction
proceeds under mild pressure and neutral conditions, with no
additives being required. Since the reaction proceeds well under
anhydrous conditions, hydrolytic cleavage of the amide is not
involved in this process.
O Reductive alkylation is the term applied to the process of
R + 2 H2
R N
H secondary amine by means of an aldehyde or ketone in the
EBD_7358
Chemisty
(Balaraman, E., Gnanaprakasam, B., Shimon, L. J., &
Milstein, D. (2010). Direct hydrogenation of amides to alcohols
and amines under mild conditions. Journal of the American
Chemical Society, 132(47), 16756-16758.)
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed
by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer
out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.
A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and
reason is correct explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but
reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong
statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct
statement.
1. Assertion: The use of catalyst 3 is an efficient method of
preparation of primary amines.
Reason: Use of catalyst 3 is a step down reaction.
2. Assertion: Use of hydride catalyst or hydrogen brings
about cleavage of C-O bond in amides.
Reason: Hydride catalyst or hydrogen cause to reduction
of amides.
3. Assertion: N-methyl ethanamide on reaction with
catalyst 3 will yield ethanol and methanamine.
Reason: Use of Catalyst 3 brings about cleavage of C-N
bond of amides
4. Assertion: Aniline can be prepared from suitable amide
using catalyst 3
Reason: The use of catalyst 3 is limited to aliphatic
amides only.
SOLUTIONS:
1. (b) 2. (b)
3. (a) Use of catalyst 3 brings about cleavage of C – N
bond anides and will yield amines and alcohols.
O
||
catalyst3
(C-Nbondcleavage)
N-methylethanamide
CH3CH 2 OH CH3 NH 2
Ethanol Methana min e
4. (c)
CHAPTER-AMINES
(VII) Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
introducing alkyl groups into ammonia or a primary or
CBSE Questions Bank-2021 QB-9

presence of a reducing agent. The present discussion is limited 1. Ethanal on reaction with ammonia forms an imine (X)
to those reductive alkylations in which the reducing agent is which on reaction with nascent hydrogen gives (Y).
hydrogen and a catalyst or “nascent” hydrogen, usually from Identify 'X' and 'Y'.
a metal-acid combination; most of these reductive alkylations (a) X is CH3CH = NH and Y is CH3NH2
have been carried out with hydrogen and a catalyst. The (b) X is CH3CHOHNH2 and Y is CH3CH2NH2
principal variation excluded is that in which the reducing agent (c) X is CH3CHOHNH2 and Y is CH3NH2
is formic acid or one of its derivatives; this modification is (d) X is CH3CH = NH and Y is CH3CH2NH2
known as the Leuckart reaction. The process of reductive 2. Acetaldehyde is reacted with ammonia followed by
alkylation of ammonia consists in the addition of ammonia to reduction in presence of hydrogen as a catalyst. The
a carbonyl compound and reduction of the addition compound primary amine so formed further reacts with acetaldehyde.
or its dehydration product. The reaction usually is carried out The Schiff's base formed during the reaction is:
in ethanol solution when the reduction is to be effected (a) CH3CH = NCH3 (b) CH3CH = NCH2CH3
catalytically (c) CH3 = NCH2CH3 (d) CH3CH2CH = NCH3
3. The reaction of ammonia and its derivatives wth
2[H]
RCHO + NH3 RCHOHNH2 RCH2NH2 aldehydes is called:
(a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(b) Electrophilic substitution reaction
2[H]
RCH = NH (c) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(d) Electrophilic addition reaction
Since the primary amine is formed in the presence of the
2H
aldehyde it may react in the same way as ammonia, yielding 4. (CH3CH2CH2)2NH + CH3CH2CHO P Q
an addition compound, a Schiff's base (RCH = NCH2R) and The compound Q is:
finally, a secondary amine. Similarly, the primary amine may (a) (CH3CH2CH2)3N
react with the imine, forming an addition product which also (b) (CH3CH2CH2)2N(CH2CH3)
is reduced to a secondary amine Finally, the secondary amine (c) (CH3CH2)3N
may react with either the aldehyde or the imine to give products (d) (CH3CH2)2NH
which are reduced to tertiary amines. 5. Reductive alkylation of ammonia by means of an aldehyde
in presence of hydrogen as reducing agents results in
2H
RCH = NH + RCH2NH2 RCHNHCH 2 R formation of:
| (a) Primary amines (b) Secondary amines
NH 2 (c) Tertiary amines (d) Mixture of all three amines
(RCH2)2NH + NH3 + NH2 SOLUTIONS:

2H
(RCH2)2NH + RCHO (RCH 2 )2 NCHR 1. (d) CH 3 – CHO NH3 CH 3 – CH NH
|
OH 2[H]
CH 3CH 2 NH 2
(RCH2)3N + H2O 2. (b)

2H 2[H]
(RCH2)2N + RCH = NH (RCH 2 )2 NCHR CH3CHO + NH3 CH3CHOHNH2 CH3CH2NH2
| 2[H]
NH2
CH3 – CH = NH
(RCH2)3N + NH3 CH3CHO
Similar reactions may occur when the carbonyl compound CH3CH = NCH2CH3
N-Ethyletheanimine (Schiff’s base)
employed is a ketone.
(Source: Emerson, W. S. (2011). The Preparation of Amines by
3. (c)
Reductive Alkylation. Organic Reactions, 174-255. doi:10.1002/
0471264180.or004.03 )
 EBD_7358
QB-10 Chemisty
5. (d) Reductive alkylation of ammonia by means of
4. (a) (CH3CH2CH2)2NH + CH3CH2CHO aldehyde in the presence of hydrogen as reducing agent
OH will yield mixture of primary, secondary and tertiary
CH3CH2CH2 | 2[H] amines.
N – C – CH2 – CH3
CH3CH2CH2
CH3CH2CH2
CH2CH2CH3
CH3CH2CH2
 Sample Paper 1
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the solid state?
(a) Iodine (b) Silicon (c) Sulphur (d) Phosphorus
2. In graphite electrons are :
(a) localised on each carbon atom (b) spread out between the sheets
(c) localised on every third carbon atom (d) present in antibonding orbital.
3. A fluorine atom (F) affects pair of an electron in a covalent bond which is
(a) Weakest (b) Strongest (c) Neutral (d) Constant
4. A crystalline solid
(a) changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated (b) has no definite melting point
(c) undergoes deformation of its geometry easily (d) has an irregular 3-dimensional arrangements
5. An ideal solution is formed when its components
(a) have no volume change on mixing (b) have no enthalpy change on mixing
(c) have both the above characteristics (d) have high solubility.
6. Schottky defect defines imperfection in the lattice structure of
(a) solid (b) gas (c) liquid (d) plasma
7. IUPAC name of CH3CH2C(Br) = CH – Cl is
(a) 2-bromo-1-chlorobutene (b) 1-chloro-2-bromobutene
(c) 3-chloro-2-bromobutene (d) None of the above
8. Proteins are condensation polymers of
(a) -amino acids (b) -amino acids (c) -hydroxy acids (d) -hydroxy acids
9. When two halogen atoms are attached to same carbon atom then it is :
(a) vic-dihalide (b) gem-dihalide (c) , -halide (d) , -halide
10. Which of the following noble gases react with fluorine to form compound?
(a) Krypton (b) Xenon (c) Radon (d) All of the above
11. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
(a) dipolar character of ethers (b) alcohols having resonance structures
(c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers (d) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
12. The space lattice of graphite is
(a) cubic (b) tetragonal (c) rhombic (d) hexagonal
 EBD_7358
SP-2 Chemistry

13. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves ............ .
(a) addition reaction (b) substitution reaction (c) dehydrohalogenation (d) rearrangement reaction
14. Which of the following factor do not affect solubility of solid solute in liquid?
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Nature of solute (d) All of these
15. Which of the following has strongest hydrogen bonding?
(a) Ethyl amine (b) Ethanal (c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Diethyl ether
16. What is hybridization of P in PCl5 ?
(a) sp3 (b) sp3d 2 (c) sp3d (d) sp2
17. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in nucleotide?
(a) A --- A and T --- T (b) G --- T and A --- C (c) A --- G and T --- C (d) A --- T and G --- C
18. Ethylene dichloride can be prepared by adding HCl to
(a) ethane (b) ethylene (c) acetylene (d) ethylene glycol
19. Haloarenes are ortho and para directing due to
(a) Resonance in aryl halide (b) –I effect of halogen atom
(c) +I effect of halogen atom (d) Both (a) and (b)
20. On heating lead nitrate forms oxides of nitrogen and lead. The oxides formed are ................. .
(a) N2O, PbO (b) NO2, PbO (c) NO, PbO (d) NO, PbO2
21. Which one of the following is non-ideal solution
(a) Benzene + toluene (b) n-hexane + n-heptane
(c) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide (d) CCl4 + CHCl3
22. Collectively the elements of group 15 are called –
(a) pnicogens (b) pnicopens (c) nicopen (d) None of these
23. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which
of the following categories?
(a) A carbohydrate (b) A hormone (c) A co-enzyme (d) An antibiotic
24. Which one of the following elements is most metallic ?
(a) P (b) As (c) Sb (d) Bi
25. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Bismuth (c) Antimony (d) Arsenic

SECTION-B

This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law ?
(a) Water - Nitric acid (b) Benzene - Methanol
(c) Water - Hydrochloric acid (d) Acetone - Chloroform
27. The vapour pressure of two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained
by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of Q would be
(a) 72 torr (b) 140 torr (c) 68 torr (d) 20 torr
28. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their densities.

Cl Cl Br

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Cl Cl
(a) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (b) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii) (c) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) (d) (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (i)
 Sample Paper-1 SP-3

29. Which of the following is not tetrahedral in shape?

(a) NH4 (b) SiCl4 (c) SF4 (d) SO42–
30. Primary structure of a protein is
(a) sequence in which -amino acids are linked to one another
(b) sequence in which amino acids of one polypeptide chain are joined to other chain
(c) the folding patterns of polypeptide chains
(d) the pattern in which the polypeptide chains are arranged
31. Br + NaOH Solvent OH
For which solvent rate of SN2 will be maximum?
(a) Benzene (b) 100% H2O
(c) 100% acetone (d) 75% H2O + 25% acetone
32. S – S bond is not present in
(a) S 2 O 24 (b) S2 O 52 (c) S2 O 32 (d) S2 O 27
33. Which of the following is not a crystalline solid?
(a) KCl (b) CsCl (c) Glass (d) Rhombic S
34. For the compounds
CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3I and CH3F,
the correct order of increasing C-halogen bond length is:
(a) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I (b) CH3F < CH3Br < CH3Cl < CH3I
(c) CH3F < CH3I < CH3Br < CH3Cl (d) CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3F < CH3I
35. XeF6 dissolves in anhydrous HF to give a good conducting solution which contains:

(a) H+ and XeF7 ion (b) HF2 and XeF5 ions (c) HXeF6 and F ions (d) None of these
36. Equal moles of water and urea are taken in a flask. What is mass percentage of urea in the solution ?
(a) 7.692% (b) 769.2% (c) 76.92% (d) 0.7692%
37. Which statement is not correct about alcohol?
(a) Molecular weight of alcohol is higher than water
(b) Alcohol of less no. of carbon atoms is less soluble in water than alcohol of more no. of carbon atoms
(c) Alcohol evaporates quickly
(d) All of the above
38. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to
(a) low oxidation state of phosphorus
(b) presence of two — OH groups and one P — H bond
(c) presence of one — OH group and two P — H bonds
(d) high electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
39. What is the coordination number of sodium and oxygen in Na2O in which oxide ions occupy ccp arrangement and sodium
ions occupy all tetrahedral voids?
(a) 6, 4 (b) 4, 8 (c) 8, 4 (d) 2, 4
40. Which of the following group 15 element forms metallic bonds in elemental state ?
(a) As (b) P (c) Sb (d) Bi
41. Isopropyl alcohol is obtained by reacting which of the following alkenes with concentrated H2SO4 followed by boiling with
H2O?
(a) Ethylene (b) Propylene (c) 2-Methylpropene (d) Isoprene
42. Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson’s synthesis?
(a) Methoxybenzene (b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether
(c) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (d) Di-tert-butyl ether
43. PCl3 reacts with water to form
(a) PH3 (b) H3PO4 and HCl (c) POCl3 (d) H3PO4
44. Which of the following compounds is resistant to nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions?
(a) Methyl acetate (b) Acetonitrile (c) Acetamide (d) Diethyl ether
 EBD_7358
SP-4 Chemistry

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
45. Assertion : PhCCH2Cl is more reactive than PhCH2Cl.
||
O
Reason : Conjugation with carbonyl group much more effective than with simple alkene or benzene ring.
46. Assertion : Bond angle of H2S is smaller than H2O.
Reason : Electronegativity of the central atom increases, bond angle decreases.
47. Assertion : Alkyl fluorides are prepared by heating AgF with alkyl chloride.
Reason : Because direct fluorination of alkanes occurs very slowly with rupture of C = C bonds.
48. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason : The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
49. Assertion : Dinitrogen is inert at room temperature.
Reason : Dinitrogen directly combines with lithium to form ionic nitrides.
SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the columns
Column -I Column-II
(A) Mass percentage (p) Medicine and pharmacy
(B) Mass by volume (q) Concentration of pollutants in water
(C) ppm (r) Industrial chemical application
(D) Volume percentage (s) Liquid solutions
(a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) (b) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) (d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
51. Which of the following analogy is incorrect?
(a) Optically inactive amino acid : Glycine : : Optically active protein : Lysine
(b) Essential amino acid : Lysine : : Non essential amino acid : Glycine
(c) Basic amino acid : Aspartate : : Acidic amino acid : Histidine
(d) Glucose : Pyranose : : Fructose : Furanose
+Excess H2O
'X' + HF
52. XeF6
'Y' + HF
+2H2O
Correct analogy for X : : Y
(a) X : XeO3 : : Y : XeOF4 (b) X : Xe : : Y : XeO3
(c) X : XeO2F2 : : Y : Xe (d) X : XeO3 : : Y : XeO2F2
Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.
Alkyl halides are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents. The insolubility in water is due to their inability to form
hydrogen bonds with water. Alkyl bromides and iodides are denser than water whereas alkyl chlorides and fluorides are lighter
than water. Alkyl halides have higher boiling points than alkanes of comparable molecular weight. For a given halogen atom, the
boiling points of alkyl halides increase with the increase in the size of the alkyl group.
53. Which of the following is liquid at room temperature (b.p. is shown against it)?
(a) CH3I (42 ºC) (b) CH3Br (3 ºC) (c) C2H5Cl (12 ºC) (d) CH3F (–78 ºC)
54. Which of the following possesses highest melting point?
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) m-dichlorobenzene (c) o-dichlorobenzene (d) p-dichlorobenzene
55. The decreasing order of boiling points of alkyl halides is
(a) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (b) RBr > RCl > RI > RF (c) RI > RBr > RCl > RF (d) RCl > RF > RI > RBr
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –1
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 2
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows .......... .
(a) SN1 mechanism
(b) SN2 mechanism
(c) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction
(d) Saytzeff rule
2. The -D glucose and -D glucose differ from each other due to difference in carbon atom with respect to its
(a) conformation (b) configuration (c) number of OH groups (d) size of hemiacetal ring
3. Which of the following is a primary halide?
(a) Isopropyl iodide (b) Secondary butyl iodide (c) Tertiary butyl bromide (d) Neohexyl chloride
4. In the reaction
HNO3 P4O10 HPO3 + X , the product X is
(a) N2O5 (b) N2O3 (c) NO2 (d) H2O
5. Select the one that is likely to show anisotropy
(a) paper (b) wood (c) glass (d) barium chloride
6. Value of Henry's constant KH _______.
(a) increases with increase in temperature. (b) decreases with increase in temperature.
(c) remains constant. (d) first increases then decreases.
7. Solid CH4 is
(a) ionic solid (b) covalent solid (c) molecular solid (d) does not exist
8. The order of reactivity of the given haloalkanes towards nucleophile is :
(a) RI > RBr > KCl (b) RCl > RBr > RI (c) RBr > RCl > RI (d) RBr > RI > RCl
9. Denaturation of proteins leads to loss of its biological activity by
(a) Formation of amino acids (b) Loss of primary structure
(c) Loss of both primary and secondary structures (d) Loss of both secondary and tertiary structures
10. Which one of the following is not an allylic halide?
(a) 4-Bromopent-2-ene (b) 3-Bromo-2-methylbut-1-ene
(c) 1-Bromobut-2-ene (d) 4-Bromobut-1-ene
 EBD_7358
SP-8 Chemistry

11. The number of P – O – P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is

(a) zero (b) two (c) three (d) four
12. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?
ZnCl 2
R — OH HCl R – Cl H 2 O
(a) 1° > 2° > 3° (b) 1° < 2° < 3° (c) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) 3° > 1° > 2°
13. F-centre is
(a) anion vacancy occupied by unpaired electron. (b) anion vacancy occupied by electron.
(c) cation vacancy occupeid by electron. (d) anion present in interstitial site.
14. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields
(a) o – cresol (b) m – cresol (c) 2, 4 – dihydroxytoluene (d) benzyl alcohol
15. The decrease in the vapour pressure of solvent depends on the
(a) quantity of non-volatile solute present in the solution
(b) nature of non-volatile solute present in the solution
(c) molar mass of non-volatile solute present in the solution
(d) physical state of non-volatile solute present in the solution
16. Which of the following are isomers ?
(a) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (b) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
(c) Acetone and acetaldehyde (d) Propionic acid and propanone
17. The deep blue colour produced on adding excess of ammonia to copper sulphate is due to presence of
2+
(a) Cu 2 (b) Cu (NH 3 )4 (H 2O )2
2+ 2+
(c) Cu (NH 3 )6 (d) Cu (NH 3 )2 (H 2O )4
18. Chromosomes are made from
(a) proteins (b) nucleic acids
(c) proteins and nucleic acids (d) carbohydrates and nucleic acids
19. Ethylidene chloride is a/an ................ .
(a) vic-dihalide (b) gem-dihalide (c) allylic halide (d) vinylic halide
20. The correct kinetic rate equation for the addition- elimination mechanism of nucleophilic aromatic substitution
(a) rate = k [aryl halide] [nucleophile] (b) rate = k [aryl halide]
(c) rate = k [aryl halide] [nucleophile] 2 (d) rate = k [ nucleophile]
21. The correct order of increasing oxidising power is
(a) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 > I2 (b) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 (c) Cl2> Br2 > F2 > I2 (d) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2
22. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle shrivels because .............. .
(a) it gains water due to osmosis (b) it loses water due to reverse osmosis
(c) it gains water due to reverse osmosis (d) it loses water due to osmosis
23. Which one is most stable to heat –
(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4
24. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives :
(a) n-Hexane (b) 1- Hexene (c) Hexanoic acid (d) 6-iodohexanal
25. The correct decreasing order of basic strength is:
(a) AsH3 SbH3 PH3 NH3 (b) SbH 3 AsH 3 PH 3 NH 3
(c) NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 (d) PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 NH 3

SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hydrides gradually becomes closer to 90º on going from N to Sb. This shows
that gradually
(a) The basic strength of the hydrides increases
(b) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H bonding
(c) The bond energies of M-H bonds increase
(d) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to the central atom
 Sample Paper-2 SP-9

27. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol–1) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The
freezing point of the solution obtained will be
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol –1).
(a) – 0.372°C (b) – 0.520°C (d) + 0.372°C (d) – 0.570°C
28. If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10 gm of solute (mol. wt. = 100) in 100 gm of water is Tb, the ebullioscopic
constant of water is
Tb
(a) 10 (b) 10 Tb (c) Tb (d)
10
29. Aryl halides can not be prepared by the reaction of aryl alcohols with PCl3, PCl5 or SOCl2 because
(a) phenols are highly stable compounds.
(b) carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has a partial double bond character.
(c) carbon-oxygen bond is highly polar
(d) all of these
30. In the preparation of HNO3 , we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. The moles of NO produced by the oxidation
of two moles of NH3 will be ................. .
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
31. A mixture of two amino acids having pI 9.60 and 5.40 can be separated
(a) by adjusting the pH of the solution at 9.60 (b) by adjusting the pH of the solution at 4.20
(c) by adjusting the pH of the solution at 7.0 (d) by adjusting the pH of the solution at 7.5.
32. What is 'A' in the following reaction?
CH2 — CH — CH2

+ HCl A

(a) CH2 — CH — CH2 (b) CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — Cl

Cl

(c) CH2 — CH — CH3 (d) Cl

Cl CH — CH2 — CH3

33. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Single N — N bond is stronger than the single P — P bond.
(b) PH3 can act as a ligand in the formation of coordination compounds with transition elements.
(c) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.
(d) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O3 is four.
34. An element (atomic mass 100 g/mol) having bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. The density of element is
(a) 2.144 g/cm3 (b) 7.289 g/cm3 (c) 5.188 g/cm3 (d) 10.376 g/cm3
35. Aryl halides can not be prepared by the reaction of aryl alcohols with PCl3, PCl5 or SOCl2 because
(a) phenols are highly stable compounds.
(b) carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has a partial double bond character
(c) carbon-oxygen bond is highly polar
(d) all of these.
 EBD_7358
SP-10 Chemistry

36. The products of the chemical reaction between Na 2S2O3, Cl2 and H2O are
(a) S, HCl, Na2SO4 (b) S, HCl, Na2S (c) S, HCl, Na2SO3 (d) S, NaClO3
37. 1 M, 2.5 litre NaOH solution is mixed with another 0.5 M, 3 litre NaOH solution. Then find out the molarity of resultant solution
(a) 0.80 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 0.73 M (d) 0.50 M
38. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following compounds.

OH OH CH2OH OH OH

OCH3 NO2
NO2 OCH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)

(a) V > IV > II > I > III (b) II > IV > I > III > V (c) IV > V > III > II > I (d) V > IV > III > II > I
39. Oxidation states of P in H4 P2O5 , H4 P2O6 , and H4 P2O7 , are respectively:
(a) + 3, + 5, + 4 (b) + 5, + 3, + 4 (c) + 5, + 4, + 3 (d) + 3, + 4, + 5
40. If z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest packing sequence ..... ABC ABC ......, the number of
tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to :
(a) z (b) 2z (c) z / 2 (d) z / 4
41. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
(a) CO32 , NO3 (b) ClO3 , CO32 (c) SO32 , NO3 (d) ClO3 , SO32
42. Which one of the following will most readily be dehydrated in acidic conditions ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

43. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(i) In phenols, the —OH group is attached to sp2 hybridised carbon of an aromatic ring
(ii) The carbon – oxygen bond length (136 pm) in phenol is slightly more than that in methanol
(iii) Partial double bond character is due to the conjugation of unshared electron pair of oxygen with the aromatic ring.
(iv) Phenol has sp2 hybridised state of carbon to which oxygen is attached.
(a) (i), (ii) and (v) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
44. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

45. Assertion : In the reaction between RCH2OH & PCC, an Aldehyde is obtained.
Reason : PCC involves the change in oxidation state of chromium from + 6 to + 3.
46. Assertion : Anti Markovnikov’s rule is not applicable for HF, HCl or HI except HBr.
Reason : Addition of HCl, HF or HI to alkenes forms only Markovnikov’s products.
47. Assertion : Iodine is more soluble in water than in carbon tetrachloride.
Reason : Iodine is a non-polar compound.
 Sample Paper-2 SP-11

48. Assertion : tert-butyl bromide undergoes Wurtz reaction to give 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane.

Reason : In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react with sodium in dry ether to give hydrocarbon containing double the number of
carbon atoms present in the halide.
49. Assertion : One molal aqueous solution of glucose contains 180 g of glucose in 1 kg of water.
Reason : Solution containing one mole of solute in 1000 g solvent is called one molal solution.
SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II
(Oxyacid) (Materials for preparation)
(A) H3PO2 (p) Red P + alkali
(B) H3PO3 (q) P4O10 + H2O
(C) H3PO4 (r) P2O3 + H2O
(D) H4P2O6 (s) White P + alkali
(a) (A) – (s), (B) – (r), (C) – (q), (D) – (p) (b) (A) – (p), (B) – (r), (C) – (q), (D) – (s)
(c) (A) – (s), (B) – (r), (C) – (p), (D) – (q) (d) (A) – (q), (B) – (r), (C) – (p), (D) – (s)
51. Correctly analogy is
(a) Soda water: gas in liquid :: Sugar solution: solid in liquid.
(b) German silver: solid in solid :: Sugar solution: liquid in solid.
(c) Air: gas in gas : : Soda water : liquid in gas
(d) Sugar solution : liquid in solid : : Air : gas in gas
52. Find the incorrect analogy
(a) Glucose : 6 Carbon : : Fructose : 5 Carbon
(b) Glucose : 4 Chiral centre : : Fructose : 4 Chiral centre
(c) Glucose : Polyhydroxy Aldehyde : : Fructose : Polyhydroxy ketone
(d) Glucose : Monosaccharide : : Fructose : Monosaccharide
Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.
The discovery and preparation of several of the interhalogen compounds followed shortly after the discovery of the elements
themselves. Since the halogens are all relatively strongly electronegative elements, each lacking one electron to complete its outer
shell, they form diatomic molecules with a shared electron-pair bond between them:
×× ×× ×× ××
×
Cl ×. Cl Br ×. ×Br I ×. ×I×
××

××

××

××

×× ×× ×
In a very similar manner, interhalogen molecules are formed, the simplest type being represented by CIF, BrCl, 1Br, etc., whose
physical properties are intermediate between those of the two elements involved. However, these properties are not necessarily the
average of those of the two parent elements.
Of the six possible uni-univalent halogen halides, five, all except iodine fluoride, are known to exist; the latter is probably too
unstable, since in the known iodine-fluorine compounds, iodine always has a valence greater than 1.
Considerably more interest from a structural standpoint are the interhalogen compounds in which one of the halogens has a
valence greater than 1. Three such series exist: AB3, AB5 and AB7. No compounds are known where an even number of atoms of one
halogen combine with an odd number of another; such a molecule would have an unpaired electron.
53. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than the individual halogen because
(a) two halogens are present in place of one
(b) they are more ionic
(c) their bond energy is less than the bond energy of the halogen molecule
(d) they carry more energy
 EBD_7358
SP-12 Chemistry

54. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum.
(ii) Leaving F—F bond, all halogens have weaker X—X bond than X—X bond in interhalogens.
(iii) Among interhalogen compounds maximum number of atoms are present in iodine fluoride.
(iv) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
55. Which of the following is not the characteristic of interhalogen compounds ?
(a) They are more reactive than halogens
(b) They are quite unstable but none of them is explosive
(c) They are covalent in nature
(d) They have low boiling points and are highly volatile.
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –2
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 3
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. When orthophosphoric acid is heated to 600°C, the product formed is
(a) PH3 (b) P2O5 (c) H3PO3 (d) HPO3
2. In the preparation of chlorobenzene from aniline, the most suitable reagent is
(a) chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light (b) chlorine in the presence of AlCl3
(c) nitrous acid followed by heating with Cu2Cl2 (d) HCl and Cu2Cl2
3. Ethyl alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine to give
(a) CH3CH2Cl + H2O + SO2 (b) CH3CH2Cl + HCl
(c) CH3CH2Cl + HCl + SO2 (d) CH3CH2Cl + SO2 + Cl2
4. The structure of XeF6 is
(a) Distorted octahedral (b) Pyramidal
(c) Telrahedral (d) None of the above.
5. The reaction of KMnO4 and HCl results in
(a) oxidation of Mn in KMnO4 and production of Cl2 (b) reduction of Mn in KMnO4 and production of H2
(c) oxidation of Mn in KMnO4 and production of H2 (d) reduction of Mn in KMnO4 and production of Cl2
6. A crystalline solid
(a) changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated (b) has no definite melting point
(c) undergoes deformation of its geometry easily (d) has an irregular 3-dimensional arrangements
7. Which will form maximum boiling point azeotrope
(a) HNO3 + H2O solution (b) C2H5OH + H2O solution
(c) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 solution (d) None of these
8. The coordination number in hcp is
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24
9. Which chloride is least reactive with the hydrolysis point of view?
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH3CH2Cl (c) (CH3)3CCl (d) CH2 = CH – Cl
10. The function of DNA in an organism is
(a) to assist in the synthesis of RNA molecule
(b) to store information of heredity characteristics
(c) to assist in the synthesis of proteins and polypeptides
(d) all of these.
 EBD_7358
SP-16 Chemistry

11. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points.
CH3
(i) CH — CH2Br (ii) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
CH3

CH3
|
(iii) H 3 C — C — CH3
|
Br
(a) (ii) < (i) < (iii) (b) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (c) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (d) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
12. Which of the following elements can be involved in p – d bonding?
(a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen (c) Phosphorus (d) Boron
13. The major reason that phenol is a better Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is that:
(a) it is a beter proton donor.
(b) the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which destabilizes the anion formed in the reaction by
resonance.
(c) phenol is able to stabilize the anion formed in the reaction.
(d) the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the reaction.
14. Crystals can be classified into basic crystal lattice, equal to
(a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 14 (d) 2
15. CH3CH2OH can be converted into CH3CHO by ........ .
(a) catalytic hydrogenation (b) treatment with LiAlH4
(c) treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate (d) treatment with KMnO4
16. When the solute is present in trace quantities the following expression is used
(a) gram per million (b) milligram percent (c) microgram percent (d) parts per million
17. The compound HOCH 2 CH 2 OH is
(a) ethane glycol (b) ethylene glycol
(c) ethylidene alcohol (d) dimethyl alcohol
18. Catalytic oxidation of NH3 (passing a mixture of NH3 and air over heated Pt gauge) gives
(a) NO (b) N2O (c) N2O3 (d) N2O5
19. What is the structure of L-glyceraldehyde?
H C O H
(a) HO CH2 OH (b) HO CH2OH
H CH O
CH2 OH
(c) HO H (d) Both (a) and (b)
H C O
20. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is .............. . CH3
|
(A) CH3CH 2CH 2 — OH (B) CH3CH 2 CH OH (C) CH3CH 2 C OH
| |
CH3 CH3
(a) (A) > (B) > (C) (b) (C) > (B) > (A) (c) (B) > (A) > (C) (d) (A) > (C) > (B)
21. When hydrochloric acid gas is treated with propene in presence of benzoyl peroxide, it gives
(a) 2-chloropropane (b) allyl chloride (c) n-propyl chloride (d) No reaction occurs
22. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2 Pt F6 as a base compound. This is because
(a) both O2 and Xe have same size.
(b) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy.
(c) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy.
(d) both Xe and O2 are gases.
 Sample Paper-3 SP-17

23. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due to .............. .
(a) low temperature (b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) high atmospheric pressure (d) Both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
24. Which of the following orders regarding thermal stability of hydrides MH3 of group 15 is correct?
(a) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (b) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 (c) NH3 > PH3 < AsH3 (d) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3
25. The reactions of (a) oxygen and (b) carbon monoxide with heme (the prosthetic group of haemoglobin) give
(a) only oxygen-heme complex
(b) only carbon monoxide-heme complex
(c) both oxygen-heme and carbon monoxide-heme complexes but oxygen-heme complex is more stable
(d) Both oxygen-heme and carbon monoxide-heme complexes but carbon monoxide-heme complex is more stable
SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. Which of the following properties of white phosphorus are shared by red phosphorus?
(a) It phosphorescences in air (b) It burns when heated in air
(c) It dissolves in CS2 (d) It reacts with NaOH to give PH3
27. The sequence of acidic character is
(a) SO2 > CO2 > CO > N2O5 (b) SO2 > N2O5 > CO > CO2
(c) N2O5 > SO2 > CO > CO2 (d) N2O5 > SO2 > CO2 > CO
28. For a dilute solution, Raoult's law states that:
(a) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(b) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(c) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution
(d) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of solvent
29. X in the following reaction is –
CH3 C H CCl4
Br2 + || X
H C CH3
(a) (+) 2, 3-Dibromobutane (b) (–) 2, 3-Dibromobutane
(c) Rac. 2, 3-Dibromobutane (d) Meso-2, 3-Dibromobutane
30. Which statement is incorrect about osmotic pressure ( ), volume (V), and temperature (T)?
1
(a) , if T is constant. (b) T, if V is constant.
V
(c) V, if T is constant. (d) V, is constant, if T is constant.
31. Incorrect statement about PH3 is:
(a) It is produced by hydrolysis of Ca3P2 (b) It gives black ppt. (Cu3P2) with CuSO4 solution
(c) Spontaneously burns in presence of P2H4 (d) It does not react with B2H6
32. Three cyclic structures of monosaccharides are given below which of these are anomers.

HO H
H OH HO H HO H
H OH H OH HO H O
HO H O HO H O H OH
H OH H OH HO H
H H H
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
(I) (II) (III)

(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) III is anomer of I and II
 EBD_7358
SP-18 Chemistry

Mg ether D2O Na ether

33. Br Cl A B C, C is

(a) D (b) D D

(c) (d) None of these

34. The correct sequence of decreasing number of -bonds in the structures of H2SO3, H2SO4 and H2S2O7 is :
(a) H2SO3 > H2SO4 > H2S2O7
(b) H2SO4 > H2S2O7 > H2SO3
(c) H2S2O7 > H2SO4 > H2SO3
(d) H2S2O7 > H2SO3 > H2SO4
1
35. In h.c.p of A, of tetrahedral voids are occupied by B. What is the formula for compound:
3
(a) A2B3 (b) A3B2 (c) AB3 (d) A2B
36. How many structural isomers are possible for a compound with molecular formula C 3H7Cl ?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9
37. In solid state PCl5 is a ................. .
(a) covalent solid
(b) octahedral structure
(c) ionic solid with [PCl6]+ octahedral and [PCl4]– tetrahedral
(d) ionic solid with [PCl4]+ tetrahedral and [PCl6]– octahedral
38. The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of sucrose at 373 K is found to be 750 mm Hg. The molality of the solution at
the same temperature will be :
(a) 0.26 (b) 0.73 (c) 0.74 (d) 0.039
39. Consider the following alcohols,

CH2OH CH 2OH

(I) (II)
O 2N

CH2OH CH2OH
(III) (IV)
CH3O Br

The order of decreasing reactivities of these alcohols towards nucleophilic substitution with HBr is:
(a) III > I > IV > II (b) III > I > II > IV
(c) I > III > IV > II (d) I > III > II > IV
40. When SO2 gas is passed through an acidified solution of K2Cr2O7
(a) the solution becomes blue (b) the solution becomes colourless
(c) SO2 is reduced (d) green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
–
41. If AgI crystallises in zinc blende structure with I ions at lattice points. What fraction of tetrahedral voids is occupied by Ag+
ions?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 100% (d) 75%
 Sample Paper-3 SP-19

42. Which of these doesn’t exist?

(a) PH3 (b) PH5 (c) LuH3 (d) PF5

O–

(1) CO2
43. (A)
(2) H

Which of the following is true statement about the reaction?

(a) Ortho isomer is major if PhONa is used
(b) Para isomer is major if PhOK is used
(c) Product formed is further used for preparation of drug aspirin
(d) All of these
44. Which of the following is the correct order of the acidity of the three compounds ?

CH2CH3 COCH3 OH

OH OH OCH3
I II III

(a) II > III > I (b) III > II > I (c) II > I > III (d) III > I > II

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
45. Assertion : Bond angle of H2S is smaller than H2O.
Reason : Electronegativity of the central atom increases, bond angle decreases.

46. Assertion : (CH 3)3C – O – CH – CH 3

|
C 2H 5

cannot be prepared by Williamson’s synthesis.

Reason : Only primary alkyl halide reacts with sodium alkoxide (1°, 2° or 3°) to give ether.
47. Assertion : Alkyl iodide can be prepared by treating alkyl chloride/bromide with NaI in acetone.
Reason : NaCl/NaBr are soluble in acetone while NaI is not.
48. Assertion: N2 is less reactive than P4.
Reason: Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorus.
49. Assertion : Boiling point of isomeric haloalkanes is
CH3CH2CH2Br > CH3CH2CHBrCH3 > (CH3)3CBr.
Reason : The boiling point of isomeric haloalkanes decreases with increase in branching.
 EBD_7358
SP-20 Chemistry

SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the items given in column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Saturated solution (i) Solution having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature as that of given solution.

(B) Binary solution (ii) A solution whose osmotic pressure is less than that of another.

(C) Isotonic solution (iii) Solution with two components.

A solution which contains maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given
(D) Hypotonic solution (iv)
amount of solvent at a given temperature.
(a) A – (ii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (iii) (b) A – (iv); B – (iii); C – (ii); D – (i)
(c) A – (iv); B – (ii); C – (iii); D – (i) (d) A – (iv); B – (iii); C – (i); D – (ii)
Ni vessel
51. (i) Xe xF2 (X)
873 K, 7 atm
1: 5 volume ratio

573 k
(ii) Xe yF2 (Y)
60 – 70
x : y: : X: Y
Which of the following represent the correct analogy for x : y : : X : Y
(a) 1 : 2 : : XeF2 : XeF4 (b) 2 : 3 : : XeF4 : XeF6
(c) 1 : 3 : : XeF2 : XeF4 (d) 3 : 2 : : XeF6 : XeF4
52. Which of the following analogies is correct?
(a) Minimum Boiling mixure : Maximum Biology mixture : : –ve deviation : +ve deviation
(b) Mass percentage : Volume percentage : : Industrial chemical application : Liquid solution
(c) PPM : Mole fraction : : Industrial chemical application : concentration of pollutant in water
(d) Tb : Tf : : KfM : KbM

Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.
Nucleic acid, naturally occurring chemical compound that is capable of being broken down to yield phosphoric acid, sugars, and
a mixture of organic bases (purines and pyrimidines). Nucleic acids are the main information-carrying molecules of the cell, and, by
directing the process of protein synthesis, they determine the inherited characteristics of every living thing. The two main classes
of nucleic acids are deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA). Nucleic acids are polynucleotides—that is, long
chainlike molecules composed of a series of nearly identical building blocks called nucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of a
nitrogen-containing aromatic base attached to a pentose (five-carbon) sugar, which is in turn attached to a phosphate group.
Each nucleic acid contains four of five possible nitrogen containing bases : adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), thymine (T),
and uracil (U).
53. Nucleic acids are the polymers of......
(a) nucleosides (b) nucleotides (c) bases (d) sugars
54. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester linkage. Between which carbon atoms of
pentose sugars of nucleotides are these linkages present?
(a) 5' and 3' (b) 1' and 5' (c) 5' and 5' (d) 3' and 3'
55. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is
(a) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(b) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(c) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose
(d) The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –3
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 4
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. A D-carbohydrate is:
(a) Always dextrorotatory
(b) Always laevorotatory
(c) Always the mirror of the corresponding L-carbohydrate
(d) None of these.
2. Concentrated nitric acid, upon long standing, turns yellow brown due to the formation of
(a) NO (b) NO2 (c) N2O (d) N2O4
3. Ammonia on catalytic oxidation gives an oxide from which nitric acid is obtained. The oxide is :
(a) N 2 O3 (b) NO (c) NO 2 (d) N 2 O5
4. Which is the least stable form of glucose ?
(a) -D-Glucose (b) -D-Glucose (c) Open chain structure (d) All are equally stable
5. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
(a) PCl5 (b) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
(c) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine (d) none of these
6. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorus is converted into P4 from P, the reason is
(a) Triple bond is present between phosphorus atom (b) p – p bonding is strong
(c) p – p bonding is weak (d) Multiple bond is formed easily
7. Example of molecular solid is :
(a) SO2(s) (b) SiC (c) C (graphite) (d) NaCl
8. Colligative properties of the solution depend on
(a) Nature of solute (b) Nature of solvent
(c) Number of particles present in the solution (d) Number of moles of solvent only
9. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following expressions is correct?

3a 3
(a) r r 3a (b) r r (c) r r a (d) r r 3a
Cs Cl Cs Cl 2 Cs Cl Cs Cl
2
 EBD_7358
SP-24 Chemistry

10. Benzene hexachloride is

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6-hexachlorocyclohexane (b) 1, 1, 1, 6, 6, 6-hexachlorocyclohexane
(c) 1, 6-phenyl-1, 6-chlorohexane (d) 1, 1-phenyl-6, 6-chlorohexane
11. The two forms of D–glucopyranose obtained from the solution of D-glucose are better called
(a) isomers (b) anomers (c) epimers (d) enantiomers
12. Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(a) 2 RX + 2 Na R – R + 2 NaX (b) RX + H2 RH + HX
(c) RX + Mg RMgX (d) RX + KOH ROH + KX
13. Fluorine exhibits an oxidation state of only –1 because
(a) it can readily accept an electron (b) it is very strongly electronegative
(c) it is a non-metal (d) it belongs to halogen family
14. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water, it gives:
(a) m-bromophenol (b) o- and p-bromophenol
(c) 2, 4-dibromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
15. Which of the following conditions favours the existence of a substance in the solid state?
(a) High temperature (b) Low temperature
(c) High thermal energy (d) Weak cohensive forces
16. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
17. Pressure cooker reduces cooking time because
(a) the heat is more easily distributed
(b) the higher pressure tenderizes the food
(c) the boiling point of the water inside is elevated
(d) a larger flame is used
18. IUPAC name of the compound CH3 —CH — OCH3 is.
|
(a) 1-methoxy-1methylethane CH3 (b) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane
(c) 2-methoxypropane (d) isopropylmethyl ether
19. In case of hydride of oxygen family, which of the following physical property change regularly on moving down the group.
(a) Melting point (b) Thermal stability
(c) Boiling point (d) Critical temperature
20. Which one is the absolutely specific term?
(a) A diastereomer (b) An epimer
(c) An anomer (d) None of the three.
21. The compound which contains all the four 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° carbon atoms is
(a) 2, 3-dimethylpentane (b) 3-chloro-2, 3-dimethylpentane
(c) 2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane (d) 3,3-dimethylpentane
22. Sulphur does not exist as S2 molecule because
(b) It is less electronegative
(b) It has ability to exhibit catenation
(c) It is not able to constitute p -p bond
(d) It has the tendency to show variable oxidation states
23. The total number of acyclic isomers including the stereoisomers with the molecular formula C4H7Cl
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 10
24. Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
(a) Mole fraction (b) Parts per milion (c) Mass percentage (d) Molality
25. Which of the following solutions does not change its colour on passing ozone through it?
(a) Starch iodide solution (b) Alcoholic solution of benzidine
(c) Acidic solution of K2Cr2O3 (d) Acidified solution of FeSO4
 Sample Paper-4 SP-25

SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. In both DNA and RNA, heterocylic base and phosphate ester linkages are at –

(a) C5 and C1 respectively of the sugar molecule (b) C1 and C5 respectively of the sugar molecule

(c) C2 and C5 respectively of the sugar molecule (d) C5 and C2 respectively of the sugar molecule
27. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order:
(a) MF > MCl > MBr > MI (b) MF > MCl > MI > MBr
(c) MI > MBr > MCl > MF (d) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
28. Of the interhalogen AX3 compounds, ClF3 is most reactive but BrF3 has higher conductance in liquid state. This is because
(a) BrF3 has higher molecular mass
(b) ClF3 is more volatile
(c) BrF3 dissociates into BrF2+ and BrF4– most easily
(d) Electrical conductance does not depend on concentration
29. Molarity of H2SO4 is 18 M. Its density is 1.8 g/mL. Hence molality is
(a) 36 (b) 200 (c) 500 (d) 18
30. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO 3 ? The concentrated
acid is 70% HNO3
(a) 90.0 g conc. HNO3 (b) 70.0 g conc. HNO3 (c) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 (d) 45.0 g conc. HNO3
31. In the following groups :
(I) –OAc (II) –OMe (III) – OSO2 Me (IV) –OSO2CF3
the order of leaving group ability is
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) IV > III > I > II (c) III > II > I > IV (d) II > III > IV > I
32. Which one of the following reactions of xenon compounds is not feasible?
(a) 3XeF4 + 6H 2 O 2Xe + XeO 3 +12HF +1.5O 2
(b) 2XeF2 + 2H 2O 2Xe + 4HF + O 2
(c) XeF6 + RbF Rb[XeF7 ]
(d) XeO3 + 6HF XeF6 + 3H 2 O
33. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(a) -D-glucose and -D-glucose are anomers.
(b) -D-glucose and -D-glucose are enantiomers.
(c) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide made up of only -D-glucose units.
(d) The penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.
34. Identify the compound Y in the following reaction.

NH2 N 2 Cl
Na NO 2 HCl Cu 2 Cl 2
273 278 K Y N2
Cl
Cl Cl
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Cl Cl
35. Elements of group- 15 form compounds in +5 oxidation state. However, bismuth forms only one well characterised compound
in +5 oxidation state. The compound is
(a) Bi2O5 (b) BiF5 (c) BiCl5 (d) Bi2S5
 EBD_7358
SP-26 Chemistry

36. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal with density, d = 10 g/cm3 and cell edge equal to 100 pm, is equal to
(a) 1 × 1025 (b) 2 × 1025 (c) 3 × 1025 (d) 4 × 1025
37. A set of compounds in which the reactivity of halogen atom in the ascending order is
(a) chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride, chloroethane (b) chloroethane, chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride
(c) vinyl chloride, chlorobenzene, chloroethane (d) vinyl chloride, chloroethane, chlorobenzene
38. At room temperature, HCl is a gas while HF is a low boiling liquid. This is because
(a) H- F bond is covalent (b) H- F bond is ionic
(c) HF has metallic bond (d) HF has hydrogen bond
39. The normal boiling point of water is 373 K. Vapour pressure of water at temperature T is 19 mm Hg. If enthalpy of vaporisation
is 40.67 kJ/mol, then temperature T would be (Use : log 2 = 0.3, R : 8.3 JK–1 mol–1):
(a) 250 K (b) 291.4 K (c) 230 K (d) 290 K
40. Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with HBr/HCl.

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

NO2 Cl
(I) (II) (III)

(a) I < II < III (b) II < I < III (c) II < III < I (d) III < II < I
41. NH 4 ClO4 HNO 3 (dil.) HClO 4 + [X]
[X] Y(g)
[X] and [Y] are respectively –
(a) NH4NO3 & N2O (b) NH4NO2 & N2 (c) HNO4 & O2 (d) None of these
42. The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an ionic substance is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm, the radius
of the anion is
(a) 288 pm (b) 398 pm (c) 618 pm (d) 144 pm
43. A metal ‘M’ reacts with nitrogen gas to give ‘M3N’. ‘M3N’ on heating at high temperature gives back ‘M’ and on reaction with
water produces a gas ‘B’. Gas ‘B’ reacts with aqueous solution of CuSO4 to form a deep blue compound. ‘M’ and ‘B’
respectively are :
(a) Li and NH3 (b) Ba and N2 (c) Na and NH3 (d) Al and N2

OH
N

H CrO3Cl,– (PCC), CH2Cl2

44.

CH3 C OH

CH3

Product of the reaction is:

OH CHO
CO2H O

(a) (b) (c) (d)

OH
OH OH
 Sample Paper-4 SP-27

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
45. Assertion : The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle.
Reason : In alcohols, the oxygen of –OH group is attached to sp3 hybridized carbon atom.
46. Assertion : Atoms in S8 molecule undergo sp3 hybridization and contain two lone pair on each atom.
Reason : S8 has a V-shape.
47. Assertion : Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.
Reason : Due to the presence of lone pairs of electrons on oxygen.
48. Assertion : High concentration of nucleophile favour SNI mechanism.
Reason : 2° alkyl halides are more reactive than 1° alkyl halides towards SNI reactions.
49. Assertion : When a metal is treated with conc. HNO3 it generally yields a nitrate, NO2 and H2O.
Reason : Conc. HNO3 reacts with metal and first produces a metal nitrate and nascent hydrogen. The nascent hydrogen then
further reduces HNO3 to NO2.

SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the columns

Column - I
(A) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl
(B) CH2 = CHX
(C) CH3CHCl2
(D) CH2Cl CH2Cl
(a) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
51. Complete the following analogy :
A : Ideal solution : : B : Non Ideal solution
(a) A : n-Heptane + n-Hexane : : B : CCl4 + SiCl4
(c) A : C6H5Cl + C6H5Br : : B : C6H5CH3 + C6H5OH
52. Choose the correct anology for oxides of Nitrogen and their structure.
(a) N2O : N2O3 : NO2 : : linear : Angular : Planar
(c) N2O : N2O3 : NO2 : : linear : Planar : Angular
Column - II
(p) gem-Dichloride
(q) Vinylic halide
(r) vic-Dichloride
(s) Allylic halide
(b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(b) A : C2H5Br + C2H5I : : B : HNO3 + H2O
(d) A : Chloroform + Benzene : : B : Acetone + Aniline
(b) NO2 : N2O : N2O3 : : Planar : Planar : Angular
(d) N2O3 : NO2 : N2O : : Angular : Angular : Planar

Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.

The word “colligative” has been adapted or taken from the Latin word “colligatus” which translates to “bound together”. A
colligative property is a property of a solution that is dependent on the ratio between the total number of solute particles (in
the solution) to the total number of solvent particles. Colligative properties are not dependent on the chemical nature of the
solution’s components. Dilute solution containing non-volatile solute exhibit some properties which depend only on the
number of solute particles present and not on the type of solute present. These properties are called colligative properties.
These properties are mostly seen in dilute solutions. There are different types of colligative properties of a solution. These
include, vapour pressure lowering, boiling point elevation, freezing point depression and osmotic pressure.
 EBD_7358
SP-28 Chemistry

53. Which one of the following is a colligative property ?

(a) Boiling point (b) Vapour pressure
(c) Osmotic pressure (d) Freezing point
54. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of
(a) solute molecules to the solvent molecules
(b) solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(c) solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(d) solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute.
55. Someone has added a non electrolyte solid to the pure liquid but forgot that among which of the two beakers he has added
that solid. This problem can be solved by checking
(a) relative lower in vapour pressure (b) elevation in boiling point
(c) depression in Freezing point (d) all above
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –4
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 5
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

1. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond
dissociation enthalpy?
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
2. DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of the following bases is not present in RNA?
(a) Adenine (b) Uracil
(c) Thymine (d) Cytosine
3. Sulphuric acid has great affinity for water because it
(a) Decomposes water (b) Forms hydrate with water
(c) Hydrolyse the acid (d) Decomposes the acid
4. Which among MeX, RCH2X, R2CHX and R3CX is most reactive towards SN2 reaction?
(a) MeX (b) RCH2X (c) R2CHX (d) R3CX
5. Which colour is observed when ZnO is heated?
(a) Yellow (b) Violet (c) Green (d) Blue
6. Compound that will show the highest lattice energy
(a) KF (b) NaF (c) CsF (d) RbF
7. Volatile nature of halogens is because
(a) The halogen molecules are more reactive
(b) The force existing between the molecules are only weak van der Waal forces
(c) Halogen molecules are bounded by strong forces
(d) Halogen molecules are bounded by electrostatic forces.
8. Solids which do not show the same physical properties in different directions are called
(a) Pseudo solids (b) Isotropic solids (c) Polymorphic solids (d) Anisotropic solids
9. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total vapour pressure of the solution is given as:
(a) Ptotal = PA + ( PA – PB )xB (b) Ptotal = PB + ( PA – PB )xA

(c) Ptotal = PB +( PB – PA )xA (d) Ptotal = PB +( PB – PA )xB

 EBD_7358
SP-32 Chemistry

10. Graphite cannot be classified as

(a) conducting solid (b) network solid (c) covalent solid (d) ionic solid
11. Bromination of toluene gives
(a) only m-substituted product (b) only p-substituted product
(c) mixture of o-and p-substituted products (d) mixture of o-and m-substituted products
12. At iso-electric point:
(a) conc. of cation is equal to conc. of anion
(b) Net charge is zero.
(c) Maximum conc. of di-polar ion (Zwitter ion) will be present
(d) All of the above
13. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with :
(a) hydrochloric acid
(b) cuprous chloride
(c) chlorine in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride
(d) nitrous acid followed by heating with cuprous chloride
14. Argon is used
(a) in filling airships
(b) to obtain low temperature
(c) in high temperature welding
(d) in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer
15. An aromatic ether is not cleaved by HI even at 525 K. The compound is
(a) C6H5OCH3 (b) C6H5OC6H5 (c) C6H5OC3H7 (d) Tetrahydrofuran
16. Which of the following compounds is a good conductor of electricity in solution state?
(a) Covalent (b) Molecular (c) Metallic (d) Ionic
17. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
(a) butan-1-ol (b) butan-2-ol (c) 2-methylpropan-1-ol (d) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
18. Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following mixtures will show a
positive deviation from Raoult's law?
(a) Methanol and acetone (b) Chloroform and acetone
(c) Nitric acid and water (d) Phenol and aniline
19. Phenol is less acidic than ............. .
(a) ethanol (b) o - nitrophenol
(c) o-methylphenol (d) o-methoxyphenol
20. The catalyst used in the manufacture of HNO 3 by Ostwald’s process is :
(a) platinum gauze (b) vanadium pentoxide
(c) finely divided nickel (d) platinum black
21. Rapid interconversion of -D-glucose and -D-glucose to solution is known as:
(a) racemization (b) asymmetric induction
(c) fluxional isomerization (d) mutarotation
22. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane results in the formation of –
(a) predominantly 2-butyne
(b) predominantly 1-butene
(c) predominantly 2-butene
(d) equimolar mixture of 1- and 2-butenes
23. Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide?
(a) Dichloromethane (b) 1, 2-dichloroethane
(c) Ethylidene chloride (d) Allyl chloride
 Sample Paper-5 SP-33

24. Which of the following can be used as an anaesthesia ?

(a) N2O (b) NO (c) NCl3 (d) NO2
25. At a given temperature, osmotic pressure of a concentrated solution of a substance .............. .
(a) is higher than that of a dilute solution
(b) is lower than that of a dilute solution
(c) is same as that of a dilute solution
(d) cannot be compared with osmotic pressure of dilute solution
SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. Hydrochloric acid at 25ºC is

(a) ionic and liquid (b) covalent and liquid
(c) ionic and gas (d) None of these
27. Which L-sugar on oxidation gives an optically active dibasic acid (2COOH groups)?
CHO
CHO
H OH H OH
(a) HO H (b) HO H
HO H
H OH
CH2OH
CH2OH
CHO CHO
H OH HO H
(c) H OH (d) H OH
H OH HO H
CH2OH CH2OH
28. A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3 ion. It is due to the formation of
(a) [Fe (H2O)5 (NO)]2+ (b) FeSO4 . NO2 (c) [Fe (H2O)4 (NO)2]2+ (d) FeSO4 . HNO3
29. The C–O–H bond angle in ethanol is nearly
(a) 90° (b) 104° (c) 120° (d) 180°
30. Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of fluorine is less than that of chlorine due to :
(a) High ionization enthalpy of fluorine (b) Smaller size of chlorine atom
(c) Smaller size of fluorine atom (d) Bigger size of 2p orbital of fluorine
31. The statement “If 0.003 moles of a gas are dissolved in 900 g of water under a pressure of 1 atmosphere, 0.006 moles will be
dissolved under a pressure of 2 atmospheres”, illustrates
(a) Dalton’s law of partial pressure (b) Graham’s law
(c) Raoult’s law (d) Henry’s law
32. A solution containing 4.0 g of PVC in 2 litre of dioxane (industrial solvent) was found to have an osmotic pressure 3.0 × 10–
4 atm at 27°C. The molar mass of the polymer (g/mol) will be :

(a) 1.6 × 104 (b) 1.6 × 105 (c) 1.6 × 103 (d) 1.6 × 102
33. Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution than alkylhalides. Which of the following accounts
for this ?
(i) Due to resonance in aryl halides.
(ii) In alkyl halides carbon atom in C–X bond is sp2 hybridised whereas in aryl halides carbon atom in C–X bond is sp3
hybridized.
(iii) Due to stability of phenyl cation.
(iv) Due to possible repulsion there are less chances of nucleophile to approach electron rich arenes.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
 EBD_7358
SP-34 Chemistry

34. MF XeF4 (
' A ' M + = Alkali metal cation )
The state of hybridisation of the central atom in 'A' and shape of the species are:
(a) sp3d, TBP (b) sp3d3, distorted octahedral
3 3
(c) sp d , pentagonal planar (d) No compound formed at all
35. Which of the following statements is not true about glucose?
(a) It is an aldohexose (b) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane
(c) It is present in furanose form (d) It does not give 2, 4-DNP test
36. Aryl fluoride may be prepared from arene diazonium chloride using :
(a) HBF4 / (b) HBF4 / NaNO2,Cu,
(c) CuF / HF (d) Cu / HF
37. The correct order of S—S bond length in following oxyanions is:

(I) S2 O24 (II) S2 O52 (III) S2 O62

(a) I > II > III (b) I > III > II (c) III > II > I (d) III > I > II
38. Which of the following layering pattern will have a void fraction of 0.260?
(a) ABCCBAABC (b) ABBAABBA (c) ABCABCABC (d) ABCAABCA
39. Which of the following will give vinyl chloride ?
600 C KOH
(a) CH 2 CH 2 Cl 2 (b) ClCH 2 CH 2Cl ethanol

Hg2+
(c) CH CH HCl (d) All of these
40. Which of the statements given below is incorrect?
(a) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid
(b) O3 molecule is bent
(c) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N–.
(d) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at the same temperature and pressure is called a saturated
solution.
(b) An unsaturated solution is one in which more solute can be dissolved at the same temperature.
(c) The solution which is in dynamic equilibrium with undissolved solute is the saturated solution.
(d) The minimum amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solvent is its solubility.
42. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of boiling point.
Propan - 1- ol, butan - 1 - ol, butan - 2 - ol,
pentan - 1 - ol
(a) Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol (b) Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol
(c) Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, propan-1-ol (d) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol
43. Which one of the following is wrong?
(a) Oxygen and sulphur belong to the same group of periodic table
(b) Oxygen is a gas while sulphur is solid
(c) Both oxygen and sulphur show +2, +4 and +6 oxidation states
(d) H2S has no hydrogen bonding
44. Which of the following statements is true for ionic solids ?
(a) Ionic solids are soluble in CCl4, C6H6, etc.
(b) Under the electric field cations and anions acquire translatory motion in opposite directions
(c) Structural units have strong electrostatic force of attraction
(d) Structural units have dipole-dipole interactions
 Sample Paper-5 SP-35

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
45. Assertion : Liquid He can climb up the wall of the glass vessel in which it is placed.
Reason : Liquid flow from a higher to a lower level.
46. Assertion : Lower alcohols are soluble in water.
Reason : Lower alcohols do not form hydrogen bonding with water molecules.
47. Assertion : Symmetric and unsymmetric ethers can be prepared by Williamson’s synthesis.
Reason : Williamson’s synthesis is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction.
48. Assertion: Oxygen is thermodynamically more stable than ozone.
Reason: Ozone decomposes to form oxygen.
49. Assertion : o-nitrophenol is less soluble in water than the m and p-isomers.
Reason : m and p-nitrophenols exist as associated molecules.
SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the columns

Column - I Column - II
(A) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl (p) gem-Dichloride
(B) CH2 = CHX (q) Vinylic halide
(C) CH3CHCl2 (r) vic-Dichloride
(D) CH2Cl CH2Cl (s) Allylic halide
(a) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s) (b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r) (d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
51. Which of the following analogies is incorrect?
(a) XeF4 : square planar : : XeO3 : Pyramidal (b) XeOF4 : square pyramidal : : XeF2 : Linear
(c) XeOF4 : Pyramidal : : XeF4 : square pyramidal (d) XeO3 : Pyramidal : : XeOF4 : square pyramidal
52. For the reaction sequence
AgCN Re duction
C 2 H 5 Br X Y
Which of the following analogies is correct?
(a) X : Ethyl isocyanide : : Y : Ethylmethylamine (b) X : Ethylamine : : Y : Isopropylamine
(c) X : Ethyl isocyanide : : Y : Ethylamine (d) X : Isopropylamine : : Y : n-propylamine

Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.

The normal boiling point of a substance is the temperature at which the vapour pressure equals 1 atm. If a nonvolatile solute
lowers the vapour pressure of a solvent, it must also affect the boiling point. Because the vapour pressure of the solution at a
given temperature is less than the vapour pressure of the pure solvent, achieving a vapour pressure of 1 atm for the solution
requires a higher temperature than the normal boiling point of the solvent. Thus the boiling point of a solution is always greater
than that of the pure solvent. The magnitude of the increase in the boiling point is related to the magnitude of the decrease in the
vapour pressure. The decrease in the vapour pressure is proportional to the concentration of the solute in the solution. Hence the
magnitude of the increase in the boiling point must also be proportional to the concentration of the solute.
 EBD_7358
SP-36 Chemistry

53. Identify which of the following is a colligative property :

(a) freezing point (b) boiling point
(c) osmotic pressure (d) all of the above
54. Assume three samples of juices A, B and C have glucose as the only sugar present in them. The concentration of sample A,
B and C are 0.1M, .5M and 0.2 M respectively. Freezing point will be highest for the fruit juice:
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) All have same freezing point
55. When a non volatile solid is added to pure water it will:
(a) boil above 100°C and freeze above 0°C (b) boil below 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(c) boil above 100°C and freeze below 0°C (d) boil below 100°C and freeze below 0°C
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –5
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 6
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Consider the reactions :
C2 H 5OH
(i) (CH 3 )2 CH CH 2 Br (CH3)2CH – CH2OC2H5 + HBr

C2 H5O
(ii) (CH 3 )2 CH CH 2Br (CH3)2CH – CH2OC2H5 + Br–
The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively :
(a) SN1 and SN2 (b) SN1 and SN1 (c) SN2 and SN2 (d) SN2 and SN1
2. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has a boiling point higher than either of them when it:
(a) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law (b) shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(c) shows ideal behaviour (d) is saturated
3. The oxidation state of central atom in the anion of compound NaH2PO2 will be ................. .
(a) + 3 (b) + 5 (c) + 1 (d) – 3
4. The solubility of gases in liquids (water) is favoured by
(a) increase in both pressure and temperature (b) decrease in both pressure and temperature
(c) increase in pressure and decrease in temperature (d) decrease in pressure and increase in tempeature
5. The symbols D and L represent
(a) the optical activity of compounds. (b) the relative configuration of a particular stereoisomer.
(c) the dextrorotatory nature of molecule. (d) the levorotatory nature of molecule
6. At room temperature, HCl is a gas while HF is a low boiling liquid. This is because
(a) H- F bond is covalent (b) H- F bond is ionic
(c) HF has metallic bond (d) HF has hydrogen bond
7. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction?
CH3CH2CH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl + CH3CH2CHClCH3
(a) Cl2 /UV light (b) NaCl + H2SO4
(c) Cl2 gas in dark (d) Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark
8. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(a) SO2 dissolves in water and forms sulphurous acid (b) SO2 acts as a bleaching agent
(c) SO2 has pungent odour (d) SO2 acts only as oxidising agent
 EBD_7358
SP-40 Chemistry

9. Most crystals show good cleavage because their atoms, ions or molecules are
(a) weakly bonded together (b) strongly bonded together
(c) spherically symmetrical (d) arranged in planes
10. The unit of ebullioscopic constant is
(a) K kg mol–1 or K (molality)–1 (b) mol kg K–1 or K–1 (molality)
–1 –1 –1
(c) kg mol K or K (molality) –1 (d) K mol kg–1 or K (molality)
11. In face centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
12. The major product formed when 1, 1, 1-trichloro-propane is treated with aqueous potassium hydroxide is:
(a) Propyne (b) 1-Propanol (c) 2-Propanol (d) Propionic acid
13. -Amino acids are
(a) acidic due to –COOH group and basic due to –NH2 group
(b) acidic due to – NH3+ group and basic due to – COO– group.
(c) neither acidic nor basic.
(d) none is true.
14. When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the product formed is
NH2 Cl
(a) CH3 — CH = CH2 (b) CH 3 — C CH (c) CH3CH2CH (d) CH3CH2CH
NH2 NH2
15. Which one of the following pairs is obtained on heating ammonium dichromate?
(a) N2 and H2O (b) N2O and H2O (c) NO and H2O (d) NO and NO2
16. Molecular formula of amyl alcohol is
(a) C7 H14 O (b) C6 H13 O (c) C5H12 O (d) C5H10 O
17. The limiting radius ratio for tetrahedral shape is:
(a) 0 to 0.155 (b) 0.225 to 0.414 (c) 0.155 to 0.225 (d) 0.414 to 0.732
18. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?
(a) C6H5OH (b) C6H5CH2OH (c) (CH3)3COH (d) C2H5OH
19. Blood has been found to be isotonic with
(a) Normal saline solution (b) Saturated NaCl solution
(c) Saturated KCl solution (d) Saturated solution of a 1 : 1 mixture of NaCl and KCl
–
O
20. Which one of the following substituents at para-position is most effective in stabilizing the phenoxide ion?

(a) – CH3 (b) – OCH3 (c) – COCH3 (d) – CH2OH

21. Which of the following is the best description for the behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below ?
H 2 O Br2 HOBr HBr
(a) Proton acceptor only (b) Both oxidized and reduced
(c) Oxidized only (d) Reduced only
22. Glycosidic linkage is actually an :
(a) Carbonyl bond (b) Ether bond (c) Ester bond (d) Amide bond
23. 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in ethanol. The major product obtained is
(a) 2-ethoxypentane (b) pentene-1 (c) trans-2-pentene (d) cis-pentene-2
24. Which of the following is the correct method of preparation of methyl fluoride?
(a) CH4 + HF (b) CH3OH + HF (c) CH4 + F2 (d) CH3Br + AgF
25. Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?
(a) All form monobasic oxyacids (b) All are oxidizing agents
(c) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy (d) All but fluorine shows positive oxidation states
 Sample Paper-6 SP-41

SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. The molecular mass of a solute cannot be calculated by which of the following?

WB RT po WB MA Tb WB 1000 K b WB 1000
(a) MB = (b) MB = (c) MB = (d) MB =
V (po p)WA K b WA Tb WA

27. Which inert gas show abnormal behaviour on liquefaction

(a) Xe (b) He (c) Ar (d) Kr
28. If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATGCTTGA, the sequence in the complimentary strand would be
(a) TCCGAACT (b) TACGTAGT (c) TACGAACT (d) TAGCTAGT
29. In the solid state, SO3 may have structure

O O
S
O O O
O O
(a) O O (b) S S S
S S O O O
O O O
O O O

(c) a & b both (d) None of these

30. Which yields isopropyl methyl ether with little or no by products ?

(a) (CH 3 ) 2 CHO Na CH 3 I (b) CH3O Na+ (CH3 ) 2 CHI

H 2SO 4
(c) (CH 3 ) 2 CHOH CH 3 OH (d) All of these
31. By mixing ammonium chloride to potassium nitrite and heating, we get
(a) Ammonium nitrate (b) KNH4(NO3)2 (c) Nitrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide
32. The solubility of N2 in water at 300 K and 500 torr partial pressure is 0.01 g L–1.The solubility (in g L–1) at 750 torr partial
pressure is :
(a) 0.0075 (b) 0.005 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.015
33. The volume of 4 N HCl and 10 N HCl required to make 1 litre of 6 N HCl are
(a) 0.75 litre of 10 N HCl and 0.25 litre of 4 N HCl (b) 0.50 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.50 litre of 10 N HCl
(c) 0.67 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.33 litre of 10 N HCl (d) 0.80 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.20 litre of 10 N HCl
34. The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of C2H5Cl are :

UV light dark
(a) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2 (b) C2H6 + Cl2 room temperatur e

UV light UV light
(c) C2H6 + Cl2 (excess) (d) C2H6 + Cl2
35. The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen atoms in S2 O8–2 and the number of bonds between sulphur and sulphur
atoms in rhombic sulphur, respectively, are:
(a) 4 and 6 (b) 8 and 8 (c) 8 and 6 (d) 4 and 8
36. Glucose molecule reacts with 'X' number of molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of 'X' is
(a) four (b) one (c) two (d) three
37. On sulphonation of C6H5Cl
(a) m-chlorobenzenesulphonic acid is formed (b) benzenesulphonic acid is formed
(c) o-chlorobenzenesulphonic acid is formed (d) mixture of o- and p-chlorobenzene sulphonic acid is formed
 EBD_7358
SP-42 Chemistry

38. Helium-oxygen mixture is used by deep sea divers in preference to nitrogen-oxygen mixture because
(a) Nitrogen is much less soluble in blood than helium
(b) Helium is much less soluble in blood than nitrogen
(c) Nitrogen is highly soluble in water
(d) Due to high pressure deep under the sea nitrogen and oxygen react to give poisonous nitric oxide.
39. The radii of Na+ and Cl– ions are 95 pm and 181 pm respectively. The edge length of NaCl unit cell is
(a) 276 pm (b) 138 pm (c) 552 pm (d) 415 pm
40. Among the following compounds, which one has the shortest C – Cl bond?

H3C Cl
(a) H3C Cl (b) HC Cl (c) H3C – Cl (d) CH
CH3 CH2 CH2

41. Iodine reacts with concentrated HNO3 to yield Y along with other products. The oxidation state of iodine in Y, is:
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 1
42. A solid dissolves in water exothermically. If its saturated solution at 20°C is cooled to 0°C, then
(a) some solid seperates out (b) some ice separates out
(c) both the solid and ice separate (d) neither the solid nor the ice separates out
43. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of anisole?
(a) Phenol + dimethyl sulphate in presence of a base (b) Sodium phenoxide is treated with methyl iodide
(c) Reaction of diazomethane with phenol (d) Reaction of methylmagnesium iodide with phenol
44. The number of Cl = O bonds in perchloric acid is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

45. Assertion: An ionic compound AB3 has fcc arrangement where ‘A’ present at corner. If A atoms are missing from two
corners in each unit cell. The new formula of compound will be AB4.
Reason : No. of atom ‘A’ per unit cell will become 3/4.
46. Assertion: A mixture of He and O2 is used for respiration for deep sea divers.
Reason : He is soluble in blood.
47. Assertion : Lucas reagent [HCl + ZnCl2 (anhydrous)] on reaction with tertiary alcohols immediately produces turbidity.
Reason : This is because tertiary alcohols easily form halides which are immiscribe in water.
48. Assertion: ter-butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the reaction of ter-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide.
Reason: Sodium methoxide is a strong nucleophile.
49. Assertion : Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as S8 but oxygen exists as O2.
Reason : Oxygen forms p – p multiple bond due to small size and small bond length but p – p bonding is not possible in
sulphur.
 Sample Paper-6 SP-43

SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

OH

(A) (p) Quinol

OH
OH
(B) (q) Phenol

OH

(C) (r) Catechol

OH

OH

(D) (s) Resorcinol

OH

(a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r) (d) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
51. Which of the following analogies is incorrect?
(a) Iodoform : Antiseptic : : Freon-14 : CF4
(b) CH3 – Br + AgF : Finkelstein reacton : : CH3Cl + NaI : Swartz reaction
NaNO 2 +HCl Cl 2 /UV light
(c) C6 H 5 NH 2 : Sandmeyer’s : : C 2 H6 : Free radical substitution
Cu 2Cl C2 H5Cl

(d) F– : Poor leaving group : : I– : Good leaving group

52. The number of S=O and S–OH bonds present in peroxodisulphuric acid is A and for pyrosulphuric acid its B. A and B are :
(a) A : 2, 2 : : B : 2, 2 (b) A : 2, 4 : : B : 2, 4 (c) A : 4, 2 : : B : 2, 4 (d) A : 4, 2 : : B : 4, 2
Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.

Solids can be classified as crystalline or amorphous on the basis of the nature of order present in the arrangement of their
constituent particles. Amorphous solids behave like super cool liquids as the arrangement of constituent particles has short-range
order, isotropic in nature and no sharp melting point. Crystalline solids have a characteristic shape, with the arrangement of
constituent particles of long-range order, anisotropic in nature and a sharp melting point. The classification of crystalline solids is
based on their property. The crystalline property depends on the nature of interactions between the constituent particles, and
therefore these solids are divided into four different categories:
 EBD_7358
SP-44 Chemistry

• Ionic solids
• Covalent or Network solids
• Molecular solids
• Metallic solids
53. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Crystalline solids have definite characteristic geometrical shape.
(ii) Crystalline solids have long range order.
(iii) Sodium chloride and quartz glass are examples of crystalline solids.
(iv) Crystalline solids are isotropic in nature.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) only
54. Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature. What is the meaning of anisotropic in the given statement?
(a) A regular pattern of arrangement of particles which repeats itself periodically over the entire crystal.
(b) Different values of some of physical properties are shown when measured along different rdirections in the same
crystals.
(c) An irregular arrangement of particles over the entire crystal.
(d) Same values of some of physical properties are shown when measured along different directions in the same crystals.
55. Which of the following statements about amorphous solids is incorrect ?
(a) They melt over a range of temperature. (b) They are anisotropic.
(c) There is no orderly arrangement of particles. (d) They can be compressible.
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –6
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 7
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. If phosphorous acid is allowed to react with sufficient quantity of KOH, the product obtained is
(a) K3PO3 (b) KH2PO3 (c) K2HPO3 (d) KHPO3
2. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction is
(a) electrophilic elimination reaction (b) electrophilic substitution reaction
(c) free radical addition reaction (d) nucleophilic substitution reaction
3. Maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified amount of a given liquid solvent does not depend upon
.............. .
(a) temperature (b) nature of solute (c) pressure (d) nature of solvent
4. Which of the following acids forms three series of salts?
(a) H3PO2 (b) H3BO3 (c) H3PO4 (d) H3PO3
5. A beaker contains a solution of substance ‘A’. Precipitation of substance ‘A’ takes place when small amount of ‘A’ is added
to the solution. The solution is ............ .
(a) saturated (b) supersaturated (c) unsaturated (d) concentrated
6. In fibrous proteins, polypeptide chains are held together by
(a) van der waals forces (b) electrostatic forces of attraction
(c) hydrogen bonds (d) covalent bonds
7. Which element out of He, Ar, Kr and Xe forms least number of compounds ?
(a) He (b) Ar (c) Kr (d) Xe
8. Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?
(a) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br (b) C6H5CH(CH3)Br (c) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br (d) C6H5CH2Br
9. The element which has not yet been reacted with F2 is
(a) Ar (b) Xe (c) Kr (d) Rn
10. The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions "a = 0.387, b = 0.387 and c = 0.504nm and = = 90° and
= 120° " is :
(a) cubic (b) hexagonal (c) orthorhombic (d) rhombohedral
11. At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is .......
(a) less than the rate of crystallisation (b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crystallisation (d) zero
 EBD_7358
SP-48 Chemistry

12. The Ca2+ and F– are located in CaF2 crystal, respectively at face centred cubic lattice points and in
(a) tetrahedral voids (b) half of tetrahedral voids
(c) octahedral voids (d) half of octahedral voids
13. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl halides for a SN2 reaction is
(a) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (b) RF > RBr > RCl > RI
(c) RCl > RBr > RF > RI (d) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
14. When chlorine is passed through propene at 400°C, which of the following is formed ?
(a) PVC (b) Allyl chloride (c) Alkyl chloride (d) 1, 2-Dichloroethane
15. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) Epimers are also anomers (b) Anomers are also epimers
(c) Both of the above statements are true (d) Neither of the two statement is true
16. 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in ethanol. The major product obtained is
(a) 2-ethoxypentane (b) pentene-1 (c) trans-2-pentene (d) cis-pentene-2
17. Which of the following is the life saving mixture for an asthma patient ?
(a) Mixture of helium and oxygen (b) Mixture of neon and oxygen
(c) Mixture of xenon and nitrogen (d) Mixture of argon and oxygen
18. Which of the following is not true in case of reaction with heated copper at 300°C?
(a) Phenol Benzyl alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol Ketone
(c) Primary alcohol Aldehyde (d) Tertiary alcohol Olefin
19. In CsCl type structure, the co-ordination number of Cs+ and Cl– respectively are :
(a) 6, 6 (b) 6, 8 (c) 8, 8 (d) 8, 6
20. Propene, CH3CH = CH2 can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Indicate which set of reagents amongst the following is
ideal to effect the above conversion?
(a) KMnO4 (alkaline) (b) Osmium tetraoxide (OsO4/CH2Cl2)
(c) B2H6 and alk. H2O2 (d) O3/Zn
21. The value of Henry's constant KH is _______.
(a) greater for gases with higher solubility. (b) greater for gases with lower solubility.
(c) constant for all gases. (d) not related to the solubility of gases.
22. Give IUPAC name of the compound given below.
CH3 — CH — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH— CH3
| |
Cl OH
(a) 2-chloro-5-hydroxyhexane (b) 2-hydroxy-5-chlorohexane
(c) 5-chlorohexan-2-ol (d) 2-chlorohexan-5-ol
23. Which of the following noble gases has the highest positive electron gain enthalpy value?
(a) Helium (b) Krypton (c) Argon (d) Neon
24. Benedict’s reagent is reduced by which type of carbohydrates ?
(a) Acetals (b) Hemiacetals (c) Glucose pentaacetate (d) None of the three
25. When m-chloronitrobenzene is treated with sodamide in presene of liquid ammonia, main product is
(a) o-Nitroaniline (b) p-Nitroaniline (c) m - Nitroaniline (d) All of these
SECTION-B

This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. Comment on the following reactions
(i) CH3OH + NaCl
(ii) CH3OH + HCl
(a) Both reactions take place easily (b) Only reaction (ii) takes place
(c) Reaction (ii) takes places faster than (i) (d) None of the two reactions in possible
27. On heating, lead (II) nitrate gives a brown gas (A). The gas (A) on cooling changes to a colourless solid/liquid (B). (B) on
heating with NO changes to a blue solid (C). The oxidation number of nitrogen in solid (C) is :
(a) +5 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +4
 Sample Paper-7 SP-49

28. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol 1) boils at 100.18 C at the atmospheric pressure. If K f and Kb for water are 1.86
and 0.512 K kg mol 1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at
(a) 0.654 C (b) 0.654 C (c) 6.54 C (d) 6.54 C
29. White phosphorus on reaction with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2 gives phosphine and
compound (X). (X) on acidification with HCl gives compound (Y). The basicity of compound (Y) is:
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3
+
NH 3

30. Increase in pH of the solution converts RCHCOO to

+
NH2 NH 2

(a) RCHCOOH (b) RCHCOOH (c) RCHCOO (d) None

NH 2
31. The correct order of the oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, N 2O, NO2 and N2O3 is:
(a) NO2 < NO < N2O3 < N2O (b) NO2 < N2O3 < NO < N2O
(c) N2O < N2O3 < NO < NO2 (d) N2O < NO < N2O3 < NO2
32. Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?

OH CH2OH CH2OH OH

CH3 CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) A, B, C, D (b) A, D (c) B, C (d) A

33. If the boiling point of H2O is 373 K, the boiling point of H2S will be :
(a) less than 300 K (b) equal to 373 K
(c) more than 373 K (d) greater than 300 K but less than 373 K
34. Osmotic pressure of 0.4% urea solution is 1.64 atm and that of 3.42% cane sugar is 2.46 atm. When the above two solutions
are mixed, the osmotic pressure of the resulting solution is :
(a) 0.82 atm (b) 2.46 atm (c) 1.64 atm (d) 4.10 atm
35. Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm, at 27°C. Number of moles of glucose to be used per litre for an intravenous injection that
is to have same osmotic pressure of blood is:
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.4
36. Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution than alkylhalides. Which of the following accounts
for this ?
(i) Due to resonance in aryl halides.
(ii) In alkyl halides carbon atom in C–X bond is sp2 hybridised whereas in aryl halides carbon atom in C–X bond is sp3
hybridized.
(iii) Due to stability of phenyl cation.
(iv) Due to possible repulsion there are less chances of nucleophile to approach electron rich arenes.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
37. Reaction of an inorganic sulphite X with dilute H2SO4 generates compound Y. Reaction of Y with NaOH gives X. Further, the
reaction of X with Y and water affords compound Z. Y and Z, respectively, are:
(a) SO2 and Na2SO3 (b) SO3 and NaHSO3 (c) SO2 and NaHSO3 (d) S and Na2SO3
38. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) In -helix structure a polypeptide chain forms all possible hydrogen bonds by twisting into a right handed screw.
(b) In -structure of proteins all peptide chains are stretched out to nearly maximum extension.
(c) During denaturation 1° and 2° structures are destroyed but 3° structure remains intact.
(d) All the above statements are incorrect.
 EBD_7358
SP-50 Chemistry

39. What is the product of the following reaction ?

Cl

(CH 3 ) 2 NLi
?
(CH 3 ) 2 NH

(a) N, N-dimethylaniline (b) phenyllithium (C6H5Li)

(c) para-chloro-N, N-dimethylaniline (d) meta-chloro-N, N-dimethylaniline
40. Arrange the following bonds according to their average bond energies in descending order: C – Cl,C – Br, C – F, C – I
(a) C – F > C – Cl > C – Br > C – I (b) C – Br > C – I > C – C1 > C – F
(c) C – I > C – Br > C – Cl > C – F (d) C – Cl > C – Br > C – I > C – F
41. An element (atomic mass = 100 g / mol) having bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. Then, density of the element is
(a) 10.376 g/cm3 (b) 5.188 g/cm3 (c) 7.289 g/cm3 (d) 2.144 g/cm36
42. Which of the following synthetic schemes would be the best for the synthesis of the compound, 2-bromo-1-chloro-4-
nitrobenzene?
Cl
Br

NO2
2-bromo-1-chloro-4-nitrobenzene

Br2 HNO3 Cl 2 Br2 Cl 2 HNO3

(a) FeBr3 H 2SO 4 AlCl 3 (b) FeBr3 AlCl 3 H 2SO 4

Cl 2 HNO3 Br2 Cl 2 Br2 HNO3

(c) AlCl 3 H 2SO 4 FeBr3 (d) AlCl 3 FeBr3 H 2SO 4

43. In the following reactions, products (A) and (B), respectively, are:
NaOH + Cl2 (A) + side products (hot and conc.)
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 (B) + side products (dry)
(a) NaClO3, and Ca(OCl)2 (b) NaClO3 and Ca(ClO3)2

(c) NaOCl and Ca(OCl)2 (d) NaOCl and Ca(ClO3)2

44. –1
A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol ) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The
freezing point of the solution obtained will be ( Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1).
(a) – 0.372°C (b) – 0.520°C (d) + 0.372°C (d) – 0.570°C
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
45. Assertion : With HI, anisole gives iodobenzene and methanol.
Reason : I– is a good leaving group.
46. Assertion : Fluorine exists only in –1 oxidation state.
Reason : Fluorine has 2s22p5 configuration.
47. Assertion : Graphite is an example hexagonal crystal system.
Reason : For a hexagonal system, a = b c, = = 90°, = 120°.
 Sample Paper-7 SP-51

48. Assertion : The fluorine has lower reactivity.

Reason : F – F bond has low bond dissociation energy.
49. Assertion : Reaction of HNO3 and H2SO4 with phenol yields nitrophenol.
Reason : – NO2 can displace OH from phenol.
SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable
number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the starting materials given in Column I with the products formed by these (Column II) in the reaction with HI.

Column-I Column-II
(A) CH3 – O – CH3 (i) OH

+ CH3I

(B) CH3 (ii) CH3

CH3 – O – CH3 |
CH3 CH3 – C – I + CH3OH
|
CH3
(C) CH3 (iii) CH3
| CH – OH – CH3I
CH3
CH3 – C – O – CH3
|
CH3

(D) OCH3 (iv) CH3 – OH + CH3 – I

(a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) (b) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
(c) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i) (d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
51. Choose the correct analogy.
Compounds of Phosphorus (A) : : Materials for Preparation (B).
(a) A : 4H3PO3 : : B : P2O3 + H2O (b) A : 2H3PO3 : : B : P4O10 + H2O
(c) A : PH3 : : B : Black P + alkali (d) A : H3PO2 : : B : White P + alkali

OH

52. : A :: A : B

For Kolbe’s reaction, complete the following analogy where A is the product for step 1 and B is the product for step 2.
(a) A : Phenoxide : : B : Salicylaldehyde (b) A : Phenoxide : : B : Benzaldehyde
(c) A : Phenoxide : : B : Salicylic acid (d) A : Phenoxide : : B : Benzoic acid
Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.

It is typical of aryl halides that they undergo nucleophilic substitution only with extreme difficulty. Except for certain industrial
processes where very severe conditions are feasible, one does not ordinarily prepare phenols (ArOH), ethers (ArOR), amines
(ArNH2), on nitriles (ArCN) by nucleophilic attack on aryl halides. The aryl halides cannot be used in the Friedel-Crafts’s
alkylation reaction just like alkyl halides, which can be used.
 EBD_7358
SP-52 Chemistry

However, aryl halides do undergo nucleophilic substitution readily if the aromatic ring contains, in addition to halogen, certain
other properly placed groups. The presence of electron withdrawing groups like –NO2, – CF3 at ortho or para position to the
halogen atom makes the aryl halides more susceptible to nucleophilic attack.
53. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give
(a) 3 – propyl – 1 – chlorobenzene (b) n-Propylbenzene
(c) No reaction (d) Isopropylbenzene
54. Read the following statements and choose the correct code
(i) SN2 reactions follows a second order kinetics whereas SN1 reactions follows the first order kinetics
(ii) SN1 reactions follows the second order kinetics whereas S N2 follows the first order kinetics
(iii) SN2 reactions take place in a single step whereas SN1 reactions take place in two steps
(iv) Tertiary alkyl halides are least reactive towards SN2 reactions but we observe high reactivity towards SN1 reaction.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
55. Consider the following bromides :

Me Me
Me Br Me

Br Br
(A) (B) (C)

The correct order of SN1 reactivity is

(a) B > C > A (b) B > A > C (c) C >B >A (d) A>B>C
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –7
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 8
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35

General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A

This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Basicity of orthophosphoric acid is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
alc. HBr Na
2. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl B C D
KOH ether
In the above sequence of reactions, the product D is
(a) propane (b) 2, 3-dimethylbutane (c) hexane (d) allyl bromide
3. 200 mL of water is added to 500 mL of 0.2 M solution. What is the molarity of this diluted solution ?
(a) 0.5010 M (b) 0.2897 M (c) 0.7093 M (d) 0.1428 M
4. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess water gives
(a) one mole of phosphine (b) two moles of phosphoric acid
(c) two moles of phosphine (d) one mole of phosphorus pentoxide
5. An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value of X is
(a) 14 (b) 3.2 (c) 1.4 (d) 2
6. For osazone formation, the effective structural unit necessary is
(a) CH2OCH3 (b) CH2OH (c) CH2OH (d) CHO
—
—

—
—

CO CO CHOCH3 CHOCH3
—
—

—
—

7. The structural formula of hypophosphorous acid is

O O O O
P P P P
(a) H (b) H (c) HO (d) H
OH OH OH OOH
H OH OH OH
8. In the following sequence of reactions
AgCN Reduction
C 2 H 5 Br X Y ; Y is
(a) n-propyl amine (b) isopropyl amine (c) ethyl amine (d) ethylmethyl amine
 EBD_7358
SP-56 Chemistry

9. The number of atoms present in a hexagonal close-packed unit cell is :

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
10. Liquid ammonia bottles are opened after cooling them in ice for sometime. It is because liquid NH3
(a) Brings tears to the eyes (b) Has a high vapour pressure
(c) Is a corrosive liquid (d) Is a mild explosive
11. In which of the following pairs of structures, tetrahedral as well as octahedral holes are found?
(a) bcc and fcc (b) hcp and simple cubic
(c) hcp and ccp (d) bcc and hcp
12. On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution feels cools to touch. Under which of the following cases dissolution of
sugar will be most rapid?
(a) Sugar crystals in cold water (b) Sugar crystals in hot water
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water (d) Powdered sugar in hot water
13. If the radius of the anion in an ionic solid is 200 pm, what would be the radius of the cation that fits exactly into a cubic hole?
(a) 146.4 pm (b) 82.8 pm (c) 45 pm (d) None of these
14. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl 3. Which of the following species
attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?
(a) Cl– (b) Cl+ (c) AlCl3 (d) [AlCl4]–
15. Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures viz. -helix and -pleated sheet structure. -helix
structure of protein is stabilised by:
(a) peptide bonds (b) van der Waal’s forces
(c) hydrogen bonds (d) dipole-dipole interactions
16. Chloromethane on treatment with excess of ammonia yields mainly
CH3
(a) N, N-dimethylmethanamine CH3 —N ‚
CH3
(b) N-methylmethanamine (CH3 — NH — CH3)
(c) methanamine (CH3NH2)
(d) mixture containing all these in equal proportion
17. Which of the following oxides is neutral ?
(a) N2O3 (b) N2O4 (c) N2O5 (d) N2O
18. Alcoholic beverages contain :
(a) isopropyl alcohol (b) n-propyl alcohol (c) ethyl alcohol (d) methyl alcohol
19. The most unsymmetrical and symmetrical systems are, respectively :
(a) Tetragonal, Cubic (b) Triclinic , Cubic
(c) Rhombohedral, Hexagonal (d) Orthorhombic, Cubic
CH3
20. The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH – CH3 is :
OH
(a) 1, 1-dimethyl-1, 3-butanediol
(b) 2-methyl-2-pentanol
(c) 4-methyl-2, 4-pentanediol
(d) 1, 3, 3-trimethyl-1, 3-propanediol
21. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4 ?
(a) 0.5 N (b) 1.0 N (c) 2.0 N (d) 3.0 N
22. The characteristic grouping of secondary alcohols is
(a) CH 2OH (b) CHOH
| OH
(c) C OH (d) C
| OH
23. How many sigma bonds are present in P4O10?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 12
 Sample Paper-8 SP-57

24. Optical rotations of some compounds alongwith their structures are given below which of them have D configuration.
CH2OH
CHO
CHO
H OH C=O
H OH HO H HO H
H OH H OH
CH2OH H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
(+) rotation (+) rotation (–) rotation
(I) (II) (III)
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III (c) I, II (d) III
25. An organic compound A (C4H9Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on monochlorination gives
only one chloro derivative, then A is
(a) tert-butyl chloride (b) sec-butyl chloride (c) iso-butyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
SECTION-B

This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds?
1 - bromoethane, 1 - bromopropane, 1 - bromobutane, Bromobenzene
(a) Bromobenzene < 1 - bromobutane < 1 - bromopropane < 1- bromoethane
(b) Bromobenzene < 1 - bromobutane < 1 - bromopropane < 1- bromobutane
(c) 1 - bromopropane < 1 - bromorpropane < 1 - bromoethane < Bromobenzene
(d) 1 - bromoethane < 1 - bromopropane < 1 - bromobutane < Bromobenzene
27. What is Z in following reaction
CuSO4 + Z Cu3P2 +H2SO4
HgCl2 + Z Hg3P2 +HCl
(a) White phosphorus (b) Red phosphorus (c) Phosphine (d) Orthophosphoric acid
28. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.
Information
(i) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A — A and B — B type are nearly same as A
— B type interactions.
(ii) In ethanol and acetone mixture A — A or B — B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A — B type
interactions.
(iii) In chloroform and acetone mixture A — A or B — B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than A — B type
interactions.
(a) Solution (ii) and (iii) will follow Raoult's law
(b) Solution (i) will follow Raoult's law
(c) Solution (ii) will show negative deviation from Raoult's law
(d) Solution (iii) will show positive deviation from Raoult's law
29. Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends indicated against it ?
(i) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidizing power (ii) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electron gain enthalpy
(iii) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond dissociation energy (iv) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electronegativity.
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
30. Which of the following pairs represents anomers?

CHO CHO
HO H CHO CHO
H OH
H OH HO H
HO H HO H
HO H H OH
(a) H OH H OH (b) H OH HO H
H OH H OH
H OH HO H
CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH CH2OH
 EBD_7358
SP-58 Chemistry

H OH HO H H OH HO H
H OH H OH H OH HO H
(c) HO H O HO H O (d) HO H O H OH O
H OH H OH H OH HO H
H H H H
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
31. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum.
(ii) Leaving F—F bond, all halogens have weaker X—X bond than X—X bond in interhalogens.
(iii) Among interhalogen compounds maximum number of atoms are present in iodine fluoride.
(iv) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
32. tert-Butyl ethyl ether can’t be prepared by which reaction?
H
(a) tert Butanol ethanol (b) tert-Butyl bromide + sodium ethoxide
H
(c) Sodium tert-butoxide + ethyl bromide (d) Isobutene ethanol
33. Which of the following statements regarding properties of halogens are correct?
(i) Due to small size electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of chlorine.
(ii) Iodine has same physical state but different colour as compare to other members of the group.
(iii) Fluorine shows no positive oxidation state.
(iv) In X2(g) + H2O(l) HX(aq) + HOX(aq) (where X2 = Cl or Br)
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
34. When solid SnO2 is added to an aqueous solution of NaOH, the
(a) vapour pressure is lowered (b) vapour pressure is raised
(c) osmotic pressure is increased (d) boiling point is raised
35. At 300 K the vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing 1 mole of liquid A and 2 moles of liquid B is 500 mm of Hg. The
vapour pressure of the solution increases by 25 mm of Hg, if one more mole of B is added to the above ideal solution at 300
K. Then the vapour pressure of A in its pure state is
(a) 300 mm of Hg (b) 400 mm of Hg (c) 500 mm of Hg (d) 600 mm of Hg
36. Arrange the following halides in the decreasing order of SN1 reactivity :
CH3CH 2CH 2Cl, CH 2 = CHCH(Cl)CH3 , CH3CH 2CH(Cl)CH3
(I) (II) (III)
(a) I > II > III (b) II > I > III (c) II > III > I (d) III > II > I
37. Trigonal bipyramidal geometry is shown by :
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO3F2 (c) FXeOSO2F (d) [XeF8]2–
38. Which of the following statement is not true about secondary structure of protein ?
(a) The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of secondary structure of protein.
(b) The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary structure.
(c) The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
(d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
39. Which of the following alcohols will yield the corresponding alkyl chloride on reaction with concentrated HCl at room
temperature?

(a) CH3CH 2 — CH 2 — OH (b) CH3CH 2 CH OH

|
CH3

CH3
|
(c) CH3CH2 – CH—CH2OH (d) CH3CH2 – C – OH
| |
CH3 CH3
 Sample Paper-8 SP-59

40. Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Only type of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.
(ii) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close to that of xenon.
(iii) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is redox reaction.
(iv) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
41. –
In NaCl crystal each Cl ion is surrounded by
(a) 4 Na+ ions (b) 6 Na+ ions (c) 1 Na+ ions (d) 2 Na+ ions
42. Which of the following is not used in Friedel-Craft’s reaction?
(a) N–Phenyl acetanilide (b) Bromobenzene (c) Benzene (d) Chlorobenzene
43. A certain salt (X) gives the following tests :
(i) Its aqueous solution is alkaline to litmus.
(ii) On strongly heating it swells to give a glassy bead
(iii) When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to a hot concentrated solution of (X), crystals of H3BO3 separate out.
Identify the colour of these crystals.
(a) White (b) Blue (c) Brown (d) Violet
44. The azeotropic mixture of water (b.p.100°C) and HCl (b.p.85°C) boils at 108.5°C. When this mixture is distilled it is possible to
obtain
(a) pure HCl (b) pure water
(c) pure water as well as pure HCl (d) neither HCl nor H2O in their pure states
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
45. Assertion : Small armount of ingestion of methanol causes blindness and death.
Reason : This is because methanol is oxidised first to methanal and then to methanoic acid which may cause blindness and
death.
46. Assertion: HNO3 makes iron passive
Reason: HNO3 forms a protective layer of ferric nitrate on the surface of iron.
47. Assertion: KBr shows schottky as well as Frenkel defect.
Reason: Schottky and Frenkel defects are exhibited by ionic compounds in which radius ratio is intermediate.
48. Assertion: HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI with concentrated H2SO4.
Reason: HI has lowest H — X bond strength among halogen acids.
49. Assertion : When alkyl aryl ethers react with excess of hydrogen halides, phenol and alkyl halide are produced.
Reason : Alkyl aryl ethers are cleaved at the alkyl-oxygen due to more stable aryl-oxygen bond.
SECTION-C

This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II
(A) Antifreeze used in carengine (p) Methanol
(B) Solvent used in perfumes (q) Phenol
(C) Starting material for picric acid (r) Ethlene glycol
(D) Wood spirit (s) Ethanol
(a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
(b) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p)
(d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s)
 EBD_7358
SP-60 Chemistry

51. Complete the following analogy:

A: Ionic compound with Covalent character : : B : Covalent compound with Ionic character
(a) A : LiI : : B : NaCl (b) A : Al2S3 : : B : LiF
(c) A : AlCl3 : : B : HCl (d) A : NaCl : : B : LiF
52. Which of the following analogies is correct?
(a) Vicinal dihalide : Ethylene chloride : : Gem dihalides : Ethylene dichloride

(b) Allylic halide : X : : Vinylic halides : CH2X

(c) Dipole moment : CH3Cl > CH3F : : Dipole moment : CH3Cl > CH3Br
(d) Para isomer : less symmetric : : Meta isomer : more symmetric

Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.

Alcohols and phenols are the most important compounds used in our daily life. Alcohols are prepared by hydration of alkenes,
fermentation of glucose, reduction of aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids, and esters. Alcohols are soluble in water. Boiling points
increase with the increase in molar mass and decrease with branching. Alcohols on dehydration give alkene at 443K, follow carbocation
mechanism. Excess of alcohol at 413K on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 also follows the carbocation mechanism but gives diethyl
ether. Alcohols undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions, esterification with carboxylic acids, and derivatives like amides, acid
halides, acid anhydride. Phenol is prepared from cumene, diazonium salts, anisole, and chlorobenzene. Phenol is used to prepare
salicylaldehyde, salicylic acid, aspirin, methyl salicylate, p-benzoquinone. Phenol undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction at o
& p-position.

CH 3
|
53. The IUPAC name of CH 3 CH CH 2 C CH 3 is
| |
OH OH

(a) 1, 1-dimethyl-1, 3-butanediol (b) 2-methyl-2, 4-pentanediol

(c) 4-methyl-2, 4-pentanediol (d) 1, 3, 3-trimethyl-1, 3-propanediol
54. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to the formation of
(a) primary alcohol
(b) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
(d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
55. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Alcohols react as nucleophiles in the reactions involving cleavage of O–H bond.
(ii) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions involving cleavage of O–H bond.
(iii) Alcohols react as nucleophile in the reaction involving cleavage of C–O bond.
(iv) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions involving C–O bond.
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) only
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –8
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 9
Time : 90 Minutes Max Marks : 35

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to
(a) reduction (b) hydrogenation (c) chlorination (d) oxidation
2. When phenol is reacted with CHCl3 and NaOH followed by acidification, salicyladehyde is obtained. Which of the following
species are involved in the above mentioned reaction as intermediate?

O OH
H CHCl2
+
(a) CCl2 (b) (c) (d)

3. n-Propyl bromide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide produces

(a) propane (b) propene (c) propyne (d) propanol
4. Which of the following is isoelectronic pair?
(a) ICl2, ClO2 (b) BrO 2 , BrF2 (c) ClO2, BrF (d) CN–, O3
5. When common salt is dissolved in water
(a) The melting point of the solution increases. (b) The boiling point of solution decreases.
(c) Both melting point and boiling point decrease. (d) The boiling point of the solution increases.
6. All of the following statements apply to proteins except
(a) Proteins generally have no definite melting point (b) Proteins contain the grouping —CONH—
(c) Proteins have high molecular weight (d) Proteins can only contain the elements C, H, O and N.
7. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a coloured gas?
(a) N2O (b) NO (c) N2O5 (d) NO2
8. When chlorobenzene is reacted with acetyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3, the major product formed is
(a) 2-chloroacetophenone (b) 3-chloroacetophenone
(c) 4-chloroacetophenone (d) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
9. In the unit cell of KCl (NaCl type), Cl ions constitute ccp and K+ ions fall into the octahedral holes. These holes are:
–

(a) one at the centre and 6 at the centres of the faces (b) one at the centre and 12 at the centres of the edges
(c) 8 at the centres of 8 small cubes forming the unit cell (d) none of these
 EBD_7358
SP-64 Chemistry

10. A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g NaOH in 1250 mL of a solvent of density 0.8 g/mL. The molality of the solution in
mol kg–1 is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.008 (d) 0.0064
11. When adenine is attached to ribose sugar, it is called adenosine. To make a nucleotide from it, it would require
(a) oxygenation (b) addition of a base (c) addition of phosphate (d) hydrogenation
12. The nitrogen oxides that contain(s) N–N bond(s) is /are
(i) N2O (ii) N2O3 (iii) N2O4 (iv) N2O5
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
13. Iodine molecules are held in the crystals lattice by......... .
(a) London forces (b) dipole – dipole interactions
(c) covalent bonds (d) coulombic forces
14. At the state of dynamic equilibrium, for
solute + solvent solution.
(a) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation. (b) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation.
(c) Rate of dissolution = Rate of saturation (d) Rate of crystallization = Rate of saturation.
15. The sharp melting point of crystalline solids is due to
(a) a regular arrangement of constituent particles observed over a short distance in the crystal lattice
(b) a regular arrangement of constituent particles observed over a long distance in the crystal lattice
(c) same arrangement of constituent particles in different directions
(d) different arrangement of constituent particles in different directions.
16. Which of the carbon atoms presents in the molecule given below are asymmetric?
OH H O
HO | | | ||
1 2 4
|| C — C — C — C |
3

| | H
O H OH
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3
17. The process by which synthesis of protein takes place based on the genetic information present in m-RNA is called
(a) Translation (b) Transcription (c) Replication (d) Messenger hypothesis
18. Arrange compounds in increasing order of reaction.

Cl Cl Cl
NO2
(i) (ii) (iii)
NO2
(a) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (b) (iii) < (ii) < (i) (c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) (d) (iii) < (i) < (ii)
19. Phosphine is not evolved when
(a) white phosphorus is boiled with a strong solution of Ba(OH)2
(b) phosphorus acid is heated
(c) calcium hypophosphite is heated
(d) metaphosphoric acid is heated.
20. Phenol undergoes electrophilic substitution more easily than benzene because
(a) –OH group exhibits +M effect and hence increases the electron density on the o- and p-positions.
(b) oxocation is more stable than the carbocation
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) –OH group exhibits acidic character
21. The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of unit cells is ...... .
(a) fcc < bcc < simple cubic (b) fcc > bcc > simple cubic
(c) fcc < bcc > simple cubic (d) bcc < fcc > simple cubic
22. An organic compound of molecular formula C4H10O does not react with sodium. With excess of HI, it gives only one type of
alkyl halide. The compound is
(a) Ethoxyethane (b) 2-Methoxypropane (c) 1-Methoxypropane (d) 1-Butanol
23. On mixing 40 mL of chloroform and 20 mL of acetone, the total volume of the solution is
(a) < 60 mL (b) > 60 mL (c) = 60 mL (d) Cannot be predicted
 Sample Paper-9 SP-65

24. Which of the esters shown, after reduction with LiAlH4 and aqueous workup, will yield two molecules of only a single
alcohol?
(a) CH3CH2CO2CH2CH3 (b) C6H5CO2CH2C6H5 (c) C6H5CO2C6H5 (d) None of these
25. P—O—P bond is present in
(a) H4P2O6 (b) H4P2O5 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
(a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone (b) – helical backbone
(c) hydrophobic interactions (d) sequence of – amino acids
27. Conant Finkelstein reaction for the preparation of alkyl iodide is based upon the fact that
(a) Sodium iodide is soluble in methanol, while sodium chloride is insoluble in methanol
(b) Sodium iodide is soluble in methanol, while NaCl and NaBr are insoluble in methanol
(c) Sodium iodide is insoluble in methanol, while NaCl and NaBr are soluble
(d) The three halogens differ considerably in their electronegativity
OH
28. CH3—F CH3—OH ....... (A)
——

(i) NaI
CH3—OH ....... (B)
(ii) OH
The best way to convert CH3F into CH3OH is
(a) A (b) B (c) Both are same (d) None
29. Which pair gives Cl2 at room temperature :
(a) NaCl + Conc. H 2SO 4 (b) Conc. HCl + KMnO4 (c) NaCl + Conc. HNO 3 (d) NaCl + MnO2
30. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm Hg. When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved in 250 g of benzene its
vapour pressure decreased to 120.2 mm Hg. The molecular weight of the solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78)
(a) 356.2 (b) 456.8 (c) 530.1 (d) 656.7
31. Which of the following element has the property of diffusing through most commonly used laboratory materials such as
rubber, glass or plastics?
(a) Xe (b) Rn (c) He (d) Ar
32. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA?
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th
33. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Natural abundance of noble gases is ~ 1% by volume of which Ar is the major constituent.
(ii) Noble gases have high positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
(iii) Preparation of XeF2 requires F2 in excess amount.
(iv) Complete hydrolysis of all three XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 gives Xe as one of product.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
34. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH + NaBr + H
Identify product and mechanism of the reaction
(a) Br and SN1 (b) Br and SN2

(c) and SN1 (d) and SN2

Br Br
35. Which of the following fluorides of xenon is impossible?
(a) XeF2 (b) XeF3 (c) XeF4 (d) XeF6
36. The boiling point of a solution of 0.11 g of a substance in 15 g of ether was found to be 0.1°C higher than that of pure ether.
The molecular weight of the substance will be (Kb = 2.16°K kg mol–1)
(a) 148 (b) 158 (c) 168 (d) 178
37. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4 ?
(a) 0.5 N (b) 1.0 N (c) 2.0 N (d) 3.0 N
 EBD_7358
SP-66 Chemistry

38. Consider the following anions.

O O –
O O
– –
CF3 S O C6H5 S O
CH3 C O–
O O (III) (IV)
(I) (II)

When attached to sp3-hydridised carbon, their leaving group ability in nucleophilic substitution reaction decreases in the
order:
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) I > II > IV > III (c) IV > I > II > III (d) IV > III > II > I
39. IUPAC name of m-cresol is ........... .
(a) 3-methylphenol (b) 3-chlorophenol (c) 3-methoxyphenol (d) benzene-1,3-diol
40. Which of the following is not a characteristics of fibrous proteins?
(a) In the fibrous proteins, polypeptide chains are held together by hydrogen and disulphide bonds.
(b) These have fibre like structure.
(c) These are generally soluble in water.
(d) These have elongated shape.
41. Which of the statement(s) is/are true, regarding following reaction?
R R
Nu –
R' CBr R' CNu + Br–
R'' R''
(i) The reaction involves the formation of transition state.
(ii) Higher the nucleophilic character of the nucleophile, faster will be the reaction.
(iii) The product is always optically inactive.
(a) (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) All the three (d) None of the three
42. The correct statement(s) about O3 is (are)
(i) O—O bond lengths are equal
(ii) Thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic
(iii) O3 is diamagnetic in nature
(iv) O3 has a bent structure
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
43. A solid AB crystallises as NaCl structure and the radius of the cation is 0.100nm. The maximum radius of the anion can be:
(a) 0.137 nm (b) 0.241 nm (c) 0.274 nm (d) 0.482 nm
44. Among the given halides, which one will give same product in both SN1 and SN2 reactions.
CH3

(I) CH3 CH CH2 CH CH3

Br
CH3
(II)
Cl
Cl
(III)

(IV) CH3 CH Br

Et
(a) (III) only (b) (I) and (II) (c) (III) and (IV) (d) (I), (III) and (IV)
 Sample Paper-9 SP-67

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

45. Assertion: Chlorine is a powerful bleaching agent.

Reason : Bleaching action is due to oxidation.
46. Assertion : Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solutions and they may have boiling points either greater than both
the components or less than both the components.
Reason : The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid phase of an azeotropic mixture.
47. Assertion: The ease of dehydration of the following alcohols is

OH OH OH OH

< < <

Reason: Alcohols leading to conjugated alkenes are dehydrated to a greater extent.

48. Assertion: F – F bond in F2 molecule is weak.
Reason: F atom is small in size.
49. Assertion : Vacancy defect results in decrease in density of the substance.
Reason : Vacancy defect developed when a substance is heated.

SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) XeF6 (i) Distorted octahedral
(B) XeO3 (ii) Square planar
(C) XeOF4 (iii) Pyramidal
(D) XeF4 (iv) Square pyramidal
(a) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (ii) (b) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (iii)
(c) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii) (d) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
51. ‘Alcohols can be prepared by the reduction of the corresponding carbonyl compound.’
Identify the correct analogy regarding the above statement.
(a) CH3CHO : CH3CH2OH : : CH3COCH3 : CH3CHCH3
|
OH
(b) CH3CHO : CH3OH : : CH3COCH3 : CH3CH2OH
(c) CH3CH2CHO : CH3CHCH3 : : CH3CHO : CH3CH2OH
|
OH
 EBD_7358
SP-68 Chemistry

(d) HCHO : CH3OH : : CH3COCH3 : CH3CH2OH

52. Choose the incorrect analogy.
(a) Monosaccharide : Glucose : : Disaccharides : Sucrose
(b) Aldopentose : Ribose : : Ketohexose : Fructose
(c) Purines : Adenine, Guanine : : Pyrimidines : Cytosine thymine
(d) H-coupling : Adenine-Cytosine : : H-bonding : Guanine-thymine
Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.

Point defects explain about the imperfections of solids. Point defects are accounted when the crystallization process occurs at a
very fast rate. These defects mainly happen due to deviation in the arrangement of constituting particles. The defects are of two
types namely point defects and line defects.
Point defects can be further classified into types:
(i) Stoichiometric defect
(ii) Frenkel defect
(iii) Schottky defect
53. Schottky defect in crystals is observed when
(a) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
(b) unequal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
(c) density of the crystal increases
(d) equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
54. Which defect causes decrease in the density of crystal
(a) Frenkel (b) Schottky (c) Interstitial (d) F – centre
55. Frenkel and Schottky defects are :
(a) nucleus defects (b) non-crystal defects (c) crystal defects (d) nuclear defects
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –9
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 10
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

1. Which one of the following is not an allylic halide?

(a) 4-Bromopent-2-ene (b) 3-Bromo-2-methylbut-1-ene
(c) 1-Bromobut-2-ene (d) 4-Bromobut-1-ene
2. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Cyclohexanol (c) Phenol (d) m-chlorophenol
3. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4 ?
(a) 0.5 N (b) 1.0 N (c) 2.0 N (d) 3.0 N
4. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?
(a) (CH3 )3 C — F (b) (CH3 )3 C — Cl (c) (CH3 )3 C — Br (d) (CH3 )3 C — I
5. The couplings between base units of DNA is through
(a) hydrogen bonding (b) electrostatic bonding (c) covalent bonding (d) van der Waal’s forces
6. The radius of a calcium ion is 94 pm and of the oxide ion is 146 pm. The possible crystal structure of calcium oxide will be
(a) tetrahedral (b) trigonal (c) octahedral (d) pyramidal
7. Which is the correct IUPAC name for
CH3 — CH — CH 2 — Br ?
|
C2H5
(a) 1-bromo-2-ethylpropane (b) 1-bromo-2-ethyl-2-mehylethane
(c) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane (d) 2-methyl-1-bromobutane
8. How many "nearest" and "next nearest" neighbours, respectively, does potassium have in bcc lattice ?
(a) 8, 8 (b) 8, 6 (c) 6, 8 (d) 6, 6
9. Among the following, the essential amino acid is :
(a) Alanine (b) Valine (c) Aspartic acid (d) Serine
10. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to prepare methyl ethyl ketone?
(a) 2-Propanol (b) l-Butanol (c) 2-Butanol (d) t-Butyl alcohol
11. What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethylbromomethane?
(a) 1-bromo-1, 1-diethylmethane (b) 3-bromopentane
(c) 1-bromo-1-ethylpropane (d) 1-bromopentane
 EBD_7358
SP-72 Chemistry

12. 12 g of a non-volatile solute dissolved in 108 g of water produces the relative lowering of vapour pressure of 0.1. The
molecular mass of the solute is
(a) 80 (b) 60 (c) 20 (d) 40
13. Which of the following on thermal decomposition gives oxygen gas ?
(a) Ag2O (b) Pb3O4 (c) PbO2 (d) All of these
14. In which of the following crystals alternate tetrahedral voids are occupied?
(a) NaCl (b) ZnS (c) CaF2 (d) Na2O
15. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by
oxygen is
1 273
(a) 1/2 (b) 2/3 (c) (d) 1/3
3 298
16. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29Å. The radius of sodium atom is
approximately :
(a) 5.72Å (b) 0.93Å (c) 1.86Å (d) 3.22Å
17. Molecules whose mirror image is non – superimposable over them are known as chiral. Which of the following molecule is
chiral in nature?
(a) 2 - bromobutane (b) 1 - bromobutane (c) 2 - bromopropane (d) 2 -bromopropan - 2 - ol
18. Observation of "Ruhemann's purple" is a confirmatory test for the presence of :
(a) Starch (b) Reducing sugar (c) Protein (d) Cupric ion
19. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
(a) PCl5 (b) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
(c) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine (d) None of these
20. Which one of the following halide does not hydrolyse
(a) SbCl3 (b) AsCl3 (c) PCl3 (d) NF3
21. IUPAC name of m-cresol is ........... .
(a) 3-methylphenol (b) 3-chlorophenol (c) 3-methoxyphenol (d) benzene-1,3-diol
22. In a solid ‘AB’ having the NaCl structure, ‘A’ atoms occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If all the face-centered atoms
along one of the axes are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the solid is
(a) AB2 (b) A2B (c) A4B 3 (d) A3B 4
23. Methylated spirit is
(a) methanol (b) methanol + ethanol (c) methanoic acid (d) methanamide
24. Which is an application of Henry’s law?
(a) Spray paint (b) Bottled water (c) Filling up atire (d) Soft drinks (soda)
25. Which is oxidized most easily?

(a) CH3 — CHOH — CH3 (b) OH

CH 3
(c) CH3 — CH2 — O — CH2 — CH3 (d) OH

SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. The three important oxidation states of phosphorus are
(a) –3, +3 and +5 (b) –3, +3 and –5 (c) –3, +3 and +2 (d) –3, +3 and +4
27. Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic structure?
(a) Glucose forms pentaacetate
(b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime
(c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine
(d) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic acid
Sample Paper-10 SP-73

28. The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction

CH2Cl
NaCN
is
DMF

CH2CN CH2Cl
CH2Cl CH2CN
(a) (b) (c) (d) CN
CN I
CN I
29. Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH – ion?

Br
|
(i) CH3 — CH — Br (ii) CH3 — C — CH3 (iii) CH 3 — CH — CH2Br
| | |
C2H5 C2H5 C2H5

(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
30. The number of P – O – P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is
(a) zero (b) two (c) three (d) four
31. A plot of p1 and p2 vs the mole fractions x1 and x2 is given as.

III p2°
p2
= p1 +
p Total
II
Vapour pressure

p° p2
1

p
1
I

x1 = 1 Mole fraction x1 = 0
x2 = 0 x2 = 1

In this figure, lines I and II intersect through the point for which.
1
(a) x1 1; x2 = 1 (b) x1 = x2 1 (c) x1 = 1; x2 d) x1 = x2 =
2
32. Which of the statements given below is incorrect?
(a) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid (b) O3 molecule is bent
(c) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N–. (d) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Information regarding the sequence of nucleotides in the chain of a nucleic acid is called its primary structure.
(ii) In secondary structure of DNA adenine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds
with thymine.
(iii) RNA molecules are of three types m-RNA, r-RNA and t-RNA and they all perform different functions.
(a) (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) only
34. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral having :
(a) Two p – d bonds (b) One p – d bonds (c) Four p – d bonds (d) Three p – d bonds
 EBD_7358
SP-74 Chemistry

OH OH
(1) MeMgBr
35. PCC OH OH (2) H3O NaBH4, EtOH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
H+

Product (D) in above reaction is:

OH OH OH OH OH OH
OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
OH

36. In the solid state, SO3 may have structure

O O
S
O O O
O O
(a) O O (b) S S S
S S O O O
O O O
O O O
(c) a & b both (d) None of these
37. W1
Piston W1 W2 W3

(a) (b)
On the basis of the figure given above, which of the following is not true?
(a) In figure (a), assuming the state of dynamic equilibrium, rate of gaseous particles entering and leaving the solution
phase is same.
(b) In figure (b), on compressing the gas, number of gaseous particles per unit volume over the solution increases.
(c) Rate at which gaseous particles are striking the solution to enter it, decreases.
(d) Rate at which gaseous particles are striking the solution to enter it, increases.
38. Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following mixtures will show a
positive deviation from Raoult's law?
(a) Methanol and acetone (b) Chloroform and acetone
(c) Nitric acid and water (d) Phenol and aniline
39. The major product of the following reaction is
CH3
| CH3OH
CH3 – C – CHCH3
| |
H Br
CH3 CH3
| |
(a) CH – C – CH = CH (b) CH3 – C = CHCH3
3 2
|
H
CH3 CH 3
| |
(c) CH3 – C – CH 2CH3 (d) CH3 – C – CH CH3
| | |
OCH3 H OCH3
40. Which of the following statements regarding DNA fingerprinting is incorrect?
(a) It is used in forensic laboratories for identification of criminals.
(b) It cannot be altered by surgery.
(c) It is different for every cell and cannot be altered by any known treatment.
(d) It is used to determine paternity of an individual.
Sample Paper-10 SP-75

41. X in the following reaction is –

CH3 C H CCl4
Br2 + || X
H C CH3

(a) (+) 2, 3-Dibromobutane (b) (–) 2, 3-Dibromobutane

(c) Rac. 2, 3-Dibromobutane (d) Meso-2, 3-Dibromobutane
42. An inorganic compound reacts with SO2 in aqueous medium, produces (A). (A) on reaction with Na2CO3 gives the compound
(B) which with sulphur give a substance (C) used in photography. The compound (C) is
(a) Na2S2O3 (b) Na2SO4 (c) Na2S (d) Na2S2O7
43. An element having an atomic radius of 0.14 nm crystallizes in an fcc unit cell. What is the length of a side of the cell ?
(a) 0.56 nm (b) 0.24 nm (c) 0.96 nm (d) 0.4 nm
44. The major product of the following reaction is:

KOH alc (excess)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
Ph

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
45. Assertion: Chromium do not dissolve in concentrated nitric acid
Reason: Due to inertness of chromium, it does not dissolve in nitric acid.
46. Assertion: interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens(except F)
Reason: bond strength in interhalogen compounds is weaker than halogen molecule except F–F.
47. Assertion: People living at high attitudes often reported with a problem of feeling weak and inability to think clearly.
Reason: at high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is less than at the ground level.
48. Assertion : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol.
Reason : Nitro group helps in the stabilisation of the phenoxide ion by dispersal of negative charge due to resonance.
49. Assertion: ClF3 is used for the production of UF6 in the enrichment of U235.
Reason: ClF3 is hypergolic in nature.
 EBD_7358
SP-76 Chemistry

SECTION-C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number
of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II
(A) 2Pb(NO3)2 673K 4NO2 + 2PbO + O2 (p) High pressure favours the formation of product
(B) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) (q) Product formed is acidic brown gas

(C) NH4NO3 N2O + 2H2O (r) This reaction occurs at a high temperature about 2000 K
(D) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (s) Product formed is a neutral colourless gas
(a) A – (r, s), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) (b) A – (q), B – (r,s), C – (s), D – (p)
(c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r, s), D – (p) (d) A – (q), B – (r, s), C – (p), D – (s)
51. Which of the following analogies is correct?
(a) NaCl : Schottky defect : : ZnS : Frenkel defect (b) AgCl : Schottky defect : : ZnS : Frenkel defect
(c) AgCl : Schottky defect : : KCl : Frenkel defect (d) AgI : Schottky defect : : KCl : Frenkel defect
52. Which of the following analogies is correct?
(a) Methanol : Positive Iodoform : : Ethanol : Positive Iodoform
(b) Ethanol : Positive Iodoform : : Propanol : Positive Iodoform
(c) Ethanol : Positive Iodoform : : Ethanal : Positive Iodoform
(d) Propanol : Positive Iodoform : : Propanone : Positive Iodoform

Case Study : Read the following paragraph and answers the questions.
The discovery and preparation of several of the interhalogen compounds followed shortly after the discovery of the elements
themselves. Since the halogens are all relatively strongly electronegative elements, each lacking one electron to complete its outer
shell, they form diatomic molecules with a shared electron-pair bond between them:
×× ×× ×× ××
×
Cl ×. Cl Br ×. ×Br I ×. ×I×
××

××

××

××

×× ×× ×
In a very similar manner, interhalogen molecules are formed, the simplest type being represented by CIF, BrCl, 1Br, etc., whose
physical properties are intermediate between those of the two elements involved. However, these properties are not necessarily the
average of those of the two parent elements.
Of the six possible uni-univalent halogen halides, five, all except iodine fluoride, are known to exist; the latter is probably too
unstable, since in the known iodine-fluorine compounds, iodine always has a valence greater than 1.
Considerably more interest from a structural standpoint are the interhalogen compounds in which one of the halogens has a
valence greater than 1. Three such series exist: AB3, AB5 and AB7. No compounds are known where an even number of atoms of one
halogen combine with an odd number of another; such a molecule would have an unpaired electron.
53. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than the individual halogen because
(a) two halogens are present in place of one
(b) they are more ionic
(c) their bond energy is less than the bond energy of the halogen molecule
(d) they carry more energy
54. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum.
(ii) Leaving F—F bond, all halogens have weaker X—X bond than X—X bond in interhalogens.
(iii) Among interhalogen compounds maximum number of atoms are present in iodine fluoride.
(iv) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
55. Which of the following is not the characteristic of interhalogen compounds ?
(a) They are more reactive than halogens (b) They are quite unstable but none of them is explosive
(c) They are covalent in nature (d) They have low boiling points and are highly volatile.
 OMR ANSWER SHEET
Sample Paper No –10
 Use Blue / Black Ball pen only.
 Please do not make any atray marks on the answer sheet.
 Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
 Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer sheet, as faintly darkend / half darkened circle might by
rejected.

Start time : ____________________ End time ____________________ Time taken ____________________

1. Name (in Block Letters)

2. Date of Exam

3. Candidate’s Signature

SECTION-A
1. a b c d 9. a b c d 18. a b c d
                          
2. a b c d 10. a b c d 19. a b c d
                          
3. a b c d 11. a b c d 20. a b c d
                          
4. a b c d 12. a b c d 21. a b c d
                          
5. a b c d 13. a b c d 22. a b c d
                          
6. a b c d 14. a b c d 23. a b c d
                          
7. a b c d 15. a b c d 24. a b c d
                          
8. a b c d 16. a b c d 25. a b c d
                          
9. a b c d 17. a b c d
                 
SECTION-B
26. a b c d 34. a b c d 42. a b c d
                          
27. a b c d 35. a b c d 43. a b c d
                          
28. a b c d 36. a b c d 44. a b c d
                          
29. a b c d 37. a b c d 45. a b c d
                          
30. a b c d 38. a b c d 46. a b c d
                          
31. a b c d 39. a b c d 47. a b c d
                          
32. a b c d 40. a b c d 48. a b c d
                          
33. a b c d 41. a b c d 49. a b c d
                          
SECTION-C
50. a b c d 52. a b c d 54. a b c d
                          
51. a b c d 53. a b c d 55. a b c d
                          

No. of Qns. Attempted Correct Incorrect Marks

 EBD_7358
Page for Rough Work
 Sample Paper 1
ANSWER KEYS
1 (b) 7 (a) 13 (b) 19 (d) 25 (a) 31 (c) 37 (b) 43 (b) 49 (c) 55 (c)
2 (b) 8 (a) 14 (b) 20 (b) 26 (b) 32 (d) 38 (c) 44 (d) 50 (d)
3 (b) 9 (b) 15 (c) 21 (d) 27 (a) 33 (c) 39 (b) 45 (a) 51 (c)
4 (a) 10 (d) 16 (c) 22 (a) 28 (a) 34 (a) 40 (d) 46 (c) 52 (b)
5 (c) 11 (d) 17 (d) 23 (b) 29 (c) 35 (b) 41 (b) 47 (c) 53 (a)
6 (a) 12 (d) 18 (d) 24 (d) 30 (a) 36 (c) 42 (d) 48 (a) 54 (d)

1. (b) Among the given crystals, only silicon exists as a 14. (b) An increase in temperature of the solution increases
covalent solid. It has diamond like structure. the solubility of a solid solute.
2. (b) In graphite, the electrons are spread out between the The amount of solute that dissolve depends on what type
sheets. of solute it is.
3. (b) It is the most electronegative element. Hence, it For solids and liquid solutes, changes in pressure have
strongly attract the electron pair in a covalent bond. practically no effect on solubility.
4. (a) In crystalline solid, there is perfect arrangement of 15. (c) Ethyl alcohol has strongest hydrogen bonding due
the constituent particles only at 0 K. As the temperature to large electronegativity difference.
increases the chance that a lattice site may be unoccupied 1
16. (c) Hybridisation in PCl5 = 5 5 0 0 5 ; sp3d
by an ion increases. As the number of defects increases 2
with temperature, solid changes into liquid. 17. (d)
5. (c) For ideal solution, 18. (d) Ethylene dichloride can be prepared by adding HCl
H mixing 0. to ethylene glycol (CH2OH. CH2OH).
Vmixing 0 and
19. (d) Due to resonance, the electron density increases more
6. (a) Schottky defect is found in ionic solids. at ortho- and para-positions than at meta-positions. Further,
Br the halogen atom because of its – I effect has some tendency
| to withdraw electrons from the benzene ring. As a result,
7. (a) CH3CH2C = CH – Cl
4 3 2 the ring gets somewhat deactivated as compared to benzene
2-Bromo-1-chloro but-1-ene and hence the electrophilic substitution reactions in
8. (a) haloarenes occur slowly and require more drastic conditions
9. (b) CH 2 Cl CHCl 2 as compared to those in benzene.
| | 20. (b) On heating, lead nitrate produces brown coloured
CH 2 Cl CH3
nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and lead (II) oxide.
(vic-dihalide) (gem-dihalide)
10. (d) 2Pb NO3 4NO2 2PbO O 2
2
11. (d) Due to inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
boiling point of alcohols is much higher than ether. 21. (d) CCl4 is non-polar and CHCl3 is polar.
12. (d) In graphite, the carbon atoms are arranged in regular 22. (a) Collectively these elements are called pnicogens and
hexagons in flat parallel layers. their compound pniconides.
13. (b) The process of conversion of alkyl halides into 23. (b) Insulin is a biochemically active peptide hormone
alcohols involves substitution reaction. secreted by pancreas.
OH 24. (d) Metallic character increases down the group, Bi is
R—X R — OH
most metallic
Alkyl halide Alcohol
 EBD_7358
S-2 Chemistry

25. (a) Nitrogen does not show allotropy due to its small 35. (b) HF XeF6 XeF5 HF2
size and high electronegativity. The N–N bond is weak
due to high inter–electronic repulsions among non- 36. (c) If H2O = x mole
bonding electrons due to the small bond distance. Hence, Mass of x mole of H2O = 18x g
it does not show allotropy. Then urea = x mole
26. (b) Positive deviations are shown by such solutions in O
which solvent-solvent and solute-solute interactions are
stronger than the solute-solvent interactions. In such Mass of x mole of NH 2 C NH 2 = 60x g
solution, the interactions among molecules becomes Total mass of the solution = 18x + 60x = 78x g
weaker. Therefore their escaping tendency increases which 60 x
results in the increase in their partial vapour pressures. Mass % of urea = 100 = 76.92%
78 x
In pure methanol, there exists intermolecular H–bonding.
37. (b) The solubility of alcohols depend on number of
---O – H--- O—H --- O—H--- C-atoms of alcohols. The solubility of alcohols in water
| | |
decreases with the increase in number of C-atoms of
CH3 CH3 CH3
alcohol. As resulting molecular weight increases, the polar
On adding benzene, its molecules come between ethanol nature of – OH bond decreases and hence strength of
molecules, thereby breaking H-bonds which weaken hydrogen bond decreases.
intermolecular forces. This results in increase in vapour 38. (c) The acids which contain P–H bond have strong
pressure. reducing properties. Thus, H3PO2 is a strong reducing
27. (a) Given PP = 80 torr agent due to the presence of two P–H bonds and one
PQ = 60 torr – OH group
Ptotal = PP × xp + Pq × xq
O
3 2 ||
= 80 60 = 16 × 3 + 12 × 2 P
5 5 H
H OH
Ptotal = 48 + 24 = 72 torr
28. (a) Density is directly related to molecular mass. Higher Hypophosphorus acid
the molecular mass, higher will be the density of the 39. (b) In Na2O, negative ions form the ccp arrangement so
compound. The order of molecular mass is that each positive ion is surrounded by 4 negative ions and
benzene < chlorobenzene < dichlorobenzene < each negative ion is surrounded by 8 positive ions.
bromochlorobenzene coordination no. of Na+ is 4 and that of O2– is 8.
29. (c) SF4 has sea-saw shape as shown below: 40. (d) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental state.
41. (b) Since the compound is formed by hydration of an
.. alkene, to get the structure of alkene remove a molecule of
water from the alcohol.
F S F H 2O
CH3 C H CH3 CH 2 CHCH3
|
F F OH
Isopropyl alcohol Propylene

It has trigonal bipyramidal geometry having sp 3 d 42. (d) The two components should be (CH3)3CONa +
hybridisation. (CH3)3CBr. However, tert-alkyl halides tend to undergo
30. (a) The sequence in which the -amino acids are linked elimination reaction rather than substitution leading to the
to one another in a protein molecule is called its primary formation of an alkene, Me2C = CH2
structure. 43. (b) PCl3 + H2O POCl3 + 2HCl
31. (c) For SN2 reaction polar aprotic solvent is needed. POCl3 + 3H2O H3PO4 + 3HCl
44. (d) Diethyl ether, being a Lewis base, is not attacked by
O O nucleophiles, while all others contain electrophilic carbon,
|| ||
32. (d) S S hence attacked by nucleophiles like OH– ions.
|
||

||

O– O
|

O –
O O O
‚‚
33. (c) Glass is amorphous solid. CH3 C OCH3 CH3 C N
34. (a) The correct order of increasing bond length is +

CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I

 Solutions S-3

.. +Excess H2O
C2H5 O XeO3 + HF
. . C 2 H5
(X)
52. (b) XeF6
+2H2O
45. (a) -halo carbonyl compounds (such as C6H5COCH2Cl) XeO2F2 + HF
are more reactive because conjugation with carbonyl group (Y)
Y is not an oxyacid of xenon.
is more effective than simple alkene or benzene ring.
53. (a) Boiling point of CH3I is 42°C which indicates that it is
46. (c) Bond angle of H2S (92°) < H2O (104°31). As the
liquid at room temperature. CH3I is larger molecule so it
electronegativity of the central atom decreases, bond angle
has stronger vander Waal’s force of attraction than others.
decreases. In the present case, S is less electronegative than
54. (d) Para-dichlorobenzene has most symmetrical structure
oxygen. Thus, bond pairs in H2S are more away from the
than others. It is found as crystalline lattice form, therefore,
central atom than in H2O and thus repulsive forces between
it has highest melting point (52°C) due to symmetrical
bond pairs are smaller, producing smaller bond angle.
structure.
47. (c) alkyl fluorides are obtained by heating alkyl chloride
or bromide in the presence of metallic fluorides like AgF or Cl
SbF3. the reaction is known as Swartz reaction.
R – X + AgF/Hg2F2 R – F + AgX/Hg2X2
48. (a)
49. (c) At higher temperatures, dinitrogen combines with
Cl
metals to form ionic nitrides.
50. (d) 55. (c) For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl
51. (c) Histidine is basic amino acid while aspartate is acidic halides decrease in the order :
amino acid. RI RBr RCl RF
This is because with the increase in size and mass of halogen
atom, the magnitude of van der Waal's forces increases.
 EBD_7358
S-4 Chemistry

Sample Paper 2
ANSWER KEYS
1 (a) 7 (c) 13 (a) 19 (b) 25 (c) 31 (a) 37 (c) 43 (c) 49 (a) 55 (d)
2 (b) 8 (a) 14 (d) 20 (a) 26 (b) 32 (c) 38 (b) 44 (b) 50 (a)
3 (d) 9 (d) 15 (a) 21 (d) 27 (a) 33 (a) 39 (d) 45 (b) 51 (a)
4 (a) 10 (d) 16 (b) 22 (d) 28 (c) 34 (c) 40 (b) 46 (a) 52 (b)
5 (d) 11 (c) 17 (b) 23 (d) 29 (b) 35 (b) 41 (a) 47 (d) 53 (c)
6 (a) 12 (c) 18 (c) 24 (a) 30 (a) 36 (a) 42 (a) 48 (b) 54 (d)

11. (c) In cyclic metaphosporic acid, number of

1. (a) In C6H5CH2Br carbocation is C6 H5 C H 2 which is P–O–P bonds is three.
stable due to resonance. O OH
2. (b) -D glucose and –D glucose are the isomers which P
differ in the orientation (configuration) of H and OH groups O O
O O
around C1 atom. P P
3. (d) Neohexyl chloride is a primary halide as in it Cl-atom is O OH
HO
attached to a primary carbon. 12. (c) HCl + An. ZnCl2 is known as lucas reagent. It is used
CH3 to determine degree of an alcohol.
The reaction follow nucleophilic substitution reaction in
CH3 C CH2 CH2Cl which — OH group is replaced by — Cl. In this reaction
carbocation is formed as intermediate. Higher the stability
CH3
of intermediate carbocation higher will be the reactivity of
4. (a) 4HNO3 + P4O10 4HPO3 + 2N2O5 reactant molecule. Since 3° carbocation is more stable than
5. (d) Crystalline solids are anisotropic, i.e. their physical 2° carbocation as well as 1° carbocation, so the order of
properties are different if measured in different directions. reactivity of alcohols is 3° > 2° > 1°.
6. (a) Solubility decreases and KH increases with increase 13. (a) In F-centre unpaired electron is present in anion
in temperature. vacancy.
7. (c) Solid CH4 is a molecular solid. In this, the constituent CH3 CH2Cl CH2OH
molecules are held together by van der Waal’s forces.
8. (a) For a given alkyl group, the order of reactivity Cl2 aq NaOH
R – I > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F
14. (d)
is decreasing halogen sunlight
increasing bond energy Toluene Benzyl chloride Benzyl alcohol
reactivity. 15. (a) For example, decrease in the vapour pressure of water
This order depends on the carbon-halogen bond energy; by adding 1.0 mol of sucrose to one kg of water is nearly
the carbon-fluorine bond energy is maximum and thus similar to that produced by adding 1.0 mol of urea to the
fluorides are least reactive while carboniodine bond energy same quantity of water at the same temperature.
is minimum hence iodides are most reactive. 16. (b) C2H5OH and CH3 – O – CH3 are isomers.
9. (d) 17. (b) [Cu(H2O)6]SO4 + 2NH4OH [Cu(H2O)4(OH)2]
10. (d) 4-Bromobut-l-ene is not an allylic halide (pale blue)

BrH 2 C —CH 2 —CH CH 2 excess NH 4OH

[Cu(NH3)4 (H2O)2]2+
4 Bromobut 1 ene
(deep blue)
 Solutions S-5

18. (c) Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled

1000 W2 1.86×1000×68.5
many times around proteins called histones that supports 27. (a) Tf Kf =
its structure. M 2 W1 342×1000
19. (b) If two halogen atoms are present on the same carbon = 0.372
atom, then they are known as gem – dihalides or alkylidene Tf = T ° f – Tf Tf = – 0.372°C
halides.
K b w 1000
Cl 28. (c) Tb ;
Nu Cl M W
Nu :
20. (a) Tb 100 100
Slow Kb Tb
10 1000
Nu 29. (b) This method is not applicable for the preparation of
Nu Cl Nu Cl aryl halides because the C–O bond in phenol has a partial
Fast
+ Cl double bond character and is difficult to break being
stronger than a single bond.
Pt/Rh gauge catalyst
30. (a) 4NH3 (g) 5O2 (g)
Rate [C 6 H 5Cl] [ Nu :] 500K, 9 bar

21. (d) Oxidising power decreases down the group. 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
22. (d) When an unripe mango is placed in a concentrated Two moles of NH3 will produce 2 moles of NO on
salt solution to prepare pickle then mango loose water due catalytic oxidation.
to osmosis and get shrivel. 31. (a) Every amino acid exists exclusively as dipolar ion when
23. (d) As the oxidation state of the central halogen atom the pH of the solution is equal to its isoelectric point (pI),
increases, the halogen-oxygen bond becomes more and hence at this pH it does not migrate to either electrode,
more covalent. As a result, the thermal stability of the while at other pH, an amino acid migrates either to cathode
oxoacid increases. Thus, HClO4 is most stable to heat, or to anode depending upon its pI. Thus at pH 9.60, amino
whereas HClO is least stable to heat. acid with pI 5.40 will exist as an anion and migrate to anode ;
while that with pI 9.60 will not migrate to any electrode.
CHO 32. (c) Addition of HCl takes place in accordance with
H OH Markownikoff's rule.
HO H
HI/
24. (a) H OH CH2 — CH == CH2 CH2 — CH — CH3
Reduction n-Hexane
H OH
Cl
CH2OH + HCl
Glucose
(A)
25. (c) As the size of central atom increases, the lone pair of
electrons occupies a larger volume. In other words, electron 33. (a) The single N — N bond is weaker than the single
density on the central atom decreases and consequently P — P bond. This is why phosphorus show allotropy but
its tendency to donate a pair of electrons decreases along nitrogen does not.
with basic character from NH3 to BiH3. ZM
26. (b) VSEPR theory breaks down for heavier elements. 34. (c) Density d ;
a3 NA
There is no significant s–p mixing for PH3 onwards down
the group. For PH3, there is very little contribution from where a = 400 pm = 400 × 10–10 cm
the P3s-orbital. We can assume the P–H bonds are 2 100
predominantly P3p– H1s bonds. Thus, the geometry around –10 3 = 5.188 g/cc
P is determined mostly by the orientation of the p-orbitals. (400 10 ) 6.023 1023
e.g. in BiH3, the H–Bi–H angle 90° 35. (b) This method is not applicable for the preparation of
aryl halides because the C–O bond in phenol has a partial
H
double bond character and is difficult to break being
6Py
90° stronger than a single bond.
Bi H 36. (a) Na2S2O3 + H2O + Cl2 Na2SO4 + S + 2HCl
6px
6
37. (c) From molarity equation
H pz M1V1 + M2V2 = M3(V1 + V2)
And the lone pair of Bi remains in 6s orbital. The 1× 2.5 + 0.5 × 3 = M3 × 5.5
s-orbital is closer to the nucleus, which means that the 4
M3 = = 0.73M
negative charge of the electrons is better stabilised. 5.5
 EBD_7358
S-6 Chemistry

38. (b) Electron withdrawing substituents increase the acidic 45. (b) PCC is a mild oxidising agent and it oxidizes alcohol
strength of phenols. so, p-nitr ophenol (II) an d into aldehyde. PCC is C5H5NH+ ClCrO3– and involves
m-nitrophenol (IV) are stronger acid than phenol (I). If change in oxidation number of Cr from + 6 to + 3.
– NO2 group is present at p-position, then it exerts both 46. (a) H-F and H-Cl bonds are stronger than H–Br bond.
– I and – R effect, but if it is present at meta position, then H–F or H–Cl bonds are not broken by the alkoxy free
it exerts only–I effect. Therefore, p-nitrophenol is stronger radicals obtained from peroxides, while HI is weaker than
than m-nitrophenol. HBr as it is broken by the alkoxy free radicals obtained
On the other hand, electron releasing substituents from peroxides, but the iodine atoms so, formed readily
decreases the acidic strength of phenol. If –OCH3 group combine with each other to give iodine molecules, rather
is present at meta position, it will exert – I effect only. than attack the double bond of alkenes.
But, if it is present at para position, it will exert 47. (d) Iodine, being a non-polar compound is more soluble
+ R and – I effect. Thus, m - methoxy benzyl alcohol is in CCl4 (non-polar compound) than in water as "like
more acidic than p- methoxy phenol. Hence, the correct dissolves like".
order of decreasing acidic strength will be : Na
II > IV > I > III > V. 48. (b) (CH3)3CBr
Dry ether
39. (d) H4P2O5 : 4 + 2x + 5(–2) = 0 x = + 3
H4P2O6 : 4 + 2x + 6(–2) = 0 x = + 4 CH3 CH3
| |
H4P2O7 : 4 + 2x + 7(–2) = 0 x = +5 CH3 – C — C – CH3 + 2 NaBr
40. (b) In a cubic closed packed system (ccp) .......ABC | |
ABC....... type of arrangement of layers is found. In this CH3 CH3
system, there are atoms at the corners as well as centre of
49. (a) Molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6)
the unit cell.
= 12 × 6 + 1 × 12 + 16 × 6 = 180 g
No. of atoms in the unit cell = z
Number of moles = Given mass/Molar mass
Hence, the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell = 2z. = 180/180 = 1 mol
41. (a) Both CO32 and NO3 have same number of electrons. Molality (m) = Number of moles of solute/Mass of solvent
(kg) = 1/1 = 1 molal
CO32 = 6 + 8 × 3 +2 = 32 50. (a) (A)P4 + 2Ca(OH)2 + 4H2O 2 Ca(H2PO2)2 + 2H2
(white P) (hot) (calcium hypophosphite)
NO3 = 7 + 8 × 3 + 1 = 32 The salt is then treated with a strong non-oxidizing acid to
give hypophosphorous acid.
Hence, CO32 and NO3 are isoelectronic. Also, both have
H2PO2– + H+ H3PO2
same type of hybridization (sp2) and have trigonal planar
(B) P2O3 + 3H2O 2H3PO3
structure. Hence, they are also isostructural.
42. (a) Dehydration of alcohols involve formation of (C) P4O10 + 6H2O 4H3PO3
carbocation intermediate. More the stability of C+ more (D) P4 + 8H2O2 + 4NaOH 2Na2H2P2O6 + 8H2O
easier is the dehydration. Similarly if greater the (red P) (dil.) (dil.)
conjugation, greater will be the stability, hence easier the Na2H2P2O6 can be converted to H4P2O6 by passing it in
dehydration. an ion exchange column.
43. (c) The C — O bond length (136 pm) in phenol is slightly 51. (a)
less than that in methanol (142 pm). 52. (b) Fructose has 3 chiral centre
CH2OH
O |
44. (b) C=O
|
bridging P bridging
HO –*C – H
O |
*
O H – C – OH
O |
H –*C – OH
P O |
O P CH2OH
O 53. (c) The bond energy of interhalogen compounds is less
O P O than the bond energy of halogens.
bridging
bridging 54. (d) All halogens (leaving F-F) have stronger bond then
O oxygen that in interhalogens.
55. (d) Interhalogen compounds are not highly volatile.
 Sample Paper 3
ANSWER KEYS
1 (d) 7 (a) 13 (d) 19 (d) 25 (d) 31 (d) 37 (d) 43 (d) 49 (a) 55 (b)
2 (c) 8 (b) 14 (a) 20 (b) 26 (b) 32 (a) 38 (c) 44 (c) 50 (d)
3 (c) 9 (d) 15 (c) 21 (a) 27 (d) 33 (b) 39 (a) 45 (c) 51 (c)
4 (a) 10 (d) 16 (d) 22 (c) 28 (b) 34 (c) 40 (d) 46 (a) 52 (c)
5 (d) 11 (c) 17 (b) 23 (b) 29 (d) 35 (b) 41 (b) 47 (c) 53 (b)
6 (a) 12 (c) 18 (a) 24 (a) 30 (a) 36 (a) 42 (b) 48 (c) 54 (a)

1. (d) 2H 3 PO 4
600 C
2HPO 3 Solution of HNO3 and H2O will form maximum boiling point
2H 2 O azeotrope. Maximum boiling azeotropes show negative
2. (c)
deviation from Raoult’s law.
+
NH2 N NCl– Cl Composition (%) Boiling Point
HNO3 68.0 359 K
HNO 2/HCl Cu2Cl2 H2O 32.0 373 K
(Diazotisation) Sandmeyer’s reaction
Boiling point of the azeotrope of these two solutions is
393.5 K.
3. (c) Ethyl alcohol forms ethyl chloride with thionyl
chloride in presence of pyridine. 8. (b) In hcp type structure, each atom is surrounded by 12
Pyridine
nearest touching neighbours. Hence, coordination number
CH 3CH 2OH SOCl2 CH 3CH 2 Cl SO2 HCl in hcp is 12.
4. (a) sp3d3
hybridization will give pentagonal bipyramid 9. (d) The non-reactivity of chlorine atom in vinyl chloride is
geometry with one trans position occupied by a lone pair
due to resonance stabilisation.
and shape of the molecule will be distorted octahedral.
F
CH 2 CH Cl CH 2 CH Cl
F F
Xe 10. (d)
XeF6 : sp3d3 hybridisation
F F 11. (c) Greater the surface area, greater will be the boiling
F
point of a compound. Surface area decreases with increase
7 2
5. (d) 2 KMnO 4 16HCl 2 MnCl 2 2 KCl 8H 2 O 5Cl 2 in branching.
Increasing order of boiling point
O.S of Mn changes from +7 to +2 hence reduction occurs
and Cl2 is formed. CH3
6. (a) In crystalline solid, there is perfect arrangement of H3C
H3C C CH3 < CH — CH2Br
the constituent particles only at 0 K. As the temperature H3C
increases the chance that a lattice site may be unoccupied Br
by an ion increases. As the number of defects increases
< CH3CH 2 CH 2CH 2 Br
with temperature, solid changes into liquid.
7. (a) The solutions (liquid mixture) which boils at constant 12. (c) Among carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and boron only
temperature and can distil as such without any change in phosphorus has vacant d-orbital hence, only phosphorus
composition are called azeotropes. has the ability to form p – d bonding.
 EBD_7358
S-8 Chemistry

13. (d)
14. (a) Seven crystal systems. CH3 H CH3
15. (c) Less powerful oxidizing agent, pyridinium C Br
( ) oxidises primary
H
+
29. (d) || + Br2
chlorochromate C5 H 5 N HCl C rO 3 C (trans reagent) H Br
alcohols to aldehydes. CH3
H CH3
PCC (trans-2-butene) (Meso)
CH3CH 2 OH CH3CHO
Ethanol Ethanal 1
30. (a) , and not V.
16. (d) For very dil. solution the concentration is expressed in V
ppm. 31. (d) PH3 (Lewis base) can react with B2H6 (Lewis acid).
17. (b) 32. (a) Cyclic structures of monosaccharides which differ in
structure at carbon -1 are known as anomers.
Pt
18. (a) 2NH 3 5 / 2 O 2 2NO 3H 2 O Here, I and II are anomer because they differ from each
other at carbon-1 only.
19. (d)
20. (b) Alcohols and halogen acids react through SN1 Mg/ether
mechanism which involves carbocations as intermidate. 33. (b) Cl Br Cl MgBr
In such reactions, order of reactivity follows the order of
(A)
stability of carbocations; i.e. 3° > 2° > 1°. Thus the order in
the presente case is C > B > A. D 2O
21. (a) Peroxide effect is observed only in case of HBr.
Therefore, addition of HCl to propene even in the presence
of benzoyl peroxide occurs according to Markonikov’s rule:
Na/ether Cl D
HCl D D
CH3 CH CH 2 CH 3 CHCl CH 3
Benzoyl
peroxide (C) (B)
34. (c) Number of -bonds
22. (c) Bertlett had taken O2 Pt F6 as a base compound
O O
because O2 and Xe both have almost same ionisation || ||
enthalpy. H 2S2 O7 HO S O S OH
|| ||
23. (b) Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues O O
of people living at high altitude is due to low atmospheric
pressure. Because at high altitude, the partial pressure of O
||
oxygen is less than at the ground level. This decreased H 2SO4 HO S OH 2
atmospheric pressure causes release of oxygen from blood. ||
24. (a) O
25. (d) Hb CO HbCO ··
Carboxyhaemoglobin (stable) H 2SO3 HO S OH 1
||
Hb + O 2 HbO 2 O
Oxyhaemoglobin (unstable). 35. (b) No. of atoms (A) = 6 (h.c.p.); no. of B atoms
26. (b) 1
27. (d) Out of N, S and C, nitrogen has the highest electrone- = 12 = 4
3
gativity and it decrease in the order N > S > C. Thus the
oxide of nitrogen in its highest (+5) oxidation state is the A6B4 or A3B2
most acidic. 36. (a)
Next to N2O5 in the decreasing order of acidity will be SO2 37. (d) In solid state PCl5 exists as an ionic solid with the
then CO2 and finally CO which is neutral. cation [PCl 4]+ (tetrahedral) and the anion [PCl 6] –
(octahedral).
28. (b) PSolution = Psolution xSolvent
38. (c) Given PA = 750 mm Hg
P P 373 K is boiling point of water.
x solute
P Thus, PA = 760 mm Hg
 Solutions S-9

49. (a) As the branching increases in isomeric alkyl groups,

P P 1000 10 1000
m 0.74 contact surface area of molecule decreases; therefore, van
P Msolvent 750 18 der Waal forces decrease reducing intermolecular
39. (a) More stable carbocation, more is the rate toward HBr interactions and hence the boiling points.
(acid). 50. (d)
40. (d) K 2 Cr2 O 7 H 2SO 4 3SO 2 873 k, 7 bar
51. (c) Xe 2F2 XeF4
K 2SO4 Cr2 (SO4 )3 H 2O (X)
Green 573 k, 60 70 bar
41. (b) For each central atom there are two tetrahedral voids Xe 3F2 XeF6
(Y)
in AgI crystal. The number of Ag+ ion is equal to number
–
of I ion. It means only 50% of the void will be occupied by 52. (c)
Ag+ ion. 53. (b) The polymer of nucleotides in which nucleic acids
42. (b) PH5 does not exist because d-orbital of ‘P’ interacts are linked together by phosphodiester linkage are known
with s-orbital of H. Bond formed is not stable and not as nucleic acid.
energetically favorable. It depends on size and orientation 54. (a) Dinucleotides are formed by phosphodiester linkage
of interaction. between 5' and 3' carbon atom of pentose sugar.
43. (d) 44. (c)
45. (c) Bond angle of H2S (92°) < H2O (104°31). As the O 5' end of chain
|| 5'
electronegativity of the central atom decreases, bond angle O P O CH2 Base
decreases. In the present case, S is less electronegative | O
O 4' 1
than oxygen. Thus, bond pairs in H2S are more away from Sugar
the central atom than in H2O and thus repulsive forces 3' 2
between bond pairs are smaller, producing smaller bond
O
angle. |
46. (a) Limitation of Williamson’s synthesis is that only O P O
|
primary alkyl halide reacts with 1° or 2° or 3° sodium alkoxide O
to give ethers. Base
5'CH2 O
47. (c) Alkyl iodide can be prepared by treating alkyl halides
with NaI in presence of acetone. It is called Finkelstein 4' 1
Sugar
reaction. 3'
2
acetone
R – X + NaI R – I + NaX OH
Also, NaI is soluble in acetone but NaBr/NaCl are not 3' end of chain
soluble.
48. (c) N2 is less reactive than P4 due to high value of bond 55. (b) Sugar in DNA is 2-deoxyribose whereas sugar in RNA
dissociation energy which is due to presence of triple is ribose.
bond between two N-atoms of N2 molecule.
 EBD_7358
S- 10 Chemistry

Sample Paper 4
ANSWER KEYS
1 (d) 7 (a) 13 (b) 19 (b) 25 (c) 31 (b) 37 (a) 43 (a) 49 (a) 55 (d)
2 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 20 (d) 26 (b) 32 (d) 38 (d) 44 (b) 50 (c)
3 (b) 9 (d) 15 (b) 21 (b) 27 (c) 33 (b) 39 (b) 45 (b) 51 (b)
4 (c) 10 (a) 16 (a) 22 (c) 28 (c) 34 (a) 40 (c) 46 (c) 52 (c)
5 (c) 11 (b) 17 (c) 23 (b) 29 (c) 35 (b) 41 (a) 47 (a) 53 (c)
6 (c) 12 (d) 18 (c) 24 (a) 30 (d) 36 (d) 42 (d) 48 (d) 54 (b)

1. (d) 13. (b) It is the most electronegative element.

2. (b) The slow decomposition of HNO3 is represented by 14. (d) OH
OH
the equation | Br Br
4HNO3 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 3Br2 (aq.)
(yellow-brown)
Catalyst
3. (b) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) Br
2, 4,6-Tribromophenol
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
Note : The –OH group in phenol, being activating group,
3NO2(g) + H2O (l) 2HNO3(aq) + NO(g)
facilitates substitution in the o- and p-positions.
4. (c) Open chain structure is unstable and converted to
15. (b) At low temperature existence of a substance in solid
cyclic.
state is due to slow molecular motion and strong cohesive
5. (c) R – OH + SOCl2 Pyridine RCl + SO2 + HCl forces.
SO2 and HCl being gases escape leaving behind pure alkyl These two forces hold the constituent particles together
halide. thus causes existence of substance in solid state.
Direct fluorination of alkane is highly exothermic process. 16. (a) Following are the three possible isomers of butanol
6. (c) Nitrogen form N2 (i.e. N N) but phosphorus form (i) CH3CH 2 — CH 2 — CH 2OH
P4, because in P2, p — p bonding is present which is a Butan 1 ol
weaker bonding. no chiral carbon
7. (a)
8. (c) Colligative properties of dilute solution containing *
(ii) CH3 CH2 CH CH3
non volatile solute depends upon the number of particles
of the solute present in the solution.
OH
9. (d) For bcc lattice, body diagonal = a 3 Butan –2 – ol
The distance between the body centered atom and one 1-Chiral Carbon
3a
corner atom in cube will be = (iii) CH3
2
10. (a)
11. (b) The two isomeric forms ( – and –) of D–glucopyranose H3C C CH3
differ in configuration only at C-1. Hence these are called
anomers. OH
2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol
12. (d)
No Chiral Carbon
 Solutions S- 11

17. (c) The boiling point of water inside the cooker increases 27. (c) MI > MBr > MCl > MF. As the size of the anion
above 100°C due to accumulation of steam and increase in decreases covalency decreases.
pressure. Thus making it possible to cook food faster.
28. (c) In liquid state BrF3 dissociates into BrF2+ and BrF4–
3 2 ions most easily.
18. (c) H3C — CH — OCH3
| 29. (c) Molality (m)
1
CH3
Molarity
=
IUPAC name of the above compund is 2-methoxypropane. Molarity Molecular mass
Density
19. (b) Order of M.P. of B.P. or critical temperature: 1000
H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
20. (d) Since diastereomers are all those isomers which are 18 1
500 mol kg
not enantiomers, there may be more than one diastereomer 18 98
1.8
of a compound. An epimer differs in the configuration of 1000
only one chiral carbon, so an epimer can be C—2, C—3,
wt 1000
C–4, etc. An anomer may be - or - ; so no term is 30. (d) Molarity (M) =
absolutely specific. mol. wt. vol (mL)
wt. 1000 63
1° 1° 2 wt. = g = 31.5g
CH3 CH3 63 250 2
1° 2° 1° 100
21. (b) CH3 – CH – C – CH2 – CH3 wt. of 70% acid = 31.5 = 45 g
3° 4° 70
Cl 31. (b) Weaker the base, better the leaving group. Hence
3-chloro-2,3-dimethylpentane
Decreasing order of basicity
22. (c)
OMe OAc OSO 2 Me OSO 2 CF3
23. (b) C4H7Cl is a monochloro derivative of C4H8 which itself (II) (I) (III) (IV)
exists in three acyclic isomeric forms.
Decreasing order of leaving group
CH3CH 2 CH CH 2 CH3CH CHCH3
I II 32. (d) The products of the concerned reaction react each
(Its four C 's are different) (It has 2 types of carbon)
other forming back the reactants.
XeF6 3H 2 O XeO3 6HF .
CH 3
|
CH3 C CH 2 33. (b) OH OH
III OH
(It has 2 types of carbon)
O anomeric O
OH carbon OH
Grand total of acyclic isomers = 6 + 4 + 2 = 12 anomeric
HO OH HO carbon
24. (a) According to Henry's law partial pressure of a gas in OH OH
the solution is proportional to the mole fraction of gas in -D-glucose -D-glucose
the solution.
anomers
p = KHx ; KH = (Henry's constant)
25. (c) Ozone does not react with acidified solution of 34. (a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
K2Cr2O7.
26. (b) In DNA and RNA heterocyclic base and phosphate NH2 N 2 Cl Cl
Na NO 2 HCl
ester are at C1 and C5 respectively of the sugar molecule. 273 278 K
Cu 2Cl2 +N2

(Y)
HO
| N
O N 35. (b) The only well characterised compound having + 5
HO – P – O – C5H2
|| 4
N oxidation state of Bi is BiF5. It is due to smaller size and
C N
O C1 high electronegativity of fluorine.
H H
H | |
C3––– C2
| | H a3 N A 10 30
OH OH
36. (d) M
Z
 EBD_7358
S- 12 Chemistry

Li3N + 3H2O 3LiOH + NH3

10 (100)3 6.02 1023 10 30
15.05 (B)
4
Number of atoms in 100 CuSO 4 4NH3 [Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]SO4
deep blue compound
6.02 1023
g= 100 = 4 × 1025 OH CHO
15.05
37. (a) CH3CH2Cl > CH2 = CHCl > C6H5Cl PCC
44. (b)
38. (d) Due to hydrogen bonding, HF is a liquid.
39. (b) Given P1 = 19 mm Hg, P2 = 760 mm Hg;
OH OH
Hvap. = 40670 J/mol
Applying Clausius-Clapeyron's equation (3° alcohol cannot be oxidized)
H vap T2 T1 :O :
P 45. (b) The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less
log 2
P1 2.303 R T1T2 C H
than the tetrahedral angle (109°-28 ). It is due to the
760 40670 373 T1 repulsion between the unshared electron pairs of oxygen.
or log
19 2.303 8.3 T1 373 46. (c) S8 has puckered ring type structure.

on solving, we get T1 = 291.4 K 47. (a) R is the correct explanation of A.

40. (c) Nucleophilic substitution reaction depend upon the 48. (d) SNI mechanism does not depend on the concentration
stability of carbocation. As, presence of electron of nucleophile. 2° alkyl halides are more reactive than 1°
withdrawing group decreases the stability of carbocation alkyl halides towards S NI mechanism, because 2°
in compounds (II) and (III), therefore, will give less stable carbocation is more stable than 1° carbocation.
carbocation than (I).
Further NO2 group is a stronger EWG than — Cl. 49. (a) M HNO3 MNO3 H
(Metal) (Conc.) (Metal nitrate) (Nascent hydrogen)
Thus, p-NO2 — C6H4 — C H 2 will be less stable than pCl
— C6H4 — C H 2 2HNO3 2H 2NO 2 2H 2 O
(Nascent hydrogen)
Hence, the order of stability of carbocations, and thus
reactivity of parent alcohol will be: 50. (c) In allylic halides hydrogen atom is bonded to sp3
hybridised carbon atom. Whereas in vinylic halide,
O2N C H 2 < Cl C H2 < C H2
hydrogen atom is bonded to sp2 hybridised carbon atom.

41. (a) NH4ClO4 + HNO3 HClO4 + NH4NO3 CH3CHCl2 CH 2 CH 2

(X) | |
Cl Cl
NH4NO3 N2O + 2H2O
Ethylidene chloride Ethylene dichloride
(Y)
42. (d) For an fcc crystal (gem-dihalide) (vic-dihalide)

edge length 51. (b) 52. (c)

rcation ranion
2 53. (c) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.
54. (b) According to Raoult's law, the relative lowering in
508
110 ranion vapour pressure of a dilute solution is equal to the mole
2
fraction of the solute present in the solution.
ranion = 254 – 110 = 144 pm p p n
Mole fraction of solute
43. (a) Li (s) N 2 (g) 2Li3N (s) p n N
(M) high
temperature 55. (d) All are colligative properties.
 Sample Paper 5
ANSWER KEYS
1 (a) 7 (b) 13 (d) 19 (b) 25 (a) 31 (d) 37 (a) 43 (c) 49 (b) 55 (c)
2 (c) 8 (d) 14 (c) 20 (a) 26 (d) 32 (b) 38 (c) 44 (c) 50 (c)
3 (b) 9 (b) 15 (b) 21 (d) 27 (a) 33 (c) 39 (d) 45 (b) 51 (c)
4 (a) 10 (d) 16 (d) 22 (c) 28 (a) 34 (c) 40 (d) 46 (c) 52 (a)
5 (a) 11 (c) 17 (d) 23 (b) 29 (b) 35 (c) 41 (d) 47 (b) 53 (c)
6 (b) 12 (d) 18 (a) 24 (a) 30 (c) 36 (a) 42 (a) 48 (b) 54 (a)

1. (a) On moving down the group, size of halogen atom 16. (d) Ionic compounds are dissociated in solution state
increases hence, the H–X bond length increases. As a and form ions. Ions are good carrier of charge which make
result, bond dissociation enthalpy decreases. solution conducting.
Hence, the correct order of bond enthalpy is : 17. (d) The order of reactivity of alcohol with Lucas reagent
H – F > H – Cl > H – Br > H – I. is tert. > sec. > pri.
2. (c) RNA does not contain thymine. 18. (a) Mixture of methanol and acetone show a positive
3. (b)
deviation from Raoult’s law. Molecules in pure methanol
4. (a) 1° Alkyl halides (having least steric hindrance at
are hydrogen bonded. On adding acetone, its molecules
-carbon atom) are most reactive towards SN2 reaction.
5. (a) Due to presence of F-centre yellow colour is observed. enters in between the host molecules and break some of
6. (b) The amount of energy released when cation and the hydrogen bonds between them.
anions are brought from infinity to their respective sites in Therefore, the intermolecular attractive forces between the
the crystal lattice to form one mole of the ionic compounds solute-solvent molecules are weaker than those between
is called the lattice energy. Na+ being smallest in size have the solute-solute and solvent-solvent molecules.
highest lattice energy. Other three remaining options will show negative deviation.
7. (b) 19. (b) Presence of electron withdrawing group at ortho
8. (d) Anisotropy arises due to the difference in kinds or position increase the acidic strength. In o-nitrophenol,
densities or both of the atoms in different directions. nitro group is present at ortho position. On the other hand,
9. (b) P PA x A PB x B PB x A PA PB in o-methylphenol and in o-methoxyphenol, electron
releasing group (—CH3, —OCH3) are present.
xB 1 xA Presence of these groups at ortho and para positions of
10. (d) Graphite can’t be classified as ionic solid as graphite phenol decreases the acidic strength of phenols. So,
is not made up of ions. It is a covalent solid. phenol is less acidic than o-nitrohenol.
11. (c) –CH3 group is o, p–directing. Pt. gauge
12. (d) 20. (a) 4NH 3 5O 2 4NO 6H 2 O
HONO
21. (d)
13. (d) C6H5NH2
HCl Br
|
CuCl Alc. KOH
C6H5N2Cl C6H5Cl 22. (c) CH3 CH CH 2 CH3
14. (c) Argon is used in high temperature welding and other
operations which require a non-oxidising atmosphere and CH3 CH CH CH3 HBr
the absence of nitrogen. The formation of 2-butene is in accordance to
15. (b) Due to greater electronegativity of sp2-hybridized Saytzeff’s rule according to which more substituted alkene
carbon atoms of the benzene ring, diaryl ethers are not is formed in major quantity.
attacked by nucleophiles like I–.
 EBD_7358
S- 14 Chemistry

23. (b) Halides in which two halogen atoms are present on 35. (c) Glucose is present in pyranose form,
the two adjacent carbon atoms are known as vic - CH2OH
dihalides. H O H
H
H OH H
| HO OH
Cl — C— Cl CH 2 — CH 2
| | | H OH
H Cl Cl
Pyranose means six membered ring containing
Dichloromethane 1,2-Dichloroethane
oxygen.
H Cl N=NCl F
| |
H — C— C — H Cl
| | | 36. (a) HBF 4
C H 2 — CH CH 2 + N2 + BF3 + NaCl
H Cl
Ethylidene chloride Allyl chloride (Balz-Schiemann's reaction)
24. (a) N2O is used as an anaesthetic
25. (a) According to definition of osmotic pressure we know O
that = CRT. For concentrated solution C has higher value O O
that dilute solution. S X1 S X2
37. (a) O S O S
Hence, as concentration of solution increases osmotic O O
pressure will also increase.
26. (d) HCl acid at 25º C is a gas and polar in nature.
27. (a) (a) and (d) are L– sugar but (a) gives an optically O
O
active dibasic acid. S X3
28. (a) When freshly prepared solution of FeSO4 is added O S
to an aqueous solution containing NO3 ion, it leads to O
the formation of a brown coloured complex. This is known O
as brown ring test for nitrate ion. According to L.P – L.P > L.P – B.P > B.P – B.P repulsion,
NO3 3Fe2 4H – NO 3Fe3 2H2O the correct order of S-S bond length will be : x1 > x2 > x3
2 2 38. (c) F.C.C. unit cell ABCABCABC packing efficiency is
Fe H 2 O 6
NO – Fe H 2 O 5
NO H 2O 74 %. So, void fraction will be 0.260.
29. (b) In C2H5OH, Brown ring 39. (d) All given reactions give the vinyl chloride by
O substitution (a), by dehydrohalogenation (b) and by
CH3 CH2 104° H addition (c)
Due to presence of lone pair of electrons on oxygen, there 40. (d) OF2; among the following O and F, F is more
occurs a small decrease in bond angle from the normal electronegative than oxygen.
tetrahedral bond angle (109°28 ). So OF2 cannot be called oxide because in that case O is in
30. (c) The electron gain enthalpy order for halogens is Cl > –2 oxidation state which is not possible, so OF2 is called
F > Br > I oxygen difluoride.
Due to small size of fluorine the extra electron to be added 41. (d) The maximum amount of solute dissolved in a given
feels more electron-electron repulsion. Therefore fluorine amount of solvent is its solubility.
has less value for electron affinity than chlorine. 42. (a) With increase in molecular mass boiling point
31. (d) increases. Thus the b.p. of pentan-1-ol will be more than
WB R T 4 0.0821 300 other given compounds. Now, among isomeric alcohols
32. (b) MB
V 3 10 4
2 1° alcohols have higher boiling points than 2° alcohols
1.6 × 105 due to higher surface area in 1° alcohols.
33. (c) Hence, increasing order of b.p. will be
Propan-1-ol < butan-2-ol < butan-1-ol < pentan-1-ol.
34. (c) MF XeF4 M XeF5 43. (c) Oxygen does not show oxidation state +4 and +6.
The hybridisation of Xe in XeF5– is sp3d3. 44. (c) 45. (b)
The geometry is pentagonal bipyramidal. 46. (c) Alcohols are highly polar in nature, threfore, they
To minimise lp-lp repulsion, the two lone pairs of electrons show intermolecular hydrogen bonding and are miscribe
occupy the axial positions. Thus, the shape of molecule is with water.
pentagonal planar.
 Solutions S- 15

47. (b) In Williamson’s synthesis, only primary alkyl halides CH 2 CH 2

CH3CHCl2
(RX) react with sodium alkoxide (RONa 1° or 2° or 3°) giving | |
ether, therefore, both symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers Cl Cl
Ethylidene chloride Ethylene dichloride
can be prepared.
(gem-dihalide) (vic-dihalide)
48. (b) Ozone is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen
51. (c) 52. (a)
due to large negative Gibb’s free energy.
53. (c) Elevation in boiling point, freezing point depression
49. (b) Due to the presence of intramolecular hydrogen
and osmotic pressure are colligative presents.
bonding. o-nitrophenol does not form hydrogen bonds
54. (a) Since the concentration of sample A is less, so it will
with H2O but m and p-nitrophenol form hydrogen bonds
show less depression in freezing point. Consequently, its
with water.
freezing point will be higher than other solutions.
50. (c) In allylic halides hydrogen atom is bonded to sp3
55. (c) When non-volatile solid is added to pure solvent
hybridised carbon atom. Whereas in vinylic halide,
the boiling point of solution increases and freezing point
hydrogen atom is bonded to sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
of solution decreases.
 EBD_7358
S- 16 Chemistry

Sample Paper 6
ANSWER KEYS
1 (a) 7 (a) 13 (b) 19 (a) 25 (N) 31 (c) 37 (d) 43 (d) 49 (a) 55 (b)
2 (b) 8 (d) 14 (b) 20 (c) 26 (c) 32 (d) 38 (b) 44 (b) 50 (d)
3 (c) 9 (d) 15 (a) 21 (b) 27 (b) 33 (c) 39 (c) 45 (a) 51 (b)
4 (c) 10 (a) 16 (c) 22 (b) 28 (c) 34 (a) 40 (d) 46 (c) 52 (d)
5 (b) 11 (c) 17 (b) 23 (c) 29 (a) 35 (b) 41 (a) 47 (a) 53 (c)
6 (d) 12 (d) 18 (a) 24 (d) 30 (a) 36 (d) 42 (d) 48 (b) 54 (b)

1. (a) A strong nucleophile favours the SN2 reaction and a unit of Tb K

weak nucleophile favours the SN1 reaction. Unit of Kb =
First reaction is SN1 reaction because C2H5OH is used as
unit of m molality
solvent which is a weak nucleophile. K
Second reaction is SN2 reaction because C2H5O– is strong = 1
= K mol–1 kg
mol kg
nucleophile.
2. (b) Show negative deviation from Raoult's law. 11. (c) H
3. (c) Let oxidation state of P in NaH2PO2 is x. G
E
1 + 2 × 1 + x + 2 × (– 2) = 0
1+2 +x–4 =0 F
+ x–1=0 a
x= +1
4. (c) Dissolution of gases in liquids is generally an C
exothernic process accompanied by a large decrease in A
volume. Follow Le chatelier’s principle. a a
5. (b) The letter ‘D’ or ‘L’ before the name of any compound
B
indicate, the relative configuration of a particular
stereoisomer. An isolated fcc cell is shown here. Each face of the cell
6. (d) Due to hydrogen bonding, HF is a liquid. is common to two adjacent cells. Therefore, each face
7. (a) It is a substitution reaction which involves the
centre atom contributes only half of its volume and
replacement of 1° and 2° hydrogens of alkanes by chlorine.
It occurs in presence of ultraviolet light. mass to one cell. Arranging six cells each sharing the
10 20 20 10
remaining half of the face centred atoms,constitutes
Cl2
CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 3 fcc cubic lattice. e.g., Cu and Al.
UV light
heat
12. (d) Cl3C CH 2 CH 3 KOH
CH3CH 2 CHCH3 CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2
(OH)3 C CH 2 CH 3 3KCl
8. (d) SO2 acts as an oxidising agent as well as reducing
agent. O
||
9. (d) Crystals show good cleavage because their CH3CH 2 C OH
constituent particles are arranged in planes. Prop anoic acid
10. (a) As we know from elevation in boiling point that 13. (b) Amino acids exist as zwitterions in which acidic
Tb character is due to NH 3 and basic due to – COO– group.
Tb = Kbm Kb =
m
 Solutions S- 17

R R 24. (d) Fluoroalkanes are difficult to prepare directly because

| | flourination of hydrocarbons with pure F2 gas occurs
acid
H3 N C HCOOH H3 N C HCOO explosively. Therefore these are prepared by treating alkyl
R chloride or bromide with salts such as Hg2F2, AgF. The
|
base reaction is called swarts reaction.
H 2 N C HCOO
CH3Br + AgF CH3F + AgBr
NaNH 2
14. (b) CH 3 — CH 2 — CHCl2 25. (N) (a) All form monobasic oxyacids e.g. HOF, HOCl,
HOBr and HOI. But HOF is unstable at room
CH 3 — CH CHCl
NaNH 2
CH 3 — C CH temperature 2HOF 2HF + O2
Final Product (b) All halogens are good oxidizing agents.
(c) Electron gain enthalpy order: Cl > F > Br > I
15. (a) NH 4 2
Cr2 O7 N2 4H 2 O Cr2 O3 (d) Fluorine is the most electronegative atom, thus, it
16. (c) shows only –1 oxidation state. The oxidation states
17. (b) For tetrahedral shape radius ratio is 0.225 – 0.414. of elements in HOF are H O F
1 O 1
18. (a) Phenol, being more acidic in nature, reacts with
sodium hydroxide solution gives phenoxide ion. This All other halogens can show odd positive oxidation
phenoxide ion is resonance stabilised. number i.e. +1, +3, +5 and +7.
19. (a) Normal saline is 0.16 M NaCl solution. Tb WB 1000
26. (c) M B = is wrong. The correct form is
20. (c) Electron withdrawing group stabilises the benzene K b WA
ring due to delocalisation of charge. K WB 1000
MB = b
– CH3 and – CH2OH are electron donating group and hence Tb WA
decrease the stability of benzene ring – OCH3 is weaker
27. (b) At 2.2 K, liquid helium can flow.
electron withdrawing group than –COCH3. Hence –COCH3
28. (c) In a DNA molecule, A T (Two H–bonds)
group more stabilize the phenoxide ion at p-position.
C G (Three H–bonds)
0 1 1
Purine Adenine (A), Guanine (G)
21. (b) H 2 O Br2 HOBr HBr
Pyrimidine Cytosine (C), Thymine (T)
Thus, here oxidation number of Br increases from 0 to +1 So the complimentary sequence of ATGCTTGA is
and also decreases from 0 to –1. Thus, it is oxidised as well TACGAACT.
as reduced. 29. (a) SO3 forms trimer in solid state.
22. (b) Glycosidic linkage is actually an ether bond as the
linkage forming the rings in an oligosaccharide or 30. (a) (CH3 )2 CHO Na CH3I
polysaccharide is not just one bond, but the two bonds
sharing an oxygen atom e.g. sucrose (CH3 )2CH O CH3 NaI

31. (c) NH 4 Cl KNO 2 KCI N 2 2H 2 O

32. (d) According to Henry’s law
P1 S 500 0.01
= 1 =
P2 S2 750 S2
750 ´ 0.01
\ S2 = = 0.015 g / L
500
33. (c) N1V1 + N2V2 = NV
4x + 10 (1 – x) = 6 × 1; –6x = –4 ; x = 0.67
Thus 0.67 litre of 4N HCl
1 – x = 1 – 0.67 = 0.33 litre of 10 N HCl
34. (a) C2H6 (excess) UV light
Cl2 C2 H 5 Cl+HCl
23. (c) Potassium ethoxide is a strong base, and 2-
bromopentane is a 2º bromide, so elimination reaction
predominates
35. (b)
OC2 H 5
CH 3 CH (Br )CH 2 CH 2 CH 3

CH 3 CH CHCH 2 CH 3 CH 2 CHCH 2 CH 2 CH 3
Pentene - 2(major) trans Pentene 1(minor) cis

Since trans- alkene is more stable than cis, thus trans-

pentene -2 is the main product.
 EBD_7358
S- 18 Chemistry

36. (d) We know that glucose reacts with one molecule of 44. (b) The structure of perchloric acid is
phenylhydrazine to give phenylhydrazone. When warmed O
with excess of phenylhydrazine, the secondary alcoholic
group adjacent to the aldehyde group is oxidised by another Cl
molecule of phenylhydrazine to a ketonic group. With this OOH
ketonic group, the third molecule of phenylhydrazine O
condenses to glucosazone. Therefore the value of X is 3. The number Cl = O bond in HClO4 is 3.
45. (a) No. of Atom ‘A’ per unit cell =
CHO + H2NNHC6H5 CH = NNHC6H5 1 6 3
6(8 – 2 = 6) corners atom per unit cell =
8 8 4
CHOH CHOH
1
warm No. of atom ‘B’ per unit cell = 6 faces atom per unit cell
(CHOH)3 (CHOH)3 2
=3
Hence, the formula of the compound = A3/4B3 or A3B12
CH2OH CH2OH i.e., AB4.
Glucose Glucose phenylhydrozone 46. (c) A mixture of He and O2 is used for respiration by
H2NNHC6H5 deep sea divers but Helium is not soluble in blood.
47. (a)
CH = NNHC6H5 CH = NNHC6H5 48. (b) Ter-butyl bromide and sodium methoxide reacts to
form 2-methylpropene and ethanol (elimination reaction).
H2NNHC6H5
C = NNHC6H5 – H2O
C=O CH3 CH3
(CHOH)3 (CHOH)3 CH3 — C — Br CH3ONa CH3 — C CH 2

CH2OH CH2OH CH3

Glucosazone Keto compound of glucose 49. (a) 50. (d)
phenylhydrazone
51. (b) CH3Br + AgF CH3F + AgBr
Swartz reaction
37. (d) –Cl is o, p–directing. CH3Cl + NaI CH3I + NaCl
38. (b) Finkelstein reaction
39. (c) In a fcc lattice, the distance between the cation and
anion is equal to the sum of their radii, which is equal to 52. (d) H2S2O8 H2S2O7
half of the edge length of unit cell, Peroxodisulphuric Pyrosulphuric
a acid acid
i.e. r r (where a = edge length)
2 O O O O
+ –
r = 95 pm, r = 181 pm || || || ||
Edge length = 2r+ + 2r– = (2 × 95 + 2 × 181) pm HO – S – O – O – S – OH S S
= (190 + 362) pm = 552 pm. || || HO || O || OH
40. (d) Due to conjugation of lonepair of Cl with bond, partial O O O O
double bond character decreases bond length that's A B
why compound (d) has shortest C–Cl bond length.
41. (a) Conc. HNO3 oxidises I2 to iodic acid (HIO3). No. of S = O bonds 4 4
I2 + 10HNO3 2HIO3 + 10NO2 + 4H2O No. of S – OH bonds 2 2
Y
In HIO3 oxidation state of iodine is +5. 53. (c) Quartz glass is an example of amorphous solid and
crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature.
42. (d) In case of exothermic dissolution, the solubility of the
54. (b) Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature that is
solid increases on lowering the temperature. On cooling,
some of their physical properties like electrical resistance
the solution becomes unsaturated and solid solute does
or refractive index show different values when measured
not separate. At 0°C, water in the solution does not freeze. along different directions in the same crystals.
43. (d) Phenol has active (acidic) hydrogen so it reacts with
CH3MgI to give CH4, and not anisole 55. (b) Amorphous solids are isotropic, because these
C 6 H 5 OH CH 3 MgI CH 4 C 6 H 5 OMgI
substances show same properties in all directions.
 Sample Paper 7
ANSWER KEYS
1 (c) 7 (a) 13 (d) 19 (c) 25 (c) 31 (d) 37 (c) 43 (a) 49 (c) 55 (a)
2 (b) 8 (c) 14 (b) 20 (c) 26 (b) 32 (c) 38 (c) 44 (a) 50 (d)
3 (c) 9 (a) 15 (b) 21 (b) 27 (c) 33 (a) 39 (a) 45 (d) 51 (d)
4 (c) 10 (b) 16 (c) 22 (c) 28 (b) 34 (d) 40 (a) 46 (a) 52 (c)
5 (b) 11 (c) 17 (a) 23 (d) 29 (b) 35 (a) 41 (b) 47 (a) 53 (d)
6 (c) 12 (a) 18 (a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 36 (c) 42 (d) 48 (d) 54 (b)

1. (c) H3PO3 2KOH K 2 HPO3 2H 2 O carbocation formed from (c) is stabilized by two phenyl
groups and one methyl group, hence most stable.
2. (b) As electrophile Cl+ attacks on electron rich benzene
9. (a) No compound of Ar as yet been reported with F2
ring and substitutes hydrogen on ortho and para position
w.r.to. – CH3 group. So, the reaction is electrophilic 10. (b) As, a b c , = = 90° and = 120°
substitution reaction. the given crystal system of a compound is a hexagonal
3. (c) Maximum amount of solid that can be dissolved in a system.
specified amount of a given solvent does not depend upon 11. (c)
pressure. This is because solid and liquid are highly 12. (a) Four atoms of Ca2+ and eight atoms of F– are in the
incompressible and practically remain unaffected by change unit cell. Each F– atom occupies 8 tetrahedral voids.
in pressure. 13. (d) Weaker the C–X bond, greater is the reactivity.
4. (c) Structure of H3PO4 is 14. (b) At high temp. i.e., 400°C substitution occurs in
preference to addition.
O
|| Cl2 , 400 C
P CH 3 CH CH 2 ClCH 2 CH CH 2
HCl
HO OH
OH 15. (b) Epimers are those diastereomers which differ in the
H3PO4 has 3 – OH groups i.e., three ionisable H-atoms configuration of only one chiral carbon which may be C1,
and hence, it forms three series of salts: NaH2PO4, C2, C3, etc.; while anomers are diastereomers that differ in
Na2HPO4 and Na3PO4 the configuration of a specific chiral carbon which is C1 in
5. (b) When solute is added to the solution three cases may arise aldoses and C2 in ketoses.
(i) It dissolves into solution then solution is unsaturated. 16. (c) Potassium ethoxide is a strong base, and 2-
(ii) It does not dissolve in the solution then solution is bromopentane is a 2º bromide, so elimination reaction
known as saturated. predominates
(iii) When solute get precipitated solution is known as
OC2 H 5
supersaturated solution. CH 3 CH (Br )CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
6. (c) Polypeptide chains, in fibrous proteins, are held
together by disulphide and hydrogen bonds. CH 3 CH = CHCH 2 CH 3 +CH 2 = CHCH 2 CH 2 CH 3
Pentene - 2(major) trans Pentene 1(minor) cis
7. (a) No compound of He as yet been reported.
8. (c) SN1 reactions involve the formation of carbocations, Since trans- alkene is more stable than cis, thus trans-
hence higher the stability of carbocation, more will be pentene -2 is the main product.
reactivity of the parent alkyl halide. Thus tertiary
 EBD_7358
S- 20 Chemistry

17. (a) Mixture of (He + O2) is used for asthma patient. As the freezing point of pure water is 0°C,
18. (a) When primary (1°) alcohols are treated with copper at Tf = 0 –Tf 0.654 = 0 – Tf Tf = – 0.654
300°C, then aldehydes are obtained by dehydrogenation Thus the freezing point of solution will be – 0.654°C.
of alcohols. Similarly secondary (2°) alcohols form ketone
and alkene is obtained by dehydration of tertiary (3°) - 29. (b) P4 3NaOH 3H 2O PH3 3NaH 2 PO 2
alcohols. But phenol does not respond to this test. (X)
19. (c) The coordination number is 8 : 8 for Cs+ and Cl–.
HCl
20. (c) KMnO4 (alkaline) and OsO4 / CH2Cl2 are used for NaH 2PO2 H3PO2
hydroxylation of double bond while O3 /Zn is used for (X) (Y)
ozonolysis. Therefore, the right option is (c), i.e., Basicity of H3PO2 = 1
3CH 3CH CH 2 BH3 in THF
(CH 3CH 2 CH 2 )3 B 30. (c)
31. (d) Oxide oxidation state
3H2O 2
NaOH
3CH 3CH 2CH 2OH + H3BO3 N2O +1
1-propanol NO +2
21. (b) x 1/KH N2O3 +3
6 5 4 3 2 1
NO2 +4
22. (c) CH3 — CH — CH2 — CH2 — CH — CH3 So, N2O < NO < N2O3 < NO2
—

32. (c) Compounds (A) and (D) are phenols.

Cl OH
On the other hand, in compounds (B) and (C), — OH
5-Chlorohexan-2-ol group is bonded to sp3 hybridised carbon which in turn is
23. (d) Electron gain enthalpy for noble gases is positive bonded to benzene ring. Hence, these are considered as
and it becomes less positive with increase in size of atom. aromatic alcohols.
Value of electron gain enthalpy 33. (a) At room temperature, water is liquid and has boiling
He – 48 kJ mol–1, Ne – 116 kJ mol–1 point 373 K due to hydrogen bonding. Whereas H2S is a
Ar, Kr – 96 kJ mol–1, Xe – 77 kJ mol–1 gas and it has no hydrogen bonding. Hence boiling point
Hence, Ne has highest positive electron gain enthalpy. of H2S is less than 300 K (boiling point of H2S is –60°C).
24. (b) 25. (c) 34. (d) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property. Hence
26. (b) Reaction (i) is not possible because OH– is a stronger resulting osmotic pressure of the solution is given by
base than Cl–; hence it can’t be replaced by Cl–. However, T = 1 + 2 + 3 ..........
T = 1.64 + 2.46 = 4.10 atm.
in reaction (ii) OH group is first protonated to form R O H 2
35. (a) 7.4 = n × 0.0821 × 300 n = 0.3
in which H2O, being a very weak base, is easily replaced
36. (c)
by Cl–.
37. (c) X = Na2SO3
27. (c) Pb(NO3 )2 PbO 2NO2 (g) O2 SO32 H 2SO4 [H 2SO3 ] H 2O +SO2
' A ' (brown gas) (X) (Y)
cooling
2NO 2 (g) N 2O 4
'A ' 'B '
SO 2 2NaOH Na 2SO3 + H 2O
(X)
3
N 2 O4 NO N 2 O3 Na 2SO3 +SO2 + H 2 O 2NaHSO3
'B' 'C ' (Blue solid) (X) (Y) (Z)

28. (b) As Tf = Kf . m 38. (c) During denaturation 2° and 3° structures are

Tb = Kb. m destroyed but 1° structure remains intact.
Tf Tb Cl N(CH 3 ) 2
Hence, we have m
Kf Kb
(CH3 )2 NH
39. (a) + (CH3 )2 NLi + LiCl
Kf
or Tf Tb [ Tb 100.18 100 0.18 C]
Kb
1
1.86 40. (a) Generally, bond energy
Bond length
Tf = 0.18 × = 0.654°C
0.512 So, bond energy order is C–F > C–Cl > C–Br > C–I
 Solutions S- 21

attacks the tertiary alkyl group and the products are

Z M 2 100
41. (b) (CH3)3C – I and CH3OH.
NA a 3 6.023 10 23 (400 10 10 ) 3
(d) Here, the unsymmetrical ether is alkyl aryl ether. In
this ether O – CH3 bond is weaker than O – C6H5 bond
5.188 g / cm 3
which has partial double bond character due to resonance.
42. (d) So, the halide ion attacks on alkyl group and the products
43. (a) 6NaOH + 3Cl2 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O are C6H5 – OH and CH3I.
(A, Sodium chlorate) 51. (d) P4 + 2Ca(OH)2 + 4H2O 2 Ca(H2PO2)2 + 2H2
2Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 Ca(OCl)2 + CaCl2 + H2O (white P) (hot) (calcium hypophosphite)
(B, Calcium hypochlorite) The salt is then treated with a strong non-oxidizing acid to
give hypophosphorous acid.
1000W2 1.86×1000×68.5
44. (a) Tf Kf = = 0.372 H2PO2– + H+ H3PO2
M 2W1 342×1000
(a) P4O10 + 6H2O 4H3PO3
T f = – 0.372°C (b) P2O3 + 3H2O 2H3PO3
45. (d) I–
is a good leaving group. With HI, anisole gives (c) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O PH3 + 3NaH2PO2
phenol and methyl iodide. White

OCH3 OH
OH OH
COOH
+ HI + CH3I (i) NaOH
52. (c) (ii) CO2, H +
Anisole
2 hydroxy benzoic acid
46. (a) Fluorine exists in only –1 oxidation state due to the (salicylic acid)

absence of vacant d-orbital.

47. (a) Graphite is an example of hexagonal crystal system
for which = = 90°, = 120° and a b c.
48. (d) Fluorine is a highly reactive non-metal due to its low
bond dissociation energy.
49. (c)
50. (d) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i)
(a) CH3 – O – CH3 is a symmetrical ether so the products
are CH3I and CH2OH.
(b) In (CH3)2CHOCH3 unsymmetrical ether, one alkyl
group is primary while another is secondary. So, it follow
SN2 mechanism. Thus, the halide ion attacks the smaller
alkyl group and the products are
CH3
CHOH – CH3I
CH3
(c) In this case, one of the alkyl group is tertiary and the
other is primary. It follows SN1 mechanism and halide ion
CH 3
Anhyd. |
53. (d) C6 H 6 CH3CH 2 CH 2Cl C6 H 5 CHCH 3
AlCl3
Isopropyl benzene
54. (b) SN2 reaction follow a 2nd order kinetic, i.e., the rate
depends upon the concentration of both the reactants,
where in SN1 reactions rate depends only upon the
concentration of only one reactant.
The order of reactivity order of alkyl halides for SN1
reaction 3° > 2° > 1° and for SN2 reactions 3° < 2° < 1°
55. (a) Since SN1 reactions involve the formation of carbo-
cation as intermediate in the rate determining step, more
is the stability of carbocation higher will be the reactivity
of alkyl halides towards SN1 route. Now we know that
stability of carbocations follows the order : 3° > 2° > 1°, so
SN1 reactivity should also follow the same order.
3° > 2° > 1° > Methyl (SN1 reactivity)
 EBD_7358
S- 22 Chemistry

Sample Paper 8
ANSWER KEYS
1 (b) 7 (a) 13 (a) 19 (b) 25 (a) 31 (d) 37 (b) 43 (a) 49 (a) 55 (b)
2 (b) 8 (d) 14 (b) 20 (b) 26 (d) 32 (b) 38 (d) 44 (d) 50 (b)
3 (d) 9 (b) 15 (c) 21 (d) 27 (c) 33 (b) 39 (d) 45 (a) 51 (c)
4 (c) 10 (b) 16 (c) 22 (b) 28 (b) 34 (b) 40 (b) 46 (c) 52 (c)
5 (b) 11 (c) 17 (d) 23 (b) 29 (c) 35 (a) 41 (b) 47 (d) 53 (b)
6 (b) 12 (d) 18 (c) 24 (a) 30 (c) 36 (c) 42 (a) 48 (b) 54 (b)

1. (b) Orthophosphoric acid, H 3PO 4 contains three 8. (d) C2H5Br

AgCN
C2H5NC
Reduction
P – OH bonds and is therefore, tribasic. Ethyl bromide Ethyl isocyanide
O C2H5NHCH3
|| Ethyl methyl amine
P
| OH 1 1
|

9. (b) Z 12 2 3 6
OH 6 2
orthophosphoric acid
10. (b) Liquid ammonia has high vapour pressure which is
alc.
2. (b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl CH3 CH CH 2 lowered down by cooling, otherwise the liquid will bump.
KOH (B) 11. (c) Tetrahedral & octahedral holes are present in hcp
and ccp.
Br CH 3 CH3
| 12. (d) Dissolution of sugar in water will be most rapid when
HBr Na 1 2|3| 4
CH 3 CH CH 3 CH3 CH CHCH3 powdered sugar is dissolved in hot water because powder
ether
(C) (D)
form can easily insert in the vacancies of liquid particles.
3. (d) No. of millimoles = 500 × 0.2 = 100 Further dissolution of sugar in water in an endothermic
100 process. Hence, high temperature will favour the dissolution
Thus, molarity of diluted solution
700 of sugar in water.
(Molarity = No. of moles L–1 = No. of millimoles mL–1) rc
= 0.1428 M 13. (a) 0.732
ra
4. (c) Ca3P2 + 6H2O 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3 ; i.e. 2 moles of
phosphine are produced from one mole of calcium rc = 0.732 × 200 = 146.4 pm
phosphide.
5. (b) Let total moles in solution = 1, Moles of solute = 0.2, 14. (b) AlCl3 Cl2 AlCl 4 Cl
Moles of solvent = 0.8, Mass of solvent = 0.8 × 78 × 10–3 kg. Cl
+
moles of solute 0.2 + Cl
Molality X = Mass of solvent 3 = 3.2
0.8 78 10 Chlorobenzene
6. (b) 15. (c) In -helix structure, — NH group of one amino acid
7. (a) We know that empirical formula of hypophosphorus
is hydrogen bonded to C = O group of adjacent amino
acid is H3PO2. In this only one ionisable hydrogen atom is
present i.e. it is monobasic. Therefore, option (a) is correct acid, forming a helix.
structural formula of it.
 Solutions S- 23

16. (c) CH3Cl NH3 CH3 NH 2 HCl 26. (d) Boiling point is directly proportional to size of the
Excess Methanamine molecule. All contains same halogen atom but different
However, if the two reactants are present in the same hydrocarbon part. Larger the different hydrocarbon part
amount, then the mixture of amines (i.e., primary, secondary larger the boiling point.
and tertiary) are obtained. 27. (c) 3CuSO4 + 2PH3 Cu3P2 + 3H2SO4
17. (d) N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5 are acidic oxides. Only N2O is 3HgCl2 + 2PH3 Hg3P2 + 6HCl
neutral oxide. 28. (b) A mixture of bromoethane and chloroethane is an
18. (c) Alcoholic beverages contain ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) example of ideal solution. For an ideal solution, the
which is drinking alcohol. CH3OH is poisonous alcohol. A — A or B — B type intermolecular interaction is nearly
19. (b) Triclinic-unsymmetrical equal to A — B type interaction.
90°, a b c Chloroform and acetone mixture is an example of
Cubic-symmetrical non-ideal solution having negative deviation while
= = = 90°, a = b = c ethanol-acetone mixture shows positive deviation.
20. (b) 29. (c) From the given options we find option (i) is correct.
21. (d) H3PO4 is tribasic so N = 3M = 3 × 1N = 3N. The oxidising power of halogens follow the order
22. (b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. Option (ii) is incorrect because it is not
23. (b) O the correct order of electron gain enthalpy of halogens.
The correct order is Cl2 > F2 > Br 2 > I2. The low value of F2
bridging P bridging than Cl2 is due to its small size.
O Option (iii) is incorrect. The correct order of bond
dissociation energies of halogens is
O
O Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2.
Option (iv) is correct. It is the correct order of
P O electronegativity values of halogens.
O P 30. (c) Structures having different configuration at C-1 if they
O are aldohexoses are known as anomers.
O P O 31. (d) All halogens (leaving F-F) have stronger bond then
bridging
bridging
that in interhalogens.
O oxygen
32. (b) (CH 3 )3CBr NaOC2 H5 can’t be applied for
No. of bond = 16
synthesising the ether because sod. ethoxide, being a
CH2OH strong base, will preferentially cause elimination reaction.
24. (a) CHO
CHO OC H
H OH C=O (CH 3 )3CBr 2 5
(CH 3 ) 2 C CH 2 HBr
H OH HO H HO H
In isobutene + ethanol, isobutene will form tert-butyl cation
H OH H OH
CH2OH which reacts with ethanol, a nucleophile to form ether.
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH H
(CH3 ) 2C CH 2 (CH 3 )2C CH 3
(+) (+) (–)
(i) CH 3CH 2 OH
(i) (ii) (iii) (CH 3 )3COCH 2 CH 3
(ii) H
When OH on lowest asymmetric carbon is written at 33. (b) Physical state of iodine is different from other
right hand side, it is represented as D configuration halogens as iodine is solid, bromine is a liquid whereas
and when OH is written on left hand side, it is fluorine and chlorine are gases.
represented as L configuration. 34. (b) 2Na (aq) –
2OH(aq) SnO2(s) 2Na (aq)
25. (a)
2
SnO3(aq) H 2O
CH3 CH3
The number of ions decreases in the ratio of 4 to 3, and so
CH3 – C – Cl + 2Na + Cl – C – CH3 also the colligative property.
CH3 CH3 35. (a) According to Raoult’s law,
t-Butyl chloride PT = xAp°A + xBp°B
Wurtz
Rxn

Given, PT1 = 500 mm Hg

CH3 CH3 CH3CH3 nA = 1 and nB = 2 xA = 1/3 and xB = 2/3
Mono
CH3 – C – C –CH2Cl Clorination CH3– C – C – CH3 1 2
500 p°A p°B
CH3CH3 CH3 CH3 3 3
 EBD_7358
S- 24 Chemistry

...(i) (iii) Na 2 B 4 O 7 H 2SO 4 5H 2 O

1500 p°A 2 p°B
Also given that, one more mole of B is added to the Na 2SO 4 4H 3 BO 3
solution, the pressure of the ideal solution increases by 25 white crystals
mm Hg. 44. (d) Azeotropic mixture is constant boiling mixture, it is
PT2 = 500 + 25 = 525 mm Hg not possible to separate the components of azeotropic
mixture by boiling.
Also, nB = 3 xA = 1/4 and xB = 3/4 45. (a) Methanol is injurious to the nervous system. It mainly
1 3 damages central nervous system and optic nerve, therefore,
525 p°A p°B ...(ii) ingestion of small amount of methanol cause blindness
4 4
and death.
2100 p°A 3 p°B Subtract (i) and (ii), 46. (c) HNO2 makes iron passive due to formation of passive
p°B = 600 mm Hg form of oxide on the surface. Hence, Fe does not dissolve
p°A + 2p°B = 1500 p°A = 300 mm Hg. in conc HNO3 solution.
36. (c) Stability of the three corresponding carbocations 47. (d) KBr shows schottky defect.
48. (b) HI cannot be prepared by the reacton of Kl with
CH 2 CH C HCH 3 CH 3CH 2 C HCH 3 CH 3CH 2 C H 2 concentrated H2SO4 because HI is converted into I2 on
Allyl Carbocatio n 2 Carbocatio n 1 Carbocatio n reaction with H2SO4.
37. (b) The hybridization of XeO3F2 is sp3d and
its structure 49. (a) Aryl-oxygen bond is highly stable due to stabilisation
is trigonal bipyramidal in which oxygen atoms are situated of lone pair of electrons on oxygen atom due to resonance
on the plane and the fluoride atoms are on the top and effect and sp2 hybridization of the carbon atom.
bottom. OH
F
O
O – R + HX + RX
(x–Cl, Br)
O Xe
50. (b) 51. (c)

O
52. (c) Bond µ
F
CH3 – F 1.847
38. (d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of amino
CH3 – Cl 1.860
acid residues is important to tertiary structure of protein
rather than to secondary structure. In secondary structure, CH3 – Br 1.830
it is the steric size of the residues that is important and
residues are positioned to minimise interactions between (a) H3C – CHCl2 , H2C – CH2
each other and the peptide chain. | |
Cl Cl
39. (d) 40. (b) Ethylene chloride
41. (b) In NaCl crystal, each Cl– ion is surrounded by 6 Na+ (Gem dihalide)
ions. Similarly, each Na+ is surrounded by 6 Cl– ions.
42. (a) N-Phenylacetanilide, C6H5N(C6H5)COCH3, (b) ,
CH2X
precipitates out to a complex with anhydrous AlCl3. Vinylic halides Allylic halides
43. (a) (X) is borax, Na2B4O7.10H2O (d) Para isomers are more symmetric than ortho and meta
(i) Na 2 B 4O 7 7H 2O 2NaOH 4H3 BO3 isomers.
(Strong) (Weak)
Base acid
CH 3
5 4 3 |2 1
53. (b) C H 3 – CH – CH 2 – C – CH 3
| |
Due to presence of NaOH, the aqueous solution is alkaline
OH OH
to litmus.
2-Methyl-2, 4-pentanediol.
Heat
(ii) Na 2 B4 O7 .10H 2 O Na 2 B4 O7 54. (b)
(swells) 55. (b) Alcohols are versatile compounds. They react both
10H 2 O 2NaBO 2 B2 O 3 as nucleophiles and electrophiles. The bond between
Glassy bead
 Sample Paper 9
ANSWER KEYS
1 (d) 7 (d) 13 (a) 19 (d) 25 (b) 31 (c) 37 (d) 43 (b) 49 (b) 55 (c)
2 (d) 8 (c) 14 (b) 20 (c) 26 (b) 32 (b) 38 (b) 44 (c) 50 (a)
3 (b) 9 (b) 15 (b) 21 (b) 27 (b) 33 (c) 39 (a) 45 (a) 51 (a)
4 (b) 10 (a) 16 (b) 22 (a) 28 (b) 34 (b) 40 (c) 46 (b) 52 (d)
5 (d) 11 (c) 17 (a) 23 (a) 29 (b) 35 (b) 41 (d) 47 (a) 53 (d)
6 (d) 12 (d) 18 (c) 24 (b) 30 (a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 48 (a) 54 (b)

1. (d) Bleaching action of chlorine is due to oxidation in 5. (d) Addition of a solute increases the boiling point of
presence of moisture. solution.
Cl 2 H 2O HCl + HClO 6. (d) Statement (d) is not correct. Some proteins also
contain S, with C, H, O and N.
HClO HCl O 7. (d) NO2 is reddish brown coloured gas. Rest of the oxides
Colouring matter + | O | Colourless matter are colourless.
2. (d) Riemer-Tiemann reaction involves electrophilic 8. (c)
substitution on the highly reactive phenoxide ring.
HCCl3 + OH– H2O + : CCl3 Cl Cl Cl

: CCl3 Cl– + : CCl 2 CH 3COCl COCH3

Note the C has only a anhy.AlCl3
+
sextet of electrons
– Chlorobenzene 2-Chloroacetophenone
O O COCH3
H 4-Chloroaceto-
:CCl2 CCl2 phenone (Major)

– –
Ortho-Product is minor because of steric hindrance.
O O 9. (b) Octahedral sites in fcc are present at each edge centre
CHCl2 – CHO as well as at body centre.
OH 10. (a) Given : w = 10 g; Mol. mass = 40
Weight of solvent = 1250 × 0.8 g = 1000 g = 1 kg
A benzal chloride 10
Molality = = 0.25
ethanolic KOH 40 1
3. (b) CH3 CH 2 CH 2 Br CH3 CH = CH 2
n Propyl bromide HBr Propene
11. (c)
4. (b) Isoelectronic pair have same number of electrons O
O
=

Total number of electrons for the given compounds : 12. (d) N O N–N =
=

BrO2– BrF2+ (i) (ii) O

35 + 2 × 8 + 1 = 52 35 + 9 × 2 – 1 = 52
ICl2 ClO2 BrF O O
O O
=

53 + 2 × 17 = 87 17 + 16 = 33 35 + 9 = 44 N–N N–O–N
CN – O3
=

O
=

O O O
6 + 7 + 1 = 14 8 × 3 = 24 (iii) (iv)
 EBD_7358
S- 26 Chemistry

13. (a) Iodine molecules belongs to a class of non – polar 21. (b) Packing efficiency in different types of unit cells is as
molecular solids in which constituents molecule are held follows :
together by London or dispersion forces.
14. (b) Number of solute particles going into solution will be Unit cell Packing efficiency
equal to the solute particles separating out and a state of fcc 74%
dynamic equilibrium is reached. bcc 68%
solute + solvent solution.
Simple cubic 52%
i.e., rate of dissolution = rate of unsaturation.
15. (b) Crystalline solids has a regular arrangement of Thus, the correct order of packing efficiency is:
constituent particles observed over a long distance in the fcc (74%) > bcc (68%) > simple cubic (52%).
crystal lattice due to which they exhibit sharp melting
22. (a) excess of HI
point. C 4 H10 O only RI
16. (b) If carbon atom has all four valencies with four different Since the compound (C4H10O) does not react with sodium,
groups then it is called as asymmetric/chiral carbon. oxygen must be in the form of ether (R–OR). Further since
17. (a) Synthesis of polypeptide is known as translation. For a single alkyl halide is formed, the two alkyl groups must
this process three type of RNA are essential. be same, hence ether is C2H5OC2H5.
18. (c) The substitution is faster if the electron withdrawing 23. (a) The interparticle forces in between CHCl3 and acetone
group is at ortho and para position to –Cl group. increase due to H-bonding and thus mixingV becomes
Compounds (ii) and (iii) both have one electron negative.
withdrawing group but in compound (ii) electron
O
withdrawing (— NO2) group is present at ortho position,
LiAlH 4
so rate of reaction in compound (ii) is more than that of 24. (b) Ph C O CH 2 Ph H2 O
Ph—CH2OH
(iii), while (i) has no electron withdrawing group. (2 mole)
19. (d) PH3 is not obtained when metaphosphoric acid is 25. (b) H4P2O5 is pyrophosphorous acid it contains P–O–P
heated. bond.
(a) 2P4 + 3Ba (OH)2 + 6H2O 26. (b) The secondary structure of a protein refers to the
(white P)
shape in which a long peptide chain can exist. There are
2PH3 + 3 Ba (H2PO2)2
two different conformations of the peptide linkage present
(phosphine) (barium
hypophosphite)
in protein, these are -helix and -conformation. The
(b) 4H3 PO3 3H3 PO4 + PH3 -helix always has a right handed arrangement. In
-conformation, all peptide chains are streched out to nearly
(c) Ca(H2PO2)2
maximum extension and then laid side by side and held
(calcium hypophosphite) together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds. The structure
PH3 + CaHPO4 resembles the pleated folds of drapery and therefore is
(phosphine) (calcium hydrogen phosphate)
known as -pleated sheet.
: OH + OH acetone
27. (b) R X NaI R I NaX
+
H Soluble in Insoluble in
E
20. (c) E ; (CH 3OH, Me 2CO) (CH 3OH, Me 2CO)

(where X = Cl or Br)
+ M effect in phenol Oxonium ion
activates benzene ring (more stable) 28. (b) A good nucleophile possesses two properties
(i) It is a good leaving group
+ (ii) It is a good attacking reagent
+
H
E ‘F’ is not a good leaving group, hence to convert R—F
E
into R—OH, first it is treated with NaI to convert it into
Carbonium ion R—I (I is good base) and then R—I is treated with NaOH
(less stable) to produce R—OH (I is good leaving group)
High stability of oxonium ion (oxocation) is because here 29. (b) 2KMnO4 + 16HCl 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 8H2O + 5Cl2
every atom (except H) has a complete octet of electrons, 30. (a) Given vapour pressure of pure solvent
while in carbocations, carbon bearing positive charge is (P°) = 121.8 mm Hg; Weight of solute (w) = 15 g
having six electrons.
 Solutions S- 27

Weight of solvent (W) = 250 g; Vapour pressure of solution

K b w 1000 2.16 0.11 1000
(P) = 120.2 mm Hg and Molecular weight of solvent (M) = 78 36. (b) M 158.4
o
Tb W 0.1 15
P P w M
From Raoult’s law 37. (d) H3PO4 is tribasic so, N = M × nf = 1 × 3 = 3N
o m W
P
121.8 120.2 15 78 O O

121.8 m 250 38. (b) CF3 S O > Ph S O > CH3 COO > PhO
15 78 121.8 O O
or m 356.2
250 1.6 L.G. Ability
31. (c)
32. (b) RNA has D (–) – Ribose and the DNA has 2–Deoxy CH3
39. (a)
D (–) – ribose as the carbohydrate unit. 3
2
5 5 1
O HOCH 2 O OH
HOCH2 OH m-Cresol
OH
4 1 4 1
H H H H
H H H H Its IUPAC name is 3-methylphenol.
3 2 3 2
40. (c) Fibrous proteins are generally insoluble in water.
OH OH OH H
41. (d) tert-Alkyl halides undergo SN1 reactions, hence they
Ribose 2-Deoxy ribose
involve the formation of quite stable carbocations, and not
From the structures it is clear that 2nd carbon in DNA does the transition state. In SN1 reactions, the nucleophile is not
not have OH group. involved in rate determining (first) step, hence its stronger or
33. (c) For statement (iii) preparation of XeF2 requires Xe in weaker nature does not influence the reaction rate. In SN1, the
excess amount product has more percentage of the inverted configuration
than the retained configuration, i.e. only partial racemization
673K,1 bar
Xe g F2 g XeF2 s takes place, hence the product will be having some optical
excess activity.
For statements (iv)
2XeF2(s) + 2H2O(l) 2Xe(g) + 4HF(aq) + O2(g) 42. (c)
O O
6XeF4 + 12H2O 4Xe + XeO3 + 24HF + 3O2
O O– –O O
XeF6 + 3H2O XeO3 + 6HF
34. (b) Primary alcohol will favour SN2 pathway as primary Ozone is diamagnetic in nature (due to presence of paired
C ion is less stable. electron) and both the O – O bond length are equal. It has
a bent structure.
35. (b) Xe = [Kr]4d105s2 43. (b) Solid AB crystallizes as NaCl structure, so it has
5p coordination number 6 and its r+/r– ranges from 0.414 – 0.732.
For maximum radius of anion, we have to take the lower
G.S. r
5d limit of the range 0.414– 0.732. So, 0.414
r
In first excited state, Xe can form XeF2
0.100
r–= nm = 0.241 nm
Xe = 0.414
5p 5d
44. (c) SN2 and SN1 same, if C not rearrange.
In second excited state, Xe can form XeF4
45. (a) 46. (b)
Xe = 47. (a) 2-Cyclohexenol is dehydrated more readily than
In third excited state, Xe can form XeF6 3-cyclohexenol because the carbocation formed from the
former is more stable than the latter.
Xe = 48. (a) Because of small size of F atoms, their is repulsion of
electrons in F2 molecule. Thus, F-F bond in F2 molecule is
Hence, xenon can combine with only even number of
weak.
fluorine atoms.
 EBD_7358
S- 28 Chemistry

49. (b) Since some of the lattice site are vacant, therefore it 51. (a)
results into decrease in the density of the substance. 52. (d) In DNA, Adenine pairs with thymine and Guanine
50. (a) XeF6 XeO3 pairs with cytosine with the help of H-bonding.
F 53. (d) If in an ionic crystal of the type A+ B–, equal number
F of cations and anions are missing from their lattice sites so
that the electrical neutrality is maintained, the defect is
Xe called Schottky defect.
F Xe F 54. (b) More is the Schottky defect in crystal, more is the
O O decrease in density of the crystal.
F O 55. (c) Frenkel and Schottky defects are crystal defects. It
F
1L.P. 1 L.P. arises due to dislodgement of cation or anion from their
distorted octahedral Pyramidal
places in the crystal lattice.
XeO4 XeF4
F F
O
F F Xe
Xe
F F F F

1 L.P. 2 L.P.
Square pyramidal Square planar
 Sample Paper 10
ANSWER KEYS
1 (d) 7 (c) 13 (d) 19 (c) 25 (a) 31 (d) 37 (c) 43 (d) 49 (b) 55 (d)
2 (d) 8 (b) 14 (b) 20 (d) 26 (a) 32 (d) 38 (a) 44 (a) 50 (b)
3 (d) 9 (b) 15 (d) 21 (a) 27 (c) 33 (b) 39 (c) 45 (c) 51 (a)
4 (d) 10 (c) 16 (c) 22 (d) 28 (b) 34 (c) 40 (c) 46 (a) 52 (c)
5 (a) 11 (b) 16 (a) 23 (b) 29 (a) 35 (b) 41 (d) 47 (a) 53 (c)
6 (c) 12 (c) 18 (c) 24 (d) 30 (c) 36 (a) 42 (a) 48 (a) 54 (d)

1. (d) 4-Bromobut-l-ene is not an allylic halide

2 1
BrH 2C —CH 2 —CH CH 2 7. (c) CH3 — CH — CH 2 — Br
4 Bromobut 1 ene
3
|
CH2 — 4CH3
|
Br CH3 Br CH3
| | | 4
CH 3 CH CH CH CH 3 CH 2 C CH CH3 1 - Bromo - 2 methylbutane
4-Bromopent-2-ene 3-Bromo-2-methylbut-1-ene
8. (b) No. of nearest neighbour = 8 (All body centre atom
BrCH 2 CH CH CH3 CH 2 CH CH 2 CH2 Br w.r.t. corner atom).
1-Bromobut-2-ene 4-Bromobut-1-ene No. of next nearest neighbour = 6 (No. of corner atoms
2. (d) Presence of electron withdrawing group increases along edge w.r.t. to any corner).
the acidic strength. So, m-chlorophenol is most acidic 9. (b) Those amino acids that cannot be synthesized in our
among all the given compounds. body and must be supplied in diet is called essential
3. (d) H3PO4 is tribasic so, N = M × nf = 1 × 3 = 3N amino acid for ex. valine, Histidine, Isoluecine etc.
4. (d) All compounds have tertiary alkyl group but bond 10. (c) Secondary alcohols oxidise to produce kenone.
between carbon and iodine (C — I) is weakest bond due CH3CHOHCH2CH3 (O)
CH3COCH2CH3
to higher difference in size of carbon and iodine.
2-Butanol Ethyl methyl ketone
5. (a) Structure of DNA - It consists of two polynucleotide
chains, each chain forms a right handed helical spiral with Br
|
ten bases in one turn of the spiral. The two chains coil to 11. (b) H3 C— H 2 C— H C — C H 2 — C H3
double helix and run in opposite direction held together 1 2 3 4 5
by hydrogen bonding. IUPAC name is 3-bromopentane.
6. (c) As per formula,
Po Ps n w M
radius of cation 94 12. (c) =
radius ratio = = = 0.643 P o N m W
radius of anion 146
Since the value is between 0.414 – 0.732 hence the 12 18
12 18
coordination no. will be 6 and geometry will be octahedral. 0.1 = m= 20
m 108 0.1 108
 EBD_7358
S- 30 Chemistry

13. (d) 2Ag2O (s) 4Ag (s) + O2 (g)

O O
2Pb3O4 (s) 6PbO (s) + O2 (g)
OH H
2PbO2 (s) 2PbO (s) + O2 (g) OH + NH2 + HO
14. (b) In ZnS structure, sulphide ions occupy all fcc lattice
points while Zn2+ ions are present in alternate tetrahedral O O
voids. ninhydrin partially reduced form
15. (d) Let the mass of methane and oxygen = m g.
Mole fraction of O2
O
Moles of O2
=
Moles of O 2 + Moles of CH 4
N
m / 32 m / 32 1 O
= = =
m / 32 m /16 3m / 32 3
OO
Partial pressure of O2 = Total pressure × mole fraction of
1 1
O2, PO2 = P × = P blue purple
3 3 pigment
16. (c) In bcc the atoms touch along body diagonal
2r 2r 3a 19. (c) R – OH + SOCl2 Pyridine RCl + SO2 + HCl
3a 3 4.29 SO2 and HCl being gases escape leaving behind pure alkyl
r= = =1.857Å
4 4 halide.
17. (a) Carbon in which four bonds are different is known 20. (d) Due to high N—F bond strength, NF3 is highly stable
as chiral carbon. and hence inert towards hydrolysis.
1 * 2 3 4
H3C — CH — CH2 — CH3 CH3
| 3
Br 2
2-Bromobutane 21. (a)
1
18. (c) Ninhydrin is often used to detect – amino acids OH
m-Cresol
and also free amino and carboxylic acid groups on pro-
teins and peptides. When about 0.5 mL of a 0.1% solu-
tion of ninhydrin is boiled for one or two minutes with Its IUPAC name is 3-methylphenol.
a few mL of dilute amino acid or protein solution, a blue
1 1
color develops. Ninhydrin degrades amino acids into al- 22. (d) Effective number of ‘A’ atoms = 8 + 4 =3
dehydes, ammonia, and CO2 through a series of reac- 8 2
tions; the net result is ninhydrin in a partially reduced
form hydrindantin; 1
Effective number of ‘B’ atoms = 12 +1=4
4
O
Formula of the solid = A3B4.
OH 23. (b) 5-10 % methanol and remaing ethanol is called
OH + RCH(NH2)COOH
methylated spirit. It is also known as denatured alcohol
O because it is unfit for drinking.
24. (d) To increase the solubility of CO2 in soft drinks and
O soda water, the bottle is sealed under high pressure.
H O
OH + RCHO + CO2 + NH3
[O]
25. (a) CH3 CH CH3 CH3 C CH3
O
OH
Ninhydrin then condenses with ammonia and hydrindantin
to produce an intensely blue or purple pigment, some- 2° alcohol more easily oxidised than 3° alcohol.
times called Ruhemann's purple: 26. (a) –3, +3, +5
 Solutions S- 31

27. (c) "Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with

O O
hydroxylamine" showing absence of free CHO group. This O
can not be explained by open structure of glucose while CHO CH
O
all other properties can be easily explained. 35. (b) (A) (B)
CH2Cl CH2CN
NaCN
28. (b) DM F OH CH3 OH CH3
CHO CH2 OH
I I
(C) (D)
Nuclear substitution will not take place.
29. (a) All those compounds which follow SN1 mechanism
36. (a) SO3 forms trimer in solid state.
during nucleophilic subsitution reaction will give racemic
mixture. 37. (c) On increasing the pressure over the solution phase
Order of reactivity of alkyl halides for SN1. by compressing the gas to a smaller volume (in fig b),
3° > 2° > 1° CH3 X increase the number of gaseous particles per unit volume
over the solution and also the rate at which the gaseous
Thus, CH3 — CH — Br contains a 2° chiral carbon, so particles are striking the surface of solution to enter it. The
|
C 2 H5 solubility of the gas will increase until a new equilibrium is
reached resulting in an increase in the pressure of a gas
it gives a racemic product. above the solution. Thus, its solubility increases.
30. (c) In cyclic metaphosporic acid, number of P–O–P Trick: One of the options (c) or (d) must be the answer.
bonds is three. 38. (a) Mixture of methanol and acetone show a positive
O OH deviation from Raoult’s law. Molecules in pure methanol
P are hydrogen bonded. On adding acetone, its molecules
O O
O O enters in between the host molecules and break some of
P P the hydrogen bonds between them.
O OH
HO Therefore, the intermolecular attractive forces between
31. (d) At intersection P1 = P2 and x1 = x2 the solute-solvent molecules are weaker than those
32. (d) OF2; among the following O and F, F is more between the solute-solute and solvent-solvent molecules.
electronegative than oxygen. Other three remaining options will show negative
So OF2 cannot be called oxide because in that case O is in deviation.
–2 oxidation state which is not possible, so OF2 is called 39. (c)
oxygen difluoride.
33. (b) In secondary structure of DNA adenine forms
hydrogen bonds with thymine whereas cytosine forms
hydrogen bonds with guanine.
34. (c) Xenon undergo sp3 hybridization.
(ground
state)
5s 5p 5d

(third excited
state)
5s 5p 5d
In the fourth excited state, xenon atom has 8 unpaired
electrons

5s 5p 5d
One s and three p orbital undergo sp3 hybridization. Four
sp3 hybrid orbitals form four bonds with oxygen atoms. 40. (c) DNA fingerprinting is same for every cell and cannot
They are sp3 – p. Four p – d bonds are also formed with be altered by any known treatment.
oxygen atoms by the unpaired electrons.
 EBD_7358
S- 32 Chemistry

41. (d) 44. (a) Dehydrohalogenation ( –elimination) occurs as:

CH3 H CH3 Br
C H Br KOH alc. (excess)
|| + Br2
C H Br Ph Ph
(trans reagent) conjugated and
more substituted alkene
H CH3 CH3
(trans-2-butene) (Meso)
45. (c) Due to the formation of passive film of oxide
42. (a) Inorganic compound + SO2 in aq. medium (A) chromium does not dissolve in nitric acid.
(A) + Na2CO3 (B) 46. (a)
(B) + S (C) (Used in photography) 47. (a) At high altitudes, the partial pressure of oxygen is
less than that at the ground level. This leads to low
Na 2CO3 2SO2 H 2O 2NaHSO 4 CO 2 concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues of
A
people living at high altitudes or climbers. Low blood
oxygen causes climbers to become weak and unable to
2NaHSO 4 Na 2CO3 2Na 2SO3 H 2 O CO 2
B think clearly, symptoms of a condition known as anoxia.
48. (a) p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol because nitro
Na 2SO3 S Na 2S2O3 group helps in the stabilisation of the phenoxide ion by
C dispersal of negative charge due to resonance.
43. (d) For a fcc unit cell 49. (b) Interhalogen compounds are useful fluorinating agents.
50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (c)
2a 53. (c) The bond energy of interhalogen compounds is less
r=
4 than the bond energy of halogens.
54. (d) All halogens (leaving F-F) have stronger bond then
4r
a= = 2 2 0.14 = 0.39 0.4 nm. that in interhalogens.
2
55. (d) Interhalogen compounds are not highly volatile.