Air Systems

1. During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is selected ON for air conditioning. What is the
consequence?
A. Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone which requires the most cooling
B. During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during two pack operation
C. With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average temperature demands of
all three zones
D. If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone temperature demands will be averaged for control
of the left pack

2. When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct?
A. This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems
B. Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the backup system has occurred
C. This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset button
D. This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a preset value

3. When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?

A. When T/D is reached
B. When retard is announced in the FMA
C. When descending 0.25 psi below the selected flight altitude
D. When within 15 000 feet of the landing airport

4. Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT
ALT. What can you expect?
A. The system will be recalculating the pressurization for the departure airport
B. The pressurization will increase its ventilation and possibly pressurization will be lost
C. The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost
D. Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning

5. From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs.
A. From the static ports
B. From the Captain’s CDU
C. From the ADIRU’s
D. From the EFIS control panel

6. Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?

A. On the 9th Stage bleed air line
B. On the engine side of the engine bleed air valve
C. Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve
D. On the bleed air duct prior to the pack valve

7. The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated, what area is affected?

A. The keel beam
B. APU bleed duct
C. Left aircond bay
D. Right engine strut

8. What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?

A. To increase the pressure in the cabin
B. To decrease the air conditioning system pack load
C. If increased smoke removal is required
D. To operate as air mixers in the mix manifold
9. The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?
A. OVHT / DET
B. AIR COND
C. OVERHEAD
D. As the light is in the proximity of the pilot’s perception there is no master caution for this condition

10. One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What is the situation?
A. There is FOD in the RAM AIR intake forcing the pack to shut down
B. Both primary and secondary pack controls have failed
C. The primary pack control has failed and the pack is now controlled by the standby pack control
D. Both temperature control valves have shut closed in the affected pack

11. The Recirculation Fan:

A. Is driven by a DC motor
B. Increases airflow at greater cabin differential pressures
C. Reduces air conditioning pack load
D. Provides overheat detection downstream of the packs

12. Cruising at FL 370. The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve will open if:
A. Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF
B. Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF
C. Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON
D. Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON

13. The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light illuminates. What does it indicates?
A. The main pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization and has to be manually shift to manual
B. The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to STANDBY
C. The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the altitude window
D. The pressurisation controller has failed and will automatically shift to manual

14. In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow is driven by?

A. A motor supplied from DC bus 2
B. A motor supplied from DC standby bus
C. A motor supplied from DC bus 1
D. Requires AC power from transfer bus 1

15. What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit?
A. The Right pack
B. The Left pack
C. Both packs
D. Ground air

16. During descent when the descent mode is activated:

A. Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT
B. Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected FLT ALT
C. Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected LAND ALT
D. Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected LAND ALT

17. The maximum differential pressure is:

A. 7.90 psi
B. 8.45 psi
C. 8.65 psi
D. 9.10 psi
18. What are the causes of an Amber AUTO FAIL light?
A. Loss of DC power
B. Excessive rate of cabin press change or cabin altitude above 15800 ft
C. Both above statements are correct

19. Given the scenario that the expected cruise level of FL310 was selected into the FLT ALT selector during preflight, but subsequently the A/C
climbed to FL390, would you expect:
A. A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negative pressure relief valve
B. A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressure relief valve
C. A differential pressure of 8.35 psi maintained by the forward outflow valve

20. The cabin will automatically pressurize to 0.125 psi PSID on the ground when:
A. Engine thrust is increased towards takeoff thrust
B. When the PSEU is activated
C. When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor

21. AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when:
A. The cabin altitude exceeds 15,800 ft
B. The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min
C. The pressurization controller is moved to ALTN

22. When both the AUTO FAIL light and the ALTN light illuminate:
A. Pressurization has automatically switched to the ALTN system
B. Pressurization has automatically switched to the MAN system
C. Pressurization has automatically switched to the opposite automatic controller

23. Where do the AUTO mode controllers receive their barometric information from?
A. The captain's pitot/static system
B. The FO's pitot/static system
C. The ADIRUs

24. Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination of the related equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the
alternate fan should restore airflow and extinguish the OFF light within approximately …… .
A. 5 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 3 minutes

25. Where is the forward outflow valve located?

A. Just in front of the forward airstairs
B. Forward of the left hand air conditioning inlet
C. There is no forward outflow valve

26. The forward outflow valve:

A. Closes automatically to assist in maintaining cabin pressure when the main outflow valve is almost closed or the recirculation fan is
operating
B. Is motor operated and operates independently of the main outflow valve
C. Opens while on the ground and in flight with less than 2.5 psig cabin differential pressure
D. has been removed from the 737-600/700 models
27. Why should livestock (animals) be transported in the FWD cargo holds?
A. Because they are cooled by air from the E&E bay
B. Because they are heated by air from the E&E bay
C. The FWD cargo hold is the preferred hold, because the door is larger than the aft cargo door making loading easier

28. If a flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew:
A. Should reset the LAND ALT selector to field ELEV
B. Should reset the FLT ALT selector to current aircraft altitude
C. Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return to the field of departure

29. What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP?
A. FL410
B. FL250
C. FL180
D. FL100

30. Takeoff is allowed with Pack switches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted:
A. True
B. False

31. The Altitude Warning Horn is:

A. An intermittent warning horn
B. A continuous warning horn
C. An intermittent warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning
D. A continuous warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning

32. On hearing the Altitude Warning Horn the pilot's first action should be to:
A. Analyse the situation and decide on corrective action
B. To don oxygen masks
C. Initiate an emergency descent
D. Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist

33. An amber AUTOFAIL indication will illuminate if one or more of the following conditions occur:
A. A single controller failure when 'ALTN' light is also illuminated
B. Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if the cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft
C. Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurisation differential exceeds 8.65 psi or with the loss of AC power
D. Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 ft

34. A decompression of the cabin will result in the following:

A. An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft (approximately) a Master Caution, plus an Overhead indication on the light/glare
shield will illuminate. The overhead panel will illuminate with PAX OXY ON amber indications
B. An Altitude Warning Horn at 14,000 ft. The overhead panel will illuminate AUTOFAIL and ALTN amber indications on the
pressurisation panel. These indications may be reset by selecting manual mode on the pressurisation selector
C. An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the Passenger Oxygen mask will deploy. To activate Oxygen flow to the
Passengers the Crew must select the Passenger Oxygen Switch to ON
D. An altitude warning buzzer at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the oxygen masks will deploy and the overhead panel will show CREW OXY
ON

35. A flight deck ZONE TEMP light which remains illuminated after the master caution system is reset indicates:
A. A flight deck duct overheat
B. A failure of the standby or primary flight deck zone controller
C. Both above statements are correct
D. Insufficient trim air available from the cooling packs
36. A ZONE TEMP light may be reset by the trip reset switch on the Bleed Panel.
A. True
B. False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets
C. False. This reset is only for resetting a PACK trip
D. False. This reset switch is for BLEED TRIP OFF only

37. In Cruise the air conditioning ram air doors are:

A. Fully open
B. Fully closed
C. Modulate between open and closed as required for pack temperature control
D. Modulate as a function of airspeed

38. If a PACK light can be reset by the TRIP RESET switch then:
A. The fault was caused by an overheat trip
B. The fault was caused by a controller fault
C. The fault was caused by an overheat trip or by a controller fault
D. The pack should be selected off as per the QRH

39. The ram air system provides cooling air for:

A. The cargo area
B. The heat exchangers
C. The E/E

40. Deflector doors are installed forward of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush ingestion prior to liftoff and after touchdown. Deflector doors
extend when activated:
A. Electrically by the air-ground safety sensor
B. Hydraulically when extended the main landing gear
C. Electrically (same switch as the recirculation fans)

41. If all zone controls and primary pack controls fail, the standby pack controls command the packs to produce air temperatures which will satisfy
the average temperature demand of the two cabin zones. The trim air modulating valves will:
A. Open
B. Close

42. If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the Left pack to maintain a fixed temperature of …… and the
Right pack to maintain …… as measured at the pack temperature sensor.
A. 20°C (68°F) and 18°C (65°F)
B. 24°C (75°F) and 18°C (65°F)
C. 18°C (65°F) and 22°C (72°F)

43. Overheat detection is provided by temperature sensors located:

A. In the mix manifold
B. Downstream of the packs
C. Downstream of the packs and the mix manifold
D. Downstream of the packs, the trim air valve and the mix manifold

44. The recirculation fan system circulates air from the passenger cabin around the lining of the forward cargo compartment. When the overboard
exhaust valve is closed, exhaust air from the equipment cooling system is also diffused to the lining of the aft cargo compartment for
additional inflight heating.
A. True
B. False
45. The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes: AUTO (automatic) - ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).
A. All three modes use DC motor
B. Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor
C. Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor

46. Cabin altitude is normally rate-controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to a cabin altitude of …… feet at the airplane maximum certified
ceiling of …… feet.
A. 10 000 ft and 41 000 ft
B. 8 000 ft and 41 000 ft
C. 12 000 ft and 41 000 ft
D. 7 500 ft and 41 000 ft

47. The air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) provides ambient static pressure, baro corrected altitude, non corrected altitude and calibrated
airspeed to both automatic controllers. The ADIRUs receive barometric corrections from the Captain's and First Officer's BARO reference
selectors. The automatic controllers also receive:
A. Throttle position from both stall management computers
B. Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the air/ground sensors
C. Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS

48. Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve. A small amount is also exhausted through toilet and
galley vents, miscellaneous fixed vents, and by seal leakage.
A. True
B. False

49. If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, the PACK, MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator
lights illuminate
A. The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive
B. The affected pack is controlled by the 'main' standby pack control
C. The pack will be inoperative

50. Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system, drives the outflow valve at a slower rate than the
automatic modes. Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 2 minutes.
A. True
B. False

51. A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:

A. The temperature mix valves to drive full cold
B. The temperature mix valves to drive full hot
C. An automatic shutdown of the pack
D. A BLEED TRIP OFF

52. What systems need pneumatic power for operation?

A. Air Conditioning, pressurization, wing anti-ice and APU
B. Wing anti-ice, APU and engine starting
C. APU, engine starting, air Conditioning and pressurization
D. Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization

53. Engine bleed air is obtained from:

A. 4th and 9th stage of the compressor section
B. 5th and 9th stage of the compressor section
C. 4th and 8th stage of the compressor section
D. 5th and 8th stage of the compressor section
54. Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed?
A. Modulating and Shutoff valve
B. Engine Bleed Air valve
C. Isolation valve
D. 5th valve of the compressor section

55. How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?

A. They are AC activated and pneumatically operated
B. They are DC activated and pneumatically operated
C. They are pneumatically activated and AC operated
D. They are pneumatically activated and DC operated

56. An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:

A. Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open
B. Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closed
C. Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open
D. Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closed

57. What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in AUTO?
A. The isolation valve is always open
B. The isolation valve is always closed
C. The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on pneumatic load
D. Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF

58. What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed?
A. The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT Lights illuminate
B. The amber PACK TRIP OFF Lights illuminate
C. The amber BLEED TRIP OFF Lights illuminate
D. All of the above

59. When does the amber DUAL BLEED Light illuminate?

A. When the APU bleed valve is open
B. When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is ON
C. When the APU bleed valve is open, the No.2 engine bleed switch is ON and the isolation valve is closed
D. When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is OFF

60. In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
A. Reduce cabin airflow
B. Reduce the workload on the other pack
C. Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
D. Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves

61. The amber DUAL BLEED Light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?
A. Nothing. This is normal condition before engine start
B. Do not start the engines, call Maintenance
C. Do not start the engines, check MEL
D. Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start

62. The motorized Exhaust valve:

A. Allows for increased ventilation in the smoke removal configuration
B. Serves as backup to the outflow valve if the outflow valve fails
C. Is normally open in pressurized flights above 8,000 feet
D. All the above
63. The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates a possible APU back pressure condition and thrust must be limited to IDLE.
A. True
B. False

64. What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air?
A. It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold
B. It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold
C. It is discharged overboard
D. It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor section

65. What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to illuminate?
A. Main distribution duct temperature has exceeded limits
B. Compressor outlet duct temperature has exceeded limits
C. Turbine inlet duct temperature has exceeded limits
D. All of the above

66. The ram air system deflector doors:

A. Are always extended when the gear is down
B. Extend during slow flight when flaps are not retracted
C. Modulate between fully extended and retracted through the entire flight
D. Extend on the ground only

67. If any individual zone is switched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting will be ignored by the temperature control system.
A. True
B. False

68. The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss of airflow from the selected cooling fan. You position the
EQUIPMENT COOLING SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch on ALTERNATE
A. No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish
B. Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish
C. Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish
D. Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish

69. A leak in the APU Bleed Air Duct will be indicated by:
A. Right WING‐BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
B. APU BLEED light illuminates on overhead panel
C. Left WING‐BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
D. CWS Master Caution BLEED

70. On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40 psi, the R pressure indicates 50 psi:
A. As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal
B. Select L pack to HIGH until pressure indications equalize
C. Set both packs to high for 2 minutes
D. Set R RECIRC FAN to OFF
1. .C 31. .C 61. .A

2. .B 32. .B 62. .D

3. .C 33. .A 63. .A

4. .C 34. .A 64. .C

5. .C 35. .C 65. .D

6. .C 36. .A 66. .D

7. .D 37. .C 67. .A

8. .B 38. .A 68. .A

9. .B 39. .B 69. .C

10. .C 40. .A 70. .A

11. .C 41. .B

12. .A 42. .B

13. .C 43. .C

14. .B 44. .B

15. .B 45. .A

16. .A 46. .B

17. .D 47. .B

18. .C 48. .A

19. .B 49. .A

20. .A 50. .B

21. .A 51. .A

22. .A 52. .D

23. .C 53. .B

24. .A 54. .B

25. .C 55. .B

26. .D 56. .D

27. .B 57. .D

28. .C 58. .A

29. .B 59. .B

30. .B 60. .C