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Exam

Name___________________________________

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

Figure 27.1

Using Figure 27.1, match the following:

1) Spermatogonium. 1)

2) First cells with n number of chromosomes. 2)

3) Type B daughter cell. 3)

4) Early spermatids. 4)

5) Primary spermatocyte. 5)

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Figure 27.2

Using Figure 27.2, match the following:

6) Location of acrosome. 6)

7) Location of mitochondria. 7)

8) Midpiece. 8)

9) Location of nucleus. 9)

10) Area of compacted DNA. 10)

11) Flagellum. 11)

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Figure 27.3

Using Figure 27.3, match the following:

12) The stage called ovulation. 12)

13) Vesicular (Graafian) follicle. 13)

14) Primary follicles. 14)

15) Primordial follicle. 15)

16) Corpus luteum. 16)

17) Mature follicle. 17)

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MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

Match the following:

18) Homologous chromosomes separate. A) Metaphase I of meiosis


18)

19) Tetrads align randomly on the spindle B) Anaphase II of meiosis


19)
equator.
C) Anaphase I of meiosis
20) Chromosomes that have undergone
20)
crossing over line up individually D) Metaphase of mitosis
along the spindle equator.
E) Metaphase II of meiosis
21) Chromosomes that have not
21)
undergone crossing over line up
individually along the spindle
equator.

22) Centromeres separate.


22)

23) Part of a process that produces


23)
genetically identical daughter cells.

Match the following:

24) Human papillomavirus. A) Genital warts


24)

25) Treponema pallidum. B) Gonorrhea


25)

26) Causes urethritis in males. C) Genital herpes


26)

27) Human herpes simplex virus. D) Chlamydia


27)

28) Pathogen responsible for 25-50% of all E) Syphilis


28)
diagnosed cases of pelvic
inflammatory disease.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

29) It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature for abundant, viable sperm 29) True
formation.

30) The prostate atrophies as a man ages, and it usually causes no health problems. 30) False

31) When it is cold, the scrotum is pulled away from the body. 31) False

32) When a couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, it is necessary to investigate the sperm of the 32) True
male.

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false
33) The amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of 33)
FSH alone.

34) Ovarian follicles contain mature eggs. 34) False

35) Sexually transmitted infections are the most important cause of reproductive disorders. 35) True

36) The testis is divided into seminiferous tubules which contain the lobules that produce sperm and 36) Text
the ejaculatory duct that allows the sperm to be ejected from the body.

37) The smaller cell produced by oogenesis meiosis I, called the first polar body, is essentially a packet 37) True
of discarded nuclear material.

38) A human egg or sperm contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. 38) False

39) The Pap smear is a test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the cervix. 39) Text

40) The adenohypophyseal hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen. 40) Text

41) Ovulation occurs near the end of the ovarian cycle. 41) Text

42) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only. 42)

43) Female orgasm is required for conception. 43)

44) The first sign of puberty in females is budding breasts. 44)

45) Sustentocytes prevent sperm antigens from entering the bloodstream. 45)

46) The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase I. 46)

47) Male erection is a response to a parasympathetic reflex, and ejaculation is a response to a 47)
sympathetic reflex.

48) The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endometrium. 48)

49) A scrotal muscle that contracts in response to cold environmental temperature is the cremaster. 49)

50) The secretions of the bulbourethral glands neutralize traces of acidic urine in the urethra and serve 50)
as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.

51) The zona pellucida is formed as the follicle becomes a secondary follicle. 51)

52) The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin. 52)

53) Sperm are ejaculated from the corpora cavernosa of the penis. 53)

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54) Male testicular functions are regulated by FSH and LH. 54)

55) Extremely stressful physical activity in young females can result in excessive bone mass due to 55)
large amounts of estrogen production.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

56) All of the following things occur during meiosis I. Select the statement below that does NOT occur 56)
during meiosis I.
A) A single diploid (2n) nucleus has become two haploid (n) nuclei.
B) Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal
chromosomes.
C) The sister chromatids are separated from each other.
D) The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other.

57) Which of the following statements is true of metaphase I of meiosis I? 57)


A) Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and
maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells.
B) Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at
the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom.
C) The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and
paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator.
D) Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side
and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side.

58) Select the statement below that is FALSE. 58)


A) Meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty while mitosis occurs throughout an entire
lifetime.
B) A cell undergoing meiosis results in 4 cells while a cell undergoing mitosis results in 2 cells.
C) Meiosis produces genetically unique cells while mitosis produces genetically identical cells.
D) Meiosis results in haploid cells while mitosis results in diploid cells.

59) Select the statement which is true regarding independent assortment. 59)
A) Its effects are significant in meiosis and in mitosis.
B) It is a significant source of genetic variation that occurs in meiosis I and meiosis II.
C) It is a significant source of genetic variation only during meiosis I.
D) It only occurs in meiosis II.

60) Select the statement which is FALSE. 60)


A) Further genetic variation typically does not occur after meiosis I.
B) Crossing over is a source of genetic variability seen in meiosis while independent assortment
is a source of genetic variability seen in mitosis.
C) Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the starting cells are haploid (n).
D) Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the genetic material will not
replicate before division takes place.

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61) All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late 61)
spermatids. Select the answer below that does NOT reflect a difference between early and late
spermatids.
A) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm.
B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.
C) Early spermatids have not formed flagella.
D) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis.

62) During spermiogenesis ________. 62)


A) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its pointy shape
helps the sperm to move more efficiently
B) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because of its ability to
propel the flagella moving the sperm through the female reproductive system towards the
egg
C) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic
enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization
D) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic
enzymes will be needed for digestion of the excessive cytoplasm around the flagella of the
developing sperm

63) All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does 63)
NOT occur during spermiogenesis.
A) Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during
fertilization.
B) The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules
that make up the flagellum.
C) Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm.
D) Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to
drive the motion of the flagellum.

64) All but one of the following statements is true with regard to the blood testis barrier. Select the one 64)
statement that is FALSE.
A) The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis.
B) The barrier prevents the spermatocytes from exposing their unique antigens to the immune
system.
C) The barrier marks the border between the basal compartment and the adluminal
compartment.
D) The cells that form the blood testis barrier are joined by tight junctions.

65) Of the following statements, select the statement that is NOT true of uterine function. 65)
A) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during childbirth.
B) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.
C) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into.
D) The rhythmic, reverse peristalsis of the uterus can propel sperm toward the egg.

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66) The oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill," contains an estrogen and progesterone, or a 66)
synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones, taken in the pill and
circulating in the blood, works because ________.
A) the hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the
embryo will have no place to implant
B) the hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from
penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg
C) the hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide
D) the hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the
ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation

67) The diploid number of chromosomes in a human is 46. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a 67)
primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is ________.
A) 46 B) 23 C) 38 D) 92

68) The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. 68)
Which of the following best describes the role they play?
A) They regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens.
C) They contract to allow ejaculation.
D) They are responsible for penile erection.

69) The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________. 69)
A) hormonal action B) gravity
C) enzymatic activity D) peristaltic contractions

70) The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________. 70)
A) sexually transmitted infections
B) a diet high in fat
C) failure of the testis to make their normal descent
D) smoking

71) Which of the following glands are responsible for producing 70% of semen volume? 71)
A) the prostate B) the seminal vesicles
C) the bulbourethral glands D) the pituitary

72) Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins? 72)
A) LH B) testosterone C) FSH D) GnRH

73) The critical factor that determines gender during development is ________. 73)
A) inhibition of estrogen B) the SRY gene
C) presence of progesterone D) lack of an X chromosome

74) The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the 74)
________.
A) Graafian follicles B) fimbriae
C) infundibula D) uterine tubes

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75) If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain? 75)
A) Half the diploid number with no change in development.
B) Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number
would continue to triple and normal development would not occur.
C) Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number
would continue to double and normal development could not occur.
D) There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells.

76) Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________. 76)
A) they have the same degree of motility
B) about the same number of each is produced per month
C) they are about the same size
D) they have the same number of chromosomes

77) The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained 77)
through ________.
A) cytokinesis B) DNA synthesis C) mitosis D) meiosis

78) Fertilization generally occurs in the ________. 78)


A) vagina B) uterine tubes C) ovary D) uterus

79) Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum? 79)
A) labia majora B) clitoris C) labia minora D) vagina

80) In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the 80)
production of twins, which in this case would be ________.
A) dizygotic B) potentially of different sexes
C) genetically identical D) fraternal

81) Which of the following is incurable? 81)


A) gonorrhea B) trichomoniasis C) syphilis D) genital herpes

82) Effects of estrogen include ________. 82)


A) growth of the larynx B) growth of the breasts at puberty
C) increased oiliness of the skin D) deepening of the voice

83) Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________. 83)


A) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation
B) contraction of uterine muscles
C) development of the female secondary sex characteristics
D) proliferation of the uterine myometrium

84) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________. 84)
A) interstitial endocrine cells B) spermatocytes
C) sustentacular cells D) spermatogonia

85) If a woman has just ended her menstrual phase, when is she most likely to ovulate? 85)
A) within the next 4 days B) in about 14 days
C) in about 24 days D) in about 10 days

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86) Erection of the penis results from ________. 86)
A) a sympathetic activation of bulbospongiosus muscles
B) parasympathetic activation of the bulbourethral glands
C) a parasympathetic reflex that promotes release of nitric oxide
D) dilation of the veins in the penis

87) Which is NOT a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle? 87)
A) development of endometrial cells
B) corpus luteum secretion
C) late in this phase, cervical mucus becomes thin and crystalline
D) vesicular follicle growth

88) Which of the choices below is NOT a function of the vagina? 88)
A) serves as a passageway for menstrual flow
B) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte
C) serves as the birth canal
D) receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse

89) Which of the following is true of testosterone? 89)


A) Testosterone is produced by interstitial endocrine cells.
B) Testosterone provides positive feedback on gonadotropin release.
C) The release of testosterone surges during ejaculation.
D) The production of testosterone is stimulated by FSH.

90) Which of the choices below is NOT a function of testosterone? 90)


A) stimulates the male pattern of development
B) stimulates the HPG axis
C) contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis
D) stimulates protein synthesis

91) Which male hormone provides negative feedback for the secretion of FSH? 91)
A) inhibin B) ACTH C) ICSH D) GnRH

92) During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, ________ reaches its highest levels. 92)
A) estrogen B) FSH C) progesterone D) LH

93) Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle. 93)
A) During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest.
B) During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle produces more
hormone.
C) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the
developing embryo.
D) The menstrual phase of the cycle is normally from day 1 to day 8.

94) Which of the choices below is NOT a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis? 94)
A) hypothalamus B) interstitial cells
C) thalamus D) anterior pituitary gland

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95) Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and 95)
females?
A) The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation.
B) Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer.
C) All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant.
D) The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are part of the integumentary system.

96) Normally menstruation occurs when ________. 96)


A) blood levels of FSH fall off
B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase
C) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease
D) the corpus luteum secretes estrogen

97) The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________. 97)
A) during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced
B) in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced from the parent cell, and in spermatogenesis four
mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
C) spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only
D) the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n

98) Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an 98)
unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise?
A) One is an undeveloped primary oocyte that failed to mature.
B) There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared.
C) What you really see are two polar bodies and the sperm that will fertilize the egg.
D) The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

99) Which of the following will occur immediately after ovulation? 99)
A) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.
B) The corpus luteum becomes a corpus albicans.
C) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.
D) The endometrium enters its secretory phase.

100) Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation? 100)
A) Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex that activates urinary contraction muscles.
B) There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by
testosterone buildup in the blood.
C) The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.
D) There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system.

101) Spermatogenesis ________. 101)


A) involves a two-part process called mitosis I and mitosis II
B) is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule
C) results in the formation of diploid cells
D) involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes

102) Which hormone is the necessary trigger for ovulation to occur? 102)
A) estrogen B) FSH C) progesterone D) LH

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103) The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ________. 103)
A) involves posterior pituitary release of two regulating hormones
B) involves positive feedback control of spermatogenesis
C) involves the release of testosterone from the anterior pituitary
D) involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary

104) Which of the following does NOT occur in both the male and female sexual response? 104)
A) Muscles of structures in the reproductive duct contract rhythmically.
B) Blood pressure and heart rate increase.
C) Blood flow to genital structures increases.
D) A refractory period follows orgasm.

105) Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes? 105)
A) The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.
B) The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization.
C) The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.
D) The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.

106) Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle. 106)
A) High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.
B) Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development.
C) The LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte.
D) The follicle begins to secrete progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation.

107) Which of these statements about sexually transmitted infections is FALSE? 107)
A) Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that can bring on painful discharges in males.
B) Genital herpes is caused by a virus that may cause intermittent lesions.
C) Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can often be asymptomatic or bring on a wide variety of
symptoms.
D) Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated.

108) Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is NOT true? 108)
A) Each spermatid forms two sperm.
B) The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes.
C) The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte.
D) The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids.

109) A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that 109)
FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he
would ________.
A) be unable to produce viable sperm B) have impaired function of interstitial cells
C) be impotent (unable to have an erection) D) not develop secondary sex characteristics

110) A patient with trichomoniasis, if they have any symptoms at all, will most likely exhibit which of 110)
the following?
A) sterility
B) yellow-green vaginal discharge and strong odor
C) pink rash all over the body
D) painful lesions on the genitals

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111) A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________. 111)
A) increased spermatogenesis B) excessive beard growth
C) shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland D) decreased testosterone secretion

112) All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true EXCEPT ________. 112)
A) estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle
B) FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
C) a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation
D) the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation

113) Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur 113)
simultaneously?
A) early follicular development and the secretory phase in the uterus
B) maximal LH secretion and menstruation
C) maximal steroid secretion by the corpus luteum and menstruation
D) regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion

114) The duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following? 114)
A) corpus spongiosum B) ductus deferens
C) urethra D) epididymis

115) Prostate cancer is ________. 115)


A) the number one cause of death in men
B) often the result of a distortion of the urethra
C) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient
D) most common in Asians

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

116) The ________ plexus of testicular veins assists in cooling the testis. 116)

117) Surgical cutting of the ductus deferens as a form of birth control is called a(n) ________. 117)

118) The erectile tissue around the urethra is the corpus ________. 118)

119) The midpiece of the sperm tail contains mostly ________. 119)

120) The ________ of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells. 120)

121) The suspensory ligament and mesovarium are part of the ________ ligament. 121)

122) A follicle with only a small antrum in it would be classified as a(n) ________ follicle. 122)

123) The portion of the uterine endometrium that is not sloughed off every month is called the 123)
________.

124) Treponema pallidum causes the sexually transmitted disease called ________. 124)

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125) What are some risk factors for developing breast cancer? 125)

126) What is the name given to the female homologue to the penis? 126)

127) Describe the composition and functional roles of semen. 127)

128) Explain the function of the myometrium and endometrium. 128)

129) What is the purpose of the male bulbourethral gland? 129)

130) What is the physiological importance of the fact that the male testes descend to reside in 130)
the scrotal sac?

131) Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity. By what means 131)
does it usually enter the uterine tube?

132) At what point is the sex of the embryo determined, and what determines it? 132)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

133) Teresa has been complaining of severe abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and a low -grade fever. What might
be the doctor's diagnosis, and how should the condition be treated?

134) A 38-year-old male is upset about his low sperm count and visits a "practitioner" who commonly advertises
his miracle cures of sterility. The practitioner is a quack who treats conditions of low sperm count with
megadoses of testosterone. Although his patients experience a huge surge in libido, their sperm count is even
lower after hormone treatment. Explain why.

135) Debbye has been having pelvic pain, especially during her monthly period, for many months. She has been to
several doctors and they all tell her that she is just experiencing extra -heavy monthly flows. The tests all turn
up negative. She has been trying to conceive but nothing works. What could the problem be?

136) Based on your knowledge of how the prostate encircles part of the urethra, what are two clinical manifestations
of an enlarged prostate?

137) A woman, whose family history contains severe osteoporosis, asked her doctor to prescribe estrogen after she
reached menopause to reduce her risk of osteoporosis. The doctor refused to provide long -term estrogen
replacement therapy. Why?

138) Explain the action of drugs like sildenafil (Viagra) on the male reproductive system.

139) What are some possible complications a patient may have after a radical mastectomy?

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Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

1) A
2) D
3) B
4) E
5) C
6) B
7) A
8) A
9) C
10) C
11) D
12) E
13) C
14) B
15) A
16) D
17) C
18) C
19) A
20) E
21) D
22) B
23) D
24) A
25) E
26) B
27) C
28) D
29) TRUE
30) FALSE
31) FALSE
32) TRUE
33) FALSE
34) FALSE
35) TRUE
36) FALSE
37) TRUE
38) FALSE
39) TRUE
40) FALSE
41) FALSE
42) FALSE
43) FALSE
44) TRUE
45) TRUE
46) FALSE
47) TRUE
48) TRUE
49) TRUE
50) TRUE
15
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

51) TRUE
52) FALSE
53) FALSE
54) TRUE
55) FALSE
56) C
57) A
58) A
59) C
60) B
61) B
62) C
63) A
64) A
65) B
66) D
67) A
68) A
69) D
70) C
71) B
72) D
73) B
74) D
75) C
76) D
77) D
78) B
79) A
80) C
81) D
82) B
83) A
84) A
85) B
86) C
87) B
88) B
89) A
90) B
91) A
92) C
93) C
94) C
95) D
96) C
97) B
98) D
99) D
100) C
16
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

101) D
102) D
103) D
104) D
105) A
106) A
107) D
108) A
109) A
110) B
111) D
112) B
113) D
114) A
115) C
116) pampiniform
117) vasectomy
118) spongiosum
119) mitochondria
120) sustenocytes
121) broad
122) secondary
123) stratum basalis
124) syphilis
125) Some of the risk factors for developing breast cancer are: (1) early onset of menses and late menopause; (2) first
pregnancy late in life or no pregnancies at all; (3) familial history of breast cancer; (4) postmenopausal hormone
replacement.
126) The female clitoris is homologous to the glans penis of the male. It is homologous in that it contains dorsal erectile
columns and can become swollen with blood during tactile stimulation.
127) Semen is a fluid mixture of sperm and accessory gland secretions (prostate, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral
glands). The liquid provides a transport medium for nutrients and contains chemicals that protect the sperm and
facilitate their movements.
128) The myometrium plays an active role during childbirth when it contracts rhythmically to force the baby out of the
mother's body. The endometrium is the innermost lining of the uterus that nourishes the embryo from the time of
implantation until delivery.
129) Because it releases its contents prior to ejaculation, its function is probably to neutralize the acids in the urethra and
for lubrication to help the initiation of intercourse.
130) The male testes descend into the scrotal sac so that a fairly constant intrascrotal temperature is maintained. Failure of
the testes to descend results in sterility, because production of viable spermatozoa requires a temperature several
degrees lower than normal body temperature, and also increases the incidence of testicular cancer.
131) Fimbriae, which drape over the ovary, become very active close to the time of ovulation and their cilia create currents
in the peritoneal fluid. These currents usually carry the oocyte to the uterine tube, where it begins its journey toward
the uterus.
132) Genetic sex is determined at the instant the genes of a sperm combine with those of an ovum. The determining factor
is the sex chromosomes each gamete contains.
133) The symptoms sound like pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of
the pelvic organs, especially the uterus, uterine tubes, or ovaries. PID at one time was most commonly caused by the
bacterium that causes gonorrhea, but any bacterium can trigger the infection. Early treatment should include
antibiotics (doxycycline or a cephalosporin).

17
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

134) Megadoses of testosterone would inhibit hypothalamic release of GnRH and may act directly on the anterior pituitary
to inhibit gonadotropin (FSH ) release. Spermatogenesis is inhibited in the absence of FSH stimulation.
135) Debbye likely has endometriosis. This problem is very difficult to diagnose and every case is different. Generally it
requires laparoscopic views to find the problem. Endometriosis can cause sterility by cycles of endometrial cell growth
and death, leading to inflammation followed by scar formation that in turn may block the uterine tubes, which
prevents the sperm from getting to the egg or the egg from getting to the uterus.
136) Awakening at night to void caused by incomplete bladder emptying from an enlarging prostate; a small urinary
stream; hesitancy in starting the urinary stream; dribbling at the end of voiding.
137) The risk of breast cancer is proportional to a woman's lifetime exposure to estrogens. It would be better for her to find
alternative treatments to reduce her risk of osteoporosis than to increase her risk of breast cancer from long -term
estrogen supplementation.
138) Sildenafil and other similar drugs enhance the effect of nitric oxide on the reproductive tissues. Nitric oxide relaxes
smooth muscle in the blood vessels of the penis, dilating the vessels and allowing erectile tissues to fill with blood.
This enhanced action of engorging the corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosum enhances and prolongs erections.
139) The entire breast is removed along with underlying muscles, fascia, and associated lymph nodes. Therefore, the
patient might experience lymphedema related to edema on the operative side. The patient may also experience
problems with arm function due to the removal of muscles. The patient might experience muscle shortening and
decreased muscle tone of other muscles on the affected side.

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