Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Test-takers will be examined based on (1) Level of Knowledge and Understanding: History,
theories, principles and concepts pertinent to environmental planning and development –
including such topics as (a) growth and development of cities, (b) planning processes and
implementation and (c) legal aspects and administration; and (2) Basic Skills: Employing
methods of data collection and analysis in the planning process – as well as the appropriate
application of critical thinking, design and collaboration skills required of a planner. The
following diagnostic test is subdivided into 3 parts:
Area I: Principles, Theories, Concepts and History of Environmental Planning (20 Qs)
Area II: Environmental Planning Processes, Techniques & Strategies (50 Qs)
Area III: Environmental Plan Implementation. Legal Aspects and
Administration (30 Qs)
1. This American urban planner is most known for his book The Image of the City
wherein he expounds on the innovative concepts of imageability, which is the
character or quality held by a physical object or space and place legibility or the ease
with which people understand the layout of a place.
2. A Swiss-French architect and urban planner known as one of the pioneers of modern
architecture who advocated to address urban congestion by increasing intensity and
building higher mixed-use structures to free up more open spaces and green areas.
P age 1 of 26
3. The most iconic proponent of the City Beautiful Movement – a reform philosophy that
flourished during the 1890s and 1900s with the intent of introducing beautification
and monumental grandeur in cities. He w as also instrumental in the plan formulation
of the City of Chicago in the US and the cities of Manila and Baguio in the Philippines.
P age 2 of 26
5 – 7. Use the illustrations below to answer the following questions:
5. In this theory, the proponent - Ernest Burgess (1925) - propounded that as one
moves out of the CBD, land value decreases, there is lesser accessibility, cheaper
rent & activities are more dispersed. The city can observably be divided into 5 zones:
(Zone 1) the Central Business District; (Zone 2) Transition zone with mixed use of
industry and slums; (Zone 3) Workmen’s quarters; (Zone 4) Middle class housing;
(Zone 5) High-income housing – furthest away from congestion and pollution.
6. In this theory, the proponent – Homer Hoyt (1939) theorized that cities tended to
grow in wedge-shaped patterns or sectors, originating from the CBD and along lines
of transportation (railroad, highway, ports) that creates a homogenous use. He also
posited that compatible land uses are adjacent to each other while conversely –
incompatible uses repel each other.
7. In this theory, the proponents - Edward Ullman & Chauncey Harris (1945) posited
that the CBD is not the sole generator of change: there may be several distinct
nuclei embodied as the central business district (CBD) and a sub-CBD.
P age 3 of 26
8. He is considered to be the “Father of Regional Planning” and published the book
Cities in Evolution in 1915 wherein he coined the term conurbation.
10. ____________ is a conceptual model for zero -emission and zero-waste urban
design, which arose in the 1990s, promoting compact energy-efficient urban
development. It also espouses the practice of creating sustainable communities and
lifestyles beneficial to human and the environment.
a. Greenbelt
b. Green Urbanism
c. New Urbanism
d. Sustainable Development
e. Urban Sprawl
a. Greenbelt
b. Green Urbanism
c. New Urbanism
d. Sustainable Development
e. Urban Sprawl
P age 4 of 26
13. Referred to as a band of land surrounding a city which is protected through policy,
from development and construction. It is a means of preventing urban sprawl to protect
the adjacent natural environment, improve air quality in urban areas, and also for
urban dwellers to have access to the countryside and its recreational enjoyment.
a. Greenbelt
b. Green Urbanism
c. New Urbanism
d. Sustainable Development
e. Urban Sprawl
14. A city is considered to be third class is it has an average annual income of?
a. 400M or more
b. 320M or more but less than 400M
c. 240M or more but less than 320M
d. 160M or more but less than 240M
e. 80M or more but less than 160M
f. Below 80M
15. The National Capital Region (NCR) or Metro Manila is composed of ___?
a. 17 cities
b. 12 cities
c. 16 cities and 1 municipality
d. 12 cities and 3 municipalities
16. Cities in the Philippines can be categorized as a Highly Urbanized City (HUC),
Independent Component City (ICC) and Component City (CC). Which of the following
is an example of an ICC?
a. Pateros
b. Ormoc City
c. Cebu City
d. Cagayan de Oro City
e. None of the above
17. Ekistics concerns the science of human settlements wherein the goal is to build a
city of optimum size with respect to human dimensions. The proponent Constantinos
Doxiadis – posits that the five elements of society should be appropriately and
harmoniously be organized in relation to each other. Which of the following is NOT
one of those elements?
a. Nature
b. Man
c. Society
P age 5 of 26
d. Shells
e. Cloister
f. Networks
a. Demography
b. Location Quotient
c. Standard Deviation
d. Input-output analysis
20. Thomas Robert Malthus was the one who first concluded that:
Area II: Environmental Planning Processes, Techniques and Strategies (21 – 70)
21. An Erosion Potential Map is a type of Analytical Map. It combines the following maps
to provide information on areas that have a high tendency to experience erosion and/or
landslides:
a. NPFP
b. MTPDP
c. CLUP
d. PDPFP
P age 6 of 26
23. Under R.A. 7916, the following are considered Special Economic Zones, except:
24.There are 7 major steps involved in formulating a Forest Land Use Plan (FLUP). The
proper sequence of this process should be:
i. Situational analysis
ii. Data and Map Collection
iii. Plan Preparation
iv. Prioritization of Sub-watersheds and Allocation of Forests and
Forestlands
v. Legitimization
vi. Approval of Plan by DENR Region
vii. Plan Implementation
26. _____ is the classification and administration of all designated protected areas to
maintain essential ecological processes and life support systems, to preserve genetic
diversity, to ensure sustainable use of resources found therein, and to maintain their
natural conditions to the greatest extent possible.
P age 7 of 26
27. In HLURB’s prescribed 12-step Planning Process – the first step is to: Organize.
Which of the following activities is not included in this step?
a. Assemble the personnel, resources, and support needed for the planning
process.
b. Organize and orient the planning team.
c. Make an inventory of existing information
d. Establishing Development Thrusts and Spatial Strategies
28. Public participation is a fundamental part of the planning process. It ensures the
involvement of all stakeholders in order to enhance awareness, raise the quality of
the plan, and increase the likelihood of the plan’s acceptability and success of
implementation. Step 2 in the CLUP process is devoted to Identifying stakeholders,
the purpose of which is/are:
a. To identify the key stakeholders and to assess their knowledge interests and
concerns related to the CLUP formulation, and how they might affect or be
affected by the plan
b. To understand the relations between the stakeholders and the real and
potential conflicts of interest and expectations between and among
stakeholders
c. To develop and action plan involving the stakeholders in the planning process
d. All of the above.
30.The SWOT analysis is a tool used in planning which provides a framework for
identifying and analyzing the internal and external factors that can have an impact
on development. It is a matrix that lists down:
33. While balancing the demand and supply of land in the LGU, which areas are to be
subtracted from the total land area (TLA) and reserved for protection land use:
a. NPAAD Areas (Network of Protected Areas for Agricultural and Agro -industrial
Development), NIPAS areas, resettlement areas and forest areas
b. Biodiversity areas, socialized housing areas, areas reserved for commercial
forestry and CARP areas
c. Environmentally critical areas (ECAs), CARP areas, high risk areas and
ecotourism areas
d. NPAAD areas, NIPAS areas, ECAs and biodiversity areas
e. None of the above
34.The Goals Achievement Matrix (GAM) designed by Morris Hill and Nathaniel Lichfield
is a participatory planning instrument which:
35. Step 4 in the CLUP process entails an analysis of the situation. It involves
Identifying the issues, potentials and future development needs and spatial
requirements of the city/municipality and assess the situation using both technical
and participatory methods. Which of the following statements is false?
P age 9 of 26
a. The LGU has to review the current CLUP, PPFP and other relevant national and
sub-national laws to come up with a more thorough analysis of the situation.
b. The LGU may need to update sectoral studies to be able to input more
accurate data in planning for the LGU.
c. There is no need to validate findings with stakeholders as it is a purely
technical exercise.
d. Determining current and pro jected needs of an LGU is key to balancing
demand and supply of land.
36.Step 5 in the CLUP process required LGUs to formulate achievable goals and
objectives, outcomes and output indicators that are responsive to the issues, needs,
and potentials of the municipality/city. Which of the following statements is false?
a. A Goal is a broad statement of desired outcome in the medium or long term. It
aims to address a general problem situation of a municipality/city as derived
from the situation analysis.
b. An objective is a broad statement of desired outcome in the medium or long
term. It aims to address a general problem situation of a municipality/city as
derived from the situation analysis.
c. An Objective is a more specific statement of short-range desired outcomes or
results towards which development activities in the municipality/city are
directed. They respond to specific problem situations usually sectoral in
nature.
d. Objectives must be SMART: specific, measurable, attainable, realistic and
time-bound.
a. Buffer areas / zones are identified portions of land and water set aside by
reason of their unique physical and biological significance, managed to
enhance biological diversity and protected against destructive human
exploitation.
b. Buffer areas / zones are identified areas outside the boundaries of and
immediately adjacent to designated protected areas pursuant to Section 8 that
need special development control in order to avoid or minimize harm to the
protected area
c. Buffer areas / zones serve as a layer to separate protection, production, and
development area Allowable activities can be divided into progressive layers of
activity zones (from restrictive to less restrictive activities/uses) as the layer
moves farther away from the outer boundary of the protection area and draws
closer to production and development areas.
d. All of the statements are false.
a. Provide guidelines for penalizing conforming land uses and imposing sanctions
on judicious use of land resources.
P age 10 of 26
b. Promote and protect the health, safety, peace, comfort, convenience and
general welfare of the inhabitants of an LGU
c. Guide, control and regulate the growth and development of public and private
lands in accordance with its Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) of an LGU
d. Provide the proper regulatory environment to maximize opportunities for
creativity, innovation and make ample room for development within the
framework of good governance and community participation
e. Enhance the character and stability of residential, commercial, industrial,
institutional, forestry, agricultural, open space and other functional areas
within the City/Municipality and promote the orderly and beneficial
development of the same.
39 – 41. Use the succeeding matrix to match the following items with their
corresponding definitions / descriptions.
Republic Act 7160 or the Local Government Code devolves powers and functions
to local government units. The following are examples of its powers with their
corresponding application:
42.Republic Act 7160 or the Local Government Code devolves powers and functions to
local government units. It prescribes / allows for the creation local special bodies in
order for a local government unit to carry out its functions. Which of the following is
not a local special body
P age 11 of 26
43.Infrastructure and Physical Development Planning – one of the aspects of Sectoral
Planning – deals with the infrastructure building program and the land acquisition
required as right-of-way or easements of public utilities. It includes, all of the
following except:
44.RA 6975 - An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police under a Recognized
Department of the Interior and Local Government, prescribes the following as the
minimum standard police-to-population ratio.
a. 0.5 hectares
b. 7 hectares
c. 2.2 hectares
d. 10.5 hectares
P age 12 of 26
b. National Policy, specifically the National Framework for Physical Planning and
the Regional Physical Framework Plan (RPFP) which include better access to
social services, optimum utilization of resources, rational distribution of the
population
c. The local community through stakeholder participation
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
a. Commercial Area
b. Open Space
c. Economic Housing
d. Socialized Housing
50.Balancing Demand and Supply of Land is a crucial activity in Land Use Planning. If
demand and supply of land do not match, the local government may employ Land
Supply Management Strategies. Which of the following is not an exam ple of Supply
Management Strategy?
51.There are many determinants of land use. Which of the following is not a physical
determinant of land use:
52.Republic Act 9003 refers to ___ as the discipline associated with the control of
generation, storage, collection, transfer and transport, processing, and disposal of
P age 13 of 26
solid wastes in a manner that is in accord with the best principles of public health,
economics, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental
considerations, and that is also responsive to public attitudes.
53. ____ is a land development scheme wherein the project site is comprehensively
planned as an entity via unitary site plan which permits flexibility in planning/design,
building siting, complementarity of building types and land uses, usable open spaces
and the preservation of significant natural land features
a. Transit-Oriented Development
b. Urban Renewal
c. Planned Unit Development
d. Adaptive Reuse
a. Transit-Oriented Development
b. Urban Renewal
c. Planned Unit Development
d. Adaptive Reuse
55.As specified in NSCB Resolution No. 2, series of 2007 - ___ is a measure of the
extent to which the distribution of income/ expenditure among families/individuals
deviates from a perfectly equal distribution. A value of 0 corresponds to perfect
equality, whereas conversely a value of 1 denotes perfect inequality.
a. Gini ratio
b. Poverty incidence
c. Poverty threshold
d. Subsistence incidence
1
(a) B as ic food requirements are c urrently based on 1 0 0% adequacy for the Rec ommended E nergy and N utrient I ntake (RE NI) for protei n and
energy equiv alent to an av erage of 2 0 00 k ilocalories per c apita, and 8 0 % adequacy for other nutrients. O n the other hand, (b) bas ic non- food
requirements, indirectly es timated by obtaining the ratio of food to total bas ic expenditures from a referenc e grou p of families , c ov er
expenditure on: 1 ) c lothing and footwear; 2 ) hous ing; 3 ) fuel, light, water; 4 ) maintenanc e and minor repairs; 5 ) rental of o c c upied dwelling
units ; 6 ) medic al c are; 7 ) educ ation; 8 ) trans portation and c ommunication; 9 ) non - durable furnishings; 1 0) hous ehold operations; and 1 1 )
pers onal c are & effec ts.
P age 14 of 26
a. Gini ratio
b. Poverty incidence
c. Poverty threshold
d. Subsistence incidence
57.Presidential Decree 705 or the Revised Forestry Code – refers to watershed as:
a. a land area drained by a stream or fixed body of water and its tributaries
having a common outlet for surface runoff.
b. lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present system
of classification and declared as not needed for forest purposes.
c. lands mostly devoid of trees and shrubs that are alternatively exposed and
inundated by tides.
d. identified portions of land and water set aside by reason of their unique
physical and biological significance and are managed to enhance biological
diversity and protected against destructive human exploitation
a. 3 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 0.5 meters
d. 6 meters
59.The National Framework for Physical Planning (NFPP) 2001 – 2030 is a document
that provides the analytical parameters for the planned allocation, use and
management of the country’s land and other physical resources. It is intended to
serve as a framework through which the planning and management of these
resources are guided at the national and subnational levels. Which of the following is
not included in its vision and principles
60.A local government unit has 3 possible sources of revenue: LGUs may tap funds from
(i) Local Sources, (ii) External Sources and through (iii) Loans and Borrowings. The
Internal Revenue Allotment is an example of _____.
P age 15 of 26
61.A local government unit has 3 possible sources of revenue: LGUs may tap funds from
(i) Local Sources, (ii) External Sources and through (iii) Loans and Borrowings. The
collection of real property tax is an example of___ .
a. Topographic map
b. Planimetric map
c. Cadastral map
d. Analytical map
64.JMC No. 1 series of 2007 (DILG, NEDA, DBM, DOF) refers to the plan document
formulated at the provincial level that merges the traditionally separate provincial
physical framework plan and provincial development plan to address the disconnect
between spatial and sectoral factors and between medium - and long-term concerns.
It contains the long-term vision of the province, and identifies development goals
strategies, objectives/targets and corresponding PPAs which serve as primary inputs
to provincial investment programming and subsequent budgeting and plan
implementation.
65.This refers to a basic document linking the local plan to the budget. It contains a
prioritized list of PPAs which are derived from the CDP in the case of cities and
municipalities, and the PDPFP in the case of the provinces, matched with financing
resources, and to be implemented annually within a three to six year period.
P age 16 of 26
a. Comprehensive Development Plan
b. Provincial Development and Physical Framework Plan
c. Local Development Investment Program
d. Synchronized Local Planning and Budgeting Calendar (SLPBC)
66.It is the document that pertains to the multi-sectoral plan formulated at the
city/municipal level, which embodies the vision, sectoral goals, objectives,
development strategies and policies within the term of LGU officials and the medium -
term. It contains corresponding PPAs which serve as primary inputs to investment
programming and subsequent budgeting and implementation of projects for the
growth and development of local government territories.
67.The Executive-Legislative Agenda (ELA) is an integrated plan that contains the major
development thrusts and priorities of both the executive and legislative branches
towards a common vision for the locality. The following is the correct sequence of the
prescribed steps in undertaking the ELA process:
i. Planning to plan
ii. Determining Legislative Requirements
iii. Defining/Revisiting the LGU Vision and Mission
iv. Formulating Goals and Objectives
v. Prioritizing Issues
vi. Prioritizing Programs, Projects and Capacity Development Needs
vii. Consulting with Stakeholders
viii. Popularizing the ELA
ix. Building Commitment
x. Securing Endorsement and Approval
xi. Moving the ELA to Action
xii. Managing and Sustaining ELA Implementation
68. The Department of Environment and Natural Resources has the following core
functions, except:
P age 17 of 26
b. Formulate implement and supervise the government's policies, plans and
programs pertaining to the management, conservation, development, use and
replenishment of the country's natural resources and ecological diversity
c. determines strategies, formulates appropriate policies, monitors, and
evaluates the programs, projects and performance of the implementing shelter
agencies
d. Promulgate and implement rules and regulations governing the exploration,
development, extraction, disposition, and use of the forests, lands, minerals,
wildlife, and other natural resources
_____
P age 18 of 26
water resources, in relation to their environs, for the development of
sustainable communities and ecosystems.
c. a technical and political process concerned with the use of land, protection and
use of the environment, public welfare, and the design of the urban
environment, including air, water, and the infrastructure passing into and out
of urban areas such as transportation, communications, and distribution
networks
d. the design and regulation of the uses of space that focus on the physical form,
economic functions, and social impacts of the urban environment and on the
location of different activities within it
a. Technical Analysis
b. Financial Analysis
c. Vision-Reality Gap Analysis
d. Economic Analysis
e. Social Impact Analysis
76.In the Project Implementation Stage of the Project Development Cycle – Monitoring
and Evaluation is important as it looks into the outputs and tracks the timely
fulfilment of objectives. The following are tools for project implementation, except:
78.Which of the following is not a step involved in the Pre-investment phase of the
Project Development Cycle
P age 20 of 26
79.There are 2 major steps involved in the Investment Phase of the Project
Development Cycle, one is the coming up with the Detailed Engineering and Design –
the other is ____?
80.Risk Analysis is one of the Elements involved in Project Preparation. It may involve
the employment of one or more of the following analytical tools, except:
a. Suitability Analysis
b. Sensitivity Analysis
c. Breakeven Analysis
d. Scenario Analysis
81. Republic Act 7781 prescribes amendments to the “BOT Law” otherwise known as
R.A. 6957 - An Act Authorizing the Financing, Construction, Operation and
Maintenance of Infrastructure Projects by the Private Sector. On the amended
version, the following contractual arrangements are permissible, except:
a. Build-Operate-and-Transfer
b. Build-Own-and-Operate
c. Build-lease-and-Transfer
d. Own-Operate-and-Transfer
e. Rehabilitate-Operate-and-Transfer
82.R.A 7781 defines ___ as: a contractual arrangement whereby the project proponent
adds to an existing infrastructure facility which it is renting from government. It
operates the expanded project over an agreed franchise period. There may, or may
not be a transfer arrangement in regard of the facility.
a. Build-Operate-and-Transfer
b. Build-Own-and-Operate
c. Contract-Add-and-Operate
d. Own-Operate-and-Transfer
e. Rehabilitate-Operate-and-Transfer
83.R.A. 7781 defines ___ as: a contractual arrangement whereby an existing facility is
turned over to the private sector to refurbish and operate with no time limitation
imposed on ownership. As long as the operator is not in violation of its franchise, it
can continue to operate the facility in perpetuity.
a. Build-Own-and-Operate
b. Rehabilitate-Own-and-Operate
P age 21 of 26
c. Develop-Own-and Operate
d. Refurbish-Own-and-Operate
84.Local Government Units are armed with various tools to implement the CLUP. Among
which are as follows:
i. Zoning
ii. Taxes
iii. Eminent Domain
85.The CLUP Process entails the Review, Adoption and Approval of the CLUP and Zoning
Ordinance. A Component City or Municipality must submit the revised CLUP and ZO
to the authorized agency/agencies – which is/are ___?
86.The Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines promulgates the
ethical standards that shall govern the personal and professional conduct of
Environmental Planners in the practice of their profession. The following are
contained in the code.
a. The Environmental Planner shall, first and foremo st, commit himself to the
service of God, country, and mankind. His services and endeavours shall
advance the art and science of environmental planning in accordance with the
constitutional mandate of protecting the right of the people to a balanced and
healthful ecology in accord with the rhythm and harmony of nature.
b. S/He shall commit himself to the highest degree of professionalism,
excellence, intelligence, skill and integrity in the practice of his profession. He
shall be a professional with utmost devotion and dedication to his career and
craft.
c. S/He shall uphold and obey all relevant laws, rules and regulations and legal
orders; observe and esteem fairness, courage, honesty and sincerity; and
mindful of his role in attaining ecological balance, public order, safety and
convenience at all times.
d. a, b and c are contained in the code.
87.The following appointive local officials are mandatory for provinces, cities and
municipalities – except:
P age 22 of 26
a. Engineer
b. Health Officer
c. Accountant
d. Budget Officer
e. Assessor
88.The following appointive local officials are optional for provinces, cities and
municipalities – except:
a. Assessor
b. Environment and Natural Resource Office
c. Information Officer
d. Budget Officer
e. Population Officer
89.A legislation that seeks to provide for the rational use and development of urban
land in order to bring about access to land and housing by the underprivileged and
homeless citizens.
91.The purpose of this code is the purpose of this Code to provide for all buildings and
structured, a framework of minimum standards and requirements by guiding,
regulating, and controlling their location, siting, design, quality of materials,
construction, use, occupancy, and maintenance, including their environment,
utilities, fixtures, equipment, and mechanical electrical, and other systems and
installations.
P age 23 of 26
92.R.A. 3019 or the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act declares the following practices
to be unlawful:
93. ____ is the is the Philippine government agency tasked to promote investments,
extend assistance, register, grant incentives to and facilitate the business operations
of investors in export-oriented manufacturing and service facilities inside selected
areas throughout the country.
94. R.A. 7586 or the NIPAS Act is promulgated primarily by which National Government
Agency?
P age 24 of 26
a. National Commission on Indigenous Peoples (NCIP)
b. Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR)
c. National Economic and Development Authority (NEDA)
d. Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG)
95.The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and
magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to
hazardous materials or situations
96. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development
plains initiated by their development councils and approved by their Sanggunian is:
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No.72
c. RA 7160
d. PD 1517
97. Refers to the processes of determining, recording and disseminating information about
the ownership, value and use of land when implementing land management policies:
a. Land Management
b. Land Administration
c. Land Tenure
d. Land Valuation
98. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of the Zoning
Ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or
topographical condition of the property, compliance on applicable Building Bulk and
Density Regulations, Building Design Regulations and Performance Standards would
result in a particular hardship upon the owner, as distinguished from a mere
inconvenience or a desire to make more money.
a. Notice of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
d. None of the above
P age 25 of 26
99. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of the
Ordinance where because of the specific use would result in a particular hardship
upon the owner, as distinguished from a mere inconvenience or a desire to make
more money.
a. Notice of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
d. None of the above
100. A notice issued to owners of all uses existing prior to the approval of the
Ordinance which do not conform to the provisions herein provided.
a. Notice of Non-Conformance
b. Certificate of Exception
c. Notice of Public Hearing
d. None of the above
P age 26 of 26