Company Specific Testseries

Verbal Ability innovation

Question Bank 01
 Question Bank – Verbal Ability

Directions for the questions 1 to 5: Sentence given in

each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent
paragraph, each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose
the most logical order of sentences from amongst the
four choices given to construct a coherent paragraph.

Question No. 1:
A. Opposition parties would use the issue to the
maximum.
B. High-profile cases would be registered and some
dramatic arrests would be made.
C. Every now and then, there would be a popular
backlash against corruption both at the central level and
in the states.
D. There would be changes in government following
elections where corruption would be the major issue.
E. Then, the dust would settle and it would be back to
business as usual.
A) ABDEC B) CADBE
C) CDABE D) DBACE

Question No. 2:
A. The pressure is to liberate India from corruption.

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B. Even the higher judiciary is finding itself being called
to account for the first time.
C. A free, competitive and vibrant media, the impact of
the RTI, and dedicated NGOs have acquired a critical
mass.
D. These forces will only gain in strength.
A) CDBA B) BDCA
C) CABD D) BCDA

Question No. 3:
A. Instead it plans to overhaul its marketing to cope with
the “new era of deregulation.”
B. The problem, Shiseido admits, is that it can no longer
set the retail prices of its products.
C. The firm forecast that its profits for the full year will
fall for the second year in a row.
D. On October 27th Shiseido, a cosmetics giant,
announced dismal interim results: in the six months to
September , its post tax profits, miserly Yen 7.3 billion
($82m), fell 6.2% compared with the same period last
year.
E. In Japan’s cosmetic market, as in its car industry,
producers no longer rule unchallenged
A) DEABC B) EBCDA

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C) EDCBA D) ABCDE

Question No. 4:
A. The announcement on April 14 that a nearby star
known as Upsilon Andromedae, quite like our Sun,
sports a trio of planets carries with it the long-sought
conclusion that our tiny neighborhood may not be a
cosmic quirk—there are other solar systems.
B. More recently, explorations of the planets, moons,
comets and asteroids in the solar system have
reduced our turf in the cosmos to a relatively cozy
corner.
C. Now it’s the Milky Way’s turn.
D. The great voyages of discovery shrank our planet from
a fearsome void to a familiar orbit.

A) ABCD B) DCBA
C) DBAC D) DBCA

Question No. 5:
A. Zimbabwe, Namibia and Angola are supporting the
government of Mr. Laurent Kabila; South Africa,
Uganda and Rwanda are supporting the rebels.

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B. While the idea of a NAM- sponsored conflict –
resolution mechanism is highly ambitious and
perhaps premature, India should not have assumed
that any discussion of the subject would
automatically prejudice the robustness of New Delhi’s
position on Kashmir.
C. Africa is plagued by civil wars and interstate conflicts,
and Pretoria would like NAM to play a leading role in
resolving these.
D. However, as the ongoing conflict in the Democratic
Republic of Congo has highlighted, this is easier said
than done.

A) ADCB B) CDAB
C) ABCD D) CADB

Directions for the questions 6 to 8: Read the given

passage carefully and answer the question based on
what is written/ implied therein.

In the early days of Internet marketing, online advertisers

employed banner and pop-up ads to attract customers.
These techniques reached large audiences, generated

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many sales leads, and came at a low cost. However, a
small number of Internet users began to consider these
advertising techniques intrusive and annoying. Yet
because marketing strategies relying heavily on banners
and pop-ups produced results, companies invested
growing amounts of money into purchasing these ad
types in hopes of capturing market share in the
burgeoning online economy. As consumers became
more sophisticated, frustration with these online
advertising techniques grew. Independent programmers
began to develop tools that blocked banner and pop-up
ads. The popularity of these tools exploded when the
search engine Google, at the time an increasingly popular
website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet with
giants Microsoft and Yahoo, offered free software
enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash
against banner ads grew as new web browsers provided
users the ability to block image-based ads such as
banner ads. Although banner and pop-up ads still exist,
they are far less prominent than during the early days of
the Internet. A major development in online marketing

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came with the introduction of pay-per-click ads. Unlike
banner or pop-up ads, which originally required
companies to pay every time a website visitor saw an ad,
pay-per-click ads allowed companies to pay only when an
interested potential customer clicked on an ad. More
importantly, however, these ads circumvented the pop-up
and banner blockers. As a result of these advantages
and the incredible growth in the use of search engines,
which provide excellent venues for pay-per-click
advertising, companies began turning to pay-per-click
marketing in droves. However, as with the banner and
pop-up ads that preceded them, pay-per-click ads came
with their drawbacks. When companies began pouring
billions of dollars into this emerging medium, online
advertising specialists started to notice the presence of
what would later be called click fraud: representatives of
a company with no interest in the product advertised by
a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to
increase the marketing cost of the competitor. Click
fraud grew so rapidly that marketers sought to diversify
their online positions away from pay-per-click marketing

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through new mediums. Although pay-per-click
advertising remains a common and effective advertising
tool, marketers adapted yet again to the changing
dynamics of the Internet by adopting new techniques
such as pay-per-performance advertising, search engine
optimization, and affiliate marketing. As the pace of the
Internet's evolution increases, it seems all the more likely
that advertising successfully on the Internet will require a
strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change.

Question No. 6: Which of the following most accurately

states the main idea of the passage?

A. Although pay-per-click advertising remains a wide-

spread and effective online advertising medium, its
popularity is likely to diminish as the Internet evolves.

B. Internet advertising is not well received by Internet

users, causing independent programmers to subvert
advertisers.

C. Unlike the television, the Internet has experienced

dramatic changes in short periods of time.
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D. Unlike the television, the Internet has evolved rapidly,
forcing online marketers to develop new advertising
strategies and mediums.

Question No. 7: Which of the following words best

describes the author’s tone in the passage?

A) Critical B) Analytical
C) Sardonic D) Pedantic

Question No. 8: Which statement you can infer from the

paragraph

A. In order to attract customers online advertisers

employed banner and pop-up ads
B. Marketing executives in television work with a
relatively stable advertising medium.
C. Once people get frustrated with the excessive online
marketing they will develop the ways to get rid of their
frustration.
D. A major development in online marketing came with
the introduction of pay-per-click ads.

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Directions for the questions 9 to 12: After reading the
passage, choose the best answer to each question base
your answer on information that is either stated or
implied in the passage.

According to a study by the Indian Council for Research

on International Economic Relations (ICRIER),
consumers can't get enough of big retail chains. ICRIER
was appointed by the Government to study the impact of
organized retail on small traders. While the study
indicates that organized retail will impact small traders
adversely and has indeed already hit sales and profits,
the consumer side of the findings indicates that more
Indians - as many as 53 percent - want to see western
style supermarkets across the country. Any fallout from
the introduction of these chains is also likely to be short-
term.

Small retailers and Kirana stores are astute

businessmen. None of them will shut down. They have
survived the onslaught of time and will continue to thrive
because of the sheer convenience they provide. They
have a special personal rapport with their customers and
offer benefits like credit facilities, door delivery and even
phone services. India is a huge market. With minor

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structural benefits, small retailers will be able to coexist
with the big ones. If anything will change, it will only be
for the better.

Organized retailers will push the mom-and-pop stores

and small retailers up the value chain to innovate in their
offerings. In spite of organized retail growing swiftly in
recent years, the unorganized sector accounts for nearly
97 per cent of the total retail in India. According to
estimates, the share of organized retail in the $300 billion
spent on food and consumer items this year (2007) in
India, would be just $12 billion.

Growth of organized retail will benefit everyone across

the value chain. It will create huge number of jobs in the
country.

Farmers will benefit as they will have consistent incomes

and would also be able to hedge themselves against
crop failure.

Consumers will directly profit with retailers passing on

cost benefits, accrued through high volume
procurements, to them.
(Source: an article in the edit page of a national daily, December 2007)

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Question No. 9: According to the passage, which of the
following can be inferred as the main thrust of the
author's argument(s)?

I. The organized retail stores would in the long run, have

a large adverse effect on large sections of small retail
trade.
II. The organized retail stores would help develop a
broad base domestic economy, affordable food prices,
farm sector development and inclusive growth; in
short, the organized retail stores would improve wide
sections of stakeholders concerned in the society -
customers, farmers and employment opportunities.
III. The share of organized retail would be insignificant
only 4% (approx) of the amount spent on food and
consumer products.

A) I only B) II only
C) II and III only D) III only

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Question No. 10: Which of the following statement(s), if
true, weakens the arguments in favor of the organized
retail stores presented in the passage?

I. The organized retail stores with deep pockets can

withstand losses for a short-term in order to gain and
control the market.
II. In absence of a social security net to help small
traders and workers who could lose their jobs then
and if that happens to tide over the crisis, a public
policy that puts a large number of people who are
likely to be affected by the organized retail stores, can
have disastrous social and economic implications in
the long run.
III. The organized retail stores will target rich and
wannabes as customers in urban centres with a large
disposable income.

A) I only B) II only
C) III only D) II and III only

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Question No. 11: Which of the following statement(s),
according to the passage, is/are true as per to the
author?

A. Across the value chain in retail markets, growth of

organized retail will benefit almost all stakeholders
B. The fear among small retailers and traders that they
stand to lose their livelihood if mega retail chains
enter the market in a big way is more or less unreal -
according to the ICRIER survey
C. The foreign retail chains like Wal-Mart without any
protective clause in an open and free market economy
as in India today will kill indigenous entrepreneurship
D. Organized retailers will push the mom-and-pop stores
and small retailers up in the value chain which they
can't sustain in the long run

Question No. 12: Which of the following statement(s), if

true, will strengthen the argument(s) in favor of the
organized retail stores?

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 I. The organized retail stores - (modern trade) - offer
smaller regional brands more shelf-space, better
displays and ambience compared to Kirana stores.
II. Regional brands are benefitted by pushing their
brands through the organized retail stores with
bargains and value deals that are often better and
bigger players.
III. The organized retail stores, controlled and invested
by big business, Indian and foreign – for example,
Reliance, Wal-Mart, and others, offer variety of
products at affordable price-tags and better
quality.

A) I and II only B) II and III only

C) I and III only D) I, II, III

Directions for the questions 13 to 15: Read the following

passage and answer the question based on it.

Throughout the extensive areas of the tropics the tall and

stately primeval forest has given way to eroded land,

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scrub, and the jumble of secondary growth. Just as the
virgin forests of Europe and North America were laid low
by man's improvidence, so those of the tropics are now
vanishing only their destruction may be encompassed in
decades instead of centuries. A few authorities hold that,
expect for government reserves, the earth's great rain
forest may vanish within a generation. The economic
loss will be incalculable, for the primary rain forests are
rich sources of timber (mahogany, teak) and such by-
products are resins, gums, cellulose, camphor and
rattans. No one, indeed can compute their resources, for
the thousands of species that compose the forest cover,
there are only a few whose physical and chemical
properties have been studied with a view to commercial
use.
Most important of all, the primeval rain forest is a
reservoir of specimens, a dynamic centre of evolution
which the rest of the world's plant life has been
continually enriched with new forms. These extensive
reserves must be defended from the acquisitive hand of

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man, whose ruthless axe would expose them to the
ravages of sun and rain.

Question No. 13: The ideas of the author would probably

be the most strongly supported by

A) lumber company representatives

B) conservationists and botanists
C) chemical manufacturers
D) government representatives

Question No. 14: According to the passage, the result of

chopping down the tropical rain forest is

A) an increase in government reserves

B) a surge in plant evolution
C) damage to the soil
D) a decrease of commercial exploitation

Question No. 15: 'Only their destruction may be

encompassed in decades instead of centuries' means
that the destruction of forests

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A) will take only a few decades
B) will happen in this century
C) will be surely by the next century
D) will take place in a decade

Directions for the questions 16 to 20: Read the passage

and choose the best answer on the information that is
either stated or implied in the passage.

Although the number of animals in a given region may

fluctuate from year to year, the fluctuations are often
temporary and, over long periods, trivial. Scientists have
advanced three theories of population control to account
for this relative constancy.

The first theory attributes a relatively constant

population to periodic climatic catastrophes that
decimate populations with such frequency as to prevent
them exceeding some particular limit. In the case of
small organisms with short life cycles, climatic changes
need not be catastrophic: normal seasonal changes in

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photoperiod (daily amount of sunlight), for example, can
govern population growth. The theory - the density -
independent view - asserts that climatic factors exert the
same regulatory effect on population regardless of the
number of individuals in a region.

A second theory argues that population growth is

primarily density-dependent - that is, the rate of growth
of a population in a region decreases as the number of
animals increases. The mechanisms that manage
regulation may vary. For example, as numbers increase,
the food supply would probably diminish, which would
increase mortality. In addition, as Lotka and Volterra
have shown, predators can find prey more easily in high-
density populations. Other regulators include
physiological control mechanisms: for example, Christian
and Davis have demonstrated how the crowding that
results from a rise in numbers may bring about hormonal
changes in the pituitary and adrenal glands that in turn
may regulate population by lowering sexual activity and
inhibiting sexual maturation. There is evidence that these

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effects may persist for three generations in the absence
of the original provocation. One challenge for density-
dependent theorist is to develop models that would allow
the precise prediction of the effects of crowding.

A third theory proposed by Wynne-Edwards and termed

"epideictic" argues that organisms have evolved a "code"
in the form of social or epideictic behaviour displays,
such as winter-roosting aggregations or group
vocalizing; such codes provide organisms with
information on population size in a region so that they
can, if necessary, exercise reproductive restraint.
However, Wynne-Edwards theory, linking animal social
behaviour and population control, has been challenged,
with some justification, by several studies.

Question No. 16: The primary purpose of the passage is

to
A. provide examples of some of the ways in which
animals exercise reproductive restraint to control
their own numbers

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B. suggest that theories of population control that
concentrate on the social behaviour of animals are
more open to debate than are theories that do not

C. summarize a number of scientific theories that

attempt to explain why animal populations do not
exceed certain limits
D. compare and contrast the density-dependent and
epideictic theories of population control

Question No. 17: The challenge posed to the Wynne-

Edwards theory by several studies is regarded by the
author with

A) Skeptical amusement B) qualified acceptance C)

perplexed astonishment D) complete indifference

Question No. 18: It can be inferred from the passage that

proponents of the density-dependent theory of
population control have not yet been able to —

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A. reproduce the results of the study of Christian and
Davis
B. demonstrate how predator populations are
themselves regulated
C. make sufficiently accurate predictions about the
effects of crowding
D. explain adequately why the numbers of a population
can increase as the population's rate of growth
decreases

Question No.19: Which of the following, if true, would

best support the density-dependent theory of population
control as it is described in the passage ?

A. As the number of elephants in Kaziranga (Assam)

decreases, the growth rate of this population of
elephants begins to increase

B. As the number of Asiatic lions in Gir Forest (Gujarat)

increases, the growth rate of this population of Asiatic
lions also begins to increase

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C. As the number of white-backed Indian vultures in
Delhi decreases, the growth rate of this population of
white-backed Indian vultures also begins to decrease

D. After the number of cheetals (spotted deers) in Kanha

National Park decreases, the number of predators of
these Cheetals begins to increase

Question No. 20: Which of the following statements

would provide the most logical continuation of the final
paragraph of the passage?

A. Because the Wynne-Edwards theory is able to explain

more kinds of animal behaviour than the density-
dependent theory, epideictic explanations of
population regulation are now widely accepted
B. Some of these studies have, in fact, worked out a
systematic and complex code of social behaviour
that can regulate population size

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C. Thus Wynne-Edward's theory raises serious
questions about the constancy of animal population
in a region
D. The result of one study, for instance, have suggested
that group vocalizing is more often used to defend
territory than to provide information about population
density

Directions for the questions 21 to 25: The given sentence

has been broken into 4 parts. In the following sentence
one part has a grammatical error. Identify which part is
not acceptable in Standard English.

Question No. 21:

A) Most of the critics B) agree that this is one of
C) the best novels that has D) appeared in recent years

Question No. 22:

A) To building B) their nests
C) tailorbirds use their D) bills as needles

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Question No. 23 :
A) Despite of B) the pills which
C) Are available, many people still D) has trouble
sleeping.

Question No. 24:

A) With the introduction of the new syllabus
B) the number of colleges reporting
C) high results are decreasing
D) year after year

Question No. 25:

A) He underwent extended treatment
B) and exercise
C) for the heart ailment
D) and it disappeared

Directions for the questions 26 to 29: In the following

question choose the alternative which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.

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Question No. 26:

ENDORSEMENT
A) imposition B) endurance
C) award D) approval

Question No. 27:

SALUBRIOUS
A) miasmic B) unhealthy
C) wholesome D) delightful

Question No. 28:

Demography — pertains-to:
A) Education B) Democracy
C) Population D) Religion

Question No. 29:

Artefact — an object that is :

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A) Natural B) Man-made
C) Fake D)Elaborately decorated

Direction for the questions 30 to 33: Out of the four

options given choose the word or phrase that is most
nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

Question No. 30:

STREW
A) cleanse B) weaken
C) scatter D) collect

Question No. 31:

LACKLUSTER
A) superficial B) courteous
C) complex D) vibrant

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Question No. 32:

SPUNK
A) sumptuous B) timidity
C) success D) informal

Question No. 33:

COGENT
A) stable B) expository
C) contemplative D) unpersuasive

Direction for the questions 34 to 36: For the statement

given there are four different sentences given below it.
Pick out the one that most appropriately conveys the
meaning of the statement.

Question No. 34:

Unlike the tribals who are hardworking, the urbanites
cannot withstand physical strain

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A. The tribals do not like to withstand physical strain as
the urbanites do
B. The urbanites are hardworking but they do not like to
undertake physical strain
C. The tribals can withstand physical strain whereas
urbanities cannot
D. Because the tribals are hardworking they can tolerate
physical strain

Question No. 35:

Should you need a Permanent Account Number (PAN)
Card, you must submit an application along with a copy
of your ration card

A. Unless you do not submit an application along with a

copy of your ration Card
B. You should require a PAN Card if you want to submit
an application along with a copy of your ration card
C. If you submit your application along with your ration
card you do not need a PAN Card
D. None

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Question No. 36:
Despite any kind of hurdles, I shall come

A. I shall come if there are different kinds of hurdles

B. I shall not be able to come if there are different kinds
of hurdles
C. Even though I come, there could be different kinds of
hurdles
D. Whether or not there are any kinds of hurdles, I shall
come

Direction for the question: In the following sentence

some part or the whole is underlined. Each sentence is
followed by four alternative versions of the underlined
portion. Select the alternative you consider most correct
and effective according to the requirements of standard
written English. Answer (a) is the same as the original
version, if you think the original version is best, select
answer (a). Do not select the answer that alters the
meaning of the original sentence.

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Question No. 37:
The books I read as a child have made a greater
impression on me than any other time in my life.

A) any other time in my life

B) that of any other time in my life
C) those from any other time in my life
D) any other time in my life has

Directions for the question: Read the sentence carefully

and then fill in the blank with the alternatives given.

In earlier days, a handicraftsman, the typical labourers

received a certain …..….for the work he did. His efforts
were mostly to his own betterment.

Question No. 38:

A) consolation B) satisfaction
C) remuneration D) reward

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Developing the ......... attitude is very important but where
a child can develop the right attitude.

Question No. 39:

A) proper B) away
C) fallen D) profit

Directions for the questions 40 to 41: Complete the given

sentence most meaningfully by using the word pairs
given thereafter.

Question No. 40:

There is great unevenness in his later plays; there are
moments of the greatest ____ in the midst of great ____.

A) lucidity - enlightenment
B) frivolity - triteness
C) insight – banality
D) obscurity - ambivalence

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Question No. 41:
Iodine deficiency is ____ in these remote mountain
regions; however, it is no longer ____ in the lowlands
where iodized salt is available.

A) recorded - unusual
B) rare - sporadic
C) eradicated - common
D) endemic - prevalent

Direction for the questions 42 to 44: Choose the option

which can be a suitable one word substitute for the given
question.

Question No. 42:

A hater of learning and knowledge

A) misologist B) bibliophilic
C) illiterate D) misogynist

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Question No. 43:
A disease that spreads by means of germs carried in
atmosphere

A) contagious B) epidemic
C) infectious D) endemic

Question No. 44:

A large-scale departure of people from a territory

A) exodus B) immigration
C) migration D) aberration

Directions for the questions for 45 to 48: Fill in the blank

with appropriate word.

Question No. 45:

Although Dr. Singh had several assistants during his long
investigations of Tumni Islands, the bulk of research was
done by… alone
A) himself B) he

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C) his D) him

Question No. 46:

…………the timely medical attention the patient would have
died

A) In spite of B) Because of
C) But for D) Even after

Question No. 47:

This photo clearly………….the difference between the two
brothers

A) bring about B) brings out

C) brings up D) brings in

Question No. 48:

The reporters eagerly……………. the speech made by
Obama

A) took up B) took on

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C) took off D) took down

Directions for the questions 40 to 50 : Among the four

choices given below, pick the one which spells the word
correctly:

Question No. 49:

A) Partisan B) Partesan
C) Partisane D) Partison

Question No. 50:

A) defenistration B) defenestration
C) defenestretion D) definestration

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 Question Bank – Verbal Ability
Answer Key & Explanation:
Q No. Key Explanations
1. B The introductory idea is captured in
sentence C.As the clue word 'corruption'
is mentioned in the first sentence. It is an
important issue taken up by the
opposition parties mentioned in sentence
A. Sentence D logically follows the idea,
therefore the sequence would be CADBE.
2. A C is the independent sentence so it will
open the paragraph. D will follow C as
pronoun "these" used in D is talking about
forces used in C. The clue word 'even'
helps us to place sentence B after
sentence C.
3. C Sentence E gives us a fair idea of about
what will be discussed in the passage.
Statement D gives us the explanation to
support. E. So it comes after E. After this
C will come as it tells that the same will
happen for the second year in row. BA
form the mandatory pair and A is the
concluding sentence. Hence the final

36
 sequence is EDCBA.
4. D D talks about discoveries and B talks
about exploration so B would come
immediately after D. After 'DB', C will
come as it talks about 'milky way's turn'
after the exploration of nearby celestial
objects. The sequence is concluded by A,
as it tells about other galaxies etc.
5. B C would be the first statement as it talks
about the African civil war. Since D
begins with however it makes indirect
reference to happenings in sentence C.
So it would come after C.
6. D Only option 4 is giving the complete
essence of the paragraph. As the
passage mentions various strategies to
embrace change in internet marketing.
Also refer the last line of the passage.

7. B The author is analysing the whole

situation.
Critical means inclined to find faults.
Analytical means using analysis or
logical reasoning.
Sardonic means mocking. There is no
37
 sarcasm or mocking at any one in the
passage.
Pedantic means instructive. There is no
instruction made in the passage.
8. C All others are directly taken from the
paragraph.
9. D Referred to 3rd paragraph which talks
about the unorganized sector which
accounts for 97%. Thus option 4. Also it
is mentioned that unorganized retail
shops provide many benefits to the
consumers and they have good rapport
with their customers so it is highly
unlikely that in near future 'organized
retail' will deeply impact 'unorganized
retail' stores. This makes statement I and
II incorrect.
10. A Argument states that organized retail will
benefit everyone so if it is not going to
benefit them then arguement that
'organized retail' will be benefitted
weakens. Therefore if option 1 happens it
will hamper the argument.
11. A Refer to the last paragraph statement 2
and 4 are wrong statements and 3
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 statement is not talked about in the
paragraph. As per the lines ' Growth of
organized retail will benefit everyone
across the value chain. It will create huge
number of jobs in the country. Farmers
will benefit as they will have consistent
incomes and would also be able to hedge
themselves against crop failure.
Consumers will directly profit with
retailers passing on cost benefits,
accrued through high volume
procurements, to them' option 1 is true.
12. B Argument is organized retail will benefit
every one. Thus if statement 2 and 3
happen it will strengthen the argument
which talks about organize retail reach
out to common man with affordable price
tag and even regional brands are
benefited by pushing there brands
through organized retail store
13. B The way the problems & there results
have been described clearly & the kind of
words used refer to the presence of some
conservationist & botanist.
14. C First line of the passage has answer
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 especially in words ‘stately primeval
forest has given way to ordered land,
scrub’
15. A We should try to clearly understand the
meaning of the line given in inverted
commas. It says that it will not take much
time for the forest to be destroyed by
natural or unnatural reasons.
16. C The passage is about three theories of
population control which clearly points
towards option C.
17. B Option 1 from the relevant paragraph,
which says that the theory as proposed
by wayyne-edward has been challenged
with some justification by several studies
i.e. it is not widely accepted.
18. C Paragraph 3rd last line ““one challenge for
density dependent……………effect of
crowding”.
19. A Paragraph 3rd first line “rate of growth of
population………….. Thus option 1 is
correct.
20. D In last line author is not supporting the
given theory.
21. C The corrected part will be 'one
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 of........that...... 'have' .This is because the
antecedent of 'that' is 'novels' and not
'one'. Therefore the verb will be in the
plural form.
22. A Either use ‘To Infinitive’ i.e To build or
Participle only i.e. Building.
23. A The preposition 'of ' is incorrect after the
word 'despite' as 'despite' means 'inspite
of'
24. C ‘the number of colleges’ is decreasing
because 'the number' is taken as singular
and 'a number' is considered plural.
25. B “and exercise” is incorrect. One cannot
undergo exercise instead do exercise.
26. D The meaning of the word 'endorsement' is
giving approval or sanction by placing
one's signature or instructions etc. on a
document. 'Endurance' means the act,
quality, or power of withstanding
hardship or stress.
27. C Salubrious means favourable to health or
wellbeing. Misamic means dangerous ( it
is an antomyn). Option C is correct
28. C Demography is the study of the features
of population.
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29. B Artefacts are objects that are made by
humans.
30. D Strew means scatter so antonym is to
collect
31. D Lackluster means lacking glow so
antonym is vibrant
32. B Spunk means full of spirit, so antonym is
timid which means shy. Sumptuous is
lavish.
33. D Cogent means convincing so the
antonym is unpersuasive. Expository
means elucidative also contemplative
means to think.
So, option 4 is appropiate.
34. C Option 1 is conveying the exact opposite
meaning, therefore rejected. Option 4th is
conveying only half of the meaning;
hence rejected.2nd option is incorrect as
the meaning expressed is wrong. Only 3rd
option is conveying the complete
meaning.
35. D No option is conveying the same
meaning as conveyed by the question
statement
36. D Option 1st and 2nd are exactly opposite in
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 sense, compared to question statement
hence rejected. 3rd is rejected because
cause – effect has been reversed
37. C Books in the sentence can be compared
with those and not with that or with time
as in options 1,2,4
38. C Labourers will get first
remuneration(wages or money) than
reward.
39. A development of 'right' attitude is very
important. The other options will not
make any sense and hence rejeced.
40. C The word "unevenness" indicates that
there are ups and down in his play.
Therefore we need a good word- bad
word pair." Insight
is a positive word and "banality" ( which
means dullness and unoriginal) is a
negative word. This is the best pair
available. (Lucid means clear.
Frivolity means non serious. Triteness
means Banal Ambivalence is mixed
feeling Profoundity means depth.)
41. D ‘However’ indicates the need for an
opposite. So we could say that the
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 deficiency is common in the mountains
but no longer common in the lowlands.
Effectively this means we are looking for
similar words since the ‘no longer’ makes
the second blank negative.
Therefore, we choose to say that the
deficiency is endemic (commonly found)
in the mountains; however, it is no longer
prevalent (common) in the lowlands.
(sporadic = not continuous; eradicated =
wiped out)
42. A Misologist is the one who hates, any
arguments, reasons or enlightment.
Misogynist is a person who hates,
dislikes, or mistrusts women. Bibliophilic
is a person who loves or collect books as
examples of fine or unusual printing,
binding or the like.
43. C Infection is carried through atmosphere
and contagious diseases are those
capable of being transmitted by bodily
contact with an infected person or object.
44. A Exodus means many people leaving the
place at the same time due to war, etc.
45. D The objective form of pronoun 'him' will
44
 be used here. Object pronouns are used
as objects of verbs or of prepositions.
46. C 'but for' means 'were it not for'. for eg. 'but
for the excessive humidity ,it might have
been pleasant day'.
47. B The phrasal verb 'brings out' means to
reveal or expose. The phrasal verb 'bring
about' means to accomplish or cause.
'Bring in' means to give or submit. 'Bring
up' means to introduce into discussion.
48. D "Took Up" refers to taking up the
challenge but ‘Took Down’ refers to write
down or record.
49. A Partisan is the right spelling, it means
partial
50. B 'Defenestration' the right answer is the
action of throwing someone out of a
window.

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