Clat Prep Mock

TOTAL Q.
150 TM
OPEN MOCK CLAT OFFLINE

(NEW PATTERN MOCK)
150
150
TIME TOTAL RIGHT WRONG NET

SECTION QUESTIONS ALLOTED ATTEMPTS ATTEMPTS ATTEMPTS SCORE
ENGLISH 1 - 28
GENERAL
29 - 69
KNOWLEDGE
LEGAL
70 - 105
REASONING
LOGICAL
REASONING
106 - 135
QUANTITATIVE
136 - 150
TECHNIQUES
TOTAL 150
OPEN MOCK CLAT OFFLINE 2020
SECTION – I ENGLISH
DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.1 TO Q.28): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE-I
Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the
poor. Only paltry sums are available for excavating and even less is available for
publishing the results and preserving the sites once excavated. Yet archaeologists
deal with priceless objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that would at one stroke provide
funds for archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose
that scientific archeological expeditions and governmental authorities sell
excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial
funds for the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the
publication of results. At the same time, they would break the illegal excavator’s
grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal
activities.
You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money.
Moreover, ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, which should be
available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing
that has unique artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply everything
that comes out of the ground has scientific value. Here we part company.
Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every artifact has potential
scientific value. Practically, you are wrong.
I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially
duplicates of one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists
recently uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single
courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions known as l’melekh handles have
been found in abundance—more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large enough to store the artifacts that
are likely to be discovered in the future. There is not enough money even to
catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become as
inaccessible as if they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a
computer, sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the pieces stored in
bulging museum basements. Prior to sale, each could be photographed and the list
of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer. A purchaser could even be
required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific
purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging would stop if artifacts were
sold on the open market. But the demand for the clandestine product would be
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when another was
available whose provenance was known, and that was dated stratigraphically by
the professional archaeologist who excavated it?
COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION PAGE 2

(H.O): SB TOWER, 3RD FLOOR, NEAR IOC PETROL PUMP, SAHAKAR MARG, JAIPUR
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose
(a) an alternative to museum display of artifacts
(b) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession
(c) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such
value
(d) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites
2. The author implies that all of the following statements about duplicate artifacts are
true EXCEPT:
(a) A market for such artifacts already exists.
(b) Such artifacts seldom have scientific value.
(c) Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those already catalogued in museum
collections.
(d) There is likely to be a continuing supply of such artifacts.
3. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing

artifacts in museum basements?
(a) Such artifacts often remain uncatalogued and thus cannot be located once they
are put in storage.
(b) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts.
(c) Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage.
(d) Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in temperature and humidity.
4. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus to emphasize which of the following
points?
(a) Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less valuable, although more rare, than
royal seal impressions.
(b) Artifacts that are very similar to each other present cataloguing difficulties to
archaeologists.
(c) Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and therefore could be sold, are
available in large quantities.
(d) Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing large quantities of salable
artifacts.
5. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts
on illegal excavation is based on which of the following assumptions?
(a) The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise.
(b) Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts.
(c) Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts.
(d) Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only duplicate artifacts.
6. The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of
his proposal?
(a) Museum officials will become unwilling to store artifacts.
(b) An oversupply of salable artifacts will result and the demand for them will fall.
(c) Artifacts that would have been displayed in public places will be sold to private
collectors.
(d) Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply of artifacts for resale.
7. The author implies that which of the following would occur if duplicate artifacts
were sold on the open market?
I. Illegal excavation would eventually cease completely.
II. Cyprus would become the primary source of marketable duplicate artifacts.

III. Archaeologists would be able to publish the results of their excavations more
frequently than they currently do.
(a) I only (c) III only
(b) I and II only (d) II and III only
PASSAGE-II
The majority of successful senior managers do not closely follow the classical
rational model of first clarifying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options,
estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision, and only then taking action to
implement the decision. Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these
senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed “intuition” to manage a network of
interrelated problems that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency,
novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the process of thinking.
Generations of writers on management have recognized that some practicing

managers rely heavily on intuition. In general, however, such writers display a poor
grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the opposite of rationality; others view it
as an excuse for capriciousness.
Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes of senior managers reveals

that managers’ intuition is neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition
in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense when a problem exists.
Second, managers rely on intuition to perform well-learned behavior patterns
rapidly. This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based on years of
painstaking practice and hands-on experience that build skills. A third function of
intuition is to synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated
picture, often in an “Aha!” experience. Fourth, some managers use intuition as a
check on the results of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are familiar
with the formal decision analysis models and tools, and those who use such
systematic methods for reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions
suggested by these methods which run counter to their sense of the correct course
of action. Finally, managers can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and
move rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this way, intuition is an
almost instantaneous cognitive process in which a manager recognizes familiar
patterns. One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive management is
that “thinking” is inseparable from acting. Since managers often “know” what is
right before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently act first and explain
later. Analysis is inextricably tied to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which
managers develop thoughts about their companies and organizations not by
analyzing a problematic situation and then acting, but by acting and analyzing in
close concert.
Given the great uncertainty of many of the management issues that they face,
senior managers often instigate a course of action simply to learn more about an
issue. They then use the results of the action to develop a more complete
understanding of the issue. One implication of thinking/acting cycles is that action
is often part of defining the problem, not just of implementing the solution.
8. According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways
EXCEPT to
(a) stipulate clear goals
(b) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem

(c) identify a problem
(d) bring together disparate facts
9. The passage suggests which of the following about the “writers on management”?
(a) They have criticized managers for not following the classical rational model of
decision analysis.
(b) They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently large sample of actual
managers.
(c) They have misunderstood how managers use intuition in making business
decisions.
(d) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on what managers say rather
than on what managers do.
10. Which of the following best exemplifies “an ‘Aha!’ experience” as it is presented in
the passage?
(a) A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is unpredictable to discover
whether the action changes the problem at hand.
(b) A manager performs well-learned and familiar behavior patterns in creative and
uncharacteristic ways to solve a problem.
(c) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated facts and experiences to
create a pattern relevant to the problem at hand.
(d) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used to compile data yielded by
systematic analysis.
11. According to the passage, the classical model of decision analysis includes all of the
following EXCEPT
(a) evaluation of a problem
(b) action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problem
(c) creation of possible solutions to a problem
(d) establishment of clear goals to be reached by the decision
12. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably
be one major difference in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to
reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal decision analysis?
(a) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a problem; Manager
Y does not.
(b) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager Y does not.
(c) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by systematic analysis;
Manager Y does not.
(d) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience in creating a solution to a
problem; Manager X does not.
13. It can be inferred from the passage that “thinking/acting cycles” in managerial
practice would be likely to result in which of the following?
I. A manager analyzes a network of problems and then acts on the basis of that
analysis.
II. A manager gathers data by acting and observing the effects of action.
III. A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that
particular action.
(a) I only (c) I and II only
(b) II only (d) II and III only

14. The passage provides support for which of the following statements?
(a) Managers who rely on intuition are more successful than those who rely on
formal decision analysis.
(b) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.
(c) Managers’ intuition works contrary to their rational and analytical skills.
(d) Intuition enables managers to employ their practical experience more efficiently.
15. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first paragraph of the
passage?
(a) An assertion is made and a specific supporting example is given.
(b) A conventional model is dismissed and an alternative introduced.
(c) The results of recent research are introduced and summarized.
(d) Two opposing points of view are presented and evaluated.
PASSAGE-III
In an attempt to improve the overall performance of clerical workers, many
companies have introduced computerized performance monitoring and control
systems (CPMCS) that record and report a worker’s computer-driven activities.
However, at least one study has shown that such monitoring may not be having the
desired effect. In the study, researchers asked monitored clerical workers and their
supervisors how assessments of productivity affected supervisors’ ratings of
workers’ performance. In contrast to unmonitored workers doing the same work,
who without exception identified the most important element in their jobs as
customer service, the monitored workers and their supervisors all responded that
productivity was the critical factor in assigning ratings. This finding suggested that
there should have been a strong correlation between a monitored worker’s
productivity and the overall rating the worker received. However, measures of the
relationship between overall rating and individual elements of performance clearly
supported the conclusion that supervisors gave considerable weight to criteria such
as attendance, accuracy, and indications of customer satisfaction.
It is possible that productivity may be a “hygiene factor,” that is, if it is too low, it
will hurt the overall rating. But the evidence suggests that beyond the point at
which productivity becomes “good enough,” higher productivity per se is unlikely to
improve a rating.
16. According to the passage, before the final results of the study were known, which of
the following seemed likely?
(a) That workers with the highest productivity would also be the most accurate
(b) That workers who initially achieved high productivity ratings would continue to
do so consistently
(c) That the highest performance ratings would be achieved by workers with the
highest productivity
(d) That the most productive workers would be those whose supervisors claimed to
value productivity
17. It can be inferred that the author of the passage discusses “unmonitored workers”
primarily in order to
(a) compare the ratings of these workers with the ratings of monitored workers
(b) provide an example of a case in which monitoring might be effective
(c) provide evidence of an inappropriate use of CPMCS
(d) emphasize the effect that CPMCS may have on workers’ perceptions of their jobs

18. Which of the following, if true, would most clearly have supported the conclusion
referred to in the passage?
(a) Overall ratings of performance correlated more highly with measures of
accuracy than with measures of productivity.
(b) Ratings of productivity correlated highly with ratings of both accuracy and
attendance.
(c) Electronic monitoring greatly increased productivity.
(d) Most supervisors based overall ratings of performance on measures of
productivity alone.
19. According to the passage, a “hygiene factor” is an aspect of a worker’s performance

that
(a) has no effect on the rating of a worker’s performance
(b) is so basic to performance that it is assumed to be adequate for all workers
(c) is not likely to affect a worker’s rating unless it is judged to be inadequate
(d) is given less importance than it deserves in rating a worker’s performance
20. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) explain the need for the introduction of an innovative strategy
(b) discuss a study of the use of a particular method
(c) recommend a course of action
(d) resolved a difference of opinion
PASSAGE - IV
The health-care economy is replete with unusual and even unique economic
relationships. One of the least understood involves the peculiar roles of producer or
“provider” and purchaser or “consumer” in the typical doctor-patient relationship.
In most sectors of the economy, it is the seller who attempts to attract a potential
buyer with various inducements of price, quality, and utility, and it is the buyer
who makes the decision. Where circumstances permit the buyer no choice because
there is effectively only one seller and the product is relatively essential,
government usually asserts monopoly and places the industry under price and
other regulations. Neither of these conditions prevails in most of the health-care
industry.
In the health-care industry, the doctor-patient relationship is the mirror image of

the ordinary relationship between producer and consumer. Once an individual has
chosen to see a physician—and even then there may be no real choice—it is the
physician who usually makes all significant purchasing decisions: whether the
patient should return “next Wednesday,” whether X-rays are needed, whether
drugs should be prescribed, etc. It is a rare and sophisticated patient who will
challenge such professional decisions or raise in advance questions about price,
especially when the ailment is regarded as serious.
This is particularly significant in relation to hospital care. The physician must

certify the need for hospitalization, determine what procedures will be performed,
and announce when the patient may be discharged. The patient may be consulted
about some of these decisions, but in the main it is the doctor’s judgments that are
final. Little wonder then that in the eyes of the hospital it is the physician who is
the real “consumer.” As a consequence, the medical staff represents the “power
center” in hospital policy and decision-making, not the administration.

Although usually there are in this situation four identifiable participants—the
physician, the hospital, the patient, and the payer (generally an insurance carrier
or government)—the physician makes the essential decisions for all of them. The
hospital becomes an extension of the physician; the payer generally meets most of
the bona fide bills generated by the physician/hospital; and for the most part the
patient plays a passive role. In routine or minor illnesses, or just plain worries, the
patient’s options are, of course, much greater with respect to use and price. In
illnesses that are of some significance, however, such choices tend to evaporate,
and it is for these illnesses that the bulk of the health-care dollar is spent. We
estimate that about 75-80 percent of health-care expenditures are determined by
physicians, not patients. For this reason, economy measures directed at patients or
the general public are relatively ineffective.
21. The author’s primary purpose is to

(a) speculate about the relationship between a patient’s ability to pay and the
treatment received
(b) criticize doctors for exercising too much control over patients
(c) analyze some important economic factors in health care
(d) urge hospitals to reclaim their decision-making authority
22. It can be inferred that doctors are able to determine hospital policies because
(a) it is doctors who generate income for the hospital
(b) most of a patient’s bills are paid by his health insurance
(c) hospital administrators lack the expertise to question medical decisions
(d) a doctor is ultimately responsible for a patient’s health
23. According to the author, when a doctor tells a patient to “return next Wednesday,”
the doctor is in effect
(a) taking advantage of the patient’s concern for his health
(b) instructing the patient to buy more medical services
(c) warning the patient that a hospital stay might be necessary
(d) advising the patient to seek a second opinion
24. The author is most probably leading up to

(a) a proposal to control medical costs
(b) a discussion of a new medical treatment
(c) an analysis of the causes of inflation in the United States
(d) a study of lawsuits against doctors for malpractice
25. The tone of the passage can best be described as

(a) whimsical (b) cautious (c) analytical (d) inquisitive
26. With which of the following statements would the author be likely to agree?
I. Most patients are reluctant to object to the course of treatment prescribed by a
doctor or to question the cost of the services.
II. The more serious the illness of a patient, the less likely it is that the patient will
object to the course of treatment prescribed or to question the cost of services.
III. The payer, whether insurance carrier or the government, is less likely to
acquiesce to demands for payment when the illness of the patient is regarded as
serious.
(a) I only (c) I and II only
(b) II only (d) II and III only

27. The author’s primary concern is to
(a) define a term (c) announce a new discovery
(b) clarify a misunderstanding (d) refute a theory
28. The most important feature of a “consumer” as that term is used in the passage is
that the “consumer” is the party that
(a) pays for goods or services
(b) delivers goods or services
(c) orders goods or services
(d) reimburses a third party for goods or services

SECTION – II GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

carefully and answer the questions that follow. To answer the questions students
may apply their general awareness:
PASSAGE – I
Modi government has finally dropped the big Kashmir bomb, with Home Minister
Amit Shah moving to revoke two key constitutional provisions — Article 370 and
Article 35(A) — that give the state of Jammu & Kashmir a host of special rights.
Some provisions of the Article 370 have been diluted over time. In contrast, the
Article 35A till now had remained unchanged.
The move came amid mounting tension in the state where the government, in a
midnight swoop, had put the top political leadership under detention and restricted
their movement. It also suspended telecom/internet services in the state.
With the situation now on a knife's edge, here is what the momentous decision
would mean for the restive state and for India in general.
What Article 370 means

Under this article, the centre needs the state government's concurrence to apply
laws — except in defence, foreign affairs, finance and communications.
It means the state's residents live under a separate set of laws, including those
related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as compared
to other Indians. As a result of this provision, Indian citizens from other states
cannot purchase land or property in Jammu & Kashmir.
Under Article 370, the Centre has no power to declare financial emergency under
Article (X) in the state. It can declare an emergency in the state only in case of war
or external aggression. The Article 370 — which comes under Part (Y) of the
Constitution, which deals with "Temporary, Transitional and Special provisions" —
grants J&K a special autonomous status. Constitutional provisions that are
applicable to other Indian states are not applicable to J&K.
The provision was drafted in 1947 by (Z) and had argued that Article 370 should
not be placed under temporary provisions; he instead wanted 'iron-clad autonomy'
for the state. The centre, however, didn't grant his wish.
29. Which statement is NOT correct about the Jammu & Kashmir
(a) Jammu & Kashmir has its own Constitution.
(b) No decision regarding the disposition of the state of the Jammu & Kashmir can
be made by the government of India without the consent of the state
government.
(c) Residuary power in respect of Jammu & Kashmir rest with the state
government and not the union government.
(d) All of the above are incorrect.

30. Which Indian state has its own constitution?
(a) Sikkim (c) Meghalaya
(b) Arunachal Pradesh (d) None of these
31. Which article has been replaced by (X)

(a) 360 (b) 350 (c) 334 (d) 375
32. Article 370 is drafted in the part (Y) of the Indian Constitution. (Y) denotes for.
(a) XXI (b) XIX (c) XII (d) IXX
33. Which of the personality has been replaced by (Z)?

(a) Shiek Abdullah (c) Sardar Patel
(b) Maharaja Hari Singh (d) B R Ambedkar
PASSAGE – II
Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) has handed India Test opener, Prithvi
Shaw, a back-dated suspension of 8 months for a doping violation.
According to a BCCI release, Shaw had "inadvertently ingested a prohibited

substance, which can be commonly found in cough syrups." This means Prithvi
cannot participate in India's home series against Bangladesh and South Africa.
Which drug's intake led to Prithvi facing a doping ban?
Prithvi had provided a urine sample as part of the BCCI's anti-doping testing
program during the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy match on February 22, 2019, in
Indore. His sample was subsequently tested and found to contain (X).
(X), a specified substance, is prohibited both in and out of Competition in the

WADA Prohibited List of Substances. In fact, last year Mr. (Y) & Abhishek from
Punjab tested positive for the same substance.
Why is (X) banned by WADA?
The (X) has been kept in the category of banned drugs by WADA because it
increases muscle strength. In its report, the European Respiratory Journal has
made it clear that consuming (X) medication increases anaerobic performance, i.e.
the person can live without oxygen for a long time, compared to normal conditions.
Will (X) help cricketers?
According to BCCI's anti-doping manager Dr. Abhijit Salvi, (X) is unlikely to

enhance the performance of cricketers.
"(X) helps to open the airways and thereby ventilate the lungs effectively. It may be
beneficial to cyclists, runners, etc., but wouldn't really help a cricketer perform
better," Salvi told ESPN Cricinfo.
This was the first time that Prithvi was charged with the commission of an Anti-
Doping Rule Violation (ADRV) under the BCCI Anti-Doping Rules (ADR) Article 2.1.

Also, BCCI was satisfied with Prithvi's explanation that he had taken (X)
inadvertently to treat a Respiratory Tract Infection and not as a performance-
enhancing drug.
Having considered all of the evidence and taken expert external advice, the BCCI
accepted India Test Opener's explanation of the cause of his ADRV, and on that
basis has agreed that a period of ineligibility of eight months should apply, together
with the disqualification of certain results.
34. In which year The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) was established as an
international independent agency?
(a) 1975 (b) 1999 (c) 1956 (d) 2002
35. Which prohibited substance has been replaced by (X)?

(a) Oxidocine (c) Verexodiline
(b) Terbutaline (d) Benzodoxitine
36. Which former Indian player has been replaced by Mr (Y)?

(a) Yusuf Pathan (c) Ashok Dinda
(b) Shreeshant (d) Axar Patel
37. Who was the first BCCI president

(a) R E Grant Govan (c) Maharaja K S Digvijaysinhji
(b) Sir Anthony S D'Mello (d) Sir sikandar hayat khan
PASSAGE – III
Human society is facing unprecedented challenges in the 21st century. This first
Nobel Prize Summit will explore what it will take to ensure humanity’s shared
future on Earth.
Designed to inspire, engage, and motivate, over three days the summit will ask:
How can science support efforts to address climate change and the loss of
biodiversity? How can the world address rising inequality of all forms? How do
societies respond to rapid transformations enabled by emerging and converging
technologies?
The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by the
(X) in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, and the
Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer Institute.
The first-ever Nobel Prize Summit, “__________(motto)”, will bring together several
Nobel Laureates and other world-renowned experts and leaders to advance new
insights into global sustainable development and explore actions that need to be
taken to ensure humanity’s future on a prosperous, stable, and resilient planet.
38. What is the motto of the Nobel Prize summit?

(a) The future and beyond (c) One Planet, One Life
(b) Save the planet (d) Our Planet, Our Future
39. When was the first Nobel Peace Prize awarded?

(a) 1900 (c) 1902
(b) 1901 (d) None of these

40. Abiy Ahmed Ali won Nobel Peace Prize 2019 for...
(a) His efforts to achieve peace and international cooperation.
(b) For his decisive initiative to resolve the border conflict with neighbouring
Eritrea.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
41. First Nobel prize summit will be held at

(a) Switzerland (c) Paris
(b) Chicago (d) Washington
42. Which organisation has been replaced by (X) in the passage?

(a) International Science Academy
(b) International Science and Technology Foundation
(c) World Science of Foundation
(d) None of these
PASSAGE – IV
The Mangalyaan mission, which was initially meant to last six months, has
completed five years of orbiting Mars and is likely to continue for some more time,
says ISRO chief K Sivan.
In the last five years, the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), India's first interplanetary
Endeavour, helped India's space agency prepare a Martian Atlas based on the
images provided by the orbiter, Sivan told PTI.
"It's working and continuously sending pictures. It still has some time to go," Sivan
said.
Asked about Mangalyaan 2, he said work is going on and there is no decision on it

yet.
The Mars orbiter has sent thousands of pictures totaling two terabytes, an Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) official explained.
The Mars Colour Camera took close distance images of Phobos and Deimos, the
two moons of Mars. MOM is the only Martian artificial satellite that could capture
the full disc of Mars in one view frame and also takes images of the far side of
Deimos, the space agency said.
The data from MOM helped produce 23 publications in peer-reviewed journals, it

added.
An important conclusion of the mission has been the finding that dust storms on
the Martian can rise up to hundreds of kilometres, added Sivan's predecessor A S
Kiran Kumar.
The success of Mangalyaan, hailed for being cheaper than the Hollywood movie
"Gravity" and much cheaper than NASA's Maven Orbiter, comes in the wake of
ISRO's setback in the Chandrayaan 2 mission. The Maven Orbiter was similar to
India's Mars mission.

43. Which of the following statement is/are true
1. APPLE was India’s first experimental, geostationary satellite.
2. India’s first experimental satellite was assisted by the Soviet Union.
3. INSAT -2 Project was India’s first indigenously built satellite.
(a) Only 1, 2 are correct (c) Only 2, 3 are correct
(b) Only 2 is correct (d) All are correct
44. IRNSS-1E is the fifth satellite in the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
(IRNSS), which vehicle launched it?
(a) PSLV-C31 (b) PSLV-C30 (c) PSLV-C21 (d) GSLV 3A
45. Which of the following is the heaviest rocket of India?

(a) GSLV Mark 3 (b) RH 75 (c) RH 300 (d) RH200
46. Which of the following is not true about mars mission of India?
(a) It was launched on 5 November 2012
(b) It was India's first interplanetary mission.
(c) ISRO has become the fourth space agency to reach Mars.
(d) India is the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit.
47. What is true about Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)?

(a) It was developed and operated by indigenously in India
(b) It was developed in collaboration with Russia.
(c) It was developed in collaboration with USA.
(d) It was developed in collaboration with USA & UK.
48. Where is Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) situated?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala (c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu
PASSAGE – V
The pan-India implementation of the contentious National Register of Citizens

(NRCNSE 2.22 %) is next on Amit Shah's list. The Union home minister pulled no
punches when he said the exercise will weed out "all illegal infiltrators from India",
a stance the BJP government has maintained since it came to power for the second
time.
The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing names of all genuine
Indian citizens. At present, only Assam has such a register.
The exercise may be extended to other states as well. Nagaland is already creating a
similar database known as the Register of Indigenous Inhabitants. The Centre is
planning to create a National Population Register (NPR), which will contain
demographic and biometric details of citizens.
In Assam, the Supreme Court mandated and monitored exercise caused

widespread disruption. In the state, one first had to produce documentary proof
issued before March 24, 1971 – like the first NRC or electoral rolls up to March 24,
1971 – to prove that one’s ancestors were residing in India before that date. The
next step was producing documents for oneself to establish relationship with those
ancestors. That could be a tough ask in a country with a poor documentation
culture and crores of people with meagre financial resources.

Later, The Assam accord 19XX promises to detection, deletion name from the
electoral rolls and deportation of the Bangladeshi refugees who entered in the state
on mid night of March 24, 1971.
49. Which year has been replaced by (XX)?

(a) 1971 (b) 1981 (c) 1985 (d) 1972
50. Why march 24, 1971

(a) On March 25th 1971 the Bangladesh war of freedom began.
(b) Assam accord was brought into effect
(c) The judgment of supreme court was dated 23rd march
(d) Just a random date with no specific reason
51. NRC was first prepared in which year?

(a) 1971 (b) 1951 (c) 1949 (d) 1965
52. When was Assam final NRC list released?

(a) 31st August 2019 (c) 14th July 2019
(b) 30th May 2019 (d) 3rd September 2019
53. The constitution of India deals with the citizenship from the articles 5 to 11 under
Part II. The Citizenship Act, 1995 prescribes 5 ways. Which of the following is not
among 5?
(a) Descent (c) Naturalization
(b) Registration (d) Occupation
PASSAGE – VI
At the summit in October 2019 EU leaders endorsed the withdrawal agreement and
approved the political declaration on future EU-UK relations. This deal, which has
to be ratified by both sides, paves the way for an orderly departure of the United
Kingdom from the European Union.
The Brexit deadline, agreed by the European Council and the UK, is 31 January
2020.
In December 2019, EU leaders reconfirmed their aim of establishing the closest

possible post-Brexit relationship with the UK.
The United Kingdom ended 2019 with clarity about Brexit, but it took a turbulent
journey to get there. The year started with the country facing a March 29 deadline
for leaving the European Union (EU). Prime Minister (1) chose that date but
couldn’t persuade the House of Commons to approve the deal she struck with the
EU. The main sticking point was the “backstop” provision, which avoided creating a
customs barrier in the middle of the Irish Sea but saddled Britain with EU custom
rules. (1) was forced to delay Brexit until October 31, and then resigned after the
House of Commons voted down her deal three times. Boris Johnson won a
Conservative Party vote and became prime minister on July 24. He struck a new
deal that swapped the backstop for a customs barrier between Northern Ireland
and the rest of the United Kingdom. He tried a variety of debatable tactics to push
the deal through Parliament before the Halloween deadline. None of them worked.
Forced to extend the withdrawal deadline to January 31, 2020, Johnson called a
snap election. British voters rewarded him; the Conservatives won their biggest

victory in more than three decades. On December 20, Parliament voted
overwhelmingly to exit the EU by January 31.
54. Name the personality who has been replaced by (1)

(a) David Cameroon (c) William Charley
(b) Theresa May (d) None of these
55. Currently how many members are in the European Union?

(a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 25 (d) 17
56. Which of the following country is not the member of the EU?
(a) Estonia (b) Denmark (c) Switzerland (d) Malta
57. Where is the headquarters of the EU?

(a) Belgium (b) Netherlands (c) Luxembourg (d) Greece
58. Which of the following was/were the objective of the EU?

(a) Establishing an economic and a monetary union
(b) Implementing a common foreign and defence policy
(c) Developing relations in the spheres of’ home affairs and justice
(d) All of the above
59. Who is the current President of the European Commission?

(a) Jean-Claude Juncker (c) Donald Tusk
(b) Herman Van Rompuy (d) None of the above
PASSAGE – VII
In another round of boosters for the economy, Finance Minister Niramala

Sitharaman today announced amalgamation of 10 public sector banks into (X) big
banks. After this the total number of Public Sector Banks in the country will come
down to 12 from 27 banks in 2017. Apart from this the government announced Rs
55,250 crore upfront capital infusion in the PSBs.
This comes a week after Finance Minister announced a series of measures to boost
the economy. In big banks merger, Sitharaman announced that government has
decided to merge Punjab National Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce and United
Bank; Canara Bank and Syndicate Banks; Union Bank of India, Andhra Bank and
Corporation Bank; and Indian Bank and Allahabad Bank.
Here are all the key announcements:

PNB, OBC and United Bank to be merged. The new merged bank will be the second
largest PSB in the country with Rs 18 lakh crore businesses and second largest
branch network in India.
60. In “amalgamation of 10 public sector banks into (X) big banks”, what number has
been replaced with (X)?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2
61. Before the merger which of the following bank was 2nd largest PSB?
(a) SBI (b) BOB (c) HDFC (d) NABARD

62. Which of the following is not the benefit of the merger?
(a) After these mergers the lending capacity of the Public Sector Banks will increase
(b) These big banks would also be able to compete globally
(c) Increase their operational efficiency by reducing their cost of lending.
(d) Better employee-cost ratio
PASSAGE – VIII
The Supreme Court saw the first review petition on its Ayodhya judgment, filed by
Maulana Syed Ashhad Rashidi, legal representative of original plaintiff M. Siddiqi.
“Further though in the impugned judgment, this Hon’ble Court has acknowledged
few of the several illegalities committed by the Hindu parties, particularly in 1934
(damaging the domes of the Babri Masjid), 1949 (desecrating the Babri Masjid) and
1992 (demolition of the Babri Masjid), however, this Hon’ble Court has proceeded
to condone those very illegal acts and has awarded the disputed site to the very
party which based its claims on nothing but a series of illegal acts," the petition
reads.
“… Court has disregarded the settled legal principle of “ex dolo malo non oritur
action”. Further, this Hon’ble Court has, in an attempt to balance the reliefs
between the parties, while condoning illegalities of the Hindu parties, has allotted
alternate land admeasuring 5 acres to the Muslim parties, which was neither
pleaded nor prayed for by the Muslim parties," it further added.
The Supreme Court on 9 November had passed the order in favour of “the deity of
Lord Ram" who was considered a “juristic person". The court directed that the
disputed 2.7 acres should be handed over to a trust formed by the central
government. This trust will build a temple on the disputed property. The Muslim
party has to be given five-acre “either by the central government out of the acquired
land or by the government of Uttar Pradesh within the city of Ayodhya", the top
court had ruled.
63. “ex dolo malo non oritur actio” means

(a) A right of action not always available
(b) A right of action cannot arise out of fraud
(c) A right of action cannot arise after own mistake
(d) A right of action not present after a decision
64. General Mir Baqi built the Babri Masjid on the orders of which Mughal Emperor?
(a) Akbar (b) Babur (c) Jhahngir (d) Shahjhan
65. When was the mosque at the disputed site built?

(a) Year 1549 (b) Year 1528 (c) Year 1538 (d) Year 1592
66. In the year 1961, the__________ Board filed an application demanding the
possession of the disputed site and the removal of statues.
(a) UP Sunni Waqf Board (c) Vishwa Hindu Parishad
(b) Nirmohi Arena (d) None of these
67. When did the Supreme Court stay the Allahabad High Court verdict on the
Ayodhya dispute?
(a) In 2019 (b) In 2011 (c) In 2010 (d) In 2014

68. Who of the following district judge of Faizabad allow Hindus to worship on 1
February 1986?
(a) Raghubir Das (c) K.M. Pandey
(b) U.C. Pandey (d) Ramchandra Das
69. When did the Ayodhya case start hearing daily in the Supreme Court?
(a) 9 August 2019 (c) 9 August 1949
(b) 6 August 2019 (d) 6 August 1949

SECTION – III LEGAL REASONING

carefully and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE – I
The steep penalties for violation of road rules that came into force on September 1
under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 have produced a backlash, with
several State governments opting to reduce the quantum of fines, or even to reject
the new provisions. Gujarat has announced a substantial reduction in the fines,
West Bengal has refused to adopt the higher penalties, Karnataka and Kerala are
studying the prospects to make the provisions less stringent, and others are
proceeding with caution.
Motorists have reacted with outrage at the imposition of fines by the police,
obviously upset at State governments pursuing enforcement without upgrading
road infrastructure and making administrative arrangements for issue of transport
documents. Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari has reiterated that it is left to
the States to choose the quantum of fines, since it is their responsibility to bring
about deterrence and protect the lives of citizens. Mr. Gadkari’s argument is valid,
and the intent behind amending the Motor Vehicles Act cannot be faulted. After all,
India has some of the deadliest roads in the world, and 1,47,913 people died in
road accidents only during 2017. The question that has arisen is whether
enhanced fines can radically change this record when other determinants,
beginning with administrative reform, remain untouched.
The core of reform lies in Section 198(A) of the amended law, which requires any
designated authority, contractor, consultant or concessionaire responsible for
design or construction or maintenance of the safety standards of the road to meet
those laid down by the Central government. This provision, which prescribes a
penalty for a violation leading to death or disability, can be enforced through
litigation by road users in all States. Since the standards are laid down, compliance
should be ensured without waiting for a road accident to prove it. Until
infrastructure meets legal requirements, fines and enforcement action are naturally
liable to be challenged in courts; the condition of roads, traffic signals, signage and
cautionary markings which affect motorists, cyclists and pedestrians, would all fall
within its ambit. State governments also cannot escape responsibility for failing to
reform their Regional Transport Authorities, since these offices are generally
steeped in corruption. The Transport Ministry could well have made electronic
delivery of RTO services mandatory, something that a lapsed UPA-era Bill
promised. It should act on this now. Ultimately, ending the culture of impunity that
allows government vehicles and VIPs to ignore road rules will encourage the
average citizen to follow them. Mr. Gadkari should lose no time in forming the
National Road Safety Board to recommend important changes to infrastructure and
to enable professional accident investigation.
70. Assuming for a particular violation, earlier fine was Rs 100 and now it has been
increased to Rs 1000.
Keeping the above instance in the mind, mark the option which is definitely true.
(a) In Gujrat, the fine is still Rs 100 for the violation.
(b) In Kerela, the fine is Rs. 1000 for the violation.
(c) In West Bengal the fine is Rs. 100 for the violation
(d) In Rajasthan, the fine is Rs. 1000 for the violation

71. What, according to the author, is the reason behind many drivers taking exception
to the steep increase in penalties?
(a) They themselves violate various rules and hence have to pay higher fine.
(b) They believe it will be misused by traffic police to abuse general public and lead
to more corruption.
(c) They believe these penalties will have no effect on violations but only be an
financial burden on them
(d) They think government should be more responsible before imposing such
penalties on violators.
72. According to the author, which of the following measures has the potential to make
roads less deadly?
I. Improving road infrastructure
II. Penalising government vehicles and VIPs for violating traffic rules
(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both (d) None
73. According to passage, which of the following options has information about traffic
fines that can prove to be vulnerable to being challenged in court
(a) These fines are irrational
(b) These fines are not imposed through constitutional means
(c) They come under state matter not under center
(d) The government has not fulfilled the set standard of road safety compliance
74. If states are put under compulsion to follow the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act,
2019, then which of the following statements will have the potential to be
undoubtedly exact?
(a) All states will have same penalties for varied violations
(b) These fines and enforcement action will not be liable to be challenged in courts
(c) Designated authority responsible for construction of the road will be liable for
penalty for a violation leading to death or disability
(d) None of these
PASSAGE – II
INCIDENCE-1
In November, a journalist in Uttar Pradesh’s Meerut district was booked for
defamation for sharing a video lampooning Prime Minister Narendra Modi on a
WhatsApp group. The group had both police officers and journalists as members
and was used as a platform to share news and information. Its administrator was
the district’s senior superintendent of police.
The journalist, Afgan Soni, who works for a Hindi daily in Meerut, was a member of
the group. While a First Information Report was registered against Soni, he said
that the police has not contacted him about it, leave alone arrested or detained
him. No action has been taken against the police officer who was the group’s
administrator either.
INCIDENCE-2
21-year-old Junaid Khan, a science undergraduate from Rajgarh in Madhya
Pradesh. In February, Khan was arrested for being the administrator of a
WhatsApp group in which some content was shared that the police deemed to be
objectionable. He was charged with sedition, and under provisions of the
Information Technology Act. He is still in jail.

The district administration and police in Rajgarh are also yet to explain why Khan
was arrested in the first place. Nor have they disclosed what the objectionable
content was and how it qualified for sedition.
Around five months after his arrest, his family has attempted to bring attention to a
technical argument that could have a direct impact on his case. They say that
Khan had not started the WhatsApp group but had become its default
administrator after the original administrator quit the group.
Khan’s family told a reporter in Madhya Pradesh that a person called Irfan, who
was the original administrator of the group, had left the group immediately after
posting the message that the police deemed to be objectionable. This made Khan
the default administrator. He was still the administrator when the police
investigation began, thus landing him in jail. The police arrested Irfan earlier this
month.
The office of Simala Prasad, the superintendent of police in Rajgarh, did not take
this reporter’s calls. However, Prasad had earlier told the media: “The family hasn’t
told us that Junaid [Khan] had become the default administrator. Rather, they
have complained that some other people were also administrators of the group at
that time.”
But default administrator or not, the question is: Should Khan have been arrested
for someone else’s post? Is being administrator of a group really grounds enough to
be in jail?
75. The two different incidences that are given in the passage are mentioned with a
purpose to set out which of the following options?
(a) To show the inconsistency of the law related to group admin of any group found
in violation of any law
(b) To show ambiguity in the cyber laws
(c) To show moral contradiction in similar cases
(d) To show procedural inconsistencies in similar case.
76. Primarily, the passage contains information which may help to portray which of the
following legal issues does?
(a) Is the administrator of a WhatsApp group legally responsible for everything
posted in the group?
(b) Freedom of expression should not be curbed.
(c) Can police take different discourse in similar cases?
(d) None of these
77. Who should be held liable for cyber crime if there is law which holds the then
administrator of a WhatsApp group legally responsible for everything posted in the
group, then among the two aforementioned incidences, in which incidence the
group administrator is responsible?
(a) Incidence 1 only (c) Both
(b) Incidence 2 only (d) None

PASSAGE – III
Nearly two years after the Supreme Court declared instant triple talaq or talaq-e-
biddat as unconstitutional, Parliament has passed the Muslim Women (Protection
of Rights on Marriage) Bill, outlawing the practice. In its nearly year-and-a-half
long sojourn in Parliament, searching questions have been asked of the Bill’s
provisions. As a result of these deliberations, the legislation passed by the Rajya
Sabha on Tuesday is somewhat different from the one introduced in the lower
House in December 2017. The question, however, is: Has the government allayed
all the major apprehensions about the Bill? Last year, it did introduce amendments
to dilute the Bill’s most contentious section — the criminality provision. “An offence
punishable under this Act shall be cognisable, if information relating to the
commission of the offence is given to an officer in charge of a police station by the
married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced or any person related to
her by blood or marriage,” reads Clause 7 of the Bill — a climbdown from the
original clause, which allowed anyone to file a complaint. Yet, the question
remains: Why deem what is essentially a civil wrong as a criminal act? The
government has failed to give a convincing response to the Opposition’s criticism
that a three-year prison term for a husband who pronounces triple talaq would end
up doing the estranged wife more harm than good.
The government has deployed the argument of women’s empowerment to counter

every objection to the Bill. The imperative of gender justice is, indeed, compelling. It
is also true that the Supreme Court judgment had recognised the discriminatory
nature of triple talaq. However, the 3-2 verdict also spoke of the complexity of the
issue and its fraught political milieu. In laying out the intertwined aspects —
gender equality, freedom of religion and personal laws — the five-judge bench had
put forth a language of reform without being oblivious of or disrespectful to the
apprehensions and insecurities of the minority community. Evidently, however, the
government did not take its cue from this landmark verdict. It did not make any
attempt to strike a conversation with the minority community or put to rest fears
that the bill is another ruse for majoritarian assertion — not even after Prime
Minister Narendra Modi began his second stint in office by announcing “sabka
vishwas” as his government’s credo. In fact, in the current Monsoon Session of
Parliament, the government used the weight of its numbers to ride roughshod over
the Opposition’s demand that the Bill be sent to a select committee.
78. Which of the following most appropriately reflects congruence with the views of the
author?
(a) Triple talaq bill was passed without adequate scrutiny it required
(b) Triple talaq bill is a landmark decision to achieve gender equality
(c) Triple talaq bill will do more harm than good to muslim women
(d) Triple talaq bill wrongly criminalise the act.
79. The passage provides information which is pertinent to mark which of the following
options as true.
I. Now a muslim man can be sent to jail for divorcing his wife.
II. Now muslim man have to alimony to his divorced wife.
III. Now a complaint about triple talaq can only be filed by blood relative of the
victim.
(a) III only (c) All three
(b) I and III (d) None of these

80. Which of the following is/are ground(s) of criticism shown by the author towards
the bill?
I. For overlooking the opposition’s demand that the Bill be sent to a select
committee.
II. No formal dialogue with the minority community on the issue
III. No proper justification to the opposition’s criticism over criminalisation of the
act.
(a) III only (c) All three
(b) I and III (d) None of these
81. Which of the following options, if true, can provide the suitable rationale behind
making triple talaq unconstitutional?
(a) Supreme court decision in a landmark case against triple talaq
(b) Personal law cannot outweigh right of equality
(c) Being a secular country we should have uniform civil code
(d) Any act that violates a constitutional right is a criminal act
82. Keeping the view of the author in mind, mark the option which can prove to be a
fallout of this bill?
I. The bill is another ruse for majoritarian assertion
II. The opposition’s view that the women will also have to suffer for three-year
prison term for a husband who pronounces triple talaq
(a) I only (c) Both
(b) II only (d) None of these
PASSAGE – IV
The question is often whispered, the questioners sheepish. But increasingly,

parents at the Central Park playground where Dr. Elizabeth A. Comen takes her
young children have been asking her: “Do you vaccinate your kids?” Dr. Comen, an
oncologist who has treated patients for cancers related to the human papilloma
virus that a vaccine can now prevent, replies emphatically: Absolutely. She never
imagined she would be getting such queries. Yet these playground exchanges are
reflective of the national conversation at the end of the second decade of the 21st
century — a time of stunning scientific and medical advances but also a time when
the United States may, next month, lose its World Health Organization designation
as a country that has eliminated measles, because of outbreaks this year. The
W.H.O. has listed vaccine hesitancy as one of the top threats to global health. As
millions of families face back-to-school medical requirements and forms this
month, the contentiousness surrounding vaccines is heating up again, with
possibly even more fervor.
Though the situation may seem improbable to some, anti-vaccine sentiment has
been building for decades, a byproduct of an internet humming with rumor and
misinformation; the backlash against Big Pharma; an infatuation with celebrities
that gives special credence to the anti-immunization statements from actors like
Jenny McCarthy, Jim Carrey and Alicia Silverstone, the rapper Kevin Gates and
Robert F. Kennedy Jr. And now, the Trump administration’s anti-science rhetoric.
“Science has become just another voice in the room,” said Dr. Paul A. Offit, an
infectious disease expert at Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia. “It has lost its
platform. Now, you simply declare your own truth.” The constituents who make up
the so-called vaccine resistant come from disparate groups, and include anti-
government libertarians, apostles of the all-natural and parents who believe that

doctors should not dictate medical decisions about children. Labeling resisters with
one dismissive stereotype would be wrongheaded.
To just say that these parents are ignorant or selfish is an easy trope,” said
Jennifer Reich, a sociologist at the University of Colorado Denver, who studies
vaccine-resistant families. It remains true that the overwhelming majority of
American parents have their children vaccinated. Parent-driven groups like Voices
for Vaccines, formed to counter anti-vaccination sentiment, have proliferated. Five
states have eliminated exemptions for religious and philosophical reasons,
permitting only medical opt-outs.
83. According to passage, in few states, what could be a legitimate excuse to not to
vaccinate one’s child?
I. Religious II. Philosophical III. Medical
(a) All of the above (c) I and III
(b) None of the above (d) III only
84. Which of the following could be a possible reason/group for anti vaccine ideology?
I. Backlash against corporate
II. Supporters of naturopathy
III. dissenters against the govt.
(a) All of the above (c) I and III
(b) None of the above (d) III only
85. Statement by Dr. Paul A. Offit shows

(a) Science is still spearhead the reason for any discussion
(b) Facts have no place in such discussion
(c) Personal opinion do not have significant role in such discussion
(d) Scientific study or theory do not represent the most important basis in such
discussions
86. If a law is enacted “to make vaccine compulsory for all of its citizens” and another
existing law which gives “right to everyone to decide his/her own way of living”,
then:
(a) Both laws will contradicts each other
(b) Both laws supplement each other
(c) First can be treated as an exception to the second one
(d) Both laws can co exist together
PASSAGE – V
How a country defines who can become its citizens defines what that country is,
because citizenship is really the right to have rights. For India, the choice was
inexplicably made in 1950 when the Constitution was adopted, and Part II
(concerning citizenship) provided citizenship based on domicile in the territory of
India. The Constitution also recognises the power of Parliament to make provisions
with respect to “acquisition and termination of citizenship”. Pursuant to this,
Parliament had enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955; and, religion is not a relevant
criterion for citizenship under the law. This position is now sought to be changed
through the proposed Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 (CAA) that seeks to amend
certain provisions of the 1955 Act. The obvious question on which much of the
debate has so far focused on is whether in a country such as India, with a secular
Constitution, certain religious groups can be preferred in acquisition of citizenship.
Especially when secularism has been declared to be a basic feature of the
Constitution in a multitude of judgments. But in addition to this basic question, a

look at the proposed CAA shows that it is peppered with unconstitutionalities. The
classification of countries and communities in the CAA is constitutionally suspect.
First to the countries. The basis of clubbing Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh
together and thereby excluding other (neighbouring) countries is unclear. A
common history is not a ground as Afghanistan was never a part of British India
and always a separate country. More importantly, why have countries such as
Nepal, Bhutan and Myanmar, which share a land border with India, been
excluded? The reason stated in the ‘Statement of Objects and Reasons’ of the Bill is
that these three countries constitutionally provide for a “state religion”; thus, the
Bill is to protect “religious minorities” in these theocratic states. This reason does
not hold water. Why then is Bhutan, which is a neighbour and constitutionally a
religious state — the official religion being Vajrayana Buddhism — excluded from
the list? Further, if religious persecution of “religious minorities” in the
neighbourhood is the concern, then why has Sri Lanka, which is Buddhist majority
and has a history where Tamil Hindus have been persecuted, been excluded? Why
is also Myanmar, which has conducted a genocide against Muslim Rohingyas,
many of who have been forced to take refuge in India, not been included? The CAA
selection of only these three countries is manifestly arbitrary.
On the classification of individuals, the Bill provides benefits to sufferers of only
one kind of persecution, i.e. religious persecution. This itself is a suspect category.
Undoubtedly, the world abounds in religious persecution but it abounds equally, if
not more, in political persecution. If the intent is to protect victims of persecution,
there is no logic to restrict it only to religious persecution. Further, the assumption
that religious persecution does not operate against co-religionists is also false.
Taslima Nasreen of Bangladesh is a case in point. The fact that atheists are missing
from the list of beneficiaries is shocking.
Restricting the benefits of “religious minority” to six religious’ groups (Hindus,
Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians) is equally questionable. Ahmadiyas
in Pakistan are not recognised as Muslims there and are treated as belonging to a
separate religion. In fact, because they are seen as a religion that has tried to
change the meaning of Islam, they are more persecuted than even Christians or
Hindus. Article 14 of the Constitution of India, prevents the State from denying any
“person” (as opposed to citizen) “equality before the law” or “equal protection of the
laws” within the territory of India. It is not difficult to imagine, how it will not just
deny equal protection of laws to similarly placed persons who come to India as
“illegal migrants” but in fact grant citizenship to the less deserving at the cost of
the more deserving.
87. Which one of the following legal propositions is true in the context of
aforementioned legal article?
(a) Indian Constitution provides detailed legal framework under chapter II from
Article 5 to 11 concerning the Citizenship regime to be applied in India.
(b) Indian Constitution provides detailed legal framework concerning the
Citizenship regime to be applied in India and current Citizenship Amendment
Bill seeks to amend the constitutional provisions of citizenship.
(c) Citizenship regime in India is governed by the provisions of Indian Constitution
under chapter II and Citizenship Act, 1955.
(d) Indian Constitution grants citizenship to people on the basis of religion which
they follow.

88. In the aforesaid legal article, author is focusing on proving that –
(a) Citizenship Amendment Bill is constitutionally valid and the ongoing protests
against CAA are politically motivated.
(b) CAA is only an inclusive law and government has the mandate to decide the
criteria of granting the citizenship to illegal migrants.
(c) CAA is not constitutionally sustainable.
(d) None of the above.
89. Which one of the following arguments cannot be made to argue against the
constitutionality of CAA?
(a) The classification on the basis of religion for granting citizenship is not
sustainable in view of Article 14.
(b) The classification as provided by the government under the CAA on the basis of
migrants belonging to specific countries and disregarding the other migrants
similarly situated is patently arbitrary thus, in violation of the Constitutional
principles.
(c) The classification as provided by the government on the basis of economic
criteria under CAA is arbitrary, thus not constitutional.
(d) Both A and B are correct.
90. Which one of the following propositions would be correct in the context of the
aforementioned legal article?
(a) Religious persecution does not operate against people belonging to the same
religion.
(b) Religious persecution may operate against people belong to the same religion.
(c) There is no religious persecution of Muslims in Pakistan.
(d) There is no religious persecution of Tamils in Sri Lanka.
91. Article 14 affords protection to which one of the following?

(a) Citizens only
(b) Non-Citizens only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Cannot be decided on the basis of aforesaid legal article.
92. CAA is aimed at addressing which one of the following persecutions in

neighbouring countries of Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh?
(a) Political Persecution (c) Linguistic Persecution
(b) Religious Persecution (d) Both A and B
93. Suppose the sole aim of the government behind enacting CAA is to be provide
protection to the minorities who have been persecuted on religious grounds in
neighbouring countries of Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.
Which one of the following facts is likely to show that government’s move in
extending protection to religiously persecuted minorities from these neighbouring
countries is not meant to afford protection to all religiously persecuted minorities in
these neighbouring countries?
(a) Exclusion of persecuted Ahmadiyas
(b) Exclusion of Rohingyas of Myanmar
(c) Exclusion of people belonging to minorities in China
(d) None of the above

PASSAGE – VI
A reading of the Babri Masjid-Ayodhya dispute judgment by Supreme Court reveals
that the outcome is not wholly in line with the evidentiary conclusions the court
itself reaches. It notes that archaeological evidence — procured only because
excavation was made possible by the demolition and as such not available to the
parties at the time of institution of the suits — only shows the existence of a 12th
century Hindu religious structure underneath, but does not prove any demolition
or explain what happened in the intervening centuries. It acknowledges that namaz
was offered at the mosque between 1857 and 1949, and declares that Muslims did
not abandon it, but offers no relief even though their religious rights stand proved.
The entire disputed area covering both the inner and outer courtyards are awarded
to one side contrary to its own conclusion that Muslims had a right, albeit a
contested one, in the inner courtyard. While it holds that Hindus had possessory
right over the entire outer courtyard to the exclusion of Muslims, it does not decide
whether they had exclusive title; on the other hand, it rejects the Muslim claim
solely on the ground that they failed to prove “exclusive title”. Also, the court says
evidence of Hindu worship was available for a period prior to 1857, while there was
proof of namaz only after 1857, without accounting for the fact that it was in that
year that a massive riot took place that led to the British administration putting up
a railing to divide the mosque from the Hindu shrines in the outer courtyard. The
case has been decided on the balance of probabilities that Hindus have proved a
better title than Muslims. While it is true that “preponderance of probablities” is
the standard of proof in civil law, it is doubtful whether this can be invoked to the
exclusion of an acknowledged right belonging to the other side.
94. The author believes that the decision is based on sufficient evidences. Examine the
authenticity of the statement.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) False, as the author’s views are contrary to the reality
(d) Cannot be determined
95. Which of the following can be an inference based on the writing of author?
(a) The dispute has been decided fully
(b) The major part of the dispute has been decided with certainty
(c) The dispute has not been decided wholly
(d) The dispute has been decided completely but with exclusion and
disappointment of a particular class of persons
96. Which, according to the author, is acknowledged by the court while delivering
judgment?
(a) Namaz was not offered at the mosque between 1857 and 1949
(b) Hindus had exclusive title to the disputed site
(c) Hindus had possessory rights to the area in question
(d) Both (a) and (b)
97. Which of the following is the reason why Muslims’ claim for title to the property
was rejected by court according to the passage given above?
(a) There was no possessory title that Muslims could prove.
(b) The Muslims had no title to the property at all and their faith was disputed
(c) The exclusive right on the part of Muslims remained unproven
(d) The court ignored crucial evidence in favor of Muslims while considering less
important ones against them

98. What has been the primary ground based on which the decision by court is given in
the case mentioned in the passage?
(a) Hindus proved the exclusive title to the property
(b) Muslims could not prove their rights better than that of Hindus
(c) Hindus had greater faith in the cause and disputed site
(d) (b) and (c)
99. Which of the following is not an argument opposing the judgment in question?
(a) Indecisiveness of exclusive title to Hindus
(b) Non consideration of crucial events during British era
(c) Muslims had no religious rights
(d) Application of the standard of proof in the given context is suspicious
PASSAGE – VII
India is a young nation long ruled by old laws—its police, for example, are governed
by such colonial-era statutes as the Police Act of 1861, which predates
independence by nearly a century. And its expanding economy requires forward-
looking regulatory mechanisms to foster markets while curbing crony capitalism.
India is also a nation that must come to grips with an ever-widening gulf between
the laws on its books and the dysfunctional, partial and often corrupt manner in
which they are applied. When it comes to procedural effectiveness, India fares
poorly. In the categories of absence of corruption and order and security, India
ranks 83rd and 96th globally. Every element of India’s rule of law supply chain—
including the legislators who draft the laws and the police, prosecutors and courts
who enforce them—is problematic. Indeed, the supply chain, never strong to begin
with, has become deeply broken—threatening not only the rule of law but a belief
in the value of law itself. The country’s legal undergirding is badly outmoded and
constrained by a tendency to pass new laws rather than modify or eliminate old
ones, like the colonial era Police Act. Weak laws yoked to an even weaker
enforcement system virtually guarantee that the powerful will transgress with
abandon. India’s investigative agencies have become politicized and starved of
resources, infrastructure and leadership. While the judiciary has many bright
spots—including the Supreme Court—the courts on the whole face challenges
ranging from vacancies and backlogs to flawed efforts at self-regulation. For far too
long, reform of India’s legal institutions has been seen as a “second order" issue
that could be addressed once critical economic reform measures were dealt with.
This sequencing was shortsighted, given that the rule of law is the sine qua non not
just for sustaining economic activity but also for upholding democracy itself. Many
of the reforms recommended do not entail huge budgetary outlays but effective
implementation. Higher court fees, especially in the case of appeals, can help to
address resource shortfalls. It is time for India to reinvest in its rule of law
machinery. The situation is so dire that even modest changes will have a dramatic
impact.
100. As per the author, which of the following is a better alternate to provide legal
solutions to the problems that country faces?
(a) Amendments in the existing laws (c) Repeal of old laws
(b) Introduction of new laws (d) Both (a) and (c)

101. The following court(s) is not incompetent to perform required tasks according to the
passage?
(a) All courts except high courts
(b) All tribunals and courts of sessions only
(c) All courts excepts Supreme Court
(d) All courts on the whole
102. Which of the following appears to be the main aim of the author in the passage
provided above?
(a) To establish more courts at diverse locations across the country
(b) To come up with more recommendations to improve the judicial system in the
country
(c) To implement the suggestions for judicial reforms
103. As per the passage, which among the following organs of judicial system in India
suffers most from the ineffective implementation?
(a) Policing (b) Arbitrators (c) Lawyers (d) Corporates
104. Which of the following can be inferred most reasonably from the opening statement
of the passage which is also stressed upon throughout the passage as the central
theme?
(a) Ineffective and failed system of investigating agency; police.
(b) Lack of updation and procedural application of laws
(c) Both (a) and (b)
105. The term sine qua non in the passage should mean
(a) Not relevant (b) Not essential (c) Essential (d) Prejudicial

SECTION – IV LOGICAL REASONING

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.106 TO Q.108):
At an enormous research cost, a leading chemical company has developed a
manufacturing process for converting wood fibers into a plastic. According to the
company, this new plastic can be used for, among other things, the hulls of small
sailboats. But what does the company think sailboat hulls used to be made of?
Surely the mania for high technology can scarcely go further than this.
106. The author’s opinion of the manufacturing process described in the passage is
based primarily on the fact that
(a) plastic is unlikely to be durable enough for high-quality sailboat hulls
(b) the research costs of developing the process outweigh any savings possible from
the use of the plastic
(c) a small sailboat is not normally regarded as a high-tech product
(d) hulls for small sailboats can be made from wood without converting it into
plastic
107. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the author’s
conclusion?
(a) The plastic produced by the process is considerably lighter, stronger, and more
watertight than wood.
(b) The wood used in producing the plastic is itself in increasingly short supply.
(c) The cost of the manufacturing process of the plastic increases the cost of
producing a sailboat hull by 10 to 15 percent.
(d) Much of the cost of the research that developed the new process will be written
off for tax purposes by the chemical company.
108. Which of the following, if true, will be considered wastage of money in a similar way
as mentioned in the passage
(a) A food inc. made rice batter which can be used to make instant dosa
(b) Reynolds developed a pen which can work in zero gravity situation
(c) A famous wine producing company extracted a chemical from grapes to
manufacture wine.
(d) Kodak developed a camera that gave instant photo print

We have heard a good deal in recent years about the declining importance of the
two major political parties. It is the mass media, we are told, that decide the
outcome of elections, not the power of the parties. But it is worth noting that no
independent or third-party candidate has won any important election in recent
years, and in the last nationwide campaign, the two major parties raised and spent
more money than ever before in support of their candidates and platforms. It seems
clear that reports of the imminent demise of the two-party system are premature at
best.
109. Which of the following is an assumption made in the argument above?

(a) The amount of money raised and spent by a political party is one valid criterion
for judging the influence of the party.
(b) A significant increase in the number of third-party candidates would be
evidence of a decline in the importance of the two major parties.

(c) The mass media are relatively unimportant in deciding the outcome of most
elections.
(d) The mass media tend to favor an independent or third-party candidate over a
candidate from one of the two major parties.
110. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above?
(a) The percentage of voters registered as independents is higher today than ever
before.
(b) In a recent presidential campaign, for the first time ever, an independent
candidate was invited to appear in a televised debate with the major-party
candidates.
(c) Every current member of the U.S. Senate was elected as the candidate of one of
the two major parties.
(d) In the last four years, the outcome of several statewide elections has been
determined by the strength of the third-party vote.
111. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage as authors main point?
(a) The mass media are relatively unimportant in deciding the outcome of most
elections
(b) Third party is gaining popularity over major two parties
(c) Two major parties are still strong
(d) Third party is still insignificant

From time to time, the press indulges in outbursts of indignation over the use of
false or misleading information by the U.S. government in support of its policies
and programs. No one endorses needless deception. But consider this historical
analogy. It is known that Christopher Columbus, on his first voyage to the New
World, deliberately falsified the log to show a shorter sailing distance for each day
out than the ships had actually traveled. In this way, Columbus was able to
convince his skeptical sailors that they had not sailed past the point at which they
expected to find the shores of India. Without this deception, Columbus’s sailors
might well have mutinied, and the New World might never have been discovered.
112. The author of the passage above assumes each of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Government deception of the press is often motivated by worthy objectives.
(b) Without government deception, popular support for worthwhile government
policies and programs might well fade.
(c) Attacks on the government by the press are often politically motivated.
(d) Deception for deception’s sake should not be condoned.
113. Which of the following is the main weakness of the historical analogy drawn in the
passage above?
(a) The sailors in Columbus’s crew never knew that they had been deceived, while
government deception is generally uncovered by the press.
(b) A ship’s log is a record intended mainly for use by the captain, while press
reports are generally disseminated for use by the public at large.
(c) In a democracy, the people are expected to participate in the nation’s political
decision making, while the members of a ship’s crew are expected simply to
obey the orders of the captain.
(d) The crew of a ship is responsible for the success of a voyage, while the press is
not responsible for the use others make of the factual information it publishes.

114. Which of the following will more closely resemble the analogy used
(a) With a purpose to wage war against Iraq and to end militarily dictatorship in
Iraq, the US falsely claimed that there are mass destruction weapons in Iraq.
(b) Opposition manipulated Narendra Modi’s statement and conveyed that
enormous black money will be recovered and every account holder will receive a
sum of Rs. 15 lacs.
(c) A candidate concealed his testimonials to get a desired job.
(d) None of these

Although its purpose is laudable, the exclusionary rule, which forbids a court to
consider evidence seized in violation of the defendant’s constitutional rights, has
unduly hampered law-enforcement efforts. Even when the rights violation was a
minor or purely technical one, turning on a detail of procedure rather than on the
abrogation of some fundamental liberty, and even when it has been clear that the
police officers were acting in good faith, the evidence obtained has been considered
tainted under this rule and may not even by introduced. In consequence,
defendants who were undoubtedly guilty have been set free, perhaps to steal, rape,
or murder again.
115. The author of the passage above assumes all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) The constitutional rights of criminal defendants should be protected.
(b) Most cases in which the exclusionary rule has been invoked have involved
purely technical violations of constitutional principles.
(c) The number of cases whose outcome has been affected by the exclusionary rule
is significant.
(d) Some of the defendants set free under the exclusionary rule have been guilty of
serious criminal offenses.
116. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse
which of the following proposals?
(a) Change of the exclusionary rule to admit evidence obtained by police officers
acting in good faith
(b) A constitutional amendment curtailing some of the protections traditionally
afforded those accused of a crime
(c) A statute limiting the application of the exclusionary rule to cases involving
minor criminal offenses
(d) Change of the exclusionary rule to allow any evidence, no matter how obtained,
to be introduced in court
117. Which of the following incidence cannot be used to support the author’s point of
view?
(a) The gun used by accused did not match with the one recovered by police from
the scene of crime.
(b) There was no explicit name mentioned of accused in the first information
report/complaint filed by victim
(c) There was no injury mark on the body of alleged rape victim.
(d) Investigation was not completed within a time period of 90 days from the date of
complaint in violation of specific legal obligation

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.118 & Q.119):
In the industrialized nations, the last century has witnessed a shortening of the
average workday from twelve hours or longer to less than eight hours. Mindful of
this enormous increase in leisure time over the past century, many people assume
that the same trend has obtained throughout history, and that, therefore,
prehistoric humans must have labored incessantly for their very survival.
We cannot, of course, directly test this assumption. However, a study of primitive

peoples of today suggests a different conclusion. The Mbuti of central Africa, for
instance, spend only a few hours each day in hunting, gathering, and tending to
other economic necessities. The rest of their time is spent as they choose. The
implication is that the short workday is not peculiar to industrialized societies.
Rather, both the extended workday of 1880 and the shorter workday of today are
products of different stages of the continuing process of industrialization.
118. Which of the following inferences about industrialization is best supported by the
passage above?
(a) People in advanced industrialized societies have more leisure time than those in
non-industrialized societies.
(b) An average workday of twelve hours or more is peculiar to economies in the
early stages of industrialization.
(c) Industrialization involves a trade-off between tedious, monotonous jobs and the
benefits of increased leisure.
(d) It is likely that the extended workday of an industrializing country will
eventually be shortened.
119. Which of the following, if true, would most greatly strengthen the argument made
in the passage above?
(a) In recent decades, the economy of the Mbuti has been markedly affected by the
encroachment of modern civilization.
(b) The life-style of the Mbuti is similar to that of prehistoric humans.
(c) The Mbuti have no words in their language to express the distinction between
work activities and leisure activities.
(d) The workday of a European peasant in medieval times averaged between eleven
and fifteen hours.

Since the passage of the state’s Clean Air Act ten years ago, the level of industrial
pollutants in the air has fallen by an average of 18 percent. This suggests that the
restrictions on industry embodied in the act have worked effectively. However,
during the same period the state has also suffered through a period of economic
decline. The number of businesses in the state has fallen by 10 percent, and the
number of workers employed has fallen by 12 percent. It is probable that the
business decline, rather than the regulations in the act, is responsible for at least
half of the decline in the pollution.
120. Which of following is an assumption made in the passage above?

(a) Most businesses in the state have obeyed the regulations embodied in the Clean
Air Act.
(b) The economic decline of the state can be attributed, in part, to the effects of the
Clean Air Act.
(c) The amount of air pollution in a given area is likely to be proportional to the
number of businesses and workers active in that area.

(d) The Clean Air Act has been only very slightly successful in achieving the goal of
reduced air pollution.
121. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn
in the passage above?
(a) During the last ten years, economic conditions in the nation as a whole have
been worse than those within the state.
(b) Amendments to the Clean Air Act that were enacted six years ago have
substantially strengthened its restrictions on industrial air pollution.
(c) Of the businesses that ceased operating in the state during the last ten years,
only 5 percent were engaged in air-polluting industries.
(d) Several large corporations left the state during the last ten years partly in order
to avoid compliance with the Clean Air Act.

Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture at this time. A survey in
House magazine revealed that 85% of the magazine’s readers are planning to buy a
second home over the next few years. A study of the real estate industry, however,
revealed that the current supply of homes could only provide for 65% of that
demand each year.
122. Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above?
(a) House magazine includes articles about owning a second home as well as
articles about building a second home.
(b) Home builders are not evenly distributed across the country.
(c) The number of people who want second homes has been increasing each year
for the past ten years.
(d) Readers of House magazine are more likely than most people to want second
homes.
123. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment
advice in the paragraph above?
(a) About half of the people who buy homes are investing in their first home.
(b) Only a quarter of those who claim that they want a second home actually end
up purchasing one.
(c) About half of the people who buy homes have to take out a mortgage to do so.
(d) Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first two weeks.

Local phone companies have monopolies on phone service within their areas. Cable
television can be transmitted via the wires that are already in place and owned by
the phone companies. Cable television companies argue that if the telephone
companies were to offer cable service, these telephone companies would have an
unfair advantage, because their cable transmissions could be subsidized by the
profits of their monopolies on phone service.
124. Which of the following, if true, would ease the cable companies’ fear of unfair
competition?
(a) In order to use existing telephone wire, telephone companies would need to
modernize their operations, a process so expensive it would virtually wipe out
all profit from their monopoly for the foreseeable future.
(b) If a phone company were to offer cable service within a particular area, it would
have a monopoly within that area.

(c) The cost of television service, whether provided by cable or telephone
companies, scales; that is, the total cost of transmission rises only marginally
as more homes are added to the network.
(d) Cable programming that offers more channels is already available through
satellite dish, but the initial cost of the dish is extremely high.
125. On the basis of the information provided in the passage above, which of the
following questions can be answered?
(a) Is it expected that phone companies will have a monopoly on cable service?
(b) If phone companies were allowed to provide cable service, would they want to do
so?
(c) Do the cable companies believe that the local phone companies make a profit on
phone service?
(d) Are local phone companies forbidden to offer cable service?

In the past, teachers, bank tellers, and secretaries were predominantly men; these
occupations slipped in pay and status when they became largely occupied by
women. Therefore, if women become the majority in currently male-dominated
professions like accounting, law, and medicine, the income and prestige of these
professions will also drop.
126. The argument above is based on

(a) another argument that contains circular reasoning
(b) an attempt to refute a generalization by means of an exceptional case
(c) an analogy between the past and the future
(d) an appeal to popular beliefs and values
127. Which of the following, if true, would most likely be part of the evidence used to
refute the conclusion above?
(a) Accountants, lawyers, and physicians attained their current relatively high
levels of income and prestige at about the same time that the pay and status of
teachers, bank tellers, and secretaries slipped.
(b) When large numbers of men join a female-dominated occupation, such as
airline flight attendant, the status and pay of the occupation tend to increase.
(c) The demand for teachers and secretaries has increased significantly in recent
years, while the demand for bank tellers has remained relatively stable.
(d) The pay and status of female accountants, lawyers, and physicians today are
governed by significantly different economic and sociological forces than were
the pay and status of female teachers, bank tellers, and secretaries in the past.

Professor A: We must make a strong moral statement against Country X’s policies.
Only total divestment—the sale of all stock in companies that have factories or
business offices in X—can do this. Therefore, the university should divest totally.
Professor B: Our aim should be to encourage X to change its policies. Partial
divestment is the best way to achieve this aim. Therefore, the university should sell
its stock only in companies that either sell goods to X’s government, or do the
majority of their business in X, or treat their workers in X unfairly.
128. Professor A’s and Professor B’s arguments differ in which of the following ways?
(a) They state the same goal but propose different ways of achieving it.
(b) They state different goals but propose the same way of achieving them.

(c) They state different goals and propose different ways of achieving them.
(d) They disagree about whether X’s policies are objectionable.
129. Which of the following, if true, would be evidence that the university would not be
harmed economically if it followed Professor A’s recommendation.
(a) If the university sold large blocks of stock under a policy of total divestment, the
prices of the stocks of the companies whose stocks were sold would probably
decrease somewhat.
(b) Most companies that have factories or business offices in X and in which the
university owns stock actually do little of their business in X.
(c) Some companies that have factories or business offices in X and in which the
university owns stock have instituted fair treatment policies for their workers in
X at very little additional cost to the companies.
(d) The expected financial return to the university from stocks that the university
could own under a policy of total divestment is approximately the same as the
expected financial return from the same as the expected financial.
130. Y has been believed to cause Z. A new report, noting that Y and Z are often
observed to be preceded by X, suggests that X, not Y, may be the cause of Z.
Which of the following further observations would best support the new report’s
suggestion?
(a) In cases where X occurs but Y does not, X is usually followed by Z.
(b) In cases where X occurs, followed by Y, Y is usually followed by Z.
(c) In cases where Y occurs but X does not, Y is usually followed by Z.
(d) In cases where Y occurs but Z does not, Y is usually preceded by X.
DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.131):

Mr. Primm: If hospitals were private enterprises, dependent on profits for their
survival, there would be no teaching hospitals, because of the intrinsically high
cost of running such hospitals.
Ms. Nakai: I disagree. The medical challenges provided by teaching hospitals
attract the very best physicians. This, in turn, enables those hospitals to
concentrate on nonroutine cases.
131. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen Ms. Nakai’s attempt to refute
Mr. Primm’s claim?
(a) Doctors at teaching hospitals command high salaries.
(b) Sophisticated, nonroutine medical care commands a high price.
(c) Existing teaching hospitals derive some revenue from public subsidies.
(d) The modern trend among physicians is to become highly specialized.

It is undeniable that some very useful analogies can be drawn between the
relational systems of computer mechanism and the relational systems of brain
mechanism. The comparison does not depend upon any close resemblance between
the actual mechanical links which occur in brains and computers; it depends on
what the machines do. Further more, brains and computers can both be organized
so as to solve problems. The mode of communication is very similar in both the
cases, so much so that computers can now be designed to generate artificial
human speech and even, by accident, to produce sequences of words which human
beings recognize as poetry. The implication is not that machines are gradually
assuminghu man forms, but that there is no sharp break of continuity between
what is human, what is mechanical.

132. From the passage, it is evident that the author thinks
(a) computers are now naturally programmed to produce poetry.
(b) computers are likely to usurp the place of intellectual superiority accorded to
the human brain.
(c) the resemblance that the computer bears to the human brain is purely
mechanical.
(d) the unintentional mixing up of word sequences in the computer can result in
poetry.
133. Computers have acquired a proven ability of performing many of the functions of
the human brain because
(a) the brain of modern man is unable to discharge its functions properly on
account of over-reliance on machines.
(b) the sophisticated computer mechanism is on the verge of outstripping human
mental faculties.
(c) the process of organizing and communicating are similar in both cases.
(d) the mechanics of the human brain have been introduced in the computer.
134. The resemblance between the human brain and the computer is
(a) imaginary. (b) intellectual. (c) mechanical. (d) functional.
135. Points of dissimilarity between the human brain and the computer don’t extend to
(a) the faculty of composing poetry. (c) the faculty of composing poetry.
(b) methods of communication. (d) the faculty of speaking naturally

SECTION – V QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.136 TO Q.138): These questions are based on
the table given below:
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given
schedule: for example specification takes first two months, designing takes next
two months and coding takes next three months etc.
Cost (Rs.'000
Month Stage
per man-month)
1-2 Specification 40
3-4 Design 20
5-8 Coding 10
9- 10 Testing 15
11-15 Maintenance 10
The number of people employed in each month is:

Month 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
No .of people employed 2 3 4 3 4 5 5 4 4 1 3 3 1 1 1
136. Among the option, which stage is consuming the highest cost in the process
(Assuming manpower cost is the only cost required).
(a) Testing (c) Coding
(b) Specification (d) Design
137. Which five consecutive months have the lowest average cost per man-month under
the new technique?
(a) 1 – 5 (c) 11 – 15
(b) 9 – 13 (d) None of these
138. What is the difference in the cost between the old and the new techniques?
(a) Rs. 30,000 (c) Rs. 70,000
(b) Rs. 60,000 (d) Rs. 40,000

the following graphs:
Distribution of candidates studying Arts and Commerce from Seven different

institutes A, B, C, D, E, F, and G
Total Number of Students Studying Arts = 3800

G A
12% 15%
F B
13% 8%
E C
14% 17%
D
21%
Total Number of Students Studying Commerce = 4200
G A
12% 12%
F
B
13%
17%
E
17% C
15%
D
14%
139. What is the ratio between the number of student studying Arts from Institute E and
commerce from Institute D respectively?
(a) 17 : 19 (b) 19 : 27 (c) 14 : 19 (d) 19 : 21
140. What is the total number of students studying Arts from Institutes A and G
together?
(a) 1102 (b) 918 (c) 966 (d) 1026
141. How many students are studying Commerce from Institutes B and D together?
(a) 1158 (b) 1302 (c) 1232 (d) 1272
142. How many students are studying Arts and Commerce from Institute ‘B’?
(a) 1418 (b) 2000 (c) 1018 (d) 1208

the table and information given below:
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in
the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding
that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or
less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the
same group of children in a similar format. Assume that an older child is always
taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.

Table A Table B Table C

Height Weight
Age (year) Number Number Number
(cm) (kg).
4 9 115 6 30 8
5 12 120 11 32 13
6 22 125 24 34 17
7 35 130 36 36 28
8 42 135 45 38 33
9 48 140 53 40 46
10 60 145 62 42 54
11 69 150 75 44 67
12 77 155 81 46 79
13 86 160 93 48 91
14 100 165 100 50 100
143. Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many
weight more than 38 Kg?
(a) 34 (c) 44
(b) 52 (d) Data insufficient
144. How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm. and do not
weight more than 48 kg?
(a) 16 (c) 9
145. What is the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed
135 cm?
(a) 48 (c) 3
DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.146 TO Q.150): Three friends, Chand,

Chandni, and Chanchal went to a shopping centre. Each of them had Rs. 2500. In
the shopping centre, the session sale discount was 10% on the marked price.
Chandni and Chanchal were regular customers so they got 20% each an additional
discount on the discounted price but Chand being a new customer didn’t get any
additional discount. Only Chanchal had a membership card of the shopping centre
which gave an additional discount of 25% on the discounted price. They all like
Juicers of xyz brand and they purchased one piece each of that brand. The marked
price of each piece was same. In last, when they calculated then they found that
Chandni had paid Rs. 360 more than that of Chanchal.

146. If all of them combine the money paid for Juicer then, the total money paid by
them for three pieces of the juicers was what percentage of the total marked price
of the three juicers?
(a) 62% (b) 72% (c) 78% (d) 68%
147. The amount paid by Chand for the juicer was how much more than that by
Chanchal?
(a) 45% (b) 50% (c) 55.33% (d) 66.67%
148. What is the ratio of the amount paid by Chand to that by Chanchal?
(a) 9 : 7 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 6 : 5 (d) 5 : 3
149. How much money was left with Chand after purchasing the juicer?
(a) Rs. 900 (b) Rs. 500 (c) Rs. 700 (d) Rs. 750
150. What was the marked price of the juicer?

(a) Rs. 1800 (b) Rs. 2400 (c) Rs. 2000 (d) Rs. 2150


NLU SELECTIONS IN 2019
CLAT RESULT - 2018

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NLU Kolkata
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TOTAL Q.

OPEN MOCK CLAT OFFLINE

TIME TOTAL RIGHT WRONG NET

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Generations of writers on management have recognized that some practicing

Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes of senior managers reveals

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19. According to the passage, a “hygiene factor” is an aspect of a worker’s performance

20. The primary purpose of the passage is to

In the health-care industry, the doctor-patient relationship is the mirror image of

This is particularly significant in relation to hospital care. The physician must

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21. The author’s primary purpose is to

24. The author is most probably leading up to

25. The tone of the passage can best be described as

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SECTION – II GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

What Article 370 means

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31. Which article has been replaced by (X)

33. Which of the personality has been replaced by (Z)?

According to a BCCI release, Shaw had "inadvertently ingested a prohibited

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(X), a specified substance, is prohibited both in and out of Competition in the

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Will (X) help cricketers?

According to BCCI's anti-doping manager Dr. Abhijit Salvi, (X) is unlikely to

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35. Which prohibited substance has been replaced by (X)?

36. Which former Indian player has been replaced by Mr (Y)?

37. Who was the first BCCI president

38. What is the motto of the Nobel Prize summit?

39. When was the first Nobel Peace Prize awarded?

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41. First Nobel prize summit will be held at

42. Which organisation has been replaced by (X) in the passage?

Asked about Mangalyaan 2, he said work is going on and there is no decision on it

The data from MOM helped produce 23 publications in peer-reviewed journals, it

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45. Which of the following is the heaviest rocket of India?

47. What is true about Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)?

48. Where is Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) situated?

The pan-India implementation of the contentious National Register of Citizens

In Assam, the Supreme Court mandated and monitored exercise caused

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49. Which year has been replaced by (XX)?

50. Why march 24, 1971

51. NRC was first prepared in which year?

52. When was Assam final NRC list released?

In December 2019, EU leaders reconfirmed their aim of establishing the closest

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54. Name the personality who has been replaced by (1)

55. Currently how many members are in the European Union?

57. Where is the headquarters of the EU?

58. Which of the following was/were the objective of the EU?

59. Who is the current President of the European Commission?

In another round of boosters for the economy, Finance Minister Niramala

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