1.This corresponds to the time required for a 6.

Which of the following can increase gactric

drug to reach the a minimum effective emptying rate?
concentration (MEC)
a. administration of metoclopramide
a.onset of action d.Cmax
b.vigorous exercise
b. intensity e. AUC

c. duration od action c. cold beverages

2.it is the delivery of the active pharmaceutical d. lying in the left side
ingredients from a dosage form into solution
e. consumption of high fat meal
a. Dissolution d. Absorption
7. Route of administration in which the drug
b. Liberation e. Permeation (in lotion, ointment, cream, paste, or patch) is
placed on the skin for systemic absorption
c. Disposition

3. How much of a 500 mg dose is bioavailbale a. topical d. buccal

if the administered drug has F of 75%
b. intracutaneous e. epidermal
a. 500 mg d.50 mg
c. transdermal
b.375 mg e. 5 mg
8. Metered dose aerosols sare exa,ples of
c. 125 mg which route of administration?

4. Which of the following is the major process a. intranasal d. inhalational

of absorption for most drugs?
b. alveolar e. peroral
a. Passive Diffusion d. Vesicular transport
c. respiratory
b. Active transport e. Convective transport
9. which of the following routes of
c. Facilitated Diffusion administration has/have no first-pass effect

5. For most drugs, which part of the I.buccal

gastrointestinal tract is the optimum site for
II. sublingual
drug absorption after the oral administration?
III. oral
a. Buccal cavity
IV. rectal
b. stomach
a. I only
c. duodenum b. II only
c. I & II
d. jejunum d. III only
e. I, II and IV
e. colon
10. Which of the following is the plasma level 15. Which of the following products are
time curve of an open intravascular two- considered to be pharmaceutical equivalents?
compartment model
a. Mefenamic acid 250 mg cap & mefenamic
a. log C d. acid 500 mg cap

b. amlodipine besylate (innovator) 10 mg

tab & amlodipine besylate (generic) 10 mg
t tab
b.log C e. c. amoxicillin 500 mg cap & amoxicillin 250
mg/mL susp.

d. Clindamycin HCl 300 mg cap & clindamycin

t
phosphate 150 mg/mL amp x 4 mL
c. C
e. Paracetamol (Brand A) 500 mg tab &
t paracetamol (Brand B) 500 mg cap

11. If the AUc for the Phenobarbital 16. Which of the following drug products are
administered orally by tablet is 6.5 mcg/mL x considered to be pharmaceutical alternatives?
hr and the AUC for the Phenobarbital solution
a. Cephalexin 500 mg cap & cefalexin 500 mg
can give th the same dose and route is 8.4
cap
mcg/mL calculate the relative bioavailability of
the drug. b. propranolol 10 mg tab (branded) &
propranolol 10 mg tab (unbranded)
a. 129.23% d. 56. 38%
c. nifedipine 5 mg cap & nifedipine 20 mg
b. 100% e. 43.62%
mg GITS tab
c. 77.38%
d. Ranitidine HCl (local) 150 mg tab &
12. This is the process by which a solid drug ranitidine HCl (imported) 150 mg tab
substance becomes dissolved in a solvent
17. This describes the passive diffusion of the
a. Liberation d. Dissolution drugs across the gastrointestinal blood barrier

b. Disintegration e. Dispersion a. fick’s first law d. Clausius-Clapeyon

c. Gastric Emptying b. noye’s-whitney equation e. Raoult’s law

14. These products are the first ones to be c. Henderson-Hasselbach Equation

patented or granted certain exclusivities
18. Bioequivalence can be assessed using
a. generic medicines d. market leader which of the following methods?

b. innovator products e. reference I. in vivo pharmacokinetics studies involving

plasma or urine drug concentrations as a
c. multi source drug products function of time

II. in vivo pharmacodynamic studies

III. comparative clinical trials a. Class 1 d. Class 4

IV. comparative in vitro studies b. Class 2 e. Class 5

a.I only c. Class 3

b. I,II
c. III only 24. Enteric coating used to:
d. I to II
e. I to IV I. mask the taste or odor of a drug

19. Among the following oral drug II. minimize irritation of gastric mucosa by the
formulations ehich is considered to be the drug
most bioavailable?
III. protect the drug from moisture, light, air
a. solution d, powder
IV. prevent inactivation or degradation of the
b. suspension e. granule drug in the stomach

c. emulsion V. delay the release of the drug until the

dosage from the reaches the small intestine,
20. Dispensing ibuprofen instead of naproxen where the condition for absorption may be
is an example of: optimal
a. generic dispensing d. therapeutic a. I & II d.II, IV & V
b. pharmaceutical substitution equivalence
c. pharmaceutical equivalence e.therapeutic b. II & IV e. I to V
substitution
c. V only
21. a drug has high solubility but lov\w
permeability may be classified based on the 25. This is an indication of the lipid solubility of
Biopharmaceutics classification system as: a drug and its likelihood of being transported
acroos membrane.
a. Class 1 d. Class 4
a. polymorphism d. pKa
b. Class 2 e. Class 5
b, permeability e. partition coefficient
c. Class 3
c. pH
22. Which of the following physicochemical
properties of a drig will result to a faster 26. This refers to the systemic availability of a
dissolution rate? drug after extravascular administration
compared to IV dosing.
a. small surface area d. amorphous form
a. bioavailability d. absolute bioavailability
b. unionized form e. large particle size
b. bioequivalence e. therapeutic equivalence
c. high partition coefficient
c. relative bioavailability
23. in the BCS class the drug dissolves rapidly
and is well absorbed and bioavailability 27. Parameters used to assess bioavailability/
problem is not expected for immediate-release biotaquivalence using plasma drug
drug products concentration
a. tmax, Cmax d. t, Du 32. In the generalized plasma level time curve
shown below, which letter corresponds to the
b. tmax, Cmax, AUC e.t,Du dDu /dt intensity of action?
c.tmax, Emax D
28, Durgs given by this route of administration In C C
are considered to be 100% bioavailable
B
a. Oral d. subcutaneous
b. Sublingual e. intramuscular A
c. Intravenous
a. A d. D
29. Which of the following is NOT an
extended-release drug product? b. B e. E

a. sustained release capsule c. C

b. enteric-coated tablet 33. Pharmaceutical Equivalents are drug

products that have the same
c. slow-release tablet
I. active pharmaceutical ingredients (API)
d. prolonged-action drug product
II. chemical form of the API
e. repeat-action tablet
III. dosage form
30.This term is applied to a regulatory
approval process in which an application is IV. dosage strength
approved based on experience of equivalence
of a generic drug bioequivalence/in vivo V. route of administration
equivalence testing.
VI. standards of identity, strength, quality and
a. dossier d. biowaiver purity

b. abbreviated new drug application (ANDA) a. I,II d, I to V

b. II,III, IV e. I to VI
c. in vivo-in vitro correlation (IVIVC) c. I, II, III

e. clinical trials 34. This reference identifies drug

productsapproved on the basis of safety and
31. This refers to the trade name of the drug effectiveness by the US FDA and contains
product which is privately qwned by the therapeutic equivalence evaluation for
manufacturer or distributor and is used to approved multisource prescription drug
distinguish is the specific drug product from products
those of competitors.
a. USP/NF d. Essential Drug list
a. generic name d. market name b. Orange book
c. PNDF
b. chemical name e. INN
35. Which of the following methods is used to
c. brand name determine AUC?
a.feathering d.analysis of variance (ANOVA) 40. The processes of drug metabolism and
excretion constitute
b. back-extrapolation e. two one sided test
a. deposition d. biotransformation
c. trapezoidal rule
b. elimination e. clearance
36. Pharmaceutical alternatives are products
that have the same c. accumulation

I. active pharmaceutical ingredients (API) 41. It is the term used to describe the
accidental fast release of drug from a
II. chemical form of the API sustained release dosage form
III. dosage form a. liberation d. flip flop model
IV. dosage strength b. steady state e. first pass effect
V. route of administration c. dose dumping
VI. standards of identity, strength, quality and 42. This is the rate and extent to which the
purity active pharmaceutical ingredient or active
moiety is absorbed from a drug product and
a. I only d. I, V
b. III, IV, V e. I to IV becomes available at the site of action
c. I, III, IV
a. area under the curve (AUC)
37. It refers to the finished dosage form that
b. maximum plasma drug concentration
contains the active drug ingredient generally,
(Cmax)
but not necessarily in association with inactive
ingredients c. bioavailability
a. formulation d. Drug delivery system d. bioequivalence
b. therapeutic moiety e. reference listed drug e. therapeutic equivalence
c. drug product 43. This is a measure of the quantity of the
drug in the body and ref;ects the total amount
39. This must be filed by generic drug
of active drug that reaches the systemic
manufacture for approval to market a generic
circulation.
drug product
a. area under the curve (AUC)
a. abbreviated new drug application
(ANDA) b. maximum plasma drug concentration
(Cmax)
b. new drug application (NDA)
c. bioavailability
c. investigational new drug application (INDA)
d. bioequivalence
d. biowaiver
e. therapeutic equivalence
e. BA/BE study
44. This established when pharmaceutical c. 30
equivalents or alternatives display comparable
bioavailabilities when studied under similar 48. For drugs that have very poor aqueous
experimental conditions solubility the rate limiting step on drug
bioavailability is:
a. area under the curve (AUC)
a. disintegration d. gastric emptying
b. maximum plasma drug concentration
(Cmax) b. dissolution e. disaggreagetion

c. bioavailability c. permeation

d. bioequivalence 49. Which of the following is NOT true?

e. therapeutic equivalence a. The amorphous form of the drug generally

45. Therapeutic equivalence is established
when the drug prosuct being compared are:
I. approved as safe and effective
II. pharmaceutical equivalents or alternatives
dissolves faster
b. Polymorphs have the same chemical
structures and physical properties
c. Some excipients are intentionally added to
delay drug absorption

III. bioequivalent d. smaller particles size increases dissolution

rate
IV. manufactured in compliance to cGMP
e. a basic drug is more soluble in an acidic
IV. adequately labeled medium
a. I only 50. The tmax of a drug refers to its time:
b. III only
c. I, II, III a. of the fastest dissolution
d. I to IV
e. I to V b.to reach maximum drug concentration
46 To establish bioequivalence the calculated c. of highest solubility
confidence interval should fail within the
usually prescribed limit of ___ for the ratio of d. to reach maximum toxic concentration
the product averages
e. of maximum effectiveness
a. 50-100% d, 95-100%
b. 90-110% e. 80-125% 51. In the LADMER system, R stands for?
c. 80-120%
a. Reabsorption d. Response
47. Generally, two drug product formulations
b. Recirculation e. Residence
whose rate and extent of absorption differ by
__% or less are considered bioequivalent. c. Reactivation

a. 50 d. 20 52. It is the study of how the physicochemical

properties of a drug, dosage forms and route
b.40 e. 10
s of administration affect the rate and extent of 58. Example of a targeted drug delivery
drug absorption. system

a. LADMER system d. Biopharmaceutics a. osmotic pumps d. cyclodextrins

b. Pharmaceutics e. Pharmacokinetics b. enteric-coated tablets e. implants

c. Physical Pharmacy c. liposomes

53. This is actual site of pharmacologic action 59. This concept views the cell membrane as
of drugs in the body being composed of a non-rigid lipid matrix with
which are associated relatively mobile protein
a. compartment d. cytosol masses that penetrate wholly or partially
through the lipid layer
b. biophase e. plasma
A lipid bilayer model d. fluid mosaic
c. cell membrane
b. phospolipid matrix theory
54. Which of the following absorption
mechanism operate along concentration c. lipoprotein compartment e.unit membrane
gradient?
60. This refers to the ability of a drug to exixt
I. passive diffusion II. Active transport in more than one crystalline form.
III. facilitiated diffusion IV, vesicular transport a. amphoterism d ionization
a. I only b. crystallization e. complexation
b. III only
c. I and III c. polymorphism
d. D. II and IV
e. I to IV 61. Dissolution rate differ for hydrated and
anhydrous forms of a drug however, the most
55. This is the fraction of an administered
usual situation is:
dose of a drug that reaches the systemic
circulation in the unchanged form. a. the anhydrous form dissolves faster
a. bioavailable dose d. dumped dose b. the hydrated form dissolves faster
b. loading dose e. oral dose c. the anhydrous and hydrated forms have
equal dissolution rates
c. maintenance dose
d. the hydrated form has no effect on
56. a 125 mg/mL drug suspension decompose
dissolution
with a zero order rate constant of 0.5
mg/mL/hr. What is the concentration of the e. the anhydrous form has no effect on
active drug remaining after 3 days dissolution
a. 125 d. 89 62. Equivalence are not necessary for which
of the following products
b. 123.5 e. 62
I. Parenteral aqueous solution
c. 100
II. Pharmaceutically equivalent oral solutions b. parenteral e. topical

III. pharmaceutically equivalents topical c. rectal

solutions
67. Which of the following is NOT an enteral
IV. products containing drugs with narrow route of drug administration
therapeutic indices
a. sublingual d. peroral
a. I only
b. IV only b. buccal e. NONE
c. II and III
d. I to III c. rectal
e. I to IV
68. Which of the following compounds may be
63. Which of the following transport absorbed via convective transport?
mechanism does not require a drug to be in
aqueous solution in order to be absorbed? a. Vitamin B12 d. fats

a. passive diffusion d. ion transport b. inorganic and inorganic electrolytes

b. convective transport e. vesicular
c. carrier mediated transport
64. These are added to a formulation to
provide certain functional properties to the
drug and dosage form
a. prodrugs d.excipients
with molecular weights up to 400
c. most weal organic acids and bases
e. quaternary ammonium compounds
69. Determine the half-life of an
antihypertensive drug if it appears to be
eliminated from the body at a rate constant of
0.07 hour. Assume first order kinetics occurs.

b. xenobiotics e. active ingredients a. 12 d. 4

c. probiotics b. 9.9 e. 1.5

65. The LADMER system is essential in the : c. 7

a. development of dosage forms 70. Which of the following statements is NOT

b. determinations of pharmacokinetic
parameters
c. evaluation of bioavailability
d. adjustment of dosage regimen
e. all of the given choices
66. This is the most common and popular
route of the drug administration
a. oral d. buccal
true?
a. a cell membrane is a semipermeable
structure composed of lipids and proteins
b, Drugs bound to protein do not easily cross
cell membranes
c.Ionic or polar, water- soluble drugs cross
cell membrane more easily than do
nonpolar, lipid soluble drugs.
d. low molecular weights drugs diffuse across
cell membrane more easily than do high
molecular weight drugs
e. drugs may transported by passive diffusion,
carrier-mediated, paracellular or vesicular
transports
71. most drugs are:
a. In general, salts of electrolytes dissolve
faster than the free acids or bases
b. the most stable polymorphs has the lowest
dissolution rate

a. strong electrolytes d. weak bases c. Increasing amounts of binders in grabukes

and tablets prolong dissolution time.
b. non electrolytes e. C and D
d. Increasing amounts of lubricants
c. weak acids shortens dissolution time
72. Which of the following is/are forms of e. particle size reduction is not a universal
vesicular transport that differ by the type of answer to all drugs of low solubility
material ingested?
77. The enormous surface are of the
a. I only d. III and IV gastrointestinal tract is due to presence of:
b. III only e. I to IV a. enzymes d. tight junctions
c. I and II b. microvilli e. gastric pits
73. the drug is injected into the spinal fluid c. parietal cells
a. intraarticular d. intrathecal 78. In oral drug administration, the drug is
swallowed undergoes absorption from the
b. epidural e. intrasynovial
gastrointestinal tract through the mesenteric
c. intracranial circulation to the ___ into the liver and then to
the systemic circulation
74. Which of the following is NOT a
characteristic of active transport? a. hepatic portal vein d. jugular vein

a. drug moves along concentration b. biliary duct e. superior vena cava

b. process requires expenditure of energy c. aorta

c. requires a carrier 79. A condition in which the rate of drug

leaving the body is equal to the rate of drug
d. saturable at high drug concentration entering the body.

e. process is subject to competition a. double-peak phenomenon d.steady state

75. These are addition compounds of drugs b. flip-flop model e. therapeutic window
and organic solvents
c. first-pass effect
a. hydrates d. clathrates
80. The route of drug administration that is
b. solvates e. chelates preffered when rapid absorption is essential,
when patients are inconscious or unable to
c. polymorphs
accept medications by mouth or when drugs
76. Which of the following statements is false?
are destroted, inactivated or poorly absorbed d.Noyes-whitney equation
in the GIT.
e. Van slyke’s equation
a. peroral d. rectal
85. which of the following parameters will
b. sublingual e. transdermal determine the degree of drug ionizations?

c.parenteral I. lipid/ water coefficient of the drug

81. Type of parenteral administration in which II. pH at the absorption rate

the drug is injected slowly into the plasma at a
constant or zero-order rate III. pKa of the drug

a. IV push d. IM a. I only
b. I and II
b. IV bolus e. SQ c. I and III
d. II and III
c. IV infusion e. I,II and III

82. The pharmacological effect of a drug 86. What is the minimum percent of drug that
depends on the percentage of receptors must be in the nonionized form at the small
occupied intestine in order to be absorbed via passive
diffusion
a. lock and key hypothesis
a. 0.1% to 1% d. 50% to 60%
b. hypothesis of paton
b.1 to 5% e. 80% to 90%
c. hypotheses of Ariens and Stephenson
c. 10 to 20%
d. hypothesis of clark
87. The partition coefficient is a/an:
e. occupation theory
a. in vitro guide to the absorption potential of a
83. the drug molecules is bound to the surface drug
of the skin or mucosa by ion-binding,
hydrogen-binding or van der waals forces: b. measure of the relative affinity of a drug for
two immiscible phases\c. indicator for storage
a. absorption d.permeation of drugs in fat

b. penetration e. leaching d. parameter of the relative rate of partitioning

c. adsorption
84. It describes the diffusion-controlled rate of
drug dissolution
a. Henderson-hasselbach equation
b. fick’s law of diffusion
c. Michaelis-menten equation
from one phase into another
e. all of the given choices
88. This is the time from drug administration to
reach the minimum effective concentration
(MEC)
a. onset d. therapeutic window
b. intensity e.area under the curve(AUC)
c. duration of action b. cyclohexane e. octanol

90. This refers to the drug concentration range c. isopropyl myristate

between the minimum effective concentration
(MEC) and the minimum toxic concentration 95. Maximum volume to be injected via the
(MTC) intramuscular route:

a. onset d. therapeutic window a. 0.5 mL d. 5 mL

b. intensity e. area under curve b. 1 mL e. 10 mL

c. duration of action c. 2 mL

91. This describes the relationship between 96. This is the dose used in initiating therapy
the ionized and the nonionized forms of a so as to yield therapeutic concentration which
drug as a function of pH and pKa. will result in clinical effectiveness

a. Law of Multiple proportions a. daily dose d. loading dose

b. Nerst Distribution Law b. first dose e. effective dose

c. Henderson-Hasselbatch equation c. prophylactic dose

d. common-ion effect 97. This is the dose required to maintain the

clinical effectiveness or therapeutic
e. partition coefficient concentration according to the dosage
regimen.
92. Which of the following is a common site
for IM injection? a. therapeutic dose d. priming dose

a. gluteus medius d. gluteus maximus b. maintenance dose e. effective dose

b. thigh e. ebdomen c. steady-state dose

c. gastrocnemius 98. Cmax represents the maximum drug

concentration obtained after oral
93. It refers to the time for which the drug administration of a drug in the:
concentration remains above the minimum
effective concentration (MEC) a. plasma d feces

a. duration of action d. Cmax b. urine e. sweat

b. intensity e. onset c. saliva

c. tmax 99. This is an entity which can be described

by a definite volume and a concentration of
94. Which of the following oil phases is most drug contained in that volume
commonly used in partition coefficient
determination? a. biophase d. compartment

a. chloroform d. mineral oil b. bulk phase e. depot phase

c. diffusion layer acts by adsorption to the skin or mucosa, but
does not enter the systemic blood circulations
100. Order reaction in which the concentration
of a drug is decreasing at a rate that is a. systemic effect d. biological response
proportional to the concentration of the drug
remaining: b. local effect e. dermal effect

a. zero d. third c. therapeutic response

b. first e. fourth 105. This is obtained when the drug released

the drug product enters the bloodstream and
c. second is distributed within the body regardless of the
site and route of administration
101. Facilitated diffusion is similar to active
transport since it: a. systemic effect d. biological
response
a. operates against concentration gradient
b. local effect e. dermal effect
b. utilizes energy in the form of ATP
c. therapeutic effect
c. is carrier mediated
106. This is the process with the slowest rate
d. None of the choices constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic
processes.
e. all of the given choices
a. zero-order kinetics d. rate-limiting step
102. Decreased particle size results to:
b. first-order kinetics e. clearance
a. increased particle surface area
c. half-life
b. enhanced water penetration into particles
107. These are inactive substances that must
c. increased dissolution rate
be biotransformed in the body to metabolites
d. none of the choices that have pharmacologic activity

e. all of the above a. xenobiotics d. therapeutic moieties

103. when drug is half ionized and half b. lead compounds e. orphan drugs
nonionized at a certain pH, its pKa is:
c. prodrugs
a. greater than pH d. of no value
108. Reabsorption of drugs can occur in the
b. less than pH e. constant
I. kidneys
c. equal to pH
II. liver
104. This is obtained when the drug product is
III. small intestines
administered at the site where the
pharmacological response is desired and a. Ionly
when the drug released from the products b. II only
c. III only
 d. I and II 113. According to the Fick’s Law, the rate of
e. I and III diffusion of a drug is:

a. independent of the concentration

gradient
109. The form of the drug that is absorbed: b. inversely proportional to the surface
area of the membrane
I. nonionized
c. inversely proportional to the
II. ionized membrane thickness
d. inversely proportional to the partition
III. lipid-soluble coefficient of the drug
e. independent of the diffusion coefficient
IV. water-soluble of the drug

a. I only 115. Highly lipid soluble drugs are

b. II only predominantly distributed in which of the
c. I and III following tissues?
d. II and IV
e. I to IV a. bone
b. adipose
110. What is the % of ionized species of a c. muscle
weak acid with a pKa of 4.2 in a urine pH of d. hepatic
6.2? e. renal

a. 0.1 116. These are substances that have no

b. 1 pharmacological properties of their own in the
c. 10 concentration used, but which can improve
d. 90 the penetration of drugs into the skin or
e. 99
mucosa.
111. Which of the following is devoid of
a. humectants
clotting proteins? b. emollients
c. sorption promoters
a. blood d. wetting agents
b. plasma e. solubilizers
c. serum
d. both B and C 117. Absorption mechanism in which drug
e. all of the given choices
molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at
112. Drug entering the body does not instantly the absorption site move along with the
distribute between the blood and those other solvent through membrane pores:
body fluids or tissues which it eventually
a. passive diffusion
reaches b. active transport
c. facilitated diffusion
a. open one-compartment model d. convective transport
b. open two-compartment model e. ion-pair transport
c. multi-million compartment model
d. central compartment 118.Which of the following absorption
e. peripheral compartment
mechanisms operate(s) against concentration
gradient?
I. passive diffusion c. improve functioning of the dosage
form as a drug delivery system
II. facilitated diffusion d. all of the choices
e. none of the choices
III. active transport
123. An aqueous phase (pH 7.4 buffer)
a. I only containing a drug, was shaken with an oil
b. II only
phase (octanol) and the mixture was then left
c. III only
d. I and II to reach equilibrium. The two phases were the
e. II and III separated and the concentration of the drug in
each phase was measured. The resulting
119. Rate constants in pharmacokinetics are values were as follows: C octano = 18; C buffer = 2.
usually: Based from the results, calculate the partition
coefficient of the drug.
a. zero-order
b. first-order a. 36
c. second-order b. 20
d. third-order c. 16
e. fourth-order d. 9
e. 0.11
120. Cyancobalamin is a classical example of
a drug that is absorbed via: 124. These are drugs in which the
pharmacological action is not directly
a. convective transport
dependenmt on the chemical structure of the
b. facilitated diffusion
c. vesicular transport drug.
d. passive diffusion
a. structural nonspecific drugs
e. ion-pair transport
b. structural specific drugs
121. Which of the following is the correct rank c. drug-receptor complexes
d. ligands
order (from the most bioavailable to the least)
e. substrates
for the given conventional oral formulations?
125. If the volume of distribution of a drug in
a. coated tablet> uncoated tablet>
an adult is approximately 5L, it means that the
capsule> suspension> solution
drug is confines to the:
b. solution> suspension> capsule>
coated tablet> uncoated tablet a. circulatory system
c. suspension> solution> uncoated b. extracellular fluid
tablet> coated tablet> capsule c. intracellular fluid
d. solution> suspension> capsule> d. whole body fluid
uncoated tablet> coated tablet e. deep tissues
e. capsule> uncoated tablet> coated
tablet> solution> suspension 126. Surfactants are used: in dosage forms
as:
122. Excipients are added to product
formulations to: a. emulsifying agents
b. solubilizing agents
a. facilitate preparation c. suspending agnets
b. improve patient acceptability of the d. wetting agents
product e. all of the given choices
127. Which of the following is/are technique/s IV. C = C0e –kt
used to increase the aqueous solubility of
poorly water-soluble drugs? a. I only
b. II only
a. cosolvency c. III only
b. complex formation d. II to IV
c. solubilization e. I to IV
d. all of the choices
e. none of the choices 132. The half-life of a given drug is 6 hours.
How many half-lives have passed 24 hours
128. Which of the following is/are the effect/s after administration?
of food on the bioavailability of a drug from a
drug product? a. 24
b. 12
a. delay in gastric emptying c. 10
b. stimulation of bile flow d. 6
c. physical or chemical interaction of the e. 4
meal with the drug product or drug
133. Which of the following is NOT an
substance
extravascular route of drug administration?
d. a change in the pH of the GIT
e. all of the given choices
I. oral
129. In passive diffusion, the term passive
II. rectal
pertains to what characteristic of this
absorption mechanism? III. intramuscular

a. moves along concentration gradient IV. subcutaneous

b. a carrier mediated process
c. does not require the expenditure of V. intravenous
energy
d. is subject to competition a. I only
e. has saturation point b. V only
c. I and II
130. This is the loss of drug from the central d. III to V
compartment due to transfer into other e. II to V
compartments and/or elimination
134. Which of the following processes occurs
a. absorption mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule
b. distribution (PCT)?
c. penetration
d. disposition a. glomerular infiltration
e. permeation b. tubular secretion
c. tubular reabsorption
131. Which of the following is/are the d. both B and C
equation/s of a first-order reaction? e. all of the given choices

I. C= -k0 t + C0 135. In order to excrete amphetamine more

quickly in the urine, which of the following may
II. In C= -kt + In C0 be used intravenously?

III. log C = -(k/2.3)t + log C0 a. urinary acidifier

 b. urinary alkanizer aqueous solution (200mg) or a single IV bolus
c. inulin injection (50mg). The average AUC values are
d. creatinine given below. From these data, calculate the
e. all of the choices
absolute bioavailability of the drug.
136. If the AUC for an oral dose of a drug
Drug Product Dose (mg) AUC
administered by tablet is 4.5 mcg/mL/hr, and
(mcg/mL∙hr)
the intravenous dose is 11.2 mcg/mL/hr,
Oral tablet 200 89.5
calculate the absolute bioavailability (in %) of
Oral solution 200 86.1
the oral dose of the drug. IV bolus 50 37.8
injection
a. 2.5
b. 10
c. 15
a. 104%
d. 40
b. 59.2%
e. 62
c. 56.9%
d. 42.2%
137. The normal glomerular filtration rate
e. 23.6%
(GFR) is:
141. If the volume of distribution exceeds the
a. 125-130 mL/min
body weight, it is assumed that the drug is:
b. 90-100 mL/min
c. 60-90 mL/min
a. stored in body fat
d. 30-59 mL/min
b. bound to body tissues
e. ,15 mL/min
c. distributed to deep tissues in
138. A patient received a single intravenous peripheral compartments
d. A and B
dose of 300mg of a drug substance that
e. all of the above
produced an immediate blood concentration
of 8.2 mcg/mL. Calculate the volume of 142. If the half-life for decomposition of a drug
distribution in liters(L). is 12 hours, compute for the first-order rate
constant.
a. 36.6
b. 27.3 a. 0.693/hr
c. 20.5 b. 0.510/hr
d. 10.6 c. 0.267/hr
e. 8.7 d. 0.058/hr
e. 0.012/hr
139. The peripheral compartment is
subdivided into: 143. Vegetables and fruits, and diets rich in
carbohydrates result to a/an:
a. central compartment
b. shallow compartment a. decrease in urinary pH
c. deep compartment b. increase in urinary pH
d. both A and B c. increase GFR
e. both B and C d. decrease GFR
e. none of the choices
140. The bioavailability of a new
investigational drug was studied in 24 144. The central compartment refers to the:
volunteers. Each volunteer received either a
single oral tablet (200mg), 5ml of a pure
 a. body fluids or tissues into which the c. model
drug distributes slowly d. order
b. compartment that is not accessible by e. rate constant
blood sampling
c. body fluids or tissues which are in 149. If the bioavailability of digoxin in a
equilibrium with the circulatory 0.25-mg tablet is 0.60 compared to the
system bioavailability of 0.75 in a digoxin elixir
d. both A and B (0.05mg/mL), calculate the dose (in mL) of the
e. both B and C elixir equivalent to the tablet.

145. The differences in bioavailabilities of drug a. 0.0375

products may be due to: b. 0.15
c. 0.5
a. physiological factors d. 3
b. drug factors e. 4
c. dosage from design
d. both B and C 150. The concentration of a drug remaining
e. all of the given choices after 180 min was 5mg/dL from an initial conc.
of 60mg/dL. Compute for the first-order rate
146. Which of the following is/are eliminated in constant.
the body solely by filtratoion?
a. 0.001/min
a. inulin b. 0.02/min
b. creatinine c. 0.0138/min
c. electrolytes d. 0.693/min
d. both A and B e. 0.05/min
e. both B and C

147. A solution of a drug was freshly prepared

at a concentration of 300mg/ml. After 30 days
at 25°C, the drug concentration in the solution
was 75mg/mL. Assuming first-order kinetics,
when will the drug declineto one-half of the
original concentration?

a. 0.046 day
b. 0.5 day
c. 7 days
d. 10 days
e. 15 days

148. This concept in pharmacokinetics is a

hypothetical structure which can be used to
characterize with reproducibility, the behavior
and the fate of a drug in biological systems
when given by a certain route of
administration and in a particular dosage
form.

a. biophase
b. compartment