APS

(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III 4. Persons specially appointed by Government to

1. A sues B in the court of second class prosecute or defend on behalf of foreign rulers,
subordinate judge for an account and values is dealt under which of the following in the
his suit for a court fee at 130. Under s 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure?
Suits Valuation Act, 1887, the value of the a) Section 85 b) Section 88
subject matter of the suit is 130. The parties c) Section 92 d) Section 82
arrive at a compromise whereby the first Ans. (a) Section 85
defendant is to pay 6,000 and the second
defendant 5,000 to the plaintiff. 5. Which of the following deals with rules to be
a) The court may pass a decree in terms of the subject to approval in the Code of Civil
compromise, although it has jurisdiction Procedure?
limited to suits of which the value of the a) Section 126 b) Section 103
subject matter does not exceed 5,000 c) Section 124 d) Section 129
b) The forum of appeal also is determined by the Ans. (a) Section 126
value of the suit and not by the amount
decreed 6. Which of the following deals with power to
c) Both (a) and (b) amend decree or order where appeal is
d) None of these summarily dismissed in the Code of Civil
Ans. (c) both (a) and (b) Procedure?
2. A Mahommedan wife sues her husband to a) Section 145A b) Section 103A
recover property belonging to her including c) Section 148A d) Section 153A
government paper of the value of 10,000 and Ans. (d) Section 153A
a decree is passed in her favour. She
afterwards sues the husband to recover from 7. Which of the following deals with the power of
him the government paper of the value of court to request any pleader to address it in
500, alleging that she omitted to include it in the Code of Civil Procedure?
the previous suit by an oversight. a) Order 9, Rule 1 b) Order 7A, Rule 2
a) The suit cannot be barred, for it was a c) Order 3, Rule 9A d) Order 1, Rule 10A
genuine oversight and she was not aware of Ans. (d) Order 1, Rule 10A
her claim when she brought the previous suit
b) The suit is barred, for she was aware of her 8. Which of the following deals with the power of
claim when she brought the previous suit Supreme Court to transfer suits, etc. in the
c) The suit is barred, for such act of omission is Code of Civil Procedure?
an offence a) Section 18 b) Section 20
d) None of these c) Section 25 d) Section 28
Ans. (b) The suit is barred, for she was aware of her Ans. (c) Section 25
claim when she brought the previous suit 9. No decree to be reversed or modified for error
3. Which of the following deals with the or irregularily not affecting mertis or
consolidation of suits in the Code of Civil jurisdiction under which of the following in
Procedure? the Code of Civil Procedure?
a) Order 7, Rule 3 b) Order 2, Rule 5 a) Section 90 b) Section 99
c) Order 4A, Rule 1 d) Order 6A, Rule 8 c) Section 98 d) Section 80
Ans. (c) Order 4A, Rule 1 Ans. (b) Section 99
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(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

10. Miscellaneous proceedings are dealt under b) B can afterwards sue A to recover 1,000
which of the following in the Code of Civil c) either (a) or (b)
Procedure? d) None of these
a) Section 140 b) Section 103 Ans. (b) B can afterwards sue A to recover 1,000
c) Section 132 d) Section 141
Ans. (d) Section 141 16. What is true of code of criminal Produce?
(a) The Code provides for a uniform criminal
procedure applicable throughout India.
11. The object of discovery is:
(b) It is sufficiently flexible to adjust itself to the
a) To elicit admissions special local need and conditions.
b) To obviate the necessity to produce lengthy (c) Both (a) and (b)
evidence (d) Only (a)
c) To expedite disposal Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
d) All of these
Ans. (d) All of these 17. Offences against other laws (except I.P.C.) if
punishable with imprisonment for 3 years
12. Which of the following is true of a District and upward but not more than 7 years then:
Judge who functions as a Claims Tribunal? (a) It will be cognizable and non-bail able.
a) He is under the administrative control of the (b) Non-cognizable and Bail able.
High Court (c) Cognizable and Bailable.
(d) Non-Cognizable an Non-bailable.
b) He is subordinate to the High Court under s.
Answer: (c) Cognizable and Bailable.
115 of the Code of Civil Procedure
c) The order passed by the Tribunal is revisable 18. Inquiry in conducted by a Magistrate with a
under s. 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure view to:
d) All of these (a) Find out a prima facie case.
Ans. (d) All of these (b) Convict the accused.
(c) Authorize remand of the accused
13. Which of the following deals with the frame of (d) Release the accused under Sec. 436.
suit in the Code of Civil Procedure? Answer: (a) Find out a prima facie case.
a) Order 8, Rule 1 b) Order 6, Rule 2
c) Order 3, Rule 3 d) Order 2, Rule 1 19. In which of the following cases, the High Court
Ans. (d) Order 2, Rule 1 cannot act under its inherent powers:
(a) To grant a bail.
14. Festinatio justitiae est noverca infortunii
(b) To exempt an accused from appearing in
means?
court.
a) Hasty justice is the mother of misfortune (c) To quash a proceeding, where the allegation
b) Hasty justice is the stepmother of misfortune in the complaint did not make out the alleged
c) Hasty justice is the father of misfortune offences.
d) None of these (d) To entertain applications which are not
Ans. (b) Hasty justice is the stepmother of contemplate by the Code.
misfortune Ans. (a) is the correct option
15. A sues B for 200. As against the said claim, 20. What is the effect of trial concocted in wrong
B claims to set-off 200, being part of a sum place?
of 1,200 alleged to be due to him by A, but (a) Vitiate itself.
omits to counterclaim from A the balance of (b) Vitiate if caused failure of justice.
1,000. (c) Seriousness has to be seen.
(d) It is to be referred to High Court.
a) B cannot afterwards sue A to recover 1,000
Ans. (b) Vitiate if caused failure of justice.
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(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

21. Effect of omission to frame charge or error in 28. If any witness refuses to answer such
the charge is provided for under: questions as may be put to him or produce
(a) Sec. 463. (b) Sec. 464. any document/thing in his possession of
(c) Sec. 465. (d) Sec. 466. power, without being able to offer any
Ans. (b) Sec. 464 reasonable excuse of such refusal, the court
22. The liability of a surety under the surety bond may sentence him to imprisonment up to:
is: (a) 3 days. (b) 7 days.
(a) Mutually exclusive of the liability of the (c) 10 days. (d) 14 days.
accused under his personal bond. Ans. (b) 7 days.
(b) Contingent on he liability of the accused
under his personal bond.
29. Secs. 328-339 deals with.
(c) Limited to the amount of the surety bond.
(a) Accused persons who are of unsound mind at
(d) Both (a) and (c)
the time of inquiry of trial.
Ans. Both (a) and (c)
(b) Accused persons who are of unsound mind at
the time of the commission of the offence.
23. Any surety may apply to a Magistrate to
(c) Both (a) and (b)
discharge the bond under:
(d) Only (b)
(a) Sec. 443. (b) Sec. 444.
(c) Sec. 445. (d) Sec. 446. Ans. Accused persons who are of unsound mind
Ans. (b) Sec. 444 at the time of inquiry of trial.

24. Which section provides for suspension of 30. If in the course of any trial it appears to the
execution of the sentence of imprisonment if Magistrate that the case is one which ought to
default: be tired by a Session Court he shall commit it
(a) Sec. 423. (b) Sec. 424. to that court under:
(c) Sec. 425. (d) Sec. 426. (a) Sec. 322 (b) Sec. 323
(b) Ans. (b) Sec. 424. (c) Sec. 324 (d) Sec. 325
(a) Answer: (b) Sec. 323
25. The High Court can exercise its revisional
powers: 31. Delay in filing the suit
(a) Suo motu. (a) cannot be condoned
(b) On the petition of any aggrieved party. (b) can be condoned under section 3, Limitation Act
(c) On the application of any other person. (c) can be condoned under Order VII, Rule 6, C.P.C.
(d) All of the above. (d) can be condoned under section 5, Limitation Act
Ans (d) All of the above. Ans. (c) can be condoned under Order VII, Rule 6,
26. If in a criminal appeal, an accused dies and his C.P.C.
near relatives wish to continue the appeal,
then within how much period they must 32. A judgment was passed on 10-7-2002, and the
apply? decree prepared on 25-7-2002. An application
(a) Four months. (b) Three months. for certified copy was made on 11-7-2002 and
(c) Sixty months. (d) Thirty months. the certified copy was ready on 1-8-2002, and
Ans. (d) Thirty Months. delivery of certified copy was taken on 5-8-
2002, under section 12, the period to be
27. Appeals by the State under Sec. 377 against excluded is
inadequacy of sentence must be filed within (a) 11-7-2002 to 1-8-2002
a period of: (b) 11-7-2002 to 5-8-2002
(a) 14 days. (b) 30 days. (c) 10-7-2002 to 1-8-2002
(c) 60 days. (d) 90 days. (d) 10-7-2002 to 5-8-2002.
Ans. (c) 60 days. Ans. (a) 11-7-2002 to 1-8-2002
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(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

33. The Limitation Act does not apply to (d) None of the above
(a) Industrial Tribunal Ans. (a) Is not compulsory, but optional
(b) Labor Courts
(c) both (a) and (b) 39. In which Section of the Indian Partnership
(d) neither (a) nor (b). Act, extension and restriction of partner's
Ans. (c) both (a) and (b) implied authority have been dealt with?
(a) Section 18 (b) Section 19
34. A suit by a person excluded from a joint family (c) Section 20 (d) Section 21
property to enforce a right to share therein, Ans. (c) Section 20
under Article 110 of the Schedule, can be
filed within the period of limitation of 40. “Future goods” means goods to be
(a) one year (b) three years manufactured or produced or acquired by
(c) twelve years (d)thirty years. the seller after making of the-
Ans. (c) twelve years (a) Contract of sale
35. In which Section of the Indian Partnership (b) Agreement of sale
Act, 1932, it has been provided that the (c) Promise of sale
relation of partnership arises from contract (d)Acceptance of sale.
and not from status? Ans. Contract of sale
(a) Section 4 (b) Section 5
(c) Section 6 (d) Section 7 41. When is meant by an “agreement for sale”?
Ans. (b) Section 5 (a) It is a contract whereby seller transfers or
36. The term "act of a firm", means only the act agrees to transfer property in goods to buyer
or omission by all the partners, or by any for price
partner or agent of the firm— (b) Where under a contract of sale, property in
(a) Which gives rise to a right enforceable by or goods is transferred from seller to buyer
against the firm (c) It is an agreement whereby property in goods
(b) Which gives rise against all the partners of is transferred by seller to buyer at a future
the firm time or when conditions are fulfilled
(c) Which does not give rise to a right (d) None of the above.
enforceable by or against the firm Ans. It is an agreement whereby property in goods is
(d) None of the above transferred by seller to buyer at a future time or when
Ans. (a) Which gives rise to a right enforceable by or conditions are fulfilled.
against the firm 42. Amongst the following statements relating to
37. The Indian Partnership Act, recognizes the “condition and warranty”, which statement is
following partnership— correct?
(a) partnership created for a specified and (a) A stipulation in a contract of sale with
definite duration reference to goods which are the subject
(b) partnership created without making any thereof may be condition or a warranty
provision for the duration and the (b) A condition is a stipulation collateral to the
determination of the partnership main purpose of the contract, the breach of
(c) partnership created for particular adventures which gives rise to a claim for damages but
or undertakings not to a right to reject the goods and treat the
(d) All of the above contract as repudiated
Ans. (d) All of the above (c) Awarranty7 is a stipulation collateral to the
main purpose of the contract, the breach of
38. Registration of a partnership— which hives rise to a claim for damages but
(a) Is not compulsory, but optional not to a right to reject the goods and treat the
(b) Is compulsory, but not optional contract as repudiated
(c) Dependent on the circumstances of the case
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(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

(d) Whether a stipulation in a contract of sale is
a condition or a warranty depends in each
case on the construction of the contract. A
population may be a condition, though called
a warranty in the contract
(e) All of the above.
Ans. All of the above.
43. From which legal maxim, the doctrine of
“purchaser beware” has been derived?
(a) res sub judice
(b) caveat emptor
(c) nemo dat quod non habeat
(d) meno debet bis vexari.
Ans. caveat emptor
44. When does the property pass to the buyer in
case of goods sent on approval (or “on sale or
return”)?
(a) When he signifies his approval
(b) When he signifies his acceptance to seller
(c) When he does any other act adopting the
transaction
(d) (1) or (2) or (3).
Ans. (1) or (2) or (3).
45. What is ‘Hiba’?
(a) A transfer of property in which possession of
the property is immediately delivered by one
person to another person without any
consideration, which is accepted by the
donee
(b) Share in a joint undivided property
(c) An amount of money which is given to the
wife in consideration of the marriage
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) A transfer of property in which possession
of the property is immediately delivered by one
person to another person without any consideration,
which is accepted by the donee
46. In ‘Musha’, there is undivided…… property.
(a) Movable
(b) Immovable
(c) Movable and immovable
(d) In ‘Musha’ there is no concern with any
money
Ans. (c) Movable and immovable
47. According to ‘Shariyat’, either the mother or
the father of a child is a Muslim, the child
shall be deemed to be belonging to-
(a) Muslim religion
(b) Religion of the mother
(c) Religion of the father
(d) Religion determined by the mutual consent of
the parents
Ans. (a) Muslim religion
48. When at the time of the ‘Nikah’ (marriage), it
is not determined as to whether the ‘Mehr’
will be prompt (‘Mehr-e-Muajjal’) or
deferred (‘Mehr-e-Muvajjal’), then,
according to the Shiya Law, it will be-
(a) Wholly ‘Mehr-e-Muajjal’ (Prompt)
(b) Wholly ‘Mehr-e-Muvajjal’) (Deferred)
(c) Half part ‘Mehr-e-Muajjal’ and the
remaining half part ‘Mehr-e-Muajjal’ and the
remaining half part ‘Mehr-e-Muvajjal’
(d) Dependent upon the discretion of the Court
Ans. (a) Wholly ‘Mehr-e-Muajjal’ (Prompt)
49. The Hindu Code was drafted by
(a) Rau Committee and was referred to Select
Committee of the Constituent Assembly in
1948
(b) Rau Committee was not referred to Select
Committee of the Constituent Assembly
(c) Hindu Code was not drafted by Rau
Committee
(d) none of the above
Ans. (a) Rau Committee and was referred to Select
Committee of the Constituent Assembly in 1948
50. Marriage of two Hindus can be solemnised
under
(a) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) Special Marriage Act, 1954
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b)
Ans. (c) either (a) or (b)
51. A post-marriage agreement to live separately
in future is
(a) void (b) voidable
(c) valid (d) invalid
Ans. (a) void

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(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

52. If a Mitakshara Co-parcener is given away in 56. Succession to the property of Hindu female
adoption, his interest in the joint family inherited by her from her father, mother,
property shall husband and father-in-law, shall be
(a) ceases to exist on the adoption governed by
(b) continue to vest in him together with any (a) section 15(1) of Hindu Succession Act
liabilities attached thereto (b) section 15(2) of Hindu Succession Act
(c) continue to vest in him but without any (c) both (a) and (b)
liabilities attached thereto (d) only (a) and not (b)
(d) vest in him on adoption because the adoption Ans. (b) section 15(2) of Hindu Succession Act
shall amount to partition in the joint family
Ans. (a) ceases to exist on the adoption 57. Rules of succession laid down in section 15 of
53. Under section 13 of the Hindu Adoption & Hindu Succession Act, 1956 do not apply to
Maintenance Act, 1956, on adoption property acquired by a female Hindu under
(a) the adoptive parents are deprived of their (a) section 14(1) of Hindu Succession Act
right/power to dispose of their property by (b) section 14(2) of Hindu Succession Act
transfer intervivos (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) the adoptive parents are deprived of their (d) neither (a) nor (b)
right/power to dispose of their property by Ans. (b) section 14(2) of Hindu Succession Act
will
(c) the adoptive parents are not deprived of their
rights to dispose of their property by transfer 58. Match List I with List II and select the correct
inter-vivos or by will but the same is subject answer from the codes given below the Lists :
to an agreement to the contrary between the List I List II
adoptive parents and the natural parents A. Contracts 1. Contract of
(d) both (a) and (b) opposed to insurance
Ans. (c) the adoptive parents are not deprived of their public policy.
rights to dispose of their property by transfer inter- B. Agreements 2. Agreements
vivos or by will but the same is subject to an where object is hostile to
agreement to the contrary between the adoptive uncertain friendly states
parents and the natural parents C. Intention to 3. Void and
54. "Dependents" of a deceased under section 21 create legal unenforceable
of Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act obligation
include D. Contracts of 4. Essential
(a) widowed daughter utmost good element for valid
(b) widow of a pre-deceased son faith contract
(c) widow of a son of a predeceased son
(d) all the above
Code : A B C D
Ans. (d) all the above
(a) 1 4 3 2
55. Amongst of maintenance fixed under the (b) 4 2 1 3
Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956 (c) 2 1 3 4
can be altered subsequently, by virtue of (d) 2 3 4 1
(a) section 25 (b) section 24
Ans. (d) 2 3 4 1
(c) section 23(2) (d) section 23(3)
Ans. (a) section 25
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(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

59. The defendant promises to marry the plaintiff Ans. (d) offer, acceptance, consideration,
on the death of his father. During the life time agreements
of the father the defendant marries another 62. In past consideration for a promise valid to
woman. The plaintiff in this case : create a contract?
(a) has the option of bringing an action for (a) It is valid only in Indian law and not in
damages immediately or she may wait till the English law
death of father (b) It is valid only in English law and not in
(b) can bring an action against the defendant Indian law
only after the death of the father (c) It is valid in both English and Indian law
(c) cannot bring any action against the defendant (d) It is neither valid in English law nor in Indian
because the contract is discharged by law
frustration Ans. (a)
(d) can bring an action against the defendant for 63. "X" owed "Y" a number of debts amojng
breach of contract only if the defendant tells which there was a promissory note for Rs.
her that he will not marry her. 1000/-, which had become barred by
Ans. (a) limitation on 1st June. On 2nd June, "X" sent
Explanation : "Y" a sum of Rs. 500/- without any
An anticipatory breach of contract under Section 39 instruction as to its appropriation. There
gives an immediate right of action. It entitles the was no debt due from "X" of that amount
injured party to an option either to sue immediately (Rs. 500/-), Can "Y" appropriate the
or to wait till the time the act was to be done. payment of Rs. 500/- against the promissory
note for Rs. 1000/- ?
(a) Yes, Section 60 permits such appropriation
60. Match List I with List II and select the correct (b) No, "Y" should appropriation the payment
answer from the codes given below the Lists : against the earlier debt due from "X"
List I List II (c) No' "Y" should seek clarification from "X" as
A. Carlill vs. 1. Offers at large to the debt, against which the payment should
Carbolic Smoke be appropriated
Ball (d) No; as no payment can be appropriated
Constitution against a debt barred by limitation.
B. Fisher vs. Bell 2. Invitation to treat Ans. (a)
C. Tinn vs. 3. Quotation of
Hoffman & Co price
D. Harvey vs. facey 4. Cross offers 64. A contract of guarantee has been defined
Code : A B C D (a) under section 123 (b) under section 124
(a) 1 2 4 3 (c) under section 125 (d) under section 126
(b) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (d) under section 126
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (a) 65. Under the contract of guarantee, the liability
of the surety
(a) can be limited
61. The correct sequence in the formation of a (b) cannot be limited & has to extend to the
contract is : whole of the amount due from the principal
(a) offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration debtor
(b) agreement, consideration, offer, acceptance (c) can be extended to penalties also
(c) offer, consideration, acceptance, agreements (d) both (b) & (c)
(d) offer, acceptance, consideration, agreements Ans. (b) cannot be limited & has to extend to the
whole of the amount due from the principal debtor
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HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

66. A continuing guarantee under section 130 is (b) as regards third parties the sub-agent cannot
(a) revocable absolutely bind the principal as an original agent
(b) irrevocable absolutely (c) as regards third parties the sub-agent can bind
(c) revocable as regards future transaction only the original agent, who has appointed
(d) either (a) or (b) the sub-agent
Ans. (c) revocable as regards future transaction (d) as regards third parties the sub-agent can
neither bind the principal nor the original
agent
67. If the bailee does any act inconsistent with the
conditions of bailment, with regard to goods Ans. (a) as regards third parties the sub-agent binds
(a) the contract becomes void the principal as an original agent can
(b) the contract becomes voidable at the option
of the bailee
(c) the contract becomes voidable at the option 72. Ratification takes effect
of the bailor
(d) the contract remains valid (a) prospectively
Ans. (c) the contract becomes voidable at the option (b) retrospectively
of the bailor (c) prospectively or retrospectively depending
on the facts & circumstances of case
(d) prospectively or retrospectively depending
68. A pawnee, in the event of default in payment on the agreement between the parties
of debt by the pawner, has a right
(a) to retain the goods pledged as collateral Ans. (b) retrospectively
security
(b) to sue the pawner
(c) to sell the goods pledged 73. Principal can revoke the authority given to the
(d) all the above agent
Ans. (d) all the above
(a) at any time before the authority has been
exercised
69. An agent appointed by more than one (b) at any time after the authority has been partly
principal is liable exercised without liability towards the acts
(a) severally done
(b) jointly (c) at any time after the authority has been fully
(c) jointly & severally exercised
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c) (d) all the above
Ans. (d) either (a) or (b) or (c)
70. For the acts of the substituted agent Ans. (a) at any time before the authority has been
(a) the agent is responsible to the principal exercised
(b) the agent is not responsible to the principal
(c) the substituted agent is not responsible to the 74. In which Section of this Act, powers to issue
principal summons and commission and compelling the
(d) none of the above attendance of witnesses have been provided u/
Ans. (a) the agent is responsible to the principal Registration Act?
(a) Section 38 (b) Section 39
71. In case of a sub-agent lawfully appointed, (c) Section 40 (d) Section 41.
which of the following is correct Ans. Section 39
(a) as regards third parties the sub-agent binds
the principal as an original agent can
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(JUDICIAL ACADEMY)
HARYANA FULL LENGTH TEST – III

75. If a Registering Officer or a person employed Ans. Standing timber, growing crops and grass.
in his office, who being charged with the 78. By which of the following Amendment Acts
endorsing, copying, translating or registering Sikkim is associated with the Union?
of any document presented or deposited a) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
under its provisions, endorses, copies, b) 36th Amendment Act, 1974
translates or register such document in a c) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
manner which he knows or believes to be d) 38th Amendment Act, 1974
incorrect, “intending there by to cause or Ans. (a) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
knowing it to be likely that he may thereby 79. Which of the following statements regarding
cause injury” to any person, then for what ‘Legislature Procedure’ is/are found to be
penalty he shall be liable? correct?
(a) Imprisonment upto three years or fine of with I. A bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by
both reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
(b) Imprisonment upto five years or fine of with II. A bill pending in the council of States which has
both not been passed by the House of the People shall
(c) Imprisonment upto seven years or fine of not lapse on dissolution of the House of the
with both People.
(d) Imprisonment upto five years and fine upto a) Only I b) Only II
fifty thousand rupees. c) Neither I nor II d) I and II
Ans. Imprisonment upto seven years or fine of with Ans. (d) I and II
both 80. For the purposes of Article 110 of the Indian
Constitution, a Bill shall be deemed to be a
76. If any order of refused to register a document Money Bill if it contains only provisions
has been made by the sub-Registra; then dealing with all or any of the matters
within what period from the date of such namely:
order, an appeal may be presented before the I. the imposition, abolition, remission, alternation
Registrar? or regulation of any tax.
OR II. the custody of the Consolidated fund or the
If in his original order or appellate order, any Contingency Fund of India, the payment of
order of refusal to register a document has been moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys for any
made by the Registrar, then within what period such fund.
from the date of such order, a said may be filed III. the appropriation of moneys out of the
before the competent Civil Court by the Consolidated Fund of India.
aggrieved party?
(a) Thirty Days a) I and II b) I and III
(b) Sixty days c) I and III d) I, II and III
(c) Ninety days Ans. (d) I, II and III
(d) One hundred twenty days.
Ans. Thirty Days 81. A Bill which, if enacted and brought into
operation would involve expenditure from
77. Under the Registration Act, 1908, what is not the _______ of India shall not be passed by
included in the term “immovable property”? either House of Parliament unless the
(a) Land, buildings and hereditary allowances _______ has recommended to that House the
(b) Rights to ways, lights, ferries and fisheries consideration of the Bill.
(c) Any other benefit to arise out of land and a) Consolidated Fund; C.A.G.
things attached to the earth, or permanently b) Consolidated Fund; President
fastened to anything which is attached to the c) Contingency Fund; President
earth d) Contingency Fund; C.A.G.
(d) Standing timber, growing crops and grass. Ans. (b) Consolidated Fund; President
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82. Subject to the provisions of Article _____ of Ans. (b) 43rd Amendment Act
the Indian Constitution, business in 86. Which of the following statements regarding
Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in the duty of Advocate General is/are correct?
English. a) to give advice to the Governor of the State
a) 348 b) 368 b) to perform other duties of a legal character
c) 325 d) 350 assigned to him by the Governor
Ans. (a) 348 c) to discharge the functions conferred on him
by or under this constitution
83. Which of the following statements regarding d) all of them
appointment of ad hoc Judges is/are found to Ans. (d) all of them
be correct? 89. Which of the following statements is/are found
I. The Chief Justice of India may, with the previous to be correct?
I. Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall vacate his
consent for the President and after consultation
office if he ceases to be a member of the
with the Chief Justice of the High Court
Assembly.
concerned, request in writing the attendance at
II. Speaker or Deputy Speaker may be removed
the sittings of the court, as an ad hoc judge, for from his office by a resolution of the Assembly
such period as may be necessary. passed by a majority of all the members of the
II. It shall be the duty of the Judges who has been so Assembly.
designed, in priority to other duties of his office, a) I and II b) Only I
to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court at the c) Only II d) Neither I nor II
time and for the period for which his attendance Ans. (a) I and II
is required. 90. While the office of Speaker is vacant, the
duties of the office shall be performed by the
a) I and II b) Only I _______
c) Only II d) None of them a) Deputy Speaker
Ans. (a) I and II b) Senior Minister
c) Pro-term Speaker
84. The seat of Supreme Court can be shifted to d) Chief Minister
other place by: Ans. (a) Deputy Speaker
a) President b) Council of minister 91. Certiorari:
c) Chief Justice of India a) is a writ out of the Supreme Court “to the
(d) Chief Justice of India with the approval of the Government to call up the records of a cause
therein depending, that conscionable justice
President
may be therein administered.”
Ans. (d) Chief Justice of India with the approval of
b) is a writ out of the Supreme Court “to the
the President
High Court to call up the records of a cause
therein depending, that conscionable justice
may be therein administered.”
85. Article 131 A of the Indian Constitution i.e.
c) is a writ out of the Supreme Court “to an
exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court Inferior Court to call up the records of a
in regard to the questions as to constitutional cause therein depending, that conscionable
validity or Central laws in inserted by 42nd justice may be therein administered.”
Amendment Act, 1976 and omitted by the: d) none of them
a) 44th Amendment Act Ans. (c) is a writ out of the Supreme Court “to an
b) 43rd Amendment Act Inferior Court to call up the records of a cause therein
depending, that conscionable justice may be therein
c) 49th Amendment Act
administered.”
d) 50th Amendment Act
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92. The quorum to constitute a meeting of a House

of the State Legislature shall be member or 95. Match the following
_______ of the total members of the House, (a) Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case
whichever is greater. (b) Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
a) 10; one tenth b) 15; one sixth (c) Death Penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
c) 10; one sixth d) 15; one tenth (d) Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case
Ans. (a) 10; one tenth Codes:
(a) A2, B4, C1, D3
93. Match the following (b) A4, B2, C3, D1
(a) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shukla (c) A2, B4, C3, D1
(b) M.S.M. Sharma v. S.K. Sinha (d) A4, B2, C1, D3
(c) R.C. Cooper v. UOI Ans. (c) A2, B4, C3, D1
(d) R.K. Garg v. UOI
1. Bearer Bonds case 96. In Which of the following cases the new
2. Habeas Corpus case concept of doctrine of equality, i.e. protection
3. Bank Nationalisation case against arbitrariness' was propagated by
4. Searchlight case Justice Bhagwati?
Codes: (a) Air India v. N. Mirza
(a) A2, B1, C4, D3 (b) A4, B4, C1, D3 (b) Pradeep Jain v. UOI
(c) A2, B4, C1, D3 (d) A2, B4, C3, D1 (c) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
Ans. (d) A2, B4, C3, D1 (d) D.K. Bakshi v. UOI
Ans. (c) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
94. Match the following
(a) Right to live with human dignity enshrined in 97. Match List I (Judicial Principles) with List II
Article 21 derives life breath from directive (Decisions) and select the correct answer
principles of State policy clauses (e) and (f) from the Codes below the Lists
of Article 39, 41 and 42 of Constitution List-I List-II (Judicial Decisions)
(b) Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just,
fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by A. Freedom rights 1. Kedarnath Bajoria
Article 21 of Constitution v. State of W.B.
(c) In P.I.L., a total stranger to a trial cannot be
permitted to question the correctness of B. Minority rights 2. Bennet Coleman v.
conviction of the accused UOI
(d) In case of helplessness or disability, any
member of the public can maintain an C. Just, fair and 3. Ajit Basha v. UOI
allocation for an appropriate order, director reasonable
or writ, if there is violation of constitutional
right. D. Special Courts 4. Maneka Gandhi v.
1. Bhagwati J. in Bandhua Muti Morcha v. UOI UOI
2. P.N. Bhagwati J. in Hussainara Khatoon v.
State of Bihar Codes:
3. Ahmadi J. in Simranjit Singh v. UOI A B C D
4. Bhagwati J. in S.P. Gupta v. UOI (a) 1 3 4 2
Codes: (b) 2 4 3 1
(a) A2, B4, C3, D1 (c) 1 4 3 2
(b) A2, B4, C1, D3 (d) 2 3 4 1
(c) A1, B2, C3, D4
(d) A1, B2, C4, D3 Ans. (d)2 3 4 1
Ans. (c) A1, B2, C3, D4
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98. Which section of the Evidence Act is called a 104. If on the carbon copies of a letter written on a
“residuary” section dealing with relevancy of typewriter, signature have been put on the first
facts? letter then other copies;
(a) Sec. 12 (b) Sec 11 (a) Will also be primary evidence.
(c) Sec 13 (d) Sec 14 (b) Will be secondary evidence.
Ans. (b) Sec 11 (c) Will be no evidence.
99. A leading case on he admissibility of rape-recorded (d) None of above.
conversation is: Ans. (a) Will also be primary evidence.
(a) R.M. Malkani v State of Maharastra 105. How many witnesses are required to attest a
(b) Kalu Mirza V emperor. document?
(c) Bhola Nath v Emperor. (a) One (b) Two
(d) Badri Rai v State of Bihar. (c) Three (d) Four
Ans. (a) R.M. Malkani v State of Maharastra Ans. (b) Two
100. A is accused of defaming by publishing an
Imputation Intended to harm the reputation of B.
The fact of previous publication by a respecting 106. Section 79-90 are founded on the maxim omnio
B, showing ill will on A’s part towards B is prosumuntur rite esse acta which means:
relevant: (a) All acts are presumed to be rightly done
a. Because it proves the preparation for harming (b) All acts are presumed to be conclusively done.
A’s reputation. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
b. As it is necessary to explain fact is issue
Ans. (a) All acts are presumed to be rightly done
c. As proving intention to harm B’s reputation
107. A hires lodgings of B and gives a card on which is
d. As it is the effect of relevant fact.
written “ Rooms, Rs. 200 a Month”. A tenders
Ans. (a) Because it proves the preparation for
oral evidence to prove a verbal agreement that
harming A’s reputation.
these terms were to include partial board. The
101. Sec. 23 is not applicable to:
evidence is
(a) Civil cases. (a) Inadmissible under Sec. 91.
(b) Criminal Cases. (b) Inadmissible under sec. 92.
(c) Certain instances under Sec. 126, Evidence Act. (c) Admissible.
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) Irrelevant.
Ans. (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans. (c) Admissible.
102. Under Sec. 27 of the Evidence Act, the ‘discovery 108. Sec. 113-A inserted by 1983 Criminal Law Second
of fact’ includes Amendment Act:
(a) the object found (a) Creates a new offence.
(b) the place from which it is produced. (b) Creates a substantive right.
(c) the knowledge of the accused as to its existence. (c) Is a matter of procedure
(d) all of the above. (d) Is not retrospective in operation
Ans. (d) all of the above. Ans. (c) Is a matter of procedure
103. In which of the following cases, the opinion of
109. There can be no estoppel
experts is not relevant?
(a) on a point of law.
(a) a point of foreign law.
(b) against a statute
(b) Matters of science or questions of art. (c) against a rule of law.
(c) Handwriting or finger impression. (d) All of the above.
(d) A point of Indian law. Ans. (d) All of the above.
Ans. (d) A point of Indian law.
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110. Which of the following is not a case coming under 1 2 3 4

sec. 122 (Privileged communications between (a) I II III IV
husband and wife): (b) IV II I III
(a) Queen Empress V Danoghue (c) III II IV I
(b) M.C. Verghese v T.J. Ponnam (d) III II I IV
(c) Ram Bharose v State of U.P. (e) None of the above
(d) Franji Bhicaji v Mohan Singh Dhan Singh Ans. (a) I II III IV
Ans. (d) Franji Bhicaji v Mohan Singh Dhan
Singh
114. A picks up a cheque on a banker signed by B
111. A is indicate for the murder of B. C says that B, payable to bearer, but without any sum having
when dying, declared that A had given B the been inserted in cheque. A fraudulently fills up
wound of which he died. Evidence is offered to cheque by inserting sum of Rs. 10,000. What
show that, on a previous occasion, C said that the offence A has committed?
wound was not given by A or in his presence. (a) Sec. 420
(a) The evidence is admissible under Sec. 155 (b) Sec. 167
(b) The evidence is inadmissible under Sec. 155 (c) Sec. 465
(c) The evidence is inadmissible under Sec. 156 (d) Sec. 471
(d) The evidence is admissible under Sec. 156. Ans. (c) Sec. 465
Ans. (a) The evidence is admissible under Sec. 155

115. A. Sec. 489 defines counterfeiting currency/bank

112. When a party refuses to produce a document notes.
which he had notice to produce: B. Sec. (489-A) prescribes punishment for
(a) He cannot use to document as evidence without possession of counterfeiting currency/bank notes.
the consent of opposite party or the order of the (a) Only (A) is correct
court. (b) Only (B) is correct
(b) Object of the opposite party is worthless. (c) Both (A) and (B) is correct
(c) Order of the court is not necessary. (d) Neither (A) and (B)
(d) Document will be deemed to be an admitted. Ans. (c) Both (A) and (B) is correct
Ans. (a) He cannot use to document as evidence
without the consent of opposite party or the order
of the court. 116. Every person has right to defend his own body:
(a) against any offence affecting the human body
113. Match the following: (b) and the body of his friends, against any offence
(a) Voluntarily causing I. Upto 3 years affecting the human body
hurt to dettor public S-332 (c) and the body of any person, against any offence
servant from his duty affecting the human body.
(b) (Sec-326 voluntarily II. Upto 7 years but (d) and the body of his blood relative against any
throwing or attempting less than 5 years. offence affecting the human body.
to throw acid Ans. (a) and the body of any person, against any
(c) (Sec-380) theft in III. Upto 7 years offence affecting the human body.
dwelling house
(d) Concealment of birth IV. Upto 2 years
by secret disposal of dead
body

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117. H and W were married recently but W preferred 119. In IPC, punishment got rioting is provided under
to stay mostly at her parental place. This conduct (a) Section 145
of W made H angry. He came to take W back (b) Section 146
from her parental place. When W refused to go (c) Section 147
he tried to take her forcibly. A this F, the father (d) Section 148
of W, became angry and gave H two blows with a Ans. (c) Section 147
lathi which landed on the head of H who died soon
thereafter. F is being tried for murder. He pleads
rights of private defence against the act of H 120. Which of the following among item A and item B
which he says amounts to ‘abduction’. are correct?
Prosecution pleads ‘abduction’ is not an offence Item A: Common intention within the meaning of
and therefore there can be no exercise of right of Section 34 of the Penal Code means:
private defence. Which one among the following 1. evil intention of many persons to commit the
statements gives the correct legal position in the same act
matter? 2. implication of pre-arranged plan, prior
(a) F can not plead right of private defence against meeting of mind, between all the persons
the act of abduction as ‘abduction’ per se is not constituting the group.
an offence 3. a desire of several persons to commit an act
(b) F can plead right of private defence as abduction without contemplating the consequences.
in this case involves an assault and assault with Item B: Within the meaning of section 149 in
intention to abduct or kidnapping falls in Section prosecution of common object of an unlawful
100 of the Code of Criminal Procedure in which assembly’s means:
case right of private defence can extend to 1. in relating to common intention of the group
causing of death. 2. in order to attain the common object
(c) F cannot plead right of private defence as no 3. in relation to a common object
offence had been committed against his person. Select the correct answer using the codes given
(d) F cannot plead right of private defence as he had below:
not called the police to protect his daughter. Codes:
Ans. (d) F can plead right of private defence as (a) 1 and 2 of both items
abduction in this case involves an assault and (b) 1 and 3 of both items
assault with intention to abduct or kidnapping (c) 2 along of both items
falls in Section 100 of the Code of Criminal (d) 3 along of both items
Procedure in which case right of private defence Ans. (c) 2 along of both items
can extend to causing of death.
118. An agreement is designated a ‘Criminal 121. ‘X’ puts gold coins into a box belonging to Z, with
Conspiracy’, if:- intention that they may found in that box, and
(a) Two or more persons agree to do an illegal act. that this circumstance may cause Z to be
(b) Some illegal act is done by all parties to such convicted of theft. What offence X committed
agreement in pursuance thereof under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(c) Any illegal act is done by at least one party to (a) Fabricating false evidence
such agreement. (b) Giving false evidence
(d) None of the above (c) Committing abetment of theft
Ans. (a) Two or more persons agree to do an illegal act. (d) Committing cheating
Ans. (a) Fabricating false evidence

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