Name: _________________________________ Date: _____/_____/_____

SBS22X – AP Biology H. Pao, Instructor

Test #9 (60 points) – Physiology

TIME: 1 HOUR.

Multiple Choice: 1pt ea. Choose the best answer. No partial credit. PLEASE RECORD ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER
SHEET AT THE END OF THE TEST.

1. An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the complete system
A) excludes the need for extracellular digestion.
B) allows specialized functions in specialized regions.
C) allows digestive enzymes to be more specific.
D) allows extensive branching.
E) facilitates intracellular digestion.

2. Earthworms, grasshoppers, and birds all have a

A) gastric cecae. B) larynx. C) crop. D) pharynx. E) epiglottis.

3. In the digestive system, peristalsis is

A) a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine.
B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation.
C) the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel.
D) a common cause of loss of appetite, fatigue, and dehydration.
E) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus.

4. After ingestion by humans, the first category of macromolecules to be chemically digested by enzymes in the mouth is
A) proteins. B) carbohydrates. C) cholesterol and other lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) minerals.

5. The bile salts

A) are enzymes.
B) are manufactured by the pancreas.
C) emulsify fats in the duodenum.
D) increase the efficiency of pepsin action.
E) are normally an ingredient of gastric juice.

6. The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that the

A) processing of fats does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of carbohydrates does.
B) fat absorption occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine.
C) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not.
D) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood.
E) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption.

Use the picture to answer questions 7 and 8.

7. The highest rate of nutrient absorption occurs at location(s)
A) 3 only. B) 4 only. C) 1 and 4. D) 3 and 4. E) 1, 3, and 4.

8. Most of the digestion of fats occurs in section(s)

A) 3 only. B) 4 only. C) 1 and 4. D) 3 and 4. E) 1, 3, and 4.

9. After surgical removal of an infected gallbladder, a person must be especially careful to

restrict dietary intake of
A) starch. B) protein. C) sugar. D) fat. E) water.
10. To become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal, atmospheric molecules of oxygen must cross
A) zero membranes; oxygen binds directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood.
B) one membrane; that of the lining in the lungs and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma
of the blood.
C) two membranes; in and out of the cell lining the lung and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the
plasma of the blood.
D) four membranes; in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the endothelial cell lining the pulmonary capillary–
and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood.
E) five membranes; in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the endothelial cell lining the pulmonary capillary,
and into the red blood cell to bind with hemoglobin.

11. A significant increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human's lungs will cause
A) an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide moving from the blood to the lungs.
B) an increase in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood.
C) a decrease in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood.
D) an increase of pressure that would cause the capillary beds to burst.
E) a decrease in the amount of work needed for effective ventilation of the lungs.

12. Which of the following pairs of mammalian blood vessels has blood that is the least similar in its gas content?
A) the pulmonary vein and the jugular vein
B) the veins from the right and left legs
C) the pulmonary artery and the vena cava
D) the pulmonary vein and the aorta
E) the inferior vena cava and the superior vena cava

13. Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta?
A) systole of the left atrium
B) diastole of the right ventricle
C) systole of the left ventricle
D) diastole of the right atrium
E) diastole of the left atrium

14. Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in reptiles and mammals?
A) left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation
B) right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmocutaneous circulation
C) pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit
D) vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary circuit
E) right atrium → pulmonary artery → left atrium → ventricle

15. Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans

A) is a major contributor to heart attacks.
B) would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers.
C) would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance.
D) would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions.
E) would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta.

16. The semilunar valves of the mammalian heart

A) are the route by which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles.
B) are found only on the right side of the heart.
C) are the attachment site where the pulmonary veins empty into the heart.
D) prevent backflow of blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries.
E) are at the places where the anterior and posterior venae cavae empty into the heart.

17. The set of blood vessels with the slowest velocity of blood flow is
A) the arteries. B) the arterioles. C) the metarterioles. D) the capillaries. E) the veins.
18. An oil-water mixture works as an insecticidal spray against mosquitoes and other insects because it
A) coats their lungs.
B) blocks the openings into the tracheal system.
C) interferes with gas exchange across the capillaries.
D) clogs their bronchi.
E) prevents gases from leaving the atmosphere.

19. Breathing is usually regulated by

A) erythropoietin levels in the blood.
B) the concentration of red blood cells.
C) hemoglobin levels in the blood.
D) CO2 and O2 concentration and pH-level sensors.
E) the lungs and the larynx.

Questions 20-22 refer to the following diagram:

20. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) At 10 mm Hg partial pressure, hemoglobin binds
oxygen but myoglobin does not.
B) At 20 mm Hg partial pressure, myoglobin and
hemoglobin bind oxygen in equal amounts.
C) At 40 mm Hg partial pressure, myoglobin has a greater
affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin has.
D) At 80 mm Hg partial pressure, myoglobin binds twice
as much oxygen as hemoglobin binds.

21. Strenuous exercise lowers the blood pH, causing the curves for both hemoglobin and myoglobin to shift to the right.
This shift results in
A) an unloading of O2 at higher partial pressures
B) an increase in the number of O2- binding sites
C) the capture of more O2 by hemoglobin
D) the capture of more O2 by myoglobin

22. Which of the following best describes the physiological significance of the different oxygen-binding capabilities of
hemoglobin and myoglobin?
A) They prevent muscles from depleting oxygen levels in the blood.
B) They cause muscles to become anaerobic.
C) They prevent glycogen depletion in muscles.
D) They enhance movement of oxygen from the blood into the muscles.

23. Innate immunity

A) is activated immediately upon infection.
B) depends on a newly infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen.
C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens.
D) is found only in vertebrate animals.
E) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells.

24. Acidity in human urine is an example of

A) cell-mediated immune responses. D) adaptive immunity.
B) antibody activation. E) innate immunity.
C) acquired immunity.

25. A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by

A) its plasma cells. D) its antimicrobial peptides.
B) its immunoglobulins. E) its B cells.
C) its antibodies.
26. The lymphatic fluid
A) is a filtrate of the blood, as is urine.
B) is completely separate from the circulatory system for blood.
C) carries both red and white blood cells.
D) functions in adaptive immunity but not in innate immunity.
E) carries a toxic gas that kills cancerous cells.

27. The complement system is

A) a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity.
B) a set of proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells and other CD8 cells.
C) a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins.
D) a group of antimicrobial proteins that act together in a cascade fashion.
E) a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes.

28. Antihistamine treatment reduces

A) blood vessel dilation.
B) phagocytosis of antigens.
C) MHC presentation by macrophages.
D) the secondary immune response.
E) clonal selection by antigens.

29. The cells and signaling molecules that initiate inflammatory responses are
A) the phagocytes and the lysozymes.
B) the phagocytes and the chemokines.
C) the dendritic cells and the interferons.
D) the mast cells and the histamines.
E) the lymphocytes and the interferons.

30. Adaptive immunity depends on

A) traits common to groups of pathogens.
B) pathogen-specific recognition.
C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring.
D) plants being exposed to new pathogens.
E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses.

31. A key part of the humoral immune response is

A) the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
C) perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
D) the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells.

32. The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to

A) antibodies. B) antigens. C) natural killer cells. D) double-stranded RNA. E) immunoglobulins.

33. An epitope is
A) part of the interferons that penetrate foreign cells.
B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells.
C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma.
D) that part of an antigen that actually binds to an antigen receptor.
E) a mirror image of an antigen.
34. Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct
sequence.
I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.

A) I → III → II → IV → V
B) III → II → I → V → IV
C) II → I → IV → III → V
D) IV → II → III → I → V
E) III → IV → II → I → V

35. A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways is a
A) plasma cell. B) cytotoxic T cell. C) natural killer cell. D) CD8 cell. E) helper T cell.

36. Urea is produced in the

A) liver from NH3 and CO2.
B) liver from glycogen.
C) kidneys from glucose.
D) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids.
E) bladder from uric acid and H2O.

37. The filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule of the human does not normally include
A) ions. B) glucose. C) plasma proteins. D) amino acids. E) dissolved gases.

38. A primary reason that the kidneys have one of the highest metabolic rates of all body organs is that
A) it stores the body's excess fats.
B) it has membranes of varying permeability to water.
C) it operates an extensive set of active-transport ion pumps.
D) it is the body's only means of shedding excess nutrients.
E) it has an abundance of myogenic smooth muscle.

39. If ATP production in a human kidney was suddenly halted, urine production would
A) come to a complete halt.
B) decrease, and the urine would be hypoosmotic compared to plasma.
C) increase, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.
D) increase, and the urine would be hyperosmotic compared to plasma.
E) decrease, and the urine would be isoosmotic compared to plasma.

40. Hormone X activates the cAMP second messenger system in its target cells. The greatest response by a cell would
come from
A) applying a molecule of hormone X to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell.
B) injecting a molecule of hormone X into the cytoplasm of the cell.
C) applying a molecule of cAMP to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell.
D) injecting a molecule of cAMP into the cytoplasm of the cell.
E) injecting a molecule of activated, cAMP-dependent protein kinase into the cytoplasm of the cell.

41. During short-term starvation, most available fuel molecules are catabolized to provide energy for metabolism rather
than being used as building blocks for growth and repair, a trade-off that is hormonally regulated by
A) acetylcholine. B) glucagon. C) oxytocin. D) antidiuretic hormone. E) insulin.

42. In a lactating mammal, the two hormones that promote milk synthesis and milk release, respectively, are
A) prolactin and calcitonin.
B) prolactin and oxytocin.
C) follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.
D) luteinizing hormone and oxytocin.
E) prolactin and luteinizing hormone.
43. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are synthesized in the
A) hypothalamus. D) adrenal cortex.
B) adenohypophysis. E) posterior pituitary.
C) anterior pituitary.

44. Iodine is added to table salt to help prevent deficiencies of an essential mineral needed for the proper function of the
A) parathyroid glands. D) the endocrine pancreas.
B) adrenal glands. E) the exocrine pancreas.
C) thyroid glands.

45. Which endocrine disorder is correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
A) diabetes insipidus and the posterior pituitary gland
B) giantism and the posterior pituitary gland
C) goiter and the adrenal medulla
D) diabetes mellitus and the parathyroid glands
E) dwarfism and the adrenal cortex

46. One reason a person might be severely overweight is due to

A) an undersecretion of thyroxine.
B) a defect in hormone release from the posterior pituitary.
C) a lower than normal level of insulin-like growth factors.
D) hyposecretion of oxytocin.
E) a higher than normal level of melatonin.

47. Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of

A) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate.
B) the thyroid gland, leading to an increase in the blood calcium concentration.
C) the anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function.
D) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine.
E) the pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration.

48. The body's reaction to PTH (parathyroid hormone), a reduction in plasma levels of calcium, can be opposed by
A) thyroxine. B) epinephrine. C) growth hormone. D) calcitonin. E) glucagon.

49. The endocrine glands include the

A) parathyroid glands. B) salivary glands. C) sweat glands. D) sebaceous glands. E) gallbladder.

50. Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected to reveal high
levels of
A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) secretin. D) gastrin. E) glucose.

51. In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are
A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal.
B) follicular → luteal → secretory.
C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory.
D) follicular → ovulation → luteal.
E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation.

52. In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are
A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal.
B) follicular → luteal → secretory.
C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory.
D) follicular → ovulation → luteal.
E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation.
53. A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will
A) increase the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries.
B) initiate ovulation.
C) reduce the secretion of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary gland.
D) stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH from the posterior pituitary gland.
E) increase the flow phase of the menstrual cycle.

54. A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the
synthesis and secretion of
A) inhibin. B) testosterone. C) oxytocin. D) prolactin. E) progesterone.

55. The primary function of the corpus luteum is to

A) nourish and protect the egg cell.
B) produce prolactin in the alveoli.
C) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred.
D) stimulate the development of the mammary glands.
E) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters.

56. After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by
A) the opening of sodium activation gates.
B) the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels.
C) a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions.
D) a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump.
E) the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels.

57. Action potentials move along axons

A) more slowly in axons of large than in small diameter.
B) by the direct action of acetylcholine on the axonal membrane.
C) by activating the sodium-potassium "pump" at each point along the axonal membrane.
D) more rapidly in myelinated than in non-myelinated axons.
E) by reversing the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium ions.

58. The "undershoot" phase of after-hyperpolarization is due to

A) slow opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.
B) sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.
C) rapid opening of voltage-gated calcium channels.
D) slow restorative actions of the sodium-potassium ATPase.
E) ions that move away from their open ion channels.

59. Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential;
thus, we state that the membrane is briefly
A) hyperexcitable. B) refractory. C) fully depolarized. D) above threshold. E) at the equilibrium potential.

60. Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via

A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) diffusion. D) transcytosis. E) exocytosis.
Put an X through the letter of the correct answer. At first, start with a pencil so you can erase any mistakes. When
you are sure of your answers, go over the pencil mark using a pen or a marker.

Question Question
Number Number
1 A B C D E 31 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 32 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 33 A B C D E
4 A B C D E 34 A B C D E
5 A B C D E 35 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 36 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 37 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 38 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 39 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 40 A B C D E
11 A B C D E 41 A B C D E
12 A B C D E 42 A B C D E
13 A B C D E 43 A B C D E
14 A B C D E 44 A B C D E
15 A B C D E 45 A B C D E
16 A B C D E 46 A B C D E
17 A B C D E 47 A B C D E
18 A B C D E 48 A B C D E
19 A B C D E 49 A B C D E
20 A B C D E 50 A B C D E
21 A B C D E 51 A B C D E
22 A B C D E 52 A B C D E
23 A B C D E 53 A B C D E
24 A B C D E 54 A B C D E
25 A B C D E 55 A B C D E
26 A B C D E 56 A B C D E
27 A B C D E 57 A B C D E
28 A B C D E 58 A B C D E
29 A B C D E 59 A B C D E
30 A B C D E 60 A B C D E