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June 2016 Pharmacist Licensure Examination

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. All of the following are diseases transmitted sexually


I. Zika Virus
II. Gonorrhea
III. Chlamydia
IV. Trichomonas
a. I, II, III, IV c. II, III
b. II, III, IV d. II

ANS: A PTS: 1

2. A reaction of two molecules of water forms hydronium ions. This chemical process is known
as
a. Autocatalytic reaction c. Levelling effect
b. Autoprotyltic reaction d. Protolytic reaction

ANS: B PTS: 1

3. Preparation of single-dose is classified as


a. Low Risk c. High Risk
b. Medium Risk d. Intermediate Risk

ANS: A PTS: 1

4. New castle disease is also known as


a. H5N1 c. H2N1
b. H1N1 d. H2N1

ANS: A PTS: 1

5. Which of the following are true about foot and mouth disease?
I. It is known as hoof and mouth disease
II. It affects cattle
III. It is caused by a bacterium
a. I, II, III c. I, II
b. I, III d. I

ANS: C PTS: 1

6. All of the following are examples of live attenuated vaccines, except


a. Measles c. Hepatitis C
b. Varicella d. BCG

ANS: C PTS: 1

7. Organic liquids such as mineral oil yields what spreading coefficient with water?
a. Positive c. Negative
b. Negative One d. Zero

ANS: C PTS: 1

8. Human breast milk is more acidic than plasma. Which of the following statements are true?
I. Weak drugs will cross to the breast milk in a non-ionized form
II. Weak drugs will cross to the breast milk in an ionized form
III.Basic drugs will cross to the breast milk in a non-polar form IV. Basic drugs will cross to the
breast milk in a polar form
a. I, III c. II, IV
b. I, IV d. II, III

ANS: B PTS: 1

9. Transamination is a process involved in protein metabolism. Which of the processes would


likely to happen after? I. Oxidation of Carbon
II. Formation of Glucose
III. Synthesis of Amino Acids
IV. Synthesis of Fatty Acids
a. I, II, III c. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV d. II, III, IV

ANS: C PTS: 1

10. Washing soda is chemically known as


a. Sodium sulfate decahydrate c. Sodium sulfate
dihydrate
b. Sodium sulfate anhydrous d. Magnesium
sulfate

ANS: A PTS: 1

11. Which of the following metals has a diuretic action?


a. Sodium c. Lithium
b. Potassium d. Cesium

ANS: B PTS: 1

12. Which of the following identification tests is used to detect the presence of nitrates?
a. Cobalt Uranyl Test c. Bicarbonate test
b. Marsh test d. Brown Ring test

ANS: D PTS: 1

13. Which of the following statements are true about resonance structure?
I. Resonance is not an example of isomer
II. Resonance has two or more configurations
III. Resonance differs only in position of electrons
IV. Resonance has configuration in the position of atoms
a. I, II, III c. III, IV
b. II, III, IV d. II, I

ANS: A PTS: 1

14. Which of the following drugs may exhibit a suicidal risk for patients?
a. Anticonvulsant c. Antidepressants
b. Antiparkinson d. Anesthetics

ANS: C PTS: 1

15. Which of the following enzymes is involved in heme synthesis


a. ALA synthetase c. Cytochrome oxidase
b. Pyruvate kinase d. PFK-2

ANS: A PTS: 1

16. What part of lagundi, Vitex negundo is used for the treatment of asthma?
a. Leaves c. Roots
b. Stem d. Flowers

ANS: A PTS: 1

17. Which of the following is a serotonin agonist?


a. Misoprostol c. Cyproheptadiene
b. Ondansetron d. Cisapride

ANS: D PTS: 1

18. Which of the following statements are true about clozapine?


I. It is used for psychosis
II. It is not a dopamine antagonist
III. It causes less extrapyramidal symptoms
a. I, II, III c. I, II
b. I, III d. II, III

ANS: B PTS: 1

19. Which of the following enzyme markers is used for the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?
a. Amylase c. Lipase
b. AST d. LDH

ANS: C PTS: 1

20. Which of the following acts as irreversible inhibitor of H-K ATPase pump?
a. Sucralfate c. Pepto-Bismol
b. Cimetidine d. Pantoprazole

ANS: D PTS: 1

21. Which of the following ketone is obtained from Cinammomum camphora?


a. Camphor c. Thujone
b. Cineol d. Carvone

ANS: A PTS: 1

22. Which of the following is an example of fourth generation cephalosphorin?


a. Cefalexin c. Cefradine
b. Loracarbef d. Cefepime

ANS: D PTS: 1

23. Which of the following is the drug of choice for status epiliticus?
a. Diazepam c. Clozapine
b. Temazepam d. Risperidone

ANS: A PTS: 1

24. Which of the following statements are true for antimalarial drugs?
I. It is used for the treatment of Plasmodium infected patients
II. It is used for the prevention of malaria
III. It is used to prevent antibacterial resistance
IV. It is used as routine administration for people traveling in endemic areas
a. I, II, III c. I, III, IV
b. I, II, IV d. II, III, IV

ANS: B PTS: 1

25. Which of the following is/are inhaled anesthetic(s)?


I. Ketamine
II. Propofol
III. Sevoflurane
IV. Thiopental
a. I, II, III, IV c. III
b. I, III d. II, III

ANS: C PTS: 1

26. What is the scientific name of Fish tapeworm?


a. Diphylobohtrium latum c. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium d. Echinococcus spp.

ANS: A PTS: 1

27. Which of the following vitamins are involved in carboxylation reactions?


a. Folic acid c. Retinol
b. Biotin d. Thiamine

ANS: B PTS: 1

28. Which of the following vitamins has reduced absorption during an infection of fish tapeworm?
a. Thiamine c. Cyanocobalamin
b. Pyridoxine d. Folic Acid
ANS: C PTS: 1

29. RDA is used for


a. Calorie intake c. Vitamins
b. Legend drugs d. OTC medications

ANS: C PTS: 1

30. Which of the following is an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor?


a. Propylene glycol c. Disulfiram
b. Fomepizole d. Diazepam

ANS: B PTS: 1

31. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?


a. Flumazenil c. Lorazepam
b. Ethanol d. Methanol

ANS: A PTS: 1

32. Which of the following is an ethanolamine-antihistamine?


a. Dimenhydrinate c. Loratadine
b. Cyproheptaidiene d. Cetirizine

ANS: A PTS: 1

33. Which of the following are examples of autocoids?


a. Serotonin, Ergonovine, Melatonin, c.
Serotonin, Histamine, Melatonin
b. Serotonin, Substance P, Sumatriptan d.
Serotonin, Nitric oxide, Histamine

ANS: D PTS: 1

34. Which of the following groups is known as pnictogens?


a. Nitrogen group c. Carbon group
b. Halogen group d. Oxygen group

ANS: A PTS: 1

35. Which of the following groups is known as crystallogen?


a. Nitrogen group c. Halogen group
b. Carbon group d. Boron group

ANS: B PTS: 1

36. Which of the following groups is known as icosagens?


a. Boron group c. Carbon group
b. Nitrogen group d. Oxygen group
ANS: A PTS: 1

37. Which of the following is an example of a triad?


a. Fe, Cu, Ni c. Ru, Rh, Pt
b. Fe, Co, Ni d. Os, Ir, Ag

ANS: B PTS: 1

38. Proteins and Carbohydrates = 4 kcal/g; Fats = 9 kcal/g. This is used for
a. Calorie intake c. Maintance medicine
b. RDA d. Dietary source

ANS: A PTS: 1

39. Which of the following is an example of non-polar amino acids?


I. Proline II.
Valine
III. Histidine
IV. Serine
a. I, II c. II, III
b. I, III d. II, IV

ANS: A PTS: 1

40. Phenytoin is a highly protein bound drug. What will happen when a more albumin-bound drug
displaces phenytoin?
a. Increases clearance c. Increase effect
b. Increases metabolism d. Increase absorption

ANS: C PTS: 1

41. What is the main effect of digoxin?


a. Increase contractility c. Decrease contractility
b. Increase heart reate d. Increase heart rate

ANS: A PTS: 1

42. Which of the following drugs are metabolized via CYP2C9 isoform?
I. Warfarin
II. Phenytoin
III. Antipsychotic
IV. Clopidogrel
a. I, II c. III, IV
b. II, III d. I, IV

ANS: A PTS: 1

43. Which of the following is true about boric acid?


I. It is used as an eyewash II.
It is an antibiotic
III. It is a weak germicide
a. I, II, III c. I, III
b. I, II d. I

ANS: C PTS: 1

44. Which of the following yields alpha-amino acids and their derivatives upon hydrolysis?
a. Conjugated protein c. Metalloprotein
b. Simple protein d. Derived protein

ANS: D PTS: 1

45. Which of the following is the used for TDM?


I. It is the careful monitoring of drug-urine concentration
II. It is required for drug like phenytoin
III. It is used for narrow therapeutic window drugs
a. I, II, III c. I, III
b. II, III d. III

ANS: B PTS: 1

46. What is the generic name of Arcoxia?


a. Celecoxib c. Etoricoxib
b. Rofecoxib d. Aspirin

ANS: C PTS: 1

47. Which of the following is true about streptokinase and aspirin?


a. Streptokinase is an antiplatelet which c.
Streptokinase is an fibrinolytic which dissolves
clot. Aspirin is fibrinolytic dissolves clot.
Aspirin is antiplatelet
which prevents the formation of which prevents the formation of thrombus
thrombus.
b. Streptokinase is an fibrinolytic which d.
Streptokinase is an antifibrinolytic prevents the
formation of thrombus. which dissolves clot.
Aspirin is Aspirin is antiplatelet which dissolves
antiplatelet which prevents the clot formation
of thrombus.

ANS: C PTS: 1

48. What is the scientific name of eggplant?


a. Solanum melongena c. Solanum lycopersicum
b. Solanum tuberosum d. Solanum elongata

ANS: A PTS: 1

49. Which of the following is used against human lice?


a. Permethrin c. Sulfur
b. Crotamiton d. Lindane
ANS: A PTS: 1

50. Which of the following are fat-soluble vitamins?


a. A, C c. D, E
b. D, B d. K, C

ANS: C PTS: 1

51. Tetrahydrocanabinol and Progesterone (as shown) are


a. Constitutional isomer c. Geometric isomer
b. Optical isomer d. Enantiomer

ANS: A PTS: 1

52. THC is isolated from what plant?


a. Indian hemp c. Hellebore
b. Black hemp d. Adonis

ANS: A PTS: 1

53. Which of the following is not found in RNA?


a. UMP c. CMP
b. TMP d. AMP

ANS: B PTS: 1

54. Which of the following are preventive measures when compounding neoplastic agents?
I. Use of double-latex gloves
II. Use of horizontal air flow
III. Use of positive pressure when getting liquids from ampules
a. I, II, III c. I, III
b. I, II d. I

ANS: D PTS: 1

55. Which of the following are examples of steroidal glycosides?


I. Digoxin
II. Sanguinarine
III. Strophantin
IV. Convallarin
a. I, II, III c. I, III, IV
b. I, II, IV d. II, III, IV

ANS: C PTS: 1

56. Which of the following is true about reaction order?


a. The rate of reaction is affected by c. The rate
of reaction is neither affected concentration of the
product by product and reactant
b. The rate of reaction is affected by d. The rate
of reaction is always concentrations of the
product and dependent on concentration
reactants

ANS: B PTS: 1

57. Which of the following neoplastic agents are derived from Camphoteca?
a. Taxol c. Irinotecan
b. Vinblastine d. Nitrogen mustard

ANS: C PTS: 1

58. Cytotoxic agents are refered to as


a. Antineoplastic c. Antidiabetic
b. Antibiotic d. Antihyperlipidemia

ANS: A PTS: 1

59. Arrange the following following solvents by decreasing polarity


I. Water
II. Alcohol
III. Toluene
a. I, II, III c. III, II, I
b. II, III, I d. I, III, II

ANS: A PTS: 1

60. Which of the following metals are amphoteric?


I. Bismuth
II. Aluminum
III. Zinc
IV. Calcium
a. I, II c. I, IV
b. I, III d. II, III

ANS: D PTS: 1

61. Which of the following are examples aldehyde volatile oils?


I. Hamamelis II.
Rose
III. Orange IV.
Cinnamon
a. I, II, III c. I, III, IV
b. II, III, IV d. I, II, IV

ANS: C PTS: 1

62. Which of the following volatile oils are extracted using water and steam distillation?
I. Peppermint II.
Clove oil
III. Cinnamon oil
IV. Pine
a. I, II c. I, IV
b. I, III d. II, III

ANS: D PTS: 1

63. Which of the following processes is used for petals?


a. Enfleurage c. Dry Distillation
b. Ecuelle d. Steam Distillation

ANS: A PTS: 1

64. Which of the following functional group is RCOR?


a. Ketone c. Ether
b. Ester d. Carboxylic Acid

ANS: A PTS: 1

65. Glauber’s salt is chemically known as


a. Sodium sulfate c. Calcium sulfate
b. Magnesium sulfate d. Barium sulfate

ANS: A PTS: 1

66. Which of the following is rochelle salt?


a. KNaC6H5O6 c. KSbC4H4O6
b. KSbC4H4O6 d. KNaC4H4O6

ANS: D PTS: 1

67. Antimetabolite which inhibits pyrimidine synthesis


a. Methotrexate c. Azathioprine
b. Hydroxychloroquine d. Leflunomide

ANS: A PTS: 1

68. Which of the following metals is used to treat athritis?


a. Barium c. Copper
b. Silver d. Gold

ANS: D PTS: 1

69. Which of the following is used to treat neuropathic pain?


a. Gabapentin c. Phenytoin
b. Diazepam d. Morphine

ANS: A PTS: 1

70. Which of the following is true about Koch’s Postulate?


I. Pathogen must be present in all cases of the disease
II. Pathogen can be isolated from the healthy host and grown in pure culture
III.Pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when inoculated into a healthy,
susceptible laboratory animal
IV.Pathogen must be reisolated from the new host and shown to be the same as the originally
inoculated pathogen
a. I, III, IV c. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV d. II, III, IV

ANS: A PTS: 1

71. What is the scientific name of rice?


a. Solanum tuberosum c. Allium sativum
b. Allium cepa d. Oryza sativa

ANS: D PTS: 1

72. Pinus palustris is a resin known as


I. Rosin
II. Copaiba
III. Colophony
IV. Mayapple
a. I, II c. II, III
b. I, III d. II, IV

ANS: B PTS: 1

73. Salt peter is chemically known as


a. Potassium nitrite c. Potassium nitrate
b. Sodium nitrate d. Sodium nitrate

ANS: C PTS: 1

74. Which of the following poison is best found in paints, lacquers and thinners.
a. Benzene c. Mercury
b. Aniline d. Toluene

ANS: D PTS: 1

75. Fluorometry is perfomed in _____ region.


a. UV c. Infrared
b. Visible d. X-ray

ANS: A PTS: 1

76. Whic of the following are examples of cyanogenic glycosides?


I. Manihot esculenta II.
Black mustard
III. White mustard
IV. Prunus amydalus
a. I, IV c. II, IV
b. II, III d. I, III
ANS: A PTS: 1

77. Baking soda is chemically known as


a. Sodium carbonate c. Calcium carbonate
b. Sodium bicarbonate d. Sodium phosphate

ANS: B PTS: 1

78. Selegeline is used as


a. Anticancer c. Antiparkinson
b. Anticonvulsant d. Antipsychotic

ANS: C PTS: 1

79. HLB value of surfactant


a. 1-3 c. 3-6
b. 13-15 d. 12-18

ANS: B PTS: 1

80. Goulard’s extract is chemicall known as


a. Lead oxide c. Lead subacetate
b. Lead sulfate d. Lead chloride

ANS: C PTS: 1

81. The physician only writes the generic name in the prescription. What type of prescription is
this?
a. Erroneous c. Impossible
b. Violative d. Correct

ANS: D PTS: 1

82. Rofecoxib (Vioxx) was withdrawn from the market due to


a. Cardiovascular effects c. Hepatotoxicity
b. Neurotoxicity d. Renal failure

ANS: A PTS: 1

83. A test used to determine the percent loss during transport.


a. Friability c. Weight variation
b. Thickness d. Bioavailability

ANS: A PTS: 1

84. Which of the following plants belong to the Family Cucurbitaceae?


I. Cucumber II.
Squash
III. Atsuete
IV. Melon
a. I, II, III c. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV d. II, III, IV

ANS: C PTS: 1

85. It is a phenomenon that can be detected by someone other than the individual affected by the
disease.
a. Sign c. Diagnosis
b. Symptom d. Treatment

ANS: A PTS: 1

86. Alpha-naphthol test is known as


a. Molisch c. Tauber
b. Seliwanoff d. Kedde

ANS: A PTS: 1

87. Which of the following are essential amino acids?


I. Glycine
II. Phenylalanine
III.Alanine IV. Arginine
a. I, II c. III, IV
b. II, III d. II, IV

ANS: D PTS: 1

88. A titrimetric analysis where potassium dichromate is used as titrant


a. Mohr c. Volhard
b. Fajan d. Liebig

ANS: A PTS: 1

89. Which of the following is derived from non-animal source?


a. Echinaceae c. Lanolin
b. Beeswax d. Insulin

ANS: A PTS: 1

90. An indicator which turns pink on basic environment while colorless on acidic.
a. Phenolphthalein c. Methyl orange
b. Methyl red d. Thymol blue

ANS: A PTS: 1

91. Which of the following belong to the Family Solanaceae?


I. Atropine
II. Cocaine
III. Opium
IV. Daturine
a. I, II, III c. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV d. II, III, IV
ANS: C PTS: 1

92. A hairlike appendage found on the surface of many bacteria required for bacterial conjugation
a. Flagella c. Capsule
b. Pili d. LPS

ANS: B PTS: 1

93. Which of the following is derived from Apis meliferae?


a. Lanolin c. Ceryl ceroate
b. White wax d. Myricyl stearate

ANS: B PTS: 1

94. Which of the following identification tests detects the presence peptide linkages?
a. Ninhydrin c. Sakaguchi
b. Biuret d. Hopkins-Cole

ANS: B PTS: 1

95. Which of the following statements are true about protein denaturation?
I. Denaturation of proteins involves the disruption and possible destruction of both the
secondary and tertiary structures only
II. Heat can be used to disrupt hydrogen bonds, peptide linkage and non-polar
hydrophobic interactions
III. Addition of alcohol may disrupt the hydrogen bonds of tertiary structures IV. Addition
of heavy metal may disrupt disulfide bonds

a. I, II, III c. I, III, IV


b. I, II, IV d. II, III, IV

ANS: C PTS: 1

96. It is a waxy substance found in the head cavities of the whale, Physeter macrocephalus?
a. Ambergis c. Spermaceti
b. Brazillian wax d. Lanolin

ANS: C PTS: 1

97. Which of the following drugs is added in small amount with penicillin altering its excretion?
a. Cilastatin c. Probenecid
b. Clavulanic acid d. Folinic acid

ANS: C PTS: 1

98. If Drug A is a potent inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase. What would likely happen to Drug B if it
is metabolized by the same enzyme?
a. Increase metabolism c. Increease potency
b. Increase clearance d. Increase effect
ANS: D PTS: 1

99. Drug A and B cause a relatively same clinical effect. However, Drug A is used in a smaller
doses than of B. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Drug A and Drug B have the same c. Drug A
and Drug B has the same potency ceiling
dose
b. Drug A is more potent than Drug B d. Drug A
is more safer than Drug B

ANS: B PTS: 1

100. It relate the intensity of response to the size of the dose and, hence, are useful to
characterize the actions of drugs.
a. Graded concentration-response c.
Michaelis-Menten curve curves
b. Quantal concentration-response curve d.
Lineweaver–Burk plot

ANS: A PTS: 1

101. Riboflavin is assayed using _____


a. Fluorometry c. NMR
b. Turbidimetry d. Nephelometry

ANS: A PTS: 1

102. Which of the following vitamins are required during pregnancy?


I. Folic acid
II. Iron
III. Thiamine
a. I, II, III c. I, III
b. I, II d. I

ANS: A PTS: 1

103. Which of the following is the structure of morphine?


a. c.

b. d. !

ANS: B PTS: 1
104. Methylmorpine is known as
a. Codeine c. Heroin
b. Hydromorphone d. Methadone

ANS: A PTS: 1

105. 2 to 8 degree Celsius is categorized as


a. Cold c. Room temperature
b. Cool d. Warm

ANS: A PTS: 1

106. Which of the following is the drug of choice for acute gout?
a. Allopurinol c. Probenicid
b. Colchicine d. Indomethacin

ANS: B PTS: 1

107. Tacrine is used for


a. Alzheimer c. Psychosis
b. Parkinson d. Depression

ANS: A PTS: 1

108. Which of the following is used test mutagenicity?


a. AST c. Phenol coefficient
b. LAL d. Ame’s test

ANS: D PTS: 1

109. Which of the following is considered as ignition at constant weight?


a. 800 ± 25 degree Celsius c. 675 ± 25
degree Celsius
b. 700 ± 25 degree Celsius d. 750 ± 25
degree Celsius

ANS: A PTS: 1

110. Which of the following test is used for endotoxin?


a. Head-drop test c. Leaker’s test
b. LAL d. Friability

ANS: B PTS: 1

111. It refers to the measurement of total alkaloidal content


a. Proximate c. Quantitative
b. Ultimate d. Qualitative

ANS: A PTS: 1
112. Which of the following is true about Mantoux reaction?
I. It is known as purified protein derivative
II. Tuberculin skin testing si done before BCG vaccination for all children older than 3 months
III. It is used as screening for tuberculosis
a. I, II, III c. I, II
b. I, III d. III

ANS: A PTS: 1

113. Which of the following vitamins are present in fish oils?


a. A, K c. C, D
b. A, D d. A, E

ANS: B PTS: 1

114. It yields yellow color in non-luminous flame


a. Barium c. Lithium
b. Strontium d. Potassium

ANS: A PTS: 1

115. It is glycogen storage disease II.


a. Von Gierke c. Andersen
b. McArdle d. Pompe

ANS: D PTS: 1

116. Which of the following is the main manifestation of ebola virus?


a. Pneumonia c. Cancer
b. Hepatitis d. Hemorrhagic fever

ANS: A PTS: 1

117. It is the temperature at and above which vapor of the substance cannot be liquefied, no
matter how much pressure is applied.
a. Critical pressure c. Upper consolute
temperature
b. Critical temperature d. Specific gravity

ANS: B PTS: 1

118. Alzheimer’s disease is caused by the accumulation of


a. Acetylcholine c. Alpha amyloid
b. Beta amyloid d. Serotonin

ANS: B PTS: 1

119. It is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris.


a. Calcium sulfate dihydrate c. Sodium sulfate
b. Calcium sulfate hemihydrate d. Copper sulfate
ANS: B PTS: 1

120. Cream of Tartar is chemically known as


a. Potasium bitartrate c. Antimony potassium
tartrate
b. Sodium chloride d. Copper sulfate

ANS: A PTS: 1

121. All of the following are examples of algae, except?


a. Dinoflagellate c. Plasmodium
b. Diatom d. Phaeophyceae

ANS: C PTS: 1

122. Which of the following is the proper mixing of dextrose, fatty acids, and amino acids?
a. fatty acids + dextrose then amino c. amino
acids + fatty acids then acids dextrose
b. amino acids + dextrose then amino d. amino
acids + fatty acids + dextrose acids + diluent

ANS: C PTS: 1

123. Which of the following are preventive measures when compounding neoplastic agents?
I. Use of double-latex gloves
II.Use of alcohol as an alternative when soap and water is not available III. Use of
negative pressure when getting liquids from ampules
a. I, II, III c. I, II
b. I, III d. III

ANS: B PTS: 1

124. It is a lipid-soluble artemisinin which may be administered as oral, intramuscular, and rectal
administration.
a. Artesunate c. Arthemeter
b. Dihydroartemisinin d. Artemisinin

ANS: C PTS: 1

125. It is a water-soluble artemisinin analogue useful for oral administration only.


a. Artemisinin c. Artesunate
b. Dihydroartemisinin d. Artemether

ANS: B PTS: 1

126. Which of the following are hygroscopic substances?


I. Sucrose
II. Zinc chloride
III. Calcium chloride
IV. Cellulose
a. I, II c. II, III
b. I, IV d. II, IV

ANS: B PTS: 1

127. Which of the following are examples of deliquescent substances?


I. Sodium hydroxide
II. Calcium chloride
III. Sucrose
IV. Sodium chloride
a. I, II c. III, IV
b. II, III d. II, IV

ANS: A PTS: 1

128. Which of the following are examples of ampotheric substances?


a. Co, Zn, Sn, Na, Al, C c. Cu, Zn, Sn, Pb, Al, Be
b. Co, Fe, Sn, Pb, Al, K d. Co, Cr, Sn, Pb, Al, Li

ANS: C PTS: 1

129. How many high-energy phosphate bond(s) is/are present in ATP?


a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 0

ANS: B PTS: 1

130. Alkaptonuria is caused by the lack of an enzyme called


a. Phenylalanine hydroxylase c. Ferrochelatase
b. PFK-2 d. Homogentisate oxidase

ANS: D PTS: 1

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