SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

1. In the circuit shown below, if dependent source supplies 16W of power, then the 24V source

a) supplies 48W of power b) absorbs 48W of power

c) supplies 96W of power d) absorbs 64 W of power

2. For the circuit shown in figure, values of currents I1 and I2 are

a) I1 = 9A, I2 = 7A b) I1 = 5A, I2 = 3A
c) I1 = 3A, I2 = -1A d) cannot be determined as values of resistance and source are not given.

3. In the circuit shown below, the voltage Vab is equal to -----V

a) 60 b) 30 c) -3 d) -6

4. The V-I relation of the unknown element X in the given network is V = AI+B. The value of A
(in ohm) and B (in volt) respectively are

a) 2, 20 b) 2, 8 c) 0.5, 4 d) 0.5, 16

5. In the circuit shown below is(t) = 4sin4t A. The ic(t) will be

a) 4.8 sin4t A b) -4.8 sin 4t A c) 9.6 sin 4t A d) -9.6 sin 4t A

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

6. For the ac circuit, if V(t) = 112 cos (ωt+20) V and i(t) = 8cos(ωt). The average power and
reactive power absorbed by the circuit respectively are,
a) 224W, 388 VAR b) 448W, 338 VAR c) 448W, 153VAR d) 421W, 153 VAR

7. In the ideal transformer circuit shown in figure, current I1 and I2 are respectively

a) 3230A, 64-150A b) 830A, 16-150A

c) 3230A, 1630A d) 830A, 430A

8. The resonant frequency of the circuit shown in figure is ----- rad/sec.

1
a) 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 b) 1 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 c) 2 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 d) 0.5 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠
√18

9. The admittance parameter matrix [y] is

1 3 1 1 1 3
1 −1 −4
a) [23 ] b) [21 ] c) 2
[−1 2
3] d) [ 1
4
1]
−1 1
2 2 4 4 2 2

10. Which of the following will not decrease as a result of introduction of negative feedback?
a) Instability b) Bandwidth c) Overall gain d) Distortion

𝑠+2
11. Given F(s) = 𝑠(𝑠+1), the initial and final values of f(t) will be respectively
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 1 c) 1, 1 d) 2, 2

𝐾(𝑠+2)
12. The OLTF of a unity negative feedback control system is given by G(s) = for K>6,
(𝑠+1)(𝑠−7)
the stability characteristic of the open loop and closed loop configurations of the system are
respectively
a) stable and stable b) unstable and stable
c) stable and unstable d) unstable and unstable

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

13. The characteristic equation of a system is given by 3𝑠 4 + 10𝑠 3 + 5𝑠 2 + 2 = 0. The system is

a) Stable b) Marginally stable c) Unstable d) Neither a), b) nor c)

14. A control system is defined in s-domain. Following points regarding the poles of the transfer
function obtained from the characteristic equation were noted
1. Poles with positive real part denote stable system
2. Complex poles always occur in pairs
3. A pole S = -σ (σ >0) means that the transient response contains exponential decay
Which of the above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 and 3

100(𝑠+5)(𝑠+50)
15. A system has the following transfer function 𝐺 (𝑠) = . The type and order of
𝑠 4 (𝑠+10)(𝑠 2+3𝑠+10)
the system are respectively
a) 4 and 9 b) 4 and 7 c) 5 and 7 d) 7 and 5

16. What will be the type of the system, if the steady state performance of control system yields a
non-zero finite value of the velocity error constant?
a) Type-1 b) Type – 2 c) Type – 3 d) Type – 0

10(1+0.04𝑠)
17. A phase lead compensator has the transfer function 𝐺(𝑠) = . The maximum phase
1+0.01𝑠
angle lead provided by this compensator will occur at a frequency ‘ωm’ equal to
a) 50 rad/s b) 25 rad/s c) 10 rad/s d) 4 rad/s

18. Consider the following statements :

Specific features of BJT are
1. Very small on-state resistance
3. Infinite input resistance
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3
2. Presence of second breakdown
4. Good performance in parallel operation
c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2

19. For a power diode t rr = 3.9s and rate of diode current decay is 50 A/s for a softness factor
0.3. Find peak inverse current and storage charge.
a) 50A, 100c b) 150A, 200c c) 150A, 292.5c d) 50A, 158.5c

20. What is the maximum output voltage of a 3-phase bridge rectifier supplied with line voltage
of 440V ?
a) 528V b) 594V c) 396V d) 616V

21. A 3-phase, full controlled , converter is feeding power into a dc load at a constant current of
150A. The rms current through each thyristor of the converter is
150 √2 150
a) 50A b) 100A c) A d) A
√3 √3

22. A chopper, in which current remains positive but voltage may be positive or negative, is
known as
a) Type A b) Type B c) Type C d) Type D

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

23. A dc chopper is fed from constant voltage mains. The duty ratio D of the chopper is
progressively increased while the chopper feeds RL load. The per unit current ripple would
a) increase progressively b) increase to a maximum value at D = 0.5 and then decrease
c) decrease to a minimum value at D = 0.5 and then increase d) decrease progressively

24. In single phase modulation of PWM inverters, the pulse width is 120. For an input voltage of
220V dc, the rms value of output voltage is
a) 179.63V b) 254.04V c) 127.02V d) 185.04V

25. “Six MOSFETS connected in a bridge configuration (having no other power device) MUST
be operated as voltage source inverter (VSI)” This statement is
a) True, because being majority carrier devices, MOSFETS are voltage driven
b) True, because MOSFETs have inherently anti-parallel diodes
c) False, because it can be operated both as current source inverter (CSI) or a VSI
d) False, because MOSFETs can be operated as excellent constant current sources in the
saturation region.

26. Most proper indication of incomplete combustion in boiler furnace is

a) high temperature of flue gases b) the smoking exhaust from chimney
c) high CO content in flue gases at exit d) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit

27. Which coal has the highest calorific value?

a) Bituminous coal b) Anthracite coal c) Peat coal d) Lignite coal

28. The most appropriate way of mitigating the problem of interference between power line and
communication line is to
a) transpose the power line b) transpose the communication line
c) use double circuit power line d) use bundled conductor power line

29. Power transmission by cable is generally adopted for line lengths

a) above 100km b) upto 200km c) less than 50km d) less than 10km

30. The sub-transient current of synchronous generator for symmetrical fault is 5 pu. The negative
sequence reactance of the generator is same as positive sequence reactance and zero sequence
reactance is 20% to that of positive sequence reactance. The positive sequence sub transient
current in pu of single line to ground fault with a solid neutral is
a) 6.818 b) 4.32 c) 2.5 d) 2.27

31. The positive, negative and zero sequence current of a star connected load for phase R are
given as, 𝐼𝑅1 = (10 − 𝑗7)𝐴; 𝐼𝑅2 = (5 + 𝑗15)𝐴; 𝐼𝑅0 = (5 − 𝑗8)𝐴. The neutral current will be
a) zero b) (15 + 𝑗24)𝐴 c) (−15 − 𝑗24)𝐴 d) (15 − 𝑗24)𝐴

32. A 3-∅ transmission line of negligible resistance and capacitance has an inductive reactance of
100Ω per phase. When the sending-end and receiving-end voltages are maintained at 110kV,
the maximum power that can be transmitted will be
a) 121MW b) 121√3MW c) 363MW d) 363KW

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

33. Shunt reactors are sometimes used in high voltage transmission systems to
a) limit the short circuit current through the line
b) compensate for the series reactance of the line under heavily loaded condition
c) limit over voltages at the load side under lightly loaded condition
d) compensate for the voltage drop in the line under heavily loaded condition.

34. If the reference bus is changed in two load flow runs with same system data and power
obtained for reference bus taken as specified P and Q in the latter run.
a) The system will be unchanged but complex bus voltages will change
b) The system losses will change but complex bus voltages remain unchanged
c) The system losses as well as complex bus voltage will change
d) The system losses as well as complex bus voltage will be unchanged.

35. For a synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus through a transmission line, how are
the change of voltage (∆V) and the change of frequency (∆f) related to the active power (P)
and the reactive power (Q)?
a) ∆V is proportional to P and ∆f to Q b) ∆V is proportional to Q and ∆f to P
c) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to P d) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to Q

36. A power system has a total load of 260MW at 50Hz. The load varies 1.5% for every 1%
change in frequency. The steady state change in frequency when 60MW is suddenly tripped
(No speed control action)
a) 0.5Hz b) 1Hz c) 1.22Hz d) 1.66Hz

37. The operating time of instantaneous relay is

a) 0.001s b) 0.01s c) 0.1s d) 1s

38. An air blast circuit breaker, designed to interrupt a transformer magnetizing current of 11A
(rms), chops the current at an instantaneous value of 7A. If the values of L and C in the circuit
are 100H and 100F, the value of voltage that appears across the contacts of the breaker is ----
- [Assume that all the inductive energy is transferred to the capacitance]
a) 3.5kV b) 866kV c) 10kV d) 7.0kV

39. The type of CT connection employed for the protection of star-delta connected 3-phase
transformer is
a) delta-star b) star-delta c) delta-delta d) star-star

40. The plug setting of negative sequence relay is 0.5A. The current transformer ratio is 1 : 5. The
minimum value of line to line fault current for the operation of the relay is
a) 3.73A b) 2.73A c) 1.73A d) 0.173A

41. A moving coil instrument has a resistance of 10Ω and takes 40mA to produce full scale
deflection. The shunt resistance required to convert this instrument for use as an ammeter of
range 0 to 2A is
a) 0.1021Ω b) 0.2041Ω c) 0.2561Ω d) 0.4210Ω

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

42. The coil of a moving coil ammeter of 100 turns is 40mm long and 30mm wide. The control
torque is 240×10-6 N-m on full scale. If the magnetic flux density in the air gap is 1Wb/m2,
what will be the range of the ammeter?
a) 1mA b) 3mA c) 2mA d) 4mA

43. A single phase energy meter having meter constant of 200 rev/Kwh is operating on 230V,
50Hz supply with a load of 10A and at unity power factor for three hours continuously. The
no. of revolutions shown by the meter during this period is
a) 1380 b) 13800 c) 276 d) 138

44. A potentiometer is basically a

a) deflection type instrument b) null type instrument
c) deflection as well as null type instrument d) a digital instrument

45. An ideal transformer has N1 = 100 turns, N2 = 200 turns with a mutual flux of
∅𝑚 (𝑡) = −0.05(𝑡 2 − 2𝑡). The induced emf of secondary in volts is
a) -5(t – 1) b) -10(t – 1) c) -5(t2 – 1) d) 20(t – 1)

46. The saving in copper achieved by converting a 2-winding transformer into an auto transformer
is determined by
a) voltage transformation ratio b) load on the secondary
c) magnetic quality of core material d) size of the transformer core

47. Calculate the core area required for a 1600 KVA, 6600/440V, 50Hz 1-∅ core-type power
transformer, assume a maximum flux density of 1.2 Wb/m2 and induced voltage per turn of
30V.
a) 975 cm2 b) 1100 cm2 c) 1125 cm2 d) 1224 cm2

48. The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an alternator which attenuates
by a factor of 0.8 . An ac voltage Vwx1 = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit
voltage Vyz1 across YZ. Next an ac voltage Vyz2 = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open
circuit voltage Vwx2 across WX. Then, Vyz1/ Vwx1, Vwx2 / Vyz2 are respectively,

a) 125/100 and 80/100 b) 100/100 and 80/100

c) 100/100 and 100/100 d) 80/100 and 80/100

49. The percentage impedance of a 100 KVA, 11kV/400V, delta/Wye, 50Hz transformer is 4.5%.
For the circulation of half the full load current during short circuit test, with low voltage
terminals shorted the applied voltage on the high voltage side will be
a) 200V b) 247.5V c) 250V d) 230V

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

50. The squirrel cage rotor machine can be used with stator wound for ---- poles
a) 2 b) 4 c) any number d) either a) or b)

51. A 3-∅, 6-pole SRIM is directly driven by the shaft of a 4-pole, 3-phase synchronous motor. If
stators of both the machines are given a 50Hz supply, what frequencies are available at the
slip rings of SRIM.
a) 35Hz or 135Hz b) 25Hz or 125Hz
c) 12.5Hz or 112.5Hz d) 16.67Hz or 83.33Hz

52. A 4-pole IM, supplied by a slightly unbalanced three phase, 50Hz source, is rotating at 1440
rpm. The electrical frequency in Hz of the induced negative sequence current in rotor is
a) 100 b) 98 c) 52 d) 48

53. In a single layer, 3-phase winding having 2 slots / pole / phase, the phase spread is
a) 30 b) 20 c) 45 d) 60

54. If a synchronous machine has a large value of SCR then

1. Regulation is poor 2. More power output 3. Regulation is better
4. Large size 5. Less stable
From these, the correct answer is
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 2, 4

55. The current in armature conductors of a dc machine is

a) pure dc b) pulsating dc c) ac d) none

56. A series generator can self excite provided

a) speed is low b) inter pole is present
c) the load current is zero d) the load current is not zero

57. A cumulatively compound dc generator is supplying 20amps at 200volts. Now, if its series
field winding is short circuited, the terminal voltage
a) will become less than 200 volts b) will remain unaltered at 200 volts
c) will rise to 220 volts d) will shoot up to a very high value

58. A series motor drawing an armature current of I a is operating under satured magnetic
conditions. The torque developed in the motor is proportional to
1 1
a) 𝐼 b) 𝐼2 c) 𝐼𝑎2 d) 𝐼𝑎
𝑎 𝑎

59. A dc shunt motor having unsaturated magnetic circuit runs at 1000 rpm with rated voltage. If
the applied voltage is half of the rated voltage, the motor will run at
a) 2000 rpm b) 1000 rpm c) 750 rpm d) 500 rpm

60. By increasing the number of commutator segments of a dc machine

a) Total output power is increased b) Total output power is decreased
c) Generator output current is increased d) The shape of output dc wave becomes smooth

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

61. The discrete-time equation y(n+1) +0.5ny(n) = 0.5X(n+1) is not attributable to

a) Memory less system b) Time varying system
c) Linear system d) Causal system

62. The function f(t) = tδ(t) will be equal to

a) t b) ∞ c) 1 d) 0

63. The fundamental period of x(t) = 2sin 2t + 3sin 3t, with ‘t’ expressed in seconds is ----
a) 1s b) 0.67s c) 2s d) 3s


64. The power in the signal 𝑆(𝑡) = 10 cos (20 − 2) + 4 sin(10𝑡) is
a) 50 b) 124 c) 58 d) 48

65. If u(t) is the unit step and δ(t) is the unit impulse function, the inverse z-transform of 𝐹(𝑧) =
1
for K > 0 is -----
𝑧+1
a) (−1)𝑘 𝛿(𝑘) b) 𝛿 (𝑘) − (−1)𝑘 c) (−1)𝑘 𝑢(𝑘) d) 𝑢(𝑘) − (−1)𝑘

66. The number of terms in the expansion of general determinant of order ‘n’ is -----
a) n2 b) n! c) n d) (n+1)2

67. Consider the following rectifier circuits

1. Half wave rectifier without filter
2. Full wave rectifier without filter
3. Full wave rectifier with series Inductance filter
4. Full wave rectifier with capacitance filter
The sequence of these rectifier circuits in decreasing order of their ripple factor is -----
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 3, 4, 1, 2 c) 1, 2, 4, 3 d) 3, 2, 1, 4

68. Consider the following circuit configuration

1. Common Emitter 2. Common Base
3. Emitter follower 4. Emitter follower using Darlington pair
The correct sequence in increasing order of the input resistances of these configurations is
a) 2, 1, 4, 3 b) 1, 2, 4, 3 c) 2, 1, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4

69. Match List I (Name of the oscillator) with List II (Characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists

List I List II
P Colpitts oscillator 1 RC oscillator
Q Phase shift oscillator 2 LC oscillator
R Tunnel diode oscillator 3 Negative resistance oscillator
S Relaxation oscillator 4 Sweep circuits
a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 c) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

70. The function 𝑓 (𝑥 ) = |𝑥 + 1| on the interval [-2, 0] is ----

a) continuous and differentiable
b) continuous on the interval but not differentiable at all inputs
c) neither continuous nor differentiable
d) differentiable but not continuous.

71. The vector field F = Xi – Yj (where ‘i’ and ‘j’ are unit vectors) is ----
a) divergence free, but irrotational b) irrotational, but not divergence free
c) divergence free and irrotational d) neither divergence free nor irrotational

72. Sarala and Nirmala appeared in an interview for two vacancies in the same department. The
probability of Sarala’s selection is 1/6 and that of Nirmala is 1/8. What is the probability that
only one of them will be selected.
a) 47/48 b) ¼ c) 13/48 d) 35/48

73. If 𝑋𝑌̅ + 𝑋̅ 𝑌 = 𝑍 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑋𝑍̅ + 𝑋̅𝑍 is equal to

a) 𝑌̅ b) Y c) 0 d) 1

74. Which of the following statements refers to decoder?

a) only one output can be activated at any time b) Has more outputs than inputs
c) can be used as a BCD to 7 segment display interface d) all the above

75. Race around condition occurs in ----

a) synchronous circuit b) Asynchronous circuit
c) Combinational circuit d) All the digital circuit

76. Simpson’s rule for integration gives exact result when f(x) is a polynomial function of degree
less than (or) equal to -----
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

77. Sphere of radius ‘a’ with a uniform charge density ρv c/m3 shall have electric flux density at
r = a, equal to ----
𝑎 1 𝑎
a) 3 𝜌𝑣 𝑎𝑟 𝑐/𝑚2 b) 3 𝜌𝑣 𝑎𝑟 𝑐/𝑚2 c) 𝑎𝜌𝑣 𝑎𝑟 𝑐/𝑚2 d) 4 𝜌𝑣 𝑎𝑟 𝑐/𝑚2

78. Consider the following statements regarding an electrostatic field :

1. It is irrotational 2. It is solenoidal
3. It is static only from a microscopic viewpoint
4. Work done in moving a charge in the field from one point to another is independent of the
path of the movement.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) only 2 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4

79. Which one of the following gives the approximate value of the capacitance between two
spheres, whose separation is very much larger than their radii R?
2𝜋𝜀0⁄ 4𝜋𝜀0⁄
a) 2𝜋⁄𝜀0 𝑅 b) 2𝜋𝜀0 𝑅 c) 𝑅 d) 𝑅

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

80. The electric field across a dielectric to air interface is shown in the given figure. The surface
charge density on the interfere is ----

a) −4𝜀0 b) −3𝜀0 c) −2𝜀0 d) −𝜀0

81. Two men A and B start from place ‘X’ walking at 4 ½ kmph and 5 ¾ kmph respectively. How
many km apart they are at the end of 3 ½ hours if they are walking in the same direction?
a) 4 ½ km b) 5 ¾ c) 4 3/8 km d) 35 7/8 km

82. The average age of a husband and a wife is 23 years when they were married five years ago
but now the average age of the husband, wife and child is 20 years (the child was born during
the interval), what is the present age of the child?
a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 4 years

83. A and B enter into partnership with capital as 7 : 9. At the end of 8 months, A withdraws, if
they receive the profits in the ratio of 8 : 9. Find how long B’s capital was used?
a) 6 months b) 8 months c) 10 months d) 7 months

84. A trader the marked the price of a car 20% above the cost price and allowed the purchaser 5%
discount on the marked price there by gained Rs 8400. Find the cost price of the car?
a) Rs 60,000 b) Rs 75,000 c) Rs 68,400 d) Rs 78,400

85. Answer the questions based on the following information A, B, C and D are to be seated in a
row. But C and D cannot be together. Also B cannot be at the third place. Which of the
following must be false?
a) A is at the first place b) A is at the second place
c) A is at the third place d) A is at the fourth place

86. Identify the question tag for the given sentence “ Everyone knows our Prime Minister”?
a) do they? b) doesn’t he? c) don’t he? d) doesn’t they?

87. Identify the suitable word for the given underlined word in the sentence “Stop taking drugs
test you are caught”
a) might be caught b) will be caught c) may be caught d) would be caught

88. Out of the given alternatives, the one, which can be substituted for the given words (or)
sentence “One who hates mankind”
a) philanthropist b) misanthrope c) hater d) rebel

89. Choose the myself appropriate preposition. Finding myself short ---- money, I wrote ---- my
uncle --- help.
a) of, to, for b) in, to, to c) with, to , for d) to, to, about

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 SAIMEDHA MOCK TEST 12 (EEE) (100 Marks, Duration 2 Hrs)

90. Which of the following is not a type of software

a) system software b) application software
c) utility software d) entertainment software

91. Which of the following class of computers cannot support multiple users simultaneously
a) Mainframe computers b) Mini computers
c) Micro computers d) All of them can support

92. Which of the following registers is loaded with the contents of the memory location pointed
by the pc?
a) Memory address registers b) Memory data registers
c) Instruction register d) Program counter

93. Which was the computer conceived by Babbage?

a) Analytical Engine b) Arithmetic Machine c) Donald Kunth d) All

94. The 7th meeting of Eminent Person’s Group (EPG) on Nepal-Indian relations was recently
held in which city?
a) New Delhi b) Kanpur c) Kathmandu d) Shimla

95. What is the theme of the 21st National Conference on e-Governance 2018?
a) Internet of things and e-Governance b) Technology for Accelerating Development
c) Artificial Intelligence and e-Governance d) Technology for Human kind

96. What is the caption of “Mission Kakatiya” which was launched by Telangana Government?
a) Mi ooru – Mi cheruvu b) Mana ooru – Mana cheruvu
c) Mi cheruvu – Mi chettu d) Mana cheruvu – Mana chettu

97. According to the 2011 census, Telangana’s literacy rate is

a) 68.46% b) 66.46% c) 76.46% d) 74.95%

98. During which Nizam Nawab’s rule, State of Hyderabad started Road Transport System?
a) Salar-Jung b) Mir Osman Ali Khan
c) Nizam-ul-Mulk d) Nizam Ali Khan

99. Which Kakatiya king’s name is mentioned on the famous inscription in the Rudresvar temple
at Hanumakonda?
a) Mahadeva b) Rani Rudramadevi c) Rudra deva d) Ganapathi deva

100. Which Indian state has announced to introduce “course credits” in secondary education for
students to take part in certain programmes?
a) Kerala b) Tamil Nadu c) Haryana d) Telangana

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