Aiats 5 PDF

Test-5 (Code-E)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
TEST - 5 (Code-E)
Test Date : 02/02/2020
ANSWERS
1. Deleted 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (4) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146. (4)
3. (3) 39. (3) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (4) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (2) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (2) 81. (4) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (3) 84. (1) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (2)
14. (3) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (1)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (4) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (3) 91. (3) 127. (1) 163. (2)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (1) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (1) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (4)
25. (3) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (1)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (3) 102. (2) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (1) 175. (2)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (1) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (1) 105. (4) 141. (1) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (1) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (1)
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Deleted
2. Answer (2)
qenclosed
Hint : Electric flux = .
ε0
q 4 × 10 −6
Sol. : qenclosed= = = 10 −6 C E A + EC =18 × 103 N/C
4 4

qenclosed 10 −6 EB + ED =36 × 103 N/C
φcube
= =
ε0 ε0
Enet = ( 36 × 103 )2 + (18 × 103 )2
3. Answer (3)
= 18 5 × 103 N/C
kQ
Hint : Use E = E1 + E2 + E3 + … and E = 2 .
r 4. Answer (4)
Hint : Use FE = qE and ΣF = 0 for equilibrium.
Sol. :
Sol. : From the F.B.D.
Given co-ordinates of point
A = (0, 0, 0) T sinθ = qE
T cosθ = qE
B = ( 2 , 0, 0)
qE
tan θ =
mg
C = ( 2 , 2 , 0)
mg tan θ σ
=
D = (0, 2 , 0) q ε0
ε0
 1 1  σ = mg tan θ
O=  , ,0  q
 2 2 
ε0
1 q 9 × 109
= × 10−6 × 10 × 1
E A = EC = ⋅ 2 = × 1× 10−6 = 9 × 103 N/C 10−6
4πε0 r 1
= 10ε0
1 2q 5. Answer (2)
EB = ED = ⋅ =18 × 103 N/C
4πε0 r 2  
Hint : p= q ⋅ l
2/20
Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
Sol. : 8. Answer (1)

Hint & Sol. : Electric potential decreases in the
direction of electric field.
Hence, VA > VC > VB.
9. Answer (2)
Hint : W = ∆U = q∆V.
Kq K ( −q )
Sol. : VC = + 0
=
1 1

p1 = p2 = q × l Kq K ( −q ) −2Kq
VD = + =
–6 –2 3 1 3
= 10 × 10
–8  2 
= 10 Cm W = Q(VD – VC) = Q  − Kq − 0 
 3 
Now, p = p12 +=
p22 (10−8 )2 + (10−8 )2 2
= − KQq
3
= 2 × 10−8 C m 10. Answer (3)
6. Answer (1) dV
Hint : Use E = − .
Kdq 1 dr
Hint : Use dE = 2
, where K = . 3
r 4πε0 Sol. : Given V = –xy + z – z yx
Sol. : −∂V
Ex = y + z3 y
= 0
=
∂x (1, 0, 1)
−∂V
Ey = =+ x + z 3 x =2
∂y (1, 0, 1)
−∂V
Ez = =−1 + 3z 2 yx =−1
∂z (1, 0, 1)

E = E x iˆ + E y jˆ + Ez kˆ
Consider an infinitesimally small element of length
dy at a distance y from origin O. The charge on this = ( 2 ˆj − kˆ ) V/m
section is dq = λdy 11. Answer (2)
1 dq ˆ ∆V
Now, = dE0 ⋅ (– j ) Hint : E = and field lines are directed from
4πε0 y 2 ∆r
high potential to low potential.
ˆ ∞
λ ∞ dy
( ˆj ) −λj  1  ∆V
=E0
4πε0 ∫a y 2
= −
4πε0  − y  a Sol. : =
E =
(80 − 60) V
=
20 V
= 200 V/m
∆r (40 − 30) cm 0.1 m

−λˆj  1  1  E = 200 V/m along –x axis
= − ∞ −  − a 
4πε0    12. Answer (1)
λ Hint : Area under electric field-position graph
=E0 ( − jˆ ) gives potential difference.
4πε0 a
Sol. : ∆V = Area under the curve
7. Answer (2) 1 1
= 10 × 2 + × 10 × 1 + × 10 × 1 + 10 × 1
Hint & Sol. : Electric flux through a closed surface, 2 2
as per Gauss’s law depends only on enclosed = 20 + 5 + 5 + 10
charges while electric field at any point depends
∆V = 40 V
on all the charges.
3/20
13. Answer (2) Hence, VA – VB = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 V

kQ VA = 12 V (VB = 0)
Hint : Electric potential V = and
r
16. Answer (1)
use V = V1 + V2 + V3 + …
Hint : W = ∆U = pE(cosθ1 – cosθ2).
Sol. : Sol. : W = pE (cos0° – cos90°)

= pE
V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + … 17. Answer (2)
1 1 1 1  Hint : Use CP = C1 + C2 + …
= k × 10−6  + + + + …
1 2 4 8  Sol. : After rearranging the circuit, effective
3 1 
capacitance can be given as
= 9 × 10 
1
1 − 
 2
= 18 kV
14. Answer (3)
q1q2
Hint : U = qV and U12 = .
4πε0 r
C = 6C
Sol. :
= 6 × 2 µF
= 12 µF
18. Answer (3)
Hint : Use voltage divider rule and concept of
series and parallel combination of capacitor.
C × 2C C × C
Sol. : CAB = +
Usystem = U1 + U2 + U12 C + 2C C + C
q A qB 2C C 7C
= q AV ( rA ) + qBV ( rB ) + = + =
4πε0 rAB 3 2 6
Also, breakdown voltage of combination will be
15. Answer (4) 3V
.
Hint : Use q = CV and concept of earthing. 2
Hint : Charge on capacitor Q = CV.
Sol. :
C
Q = 20 × = 4C
5 Potential difference between points A and B is
Voltage across each capacitor is zero.
Q 4C Hence, Q4 µF = 4 × 0
VC= = = 4V
C C =0
4/20
20. Answer (4) From the voltage divider law

ε0 A 2 2V
VA = ×V =
Hint : C = . 3 3
 1
d − t 1 − 
 K 2 V
=
VB = V
6 3
Sol. :
Here VA > VB
Hence, current in wire will flow from A to B.
23. Answer (1)
Hint : Use V = IR.
Sol. : As shown in the figure current supplied by
the battery will be 1 A
1
U= C V2
2 AB AB
ε0 A
CAB =
d 1
d − 1 − 
2 ∞
2Aε0
=
d V
i=
Req
1
U = CV 2
2 10
1=
1 2 Aε0 4 + 1+ 3 + R
= (2V )2
2 d R + 8 = 10
4Aε0V 2 R=2Ω
= 24. Answer (2)
d
Hint : i = neAvd.
21. Answer (2)
Sol. : Since current flowing through conductor is
Hint & Sol. : Kirchhoff’s junction law is same. Hence Avd = constant
consequence of conservation of charge while loop
law is consequence of conservation of energy.  A1 < A2 < A3
22. Answer (1) ∴ vd > vd > vd

1 2 3
Hint : Use voltage divider law.

25. Answer (3)
Hint : Use colour coding of carbon resistor.
Sol. : 3
Sol. : Given R = (12 ± 1.2) × 10 Ω
3
= 12 × 10 ± 10%
Hence, Brown → 1
Red → 2
Orange → 3
Silver → ±10%
5/20
26. Answer (4) Power loss through wire is

Hint : Use potential gradient concept and voltage V 2 800 × 800
=
P = = 16 × 103 W
divider rule. R 40
Sol. : Ploss = 16 kW
30. Answer (3)

Hint : Use Kirchhoff’s voltage law.
Sol. :
Vwire = 8 × 0.1
= 0.8 V
4
0.8
⇒= × 16
16 + R
⇒ 12.8 + 0.8R = 64
⇒ 0.8R = 51.2 Current through 4 Ω resistor will be 1 A
⇒ R = 64 Ω Hence, VA + 1 + 4 × 1 – 2 – VB = 0
27. Answer (2) 0 + 1 + 4 – 2 = VB
2
L L VB = 3 V
Hint : Use R =ρ =ρ .
A V
2 31. Answer (2)
Sol. : Since R ∝ L
2
Hint : Use P = i R.
R1 L12
= 2
R2 L22 Sol.=
i 
: P3 Ω   (3 Ω)
2
100 L2
⇒ = i2 2
R2 (4L )2 =
4 3
⇒ R2 = 1600 Ω
2
i  2 14
P7 Ω =   × 7 = × 7 = W
28. Answer (4) 2 3 3
Hint : Use Kirchhoff’s loop law. 32. Answer (4)
Hint : Use wheatstone bridge concept.
Sol. :
R1 R3
Sol. : =
R2 R4
4 2
=
10 5
VA – 1 × 4 – 4 – 1 × 1 – 1 × 2 – 2 × 1 = VB
Hence bridge is balanced.
VA – VB = 13 V
6 × 15 30
29. Answer (1) Then=
Req =
21 7
V2 V = iReq
Hint : Use P =
R
Sol. : Vwire = 200 × 4 = 800 V V 7V
=i =
30 30
Rwire = 200 × 0.2 = 40 Ω 7
6/20
33. Answer (2) Req = RA + RB = .02 + 0.1 = 0.12 Ω

2
V V = iReq = 2 × 0.12
Hint : Use P = .
R = 0.24 V
Sol. :
37. Answer (1)
Eeq E1 E2 E3
Hint : Use = + + +…
Req R1 R2 R3
Sol. : The circuit can be redrawn as

V 2 100 × 100
= =
Rbulb = 25 Ω
P 400
Vbulb = 100 V
Rbulb
100
= × 230
R + Rbulb
25 1 1 1 1
100
= × 230 = + +
25 + R req 2 2 1
100 + 4R = 230 1
req= Ω
130 2
=
R = 32.5 Ω
4 Eeq 10 10 5
= + −
34. Answer (1) 1 2 2 1
2
l −l 
Hint : r =  1 2  R
 l  10
 2  E=
eq
= 2.5 V
4
Sol. : l1 = 62 cm (when key is open)
2.5
l2 = 58 cm (when key is closed) =i = 1A
2.5
l −l  4
r =  1 2 ×R = × 10 = 0.69 ≈ 0.7 Ω 38. Answer (2)
 l  58
 2 
2
Hint : Use P = i R.
35. Answer (2)
2
Hint : Use concept of metre bridge. Sol. : 18 = (6) R
X l 18
Sol. : = =
R = 0.5 Ω
R 100 − l 36
X 40 4 39. Answer (3)
= =
3 100 − 40 6 Hint : Use V = IR and voltage divider formula.
X=2Ω Sol. : Reading of voltmeter
36. Answer (2) 10
=V = × 10 5 V
L 20 × 20
Hint : V = iR and R = ρ . 10 +
A 20 + 20
1 10
2 × 10−8 ×
Sol. : RA = −6
2 × 10−2 Ω
= Reading of ammeter A is=i = 0.5 A ,
10 20
1 V 5
RB =10 −7 × =10 −1 Ω Ratio of V and i, = = 10
10 −6 i 0.5
7/20
40. Answer (1) V1 is more than the rated voltage while V2 is less
than that of rated voltage hence bulb B1 will blow
Hint : V = E + ir.
out.
20E − 2E 18 E 9 E
Sol.
= : i = = 43. Answer (1)
20r 20 r 10 r
Hint : At steady state capacitor acts as open
9 E
V =+
E ×r circuit.
10 r
Sol. : At t = 0, capacitor is shorted, hence
19
= E 4
10 =i = 4 mA
500 + 500
41. Answer (2)
As time t → ∞, capacitor is fully charged and offer
1 1 1 infinite resistance
Hint : Use = + + … and
RP R1 R2
4
RS = R 1 + R 2 + R 3 + … Hence i
= = 2 mA
1000 + 500 + 500
Sol. : Circuit can be redrawn as Voltage across capacitor at steady state
1000
V=
C
4 2V
×=
2000
Charge on capacitor = Q = CV
Q = 6 µF × 2 V
= 12 µC
2R × 6R 12 3
=Req = R = R
2R + 6R 8 2 44. Answer (1)
42. Answer (2) Hint : R = R0(1 + α∆t)
V2 Sol. : R1 = R0(1 + α∆t1)

Hint : Use P = .
R
R2 = R0(1 + α∆t2)
R1 1 + α∆t1
=
Sol. : R2 1 + α∆t2
4 [1 + (0.002 × 250)] 1.5

=⇒ =
6 [1 + 0.002 × t2 ] 1 + 0.002 t2
100 × 100
=
R1 = 200 Ω 9
50 ⇒ 1 + 0.002 t2 =
4
100 × 100
=
R2 = 100 Ω 5
100 ⇒ t2 = × 500 =625°C
4
Voltage across B1
45. Answer (2)
200 440
V1 = × 220 = V = 146.67 V Hint : Use i= J ⋅ A
300 3

Voltage across B2 Sol. : Since i = J ⋅ A = ( 8iˆ + 2 jˆ ) ⋅ ( 2iˆ + 3 jˆ ) × 10−4
–4
100 220 = (16 + 6) × 10 A
V2 = × 220 = = 73.33 V
300 3 = 2.2 mA
8/20
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (4)
Hint : SN1 reaction. Sol. :

Sol. :
47. Answer (1)

51. Answer (3)
Hint : +I effect decreases the acidic nature. Hint : In clemmensen reduction, carbonyl group is
Sol. : Acidic nature : reduced to group.
52. Answer (1)

Hint : Lesser the electron density on carbonyl
carbon, more will be its reactivity towards
nucleophile.
53. Answer (1)

48. Answer (3) ∆
Hint : 6HCHO + 4NH3  → (CH2 )6 N4 + 6H2O
formaldehyde
Hint : HIO4 does oxidative cleavage of vicinal urotropine
diols. Sol. :
Sol. :
• (phenyl salicylate) known
as salol
•
49. Answer (2)
Hint : Opening of 3-member ring take place. •
Sol. :
54. Answer (3)
Hint : Ethanol gives positive iodoform test.
Sol. :
55. Answer (3)

50. Answer (4) Hint : Hydrolysis of cyanides in acidic medium
Hint : Reimer-Tiemann reaction. gives carboxylic acid.
9/20
Sol. : Sol. : Basic nature:
II I III
56. Answer (2) 61. Answer (2)

Hint : More the number of electron donating Hint : Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
groups attached to the compound, lesser will be
Sol. :
the acidic strength.
Sol. :
Acidic nature: HCOOH > C6H5COOH > CH3COOH 62. Answer (2)
Hint : o-nitro aniline is the minor product.
pKa: 3.75 4.2 4.76
Sol. :
57. Answer (1)
Hint : More the stability of conjugate base (A–),
more will be the acidic strength of (HA).
Sol. :
63. Answer (1)
Hint : Generally, tertiary alkyl halide undergoes
elimination with a base on heating.
58. Answer (1)
Sol. :
Hint : Only aliphatic aldehydes give positive
response to Fehling test.
Sol. :
64. Answer (4)

Hint : Rosenmund reaction
59. Answer (4)

Hint : Azobenzene will obtain.
Sol. :
65. Answer (4)

Hint : Lesser the stability of carbocation, lesser will
be the reactivity of corresponding alcohol towards
60. Answer (3) Lucas reagent.
Hint : More the availability of lone pair on N-atom, Sol. : Primary alcohol reacts slowly with lucas
more will be the basic nature of amine. reagent.
10/20

Hint : Acid catalysed dehydration occurs via Hint : CH3 — COOH + NH3 → CH3 COONH4
carbocation intermediate. (Acid−Base reaction)
Sol. : Sol. :

Hint : Hydroboration oxidation is used for Hint :
hydration of alkene by anti Markovnikov rule.
Hint :
68. Answer (4)

Hint : Acidic nature: 74. Answer (3)
picric acid > carbonic acid > phenol > ethanol > Hint : CH3CO2C2H5 undergoes Claisen ester
acetylene.
condensation with strong base.
Sol. : C2H5 ONa +
Sol. : 2CH3 CO2C2H5 ∆
→
O
||
CH3 — C — CH2 — CO2C2H5
75. Answer (2)

Hint : Carboxylic acid undergoes Hell-Volhard
69. Answer (1) Zelinsky reaction in presence of Br2/red-P.
Hint : C — Cl bond in aryl halide has double bond Sol. :
character.
Sol. :

Hint : Carbonyl compounds are more polar than Hint : β-hydroxy carbonyl compounds undergo
ethers. dehydration more readily.
11/20

Hint : Reaction occurs via carbocation Hint : The reaction involves diazotisation followed
intermediate. by coupling reaction with phenol.
Sol. : Sol. :
78. Answer (4)

Hint : Acidic strength: HI > HBr > HCl.
79. Answer (3)

83. Answer (1)
Hint : Cannizzaro reaction.
Sol. : 2HCHO CH3OH + HCOO Na+
– Hint :
80. Answer (2)

84. Answer (1)
Hint : Pyruvic acid : .
Hint :
Sol. : Lactic acid :
Tartaric acid : 85. Answer (2)

Hint : Carbylamine reaction:
CHCl +KOH+∆
R — NH2 →
3
R — NC
(Isocyanide)
(1° Amine)
Citric acid :
86. Answer (3)
Hint : (NH4)2S is used for the partial reduction of
81. Answer (4)
1,3-dinitro benzene.
Hint : Generally ketone do not give response to
Tollen’s reagent. Sol. :
Sol. :
12/20
87. Answer (4) Sol. :

Hint : 3° amines do not react with Hinsberg’s
reagent.
88. Answer (4)
Hint : Sandmeyer reaction is used for the
preparation of chlorobenzene, bromobenzene and
benzonitrile.
89. Answer (4)
Hint : Aryl Halides do not give Gabriel phthalimide
reaction.
90. Answer (4)
Hint : — COOH is a meta directing group.
[BIOLOGY]
Hint : Perisperm is the diploid nutritive tissue Hint : In cleistogamous flowers seed setting is
present in the seeds of few angiosperms. assured even in the absence of pollinating agents.
Sol. : Perisperm present in the seeds of few Sol. : Viola (common pansy) produces
angiospermic plants is the persistent nucellus. cleistogamous flowers.
Sol. : Vegetative propagule of ginger is rhizome. Hint : Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of
angiosperms.
93. Answer (4) Sol. : In angiosperms, functional megaspore
Hint : Papaya and date palms are dioecious undergoes 3 mitotic divisions to produce 7 celled-
plants. 8 nucleated embryo sac.
Sol. : In dioecious plants, autogamy as well as 99. Answer (1)
geitonogamy are prevented.
Sol. : The scar of seed where funicle was attached
94. Answer (1) is called hilum.
Sol. : Single large, shield-shaped cotyledon of 100. Answer (3)
maize seed is called scutellum. Sol. : Mammals, tree dwelling rodents and some
95. Answer (3) reptiles are reported as pollinators for different
plant species.
Hint : Sporopollenin is resistant to strong acid,
alkali and enzymatic degradation. 101. Answer (1)
Sol. : Sporopollenin is present in exine (outer layer Hint : Aquatic algae and fungi produce flagellated
of sporoderm) of pollen grain. spores for asexual reproduction.
Sol. : Chlamydomonas shows asexual reproduction
96. Answer (2)
by formation of zoospores.
Hint : Anemophilous flowers are pollinated by
wind. 102. Answer (2)
Sol. : Anemophilous flowers are packed into Hint : Adventive embryo formation occurs by
inflorescence and produce large number of pollen apomixis which is a kind of asexual reproduction.
grains. Anemophilous flowers do not form any Sol. : Adventive embryos produce progenies
colour or nector for attracting insects. These identical to their parents as there is no genetic
flowers have single or few ovules in the ovaries. variations during apomixis.
13/20
103. Answer (4) Sol. : Megaspore mother cell undergoes reductional

Sol. : Floral rewards and attractants are required division to produce haploid megaspores during
for flowers pollinated by insects. megasporogenesis.
104. Answer (2) 112. Answer (3)

Hint : Filiform apparatus is finger-like projections Hint : Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless.
present towards the micropylar end of the cell wall Sol. : Fruits of banana are parthenocarpic.
of synergids.
113. Answer (1)
Sol. : Filiform apparatus guides the entry of pollen
tube into synergids. Hint : Transfer of male gametes by water occur in
bryophytes and pteridophytes.
105. Answer (4)
Sol. : 7 celled-8 nucleated female gametophyte of
Sol. : Michelia have flowers with apocarpus ovary
angiosperm can be formed by monosporic,
or pistils free from each other.
bisporic or tetrasporic development. Water is
106. Answer (3) required for transfer of pollen grains in Vallisneria
Hint : Chara is a green alga which has plant.
multicellular and jacketed sex organs. 114. Answer (3)
Sol. : Most species of Chara are monoecious. Hint : Monocarpic plants lack interflowering period
Globule and nucule are male and female sex in their life span.
organs of Chara respectively.
Sol. : Jackfruit is a polycarpic plant. Rest all are
107. Answer (1) monocarpic.
Hint : Synergids are haploid while cells of
115. Answer (2)
aleurone layer are triploid.
Sol. : Leaf cells of maize (2n) have 20 Hint : Vegetative cell of pollen grain is larger in
chromosomes then synergids (n) would have 10 size in comparison to generative cell.
and cells of aleurone layer (3n) would have 30 Sol. : Vegetative cell has large irregularly shaped
chromosomes. nucleus. On the other hand generative cell floats
in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell and is absent in
108. Answer (2)
pollens shed at three celled stage.
Hint : Spirogyra shows isogamous type of sexual
reproduction with non-motile gametes. 116. Answer (4)
Sol. : Both male and female gametes of Spirogyra Hint : Pink flower of snapdragon is observed due
are non-flagellated. to incomplete dominance of flower colour gene
(heterozygous condition)
109. Answer (4)
Sol. :
Hint : Water hyacinth and water lily are insect
pollinated flowers.
Sol. : Hydrilla plant is water pollinated while
grasses are pollinated by wind.
110. Answer (2)
Hint : Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction
that mimics sexual reproduction.
Sol. : Apomixis is a process in which seed
formation occurs without fertilisation.
111. Answer (3)

Hint : Megasporogenesis occurs in megaspore
mother cell of ovule.
14/20

Hint : Non-disjunction of homologous chromosomes
leads to genomatic mutations or aneuploidy.
Sol. : In Klinefelter’s syndrome, chromosome
complement of inflicted individual is 44 + XXY due
to non disjunction of sex chromosomes.
118. Answer (2)

Hint : Starch synthesizing gene in pea which also
regulates the size of seed, show incomplete
dominance.
Sol. : • Probability of thalassemia in F2 gen. (aa
1
Polygenic inheritance – Kernel colour of wheat genotype carrying individual) = .
4
Multiple allelism – ABO blood group in human
123. Answer (2)
Pleiotropy – Phenylketonuria
Hint : Domesticated fowls show female
119. Answer (3) heterogamety.
Hint : From father, daughter receive X- Sol. : In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny
chromosome while son receives Y-chromosome. depends upon the type of egg rather than type of
Sol. : If the character of a father is inherited by sperm.
both daughter and son, then the gene of that
character should be present on any of the 124. Answer (4)
autosome of male parent. Male gamete does not Sol. : Alleles or Allelomorphs are different
contribute to the mitochondrial DNA pool of the molecular forms of a gene.
zygote/progeny.
125. Answer (3)
120. Answer (2)
Hint : In a test cross, individual showing dominant
Hint : Transfer of gene from one linkage group to phenotype is crossed with recessive parent.
another is an illegitimate crossing over.
Sol. : A dihybrid test cross can help in determining
Sol. : Crossing over occurs between genes linkage between two traits. A Test cross produces
present on non sister chromatids of homologous equal number of genotypes and phenotypes. Two
chromosomes, due to which new combination different species do not interbreed so their
arise but linkage group of genes does not get interbreeding ability cannot be determined by test
changed. Change in linkage of genes occur due to cross.
translocation or illegitimate crossing over.
126. Answer (4)
121. Answer (1) Hint : Tightly linked genes are present on same
Hint : Recessive traits express only in chromosome very close to each other.
homozygous condition. Sol. : Tightly linked gene produce more parental
Sol. : Terminal flower in pea is a recessive trait. combinations than recombinants.
122. Answer (3) 127. Answer (1)

Hint : Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive Sol. : XO type of sex determination is observed in
disorder. grasshopper.
15/20
128. Answer (4) Sol. : Different symbols used in pedigree analysis

Hint : Silent mutations (same sense mutations) – Gender unspecified
does not cause change in the structure of
polypeptide chain. – Normal female
Sol. : Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal – Affected male
aberrations. Deletion and addition are common
type of frame shift mutations. γ-rays and UV-rays – Mating between relatives
are physical mutagens.
135. Answer (3)
129. Answer (3)
Sol. : Factors do not show any blending and both
Sol. : Mendel worked on garden pea for 7 years the traits are recovered in F2 generation, explains
(1856-1863). the law of segregation.
130. Answer (4) 136. Answer (4)
Hint : Chromosome compliment of individual Hint : Certain species live longer than others.
inflicted with Turner’s syndrome is 44 + XO.
Sol. : Maximum life span is the maximum number
Sol. : A person inflicted with Turner’s syndrome of years survived or the greatest age reached by
is/has any member of a particular species.
• Sterile female Life expectancy, the number of years an individual
• Development of rudimentary ovaries can expect to live for, is based on average life span.
• 45 chromosomes in each cell 137. Answer (1)

• Shorter stature than normal Hint : Animal that belongs to phylum Arthropoda.
Sol. : Approximate life span of butterfly is 1-2
131. Answer (2)
weeks, crow - 15 years, parrot - 140 years,
Hint : Drosophila can be grown easily in simple tortoise - 100-150 years.
synthetic medium.
138. Answer (2)
Sol. : Drosophila produces large number of
offsprings in a single mating and its male and Hint : Process which is essential for variation.
female individuals can be easily recognised. Sol. : In asexual reproduction, there is no crossing
These are some of the reasons due to which it is over, hence new recombination does not occur.
considered as suitable material for genetic During sexual reproduction, crossing over takes
studies. place.
132. Answer (3) 139. Answer (1)
Hint : Dominant traits are called wild type traits. Hint : Technique that resulted in formation of Dolly.
Sol. : Red eyes of Drosophila is a dominant or wild Sol. : Clones are morphologically and genetically
type trait. Drosophila carrying such phenotype is identical individuals.
called wild type Drosophila for that trait.
Monozygotic and dizygotic twins are product of
133. Answer (2) sexual reproduction. In genetic engineering, chimera
is recombinant plasmid containing foreign DNA.
Hint : Male honey bees are produced
parthenogenetically from unfertilised eggs. 140. Answer (1)
Sol. : Male honey bees are haploid individuals and Hint : Identify ciliated protozoan.
they produce gametes by mitosis.
Sol. : In transverse binary fission, the plane of
134. Answer (1) fission runs perpendicular to longitudinal axis of the
individual e.g. Paramecium, Planaria. Longitudinal
Hint : In pedigree analysis male is represented by
binary fission is the mode of asexual reproduction
while female is represented by .
in Euglena. Hydra and yeast show budding.
16/20
141. Answer (1) 147. Answer (2)

Hint : Animal which belongs to phylum Porifera. Hint : This reproductive event is followed by
Sol. : In fresh water sponges (e.g. Spongilla) the gestation period.
parent individual releases a specialised mass of Sol. : Embedding of blastocyst to the uterine wall
the cells enclosed in a common opaque envelope, is called implantation.
called the gemmule. In insemination, transfer of sperms into the female
142. Answer (4) genital tract occurs.
Hint : National animal of India. Embryonic development is known as gestation

while delivery of the baby is known as parturition.
Sol. : In non-primates like cow, sheep, rat, deer,
dogs, tiger etc., oestrus cycle occurs seasonally 148. Answer (3)
while in primates i.e. old world monkeys, apes and Hint : Embryonal knob.
humans, menstrual cycle occurs all around the
Sol. : The epiblast derived from inner cell mass is
year.
the source of all the embryonic germ layers.
143. Answer (1) Trophoblast cells in contact with embryonal knob
Hint : Animal reared in apiculture. are called cells of Rauber. Germinal disc
differentiates into outer epiblast and inner
Sol. : In arrhenotoky, only males are produced by
hypoblast.
parthenogenesis. It occurs in honey bee, wasps
and turkey (birds). 149. Answer (4)
Thelytoky occurs in Lacerta saxicola armeniaca, Hint : Hormone that facilitates maturation of
Typhlina brahmina, Rotifers and Whiptail lizard. ovarian follicles.
Amphitoky occurs in Aphis (aphid). Sol. : Sertoli cells/Nurse cells/Sustentacular cells
144. Answer (3) are regulated by FSH. Leydig/interstitial cells are
regulated by LH. Body growth is regulated by GH.
Hint : Structures formed after second meiotic
Prolactin promotes secretion of milk.
division.
Sol. : Gametes are haploid cells while meiocytes, 150. Answer (4)
primary spermatocytes, primary oogonia and Hint : Hormone highest during estrous phase.
spermatogonia are diploid cells. Sol. : Estrogen surges twice i.e. during luteal and
145. Answer (3) follicular phase.
Hint : Identify unisexual animals. 151. Answer (2)

Sol. : In dioecious/unisexual animals, male and Hint : Menstrual flow results due to break down of
female reproductive system are present in epithelium.
separate individuals e.g. cockroach, frog and Sol. : During menstrual phase, endometrium of
humans. uterus and its blood vessels breakdown resulting
Earthworm, sponge, tapeworm and leech are into menses.
examples of monoecious/bisexual animals.
152. Answer (2)
146. Answer (4) Hint : Area located inner to zona pellucida.
Hint : Process in which gametes are formed. Sol. : Around the egg, ‘X’ represents perivitelline
Sol. : In sexual reproduction, events occurring space. Zona pellucida is surrounded by corona
after the formation of zygote are called post- radiata.
fertilization events. Gametogenesis is a pre-
153. Answer (3)
fertilization event. Gastrulation, cleavage and
embryogenesis are post-fertilization events. Hint : Part of fallopian tube closest to uterus.
17/20
Sol. : Each fallopian tube is differentiated into 158. Answer (1)

three parts. Hint : Sperm count is nearly 200 to 300 million per
(i) Infundibulum : It is funnel shaped, closest to ejaculation.
ovary. Sol. : For normal fertility, at least 60 per cent of
200-300 million sperms must have normal shape
(ii) Ampulla : Middle, wide part of oviduct is called
and size and at least 40 per cent of them must
ampulla.
show vigorous motility.
(iii) Isthmus : It is the last and narrow part that is
∴ 60% of 200-300 million sperm is ~120 to 180
linked to the uterus.
million sperms.
154. Answer (2) 159. Answer (4)
Hint : Oogonia are diploid cells. Hint : It is fluid filled cavity formed in tertiary
follicle.
Sol. : The correct sequence of oogenesis is
Oogonia → Primary oocyte → Secondary oocyte Sol. : The secondary follicle soon transforms into
→ Ovum (ootid). a tertiary follicle which is characterised by
presence of a fluid filled cavity antrum and theca
155. Answer (1) layers.
Hint : Tubuli recti open into these cuboidal 160. Answer (2)
epithelium lined tubules. Hint : Secretory phase.
Sol. : Path of sperm in male body : Sol. : Luteal/secretory phase lasts for 14 days.
Menstrual phase lasts for 3 to 4 days. Ovulation
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
usually occurs on 14th day in a 28 day cycle.
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra. 161. Answer (1)
Hint : Fast block to check polyspermy.
156. Answer (4)
Sol. : During fertilization, a part of sperm enters
Hint : Secretion of this gland gives semen a milky 2+
into cytoplasm of ova. Ca influx causes extrusion
appearance.
of cortical granules (cortical reaction) and zona
Sol. : Prostate gland is unpaired which lies at the reaction which makes the zona pellucida
base of the bladder and surrounds the first part of impervious to other sperms by destroying sperm
the urethra. receptors, leading to slow block to check
polyspermy.
Seminal vesicles are paired, tubular, coiled glands
situated behind the bladder. 162. Answer (2)
The paired bulbourethral Cowper’s glands are pea Hint : Foetus is connected to placenta via two
sized structures lying adjacent to membranous deoxygenated blood carrying vessels.
urethra. Sol. : The umbilical cord connects the foetus to the
placenta. Arteries in umbilical cord carry
157. Answer (2) deoxygenated blood.
Hint : Structure which is in direct contact with 163. Answer (2)
nipple.
Hint : Second trimester.
Sol. : Route of milk from mammary lobes to
Sol. : The first movements of the foetus and
exterior is appearance of hair on the head are usually
Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule → observed during the fifth month (20 weeks) of the
Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → pregnancy. By the end of second month of
Lactiferous duct. pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
18/20
164. Answer (3) Sol. : According to the 2011 census report, the
Hint : Identify a triploblastic structure. population growth rate was less than 2 per cent,
i.e., 20/1000/year. Our population which was
Sol. : Gastrula is that embryonic stage of
approximately 350 million at the time of our
development in which the primary germinal layers
independence reached close to the billion mark by
are formed. In this phase, morphogenetic
2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011.
movements are seen.
Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst → Gastrula. 171. Answer (4)
Hint : Syphilis is caused due to spirochaete.
165. Answer (4)
Sol. : Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
Hint : Structure commonly known as womb.
Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis
Sol. : Ectopic pregnancies involve implantation of
embryo at sites other than uterus. Genital herpes – HSV-2
Genital warts – Human papilloma virus
166. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure which is present close to ovary. 172. Answer (1)
Sol. : Edges of infundibulum possess fimbriae that Hint : Intra-uterine insemination.

show chemotaxis and capture ovum after Sol. : Infertility of male is either due to inability of
ovulation. Nebenkern is arrangement of male partner to achieve an erection of penis to
mitochondria in human sperm. Infundibulum inseminate the female or due to very low sperm
opens into the abdominal cavity through ostia. count in the semen. It can be corrected by AI
(Artificial Insemination).
167. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a chemical method of contraception. 173. Answer (3)
Sol. : Condom, fem shield, diaphragm, cervical Hint : Source of hCG.

cap and vaults are common barrier methods. Sol. : Amnion acts as shock absorber, yolk sac is
Chemical contraceptives are spermicidal creams, site for formation of early blood cells and allantois
jellies and foams. helps in removal of nitrogenous wastes.
168. Answer (4) 174. Answer (1)
Hint : Hormone containing devices. Hint : First trimester of gestation.
Sol. : Average failure rate of natural method Sol. : MTP is safe within the first 12 weeks of
(rhythm), coitus interruptus, oral contraceptives pregnancy.
and implanted contraceptives are 20-30%, 23%,
175. Answer (2)
2-3% and less than one percent respectively.
Hint : An in-vitro ART involving transfer of early
169. Answer (2) embryo into fallopian tube.
Hint : Reversibility of sterilisation procedure is Sol. : In test-tube baby programme, ova from the
poor. wife/donor (female) and sperms from the
Sol. : Vasectomy is a reversible procedure as the husband/donor (male) are collected and are
cut ends can be joined to allow sperm passage but induced to form zygote under simulated conditions
the reversibility is poor. in the laboratory. The zygote or early embryo (with
upto 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into
170. Answer (4) fallopian tube (ZIFT) and embryo with more than 8
Hint : The population growth rate was less than blastomeres into the uterus (IUT-Intra-uterine
2%. transfer) to complete its further development.
19/20
176. Answer (2) 179. Answer (4)

Hint : Minipills should be taken daily. Hint : Nearly 70 million sperms per ejaculate show
Sol. : Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 vigorous motility, shape and size.
days starting preferably within the first five days of
menstrual cycle. Sol. : In copper releasing IUD’s, copper ions
suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of
177. Answer (4)
sperms. Combined pills inhibit ovulation and make
Hint : Acts on mammary glands. uterus unsuitable for implantation.
Sol. : Human chorionic somatomammotrophin
facilitates lactation. 180. Answer (1)
178. Answer (3) Hint : After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become
Hint : Identify the Institute located in Lucknow. embedded in nurse cells.
Sol. : “Saheli” was developed at Central Drug Sol. : After spermiogenesis, the sperm heads
Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India. become embedded in the Sertoli cells and are
National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) – Karnal. finally released from the seminiferous tubules by
ICMR : Indian Council of Medical Research, the process called spermiation. Spermiogenesis is
IARI – New Delhi. transformation of spermatid into sperm.
  
20/20
Test-5 (Code-F)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
TEST - 5 (Code-F)
Test Date : 02/02/2020
ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (1) 38. (1) 74. (2) 110. (4) 146. (4)
3. (1) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (1) 149. (1)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (3) 79. (1) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. Deleted 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (4) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (4) 122. (2) 158. (1)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (3) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (4)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (1)
18. (4) 54. (1) 90. (4) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (1) 163. (3)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (1) 96. (4) 132. (1) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (4) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (4) 100. (4) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (1)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (4) 67. (1) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (1)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (1)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (1) 141. (2) 177. (1)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (1) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (1) 180. (4)
1/20
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]

Hint : Use i= J ⋅ A V2
Hint : Use P = .
R
Sol. : Since i = J ⋅ A = ( 8iˆ + 2 jˆ ) ⋅ ( 2iˆ + 3 jˆ ) × 10−4
–4
= (16 + 6) × 10 A
Sol. :
= 2.2 mA
2. Answer (1)
Hint : R = R0(1 + α∆t) 100 × 100
=
R1 = 200 Ω
Sol. : R1 = R0(1 + α∆t1) 50
R2 = R0(1 + α∆t2) 100 × 100

=
R2 = 100 Ω
100
R1 1 + α∆t1
= Voltage across B1
R2 1 + α∆t2
200 440
4 [1 + (0.002 × 250)] 1.5 V1 = × 220 = V = 146.67 V
=⇒ = 300 3
6 [1 + 0.002 × t2 ] 1 + 0.002 t2
Voltage across B2
9
⇒ 1 + 0.002 t2 = 100 220
4 V2 = × 220 = = 73.33 V
300 3
5
⇒ t2 = × 500 =625°C
4 V1 is more than the rated voltage while V2 is less
than that of rated voltage hence bulb B1 will blow
3. Answer (1)
out.
Hint : At steady state capacitor acts as open
5. Answer (2)
circuit.
1 1 1
Sol. : At t = 0, capacitor is shorted, hence Hint : Use = + + … and
RP R1 R2
4
=i = 4 mA RS = R 1 + R 2 + R 3 + …
500 + 500
Sol. : Circuit can be redrawn as
As time t → ∞, capacitor is fully charged and offer
infinite resistance
4
Hence i
= = 2 mA
1000 + 500 + 500
Voltage across capacitor at steady state
1000
V= 4 2V
×=
C
2000 2R × 6R 12 3
=Req = R = R
2R + 6R 8 2
Charge on capacitor = Q = CV
Q = 6 µF × 2 V 6. Answer (1)
= 12 µC Hint : V = E + ir.
2/20
Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
20E − 2E 18 E 9 E 10. Answer (2)

Sol.
= : i = =
20r 20 r 10 r L
Hint : V = iR and R = ρ .
9 E A
V =+
E ×r
10 r 1
2 × 10−8 ×
Sol. : RA = 2 × 10−2 Ω
=
19 10−6
= E
10 1
RB =10−7 × =10 −1 Ω
7. Answer (3) 10−6
Hint : Use V = IR and voltage divider formula. Req = RA + RB = .02 + 0.1 = 0.12 Ω
Sol. : Reading of voltmeter V = iReq = 2 × 0.12
10 = 0.24 V
=V = × 10 5 V
20 × 20
10 + 11. Answer (2)
20 + 20
Hint : Use concept of metre bridge.
10
Reading of ammeter A is=i = 0.5 A ,
20 X l
Sol. : =
R 100 − l
V 5
Ratio of V and i, = = 10
i 0.5 X 40 4
= =
3 100 − 40 6
8. Answer (2)
2 X=2Ω
Hint : Use P = i R.
2 12. Answer (1)
Sol. : 18 = (6) R
l −l 
18 Hint : r =  1 2  R
R = 0.5 Ω
=  l 
36  2 
9. Answer (1) Sol. : l1 = 62 cm (when key is open)
Eeq l2 = 58 cm (when key is closed)

E1 E2 E3
Hint : Use = + + +… l −l 
Req R1 R2 R3 4
r =  1 2 ×R = × 10 = 0.69 ≈ 0.7 Ω
 l  58
Sol. : The circuit can be redrawn as  2 
13. Answer (2)
V2
Hint : Use P = .
R
Sol. :
1 1 1 1
= + +
req 2 2 1
1
req= Ω
2 V 2 100 × 100
=
Rbulb = = 25 Ω
Eeq 10 10 5 P 400
= + −
1 2 2 1 Vbulb = 100 V
2 Rbulb
10 100
= × 230
E= = 2.5 V R + Rbulb
eq
4
25
2.5 100
= × 230
=i = 1A 25 + R
2.5
3/20
100 + 4R = 230 Sol. : Vwire = 200 × 4 = 800 V

130 Rwire = 200 × 0.2 = 40 Ω
=
R = 32.5 Ω
4
Power loss through wire is
14. Answer (4)
V 2 800 × 800
Hint : Use wheatstone bridge concept. =
P = = 16 × 103 W
R 40
R1 R3
Sol. : = Ploss = 16 kW
R2 R4
18. Answer (4)
4 2
= Hint : Use Kirchhoff’s loop law.
10 5
Hence bridge is balanced.
Sol. :
6 × 15 30
Then=
Req =
21 7
V = iReq
V 7V
=i = VA – 1 × 4 – 4 – 1 × 1 – 1 × 2 – 2 × 1 = VB
30 30
7 VA – VB = 13 V
2
Hint : Use P = i R. L L2
2
Hint : Use R =ρ =ρ .
i  A V
Sol.=
: P3 Ω   (3 Ω) 2
2 Sol. : Since R ∝ L
i2 2 R1 L12
= =
4 3 R2 L22
2
i  2 14
P7 Ω =   × 7 = × 7 = W 100 L2
2 3 3 ⇒ =
R2 (4L )2
16. Answer (3)
⇒ R2 = 1600 Ω
Hint : Use Kirchhoff’s voltage law.
Hint : Use potential gradient concept and voltage
divider rule.
Sol. :
Current through 4 Ω resistor will be 1 A

Vwire = 8 × 0.1
Hence, VA + 1 + 4 × 1 – 2 – VB = 0
= 0.8 V
0 + 1 + 4 – 2 = VB
4
VB = 3 V 0.8
⇒= × 16
16 + R
17. Answer (1) ⇒ 12.8 + 0.8R = 64
V 2 ⇒ 0.8R = 51.2
Hint : Use P =
R ⇒ R = 64 Ω
4/20
21. Answer (3) From the voltage divider law

Hint : Use colour coding of carbon resistor. 2 2V
VA = ×V =
Sol. : Given R = (12 ± 1.2) × 10 Ω
3 3 3
3
= 12 × 10 ± 10% 2 V
=
VB = V
Hence, Brown → 1 6 3
Red → 2 Here VA > VB
Orange → 3 Hence, current in wire will flow from A to B.
Silver → ±10%
25. Answer (2)
22. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol. : Kirchhoff’s junction law is
Hint : i = neAvd.
consequence of conservation of charge while loop
Sol. : Since current flowing through conductor is law is consequence of conservation of energy.
same. Hence Avd = constant
 A1 < A2 < A3 26. Answer (4)
∴ vd > vd > vd ε0 A
1 2 3 Hint : C = .
 1
23. Answer (1) d − t 1 − 
 K
Hint : Use V = IR.
Sol. : As shown in the figure current supplied by Sol. :
the battery will be 1 A
1
U= C V2
V 2 AB AB
i=
Req
ε0 A
CAB =
10 d 1
1= d− 1 − 
4 + 1+ 3 + R 2 ∞
R + 8 = 10
2Aε0
R=2Ω =
d
24. Answer (1)
Hint : Use voltage divider law. 1
U = CV 2
2
Sol. :
1 2 Aε0
= (2V )2
2 d
4Aε0V 2
=
d
27. Answer (4)
Hint : Charge on capacitor Q = CV.
5/20
Sol. :
Sol. :
Potential difference between points A and B is

zero.
C
Hence, Q4 µF = 4 × 0 Q = 20 × = 4C
5
=0 Voltage across each capacitor is
28. Answer (3) Q 4C
VC= = = 4V
Hint : Use voltage divider rule and concept of C C
series and parallel combination of capacitor. Hence, VA – VB = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 V
C × 2C C × C VA = 12 V (VB = 0)
Sol. : CAB = +
C + 2C C + C
32. Answer (3)
2C C 7C q1q2
= + =
3 2 6 Hint : U = qV and U12 = .
4πε0 r
Also, breakdown voltage of combination will be
Sol. :
3V
.
2
29. Answer (2)

Hint : Use CP = C1 + C2 + …
Sol. : After rearranging the circuit, effective

capacitance can be given as
Usystem = U1 + U2 + U12
q A qB
= q AV ( rA ) + qBV ( rB ) +
4πε0 rAB
33. Answer (2)

kQ
Hint : Electric potential V = and
r
C = 6C use V = V1 + V2 + V3 + …
= 6 × 2 µF
Sol. :
= 12 µF
30. Answer (1) V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + …
Hint : W = ∆U = pE(cosθ1 – cosθ2). 1 1 1 1 

= k × 10−6  + + + + …
1 2 4 8 
Sol. : W = pE (cos0° – cos90°)
3 1 
= pE = 9 × 10 
1
1 − 
31. Answer (4)  2
Hint : Use q = CV and concept of earthing. = 18 kV
6/20

Hint : Area under electric field-position graph Hint & Sol. : Electric flux through a closed surface,
gives potential difference. as per Gauss’s law depends only on enclosed
Sol. : ∆V = Area under the curve charges while electric field at any point depends
1 1 on all the charges.
= 10 × 2 + × 10 × 1 + × 10 × 1 + 10 × 1
2 2 40. Answer (1)
= 20 + 5 + 5 + 10 Kdq 1
Hint : Use dE = , where K = .
∆V = 40 V r 2
4πε0
∆V
Hint : E = and field lines are directed from
∆r
high potential to low potential.
∆V (80 − 60) V 20 V
Sol. : =
E = = = 200 V/m
∆r (40 − 30) cm 0.1 m

E = 200 V/m along –x axis
36. Answer (3)
dV
Hint : Use E = − . Consider an infinitesimally small element of length
dr
dy at a distance y from origin O. The charge on this
3
Sol. : Given V = –xy + z – z yx section is dq = λdy
1 dq ˆ
−∂V
Ex = y + z3 y
= 0
=
Now, = dE0 ⋅ (– j )
4πε0 y 2
∂x (1, 0, 1)
λ ˆ  1 
∞
Ey =
−∂V
=+ x + z 3 x =2 =E0
∞ dy
∫a= 2
( − ˆj ) −λj  
∂y (1, 0, 1)
4πε0 y 4πε0  −y a
−∂V −λˆj  1  1 
Ez = =−1 + 3z 2 yx =−1 = − ∞ −  − a 
∂z (1, 0, 1) 4πε0   

E = E x iˆ + E y ˆj + Ez kˆ λ
=E0 ( − ˆj )
4πε0 a
= ( 2 jˆ − kˆ ) V/m
41. Answer (2)
37. Answer (2) 

Hint : W = ∆U = q∆V. Hint : p= q ⋅ l
Kq K ( −q ) Sol. :
Sol. : VC = + 0
=
1 1
Kq K ( −q ) −2Kq
VD = + =
3 1 3
 2 
W = Q(VD – VC) = Q  − Kq − 0 
 3 
2
= − KQq
3
38. Answer (1)
p1 = p2 = q × l
Hint & Sol. : Electric potential decreases in the –6 –2
direction of electric field. = 10 × 10
–8
Hence, VA > VC > VB. = 10 Cm
7/20
A = (0, 0, 0)
Now, p = p12 +=
p22 (10−8 )2 + (10−8 )2
B = ( 2 , 0, 0)
= 2 × 10−8 C m
42. Answer (4) C = ( 2 , 2 , 0)
Hint : Use FE = qE and ΣF = 0 for equilibrium. D = (0, 2 , 0)

Sol. : From the F.B.D.
 1 1 
O=  , ,0 
 2 2 
1 q 9 × 109
E A = EC = ⋅ 2 = × 1× 10−6 = 9 × 103 N/C
4πε0 r 1
1 2q
EB = ED = ⋅ 2 =18 × 103 N/C
4πε0 r
T sinθ = qE
T cosθ = qE
qE
tan θ =
mg
mg tan θ σ
=
q ε0 E A + EC =18 × 103 N/C
ε0
σ = mg tan θ EB + ED =36 × 103 N/C
q
ε0
= × 10−6 × 10 × 1 Enet = ( 36 × 103 )2 + (18 × 103 )2
−6
10
= 10ε0 = 18 5 × 103 N/C

kQ
Hint : Use E = E1 + E2 + E3 + … and E = 2 . qenclosed
r Hint : Electric flux = .
ε0
Sol. :
q 4 × 10−6
Sol. : qenclosed= = = 10−6 C
4 4
qenclosed 10−6
φcube
= =
ε0 ε0
45. Deleted
Given co-ordinates of point
8/20
[CHEMISTRY]
Hint : — COOH is a meta directing group. Hint :
Sol. :
53. Answer (1)
Hint :
54. Answer (1)

Hint : The reaction involves diazotisation followed
by coupling reaction with phenol.
47. Answer (4)
Sol. :
Hint : Aryl Halides do not give Gabriel phthalimide
reaction.
48. Answer (4)
Hint : Sandmeyer reaction is used for the
preparation of chlorobenzene, bromobenzene and
benzonitrile.
49. Answer (4)
Hint : 3° amines do not react with Hinsberg’s
reagent.
50. Answer (3)
55. Answer (4)
Hint : (NH4)2S is used for the partial reduction of
Hint : Generally ketone do not give response to
1,3-dinitro benzene.
Tollen’s reagent.
Sol. :
Sol. :

Hint : Carbylamine reaction:
Hint : Pyruvic acid : .
CHCl +KOH+∆
R — NH2 →
3
R — NC
(Isocyanide)
(1° Amine)
9/20
Sol. : Lactic acid : 63. Answer (1)

Hint :
Tartaric acid :
Citric acid :
64. Answer (4)
57. Answer (3) Hint :
Hint : Cannizzaro reaction.
–
65. Answer (2)
Sol. : 2HCHO CH3OH + HCOO Na+
Hint : CH3 — COOH + NH3 → CH3 COONH4
(Acid−Base reaction)
58. Answer (4)
Hint : Acidic strength: HI > HBr > HCl. Sol. :
59. Answer (3)

Hint : Reaction occurs via carbocation
intermediate.
Sol. :
66. Answer (3)

60. Answer (1) Hint : Carbonyl compounds are more polar than
Hint : β-hydroxy carbonyl compounds undergo ethers.
dehydration more readily. 67. Answer (1)
61. Answer (2) Hint : C — Cl bond in aryl halide has double bond
Hint : Carboxylic acid undergoes Hell-Volhard character.
Zelinsky reaction in presence of Br2/red-P. Sol. :
Sol. :
68. Answer (4)

Hint : Acidic nature:
picric acid > carbonic acid > phenol > ethanol >
62. Answer (3) acetylene.
Hint : CH3CO2C2H5 undergoes Claisen ester Sol. :
condensation with strong base.
+
C2H5 ONa
Sol. : 2CH3 CO2C2H5 ∆
→
O
||
CH3 — C — CH2 — CO2C2H5
10/20

Hint : Hydroboration oxidation is used for Hint : o-nitro aniline is the minor product.
hydration of alkene by anti Markovnikov rule.
Sol. :
Sol. :

Hint : Acid catalysed dehydration occurs via Hint : Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
carbocation intermediate.
Sol. : Sol. :
76. Answer (3)

Hint : More the availability of lone pair on N-atom,
more will be the basic nature of amine.
Sol. : Basic nature:
71. Answer (4) II I III

Hint : Lesser the stability of carbocation, lesser will 77. Answer (4)
be the reactivity of corresponding alcohol towards
Lucas reagent. Hint : Azobenzene will obtain.
Sol. : Primary alcohol reacts slowly with lucas Sol. :
reagent.
72. Answer (4)
Hint : Rosenmund reaction
78. Answer (1)
Hint : Only aliphatic aldehydes give positive
response to Fehling test.
Sol. :
73. Answer (1)
Hint : Generally, tertiary alkyl halide undergoes
elimination with a base on heating.
Sol. :
79. Answer (1)

Hint : More the stability of conjugate base (A–),
more will be the acidic strength of (HA).
11/20
84. Answer (1)

Hint : Lesser the electron density on carbonyl
Sol. :
carbon, more will be its reactivity towards
nucleophile.
85. Answer (3)

80. Answer (2)
Hint : In clemmensen reduction, carbonyl group is
Hint : More the number of electron donating
groups attached to the compound, lesser will be reduced to group.
the acidic strength.
Acidic nature: HCOOH > C6H5COOH > CH3COOH Hint : Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
pKa: 3.75 4.2 4.76

81. Answer (3)
Sol. :
Hint : Hydrolysis of cyanides in acidic medium
gives carboxylic acid.
Sol. :
87. Answer (2)

82. Answer (3)
Hint : Ethanol gives positive iodoform test. Hint : Opening of 3-member ring take place.
Sol. :
Sol. :
83. Answer (1)

∆
Hint : 6HCHO + 4NH3  → (CH2 )6 N4 + 6H2O
formaldehyde
urotropine
Sol. :
88. Answer (3)

• (phenyl salicylate) known
Hint : HIO4 does oxidative cleavage of vicinal
as salol diols.
Sol. :
•
12/20
Hint : +I effect decreases the acidic nature. Hint : SN1 reaction.
Sol. : Acidic nature : Sol. :
[BIOLOGY]
Sol. : Factors do not show any blending and both Hint : Chromosome compliment of individual
the traits are recovered in F2 generation, explains inflicted with Turner’s syndrome is 44 + XO.
the law of segregation. Sol. : A person inflicted with Turner’s syndrome
92. Answer (1) is/has
Hint : In pedigree analysis male is represented by • Sterile female
while female is represented by . • Development of rudimentary ovaries
Sol. : Different symbols used in pedigree analysis • 45 chromosomes in each cell
• Shorter stature than normal
– Gender unspecified
97. Answer (3)
– Normal female
Sol. : Mendel worked on garden pea for 7 years
– Affected male (1856-1863).
– Mating between relatives 98. Answer (4)
93. Answer (2) Hint : Silent mutations (same sense mutations)
does not cause change in the structure of
Hint : Male honey bees are produced
polypeptide chain.
parthenogenetically from unfertilised eggs.
Sol. : Male honey bees are haploid individuals and Sol. : Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
aberrations. Deletion and addition are common
they produce gametes by mitosis.
type of frame shift mutations. γ-rays and UV-rays
94. Answer (3) are physical mutagens.
Hint : Dominant traits are called wild type traits.
99. Answer (1)
Sol. : Red eyes of Drosophila is a dominant or wild
Sol. : XO type of sex determination is observed in
type trait. Drosophila carrying such phenotype is
grasshopper.
called wild type Drosophila for that trait.
Hint : Drosophila can be grown easily in simple Hint : Tightly linked genes are present on same
synthetic medium. chromosome very close to each other.
Sol. : Drosophila produces large number of Sol. : Tightly linked gene produce more parental
offsprings in a single mating and its male and combinations than recombinants.
female individuals can be easily recognised.
101. Answer (3)
These are some of the reasons due to which it is
considered as suitable material for genetic Hint : In a test cross, individual showing dominant
studies. phenotype is crossed with recessive parent.
13/20
Sol. : A dihybrid test cross can help in determining 107. Answer (3)
linkage between two traits. A Test cross produces
equal number of genotypes and phenotypes. Two Hint : From father, daughter receive X-
different species do not interbreed so their chromosome while son receives Y-chromosome.
interbreeding ability cannot be determined by test Sol. : If the character of a father is inherited by
cross.
both daughter and son, then the gene of that
102. Answer (4) character should be present on any of the
Sol. : Alleles or Allelomorphs are different autosome of male parent. Male gamete does not
molecular forms of a gene. contribute to the mitochondrial DNA pool of the
zygote/progeny.
103. Answer (2)
Hint : Domesticated fowls show female 108. Answer (2)
heterogamety.
Hint : Starch synthesizing gene in pea which also
Sol. : In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny
regulates the size of seed, show incomplete
depends upon the type of egg rather than type of
dominance.
sperm.
Sol. :
104. Answer (3)
Hint : Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive Polygenic inheritance – Kernel colour of wheat
disorder. Multiple allelism – ABO blood group in human
Sol. :
Pleiotropy – Phenylketonuria
109. Answer (4)

Hint : Non-disjunction of homologous chromosomes
leads to genomatic mutations or aneuploidy.
Sol. : In Klinefelter’s syndrome, chromosome
complement of inflicted individual is 44 + XXY due
to non disjunction of sex chromosomes.
110. Answer (4)

Hint : Pink flower of snapdragon is observed due
• Probability of thalassemia in F2 gen. (aa
to incomplete dominance of flower colour gene
1 (heterozygous condition)
genotype carrying individual) = .
4
Sol. :
105. Answer (1)
Hint : Recessive traits express only in
homozygous condition.
Sol. : Terminal flower in pea is a recessive trait.
106. Answer (2)
Hint : Transfer of gene from one linkage group to
another is an illegitimate crossing over.
Sol. : Crossing over occurs between genes
present on non sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes, due to which new combination
arise but linkage group of genes does not get
changed. Change in linkage of genes occur due to
translocation or illegitimate crossing over.
14/20
111. Answer (2) 118. Answer (2)

Hint : Vegetative cell of pollen grain is larger in Hint : Spirogyra shows isogamous type of sexual
size in comparison to generative cell. reproduction with non-motile gametes.
Sol. : Vegetative cell has large irregularly shaped Sol. : Both male and female gametes of Spirogyra
nucleus. On the other hand generative cell floats are non-flagellated.
in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell and is absent in 119. Answer (1)
pollens shed at three celled stage.
Hint : Synergids are haploid while cells of
112. Answer (3) aleurone layer are triploid.
Hint : Monocarpic plants lack interflowering period Sol. : Leaf cells of maize (2n) have 20
in their life span. chromosomes then synergids (n) would have 10
and cells of aleurone layer (3n) would have 30
Sol. : Jackfruit is a polycarpic plant. Rest all are chromosomes.
monocarpic.
120. Answer (3)
113. Answer (1)
Hint : Chara is a green alga which has
Hint : Transfer of male gametes by water occur in multicellular and jacketed sex organs.
bryophytes and pteridophytes. Sol. : Most species of Chara are monoecious.
Sol. : 7 celled-8 nucleated female gametophyte of Globule and nucule are male and female sex
angiosperm can be formed by monosporic, organs of Chara respectively.
bisporic or tetrasporic development. Water is
121. Answer (4)
required for transfer of pollen grains in Vallisneria
Sol. : Michelia have flowers with apocarpus ovary
plant.
or pistils free from each other.
114. Answer (3)
122. Answer (2)
Hint : Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless. Hint : Filiform apparatus is finger-like projections
Sol. : Fruits of banana are parthenocarpic. present towards the micropylar end of the cell wall
of synergids.
115. Answer (3)
Sol. : Filiform apparatus guides the entry of pollen
Hint : Megasporogenesis occurs in megaspore tube into synergids.
mother cell of ovule.
123. Answer (4)
Sol. : Megaspore mother cell undergoes reductional
Sol. : Floral rewards and attractants are required
division to produce haploid megaspores during
for flowers pollinated by insects.
megasporogenesis.
124. Answer (2)
116. Answer (2)
Hint : Adventive embryo formation occurs by
Hint : Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction apomixis which is a kind of asexual reproduction.
that mimics sexual reproduction.
Sol. : Adventive embryos produce progenies
Sol. : Apomixis is a process in which seed identical to their parents as there is no genetic
formation occurs without fertilisation. variations during apomixis.
117. Answer (4) 125. Answer (1)
Hint : Water hyacinth and water lily are insect Hint : Aquatic algae and fungi produce flagellated
pollinated flowers. spores for asexual reproduction.
Sol. : Hydrilla plant is water pollinated while Sol. : Chlamydomonas shows asexual reproduction
grasses are pollinated by wind. by formation of zoospores.
15/20
126. Answer (3) 135. Answer (3)

Sol. : Mammals, tree dwelling rodents and some Hint : Perisperm is the diploid nutritive tissue
reptiles are reported as pollinators for different present in the seeds of few angiosperms.
plant species.
Sol. : Perisperm present in the seeds of few
127. Answer (1) angiospermic plants is the persistent nucellus.
Sol. : The scar of seed where funicle was attached 136. Answer (1)
is called hilum.
Hint : After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become
128. Answer (3) embedded in nurse cells.
Hint : Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of
Sol. : After spermiogenesis, the sperm heads
angiosperms.
become embedded in the Sertoli cells and are
Sol. : In angiosperms, functional megaspore
finally released from the seminiferous tubules by
undergoes 3 mitotic divisions to produce 7 celled-
the process called spermiation. Spermiogenesis is
8 nucleated embryo sac.
transformation of spermatid into sperm.
129. Answer (2)
137. Answer (4)
Hint : In cleistogamous flowers seed setting is
assured even in the absence of pollinating agents. Hint : Nearly 70 million sperms per ejaculate show
Sol. : Viola (common pansy) produces vigorous motility, shape and size.
cleistogamous flowers. Sol. : In copper releasing IUD’s, copper ions
130. Answer (2) suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of
sperms. Combined pills inhibit ovulation and make
Hint : Anemophilous flowers are pollinated by
uterus unsuitable for implantation.
wind.
Sol. : Anemophilous flowers are packed into 138. Answer (3)
inflorescence and produce large number of pollen Hint : Identify the Institute located in Lucknow.
grains. Anemophilous flowers do not form any
Sol. : “Saheli” was developed at Central Drug
colour or nector for attracting insects. These
flowers have single or few ovules in the ovaries. Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India.
National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) – Karnal.
131. Answer (3)
ICMR : Indian Council of Medical Research,
Hint : Sporopollenin is resistant to strong acid,
alkali and enzymatic degradation. IARI – New Delhi.
Sol. : Sporopollenin is present in exine (outer layer 139. Answer (4)
of sporoderm) of pollen grain. Hint : Acts on mammary glands.
132. Answer (1) Sol. : Human chorionic somatomammotrophin
Sol. : Single large, shield-shaped cotyledon of facilitates lactation.
maize seed is called scutellum. 140. Answer (2)
133. Answer (4) Hint : Minipills should be taken daily.
Hint : Papaya and date palms are dioecious Sol. : Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21
plants. days starting preferably within the first five days of
Sol. : In dioecious plants, autogamy as well as menstrual cycle.
geitonogamy are prevented.
141. Answer (2)
134. Answer (4)
Hint : An in-vitro ART involving transfer of early
Sol. : Vegetative propagule of ginger is rhizome. embryo into fallopian tube.
16/20
Sol. : In test-tube baby programme, ova from the 147. Answer (2)
wife/donor (female) and sperms from the
Hint : Reversibility of sterilisation procedure is
husband/donor (male) are collected and are
poor.
induced to form zygote under simulated conditions
in the laboratory. The zygote or early embryo (with Sol. : Vasectomy is a reversible procedure as the
upto 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into cut ends can be joined to allow sperm passage but
fallopian tube (ZIFT) and embryo with more than 8 the reversibility is poor.
blastomeres into the uterus (IUT-Intra-uterine
148. Answer (4)
transfer) to complete its further development.
Hint : Hormone containing devices.
142. Answer (1) Sol. : Average failure rate of natural method
Hint : First trimester of gestation. (rhythm), coitus interruptus, oral contraceptives
and implanted contraceptives are 20-30%, 23%,
Sol. : MTP is safe within the first 12 weeks of 2-3% and less than one percent respectively.
pregnancy.
149. Answer (1)
143. Answer (3) Hint : Identify a chemical method of contraception.
Hint : Source of hCG. Sol. : Condom, fem shield, diaphragm, cervical
cap and vaults are common barrier methods.
Sol. : Amnion acts as shock absorber, yolk sac is
site for formation of early blood cells and allantois Chemical contraceptives are spermicidal creams,
jellies and foams.
helps in removal of nitrogenous wastes.
150. Answer (4)
144. Answer (1)
Hint : Structure which is present close to ovary.
Hint : Intra-uterine insemination.
Sol. : Edges of infundibulum possess fimbriae that
Sol. : Infertility of male is either due to inability of show chemotaxis and capture ovum after
male partner to achieve an erection of penis to ovulation. Nebenkern is arrangement of
inseminate the female or due to very low sperm mitochondria in human sperm. Infundibulum
count in the semen. It can be corrected by AI opens into the abdominal cavity through ostia.
(Artificial Insemination). 151. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure commonly known as womb.
145. Answer (4)
Sol. : Ectopic pregnancies involve implantation of
Hint : Syphilis is caused due to spirochaete. embryo at sites other than uterus.
Sol. : Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
152. Answer (3)
Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis Hint : Identify a triploblastic structure.
Genital herpes – HSV-2 Sol. : Gastrula is that embryonic stage of
Genital warts – Human papilloma virus development in which the primary germinal layers
are formed. In this phase, morphogenetic
146. Answer (4) movements are seen.
Hint : The population growth rate was less than Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst → Gastrula.
2%. 153. Answer (2)
Sol. : According to the 2011 census report, the Hint : Second trimester.
population growth rate was less than 2 per cent, Sol. : The first movements of the foetus and
i.e., 20/1000/year. Our population which was appearance of hair on the head are usually
approximately 350 million at the time of our observed during the fifth month (20 weeks) of the
independence reached close to the billion mark by pregnancy. By the end of second month of
2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011. pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
17/20
154. Answer (2) 160. Answer (4)

Hint : Foetus is connected to placenta via two Hint : Secretion of this gland gives semen a milky
deoxygenated blood carrying vessels. appearance.
Sol. : The umbilical cord connects the foetus to the
Sol. : Prostate gland is unpaired which lies at the
placenta. Arteries in umbilical cord carry
base of the bladder and surrounds the first part of
deoxygenated blood.
the urethra.
155. Answer (1) Seminal vesicles are paired, tubular, coiled glands
Hint : Fast block to check polyspermy. situated behind the bladder.
Sol. : During fertilization, a part of sperm enters The paired bulbourethral Cowper’s glands are pea
2+
into cytoplasm of ova. Ca influx causes extrusion sized structures lying adjacent to membranous
of cortical granules (cortical reaction) and zona urethra.
reaction which makes the zona pellucida
impervious to other sperms by destroying sperm 161. Answer (1)
receptors, leading to slow block to check
polyspermy. Hint : Tubuli recti open into these cuboidal
epithelium lined tubules.
156. Answer (2)
Sol. : Path of sperm in male body :
Hint : Secretory phase.
Sol. : Luteal/secretory phase lasts for 14 days. Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
Menstrual phase lasts for 3 to 4 days. Ovulation efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens
usually occurs on 14th day in a 28 day cycle. → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra.
157. Answer (4) 162. Answer (2)
Hint : It is fluid filled cavity formed in tertiary
Hint : Oogonia are diploid cells.
follicle.
Sol. : The secondary follicle soon transforms into Sol. : The correct sequence of oogenesis is
a tertiary follicle which is characterised by Oogonia → Primary oocyte → Secondary oocyte
presence of a fluid filled cavity antrum and theca → Ovum (ootid).
layers.
158. Answer (1) 163. Answer (3)
Hint : Part of fallopian tube closest to uterus.
Hint : Sperm count is nearly 200 to 300 million per
ejaculation. Sol. : Each fallopian tube is differentiated into
Sol. : For normal fertility, at least 60 per cent of three parts.
200-300 million sperms must have normal shape (i) Infundibulum : It is funnel shaped, closest to
and size and at least 40 per cent of them must
ovary.
show vigorous motility.
∴ 60% of 200-300 million sperm is ~120 to 180 (ii) Ampulla : Middle, wide part of oviduct is called
million sperms. ampulla.
159. Answer (2) (iii) Isthmus : It is the last and narrow part that is
linked to the uterus.
Hint : Structure which is in direct contact with
nipple. 164. Answer (2)
Sol. : Route of milk from mammary lobes to
Hint : Area located inner to zona pellucida.
exterior is
Sol. : Around the egg, ‘X’ represents perivitelline
Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule →
space. Zona pellucida is surrounded by corona
Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla →
Lactiferous duct. radiata.
18/20
165. Answer (2) 171. Answer (3)

Hint : Menstrual flow results due to break down of Hint : Identify unisexual animals.
epithelium. Sol. : In dioecious/unisexual animals, male and
Sol. : During menstrual phase, endometrium of female reproductive system are present in
uterus and its blood vessels breakdown resulting separate individuals e.g. cockroach, frog and
into menses. humans.
166. Answer (4) Earthworm, sponge, tapeworm and leech are

examples of monoecious/bisexual animals.
Hint : Hormone highest during estrous phase.
Sol. : Estrogen surges twice i.e. during luteal and 172. Answer (3)
follicular phase. Hint : Structures formed after second meiotic
division.
167. Answer (4)
Sol. : Gametes are haploid cells while meiocytes,
Hint : Hormone that facilitates maturation of primary spermatocytes, primary oogonia and
ovarian follicles. spermatogonia are diploid cells.
Sol. : Sertoli cells/Nurse cells/Sustentacular cells
173. Answer (1)
are regulated by FSH. Leydig/interstitial cells are
regulated by LH. Body growth is regulated by GH. Hint : Animal reared in apiculture.
Prolactin promotes secretion of milk. Sol. : In arrhenotoky, only males are produced by
parthenogenesis. It occurs in honey bee, wasps
168. Answer (3) and turkey (birds).
Hint : Embryonal knob. Thelytoky occurs in Lacerta saxicola armeniaca,
Sol. : The epiblast derived from inner cell mass is Typhlina brahmina, Rotifers and Whiptail lizard.
the source of all the embryonic germ layers. Amphitoky occurs in Aphis (aphid).
Trophoblast cells in contact with embryonal knob
174. Answer (4)
are called cells of Rauber. Germinal disc
differentiates into outer epiblast and inner Hint : National animal of India.
hypoblast. Sol. : In non-primates like cow, sheep, rat, deer,
dogs, tiger etc., oestrus cycle occurs seasonally
169. Answer (2) while in primates i.e. old world monkeys, apes and
Hint : This reproductive event is followed by humans, menstrual cycle occurs all around the
gestation period. year.
Sol. : Embedding of blastocyst to the uterine wall 175. Answer (1)
is called implantation.
Hint : Animal which belongs to phylum Porifera.
In insemination, transfer of sperms into the female
Sol. : In fresh water sponges (e.g. Spongilla) the
genital tract occurs.
parent individual releases a specialised mass of
Embryonic development is known as gestation the cells enclosed in a common opaque envelope,
while delivery of the baby is known as parturition. called the gemmule.
170. Answer (4) 176. Answer (1)

Hint : Process in which gametes are formed. Hint : Identify ciliated protozoan.
Sol. : In sexual reproduction, events occurring Sol. : In transverse binary fission, the plane of
after the formation of zygote are called post- fission runs perpendicular to longitudinal axis of the
fertilization events. Gametogenesis is a pre- individual e.g. Paramecium, Planaria. Longitudinal
fertilization event. Gastrulation, cleavage and binary fission is the mode of asexual reproduction
embryogenesis are post-fertilization events. in Euglena. Hydra and yeast show budding.
19/20
177. Answer (1) 179. Answer (1)

Hint : Technique that resulted in formation of Dolly. Hint : Animal that belongs to phylum Arthropoda.
Sol. : Clones are morphologically and genetically Sol. : Approximate life span of butterfly is 1-2
identical individuals. weeks, crow - 15 years, parrot - 140 years,
Monozygotic and dizygotic twins are product of tortoise - 100-150 years.
sexual reproduction. In genetic engineering, chimera
is recombinant plasmid containing foreign DNA. 180. Answer (4)
Hint : Certain species live longer than others.
178. Answer (2)
Hint : Process which is essential for variation. Sol. : Maximum life span is the maximum number
of years survived or the greatest age reached by
Sol. : In asexual reproduction, there is no crossing
any member of a particular species.
over, hence new recombination does not occur.
During sexual reproduction, crossing over takes Life expectancy, the number of years an individual
place. can expect to live for, is based on average life span.
  
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Test-5 (Code-E)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Given co-ordinates of point

Sol. : 8. Answer (1)

13. Answer (2) Hence, VA – VB = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 V

Sol. : Sol. : W = pE (cos0° – cos90°)

20. Answer (4) From the voltage divider law

22. Answer (1) ∴ vd > vd > vd

Hint : Use voltage divider law.

26. Answer (4) Power loss through wire is

30. Answer (3)

33. Answer (2) Req = RA + RB = .02 + 0.1 = 0.12 Ω

Sol. : The circuit can be redrawn as

42. Answer (2) Hint : R = R0(1 + α∆t)

V2 Sol. : R1 = R0(1 + α∆t1)

4 [1 + (0.002 × 250)] 1.5

Hint : SN1 reaction. Sol. :

47. Answer (1)

52. Answer (1)

53. Answer (1)

Hint : Opening of 3-member ring take place. •

55. Answer (3)

Sol. : Sol. : Basic nature:

56. Answer (2) 61. Answer (2)

64. Answer (4)

59. Answer (4)

65. Answer (4)

66. Answer (3) 71. Answer (2)

67. Answer (2) 72. Answer (4)

68. Answer (4)

75. Answer (2)

70. Answer (3) 76. Answer (1)

77. Answer (3) 82. Answer (1)

78. Answer (4)

79. Answer (3)

80. Answer (2)

Sol. : Lactic acid :

Tartaric acid : 85. Answer (2)

87. Answer (4) Sol. :

92. Answer (4) 98. Answer (3)

103. Answer (4) Sol. : Megaspore mother cell undergoes reductional

104. Answer (2) 112. Answer (3)

111. Answer (3)

117. Answer (4) Sol. :

118. Answer (2)

122. Answer (3) 127. Answer (1)

128. Answer (4) Sol. : Different symbols used in pedigree analysis

• 45 chromosomes in each cell 137. Answer (1)

141. Answer (1) 147. Answer (2)

Hint : National animal of India. Embryonic development is known as gestation

Hint : Identify unisexual animals. 151. Answer (2)

Sol. : Each fallopian tube is differentiated into 158. Answer (1)

Sol. : Edges of infundibulum possess fimbriae that Hint : Intra-uterine insemination.

Sol. : Condom, fem shield, diaphragm, cervical Hint : Source of hCG.

168. Answer (4) 174. Answer (1)

Hint : Hormone containing devices. Hint : First trimester of gestation.

176. Answer (2) 179. Answer (4)

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

R2 = R0(1 + α∆t2) 100 × 100

20E − 2E 18 E 9 E 10. Answer (2)

9. Answer (1) Sol. : l1 = 62 cm (when key is open)