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Easa-Question PDF
Easa-Question PDF
c) 180
Answer:C
b)6ft error
c) 12 foot error
Answer:C
Answer:B
7. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as
the
a) decision height
b)intercept height
c) alert height
Answer:A
c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of
200 meters
Answer:C
8. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft
would
a) fly a circle
b)increase its drift angle
c) fly parallel to the beam
Answer:C
5. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are
used for
a) maintaining a computed EPR
b)controlling to a maximum thrust
c) correction minor speed deviations
Answer:A
Answer:
6. The GA mode is usually initiated by
3. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar
receiver)
a) scan at a lower rate
b)use shorter bursts
c) use longer bursts
Answer:B
5. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces
b)LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
Answer:B
Answer:A
5. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as
the
a) decision height
b)intercept height
c) alert height
Answer:A
path signals
Answer:A
5. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated
after the selection of autoland
a) ILS localiser and IAS
b)IAS and glideslope
c) IAS and steering or heading
Answer:C
6. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the
aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b)rotate nose up
c) increase speed and rotate nose up
Answer:C
Answer:C
b)120 nm
c) 140 nm
10. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature , the
aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
b)090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
This is exam number 17.
Answer
1.234 56 7 8 9 10
A CCACBAABA
b)200v ac
c) High voltage stepped up
6. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the
output reading is
a) zero
b)full scale deflection
c) centre scale
7. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would
a) increase capacitive reactance
b)increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance
8. Float fuel gauge system is
a) adjusted when tanks are full
b)adjusted when tanks are empty
c) cannot be adjusted
9. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are
a) bulkheads
b)longerons
c) frame
10. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by
a) excessive electrical loading
b)high charge current
c) low charge current
This is exam number 19.
Answer
1.2 3 45 6 7 89 10
B BACCBACBB
6. GPS has
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
b)4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits
7. When the captain calls attendant
a) a high/low chime and pink light comes on
b)a low chime and blue light comes on
c) a high chime and pink light comes on
8. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received
a) a designated light comes on
b)a selcall light along with a chime comes on
c) a chime sounds in the cockpit
9. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail
a) the authority of elevators not effected
b)the up movement authority is effected
c) the down movement authority is effected
10. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost
a) aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift
b)aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
c) aircraft moves in a circle
This is exam number 20.
Answer
1.2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
B BACCAABBB
forceentrifugal force
b)PCDU (power control distribution unit)entrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
c) SPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
10. As you approach supersonic speedentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
a) total drag is increasedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
b)lift is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
c) thrust is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
BCAAABCBBC
b)no signal
c) excess signals
This is exam number 26.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B BBAAABAAA
5. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000
degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
b)FROM
c) Neither
6. What does the Radar contour button do?
a) Alter the beam shape
b)Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier
7. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
b)25 miles
c) 40 miles
8. On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?
a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed
b)Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground
c) Tip vortex build-up during hover
9. What controls are used in response to PVD display?
a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
b)Control wheel
c) PVD control unit
10. DME transponder transmits on receipt
a) of any interrogation
b)of pilot input command request
c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 910
B ABBAABBCC
b)120 nm
c) 130 nm
7. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?
a) c/a code only
b)c/a code and P code
c) P code only
8. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a
helicopter. The primary control method is
a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
b)design of engine and gearbox supports
c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
9. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from
a) rad alt to barometric
b)rad alt decrease
c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
10. On power up, the IRS obtains position
a) latitude from previous position
b)longitude from previous position
c) latitude and longitude from previous position
This is exam number 32.
Answer 1.
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A A B A B C C B C
b)attitude of aircraft
c) rate of yaw
8. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed
a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons
b)in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons
c) to assist the up going aileron
9. Glideslope deviation signals are
a) DC polarity sensitive
b)AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only
10. A triplex system loses one channel
a) pilot can continue with autoland
b)pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land
This is exam number 34.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
C AAAACCABC
c) at stall
3. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central
maintenance function (CMF) is to
a) log relevant maintenance data
b)transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action
4. How are spoilers normally operated?
a) Hydraulic actuator
b)Air pistons
c) Electrical motors
5. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to
permit the
a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude
without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel
system forces
b)pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change
c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered
6. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause
a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b)one generator always comes on line before the other
c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled
7. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline
battery
a) in the aircraft
b)when the battery is fully charged
c) in the charging room only
8. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
b)longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
9. The glideslope equipment operates in the
a) HF band
b)UHF band
c) VHF band
10. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
b)aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
This is exam number 36.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A BBABBABAC
b)capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade
3. EICAS provides the following
a) engine parameters
b)engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters
4. The stabiliser is set to high setting when
a) the flaps are moving down
b)the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down
5. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the
system
a) operational
b)passive
c) simplex
6. DSR TK (desired track) means
a) the bearing to capture the track
b)a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points
c) distance left or right from desired track
7. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from
a) the barometric alt capsule
b)a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height
c) under swing
9. Loran C Uses
a) 16 Khz
b)20 Mhz
c) 100 Khz
10. The amount of travel of a series actuator is
a) 50% of control movement
b)10% of control movement
c) full control movement
This is exam number 38.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 67 8 9 10
B ABABCBABC
b)JAR (OPS) M
c) BCAR A4-8
4. The rotor disc is
a) the distance between tip to tip
b)the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion
5. A DME is in auto stand by when
a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
b)the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting
6. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What
is a RMI display?
a) 90o
b)0o
c) 180o
7. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation
signal is lost the aircraft would
a) continue on flying on the localizer
b)fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading
8. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are
a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
b)below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
This is exam number 41.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 910
C BBABAABCB
1. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b)Radio deviation
c) Course deviation
2. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct
sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
b)Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
3. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been
selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
b)When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
4. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
10. A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
b)25 miles
c) 40 miles
This is exam number 42.
Answer
1.2 3 45 6 7 8 9 10
A AACBAAABB
b)Pulse
c) FM and Pulse
This is exam number 44.
Answer
1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C ABAAAAABB
1. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a
turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input
signal
b)They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
c) They disappear out of view
2. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?
a) Normal
b)Longitudinal
c) Lateral
3. The neutral shift system augments control of the
a) stabiliser
b)elevator
c) spoilers
4. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes
a) thetwo elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up
b)all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up
a) 0.5 ohms
b)1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms
This is exam number 45.
Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A B B B A A B A
1.2 3 4 56 7 8 9 10
B BABCBABAC
1. ADF is
a) Rho
b)Theta
c) Rho-Theta
2. A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
b)absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
3. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and
a) relative air flow
b)tip path plane
c) horizontal axis
4. If cyclic is moved to the right
a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
b)the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
5. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system
a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b)2 - 6 GHz
c) 100 KHz
6. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack
c) fully articulating
2. Earths atmosphere is
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b)4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen
3. A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
b)cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
4. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?
a) Bellows and diaphragm
b)Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature
c) Press relief valve
5. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure.
This is achieved by
a) webs
b)outer plate
c) inner plate
6. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?
a) 60
b)63
c) 1000
7. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade
1. Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b)can be adjusted in the flight deck
c) cannot be adjusted
2. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA
will
a) increase
b)decrease
c) remain
a) aerodynamic damping
b)the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief
10. ADF operates within which frequencies?
a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b)118 MHz - 132 MHz
c) 32KHz - 64 KHz
This is exam number 53.
Answer
1.23 4 56 7 8 9 10
B CAA? AAACC
10. DME – how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
a) Decoder
b)Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
This is exam number 55.
Answer
1.23 4 5 6 7 8 910
C ? BBAAAACB
4. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the
aircraft?
a) 10
b)5
c) 2.5
5. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?
a) 2-30 MHz
b)118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz
6. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals
a) above the carrier signal
b)below the carrier signal
c) No sidebands present
7. On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning
a) would initiate a Go Around
b)audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only
8. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions
a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
b)can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver
9. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying
pressure
a) to the control wheel
31.24 56 7 8 9 10
CC CACAAAAC
a) 29cm
b)59cm
c) 70cm
3. An isotropic radiator
a) is an end fed π/2 unipole
b)has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern
c) has a cardiod shaped polar diagram
4. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected
power of 4W will be
a) 1.5:1
b)2:1
c) 2.5:1
5. When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage
to the top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must be
a) reverse R1+R2 connections only
b)reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connections
c) reverse R1+S2 connections
6. The mode S squitter pulse will
a) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation
b)contain the aircraft identity
c) contain the aircraft range and altitude information
7. When using the GPS
a) database card must be replaced every 28 days
b)once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate
c) ground services
2. Bandwidth of HF transmission is
a) 1khz
b)1.5khz
c) 3khz
3. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect?
a) More deviation
b)More variation
c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only
4. GPS
a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
b)uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
5. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect
a) galley services
b)IFE
c) first officers transfer bus
6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make
a) TA
b)RA
c) either RA or TA
7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?
7. A split flap
a) forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted
b)forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted
c) forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted
8. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is de-selected. The
aircraft will enter MCP SPD mode when
a) APP switch is pressed
b)the aircraft captures the glideslope
c) the aircraft receives the first ILS signal
9. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set
a) in the workshop
b)by the manufacturer
c) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is
obtained
10. Airspeed hold is a
a) pitch mode
b)lateral mode
c) heading mode
This is exam number 66.
Answer
1.234 56 7 8 910
? ? ? A? BBCC?
9. A plain flap
a) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surface
b)When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surface
c) when deployed increases the camber of the wing