Phamacy Mcqs Tamour Abbas

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REFERENCE GUIDE
FOR FOREIGN
PHARMACY
LICENSING EXAM
(Questions and Answers)
2014-2015
Manan H. Shroff
1
www.pharmacyexam.com Krisman
REFERENCE GUIDE FOR

FOREIGN PHARMACY
LICENSING EXAM
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REFERENCE GUIDE
FOR FOREIGN
PHARMACY
LICENSING EXAM
2014-2015
Manan H. Shroff
4
PREFACE
Reference Guide For Foreign Pharmacy Licensing Exam Questions and Answers -
2014-2015 Edition is specifically written for students preparing for the FPGEE Exam.
It has approximately 1000 FPGEE TYPE questions with answers and complete explanations.
The FPGEE exam puts more emphasis on pharmacy management, statistics, immunology,
pharmacology, kinetics and biopharmaceutics, therefore an effort was made to include all of
these topics in a review guide. To prepare for pharmacology, I would highly recommend that you
take advantage of the Reference Guide For Pharmacy Licensing Exam-Theory.
Our preparation guide covers all the important topics you need to be familiar with to pass the
FPGEE. I would recommend that you to go through the FPGEE review guide sample
questions provided by the NABP (you will get one when your approval from the
FPGEE arrives) to evaluate the importance of our review materials.
Each answer is explained thoroughly to refresh your memory on specific topics. Please do
not go through only the questions and answers. Try to understand and learn the answer’s
explanations. It is the best way to get the most out of this review guide.
I hope my efforts will help you to pass your key exam. I wish you the very best of luck, and
any questions or comments are always welcome.
Good Luck,
Manan Shroff
TABLE OF CONTENTS
SECTION-I
QUESTIONS 7
SECTION-II
ANSWERS 121
SECTION-III
TABLES 243
6
1 Benzyl alcohol is classified as: c. Drug degradation

d. Drug oxidation
a. Emulsifying agent
b. Preservative 7. Polymorphism is generally defined as
c. Diluent a:
d. Suspending agent
a. Substance that may exist in more than
2. Cold cream is an example of: one crystalline form.
a. Suspension b. Substance that may exist only in meta-

b. O/W emulsion stable form.
c. W/O emulsion
d. O/W/O emulsion c. Substance that has different viscosity
time to time.
3. Egg yolk or egg white is used as:
d. Substance that reduces interfacial ten-
a. Emulsifying agent sion.
b. Suspending agent
c. Binder 8. The minimum concentration of a drug
d. Preservative at the receptor site to initiate pharmacologi-
cal action is defined as:
4. The transfer of a drug from high con-
centrated areas to low concentrated areas is a. T max
generally defined as: b. MEC
c. MTC
a. Infusion d. Cmax
b. Levigation
c. Diffusion 9. The area under curve gives useful in-
d. Dissolution formation about :
5. Which of the following is the most a. The amount of drug systematically ab-
suitable route for administration of insulin ? sorbed.
a. IM b. The time to reach peak concentration.

b. SC
c.IV c. The time to reach minimum toxic
d. IV bolus concentration.
6. Noyes Whitney equation is helpful to d. The concentration at which pharma-

predict the rate of: cological actions of drug would be
initiated.
a. Drug diffusion
b. Drug dissolution 10. Which of the following is the major
plasma protein involved in drug binding?
7
a. Globulin 15. The normal renal creatinine clearance

b. Creatinine value lies between:
c. Albumin
d. Glycoprotein a. 200 to 300 ml/min
b. 80 to 120 ml/min
11. Which of the following equations may c. 30 to 60 ml/min
be useful to find out the plasma concentration d. 10 to 20 ml/min
of a drug ?
16. Which of the following is an example
a. Vd x P = Cp of an oligosaccharide?
b. P x Cp = Vd
c. Vd = P/Cp a. Glucose
d. Vd = Cp/P b. Sucrose
c. Starch
12. The initial dose of a drug through IV d. Glycogen
bolus to achieve desirable plasma concentra-
tion at once is known as: 17. Which pyrimidine base is found only in
RNA?
a. Loading dose
b. Maintenance dose a. Cytosine
c. Replacement dose b. Thymine
d. Degradation dose c. Uracil
d. Adenine
13. Which of the following is/are useful
to measure glomerular filtration rate? 18. Heparin is classified as a(n):
I. Creatinine a. Heteropolysacharide
II. Inulin b. Oligosaccharide
III. Albumin c. Homopolysacharide
d. Monosaccharide
a. I only
b. I and II only 19. Ribonucleic acid exists in all of the
c. II and III only following forms EXCEPT :
d. All
a. r RNA
14. The rapid degradation of a drug by b. m RNA
liver enzymes in a liver is defined as: c. q RNA
d. t RNA
a. Third pass effect of metabolism
b. First pass effect of metabolism 20. Which of the following structures is a
c. Rapid degradation host for Kreb’s cycle ?
d. Liver elimination
a. Mitochondria
b. Golgi bodies
8
c. Cytoplasmic membrane I. B lymphocytes

d. Ribosome II. T lymphocytes
III. Neutrophils
21. The synthesis of glucose from sources
other than carbohydrates is generally known a. I only
as: b. I and II only
c. II and III only
a. Glycolysis d. All
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Glycogenolysis 26. Which of the following immunoglo-
d. Glucogenesis bulin levels are elevated during asthma ?
22. Which of the following amino acids a. IgM

should be considered an essential amino b. IgD
acid(s) for the body ? c. IgE
d. IgA
I. Phenylalanine
II. Leucine 27 All of the following tests are required
III. Tryptophan to check sensitivity of class A weighing pre-
scription balance EXCEPT :
a. I only
b. I and II only a. Arm ratio test
c. II and III only b. Rider graduated beam test
d. All c. Shift test
d. U test
23. Which of the following enzymes ca-
talyses the coupling of two molecules of 28. The ratio of the mass of an object
nucleotides to form DNA ? measured in a vacuum at specific tempera-
ture to volume (in ml) of an object at the same
a. Transferase temperature is defined as:
b. Ligase
c. Isomerase a. Absolute density
d. Aldehyde dehydrogenase b. Specific gravity
c. Relative density
24. A nucleotide is a building block of: d. Apparent density
a. Sphingomide 29. The mean blood pressure of Mr. Ham

b. Nucleic acid is:
c. Amino acid
d. Starch 01/01/00 80 mm hg 04/04/00 90 mm hg
01/02/00 82 mm hg 01/05/00 85 mm hg
25. Which of the following cells are in- 01/03/00 81.5 mm hg 01/06/00 83 mm hg
volved with immune responses of the body?
9
a. 81.5 35. Find out the degrees of freedom in a

b. 85.6 Chi-square test in a 2x2 contingency table (as-
c. 83.58 sume tests are independent).
d. 84.20
a. 1
30. The deviation of data from its mean is b. 2
generally described by: c. 3
d. 4
a. The average
b. The standard deviation 36 The F distribution generally compares:
c. The precision
d. The accuracy a. Two means
b. Two variances
31. The reproducibility of results of a c. Three means
number of experiments is generally known as: d. Three variances
a. Precision 37. Which of the following elements has

b. Bias the highest electronegativity?
c. Accuracy
d. Closelessness a. Cl
b. F
32. If the value of p = 0.6 in binomial dis- c. Br
tribution, what is the probability of failure ? d.I
a. 0.2 38. Which of the following molecules has

b. 0.4 the largest dipole movement?
c. 0.3
d. 1.0
33. The  error is generally considered CH3 CI

significant at:
a. 1% C C
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 10%
CH3 Cl
34. When the hypothetical value of a pa-
rameter is the same as the observed value of a FIGURE - I
parameter, the error should be considered:
a. Alfa-error
b. Beta-error
c. Gema-error
d. Infinitive
10
CH3 H H O
N C
C C H
H. ................... O
H CH3 a. Hydrophobic interaction force

b. Ion dipole or ion induced dipole force
FIGURE-2 c. London force
d. Van der walls force
H F
41. The process of transforming a solid
C C directly to a vapor state is generally defined
as:
F H a. Evaporation
b. Melting
FIGURE-3 c. Sublimation
d. Levigation
CH3 F
42. The characteristic of solid substances
C C to exhibit more than one crystalline or amor-
phous form is defined as:
CH3 F
a. Isomerism
b. Polymorphism
FIGURE-4
c. Zwitter ion
d. Coupling
a. Fig I
b. Fig II
43. Which of the following molecules rep-
resents CIS form ?
c. Fig III
d. Fig IV
H Cl
39. Which of the following molecules has
the highest boiling point? C C
a. H2O H Cl
b. H2S
c. H2Se FIGURE - I
d. HCN
40. The bond between NH3 and CO2 is best

described as a:
11
H H c. Diffusion coefficient.
C C d. The length of the stagnant layer.
H Cl 46. Acetone is classified as a:

FIGURE - 2
a. Polar solvent
H Cl b. Nonpolar solvent
c. Semipolar solvent
C C d. Dipolar solvent
Cl Cl 47 The process of degradation of ionic

compounds into cations and anions in a pres-
FIGURE - 3 ence of water is defined as:
H H a. Solvation
b. Hydration
C C c. Activation
d. Degradation
H H
48. What happens to the solubility of al-
FIGURE - 4 cohol as the molecular weight of alcohol in-
creases ?
a. Fig I
b. Fig II a. Reduces
c. Fig III b. Increases
d. Fig IV c. Remain unchanged
d. Insoluble in water
44. Which of the following drugs is an
angiotensin receptor antagonist ? 49. The degradation of Riboflavin by
light is classified as:
a. Lisinopril
b. Losartan a. Oxidation
c. Methyldopa b. Reduction
d. Captopril c. Photochemical degradation
d. Racemization
45. According to Fick’s law of diffusion,
which of the following is inversely propor- 50. The degradation of Penicillin G
tionate to the rate of diffusion ? Procaine is highest in:
a. The area of the solid. a. Solution
b. Suspension
b. The difference between the concentra- c. Elixir
tion of solute to concentration of d. Tablet
solute in stagnant layer.
12
51 The rate of oxidation is influenced by all 55. To balance the following equation, how
of the following EXCEPT : many molecules of NH4Cl would be required?
a. Temperature (NH4)2S+NICl2—— NIS + NH4CL

b. Radiation
c. Presence of catalyst a. 1
d. Hydrolysis b. 2
c. 3
52. Which of the following are character- d. 4
istics of pseudoplastic flow?
56. The random motion of solute particles
I Viscosity of the flow generally de- in colloidal dispersion is known as:
creases with an increase in the rate of
shears. a. Newtonian flow
b. Brownian motion
II No yield value has been found with c. Stoke’s law
flow. d. Non-Newtonian flow
III. Suspension of tragacanth follows the 57. Which of the following about floccu-
pseudoplastic’s flow. lated suspension is NOT true?
a. I only a. Particles of suspension form loose ag-

b. I and II only gregates.
c. II and III only b. Rate of sedimentation is very low.
d. I, II and III only c. The time to form sediment is less.
d. The sedimentation is easy to redis-
53. Which of the following is NOT true perse.
about microemulsion?
58. The rate of sedimentation is indepen-
a. The mean diameter of a droplet gener- dent of :
ally lies between 10 to 200 nm.
b It is a thermodynamically stable a. The viscosity of dispersion medium.
system. b. The diameter of suspended particles.
c It requires a cosurfactant. c. The difference in densities between
d. It is intermediate in property between dispersed medium and dispersed
solution and emulsion. phase.
d. The lipophilic nature of particles.
54. A system with considerable interaction
between dispersed phase and dispersion me- 59. Which of the following compounds is
dium is known as: an acetanilide?
a. Lyophilic a CH3CONHC6H5
b. Lipophylitic b. CH3CHO
c. Lyophobic c. C H CH=N.C H
6 5 65
d. Radioactive colloids d. C H N=NC H
6 5 6 5
13
60. The spontaneous isomerization of two Which of the following is an active moiety of the
stereoisomers in aqueous solution that causes above compound ?
specific rotation is known as:
a. Carboxylic acid
a. Zwitter ion rotation b. Imidazole
b. Micelle rotation c. Pyroline
c. Mutarotation d. Aniline
d. Steriorotation
65. Albumin is an example of a:
61. Which of the following is a polysac-
charide? a. Simple protein
b. Conjugated protein
a. Dextrose c. Derived protein
b. Dextran d. Hydrolysed protein
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose 66. NH
62. The susbstance that is isolated from the Fluorination

brain and produces fatty acid, galactose and
sphingosine upon hydrolysis is known as: NH
a. Sterols O
b. Phospholipids Fluorination of above compound will result
c. Glycolipids into a well known cancer drug known as:
d. Saponins
a. Methadone
63. Which of the following is NOT a hy- b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
drolyzed product of lecithins?
d. Procainamide
a. Fatty acid 67. For microbial assay of vitamin B-12,

b. Glycerol the test organism should be :
c. Phosphoric acid
d. Spingosine a. L.leichmani
b. L.plantarum
64. c. P.aeruginosa
d. S.pneumonia
N CH CH NHCOOH
2 2 68. Which of the following is NOT classified
as a titrimetric method of analysis?
NH a. Direct titration
b. Gravimetric titration
c. Complexation reaction
d. Redox reaction
14
69. Hemolytic anemia with abnormal he- 74. Which of the following is an anaerobic
moglobin is generally found in patients with : organism?
a. Vitamin B-12 deficiency anemia a. L. pneumonphllia

b. Sickle cell anemia b. Cl. tetani
c. Iron deficiency anemia c. N. meningitis
d. Folic acid deficiency anemia d. E. coli
70. All of the following drugs may cause 75. Which of the following organisms is
hemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency responsible for causing most of the UTI ?
EXCEPT :
a. S. pharyngitis
a. Chloroquine b. E. coli
b. Sulfonamide c. N. gonorrhea
c. Dimercaptrol d. T. palladium
d. Penicillin
76. The accurate diagnostic test for a pa-
71. Which of the following drugs is use- tient with cystic fibrosis is :
ful in a Rh negative mother with a Rh posi-
tive infant ? a. Mantoux test
b. Sweat test
a. Rho gam c. Breath test
b. Octeroide acetate d. Sick test
c. Immunoglobulin
d. Pneu-immune 77. The allergic skin reaction character-
ized by wheel formation is known as:
72. Which of the following is NOT true
about PKU ? a. Eczema
b. Urticaria
a. It is a disease usually characterized by c. Impetigo
mental abnormalities. d. Erythema
b. A high concentration of phenylpyruvic-
acid is found in urine. 78. Which of the following about diabe-
c. It occurs due to excessive secretion tes insipidus is NOT true?
of Phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme.
d. A guthrie test is normally performed a. It is a disease usually characterized by
to detect it. polyuria, polydypsia, and severe thirst.
b. The urine volume sometimes increases
73. The metabolite product of epinephrine 16 to 24 liters a day.
and norepinephrine is : c. It is thought to occur due to over-
activity of ADH.
a. Gama butyric acid d. A patient should be monitored for
b. Vanillymandelic acid dehydration.
c. Homovanillic acid
d. 5 Hydroxyindoleacetic acid
15
79. In which kinetic reaction is the rate of re- 84. Which of the following drugs is indicated
action independent from concentration ? for reducing elevated blood concentration of
ammonia in blood ?
a. First order
b. Zero order a. Lactulose
c. Pseudo first order b. Diphenoxylate
d. Second order c. Sucralfate
d. Calcium polycarbophill
80. The initial degradation of a drug by
liver enzymes after oral administration of the 85. Patients with hemophilia have a defi-
drug is known as: ciency of :
a. Enzymatic degradation a. RhoD

b. First pass metabolism b. AHF
c. Relative bioavailability c. ADH
d. Fick’s degradation d. ACE
81. Which of the following factors DOES 86. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is found
NOT affect the protein binding of a drug ? to lower :
a. The availability of protein for binding. a. Serum K+ concentration

b. Binding affinity of protein to the drug. b. Serum Na+ concentration
c. The presence of competing substances c. Serum Al+3 concentration
for protein binding. d. Serum Ca+2 concentration
d. The concentration of a drug at its
receptor site. 87. Which of the following cells are gen-
erally found to be elevated in a patient with
82. In which of the following conditions polycythemia vera?
is an increase in plasma protein albumin found
? a. Reticulocytes
b. Erythrocytes
a. Severe burns c. Leukocytes
b. Cystic fibrosis d. Thrombocytes
c. Trauma
d. Hypothyroidism 88. Which of the following antihypertensive
drugs acts by blocking alfa-1 receptors ?
83. Which of the following drugs is an H2 re-
I. Doxazosin
ceptor antagonist ?
II. Terazosin
III Prazosin
a. Hydroxyzine
b. Cimetidine
a. I only
c. Diphenhydramine
b. I and II only
d. Omeprazole
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III only
16
89. Which of the following receptor’s stimu- a. Nitroglycerin

lation prevents the release of noradrenaline? b. Milrinone
c. Dipyridamole
a. Alpha-1 receptors d. Digoxin
b. Beta-1 receptors
c. Alpha-2 receptors 95. Which of the following is a Class-1A
d. Beta 2 receptors arrhythmic agent ?
90. Hypertrichosis is generally associated a. Lidocaine

with the use of b. Procainamide
c. Encainide
a. Hydralazine d. Atenolol
b. Minoxidil
c. Methyldopa 96. Which of the following blood cho-
d. Clonidine lesterol lowering drugs is an HMG-COA in-
hibitor ?
91. The preferable route for Sodium
Nitroprusside is a. Gembifrozil
b. Lovastatin
a. Intramuscular c. Cholestyramine
b. Oral d. Niacin
c. Intravenous
d. Subcutaneous 97. A patient with acute hypercapnia
should be treated with which of the following
92. An overdose of sodium nitroprusside ?
generally causes a. Doxapram
b. Dopamine
a. Severe hypotension c. Disopyramide
b. Hypertension d. Ipecac
c. Renal failure
d. Severe edema 98. Which of the following drugs is found
to be mucolytic or reduces the viscosity of
93. The use of Sodium Nitroprusside mucous ?
should be strictly restricted by :
a. Dextromethorphan
a. Adult men b. Acetylcysteine
b. Adult women c. Terbutaline
c. Neonates d. Benzonatate
d. Children
99. Which of the following drugs is indicated
94. Which of the following hypertensive drugs as uterine relaxant for women in labor ?
is known as an inodilator ?
a. Ephedrine
b. Terbutaline
17
c. Isoetharine 105. Which of the following diuretics cause

d. Metaproterenol hyperkalemia when used concurrently with
Captopril ?
100. Which of the following is an atropine -
like drug? I. Amiloride
II. Spironolactone
a. Retrovir III. Triamterene
b. Ipratropium
c. Carvedilol a. I only
d. Latanoprost b. I and II only
c. II and III only
101. Which of the following is a centrally d. I, II, and III only
acting muscle relaxant ?
106. Probenecid may competitively inhibit
a. Dantrolene the renal tubular secretion of :
b. Cyclobenzaprine
c. Bromocriptine I. Methicillin
d. Amphetamine II. Methotrexate
III. Dapsone
102. Which of the following anti-
Parkinson’s drugs is a dopamine receptor ago- a. I only
nist? b. I and II only
c. II and III only
a. Carbidopa d. I, II, and III only
b. Benztropine
c. Bromocriptine 107. Which of the following can be admin-
d. Amantadine istered for treatment of insulin overdose ?
I. Glucagon
103. Which of the following diuretics acts
II. I.V. Dextrose
through inhibition of carbonic anhydrase en-
III. Lidocaine
zyme?
a. I only
a. Furosemide
b. I and II only
b. Acetazolamide
c. II and III only
c. Spironolactone
d. I, II, and III only
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
104. Which of the following is a common ad- 108. Which of the following sulfonylurea
agents is indicated for the treatment of diabe-
verse effect of metolazone?
tes insipidus ?
a. Seizure
a. Glyburide
b. Electrolyte loss
b. Chlorpropamide
c. S.L.E.
c. Glipizide
d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
d. Tolbutamide
18
109. The deficiency of vitamin A may cause 114. Which of the following is not classified as
an insect control chemical ?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Night blindness a. Insecticides
c. Scurvy b. Repellents
d. Anemia c. Attractants
d. Antiseptics
110. Which of the following can be used
for the treatment of Methotrexate overdose ? 115. Which of the following is NOT true
about Barium sulfate?
a. Mephyton
b. Leucovorin Ca+2 a. It is medicinally used in roentgeno-
c. Pyridoxine graphy for the examination of the
d. Niacin stomach and colon.
b. It is a clear solution.
111. Which of the following benzodiaz- c. The principle adverse effect is
epines can be safely administered to a geriat- constipation.
ric patient ? d. It needs to be mixed well with food or
strained through gauze before it is
a. Chlordiazepoxide administered to a patient.
b. Alprazolam
c. Oxazepam 116. The addition of Ascorbyl palmitate in
d. Prazepam the manufacturing process serves as a :
112. The active metabolite of Primidone is a. Preservative

b. Antioxidant
I. Phenobarbital c. Coloring agent
II. PEMA d. Flavoring agent
III. Trimethadione
117. Epinephrine hydrochloride solution
a. I only can be stabilized by adding a small amount of
b. I and II only
c. II and III only a. Sodium metabisulfite
d. I, II, and III only b. Sodium bisulfite
c. Sulfur dioxide
113. Which of the following drugs should not d. Potassium benzoate
be used with Fluoxetine?
118. Which of the following are classified as
a. Tranylcypromine certified colors?
b. Digoxin
c. Amitriptyline I. FD and C
d. Lidocaine II. D and C
III. External D and C
19
a. I only a. The presence of erythematous macules

b. I and II only and papules.
c. II and III only b. The presence of hair on skin.
d. I, II, and III only c. The presence of large flaccid bullae on
skin.
119. Which of the following is not considered d. The presence of scaling and
a primary taste? sloughing on entire skin.
a. Saline 124. The antidote for Acetaminophen tox-

b. Sweet icity is :
c. Spicy
d. Bitter a. EDTA
b. N-acetylcysteine
120. A 500 mg dose of a drug administered c. Mesna
via I.V. injection produces a plasma concentra- d. Diazepam
tion of 2.5 mcg/ml after 16 hours. If the initial
plasma concentration of the drug is 10 mcg/ml, 125. Which of the following drugs may
bioavailability is 1, and volume of distribution is cause cholestatic jaundice?
120,000 L, what is the half-life of the drug?
I. Chlorpromazine
a. 2 hours II. Erythromycin estolate
b. 8 hours III. Indomethacin
c. 5 hours
d. 15 hours a. I only
b. I and II only
121. Sweet taste of a compound is generally c. II and III only
attributed to : d. I, II, and III only
a. Presence of H+ions 126. The principal adverse effect of Clinda-

b. Presence of OH- ions mycin is :
c. Presence of cations and anions
d. Presence of alkaloids a. ARF (acute renal failure)
b. TEN (toxic epidermal necrolysis)
122. The alcohol content of low iso-alco- c. AAC (antibiotic associated colitis)
hol elixir is : d. ADR (adverse drug reaction)
127. Which of the following is a major adverse

a. 8 to 10 % effect of Chloramphenicol?
b. 15 to 23 %
c. 50 to 80 % a. Thrombocytopenia
d. 73 to 78% b. Aplastic anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Agranulocytosis
123. Erythema multiform is generally de-
scribed as:
20
387. Which of the following ratios is the best I. It indicates profitability as well as the
indicator of a pharmacy’s profitability ? efficiency of pharmacy.
a. Net profit to net sales II. It can be used for new and old phar-
b. Net profit to net worth macies.
c. Net profit to total asset
d. Net profit to inventory III. It increases with an increase in sales
of thepharmacy.
388. Which of the following ratios generally
indicates the efficiency of a pharmacy ? a. I only
b. I and II only
a. Net profit to total assets. c. II and III only
b. Inventory turnover rate d. I, II, and III only
c. Capitalization of net profit
d. Net profit to net sales 393. Manan Pharmacy’s net profit to total as-
sets ratio is found to be 15%. This will indicate
the pharmacy’s profitability is :
389. All of the following indicate the ratio
that measures the efficiency of a pharmacy
a. Good
EXCEPT:
b. Excellent
c. Outperform
a. Inventory turnover rate
d. Worst
b. Net sales to inventory
c. Acid test
d. Net sales to net working capital 394. Manan’s Pharmacy’s part of the finan-
cial balance sheet is as follows:
390. The acceptable ratio for net profit to
net sales would be: YEAR 2000 SALES
RX $600,000
a. Less than 1%
Merchandise $150,000
b. 1 to 2 %
Total $750,000
c. 2 to 3 %
Cost of goods sold $500,000
d. 5 to 7%
Beginning inventory $200,000
Ending inventory $220,000
391. What would be the acceptable ratio for
10 year old pharmacy’s net profit to net worth?
What would be the inventory turnover
rate for Manan’s Pharmacy?
a. 1%
b. 5%
a. 4.3
c. 15%
b. 2.38
d. 50%
c. 3.5
d. 6.0
392. Which of the following is true about net
profit to inventory ratio?
51
395. The inventory turnover rate of the above 399. Which of the following classes of recalls
pharmacy would: should be considered a potential hazard to health
?
a. Meet the expectation
b. Below the expectation a. Class I
c. Exceed the expectation b. Class II
d. Cannot calculate c. Class III
d. Class IV
396. The net sales of the above pharmacy are
840,000. Find out the ratio of net sales to inven- 400. Which of the following categories indi-
tory of the above pharmacy. [assume inventory cates the use of a drug is restricted during preg-
of above pharmacy at time of calculation is nancy ?
$210,000]
a. A
a. 8 b. B
b. 4 c.X
c. 10 d. C
d. 12
401. Liquidity generally expresses a
397. Find out the net worth of Manan’s pharmacy’s ability to meet its:
Pharmacy?
a. Assets
Total current assets = $150,000 b. Current liability
Total fixed assets = $40,000 c. Inventory
Total liabilities = $75,000 d. Prepaid expenses
a. 2.55 402. The acid test generally measures a

b. 115,000 pharmacy’s :
c. 35,000
d. 1.3 a. Financial position
b. Liquidity
398. Which of the following ratios best de- c. Profitability
scribes the account receivable collection d. Inventory
times?
403. Which of the following is generally NOT
a. year end account receivable included in current assets ?
mean credit sales per day
a. Cash
b. annual creditsales b. Accounts payable
total account receivable c. Accounts receivable
d. Inventory
c. total account receivable
365 404. Which of the following would generally
be considered the fixed assets of a pharmacy?
d. annual creditsales
24
52
a. Inventory D LONG TERM LIABILITY

b. Fixtures and equipment
c. Cash Notes payable (>1 yr) $ 20,000
d. Accounts receivable Total liabilities $ 105,000
Net worth $ 165,000
405. All of the following can be considered the Cost of goods sold $ 490,000
current liability of a pharmacy EXCEPT
407. Which of the following does NOT
a. Accounts payable. measure the pharmacy’s liquidity ?
b. Notes payable within 1 year.
c. Accrued expenses. a. Acid test ratio
d. Notes payable beyond 1 year. b. Current ratio
c. Net sales to inventory
406. Find out the Acid test (quick ratio) of d. Inventory to its net working capital
Manancare Pharmacy from Table 1?
408. Total liabilities to net worth ratio of
a. 202/1 Manancare Pharmacy is :
b. 1.47/1
c. 13/1 a. Acceptable
d. 1/1 b. Below expectation
c. Exceeds the expectation
TABLE 1 d. Cannot be calculated
A CURRENT ASSETS 409. The investment in fixed assets of

MananCare Pharmacy :
Cash $ 50,000
A/C receivable $ 75,000 a. Exceeds the requirement
Inventory $ 100,000 b. Is below the requirement
Prepaid expenses $ 10,000 c. Meet’s the requirement
Total current assets $ 235,000 d. Cannot be calculated
B FIXED ASSETS
410. Manancare Pharmacy wants to sell its pre-
Fixtures and equipment $ 30,000 scription files. The Manancare Pharmacy own-
Deposits $ 5000 ers asks $350,000 for the existing prescription
Total fixed assets $ 35,000 file.
TOTAL ASSETS $ 270,000 The Manancare Pharmacy provides the follow-

ing data upon request.
C CURRENT LIABILITIES
Total new RX dispensed in $ 80,000
A/C payable $ 70,000 past 2 years.
Notes payable (1 yr) $ 5,000
Accrued expenses $ 10,000 The % of Rx that has one 40%
Total current liabilities $ 85,000 or more refill left
53
The average RX price $ 50 414. Find out the % markup of Vasotec pre-
scription if 30 tablets of Vasotec 5 mg retail price
Net profit % % 15 is $75 and the cost of the drug is $45.
What would be your answer to the owner of the

pharmacy? a. 55%
b. 75%
a Price is okay. c. 66%
b. Price is too high. d. 10%
c. Price is breaking even.
d Cannot be calculated. 415. Find out the retail price of one box of
insulin syringes if :
411. “Manancare Pharmacy” marksdown
the price of analgesic balm from $3 to $2. If The cost of complement = 55%
the mark down of the price increases the sales of The known retail markup = 45%
analgesic balm from 60 tubes to 80 tubes, what The cost of syringes = $9.00
would be the coefficient of elasticity of this prod-
uct ? a. 4.95
b. 13.95
a. 1 c. 16.30
b. 2 d. 15.11
c. 0.25
d. 0.5 416. For Manancare Pharmacy, the total
rent for the whole store including the Phar-
412. When relative change in revenue is same macy department is $10,000. The size of the phar-
as the relative change in price, it is known as: macy is 600 ft2 and the size of the whole store is
5000 ft2 . On the basis of above figures, what
I. Unitary elasticity would be the rent of the pharmacy alone?
II. Inelastic demand
III. Elastic demand a. $ 1000
b. $ 2000
a. I only c. $ 1200
b. I and II only d. $ 800
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III only 417. The funding for Medicare programs is
generally obtained from:
413. Find out the retail price of a box of insulin
syringes if the cost complement of the product is I. Social securitytaxes
55% and the cost of one box of insulin is $9.00. II. Premiums paid by participant
III. State government
a. $4.95
b. $16.30 a. I only
c. $15.11 b. I and II only
d. $13.95 c. II and III only
d. I, II and III only
54
418. In a patient cost sharing plan, when a Year Students taking the exam.
patient has to pay a specified amount of the
cost of prescriptions and a third party will pay the 1981 350
remainding cost of prescriptions, it is known as: 1982 420
1983 530
a. Copayment 1984 600
b. Coinsurance 1985 620
c. Deductible 1986 635
d. Retrospective payment 1987 700
1988 850
419. A person who works for an insurance
company, provides the statistical data that in- Find out the mean of the above data:
dicates the risk associated with serving the popu-
lation, and determines the premiums to cover all a. 601
the estimated expenses is known as: b. 588
c. 720
a. Pharmacy manager d. 520
b. Actuary
c. Sponsor 423. What would be the median of the
d. Vendor above example?
420. The maximum amount that will be paid a. 350

by a third party to a pharmacy when the drug b. 850
is available from more than one source is defined c. 610
as: d. 635
a. Maximum allowable cost (MAC)

424. A random sample of the blood glucose
b. Estimated acquisition cost (EAC)
concentration of 100 patients has a mean of
c. Actual acquisition cost (AAC)
130 and a median of 155. The frequency dis-
d. Average wholesale price (AWC)
tribution of the sample is:
421. When a patient pays a full predeter-
a. Normally distributed
mined amount to the provider at the begin-
b. Positively skewed
ning of each month it is known as:
c. Negatively skewed
d. Cannot be calculated
a. Concurrent reimbursement
b. Prospective reimbursement
c. Retrospective reimbursement
425. All of the following can be a shape of
d. Cash reimbursement frequency of distribution EXCEPT:
a. Bell shaped distribution

422. The increase in the number of taking the
b. Skewed shape distribution
foreign pharmacy exam is as follows:
c. U shape distribution
d. T shape distribution
55
426. What would be the Pearsonian coefficient a. 40

of skewness if a sample has a mean of 55 and a b. 19
median of 45. The standard deviation of the c. 10
sample is 35. d. 2
a. 0.90 431. Find out the degree of freedom in a 2 x 3

b. 1.0 contingency table Chi-square test when it is
c. 0.85 applied to test the hypothesis of independence of
d. 0.35 two variables?
427. Which of the following about a Bino- a. 3

mial experiment is NOT true? b. 2
c. 4
a. Each trial results in an outcome that is d. 1
classified as success or failure.
b. The repeated trials are dependent upon 432. The average length of time it takes stu-
previous experiment. dents to finish an exam is 180 minutes, with a
c. The experiment generally consists of standard deviation of 36 minutes. A new ex-
n-repeated trials. amination procedure using modern comput-
d. The probability of success remains ers is being tested. A random sample of 50
constant from trial to trial. students had an average examination time of 150
minutes, with a standard deviation of 40 minutes
428. What is the mean binomial distribution if under the new system. Test the hypothesis that
the probability of success is 0.60 in 50 trials ? the population mean is now less than 180 minutes.
This hypothesis would result in ?
a. 5
b. 3 a. One sided
c. 8 b. Two sided
d. 4 c. Three sided
d. Cannot be calculated
429. If the blood pressure measurement of
5 people is 110, 135, 140, 125 and 115 re- 433. In protein, Amino acids are joined co-
spectively . What would be the range of the set of valently by :
the above observations?
a. Hydrogen bond
a. 110 b. Peptide bond
b. 30 c. Oxygen bond
c. 125 d. Disulfide bond
d. 140
434. The secondary structure of protein
430. When plotting t distribution curves, if consists of :
sample size of 20 is taken from a normal popula-
tion, what would be the degree of freedom in the I. Alfa-helix
t distribution? II. Beta-sheet
III. Beta-bend
56
a. I only 438. The process in which the release of en-

b. I and II only ergy from energy rich molecules such as glucose
c. II and III only and fatty acid occurs in mitochondria is known
d. I, II, and III only as:
435. The denaturation of protein can occur a. Oxidative decarboxylation

in the presence of : b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. Oxidative deamination
I. Heat d. Oxidative dehydrogenation
II. Strong acid
III. Organic solvent 439. The breakdown of complex molecules such
as protein, lipid and polysaccharide into simple
a. I only molecules such as carbon dioxide, water and
b. I and II only ammonia is known as:
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III only a. Aerobic glycolysis
b. Catabolic reaction
436. Which of the following about sickle c. Anabolic reaction
cell anemia is NOT true? d. Gluconeogenesis
a. It is a genetic disorder resulting from 440. What would be the end product of gly-
the production of a variant hemoglo- colysis in the cell with mitochondria ?
bin.
a. Glucose
b. It is characterized with pain, lifelong b. Glycogen
hemolytic anemia and tissue hypoxia. c. Pyruvate
d. Lactate
c. The replacement of leucine at the sixth
position of the Beta-globulin chain for 441. Which of the following substance lev-
glutamate is generally responsible for els is found to be deficient in a patient with
causing it. G6PD deficiency?
d. The form Hbs has an extremely low a. Alfa-antitrypsin in reduced form

solubility compared to Hba which b. Bradykinin in reduced form
results into the aggregation of c. Glutathione in reduced form
molecules that form or create sickle d. Trypsin in elevated form
shaped red blood cells.
442. Which of the following causes hemolytic
437. The enzyme with its cofactor is generally anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency?
known as:
I. Oxidant drug
a. Coenzyme
II. Ingestion of fava beans
b. Holoenzyme
III. Certain types of infections
c. Apoenzyme
d. Prosthetic group
57
a. I only a. Gastric lipase

b. I and II only b. Bile salt
c. II and III only c. Pancreatic juice
d. I, II and III only d. Secretion
443. Which of the following should be classi- 448. Which of the following about steatorrhea
fied as a disaccharide? is NOT TRUE?
a. Ribose a. It causes a loss of lipid, essential fatty

b. Lactose acid and lipid soluble vitamin in fe-
c. Glycoprotein ces.
d. Glycosaminoglycans
b. The oversecretion of bile salt may im-
444. The pairs of structure that are mirror pair the absorption of fat soluble vita-
images of each other are known as: mins.
a. Isomers c. The inhibition of secretion of pancre-

b. Enantiomers atic juice from the pancreas generally
c. Epimers results in steatorrhea.
d. Muta rotation
d. The absorption of vitamins such as
vitamin C, thiamine, and riboflavin are
445. In humans, the principle storage of
not affected by the condition of
glycogen is found in the :
steatorrhea.
I. Skeletal muscle
II. Liver 449. Which of the following is a building
III. Spleen block of membrane of nerve tissue?
a. I only a. Prostaglandin
b. I and II only b. Spingomyelin
c. II and III only c. Thromboxane
d. I, II and III only d. Leukotriene
446. Which of the following substances should 450. The term cholelithiasis is generallyreferred
to as:
be classified as a polysaccharide?
a. Obstruction of the stomach by choles-
a. Glucose
terol stone.
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Sucrose
b. Obstruction of the pancreas by choles-
d. Glycoprotein
terol stone.
447. Which of the following agents acts as c. Obstruction of the gall bladder by cho-
an emulsifying agent for metabolism of lipid lesterol stone.
in duodenum?
58
d. Obstruction of the spleen by cholesterol a. Thiamine

stone. b. Vitamin D
c. Niacin
451. Which of the following is NOT a func- d. Pyridoxine
tion of Luteinizing hormone?
455. Which of the following is a good source
a. It initiates the testosterone synthesis in of Vitamin K?
the Leydig cells of the testis.
a. Cabbage and cauliflower
b. It simulates the process of b. Fatty fish and liver
spermatogenesis. c. Vegetable oils
d. Yellow and green vegetables and fruit
c. It induces ovulation in females.
456. The end product of purine catabolism is:
d. It stimulates synthesis of progesterone
and estrogen in the corpus luteum. a. Alantoin
b. Uric acid
452. The total energy required by an individual c. Hypoxanthine
can be found by calculating : d. Xanthine
I. BMR 457. The small and circular extrachromosomal

II. Thermic effect of food DNA molecules that carry genetic information for
III. Physical activity future generations in bacteria are known as :
a. I only a. Lysozymes
b. I and II only b. Plasmids
c. II and III only c. Mitochondria
d. I, II and III only d. Cytoplasm
453. Which of the following is considered pro- 458. Which of the following RNA types
tein deficient malnutrition? comprises 80% of the RNA in the cell?
I. Kwashiorkor I. Ribosomal RNA

II. Marasmus II. Transfer RNA
III. Steatorrhea III. Messenger RNA
a. I only a. I only
b. I and II only b. I and II only
c. II and III only c. II and III only
d. I, II and III only d. I, II and III only
454. Which of the following is NOT a water 459. Which of the following types of RNA
soluble vitamin? carries genetic information from DNA to cy-
tosol for protein synthesis ?
59
I m RNA 464. Bacteria with two or more flagella is

II t RNA generally known as:
III r RNA
a. Monotrichous
a. I only b. Amphitrichous
b. I and II only c. Lophotrichous
c. II and III only d. Peritrichous
465. The moving of bacteria away from the
460. Which of the following codons are light is known as :
generally known as stop or nonsense codons?
a. Chemotaxis
I UAG b. Phototaxis
II. UGA c. Pili
III. UAA d. Escapetaxis
a. I only 466. To find out if a substance is carcino-

b. I and II only genic which of the following tests should be
c. II and III only preformed ?
I. Ames test .
461. Which of the following types of micros- II. Pyrogen test
copy is used to observe the unstained living or III. Biopsy of cells
difficult to stain organisms?
a. I only
a. Dark field b. I and II only
b. Bright field c. II and III only
c. Transmission electron d. I, II and III only
d. Scanning electron
467. The synthesis of protein and lipids in cells
462. The mycobacterium species of bacteria is generally carried out by :
is generally stained with:
a. Mitochondria
a. Gram stain b. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Schaeffer-fulton stain c. Golgi apparatus
c. Acid fast stain d. Lysozymes
d. Flagellar stain
468. The growth of bacteria remains constant
463. Which of the following classes of cells in which of the following phases?
have no nucleus ?
a. Lag phase
a. Eukaryotic b. Log phase
b. Prokaryotic c. Stationary phase
c. Homokaryotic d. Decline phase
d. Heterokaryotic
60
ANSWERS
121
1 (b) Benzyl alcohol is classified as a preserva- Multiple emulsions : Water in Oil in ware (W/O/
tive. Preservatives prevent the growth of micro- W), Oil in water in Oil (O/W/O). The w/o/w
organisms and prevent deterioration of pharma- emulsions are generally more preferable for prepa-
ceutical dosage forms. The ideal preservative must ration of various pharmaceutical dosage forms.
have the following characteristics: They are used to prolong the duration of action
of various drugs, to localize drug in the body and
It must be effective against a broad spectrum of to prepare cosmetics.
microorganisms. It must be stable for the lifetime
of the product. It must be nontoxic, soluble, pal- 3 (a) Egg yolk or egg white is useful as an emul-
atable in test and odor and compatible with other sifying agent. It lowers the interfacial tension be-
ingredients in the formulation. tween disperse phase and dispersion medium. It
can be classified as natural or synthetic.
Commonly used preservatives:
Commonly used emulsifying agents:
* phenol * benzoic acid
* benzyl alcohol * chlorobutanol * Acacia * Tragacanth
* thiomersal * benzalkonium * Gelatin * Methylcellulose
* cresol * cetylpyridinium * Pectin * Agar
* Spans * Tweens
2 (c) Cold cream is an example of W/O emul- * Sodium lauryl sulfate.
sion. It is a biphasic liquid dosage form, in which
disperse phase and the dispersion medium are 4 (c) The transfer of a drug from a high concen-
liquids. Emulsion is classified by five different cat- trated area to a low concentrated area is defined
egories: as “Diffusion”.
Water in Oil (W/O) : Oil is continuous phase and The addition of a levigating agent into a
water is a disperse phase, i.e. lotions and lini- solid to blend to make paste is defined as “Levi-
ments. gation” i.e. the addition of glycerine to the pow-
der of sulfa.
Oil in water (O/W) : Water is continuous phase
and oil is a dispersed phase i.e. most of the oral 5 (b) The most suitable route for administration
emulsions to unmask the oil taste of a medication. of insulin is subcutaneous, since it has been found
that absorption of insulin via this route is slow and
Microemulsion : Unlike emulsions, microemulsion therefore the chance of acute hypoglycemia is very
is a transparent with a small particle size. It is be- rare.
lieved to be thermodynamically unstable. The
particle size of microemulsion lies between 10 to 6 (b) Noyes Whitney equation helps to find out
200 nm. It is generally used for the solubilization the rate of dissolution of a drug. The rate of
of the drug in pharmaceutical dosage form. dissolution is a rate-limiting step in the drug’s
bioavailability.
Nanoparticles : As the name suggests, the par-
ticle size of this kind of emulsion is limited to dC = Dc S x (Cs - C)
nanograms. They are useful for the preparation dt h
of globulins and toxoids. Tetanus toxoid and hu-
man immunoglobulin G are examples of
nanoparticles emulsion.
122
C : Concentration of drug at time t * Factors that affect protein binding :

Dc : Diffusion coefficient of drug
S : Surface area of drug particles I Hypoalbuminemia
Cs : Solubility of drug in diffusion layer II Renal impairment and uremia
h : Thickness of the diffusion layer III Pregnancy- protein binding is de-
surrounding the particles creased in last trimester of pregnancy.
IV Age-protein binding is less in neonant
7 (a) A substance that may be exhibited in more and children.
than one type of crystal structure is known as
Polymorphism and different structures are known 11 (c) The hypothetical volume of distribution of
as polymorphous i.e Theobroma oil, diamonds drug can be calculated on the basis of following
and methylprednisolone. formula : Vd = P
Cp
8 (b) The minimum concentration of a drug at
the receptor site which initiates pharmacological Vd = Volume ofdistribution
action is defined as Minimum Effective Concen- P = Amount of drug in the body
tration (MEC). Ideally drug concentration should Cp = Plasma concentration of drug
between MEC and MTC. Other terminology in-
cludes : The volume of distribution is very useful
in estimating the plasma concentration of the drug
MTC : Defined as the minimum toxic concentra- when the amount of drug is known. It helps to
tion. The concentration above MTC produces establish the dose of drug to achieve the specific
adverse and toxic effect. plasma concentration of drug. It is a direct mea-
sure of the extent of distribution. Drugs that are
Tmax : Time to reach maximum concentration highly bound to plasma protein have a less Vd
(Cmax) in a blood. and vice versa. This indicates that drugs with high
protein binding capacity may distribute less in tis-
9 (a) Area Under Curve (AUC) provides infor- sues and other body fluids. Likewise, if the drug
mation about the amount of drugs that are sys- is extensively distributed in the tissues and body
tematically absorbed. fluids, Vd would be high.
10 (c) Albumin is the major plasma protein in- 12 (a) The initial dose of a drug through I.V.
volved in binding of drugs. Drug binding inhibits bolus to achieve desirable plasma concentration
the clearance of the drug from the liver and kid- at once is defined as the Loading dose of drug.
ney. It limited the availability of free drugs to vari- The replacement of metabolic loss of a drug from
ous receptor sites. time to time to sustain the minimum effective con-
centration of drug (MEC) is defined as a mainte-
Profound increase in drug binding may nance dose.
reduce the effects of the drug or decrease in drug
binding may increase the toxic or adverse effects 13 (b) The creatinine (endogenous substance
of drugs. obtained from creatinine phosphate during muscle
metabolism) and Inulin (exogenous substance, a
Drugs having a high affinity for protein polysaccharide) are useful to measure the rate of
binding may displace a low affinity for protein glomerular filtration.
binding, such as oral sulfonylurea displaces the
coumadin from protein binding.
123
The ideal characteristics of a drug to measure Polysaccharides : They consist of long chains of
glomerular filtration rate : monosaccharides i.e. starch and glycogen
* It must be nontoxic and non- 17 (c) Uracil. It is a pyrimidine base that only
reabsorable from the renal tubules. found on RNA.
* It must not affect the renal function. Nucleotides are the building blocks of the nucleic
acid. Purines and pyrimidines bases bind to ri-
* It should be actively secreted through bose to form nucleoside, which when binded to
renal tubules and should be easily mea- phosphoric acid forms the nucleotides.
sured in urine or plasma. DNA RNA
Purine bases
* It should not be metabolized by the
liver. Adenine  
Guanine  
Creatinine clearance is the most widely 
acceptable test to measure the function of kid- Pyrimidine base
ney. Normal creatinine clearance lies between 80
to 120 cc/min. Creatinine clearance below 60 cc/ Cytosine  
min indicates renal function impairment. Uracil 
Thymine 
14 (b) The rapid degradation of drugs by liver 
enzymes is known as the First Pass Effect of me- 18 (a) Heparin is classified as a
tabolism. heteropolysaccharide. Polysaccharides are clas-
sified in two different categories :
15 (b) The normal creatinin clearance value lies
between 80 to 120 cc/min. I Homopolysaccharide
II Heteropolysaccharide
16 (b) Sucrose is an example of Oligosaccha-
ride. It consists of a short chain of monosaccha- Homopolysaccharide: Consist of only one type
ride. It consists of one molecule of glucose and of monomeric units i.e. starch, glycogen, cellu-
one molecule of fructose. Carbohydrates can be lose.
divided into three categories : Monosaccharide,
Oligosaccharide and Polysaccharide. Heteropolysaccharides: Consist of two or more
types of monomeric units, i.e. heparin and hy-
Monosaccharides : They are simple sugar such aluronic acid
as glucose or fructose.
19 (c) qRNA. Nucleic acids consist of long chains
Oligosaccharides : Consists of a small chain of of nucleotides. They can be subdivided into two
monosaccharides. i.e. sucrose, maltose and lac- different categories:
tose. They have to degraded into simple sugar in
order to be absorb from the intestine. Degrada- I DNA (Deoxyribose nucleic acid)
tion of sucrose gives one molecule of glucose and II RNA (Ribose nucleic acid)
fructose, degradation of maltose gives two mol-
ecules of glucose, and degradation of lactose gives RNA is subdivided into three categories:
each molecule of galactose and glucose.
124
I rRNA (Ribosomal RNA) A cell nucleus is absent in prokaryotic

II mRNA (Messenger RNA) cells. It is only found in eukaryotic cells.
III tRNA (Transfer RNA)
In the cytoplasm, one can see tubes and
rRNA : It is found in association with a number of a plate like structures distributed all over the cell
proteins as the component of ribosomes. It helps which known as the endoplasmic reticulum. It can
in the synthesis of protein. 80% of RNA in the be smooth or rough. Smooth endoplasmic reticu-
cell consists of rRNA. lum helps in the synthesis of lipids. Rough endo-
plasmic reticulum has numerous ribosomes that
mRNA : It is know as messenger RNA. As its attach to its surface and which give it a rough tex-
name suggests it conveys the specific genetic in- ture. Rough endoplasmic reticulum helps in syn-
formation from DNA to the cytosol to prepare thesis of proteins.
the site for specific protein synthesis. 5 % of RNA
in the cell consists of mRNA. 21 (b) The synthesis of glucose from sources other
than carbohydrates is known as gluconeogenesis.
tRNA : It is known as transfer RNA. It makes The other choices include :
about 15% of RNA in the cell. Each tRNA car-
ries the specific amino acid to the site of protein Glycolysis: Breakdown of sugar into pyruvate
synthesis. Each tRNA molecule contains antic- or lactate.
odon (three base nucleotide sequences) that gen-
erally recognize the codon on mRNA. Glycogenesis: The synthesis of glycogen from
glucose.
20 (a) Mitochondria is the host for Kreb’s cycle.
It is known as the powerhouse of the cell. A se- Glycogenolysis: The breakdown of glycogen into
ries of oxidative reactions occur in mitochondria, glucose.
and energy from such reactions is stored as ATP.
Energy in the form of ATP is usable by cells for 22 (d) All. The lists of the essential amino acids
their activities. includes :
The Golgi apparatus consists of a stack * Isoleucine

of flattened membrane sacs. It helps in storing * Arginine
various substances transformed from the endo- * Methionine
plasmic reticulum in a small secretory vesicle. * Leucine
These vesicle fuse to the plasma membrane and * Lysine
secrete the contents of vesicles into the extracel- * Threonine
lular portion of cells. The Golgi apparatus also * Tryptophan
helps in the formation of plasma and the lyso- * Valine
some membrane. * Phenylalanine
* Histidine
Lysosomes are extremely small organelles
made by the Golgi apparatus. They contain di- 23 (b) DNA ligase catalyzes the coupling of two
gestive enzymes that help in digestion of starch, molecules of DNA. DNA transferase catalyzes
glycogen and fat. They fuse with vacuoles (cells the transfer of various groups such as phosphate
that store glycogen, starch and fat) and release and amino groups. DNA hydrolases hydrolyses
digestive enzymes into vacuoles. the various substances. DNA lyase catalyzes the
125
removal of various functional groups other than 27 (d) U test. Arm ratio test, Rider and gradu-
the process of hydrolysis. DNA isomerase cata- ated beam test and shift test are commonly em-
lyzes various isomerizations. ployed tests for checking sensitivity of class A
prescription balance. The minimum weighable
24 (b) Nucleotides are the building blocks of quantity for class A prescription balance is 120
nucleic acid. Nucleic acids consists of long chains mg.
of nucleotides.
28 (a) The ratio of the mass of an object mea-
25 (b) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are sured in a vacuum at a specific temperature to the
the primary cells of immune responses of the body. volume (in ml) of an object at the same tempera-
ture is defined as Absolute density.
26 (c) Immunoglobulins are protein of the anti-
bodies class. They can be subdivided into five Specific gravity : The ratio of the mass of a sub-
major categories. stance to the mass of an other substance an equal
volume taken as standard.
IgG: It is the major immunoglobulin found
in blood. It accounts for 75% of the serum immu- Relative density : The mass of 1 ml of a standard
noglobulin and 20% of plasma protein. It is the substance at a specified temperature, relative to
o
only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental water at 4 C.
barrier to provide protection to the fetus. It is the
only class of immunoglobulin whose Fc region Apparent density : The ratio of mass of an object
can be recognized by phagocytosis and NK cells. measured in air at specific temperature to the vol-
ume of the object in ml at the same temperature.
IgM: It is the first immunoglobulin pro-
duced by the body in response to antigen. It ac- 29 (c) The mean blood pressure of Mr. Ham
counts for 5 to 10% of total immunoglobulins. It can be calculated as follows:
is the first immunoglobulin that is formed by the
fetus, however it cannot cross the placenta due 80 + 82 + 81.5 + 90 + 85 + 83
to its large size. 6
= 83.58
IgA: It is the major immunoglobulin in
external body secretions such as saliva, tears and 30 (b) The deviation of data from its mean or
urine. It accounts for 10% of total immunoglobu- average is defined as standard deviation. The re-
lins. producibility of the series of measurements is
known as precision. Accuracy is defined as close-
IgE: This immunoglobulin plays an impor- ness of measurements to the true value.
tant role in combating helminth and allergy reac-
tions produced such as drugs, pollens or foods. 31 (a) The reproducibility of results of a num-
The level of this immunoglobulin is found to be ber of experiments is generally known as preci-
highly elevated in patients with allergy condition sion.
such as asthma and hay fever.
32 (b) The sum of the all probabilities (failure
IgD: It accounts for 1% of total immuno- and success) in binomial distribution is equal to 1,
globulins. It serves as an antigen receptor site in therefore if the probability of success is p = 0.6,
the early stages of immune response. the probability of failure (q) should be 0.4.
126
p+q=1 37 (b) Fluorine has the highest electronegativity

q = 1-p compared to other given choices.
= 1-0.6
= 0.4 38 (d) In the figure IV F atom is more negative
than the C atom and therefore electrons are dis-
33 (c) The alfa-error in “Null Hypothesis” is also placed more towards F atom. This will make the
known as level of significance. It commonly is molecule morepolar.
chosen as 5%. This means that the error should The F atom has more electronegativity
be considered as significant if the difference be- than Cl, H and CH3, therefore the correct choice
tween observed value and hypothetical value is would be “d”.
more than 5%. The more conservative approach In the choice “C” two “F” atoms stand
would be to chose at the level of 1%. opposite to each other and nullify each other ef-
The second type of error is defined as fects.
beta error. It is defined as no difference between
o
observed value of parameter and hypothetical 39 (a) The high boiling point of H2O (100 )
value of parameter. o o
compared to H2S (-60 ) and H2Se (-41 ) is
For example, if we assume that Mr. Raj’s attributed the ability of O to make more H-bonds
blood pressure should be 100 mm Hg, we can compared to S and Se. The strength of the most
say that hypothetical value of experiment is H0 = H-bond ranges from 1 to 7 kcal/mole.
100. Hydrogen bonding is also responsible for higher
Alternative is could include all values solubility of polyhydroxy compounds.
greater than or less than 100 upon actual mea-
surement of blood pressure. If the measured value 40 (b) Due to electrostatic attraction, the nega-
of blood pressure is 100, we can say that beta tive pole of one molecule will try to line up with
error occurrs, and if it is less than 95 or greater the positive pole of neighboring molecule.
than 105 (5% difference), it would be consid-
ered as alfa-error. O=C <. ........ NR3
34 (b) When the hypothetical value of a param- This type of attraction is known as dipole-dipole
eter is the same as the observed value of a pa- attraction and has a strength of 1 to 7 kcal/mole.
rameter, the error should be considered Beta er-
ror. Sometimes electrons are concentrated in one re-
gion of the atom or molecule, and this displace-
35 (a) The degree of freedom in a chi-square ment of electrons generally causes a nonpolar
test is defined as (R-1) x (C-1), therefore the molecule to become a polar molecule which re-
degree of freedom in 2 x 2 contingency table sults in an instantaneous dipole. Slowly, electrons
would be (2-1) x (2-1) = 1. in a neighboring atom or molecule may be dis-
placed to produce a dipole this is called process
36 (b) The “F” distribution is used to compare of induction. A newly formed dipole is known as
two variances. It is defined by the ratio of vari- an induced dipole or debey force. Debey force
ances, with n1 -1 in the numerator and n2-1 in has a strength of about 1 to 3 kcal/mole.
the denominator of the ratio. The “t” distribution
is useful for a comparison of two means. The attraction between two induced dipole
molecules is known as dipole-induced dipole
interaction, dispersion force or London force, This
127
bond has a strength of about 0.5 to 1 kcal/mole. 44 (b) Cozaar (Losartan) is classified as angio-
Ion dipole or ion induced dipole bond; in a polar tensin II receptor antagonist. It blocks the bind-
substance, the positive end of one dipole tries to ing of angiotensin II to AT receptors. It is indi-
line up with the negative end of an other dipole. cated for the treatment of hypertension. The rec-
ommended dose of the drug is 50 mg per day
Hydrophobic bond: The association of with or without food. Hyperkalemia, diarrhea,
nonpolar groups in an aqueous solution such as hypotension, tachycardia and angioedema are
water, due to the tendency of aqueous solvents reported side effects of the drug.
to exclude nonpolar molecules.
45 (d) According to Fick’s law of diffusion, the
41 (c) The process of transforming a solid to a rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the area
vapor without intermediate change to the liquid is of the solid, the concentration difference between
defined as sublimation. The transform of solid to the concentration of solute in the stagnant layer at
a liquid is a defined as melting and the transfer of the surface of solid and its concentration on the
liquids to a vapor is defined as evaporation. farthest side of the stagnant layer and diffusion
coefficient. It is inversely proportional to the length
42 (b) The characteristic of solid substances to of stagnant layer.
exhibit more than one crystalline or amorphous
form is defined as polymorphism. The driving force behind the movement of the
solute molecules through the stagnant layer is the
43 (a) The arrangement of geometric isomers in difference in concentration of solute at C1 and its
which two ions (in our case Cl) can either be along concentration at C2.
the same edge of the square (cis) or on opposite
corners (trans). Rate of solution = D x A X (C - C )
1 2
L
Generally trans-isomers are more stable com- D = Diffusion coefficient
pared to cis-isomers. A = Surface area of solid
C1 = Concentration near to stagnant layer
C2 = Concentration of solute to other side
X Y of stagnant layer.
L = The length of the stagnant layer
C C
46 (c) Acetone is classified as a semipolar sol-
X Y vent. Water is classified as a polar and benzene is
classified as a non-polar solvent.
[CIS ISOMER]
47 (b) The process of degradation of ionic salt
into cations and anions in the presence of water is
known as hydration. If the solvent is other than
X Y water, the process is known as solvation.
C C 48 (a) As the molecular weight of alcohol in-

creases, the solubility of alcohol decreases. As
Y X the molecular weight of alcohol increases, the
chances of formation of hydrogen bonds between
[ TRANS ISOMER ]
128
water and OH groups of alcohol decreases, The material that exhibits the plastic flow
therefore high molecular weight alcohols are is known as the Bingham body. Plastic flow has a
poorly soluble in water. yield value, which means that it does not start to
flow until shear stress exceeds the yield value,
49 (c) The degradation of Riboflavin by light is and therefore plastic flow curve does not pass
an example of photochemical degradation. Light through the origin but rather intersects the shear-
generally catalyzes oxidation and reduction of ing stress axis.
photoexcited species of such drugs. Riboflavin
and phenothiazine are examples of such drugs. Concentrated suspension with flocculated
particles generally follows the plastic flow. Plastic
50 (a) The degradation of Penicillin G Procaine flow has a yield value because of the presence of
is the highest in a solution, since the hydrolysis of van der walls force between flocculated particles,
Penicillin G procaine is catalyzed by hydrogen or and the need to break such force before it exists
hydroxide ions. in the flow.
51 (d) The rate of oxidation is influenced by tem- The third type of flow is described as
perature, radiation and the presence of a cata- Dilatant flow. It is also known as a “shear thick-
lyst. It is not affected by hydrolysis. Ephedrine, ening system” in which the viscosity of the system
ascorbic acid, phenothiazine and vitamin A are increases with increase in shear stress. It is gen-
examples of pharmaceutical products that oxidize erally observed more with suspension that con-
very easily. tains a high percentage of dispersed solid (about
50% or greater of small deflocculated particles).
52 (d) A large number of pharmaceutical prod-
ucts such as liquid dispersion of methyl cellulose, The system that follows conversion from
carboxymethylcellulose, tragacanth and sodium gel to sol upon applying shear stress and reforms
alginate follows pseudoplastic flow. The viscosity back to gel from sol upon resting is defined as
of the pseudoplastic flow decreases with an in- Thixotropy. The application of thixotropy is very
crease in rate of shear. It does not have the yield useful in the formulation of pharmaceutical prod-
value. ucts. For example, the well formulated thixotropy
suspension will not settle out readily and will be-
Normally, as shearing stress increases, the come fluid upon shaking.
disarranged particles of the solute try to get along
with the direction of flow. At certain levels with 53 (b) Microemulsion is the liquid dispersion of
each successive shearing stress, the greater rate water and oil that is made homogeneous and trans-
of shear can be achieved with minimum stress. In parent by the addition of surfactant and cosur-
addition, some of the solute molecules (entrapped factant. It is not a thermodynamically stable. The
between solvent molecules) may be released, droplet size of microemulsions lie between 10 to
which reduces apparent viscosity of the flow. 200 nm. They are intermediate in property be-
Pseudoplastic flow is known as a “shear thinning tween solution and emulsion.
system”.
54 (a) A system with considerable interaction
Generally, non-newtonian flow can be between the disperse phase and dispersion me-
classified in three classes of flow: plastic, pseudo- dium is known as Lyophilic dispersion or solvent
plastic, anddilatant. loving dispersion. If the dispersion medium is
water, the system is known as hydrophilic.
129
Hydrophilic suspension is subdivided in to three 58 (d) The relation of the rate of sedimentation
categories: with various parameters can be expressed by
Stoke’s law.
I True solution, i.e. acacia and povidone
solution. V = 2r2 (P1 - P2) g
9n
II Gells or jellies, i.e. gels of
methylcellulose, gelatin and starch V = velocity of sedimentation in
cm/sec
III Particulate dispersions, i.e. suspension r = radius of the particles in cm
of bentonite P = density of disperse phase in
1 3
g/cm
Lipophilic or Oleophilic dispersions have a high P = density of dispersion medium
2 3
affinity for oily substances such as benzene, veg- in g/cm
etable oils, essential oils, and mineral oil etc. n = viscosity of dispersion me-
dium
55 (b) 2. g = gravity acceleration 980.7 cm/
2
sec
(NH4)2S + NICl2 = NIS + 2 NH4Cl
The rate of sedimentation is independent of the
56 (b) The random motion of solute particles in lipophilic nature of particles.
colloidal dispersion is known as Brownian mo-
tion. 59 (a) CH3CONHC6H5
57 (b) Flocculated suspensions have the follow- 60 (c) The spontaneous isomerization of two iso-
ing characteristics: mers in an aqueous solution causes specific rota-
tion which is known as mutarotation.
* The rate of sedimentation is high. A sedi-
ment generally forms rapidly compared to 61 (b) Dextran is an example of a polysaccha-
deflocculated particles. The sediment is loosely ride. Other polysaccharides include:
packed and can be easily redispersed with mini-
mum stress. Particles in sediment do not bind * Dextrin
tightly to each other. The suspension with floccu- * Inulin
lated particles has a clear supernatant region. * Starch
* Cotton
In contrast, the rate of sedimentation of * Soy polysaccharides
deflocculated suspension is slow, but once the
particles settle at the bottom of the container it is 62 (c) Lipids can be divided into five classes
very difficult to redisperse them. Sediment forms according to their chemical structure.
slowly and particles in sediment are tightly packed.
The supernatant remains the cloudy. Glycolipids : Also known as Cerebro-
sides. They are isolated from the brain. Upon hy-
In pharmacy practice suspension with drolysis, they yield fatty acid, galactose and sph-
flocculated particles is the most acceptable. ingosine. They are also known as galactolipids
due to the presence of galactose, such as
phrenosin, kerasin.
130
Phospholipids : Known as Phosphatides. Prosthetic gp Example

They are esters consist of fatty acid, phosphoric
acids and nitrogenous compounds, such as leci- Phosphoprotein Phosphoric acid casein,
thin. ovovitellin
Sterols : The sterols are alcohols struc-
turally related to steroids. They are obtained form Nucleoprotein Nucleic acid nuclein
plants and animals such as cholesterol and ergos-
terol. Glycoprotein Carbohydrate mucins
Waxes : Waxes are defined as high mo-
lecular weight esters. They consist of monohy- Chromoprotein Colored gp hemoglobin
dric alcohol and high molecular weight fatty acids,
such as spermaceti. Lipoprotein Lipids lecithin
Fixed oils and fats : They are esters of Metalloprotein Metals tyrosinase,
glycerol and fatty acids, such as olive oil. Fixed arginase,
oils such as lard, which are solid at room tem- xanthine
perature are known as fat. oxidase
63 (d) Sphingosine is not a hydrolysed product Derived proteins: They are formed from
of lecithin. Lecithins are phospholipids and are primary or conjugated proteins by the actions of
generally hydrolysed to fatty acid, phosphoric acid the acid, alkali, heat, water, enzyme or alcohol.
and nitrogenous compounds other than sphin- They generally differ in physical and chemical
gosine. properties from the protein they are derived from.
They subdivide into primary derived protein (De-
64 (b) Imidazole is an active moiety of the listed natured protein) or secondary derived protein.
compound.
66 (b) 5- Fluorouracil . It is classified as a cyto-
65 (a) Albumin is an example of simple protein. toxic substance. It is a pyrimidine antagonist. It is
indicated for the treatment of the rectum, stom-
Protein is generally classified in three different ach, colon, pancreas and breast cancers.
categories: Esophagopharyngitis, myocardial ischemia, an-
gina, photophobia and decreased vision are re-
I Simple protein ported side effects of the drug.
II Conjugated protein
III Derived protein 67 (a) L.leichmanni is the most widely used test
organism for microbial assay of vitamin B 12.
Simple protein : Naturally occurring pro- L.plantarum is generally used for microbial assay
teins, which upon hydrolysis yield only alpha- of Niacin and Calcium pantothenate.
amino acids such as albumins, globulins, prola-
mines, glutelins and albuminoids. 68 (b) Gravimetric analysis is not con-
sidered a titrimetric method of analysis. Titrimet-
Conjugated protein: Conjugated proteins ric methods of analysis generally include :
are further classified on the nature of prosthetic
groups. I Acid basetitrations
II Precipitation reactions
131
III Redox reactions G6PD-Hemolytic anemia:

IV Complexation reactions
V Large anion and large cation reactions The enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
is necessary to maintain the reduce glutathione
Gravimetric methods of analysis include: level (GSH) in red blood cells. This enzyme is
necessary to prevent the hemolysis. The deficiency
I Weighing drugs after separation of this enzyme may cause severe hemolytic anemia
II Weighing a derivative after separation in patients with the use of certain oxidant drugs
III Weighing a residue after ignition such as primaquine, sulfonamide, nitrofuran, na-
lidixic acid, probenecid, chloroquine and
Spectrometric methods of analysis include: dimercaptol.
I Colorimetry Glutathione is an antioxidant which pre-

II UV absorption vents the oxidation of hemoglobin to methemo-
III IR absorption globin. NADPH is required to keep glutathione
IV Fluorimetric emission in a reduced state and G6PD is needed to con-
V NMR absorption vert NADP to NADPH. When RBC’s are defi-
VI Atomic absorption cient in G6PD, the amount of NADPH is not
adequate to keep glutathione in a reduced state,
Electrochemical methods of analysis include : so free radicals accumulate inside of red blood
cells and cause the oxidation of hemoglobin to
I Voltammetery methemoglobin.
II Potentiometery
70 (d) Except Penicillin, all of the mentioned
Chromatographic methods of analysis include : medications may cause hemolytic anemia in pa-
tients with G6PD deficiency.
I Gas chromatography
II HPLC 71 (a) Rho gam is a useful drug for treatment of
III TLC an Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive infant.
In Rh negative mother, Rh positive antigens may
69 (b) Sickle cell anemia and Beta-thalassemia transfer from Rh positive fetuses to the mother
are hemolytic anemias associated with abnormal via placenta. This may lead to production of Rh
hemoglobins. Due to poor solubility of such ab- positive antibodies in the mother’s blood. These
normal hemoglobins in a reduced state, semic- same antibodies may transfer back from the
rystalline bodies are formed inside of RBC. These mother’s blood into fetus via the placenta, and
crystalline bodies are pointed and elongated in- produce antigen-antibody reactions. This leads
side of the cell, and rupture the red blood cells. to lysis of red blood cells in the fetus, and miscar-
riage. Rho gam prevents the formation of anti-Rh
The detection of sickle-cell disease can antibodies in an mother who bears a Rh positive
be done by viewing red cell sickling in the pres- fetus.
ence of the reducing agent sodium metabisulfite,
or by quantitative determination of turbidity pro- 72 (c) PKU is a disease characterized by an el-
duced by dithionite following the reduction of HbS evated serum concentration of phenylalanine and
to deoxyHbS in RBC. the presence of phenylpyruvic acid in urine. The
deficiency of enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase
132
is responsible for this. Phenylalanine hydroxylase Enterococcus faecalis Endocarditis

converts the phenylalanine to tyrosine. The dis-
ease is associated with mental deficiency.
Gram Negative Organisms
The Guthrie test is performed to detect
PKU. The agar medium with serum or blood on Organisms Disease
the surface is impregnated with alanine at a con-
centration sufficient to inhibit the growth of B. Hemophilus influenza Meningitis
subtitis. Phenylalanine reverses this inhibition and
bacterial inhibition assay is a direct measure of Neisseria meningitis Meningitis
phenylalanine.
Gardenerella vaginitis Bacterial vaginitis
73 (b) The metabolic product of epinephrine and
nor epinephrine is vanillymandelic acid. Vibrio cholera Cholera
Homovanillic acid is a metabolic product of
dopamine and 5 hydroxyindoleacetic acid is of Hemophilus aegyptius Conjunctivitis
serotonin.
74 (b) Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic organ- Campylobacteria sp Food poisoning

ism that causes tetanus. Below are important or-
ganisms and the disease produced by those or- Shigella Food poisoning
ganisms. Shigellosis
Gram Positive Microorganisms Salmonella Food poisoning

Salmonellosis
Organisms Disease
Neisseria gonorrhea Gonorrhea
Propionibacterium acne Acne
Legionella pneumophilia Legionnaire’s
Bacilus anthracis Anthrax disease
Streptococcus pneumonia Meningitis Borrelia burgdorferi Lyme disease

Pneumonia
Helicobacter pyroli Peptic ulcer
Streptococcus mutane Dental caries
Yersinia pestis Plague
Streptococcus pyrogens Food poison
Pharyngitis Klebsiella pneumonia Pneumonia
Rheumatic fever
Salmonella typhi Typhoid
Staphylococcus aureus Food poison
Skin infection Treponema pallidum Syphilis
Wound infection
Toxic shock- Chalmydia trachosis Trachoma
syndrome
133
Bordetella pertussis Whooping Rabies Rabies

cough
Poliovirus Poliomyelitis
Anaerobic Microorganisms
Rubella Rubella
Organisms Disease
Varicella zoster Shingles
Clostridium botulinum Botulism
Variola virus Smallpox
Corynebacterium diptheria Diptheria
Yellow fever Yellow fever
Clostridium perfringen Gas gangrene
75 (b) E.coli is responsible for causing most of
Clostridium difficile P.colitis urinary tract infections (UTI).
Clostridium tetani Tetanus 76 (b) A sweat test helps to confirm cystic fi-
brosis. The sweat of patients with cystic fibrosis
Miscellaneous usually contains 3 to 5 times higher concentra-
tions of chloride ions than patients without the dis-
Organisms Disease ease.
Mycobacterium lepre Leprosy 77 (b) Urticaria or hives is a skin reaction char-

acterized by wheal formation. The lesions are well-
Mycobacterium tuberculosis Tuberculosis circumscribed discrete wheals with erythemato-
sus raised serpiginous borders and blanched cen-
Important viral diseases ters. The lesion is associated with intense pruritus
or burning. Urticaria or formation of wheals is not
Organisms Disease a life-threatening condition itself, but it may indi-
cate the patient is more susceptible to anaphylac-
Varicella-zoster Chickenpox tic reactions.
Epstein Barr Burkitt, Eczema: It is also known as Atopic der-

Lymphoma, matitis and is characterized by itching. The ap-
Infectious pearance and distribution of lesions depend on
Mononucleosis the age of the patient. It can be further subdi-
vided into infant-type atopic dermatitis, child-
Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalic hood-type atopic dermatitis and adult-type atopic
inclusion dermatitis.
disease
Allergic contact dermatitis: It is a com-
Herpes simplex Herpes mon skin disease caused by direct contact with
substances such as acid and alkali, or by exces-
HIV Aids sive use of soap.
Paramyxovirus Mumps
134
Exfoliative Dermatitis: It is also known as k = 2.303 log a

erythroderma syndrome. It is a fatal complication t (a - x)
that occurs due to other poorly controlled der-
matitis reactions. t1/2 = 0.693
k
Erythema multiform: It is a skin reaction
result of systematic allergic reaction to various Second order reaction: The rate of change in the
agents such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome. concentration of reactants and products is pro-
portional to either the second power of
Impetigo: It is a superficial bacterial in- concentration of one reactant or a single power
fection of the skin. The causative organisms are of concentration of two reactants.
coagulase -positive staphylococci and beta
hemolytic streptococci. It is more common in chil- - dx = k (a - x) (b - x)
dren. dt
78 (c) Diabetes insipidus is a disorder that usu- kt = x

ally occurs due to a decrease in production of a ( a - x)
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It is characterized
by a severe increase in thirst, polyuria and poly- t = 1/ka
1/2
dipsia. The urine volume increase is up to 16 to
24 liters per day. Patients should be watched for Pseudo First order reactions: In sec-
dehydration. ond order reaction, if one of the reactant present
in a very large amount then, rate of such reaction
79 (b) The rate of reaction is independent of usually depends on the concentration of large re-
concentration in zero order kinetic. actant and independent of the concentration of
the second reactant, this type of reaction is usu-
Zero order reaction: The rate of change ally described as a pseudo first order reaction,
in the concentration of reactants and products such as hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in the pres-
depends on factors other than concentration of ence of an excess amount of water.
reactants, e.g. photochemical reactions.
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O (excess)
V = - dc = k , t1/2 = a
dt 2k CH3COOH + C2H5OH
First order reaction: The rate of

change in the concentration of reactants is pro- 80 (b) The initial degradation of drugs by the liver
portional to the first power of the concentration after oral administration the of the drug is defined
of a single reactant. as First Pass Effect of metabolism.
V = -dx = k (a - x) 81 (d) The concentration of a drugs at the re-

dt ceptor site does not affect the protein binding of
the drug. The factors that affect the protein bind-
-dx = k (a - x) ing of drugs are :
dt
135
* Type of proteins available for binding. 85 (b) A patient with hemophilia has a deficiency
of coagulation factor VIII, known as Antihemo-
* The protein binding affinity and capac- philic factor (AHF). The deficiency of this en-
ity of the drug. zyme will result in severe coagulation defect. It is
indicated for treatment of hemorrhage in patients
* The presence of competing substances with Hemophilia A or to prevent bleeding in vari-
for protein binding. ous surgical procedures.
* The disease condition that may alter
the amount of protein available for 86 (a) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate re-
binding. duces the elevated serum concentration of po-
tassium (hyperkalemia). It is an ion exchange resin
The lists of the conditions or diseases that may that replaces the potassium ions for sodium ions.
decrease albumin levels in plasma and thereby The recommended dose of the drug is 15 grams,
decrease the protein binding includes : one to four times a day. Constipation, anorexia,
and gastric irritation are reported side effects of
* Burns the drug.
* Pregnancy
* Cystic fibrosis 87 (b) Polycythemia and erythrocytosis
* Chronic liverdisease are conditions in which there is an increase in the
* Chronic renal failure number of erythrocytes found. In contrast, leu-
* Trauma kemia is a condition in which there is an increase
in the number of leukocytes. Thrombopenia is
The conditions that may increase albumin levels associated with a decrease in thrombocytes
in plasma and thereby increase the protein bind- counts.
ing includes:
88 (d) Doxazosin, Terazosin and Pra-
* Hypothyroidism zosin are specific alpha-1 blockers. They are in-
dicated for treatment of hypertension and BPH.
82 (d) In hypothyroidism, the plasma albumin The major side effects of these agents are first
level is found to be elevated. dose syncope and tachycardia.
83 (b) Tagamet (Cimetidine) is an H2 receptor 89 (c) The stimulation of alpha-2 recep-

antagonist indicated for treatment of GERD and tors prevents the release of noradrenaline i.e.
heartburn. It has a powerful cp450 inhibition prop- clonidine and methyldopa.
erty. The recommended dose of the drug is 400
mg b.i.d. Diarrhea, pancreatitis, and headache The function of other receptors:
are reported side effects of the drug.
Alpha-1 receptors: Stimulation of these
84 (a) Lactulose is indicated for treatment of receptors may result in the constriction of blood
hyperammonia. It is degraded into organic acid vessels that supply to skeletal muscles, therefore
which decrease the ph of the colonic contents. alpha-1 blockers are very good vasodilators.
The acidic contents of the colon entraps the am- These include Prazosin and Terazosin, Doxazosin.
monia as ammonium ions and reduces the con-
centration in the blood. Beta-1 receptors: Stimulation of these
receptors may increase the cardiac rate. Agents
136
of this class are helpful in the treatment of cardio- mcg/kg administered slowly via I.V. infusion, over
genic shock. Inhibition of these receptors helps in ten minutes. Arrhythmia, tachycardia, hypoten-
controlling hypertension, therefore beta blockers sion, and thrombocytopenia are reported side
are indicated for treatment of hypertension i.e. effects of the drug.
propranolol and atenolol
95 (b) Procainamide is a class IA arrhythmic
Beta-2 receptors : Stimulation of these agent. Here is the classification of antiarrhythmic
receptors dilate vascular smooth muscles, there- agents:
fore most of the bronchodilators are good Beta-
2 stimulators. These include albuterol, and Class IA : Procainamide, quinidine,
salmeterol. disopyramide
90 (b) Hypertrichosis (increase in hair growth) Class IB : Phenytoin, lidocaine, mexiletin,

is a side effect associated with the use of Loniten tocainide
(Minoxidil). This adverse effect of Minoxidil has
been used for treatment of male pattern baldness. Class IC : Propafenone, Flecainide, Moricizine
Minoxidil is classified as an antihypertensive agent.
It is indicated for the treatment of hypertension Class II : All the beta blockers
and male pattern baldness. The recommended
dose of the drug is 5 mg per day. Hypotension, Class III : Sotalol, Bretylium, Amiodarone
tachycardia, edema, nausea and vomiting are re-
ported side effects of the drug. Class IV : All the calcium channel blockers.
91 (c) The most preferable route for the admin- 96 (b) Mevacor (Lovastatin) is a lipid lowering
istration of Sodium nitroprusside is intravenous drug that acts by inhibition of the HMG COA
because of the short half life of the drug. reductase enzymes. This enzyme is responsible
for the conversion of 3-hydroxy 3 mehtylglutaryl-
92 (b) Overdose of sodium nitroprusside gen- coenzyme A to mevalonate, the precursor for ste-
erally results in hypertension instead of hypoten- rols including cholesterol. The inhibition of
sion. The overdose of this agent results in cya- biosynthesis of cholesterol reduces the cholesterol
nide poisoning, which in turn stimulates the ca- in hepatic cells, which stimulates the synthesis of
rotid chemoreceptors, responsible for causing LDL receptors. These will all reduce the synthe-
hypertension and tachycardia. sis of cholesterol. It is indicated for the treatment
of hypercholesterolemia. Abdominal cramps,
93 (c) The use of Sodium nitroprusside should pain, diarrhea, constipation, dyspepsia, myalgia,
be strictly restricted in infants due to a lack of and arthralgia are reported side effects of the drug.
enzyme rhodanase that converts the cyanide into The recommended dose of the drug is 20 mg once
sodium thiocyanate. daily with an evening meal. The other agents in
the same class are:
94 (b) Primacor (Milrinone) is known as an in-
odilator since it has inotropic as well as vasodila- * Fluvastatin
tion properties. It is a selective inhibitor of cAMP * Atrovastatin
phosphodiesterase enzymes in cardiac and vas- * Pravastatin
cular muscles. It is indicated for the treatment of * Cerivastatin
CHF. The recommended dose of the drug is 50
137
97 (a) Doxapram is indicated as the respiratory ing strech receptors in the respiratory passage and
stimulant agent in postanesthesia and in chronic reducing the cough reflexes. Dextromethorphan
obstructive pulmonary disease associated with and codeine act centrally by depressing the cough
acute hypercapnia. The respiratory stimulant to center in the medulla.
effect of this agent is attributed to its ability to Terbutaline is indicated as a bonchodilator
stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla via for asthma patients and as a uterine relaxant in
carotid chemoreceptors. premature labor.
Ipecac is widely used as an emetic in ac-
cidental poisoning. It is also used as an expecto- 99 (b) Terbutaline is indicated as uterine relaxant
rant. for women in labor.
Dopamine is formed by the decarboxy-
lation of 3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA). It 100 (b) Ipratropium is an atropine-like drug. It is
is a precursor to noradrenalin and is also itself a indicated for the treatment of asthma and chronic
neurotransmitter in CNS. It is indicated for treat- obstructive pulmonary disease. Dryness of mouth,
ment of cardiac shock. The vasodilation offered irritation in the throat, blurred vision and mild
by dopamine is very important in drawing the bradycardia have been reported with the drug.
blood in the kidney and small bowel during an Retrovir is indicated for treatment of HIV.
ischemic attack. The diuretic property of dopamine Anemia and neutropenia have been reported.
helps to preserve the renal tubules. The cardiac Retrovir induced anemia can be treated by the
stimulation improves the deteriorated cardiac use of Epogen.
function. Hypotension is a principal adverse ef- Carvedilol is a new beta blocker just re-
fect of the drug. cently introduced in the market. It is indicated for
Disopyramide is classified as a class IA treatment of CHF.
antiarrhythmic agent. It has profound anticholin- Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analog in-
ergic side effects with severe A.V. node suppres- dicated for treatment of glaucoma. It should be
sion properties. It should be carefully used in pa- refrigerated.
tients with congestive heart failure with glaucoma
and urinary hesistancy. The major adverse effects 101 (b) Cyclobenzaprine is indicated for treat-
reported are dry mouth, constipation, urinary re- ment of muscle spasm associated with acute,
tention and blurred vision. painful musculoskeletal conditions. It is ineffec-
tive in treating muscle spasm due to a central ner-
98 (b) Acetylcysteine is classified as an expec- vous system disease.
torant, an agents that loose as and liquefying the
mucous, soothes irritated mucosa and make Dantrolene sodium is indicated in con-
coughs more productive. It generally decreases trolling treatment of spasticity resulting from up-
the viscosity of bronchial secretions and facilities per motor neuron disorders such as spinal cord
the excretion of cough. It is also indicated as an injury, stroke, cerebral palsy or multiple sclero-
antidote to minimize hepatic toxicity in acute ac- sis. It is not indicated for skeletal spasm resulting
etaminophen overdose. Other expectorants in- from rheumatic disorders. The major adverse ef-
clude: guaifenesin, ipecac, potassium iodide and fect reported with Dantrolene is hepatotoxicity.
sodium iodide, terpin hydrate.
Dextromethorphan and benzonatate are Bromocriptine is indicated for treatment
classified as antitussive agents, the substances that of Parkinsons. It is a dopamine receptor agonist.
specifically inhibit or suppress the act of cough- The principal adverse effect associated with the
ing. Benzonatate acts peripherally by anesthetiz- use of Bromocriptine is lung toxicity.
138
Amphetamine is indicated for treatment overdose. Glucagon and dextrose cause an in-
of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder. It is a crease in blood glucose concentration and helps
controlled II drug. Central system stimulation and in relieving hypoglycemia and insulin overdose
insomnia have been reported with use of Amphet- toxication.
amine.
108 (b) Diabinese (Chlorpropamide) is classi-
102 (c) Parlodel (Bromocriptine) is classified as fied as a sulfonylurea agent. It is indicated for the
an antiparkinsons drug. It is indicated for the treat- treatment of diabetes and as a secondary therapy
ment of Parkinsonism. It is a dopamine receptor to treat partial central diabetes insipidus. It has
agonist. The recommended dose of the drug is been successfully used as an antidiuretic to re-
2.5 mg to 5 mg twice daily with meals. Pulmo- duce polyuria in patients with this disorder. Hy-
nary dysfunction is the principal side effect of the poglycemia, severe diarrhea, and water retention
drug. are reported side effects of the drug. The recom-
mended dose of the drug is 200 mg to 500 mg
103 (b) Diamox (Acetazolamide) acts through per day for treatment of diabetes insipidus.
the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzymes. It Desmopressin is considered as primary therapy
is indicated for treatment of glaucoma, epilepsy for treatment of diabetes insipidus.
and edema. The recommended dose of the drug
is 250 mg to 1000 mg per day. Nausea, vomit- 109 (b)Adeficiency of vitaminAgenerally causes
ing, seizure, bone marrow depression, electro- night blindness. Below are vitamins and their
lytes loss, hemolytic anemia, and toxic epidermal deficiency induced diseases.
necrosis are reported side effects of the drug.
Vitamin Sources Diseases
104 (b) Zaroxolyn (Metolazone) is classified as
a thiazide diuretic. It increases the excretion of VitA carrots, milk night blindness
Na, Cl, and H2O. It is indicated for the treatment fish, liver, oil,
of edema associated with CHF, renal disease and eggs
nephrotic syndrome. The recommended dose of
the drug is 5 to 20 mg once daily. Electrolyte loss Vit B1 germinated beriberi
is a common complication of Metolazone therapy. (Thiamin) cereals
105 (d) ACE inhibitors therapy associated with Vit B2 milk, yeast, cheilitis
an increase in serum concentrations of potassium. (Riboflavin) eggs, meat,
Amiloride, Spironolactone and Triamterene are green veg.
potassium sparing diuretics and may cause hy-
perkalemia if used simultaneously with ACE Vit B12 milk, liver pernicious anemia
inhibitors. (Cyanocobalamin)
106 (d) All. Probenecid may competitively inhibit Nicotinic acid leafy veg., pellagra
the renal tubular secretion of penicillin, sulfony- (Niacin) wheat, nuts,
lurea, sulfonamide, naproxen, indomethacin, clofi- pulses
brate, aminosalicylic acid and pantothenic acid.
Folic acid green veg., macrocytic
107 (b) The I.V. dextrose and glucagon can curd, liver anemia
be administered for the treatment of insulin
139
Vit C citrus fruits scurvy 113 (a) Prozac (Fluoxetine) is classified as an

(Ascorbic) lemon, amla SSRI. It has a prolonged half life. It takes 3 to 5
tomato, green veg. weeks to get the drug completely out of the body.
It should be carefully prescribed with MAO in-
Vit B6 liver, meat, peripheral hibitors. Insomnia is the principal side effect of
(Pyridoxine) green veg neuropathy the drug. The recommended dose of the drug is
20 to 40 mg per day. The concurrent use of these
Vit D butter, eggs, rickettsia two medications will result in severe hypertensive
(Calciferol) cod liver oil, osteoporosis crisis. Tranylcypromine is an MAO-A inhibitor
shark liver oil and should be avoided by patients taking
Fluoxetine.
Vit E leafy veg.,
(Tocopherol) milk 114 (d) Antiseptic controls the growth of micro-
organisms and should not be classified as an in-
Vit K veg, tomato, bleeding sect control chemical. Insect control chemicals
soybean disorder may be classified in to four different categories:
insecticides, fumigants, repellents, and attracta-
110 (b) Methotrexate overdose can be treated nts.
by administering Wellcovorin (Leucovorin Ca). Insecticides: They are further classi-
It is a derivative of tetrahydrofolic acid. It is indi- fied according to the type of action that results in
cated to reduce the toxicity associated with over- the destruction of insects.
dose of folic acid antagonists, such as
Methotrexate, Pyrimethamine, and Trimethoprim. I Stomach poison
Allergic reactions such as urticaria and anaphylaxis II Contact insecticide
are reported side effects of the Leucovorin. It III Fumigant
should be carefully used with 5 FU since the
former enhances the toxicity of the later. Stomach poison : In this method, the insecticides
are mixed with food that is consume by insects,
111 (b) Alprazolam, Lorazepam, Temazepam, such as in the control of leaf feeding insects.
Zolpidem, Zaleplon and Triazolam are short act-
ing benzodiazepines and are more preferable to Contact insecticides : This is the most common
use for older or geratic patients because of their use for control of insecticides. In this method, in-
short half lives. secticides should be placed where the contact of
insects with the insecticide can be easily achieved.
112 (b) Mysoline (Primidone) is a prodrug me-
tabolites to phenobarbital and phenyl ethyl Fumigants : They are gases or vapors of insecti-
malonamide. Its sedative, hypnotic and anticon- cides for the control of insects, usually in closed
vulsion effects are attributed to its ability to spaces.
increase the concentration of GABA in the brain.
It is indicated for the treatment of tonic-clonic Repellants : Certain insecticide chemicals possess
seizure. Ataxia, vertigo, drowsiness, diplopia, the repellant action. This will cause insects to avoid
nystagmus, nausea and vomiting are reported side such places treated with such insecticides.
effects of the drug. The recommended dose of
the drug is 100 to 125 mg at bed time. Attractants: In this method, the insects are at-
tracted by various means such as foods particles
such as sugar, milk and molasses to feed poison
them.
140
115 (b) It is a suspension form of Barium sulfate 119 (c) Spicy is not classified as a primary taste.
medically used in roentgenography for the exami- Sweet, sour, bitter and saline are primary tastes.
nation of the stomach and colon. The principal
adverse effect of Barium sulfate is constipation. It 120. (b) The initial plasma concentration of the
should be mixed well with food or strained through drug is 10 mcg/ml, therefore:
gauze before administered to the patient.
The solution form of Barium ion is highly Mcg/ml Hours
toxic, therefore it is recommended to indicate the
full name of the drug when prescribing. For ex- 10 mcg/ml 0
ample “Barium sulfate” instead of “Barium.” 5 mcg/ml 8 hours
2.5 mcg/ml 8 hours
116 (b) Ascorbyl palmitate is classified as an Total = 16 hours
antioxidant agent that prevents or inhibits the oxi-
dations in various pharmaceutical formulations and The half-life of the drug should be 8 hours.
therefore prevents the deterioration of various
formulations. These include butylated hydroxya- 121 (b) The sweet taste of a compound is
nisole, ehtylenediamine, potassium metabisulfite, attributed to the presence of polyhydroxy groups.
sodium bisulfite and sodium metabisulfite. The sweetness of a compound increases with an
increase in the number of hydroxy groups such as
A preservative is a substance that inhibits amino and amide groups that contain compounds.
the growth of microorganisms and prevents the The sour taste of a compound is attrib-
various formulations to get deteriorated from vari- uted to the presence of hydrogen ions and lipid
ous microbes such chlorobutanol, dehydroacetic solubility of compounds such as acid, tannins,
acid, potassium benzoate and potassium sorbate. phenol, lactones and alum.
The presence of cations and anions in the
Coloring agents may be defined as sub- same compound imparts the saltiness to the com-
stances used for the purpose of imparting color, pound, i.e. KBr, NH Cl and NaCl.
4
such as red ferric oxide, carbon black, titanium Free bases such as alkaloid and amides
dioxide and alizarin. (molecular weight greater than 300) may impart
a bitter taste to the compound, i.e. amphetamines.
Flavoring agents may be defined as com-
pounds used for the purpose of imparting fla- 122 (a) The alcohol content of low alcoholic elixir
vors. There are four basics or primary tastes- is 8 to 10%, and for high alcoholic elixir it is 73 to
sweet, bitter, sour and saline. Mannitol, lemon oil, 78%.
orange oil, peppermint oil, sucrose, vanilla and
wild cherry syrup are used for flavoring purposes. 123 (a) Erythema multiform (EM) is classified as
a dermatological reaction. It is characterized by
117 (b) Epinephrine hydrochloride solution can the presence of erythematosus macules and pap-
be stabilized by the addition of a small amount of ules peripherally, i.e. hands, feet, trunk, legs and
sodium bisulfite, which is an antioxidant. forearms.
118 (d) All mentioned choices (FD and C, D Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is gen-
and C, external D and C dyes) are classified as erally caused by drugs and group II staphylococci.
certified colors. It is also known as Lyell’s syndrome. It is charac-
terized by the presence of erythema all over the
141
body. Drugs that may cause this are: penicillin, depend on the duration or dose of therapy and
phenylbutazone, allopurinol, chloramphenicol and cannot be prevented by withdrawing the drug.
sulfonamide.
Steven-johnson syndrome is a severe 128 (d) Drugs that may cause hemolysis in a pa-
variant form of erythema multiform (EM). It is tient with G6PD deficiency include: quinine, sul-
characterized by the presence of erythematosus fonamide, nitrofurantoin, primaquine, aspirin,
macules and papules peripherally, as well as on phenacetin, quinidine and isosorbide dinitrate.
the mucous membrane. The skin becomes hem-
orrhagic. The drugs that may cause this are sul- Immune hemolytic anemia is most com-
fonamide, penicillin, phenytoin, allopurinol, phe- monly found with methyldopa. Anemia usually
nobarbital and chlorpropamide. begins 18 weeks to 4 years after treatment .
Hirsutism or hypertrichosis is defined as Mefenamic acid, levodopa and streptomycin are
the presence of hair all over the body. It is a prin- also reported to cause immune hemolytic ane-
ciple adverse effect of Minoxidil. It is now used mia. Hemolytic anemia is induced by drugs, and
for the treatment of baldness. returns to normal rapidly with discontinuation of
therapy.
124 (b) N-acetylcysteine is found to be an
effective antidote for the treatment of acetami- Erythromycin does not produce
nophen overdose. The toxic metabolic product hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD defi-
of acetaminophen damages the liver by binding ciency.
to the cells of the liver. The normal dose of ac-
etaminophen does not cause this since only a small 129 (b) Ringing or buzzing (tinnitus) in the ear is
amount of metabolites form, which may be easily associated with salicylate. It is dose related and
conjugated with glutathione in the liver. generally appears at a serum concentration of 20
mg/dl or higher. Salicylate induced hearing loss
125 (b) Chlorpromazine, erythromycin estolate, may return to normal within 3 days after discon-
chlorpropamide, trazodone, certain tricyclic anti- tinuation of the drug.
depressants, sulindac and methyldopa may pro-
duce cholestatic jaundice. The disease is usually Permanent hearing loss is reported with
characterized by the presence of fever, chills, aminoglycoside antibiotics. Neomycin is the most
nausea, vomiting, anorexia and myallgias. oto and nephro toxic among the aminoglycosides.
126 (c) The principal adverse effect of Minocycline, a derivative of tetracycline

Clindamycin is AAC (antibiotic associated coli- is also an ototoxic drug and its use requires great
tis). It is classified in the macrolide group of anti- caution in older patients.
biotics. Severe diarrhea is a reported side effect
of the drug. Loop diuretics such as furosemide,
bumetanide and ethacrynic acid also possess the
127 (b) Aplastic anemia is a major adverse effect ability to produce ototoxicity.
of Chloramphenicol. The bone marrow toxicity
of chloramphenicol is further classified as dose 130 (b) Mellaril (Thioridazine) is classified as an
related or not dose related. The dose related antipsychotic drug. It is indicated for the treat-
effects of chloramphenicol can be reversed by ment of schizophrenia. Pigmented retinopathy is
withdrawing the drug. The second type, dose not the most common side effect of the drug. The
related, is fatal and life-threatening. It does not severity of this side effect is dose and therapy
142
study of a particular drug after the common ad- 385 (a) Deficiency of Iron normally
verse effects reported by number of patients is causes hypochromic anemia. Hyperchromic ane-
such a review. In this review method, there is no mia is normally reported with a deficiency of folic
scope to modify the patient’s therapy (since the acid and vitamin B12.
event has occurred).
386 (c) Ferrous fumarate contains a high
Prospective utilization review is generally amount of elementary iron (33%). Below is the
carried out before the patient receives the drug. list of iron salts and their iron contents.
Such as checking a patient’s profile before the
patient receives the drug. Ferrous sulfate 20%
Dried ferrous sulfate 30%
Concurrent utilization review is carried Ferrous gluconate 12%
out at the time when the patient is receiving the Ferrous fumarate 33%
drug.
387 (b) Net profit to net worth ratio is
378 (b) Nolvadex (Tamoxifen) is an es- the best indicator of a pharmacy’s profitability,
trogen receptor antagonist indicated for treatment because it compares the net profit to net invest-
of breast cancer. Pulmonary embolism, throm- ment in the pharmacy.
boembolic order, hepatic necrosis, nausea, vom-
iting, and diarrhea are reported side effects of the 388 (b) Inventory turnover rate generally
drug. The recommended dose of the drug is 10 describes the efficiency of a pharmacy. It is gen-
to 20 mg b.i.d. erally calculated by dividing the cost of the goods
sold by the average of beginning and ending in-
379 (b) Carrots are a good source of vi- ventory.
tamin-A.
389 (c) An acid test generally measures
380 (c) Bleeding from the gums, hemor- the liquidity of the pharmacy. It can be calculated
rhage and retarded healing are important signs of by dividing the sum of cash and accounts receiv-
scurvy. Defective bones and teeth are generally able by the current liabilities.
reported with osteomalacia and rickettsia due to
a deficiency of Vitamin D. 390 (d) The acceptable ratio of Net profit
to net sales generally lies between 5 to 7%.
381 (b) The deficiency of thiamine gen-
erally causes the disease Beri-Beri. The patient’s 391 (c) The acceptable Net profit to net
weight and appetite generally decreases and the worth ratio for a 10 year old pharmacy would be
patient gets easily tired. Neuritis may occur. 15%. The target value for this ratio would be 20%.
A 40% figure can be achieved in a new phar-
382 (c) The deficiency of Vitamin B12 macy.
generally causes pernicious anemia.
392 (d) All. This ratio is calculated by
383 (b) Green vegetables, liver, curd and dividing profit by inventory. It is a good indicator
pulses are good sources of folic acid. of profitability as well as efficiency. It can be used
for new and old pharmacies. It increases with an
384 (c) Abnormal destruction of RBC is increase in sales of a pharmacy.
generally classified as hemolytic anemia.
178
393 (a) The normal target value for net 399 (a) Class I type of recalls should be
profit to total asset ratio is between 10 to 20%. considered a potential hazard to health. The prod-
Manan Pharmacy’s net profit to total asset ratio uct in question may cause temporary or medi-
is 15%, so it would be considered good. cally reversible adverse health consequences
should be classified as a class II type recall. The
394 (b) The inventory turnover rate can product in question is not likely to cause any ad-
be calculated by dividing cost of goods sold by verse health consequences should be classified
the average of beginning and ending inventory. as a class III type of recall.
Cost of goods sold = $ 5,00,000 400 (c) Category X is contraindicated in

Beginning inventory = 2,00,000 pregnancy. Below are the categories and their
Ending inventory = 2,20,000 effect on pregnancies.
IN TOR = cost of goods sold A = Controlled studies show no

beg inv + end inv risk.
2 B = No evidence of risk in humans.
= 5,00,000 C = Risk cannot be ruled out.
200,000 + 220000 D = Positive evidence of risk.
2
401 (b) Liquidity generally expresses a
= 2.38 pharmacy’s ability to meet its current liabilities.
The inventory turnover rate should be a minimum 402 (b) The acid test generally measures
of 4 with a target of 6 or higher. Manan a pharmacy’s liquidity.
Pharmacy’s turnover rate is below expectations.
403 (b) Accounts payable are generally
395 (b) not included in current assets. Cash, accounts
receivable and inventory are part of current as-
396 (b) The ratio of net sales to inven- sets.
tory can be calculated as :
404 (b) Fixtures and equipment would be
= 750,000 considered fixed assets of a pharmacy.
210,000
405 (d) Notes payable beyond 1 year are
= 4 considered Long-term liabilities of the pharmacy.
Accounts payable, accrued expenses and notes
397 (b) Net worth can be calculated by payable within 1 year are considered current li-
subtracting total liabilities from total assets. abilities of the pharmacy.
Net worth = Total assets - total liabilities 406 (b) Acid Test ratio can be calculated
= 190,000 - 75,000 by dividing the sum of cash and accounts receiv-
= 1,15,000 able by the current liabilities.
398 (a) = 50,000 + 75,000

85,000
= 1.47
179
407 (c) Net sales to inventory measures V = [ (80,000 x 0.4) x 50] 0.15
the efficiency of the pharmacy. = $ 240,000
408 (b) Below expectation. The owner of the Manan Care Pharmacy is ask-
ing $ 350,000 for an existing prescription file,
= Total liabilities therefore the asking price is too high.
Net worth
411 (a) E = Q where
= 105,000 x 100 P
165000
E = Coefficient of elasticity
= 63.63% Q = % of sales quantities change
P = % of price change
The target value for Total liabilities to net worth
ration would be 50% or less. In our example, the sales quantities of analgesic
balm has been changed from 60 to 80 (33%
409 (c) The investment of Manan Phar- change), and the price of balm has changed from
macy in a fixed asset meets requirements. The 3 to 2 (33%). Therefore elasticity of coefficient
target value for this ratio would be 20% or be- would be :
low.
= 33
= Fixed assets x 100 33
Net worth = 1
= 35000 x 100
165000 412 (a) When a relative change in rev-
enue is the same as relative change in price, it is
= 21% known as unitary elasticity.
410 (b) The price of a prescription file When the relative change in revenue is
can be calculated by the following equation: less than the relative change in price, it is known
as inelastic demand.
V = [ (F x R) P] N where
If the relative change in revenue is greater
V = Price of prescription file. than the relative change in price, it is said to be
elastic demand.
F = Total new prescription is dis-
pensed in past two years. 413 (b) $16.30
R = The % of prescriptions with R=C

one or more refill left. P
P = The pharmacy’s average pre- R = Retail price of drug

scription price. C = Cost of drug
P = Cost complement in %
N = Net profit %
180
Therefore the retail price of insulin would be Coinsurance: It is a part of a patient cost
sharing plan in which the patient pays a specified
= 9.00 percentage of all the losses incurred.
0.55
= $ 16.30 Deductible: A part of a patient cost shar-
ing plan in which the patient has to pay a fixed
Cost complements % + % mark up = 100% amount of the cost (normally $ 250) within a spe-
cific period of time (normally 1 year) before the
414 (c) 66% benefit is paid by third parties. i.e. Total health
care cost for Mr.X for year 1999 is $1500 and
The retail price of a drug is $75, therefore the his deductible is $250, then, the third party will
mark up on prescriptions would be $30 ($ 75 - $ only pay benefits after the patient pays $ 250 out
45). of his pocket.
For a $ 45 drug, $ 30 would be the mark up. Capitation: A form of prospective reim-
For a $100 drug ? bursement in which an institution will pay a fixed
30 x 100 / 45 = 66% make up amount of money to the service provider phar-
macy for each patient. In this type of payment,
415 (c) $16.30 the pharmacy will only make money when the cost
of medications dispensed to the patient is less than
the fixed cost provided by the institution.
MU/C = Known retail mark up
cost of complement 419 (b) A person who works for an in-
surance company and provides the statistical data
= 45/55 = 0.81 = 81% that indicates the risk associated with serving the
R = cost of drug x (100 + MU/C) population, and determines the premiums to cover
= 9 x (181%) all the estimated expenses, is known as an actu-
= 9 x 1.81 = $ 16.30 ary.
416 (c) $ 1200 420 (a) The maximum amount that will be
paid by a third party to a pharmacy when the
Rx rent = Total rent x space ratio drug is available from more than one source is
= 10,000 x 600/5000 defined as MAC, or maximum allowable cost
= $1200
Estimated acquisition cost (EAC): The
417 (b) The funding for Medicare pro- third party’s estimate of the prices paid by a phar-
grams is generally obtained from social security macist for a particular drug product.
tax and premiums paid by the participants.
Actual acquisition cost (AAC): The ac-
418 (a) Copayment: It is a patient cost tual price paid by a pharmacy after all trade, vol-
sharing plan in which the patient has to pay a ume and cash discounts.
specified amount ( normally $ 10 to $ 15) of the
cost of prescriptions and a third party will pay the Average wholesale price (AWP): The
remainder. published list price of a particular product.
181
421 (b) If a patient pays a full predeter- 427 (b) Each trial in a Binomial experi-
mined amount to the provider at the beginning of ment comes out a success or failure. The repeated
each month is known as Prospective reimburse- trial are independent of previous experiments. The
ment. experiments generally consists of “n” repeated
422 (b) Mean = 588 trials. The probability of success remains constant
from trial to trial.
= 350+420+530+600+620+635+700+850 An example of this is tossing a quarter
8 for “n” times to get heads (tails would be consid-
= 588 ered a failure) each time.
423 (c) The median of a sample is the 428 (b) The mean of binomial distribution
middle value of an experiment. If the sample is can be calculated by :
even then calculate the average of the middle val-
ues, for example in our experiment the middle Mean = n x p
values are 600 and 620, therefore the median = 50 x 0.6
would be : = 3
= 600 + 620 429 (b) The range of a set can be calcu-

2 lated by the difference between the highest value
= 610 and the lowest value of the experiment.
424 (c) Negatively skewed. The fre- = 140 - 110

quency distribution of a sample is calculated by = 30
= Mean - Median (Mode)
= 130 - 155 = -25 430 (b) The degree of freedom for a t
distribution can be calculated by = n-1 :
If the value of (mean-mode) is negative, = 20-1
the frequency distribution of the sample would be = 19.
negatively skewed. If the value is positive then
the frequency distribution of the sample would be 431 (b) The degree of freedom for chi-
positively skewed. square test can be calculated by
= ( R-1) x (C-1)
425 (d) The frequency of distribution can = (2-1) x (3-1) = 2
be bell shaped, skewed, U shaped and or J
shaped. 432 (a) One sided.
426 (c) The Pearsonian coefficient can be 433 (b) Amino acids are joined by pep-
calculated by the following formula: tide bonds in proteins.
3 (Mean - Median) 434 (d) The secondary structure of pro-

Standard deviation tein consists of alfa-helix, beta helix and beta-
bend.
= 3 (55 - 45) 435 (d) The denaturation of protein can

35 occur in the presence of heat, strong acid or or-
= 0.85 ganic solvent.
182
436 (c) Sickle cell anemia is a genetic dis- 443 (b) Lactose is classified as a disac-
order resulting from the production of variant he- charides. It consists of glucose and galactose.
moglobin. It is characterized by pain, lifelong
hemolytic anemia and tissue hypoxia. The replace- 444 (b) The pairs of structure that are
ment of valine at the sixth position of the beta - mirror images of each other are known as enanti-
globulin chain for glutamate is responsible for this. omers.
The formation of HbS has extremely low solubil-
ity compared to HbA, and results in aggregation 445 (b) The principal storage of glyco-
of molecules to form or create sickle shaped red gen in the body is found in the skeletal muscles
blood cells. and liver.
437 (b) The enzyme with its cofactor is 446 (b) Hyaluronic acid, heparin and
known as Holoenzyme. Apoenzyme refers to the chondroitin are classified as polysaccharides.
protein portion of the holoenzyme. Nonprotein
+2 +2
cofactors (i.e. Zn , Fe ) required for the ac- 447 (b) Bile salts act as an emulsifying
tivities of certain enzymes are known as Coen- agent for metabolism of lipid in duodenum
zymes.
448 (b) Steatorrhea is a result of improper
438 (b) The process in which the release secretion of bile salts from the liver and pancre-
of energy from energy-rich molecules such as glu- atic juice from the pancreas. It normally causes a
cose and fatty acid occurs in mitochondria is com- loss of lipid, fatty acid and lipid soluble vitamins
monly referred to as Oxidative phosphorylation. in feces. The water soluble vitamins such as vita-
min C, thiamine and riboflavin have no effect on
439 (b) The breakdown of complex their absorption.
molecules such as protein, lipid and polysaccha-
ride into simple molecules such as carbon diox- 449 (b) Sphingomyelin is a building block
ide, water and ammonia is known as catabolic of membrane of nerve tissue.
reaction.
450 (c) An obstruction of the gall blad-
440 (c) Pyruvate is the end product of der by a cholesterol stone is defined as cholelithi-
glycolysis in cells that contain mitochondria. The asis.
cells that lack mitochondria produce lactate in-
stead of pyruvate as the end product of glycoly- 451 (b) Luteinizing hormone induces tes-
sis. tosterone synthesis in Leydig cells of the testis
and ovulation in females. It also stimulates syn-
441 (c) Glutathione in reduced form is thesis of estrogen and progesterone in the corpus
deficient in patients with G6PD deficiency. Cer- luteum. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and
tain oxidant drugs such as sulfamethoxazole and testosterone stimulate spermatogenesis in the tes-
primaquine produce hemolytic anemia in patients tis.
with G6PD deficiency.
452 (d) All. BMR, thermic effect of food
442 (d) All. Oxidant drug, ingestion of and physical activity help in the calculation of en-
fava beans, and certain types of infections may ergy required by an individual.
cause hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD
deficiency.
183
453 (b) Kwashiorkor is a protein-defi- 460 (d) All. UAG, UGA and UAA are
cient malnutrition disorder. It is usually seen in known as Termination codons, Stop codons or
children. Skin lesions, edema, anorexia, Nonsense codons. When one of these codons
depigmented hair and a decrease in plasma albu- appears in an mRNA chain, it indicates that the
min concentration are common symptoms asso- peptide chain synthesis coded by the mRNA is
ciated with this disease. about to be complete.
Marasmus is also known as a protein AUG is classified as Initiation codon in

deficit disorder. It occurrs due to chronic defi- the process of peptide chain synthesis.
ciency of calories and can occur even in the pres-
ence of intake of adequate protein. Weakness, 461 (a) Dark field microscopy is indi-
anemia and extreme muscle weakness are com- cated to observe microorganisms that do not stain
mon symptoms associated with this disease. or are difficult to stain.
454 (b) Vitamin D is not a water soluble Bright field microscopy is the mostly em-
vitamin. It plays an important role in increasing ployed microscopic method. It uses visible light.
the uptake of calcium by the intestine. Deficiency The microorganism generally appears colored on
of this vitamin causes osteoporosis, rickettsia and a light background.
hypocalcemia.
Phase contrast microscopy is used to
455 (a) Cabbage, spinach, cauliflower, observe the internal structure of unstained micro-
liver and egg yolk are principal sources of vitamin organisms. The specimen should be visualized in
K. The deficiency of this vitamin causes bleeding different degrees of brightness and darkness.
disorder.
Normarski microscopy is also useful for
456 (b) The end product of purine ca- the observation of finer details of internal struc-
tabolism is uric acid. The serum concentration of tures of unstained organisms. It produces three
uric acid plays an important role in precipitating dimensional images. It has better resolution than
gout. Certain mammals further oxidize uric acid Phase contrast microscopy.
into allantoin, and this further degrades (only in
animals) to urea or ammonia. Transmitting electron microscopy uses
electron beams instead of light rays. It is used to
457 (b) The small and circular extrach- study a thin section of cells for the details of inter-
romosomal DNA molecules in bacteria that carry nal structure, and is very expensive.
genetic information for future generations are
known as plasmids. Scanning electron microscopy also uses
electron beams instead of light rays, however it
458 (a) Ribosomal RNA comprises 80% produces three dimensional views of the surfaces
of total RNA. Transfer RNA comprises 15% of of specimens.
total RNA and Messenger RNA comprises 5%
of the total RNA. 462 (c) Acid fast stains generally stain the
mycobacterium species of bacteria, such as M.
459 (a) Messenger RNA (mRNA) car- leprare and M.tuberculosis.
ries genetic information from the DNA to cytosol
forprotein synthesis.
184
463 (b) All living cells can be classified stance has the ability to produce mutagenicity and
as prokaryotic or eukaryotic. Most of the vice versa.
prokaryotic cells such as bacteria are unicellular
organisms. These cells lack a nucleus and other 467 (b) The synthesis of protein and lip-
membrane bound structures. ids in cells is generally carried out by endoplas-
mic reticulum.
Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and mem-
brane bound structures. Most plants, animals and 468 (c) The growth of bacteria remains
fungi fall into this class. constant in the stationary phase, it dramatically
increases in the log phase and decreases in the
464 (c) Most bacteria are able to move decline phase.
through the long, thin, helical structure known as
flagella. Bacteria with only one flagella located at 469 (b) Moisture, pH, temperature, oxy-
one end are known as monotrichous, bacteria with gen, hydrostatics pressure, osmotic pressure and
two flagella located at each end are known as radiation are the physical factors needed for the
amphitrichous, bacteria with two or more flagella growth of the bacteria.
located at one or both ends are known as lo-
photrichous and bacteria with flagella all over the Carbon source, nitrogen source, vitamins,
body are known as peritrichous. trace elements, sulfur and phosphorus are nutri-
tional factors for the growth of bacteria.
465 (b) Bacteria that can move away
from (negative phototaxis) or move towards 470 (c) When the transfer of genetic in-
(positive phototaxis) the light are known as pho- formation from one cell to another cell is carried
totaxis. out by the plasmid, it is known as conjugation.
The movement of bacteria toward or
away from certain substances in their environment 471 (a) A Genome (a component of the
by an unknown mechanism is known as chemot- bacterio phage) carries the genetic informations
axis. necessary for replication of new phage particles.
The tail sheath of bacteriophage normally helps in
466 (a) An AMES test can be used to the transformation of genome from the head into
find out whether a substance has the capability the cytoplasm of the host cell. The plate and tail
to produce carcinogen. A cancer producing prop- fibers normally help the bacteriophage to attach
erty is usually associated with the mutagenic (ca- to the specific receptor site on the cell wall of the
pability of a substance to alter DNA) property of susceptible host bacterium.
a substance, so determining that a substance is
capable of producing mutagenicity is the first step 472 (c) The reduction of the numbers of
to identify carcinogenicity of the substance. pathogenic microorganisms, up to such an extent
they are not able to produce any kind of disease,
In an AMES test, the growth medium that is known as disinfection.
lacks histidine is inoculated with salmonella that
requires histidine to grow. A solution of substance Sterilization is defined as the complete re-
that needs to be tested should be placed on the moval of all microorganisms from the material or
plate. If colonies of salmonella (that means the an object.
substance has a mutagen ability to grow salmo-
nella without histidine) appear then the test sub-
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c. Cytoplasmic membrane I. B lymphocytes

22. Which of the following amino acids a. IgM

a. Sphingomide 29. The mean blood pressure of Mr. Ham

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a. 0.2 38. Which of the following molecules has

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H CH3 a. Hydrophobic interaction force

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H Cl 46. Acetone is classified as a:

Cl Cl 47 The process of degradation of ionic

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What would be your answer to the owner of the

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a. Maximum allowable cost (MAC)

a. Bell shaped distribution

426. What would be the Pearsonian coefficient a. 40

a. 0.90 431. Find out the degree of freedom in a 2 x 3

427. Which of the following about a Bino- a. 3

a. I only 438. The process in which the release of en-

435. The denaturation of protein can occur a. Oxidative decarboxylation

d. The form Hbs has an extremely low a. Alfa-antitrypsin in reduced form

a. I only a. Gastric lipase

a. Ribose a. It causes a loss of lipid, essential fatty

a. Isomers c. The inhibition of secretion of pancre-

d. Obstruction of the spleen by cholesterol a. Thiamine

I. BMR 457. The small and circular extrachromosomal

I. Kwashiorkor I. Ribosomal RNA

I m RNA 464. Bacteria with two or more flagella is

a. I only 466. To find out if a substance is carcino-

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