TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK

1. Wing span 37.4 feet

2. Wing surface 158.9 sq ft
3. Dihedral 1°
4. Aspect ratio 8.80
5. Main landing gear track 2.0 m
6. Aileron travel limit Up 20° Down 17°
7. Stabilator travel limit Up 4° Down 15°
8. Rudder travel limit RH 26° LH 26°
9. Flaps travel limit 0°; 40°
10. Engine model 912 S3
11. Engine type 4 cylinders horizontally opposed with 1352 cc of overall
displacement , liquid cooled cylinder heads, ram air cooled
cylinders, two carburetors, integrated reduction gear box with
torsional shock absorber and overload clutch
12. Max Power (at declared rpm) 73.5kW (98.6hp)@ 5800 rpm – 5 min max
69.0 kW (92.5hp) @ 5500 rpm (continuous)
13. Propeller manufacturer MT Propeller
14. Propeller blade 2 wood/ composite blades – aluminum hub
15. Propeller diameter 1780 mm (no reduction allowed)
16. Propeller type Variable pitch- hydraulically controlled
17. Approved fuel type MOGAS ASTM D4814
MOGAS EN 228 Super/ Superplus (min. RON 95)
AVGAS 100 LL (ASTM D910)
18. Fuel tanks Two integrated tanks (one in each wing) fitted with drainable
sump and drain valve
19. Tanks overall capacity 200 litres (52.8 US gallons)
20. Overall usable fuel 194.4 litres (51.35 US gallons)
21. Overall unusable fuel 5.6 litres (1.48 US gallons)
22. Lubrication system Forced type with external reservoir
23. Oil Use only oil with API classification SG or higher
24. Oil capacity Max 3.0 litres – min 2.0 liters (per tank)
25. Cooling system Ram air cooled cylinder, liquid cooled cylinder heads (closed
and pressurized circuit)
26. Coolant liquid Certified for water/ coolant mixture
27. TOR is the take off distance measured from actual start to wheel lift
off point
28. TOD is the takeoff distance measured from start to 15m obstacle
clearing
29. Datum Reference Datum is an imaginary vertical plane from which all
horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes.
30. VNE 171 KIAS
31. VA 122 KIAS
 TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK

32. VLE 93 KIAS

33. VLO 93 KIAS
34. VFE 93 KIAS
35. VMC 62 KIAS
36. Red line on ASI 62 KIAS
37. Blue line on ASI 84 KIAS
38. Yellow band on ASI 138-171 KIAS
39. Red line on ASI 171 KIAS
40. RPM on tachometer displays propeller rpm
41. Maximum prop rpm is 2388
42. Max CHT 135°C
43. Oil pressure Minimum 0.8 bar / 12 psi
Normal 2-5 Bar / 29-73 psi
Maximum 7 Bar / 102 psi
44. Engine starting allowable temperature range -25°C to +50°C
45. In event of cold starting operation, it is permitted a maximum oil pressure of 7 bar for a short
period.
46. Governor Hydraulically controlled (oil pressure to reduce the pitch)
47. Maximum operating altitude is 14000 ft (4260m) MSL. At altitudes above 12500 ft up to and
including 14000 ft, flight must be limited to 30 minutes, unless the required minimum flight
crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes
that is of more than 30 minutes duration.
48. Flight in expected and/or known icing condition is forbidden.
49. Fuel pressure Minimum 2.2 psi
Maximum 5.8 psi
50. Voltmeter Green arc 12-14 V
51. Maximum takeoff weight 1230 kg
52. Aerobatic maneuvers includes:
a) Spin b) Turn more than 60° c) Stall with one engine inoperative d) All of the
above
53. Maneuver load factor limits are: +3.8g and -1.78g
54. Maximum number of occupants 4 people (including pilot)
Minimum crew: 1 pilot
55. Prolonged use of Aviation Fuel Avgas 100LL results in
a) Greater wear of valve seats
b) Greater combustion deposits inside cylinders due to higher lead content.
c) Avoid using this type of fuel unless strictly necessary
d) All above are correct

56. Maximum baggage load is 80 kg

57. The lower pressure limit of landing gear hydraulic system is 20 bar
58. During taxi, take off and rear seats must be kept in the lowest and full aft position
 TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK

59. First action to be taken after engine failure before rotation is Throttle lever Both Idle
60. The red alert on annunciation window is to indicate emergency conditions.
61. Choose the correct option:
a) Switching OFF avionic LH and ADF will permit to shed non essential electrical power
b) The battery and a single generator are able to supply the electrical power necessary for
flight, but redundancy is lost
c) Switching CROSS BUS OFF will further reduce alternator load; the decision mainly depends
on weather conditions.
d) All are correct
62. The battery can supply electrical power for at least 30 minutes
63. If door is open or locking device is unlocked, land as soon as possible
64. If engine’s CHT is 135°C, the steps to be taken for affected engine are:
a) Reduce power setting to reduce CHT up to minimum practical
b) Land as soon as practical
c) Secure affected engine
d) All of the above
65. Choose the correct statement regarding landing gear pump:
a) The GEAR PUMP ON caution light turns ON when the landing gear hydraulic pump is
electrically supplied.
b) After the landing gear retraction, if the red TRANS light turns OFF and the GEAR PUMP ON
caution stays turned ON, this could indicate a gear pump relay failure to ON
c) The electrical gear pump, continuously supplied, causes a current absorption which does not
affect the mission unless this failure is coupled with the overall electrical failure.
d) All are correct
66. In the event of a display failure, the G950 system:
a) Automatically switches to reversionary (backup) mode.
b) In backup mode, all important flight information is presented on the remaining display in
the same format as in normal operating mode.
c) The change to backup paths is completely automated for all LRUs and no pilot action is
required.
d) All are correct.
67. The procedure for engine securing in flight:
Throttle- IDLE, Ignition- BOTH OFF, Propeller lever – FEATHER, Fuel Selector- OFF ,
Electrical fuel pump – OFF
68. In case of propeller overspeeding, apply the following procedure:
Throttle lever – Reduce power to minimum practical
Propeller lever – Reduce as practical
RPM indicator – CHECK
69. If it is not possible to decrease propeller rpm:
a) Apply engine securing procedure
b) Land as soon as possible
c) Maximum propeller rpm exceedance may cause the engine components damage.
 TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK

d) All are correct

70. If oil temperature exceeds maximum limit and oil pressure is within limit
a) Reduce power setting to minimum applicable
b) Keep propeller speed higher than 2000 rpm
c) A and B are correct
d) All are correct
71. If engine roughness/ vibrations or erratic behavior is detected:
a) Secure affected engine
b) Land as soon as possible
c) Apply one engine inoperative landing procedure
d) All are correct
72. Mark the correct statement
a) Excessive oil pressure drop leads to high pitch propeller configuration with propeller
feathering and engine stopping
b) An excessive oil pressure value can be counteracted by decreasing propeller rpm
c) Both a and b are correct
73. Emergency is carried out at
a) VLE b) VNO c) VMC d) VX
74. Mark the correct statement regarding unintentional flight into icing condition:
a) In event of ice build-up in correspondence of wing leading edges, stall speed decreases.
b) Ice build-up on wing, tail fin or flight control surfaces unexpected sudden roll and/or pitch
tendencies can be experienced and may lead to unusual attitude and loss of aircraft control
c) Do not use autopilot when icing formation is suspected or detected.
d) All are correct
75. Choose the correct statement:
a) Carburetor heating selected to ON will cause engine RPM reduction of about 100 rpm
causing a sensible available engine power decrease
b) Flap UP take off, requires a takeoff distance increased by about 20%
c) If the flaps control fails, consider the higher stall speed and an increased landing distance of
about 25%.
d) All are correct
76. During one engine inoperative procedures, it is advisable to bank the aircraft of about 5° to the
side of the operating engine.
77. One engine inoperative touchdown speed is 70 KIAS
78. If a complete landing gear up or a nose landing gear up position is reported, touchdown should
be carried out at as low as 50 KIAS with flap
79. A fully charged battery can supply electrical power for at least 30 minutes.
80. Unintentional spin recovery
a) Both engine throttles – idle
b) Flight controls – centralize
c) Rudder – fully against rotation until it stops
d) All are correct
 TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK

81. Mark the correct statement regarding propeller governor ground check:
a) The drop should not be above 150/200 prop rpm
b) Ground check of governor should be performed by slowly and gently
c) The purging cycle should be repeated up to 3 times
d) All are correct
82. Rotation speed with T/O flaps (VR) is 64 KIAS
83. Best angle of climb speed (VX) is 73 KIAS
84. Manoevuring speed (VA) is 118 KIAS
85. Never Exceed Speed (VNE) is 167 KIAS
86. Recommended safe simulated OEI speed (VSSE) is 70 KIAS
87. For cold engine starting:
a) Throttle Idle (fully closed)
b) Chokes fully opened
c) Soon after starting, advance the throttle 800 rpm and slowly close the choke. Keep engine at
900 rpm for warm up period.
d) All are correct.
88. For flooded engine starting:
a) Keep chokes closed
b) Open throttle full and start the engine
c) Then quickly reduce throttle to idle.
d) All are correct

89. Governor check is carried out at 1650 rpm

90. Maximum All up weight (AUW) is 1230 kg
91. Mark the correct statement regarding towing:
a) When the a/c is moved on the ground, the Master Switch must be turned ON until the a/c is
parked
b) To tow the aircraft it is necessary to use a metal stiff bar connected to the nose gear.
c) Do not turn nose wheel above 20° either side of center; greater steering angles can damage
the wheel stop.
d) All are correct
92. Mark the correct statement:
a) Do not engage the parking brakes at low ambient temperature; accumulation of moisture
may cause the brakes to freeze.
b) As in a) and in this case use wheel chokes.
c) Mooring is strongly recommended when the wind is more than 15 knots and the a/c is
completely refueled.
d) All are correct
93. Each wing consists of a central light alloy torque box which carries all the wing loads of
a) Bending b) shear c) torque d) all
94. Rudder is connected to the vertical tail at:
a) Two hinge points
 TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK

b) Three hinge points

c) One hinge point
d) All are incorrect
95. Aileron control is of
a) Push rods
b) Cables
c) Mixed type with push rods and cables
d) None is correct
96. Left aileron has a trim tab which is adjustable on ground only
97. Flaps:
a) Are extended via a single actuator controlled by a switch on the instrument panel
b) Flaps act in continuous mode
c) The analogue indicator displays three markings related to 0°, take off (T/O), and landing
(FULL) positions.
d) All are correct
98. Aural warning is generated when
a) Flaps are lowered to the FULL position and the landing gear is not down locked.
b) Rudder is operated through a cable system
99. Cooling system is designed for
a) Liquid cooling of cylinder heads
b) Ram air cooling of cylinders
c) Coolant flow is forced by water pump
d) All are correct
100. The engine is provided
a) With a dry sump forced lubrication system with an oil pump with integrated pressure
regulator.
b) A thermostatic valve regulates the oil flow to the heat exchanger (oil radiator)
c) As in b) ; on the basis of oil temperature; this allows the engine starting in cold conditions.
d) All are correct
101. In fuel system:
a) Left fuel selector manages the left engine feeding, allowing fuel supply from the left fuel
tank or from the right one (crossfeed)
b) Right fuel selector manages the right engine feeding, allowing fuel supply from the right fuel
tank or from the left one (crossfeed)
c) Each selector can be set in OFF position only pulling and simultaneously rotating the lever;
this avoids an unintentional operation.
d) All are correct
102. Use of Aviation Fuel Avgas 100 LL results in
a) Greater wear of valve seats
b) Greater combustion deposits inside cylinders due to higher lead content.
c) Make reference to Rotax Maintenance manual who provides dedicated checks due to the
prolonged use of Avgas.
 TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK

d) All are correct

103. The landing gear retraction system:
a) Is of electro-hydraulic type
b) Powered by a reversible pump which is electrically controlled by the LG control knob located
on the LH instrument panel
c) As in b) and by the legs position micro switches which allow for detecting landing gear
“down locked” and “up” position
d) All are correct
104. Normal operation provides gear extension and retraction by the means of
a) Hydraulic jacks c) Electrical
b) Mechanically d) all are correct
105. One red light in landing gear indication system is:
a) Transition light, turned ON during transition phase
106. Three green lights in landing gear indication system is leg position light which is turned
ON when the pertinent leg is extended and locked and located on the LH instrument panel
107. Push to test is the light for landing gear red and green lights operational check
108. Mark the correct statement for cabin heat:
a) The cabin heating system utilizes hot air coming from engines heat exchangers
b) Cold ram air is warmed by engine exhaust gases and then it is routed to the heating system
hoses.
c) Left knob controls the warm air from LH engine heat exchanger, right knob controls the
warm air from RH engine heat exchanger
d) All are correct
109. Mark the correct statement regarding doors:
a) An electro-mechanical device locks the door latch when left engine runs
b) A pressure switch senses engine oil pressure and allows for electrical supply to a solenoid
which engages the door lock mechanism
c) This prevents the latch opening when left engine runs but, if needed, the device can be also
manually by-passed operating either from the door inside panel or from outside.
d) All are correct
110. Primary DC power is provided by
a) One engine driven generator
b) Two engine driven generators
c) Three engine driven generators
111. Each generator is rated at
a) 14.2 – 14.8 Vdc, 40 Amp
b) 24-28 Vdc, 60 Amp
c) 14.2 – 14.8 Vdc, 60 Amp