1. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?

A) Annex 17
B) Annex 15
C) Annex 18
D) Annex 16

2. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide?

A) Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace

B) Modern radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace
C) Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to territorial airspace
D) Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace

3. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

A) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown
B The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation
)
C) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft
D) The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft

4. Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944?

A) Geneva
B) Rome
C) Chicago
D) Montreal

5. The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:

A) Geneva convention 1936

B Chicago convention 1944
)
C) Montreal convention 1948
D) Warsaw convention 1929

6. According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to
make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and
to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission.
This applies to the following flights:

A To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services

)
B) To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only
C) To aircraft on non-commercial flights only
D) To aircraft of scheduled air services only

7. The Paris Convention of 1919 defined the status of international airspace and gave the
authority to the Commander of the aeroplane to act in accordance with what law?

A) The law of the state of the aerodrome bf departure

B) The law of the state of the operator
C) The law of the state of registration
D) International Law
 8. The Air Navigation Commission consists of:

A) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council

B) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly
C) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly
D) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Council

9. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:

A) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft

B) approve new international airlines
C) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
D) develop principles and techniques for international aviation

10. Which of the following concerning aviation, applies in areas where international law is
applicable?

A) Law as agreed by the Geneva Convention on Territorial Waters and Contiguous Zones applies
B) ICAO rules apply
C) The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane applies
D) ICAO Law applies

11. For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable?

A) For cargo flights

B) For international flights
C) For domestic flights
D) For national carriers

12. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:

A) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
B) binding for all air line companies with international traffic
C) binding for all member states
D) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

13. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:

A Security
)
B) Operation of aircraft
C) Facilitations
D) Aerodromes

14. Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:

A) All states in the world attended

B) Each state was required to recognise the other states attending
C) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
D) Only 52 nations were permitted to attend
 15. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International
Standard?

A) Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences
to Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO
B) The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
C) The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
D) The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only

16. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

A ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the
) convention
B) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
C) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such
licenses
D) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections

17. If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:

A) It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
B It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
) International Standard
C) It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
D) It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard

18. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

A) aeronautical standards adopted by all states

B standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states
)
C) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention
D) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes

19. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rules of the Air over the high seas?

A The rules as defined by ICAO (Annex 2 to the Chicago Convention) apply

)
B) There are no rules over the high seas
C) Rules are only applied where Oceanic Control is applied (i.e. Shanwick OCA etc.)
D) The rules applicable are the rules as defined by the state of registration

20. What is the definition of HIGH SEAS?

A) Sea areas more than 12 nm from the closest shore

B) Sea areas where there is more than one state bordering the sea
C) Sea areas outside of territorial waters of any state
D) Sea state 6 or above
 21. Where is the headquarters of ICAO?

A) London
B) Montreal
C) Paris
D) New York

22. Non-scheduled aircraft of one contracting state have the right:

A) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for
non-traffic purposes, however, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight
B To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for
) non-traffic purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission
C) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for
traffic purposes, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight
D) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for
traffic purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission

23. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to
the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect:

A) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
B) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
C) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
D) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed

24. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?

A The Council
)
B) The Secretary General of ICAO
C) The President of the Assembly
D) The Air Navigation Commission

25. Article 36 of the Chicago Convention is concerned with photographic apparatus in aircraft.
What rights does a state have with regard to article 36?

A) The use of cameras is espionage and is therefore prohibited

B) The police can arrest persons using cameras in aircraft
C) All of the above
D) The state may prohibit or regulate the use of photographic equipment in aircraft over its
territory

26. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the
purpose of public transport of passengers or cargo?

A) An air transport undertaking

B) A scheduled air service
C) A commercial air operation
D) An airline
 27. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:

A) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator

B) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration
C) Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness
D) Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying

28. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for
submission for adoption?

A) the Assembly
B) the Council
C) the Air Navigation Commission
D) the Regional Air Navigation meeting

29. Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS:

A) the Contracting States

B) the ICAO Council
C) the ICAO Air Navigation Commission
D) the ICAO Assembly

30. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international
convention of:

A) Chicago
B) Montreal
C) Warsaw
D) The Hague

31. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and
Recommended Practices (SARPS)?

A) Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS)

B) Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS)
C) ICAO Technical Manuals
D) Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation

32. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Licensing of Aircrew?

A) Annex 9
B) Annex 6
C) Annex 1
D) Annex 2

33. The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:

A) 3 years
B) 1 year
C) 5 years
D) 10 years

34. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed
to...
A) United Nations
B) the other Contracting States
C) all States Members of United Nations
D) International Civil Aviation Organization

35. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international
air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:

A) Hague Convention
B) Montreal Convention
C) Tokyo Convention
D) Warsaw Convention

36. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts
from:

A) The date of arrival at the
arrived, or from the date
B) The date of arrival at the
C) The date of arrival at the
D) The date of arrival at the
arrived, or from the date
destination, or from the time at which the aircraft ought to have
on which the carriage ceased
destination
destination, or from the date on which the carriage ceased
destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have
on which the carriage ceased

37. In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and
operationally essential role to play?

A) National airspace management within Europe

B) Regional air navigation planning in Europe
C) Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe
D) Regulation of civil aviation in Europe

38. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to
take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is
called:

A 5th freedom rights

)
B) 4th freedom rights
C) 1st freedom rights
D) 3rd freedom rights

39. The convention of Tokyo applies to damage:

A) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of
another contracting state
B) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an
aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
C) the above convention does not deal with this item
D) caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration

40. An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state.
Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?

A) 3rd freedom
B) 4th freedom
C) 2nd freedom
D) 1st freedom

41. The JAA is controlled by:

A) The joint steering committee

B) ECAC
C) The JAA Committee
D) The JAA board

42. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is called:

A) the Third Freedom

B) the Fourth Freedom
C) the Second Freedom
D) the First Freedom

43. The problems of hijacking were discussed at:

A the Tokyo convention

)
B) the Chicago convention
C) the Geneva convention
D) the Montreal convention

44. Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as
passengers?

A) No
B Yes, but only mail and international cargo
)
C) Yes, but only to scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and 5th freedom flights)
D) Yes but only to internal, not international flights

45. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:

A limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-à -vis passenger and goods transported
)
B) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
C) the security system at airports
D) operator's license for international scheduled aviation

46. Which of the following is one of the main objectives of the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA)?

A) To ensure through regional legislation that European based aviation industry operations have
preference within Europe
B To ensure common high levels of aviation safety in JAA states
)
C) To establish the European Aviation Authority
D) To take over the responsibility for aviation regulation in Europe from ICAO
 47. Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to
do in the event of an act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state?

A) The responsibility rests with the Commander not the contracting state
B The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful
) Commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft
C) The responsibility of the state is limited to the safety of the passengers only
D) Nothing

48. The first freedom of the air is:

A The right to overfly without landing

)
B) The right to land for a technical stop
C) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states
D) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an
other state

49. Why is the 8th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union?

A) Because the EU is primarily a commercial arrangement and it is commercially sensible to

prevent non-EU carriers from profiting in Europe
B) Because the Chicago Convention allows a state to give exclusivity of internal air services to
another state
C) To prevent non-JAA states operating domestic scheduled services in Europe
D) Because the EU is effectively one state as far as the internal movement of people is concerned

50. What did the Conference of Cyprus in 1990 establish?

A The JAA
)
B) Eurocontrol
C) ECAC
D) The European Civil Aviation Organization

51. Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be
carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by
the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international agreement/convention?

A) Warsaw agreement
B) Agreement of Paris
C) Convention of The Hague
D) Cyprus convention

52. In 1955 an intergovernmental organization was founded in Europe to promote the

continuing development of a safe, efficient and sustainable European air transport system.
What is the name of this organization?

A) European Aviation Authority

B) Joint Aviation Authority
C) ECAC
D) Eurocontro
 53. Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO
contracting state:

A) the 2nd freedom

B) the 4th freedom
C) the 1st freedom
D) the 3rd freedom

54. 5th Freedom of the Air is:

A The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more
) treaty partner nations (B to C to D)
B) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
C) The right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’ s territory (B) to carrier’ s base nation (A)
D) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)

55. What is the status of IATA?

A) It is the international legislative arm of ICAO

B) It represents the air transport operators at ICAO
C) It is an associate body of ICAO
D) It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation

56. The Warsaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents.
Specifically what was agreed with regard to passengers?

A) That a passenger was carried at his/her own risk

B) That a limit of liability be applied in all cases where a claim was made against the carrier
C) That compensation would be payable only in the event of death in a crash
D) That claims for compensation, except claims involving gross negligence, be limited to an
agreed sum

57. Is the JAA membership restricted to the members of the European Union?

A) Yes without exception

B No
)
C) Yes, but non EU member states may apply for associate status
D) No, but only non EU states that have applied for membership of the EU may join

58. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following
freedom of the air:

A) 3rd freedom
B) 4th freedom
C) 1st freedom
D) 2nd freedom
 59. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other
than the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it
can be restored to an airworthy condition if:

A) It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred
B) It receives permission of the State of Registry
C) It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft
D) The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm
away

60. The second freedom of the air is the:

A) right to " cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic)

B right to land for a technical stop
)
C) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states
D) right to overfly without landing

61. The convention which deals with offences against penal law is:

A) the convention of Rome

B) the convention of Tokyo
C) the convention of Warsaw
D) the convention of Madrid

62. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and
destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?

A) The Montreal convention

B) The Warsaw convention
C) The Tokyo convention
D) The Chicago convention

63. If a state applied CABOTAGE, what would be prevented?

A Internal scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in

) state A
B) Privately operated air taxi services
C) International operations from state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in
state A
D) Non-scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state
A

64. What does the second Freedom of the Air permit?

A) To put down passengers mail and cargo in a state have taken them on in another state
B) To fly across the territory of another state without landing
C) To transport passengers, mail and cargo for valuable consideration from one aerodrome in a
state to another in the same state
D) To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state

65. What is the relationship between the JAA and ECAC?

A) The JAA is part of ECAC

B The JAA is an associate body of ECAC
)
C) ECAC is a part of the JAA administration division
D) The JAA is another name for ECAC

66. According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise
jurisdiction over acts committed on board an aeroplane?

A) The State over which the aeroplane was flying when the act took place
B) The State of Registration
C) The Commander
D) The State of the Operator

67. How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention?

A) By informing all ICAO member states and ICAO

B By informing ICAO
)
C) By informing all ICAO member states
D) By informing Japanese Civil Aviation Administration

68. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a
person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

A The Convention of Tokyo

)
B) The Convention of Rome
C) The Convention of Warsaw
D) The Convention of Chicago

69. The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is
called:

A) the second freedom of the air

B) the first freedom of the air
C) the fifth freedom of the air
D) the fourth freedom of the air

70. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if
the accident that caused the damage:

A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking or after the booking in of the passenger
B) Took place on board the aircraft
C) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking
D) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking including time spent after the passenger has checked in for flight

71. What privilege does the first 'Freedom of the Air' grant?

A To fly across the territory of a state without landing in that state

)
B) To take on passengers, mail and cargo in the territory of another state destined for the territory
of another state
C) To pick up passengers, mail or cargo in a state and deliver to another aerodrome in that state
D) Technical (non-commercial) landings in the territory of another state
 72. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:

A) 1 year
B) 6 months
C) 5 years
D) 2 years

73. 6th Freedom of the Air is:

A) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
B) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more
treaty partner nations (B to C to D)
C) A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations
(C to A) through carrier’ s base nation (B)
D) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)

74. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is called:

A) the convention of Rome

B) the convention of Chicago
C) the convention of Paris
D) the convention of Tokyo

75. " Cabotage" refers to:

A) a flight above territorial waters

B) crop spraying
C) a national air carrier
D) domestic air services

76. Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees
where the limit of compensation is limited to US$10 000 except in cases of gross
negligence?

A) Tokyo
B) Rome
C) Warsaw
D) Paris

77. Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning
the responsibilities with illegal acts committed on board aircraft?

A) The Montreal Convention

B) The Chicago Convention
C) The Geneva Convention
D) The Tokyo Convention

78. What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and
goods not destined for the state in which the aeroplane has landed in, known as?

A) Duty free zoning

B) Facilitation
C) Open skies policy
D) Green Channel operations

79. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the
most expedious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator
of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:

A) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board
the aircraft and the ICAO
B two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
) whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board
the aircraft and the ICAO
C) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
D) two aforementioned States and the ICAO

80. What is cabotage?

A) Flying over territorial waters

B) The fourth freedom of the air
C) A severe form of sabotage
D) Domestic air services by an operator within another State

81. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act?

A) Public transport flights only

B) All flights
C) Private flights only
D) Military flights only

82. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?

A) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas

B) The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing
C) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other
participating state
D) The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the
purpose of refueling

83. The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called:

A) the second freedom of the air

B) the first freedom of the air
C) the third freedom of the air
D) the fifth freedom of the air

84. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft
to third parties on the surface?

A) The Guatemala Convention

B) The Tokyo Convention
C) The Montreal convention
D) The Rome convention

85. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has
committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law...

A) may request such person to disembark

B may deliver such person to the competent authorities
)
C) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
D) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

86. Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined?

A In the Ops Manual

)
B) In Annex 6 with additional JAR-OPS 1 requirements taking precedence
C) In Annex 1 with additional responsibilities detailed in Annex 6
D) In the Air Navigation Order

87. What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or
is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law?

A) Deliver the person to the competent authority

B) Use force to place the person in custody
C) Land in any country and off-load the offender
D) Answers a, b and c are all correct

88. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:

A) the Paris Convention

B) the Warsaw Convention
C) the Rome Convention
D) the Tokyo Convention

89. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:

A) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

B) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
C) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
D) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

90. Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third
parties on the ground, held?

A) Tokyo
B) Warsaw
C) Paris
D) Rome

91. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered
in another state, which convention covers this?
A) Chicago
B) Tokyo
C) Paris
D) Rome

92. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was
caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to
compensation as provided by:

A) the Chicago Convention

B) the Warsaw Convention
C) the Rome Convention
D) the Montreal Convention

93. Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the
ground?

A The Operator
)
B) The aerodrome manager authority, if the incident happened inside the boundary of the
aerodrome
C) The pilot actually flying or at the controls when the incident happened
D) The Commander is responsible providing that no other person can be held responsible

94. What is a JAA operator required to do before he is permitted to WET LEASE IN an

aeroplane from a non JAA operator?

A) Subject the aeroplane to a major overhaul in accordance with JAR 145

B) Demonstrate that there is no JAA operator who has an aeroplane available for lease
C) Obtain the permission of the JAA
D) Check that the crew licences are valid

95. If a JAA operator (A) provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to another JAA
operator (B) (a wet lease-out situation), who is the operator of the aeroplane?

A) A - providing the functions and responsibilities of JAR OPS 2 are retained

B) B - because they are charging the passengers for carriage
C) A - because it is their crew flying the aeroplane
D) B - providing they absolve operator A of any responsibility in the manner in which the
aeroplane is operated

96. Can a JAA operator dry lease an aeroplane from FAA operator on a short notice basis
without prior permission of the JAA authority?

A) Yes, but JAA operator must have given notice to the authority
B) Yes, providing JAA operator has given notice to the authority and the lease period does not
exceed 5 days
C) No, the short notice exemption only applies to wet leasing
D) Yes, but only for 5 days

97. The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program
to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information
concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:

A) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing

mass
B) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
C) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
D) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

98. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight,
if:

A) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is
still airworthy
B) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature
such that the aircraft is still airworthy
C) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is
still airworthy
D) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft
is still airworthy

99. Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness?

A) None of the listed here

B) Only such qualified Contracting States specifically listed in Annex 7
C) Always the Contracting State in which the power plants have been designed, manufactured and
approved
D) The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the
aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements

100. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness:

A) The nationality or common mark and registration mark

B) The name and address of the owner
C) The category of aircraft
D) The aircraft serial number

101. The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:

A aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
) passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
B) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers only
C) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
cargo or mail in international air navigation
D) aeroplanes of over 25,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation

102. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane?

A) The Commander
B The State of Registry
)
C) The Owner/Operator
D) The certifying manager for the JAR 145 approved maintenance operation

103. The standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to:

A) Large airplanes
B) Large turbojet powered aeroplanes
C) Aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700kgs
D) Passenger carrying aeroplanes

104. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration
of the Certificates of Airworthiness?

A) The Operator
B) The authority of the state of manufacture
C) The authority of the state of the Operator
D) The authority of the state of registration

105. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall

remain valid subject to the:

A) Requirements laid down by ICAO

B) Laws of the State of registry
C) Laws of the State of registry and operation
D) Laws of the State in which is operated

106. Who is responsible for the issuance of a certificate of airworthiness?

A) The JAA
B) The Operator
C) ICAO
D) The authority of State of Registration

107. The continuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon

what?

A The continued airworthiness of the aeroplane as determined by periodic inspections

)
B) The continued use of the aeroplane for the purpose stated on the certificate of registration
C) The continued registration of the aeroplane
D) The establishment of a schedule for servicing and repair of the aeroplane in accordance with
JAR 145

108. The loading limitations shall include:

A) all limiting mass and centers of gravity

B) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loading
C) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
D) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity

109. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the flight crew
compartment door?

A It must be capable of being locked

)
B) It must be bomb-proof
C) It shall be made of fireproof material
D) It shall be inaccessible to passengers

110. A gyroplane is classified as a:

A) Airship
B) Rotorcraft
C) Non-power driven
D) Lighter-than-air aircraft

111. Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of
aircraft?

A) Annex 6
B) Annex 14
C) Annex 7
D) Annex 11

112. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the
vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be

A) at least 40 centimetres
B) at least 30 centimetres
C) at least 20 centimetres
D) at least between 20 centimetres and 40
centimetres

113. Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters?

A) YYY
B) LLL
C) TTT
D) RTB

114. When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used
which might be confused with the

A) letters used for an ICAO identification documents

B) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
C) four letter combinations beginning with Q
D) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals

115. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:

A It shall be preceded by a hyphen

)
B) It shall be followed by a number
C) The registration mark must be completed by the national emblem
D) It may not be followed by a number

116. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent signals for example:

A) PAN
B) LLL
C) DDD
D) RCC

117. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a

combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

A the state of registry or common mark registering authority

)
B) the International Civil Aviation Organization
C) the state of registry only
D) the International Telecommunication Union

118. Regarding an aircraft Certificate of Registration:

A) Aircraft can be registered in more than one state

B Aircraft can only be registered in one country
)
C) Aircraft registration cannot be changed from one state to another
D) Aircraft may only have one owner

119. How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane?

A) 25 cm
B) 40 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 50 cm

120. Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and
Registration Markings). These include:

A) OOO MAY DAY

B) XXX PAN TTT
C) LLL ZZZ YYY
D) EEE LLL NHQ

121. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used
which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example

A) RCC
B) XXX
C) DDD
D) LLL

122. When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent signals for example

A) TTT
B) LLL
C) RCC
D) FFF

123. The certificate of registration shall:

A) Both a) and c) are correct

B) Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger
C) Be carried on board the aircraft at all times
D) Be visible to the passengers at all times

124. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains:

A) SARPS
B) Standards only
C) Recommendations only
D) PANS