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AILET Mock – 2 (REPLICA)


(Question Paper)
SECTION I: ENGLISH
S.1–5) Directions for Questions: For each of the following words below, a context is provided. From the
alternatives given, pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.

Q.1) Apposite
Never has “death by a thousand cuts” been more apposite than the deliberate destruction of a once–proud postal
service into the shabby shell of a business it is now.

a) Appropriate
b) desired by the government
c) Not desired
d) Downsize

Q.2) Adherent
In urban areas, where life is busier and more modern, Catholics tended to be less adherent to their faith, compared
to their counter–parts in rural areas.

a) Caring about something


b) supporter of a cause
c) confident about something
d) hopeful about something

Q.3) Repository
Years of working with a shipping company had made Rajesh a repository of knowledge about countries.

a) Accustomed to something
b) well known for something
c) store house of something
d) well attuned to something

Q.4) Ostensibly
Investors do not shift their deposits from the commercial banks to post office accounts despite ostensibly higher
interest rates of post office small savings.

a) Significantly
b) insignificantly
c) aggregate
d) seeming to be true

Q.5) Contemporary
Birbal, a contemporary of Akbar was known to be a witty person who often gave wise advice to the king.

a) gem

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b) extraordinary companion
c) existing during the same period of time
d) a trusted companion

S.6–9) Directions for Questions: In the following questions, choose the word which is odd one out.

Q.6)

a) anarchic
b) radical
c) seditious
d) amenable

Q.7)

a) felon
b) fellow
c) assassin
d) slayer

Q.8)

a) supplication
b) entreaty
c) claim
d) petition

Q.9)

a) incarceration
b) internment
c) captivity
d) impediment

S.10–14) Directions for Questions: Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.

Q.10) A hard nut to crack

a) a widespread problem
b) a difficult problem
c) an expensive, non–nutritious food
d) a demanding person

Q.11) Look down on someone

a) to be protective of someone
b) consider someone substandard
c) be at a superior position
d) not to help someone in need

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Q.12) Beef up something

a) to make something prohibitive


b) to arrange for a community’s meal
c) to strengthen something
d) to delegate responsibility

Q.13) Icing on the cake

a) something additional to make it better


b) something showy but not much useful
c) something meant only for celebration
d) something that is more visible than the real thing

Q.14) Count chickens before they hatch

a) to think about results prematurely


b) to predict results of an action
c) to anticipate success from a job
d) to imitate a another person’s success

S.15–24) Directions for Questions: Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word:

Q.15) With the pollution peaking yesterday, people woke to a __________ of __________ blanketing the city.

a) pall, gloom
b) pall, smog
c) barrage, intense
d) slew, smoke

Q.16) The Central Bank can simply print __________ money in case there is any __________ situation and
therefore does not have to maintain high reserves.

a) more, adverse
b) any, propitious
c) some, financial
d) much, wilful

Q.17) The French language is rich, mellifluous, __________ and subtle, but it is also __________ because it is
textured with innuendo.

a) acerbic, sweet
b) ancient, good
c) nuanced, tricky
d) fine, worthy

Q.18) Lula finished his second term with the __________ approval ratings, and got the __________ successor
Dilma Rouseff elected as president.

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a) average, good
b) lowest, preferred
c) manageable, close
d) highest, chosen

Q.19) Collecting photo and video evidence of the impressive estate and its carefully __________ lawn, a drone
returns safely and __________ back to the car by the time a perplexed security guard calls the cops.

a) greened, quickly
b) nurtured, noisily
c) laid, ubiquitously
d) manicured, quietly

Q.20) An Australian think tank__________ last week that China had sent thousands of scientists affiliated with its
armed forces to Western universities, many of them __________ their military connection.

a) stipulating, underlined
b) understated, faking
c) disputing, inheriting
d) warned, disguising

Q.21) WHO identifies it as the planet’s __________ cause of disability, and found that cases __________ 18.4
percent between 2005 and 2015.

a) leading, skyrocketed
b) big, reduced
c) primary, minimised
d) fundamental, were

Q.22) Drone–led probes into ill–gotten real estate are often much more __________ and hard to __________ than
traditional journalistic investigations.

a) evident, imagine
b) simple, complete
c) powerful, ignore
d) distinct, prove

Q.23) Four months later, the balloon is absorbed all on its own during which time you have __________ 10 to 15
percent of your body weight because your food intake has been __________ reduced.

a) gained, imperviously
b) been, gradually
c) gained, irreversibly
d) lost, drastically

Q.24) Such skills are __________ to advanced mathematics, especially geometry and algebra, required of
__________ engineers and scientists.

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a) true, biding
b) central, forsaken
c) fit, specialising
d) integral, budding

S.25–29) Directions for Questions: In this section, each passage–consists of four/five sentences. The sentences in
each passage have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R, S and T. You are required to find out the proper
sequence of the sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

Q.25)
P. Rajapaksa was at a wedding when Sirisena called him up asking him to take charge at the earliest.
Q. Ranil Wickremsinghe was at a mosque in Galle district when he got the letter informing him that he was prime
minister no more.
R. President Maithripala Sirisena replaced Wickremesinghe with former president Mahinda Rajapaksa a few days
after Wickremesinghe’s return from India.
S. He readily agreed, while a defiant Wickremesinghe called the move unconstitutional and vowed to put up a
fight.

a) PQSR
b) QRPS
c) RQPS
d) RPQS

Q.26)
P. It is more fruitful if the workshop is attended by the entire groups rather than isolated individuals.
Q. It has to lead to action and change.
R. It is very important that a workshop should not deteriorate into a mere talkshop.
S. Therefore it is necessary to give time for planning to groups that will be working together in future.

a) RQSP
b) RSQP
c) PQRS
d) RSPQ

Q.27)
P. Mahler was truly a big thinker, creating his own style rather than following established rules.
Q. Standing on the verge of the twentieth century, Gustav Mahler reinvented the classical symphony and radically
updated it for our times.
R. I became interested in Mahler in 2002 when I tuned in to my favourite classical music radio station and listened
to the ending of a live performance.
S. The American conductor and composer Leonard Bernstein once called Mahler’s music “the utterance of a
genius”.

a) PQRS
b) SPQR
c) QPSR
d) RQPS

Q.28)

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P. And let me tell you this, there are many flowers and plants which are still unknown to the fancy botanists.
Q. This is a valuable book as no other naturalist has recorded so many wild Himalayan flowers.
R. They spend all their time with microscopes instead of in exploring the mountains.
S. They went through the book together and Miss Mackenzie pointed out many flowers that grew in their
neighbourhood.

a) QPRS
b) SPRQ
c) SRPQ
d) PRSQ

Q.29)
P. Being afraid of quantification is tantamount to disenfranchising yourself, giving up on one of the most potent
prospects for understanding and changing the world.
Q. The Cosmos is billions of years old and if you know exponentials, you have the key to many of the secrets of the
Universe.
R. If you know it quantitatively, grasping some numerical measures, you are beginning to know it deeply.
S. If you know a thing only qualitatively, you know it no more than vaguely.
T. You comprehend some of its beauty and you gain access to its power and the understanding it provides.

a) RSTQP
b) QPRST
c) SRTPQ
d) STRQP

S.30–35) Directions for Questions: The questions are based on the information presented in the passage given
below:

Since 1945, UNESCO has promoted the right to quality education and the advancement of science and its
applications to develop knowledge and capacity for economic and social progress, the basis of peace and
sustainable development. International cooperation is promoted through programmes on the management of
transboundary sites such as World Heritage sites, biosphere reserves and geoparks, and of transboundary water
resources, as well as Water for Peace programmes such as From Potential Conflict to Cooperation Potential (PCCP).
UNESCO is leading the United Nations International Year of Water Cooperation 2013, to promote deeper
cooperation to tackle the rising demand for water access, allocation and services. Several international projects
established under the auspices of UNESCO aim to promote solidarity and peace in the Middle East through
scientific cooperation. These include one of the most ambitious research facilities in the Middle East, known as
SESAME (Synchrotron–light for Experimental Science and Applications in the Middle East), and the Israeli–
Palestinian Science Organization (IPSO). Within the context of its intergovernmental mandate and universal
membership, UNESCO has focused its work in science on issues of global concern requiring multinational
collaboration such as in the fields of freshwater resource management, ocean health, climate change, renewable
energy, natural disaster reduction, biodiversity loss, and capacity building in science, technology and innovation.
Knowledge of rights and freedoms is considered a fundamental tool to guarantee respect for the rights of all.
UNESCO’s work in human rights education is guided by the World Programme for Human Rights Education.
UNESCO is concerned by the rise of racism, xenophobia and intolerance, and considers that education is essential
to strengthening the foundations of tolerance, reducing discrimination and violence. Launched on 18 January 2012,
the UNESCO–USA–Brazil project “Teaching Respect for All” aims to design a curricular framework to fight racism
and promote tolerance, which countries can adapt to their respective contexts and needs. UNESCO recognizes that
teaching the lessons of the Holocaust is fundamental to establishing respect for human rights, basic freedoms and

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the values of tolerance and mutual respect. UN Member States are encouraged to develop educational
programmes to transmit the memory of the Holocaust to future generations.

Q.30) Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage recognised as a problem?

a) racism
b) xenophobia
c) intolerance
d) casteism

Q.31) Which has not been mentioned as a means of international cooperation in the passage?

a) transboundary sites
b) education
c) curricula
d) conservation

Q.32) Which of the following has been mentioned as the prime objective of Israeli–Palestinian Science Organization
in the passage?

a) peace and solidarity


b) scientific temper
c) science for development
d) education for empowerment

Q.33) According to the information presented in the passage, which of the following must be the most important
reason to teach about the Holocaust?

a) to remind future generations about sufferings of their forefathers


b) to learn lessons from history
c) to teach importance of respecting human rights
d) to instill means to avoid confrontation

Q.34) Which of the following has not been mentioned in the passage as a group of activities/ objectives of the
UNESCO or its affiliates?

a) Ocean health, climate change, biodiversity


b) Capacity building, entrepreneurship
c) fresh water resource, renewable energy
d) sustainable development

Q.35) All of the following convey meaning similar to the word “solidarity” except?

a) dissension
b) camaraderie
c) esprit de corps
d) cohesion

SECTION II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

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Q.36) Pakyong airport is India’s 100th functional airport and one of the country’s five highest airports. This Airport
is located in which state?

a) Manipur
b) Nagaland
c) Sikkim
d) Mizoram

Q.37) Which country was elected to the United Nations top human rights body for a period of three years
beginning 1 January 2019, getting 188 votes in the Asia Pacific Category?

a) Bangladesh
b) Indonesia
c) Sri Lanka
d) India

Q.38) Recently Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched ambitious Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY),
under Ayushman Bharat umbrella at ___________. The scheme aims to provide annual health insurance cover of
Rs 5 Lakh to 10.74 crore beneficiary families i.e. over 50 crore beneficiaries across India.

a) Ranchi, Jharkhand
b) Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan
c) New Delhi
d) Noida, Uttar Pradesh

Q.39) Which movie was selected as India’s official entry to the Oscars 2019 (91st Academy Awards) under Foreign
Language Film category?

a) Bhayanakam
b) Village Rockstars
c) Nagar Kirtan
d) Dhappa

Q.40) Naomi Osaka, who has won the US Open 2018 Women’s Singles Title, hails from which country?

a) Spain
b) South Korea
c) Japan
d) Germany

Q.41) The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is given annually at the National Films Awards which is India’s highest award in
cinema. The winner of prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2017 announced in April, 2018 is

a) Vinod Khanna
b) Kasinathuni Viswanath
c) Manoj Kumar
d) Shashi Kapoor

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Q.42) Brettonwood agreement was signed to establish which of the following organization?

a) World Bank
b) Amnesty International
c) Unite Nations
d) WHO

Q.43) Recently the Union Government appointed Akshay Kumar as brand ambassador for which campaigns?

a) Tuberculosis
b) Road Safety
c) Zika Virus
d) Ayushman Bharat

Q.44) Recently which country rolled out the world’s first hydrogen–powered train, signalling the start of a push to
challenge the might of polluting diesel trains with costlier but eco–friendly technology?

a) France
b) China
c) Germany
d) Japan

Q.45) Which is the only Central University in India which has Prime Minister as its chancellor?

a) Visva Bharati University


b) Banarasa Hindu Uninversity
c) Indira Gandhi National Open University
d) Nalanda University

Q.46) Sikkim Chief Minister Pawan Kumar Chamling received the UN Food and Agriculture Organisation’s (FAO)
Future Policy Gold Award for paving the way for the rest of the world. Sikkim receives UN award for becoming
world’s first ____________.

a) 100% Open Defection Free State


b) 100% Literate State
c) 100% organic State
d) 100% Hunger Free State

Q.47) Which among the following parties declared victory in the 2018 Maldives Election?

a) Islamic Democratic Party


b) Maldivian Democratic Party
c) Progressive Party of Maldives
d) Adhaalath Party

Q.48) Devaluation of currency can correct a Balance of Payments deficit because___________.

a) It lowers price of exports in foreign currency and rises price of imports in home currency
b) It raises price of exports in foreign currency and lowers price of imports in home currency

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c) It raises price of exports and imports in foreign currency


d) It lowers price of exports and imports in home currency

Q.49) When we eat something we like, our mouth waters. This is actually not water but fluid secreted from

a) Nasal glands
b) Oval epithelium
c) Salivary glands
d) Tongue

Q.50) The National Green Tribunal has formed a monitoring committee to prepare a time–bound action plan on
groundwater recharge in the national capital. The committee will be headed by...

a) Justice P.S. Teji


b) Justice S P Garg
c) Justice Pratibha Rani
d) Justice Ashutosh Kumar

Q.51) Which among the following is both an endocrine and exocrine gland of human body?

a) Thyroid
b) Pancreas
c) Adrenal
d) Pituitary

Q.52) What is the India’s rank in the latest UN’s Human Development Index (HDI) report 2018?

a) 130
b) 132
c) 134
d) 136

Q.53) Rajasthan’s first lion safari was inaugurated at __________. The park is located on Delhi–Jaipur National
Highway in the Aravalli foothills.

a) Jaisalmer Desert National Park


b) Nahargarh Biological Park
c) Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Kaila Devi Sanctuary

Q.54) Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi gave awards to top Ranked State, District and State with maximum
citizen participation based on the National Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2018. Which state declared Overall top
ranker?

a) Haryana
b) Gujarat
c) Maharashtra
d) Uttar Pradesh

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Q.55) Which country is known as the land of white elephants?

a) Thailand
b) Indonesia
c) Myanmar
d) Sri Lanka

Q.56) Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs Arun Jaitley launched Financial Inclusion Index in New Delhi.
The annual FII will be released by Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance. The index has three
measurement dimensions

a) Access to financial services


b) Usage of financial services and
c) Quality
d) All of the above

Q.57) Recently the 70th annual Primetime Emmy Awards 2018 have taken place in Los Angeles, USA. Best drama
series award won by...

a) The Americans
b) The Crown
c) Game of Thrones
d) The Handmaid’s Tale

Q.58) Who became Asia’s richest person as per Bloomberg latest report in July 2018?

a) Mukesh Ambani
b) Jack Ma
c) Li Ka–Shing
d) Tadashi Yanai

Q.59) Which country remained the top source of foreign direct investment (FDI) into India in 2017–18 as per latest
RBI data?

a) Singapore
b) Mauritius
c) Netherlands
d) USA

Q.60) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) third Annual Meeting was held in _________ on June 25 and
26, 2018.

a) Jeju, South Korea


b) Beijing, China
c) Luxembourg
d) Mumbai, India

Q.61) Which state has topped Ease of Living Index 2018 rankings under AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and
Urban Transformation) released by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs?

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a) Delhi
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Odisha
d) Madhya Pradesh

Q.62) Who had been appointed as chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in July, 2018?

a) Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel


b) Justice Madan Lokur
c) Justice Uday Lalit
d) Justice Arun Kumar Mishra

Q.63) India has launched a massive operation to provide assistance to the earthquake and tsunami victims in
Indonesia, dispatching two aircraft and three naval ships carrying relief material to the country. What is the name
of this operation?

a) Operation Insaniyat
b) Operation Samudra Maitri
c) Operation Surya Hope
d) Operation Madad and Sahyog

Q.64) Who has been elected as the new President of Pakistan?

a) Maulana Fazlur
b) Aitzaz Ahsan
c) Dr Arif ur Rehman Alvi
d) Mamnoon Hussain

Q.65) Who assumed charge as Chief Election Commissioner of India in January, 2018?

a) Om Prakash Rawat
b) Sunil Arora
c) Ashok Lavasa
d) Harishankar Brahma

Q.66) Recently, Indian scientists have discovered a planet similar to ‘Super–Neptune’. Consider the following
statements in this regard–

(1) This scientific team was led by Prof Abhijit Chakraborty.


(2) Name of planet is ‘EPIC–211945201b’.
(3) The discovery was made by the indigenously designed “PRL Advance Radial–velocity Abu–sky Search” (PARAS)
spectrograph situated at Mount Abu.
Select the correct statement.

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) Only 2

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Q.67) Who has been crowned FBB Colors Femina Miss India World 2018 at a function held in Mumbai on June 19,
2018?

a) Shreya Rao
b) Anukreethy Vas
c) Meenakshi Chaudhary
d) Neelam Khurrana

Q.68) Kofi Annan (80), the former UN secretary–general and a Ghanaian diplomat, has passed away in Switzerland
on August 18, 2018. He was from which African country?

a) Ghana
b) Morocco
c) Nigeria
d) South Africa

Q.69) Which unique app has been launched by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for people to report model
code violations?

a) cVigil
b) pVigil
c) eVigil
d) mVigil

Q.70) The Hon Scott Morrison MP was sworn in as the 30th Prime Minister of Australia on 24 August 2018. He
belongs to which political party?

a) Liberal Party
b) Australian Greens
c) Labour Party
d) National Party of Australia

SECTION III: LEGAL REASONING


Q.71) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A statement is defamatory in nature if it is injurious to a person’s reputation and if the
statement has been published.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Rudra had been dating a girl named Kiara for three weeks. But he had introduced himself to
heras Ricky Thakur (who is one of Rudra’s friends) and he continued to be Ricky for the rest of their relationship.
But ultimately the relationship ended badly and Kiara being upsetand angry at Rudra started awebsite named
‘ricky–thakur–is–a–jerk.com’. She created this website so as to warn other girls about ‘Ricky Thakur’. The real Ricky
Thakur files a suit for defamation. Decide.
Decision:

a) Kiara shall be held liable for defamation as she published a statement which was injurious to Ricky’s reputation.
b) Rudra shall be held liable as he had led Kiara into thinking that he was Ricky Thakur and moreover, it was his
fault in the first place that made Kiara create this website.
c) Kiara cannot be held liable as she had actually been referring to Rudra and not the real Bicky Thakur.
d) Kiara cannot be held liable as her act was done in good faith as she intended to warn other girls.

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Q.72) LEGAL PRINCIPLES: Whoever stores a substance which could cause damage on escape shall be absolutely
liable for any damage caused by the escape of the substance. Whether the person has exercised necessary care
and precaution or not will also be taken into account.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) manufactured methyl isocyanate, an extremely toxic gas.
Due to an earthquake, the gas that was being stored in air tight sealed containers under the ground got released.
Before much could happen, the local municipal authorities managed to contain the disaster. The authorities filed a
suit against UCIL for the costs that were incurred in decontamination. However, later it was realized that the clean–
up by the authorities could have been done without spending as much resources and the damage was not that
significant. UCIL argued that it would pay only part of the amount demanded by the authorities, which could have
dealt with the contamination. Decide.
Decision:

a) UCIL is liable only to the extent of contamination caused. It does not need to pay the authorities the entire
amount demanded by them.
b) The authorities are entitled to the whole sum, as UCIL shall be held liable for all the repercussions of their act
even if they had exercised due care.
c) UCIL can plead that the escape of the gas had been caused by a storm and not due to its own negligence. It was
an inevitable accident.
d) The municipal authorities should have analyzed the damage first before jumping into action. It was due to their
own negligence because of which they had to shell out more than required.

Q.73) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A partner is liable for the debts incurred by the other partners in the course of
Partnership.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Satwik and Prateek enter into a partnership to produce a film, wherein Satwik also directs
the movie. The movie bombed at the box office. Consequently, they run into financial problems and the
partnership ends. Prateek goes to Abbas to borrow some money, which Abbas understands is for repaying the
debts from the partnership. Prateek takes the money and absconds to Malibu. Abbas sues Satwik for the amount.
Decide.
Decision:

a) Satwik is liable to return the money as it was his partner Prateek who directed the movie.
b) Abbas has been negligent in not properly enquiring the purpose for which Prateek borrowed the money. Satwik
is not liable to pay him back according to the principle of contributory negligence.
c) Satwik is not liable as prateek absconded with the money instead of using it to pay off the debts in the
partnership.
d) Satwikis not liable as by the time prateek borrowed money from Abbas, the partnership was no more in
existence.

Q.74) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid act or omission
which he can foresee would injure his neighbour, the neighbour for this purpose is any person whom he should
have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
FACTUALSITUATTON: Krish, while driving a car at a high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The
cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around. Lekha, a pregnant woman passing by suffered from a
nervous shock, leading to abortion. Lekha filed a suit against Krish claiming damages.
Decision:

a) Krish will be liable because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everybody on the road including Lekha.

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b) Krish will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lekha suffering from nervous shock as a result of his
act.
c) Krish will be liable to Lekha because he failed to drive carefully.
d) None of the above.

Q.75) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Lalit was running a dairy from his house. People used a part of his farm to get to a nearby
railway station. Lalit did not approve of this and put up a notice saying “Trespassers will be prosecuted”. However
since a number of these people were his customers he tolerated them. One day a person, who was not his
customer, who was using this shortcut was attacked by bull belonging to the farm. The injured person filed a suit
against him.
Decision:

a) Lalit is not liable in view of the clear notice against trespassers.


b) Lalit is liable for having kept a bull on his farm.
c) He is not liable to the people other than his customers
d) He is liable because in fact he allowed the people to use his premises.

Q.76) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A master shall be liable for the acts of his servants done in the course of employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: PUL, a public sector undertaking, is operating a number of bus services for its employees in
Pune. These buses are quite distinct in their appearance and carry the board for PUL employees only. M, a villager
from neighbouring state, was waiting for a regular bus in one of the bus stops in Pune. A bus belonging to PUL
happened to stop nearby and number of people get into the bus. M without realizing that it was PUL bus, got into
the bus and soon thereafter, the bus met with an accident due to driver’s negligence. M, along with several others,
was injured in the accident. M seeks to file a suit against PUL claiming damages.
Decision:

a) M will succeed, because he got into the bus without realizing that it was PUL bus.
b) M will not succeed, because it was for him to find out whether it was a Public transport.
c) M will succeed, because the driver was anyhow duty–bound to drive carefully.
d) PUL is not liable as the bus met with an accident due to driver’s negligence.

Q.77) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No
law made by the State can take away a person’s fundamental right.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) enacted a statute, ‘Rights of Hawkers and Vendors
Act, 2018’, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental rights of hawkers and vendors, as
the law asks every street vendor to move out of the city if they want to carry on their profession. A group of
lawyers file a writ petition challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute
and further direct MCD to enact a new law.
Decision:

a) The court can quash the existing law.


b) The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct the MCD to make a new law.
c) No writ would lie against MCD, as the court has no authority to direct MCD to enact or re–enact a law.
d) The court cannot quash the law as reasonable restrictions can be put on the fundamental rights.

Q.78) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything,
with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.

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FACTUAL SITUATION: Ram sends a telegram to Sohan, writing will you sell me your Rolls Royce car? Telegram the
lowest cash price.’ Sohan also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for car is Rs. 20 lakh.” Ram immediately sent his
consent through telegram stating “I agree to buy the car for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you. Sohan refuses to sell the car.
Decision:

a) He cannot refuse to sell the car because the contract has already been made.
b) He can refuse to sell the car because it was only invitation to otter and not the real offer.
c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.
d) It was not a valid contract as offer and acceptance is conveyed through telegram.

Q.79) LEGAL PRINCIPLES:


1. A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is
capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
2. A person who is usually of unsound mind may not enter into a contract when he is of sound mind, the onus will
be on him to prove his mental capability at that time.
3. The one who alleges needs to prove.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind,
enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to know about this fact
afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr. X.
Decision:

a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.
b) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound state of mind
at the time of contract.
c) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of sound state of mind at the time
of contract.
d) Contract with a person of unsound mind is void.

Q.80) LEGAL PRINCIPLE:


1. Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is not an excuse to criminal liability.
2. One cannot be made liable for something which he could not have reasonably foreseen.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane and he boarded the plane on
November 21, 2014. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on 22 November 2014 it was found on
searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for
Transit’. On 21 November 2014, the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption,
making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.
Decision:

a) X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two days ago
b) X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable
c) X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
d) X’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court

Q.81) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s lawful ownership without
lawful justification is called trespass of goods.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Z purchased a car from a Y without the required papers (as Y himself had bought car from a
thief) and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage. Has X
committed any offence?
Decision:

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a) X cannot be held responsible for trespass.


b) X can be held responsible for trespass of goods.
c) Cannot be determined
d) None of the above.

Q.82) LEGAL PRINCIPLES:


1. Bigamy is not permitted under Hindu law.
2. A Hindu of sound mind can adopt a child of the gender they already have a child of.
3. Only the child’s father or mother has the capacity to give the child up in adoption.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Ramesh comes from a family where from the past two generations; all male members have
had two wives. He also wants to continue this tradition and thus he married Suman first and then Tania. Ramesh
has a son, Gunjan with Suman. However, with Tania, he is childless. He thus wishes to adopt some children. Rajat is
the child of Ramesh’s brother. However, Rajat’s parents decide to go off to Dubai for 5 years and they leave their
son under the care of Ramesh’s sister. Ramesh and Tania ask for Rajat in adoption from his sister who agrees and
Rajat is adopted. Later, Ramesh and Suman want to adopt a daughter as well and they do adopt a girl – Sara –from
an orphanage. However, at the time of signing the adoption deed, Ramesh was dead drunk. Ramesh and his entire
family member are Buddhists. Keeping in mind the given principles and facts, solve the questions Is Rajat’s
adoption a valid adoption?
Decision:

a) No, because Ramesh already has a son.


b) No, because Ramesh’s sister has no authority to give Rajat up in adoption.
c) Yes, it is a valid adoption because Ramesh has no child with Tania and Ramesh’s sister is Rajat’s guardian for 5
years at least.
d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.83) LEGAL PRINCIPLES: Whoever dishonestly takes away any property from the possession of another, with an
intention of such taking away, without his permission is liable for theft.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Raja, a famous gangster, moves into an empty apartment in Kankurgachi, Calcutta. There, he
discovers that the previous owner of the apartment had left behind a pair of beautiful ivory handled combs.
Mesmerized by their beauty and confused as to whom he should be returning them to, he decides to retain them
and starts using them. The previous owner of the combs gets to know this and registers an FIR for theft against
Raja. Is Raja liable?
Decision:

a) Raja is liable for theft as he failed to return the property even when he knew it was someone else’s property.
b) Raja is not liable as he is not taken it away from anyone else’s possession and there was no dishonest intention.
c) Raja is liable as you don’t expect anything better from a gangster.
d) Raja is not liable as he was confused as to whom he should be returning the property to.

Q.84) LEGAL PRINCIPLES: The state shall make special laws for the upliftment of citizens of the country, and these
laws can be made for the benefit of any specific caste, class or sex of people living in the society.
FACTUAL SITUATION: As per the report of a government appointed committee, Muslims are at the lowest strata of
society when it comes to social indicators like education, health etc. In fact, only 10% students in government
colleges and universities and only 6% people in government jobs are Muslims. As a result, to uplift the Muslims
from such deplorable conditions, the state of Hindu Pradesh comes out with a law, which provided for reservation
to Muslims in all government and government aided institutions. This law is challenged in the High Court of Hindu
Pradesh, as being arbitrary and contrary to the established laws. Can the challenge be successful?

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Decision:

a) Yes, since people from other religions would also start making such demands, which would jeopardize the unity
and integrity of the country.
b) No, since the state has the right to make special laws for the upliftment of the citizens of the country.
c) Yes, since the state cannot make such a law.
d) No, since the Government cannot neglect the minorities.

Q.85) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The master/principal is liable for all acts done by his duly appointed servant/agent for all
acts done by him lawfully in the course of his employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, B, C and D carried on a business in partnership. Currently, the partnership firm was facing
some financial crisis. While making a deal with another company, B bribed the clerk there. Is the partnership firm
vicariously liable?
Decision:

a) No, partnership firm is not liable.


b) Yes, as partners are agent of the firm.
c) Yes, as B can be said to have implied authority for the same.
d) No, as the firm was facing a financial crisis.

Q.86) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A contract which is impossible to perform becomes void.


FACTUAL SITUATION: Surender agreed to deliver a specific quality of rice to Sonakshi identified by both of them.
Before delivery, the rice was burnt by short circuit. Is Surender discharged from the performance of the contract?
Decision:

a) Surender is discharged from performance as the subject matter of the contract is destroyed.
b) Surender is discharged from performance as the subject matter has been specifically identified.
c) Surender is not discharged from performance as he can procure rice from other sources.
d) None of the above.

Q.87) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever dishonestly converts to his own use any movable property is guilty of criminal
misappropriation of property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A finds a Government promissory note belonging to Z, bearing a blank endorsement. A
knowing that the note belongs to Z, keeps it with himself intending to restore it to Z at a future time. Has A
committed criminal misappropriation?
Decision:

a) Yes since he deprived Z from using his property and used it for his own use.
b) No, since he intended to return the property to Z in the future.
c) No, it is theft and not criminal misappropriation.
d) Yes since he deprived Z from using his property.

Q.88) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right
over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking
into account surrounding situation.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Jogi and Prakash were neighbours in a residential locality. Prakash started a typing class in a
part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jogi who could not put up with any kind of continuous noise as he
was 80 years old. He filed a suit against Prakash.
Decision:

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a) Prakash is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house.
b) Prakash is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jogi’s delicate nature because of his age.
c) Prakash is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jogi.
d) None of the above.

Q.89) LEGAL PRINCIPLES:


1. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death or with the intention of causing such
bodily injury as is likely to cause death or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death commits
the offence of culpable homicide.
2. Mens rea and actus reus must concur to result in a crime which is punishable by the law.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B went for shooting. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A induces B to
fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. Has an offence been committed?
Decision:

a) A had mens rea but no actus reus. B had actus reus but no mens rea. No one is guilty.
b) A induced B to fire at the bush with the knowledge that Z is there. A is guilty of culpable homicide but B is not
guilty of any offence.
c) Both A and B are guilty.
d) None of the above.

Q.90) LEGAL PRINCIPLES:


1. The crime of kidnapping involves taking someone away from the custody of their lawful guardian.
2. The crime of abduction involves inducing or forcing somebody to go away from some place against their will.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A steals B’s slave. Is it a crime?
Decision:
I. Kidnapping
II. Abduction
III. Neither
Reason:
(A) Slavery is illegal.
(B) A has taken him away from B’s lawful custody.
(C) A has forced somebody to go with him against his will.
Decision:

a) I (B)
b) II (C)
c) III (A)
d) I (A)

Q.91) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever delivers to another person as genuine any counterfeit currency which he knows
to be counterfeit, but which that other person is not aware of at the time when he received it, is guilty of
counterfeiting currency.
FACTUAL SITUATION: While returning home one day, Roshni realizes that the local shopkeeper has given her a
fake note of Rs. 1,000. Disappointed, she goes to the same shop and buys cosmetics worth Rs. 600. She then passes
the same fake note to the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper while inspecting the note finds out that it is fake. Is Roshni
guilty?
Decision:

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a) No, as she was merely attempting to return the note to the same shopkeeper who gave her the note.
b) No, she is not guilty of any offence as neither did she manufacture the note nor did she circulate it with a view to
deceive the public.
c) Yes, as she attempted to pass on a note which she knew was counterfeit.
d) No, the shopkeeper is guilty as he was the one who circulated the counterfeit note to Roshni.

Q.92) LEGAL PRINCIPLES:


1. To constitute a punishable criminal offence, guilty intention must accompany an illegal act.
2. Criminal mischief means causing damage to public property intentionally or with the knowledge that harm may
occur.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Neel being a Shahrukh Khan fan went for the premier of the movie, Happy New Year. As
usual, he carried his pen–knife, a gift from his dead mother. At the security check, impatient of waiting in the
queue, Neel slunk past the guards and the metal detector when no one was watching. Later, he was apprehended
in the hall and charged for mischief and possession of a weapon when it was expressly forbidden.
Decision:

a) Neel is not criminally liable since he had no intention to commit mischief.


b) Liable for possession of the weapon since it was expressly forbidden and mere possession was enough; although
he might not be liable for mischief as he did not do anything.
c) Neel is not liable since the pen knife had an emotional value and rather the guards should be punished for the
security breach.
d) Liable for both possession of weapon and criminal mischief since he slunk past the guards which shows his
intention to commit the crime.

Q.93) PRINCIPLE: Necessity knows no law, and any person facing any danger may do all that is necessary avert the
same till he can take recourse to public authorities.
FACTS SITUATION: Akshay, a law abiding citizen decided to remove the weed of corruption from Indian society.
One day, he was in a remote Indian village where even basic amenities like schools and hospitals were absent. The
nearest police station was 50 km away. All the government offices were in the state capital which was 500 km
away from the village. However, the village did have a small government clinic with a lone doctor and nurse. He
went to the clinic to get some medicines for himself and there the doctor asked him for bribe before giving him the
medicines. He decided to teach him a lesson and punched him in the face. Can Akshay plead defence of necessity?
Decision:

a) Can plead defence of necessity as he was being bribed which is a crime.


b) Cannot plead defence of necessity as there was no necessity.
c) Can plead defence of necessity as a good democracy as aware and vigilant citizenry forms the basis.
d) Can plead defence of necessity as there was no time to take recourse to public authorities.

Q.94) PRINCIPLE:
1. Preparation to commit an offence is not an offence.
2. After one has finished preparation to commit an offence, any act done towards committing the offence with the
intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence which is by itself an offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A wanted to kill B and had therefore gone to the market to buy explosives to plant in his
house. As soon as he had planted the bomb, he felt guilty and started to remove the bomb but while he was doing
so B saw him and he called the police. Can A be held liable?
Decision:

a) Yes, because he has done something more than mere preparation.

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b) No, because B did not die.


c) Yes, because there existed a mala fide intention.
d) No, because he had removed before anything could happen.

Q.95) Who was the first woman Chief Justice of a High Court?

a) Anna Chandy
b) Leila Seth
c) Gita Mittal
d) Indu Malhotra

Q.96) Which of the following commission was appointed for reviewing the working of the Constitution?

a) Venkatachaliah Commission
b) Kancha Illahiah Commission
c) Punchi Commission
d) Balwant Rai Mehta Commission

Q.97) Inherent powers of the High Court are mentioned under which section of CrPC?

a) Section 185
b) Section 154
c) Section 384
d) Section 482

Q.98) The collegium to appoint the CBI director consists of:

a) Prime Minister; Chief Justice and the leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
b) President; Vice–President and Prime Minister
c) Prime Minister; Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman, Rajya Sabha
d) Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs; Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman, Rajya Sabha

Q.99) ‘Right to fly the National Flag freely with respect and dignity is a fundamental right of a citizen’ was decided
by Supreme Court in which case?

a) I C Golkanath v. State of Punjab


b) A K Gopalan v State of Tami Nadu
c) Naveen Jindal v. Union of India
d) CJAR v. Union of India

Q.100) Central Bureau of Investigation derives its powers from which legislation?

a) Police Act, 1861


b) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
c) Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922
d) Central Reserve Police Force Act, 1949

Q.101) In which case from 2018 did the Supreme Court say that the concept of creamy layer would also apply to
SCs and STs?

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a) Arvind Datar v. Union of India


b) Harish Sreenivasan v. Union of India
c) Jarnail Singh v. Lachmmi Narain Gupta
d) Indu Grover v. Akhil Bhartiya Karamchari Sangh

Q.102) Supreme Court in which case held that ‘seeking votes in the name of religion is a corrupt practice’.

a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India


b) Abhiram Singh v. C.D. Comanchen
c) J. Jayalalitha v Union of India
d) Anil R Dave v. Union of India

Q.103) The Supreme Court struck down section 497 of IPC pertaining to adultery in the case of:

a) K S Puttaswamy v. Union of India


b) Common Cause v. Union of India
c) PUCL v. Union of India
d) Joseph Shine v. Union of India

Q.104) Supreme Court recently banned sales of all BS IV standard vehicles from:

a) 1 April, 2019
b) 1 April, 2020
c) 31 December, 2019
d) 1 January, 2020

Q.105) Supreme Court struck down which Section of the Information Technology Act 2000 did the Supreme Court
strike down as unconstitutional in the case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India?

a) 66 c
b) 66 B
c) 66 A
d) 66

SECTION IV: LOGICAL REASONING


S.106–110) Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the information below.

Five boys – A, B, C, D and E and five girls – P, Q, R, S and T are sitting opposite each other, not necessarily in same
order. The boys are facing south while the girls are facing north. Each boy is carrying a mobile of a different
company – Samsung, Apple, HTC, Nokia and LG; while each girl is wearing a watch of a different company – Rolex,
Tisot, Omega, Titan and Casio, not necessarily in the same order. The boy with Samsung mobile is opposite the girl
who is second to the right of the girl with Rolex watch. R is opposite the boy with Nokia, who is not at any extreme.
D is second to the left of B. Neither D nor B has Samsung. A and the person with Apple are adjacent each other. R is
opposite to A. P, who is wearing Titan sits opposite E, who is left of C. At least, three girls are to the right of R. B has
HTC mobile. Q sits opposite the boy with Apple and is adjacent to girl wearing Tisot but not Rolex. S is immediately
left to the girl wearing Casio.

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Q.106) Who is sitting opposite to Q?

a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E

Q.107) The boy having Samsung mobile is opposite the girl wearing –

a) Tisot
b) Rolex
c) Omega
d) Titan

Q.108) Who is opposite to second to the right of the boy with LG mobile?

a) The girl wearing Omega watch


b) The girl wearing Casio watch
c) The girl wearing Rolex watch
d) The girl wearing Tisot watch

Q.109) Which among the following is true?

a) The girl having Rolex is right at the centre.


b) C sits right to the boy with Apple mobile.
c) P is sitting opposite to the boy having LG mobile
d) The Nokia boy sits opposite Rolex girl.

Q.110) The girl wearing Casio watch is opposite to the boy having –

a) HTC
b) Apple
c) Nokia
d) L.G.

Q.111) Rohil walks from his house. First he walks 20m in north–west direction and then 20m in south–west
direction. Next he walks 20m in south–east direction. Finally, he walks towards his house. In which direction is he
moving?

a) North–West
b) South–East
c) North–East
d) South–West

S.112–114) Directions for Questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight members of a family across 3 generations. Their professions are Doctor, Engineer,
Lawyer, Architect, Teacher, Singer, Dentist and Medical Representative not in any order. There are three couples in
the family.

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Further information is as follows:


1. The Teacher S, is the Sister–in–law of the Lawyer and the mother of the Medical Representative U.
2. P, the Doctor is the grandson of the Engineer.
3. The Architect’s son is married to the Teacher.
4. W is the maternal uncle of P.
5. R, the Engineer is the Father–in–Law of Q who is a singer.

Q.112) What is the profession of V?

a) Architect
b) Lawyer
c) Dentist
d) Cannot be Determined

Q.113) How is Q related to the Medical Representative?

a) Father
b) Cousin
c) Uncle
d) Aunt

Q.114) Which among the following is not one of the couples?

a) Singer–Lawyer
b) Doctor–MR
c) Teacher–Dentist
d) Engr.–Architect

S.115–117) Directions for Questions: Answer the following question based on the information below.

A family consists of only four members A, B, C and D. There is 1 husband, 1 wife, 1 son and 1 daughter. When asked
about their relationship’s the following were the replies–

A: D is my husband. C is my daughter.
B: A is my mother. C is my daughter.
C: A and C are both males. B is my sister.
D: A and C are of same gender. B is my daughter.
It is also known that exactly one of them always speaks the truth and exactly one of them lies.

Q.115) Who always speaks the truth?

a) A
b) C
c) B
d) Data insufficient

Q.116) What is the relation of C with respect to D?

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a) Sister
b) Daughter
c) Son
d) Data insufficient

Q.117) Who always speaks lies?

a) A
b) C
c) D
d) B

S.118–119) Directions for Questions: Read the information below and answer the questions that follow.

Three are 4000 students in a boarding school. Only three newspapers Hind, India and Possible are prescribed to the
students. Every student in the school reads at least one newspaper. The number of readers per newspaper is 1500,
2000 and 2500 respectively. It is also known that 500 read both Hind and India, 800 read both Hind and Possible,
and 1100 read both India and Possible.

Q.118) How many students read all three newspapers?

a) 500
b) 400
c) 800
d) 600

Q.119) How many students read exactly two newspapers?

a) 1700
b) 1200
c) 1300
d) 1500

S.120–122) Directions for Questions:

The Captains of the top 5 teams in the league were seated for a group photograph. The teams were Mumbai,
Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Jaipur. They were wearing jerseys of Orange, Green, Red, Yellow and Blue not in any
particular order. Further information is as follows:

1. The Delhi captain was 2nd to the left of the person wearing the Green Jersey but not at an extreme position.
2. The Mumbai captain was wearing Red and did not have anyone sitting to his right.
3. The captains of Kolkata and Jaipur were not adjacent to each other.
4. The captains wearing Blue and Orange jerseys were at adjacent positions.

Q.120) Which among the following cannot be the colour of the jersey worn by the Delhi captain?

a) Orange
b) Blue
c) Yellow

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d) Cannot be Determined

Q.121) If the Chennai captain wears Blue and is to the immediate left of the captain of Jaipur, what is the colour of
the jersey worn by the Kolkata captain?

a) Green
b) Yellow
c) Orange
d) Cannot be Determined

Q.122) Taking into consideration all the possible combinations of positions and jersey colours, how many
combinations can exist?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

Q.123) Pointing to a photograph, Y says, “He is the only brother of the only daughter of my sister’s maternal
grandmother.” Pointing to another photograph, X says, “he is the only brother of the only daughter of my sister’s
maternal grandmother.” If among the two photographs, one was either of Mr X or Mr Y, and the photograph,
towards which Y was pointing, was not of Mr X, then how is Y related to Mr X?

a) Grandfather
b) Paternal uncle
c) Maternal uncle
d) Can’t say

S.124–127) Directions for Questions: The question given below has a statement followed by two courses of
action numbered I and II, you have to assume everything in–the statement to be true. Then decide which of the
two suggested course of action logically follows for pursuing.

Q.124) Statement: It is estimated that of ten people murdered using a gun, 8 are killed by guns that are freely sold
as sporting equipment.
Courses of Action:
I. Sale of lethal guns as sport equipment must be restricted.
II. Before sale of a gun to a person, his/her background must be thoroughly checked.

a) lf only l follows
b) lf only II follows
c) lf both land II follow
d) lf neither l follows nor II follows

Q.125) Statement: Solar panels used for harnessing solar energy have a useful life of 30 years after which they
convert into waste.
Courses of Action:
I. Sustainable means of recycling solar panels must be developed.
II. More sources of renewable energy must be researched upon.

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a) lf only l follows
b) lf only II follows
c) lf both land II follow
d) lf neither l follows nor II follows

Q.126) Statement: It has been observed from crime data of past 15 years that petty crime sees a sharp drop during
the Durga Puja festivities which last for about 10 days during October every year. This is attributed to gainful
employment of most people during the festivities.
Courses of Action:
I. Long term opportunities of gainful employment of people must be thought of and generated.
II. More days of festivities must be planned throughout the year so that people can be gainfully employed.

a) lf only l follows
b) lf only II follows
c) lf both land II follow
d) lf neither l follows nor II follows

Q.127) Statement: Fatalities in road accidents are significantly more because of not following safety measures than
because of the severity of the accidents.
Courses of Action:
I. Extensive awareness about safety measures to be followed while on roads must be conducted.
II. Traffic personnel must be trained and traffic check posts must be equipped with first aid means.

a) lf only l follows
b) lf only II follows
c) lf both land II follow
d) lf neither l follows nor II follows

S.128–130) Directions for Questions: Each question has a main statement, followed by four statements labelled
i, ii, iii, iv. choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement implies the second, and the two
statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

Q.128) Whenever the coffee is Azera, Sunil drinks it with cinnamon powder.
(i) Sunil is having coffee with cinnamon powder,
(ii) Sunil is having Azera.
(iii) Sunil is having coffee without cinnamon powder.
(iv) Sunil is not having coffee.

a) (ii), (i)
b) (i), (ii)
c) (iii), (ii)
d) (iv), (ii)

Q.129) Each student will graduate to become a doctor.


(i) Mohini is a student.
(ii) Mohini was a student.
(iii) Mohini is a doctor.
(iv) Mohini will become a doctor.

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a) (iii), (ii)
b) (i), (iv)
c) (iii), (i)
d) All of these

Q.130) Either the Rani will become the CM or she will quit politics.
(i) Rani became CM
(ii) Rani did not become CM.
(iii) Rani quit politics.
(iv) Rani did not quit politics.

a) (ii), (i)
b) (iii), (i)
c) (i), (iv)
d) (ii), (iii)

S.131–134) Directions for Questions: Each question contains four arguments–of three sentences each. Choose as
your answer the set in which the last statement is a logical conclusion of the first two.

Q.131)
(i) All sparrows are birds. All parrots are birds. Some sparrows may be parrots.
(ii) Some ice is shiny. No shiny is black. No ice is black.
(iii) Some maps are geography. All geography is study. Some study are maps.
(iv) No two men are the same. Ramu and Shamu are twins. Ramu and Shamu are not the same.

a) (i)
b) (ii)
c) (i), (iii)
d) (iii), (iv)

Q.132)
(i) All animals are wild. All wild are loved. All loved are animals.
(ii) Some UFO’s exist. All that exist are extinct. All UFO’s are extinct.
(iii) Every man thinks. All who think are intelligent. Ashok is intelligent.
(iv) Pushy are loathed. Zippy is pushy. Zippy is loathed.

a) (i)
b) (ii)
c) (iii)
d) (iv)

Q.133)
(i) No man is human. All humans are immortal. No man is mortal.
(ii) Some two are three. Some three are four. Some two are four.
(iii) Some rain is torrent. All torrent is drizzle. Some rain is drizzle.
(iv) Diamond is coal. Diamond is forever. Coal is forever.

a) (i)
b) (ii)

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c) (iii)
d) (iv)

Q.134)
(i) All songs jingle. All jingle mingle. Some songs mingle.
(ii) Some days are night. All nights that are days are stellar. Some stellar are days.
(iii) Some quick are fast. Bruce Lee is fast. Bruce Lee is quick.
(iv) The joyous jump. Raghu jumps. Raghu is joyous.

a) (i), (ii)
b) (i), (iii)
c) (iv)
d) (iii), (iv)

S.135–140) Directions for Questions: The questions are based on the information given in each of the questions.

Q.135) With the aim of containing losses and improving efficiency, the Railways have been improving the diesel
and electric engines they use. The development has led to increase in engines’ capacity so they can pull more
number of coaches of both goods and passenger trains. Along with increased pulling power, the fuel efficiency of
the engines has also been improved with the Railways now incurring lower fuel costs.
Which of the following best completes the passage given above?

a) The profitability has still not increased since the share of station and passenger services management in the
overall costs is almost 80%.
b) The profitability has increased because the Railway can now boast of much improved engines.
c) A lot needs to be done since the country now wants to bring in bullet trains.
d) The efforts of the Railways in improving the engines is commendable but if data of other countries such as of the
USA is to be examined, the economy is moving towards road transport.

Q.136) According to most photographic review sites, the new mirror less Sony A6500 camera comes with an all–
weather body, has a better performing sensors than its predecessors, and incorporates a high continuous shooting
mode. Outperforming the competitors’ models, the reviewers have no doubt that this model will be one of the
bestselling models from Sony.
The following support the conclusion made above except?

a) Sony cameras have historically faced tough competition from Nikon and Canon which were more popular with
customers.
b) Nikon and Canon still have a wide range of low priced third party lenses that can be used on their cameras.
c) With improved optics developed by Sony, its A6500 gives exceptional results even in low light conditions.
d) Sony is the largest supplier of imaging sensors used in mobile phones and is well known for its expertise in
manufacturing high quality sensors.

Q.137) Kirana King a grocery retailer in Mirzapur, the carpet town, had been paying its 150 employees the
minimum wages stipulated by the government. After an upward revision in the consumer price index, the
government substantially increased the minimum wages and immediately enforced the new wages on all
employers. Kirana King feared a drop in its profitability because of its decision to raise prices to accommodate
higher wage costs. However, the retailer in fact experienced a minor increase in its profits six months after the
implementation of the new wages.
Which of the following helps resolve the apparent discrepancy in the paragraph given above?

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a) The retailers operating costs other than wages too increased substantially after implementation of the new
wages.
b) The Kirana King has not faced competition from any new retailer during the last five years.
c) A recently published industry report on retail business found that the real estate costs which impacted the retail
business earlier was no more an important factor in overall costs.
d) A large majority of people living in Mirzapur are carpet industry workers who get paid minimum wages by their
employers.

Q.138) The IIM’s admit students to their Management PG programmes based on multiple selection criteria. All
those who apply for admission must appear at the entrance test and clear the cut–off marks. They should have
passed a 4 year UG programme or appearing at the final examination and must have scored or score a minimum of
50% aggregate marks. The IIM’s give additional credit for students’ participation in extra and co–curricular
activities. The applicants must also be good at communication skills. The admission process is considered one of
the toughest for PG admissions.
Which of the following is inconsistent with the information given above?

a) Ashok with a rich extra–curricular record had 76% in UG and is studying Financial Management at IIM Allahabad.
b) Rita is studying Human Resource Management at IIM and has no co or extra–curricular record.
c) Sita, a college topper and a national award winner for exceptional social service had one mark less than the cut
off in admission test and is studying Operations Management at a lowly ranked IIM.
d) Bashok has always scored more than 80% marks in his exams and has always won scholarships at both school
and college. During his UG, he was the University topper and was honoured by the President but has no
extracurricular record to his credit and is studying Marketing Management at a top IIM.

Q.139) While most developed economies had a GDP growth rate in the range or 1 to 2.5%, India grew at a steady
6.5 to 8%. India must shore up its participation in international politics since in the future, the country will be a
bigger economy than the present day developed countries.
Which of the following identifies a faulty assumption in the argument given above?

a) The GDP growth rates of different countries will remain stable in the foreseeable future.
b) Participation in international affairs is an essential pre–condition to a rapidly growing economy.
c) GDP growth rates are an important parameter in assessing a country’s political stability.
d) All of the above.

Q.140) While working at the excavation site of the ancient civilization of the Myllions, the archaeologists
discovered more ruins under the site. The archeologists carefully uncovered the layer of the remains of the
Myllions habitation to examine the layers below. They found out something they had never expected– the layers
below had remnants of another civilisation, perhaps more developed than that of the Myllions’. They named this
civilization the Byllions. The less developed Myllions must have conquered and destroyed the Byllions civilization to
use it as the foundation to its civilization.
Which of the following is true of the evidence provided in the argument given above?

a) It proves the argument’s conclusion.


b) It goes against the argument’s conclusion.
c) The evidence neither supports not refutes the argument’s conclusion.
d) None of the above.

Section V: Quantitative Aptitude

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Q.141) After becoming 6 times world champion, Mary kom got few gifts from her three friends– Saina, Saniya and
Humpy. Gifts received from Saina are 6 more than twice of the gifts received from Humpy. Also, Gift received from
Saniya is 9 more than half of the gift received from Saina. If Mary Kom received total 70 gifts from these three
friends, Find the difference in the gifts from Saina and Humpy.

a) 13
b) 17
c) 29
d) 19

Q.142) Fresh dates contain 60% water by weight while dried dates contain 10% water by weight. To obtain 250
gram of dried dates, how many kg of fresh grapes should be kept under the sun?

a) 12/7 kg
b) 16/9 Kg
c) 9/16 kg
d) 7/12 kg

Q.143) A group of men decided to do a job in 4 days. But since 5 men dropped out every day from second day
onwards, the job got competed at the end of 5th day. How many men were there at the beginning?

a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200

Q.144) In a race of 500 m, M beat T by 50 m and S by 100 m. If T and S are running a race of 900 m with exactly
same speed as before, then by how many meters will T beat S?

a) 100 m
b) 120 m
c) 200 m
d) 240 m

Q.145) Total expenses of a picnic trip are partly fix and partly depend on the number of students going for the trip.
If 20 students went for trip, the average expense per student is Rs.450. While if 30 students decided to go for the
trip, average expense per student is Rs.400. What is the average expense per student when 40 students decide to
go for the trip?

a) Rs.350
b) Rs.375
c) Rs.320
d) Rs.300

Q.146) Three sections A, B and C of a class took geography test. Average score of section A, B and C are 40, 35 and
36 respectively out of 50. Average score of A and B is 37 while average of B and C is 35.4. What is the average score
of A, B and C?

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a) 40.5
b) 34.8
c) 35.5
d) 36.7

Q.147) Akshay has a bag of maximum carrying capacity of 20 kg. He went to rob a jewelry store. In the store he
found lot of necklace and bangles. Each necklace cost Rs.90000 and each bangle cost Rs.1 lakh 35 thousand. But
weight of each necklace is 250 gram while weight of each bangle is 450 gram. What should he collect to get the
maximum wealth?

a) 44 Bangles
b) 80 Necklace
c) 36 Bangles and 15 Necklace
d) 64 Bangles and 30 Necklace

Q.148) In how many ways atleast 3 girls can be selected out of 6 girls?

a) 20
b) 35
c) 15
d) 42

Q.149) ABCD is a square such that there are 5 points on AB, 4 points on BC and 6 points on CA. A triangle is to be
formed from these points such that all three vertices of triangle lies on AB, BC and CA respectively. How many such
triangles can be formed?

a) 90
b) 120
c) 150
d) 180

Q.150) In an Election campaign of Bharitya Congress Dal in Rajesthan, 102 campaigners came from Gujrat, 153
from Delhi and 187 came from Maharashtra. They are divided into teams of N members each such that each team
has members from same state. How many minimum such teams can be made?

a) 17
b) 36
c) 26
d) 40

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