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MORE PRATICE FOR GRADE 9

PRACTICE TEST 1
1. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Jean cloth _________from cotton in the 18th century.
A. made B. is made C. is being made D. was made
2. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. watches B. misses C. makes D. wishes
3. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
The students are looking forward to _________the result of the final examination.
A. receives B. receive C. receiving D. received
4. Choose the sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
He finished his exercises on time.
A. His exercises were finish on time. B. His exercises were finished on time.
C. His exercises are finished on time. D. His exercises was finished on time.
5. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
They suggested that we _________to the gym after work.
A. should go B. going C. go D. A & C
6. Choose the best answer that is made from the given cues.
Are / we / fond / play / computer / not / grames
A. Are you not fond of playing computer games? B. We are not fond of play computer
games.
C. We are not fond of playing computer games. D. We are not fond playing computer
gamers.
7. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. book B. pool C. school D. soon
8. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
It’s very kind _________you to help me.
A. of B. to C. with D. for
9. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
You’re interested in fashion so much, _________?
A. are you B. do you C. aren’t you D. don’t you
10. Choose the sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
“Why do you come here late?” she asked me.
A. She asked me why I come there late. B. She asked me why I came there late.
C. She asked me why I came here late. D. She asked me why you came there late.
11. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Minh asked me what he _________do.
A. has to B. had to C. will D. can
12. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
They have known each other _________they were children.
A. for B. while C. to D. since
13. Choose the best answer that is made from the given cues.
every / for / to / morning / health / your / day / do / good / is / exercise
A. To do your morning exercises everyday is good for health.
B. To do exercises everyday morning is good for your health.
C. Do morning exercises for everyday is good to your health.
D. To do morning exercises everyday is good for your healt.
14. Choose the sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
“Can you play the piano?:” he asked the girl.
A. He asked the girl if she can play the piano. B. He asked the girl if he could play the piano.
C. He asked the girl if she could play the piano. D. He asked the girl if she played the piano.
Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the blanks.
My village is generally called Langde which consists of Upper Langde and Lower Lane.
My own village is Upper Langde, 32 kilometers away from Kaili city and 17 kilometers away
from Leishan Country. My hometown is located at the foot of a scenic mountain with a
murmuring crystal clear river in front.Groups of waterwheels by the river side produce beautiful
folk songs day and night.
My father said that we have this festival runs for three consecutive years. People do not
kill fattened pigs during the first and second years but only in the final year. So the most special
year is the last one, namely the 13th year. As you can imagine, it is not easy to see many in one
lifetime. I can’t remember what the last one, 13 years ago, was like. Fortunately my village held
the festival from 22nd February to 2nd March this year (2004) and the one this year was a very
spectacular.
15. The writer’s village is...........................................................
A. in Upper Langde B. 32 km away from Leishan County
C. in Lower Lane D. 17km away from Kaili city planned
16.What is NOT mentioned in the description of the author’s hometown?
A. It produced beautiful folk songs B. It is near a river
C. You can go there on foot D. It is near a mountain.
17. When are the fattened pigs killed?
A. Every thirteen years of the festival. B. During the first year of the festival.
C. During the second year of the festival D. In the final year of the festival.
18. The word “ namely “ can be replaced by.................................................
A. such as B. that is C. like D. for example
19. When will the next festival be held?
A. In 2005 B. In 2006 C. In 2007 D. In 2017
20. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. advice B. machine C. Chinese D. decide
21. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
They are used _________outdoors and under pressure.
A. to work B. to be working C. to working D. worked
22. Choose the underlined word or phrase that is in correct.
Did your house built a long time ago?
A B C D
23. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Do you mind if I turn _________the T.V? I want to watch the news.
A. off B. out C. down D. on
24. Choose the sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
She doesn’t go to china with us.
A. We wish she goes to China with us. B. We wish she did went to China with us.
C. We wish she went to China with us. D. We wish she can go to China with us.
25. Choose the best answer that is made from the given cues.
conutries / not / those / many / to / plan / agreed / the / of
A. Many of those countries agreed not to the plan.
B. Many of those countries not agreed to the plan.
C. Not many of those countries agreed to the plan.
D. Not of many those countries agreed to the plan.
26. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
_________him this book if he comes.
A. Gave B. Give C. Giving D. Given
27. Choose the underlined word or phrase that is in correct.
When she came to my house this morning, I still slept.
A B C D
28. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
She asked me what _________.
A. is my name B. my name is C. my name was D. my name
29. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
- An: “I’ve passed my exam.” - Ba: “_________.”
A. Good luck B. It’s nice of you to say so
C. That’s a good idea. D. Congratulations!
30. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
- Mary: “That’s a very nice skirt you are wearing.” - Julia: “_________.”
A. That’s nice B. I like it C. That’s all right D. I’m glad you like
it
31. Choose the best answer that is made from the given cues.
enough / that / money / car / we / to / didn’t / buy / have
A. We have didn’t enough money to buy that car.
B. We didn’t have enough that money to buy car.
C. We didn’t have enough money to buy that car.
D. We didn’t have money enough to buy that car.
32. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Let’s have a drink, _________?
A. shall we B. will we C. shall you D. do we
33. Choose the underlined word or phrase that is in correct.
The weather was bad because we had to cancel our picnic.
A B C D
34. Choose the sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
We have learnt Enlish for 4 years.
A. We started to learn English 4 years. B. We started learning English 4 years ago.
C. We have learned to start English 4 years. D. We have started to learn English 4
years ago.
35. Choose the best answer that is made from the given cues.
afternoon / washes / every / he / his / Sunday / car
A. He every washes his car Sunday afternoon. B. He washes his car Sunday every afternoon.
C. He washes his car every afternoon Sunday. D. He washes his car every Sunday afternoon.
36. Choose the underlined word or phrase that is in correct.
He lived with his grandmother since he was ten.
A B C D
37. Choose the best answer that is made from the given cues.
What / favorite / TV / programs?
A. What are your favorite TV programs? B. What is the your favorite TV programs?
C. What are your favorite programs TV? D. What is your favorite TV programs?
38. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. arranged B. wanted C. climbed D. stayed
39. Choose the underlined word or phrase that is in correct.
Nam asked me if I want to speak to a foreigner.
A B C D
40. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Water _________at 100 degrees Celsius.
A. boiling B. boil C. is boiling D. boils
41. Choose the underlined word or phrase that is in correct.
He was punished because he did the test careless yesterday.
A B C D
Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage
Rice is (42)______by Vietnamese people every day. It often (43)______in tropical
countries such as Vietnam, Thailand or Malaysia. The Chinese have also been growing rice for
(44)______years. The seeds are planted in special beds to grow into young rice plants. Then
they are taken to fields covered (45)______muddy water called paddies. The fields of rice look
very (46)_____. After 3 or 5 months, the rice is ready to be picked. People often drain away
water before collecting rice. Eating rice is a special action in the world. They don’t use
spoons or forks to enjoy bowls of rice. (47)______, they use two short sticks known as
chopsticks to put rice into their mouths. China and Vietnam are the two countries in which
people use chopsticks very well.

42. A. used B. taken C. eaten D. boiled


43. A. grows B. keeps C. plants D. stays
44. A. thousands B. thousand C. thousand of D. thousands of
45. A. in B. by C. with D. of
46. A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautifully D. the beauty
47. A. However B. Moreover C. Besides D. Instead
48. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
A. who B. what C. where D. why
49. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
I wish there_________ any natural disasters in our world.
A. are B. were C. aren’t D. weren’t
50. Choose the sentence which has the same meaning as the given one.
He often played the piano at night.
A. He used to playing the piano at night. B. He is used to play the piano at night.
C. He used to play the piano at night. D. He is used to playing the piano at
night.

PRACTICE TEST 2
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others. (1pt)
1. A. ploughs B. contacts C. stops D. talks
2. A. subject B. lunar C. erupt D. public
3. A. label B. locate C. gather D. inspiration
4. A. southern B. sunbathing C. breathe D. thunder

II. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete sentences. (2pts)


1. English is one of ______ subjects for children in Vietnam.
A. primary B. compulsory C. optional D. national
2. The air is polluted ______ there’s too much traffic.
A. however B. Because C. therefore D. but
3. – “I suggest we go on a picnic on the other side of the river.” –“______.”
A. It’s a nice day! B. Have a good trip! C. Great idea! D.
Congratulations!
4. Earthquakes, volcanoes, hurricanes and floods are all ______.
A. natural resources B. natural material C. natural disasters D. natural
causes
5. To save energy in the kitchen, we should prepare food carefully before ______ the stove.
A. looking after B. looking for C. going on D. turning on
6. ______ believe that we should preserve the tropical rainforests in the world.
A. Conservationists B. Aliens C. Plumbers D.
Consumers
7. Your brother read this article on the website last night, ______?
A. didn’t he B. couldn’t he C. did he D. does he
8. My friend - Paul, _______ sings Western folk songs very well, can compose songs.
A. which B. whom C. who D. whose

III. Give correct tense of the verbs in brackets. (1pt)


1. If you (sell) _____________________ more products, you’d earn more money.
2. Mrs Lien (teach) _____________________ in this school since 1999.
3. Lan wishes she (speak) _____________________ English more fluently.
4. “Nhandan” newspaper (publish)_____________________ every day. It’s a daily newspaper.
5. Maryam wishes she (have) ………………..a trip to Vietnam again next year.
IV. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets to complete each sentence. (1pt)
1. Vietnam’s New Year is ______________known as the Lunar New Year or Tet in Vietnamese.
(OFFICE)
2. This book is not _________________. (AVAIL)
3. There will be a _________________ of fresh water in a few decades. (SHORT)
4. Nowadays, people are seriously _________________ rain forests of the Earth.
(DESTRUCTION)
5. We all know that using our cars causes air ………….. , but we still do that. (POLLUTE)
V. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word from the box to complete the
passage. (1pt)
celebrate reached buildings turned house
gathered

Thousands of people (1) ___________ at the August Revolution Square in front of the Hanoi
Opera House from 8:30 p.m to 9:30 p.m on March 29 to join the 2014 Earth Hour Campaign.
The lights and unnecessary electrical appliances of the (2) ___________, shops and local
families around the Hoan Kiem Lake and the Hanoi Opera House were (3) ___________ off
during one hour of the campaign. A wide variety of unique arts performances were held at the
Square to (4) ____________ this year’s Earth Hour.
This is the sixth time Vietnam responds to the Earth Hour campaign launched by the World
Wild Fund for Nature (WWF). ‘Let’s unite to save the Earth’ is the message that this year
campaign conveys to people around the world.

VI. Read the passage and answer the question. (1 pt)


Vo Nguyen Giap (25 August 1911 – 4 October 2013) was a General in the Vietnam
People's Army and a politician. He first grew to prominence during World War II, where he
served as the military leader of the Viet Minh resistance against the Japanese occupation of
Vietnam. Giap was a principal commander in two wars: the First Indochina War (1946–54) and
the Vietnam War (1960–1975). He participated in the following historically significant
battles: Lang Son (1950), Hoa BIih (1951–52), Dien Bien Phu (1954), the Tet Offensive (1968),
the Easter Offensive (1972), and the final Ho Chi Minh Campaign (1975).
Giap was taught at home by his father before going to the village school. His precocious
intelligence meant that he was soon transferred to the district school and in 1924, at the age of
thirteen, he left home to attend the Quốc Học (also known in English as the “National
Academy”), a French-run lycée in Hue, earned a bachelor's degree in law with a major in
political economy.
While studying at university, Giap had taken lodgings with Professor Dang Thai Minh, whose
daughter, Nguyen Thi Minh Giang (also cited as Nguyen Thi Quang Thai), he had first met at
school in Hue. She too had learned nationalism from her father and had joined the revolutionary
activities which Giap was involved with.
1. When did General Giap die?
__________________________________________________________________
2. Did his mother teach him before going to the village school?
__________________________________________________________________
3. At what age was he when he left home to attend Quoc Hoc?
__________________________________________________________________
4. Who did he first meet at school in Hue?
__________________________________________________________________

VII. Rewrite these sentences so that the meaning doesn’t change. (1pt)
1. He often played played the piano at night.
-> He used................................................................
2. “Do you like traditional music, Mai?” Linh asked.
-> Linh asked ____________________________
3. They must answer these questions carefully.
-> These questions __________________________________________
4. My mother spends three hours doing the housework every day.
-> It takes _____________________________________________
5. Because of the heavy rain, we couldn’t go to school yesterday.
-> We couldn’t ______________________________
VIII. Use the suggestions to complete the sentences. (1 pt)
1. I wish / my entrance exam / not be / difficult.
__________________________________________________
2. My father / tell / us / not go out / the evening.
___________________________________________________________
3. The book / I / give / him / yesterday / very interesting.
____________________________________________________________

IX- In about 60 – 80 words, write a paragraph about the importance of English in our life.
(1 pt)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………

PRACTICE TEST 3
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. A. precious B. preparation C. pretty D. repetition
2. A. architect B. parachute C. choir D. psychology

3. A. treason B. reason C. season D. jealous


4. A. aggressive B. suggest C. energy D. garbage
5. A. measure B. vision C. pleasure D. pension
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.
1. A. official B. literacy C. inventory D. stationery
2. A. diversity B. severe C. ecosystem D. courageous
3. A. prediction B. compulsory C. intelligent D. judgement
4. A. valuable B. entertain C. honesty D. mountain.
5. A. realize B. product C. mechanic D. separate
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR


I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the blanks.
1. It is recommended that he _______ this course
A. took B. takes C. take D. taking
2. Various societies define _______ in many rather complex ways.
A. that is successful B. what success is C. that success is D. what is success
3. I could not turn in my paper on time because my word processor _______.
A. fell down B. turned down C. tore down D. broke down
4. “You must always _______ us the truth” the judge said to the man.
A. tell B. confess C. speak D. say
5. Her father is a _______ drinker. He is always drinking.
A. strong B. heavy C. addictive D. capable
6. Don’t set off fireworks too closely to your house, _______?
A. do you B. don’t you C. will you D. won’t you
7. Trains stop here in order to _______ passengers only.
A. pick up B. get off C. pull up D. pull in
8. In recent years, more and more people _______ for things with credit cards.
A. pay B. are paid C. are paying D. have been paying
9. He was the first person _______ the fire.
A. discover B. to discover C. discovering D. discovered
10. “Who was the man with you yesterday?” - “He was _______.”
A. the next door man B. the man next to the door
C. the man next by the door D. the man next door
11. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” -Anna: “_______!”
A. Better luck next time B. So poor C. Congratulations D. That
was nice of them
12. You can _______ your sister to our party tonight.
A. bring B. carry C. take D. get
13. You need more exercise, so you should _______ golf.
A. carry out B. take in C. turn up D. take up
14. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _______ for me?
A. increase B. enlargement C. expansion D. extension
15. His roses won the first ________in the local flower competition.
A. prize B. award C. cup D. reward
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

II. There are TEN mistakes in the passage. Each numbered line in the right column has
one. Find and correct them.
Your answer:
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is as (1) …………..
complicated as it is serious. It is complicated because of much pollution …….
is caused by things that benefit people. For example, exhaust of (2) …………..….
automobiles causes a large percent of all air pollution. However, the …
automobile provides transportation for million of people. Factories (3) ……………...
discharge much of material that pollutes air and water, but factories give …
employment to the large number of people. (4) ………………
Thus, to end or great reduce pollution immediately, people would have (5) ………………
to stop using many things that benefit them. Most the people do not (6) ………………
want to do that, of course. Nevertheless, pollution can be gradual (7) ………………
reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways (8) ………………
to less the way of pollution that such things like automobiles and (9) ………………
factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that request (10) ……………..
businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting
activities.
III. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the given word.
1. He feels sad about his _______ result in the examination. SATISFY
2. The_______ of this factory are widely consumed in this country. PRODUCE
3. You must keep on working with him no matter how much you ______. AGREE
4. Film festivals are_______ divided into categories like drama, documentary or TYPICAL
animation.
5. He enjoyed _______ with friends and it cost nothing. SOCIAL
6. I have just bought a replacement for one of my favorites which _______ MYSTERY
disappeared.
7. Gift exchange is _______ expression of social relations. SIGNIFY
8. I try not to remember this ______ experience that only leaves me with unhappy FRIGHTEN
thoughts.
9. The boy _______ asked for permission to go out with his friends. REPEAT
10. British Rail apologized for the _______ of the 4.20 to Bath. CANCEL

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION


I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in each numbered blank in the following
passage.
NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE
British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on
(1)_______ planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed
a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell
if planets 50 (2) _______ years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (3) _______, NASA
scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his
telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a
(4)_______ of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be
(5)_______ around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is
actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (6)_______
processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a
planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take
detailed photographs of the planets it (7) _______, but Penny believes a second- generation telescope
could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (8) _______
galaxy, even though these planets lie (9)_______ our reach for the moment. The European Space
Agency will make its decision (10) ______ Darwin within three years.
1. A. another B. other C. others D. the other
2. A. light B. lighten C. lightening D. lighting
3. A. following B. after C. next D. later
4. A. price B. schedule C. charge D. budget
5. A. driven B. fetched C. launched D. taken
6. A. central B. centre C. middle D. heart
7. A. invents B. searches C. discovers D. looks
8. A. alone B. same C. one D. own
9. A. out B. toward C. beyond D. over
10. A. of B. on C. about D. with
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to the
questions.
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in
dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not
very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby
planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts
in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave.
With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at
the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of
the radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By
determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can
determine the distance between the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its
name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the
distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar
is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and
storms.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar.
C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
2. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides locations of objects?
A. Shape B. Speed C. Size D. Weight
3. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. heat C. sound D. radio
4. The word tracking in the passage most closely means _______.
A. sending B. repairing C. ranging D. searching for
5. What might be inferred from the passage about radar?
A. It has improved navigational safety. B. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
C. It takes the place of a radio. D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

III. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word in the following passage.
The idea that a blind person could drive a car sounds crazy. And the concept of someone who
can’t see driving a car at almost 150 miles per hour sounds even (1) _______. Miranda Naylor, a
blind accountant from Southport, has done exactly that in an attempt to (2) _______ money for
charity. Mrs. Naylor drove (3) _______ sports car for two miles in a straight line along the runway of
a disused airfield. She was in radio contact with her husband Pete Naylor, (4) _______ was able to
give her directions and advice in this way. Her amazing achievement is expected to raise about
£50,000, which will be donated (5) _______ a company that trains dogs for the blind. Mrs. Naylor
has been blind (6) _______ she was six years old and she still has some visual memories of the
world (7) _______ her. She admits that not having her sight makes her life awkward at times. She
believes that if you are disabled in any way, you shouldn’t waste time (8) _______ sorry for yourself.
“It makes a lot of sense to keep busy” she says. “Achieving (9)_______ can be a great source of self
confidence”. Miranda is now looking for a new challenge and (10) _______ like to ride a motorbike.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION IV: WRITING


I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.
1. I find his handwriting very hard to read.
 I have …………………………………………………………………..………………………..

2. He got down to writing a letter as soon as he returned from his work.
 No sooner
………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Success depends on your hard work.
 The harder ………………………………………………………………………………………
4. “If I were you, I wouldn’t accept his marriage proposal”, said Nam to Lan.
 Nam …………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. No matter how hard I tried, I could not open the window.
 Try ……………………………………………………………………………………..……
II. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the given
word. Do not change the given word.
1. The fridge is completely empty. LEFT
 ………………………………………….………………
2. It is pointless to have that old typewriter repaired. WORTH
 ………………………………….………………
3. Frank never pays any attention to my advice. NOTICE
 …………………………………….………………
4. John only understood very little of what the teacher said. HARDLY
 …………………………………….………………
5. Her ability to run a company really impresses me. IMPRESSED
 ……………………………….………………

III. Write a composition on the following topic (about 150-200 words)


Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
It is better for children to grow up in the countryside than in a big city.

PRACTICE TEST 4
Chọn từ (ứng với A, hoặc B, C, D) có phần gạch chân được phát âm khác với 3 từ còn lại:

1. A. looked B. finished C. rented D. passed


2. A. puppet B. plumber C. thunder D. humor

Chọn từ (ứng với A, hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí
khác với 3 từ còn lại:

3. A. precious B. depend C. cotton D. publish


4. A. remote B. predict C. collapse D. damage

Chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau:

5. When the weather is too hot for long trousers, people often wear ……with a T-shirt.
A. shorts B. blouses C. sweaters D. suits
6. There was no football match on VTV3, so I turned to another …… [tune in to]
A. media B. television C. channel D. number
7. Tet is the most important ……for Vietnamese people.
A. celebration B. celebrate C. celebrated D. celebrates
8. The Kimono is a Japanese ……costume.
A. tradition B. traditions C. traditional D. traditionally
9. The students are very …. that they are going to the countryside.
A. excited B. exciting C. excite D. escitedly
10. Who will look ……the baby while we go out?
A. out B. up C. on D. after
11. In 1995, a huge earthquake ……severe damage to Kobe city, Japan.
A. has caused B. caused C. causes D. cause
12. We usually ……our grandparents on summer vacations.
A. to visit B. visited C. visiting D. visit
13. He’s living in Hanoi. He ……there since 2010.
A. lived B. lives C. has lived D. is living
14. If he ……phone this afternoon, I will phone him this evening.
A. doesn’t B. won’t C. didn’t D. not
15. Children dislike …..to the dentist.
A. go B. goes C. went D. going
16. My brother works for a company…. makes glass bottles.
A. it B. which C. who D. they
17. The damaged bridge was ……by the workers two weeks ago.
A. repaired B. repairing C. repair D. repairs
18. There used …..a banyan tree in my village.
A. be B. to be C. being D. been
19. Nga is a student in HCM City. She is talking to Maryam, a Malaysian student.
Nga: “Do you live in a city, too?” - Maryam: “………”
A. The two cities are the same. B. Pleased to meet you, Nga.
C. Oh yes, very much. D. Yes. I live in Kuala Lumpur.
20. I don’t know French. I wish I …… speak French.
A. will B. could C. can D. may
21. She asked me …..I liked pop music.
A. if B. that C. do D. did
22. It rains a lot ……June.
A. for B. in C. on D. at

23. Mai and Linda are talking about how to save electricity.
Mai: “I think we should turn off all the fans before leaving the classroom.”
Linda: “………”
A. That’s a good idea. B. No, thanks.
C. How far? D. Do you like it?
24. Mai and Linda are roomates. They are talking about their tommorow’s plan.
Linda: “ I’m clothes shopping tomorrow.” - Mai: “ ………”
A. Are they in the town centre? B. What do they need to buy?
C. How long is it? D. Can I leave a message?

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A, hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống
từ 25 đến 28.

Dear Mike,
I’m sorry you (25) …. come to my party yesterday. Jon told me you had a very bad cold and
you had to stay (26) …. bed. Are you feeling better now?
It was a very good (27) …. ; the nicest I have ever had. Lots of my friends were there and they
gave me some lovely presents. I will tell you more about the party when you come to school (28)
…. Monday.
Love,
Lorenzo

25. A. could B. couldn’t C. not D. do


26. A. in B. at C. of D. to
27. A. person B. place C. party D. food
28. A. from B. next C. in D. last

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A, hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câutừ 29
đến 32.

AIR POLLUTION
Pollution is the process of making something dirty. Sometimes, the air becomes dirty from
natural causes. If a volcano erupts, it will fill the air with gases, pieces of ash and smoke. People
often cause the air to become polluted. When garbage becomes old, a gas called methane fills the
air. Cars fill the air with fumes. A lot of factories emit poisons into the air. Weapons of war also
add toxic gases into the air. To decrease air pollution, air quality standards, like Clean Air Act,
were enacted in 1963 and then some pollutants have been reduced.

29. A volvano erupting is a(n) …. cause of air pollution.


A. natural B. industrial C. dirty D. human
30. According to the passage, methane is a gas from …..
A. volcanoes B. old garbage C. cars D. weapons
31. The word “toxic” in line 5 can be best replaced by ……
A. natural B. smoky C. poisonous D. useful
32. What does the word “it” in line 2 refer to?
A. pollution B. process C. natural cause D. volcano erupting

Chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi các sau:

33. Although I looked into every drawer, …….


A. and my keys were under the bed B. I found my keys under the bed
C. but I didn’t find my keys D. I couldn’t find my keys
34. The word jeans comes from a kind of material …..
A. was made in Europe B. that it was made in Europe
C. which was made in Europe D. in Europe it was made
35. What about going to the cinema?
A. I suggest that we may to go to the cinema. B. I suggest that we will not go to the cinema.
C. I suggest about go to the cinema. D. I suggest that we should go to the
cinema.
36. Mai is very shy, so she doesn’t enjoys parties.
A. If Mai were shy, she enjoyed parties. B. If Mai isn’t very shy, she would enjoy parties.
C. If Mai weren’t shy, she would enjoy parties. D. If Mai were shy, she will enjoy parties.

Chọn phương án (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ / cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa:

37. The journey took a long time because the train travelled so slow.
A B C D
38. The walk to the village was very interesting, wasn’t that?
A B C D
39. Secondly, wearing uniforms help students feel equal in many ways.
A B C D
40. Our plane arrived on New York at 6:30 yesterday evening.
A B C D

PRACITCE TEST 5
A. Pronunciation (10 points)

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. table B. vegetable C. innovation D. stage
2. A. ghost B. most C. lost D. post
3. A. aviation B. language C. attraction D. applicant
4. A. lecturer B. inventor C. medium D. president
5. A. age B. college C. change D. altogether

II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the
others. (5 points)
1. A. interesting B. surprising C. amusing D. successful
2. A. understand B. engineer C. benefit D. Vietnamese
3. A. applicant B. uniform C. yesterday D. employment
4. A. paper B. tonight C. lecture D. story
5. A. money B. army C. afraid D. people

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 points)

I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)


1. Kathy was as pleased as ________ when she heard she had passed the exam .
A. punch B. a poppy C. a sunflower D. pound notes
2. I haven’t had an accident yet but I’ve had a number of ________ shaves .
A. narrow B. near C. close D. tiny .
3. All the ________ of the dances went to charity .
A. results B. proceeds C. rewards D. finances
4. Enough money has been raised to ________ the hospital’s survival .
A. ensure B. enlarge C. enable D. empower
5. Many students do ________ jobs in hotels over the summer to earn money .
A. low B. poor C. menial D. inferior
6. They could find no _______ of the missing car despite an extensive search.
A. clue B. remnant C. indication D. trace
7. When they retired they bought a tiny ________ in the country .
A. mansion B. bungalow C. shack D. barn
8. It is too early in the ________ to expect many visitors to the town .
A. term B. season C. time D. calendar
9. Is promoting public health ________ as state concern ?
A. necessary B. necessary being C. necessarily D. of necessary
10. There are different kinds of music to ________ your taste.
A. miss B. fit C. tight D. suit

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. He no sooner (reach) __________ the door than he (come) __________ back.
2. I (be) __________ very careful not to hint or remind her in any way of what she (tell)
__________ me.
3. While he (learn) __________ to drive he (have) __________ twenty five accidents.
4. The man at the corner table (glance) __________ my way to see if I (listen) __________.
5. When I (look) __________ at my suitcase, I could see that somebody (try) __________ to
open it.
III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage. (10 points)
1. The duty of the police is the ________ law and order. (maintain)
2. Our tomatoes are ________ nicely; they’ll be ready to eat in about a week. (ripe)
3. Look at this picture of Bill and his father, you can see the ________ clearly, can’t you? (like)
4. He said “Good morning” in a most ________ way. (friend)
5. “This is not a good essay”, said the lecturer. “I find your arguments ________” (convince)
6. It’s a lovely old house, I agree, but can we afford to ________ it? (modern)
7. George and I have been friends since ________: he use to live next door. (child)
8. In winter it is important for farmers to provide food and ________ for their animals. (warm)
9. Pele ________ Ronaldo to take part in 2002 World Cup. (courage)
10. Playing for the national team for the first time was an ________ experience for Huynh Duc.
(forget)
IV. There are ten mistakes in the text . Identify each mistake, write it down and give your
correction. (10 points)
As far back as 700 B.C, man has talked about children to be cared for by wolves. 1. ____
Romulus and Remus, the legend twin founders of Rome, were purported to have been 2. ____
cared for by wolves. It is believed that why a she-wolf loses her litter, she seeks a human 3. ____
child to take its place.
This seeming preposterous idea did not become credible until the late nineteenth 4. ____
century when a French doctor actually had found a naked ten-year-old boy wandering in 5. ____
the woods. He did not walk erect, could not speak intelligibly, or could lie relate to 6. ____
people. He only growled and stared of them. Finally the doctor won the boy's confidence 7. ____
and began to work with them. After many long years of devoted and patient instruction, 8. ____
the doctor was able to have the boy to clothe and feed himself, recognize and utter a 9. ____
number of word, as well as write letters and form words. 10. ____

C. READING (30 points)


I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points)
Mozart, who was born on January 27, 1756 in the Austrian city of Salzburg, was neither the
first nor the last child prodigy, but he was certainly the greatest. He was born into a moderately
prosperous family where his unmatched musical genius made itself known extremely early.
Mozart began leaning to play harpsichord at three and his earliest known work was composed
in 1761 when he was five, the age at which he also first appeared in public.
From the age of six, when his father took him on the first foreign tour, Mozart toured the
courts and musical centres of Austria, Germany, France, England, Holland, Switzerland and Italy.
It has been calculated that Mozart spent almost a third of his short life - he died at the age of
thirty five – travelling.
As Mozart matured, he continued to tour and give concerts. Mozart also wrote a lot of operas.
His first opera, Mitridate, Re di Ponto, was performed in Milan when he was 14, and it was the
first of many successes in the theatre.
1. How rich was Mozart’s family?
A. Very rich C. Not very rich
B. As rich as a financial D. Very poor
2. When did he take the first step into the world of music as a composer?
A. When he was three C. When he was fourteen
B. When he was five D. When he was thirty-five
3. What did he do on his first tour to some major European countries?
A. He made so much sightseeing C. He toured only
B. He toured the courts and musical centres D. He did nothing
4. Why is it possible to name Mozart “A travelling composer”?
A. Because he spent almost a third of his C. Because he never traveled.
short life traveling. D. Because he had good imagination.
B. Because he liked traveling a lot.
5. What expression in the passage means “an exceptionally clever child” ?
A. A child normal C. A child prodigy
B. A child clever
D. Child playing harpsichord.

II. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (15 points)
SAVE MONEY ON THE BOOK THAT AIMS TO SAVE ANIMALS
Do you want to take part in the battle to save the world’s wildlife? Animal Watch is the book
which will (1) ________ you in the fight for survival that (2) ________ many of our endangered
animals and show how they struggle on the (3) ________ of extinction .
As you enjoy the book’s 250 pages and over 150 color photographs, you will have the (4)
________ of knowing that part of your purchase money is being used to (5) ________ animals
(6) ________ from the comfort of your armchair, you will be able to observe the world’s animals
close-up and explore their habitats. You will also discover the terrible results of human (7)
________ for land, flesh and skins.
Animal Watch is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their
black noses (8) ________ their (9) ________ so they can hunt their prey in the snow without
being seen, for example? Or that (10) ________ each orang-utan which is captured, one has to
die?
This superb (11) ________ has so (12) ________ Britain’s leading wildlife charity that it has
been chosen as Book of the Year, a (13) ________awarded to books which are considered to
have made a major contribution to wildlife conservation. You will find Animal Watch at a special
low ( 14) ________ price at all good bookshops, but hurry while (15) ________ last.
1. A. combine B. involve C. bring D. lead
2. A. meets B. opposes C. forces D. faces
3. A. edge B. start C. limit D. end
4. A. satisfaction B. enjoyment C. virtue D. value
5. A. enable B. help C. allow D. assist
6. A. preserve B. conserve C. revive D. survive
7. A. greed B. interest C. care D. concern
8. A. with B. by C. for D. from
9. A. feet B. claws C. paws D. toes
10. A. for B. at C. from D. to
11. A. publicy B. periodical C. publication D. reference
12. A. imposed B. impressed C. persuaded D. admired
13. A. symbol B. title C. trademark D. nickname
14. A. beginning B. preparatory C. original D. introductory
15. A. stores B. stocks C. goods D. funds

III. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage. (10 points)
Maybe you recycle cans, glass, and paper. Do you know that nature recycles, too ? One of the
things nature (1) _______ is water. Water goes from oceans, lakes, and rivers into the air. Water
falls from the air as (2) _______ or snow. Rain and snow eventually find their way back to the
oceans. Nature’s recycling program for water is (3) _______ the water cycle.
The water cycle has four stages: storage, evaporation, precipitation, and runoff. Water on
Earth gets stored (4) _______ oceans, lakes, rivers, ice, and even underground. Water goes from
storage into the atmosphere by a process called evaporation. When water evaporates, it changes
from a liquid (5) _______ a gas, called water vapor. Water vapor goes up into (6) _______
atmosphere. Water returns to the Earth as precipitation in rain or snow by changing into drops of
water (7) _______ the air gets cold enough. Clouds are collections (8) _______ water droplets.
Most precipitation falls into the oceans and goes right back into storage.
Water that falls on land always flows from (9) _______ places to lower ones. This flow is
called runoff. Water from land flows into streams. Streams join together to make (10) _______
and eventually the water flows into storage in the oceans. Then the water cycle starts all over
again.

D. WRITING (20 points)


I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed
before them. (10 points)
1. If I met the author one day, I'd ask him to sign my copy of this book.
Were I ..........................................................................................................................................
2. He always has his nose in a book and never pays attention to what I say.
If he didn't ...................................................................................................................................
3. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second
child.
Only when ...................................................................................................................................
4. You are under no obligation to accept their offer.
You can please ............................................................................................................................
5. Martin may not be very well but he still manages to enjoy life.
Martin's poor ...............................................................................................................................
6. The Pacific Ocean is on average deeper than the Atlantic.
The average .................................................................................................................................
7. I don't really like her , even though I admire her achievements.
Much ...........................................................................................................................................
8. There were not nearly as many people there as I had expected.
here were far ................................................................................................................................
9. There was no need for you to have gone to all that trouble.
You ..............................................................................................................................................
10. This is the best essay I have ever written.
Never ...........................................................................................................................................
II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete letter. (10 points)
Dear Jane,
1. Not see you / long time.
2. We / really pleased / move to / country /, I / get / fed up / live / London.
3. In/ city/ much traffic / noise / no time / relax.
4. In / country / life / slower / more peaceful.
5. Now / example / able / a walk / with / dog / across fields / before breakfast !
6. Children / enjoy fresh air / make new friends.
7. people/ helpful / kind / friendly .
8. But we miss / friends / London ,especially you.
9. Come / see us soon.
10. We all / look forward / see you again.
Love,
Milly, Bob, Tim and Teresa.
PRACTICE TEST 6

A. PHONETICS (10 POINTS)


I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from
the others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. climate B. comic C. hike D. website
2. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
3. A. cover B. category C. ancient D. decorate
4. A. erupt B. humor C. UFO D. communicate
5. A. Buddhish B. bomb C. viable D. bulb
II. Choose the word ( A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the
others. (5 points)
1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel
2. A. tropical B. collection C. tendency D. charity
3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda D. deposit
4. A. importing B. specific C. impolite D. important
5. A. federation B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 points)
1. All the sentences below use “the”, which is the correct one?
A. Can you pass the sugar please? B. The crime is a problem in many big cities.
C. The apples are good for you. D. I love the skiing.
2. Our friends have lived in Ho Chi Minh city_______ 2002.
A. for B. since C. in D. about
3. He prefers soccer______ tennis.
A. from B. than C. to D. or
4. If they worked more carefully, they _____ so many mistakes.
A. won’t make B. don’t make C. wouldn’t make D. didn’t make
5. He _______to his friend’s party when his parents asked him to go home.
A. goes B. was going C. went D. has gone
6. There’s a strange man behind us. I think ______.
A. we are followed B. we are being followed
C. we are being following D. we are following
7. Which of the following is the strongest advice?
A. You should get a hair- cut. B. If I were you, I’d get a hair-cut.
C. You ought to get a hair- cut. D. You really must get a hair- cut.
8. ________ you mind if I use your dictionary?
A. Will B. Do C. Can D. Did
9. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, _______ was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.
A. that B. whose C. Who D. whom
10. All that rubbish will have to be ________ at once.
A. get rid of B. got rid of C. got rid D. getting rid of
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10
points)
1. My friend was (make)_____ (pay)_______ back the book.
2. Hardly he (take) ________ up the book when the phone (ring) ________.
3. Can you imagine what I (come) _______ across when I (roll) ________ up the carpet
yesterday?
4. If she wins the prize, it (be) __________because she (write) ______very well.
5. He resented (ask) ______ (wait) _______. He had expected the minister to see him at once.
III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. (10 points)
1. A lot of toys encourage children’s_________. (imagine)
2. The factory has provided cheaper__________ lately. (produce)
3. Burning coal is an _______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy)
4. According to some scientists the earth is losing its outer atmosphere because of_____.
(pollute)
5. She has one of the biggest art________ in Britain. (collect)
6. __________ has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (forest)
7. __________ often walk through the streets shouting or singing about something they sell.
(cry)
8. Gas and oil________ always increases in cold weather. (consume)
9. The police are interested in the sudden________ of the valuable painting. (appear)
10. He claimed that his___________ had caused him to become a criminal. (bring up)
IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined
word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. (5 points)
1. Preserving natural resources mean reserving them for our future.
A B C D
2. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A B C D
3. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for
A B
students to practice speaking words.
C D
4. The injured man was taken to the hospital.
A B C D
5. In order for one to achieve the desired results in this experiment, it is necessary that he work
as
A B
fastly as possible.
C D
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B,
C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer. (15 points)
BENJAMIN FRANKLIN
Few people can embody the spirit of early America as much as Benjamin Franklin. He lived
through almost the whole of the eighteenth century, being born six years after, and dying ten
years before it ended. In this time he saw the American colonies grow from tiny settlements into
a nation, and he also contributed much to the development of the new state.
At the age of 17 Franklin ran away to Philadelphia. He had already received some training as a
printer’s apprentice, and this helped him seven years later, with his first publication, the
Pennsylvania Gazette. He also received a contract to do government printing work, which helped
him to rise from his poor background to become a successful entrepreneur. Some of his
experience in business was shared in his famous Poor Richard’s Almanak, which established his
reputation throughout the American colonies. In another of his works, the Autobiography, which
was written toward the end of his life, he shows the same quiet common sense.
He was deeply interested in science and natural history, and his experiments with electricity and
lightning led directly to the invention of the lightning rod. He was also interested in improving
the conditions of his fellow men. He was involved in a number of projects in his native
Philadelphia, including the setting up of a library, a university, a philosophical society, and–
because he was a pragmatic man–a fire prevention service. In 1753 he became Postmaster–
General of the colonies. Through this experience he began to develop the idea that the colonies
of North America should be a single nation. Later, he went to London to try to persuade the
British government to change the conditions, especially the taxes, that later led the American
colonists into rebellion.
Whatever Benjamin Franklin’s personal feelings about the rebellion of the American states, he
worked hard to make it succeed. As ambassador to France, he encouraged the French to help
George Washington. After the war he attended the American constitutional congress. This was
his last contribution, for he died later that year. He is still fondly remembered by Americans as
one of the creators of the United States.
1. What is a good description for this text?
A. An autobiography of Benjamin Franklin. B. The life of Benjamin Franklin.
C. The works of Benjamin Franklin. D. Franklin and American Independence.
2. When was Benjamin Franklin born?
A. 1806 B. 1794 C. 1717 D. 1706
3. Which of these happened first?
A. Franklin trains as a painter. B. Franklin runs away to Philadelphia.
C. the American colonies rebel D. Franklin starts his first publication.
4. What was Poor Richard’s Almanak about?
A. Franklin’s reputation. B. How to succeed in business.
C. how to do government printing. D. The text does not say.
5. In which countries did Franklin live?
A. England and France. B. Philadelphia and England.
C. London and America. D. England, America and France.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in
each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). (15 points)
SAVING THE TIGER
In 1973, when the tiger appeared to (0) be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for nature and
__(1)____ Indian Government agreed to set ___(2)__ “Operation Tiger” – a campaign __(3)___
save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special parks ___ (4) ___ that tigers
could live in safety. The first was at Ramthambhore , a region ___(5)__ was quickly turning into
a desert __(6)__ too much of the grass was being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time
there ____(7)__ just fourteen tigers left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages,
which means moving nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land __ (8) __ be handed back
to nature.
Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall ___(9)___ for tigers to hide in,
and There are now at _(10)___ forty of them __(11)__ the park, wandering freely about. Other
animals have also benefited. For example, there are many ___(12)____ deer and monkeys than
before. The people __(13)__ were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in new
villages away __(14)___ the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are
now sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animals’ future looks ___ (15)____ little safer.
D. WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before
it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase. (20 points)
1. You should review your lessons for the exam.
It’s time____________________________________________________________
2.That man used to work with me when I lived in New York.
That’s ____________________________________________________________
3.What a pity they close the shops at lunch- time.
I wished ____________________________________________________________
4. We like ice- cream but we don’t have it every day.
Although ___________________________________________________________
5.When did you start working in that factory?
How long ___________________________________________________________
6. Oil was slowly covering the sand of the beach.
The sand ___________________________________________________________
7. “Where’ s the station car- park?” Mrs. Smith asked.
Mrs. Smith asked ____________________________________________________
8. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.
He regretted _________________________________________________________
9. I advise you not to buy that car.
If _________________________________________________________________
10. Why don’t you ask her yourself?
I suggest that _______________________________________________________
II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points)
1. If you/ not go/ the party/ I / go/ either.
2. Unless/ I/ have/ quiet room/ I/ not/ able/ do/ work.
3. nurse/ kind enough/ help him/ walk.
4. He/ rather spend/ holidays/ a farm/ seaside.
5. I/ return/ visit/ Japan. It/ wonderful trip.
PRACTICE TEST 7
A. Pronunciation (10 points)

I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the others in each group. (5 points)
6. A. author B. other C. there D. they
7. A. forest B. control C. product D. ecology
8. A. industry B. translate C. construction D. satisfy
9. A. baggage B. courage C. damage D. invasion
10. A. advantage B. addition C. advertise D. adventure

II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the
others. (5 points)
1. A. deposit B. festival C. institute D. resident
2. A. surprising B. astonishing C. amazing D. interesting
3. A. interview B. industry C. essential D. difficult
4. A. extreme B. generous C. lonely D. clothing
5. A. friendly B. extra C. along D. orphanage

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 points)

I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)


1. One problem for teacher is that each student has his/ her own ________ needs.
A. separate B. divided C. individual D. distinctive
2. I was ________ in the book I was reading and didn’t hear the phone.
A. submerged B. distracted C. gripped D. engrossed
3. If we hurry, we might get there ________ to catch the early train.
A. right B. in time C. on time D. before time
4. To get a passport, you must send in your birth ________ and two photos.
A. certificate B. licence C. paper D. card
5. She tries to set ________ an hour a week for practice.
A. about B. down C. aside D. in
6. ________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.
A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole
7. Robert and his wife ________ to my house for tea yesterday evening.
A. came round B. came about C. came down D. came away
8. Each of the guests ________ a bunch of flowers.
A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give
9. To everyone’s surprise, Mr Brown ________ at the Trade Union meeting.
A. turned in B. turned over C. turned up D. turned round
10. Everyone burst out laughing. There was a lot of ________.
A. laughs B. laughter C. laughings D. laugh

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. I (meet) ________ John before I (be) ________ a fortnight in Paris.
2. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (go) ________ out and they (sit)
________ in the dark.
3. What tune (play) ________ when we (come) ________ in?
4. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (wear) ________ her seat belt, she (not
hurt) ________ so badly.
5. Coming into the room he (see) ________ Mary where he (leave) ________ her.
III. Give the correct form of the verbs to complete the passage. (10 points)
1. We go to the restaurant for ________ whenever we ‘re tired of eating meat. (vegetable)
2. Don’t worry. I ‘ll be waiting for you at the ________ to the pagoda . (enter)
3. The old theater of our city is being enlarged and ________. (modern)
4. Advertisements account for three fourths of the ________ of the newspaper. (come)
5. What is the ________ of the adjective “solid”. ( oppose)
6. ________ should complain if they are not satisfied with the service they receive. (Consume)
7. If your work is ________ you won’t get a raise. (satisfy)
8. ________ are alarmed by the rate at which tropical rain-forest are being destroyed.(Conserve)
9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ________. (sport)
10. You can never be sure what he is going to do. He is so ________. (predict)
IV. Arrange these sentences to make a complete passage (10 points).
a. As they built bigger and bigger ships, they were able to sail further and further away.
b. They don’t really mean that the world is getting smaller, of course.
c. They found that as they sailed further away from their home countries, the world became
bigger.
d. Then men began to use ships to explore the world.
e. Today there are no undiscovered countries left to put on the map, but there are many new
worlds to discover out in space.
f. But 2,300 years ago the Egyptians and the Greek thought that the world was very small and
flat that around it was the ocean.
g. We often hear people saying that the world is getting smaller.
h. So they had to make new maps to show the countries that they found.
i. And they discovered new countries that they didn’t know about.
j. What they mean is that with modern means of transport, we can now reach every part of the
world very quickly.
C. READING (30 points)
I. Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points)
People have been playing with marbles for thousands of years. The first marbles were
probably either river stones that happened to be naturally round enough to roll or, more likely,
rounded globs of clay that were baked hardness. Such very old clay marbles have been found in
both Greek and Roman ruins, and quartz spheres have been dated at around 6000 B.C. Harder
and more durable marbles tend to inspire different kinds of games than soft clay marbles, which
crack very easily. So with the advent of hand rounded and polished marbles made of agate or
some other rugged, igneous rock, the ‘golden age’ of marbles and marble play flowered. Stone
marbles began to appear in the early 1800s in what is now the southern part of Germany. Shortly
after, handmade glass marbles appeared in the same part of Europe. For the next 120 years,
marbles and marble playing-there were literally hundred of games - flourished in both Europe
and America. Marble players developed their own vocabulary for different sizes and materials of
marbles, as well as for the many kinds of games to be played and the way marbles were used in
the games. For example, if you were going to play a game of Ring-Taw, one of the most popular
and enduring marbles games, you would lag for the first shot, and then knuckle down from the
baulk, trying your best to get a mib or two with your opponent’s immie.
1. The author makes the point in the passage that playing with marbles __________.
A. has been going on since ancient times C. is losing popularity
B. is a relatively recent phenomenon D. is a very expensive pastime
2. According to the passage, which of the following was the least used substance for making
marbles?
A. agate B. glass C. rock D. clay
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the use of marbles became very popular in Europe and
America __________.
A. in the 18th century C. in 6000 B.C
B. in the 1970s D. after glass marbles were developed
4. We can infer from the passage that marble playing __________.
A. is a game only for children C. is played according to one set of rules
B. has many variations in games D. uses only one kind of marble
5. We can conclude from lines 11-12 of the passage that the terminology of marble playing is
__________.
A. specialized C. easy to understand
B. used only by children D. derived from an ancient language

II. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. (15 points)
Look on the bright side
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, some one who always (1) _______ to be
successful? Having some one around who always (2) _______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3)
_______ we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says,b “It looks (4)
_______ rain.” But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5)
_______ it. You can change your view of life, (6) _______ to psychologists, it only takes a little
effort, and you’ll find life more rewarding as a (7) _______ . Optimism, they say, is partly about
self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to
(8) _______ . Optimists are more (9) _______ to start new projects and generally more prepared
to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) _______ to the world.
Some people are brought up to (11) _______ too much on others and grow up forever
blaming other people when anything (12) _______ wrong. Most optimists, on the (13)
_______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) _______ failure as the end of the world-
they just (15) _______ with their lives.
1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited
2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts
3. A. musement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
4. A. so B. to C. for D. like
5. A. with B. against C. about D. over
6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following
7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product
8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose
9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
12. A. goes B. falls C. comes D. turns
13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over

III. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage. (10 points)
Traveling to all corners of the world is (1) _______ easier and easier. We live (2) _______ a
global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (3) _______ simple
test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at 4 p.m . What time should you expect your foreign
business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they ‘ll be exactly (4) _______ time. If they
are American, they ‘ll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are British, they be 15 minutes (5)
_______, and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small
advice in (6) _______ not to behave badly abroad. In France you shouldn’t sit down in a cafard
until you are shaken hands with everyone you know.In Afghanistan you ‘d better spend at last 5
minutes (7) _______ hello. In Pakistan you mustn’t wink. It is offensive. In the Middle East
you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care
not to admire (8) _______ in your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you.In
Russia you must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. In Thailand you
should clasp your hands (9) _______ and lower your head and your eyes when you greet
someone. In America you should eat your hamburger with both hands and as quickly as (10)
_______. You shouldn’t try to have a conversation until it is eaten.
D. WRITING (20 points)
I. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as those printed
before them. (10 points)
1. My brother studies now harder than he used to.
My brother .............................................................................................................................
2. Please don’t ask me that question.
I’d rather ................................................................................................................................
3. I last saw Bob when I was in Ho Chi Minh City.
I haven’t ................................................................................................................................
4. John only understood very little what the teacher said.
John could hardly ..................................................................................................................
5. Tom will be twenty next week.
It’s Tom’s ..............................................................................................................................
6. She is fond of her nephew although he behaves terribly.
She is fond of her nephew in .................................................................................................
7. He prefers reading books to watching TV.
He would ...............................................................................................................................
8. He didn’t hurry, so he missed the bus.
If ............................................................................................................................................
9. The train takes longer than the plane.
The plane ...............................................................................................................................
10. I don’t suppose you have change for 2 pounds, do you?
Do you happen ......................................................................................................................
II. Use the promps provided to write full sentences to make a complete letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir / Madam,
1. I / like / express / concern / increasing number / karaoke bars / city.
2. There be / lot / reason / I object / places.
3. Firstly, / owners / take / much money / those / come / sing.
4. Secondly, / they cause / much noise / neighborhood.
5. Thirdly, / there / number / pupils / play truant / just / go / those places / sing.
6. Last / least / these bars / do harm / appearance / city / because / their / ugly flashing lights.
7. I want / say / I / not / old fashioned person.
8. I hope / authority / take / matter / careful consideration.
9. I / not mean / ban them / but / there should / effective way / control / this kind / entertainment
places.
10. I / look / see / city council / do / this master.
Yours truly, Thomas Cruise.
PRACTICE TEST 8
I. PART 1: Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences. Put a tick
(√) next to the correct answer A, B, C or D. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 p)
0. Peter tried to avoid ______ my questions.
A. answer B. to answer √ C. answering D. answered
1. For the last few months, the south-central coastal provinces ______ significantly less
precipitation and prolonged drought.
A. have experienced B. experience
C. are experiencing D. have been experienced
2. _______ my friends knew I was going to study overseas.
A. Not much of B. Not many of C. Not a lot of D. Not many
3. There was a terrible accident last night. When I arrived at the scene, ______ injured had been
taken away.
A. the B. an C. one D. some
4. Nobody wants to be the first to make a sacrifice, _______?
A. does she or he B. does anybody C. do we D. do they
5. He always ______ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.
A. writes B. makes C. does D. works
6. I know her _______ sight, but I’ve never talked to her.
A. in B. at C. on D. by
7. "How about going fishing this Sunday?" - "______ "
A. That's a good idea. B. Never mind.
C. Yes, I am fishing. D. That's my pleasure.
8. _______ is more interested in rhythm than in melody is apparent from his compositions.
A. Philip Glass B. Philip Glass, who
C. That Philip Glass D. Because Philip Glass
9. I don’t see any________ in arriving early at the theatre.
A. cause B. point C. reason D. aim
10. You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. put out B. put off C. put down D. put up
II. PART 2: Each of the following sentences has ONE mistake. Underline the mistake and
write the correction in the provided blank on the right. There is an example at the
beginning (0). (0.5 p)
Sentences Corrections
0. He collided with a car because he was driving too fastly. fast
1. You really must be more careful when you do your exercises
because you did six mistakes in this one.
2. Instead of being exciting about the news, she was indifferent
to it.
3. The exhibition was the centre of attraction like it was of
historical interest.
4. Each of the cars in the showroom was quickly sold to their
new owner.
5. I gave to Susan the address so that she could contact me.
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III. PART 3: Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers in
the blanks. There is an example at the beginning (0). (0.5p)
0. If you get a burn, cool it (IMMEDIATE) _____immediately______.
1. Robbers broke into the art gallery and took away many (VALUE) __________________
paintings.
2. George and I have been friends since (CHILD)__________________. He used to live next
door.
3. John lost his job because he often behaved (POLITE) __________________ towards his
customers.
4. Peter fell off the ladder, but his __________________ (INJURE) were not very serious.
5. Hoang Anh was __________________ (COURAGE) to apply for the job.
PART C. READING (3.0 POINTS)
I. PART 1: Read the following passage and answer the questions. For question 1-4, put a
tick (√) next to the correct answer A, B, C or D. For question 5-8, write your answers in the
spaces provided (you can give short but enough information answers). (0.8p)
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and
Europe, recycling is the big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new
ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second
time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister
packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in
lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People
should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to
reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low-quality appliances break, many
customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For
example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce
garbage, the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles.
After customers empty the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the
drinks collect bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make
new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common
practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-
away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be
cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of
energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people
collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to live sensitively to the environment. B. How to reduce garbage disposal.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people
understand the term “recycle”
2. What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. cautious B. logical C. responding D. friendly
3. What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
B. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
4. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. deed D. belief
5. What are the two most industrialized areas in the world today?
_____________________________________________________________________
6. What kind of products should people buy to reduce waste?
_____________________________________________________________________
7. What happens to the garbage dumps in the areas where each returned bottle is paid?
_____________________________________________________________________
8. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
_____________________________________________________________________
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II. PART 2: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each
space. Put a tick (√) next to the correct answer. There is an example at the beginning (0).
(0.8 p)
There can be no (0) ______ at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives.
Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet, hardly (1) ______
doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are (2) ______ to find out why the
Internet is so attractive and they want to know if it can be harmful for their children. Should
parents worry if their children are spending that much time (3) ______ their computers?
Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (4) _____ in some game,
instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. Parents and children could decide
how much use the child should (5) ______ of the Internet, and the child should give his or her
word that it won’t interfere with homework. If the child is not holding to this arrangement, the
parent can take more drastic (6) ______. Dealing with a child’s use of the Internet is not much
different from negotiating any other sort of bargain about behavior.
Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child’s behavior should make an appointment to
(7) ______ the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the screen does not necessarily
affect a child’s performance at school. Even if a child is (8) ______ crazy about using the
Internet, he or she is probably just going through a phase, and in a few months there will be
something else to worry about!
0. A. reason √ B. doubt C. purpose D. motive
1. A. always B. rarely C. never D. ever
2. A. worried B. concerned C. curious D. hopeful
3. A. staring at B. stare at C. stared at D. to stare at
4. A. supposed B. occupied C. excited D. absorbed
5. A. do B. have C. make D. create
6. A. rules B. procedures C. regulations D.
steps
7. A. speak B. discuss C. talk D. say
8. A. absolutely B. more C. less D. few
III. PART 3: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (0.8 p)
A. Famous for its beautiful setting, San Francisco is built on a series of steep hills located on the
northern tip of a peninsula at the entrance to San Francisco Bay. The bay and its extensions,
constitute one of the great natural harbors of the world, embracing nearly 1,200 sq km of water.
Because of this, San Francisco was once the major Pacific Coast seaport of the United States.
Today the city is an important center for finance, technology, tourism, and culture.
B. San Franciscans, and in some cases their counterparts in the Bay Area, have successfully
undertaken mammoth construction projects such as the San Francisco-Oakland Bay Bridge, the
Golden Gate Bridge, and the Bay Area Rapid Transit system. Since at least the 1950s, San
Franciscans have also earned a reputation for tolerance of and respect for diversity.
C. The most serious social problems facing the city are not unique to San Francisco, but some
have taken on greater dimensions in the city than they have elsewhere. One such problem is
homelessness. From 1988 to 1992, the plaza in front of city hall became an encampment for
homeless people, rendering other use impossible and raising public health concerns. The problem
of homelessness persists despite the efforts of city agencies and private charities to provide
shelter, health care, and drug, alcohol, and mental health treatment. In the mid-and late 1990s
mayors Frank Jordan and Willie Brown both sought to discourage homeless people from living
in public space in the downtown area and, in Brown’s case, in Golden Gate Park. However,
residents of other areas complained that because of these projects, the displaced homeless had
moved into their neighborhoods.
D. In other areas the city has made some progress toward addressing social problems. As was
true across much of the nation, the crime rate in San Francisco dropped in the 1990s, as did the
rate of drug-related violence. In addition, some public housing projects in San Francisco that
were especially prone to violence and drug-related activity were razed and rebuilt with designs
considered less likely to encourage those activities. Other public housing projects received
stepped up security patrols.
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E. Some social critics have pointed to an increasing economic and social polarization of San
Francisco’s population. Those who work in finance or high-tech fields are increasingly affluent,
pushing rents and home prices to among the highest levels in the nation. At the same time,
people who labor in the service sector often work for the minimum wage, cannot share the
affluent lifestyles around them, and are hard-pressed to afford rising rents. This economic
polarization coincides in part with ethnic and educational patterns. Workers in the low-wage end
of the service sector are likely to have limited English proficiency and a high-school education or
less; many workers in those areas are also disproportionately African American and Hispanic. By
contrast, those people who work in the finance and high-tech sectors are more likely to be white
or Asian American and to have one or more college degrees.
Question 1-5: The five paragraphs of the Reading Passage are lettered A-E.

List of headings
i. The problems in San Francisco.
1. Paragraph A ________
ii. Geographic characteristics of San Francisco.
2. Paragraph B ________ iii. Ethnic and education patterns in San Francisco
iv. San Francisco’s accomplishments.
3. Paragraph C ________
v. The problem of homelessness in San Francisco.
4. Paragraph D ________ vi. The beauty of San Francisco
vii. Public security improvements in San Francisco.
5. Paragraph E ________
viii. The problem of social economic polarization.
Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A-E from the list of headings below.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
Questions 6-8: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading
Passage?
In the spaces provided, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information.
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information.
6. ______ San Francisco has achieved tremendous successes in construction.
7. ______ City agencies and private charities have succeeded in addressing the problem of
homelessness.
8. ______ The increasing economic polarization in San Francisco has no relation to ethnic and
educational patterns.
IV. PART 4: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning
(0) (0.6p)
Everyone wants (0) to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is as
complicated as it is serious. It is complicated because much pollution (1) ________________
caused by things that benefit people. For example, exhaust (2) ___________________
automobiles causes a large percentage of all air pollution. But the automobiles provide
transportation for millions of people. Factories (3) ___________________ much of the material
which pollutes air and water, but factories give employment to a large number of people.
Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to stop using many
things (4) ___________________ benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of
course. But pollution can be gradually reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can
work to find ways to lessen the (5) ___________________ of pollution that such things as
automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that require businesses
and individuals to stop, or cut (6) ___________________ on certain polluting activities.
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PART D. WRITING (3.0 POINTS)
I. PART 1:
Question 1-5: Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the clues at the beginning of each sentence. There’s an example at the
beginning (0). (0.5p)
0. It takes him at least three hours a day to chat on facebook.
1. Everyday he spends at least three hours chatting on facebook .
1. As soon as we had finished dinner, the thunderstorm broke.
Hardly....................................................................................................................
2. It’s thought that he was staying in London at the time of the assault.
He is ......................................................................................................................
3. President Obama was surprised when he saw the hospitability of Vietnam government and
people.
It came...................................................................................................................
4. He always has his nose in a book and never pays attention to what I say.
If he didn't..............................................................................................................
5. Martin may not be very well but he still manages to enjoy life.
Martin's poor..........................................................................................................
Question 6-10: Complete the second sentence using the word given so that it has a similar
meaning to the following sentence. Write between two and five words in the space provided
on the answer sheet. Do NOT change the word given in brackets in any way. There’s an
example at the beginning (00). (0.5p)
00. David praised her exceptionally good choice of venue for the party. (CONGRATULATED)
David congratulated her on a good venue for the party.
6. Lisa was just about to leave the house when the phone rang. (POINT)
Lisa was ________________________________________ the house when the phone rang.
7. A number of sporting events had to be cancelled owing to the bad weather. (LED)
Bad weather________________________________________ of a number of sporting events.
8. When it comes to computer games, Gareth is a real expert. (CONCERNED)
As far as ________________________________________________, Gareth is a real expert.
9. I’ve been greatly impressed by the way Jasper deals with problems. (MADE)
Jasper’s way of dealing with problems has _____________________ me.
10. “Is Peter likely to change his mind?” Rob asked. (CHANCE)
“Is there __________________________________________ changing his mind?” Rob asked.
Question 11-15: Use the given word to write a new sentence as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the word given in brackets in any way.
There’s an example at the beginning (000). (0.5p)
000. Turning down that job was very foolish of you. (FOOL)
You were a fool to turn down that job.
11. This mix-up is not my fault. (BLAME)
________________________________________________________________________
12. My brother is not feeling terribly well these days. (WEATHER)
_____________________________________________________________________
13. I'd like to express my thanks for everything you've done for me (THANKFUL)
______________________________________________________________________
14. On no account will I lend you $500. (QUESTION)
____________________________________________________________________
15. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (TAKEN)
______________________________________________________________________
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II. PART 2: Writing an argument (1.5 pts)
Nowadays, most students take extra classes. Do you think this is a good idea? Or would is it be
better for students to invest all that time in self-study?
Write a paragraph of about 150 words. Support your points with examples and relevant evidence.
PRACTICE TEST 8

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (40 câu: 8,0 điểm)


Choose the word A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
others.
1. A. reply B. many C. candy D. lovely
2. A. started B. landed C. kicked D. painted
3. A. reduce B. fence C. prevent D. receive

Choose the word A, B, C or D which is stressed differently from the others.


4. A. publication B. competition C. infection D. contribution
5. A. hobby B. reduce C. prison D. quarter

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the correct word or phrase to
complete each sentence.
6. When he __________ here, Mark was always making mistakes.
A. works B. worked C. was working D. had worked
7. A great deal of tea __________ everyday in England.
A. drinks B. is drunk C. drink D. are drunk
8. Nam’s father, _____________ is 78 years old, goes swimming everyday.
A. that B. who C. whose D. whom
9. It was _____________ a boring film that I left before the end.
A. so B. too C. very D. such
10. If we work hard, we will make this beach a clean and ___________ place again.
A. beauty B. beautifully C. beautiful D. beautician
11. The new teacher loves poems and __________ them by heart.
A. makes us to learn B. makes us learn C. make us to learn D. make us learn
12. You shouldn’t stay at home so much. Go ___________ and make new friends.
A. out B. away C. on D. by
13. Unless he ________ hard, he ____________ the final exam.
A. studies/ won’t pass B. studies/ will pass
C. doesn’t study/ will pass D. doesn’t study/ won’t pass
14. Mathematics is a _______________ subject in school.
A. easy B. compulsory C. unimportant D. choice
15. My best friend, Tom, is a ____________.
A. newspaper reporter B. newspapers reporter
C. newspaper’s reporter D. newspapers’ reporter
16. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just _________, please?
A. a few B. little C. few D. a little
17. My father used ____________ heavily, but he doesn’t smoke any longer.
A. to smoke B. to smoking C. smoke D. smoking
18. A: “_____________ do you go to the library?”
B: “Twice a week.”
A. How long B. How far C. How often D. how much
19. I gave the poor boy some biscuits __________ he ate immediately.
A. , which B. which C. that D. ,that
20. As soon as Martin saw the fire, he _________ the fire apartment.
A. had telephoned B. was telephoning C. telephoned D. will telephone
21. They have planned to leave London ________ July 15th.
A. of B. in C. on D. at
22. ___________ it was so windy and cold, she went out without a coat.
A. However B. Despite C. In spite of D. Although
23. _______ weather is often cool in Sapa, Vietnam.
A. A B. The C. Some D. An
24. I like wearing jeans because jeans have never been out _________ fashion.
A. at B. on C. of D. by
25. It is sunny today. Let’s play tennis, _____________?
A. won’t we B. shall we C. will we D. shan’t we
26. Peter: “Would you like to drink more coffee?”
Daisy: “___________.”
A. Yes, I like it B. Yes, I’d love to
C. Yes, I like you D. No, I don’t like
27. I am always busy. I wish I _________ more time to look after my family.
A. am having B. have C. had D. was having
28. I look forward to ________ from you and _________ good response from your company.
A. hearing/ seeing B. hear/ seeing C. hearing/ see D. hear/ see
29. This school is only for children ________ first language is not English.
A. that B. who C. whose D. which
30. Everyone in this school has to wear a uniform and so _______.
A. you do B. are you C. you are D. do you

Read the following passage extracted from Oxford Advanced Learner’s Encyclopedic
Dictionary and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks
Days
In Britain, almost every day of the week has its own characteristic. Monday, for example,
is seen as the most unpopular, _________ (31) it is the first day back at work after the weekend.
It is also the day traditionally reserved for washing clothes, etc. Wednesday is often regarded as a
half-way point in the week, and in many schools and colleges it is a half day when lessons finish
________ (32) lunch-time and the afternoon is set aside for sports. Friday is a favourite day as it
marks the _________ (33) of the weekend, and on Friday nights many people go out to
restaurants, theatres, pubs or discotheques. Saturday is normally associated with housework and
going to town for shopping. Sunday, as a “day of rest”, is traditionally associated with Christian
worship. It is still treated in Britain as a day of relaxation, and people, and people often spend
the day reading the Sunday newspapers, visiting friends, or eating a leisurely “Sunday lunch”
with family or friends, either at home _________ (34) in a pub or restaurant. Although more
services operate on Sundays than __________ (35), most shops are closed, no letters are
delivered and there is limited public transport.
(Extracted from Oxford Advanced Learner’s Encyclopedic Dictionary, P229, 1992)
31. A. but B. so C. yet D. as
32. A. in B. at C. on D. by
33. A. finish B. end C. start D. first
34. A. or B. nor C. and D. but
35. A. prior B. initially C. previously D. after

Read the following passage extracted from Oxford Advanced Learner’s Encyclopedic
Dictionary and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer for each of the questions
Christmas
Christmas is the most important annual festival in both Britain and North America. In its
origins, it combines the Christian celebration of the birth of Christ, on 25 December, with the
ancient tradition of a winter feast during the darkest period of the year.
On Christmas day itself there is usually a celebration with family and friends, which
includes a special Christmas meal of roast goose or turkey followed by Christmas pudding which
is soaked in brandy and set alight. The table is specially decorated, usually with Christmas
crackers, containing paper hats, riddles and other novelties. Port and nuts are often served after
the meal. Other Christmas foods are mince pies and a special Christmas cake, a fruit-cake
covered in marzipan and icing. Many people listen to the message broadcast by the Queen to
people in Britain and the Commonwealth on Christmas day. The following day is called Boxing
Day. It was formally the day when servants were given their “Christmas box”, a gift or money
from their employer. Many households still give Christmas boxes to the people who deliver their
post, milk, newspapers, etc.
(Extracted from Oxford Advanced Learner’s Encyclopedic Dictionary, P156, 1992)
36. The word “feast” is closest in meaning to __________.
A. a giant monster B. a special meal C. a big person D. a huge castle
37. In its origin, Christmas is held to celebrate ________________.
A. the birth of Christ B. the ancient tradition of a winter feast
C. December D. the birth of Christ and the ancient tradition of a winter feast
38. On Christmas day, the table is usually decorated with _________.
A. port and nuts B. roast goose or turkey, Christmas pudding
C. Christmas crackers D. mince pies and a special Christmas cake
39. On Christmas Day, who delivers the message to people in Britain and the Commonwealth?
A. Servants B. The Queen D. Employers D. Christ
40. When is the Boxing Day?
A. On 25 December B. On Christmas Eve
C. On 26th December D. On Christmas Day

B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN
I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.
1. It is very useful to speak English fluently
Speaking English __________________________________.
2. He hasn’t smoked for three years
He stopped ________________________________________.
3. My father has bought a new computer.
A new computer ___________________________________.
4. “Who phoned you yesterday, Lan?” said he.
He asked Lan ______________________________________.
5. In spite of the bad weather, they had a picnic.
Although _________________________________________.
II. PARAGRAPH WRITING
Write a paragraph of 120-150 words about the world you would like to live in in 2030.
PRACTICE TEST 9
Choose A,B,C,or D that best completes each unfinished sentence; substitutes the underlined
part; or has a close meaning to the original one. ( from 1 to 25)
Câu 1: We go to school ________ bus.
A. by B. in C. on D. with
Câu 2: She was born in Dak Nong _____ 1995.
A. at B. in C. on D. since
Câu 3: My father _______ me to the zoo last month.
A. was taking B. takes C. take D. took
Câu 4: My school _______ in 1992.
A. was built B. has been built C. is built D. was building
Câu 5: Mr. John________20 cigarettes a day.
A. don’t smoke B. do smoke C. smoked D. smokes
Câu 6: How long _________ there? For five years.
A. are you living B. did you live C. have you lived D. lived
Câu 7: ___________ here tomorrow?.
A. Will they be B. Are they been C. Have you been D. Do they come
Câu 8: She wishes she________________.
A. can’t swim B. could swim C. can swim D. is swimming
Câu 9: Ba received three letters _______ you sent this morning.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. that
Câu 10: Have you ever seen Mr. Philip, ________is from America?.
A. who B. that C. whom D. which
Câu 11: We will have no fresh water to use if we _____ the water.
A. will pollute B. pollute C. polluted D. had polluted
Câu 12: If it rains this evening, I ________out.
A. don’t go B. couldn’t go C. wouldn’t go D. won’t go
Câu 13: It’s very hot, _____I go swimming.
A. and B. so that C. such that D. so
Câu 14: He doesn’t write to his parents as often as he ____________.
A. used to B. use to C. got used to D. get used to
Câu 15: The doctor_________me not to stay up too late at night.
A. suggested B. insisted C. advised D. forced
Câu 16: Millions of ___________are interested in that program on TV.
A. spectator B. audience C. watchers D. viewers
Câu 17: You must leave now ______ you will be late.
A. because B. otherwise C. or D. and
Câu 18: These exercises are _________. We cannot do them.
A. easy B. easily C. difficulty D. difficult
Câu 19: Would you like to ________ the games?
A. take part in B. take off C. take down D. take in
Câu 20: Although there are many celebrations throughout the year, Tet is the most important
______ for Vietnamese people.
A. celebrate B. celebration C. to celebrate D. celebrations
Câu 21: The baby laughed _________ as she played with her toys.
A. happier B. happily C. happyly D. happy
Câu 22: If we keep our ________ clean, we will live a happier and healthier life.
A. Environments B. environment C. an environment D. the environment
Câu 23: Don't let children ______ in the kitchen.
A. to play B. played C. playing D. play
Câu 24: The national dress of Japanese women is_______.
A. Jeans B. Ao dai C. Kimono D. Sari
Câu 25: Lan / be /taller / work / fashion model.
A. If Lan were taller, she would work as a fashion model.
B. If Lan were taller, she will work as a fashion model.
C. If Lan were taller, she would work like a fashion model.
D. If Lan is taller, she will work as a fashion model.
Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one. ( from 26 to 27)
Câu 26: She is the woman. I met her last week.
A. She is the woman which I met last week.
B. She is the woman whose I met last week.
C. She is the woman whom I met last week.
D. She is the woman who I met her last week.
Câu 27: The teacher said to them, “Don’t make noise in class!”
A. The teacher told them not making noise in class.
B. The teacher told them to not make noise in class.
C. The teacher told them not to make noise in class.
D. The teacher told them don’t make noise in class.
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (from 28 to
30)
Câu 28: A. where B. which C. when D. who
Câu 29: A. high B. fine C. lit D. light
Câu 30: A. bowl B. now C. cow D. down
Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer. (from 31 to 35)
At 6.30 in the morning, the bus collected Ba and his family from their home. After picking
everyone up, the bus continued to the North on the Highway Number 1. It crossed the Dragon
Bridge and stopped at the gas station to get some more fuel. Then, it left the highway and turned
left onto a smaller road westward. This road ran between paddy fields, so the people on the bus
can see a lot of cows and buffaloes. The road ended before a big store beside a pond. Instead of
turning left towards a small airport, the bus went in the opposite direction. It didn’t stay on that
road for very long, but turned left onto a road which went through a small bamboo forest.
Finally, the bus dropped everyone off at the parking lot ten meters from a big old banyan tree. It
parked there and waited for people to come back in the evening
Câu 31: Where did they catch a bus?
A. At a big store B. At their house
C. At gas station D. At Dragon Bridge
Câu 32: What did they do after crossing the bridge?
A. To relax B. To have breakfast
C. To buy some snacks D. To get more fuel
Câu 33: What could they see when they traveled along the fields?
A. beautiful sights B. cattle C. farmers D. historical sites
Câu 34: There is a_________next to a big store.
A. pond B. Old banyan tree C. river D. lake
Câu 35: Where did the bus drop them off?
A. At the gas station B. At the big store
C. At the big old tree D. At the parking lot
Choose the word whose stress partern is different from the others. (from 36 to 37)
Câu 36: A. receive B. nation C. happy D. active
Câu 37: A. reduce B. enjoy C. lunar D. arrive
Error Identification. (from 38 to 40)
Câu 38: I think I prefer country life more than city life.
A B C D
Câu 39: The picture was painting by Jane last year.
A B C D
Câu 40: At the moment, I am spending my weekend go to camping with my friends
PRACTICE TEST 10
Câu I (1,0 điểm): Trong các từ sau, tìm 4 từ có phần gạch chân được phát âm là /e/.
pen me key many
teacher test seven cat

Câu II (1,5 điểm): Viết dạng đúng của các động từ trong ngoặc để hoàn thành các câu sau.
1. There (be) …………………. 20 students in class 9A. They are learning English now.
2. When I (arrive) …………………. yesterday, he was watching TV.
3. They (live) …………………. here since 2003.
4. My brother likes (play) …………………. soccer in his free time.
5. The boy is too young (ride) …………………. a motorbike.
6. A modern hospital should (build) …………………. in this town soon.

Câu III (2,0 điểm): Tìm 1 lỗi sai trong 4 từ được gạch chân ở mỗi câu sau và sửa lại bằng 1 từ
thích hợp.
1. Hello, I name is Linda and I’m a student from the USA.
2. The last time I went to London was at September.
3. My father often spends a hour working in the garden everyday.
4. Jane is only 10 years old but she cooks very good.

Câu IV (1,0 điểm): Chọn 1 từ thích hợp trong bảng để điền vào mỗi chỗ trống của đoạn
văn dưới đây.
can did so
on any than
Many tourists like to send postcards to their friends and family. They send them when they are
(1)………… holiday. These postcards often have pictures on one side and a message (2)
………… be written on the other. The pictures on them are better (3) ………… the photos they
take. The first postcards were sent at the end of the nineteenth century. There was a picture of a
town on them. Later on, they had pictures showing important events. People liked to see them
because there were not (4) ………… pictures in the newspapers then.

Câu V (2,0 điểm): Đọc đoạn văn và trả lời các câu hỏi sau.
Cornwall is situated in the south-west of England. It is famous for its beautiful scenery. There is
not much industry so many people still earn their living by fishing. Another important source of
income is tourism. There are a lot of tea-shops, souvenir shops and above all "bed and breakfast".
You can see signs for these small hotels everywhere. Most of them are pretty houses or
bungalows with nice gardens and they are run by family who lives there. Cornwall is also well-
known for its history and legends. For example, in Titagel you can visit the ruins of King
Arthur's Castle where King Arthur is said to have sat with his knights at the famous round table.
Tourists often come to visit Cornwall in summer because the weather is warm and sunny.
1. Where is Cornwall situated?
2. Why do many people still earn their living by fishing?
3. Who are the hotels run by?
4. What is the weather like in Cornwall in summer?

Câu VI (2,5 điểm): Viết lại các câu sau sao cho nghĩa không thay đổi, bắt đầu bằng cụm từ
cho sẵn.
1. They clean this room everyday.
 This room …………………………
2. Mary is taller than Anne.
 Anne is not as …………………….
3. Why don’t we watch a film now?
 What about ………………………?
4. “Would you like to have some coffee?”, said Tom to Mary.
 Tom invited Mary …………….......
5. I cannot remember the man’s name. He phoned me last night.
 The man whose ……………….......

NO PAIN NO GAIN!!!!

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