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Index: Corrosion Weld and Metal Defects Photography Concrete Ultrasonic Testing Magnetic Particle Inspection General
Index: Corrosion Weld and Metal Defects Photography Concrete Ultrasonic Testing Magnetic Particle Inspection General
Corrosion Page 2
Weld and Metal Defects Page 6
Photography Page 9
Concrete Page 13
Ultrasonic Testing Page 16
Magnetic Particle Inspection Page 24
General Page 28
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Corrosion
6 A brass bolt is fitted into an aluminium plate, what will be the result:
a it will remain secure as brass does not corrode
b the brass will corrode and the bolt will fail
c the aluminium will corrode
d both will corrode equally as they are in contact
2 of 29
9 Cathodic protection is described as:
a a series of sacrificial anodes placed on a structure
b the establishment of a preferential corrosion
cell sympathetic to the material to be protected
c the application of an external current equal to or
greater than all of the microscopic cell currents
at the steel surface
d the suppression of corrosion
13 When cathodic protection is employed to prevent corrosion of a metal surface that surface
is:
a the anode
b the cathode
c radioactive
d none of the above
15 The negative terminal of the generator in an impressed current system should be attached
to:
a the anode
b the earth anchorage away from the structure
c the insulated conductor
d the structure
(return to index)
3 of 29
16 Impressed current anodes should be switched off:
a 6 hours in every 24 hours
b one week in a month
c never
d when it may be a hazard
17 An inspection of a cathode protection system will normally include the from its base
structure and:
a major pipelines up to 20m
b all pipelines up to 200m from its base
c nothing else
d pipeline connections
18 A CP meter measures:
a the corrosion that has taken place
b the wall thickness of the steel
c the potential to corrode
d the corrosion rate
20 A potential reading of -100 mV would indicate that the material under test was:
a heavily corroding steel
b zinc / magnesium anode
c monel
d silver
21 The stainless steel prod on a corrosion potential meter forms what part of the galvanic cell:
a the anode
b the cathode
c the electrolyte
d the electrical path
4 of 29
24 When using a proximity meter the reference half cell should:
a be in direct contact with the structure
b be at least 300mm from the steel surface
c be as close as possible without making contact
d never be used
(return to index)
5 of 29
32 What method is used to determine internal corrosion:
a CP metering
b MPI
c 'A' scan presentation
d visual inspection
6 of 29
7 Where are fatigue cracks most likely to appear:
a welds - on the surface
b welds - internally
c parent metal
d heat affected zone
8 When cleaning a weld for close visual inspection what cleaning standard should be
adopted:
a SA 3
b SA 2.5
c BS 5405
d BS 5200
9 When cleaning a weld for inspection what area should normally be included:
a the whole weld
b 10 cm either side and the weld itself
c 15 cm either side and the weld itself
d 20 cm either side and the weld itself
11 Oxide in welds can cause discontinuities which are similar to non-metallic inclusions but
these oxide related discontinuities are called:
a crater cracks
b seams
c slag inclusions
d TIG inclusions
12 A groove in the toe of the weld caused by excessive arc when welding is termed:
a under lap
b incompletely filled groove
c undercut
d insufficient reinforcement
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15 A reduction in thickness of metal caused by excessive grinding is:
a under flushing
b over flushing
c under dressing
d grinding mark
16 A crack running straight along the centre of the weld would be called:
a transverse
b compress ional
c longitudinal
d branching
17 Which of the following may normally be identified by close visual inspection of a weld
from the reinforcement side:
a lack of fusion
b lack of penetration
c undercut
d excessive penetration
19 When measuring a defect in the HAZ such as spatter what information would you give:
a distance from datum
b diameter, depth
c distance from adjacent toe
d all of the above
22 One method of reducing the possibility of fatigue failure in a welded joint is;
a use backing strips
b flexible coatings
c weld toe profiling
d concrete coating
(return to index)
8 of 29
23 Laminations and solid inclusions:
a are found in steel plates
b are found in steel pipes
c can be found with ultrasonic inspection
d all of the above
24 If both sides are accessible, which of following can not be detected by visual inspection:
a excessive penetration
b worm holes
c cold lap and overlap
d laminations
Photography
2 What term is given to the reflective effect of suspended minerals, silt etc in weakening the
light intensity:
a attenuation
b absorption
c scattering
d refraction
3 A camera that allows viewing through the lens prior to taking the photograph is called:
a viewfinder camera
b TLR camera
c SLR camera
d SDP camera
9 of 29
6 Depth of field increases when:
a the F number is increased
b the subject to camera distance is increased
c the lens focal length is decreased
d all of the above
10 What film size is used in the sea & sea motor marine camera:
a 126
b 35 mm
c 110
d 70 mm
11 How much larger or smaller is the image on 70 mm when compared with 35 mm film:
a two times larger
b four times larger
c two times smaller
d four times smaller
12 What term is used to express the light output of a strobe or flash unit:
a wattage
b strobe number
c guide number
d lux
(return to index)
10 of 29
13 When making a photo-mosaic of an nodal weld what overlap on individual frames should
be used:
a 30 - 40 %
b 40 - 50 %
c 60 - 70 %
d 70 - 80 %
14 What is the frame size of the nikonos camera when fitted with close-up lens and prods:
a 12 cm x 9 cm
b 11 cm x 8 cm
c 7 cm x 5 cm
d 18 cm x 20 cm
16 What F stops would you bracket around when taking a stand-off photograph from 1 m
underwater:
a F8
b F 11
c F 16
d F 22
18 What is the most important reason for filling out logs during photography:
a to save time during the writing of the report
b as a record of photographs having been taken
c to record the basic details of the film, such as
subject, diver and date
d to count the number of exposures used
11 of 29
21 To darken the negative of a black and white film:
a type of camera
b type of film
c adjust the aperture
d adjust the development
(return to index)
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Concrete
6 Salts appearing on the surface of concrete having been washed out from a crack are called:
a exudation
b incrustation
c spalling
d carbonation
8 The gritty joint formed by insufficient surface wetting in hot conditions is:
a a cold joint
b a dry joint
c a panel joint
d a construction joint
(return to index)
13 of 29
9 Which of the following is not likely to cause discoloration:
a additives
b steam curing
c rust
d mould oil
10 Concrete is designed to protect the rebar a situation called passivation; what pH level does
the concrete need to be to achieve this:
a 4
b 8
c 12
d 14
(return to index)
14 of 29
16 Pre-stressed tendons are installed to:
a prevent the concrete falling apart
b to impart tension
c to impart compression
d to keep the shuttering in place
(return to index)
15 of 29
Ultrasonic
4 When the angle of incidence for a longitudinal wave exceeds the first critical angle:
a shear wave mode will be totally reflected
b longitudinal waves will be totally reflected
5 When the angle of incidence for shear wave exceeds the second critical angle we have:
a only the surface mode enters the specimen
(return to index)
16 of 29
8 The back and forth movements of particles within a medium are called:
a cycles
b wavelengths
c vibrations
d displacements
14 The velocity of sound is constant for a given material but varies from one material to
another:
a true
b false
17 of 29
17 Wavelength is described as:
a the distance a wave travels to the back surface of the
specimen
b the distance a waveform advances while a particle
makes one complete vibration or orbit
c the number of cycles produced per second
d the time required for a wave to reach a certain
point in the specimen
19 A definite relationship exists among the three factors; velocity, frequency and wavelength.
this relationship is expressed by the formula:
a l = v/f
b l = f/v
c l = fv
d x = l/f
20 A device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy and mechanical energy to
electrical energy is called a:
a generator
b transceiver
c transducer
d converter
21 The zone in an ultrasonic beam where irregular intensities exist is called the:
a near zone
b far zone
c irregular zone
d free field
(return to index)
18 of 29
24 The lower the impedance mismatch between materials making up an interface, the greater
the sound loss:
a true
b false
30 In the 'A' scan presentation the vertical deflection on the cathode ray tube represents:
a elapsed time or distance
b signal amplitude
c distance travelled by the transducers
d direction of wave travel
(return to index)
19 of 29
32 Which of the following will not produce spurious indications:
a mode conversion
b attenuation
c reflection
d refraction
35 When using a digital thickness meter which does not have a built in system for calibration,
which of the following statements is correct:
a calibration is unnecessary
b the meter should be calibrated once a week
c the meter should be calibrated before and after
every reading is taken
d the meter should be check calibrated before and
after every dive on which it is to be used
38 An ultrasonic test instrument that displays pulses representing the function of time and
distance is a:
a continuous wave
b 'A' scan presentation
c 'B' scan presentation
d 'C' scan presentation
(return to index)
20 of 29
39 Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest attenuation loss:
a 1.0 MHz
b 10.0 MHz
c 25 kHz
d 25 MHz
40 What is a decibel:
a a linear measurement of sound intensity
b a logarithmic comparison
c a unit of sound velocity
d none of the above
41 An increase in signal amplitude of 6 dB will increase the amplitude by how many times:
a 2
b 6
c 8
d 10
42 An increase in signal amplitude of 20 dB will increase the amplitude by how many times:
a 2
b 6
c 8
d 10
43 Taking the softest sound power level the ear can detect as 1 dB what is the loudest sound
the ear can accept:
a 100 dB
b 120 dB
c 200 dB
d 260 dB
45 When calibrating the 'A' scan unit which indication should be at full scale height:
a first back wall echo
b initial pulse
c primary discontinuity
d all peaks
46 If the probe is placed over the groove on the V1 test block and three clearly defined
indications are produced what can be said of the unit:
a it is properly calibrated
b it has good linearity
c it has good sensitivity
d it has good resolution
(return to index)
21 of 29
47 When great accuracy is required in sizing a discontinuity what method should be used:
a 6 dB drop
b 20 dB drop
c 10 dB drop
d Sea probe
52 Vibrations are:
a chemical energy
b electro/chemical energy
c mechanical energy
d heat energy
22 of 29
55 An inaccurate wall thickness reading will result if:
a the material is laminated
b there is a lack of parallelism between the back and
front faces
c the material is between 10 and 15 mm thick
d the material is between 30 and 40 mm thick
23 of 29
Magnetic Particle Inspection
1 An object that has the ability to strongly attract iron and other magnetic materials is
termed:
a magnetic
b ferromagnetic
c diamagnetic
d magnetisable
7 What are the lines of force that jump the gap formed by a crack called:
a vector fields
b resultant force
c flux leakage
d hunters
8 What is the SI unit for flux density:
a gauss
b Kg/m2
c tesla
d oersted
(return to index)
24 of 29
9 Materials that are repelled by a magnetic field such as bismuth are called:
a diamagnetic
b paramagnetic
c antimagnetic
d ferromagnetic
11 What is the reversing magnetising force required to remove residual magnetism from a
material called:
a coercive force
b hysteresis loop
c residual potential
d neg.-residual magnetisation
13 Which of the following methods of producing magnetic flux is not used underwater:
a prods
b permanent magnets
c parallel closed loop conductor
d threaded bar
14 Which of the following is generally considered to be the most consistent method for
producing sufficient magnetic flux underwater
a prods
b threaded bars
c permanent magnets
: d parallel closed loop conductors
25 of 29
17 What flux density is required in the testing area for MPI:
a more than 0.72 tesla a
b more than 0.72 gauss
c more than 365 nanometers
d more that 1.44 gauss
20 When using DC for demagnetisation how often should the current be how often should the
current be reversed:
a 50 times per second
b once a second
c every half second
d it should only be reversed once
21 For use in MPI what pull must permanent and electromagnets have:
a more that 18 Kg
b more than 45 Kg
c more than 10.5 Kg
d more than 28 Kg
22 What is the optimum orientation of a defect with relation to the lines of a magnetic
force:
a 0º to 45º
b 0º
c 90º
d 45º to 90º
26 of 29
25 What is the maximum solid content for fluorescent ink above water:
a not greater than 0.35% by volume
b not greater than 10% by weight
c not greater than 0.35% by weight
d not greater than 10% by volume
26 when checking the U/V light intensity at a distance of 45 cm what is the minimum
requirement:
a 10 lux
b 50 lux
c 150 lux
d 210 lux
28 How long does it take for the UV light to reach full intensity:
a 30 seconds
b 1 minute
c 5 minutes
d 1 hour in seawater
27 of 29
General
2 Which of the following methods for removing marine growth is the least detrimental to
the surface of a structure:
a water jet
b pneumatic grinder
c hydraulic grinder
d needle gun
4 The maximum water depth that pneumatic entrainment of abrasives can efficiently be used
is:
a 3m
b 30m
c 50m
d 120m
(return to index)
28 of 29
8 Marine growth is influenced by:
a depth
b temperature
c both
d neither
(return to index)
29 of 29