Health Occupations Entrance Exams 4th Edition PDF

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HEALTH
OCCUPATIONS
ENTRANCE EXAMS
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HEALTH
OCCUPATIONS
ENTRANCE EXAMS
Fourth Edition
NEW Y O RK
HealthOcc_00_FM_i-viii_LearningExpress 5/25/17 3:08 PM Page iv
Copyright © 2017 LearningExpress.
All rights reserved under International and Pan-American Copyright Conventions.

Published in the United States by LearningExpress, New York.
Cataloging-in-Publication Data is on file with the Library of Congress.
ISBN 978-1-57685-922-3
Printed in the United States of America
987654
Fourth Edition
For more information on LearningExpress, other LearningExpress products, or bulk sales, please write to us at:
224 West 29th Street
3rd Floor
New York, NY 10001
HealthOcc_00_FM_i-viii_LearningExpress 5/25/17 3:08 PM Page v
CONTRIBUTORS
Dr. Alec Durrell received his Ph.D. in chemistry from the California Institute of Technology and his B.S. in
chemistry from the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill. He is currently a postdoctoral associate at Yale
University.
Mark Kalk is a member of the biology faculty at Washington University in St. Louis. He works in the University’s
Science Outreach program, providing classes, classroom materials, and support to local K–12 teachers. He is a
frequent speaker at science education conferences and the author of several books and curriculum materials.
Cindy Phillips has been a high school mathematics teacher for the past eight years. She is currently teaching at
White Plains High School in Westchester County, just north of New York City. She is also a Texas Instruments
certified instructor in graphing calculator technology.
Margaret Muirhead is a writer and editor from Arlington, Massachusetts. She is a contributor for LearningEx-
press’s Healthcare Career Starter and Nursing School Entrance Exam. She has also written about a range of health
topics for the Harvard University Health Services and the University of Virginia Health System.
Ghislain Mandouma was educated in France (Orsay) and England (Imperial College), where he graduated
with a B.Sc. degree in chemistry. He obtained his Ph.D. in chemistry from the City University of New York while
teaching at Hunter College. After doing postdoctoral research at the University of Virginia, he joined the faculty
of the department of Natural Sciences at the University of Maryland, Eastern Shore, in 2003.
Tyler Volk is associate professor of biology at New York University and codirector of the program in earth and
environmental science. He is the author of the books Gaia’s Body: Toward a Physiology of Earth; What is Death:
A Scientist Looks at the Cycle of Life; and Metapatterns Across Space, Time, and Mind.
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HealthOcc_00_FM_i-viii_LearningExpress 5/25/17 3:08 PM Page vii
CONTENTS
CHAPTER 1 Health Occupations Entrance Exam Planner 1
CHAPTER 2 LearningExpress Test Preparation System 9
CHAPTER 3 Practice Exam I 25
CHAPTER 4 Verbal Ability 81
CHAPTER 5 Reading Comprehension 89
CHAPTER 6 Math Review 101
CHAPTER 7 Biology Review 155
CHAPTER 8 Chemistry Review 187
CHAPTER 9 General Science Review 219
CHAPTER 10 Practice Exam II 275
CHAPTER 11 Practice Exam III 331
ADDITIONAL ONLINE PRACTICE 387
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1
HEALTH
C H A P T E R
OCCUPATIONS
ENTRANCE
EXAM PLANNER
CHAPTER SUMMARY
In this chapter, you will learn about what you can expect on a
health occupations entrance exam, as well as how to use this
book to your best advantage. You will learn tips about how to
prepare for the exam and develop a study plan that meets your
specific needs. After conducting a self-evaluation, you can
choose from among four customized test-preparation schedules.
Y ou have chosen this book because you want to pursue a rewarding career in healthcare. The health-
care field encompasses a wide range of exciting career choices, and the employment prospects for
jobs in the next decade are excellent. Healthcare services make up the largest industry today and in-
clude occupations that are projected to be some of the fastest-growing jobs in the United States.
Healthcare occupations are composed of professionals and paraprofessionals, assistants and aides, tech-
nologists and technicians. You may be preparing for a job as a medical records technician, physical therapist,
respiratory therapist, speech-language pathologist, or one of the other professions under the broad umbrella of
health services.
But to begin your career, you need to get into a training program, and most likely, you will face a health oc-
cupations entrance exam. Because there is no one standard test that applies to all training programs, this book is
not test-specific, but rather encompasses the core knowledge and skills you will need to pass any health occupa-
tions entrance exam. Developed from real tests commonly used in the field today, this book offers a study plan-
ner, valuable practice tests, and a review of the subjects tested—in short, everything you need to succeed.
1
– HEALTH OCCUPATIONS ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –
Test Overview pations entrance exams, the HOAE and the TEAS.
If you know you will need to take one of these tests,
To begin preparing for the test, you need an overview contact the following testing agencies for more in-
of the type of exam you are facing and some tips formation about registration, testing locations, and
about how to use this book to achieve your best test dates.
score. Again, there is no single test required by all
health occupations training programs. Schools have
different requirements for admission, depending on Health Occupations
the institution, your choice of study, and whether Aptitude Exam (HOAE)
you are applying for a certification course, a one-,
two-, or four-year degree, or a graduate program. Educational programs that offer degrees ranging
Many accredited health education programs ask from the associate level to a master’s degree may re-
candidates to pass either the Health Occupations quire that applicants take the HOAE. Developed by
Aptitude Exam (HOAE) or the Test of Essential Aca- the Psychological Services Bureau, Inc., this exam
demic Skills (TEAS). However, even if the school of consists of five parts and takes about two-and-a-
your choice uses another exam, you will most likely half hours to complete. The first section is divided
need to demonstrate the essential skills covered in into three subsections.
this book. You must show that you can communicate
n Academic Aptitude, 75 questions
effectively, are able to read and understand college-
level materials, and have basic math skills. You may 1. Verbal
also be asked to demonstrate that you have funda- 2. Math
mental knowledge about biology, chemistry, natural 3. Analytical Reasoning
n Spelling, 45 questions
science, anatomy, and physiology.
n Reading Comprehension, 35 questions
Contact the school of your choice immediately
n Natural Science, 60 questions
to find out exactly which tests you will need to pass.
n Vocational Adjustment, 90 questions
Many institutions offer a test guide or sample ques-
tions from the entrance exam that they use—be sure
to take advantage of any information that the school To register for this test or learn about testing
provides about the test. sites, contact the school of your choice or:
If you have not done so already, find out about
test dates and sites in your area. The dates when the Psychological Services Bureau, Inc.
test is offered in your area may determine when you 977 Seminole Trail PMB 317
take the exam. However, if you have a choice of test Charlottesville, VA 22901
dates, and if you have not already applied to take the 434-293-5865
exam, do not apply until you have conducted the www.psbtests.com
self-evaluation outlined in this chapter. The results of
that self-evaluation can help you decide when to take
the exam.
In this chapter, you will find contact informa-
tion and an overview of two common health occu-
2
Test of Essential Academic Skills this chapter. You will learn how to use the first prac-
(ATI TEAS 6 or TEAS) tice exam as a self-evaluation to diagnose your
strengths and the areas in which you need more
All nursing programs require the TEAS, a pre- preparation. This chapter will also show you how to
admittance test administered through the Assess- customize your study plan so that you can achieve a
ment Technologies Institute (ATI) Nursing Educa- top score.
tion. This three-and-a-half-hour test measures your In Chapter 2, “LearningExpress Test Prepara-
ability in four general academic areas—your knowl- tion System,” you will learn strategies to manage your
edge of English language and usage, your reading study time as well as practical test-taking tips, such as
skills, your understanding of science, and your ability how to pace yourself during the exam, when to guess,
to solve math problems. The test includes 170 ques- and how to combat test anxiety. Be sure to review the
tions, 20 of which are not scored, over four academic helpful strategies in this chapter before you begin the
sections: self-evaluation process.
Chapters 4–9 cover the subject areas found on
n English Language and Usage most health occupations entrance exams: Verbal
n Reading Ability, Reading Comprehension, Math, Biology,
n Science Chemistry, and General Science. Each of these chap-
n Mathematics ters will provide an overview of the kinds of ques-
tions you will encounter on the exam and how to
When you are ready to register for the TEAS, tackle them. And you will find practice questions
you can do so on the official ATI website, which offers throughout—so you can hone your test-taking skills
a select number of institutions offering the test. while you review each topic.
www.atitesting.com/ctccteas/
Self-Evaluation
If your school is not featured on the site, contact
the school directly to learn how to register for the Your first step is to evaluate your level of prepared-
TEAS. ness. Begin by taking the practice test in Chapter 3 to
highlight the areas in which you are strongest and
those in which you need more work. You do not have
How to Use This Book to time yourself—just make sure you have allotted
enough time (approximately four hours) so that you
This book contains three practice exams (in Chapters can complete the test in one sitting. When you have
3, 10, and 11) that include the same types of ques- finished, score your exam using the answer key at the
tions as the health occupations entrance exam that end. Then match your percentages on each section
you will face. You may be tempted to start right in with the following analysis.
with a practice exam—but before you do, read on in
3
SECTION SCORE ANALYSIS
under 50% You need concentrated work in this area. Your best bet is to take an additional
course. If that is not possible, contact your school’s guidance or academic
counseling office to arrange for a tutor. Turn to the chapter of this book pertaining
to this section of the test only after you have taken a review course or spent at least
two months in tutoring; at that point, you will be ready to get maximum benefit from
the tips and practice questions in the chapter.
51–70% This area may not be your strong suit, which is why you should not only work through
the relevant chapter of this book, but also use the additional resources listed at the
end of that chapter. You might want to find a tutor or form a study group with other
students preparing for a health occupations entrance exam.
71–85% You can probably get all the additional help you need from the chapter of this book
pertaining to this section of the test—unless science falls into this category, in
which case you should also refer to a biology, chemistry, natural science, or
anatomy and physiology textbook.
over 85% Congratulations! You do not need a lot of work in this area. Turn to the relevant
chapter of this book to pick up vital tips and practice that can give you extra points
in this area.
Most people do better on some sections of the Planning for Success

exam than on others, but most also find that the varia-
tion is within a certain range; that is, it is rare to score There are four customized schedules on the following
under 50% in one section and over 90% in another. If pages, based on the amount of time you have before
you are one of those rare types, do not worry; it just the exam. If you are the kind of person who needs
shows you where most of your preparation time should go. deadlines and assignments to motivate you for a proj-
But if you are more typical, where your section ect, here they are. If you prefer to design your own
scores tend to cluster on the chart should tell you study timeline, use the suggested schedules here to
something about when you should take the exam (if help you create an effective plan.
you have a choice) and how much time you will have Be sure to research the content of the specific
to put in to prepare. If your scores cluster in the “un- entrance test you will be taking in order to adapt
der 50%” category, you should really consider post- the given schedules for your exam. For example, if
poning taking the exam until you have had some you are taking the TEAS, you may plan to skip the
time for serious study. If your scores tend to be in the verbal chapter, since only the HOAE features
middle ranges, then you can go ahead and take the spelling questions.
exam, but you should plan to put aside a fair amount In constructing your plan, you should take into
of time for study between now and exam day. And if account how much work you need to do. If your
most or all of your scores are in the “over 85%” cate- scores on the first practice exam were not what you
gory, you can still benefit from the practice tests and hoped, you should take some of the steps from
review chapters in this book—your study time will Schedule A and get them into Schedule D somehow,
most likely ensure a high score on the entrance exam. even if you do have only two weeks before the exam.
4
Similarly, your scores on the practice exam should n Exam minus 4 months: Read Chapter 7, “Biol-
help determine how much time you have to spend ogy Review,” and work through the sample
each week. If you scored low, you might need to de- questions. Use the resources listed at the end of
vote several hours a day to test preparation. If you the chapter for a comprehensive review. All this
scored high, a few hours a week will probably be reading is a good time to practice your reading
enough. comprehension skills, too.
Even more important than making a plan is n Exam minus 3 months: Read Chapter 8,
making a commitment. You cannot get ready “Chemistry Review,” and work through the
overnight for a health occupations entrance exam. Set exercises. Use the resources listed at the end of
aside some time every day—every other day, if your the chapter, or your old textbooks, to review
scores were high and you have months until the topics you are shaky on.
exam—for study and practice. An hour every day or n Exam minus 2 months: Read Chapter 6, “Math
every other day will do you much more good than a Review,” and work through the exercises. Give
day or two of cramming right before the exam. yourself additional practice by making up your
own test questions in the areas that give you the
Schedule A: Six Months to Exam most trouble.
You have taken the first practice test in Chapter 3 and n Exam minus 4 weeks: Read Chapter 4, “Verbal
know that you have at least six months in which to Ability,” and work through the exercises. Use at
build on your strengths and improve in areas where least one additional resource listed here.
you are weak. Do not put off your preparation. In six n Exam minus 2 weeks: Take the practice exam
months, five hours a week can make a significant dif- in Chapter 10. Use your scores to help you de-
ference in your score. cide your focus for this week. Go back to the
relevant chapters, and get the help of a teacher
n Exam minus 6 months: Pick the one section in or your study group.
which your percentage score on the practice n Exam minus 1 week: Review the first two sam-
exam was lowest to concentrate on this month. ple tests, especially the answer explanations.
Read the relevant chapter from among Chap- Then, take the practice exam in Chapter 11 for
ters 4–9 and work through the exercises. Use extra practice. As you study this week,
the additional resources listed in that chapter. concentrate on your strongest areas and decide
When you get to that chapter in the following not to let any areas where you still feel uncer-
plan, review it. tain bother you. Go to bed early every night
n Exam minus 5 months: Read Chapter 5, “Read- this week so you can be at your best by test
ing Comprehension,” and work through the time.
exercises. Practice reading textbooks and pro- n Exam minus 1 day: Relax. Do something unre-
fessional journal articles about healthcare, and lated to your health occupations entrance
quiz yourself on each chapter or article you exam. Eat a healthy meal and go to bed at your
read. Read Chapter 9, “General Science Review,” new early bedtime.
using your reading comprehension skills. Find
other people who are preparing for the exam Schedule B: Three to Six Months
and form a study group. to Exam
If you have three to six months until the exam, you
have just enough time to prepare, as long as you put
5
in at least seven or eight hours a week. This schedule Schedule C: One to Three Months
assumes you have four months; stretch it out or com- to Exam
press it if you have more or less time. If you have one to three months until the exam, you
still have time to get ready, but you should plan to put
n Exam minus 4 months: Read Chapter 5, “Read- in 10 hours a week. This schedule is built around a
ing Comprehension,” and work through the two-month time frame. If you have only one month,
exercises. Practice your reading comprehension spend a couple of extra hours a week so you can get
skills as you work through Chapter 9, “General all the steps in. If you have three months, include
Science Review,” and the resources listed at the some of the steps from Schedule B.
end of that chapter. Find other people who are
preparing for the exam and form a study group. n Exam minus 8 weeks: Read Chapter 5, “Read-
n Exam minus 3 months: Read Chapters 7 and 8, ing Comprehension,” and work through the
“Biology Review” and “Chemistry Review,” and exercises. Use your reading comprehension
work through the exercises. Use the resources skills as you review Chapter 9, “General Science
listed at the end of the chapters, or your old Review.”
textbooks, to review topics you’re shaky on. n Exam minus 6 weeks: Read Chapters 7 and 8,
n Exam minus 2 months: Read Chapter 6, “Math “Biology Review” and “Chemistry Review,” and
Review,” and work through the exercises. Give work through the exercises. Use the resources
yourself additional practice by making up your listed at the end of the chapters, or your old
own test questions in the areas that give you the textbooks, to review topics you’re shaky on.
most trouble. n Exam minus 4 weeks: Read Chapter 6, “Math
n Exam minus 4 weeks: Read Chapter 4, “Verbal Review,” and work through the exercises.
Ability,” and work through the exercises. Use at n Exam minus 2 weeks: Read Chapter 4, “Verbal
least one of the additional resources listed Ability,” and work through the exercises.
there. n Exam minus 1 week: Take the practice test in
n Exam minus 2 weeks: Take the practice test in Chapter 10. Use your scores to help you decide
Chapter 10. Use your scores to help you decide where to concentrate your efforts this week. Go
where to concentrate your efforts this week. Go back to the relevant chapters, and get the help
back to the relevant chapters, and get help from of a teacher or friend. Go to bed early every
a teacher or your study group. night this week so you can be at your peak by
n Exam minus 1 week: Review the first two sam- test time.
ple tests, especially the answer explanations. n Exam minus 4 days: Take the practice exam in
Read over the test-taking strategies in Chapter Chapter 11 for extra practice.
2. Then, take the sample test in Chapter 11 for n Exam minus 1 day: Relax. Do something unre-
extra practice. Choose the one area in which lated to your health occupations entrance
your scores are lowest to review this week. Go exam. Eat a healthy meal and go to bed at your
to bed early every night this week so you can be new early bedtime.
at your peak by test time.
n Exam minus 1 day: Relax. Do something unre-
lated to your health occupations entrance
exam. Eat a healthy meal and go to bed at your
new early bedtime.
6
Schedule D: Two to Four Weeks n Exam minus 6 days: Take the practice test in
to Exam Chapter 10. Choose one or two areas to review
If you have three weeks or less before the test, you re- until the day before the exam, based on your
ally have your work cut out for you. Carve half an scores. Go back to the relevant instructional
hour out of your day, every day, for studying. This chapters, and get the help of a teacher or friend.
schedule assumes you have the whole three weeks to n Exam minus 4 days: Take the practice exam in
prepare; if you have less time, you will have to com- Chapter 11 for extra practice.
press the schedule accordingly. n Exam minus 1 day: Relax. Do something unre-
lated to your health occupations entrance
n Exam minus 14 days: Read Chapter 5, “Read- exam. Eat a healthy meal and go to bed at your
ing Comprehension,” and work through the new early bedtime.
exercises. Use your reading comprehension
skills as you review Chapter 9, “General Science
Review.” Work through the exercises in that Score Your Best
chapter.
n Exam minus 12 days: Read Chapters 7 and 8, The final step in your study plan is to plan to succeed
“Biology Review” and “Chemistry Review,” and on exam day. Preparation is the key to building your
work through the exercises. Use the resources confidence and giving you the edge you will need to
listed at the end of the chapters, or your old do your best on the exam. If you use this book to cus-
textbooks, to review topics you’re shaky on. tomize and follow a study plan, learn the secrets of
n Exam minus 10 days: Read Chapter 6, “Math test success, study the kinds of questions on the exam,
Review,” and work through the exercises. and take the practice tests, you will score your best—
n Exam minus 8 days: Read Chapter 4, “Verbal because you will be prepared.
Ability,” and work through the exercises. Go to
bed early every night this week so you can be at
your peak by test time.
7
2
THE
C H A P T E R
LEARNINGEXPRESS
TEST PREPARATION
SYSTEM
CHAPTER SUMMARY
Taking a health occupations entrance exam can be tough, and
your career in healthcare depends on your passing the exam.
The LearningExpress Test Preparation System, developed exclu-
sively for LearningExpress by leading test experts, gives you the
discipline and attitude you need to succeed.
T aking the health occupations entrance exam can be challenging, and preparing yourself for the test will
take work. Your future career in healthcare depends on passing the test, but there are all sorts of pitfalls
that can keep you from doing your best on this all-important exam. Here are some of the obstacles that
can stand in the way of your success:
n being unfamiliar with the format of the exam

n being paralyzed by test anxiety
n leaving your preparation to the last minute
n not preparing at all!
n not knowing vital test-taking skills: how to pace yourself through the exam, how to use the process of
elimination, and when to guess
n not being in your best mental and physical shape
n arriving late at the test site, having to work on an empty stomach, or shivering through the exam because
the room is cold
9
– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –
What’s the common denominator in all these Step 1: Get Infor mation
test-taking pitfalls? One word: control. Who’s in con-
trol, you or the exam? Activities: Read Chapter 1, “Health Occupations
Now the good news: The LearningExpress Test Entrance Exam Planner,” and use the suggestions
Preparation System puts you in control. In just nine there to find out about your requirements.
easy-to-follow steps, you will learn everything you
need to know to make sure that you are in charge of Knowledge is power. Therefore, first, you have to find
your preparation and your performance on the exam. out everything you can about the health occupations
Other test takers may let the test get the better of them; entrance exam. Once you have your information, the
other test takers may be unprepared or out of shape— next steps will show you what to do about it.
but not you. You will have taken all the steps you need
to take to get a high score on the health occupations Part A: Straight Talk about
entrance exam. the Health Occupations
Here’s how the LearningExpress Test Preparation Entrance Exam
System works: Nine easy steps lead you through every- Why do you have to take this exam, anyway? Because an
thing you need to know and do to get ready to master increasing number of people, particularly elderly people,
your exam. Each of the following steps includes both need to be cared for. And, since more and more people
reading about the step and one or more activities. It is need these services, there is growing concern about the
important that you do the activities along with the quality of care the patients get. One way to try to ensure
reading, or you won’t be getting the full benefit of the quality of care is to test the people who give that care to
system. find out if they have been well trained. And that’s why
your state, your schools, or the agency you want to work
Step 1. Get Information for may require you to take a written exam.
Step 2. Conquer Test Anxiety It is important for you to remember that your
Step 3. Make a Plan score on the written exam does not determine how
Step 4. Learn to Manage Your Time smart you are or even whether you will make a good
Step 5. Learn to Use the Process of Elimination healthcare professional. There are all kinds of things a
Step 6. Know When to Guess written exam like this can’t test: whether you are likely
Step 7. Reach Your Peak Performance Zone to show up late or call in sick a lot, whether you can
Step 8. Get Your Act Together be patient with a trying client, or whether you can be
Step 9. Do It! trusted with confidential information about people’s
health. Those kinds of things are hard to evaluate on
If you have several hours, you can work through a written exam. Meanwhile, it is easy to evaluate
the whole LearningExpress Test Preparation System in whether you can correctly answer questions about
one sitting. Otherwise, you can break it up and do just your job duties.
one or two steps a day for the next several days. It is up This is not to say that correctly answering the
to you—remember, you are in control. questions on the written exam is not important! The
knowledge tested on the exam is knowledge you will
need to do your job, and your ability to enter the pro-
fession you have trained for depends on your passing
10
this exam. And that’s why you are here—to achieve Stop here and complete the Test Anxiety Quiz on
control over the exam. the next page to find out whether your level of test anx-
iety is something you should worry about.
Part B: What’s on the Test
If you haven’t already done so, stop here and read Stress Management before the Test
Chapter 1 of this book, which gives you an overview of If you feel your level of anxiety getting the best of you
the written exam. Later, you will have the opportunity in the weeks before the test, here is what you need to
to take the sample practice exams in Chapters 3, 10, do to bring the level down again:
and 11.
n Get prepared. There’s nothing like knowing
what to expect and being prepared for it to put
Step 2: Conquer Test Anxiety you in control of test anxiety. That’s why you
are reading this book. Use it faithfully, and
Activity: Take the Test Anxiety Quiz on page 12. remind yourself that you are better prepared
than most of the people taking the test.
Having complete information about the exam is the n Practice self-confidence. A positive attitude is a
first step in getting control of the exam. Next, you have great way to combat test anxiety. This is no
to overcome one of the biggest obstacles to test success: time to be humble or shy. Stand in front of the
test anxiety. Test anxiety can not only impair your per- mirror and say to your reflection, “I’m pre-
formance on the exam itself; it can even keep you from pared. I’m full of self-confidence. I’m going to
preparing! In this step, you will learn stress manage- ace this test. I know I can do it.” If you hear it
ment techniques that will help you succeed on your often enough, you will come to believe it.
exam. Learn these strategies now, and practice them as n Fight negative messages. Every time someone
you complete the exams in this book so that they will starts telling you how hard the exam is or how
be second nature to you by exam day. it is almost impossible to get a high score, start
telling them your self-confidence messages
Combating Test Anxiety above. If the someone with the negative mes-
The first thing you need to know is that a little test anx- sages is you, telling yourself You don’t do well on
iety is a good thing. Everyone gets nervous before a big exams or You just can’t do this, don’t listen.
exam—and if that nervousness motivates you to pre- n Visualize. Imagine yourself reporting for duty
pare thoroughly, so much the better. Many well-known on your first day as a healthcare professional.
people throughout history have experienced anxiety or Think of yourself helping patients and making
nervousness—from performers such as actor Sir Lau- them more comfortable. Imagine coming home
rence Olivier and singer Aretha Franklin to writers with your first paycheck. Visualizing success
such as Charlotte Brontë and Alfred Lord Tennyson. In can help make it happen—and it reminds you
fact, anxiety probably gave them a little extra edge— of why you are working so hard to pass the
just the kind of edge you need to do well, whether on exam.
a stage or in an examination room.
11
TEST ANXIETY QUIZ
You need to worry about test anxiety only if it is extreme enough to impair your performance. The following
questionnaire will provide a diagnosis of your level of test anxiety. In the blank before each statement, write
the number that most accurately describes your experience.
0 = Never
1 = Once or twice
2 = Sometimes
3 = Often
______ I have gotten so nervous before an exam that I put down the books and did not study for it.
______ I have experienced disabling physical symptoms such as vomiting and severe headaches because
I was nervous about an exam.
______ I have simply not shown up for an exam because I was afraid to take it.
______ I have experienced dizziness and disorientation while taking an exam.
______ I have had trouble filling in the little circles because my hands were shaking too hard.
______ I have failed an exam because I was too nervous to complete it.
______ Total: Add up the numbers in the blanks above.
Your Test Stress Score

Here are the steps you should take, depending on your score. If you scored:
n Below 3: Your level of test anxiety is nothing to worry about; it is probably just enough to give you that
little extra edge.
n Between 3 and 6: Your test anxiety may be enough to impair your performance, and you should practice
the stress management techniques in this section to try to bring your test anxiety down to manageable
levels.
n Above 6: Your level of test anxiety is a serious concern. In addition to practicing the stress management
techniques listed in this section, you may want to seek additional, personal help. Call your local high school
or community college and ask for the academic counselor. Tell the counselor that you have a level of test
anxiety that sometimes keeps you from being able to take the exam. The counselor may be willing to help
you or may suggest someone else you should talk to.
12
n Exercise. Physical activity helps calm down n Find an easy question. Skim over the test until
your body and focus your mind. Besides, being you find an easy question, and answer it. Get-
in good physical shape can actually help you do ting even one circle filled in gets you into the
well on the exam. Go for a run, lift weights, go test-taking groove.
swimming—and do it regularly. n Take a mental break. Everyone loses concentra-
tion once in a while during a long test. It is nor-
Stress Management on Test Day mal, so you shouldn’t worry about it. Instead,
There are several ways you can bring down your level accept what has happened. Say to yourself,
of test anxiety on test day. They will work best if you “Hey, I lost it there for a minute. My brain is
practice them in the weeks before the test, so you know taking a break.” Put down your pencil, close
which ones work best for you. your eyes, and do some deep breathing for a
few seconds. Then you will be ready to go
n Deep breathing. Take a deep breath while you back to work.
count to five. Hold it for a count of one, then
let it out for a count of five. Repeat several Try these techniques ahead of time, and see
times. which ones work best for you!
n Move your body. Try rolling your head in a cir-
cle. Rotate your shoulders. Shake your hands
from the wrist. Many people find these move- Step 3: Make a Plan
ments very relaxing.
n Visualize again. Think of the place where you Activity: Construct a study plan.
are most relaxed: lying on the beach in the sun,
walking through the park, or whatever makes One of the most important things you can do to get
you feel good. Now close your eyes and imagine control of yourself and your exam is to make a study
you are actually there. If you practice in plan. Too many people fail to prepare simply because
advance, you will find that you only need a few they fail to plan. Spending hours poring over sample
seconds of this exercise to experience a signifi- test questions the day before the exam not only raises
cant increase in your sense of well-being. your level of test anxiety, but it also will not replace
careful preparation and practice over time.
When anxiety threatens to overwhelm you right Don’t fall into the cram trap. Take control of your
there during the exam, there are still things you can do preparation time by mapping out a study schedule. On
to manage the stress level. pages 5–7 are four sample schedules, based on the
amount of time you have before you take the written
n Repeat your self-confidence messages. You exam. If you are the kind of person who needs dead-
should have them memorized by now. Say them lines and assignments to motivate you for a project,
quietly to yourself, and believe them! here they are. If you are the kind of person who doesn’t
n Visualize one more time. This time, visualize like to follow other people’s plans, you can use the sug-
yourself moving smoothly and quickly through gested schedules to construct your own.
the test answering every question correctly and Even more important than making a plan is mak-
finishing just before time is up. Like most visu- ing a commitment. You can’t review everything you
alization techniques, this one works best if you learned in your healthcare courses in one night. You
have practiced it ahead of time. need to set aside some time every day for study and
13
practice. Try for at least 20 minutes a day. Twenty min- 3. Kinesthetic learners must do! They need to
utes daily will do you much more good than two hours draw diagrams, write directions, and so on.
on Saturday—divide your test preparation into smaller Rewriting notes on index cards or making mar-
pieces of the larger work. In addition, making study gin notes in your textbooks also helps kinesthetic
notes, creating visual aids, and memorizing can be learners to retain information.
quite useful as you prepare. Each time you begin to
study, quickly review your last lesson. This act will help Mnemonics
you retain all you have learned and help you assess if Mnemonics are memory tricks that help you remem-
you are studying effectively. You may realize you are not ber what you need to know. The three basic principles
remembering some of the material you studied earlier. in the use of mnemonics are imagination, association,
Approximately one week before your exam, try to and location. Acronyms (words created from the first
determine the areas that are still most difficult for you. letters in a series of words) are common mnemonics.
Don’t put off your study until the day before the One acronym you may already know is HOMES, for
exam. Start now. A few minutes a day, with half an hour the names of the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michi-
or more on weekends, can make a big difference in gan, Erie, and Superior). ROY G. BIV reminds people
your score. of the colors in the spectrum (Red, Orange, Yellow,
Green, Blue, Indigo, and Violet). Depending on the
Learning Styles type of learner you are, mnemonics can also be color-
Each of us absorbs information differently. Whichever ful or vivid images, stories, word associations, or catchy
way works best for you is called your dominant learning rhymes such as “Thirty days hath September . . . ” cre-
method. If someone asks you to help them construct a ated in your mind. Any type of learner, whether visual,
bookcase they just bought, which may be in many pieces, auditory, or kinesthetic, can use mnemonics to help the
how do you begin? Do you need to read the directions brain store and interpret information.
and see the diagram? Would you rather hear someone
read the directions to you—telling you which part con-
nects to another? Or do you draw your own diagram? Step 4: Lear n to
The three main learning methods are visual, Manage Your Time
auditory, and kinesthetic. Determining which type of
learner you are will help you create tools for studying. Activities: Practice these strategies as you take the
sample tests in this book.
1. Visual learners need to see the information in the
form of maps, pictures, text, words, or mathematical Steps 4, 5, and 6 of the LearningExpress Test Prepara-
equations. Outlining notes and important points in tion System put you in charge of your exam by show-
colorful highlighters and taking note of diagrams ing you test-taking strategies that work. Practice these
and pictures may be key in helping you study. strategies as you take the sample tests in this book, and
2. Auditory learners retain information when they then you will be ready to use them on test day.
can hear directions, the spelling of a word, a First, you will take control of your time on the
math theorem, or a poem. Repeating informa- exam. Most health occupations entrance exams have a
tion aloud or listening to a recording of your time limit, which may give you more than enough time
notes may help. Many auditory learners also find to complete all the questions—or may not. It is a ter-
working in study groups or having someone quiz rible feeling to hear the examiner say, “Five minutes
them is beneficial. left,” when you are only three-quarters of the way
14
through the test. Here are some tips to keep that from wisdom that you should always read all the answer
happening to you. choices before choosing your answer. This helps you
find the right answer by eliminating wrong answer
n Follow directions. If the directions are given choices. And, sure enough, that standard wisdom
orally, listen to them. If they are written on the applies to your health occupations entrance exam, too.
exam booklet, read them carefully. Ask ques- Let’s say you are facing a question like this:
tions before the exam begins if there’s anything
you don’t understand. If you are allowed to Which of the following lists of signs and symp-
write in your exam booklet, write down the toms indicates a possible heart attack?
beginning time and the ending time of the a. headache, dizziness, nausea, confusion
exam. b. dull chest pain, sudden sweating, difficulty
n Pace yourself. Glance at your watch every few breathing
minutes, and compare the time to how far you c. wheezing, labored breathing, chest pain
have gotten in the test. When one-quarter of the d. difficulty breathing, high fever, rapid pulse
time has elapsed, you should be one-quarter of
the way through the test, and so on. If you are You should always use the process of elimination
falling behind, pick up the pace a bit. on a question like this, even if the right answer jumps
n Keep moving. Don’t spend too much time on out at you. Sometimes, the answer that jumps out isn’t
one question. If you don’t know the answer, right after all. Let’s assume, for the purpose of this exer-
skip the question and move on. Circle the num- cise, that you are a little rusty on your signs and symp-
ber of the question in your test booklet in case toms of a heart attack, so you need to use a little
you have time to come back to it later. intuition to make up for what you don’t remember.
n Keep track of your place on the answer sheet. Proceed through the answer choices in order.
If you skip a question, make sure that you also
skip the question on the answer sheet. Check n Start with choice a. This one is pretty easy to
yourself every five to ten questions to make eliminate; none of these signs and symptoms is
sure that the number of the question still corre- likely to indicate a heart attack. Mark an X next
sponds with the number on the answer sheet. to choice a so you never have to look at it again.
n Don’t rush. Though you should keep moving, n On to choice b. “Dull chest pain” looks good,
rushing won’t help. Try to keep calm and work though if you are not up on your cardiac signs
methodically and quickly. and symptoms you might wonder if it should
be “acute chest pain” instead. “Sudden sweat-
ing” and “difficulty breathing”? Check. And
S te p 5: Le ar n to Use that’s what you write next to choice b—a check
th e Proce ss of Elimination mark, meaning “good answer, I might use this
one.”
Activity: Complete worksheet on Using the Process n Choice c is a possibility. Maybe you don’t really
of Elimination (see pages 17–18). expect “wheezing” in a heart attack victim, but
you know “chest pain” is right, and let’s say you
After time management, your next most important are not sure whether “labored breathing” is a
tool for taking control of your exam is using the sign of cardiac difficulty. Put a question mark
process of elimination wisely. It is standard test-taking next to choice c, meaning “well, maybe.”
15
n Choice d is also a possibility. “Difficulty When a nursing assistant is preparing to ambu-

breathing” is a good sign of a heart attack. But late a client, making sure the client is wearing
wait a minute. “High fever”? Not really. “Rapid proper footwear will always prevent them from
pulse”? Well, maybe. This doesn’t really sound falling.
like a heart attack, and you have already got a
better answer picked out in choice b. If you are The word always in this statement makes it incor-
feeling sure of yourself, put an X next to this rect. Nursing assistants must also take other measures,
one. If you want to be careful, put a question in addition to providing proper footwear, when ambu-
mark. Now your question looks like this: lating a resident, such as proper body mechanics and
providing support to the client.
Which of the following lists of signs and symp- Words like usually, may, sometimes, and most may
toms indicates a possible heart attack? make a statement correct. Here is an example of a cor-
X a. headache, dizziness, nausea, confusion rect statement:
3 b. dull chest pain, sudden sweating, difficulty
Clients of healthcare facilities and hospitals may
breathing
need help with tasks such as being fed and bathed.
? c. wheezing, labored breathing, chest pain
? d. difficulty breathing, high fever, rapid pulse
The word may makes this statement correct.
There are clients in facilities who may be too ill or weak
You have just one check mark for a good answer.
to perform daily tasks such as feeding and bathing
If you are pressed for time, you should simply mark
themselves.
choice b on your answer sheet. If you have got the time
Even when you think you are absolutely clueless
to be extra careful, you could compare your check-
about a question, you can often use the process of elim-
mark answer to your question-mark answers to make
ination to get rid of at least one answer choice. If so,
sure that it is better.
you are better prepared to make an educated guess, as
It is good to have a system for marking good, bad,
you will see in Step 6. More often, you can eliminate
and maybe answers. We recommend this one:
answers until you have only two possible answers.
Then you are in a strong position to guess.
X = bad
3 = good
Try using your powers of elimination on the
questions in the following worksheet, Using the
? = maybe
Process of Elimination. The questions are not about
healthcare work; they are just designed to show you
If you don’t like these marks, devise your own
how the process of elimination works. The answer
system. Just make sure you do it long before test day—
explanations for this worksheet show one possible way
while you are working through the practice exams in
you might use the process to arrive at the right answer.
this book—so you won’t have to worry about it dur-
ing the test.
Key Words Step 6: Know When to Guess

Often, identifying key words in a question will help
Activity: Complete worksheet on Your Guessing
you in the process of elimination. Words such as
Ability (see pages 18–19).
always, never, all, only, must, and will often make state-
ments incorrect. Here is an example of an incorrect Armed with the process of elimination, you are ready
statement: to take control of one of the big questions in test tak-
16
USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION
Use the process of elimination to answer the following questions.
1. Ilsa is as old as Meghan will be in five years. The 3. Smoking tobacco has been linked to
difference between Ed’s age and Meghan’s age a. increased risk of stroke and heart attack.
is twice the difference between Ilsa’s age and b. all forms of respiratory disease.
Meghan’s age. Ed is 29. How old is Ilsa? c. increasing mortality rates over the past ten
a. 4 years.
b. 10 d. juvenile delinquency.
c. 19
d. 24 4. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?
a. incorrigible
2. “All drivers of commercial vehicles must carry a b. outragous
valid commercial driver’s license whenever oper- c. domestickated
ating a commercial vehicle.” According to this d. understandible
sentence, which of the following people need
NOT carry a commercial driver’s license?
a. a truck driver idling his engine while waiting
to be directed to a loading dock
b. a bus operator backing her bus out of the
way of another bus in the bus lot
c. a taxi driver driving his personal car to the
grocery store
d. a limousine driver taking the limousine to her
home after dropping off her last passenger of
the evening
Answers
Here are the answers, as well as some suggestions as to how you might have used the process of elimination
to find them.
1. d. You should have eliminated choice a off the 2. c. Note the word not in the question, and go
bat. Ilsa can’t be four years old if Meghan is through the answers one by one. Is the truck
going to be Ilsa’s age in five years. The best driver in choice a “operating a commercial
way to eliminate other answer choices is to try vehicle”? Yes, idling counts as “operating,” so
plugging them in to the information given in he needs to have a commercial driver’s license.
the problem. For instance, for choice b, if Ilsa is Likewise, the bus operator in choice b is oper-
10, then Meghan must be 5. The difference in ating a commercial vehicle; the question
their ages is 5. The difference between Ed’s doesn’t say the operator has to be on the
age, 29, and Meghan’s age, 5, is 24. Is 24 two street. The limo driver in choice d is operating
times 5? No. Then choice b is wrong. You could a commercial vehicle, even if it doesn’t have a
eliminate choice c in the same way and be left passenger in it. However, the cabbie in choice
with choice d. c is not operating a commercial vehicle, but his
own private car.
17
USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION (continued)
3. a. You could eliminate choice b simply because of and have only two to choose from.) And choice
the presence of the word all. Such absolutes d is not logical, so you could eliminate that
hardly ever appear in correct answer choices. one, too. You are left with the correct answer,
Choice c looks attractive until you think a little choice a.
about what you know—aren’t fewer people 4. a. How you used the process of elimination here
smoking these days, rather than more? So how depends on which words you recognized as
could smoking be responsible for a higher being spelled incorrectly. If you knew that the
mortality rate? (If you didn’t know that mortal- correct spellings were outrageous, domesti-
ity rate means the rate at which people die, you cated, and understandable, then you were
might keep this choice as a possibility, but you home free. Surely you knew that at least one of
would still be able to eliminate two answers those words was wrong.
YOUR GUESSING ABILITY
The following are 10 really hard questions. You are not supposed to know the answers. Rather, this is an assess-
ment of your ability to guess when you don’t have a clue. Read each question carefully, just as if you did expect
to answer it. If you have any knowledge of the subject, use that knowledge to help you eliminate wrong answer
choices.
1. September 7 is Independence Day in 4. American author Gertrude Stein was born in

a. India. a. 1713.
b. Costa Rica. b. 1830.
c. Brazil. c. 1874.
d. Australia. d. 1901.
2. Which of the following is the formula for deter- 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the Five
mining the momentum of an object? Classics attributed to Confucius?
a. p = MV a. the I Ching
b. F = ma b. the Book of Holiness
c. P = IV c. the Spring and Autumn Annals
d. E = mc2 d. the Book of History
3. Because of the expansion of the universe, the 6. The religious and philosophical doctrine that
stars and other celestial bodies are all moving holds that the universe is constantly in a strug-
away from each other. This phenomenon is gle between good and evil is known as
known as a. Pelagianism.
a. Newton’s first law. b. Manichaeanism.
b. the big bang. c. neo-Hegelianism.
c. gravitational collapse. d. Epicureanism.
d. Hubble flow.
18
YOUR GUESSING ABILITY (continued)
7. The third Chief Justice of the U.S. Supreme How Did You Do?
Court was You may have simply gotten lucky and actually known
a. John Blair. the answer to one or two questions. In addition, your
b. William Cushing. guessing was probably more successful if you were
c. James Wilson. able to use the process of elimination on any of the
d. John Jay. questions. Maybe you didn’t know who the third Chief
Justice was (question 7), but you knew that John Jay
8. Which of the following is the poisonous portion was the first. In that case, you would have eliminated
of a daffodil? choice d and therefore improved your odds of guess-
a. the bulb ing right from one in four to one in three.
b. the leaves According to probability, you should get two
c. the stem and a half answers correct, so getting either two or
d. the flowers three right would be average. If you got four or more
right, you may be a really terrific guesser. If you got
9. The winner of the Masters golf tournament in one or none right, you may be a really bad guesser.
1953 was Keep in mind, though, that this is only a small
a. Sam Snead. sample. You should continue to keep track of your
b. Cary Middlecoff. guessing ability as you work through the sample ques-
c. Arnold Palmer. tions in this book. Circle the numbers of questions you
d. Ben Hogan. guess on as you make your guess; or, if you don’t have
time while you take the practice tests, go back after-
10. The state with the highest per capita personal ward and try to remember which questions you
income in 1980 was guessed at. Remember, on a test with four answer
a. Alaska. choices, your chance of guessing correctly is one in
b. Connecticut. four. So keep a separate “guessing” score for each
c. New York. exam. How many questions did you guess on? How
d. Texas. many did you get right? If the number you got right
is at least one-fourth of the number of questions you
Answers guessed on, you are at least an average guesser—
Check your answers against the following correct maybe better—and you should always go ahead and
answers. guess on the real exam. If the number you got right
is significantly lower than one-fourth of the number
1. c. you guessed on, you would be safe in guessing any-
2. a. way, but maybe you would feel more comfortable if
3. d. you guessed only selectively, when you can eliminate
4. c. a wrong answer or at least have a good feeling about
5. b. one of the answer choices.
6. b. Even if you are a play-it-safe person with lousy
7. b. intuition, you are still safe guessing every time.
8. a.
9. d.
10. a.
19
ing: Should I guess? The answer is Yes. Some exams feel-good hormones, called endorphins, into your sys-
have what’s called a “guessing penalty,” in which a frac- tem. It also increases the oxygen supply throughout
tion of your wrong answers is subtracted from your your body, including your brain, so you will be at peak
right answers—but health occupations entrance exams performance on test day.
don’t tend to work like that. The number of questions A half hour of vigorous activity—enough to raise
you answer correctly yields your raw score. So you have a sweat—every day should be your aim. If you are
nothing to lose and everything to gain by guessing. really pressed for time, every other day is okay. Choose
The more complicated answer to the question an activity you like and get out there and do it. Jogging
“Should I guess?” depends on you—your personality with a friend always makes the time go faster, as does
and your “guessing intuition.” There are two things you listening to music.
need to know about yourself before you go into the But don’t overdo it. You don’t want to exhaust
exam: yourself. Moderation is the key.
Are you a risk taker? Diet

Are you a good guesser? First, cut out the junk. Go easy on caffeine and nico-
tine, and eliminate alcohol from your system at least
You will have to decide about your risk-taking two weeks before the exam. What your body needs for
quotient on your own. To find out if you are a good peak performance is simply a balanced diet. Eat plenty
guesser, complete the Your Guessing Ability worksheet of fruits and vegetables, along with protein and com-
on pages 18–19. plex carbohydrates. Foods that are high in lecithin (an
amino acid), such as fish and beans, are especially good
“brain foods.”
Step 7: Reach Your The night before the exam, you might “carbo-
Peak Perfor mance Zone load” the way athletes do before a contest. Eat a big
plate of spaghetti, rice and beans, or whatever your
Activity: Complete the Physical Preparation Checklist favorite carbohydrate is.
on page 21.
Rest
To get ready for a challenge like a big exam, you have You probably know how much sleep you need every
to take control of your physical, as well as your men- night to be at your best, even if you don’t always get it.
tal, state. Exercise, proper diet, and rest in the weeks Make sure you do get that much sleep, though, for at
prior to the test will ensure that your body works with, least a week before the exam. Moderation is important
rather than against, your mind—both on test day and here, too. Extra sleep will just make you groggy.
during your preparation. If you are not a morning person and your exam
will be given in the morning, you should reset your
Exercise internal clock so that your body doesn’t think you are
If you don’t already have a regular exercise program taking an exam at 3 A.M. You have to start this process
going, it’s a great idea to start one in the time during well before the exam. The way it works is to get up half
which you are preparing for an exam. And if you are an hour earlier each morning, and then go to bed half
already keeping fit—or trying to get that way—don’t an hour earlier that night. Don’t try it the other way
let the pressure of preparing for an exam fool you into around; you will just toss and turn if you go to bed
quitting now. Exercise helps reduce stress by pumping early without having gotten up early. The next morn-
20
PHYSICAL PREPARATION CHECKLIST
For the week before the exam, write down (1) what physical exercise you engaged in and for how long and
(2) what you ate for each meal. Remember, you are trying for at least half an hour of exercise every other day
(preferably every day) and a balanced diet that is light on junk food.
Exam minus 7 days Exam minus 3 days

Exercise: _______________ for ______ minutes Exercise: _______________ for ______ minutes
Breakfast: _____________________________________ Breakfast: _____________________________________
Lunch: _______________________________________ Lunch: _______________________________________
Dinner: _______________________________________ Dinner: _______________________________________
Snacks: _______________________________________ Snacks: _______________________________________
Exam minus 6 days Exam minus 2 days

Lunch: _______________________________________ Lunch: _______________________________________
Dinner: _______________________________________ Dinner: _______________________________________
Snacks: _______________________________________ Snacks: _______________________________________
Exam minus 5 days Exam minus 1 day

Lunch: _______________________________________ Lunch: _______________________________________
Dinner: _______________________________________ Dinner: _______________________________________
Snacks: _______________________________________ Snacks: _______________________________________
Exam minus 4 days

Exercise: _______________ for ______ minutes
Breakfast: _____________________________________
Lunch: _______________________________________
Dinner: _______________________________________
Snacks: _______________________________________
21
ing, get up another half an hour earlier, and so on. How arations on the following page to help you pull
long you will have to do this depends on how late you together what you will need.
are used to getting up.
Don’t Skip Breakfast
Even if you don’t usually eat breakfast, do so on exam
Step 8: morning. A cup of coffee doesn’t count. Don’t eat
Get Your Act Together doughnuts or other sweet foods, either. A sugar high
will leave you with a sugar low in the middle of the
Activity: Complete Final Preparations worksheet on exam. A mix of protein and carbohydrates is best:
page 23. Cereal with milk and just a little sugar, or eggs with
toast, will do your body a world of good.
You are in control of your mind and body; you are in
charge of test anxiety, your preparation, and your test-
taking strategies. Now it is time to take charge of exter- Step 9: Do It!
nal factors, like the testing site and the materials you
need to take the exam. Activity: Ace the health occupations entrance exam!
Find Out Where the Test Is and Make Fast forward to exam day. You are ready. You made a
a Trial Run study plan and followed through. You practiced your
The testing agency or your healthcare course instruc- test-taking strategies while working through this book.
tor will notify you when and where your exam is being You are in control of your physical, mental, and emo-
held. Do you know how to get to the testing site? Do tional states. You know when and where to show up
you know how long it will take to get there? If not, and what to bring with you. In other words, you are
make a trial run, preferably on the same day of the better prepared than most of the other people taking
week at the same time of day. Make note, on the work- the health occupations entrance exam with you. You
sheet Final Preparations on page 23, of the amount of are psyched.
time it will take you to get to the exam site. Plan on Just one more thing . . . When you are done with
arriving at least 10–15 minutes early so you can get the the exam, you deserve a reward. Plan a celebration. Call
lay of the land, use the bathroom, and calm down. up your friends and plan a party, or have a nice dinner
Then figure out how early you will have to get up that for two—whatever your heart desires. Give yourself
morning, and make sure you get up that early every day something to look forward to.
for a week before the exam. And then do it. Go into the exam, full of confi-
dence, armed with test-taking strategies you have prac-
Gather Your Materials ticed until they are second nature. You are in control of
The night before the exam, lay out the clothes you will yourself, your environment, and your performance on
wear and the materials you have to bring with you to the exam. You are ready to succeed. So do it. Go in there
the exam. Plan on dressing in layers; you won’t have and ace the exam. And look forward to your future
any control over the temperature of the examination career as a healthcare professional!
room. Have a sweater or jacket you can take off if it is
warm. Use the checklist on the worksheet Final Prep-
22
FINAL PREPARATIONS
Getting to the Exam Site
Location of exam site: ________________________________________________________________________
Date: ______________________________________________________________________________________
Departure time: _____________________________________________________________________________
Do I know how to get to the exam site? Yes ____ No ____ (If no, make a trial run.)
Time it will take to get to exam site ____________________________________________________________
Things to Lay Out the Night Before
Clothes I will wear ______
Sweater/jacket ______
Watch ______
Photo ID ______
Four #2 pencils ______
Other Things to Bring/Remember
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
23
3
C H A P T E R
PRACTICE EXAM I
CHAPTER SUMMARY
This is the first of three practice exams in this book based on ac-
tual health occupations entrance exams commonly used in the
field today. Use this test to see how you would do if you had to
take the test today.
T he practice test in this chapter is modeled after real entrance exams required by health education
programs. Like many health occupations entrance exams, the practice test measures your skills,
abilities, and knowledge of six core subjects: Verbal Ability, Reading Comprehension, Math, General
Science, Biology, and Chemistry. It uses a multiple-choice format, with four answer choices, a–d. The types of
questions in the practice test reflect the kinds of test questions you will likely encounter on your entrance exam.
For example, the section on Quantitative Ability includes analytical reasoning questions and the Verbal Ability
section features spelling questions, two types of questions that are part of the current HOAE.
The practice test is divided into six sections, covering the six main topics outlined above. In the actual test,
each section will be timed separately, with the whole test taking from about two and a half to three hours. Here,
you do not have to worry about timing—just try to relax and do your best. Remember, the goal of the practice
test is to familiarize yourself with the test format and types of questions and to highlight the areas where you
need to concentrate your study and preparation. Make sure that you have scheduled enough time to complete
the test without major interruptions, taking only short breaks between sections.
On the following pages, you will find an answer sheet. Use this sheet to mark your answers, filling in the
ovals that correspond with your answer choices. Each question has only one correct answer, so do not fill in
more than one oval per item. The answer key is located on page 65, so be sure to review the answer explanations
carefully after you have finished. Instructions on how to score your exam follow the answer key.
25
– LEARNINGEXPRESS ANSWER SHEET –
Section 1: Verbal Ability

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
Section 2: Reading Comprehension

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
27
Section 3: Math
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
Section 4: General Science

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
28
Section 5: Biology
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
Section 6: Chemistry
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
29
– PRACTICE EXAM 1 –
Section 1: Verbal Ability 10. a. jeoperdy

b. jepardy
Find the correctly spelled word in the following lists. c. jeopardy
1. a. pathetically 11. a. magnifisint

b. pathatically b. magnifisent
c. pathetickly c. magnificent
2. a. beleif 12. a. geraitrics

b. bilief b. geriatrics
c. belief c. gereatrics
3. a. camaflage 13. a. elicitt

b. camouflaj b. ellicit
c. camouflage c. illicit
4. a. breach 14. a. inquiry

b. breche b. inquirry
c. braech c. enquirry
5. a. percieved 15. a. terminated

b. preceived b. termenated
c. perceived d. termanated
6. a. shriveled 16. a. persecution

b. shrivvelled b. pursecution
c. shrivelled c. presecution
7. a. sittuation 17. a. peculior

b. situation b. peculiar
c. situashun c. peculliar
8. a. apparently 18. a. psycology

b. apparrentely b. psychology
c. apperantly c. psychollogy
9. a. obssession 19. a. license

b. obsessian b. lisence
c. obsession c. lycence
31
20. a. concise 30. a. thorough

b. concize b. thorogh
c. consise c. thorugh
21. a. nieghbor 31. a. quantity

b. neighbor b. quantitie
c. niehbor c. quantety
22. a. stabilize 32. a. imitiate

b. stablize b. imitat
c. stableize c. imitate
23. a. rexamining 33. a. contradect

b. reexammining b. contradict
c. reexamining c. contredict
24. a. aspirations 34. a. reversil

b. asparations b. reversal
c. aspirrations c. reversale
25. a. excercise 35. a. foregn

b. exercise b. forein
c. exersize c. foreign
26. a. artificial 36. a. ravenous

b. artifishal b. ravenas
c. artaficial c. ravenus
27. a. hindrance 37. a. phenomenal

b. hindrence b. phenomenil
c. hindranse c. phenomenul
28. a. testamony 38. a. temprature

b.testimonie b. temperature
c. testimony c. temperatur
29. a. adiction 39. a. auditoriam

b. addictione b. auditorium
c. addiction c. auditoreum
32
40. a. circumfrence Section 2:

b. circumferance Reading Comprehension
c. circumference
Read each passage and answer the questions based on
41. a. worrees the information in the text. You have 45 minutes to
b. worries complete this section.
c. worrys
Asthma is no longer considered a condition with
42. a. finalaty isolated, acute episodes of bronchospasm. Rather,
b. finality asthma is now understood to be a chronic
c. finalitie inflammatory disorder of the airways—that is,
inflammation makes the airways chronically
43. a. religious sensitive. When these hyper-responsive airways
b. religiouse are irritated, air flow is limited, and attacks of
c. religius coughing, wheezing, chest tightness, and
difficulty in breathing occur.
44. a. coliseum Asthma involves complex interactions
b. coliseam among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the
c. colaseum cells and tissues in the airways. The interactions
result in airflow limitation from acute
45. a. delinquant bronchoconstriction, swelling of the airway
b. delinquent wall, increased mucus secretion, and airway
c. delinquente remodeling. The inflammation also causes an
increase in airway responsiveness. During an
46. a. forcast asthma attack, the patient attempts to
b. forecaste compensate by breathing at a higher lung
c. forecast volume in order to keep the air flowing through
the constricted airways; the greater the airway
47. a. righteous limitation, the higher the lung volume must be
b. righteus to keep airways open. The morphologic
c. righteos changes that occur in asthma include bronchial
infiltration by inflammatory cells. Key effector
48. a. sincerely cells in the inflammatory response are the mast
b. sincerly cells, lymphocytes, and eosinophils. Mast cells
c. sincereley and eosinophils are also significant participants
in allergic responses, hence the similarities
49. a. hospise between allergic reactions and asthma attacks.
b. hospice Other changes include mucus plugging of the
c. hospace airways, interstitial edema, and microvascular
leakage. Destruction of bronchial epithelium
50. a. resparation and thickening of the subbasement membrane
b. respiration are also characteristic. In addition, there may be
c. respiratione
33
hypertrophy and hyperplasia of airway smooth to reduce symptoms. Rather, they should work
muscle, increase in goblet cell number, and with a doctor to design a proper training regimen
enlargement of submucous glands. including the use of medication.
Although causes of the initial tendency In order to diagnose asthma, a healthcare
toward inflammation in the airways of patients professional must appreciate the underlying
with asthma are not yet certain, to date the disorder that leads to asthma symptoms and
strongest identified risk factor is atopy. This understand how to recognize the condition
inherited familial tendency to have allergic through information gathered from the
reactions includes increased sensitivity to patient’s history, physical examination,
allergens that are risk factors for developing measurements of lung function, and allergic
asthma. Some of these allergens include domestic status. Because asthma symptoms vary
dust mites, animals with fur, cockroaches, throughout the day, the respiratory system may
pollens, and molds. Additionally, asthma may be appear normal during physical examination.
triggered by viral respiratory infections, especially Clinical signs are more likely to be present
in children. By avoiding these allergens and when a patient is experiencing symptoms;
triggers, a person with asthma lowers the risk of however, the absence of symptoms at the time
irritating sensitive airways. A few avoidance of the examination does not exclude the
techniques include keeping the home clean and diagnosis of asthma.
well ventilated, using an air conditioner in the
summer months when pollen and mold counts 1. What is the name for the familial inclination to
are high, and getting an annual influenza have hypersensitivity to certain allergens?
vaccination. Of course, asthma sufferers should a. interstitial edema
avoid tobacco smoke altogether. Cigar, cigarette, b. hyperplasia
and pipe smoke are triggers whether the patient c. hypertrophy
smokes or breathes in the smoke from others. d. atopy
Smoke increases the risk of allergic sensitization
in children and increases the severity of 2. Why does a person suffering from an asthma
symptoms in children who already have asthma. attack attempt to inhale more air?
Many of the risk factors for developing asthma a. to prevent the loss of consciousness
may also provoke asthma attacks, and people b. to keep air flowing through shrunken air
with asthma may have one or more triggers, passageways
which vary among individuals. The risk can be c. to prevent hyperplasia
further reduced by taking medications that d. to compensate for weakened mast cells,
decrease airway inflammation. Most exacerba- lymphocytes, and eosinophils
tions can be prevented by the combination of
avoiding triggers and taking anti-inflammatory 3. From the passage you can infer that asthma is
medications. An exception is physical activity, a. a relatively new disease.
which is a common trigger of exacerbations in b. a degenerating, life-threatening disorder.
asthma patients. However, asthma patients c. a health problem that has been around for
should not necessarily avoid all physical exertion, some time.
because some types of activity have been proven d. a digestive condition.
34
4. Which of the following describes the word 9. One cause of an asthma attack is
chronic as it is used in the first paragraph of a. infections.
the passage? b. swelling.
a. isolated c. secretion.
b. acute d. hyperventilating.
c. recurring
d. hyper Spina bifida is a defect of the spinal column
that occurs during the first 28 days after
5. During an allergy attack, the bronchial fertilization of a human ovum. The broad
epithelium might be definition of spina bifida is the condition in
a. destroyed. which the bones of the spinal column
b. thickened. surrounding the spinal cord do not close
c. enlarged. properly, and the cord or spinal fluid bulges
d. increased. through a section of the lower back. Any
portion of the spinal cord outside the vertebrae
6. Which of the following triggers is mentioned is undeveloped or damaged and will inevitably
as possibly reducing the symptoms of asthma cause paralysis and incontinence. However,
in some patients? there is a minor and a major form of this
a. using a fan instead of an air conditioner condition. The symptom of the mild form,
b. second-hand cigarette smoke called spina bifida occulata (“hidden”), is a
c. a family pet small gap in the spine covered by a dimple in
d. physical activity the skin. This condition can be so mild that
some people who have spina bifida occulata
7. Why might a patient with asthma have an may never even know they have it.
apparently normal respiratory system during In contrast, the more disabling form,
an examination by a doctor? called spina bifida aperta, is what most people
a. Asthma symptoms come and go throughout refer to as spina bifida. On rare occasions, spina
the day. bifida aperta results in a small but noticeable
b. Severe asthma occurs only after strenuous sac called a meningocele forming on the fetus’s
physical exertion. back. The meningocele may be repaired after
c. Doctors’ offices are usually smoke-free and birth in a major surgical procedure. Afterward,
very clean. the patient may suffer little or no muscle
d. The pollen and mold count may be low that paralysis. However, in 90% of all spina bifida
day. aperta cases, a portion of the undeveloped
spinal cord itself protrudes through the spine
8. Which of the following contribute significantly and forms a sac. This so-called myelocele (or
to the similarities between allergic reactions meningomyelocele) is visible on the baby’s back.
and asthma attacks? The location of the myelocele determines how
a. mast cells and lymphocytes severely disabled the child will be. In general,
b. eosinophils and mast cells the higher it is on the spinal column, the more
c. mast cells and epithelia paralysis is possible. Doctors must repair any
d. lymphocytes and eosinophils opening of the spine shortly after birth or the
35
child will die. Other major surgeries often 12. Which of the following describes the word
follow in the child’s first years. procedure as it is used in the second paragraph
Depending on the severity of their of the passage?
condition, children with spina bifida have a. system
varying degrees of paralysis and incontinence. b. rule
About 85% of them develop hydrocephalus, c. process
an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid d. formula
surrounding the brain. This fluid must be
drained to the abdomen or blood stream with a 13. Which of the following is the term for a pool
surgically implanted tube. Some children with of cerebrospinal fluid in the area around
spina bifida develop foot and knee deformities the brain?
caused by an interruption of spinal nerve a. catheterization
circuits. Many patients require leg braces, b. spina bifida
crutches, and other devices to help them walk. c. hydrocephalus
They may have learning disabilities, and about d. meningomyelocele
30% of these children have slight to severe
mental retardation. Other results of this 14. A sign of spina bifida occulata is
condition are chronic bladder infections and a. a small gap in the spine covered by a
kidney problems, which require lifelong dimple.
medical attention. Despite their need for b. total paralysis.
medical attention, children with spina bifida c. severe mental retardation.
can learn to care for many of their own needs. d. inability to move the fingers.
While once all of these children died, with
proper medical treatment, between 85% and 15. The conclusion of this passage could best be
90% of them now live to adulthood. summarized by which of the following
statements?
10. Spina bifida is a defect of the spinal column a. All pregnant women should have their
that occurs during fetuses tested for spina bifida.
a. the middle of the third trimester. b. Infants with spina bifida are smaller than
b. the first 28 days after fertilization. other infants.
c. the second trimester. c. Spina bifida is a birth defect that kills
d. delivery of the child. millions of innocent children each year.
d. People who have spina bifida may lead
11. Repairing the meningocele could prevent the productive lives with proper medical
patient from suffering attention.
a. spina bifida.
b. paralysis.
c. incontinence.
d. deformity.
36
Medical waste has been a growing concern as hypochlorite solution. The liquid is
because of recent incidents of public exposure separated from the pulp and discharged directly
to discarded blood vials, needles (sharps), into the sewer unless local limits require
empty prescription bottles, and syringes. additional pretreatment prior to discharge.
Medical waste can typically include general The pulp can often be disposed of at a landfill.
refuse, human blood and blood products, One advantage is that waste can be rendered
cultures and stocks of infectious agents, innocuous and reduced in size within the same
laboratory animal carcasses, contaminated system. Disadvantages are the added operating
bedding material, and pathological wastes. burden, difficulty of controlling fugitive
Wastes are collected by gravity chutes, emission, and the difficulty of conducting
carts, or pneumatic tubes. Chutes are limited to microbiological tests to determine whether all
vertical transport, and there is some risk of organic matters and infectious organisms from
exhausting contaminants into hallways if a door the waste have been destroyed.
is left open during use. Another disadvantage of On-site disposal is a feasible alternative
gravity chutes is that the waste container may get for hospitals generating two tons or more per
jammed while dropping, or broken upon hitting day of total solid waste. Common treatment
the bottom. Carts are primarily for horizontal techniques include steam sterilization and
transport of bagged or containerized wastes. The incineration. Although other options are
main risk here is that bags may be broken or torn available, incineration is currently the preferred
during transport, potentially exposing the method for on-site treatment of hospital waste.
worker to the wastes. Using automated carts can Steam sterilization is limited in the types
reduce the potential for exposure. Pneumatic of medical waste it can treat, but is appropriate
tubes offer the best performance for waste transfor laboratory cultures and substances
port in a large facility. Advantages include high- contaminated with infectious organisms. The
speed movement, movement in any direction, waste is subjected to steam in a sealed,
and minimal intermediate storage of untreated pressurized chamber. The liquid that may form
wastes. However, some objects cannot be con- is drained off to the sewer or sent for process-
veyed pneumatically. ing. The unit is then reopened after a vapor
Off-site disposal of regulated medical release to the atmosphere, and the solid waste is
wastes remains a viable option for smaller taken out for further processing or disposal.
hospitals (those with fewer than 150 beds). One advantage of steam sterilization is that it
Some preliminary on-site processing, such as has been used for many years in hospitals to
compaction or hydropulping, may be necessary sterilize instruments and containers and to
prior to sending the waste off-site. Compaction treat small quantities of waste. However, since
reduces the total volume of solid wastes, often sterilization does not change the appearance of
reducing transportation and disposal costs, but the waste, there could be a problem in gaining
does not change the hazardous characteristics acceptance of the waste for landfilling.
of the waste. However, compaction may not be A properly designed, maintained, and
economical if transportation and disposal costs operated incinerator achieves a relatively high
are based on weight rather than volume. level of organism destruction. Incineration
Hydropulping involves grounding the reduces the weight and volume of the waste as
waste in the presence of an oxidizing fluid, such much as 95% and is especially appropriate for
37
pathological wastes and sharps. The most com- 20. Two effective methods for treating waste
mon incineration system for medical waste is caused by infectious matter are
the controlled-air type. The principal advantage a. steam sterilization and incineration.
of this type of incinerator is low particulate b. hydropulping and steam sterilization.
emissions. Rotary kiln and grate-type units have c. incineration and compaction.
been used, but use of grate-type units has been d. hydropulping and incineration.
discontinued due to high air emissions. The
rotary kiln also puts out high emissions, and the 21. Hospitals can minimize employee contact with
costs have been prohibitive for smaller units. dangerous waste by switching from
a. a manual cart to a gravity chute.
16. One disadvantage of the compaction method b. an automated cart to a hydropulping
of waste disposal is that it machine.
a. cannot reduce transportation costs. c. a gravity chute to a manual cart.
b. reduces the volume of solid waste material. d. a manual cart to an automated cart.
c. does not allow hospitals to confirm that
organic matter has been eliminated. 22. The process that both transforms waste from
d. does not reduce the weight of solid waste hazardous to harmless and diminishes waste
material. volume is
a. sterilization.
17. For hospitals that dispose of waste on their own b. hydropulping.
premises, the optimum treatment method is c. oxidizing.
a. incineration. d. compacting.
b. compaction.
c. sterilization. 23. Hospitals would have a better chance of getting
d. hydropulping. landfills to accept steam sterilized waste if they
could change the waste’s
18. Which of the following could be safely a. toxicity.
disposed of in a landfill but might not be b. quantity.
accepted by landfill facilities? c. odor.
a. hydropulped material d. appearance.
b. sterilized waste
c. incinerated waste 24. The use of on-site grate-type units has been
d. laboratory cultures discontinued because of
a. budgetary constraints.
19. Carting away medical waste can create a risk b. high air emissions.
for c. local community ordinances.
a. hospital patients. d. lack of availability.
b. medical professionals.
c. maintenance workers.
d. waste removal workers.
38
The immune system is equal in complexity to pollen or cat hair) that provoke the immune
the combined intricacies of the brain and nervous system to set off the inappropriate and harmful
system. The success of the immune system in response known as allergy. An antigen can be a
defending the body relies on a dynamic virus, a bacterium, a fungus, a parasite, or even a
regulatory-communications network consisting of portion or product of one of these organisms.
millions and millions of cells. Organized into sets Tissues or cells from another individual (except
and subsets, these cells pass information back and an identical twin, whose cells carry identical self
forth like clouds of bees swarming around a hive. markers) also act as antigens; because the
The result is a sensitive system of checks and bal- immune system recognizes transplanted tissues
ances, which produces an immune response that is as foreign, it rejects them. The body will even
prompt, appropriate, effective, and self-limiting. reject nourishing proteins unless they are first
At the heart of the immune system is the broken down by the digestive system into their
ability to distinguish between self and nonself. primary, non-antigenic building blocks. An
When immune defenders encounter cells or antigen announces its foreignness by means of
organisms carrying foreign or nonself mole- intricate and characteristic shapes called epitopes,
cules, the immune troops move quickly to which protrude from its surface. Most antigens,
eliminate the intruders. Virtually every body cell even the simplest microbes, carry several different
carries distinctive molecules that identify it as kinds of epitopes on their surface; some may
self. The body’s immune defenses do not even carry several hundred. Some epitopes will
normally attack tissues that carry a self marker. be more effective than others at stimulating an
Rather, immune cells and other body cells immune response. Only in abnormal situations
coexist peaceably in a state known as self- does the immune system wrongly identify self as
tolerance. When a normally functioning nonself and execute a misdirected immune
immune system attacks a nonself molecule, the attack. The result can be a so-called autoimmune
system has the ability to “remember” the disease such as rheumatoid arthritis or systemic
specifics of the foreign body. Upon subsequent lupus erythematosus. The painful side effects of
encounters with the same species of molecules, these diseases are caused by a person’s immune
the immune system reacts accordingly. With the system actually attacking itself.
possible exception of antibodies passed during
lactation, this so-called immune system memory 25. The surfaces of antigens have been known to
is not inherited. Despite the occurrence of a carry
virus in your family, your immune system must a. fungi.
“learn” from experience with the many millions b. epitopes.
of distinctive nonself molecules in the sea of c. allergens.
microbes in which we live. Learning entails d. bacterium.
producing the appropriate molecules and cells
to match up with and counteract each nonself 26. The immune cells and other cells in the body
invader. coexist peaceably in a state known as
Any substance capable of triggering an a. equilibrium.
immune response is called an antigen. Antigens b. self-tolerance.
are not to be confused with allergens, which are c. harmony.
most often harmless substances (such as ragweed d. tolerance.
39
27. What is the specific term used in the passage 29. A component of the immune system located in
for the substance capable of triggering an the torso is the
inappropriate or harmful immune response to a. spleen.
a harmless substance such as ragweed pollen? b. pancreas.
a. antigen c. tonsil.
b. microbe d. adenoid.
c. allergen
d. autoimmune disease 30. Which of the following best expresses the main
idea of this passage?
28. How do the cells in the immune system a. The basic function of the immune system is
recognize an antigen as “foreign” or “nonself ”? to distinguish between self and nonself.
a. through an allergic response b. An antigen is any substance that triggers an
b. through blood type immune response.
c. through fine hairs protruding from the c. One of the immune system’s primary
antigen surface functions is the allergic response.
d. through characteristic shapes on the antigen d. The human body presents an opportune
surface habitat for microbes.
31. Rheumatoid arthritis presents an abnormal

situation in which
Adenoid
a. antibodies were passed during lactation.
Tonsil
b. the immune system actually attacks itself.
c. nourishing proteins are broken down by the
Thymus digestive system.
Lymph nodes d. the immune system sets off a response
known as an allergy.
Spleen Sometimes your protective immune system can

suddenly become your worst enemy. When that
happens, rogue killer cells may attack organs or
tissues that are essential to your survival. In
recent years, scientists have identified this
scenario, known as an autoimmune attack, as
Lymph vessels
Bone marrow the cause of many diseases whose origins
previously were unknown. Psoriasis is among
the latest to be included in this category.
Psoriasis is a skin disease that in severe
cases disfigures patients’ bodies and makes their
lives miserable. Affected areas of the skin—
often spreading out from elbows and
knees—are red and inflamed and may be
covered by silvery scales. It has long been
known that many psoriasis patients belong to
40
families that have a history of the disease, and Scientists tested the experimental drug in
in these psoriasis-prone families certain genetic ten patients who had severe psoriasis. The
markers, known as HLA antigens, are inherited patients were admitted to a research center
more often than in the general population. where they received the drug in five daily
However, until recently, it was not known intravenous doses. Subsequently they were
whether psoriasis was primarily an immune assessed as outpatients for 23 days. After this,
disease or an epidermal skin disease. they received an additional round of five
Data existed that suggested immune sys- intravenous doses of the drug followed by
tem involvement. In studies of psoriatic skin, another 23-day assessment period. Four of the
investigators detected immune cells, known as T patients showed striking clinical improvement,
cells, that have surface receptors for interleukin-2 four had moderate improvement, and two had
(IL-2), a cellular hormone that is an important minimal improvement after two cycles of
mediator of immune reactions. What wasn’t treatment with the drug. Among the improve-
clear from the studies was whether the immune ments were, most significantly, thinning of the
contribution was a secondary phenomenon. To psoriatic areas, reduced keratinocyte prolifera-
distinguish between the roles of the scaling, non- tion, and reduced inflammation with fewer T
immune epidermal skin cells, called ker- cells in the epidermis.
atinocytes, and the immune cells, scientists used These studies suggest that the molecule is
an experimental drug that eliminated specific T likely to be effective, but scientists caution there
cells. They reasoned that if the absence of these is a long way to go before claiming that this
cells improved the patients’ psoriasis, immune drug is safe and widely effective. The low doses
cells, not epidermal skin cells, were probably the are reasonably well tolerated, and studies have
main culprit in causing the disease. revealed that at least some cases of psoriasis are
Since only T cells that are activated to caused by a defective immune system. There is
participate in immune reactions carry the IL-2 no data that refute the hypothesis that the
receptor, selective removal of these cells did not disease is immune-mediated. Scientists point
endanger all T cells in the body. Scientists out, however, that the response was mixed since
theorize that in psoriasis there is an as-yet not all patients responded to the drug.
undefined antigen that the T cells react to in an Scientists are continuing their studies
autoimmune fashion. Those reactive cells with higher doses of the IL-2/diphtheria toxin
proliferate and express the IL-2 receptor. drug to see if a higher proportion of the
To target and kill the activated T cells, sci- patients may respond. Because psoriasis is a
entists use a molecule manufactured by fusing uniquely human disease, it cannot be studied in
IL-2 and diphtheria toxin. The innocuous IL-2 animal models, an approach that allows
part of the fusion molecule binds to T cells that experimental studies of many other diseases.
have IL-2 receptors and thereby delivers its poi-
sonous partner to the target. After binding, the 32. Psoriasis is a kind of
fusion molecule enters the cells and the diph- a. deformity.
theria toxin blocks their protein-synthesizing b. skin cancer.
machinery, killing the cells. c. autoimmune attack.
d. immune reaction.
41
33. One reason researchers used an experimental Normal skin

drug was to
a. gauge the impact of missing immune cells
on psoriasis patients.
b. identify epidermal skin cells as the cause of Keratin layer
psoriasis. Epidermis
c. trace the genetic history of psoriasis.
Dermis
d. rule out autoimmune attacks as a cause of
psoriasis.
Subcutaneous
34. People in psoriasis-prone families inherit layer
which of the following more often than those
N Psoriasis
in the general population? Scales
a. genetic markers known as anti-Rh Inflamed skin
antibodies
b. genetic markers known as HLA antigens
Plaque
c. the CD103 antigen
d. a surface receptor known as H1V1
35. The passage does not suggest that psoriasis

can cause
a. inflammations.
b. scales. 38. The keratin layer of someone suffering from
c. paralysis. psoriasis contains
d. disfigurement. a. dermis.
b. plaque.
36. The impact of the experimental drug was c. hormones.
extraordinary d. diphtheria.
a. for over half the patients.
b. because epidermal skin cells multiplied. 39. The main idea of the passage is that scientists
c. for fewer than half the patients. a. are closer than before to comprehending the
d. because the drug received universal causes of psoriasis.
acceptance. b. can now prove psoriasis is a genetic disease.
c. can rule out epidermal cells as the cause of
37. IL-2 receptors are transported by psoriasis.
a. undefined antigens. d. are closer to discrediting an immune-related
b. cellular hormones. cause of psoriasis.
c. activated T cells.
d. epidermal cells. 40. Psoriasis is
a. a uniquely human disease.
b. an autoimmune disease.
c. a sometimes disfiguring skin disease.
d. all of the above
42
Genetic engineering, more formally known as The earliest attempts to use genes
recombinant DNA technology, allows scientists therapeutically focused on a form of severe
to cut segments of DNA from one type of combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID),
organism and combine them with the genes of which is caused by the lack of an enzyme due
a second organism. In this way, relatively simple to a single abnormal gene. The gene for this
organisms such as bacteria or yeast, or even enzyme—adenosine deaminase (ADA)—is
mammalian cells in culture, can be induced to delivered into the patient’s T cells by a modified
make quantities of human proteins, including retrovirus. When the virus splices its genes
interferons or interleukins. This technology has into those of the T cells, it simultaneously
enabled scientists to grow tobacco plants that introduces the gene for the missing enzyme.
produce monoclonal antibodies, and goats that After the treated T cells begin to produce the
secrete a clot-dissolving heart attack drug, tissue missing enzyme, they are injected back into
plasminogen activator (TPA), in their milk. the patient.
Another facet of recombinant DNA Gene therapy is now being used with
technology involves gene therapy. The goal of some cancer patients. TILs reinforced with a
this therapy is to replace defective genes, or to gene for the anti-tumor cytokine known as
endow a cell with new capabilities. In 1989, the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) have been
feasibility and safety of gene transfer was administered to patients with advanced
demonstrated when tumor-infiltrating melanoma, a deadly form of skin cancer. Plans
lymphocytes (TILs) were extracted from a are under way to engineer a cancer “vaccine”
patient, equipped with a marker gene (so they designed to improve anti-cancer immune
could be tracked and monitored), and then responses by taking small bits of tumor from
reinjected into patients with advanced cancer. patients with cancer, outfitting the tumor cells
To deliver the gene into the TIL, the scientists with genes for immune-cell-activating
used a virus, exploiting its natural tendency to cytokines such as IL-2, and reinjecting these
invade cells. Before being used as a vector, the gene-modified tumors into the patient. While
virus was altered so that it could not reproduce the thought of reintroducing a cancerous
or cause disease. This experiment demonstrated tumor into a patient seems somewhat
that gene-modified cells could survive for long frightening, the enhanced immune response
periods in the bloodstream and in tumor triggered by this technique may help prevent
deposits without harm to the patient. the recurrence of cancer.
41. The fourth paragraph is chiefly concerned

with the use of gene therapy to combat
a. necrosis.
b. cancer.
c. cytokine.
d. melanoma.
43
42. Recombinant DNA technology can lead to Section 3: Math

heart attack drugs to be produced by
a. yeast. Use scratch paper if needed to answer the following 50
b. bacteria. questions. You have 45 minutes to complete this section.
c. tobacco plants.
d. goats. 1. 292 × 50 is equal to
a. 14,600.
43. Why might cancer patients be leery of the b. 14,500.
prospect of a cancer “vaccine”? c. 10,500.
a. Vaccine recipients will be reinjected with d. 1,450.
cancerous material.
b. The vaccine is derived from the tobacco 2. What is 58 of 600?
plant. a. 75
c. The safety of genetic transfer has not yet b. 375
been proven. c. 400
d. Genetic material from the vector could d. 225
invade the vaccine recipient’s bloodstream.
52
3. Reduce
117 to lowest terms.
44. Tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes reinforced 1
a.
2
with tumor necrosis factor have been used 25
b.
49
to treat 4
a. heart attacks. c.
9
15
b. melanoma. d.
17
c. SCID.
d. blood diseases. 4. Which value of x makes the number sentence
x 14 53 true?
45. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) is transferred a. x 89
into the T cells of a patient via which of the b. x 29
following? c. x 37
a. marker gene d. x 67
b. TIL –14
c. interferon 5. is equal to
–18
d. modified retrovirus a. 2.
b. 12.
c. –12.
d. –2.
44
6. About how many liters of water will a 5-gallon 12. The perimeter of a rectangle is 148 feet. Its two
container hold? (1 liter = 1.06 quarts) longest sides add up to 86 feet. What is the
a. 5 length of each of its two shortest sides?
b. 11 a. 31 ft.
c. 20 b. 42 ft.
d. 21 c. 62 ft.
d. 74 ft.
7. What is another way to write 20,706?
a. 200 + 70 + 6 13. The cost of a list of supplies for a hospital ward
b. 2,000 + 700 + 6 is as follows: $19.98, $52.20, $12.64, and $7.79.
c. 20,000 + 70 + 6 What is the total cost?
d. 20,000 + 700 + 6 a. $91.30
b. $92.61
8. If 5x4 = 29, then x is c. $93.60
a. 6. d. $93.61
b. 12.
c. 18. 14. If jogging for one mile uses 150 calories and
d. 108. brisk walking for one mile uses 100 calories, a
jogger has to go how many times as far as a
9. Which of the following is divisible by 6 and 7? walker to use the same number of calories?
a. 63 a. 1
2
b. 74 2
b. 3
c. 84
3
d. 96 c. 2
d. 2
10. Which is equivalent to 0.0004?
a. 4 × 104 15. A dosage of a certain medication is 12 cc per
b. 4 × 10–4 100 pounds. What is the dosage for a patient
c. 0.4 × 103 who weighs 175 pounds?
d. 40 × 10–2 a. 15 cc
b. 18 cc
11. What is the value of 44 18 6 9? c. 21 cc
a. 1 d. 24 cc
b. 8
c. 38 16. A gram of fat contains 9 calories. An 1,800-
d. 33 calorie diet allows no more than 20% of
calories from fat. How many grams of fat
are allowed in that diet?
a. 40 g
b. 90 g
c. 200 g
d. 360 g
45
17. How much water must be added to 1 liter of a 21. In the following figure, angle POS measures
5% saline solution to get a 2% saline solution? 90°. What is the measure of angle ROQ?
a. 1 liter P R
b. 1.5 liters
c. 2 liters O
d. 2.5 liters
S Q
18. A 15 cc dosage must be increased by 20%.
What is the new dosage? a. 45°
a. 17 cc b. 90°
b. 18 cc c. 180°
c. 30 cc d. 270°
d. 35 cc
22. A line intersects two parallel lines in the
following figure. If angle P measures 40°,
19. What is the volume of the liquid in this cylinder?
what is the measure of angle Q?
10 cm Q
P
8 cm a. 50°
a. 64pcm3 b. 60°
b. 80p cm3 c. 80°
c. 96p cm3 d. 140°
d. 160p cm3
23. A nurse is paid $33.55 per hour. She works
20. The following figure contains both a circle and 22.75 hours during one week. How much
a square. What is the area of the entire shaded total pay will she receive for the week?
figure? a. $726.00
b. $7,632.65
c. $627.26
d. $763.26
8
24. Of 9,125 patients treated in a certain
emergency room in one year, 72% were male.
Among the males, three out of five were under
the age of 25. How many of the emergency
room patients were males age 25 or older?
a. 16 + 4p
a. 2,628
b. 16 + 16p
b. 3,942
c. 24 + 2p
c. 5,475
d. 24 + 4p
d. 6,570
46
25. 62.5% is equal to 30. 0.63 × 0.42 is equal to

a. 1
16. a. 26.46.
5 b. 2.646.
b. .
8 c. 0.2646.
c. 614. d. 0.02646.
d. 625.
31. Which of the following numbers is the smallest?
7
26. 40 is equal to a. 0.45
a. 0.0175.
b. 2–2
b. 0.175.
2
c. 1.75. c. 5
3
d. 17.5. d. 9
27. A certain water pollutant is unsafe at a level 32. 3196 – 178 is equal to
over 20 ppm (parts per million). A city’s water a. 11116.
supply now contains 50 ppm of this pollutant.
b. 218.
What percentage improvement will make the
water safe? c. 214.
a. 30% d. 2156.
b. 40%
c. 50% 33. If the average woman burns 8.2 calories per
d. 60% minute while riding a bicycle, how many calories
will she burn if she rides for 35 minutes?
28. In half of migraine sufferers, a certain drug a. 286
reduces the number of migraines by 50%. b. 287
What percentage of all migraines can be c. 387
eliminated by this drug? d. 980
a. 25%
b. 50% 34. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the rate at
c. 75% which our body uses calories. The BMR for a
d. 100% man in his twenties is about 1,700 calories per
day. If 204 of those calories should come from
29. Nationwide, in one year, there were about protein, about what percentage of this man’s
21,500 fire-related injuries associated with diet should be protein?
furniture. Of these, 11,350 were caused by a. 1.2%
smoking materials. About what percent of b. 8.3%
the fire-related injuries were smoking-related? c. 12%
a. 47% d. 16%
b. 49%
c. 51%
d. 53%
47
35. One lap on a particular outdoor track 40. What is the length of a rectangle if its width is
measures a quarter of a mile around. To run 9 ft. and its area is 117 sq. ft.?
a total of 312 miles, how many complete laps a. 1.3 ft.
must a person finish? b. 10.5 ft.
a. 7 c. 12 ft.
b. 10 d. 13 ft.
c. 13
d. 14 41. The cost of a patient’s X-ray is $830. The
insurance company pays 85% of the cost and
36. Down syndrome occurs in about one in the patient pays the remaining amount. How
1,500 children when the mothers are in their much does the patient pay for the X-ray?
twenties. About what percentage of all children a. $15.00
born to mothers in their twenties are likely to b. $124.50
have Down syndrome? c. $664.00
a. 0.0067% d. $705.50
b. 0.067%
c. 0.67% 42. 214 + 458 + 12 is equal to
d. 6.7% a. 678.
b. 714.
37. If a population of yeast cells grows from 10 to
320 in a period of five hours, what is the rate c. 738.
of growth? d. 734.
a. It doubles its numbers every hour.
b. It triples its numbers every hour. 43. What percentage of 600 is 750?
c. It doubles its numbers every two hours. a. 80%
d. It triples its numbers every two hours. b. 85%
c. 110%
38. Which value of x will make this number d. 125%
sentence true? x + 25 ≤ 13
a. –12 44. What is the value of d rt if r 65 and t 12?
b. –11 a. 780
c. 12 b. 715
d. 38 c. 650
d. 845
39. How many faces does a cube have?
a. 4 45. What is another way to write 0.32 × 103?
b. 6 a. 3.2
c. 8 b. 32
d. 12 c. 320
d. 3,200
48
5
46. In the following figure, triangle QRS is a right 50. 12 – 38 is equal to
triangle. If angle S measures 37°, what is the a. 1
10.
measure of angle Q? 1
b. 24.
Q 5
c. 48.
19
d. .
24
R S
a. 63°
b. 37° Section 4: General Science
c. 53°
d. 180° This section will test your accumulated knowledge in
general science.
47. 3.6 – 1.89 is equal to
a. 1.47. 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four
b. 1.53. fundamental forces of the universe?
c. 1.71. a. gravity
d. 2.42. b. electromagnetism
c. pressure
48. If a particular woman’s resting heartbeat is d. weak nuclear force
72 beats per minute and she is at rest for six
2. This Dutchman charmed Europe with his
and a half hours, about how many times will
letters that contained drawings depicting the
her heart beat during that period of time?
extraordinary details visible under the high-
a. 4,320
power microscopes he built himself.
b. 4,680
a. Isaac Newton
c. 28,080
b. Baron von Humboldt
d. 43,200
c. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
d. Benedict Spinoza
49. The number of red blood corpuscles in one
cubic millimeter is about 5 million, and the 3. When studying the orbit of the planet Mars, he
number of white blood corpuscles in one cubic discovered the law that planets move around
millimeter is about 8,000. What, then, is the the Sun in ellipses.
ratio of white blood corpuscles to red blood a. Kepler
corpuscles? b. Galileo
a. 1:625 c. Newton
b. 1:40 d. Copernicus
c. 4:10
d. 5:1,250
49
4. Sixteenth-century astronomer Nicolaus 9. How many milligrams are in one gram?

Copernicus stirred up controversy, now a. 10
referred to as the “Copernican Revolution,” b. 100
with his book On the Revolutions of the Heavenly c. 1,000
Spheres. What did Copernicus propose that d. 10,000
was so revolutionary for the time?
a. All the planets revolved around the Sun. 10. The biggest concepts in science are called
b. The Sun and planets revolved around Earth. a. predictions.
c. The planets revolved around the Sun, and b. theories.
the Sun in turn revolved around Earth. c. experiments.
d. Earth revolved around the Sun, and the d. hypotheses.
planets in turn revolved around Earth.
11. Doing science in a Popperian manner means
5. He was the Austrian monk who spent years in a. selecting only data that fits your hypothesis.
scientific isolation while he bred pea plants b. actively seeking experiments that will falsify
and studied the results, which we now know your hypothesis.
as heredity. c. creating data that goes with hypothetical
a. Rutherford explanations.
b. Darwin d. wanting your experiments to work.
c. Mendel
d. Watson 12. Which of the following is not a flavor of
quark?
6. A mass extinction occurred at the end of a. up
which geologic period? b. middle
a. Cambrian c. strange
b. Jurassic d. charm
c. Permian
d. Silurian 13. What year was the first successful landing of a
U.S. rover on Mars?
7. What did Galileo do? a. 1969
a. first split light into its colors b. 1957
b. first used the x- and y-axes c. 1997
c. first realized the antiquity of Earth d. 2011
d. first observed the moons of Jupiter
14. Reductionism in science refers to what?
8. If you want to test the effect of a new malaria a. rejecting holism as unessential
vaccine, the group of people who receive b. making the hypothesis small enough to fit
shots that contain no vaccine is called the the facts
a. control group. c. creating an alternative pattern that uses
b. experiment group. previous ideas
c. fake group. d. explaining behaviors in terms of interacting
d. zero group. parts
50
15. In an XY graph comparing time versus 20. The presence of life is responsible for the
distance, time is the relatively high concentration of which gas
a. dependent variable and located on the x-axis. in Earth’s atmosphere?
b. dependent variable and located on the y-axis. a. carbon dioxide
c. independent variable and located on the b. hydrogen
x-axis. c. methane
d. independent variable and located on the d. oxygen
y-axis.
21. The nanosecond is one of one
16. The typical human hair is about 50 microme- second.
ters in diameter. That means it is 50 ________ a. thousandth
of a meter. b. millionth
a. billionths c. billionth
b. thousandths d. trillionth
c. parts
d. millionths 22. How many milliliters (mL) are there in a
1-liter (L) soda bottle?
17. Humans are putting about 6 billion tons of a. 0.001
carbon into the atmosphere each year in the b. 0.01
form of carbon dioxide. Which of the following c. 100
is another way of expressing this number? d. 1,000
a. 6 megatons
b. 6 kilotons 23. Satellites have measured differences in this
c. 6 petatons quantity, which came into existence before
d. 6 gigatons the formation of galaxies and shows that
inhomogeneities existed in the early universe—
18. Which of the following is the standard metric in other words, that the universe was “lumpy.”
unit of energy? What is the quantity?
a. joule a. radiation temperature
b. mole b. black hole wavelength
c. watt c. electron density
d. ampere d. galaxy patterns
19. What exponent or power of 10 would you use 24. Based on current scientific observations,
to express how many meters are in a kilometer? most cosmologists are in agreement that
a. 105 the universe is
b. 103 a. contracting.
c. 104 b. expanding.
d. 102 c. static.
d. oscillating.
51
25. Put in order the following events, from earliest 29. The innovation that allowed the human
(closest in time to the Big Bang) to latest population to first grow above 10 million was
(closest in time to today): electrons become a. fire.
stable around atomic nuclei (E); stable b. hunting.
combinations of protons and neutrons (S); c. agriculture.
near annihilation of matter and antimatter d. industrial technology.
(N); protogalaxies start to form (P).
a. N-S-E-P 30. Which element in the universe (including
b. E-S-N-P inside our Sun) is both primordial (meaning
c. P-E-S-N some of it was made shortly after the Big Bang,
d. S-E-P-N before any stars formed) and made inside
stars during fusion reactions?
26. In the electromagnetic spectrum, infrared a. carbon
wavelengths are slightly longer than those of b. hydrogen
visible red, and ultraviolet wavelengths are c. helium
slightly shorter than visible blue. If an d. iron
absorption spectrum from a calcium atom
here on Earth has a characteristic pattern 31. Which increases in density as the universe
in the red wavelengths, looking at calcium in ages?
the absorption spectrum of a distant galaxy a. energy
will show the same characteristic pattern b. microwave radiation
toward the c. hydrogen
a. ultraviolet. d. carbon
b. blue.
c. red (the same). 32. The planet nearest to Earth is
d. infrared. a. Venus.
b. Jupiter.
27. Of the following elements, which is formed c. Neptune.
last in the stages of nuclear fusion inside stars? d. Saturn.
a. hydrogen
b. helium 33. Astronomers sometimes make units that fit the
c. carbon large scales of space and time. Consider the
d. oxygen time interval from today back to the formation
of Earth (in other words, Earth’s condensation
28. Which events or processes disperse elements from the gas cloud that also formed the Sun).
born in the internal nuclear fires of stars, For just this question, call this amount of time
making those elements available for subse- one Earth Formation Unit (1 EFU). About
quent formations of new stars and planets? how many EFUs from today must you go
a. supernovas back in time to reach the Big Bang?
b. expanding universe a. 1 EFU
c. fusion reactions b. 3 EFUs
d. red shift c. 8 EFUs
d. 15 EFUs
52
34. Our best dates for the origin of the solar 40. We know there is matter that cannot be seen
system come from by any means available to us, including the
a. rocks found on the Moon. different wavelengths of the electromagnetic
b. the oldest rocks on Earth. spectrum. Yet we know this so-called “dark
c. meteorites. matter” exists. How?
d. gases in the Sun. a. Black holes have consumed much of the
matter that once existed.
35. Which planet does not have a well-developed b. At the origin of the universe was a large
atmosphere because of its small size? amount of antimatter that became hidden.
a. Neptune c. Einstein’s equation shows us the equivalence
b. Mars of energy that could also be considered
c. Venus matter.
d. Mercury d. The spins of galaxies cannot be explained by
the amount of known, ordinary matter.
36. Humans are currently in space on the
a. Mir space station. 41. Today, we know fairly well the composition
b. International Space Station. of the universe, in terms of types of matter
c. Mars rover. (or types of energy that can be put into
d. Apollo capsule. amounts of equivalent matter, using Einstein’s
equation E = mc2). What percentage of the
37. Which of the following is considered a universe is dark energy?
dwarf planet? a. 98%
a. Mercury b. 73%
b. Eris c. 23%
c. Oort d. 4%
d. Dysnomia
42. One element crucial to life is carbon, which
38. Which body in our solar system has very good forms about 40% of our body’s dry weight.
evidence for the presence, at one time in the If planets had formed around the very earliest
past, for liquid water? stars in the universe, why would it have been
a. Moon unlikely for life to start on those earliest
b. Mars planets?
c. Venus a. Carbon is made slowly as the expanding
d. Mercury energy of the Big Bang is converted to
matter.
39. In 2006, the International Astronomical Union b. Carbon leaks into our universe through
voted to reclassify Pluto from a planet to a(n) black holes.
a. dwarf planet. c. Carbon is made by fusion reactions in stars.
b. asteroid. d. Carbon is made by the fission of oxygen.
c. moon.
d. Oort cloud.
53
43. The geographical region of the ocean that 49. Electromagnetism is the force that
meets the deep ocean floor is the a. causes the interaction between electrically
a. continental alluvium. charged particles.
b. continental abyss. b. binds protons and neutrons together to
c. continental slope. form the nucleus of an atom.
d. continental shelf. c. is responsible for the radioactive decay of
subatomic particles.
44. What word in ancient Greek meant indivisible? d. causes dispersed matter to coalesce.
a. atom
b. molecule 50. What is 10–12 meters?
c. ion a. a picometer
d. isotope b. a nanometer
c. a micrometer
45. The radioactive isotope of carbon is d. a femtometer
a. carbon-11.
b. carbon-12.
c. carbon-13. Section 5: Biology
d. carbon-14.
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45
46. If positively charged and negatively charged minutes to complete this section.
particles are considered “opposites,” which pair
of atomic particles would be “opposite”? 1. Which of the following is NOT a pyrimidine
a. protons and neutrons base of nucleic acids?
b. neutrons and electrons a. thymine
c. electrons and protons b. cytosine
d. neutrons and quarks c. uracil
d. guanine
47. Parts of the atomic nucleus are sometimes
collectively called nucleons. Nucleons are 2. In primates, what is the epithelial lining of the
therefore uterus?
a. protons and mesons. a. fimbria
b. electrons and neutrons. b. cervix
c. mesons and electrons. c. myometrium
d. neutrons and protons. d. endometrium
48. In measuring electricity, the unit for resistance 3. What is the clinical term for abnormal tissue
is the growth?
a. volt. a. atrophy
b. ohm. b. karyolysis
c. amp. c. dysplasia
d. watt. d. thrombosis
54
4. Which of the following is an example of 10. Which of the following hormones is a peptide?
genetic engineering? a. insulin
a. gene deletion b. adrenaline
b. genetic screening c. testosterone
c. selective breeding d. thyroxine
d. pedigree analysis
11. These organelles generate the majority of ATP
5. What is the protein coat that encloses the in eukaryotic cells.
genome of a virus? a. mitochondria
a. cell wall b. chloroplasts
b. myelin sheath c. ribosomes
c. envelope d. lysosomes
d. capsid
12. Which of the following lists the phases of
6. An organism with two different alleles for a mitosis in the correct order?
trait is a. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
a. homozygous for that trait. b. prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase
b. heterozygous for that trait. c. metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase
c. phenotypic for that trait. d. telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
d. genotypic for that trait.
13. A reproductive cell, or gamete, is a unique kind
7. Which of the following organelles are found in of cell because it
plants, but NOT in animals or bacteria? a. is a haploid cell.
a. mitochondria b. is a diploid cell.
b. chloroplasts c. does not contain protein.
c. nucleus d. is much smaller than other cells.
d. cell wall
14. The function of the lysosome is to
8. Which of the following scientists is known as a. contain the cell’s genetic material.
the founder of modern genetics? b. combine amino acids into proteins.
a. Johannes Kepler c. break down waste material in the cell.
b. Sir Charles Lyell d. generate ATP.
c. Gregor Mendel
d. Robert Hooke 15. During which stage of meiosis I does crossing
over occur?
9. Which of the following is an air- or fluid-filled a. prophase
space in the cytoplasm of a living cell? b. metaphase
a. a vacuum c. anaphase
b. a vacuole d. telophase
c. a centriole
d. a centrosome
55
16. A part of what type of cell is shown in the 21. Bacteria can undergo genetic recombination
following figure? through
a. binary fission.
b. translation.
c. transformation.
d. meiosis.
22. The term mutation refers to

a. a change in one or more genes.
a. a blood cell
b. rapidly multiplying cells.
b. a fat cell
c. a bacterial infection.
c. a muscle cell
d. a change in the organism’s metabolic rate.
d. a nerve cell
23. The complementary RNA sequence for

17. Hepatitis is an inflammation of the
CATTGAA is
a. joints.
a. GTAACTT.
b. lungs.
b. TGCCTGG.
c. liver.
c. GUAACUU.
d. large intestine.
d. ACGGTCC.
18. The process of cellular reproduction in

24. In some flowers, the alleles for red and white
bacteria is known as
produce pink flowers in heterozygotes. This
a. mitosis.
phenomenon is called
b. meiosis.
a. the genotypic ratio.
c. telophase.
b. the law of independent assortment.
d. binary fission.
c. incomplete metamorphosis.
d. incomplete dominance.
19. The principal function of blood platelets is to
a. help clot blood.
25. The term biological catalyst most closely
b. carry oxygen.
describes
c. produce antibodies.
a. RNA.
d. phagocytize bacteria.
b. DNA.
c. a mitochondrion.
20. The two or more related genes that control a
d. an enzyme.
trait are known as
a. chromosomes.
26. Which of the following is NOT a member of
b. chromatids.
the class of fungi?
c. phenotypes.
a. common bread mold
d. alleles.
b. mushrooms
c. kelp
d. yeast
56
27. Which plasma protein plays the greatest role in 32. The broadest classification of plants is whether
maintaining the osmotic pressure of blood? they are
a. fibrinogen a. vascular or nonvascular.
b. albumin b. angiosperms or gymnosperms.
c. prothrombin c. monocots or dicots.
d. gamma globulins d. seedless or seeded.
28. Initial classification of a bacterium is based 33. The structure formed by the union of male
on its and female gametes is the
a. size. a. zoospore.
b. shape. b. zygote.
c. color. c. ova.
d. ability to cause disease. d. oocyte.
29. Which of the following is NOT caused by 34. The metabolic pathway for the degradation
a virus? of glucose into pyruvate to produce ATP is
a. polio known as
b. rabies a. glycolysis.
c. malaria b. gluconeogenesis.
d. cold sores (herpes simplex) c. the Calvin cycle.
d. the Krebs cycle.
30. Bacteria and viruses can both have genomes
made up of 35. During strenuous exercise, a build-up of what
a. single-stranded DNA. substance may cause muscle cramps?
b. double-stranded DNA. a. lactic acid
c. single-stranded RNA. b. lactose
d. double-stranded RNA. c. adrenaline
d. serotonin
31. The process of a complementary strand of
RNA being made from a sequence of DNA is 36. Which of the following organs functions to
known as absorb water and create feces from undigested
a. transcription. food?
b. translation. a. small intestine
c. mitosis. b. liver
d. replication. c. large intestine
d. stomach
57
37. During a latent period in muscle tissue, what is 43. Which organelle of a bacterium plays the
released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? greatest role in movement of the bacterium?
a. calcium a. flagella
b. sodium b. ribosomes
c. lactic acid c. cytoplasm
d. acetylcholine d. cell wall
38. Beriberi is caused by a deficit of which vitamin? 44. “Energy cannot be destroyed; it can only be
a. vitamin B1 transformed” is a statement of what physical
b. vitamin C law?
c. vitamin E a. first law of thermodynamics
d. vitamin D b. second law of thermodynamics
c. law of entropy
39. This molecule is responsible for the green d. law of constant composition
color of leaves.
a. deoxyribonucleic acid 45. In complementary base pairing, cytosine pairs
b. adenosine triphosphate only with
c. chlorophyll a. adenine.
d. glucose b. guanine.
c. thymine.
40. Which of the following is NOT characteristic d. uracil.
of anaphylaxis?
a. circulatory shock 46. The primary component of alcoholic
b. bronchospasm beverages that acts as a central nervous system
c. hives (CNS) depressant is
d. hypertension a. isopropyl alcohol.
b. methanol.
41. What is the generic term for any substance c. methionine.
which blocks ONLY the sensory perception d. ethanol.
of pain?
a. analgesic 47. Primary structure refers to a protein’s
b. general anesthetic a. amino acid sequence.
c. local anesthetic b. a-helices and b-sheets.
d. acetylcholine c. shape.
d. active site.
42. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid?
a. tyrosine 48. A benign tumor usually caused by a papilloma-
b. tryptophan virus is a
c. thymine a. wart.
d. threonine b. sarcoma.
c. adenoma.
d. cold sore.
58
49. What is the light-sensitive pigment found in 50. What is another term for excessively high
the vertebrate retina? blood pressure?
a. cytochrome a. cardiomyopathy
b. hemoglobin b. hypertension
c. rhodopsin c. hypoglycemia
d. melanin d. hemophilia
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 minutes to complete this section. Use the periodic table on
this page when necessary to help you answer the following questions.
1 18
IA VIIIA
1 2
H 2 13 14 15 16 17 He
1.00794 IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA 4.002602
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 9 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg 3 4 5 6 7 8 VIIIB 10 11 12 A1 Si P S Cl Ar
22.989770 24.3050 IIIB IVB VB VIB VIIB IB IIB 26.981538 28.0855 30.973761 32.066 35.4527 39.948
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
Fr Ra Ac** Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
(223) (226) (227) (265) (268) (271) (270) (277) (276) (281) (280) (285) (286) (289) (289) (293) (294) (294)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
series Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

series Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
1. Which of the following substances has a pH closest to 7?

a. ammonia
b. blood
c. lemon juice
d. vinegar
59
2. In the equilibrium reaction AgCl(s) ——

—— 7. By which of the following mechanisms does a
+ + Cl–
Ag(aq) (aq) that occurs when silver chloride catalyst operate?
is added to water, what happens when more a. It decreases the activation energy barrier for
chloride ions are added to the solution? a reaction.
a. less AgCl dissolves b. It serves as a reactant and is consumed.
b. less AgCl forms c. It increases the temperature of a reaction.
c. more Ag+ ions form d. It increases the concentration of reactants.
d. more Cl– ions form
8. If an atom has a mass number of 40 and an
3. Which of the following groups is common to atomic number of 18, how many neutrons
the majority of amino acids? does it contain?
a. CH3 a. 18
b. H2O b. 22
c. NH2 c. 40
d. SO4–2 d. 58
4. When amino acids polymerize to make a 9. Which is the best Lewis structure for acetone,
protein, which of the following is produced CH3C(O)CH3?
as a byproduct? a. H H
| |
a. H2O
H – C – C¨ = O
¨ –C–H
b. H2 | |
c. O2 H H
d. CO2
b. H H
| |
5. The a-helices and b-sheets in a protein make ¨ –C–H
H – C – C¨ – O
up its | ¨ |
a. primary structure. H H
b. secondary structure.
c. tertiary structure. c. H ˙˙O˙˙ H
| || |
d. quaternary structure.
H–C–C–C–H
| |
6. 35Cl has 17 protons. How many neutrons does H H
it have?
a. 17 d. ¨˙ H
H ˙˙O˙
| | |
b. 18
H–C–C–C–H
c. 35 | |
d. 52 H H
60
10. Which of the following represents t-butyl? 15. Which of the following is the hybridization of
a. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 the carbon atom in methane, CH4?
b. CH3 a. sp
| b. sp2
CH3 – C – CH3 c. sp3
| d. sp4
CH3
16. Which of the following electron configurations
c. CH3 – CH2 – CH3
is NOT possible?
d. H a. 1s22s1
| b. 1s22s4
CH3 – C – CH3 c. 1s22s22p2
| d. 1s22s22p6
CH3
17. When a liquid is at its boiling point, the vapor
11. O–2 has how many electrons?
pressure of the liquid
a. 6
a. is less than the external pressure on the
b. 8
liquid.
c. 10
b. is equal to the external pressure on the
d. 18
liquid.
c. is greater than the external pressure on the
12. Which of the following groups on the periodic
liquid.
table is most likely to form negative ions?
d. can be either less or greater than the
a. alkali metals
external pressure on the liquid.
b. alkaline earth metals
c. halogens
18. What is the oxidation state of iron in Fe2O3?
d. noble gases
a. 0
13. Which of the following is the correct, balanced b. +2
equation for the combustion of propane? c. +3
a. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) + N2(g) Æ 3CO2(g) + d. +6
2NO2(g) + 4H2(g)
b. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) Æ 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g) 19. Which of the following is the empirical
c. C3H8(g) + 6O2(g) + 2H2(g) Æ 3CO2(g) + formula for ethylene glycol, C2H6O2?
6H2O(g) a. CH3O
d. C3H8(g) + O2(g) + 4H2O(g) Æ 3CO2(g) + b. C2H6O2
6H2(g) c. C4H12O4
d. CH2
14. What is the electron configuration of a Cl–
ion?
a. [Ne]3s23p5
b. [Ne]3s2p63d1
c. [Ne]3s23p4
d. [Ne]3s23p6
61
20. What is the most likely oxidation state of Mg? 25. One liter of solution is made by dissolving
a. +2 29.2 g of NaCl in water. What is the molarity
b. +1 of the solution?
c. 0 a. 0.5 M
d. –6 b. 2.0 M
c. 1.3 M
21. Which of the following is the chemical symbol d. 0.82 M
for the species that has 16 protons, 17
neutrons, and 18 electrons? 26. Which of the following is an ether?
a. 33 a. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
16S
33Cl
b. CH3CH2COOH
b. 17
c. CH3CH2NH2
c. 35
17Cl d. CH3CH=CHCH3
33S2–
d. 16
27. Which of the following is the oxidation
22. Which of the following equations correctly number of sulfur in the compound sodium
describes the reaction between SO3(g) and thiosulfate, Na2S2O3?
KOH(aq)? a. +1
a. 4SO3(g) + 4KOH(aq) Æ 2H2SO4(aq) + 4K(s) b. –1
+ O2(g) c. +2
b. SO3(g) + 2KOH(aq) Æ K2SO4(aq) + H2O(1) d. –2
c. 2SO3 + 4KOH(aq) Æ 2K2SO3(aq) + 2H2O(1)
+ O2(g) 28. Two liters of air at a pressure of 2 atm are
d. No reaction occurs. condensed to 0.5 liters. If the temperature is
constant, what is the new pressure?
23. Which of the following is a Lewis acid, but not a. 16 atm
a Bronsted acid? b. 8 atm
a. HCl c. 2 atm
b. H2SO4 d. 0.5 atm
c. CH4
d. AlCl3 29. The composition of dry air consists of
approximately 78% nitrogen, N2, and 21%
24. Butane, C4H10, combusts to form CO2 and oxygen, O2. If the air pressure of a 5-liter
H2O. Which of the following is the balanced sample of dry air is 800 torr, what is the
chemical equation that describes this reaction? approximate partial pressure of oxygen?
a. C4H10 + O2 Æ CO2 + H2O a. 620 torr
b. C4H10 +7O2 + H2 Æ 4CO2 + 6H2O b. 720 torr
c. C4H10 + 7O2 Æ 4CO2 + 5H2O c. 210 torr
d. 2C4H10 + 13O2 Æ 8CO2 + 10H2O d. 170 torr
62
30. In an experiment, 0.5 grams of copper was 34. Which temperature is equivalent to 100°C?
reacted with 100 mL of a 0.5 M HCl solution. a. 273.15 K
The reaction was then repeated using 0.5 grams b. 0 K
of copper and 100 mL of a 0.1 M HCl solution. c. 273.15 K
Compared to the first reaction, the second d. 373.15 K
reaction
a. would proceed at a slower rate. 35. Primary intermolecular interactions between a
b. would proceed at a faster rate. K cation and H2O molecules are
c. would proceed at the same rate. a. hydrogen bonds.
d. would not proceed. b. dipole-dipole interactions.
c. ion-dipole interactions.
31. The electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p3 d. London forces.
describes which atom?
a. N 36. In a chemical reaction, there is a single reactant
b. Ne and two products. Which type of reaction
c. Ar must have occurred?
d. P a. combination
b. decomposition
32. If a gas is heated at a constant volume, the c. double displacement
pressure d. single displacement
a. increases, because molecules collide with
walls more slowly. Answer questions 37 and 38 based on the following
b. increases, because molecules collide with phase diagram for a compound.
walls more quickly.
c. decreases, because molecules collide with
walls more slowly. D C
d. decreases, because molecules collide with
walls more quickly.
33. How much heat is required to raise the G H

Pressure
temperature of 100 grams of water from 25°C

(near room temperature) to 100°C (its boiling 1 atm E
point)? The specific heat of water is approxi- F
mately 4.2 J per g·K. B
a. 3.2 × 104 J
b. 32 J J I
c. 4.2 × 104 J
A
d. 76 J
Temperature
63
37. At which point is the compound a solid? 42. What is the pH of a solution with
a. F [OH–] = 1 × 10–8?
b. G a. 4
c. H b. 6
d. I c. 8
d. 14
38. Sublimation occurs when moving from
a. G to H. 43. Which of the following has the highest
b. I to J. electronegativity?
c. J to I. a. S
d. I to H. b. Se
c. Cl
39. Which of following is the balanced equation d. Br
for the reaction between NH3 and O2?
a. 4NH3 + 5O2 Æ 4NO + 6H2O 44. How many moles of 0.2 M HCl are needed to
b. 2NH3 + 3O2 Æ 2NO + 3H2O titrate 100 ml of 0.4 M NaOH?
c. 2NH3 + 2O2 Æ NO2 + 3H2O
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) Æ NaCl(aq) + H2O(1)
d. NH3 + O2 Æ N2O + 3H2O
a. 0.2 mol
40. In the reaction 4A1 + 3O2 Æ 2A12O3, how b. 0.1 mol
many grams of O2 are needed to completely c. 0.04 mol
react with 1.5 moles of Al? d. 0.02 mol
a. 24 g
b. 36 g 45. Which of the following is an example of an
c. 48 g ionic crystal?
d. 60 g a. LiF
b. SiO2
41. What is the equilibrium constant Kc for the c. CO2
following equation? d. C12H22O11
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

46. Which of the following would have to happen
[SO3] to a neutral chlorine atom for it to have the
a. Kc =
[SO2][O2]
[SO2][O2]
same stable configuration as argon?
b. Kc = [SO a. lose one electron
3]
[SO2]2[O2] b. gain one electron
c. Kc = [SO 2
3]
[SO3]2
c. lose two electrons
d. Kc =
[SO2]2[O2] d. gain two electrons
64
47. Electronegativity increases on the periodic Answers

table traveling
a. down and to the left. Section 1: Verbal Ability
b. down and to the right. 1. a. pathetically
c. up and to the left. 2. c. belief
d. up and to the right. 3. c. camouflage
4. a. breach
48. When 100 mL of 0.1 M Pb(NO3)2 and 100 mL 5. c. perceived
of 0.1 M BaCl2 are mixed, 1.67 g of PbCl2 6. a. shriveled
form. What is the percent yield of this 7. b. situation
reaction? 8. a. apparently
a. 100% 9. c. obsession
b. 60% 10. c. jeopardy
c. 40% 11. c. magnificent
d. 10% 12. b. geriatrics
13. c. illicit
49. What is the empirical formula for glucose, 14. a. inquiry
C6H12O6? 15. a. terminated
a. CH2O 16. a. persecution
b. CHO 17. b. peculiar
c. C3H4O3 18. b. psychology
d. [CH2O]6 19. a. license
20. a. concise
50. Which of the following is the molecular weight 21. b. neighbor
of calcium chloride (CaCl2)? 22. a. stabilize
a. 75.53 g/mol 23. c. reexamining
b. 110.98 g/mol 24. a. aspirations
c. 115.61 g/mol 25. b. exercise
d. 151.06 g/mol 26. a. artificial
27. a. hindrance
28. c. testimony
29. c. addiction
30. a. thorough
31. a. quantity
32. c. imitate
33. b. contradict
34. b. reversal
35. c. foreign
36. a. ravenous
37. a. phenomenal
38. b. temperature
65
39. b. auditorium 8. b. The second paragraph states that mast cells,

40. c. circumference lymphocytes, and eosinophils are all key to
41. b. worries an asthma attack, but also clarifies that only
42. b. finality mast cells and eosinophils account for the
43. a. religious similarity between asthma attacks and
44. a. coliseum allergic responses. Epithelia are body tissues
45. b. delinquent and are not mentioned in the passage.
46. c. forecast 9. a. The passage only mentions viral respiratory
47. a. righteous infections as a trigger for asthma, so they
48. a. sincerely are a cause of asthma, not an effect of the
49. b. hospice disorder. Choices b and c are mentioned
50. b. respiration as effects of asthma.
10. b. During the first 28 days after fertilization is
Section 2: Reading Comprehension correct, as stated in the first sentence of the
1. d. Many asthma sufferers have an inherited passage, long before the second or third
tendency to have allergies, referred to as trimester or delivery.
atopy in the third paragraph. 11. b. According to the second paragraph, the
2. b. The second paragraph explains that during meningocele may be repaired after birth in
an attack, the asthmatic will compensate for a major surgical procedure. Afterward, the
constricted airways by breathing a greater patient may suffer little or no muscle
volume of air. paralysis. While the other answer choices
3. c. The first sentence begins “Asthma is no could be correct, there is no direct evidence
longer . . . ,” indicating that asthma is not a in the passage to support any of them.
new disease and that it has been around for 12. c. The second paragraph refers to the removal
some time. of a meningocele by a medical procedure.
4. c. The first paragraph indicates that asthma Although each answer choice is a synonym
was once considered a condition with of procedure, the only one that would make
isolated, acute episodes of bronchospasm, but sense if used in place of the word in this
it is now understood to be a chronic disorder. context is process.
Since these sentences show that chronic has 13. c. Hydrocephalus is the correct term and is
the opposite meaning of isolated, choice c is given in the final paragraph of the passage.
the best answer. 14. a. The first paragraph states that a small gap
5. a. According to the second paragraph of the covered by a dimple is a sign of the mild
passage, destruction of bronchial epithelium form of spina bifida (spina bifida occulata).
can occur during asthma. The text also explains that this form may be
6. d. The third paragraph discusses triggers in so mild that some people never know they
detail. Only physical activity is listed as a have it, so the other answer choices would
possible symptom reducer. not apply.
7. a. Since asthma symptoms vary throughout 15. d. The passage concludes with the thought that
the day, relying on the presence of an attack although spina bifida is a serious condition,
or even just on the presence of a respiratory sufferers may lead productive lives. The
ailment to diagnose asthma is flawed logic. other options are never stated or are false.
66
16. d. See the last sentence of the third paragraph. 23. d. According to the final sentence of the sixth
Compaction may well reduce transporta- paragraph, the fact that steam sterilization
tion costs (choice a) according to the third does not change the appearance of the waste
paragraph. That it reduces the volume of causes problems getting landfills to accept
waste (choice b) is an advantage, not a such waste. Therefore, it is logical to
disadvantage. Compaction is not designed conclude that changing the appearance of
to eliminate organic matter, so confirming the waste after sterilization might make it
that it has been eliminated (choice c) is not easier to convince landfills to accept it.
an issue. 24. b. The last paragraph states that the use of
17. a. See the last sentence of the fifth paragraph, grate-type units has been discontinued due
which states that incineration is . . . the to high air emissions. It is the rotary type
preferred method for on-site treatment. that is cost prohibitive. No mention of
18. b. See the last sentence of the sixth paragraph, availability or local laws was made.
which points out that steam sterilization 25. b. The third paragraph of the passage indicates
does not change the appearance of the waste, that even the smallest antigens carry several
thus perhaps raising questions at a landfill. different kinds of epitopes on their surface;
19. d. According to the second paragraph of the some may even carry several hundred.
passage, the main risk of carting away 26. b. All of the answers indicate peaceful
medical waste is that bags may be broken or coexistence. However, according to the fifth
torn during transport, potentially exposing sentence of the second paragraph, in this
the worker to the wastes. Choices a and b instance, the state is referred to as self-
describe the risks of using chutes, not carts, tolerance.
to dispose of medical waste. 27. c. See the last paragraph. Allergens are
20. a. This response relies on an understanding of responsible for triggering an inappropriate
pathological wastes, which are wastes immune response to otherwise harmless
generated by infectious materials. The substances such as ragweed pollen.
seventh paragraph points out that 28. d. The last paragraph of the passage mentions
incineration is especially appropriate for that an antigen announces its foreignness
pathological wastes. Previously, the sixth with intricate shapes called epitopes that
paragraph had said that steam sterilization is protrude from the surface.
appropriate for substances contaminated 29. a. According to the diagram, the spleen is
with infectious organisms. located in the torso just above the left hip.
21. d. The second paragraph says that the main Choice b is not depicted in the diagram at
risk of manual carts is potential exposure all, and choices c and d are located in the
from torn bags, but automated carts can head.
reduce that potential. 30. a. According to the second paragraph, the
22. b. See the next-to-last sentence of the fourth ability to distinguish between self and
paragraph. Sterilization does not change the nonself is the heart of the immune system.
appearance of waste. While compacting This topic is further elucidated throughout
does change the volume of the waste, it is the body of the passage.
not appropriate for eliminating hazardous
materials.
67
31. b. The last paragraph states that in abnormal 39. a. Psoriasis does have a genetic link, but that is
situations the immune system wrongly only one element in the passage. Scientists
identifies self as nonself and attacks, are still studying the epidermal vs. immune
resulting in an autoimmune disease like impact. There is no mention of scientists
rheumatoid arthritis. The other choices are having anything negative to say about the
not abnormal situations. immune-related cause of psoriasis.
32. c. The first paragraph introduces the concept Therefore, it can be successfully argued that
of autoimmune attacks before specifying the only viable option is that scientists,
psoriasis as one kind of autoimmune attack. based on this new research detailed
Psoriasis may result in deformity, but it is throughout the passage, are closer to
not a deformity in itself. Although it affects understanding the causes of psoriasis.
the skin, it is not a form of cancer, so choice 40. d. Psoriasis is all of the answers given: a
b is incorrect. uniquely human disease (see the last
33. a. The third paragraph of the passage paragraph), an autoimmune disease (see
discusses the researchers’ studies to paragraph one), and a sometimes
determine whether psoriasis is an disfiguring skin disease (see paragraph
autoimmune disease, or if it is more likely two).
caused by nonimmune epidermal skin cells. 41. b. The final paragraph of the passage is chiefly
34. b. The second paragraph states that in concerned with how gene therapy has been
psoriasis-prone families, genetic markers, used to treat cancer. Although melanoma is
known as HLA antigens, are inherited more one kind of cancer mentioned in the
often than in the general population. The paragraph, it is just an example of a cancer
other answer choices refer to Rh antibodies gene therapy and is not the chief focus of
(relate to red blood cells), H1V1 (a flu the paragraph.
virus), and CD103 (a mouse antibody). 42. d. According to the first paragraph of the
35. c. The passage indicates that psoriasis can passage, recombinant DNA technology can
cause all of the conditions in the answer cause goats to secrete a clot-dissolving heart
choices except for paralysis, which is not attack drug, tissue plasminogen activator
mentioned in the passage at all. (TPA), in their milk.
36. c. According to the sixth paragraph of the 43. a. Included in the vaccine procedure is taking
passage, four out of 10 patients showed bits of tumor from a patient, treating those
striking improvement. pieces of tumor with immune-cell-
37. c. According to the fourth paragraph, only T activating cytokines, and reinjecting the
cells that are activated to participate in patient with the cancerous (albeit
immune reactions carry the IL-2 receptor. genetically altered) growths.
38. b. The diagram shows that skin suffering from 44. b. According to the fourth paragraph of the
psoriasis contains plaque in the keratin layer passage, TILs reinforced with a gene for the
while there is no indication of plaque in the anti-tumor cytokine known as tumor necrosis
keratin layer of the healthy skin cross factor (TNF) have been administered to
section. patients with advanced melanoma.
45. d. According to the third paragraph, ADA is
delivered to the T cells by a modified
retrovirus.
68
Section 3: Math 14. b. 150x = (100)(1), where x is the part of a

1. a. The correct answer is 14,600. The incorrect mile a jogger has to go to burn the calories a
answers are common errors in computa- walker burns in one mile. If you divide both
tion, particularly not carrying digits to the sides of this equation by 150, you get x =
100
next place. . Cancel 50 from the numerator and
150
2. b. The correct answer is 375. Multiply 58 by 600 denominator to get 23. This means that a
by writing 58 ×
600

3,0 00
1 = 8 = 375.
jogger has to jog only 23 of a mile to burn
3. c. Write the numerator and denominator in the same number of calories a walker burns
52 (13)(2)(2)
117 (13)(3)(3) .
terms of their prime factors: in a mile of brisk walking.
1 2 cc x cc
Cancel out any common factors that the 15. c. The ratio is 100 lbs. = 175 lbs. , where x is the
numerator and denominator share. The number of cc’s per 175 lbs. Multiply both
(2)(2) 4 12
(3)(3) 9 .
reduced form is sides by 175 in order to get 175 × 100 = x,
4. d. Substitute each value for x in the number so x = 21.
sentence. The correct answer is the value 16. a. 20% of 1,800 = (0.2)(1,800) = 360 calories
that makes a true statement. The answer is from fat. Since there are 9 calories in each
x 67. gram of fat, you should divide 360 by 9 to
5. a. The correct answer is 2. Because dividing find that 40 grams of fat are allowed.
two negatives yields a positive, choices c and 17. b. 5% of 1 liter = (0.05)(1) = 0.02x, where x is
d can be easily ruled out. Choice b is the the total amount of water in the resulting
result of dividing in the wrong order. 2% solution. Solving for x, you get 2.5.
6. d. The answer to this question lies in knowing Subtracting the 1 liter of water already
that there are four quarts in one gallon. There present in the 5% solution, you will find
are 20 quarts in a five-gallon container. that 1.5 liters need to be added.
Multiply 20 by 1.06 quarts per liter to get 18. b. 20% of 15 cc = (0.20)(15) = 3. Adding 3 to
21.2 liters, and then round off to 21. 15 gives 18 cc.
7. d. Choice a equals 276; choice b equals 2,706; 19. c. The volume of a cylinder is pr2h, where r is
choice c equals 20,076. the radius of the cylinder and h is the height.
8. a. Raise the fraction 29 to 54ths by multiplying The radius is half the diameter, so the radius
both numerator and denominator by 6. of this cylinder is (21)(8 cm) = 4 cm. The
9. c. 6(7)(2) = 84 height of the volume is 10 – 4 = 6 (the height
10. b. Choice a equals 40,000, choice c equals 400, of the whole cylinder minus the height of
and choice d equals 0.40. space in which the liquid has been poured
11. c. Use order of operations to simplify the out). So the volume is pr2h = p(4)2(6) =
expression. The first step is to find 18 6, p(16)(6) = 96p cm3.
which equals 3. Then add or subtract from 20. c. The easiest way to calculate the volume is to
left to right to get 44 3 9 38. realize that the shaded figure is made up of
12. a. The first step in solving the problem is to half a circle of diameter 4 or radius 2 on top
subtract 86 from 148. The remainder, 62, is of a rectangle that is 4 units wide and 6
then divided by 2 to get 31. units tall. The area of a rectangle is length
13. b. You simply add all the numbers together to times width. The area of a circle is pr2. So
get the correct answer, $92.61. the shaded area = (4)(6) + 12p22 = 24 + 2p.
69
21. b. 苶
P苶Q and 苶 RS苶 are intersecting lines. The fact 30. c. Since there are two decimal places in each
that angle POR is a 90° angle means that 苶 P苶
Q number you are multiplying, you need a
and 苶 RS苶 are perpendicular, indicating that all total of four decimal places in the answer,
the angles formed by their intersection, 0.2646.
including angle ROQ, measure 90°. 31. b. Write all the numbers as decimals to
22. d. A line that intersects two parallel lines forms compare them. 2–2 212 14 0.25. 25 0.4.
3
complementary angles on either side of it. 0.33. The smallest number is 2–2.
9
Complementary angles are angles whose 32. a. First, find the least common denominator,
measures add up to 180°. So P + Q = 180°; 16; 87 = 1164 , so you can rewrite the problem as
P = 40°, so 40° + Q = 180°. Subtracting 40° (3 + 196) – (1 + 1146). To get a large enough
from each side yields Q = 140°. numerator from which to subtract 14, you
23. d. Multiply 33.55 by 22.75. The total pay is borrow 1 from the 3 to rewrite the problem
25 14 11
$763.26. as 2 __ __
16 – 1 16 = 1 16 .
__
24. a. 72% of 9,125 = (0.72)(9,125) = 6,570 males. 33. b. This is a simple multiplication problem,
If three out of five males were under 25, which is solved by multiplying 35 × 8.2 in
then two out of five, or 25, were 25 or older, order to get 287.
so (25)(6,570) = 2,628 male patients 25 or 34. c. The problem is solved by dividing 204 by
older. 1,700. The answer, 0.12, is then converted
62.5 to a percentage, 12%.
25. b. 62.5% = 100 . You should multiply both the

numerator and denominator by 10 to move 35. d. To solve this problem, you must convert 312
the decimal point, resulting in 625 to 72 and then divide 72 by 14, which is the
00 , and then
1,0
factor both the numerator and denominator same as multiplying 72 by 4.
to find out how far you can reduce the 36. b. The simplest way to solve this problem is to
fraction. If you cancel 5 from both the divide 1 by 1,500, which is 0.0006667, and
numerator and denominator three times (or then count off two decimal places to arrive
cancel 125), you will get 85. at the percentage 0.06667%. Since the
26. b. Simply estimating the value of 470 will question asks about what percentage, the
probably let you know that 0.0175 is much nearest value is 0.067%.
too small and 1.75 is much too large. If that 37. a. You can use trial and error to arrive at a
did not work for you, however, you could solution to this problem. Using choice a,
divide 7.0 by 40 in order to get 0.175. after the first hour, the number would be
27. d. 30 ppm of the pollutant would have to be 20, after the second hour 40, after the third
removed to bring the 50 ppm down to hour 80, after the fourth hour 160, and after
20 ppm; 30 ppm represents 60% of 50 ppm. the fifth hour 320. The other answer choices
28. a. The drug is 50% effective for half (or 50%) do not have the same outcome.
of migraine sufferers, so it eliminates 38. a. Since the solution to the problem x + 25 =
(0.50)(0.50) = 0.25 = 25% of all migraines. 13 is –12, choices b, c, and d are all too large
29. d. Division is used to arrive at a decimal, to be correct.
which can then be rounded to the nearest 39. b. A cube has four sides, a top, and a bottom,
hundredth and converted to a percentage: which means that it has six faces.
11,350 ÷ 21,500 = 0.5279; 0.5279 rounded
to the nearest hundredth is 0.53, or 53%.
70
40. d. To solve this problem, you should use the Section 4: General Science
formula A = lw, or 117 = 9l. Next, you must 1. c. Pressure, the force applied over an area, is
divide 117 by 9 to find the answer, 13. not a fundamental force. The other three
41. b. The patient pays 100% 85% = 15% of the choices are fundamental forces of the
cost. Multiply $830 by 0.15 to get $124.50 as universe, with the fourth being the strong
the patient’s total cost. nuclear force.
42. c. Add the whole numbers: 2 + 4 = 6. Use the 2. c. Van Leeuwenhoek was the famous early
least common denominator of 8 to add the microscopist. Benedict Spinoza, though also
fractions: 28 + 58 + 48 = 181 = l38. Add 1 to the Dutch, was a philosopher of science who
whole number sum: 1 + 6 = 7, and then add claimed that God was the principle of
the fraction to get 738. nature being discovered by science.
43. d. 750 is n% of 600, expressed as an equation, 3. a. Kepler was the first to state that the planets
n
is 750 = (100 )(600). Cancel 100 in the right follow an elliptical path around the Sun.
side of the equation: 750 = 6n. Divide both 4. a. The concept that Earth was not the center of
sides by 6 to arrive at the answer, n = 125. the universe was revolutionary for the time
44. a. Replace r with 65 and t with 12. Then and went against religious teachings, which
multiply 65 and 12 to find the value of d. supported the geocentric, or Earth-centered,
The value of d is 780. universe paradigm. This was part of the
45. c. 0.32 × 103 is equal to 0.32 × (10 × 10 × 10), beginning of the scientific revolution that
or 320. led to work by Galileo, Kepler, and other
46. c. The measures of the angles of the triangle astronomers who later proved the
add up to 180°. Angle R has a measure of heliocentric (Sun-centered) model of
90° because it is a right angle. Angle S has a the solar system to be correct.
measure of 37°. To find the measure of 5. c. Mendel used pea plants to conduct his
angle Q, first add 90 and 37 to get 127. research in trait inheritance. He grew and
Then, subtract 127 from 180 to get 53°. studied nearly 30,000 pea plants.
47. c. This is a simple subtraction problem, as 6. c. The largest mass extinction of all time
long as the decimals are lined up correctly: occurred at the end of the Permian period,
3.60 – 1.89 = 1.71. when over 90% of all species went extinct.
48. c. This is a two-step multiplication problem. 7. d. Galileo made himself a small—but for that
To find out how many heartbeats there time powerful—telescope, turned it skyward,
would be in one hour, you must multiply 72 and made many discoveries, including the
by 60 minutes, and then multiply this result, moons of Jupiter, craters of our Moon, and
4,320, by 6.5 hours in order to get 28,080. sunspots.
49. a. The unreduced ratio is 8,000:5,000,000 or 8. a. The control in an experiment is the baseline
8:5,000; 5,000 ÷ 8 = 625, for a ratio of not subjected to the variable under study.
1:625. Choices c and d are not scientific terms.
50. b. The correct answer is 214. Before subtracting, 9. c. One gram is equal to 1,000 milligrams.
you must convert both fractions to 24ths. The prefix milli- means thousandth.
71
10. b. Theories are the biggest concepts, such as 22. d. The prefix “milli” means one thousandth
Einstein’s theory of relativity or Darwin’s (0.001); therefore, it takes 1,000 mL to
theory of evolution. Theories can contain equal 1 L.
more detailed hypotheses and good theories 23. a. Small differences in the spatial patterns of
make predictions. temperature of the cosmic background
11. b. Famous philosopher of science Karl Popper radiation, which originated after the Big
emphasized the crucial importance that Bang but before the formation of galaxies,
experiments play in falsifying hypotheses and show the lumpiness that eventually resulted
claimed this is the way the best science truly in differences of gravity that could contract
works. matter into galaxies.
12. b. There are six flavors of quark: up, down, 24. b. Based upon observable evidence, including
bottom, top, charm, and strange. redshifted galaxies and cosmic background
13. c. Mars Pathfinder successfully landed on radiation, most cosmologists (astronomers
Mars in 1997. who study the origin of the universe)
14. d. Reductionism, which most scientists strive currently adhere to the expanding model
for, focuses on how parts interact to form of the universe.
wholes. 25. a. N-S-E-P; the order of events is discussed in
15. c. By convention, in an XY graph the x-axis Chapter 9.
(horizontal) is the independent variable 26. d. Patterns from distant galaxies are shifted
and the y-axis (vertical) is the dependent “red,” which means toward longer
variable. When you compare time and wavelengths. In this case, going from a
distance, time is the independent variable pattern in the red toward a pattern in longer
and distance traveled is the dependent wavelengths means the infrared.
variable, because it is the result being 27. d. Oxygen is formed last because it is the most
measured. massive and complex. Fusion reactions
16. d. The prefix micro- refers to millionths. build from the simplest to the most
17. d. The prefix giga- refers to billions. complex, and the stages of fusion use
18. a. The standard metric unit of energy is joule. hydrogen and then the other elements built
19. b. There are 1,000 or 103 meters in a in sequence as starting points for more
kilometer. complex elements.
20. d. Oxygen is the second most abundant gas in 28. a. Supernova explosions, which are cata-
the atmosphere, making up 21% by volume. strophic events at the end of the lives of
This relatively high concentration is due to giant stars, scatter elements previously
photosynthesizing organisms, which release made by fusion reactions in the star over
oxygen as a byproduct. Life does affect the their lifetimes, as well as elements born in
concentrations of carbon dioxide and the intense temperatures and pressures of
methane in the atmosphere, but both of the supernova explosion itself.
these gases are present in very small 29. c. Agriculture allowed the human population
amounts, each making up less than to grow from 10 million people 10,000 years
0.05% of the atmosphere. ago to over 100 million people 5,000 years
21. c. The prefix nano- refers to a billionth. ago. The Industrial Revolution did help the
population to reach the 1 billion mark, but
this was much later, in the 1800s.
72
30. c. Helium is both primordial and made 37. b. Eris is the most massive known dwarf
during fusion reactions when two hydrogen planet in the solar system.
nuclei are fused together inside stars. This 38. b. In 2004, rovers on the surface of Mars
fusion reaction is the main source of discovered types of minerals that, as far as
energy for stars. we know, could have been formed only with
31. d. Carbon increases in density because as time the activity of water. Also, previously,
passes, more and more carbon is made in channels on Mars had been seen that looked
the fusion reactions inside stars. Choices a much like the branching patterns of Earth’s
and b actually decrease in density as the slow rivers.
universe expands, and choice c also 39. a. Since its discovery by Clyde Tombaugh in
decreases in density as hydrogen is 1930, astronomers noted that Pluto’s
consumed in fusion reactions. eccentric orbit and small size didn’t quite fit
32. a. Venus is the closest planet to Earth. It is the properties of the other eight planets.
38 million kilometers from Earth at its During the International Astronomical
closest approach. Mars, the second-nearest Union meeting in 2006, astronomers
planet to Earth, is 54 million kilometers at refined the meaning of a “planet,” thus
its closest approach. downgrading Pluto’s status from a planet
33. b. The time when the Big Bang occurred was to a “dwarf planet.”
13.7 billion years ago, and the formation of 40. d. The spins of galaxies cannot be explained
Earth occurred about 4.5 billion years ago. by the amount of known, ordinary matter.
Therefore, taking 1 EFU as 4.5 billion years Something out there (the “dark matter”) is
(by definition from the question), there creating more gravity than we can account
13.7
were 5 or about 3 EFUs back to the
4. for with the known, ordinary matter.
Big Bang. 41. b. 73% of the universe is dark energy.
34. c. Meteorites formed along with Earth at the 42. c. Carbon is made by fusion reactions in stars.
beginning of the solar system. But on Earth, Therefore, before stars and supernovas had
no rocks go back that far. The dates from dispersed that carbon, there would have
meteorites give us the best estimate of the been no carbon in the earliest planets (in
origin of our solar system. fact, planets as solid bodies could not have
35. d. Mercury is the smallest planet in the solar formed either). Life is so dependent on
system and its small mass does not provide carbon that without carbon it seems likely
enough gravitational pull to retain an there could not have been life.
atmosphere. Neptune is one of the “gas 43. c. The continental slope is still part of the
giants” of the outer solar system, Mars has continent, but it does head downward to the
a thin atmosphere consisting primarily ocean floor itself.
of carbon dioxide, and Venus has a thick 44. a. The word atom came from the Greek word
carbon dioxide atmosphere with a runaway that meant indivisible. Though atoms are
greenhouse effect. now known to have parts (they are
36. b. Of the possibilities, the only one in space divisible), they still are the fundamental
right now is the International Space Station. units of any element.
Choices a and d are inactive, and choice c is
unmanned.
73
45. d. Carbon-14 is the radioactive form of carbon 4. a. Genetic engineering is the physical
(the most common form is carbon-12). manipulation of genes in the laboratory,
Carbon-14 is formed in the atmosphere which can include inserting, deleting, or
when cosmic rays hit nitrogen and convert changing genes.
small amounts of it (by changing a proton 5. d. A capsid is the protein coat of a viral
to a neutron—a nuclear change). Using its genome. Some viruses also have a lipid and
decay rate, we can measure the amount of protein envelope that covers the capsid, but
carbon-14 in ancient organic materials to the capsid is the protein layer that directly
determine their ages. For example, we can encloses the viral genome.
date the wood architecture of ancient 6. b. Organisms have two genes for each trait. If
peoples as well as their campfires and both genes are the same, the organism is
even bones. homozygous for that trait. If both genes are
46. c. Protons are positively charged, electrons are different, the organism is heterozygous for
negatively charged, and neutrons have no that trait.
charge. Quarks make up protons and 7. b. Chloroplasts are found only in plants. Both
neutrons. plants and animals have mitochondria and
47. d. Neutrons and protons are the parts of the nuclei, and both bacteria and plants possess
nucleus of an atom. cell walls.
48. b. The unit of resistance is the ohm. 9. b. A compartment filled with air or watery
49. a. Electromagnetism describes the interaction fluid in the cytoplasm is referred to as a
between charged particles. Answer choices vacuole. Centrioles and centrosomes are
b, c, and d correspond to the strong, weak, associated with the process of cell division.
and gravitational forces, respectively. 8. c. Mendel is known as the founder of modern
50. a. The following are the SI units: 10–l = deci; genetics because of his work showing how
10–2 = centi; 10–3 = milli; 10–6 = micro; the inheritance of certain traits in pea
10–9 = nano; 10–12 = pico; 10–15 = femto; plants follows a pattern. This is now
10–18 = atto. called Mendelian inheritance.
10. a. Hormones can be divided into three classes:
Section 5: Biology steroid hormones, amino acid derivatives,
1. d. Guanine is a purine. Thymine, cytosine, and and peptides. Insulin is a peptide,
uracil are the major pyrimidines. testosterone is a steroid hormone, and
2. d. The lining of the uterus, shed during adrenaline and thyroxine are amino acid
menstruation, is referred to as the derivatives.
endometrium. Fimbria are found at the 11. a. Mitochondria are known as the power
ends of the fallopian tubes in mammals. plants of the cell and are responsible for
The cervix is the narrow neck of the uterus. most ATP generation.
The myometrium is the layer of smooth 12. a. Prophase is the first phase of mitosis, or cell
muscles of the uterine wall. division. Telophase is the fourth stage.
3. c. The prefix dys- means abnormal; plasis is 13. a. A gamete is a unique cell because it is
Greek for formation. haploid—that is, it contains only one set of
chromosomes instead of the two sets that
are found in most somatic cells, which are
diploid.
74
14. c. The lysosome is the garbage truck of the 24. d. Incomplete dominance is a condition in
cell, handling waste and breaking it down. which the heterozygous genotype for
15. a. During prophase I, chromosomes pair up certain alleles gives rise to a phenotype
close to their homologues. The chromo- intermediate between dominant and
somes then break at identical sites and recessive traits because both traits are
swap segments. This process is known expressed and blended.
as crossing over. 25. d. Enzymes are catalysts that allow chemical
16. d. The figure is the cell body of a nerve cell. reactions to proceed more rapidly.
Note the long extensions (dendrites) unique 26. c. Kelp is a brown algae; the others are fungi.
to neurons. Blood, fat, and muscle cells 27. b. Blood needs to maintain osmotic pressure
have very different shapes. to keep water in the bloodstream. Albumin
17. c. Hepatitis is a disease marked by a inflam- makes up around 60% of blood proteins
mation of the liver, as indicated by the and is mainly responsible for maintaining
Greek roots hepato meaning liver and itis the osmotic pressure of the plasma.
meaning inflammation. 28. b. Bacteria can be placed in three groups
18. d. Bacteria reproduce by binary fission. All the (cocci, bacilli, spirilla) based on their shape.
other answer choices relate to eukaryotic 29. c. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, which is
cell division. a protist. The others are viruses.
19. a. The primary function of a blood platelet is 30. b. All bacteria have double-stranded DNA
to aid in the blood clotting process. Platelets making up their genomes, as do some
scrape against the rough edges of broken viruses. Viruses can also have single-
tissue and release a substance to promote stranded DNA or RNA genomes, or
clotting. Red blood cells carry oxygen. double-stranded RNA genomes.
Antibodies are produced by B lymphocytes. 31. a. Transcription describes the copying of DNA
Phagocytic cells include neutrophils and to messenger RNA, which travels out of the
macrophages (monocytes). nucleus before being translated into
20. d. An expressed trait is determined by two proteins.
alleles. A phenotype is the physical or 32. a. Plants are first classified broadly as either
visual expression of the genotype. vascular or nonvascular. Vascular plants can
21. c. Bacteria reproduce asexually but can then be divided into seeded or seedless
exchange DNA with other bacteria and plants. Seeded plants are further divided
undergo genetic recombination through into angiosperms or gymnosperms. Finally,
conjugation, transduction, or trans- angiosperms are either monocots or dicots.
formation. 33. b. A zygote is the product of a sperm nucleus
22. a. When a mutation occurs, a gene is changed. fused with an ovum nucleus. A zoospore is
23. c. Choice c has the proper complementary found in certain fungi. Ova is the plural of
bases—including the use of U instead of T ovum, a female egg, while an oocyte is a cell
as the complement to A in RNA; the other in the ovary that produces an ovum after
choices are either nonsense or they use T undergoing meiosis.
and not U. 34. a. Glycolysis is a combination of glucose and
lysis (meaning breaking down).
75
35. a. When there is a shortage of oxygen in 42. c. Thymine is a DNA nucleotide that pairs
muscle tissue, pyruvic acid produces lactic with adenine.
acid to be converted to glucose by the liver. 43. a. Flagella are structures that project from a
Lactose is milk sugar. Adrenaline is a bacterium. The movement of the flagella
hormone produced in the adrenal medulla allows the bacterium to move.
that stimulates the sympathetic nervous 44. a. The first law of thermodynamics describes
system, while serotonin, also a hormone, the conservation of energy.
is produced in many parts of the body. 45. b. Complementary base pairing describes how
36. c. The large intestine’s main functions are water the bases in DNA pair in set ways. Cytosine
absorption and feces production. The large pairs only with guanine, and adenine pairs
intestine consists of the rectum, colon, and only with thymine.
caecum. Almost all the digestion and 46. d. Ethanol or ethyl alcohol depresses the CNS,
absorption of nutrients occur in the small thereby affecting the neural activity of the
intestine. The liver has numerous functions consumer. Isopropyl alcohol is for external
including the metabolism of carbohydrates, use only and is found in cosmetics.
lipids, and proteins, as well as the removal of Methanol is wood alcohol used as a
drugs and hormones and the production of solvent. Methionine is an amino acid
bile. The stomach is the holding reservoir in used in dietary supplements.
which saliva, food, and gastric juices mix 47. a. The primary structure describes a protein’s
prior to passing into the small intestine. amino acid sequence. Answer choices b and
37. a. Calcium ions are released between the time c describe a protein’s secondary and tertiary
when a stimulus is received and a response structures, respectively.
occurs in muscle tissue. 48. a. Warts are usually insignificant growths
38. a. Beriberi, most common in countries where caused by a virus. Sarcomas are malignant
white rice is the main food source, is caused tumors arising from connective tissue, while
by a lack of vitamin B1. Deficiencies in adenomas are glandlike benign tumors. A
vitamin C can cause scurvy and deficiencies cold sore is a lesion caused by the herpes
in vitamin D can cause rickets. Hemolytic simplex virus.
anemia is a possible consequence of 49. c. Rhodopsin or visual purple is the light-
vitamin E deficiency. sensitive pigment in vertebrate eyes.
39. c. Chlorophyll is the pigment that absorbs light Cytochrome is a respiratory enzyme,
energy and is critical for photosynthesis. hemoglobin is the oxygen-bearing protein
40. d. Anaphylaxis is an immune system response in red blood cells that gives them their red
such as that which occurs in a person who color, and melanin is the dark pigment
gets stung by a bee and is allergic to the found in skin, hair, and the retina.
venom. Hypertension is another term for 50. b. People suffering from high blood pressure,
high blood pressure. or hypertension, have an increased risk of
41. a. The correct answer is analgesic. Anesthetics stroke and heart attack. Cardiomyopathy
block perception of all sensory stimuli is a form of muscle damage that leads to
either generally (all over) or locally (in a heart failure.
specific area). Acetycholine is a neuro-
transmitter.
76
Section 6: Chemistry 9. c. This is the only choice where all atoms have
1. b. It is very important for blood to be close a full octet and no formal charges. The
to neutral, as variance outside a small pH other three choices have either or both,
range can cause death. Ammonia is a well- and unfilled octets and formal charges
known base, while lemon juice and vinegar are undesirable in a stable molecule.
contain citric and acetic acids, respectively, 10. d. A butyl is an alkane with four carbon
giving them low pH. atoms. The t in t-butyl stands for a tertiary
2. a. If more chloride ions are added to the carbon. The central carbon of choice d is
solution, this will drive the equilibrium tertiary because it has three other carbon
reaction to the left. Less AgCl will dissolve, atoms bonded to it. Choice a is also a butyl
so fewer silver and chloride ions form. molecule, but it is n-butyl. Choices b and c
3. c. NH2 is an amino group, which gives an are not butyls.
amino acid the first part of its name. It is 11. c. Neutral oxygen possesses eight electrons
found in 19 of the 20 amino acids. The (the same as the number of protons).
other prevalent group is carboxylic acid, The –2 charge on the ion means that there
or COOH, which is not one of the are two additional electrons for 10 total.
answer choices. 12. c. The halogens, group VIIA (group 17) on the
4. a. When two amino acids come together, the periodic table, form negative ions by
carboxylic acid group of one reacts with the gaining one more electron in their outer
amine group of the other. An OH from shells to achieve a stable noble gas
the carboxylic acid combines with an H configuration. The alkali and alkaline earth
from the amine group to form H2O. The metals lose electrons to form positive ions.
remaining C=O of the carboxylic acid then 13. b. Combustion is a reaction in which an
bonds with the remaining N-H of the alkane burns in excess oxygen to give
amine to form a peptide bond. carbon dioxide and water. Hydrogen gas,
5. b. The secondary structure describes the present in all three incorrect equations, is
geometry of segments of the protein, such not a participant in combustion reactions.
as a-helices and b-sheets. The amino acid 14. d. The configuration of a chlorine atom in the
sequence describes the primary structure, ground state is [Ne]3s23p5. A Cl– ion has an
while the three-dimensional fold of the additional electron, giving it the same
protein describes the tertiary structure. electron configuration as an argon atom in
6. b. The mass number (35) is equal to the the ground state, which can also be written
number of protons plus neutrons; as [Ne]3s23p6.
35 – 17 = 18 neutrons. 15. c. The carbon atom in methane has four
7. a. A catalyst is a substance that increases the sigma bonds around it, meaning that it uses
rate of a reaction without being consumed its s atomic orbital and all three p atomic
in the reaction. It decreases the amount of orbitals to form four sp3 molecular orbitals.
energy necessary for the reaction to occur. The number of atomic orbitals combining
8. b. The number of neutrons in an atom can be always equals the number of molecular
found by subtracting the atomic number orbitals formed.
from the mass number.
77
16. b. In electron configurations, the s orbitals 23. d. Lewis acids are electron-pair acceptors,
have a maximum of two electrons and the whereas Bronsted acids are proton donors.
p orbitals have a maximum of six electrons. HCl and H2SO4 are proton donors. CH4 is
The electron configuration 1s22s4 is not not an acid of any type. The aluminum
possible because the second s orbital has atom in AlCl3 has the ability to accept two
four electrons. electrons (to give it eight electrons in its
17. b. This is the definition of the boiling point. At valence shell), making it a Lewis acid.
temperatures higher than the boiling point, 24. d. This problem is simply an equation-
the vapor pressure of the liquid is greater balancing problem. The number of
than external pressure and molecules begin molecules of each element must be the
to escape in the gaseous phase. same on each side of the equation. Choice
18. c. Fe2O3 contains three oxygen atoms, each d has 8 carbons, 20 hydrogens, and 26
with a –2 charge. To balance this –6 overall oxygens on each side of the equation.
charge, each iron atom must have an 25. a. The molar mass of the compound NaCl is
oxidation state of +3. approximately 58.4 g/mol; 29.2 grams is
19. a. The empirical formula of a compound is one-half the molar mass of NaCl, so the
the formula written with the simplest whole solution is 0.5 M because there is one liter
number ratios possible. C2H6O2 has one of the solution. Molarity is moles/liter.
molecule of both C and O for every three 26. a. Ethers have the formula R1–O–R2. Answer
molecules of H, so the empirical formula choices b, c, and d are a carboxylic acid,
is CH3O. amine, and alkene, respectively.
20. a. Neutral magnesium possesses two valence 27. c. The sum of the oxidation numbers must be
electrons. To reach its nearest full valence equal to the net charge on the compound,
shell, it loses those electrons, giving it an so the sum must be equal to zero. The
oxidation state of +2. charge on the cation is the same as its
21. d. The complete chemical symbol includes two oxidation number, so the oxidation number
numbers. The lower number is the atomic of Na is +1 and the oxidation number for
number, or the number of protons in the S2O3 is –2. Oxygen almost always has an
nucleus. The upper number is the mass oxidation number of –2, so the oxidation
number, or the sum of the protons and number of sulfur must be +2.
neutrons in the nucleus. Therefore, the 28. b. The formula P1V1 = P2V2 must be used.
answer is 1633S2–, because there are 18 Solving 2(2 L) = P2(0.5 L) for P2 gives
electrons present. 8 atm.
22. b. Nonmetal oxides (SO3) and bases (KOH) 29. d. The sum of the partial pressures is the total
react to form salts and water. The solution pressure, or in this case the air pressure.
in choice a forms an acid and that in choice Since the sample is 21% oxygen, and there
c forms a salt, but such a reaction would not is a total pressure of 800 torr, the partial
give off oxygen. pressure is 800 × 0.21, or 170 torr.
78
30. a. One factor that affects reaction rate is the 39. a. NH3 and O2 form NO. Choice a is the only
concentration of the reactants. The second equation that is balanced.
reaction uses an acid solution with a lower 40. b. 36 grams of O2 are needed; the molar mass
concentration of acid. This reaction would of O2 is 32 g/mol.
3 moles O2 32 g O2
proceed at a slower rate than the first 1.5 mole Al × 4 moles Al × mole O2 = 36 g O2

reaction. 41. d. If an equation is
[C]c[D]d
31. d. P possesses 15 electrons total and this is its aA + bB cC + dD, Kc =
[A]a[B]b
electronic structure according to Hund’s –
42. b. pOH = –log [OH ] = 8. pH = 14 – pOH =
rule. 14 – 8 = 6.
32. b. The molecules move faster when heated, 43. c. Electronegativity increases up and to the
causing more collisions, which in turn right on the periodic table.
increases the pressure. 44. c. 0.04 moles of acid are needed to titrate the
33. a. The formula q = (specific heat) × (mass of NaOH: 0.4 M × 0.100 l = 0.04 moles.
water) × T is used. Because the units in the 45. a. LiF is the only ionic crystal. SiO2 (glass) is
specific heat involve grams, the mass is left a covalent crystal, while the other two are
as grams instead of changed to kilograms; molecular.
(100 g)(4.2 J/g·K)(75 K) = 3.2 × 104 J. 46. b. A neutral chlorine atom has 17 electrons.
34. d. The Kelvin temperature scale starts at For it to have the same stable configuration
absolute zero, which is equivalent to as argon, it would have to gain one electron
–273.15° C. Temperature in degrees and form an ion with a charge of 1.
Celsius is converted to K by adding 47. d. Electronegativity increases on the periodic
273.15 to the temperature. table traveling up and to the right, making F
35. c. Ion-dipole forces act between an ion and a the most electronegative element.
polar molecule. Dipole-dipole forces act 48. b. The balanced reaction for the formation of
between two polar molecules. Because K+ 2+ + 2Cl– Æ PbCl
PbCl2 is Pb(aq) (aq) 2(s). There
is an ion, this can be ruled out. Hydrogen are (0.1 M)(0.1 L) = 0.01 mol Pb(NO3)2 =
bonds are a special type of dipole-dipole 0.01 mol Pb2+ and (0.1 M)(0.1 L) =
interaction. London forces are generally 0.01 mol BaCl2 = 0.02 mol Cl–. So the
weak attractions between temporary theoretical yield should be 0.01 mol PbCl2
dipoles. = (0.01 mol)(278 g/mol) = 2.78 g. So,
actual yield
36. b. A decomposition reaction occurs when percent yield = ________________
theoretical yield
× 100% =
a reactant breaks down into smaller 1.67 g
______
2.78 g
× 100% = 60% .
molecules. If one reactant results in two
49. a. The empirical formula describes the
products, a decomposition reaction must
simplest relative ratios of the atoms in a
have occurred.
molecule.
37. b. Compounds are solids in the upper left
50. b. The molecular weight of a compound is the
portion of the diagram, above and to the
sum of the atomic weights of the elements
left of the line that connects A, B, and D.
making up the compound. The molecular
38. c. To sublime is to go directly from the solid to
weight of CaCl2 is found by adding 40.078,
the gas state. The gas state is the bottom
35.4527, and 35.4527.
portion of the phase diagram, below and to
the right of the lines that connect A, B, and C.
79
Scoring the number you would have gotten right if there had
been 100 questions in the section; it will enable you
Your score on each section is reported both as a raw to compare your raw scores among the various sec-
score (the number of questions you got right in that tions. The percentile compares your score with that
section) and as a percentile (a number that indicates of other candidates.)
what percent of other test takers scored lower than To get percentages for the sections with 50 ques-
you did on this section). No total score is reported, tions, simply multiply your raw score by two. (Since
only scores for individual sections. Furthermore, each section has 50 questions, your percentage is
there is no such thing as a “passing” raw or percentile twice your raw score.)
score. Individual schools and agencies set their own For section 2, divide your raw score by 45, and
standards. then move the decimal point two places to the right
For purposes of comparison, you’ll work with to arrive at a percentage.
raw scores in this book. So the first thing you should Now that you know what percentage of the
do is count up the number of questions you got right questions on each section you got right, you’re
in each section, and record them in the following ready to outline your study plan. The sections on
blanks. which you got the lowest percentages are the ones
you should plan on studying hardest. Sections on
Section 1: _____ of 50 questions right which you got higher percentages may not need as
Section 2: _____ of 45 questions right much of your time. However, unless you scored
Section 3: _____ of 50 questions right over 95% on a given section, you can’t afford to
Section 4: _____ of 50 questions right skip studying that section altogether. After all, you
Section 5: _____ of 50 questions right want the highest score you can manage in the time
Section 6: _____ of 50 questions right left before the exam.
Use your percentage scores in conjunction with
Your purpose in taking this first practice the Health Occupations Entrance Exam Planner in
exam—in addition to getting practice in answering Chapter 1 of this book to help you devise a study
the kinds of questions found on health occupations plan. Then turn to the chapters that follow this one,
entrance exams—is to identify your strengths and which cover each of the areas tested on the health oc-
weaknesses. In order to do so, convert your raw cupations entrance exam. These chapters contain
scores above into percentages. (Note that this per- valuable information on each section of the exam,
centage is not the same as the percentile that will ap- along with study and test-taking tips and lots of prac-
pear on your score report. The percentage is simply tice questions, to help you score your best.
80
4
C H A P T E R
VERBAL ABILITY
CHAPTER SUMMARY
To be successful in the health profession of your choice, you must
be able to communicate ideas clearly and accurately. Because writ-
ten expression is an important part of communicating, your health
occupations entrance exam will include a spelling section. You
won’t be required to spell words, but you will be asked to identify
which of four words is spelled correctly.
T his chapter is designed to help you refresh your spelling skills by pointing out rules that can help
you spell your best. You’ll review strategies for spelling words with tricky letter combinations, un-
usual plurals, or prefixes, and suffixes.
What Spelling Questions Are Like
If you are only taking the TEAS, you won’t have to concern yourself with this chapter very much, but spelling
constitutes an entire section of the HOAE. These questions are slightly unusual in that they only have three an-
swer choices rather than the usual four. In the spelling section of the HOAE, you’re tested on your ability to rec-
ognize properly and improperly spelled words. You will be given a set of differently spelled versions of the same
word and asked to find the one that is spelled correctly. For example:
81
– VERBAL ABILITY –
1. Choose the correctly spelled word. 2. Choose the correctly spelled word.
a. peice a. yeild
b. piece b. mischeivous
c. peece c. achieve
The correct answer is choice b, piece. Knowing If you remember the rhyme and rule above, it’s
the rule for when to use ie or ei could have helped you easy to see the correct answer is choice c, achieve.
if you weren’t sure of the answer. Read on to learn the But beware! There are some words that are ex-
rule. ceptions to this rule; be sure to memorize them:
friend piety fiery

How to Prepare quiet notoriety society
for Spelling Questions science ancient deficient
conscience either seize
Reading as much as you can, looking at words care- weird sheik seizure
fully, visualizing words, listening for the sounds of leisure height sleight
words, knowing the most common prefixes, suffixes, stein seismology heifer
and roots—all of these are simple and effective ways their foreign forfeit
to naturally improve your spelling skills. But if you neither protein Fahrenheit
want to ensure that you ace the spelling portion of codeine
your entrance exam, nothing beats learning these im-
portant spelling rules. ia and ai
The vowel combination ai has the sound “uh,” as in
the word villain. For ia, each vowel is pronounced
Spelling Rules separately, as in the word median.
Most of the spelling items on your health occupa- 3. Choose the correctly spelled word.
tions entrance exam test your knowledge of spelling a. guardian
rules, so getting a good grasp on them is essential. b. guardain
The following are some common rules you’ll likely c. guardean
be tested on.
Choice a is spelled correctly. In guardian, the i
ie and ei and a are pronounced separately—GUARD-e-uhn, - so
There’s an old phonics rhyme, “I before e except after ia is the right combination.
c, or when sounding like a as in neighbor or weigh.” If
you’ve never heard it before, learn it now because it Other Two-Vowel Combinations
works. Another rule about ie vs. ei is to remember Another phonics rhyme goes: “When two vowels go
that ie makes a long e sound and ei makes a long a walking, the first one does the talking.” This holds
sound. Words with the long e sound include: wield, true most of the time. Let’s break down the rhyme to
fierce, and cashier. Words with the long a sound in- fully understand it. “When two vowels go walking”
clude: eight, vein, and deign. refers to a two-vowel combination in a word. For ex-
82
ample, abstain, cheap, foe, and juice. “The first one n You need to protect pronunciation like showing
does the talking” means that only the first vowel in that a preceding vowel needs to be long, as in
the two-vowel combination is pronounced, and the hoe + ing = hoeing, not hoing.
second vowel is silent. In the case of our examples,
you hear the a in abstain, but not the i. In cheap, you You drop a final e when adding an ending that
hear the e but not the a. Similarly, in foe, you hear the begins with a consonant if:
o but not the e, and in juice, you hear the u but not
the i. n The e follows a u or w.
Here are a few more examples of words that fol-
low the two-vowel rule: 5. Choose the correctly spelled word.
a. trully
plead float b. truely
woe repeat c. truly
boat gear
treat suit The correct word is choice c, truly. The correct
steal read spelling is truly. The rule says to keep a final e, when
chaise lead adding a consonant ending like -ly unless it follows a
moat heat u or w. In true, the e does indeed follow the letter u,
so you drop the final e: truly.
4. Choose the correctly spelled word.
a. nuisance When to Keep a Final y or Change it
b. niusance to i
c. nuicanse When a final y follows a consonant, change the y to i
before adding an ending, except -ing. When the final
The correct answer is choice a, nuisance. Say this y follows a vowel, the y does not change. This rule ap-
word out loud. It sounds like NEW-sance, right? plies to all endings, even plurals.
That’s because you hear the u sound, but not the i. Change the y to an i:
The first vowel is doing the talking here.
early—earlier fly—flier, flies
When to Drop a Final e party—partied, weary—wearied, wearies
You should drop a final e before adding any ending partier, parties pretty—prettier,
beginning with a vowel, like -ed, -ing, and -able. Keep sorry—sorrier prettiness
the final e when adding an ending that begins with a worry—worried, try—tried, tries
consonant, like -ly or -ful. worrier, worries
There are a few exceptions to this rule. You keep
a final e when adding an ending that begins with a Remember to keep the y when adding -ing:
vowel if:
fly—flying party—partying
n The e follows a soft c or g. A soft c sounds like weary—wearying worry—worrying
an s; a soft g sounds like a j. try—trying
83
Don’t change the final y to an i when it’s pre- Only choice c, historical, is spelled correctly. Re-
ceded by a vowel. For example: member, a k is required after a final c when the end-
ing begins with e, i, or y.
enjoy—enjoyed, employ—employed, In English, one of the difficulties of spelling is in
enjoying, enjoys employing, employs making plurals. Unfortunately, you can’t always sim-
pray—prayed, delay—delayed, ply add the letter -s to show more than one!
praying, prays delaying, delays
When to Use -s or -es to Form Plurals
6. Choose the correctly spelled word. There are two simple rules that govern most plurals.
a. queasyness
b. queasiness 1. To make most nouns plural, add -s.
c. queaseyness 2. If a noun ends in a sibilant sound (s, ss, z, ch, x,
sh), add -es.
The rule states that when a final y follows a con-
sonant, you must change the y to i before adding an Here are some examples of plurals:
ending (except -ing). The final y in queasy is preceded
by a consonant (s), so when adding -ness, the y cars faxes dresses
changes to i: queasiness. Therefore, choice b is correct. computers indexes churches
books lunches guesses
Adding Endings to Words That End skills dishes buzzes
with a c
Add a k after a final c before any ending that begins Exceptions
with e, i, or y. All other endings do not require a k. In the last lesson, you learned that when a word ends
For example: in a y preceded by a consonant, you change the y to i
before adding -es.
traffic + -er = trafficker
SINGULAR PLURAL
traffic + -able = trafficable
fly flies
Other examples of when to add a k are:
rally rallies
panic—panicking, panicked, panicky

mimic—mimicking, mimicked, mimicker Plurals for Words That End in o
picnic—picnicking, picnicked, picnicker There is just one quick rule that governs a few words
ending in o.
7. Choose the correctly spelled word. If a final o follows another vowel, it takes -s.
a. historickal Here are some examples:
b. historikal
c. historical patios radios
studios videos
84
When the final o follows a consonant rather SINGULAR PLURAL

than a vowel, there is no rule to guide you in choosing
child children
-s or -es. You just have to learn the individual words.
The following words form a plural with -s deer deer
alone:
goose geese
albinos pianos man men

altos silos
mouse mice
banjos sopranos
logos broncos ox oxen
woman women
The following words take -es:
alumnus alumni
heroes tomatoes curriculum curricula
potatoes vetoes
datum data
When in doubt about whether to add -s or -es, fungus fungi

look the word up in the dictionary until you memo-
rize it. medium media
stratum strata
Plurals That Don’t Use -s or -es
analysis analyses
There are many words that don’t simply use -s or -es
to form plurals. These are usually words that still ob- axis axes
serve the rules of the languages from which they were
basis bases
adopted. Most of these plurals are part of your read-
ing, speaking, and listening vocabularies. You can see oasis oases
that there are patterns that will help you. For in-
parenthesis parentheses
stance, in Latin words, -um becomes -a, -us becomes
-i, and in Greek words, -sis becomes -ses. A good way thesis theses
to remember these plurals is by saying the words
aloud, because for the most part, they do not change
form and you may remember them more easily if you
a. spyes
listen to the sound of the spelling.
b. spys
c. spies
Only choice c, spies, is spelled correctly. It is the

plural of spy, and words that end in –y always end in
–ies in the plural form.
85
Homonyms Prefixes
Homonyms are words that sound the same but Generally, when you add a prefix to a root word,
have different spellings and meanings. Many of neither the root nor the prefix changes spelling:
these words have just one change in the vowel or
vowel combination. There’s no rule about these un- + prepared = unprepared
words so you’ll simply have to memorize them. mal- + nutrition = malnutrition
Sometimes it helps to learn each word in terms of sub- + traction = subtraction
the job it does in a sentence. Often, the two words mis- + informed = misinformed
in a homophone pair are different parts of speech.
Here are a few examples: This rule applies even when the root word be-
gins with the same letter as the prefix. Generally, you
affect/effect led/lead use both consonants, but let your eye be your guide.
altar/alter minor/miner If it looks funny, it’s probably not spelled correctly.
bare/bear passed/past The following are some examples of correctly spelled
bloc/block peal/peel words:
cite/site piece/peace
cord/chord sheer/shear dissatisfied irreverent
coarse/course stationery/stationary disservice misspelled
descent/dissent weak/week illegible misstep
dual/duel which/witch irrational unnatural
heal/heel write/right
Since the meanings of these homonyms are dif- a. ilogical
ferent, context is probably the best way to differenti- b. illogicall
ate between them. c. illogical
Examples in Context Only choice c, illogical, is spelled correctly. Re-

He led a dual (adjective) life as a spy. member, when you add a prefix to a root word (il- +
He fought a duel (noun) with his great enemy. logical), neither the root nor the prefix changes
spelling, even when the root begins with the same let-
He had to alter (verb) his clothes after he lost ter as the prefix.
weight.
The bride smiled as she walked toward the altar
(noun).
86
Practice Questions 17. a. announcement

Here are some practice spelling questions. Answers b.anouncement
follow. c. announcemant
Choose the correctly spelled word. 18. a. litrature

b. literatore
10. a. magically c. literature
b. magickelly
c. majicelly 19. a. goos
d. magicaly b. geeses
c. geese
11. a. beleif
b. bilief Answers to Practice Questions
c. belief 10. a. magically
d. beleaf 11. c. belief
12. d. neighbor
12. a. nieghbor 13. c. efficient
b. neihbor 14. a. collaborate
c. niehbor 15. c. babies
d. neighbor 16. b. leaves
17. a. announcement
13. a. eficient 18. c. literature
b. eficeint 19. c. geese
c. efficient
d. efficeint
Tips for Answering
14. a. collaborate Verbal Ability Questions
b. colaborate
c. collaborat n Practice using the sample questions in this
d. colabarate chapter.
n Read widely to improve your general vocabu-
15. a. babys lary and spelling.
b. babis n Say the words silently to yourself.
c. babies n Dissect the words to find their roots, prefixes,
and suffixes.
16. a. leafes n Learn the rules of spelling and memorize
b. leaves words that are exceptions.
c. leeves
87
5
C H A P T E R
READING
COMPREHENSION
CHAPTER SUMMARY
Because reading is such a vital skill, many health occupations
entrance exams include a reading comprehension section that
tests your ability to understand what you read. The tips and ex-
ercises in this chapter will help you improve your comprehen-
sion of written passages so that you can increase your score in
this area.
A s a health services professional, you will do a lot of reading—memos, policies, and manuals, as well
as medical and technical reports, charts, and procedures. Understanding written material is a key
part of the job. So reading comprehension is an essential skill for students of health education pro-
grams—most likely, you will need to read and understand scientific and medical textbooks as you train for your
career. Because reading is so important, health occupations entrance exams include a reading comprehension
section that tests your ability to understand what you read.
The reading comprehension section of the test looks much like other reading comprehension tests you’ve
completed on other standardized tests. You’re asked to read a passage and then answer questions based on what
you have just read. You don’t need to have any prior knowledge to answer the questions—you need only the in-
formation presented in the passage. You will be asked to interpret passages, identify the author’s purpose, look
at how ideas are organized and presented, and draw conclusions based on information in the passage.
You may notice a wide variation in the complexity of the reading comprehension questions in this book.
That’s because these questions appear very differently on the two main health occupations entrance exams.
HOAE reading comprehension questions tend to be worded very simply with one-word answer choices, while
TEAS ones are longer and more complex.
89
– READING COMPREHENSION –
Types of Reading ganized, and because this is his opinion (and not
Comprehension Questions everyone shares it), he needs to support his opinion
with facts and details.
As a test taker, you have two advantages when an- An inference, on the other hand, is a conclusion
swering multiple-choice questions about reading pas- or judgment that can be drawn based on facts or evi-
sages: dence. For example, you can infer—based on the fact
that workers became 50% more productive—that the
1. You don’t have to know anything about the department wasn’t efficiently organized before the
topic of the passage. change. The fact also implies that the reorganization
2. You’re being tested only on the information the was the reason workers became more productive. Of
passage provides. course, there may have been other reasons, but we can
infer only one from the sentence.
The disadvantage is that you have to know As you might expect, vocabulary questions ask
where and how to find that information quickly in an you to determine the meanings of particular words.
unfamiliar text. This makes it easy to fall for one of Often, if you have read carefully, you can determine
the wrong answer choices, especially since they are the meaning of such words from their context: how
designed to mislead you. the word is used in the sentence or paragraph.
The best way to do well on this passage/ques- Some questions will require you to interpret in-
tion format is to be very familiar with the kinds of formation in a graphic, such as a chart, table, graph,
questions that are typically asked on the test. Ques- or even a tool or instrument, such as a thermometer.
tions most frequently ask you to: Although these graphics often include numerical in-
formation, graphic questions do not really require
n Identify a specific fact or detail in the passage. you to perform complex mathematical equations.
n Note the main idea of the passage. They will merely test your comprehension and inter-
n Make an inference based on the passage. pretive skills as any traditional reading passage
n Define a vocabulary word from the passage. would. Graphics do not appear on every health occu-
n Interpret information in a graphic. pations entrance exam, but it is still valuable to be-
come familiar with them since many of the texts you
Facts and details are the specific pieces of infor- will read as a student will feature graphics.
mation that support the passage’s main idea. The Because most of the texts you will read as a
main idea is what the passage is mostly about. Gener- health occupations student and professional are sci-
ally speaking, facts and details are indisputable— entific in nature, you are most likely to find fact or
things that don’t need to be proven, like statistics (18 detail and vocabulary questions on your entrance
million people) or descriptions (a green overcoat). exam. However, not all scientific texts are filled with
Let’s say, for example, you read a sentence that says, only objective facts, and because analysis and inter-
“After the department’s reorganization, workers were pretation are important parts of the scientific
50% more productive.” A sentence like this, which process, you will find main idea and inference ques-
gives you the fact that 50% of workers were more pro- tions on the tests as well.
ductive, might support a main idea that says, “Every The following is a sample test passage, accom-
department should be reorganized.” Notice that this panied by five sample questions. Read the passage
main idea is not something indisputable; it is an opin- carefully, and then answer the questions by circling
ion. The writer thinks all departments should be reor- your choices. Note under your answer which type of
90
question was asked (fact or detail, main idea, infer- 2. According to the passage, pain in the lymph
ence, graphic, or vocabulary). Correct answers are nodes most likely indicates that the
given immediately after the questions. a. skin is dirty or saturated with water.
b. nodes are battling an infection.
Practice Passage 1: c. brain is not responding properly to infection.
Using the Five Question Types d. lymphatics are not properly connected to
The immune system, which protects the body the nodes.
from infections, diseases, and other injuries, is Question type: ______________________
composed of the lymphatic system and the skin.
The lymphatic system includes the lymph 3. Which of the following best expresses the main
nodes, which measure about one to 25 idea of the passage?
centimeters across, and small vessels called a. The immune system is very sensitive and
lymphatics. The nodes are located in the groin, registers minute sensations.
armpits, throat, and trunk, and are connected b. The skin and its glands are responsible for
by the lymphatics. The nodes work with the rest preventing most infections.
of the body’s immune system to fight off c. The lymphatic system and the skin work
infectious agents like bacteria and fungus. When together to protect the body from infection.
infected, lymph nodes are often swollen and d. Communication between the lymphatic
sensitive. The skin, the largest organ of the system and the brain is essential in
human body, is also part of the immune system. preventing and fighting infection.
Hundreds of small nerves in the skin send Question type: ______________________
messages to the brain, communicating pressure,
pain, and other sensations. The skin surrounds 4. As used in this passage, the word compose most
the body’s organs to prevent injuries and forms nearly means
a protective barrier that repels dirt and water a. create
and stops the entry of most harmful chemicals. b. arrange
Sweat glands in the skin help regulate the body’s c. control
temperature, and other glands release oils that d. constitute
can kill or impede the growth of certain Question type: ______________________
bacteria. Hair follicles in the skin also provide
protection, especially for the skull and groin.
1. Lymph nodes are connected by

a. blood vessels.
b. smaller nodes.
c. nerves.
d. small vessels.
Question type: ______________________
91
Thermometer Reading of Patient Answers and Explanations for

with Lowered Immune System Practice Passage 1
Don’t just look at the correct answers and move on.
The explanations are the most important part, so
read them carefully. Use these explanations to help
you understand how to tackle each kind of question
the next time you come across it.
1. d. Question type: fact or detail. The third

sentence of the passage says that the nodes
are connected by the lymphatics, which are
defined in the second sentence as small
vessels. You may know that nerves and blood
vessels make a web of connections in our
bodies, but the passage specifically states
that lymphatics—small vessels, not blood
vessels—connect the nodes.
2. b. Question type: inference. The passage says
that when lymph nodes are infected, they
are often swollen and sensitive. Thus, if nodes
are painful, they are probably swollen and
5. On the thermometer above, what is the current sensitive, and they are swollen and sensitive
temperature in degrees Fahrenheit? because they are fighting an infection. This
a. 104 degrees is also the best answer because none of the
b. 102 degrees other answers are clearly connected to pain
c. –104 degrees in the lymph nodes. Dirty or saturated skin
d. –102 degrees (choice a) may indeed result in infection,
but that is not what the question is asking.
Choices c and d describe malfunctions of
the immune system, a subject that is not
discussed in the passage.
3. c. Question type: main idea. The idea that the
lymphatic system and the skin work together
to protect the body from infection is the
only answer that can serve as a “net” for the
whole passage. The other three answers are
limited to specific aspects of the immune
system and therefore are too restrictive to be
the main idea. For example, choice b refers
only to the skin, so it does not encompass
all of the ideas in the passage.
92
4. d. Question type: vocabulary. Although all of have to be able to separate important information
the answers can mean compose in certain from less important information. However, the
circumstances, choice d is the only meaning choices may often be very similar, so you must be
that really works in the context of the passage, careful not to get confused.
which says that the lymph nodes and the Be sure you read the passage and questions
lymphatics compose the lymphatic system. carefully. In fact, it is usually a good idea to read the
The passage makes it clear that the lymph questions first, before you even read the passage, so
nodes and the lymphatics are the two parts you will know what details to look out for.
of the lymphatic system. Thus, they
constitute the lymphatic system. They don’t Main Idea Questions
create it, arrange it, or control it; they are it. The main idea of a passage, like that of a paragraph or
5. a. Question type: graphic. Like many graphic a book, is what it is mostly about. The main idea is like
questions you will encounter on the health an umbrella that covers all of the ideas and details in
occupations exam, this one is basically the passage, so it is usually something general, not spe-
independent of the passage and requires cific. For example, in Practice Passage 1, question 3
nothing more than interpreting its asked about the main idea, and the correct answer was
information correctly. The key to interpret- the only one that included both the skin and the lym-
ing this thermometer correctly is phatic system, both of which were discussed in the
recognizing that every degree is not passage.
represented on the thermometer; there are Sometimes, the main idea is stated clearly, often
only lines for every other degree. Therefore, in the first or last sentence of the passage. The main
choice a is the correct answer. Selecting idea is expressed in the first sentence of Practice Pas-
choice b indicates a failure to comprehend sage 1, for example. The sentence that expresses the
this pattern. Choices c and d cannot be main idea is often referred to as the topic sentence.
correct since the numbers on the ther- At other times, the main idea is not stated in a
mometer rise; they do not descend. topic sentence but is implied in the overall passage,
and you will need to determine the main idea by in-
ference. Because there may be much information in
Detail, Main Idea, the passage, the trick is to understand what all that
and Graphic Questions information adds up to—the gist of what the author
wants you to know. Often, some of the wrong an-
Detail or fact questions and main idea questions both swers on main idea questions are specific facts or de-
ask you for information that is right there in the pas- tails from the passage. A good way to test yourself is
sage. All you have to do is find it. The same is gener- to ask, “Can this answer serve as a net to hold the
ally true of graphic questions, which most often whole passage together?” If not, chances are you have
require you to find and identify information dis- chosen a fact or detail, not a main idea.
played explicitly on images. Practice answering main idea and detail ques-
tions by working on the questions that follow this
Detail or Fact Questions passage. Circle the answers to the questions, and then
Detail or fact questions are usually the simplest check your answers against the key that appears im-
kinds of questions: You’re asked to identify a spe- mediately after the questions.
cific item of information from the text. You just
93
Graphic Questions Type III allergies are usually caused by

Graphic questions are only unique in presentation. In reactions to drugs like penicillin. The body
essence, they’re a lot like detail questions. Basically, releases IgM and IgG, but these allergens cause
you will be presented with an image of a table, chart, IgM and IgG to bind away from cell surfaces.
graph, or even a machine or instrument with some This creates clumps of allergens and antibodies
form of readout, and simply have to locate the infor- that get caught in the tissues and cause
mation the question requires you to find. Very often, swelling, which can affect the kidneys, joints,
these graphics will have little direct relationship with and skin. Type IV allergies cause the release of
the reading passage, and they are exclusive to the mediators that create swelling as well as itchy
TEAS. So if you plan to take the HOAE, you will not rashes. These are usually skin reactions to
have to worry about graphic questions at all. irritants like poison ivy, soaps, cosmetics, and
Like any reading comprehension question, other contact allergens.
reading carefully is the key. For example, if you did
not recognize that the thermometer in Practice Pas- 1. Which type(s) of allergic reactions result(s) in
sage 1, question 5 only had lines representing even swelling?
numbers, you may have selected the wrong answer a. Types I and III
choice. Since graphics often contain numerical infor- b. Types III and IV
mation, they may require you to perform equations, c. Type III only
but remember that this is not the math section of the d. Types II and IV
health occupations exam. These equations will be ex- 2. IgE, IgG, and IgM can be classified as
tremely basic. a. allergens.
b. mediators.
Practice Passage 2: Detail, Main c. antibodies.
Idea, and Graphic Questions d. medications.
Because the body responds differently to
different allergens, allergic reactions have been 3. Which of the following best expresses the main
divided into four categories. Type I allergies, idea of the passage?
the most common, are characterized by the a. Allergies cause different responses in the body.
production of immunoglobulin E (IgE), a type b. People should avoid things that may cause
of antibody the immune system releases when allergic reactions.
it thinks a substance is a threat to the body. IgE c. Type I allergies affect the most people.
releases chemicals called mediators, like d. Mediators play an important role in allergic
histamine, which cause blood vessels to dilate reactions.
and release fluid into the surrounding tissues,
usually resulting in a runny nose and sneezing. ALLERGEN CALENDAR
Type I allergies include allergic asthma and hay ALLERGEN ACTIVE PERIODS
fever as well as reactions to insect stings and
Fungal Spores All Year
dust. Type II allergies, far more rare, are usually
reactions to medications and can cause liver Grasses September–February
and kidney damage or anemia. The body sends
Trees All Year
immunoglobulin M (IgM) and immunoglobu-
lin G (IgG) to the site to fight the infection. Weeds October–March
94
4. If a patient takes Telfast 60mg to relieve weed 4. d. According to the calendar, weed allergies are
allergies, when would she most likely have to most active from October through March,
take it? and choice d is the only answer representing
a. April a month that falls within this time period. A
b. July failure to read the entire calendar may have
c. September led to the assumption that fungal spores or
d. January grasses are kinds of weeds, resulting in the
incorrect selection of one of the other
Answers and Explanations for answer choices.
Practice Passage 2
1. b. The passage says that both Type III and Type
IV allergic reactions cause swelling. In Type Inference and
III allergies, IgM and IgG bind away from cell Vocabulary Questions
surfaces. This creates clumps of allergens and
antibodies that . . . cause swelling. Type IV Questions that ask you about the meaning of vocabu-
allergies also cause the release of mediators lary words in the passage and those that ask what the
that create swelling as well as itchy rashes. passage suggests or implies (inference questions) are
2. c. The passage says that immunoglobulin E different from detail or main idea questions. In vo-
(IgE) is a type of antibody the immune system cabulary and inference questions, you usually have to
releases. The Ig in IgE, IgG, and IgM stands pull ideas from the passage, sometimes from more
for immunoglobulin; all three are different than one place in the passage.
types of immunoglobulin and therefore
different types of antibodies. The Inference Questions
immunoglobulins then release the mediators, Inference questions can be the most difficult to an-
like histamine, so choice b is incorrect. swer because they require you to draw meaning from
Further, immunoglobulins are produced in the text when that meaning is implied rather than di-
response to allergens, so choice a cannot be rectly stated. Inferences are conclusions that we draw
correct. And the passage clearly indicates that based on the clues the writer has given us. When you
immunoglobulins are produced by the body, draw inferences, you have to be something of a detec-
so choice d is also incorrect. tive, looking for clues such as word choice, tone, and
3. a. This choice best expresses the main idea of specific details that suggest a certain conclusion, atti-
the passage because it restates the topic tude, or point of view. You have to read between the
sentence, which tells us the body responds lines in order to make a judgment about what an au-
differently to different allergens. Choice b is thor was implying in the passage.
not a good answer because the passage does A good way to test whether you have drawn an
not discuss ways to avoid allergic reactions, acceptable inference is to ask, “What evidence do I
and although choices c and d are mentioned have for this inference?” If you can’t find any, you
in the passage, they are too specific to probably have the wrong answer. You need to be sure
encompass the whole passage. Remember, that your inference is logical and that it is based on
the main idea should be general enough to something that is suggested or implied in the passage
include all of the ideas in the passage. itself—not by what you or others might think. Like a
good detective, you need to base your conclusions on
95
evidence—facts, details, and other information—not More often, however, you will be asked about
on random hunches or guesses. how familiar words or phrases are used in context.
These questions can be very tricky because words of-
Vocabulary Questions ten have more than one acceptable meaning. Your job
There are generally two types of vocabulary ques- is to figure out which meaning makes the most sense
tions. The first tests to see how carefully you have in the context of the sentence. For example, the word
read a passage that may contain a number of new or manipulate can mean either (a) to handle or manage
technical terms and definitions. If you see that a pas- skillfully or (b) to arrange or influence cleverly or
sage has a number of unfamiliar terms, mark each craftily. The meaning of this word depends entirely
term as it is defined. This will make it easier for you upon the context in which it is used, as you can see
to go back and find the right answer. from the following sentences.
The second type of vocabulary question is de-
signed to measure how well you can figure out the a. The patient manipulated the wheelchair
meaning of a word from its context. Context refers to around the obstacles.
how the word is used in the sentence—how it works b. The media’s manipulation of the facts has a
with the words and ideas that surround it. If the con- powerful effect on politics.
text is clear enough, you should be able to substitute a
Sentence a uses the first definition of the word,
nonsense word for the one being sought, and you
while sentence b uses the second.
would still make the right choice because you could
When you are confronted with this type of
determine meaning strictly from the sense of the sen-
question, your best bet is to take each possible answer
tence. For example, you should be able to determine
and substitute it for the word in question in the sen-
the meaning of the following italicized nonsense
tence. Whichever answer makes the most sense in the
word based on its context:
context of the sentence should be the correct answer.
The speaker noted that it gave him great The questions that follow this passage are
terivinix to announce the winner of the strictly vocabulary and inference questions. Circle
Outstanding Leadership Award. the answers to the questions, and then check your
answers against the key that appears immediately
In this sentence, terivinix most likely means after the questions.
a. pain.
b. sympathy. Practice Passage 3: Inference and
c. pleasure. Vocabulary Questions
d. anxiety. The rise of science in the seventeenth century
ushered in the modern world. Four men are
Clearly, the context of an award makes choice c, primarily responsible for the discoveries that
pleasure, the best answer. Awards don’t usually bring form the foundation of scientific and
pain, sympathy, or anxiety. philosophical thought today: Copernicus,
When confronted with an unfamiliar word, try Kepler, Galileo, and Newton. Copernicus
substituting a nonsense word and see if the context overthrew the geocentric notion of the universe
gives you the clue. If you are familiar with prefixes, which held that Earth—and therefore
suffixes, and word roots, you can also use this knowl- humanity—was at the center of the universe
edge to help you determine the meaning of an unfa- and showed that the planets revolve around the
miliar word. Sun. Kepler, the first major astronomer to
96
adopt Copernicus’s heliocentric theory, 4. As it is used in the passage, the word

discovered three laws of planetary motion that established most nearly means
helped validate Copernicus’s theory. Galileo a. ordained
revealed the role of acceleration in dynamics b. set up legally
and established the law of falling bodies. c. settled
Finally, Newton’s studies of motion—made d. secured
possible only by the work of these three
scientists—led to his laws of motion and the Answers and Explanations for
universal law of gravitation: “Every body Practice Passage 3
attracts every other body with a force directly 1. b. Look at how adopt is used in the sentence:
proportional to the product of their masses and Kepler, the first major astronomer to adopt
inversely proportional to the square of the Copernicus’s heliocentric theory, discovered
distance between them.” It is these theories three laws of planetary motion that helped
upon which much of modern science is based. validate Copernicus’s theory. Because Kepler
helped validate this theory, choice a can’t be
1. As it is used in the passage, the word adopt correct, and neither can choice d; the
most nearly means to passage clearly indicates that it’s
a. use Copernicus’s theory, not Kepler’s.
b. accept Furthermore, there’s no indication from the
c. change context that Kepler changed the theory to
d. take make it suitable for another situation, so
choice c cannot be correct either.
2. From the passage, which of the following can be 2. c. We can infer that Copernicus’s theory went
inferred about Copernicus’s heliocentric theory? against established ideas because the passage
a. It supported the religious doctrine of says that Copernicus overthrew the notion
the time. that humanity was at the center of the
b. It was accepted only because of Kepler. universe, suggesting that the geocentric
c. It went against established ideas. theory was the accepted theory of the time
d. It revealed the laws of planetary motion. and that Copernicus’s idea was revolution-
ary. There is no suggestion in the passage
3. Information contained in the passage supports that Copernicus’s theory supported the
which of the following statements about the religious doctrine of the time, so choice a
four scientists? cannot be correct. Furthermore, the passage
a. Their scientific discoveries contributed to says that Kepler’s discovery helped validate
the philosophical and social turmoil of the Copernicus’s theory, but this does not
seventeenth century. imply that it was accepted only because of
b. Of the four, Newton’s theories have been Kepler (choice b). Finally, the laws of
most instrumental in modern science. planetary motion were discovered by
c. Their primary goal was to refute the theory Kepler, not Copernicus, so choice d
that Earth was the center of the universe. cannot be correct.
d. They recognized that their achievements
were based on the achievements of those
before them.
97
3. a. The passage discusses scientific discoveries the achievements of these scientists were
that challenged and changed the way human based only on the achievements of the others
beings saw themselves in the universe and before them, there is no indication here of
how the motion of bodies on Earth and in the what they themselves thought, so choice d
universe was understood. We can thus infer cannot be correct.
that these discoveries greatly altered ideas in 4. d. If you insert the possible answers into the
both philosophy and, of course, in science. sentence, it should be clear that choice d
Again, the word overthrew suggests upheaval, makes the most sense in the context of the
so choice a is the best answer. Choice b sentence. Galileo “established the law of
cannot be correct because the passage does falling bodies”—a law of gravity and motion
not favor one scientist over the others; in fact, in the universe—so he could not have
the passage tells us that Newton could not instituted these laws by law or agreement
have done his work without those who came (choice a), set them up or brought them into
before him. Furthermore, although these existence (choice b), or settled them in a
scientists did refute the theory that Earth was place or position (choice c). Instead, he
the center of the universe, there’s no introduced them and secured acceptance of
indication in this passage that that was what them by revealing the role of acceleration in
they were out to prove, as in choice c. Finally, dynamics (choice d).
while the writer of the passage recognizes that
If English Is Not Your First Language

Non-native speakers of English may have difficulties with some questions on reading comprehension tests.
People who live in and are educated in the United States are familiar with idioms and other word usage from
reading American newspapers, magazines, and textbooks. Such idioms and colloquial expressions may not
be immediately clear to non-native speakers.
A second problem for non-native English speakers is difficulty in recognizing vocabulary and idioms (ex-
pressions like “chewing the fat”) that assist comprehension. In order to read with good understanding, it’s im-
portant to have an immediate grasp of as many words as possible in the text. Test takers need to be able to
recognize vocabulary and idioms immediately so that the ideas those words express are clear.
The Long View

Read newspapers, magazines, and other periodicals that deal with current events and matters of local, state,
and national importance. Pay special attention to articles related to the career you want to pursue.
Be alert to new or unfamiliar vocabulary or terms that occur frequently in the popular press. Use a high-
lighter pen to mark new or unfamiliar words as you read. Keep a list of those words and their definitions. Re-
view them every day. At first, you may have to look up a lot of words, but before long you’ll be looking up
fewer and fewer as your vocabulary expands.
During the Test

When you are taking the test, make a picture in your mind of the situation being described in the passage.
Ask yourself, “What did the writer mostly want me to think about this subject?”
Locate and underline the topic sentence that carries the main idea of the passage. Remember that the
topic sentence—if there is one—may not always be the first sentence. If there doesn’t seem to be one, try to
determine what idea summarizes the whole passage.
98
Review: Putting It 3. Inference question: _____________________

All Together _____________________________________
a.
A good way to solidify what you have learned about b.
reading comprehension questions is for you to write c.
the questions. Here is a passage, followed by space for d.
you to write your own questions. Write one question
for each of the five types: fact or detail, main idea, in- 4. Vocabulary question:____________________
ference, vocabulary, and graphic. _____________________________________
a.
In the years since it was first proposed, the free
b.
radical theory of aging has gained wide
c.
acceptance. But hypotheses that attempt to
d.
explain exactly how free radicals are involved in
the aging process are troubled by the lack of a
5. Graphic question:______________________
clear definition of aging. Is aging a programmed
_____________________________________
stage of cellular differentiation, or is it the result
a.
of physiological processes impaired by free
b.
radical or other damage to cells? Despite the
c.
want of a clear definition, few question that free
d.
radical damage to cell nucleic acids and lipids
are an important factor in aging. A recent study POTENTIAL RESULTS OF
shows that oxygen-free radicals cause approxi- FREE RADICAL DAMAGE
mately 10,000 DNA base modifications per cell Asthma
per day. Perhaps the accumulation of unrepaired
damage of this type accounts for the deteriora- Arthritis
tion of physiological function. A new theory, Atherosclerosis

however, indicates that free radicals also damage
cell proteins and that the accumulation of Cataractogenesis
oxidized protein is an important factor in aging. Dermatitis
1. Detail question:________________________ Cancer
_____________________________________ Periodontis
a.
b. Retinal damage
c. Stroke
d.
Heart Attack
2. Main idea question:_____________________
_____________________________________ Possible Questions
a. Here is one question of each type based on the previ-
b. ous passage. Your questions may be very different, but
c.
d.
99
these will give you an idea of the kinds of questions Answers

that could be asked. 1. c.
2. a.
1. Detail: DNA modification can occur
3. d.
a. 10,000 times in the life of a cell.
4. b.
b. 1,000 times every second.
c. thousands of times a day.
d. once a day.
Additional Resources
2. Main idea: Which sentence best sums up this
passage? Here are some other ways you can build the vocabu-
a. There are many theories, but no one knows lary and knowledge that will help you do well on
how free radicals really affect aging. reading comprehension questions.
b. Free radicals are deadly.
n Practice asking the four sample question types
c. Scientists need a clearer definition of aging.
d. Free radicals will lead scientists to the about passages you read for information or
fountain of youth. pleasure.
n If you have Internet access, search out articles
3. Inference: The passage suggests which of the and forums related to the career you would like
following about the aging process? to pursue. Exchange views with others online.
a. A clear definition of aging must be found in All of these exchanges will help expand your
order to determine the cause of aging. knowledge of job-related material that may
b. DNA controls the aging process. appear in a passage on the test.
c. Free radical damage to proteins increases n Begin now to build a broad knowledge of your
with aging. potential profession. Get in the habit of reading
d. Aging is somehow related to free radical articles in newspapers and magazines on job-
damage to cells. related issues. Keep a clipping file of those arti-
cles. This will help keep you informed of trends
4. Vocabulary: The phrase want of as used in the
in the profession and familiarize you with per-
fourth sentence most nearly means
tinent vocabulary.
a. desire for. n Consider reading or subscribing to professional
b. lack of.
journals. They are usually available for a rea-
c. requirement of.
sonable annual fee. They may also be available
d. falling short of.
in your library.
5. Which of the following is true based on the
table?
a. Free radicals are the most common cause of
heart attacks.
b. Free radicals can be suppressed with
chemotherapy.
c. Free radicals have the potential to cause
organ damage.
d. Free radical damage is consistently fatal.
100
6
C H A P T E R
MATH REVIEW
CHAPTER SUMMARY
This chapter gives you important tips for dealing with math
questions on your health occupations entrance exam and re-
views some of the most commonly tested concepts. If you have
forgotten some of your high school math or have math anxiety,
this chapter is for you.
T he math section covers concepts that you probably studied in high school, with an emphasis on
arithmetic, algebra, and geometry, often using word problems. Health professionals need to be
comfortable with numbers and be able to perform accurate mathematical computations quickly.
Your ability to learn the scientific concepts that form the foundation of your work, as well as your on-the-job
performance, will depend on your ability to reason logically using numbers.
For an entrance exam to the educational program of your choice, not only do you need to know how to
work with whole numbers, but it is even more important that you are comfortable with and proficient at per-
forming operations with fractions and decimals. You will have to be able to figure percentages, solve algebraic
equations, and work with geometric figures. The tests assume that you know some basic terminology—words
such as sum and perimeter—and some basic formulas, such as the area of a square or circle. Some admissions
tests have a separate analytical reasoning section that measures your ability to recognize relationships between
shapes or objects through visualization. This chapter will also prepare you for these types of questions.
Here are some terms that you must know in order to be successful on your exam. Review them and make sure
you are familiar with all of these concepts before continuing on to the different math strategies that are discussed next.
Before you review those concepts, however, take a look at some strategies you can use to help you answer
multiple-choice math questions.
101
GLOSSARY OF TERMS
Area the space within a two-dimensional shape, which is measured in units squared (ft.2, in.2).
Denominator the bottom number in a fraction. Example: 2 is the denominator in 12.
Difference The difference of two numbers is the result of subtracting one number from the other.
Divisible by a number is divisible by a second number if that second number divides evenly into the
original number. Example: 10 is divisible by 5 (10 ÷ 5 = 2, with no remainder). However,
10 is not divisible by 3. (See multiple of)
Even Integer integer that is divisible by 2, like . . . –4, –2, 0, 2, 4, . . . (See integer)
Integer a number that is not a fraction. It can be positive, negative, or zero. Integers include the
whole numbers and their opposites. (See whole number)
Multiple of a number is a multiple of a second number if that second number can be multiplied by
an integer to get the original number. Example: 10 is a multiple of 5 (10 = 5 2); how-
ever, 10 is not a multiple of 3. (See divisible by)
Negative Number a number that is less than zero, like . . . –1, –18.6, –34, . . .
Numerator the top part of a fraction. Example: 1 is the numerator of 12.
Odd Integer an integer that is not divisible by 2, like . . . –5, –3, –1, 1, 3, . . .
Perimeter the distance around the outside of a one-dimensional shape.
Positive Number a number that is greater than zero, like . . . 2, 42, 12, 4.63, . . .
Prime Number an integer larger than 1 that is divisible only by 1 and itself, like . . . 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, . . .
(1 is not a prime number)
Product The product of two numbers is the result of multiplying two numbers together.
Quotient the answer you get when you divide. Example: 10 divided by 5 is 2; the quotient is 2.
Real Number any number you can think of, like . . . 17, –5, 12, –23.6, 3.4329, 0, . . . Real numbers in-
clude the integers, fractions, and decimals. (See integer)
Remainder the number left over after division. Example: 11 divided by 2 is 5, with a remainder of 1.
Sum The sum of two numbers is the result of adding the numbers together.
Volume the three-dimensional space that is held within a three-dimensional object, which is
measured in units cubed (ft.3, in.3).
Whole Number All positive counting numbers, like . . . 1, 2, 3, . . . (not including fractions or decimals).
n
Math Strategies Read a math question in chunks rather than
straight through from beginning to end. As
n Don’t work in your head! Use your test book you read each chunk, stop to think about what
or scratch paper to take notes, draw pictures, it means and make notes or draw a picture to
and calculate. Although you might think that represent that chunk.
n When you get to the actual question, circle it.
you can solve math questions more quickly in
your head, that’s a good way to make mistakes. This will keep you more focused as you solve
Write out each step. the problem.
102
– MATH REVIEW –
n Glance at the answer choices for clues. If the word problem, making the problem too abstract
they’re fractions, you probably should do your for you. The second technique, working backward,
work in fractions; if they’re decimals, you presents a quick way to substitute numeric answer
should probably work in decimals. choices back into the problem to see which one works.
n Make a plan of attack to help you solve the
problem. Nice Numbers
n If a question stumps you, try one of the back- 1. When a question contains unknowns, like x,
door approaches explained in the next sec- plug nice numbers in for the unknowns. A nice
tion. These are particularly useful for solving number is easy to calculate with and makes
word problems. sense in the problem.
n When you get your answer, reread the circled 2. Read the question with the nice numbers in
question to make sure you’ve answered it. This place. Then solve it.
helps avoid the careless mistake of answering 3. If the answer choices are all numbers, the
the wrong question. choice that matches your answer is the right
n Check your work after you get an answer. Test one.
takers get a false sense of security when they get 4. If the answer choices contain unknowns, sub-
an answer that matches one of the multiple- stitute the same nice numbers into all the an-
choice answers. Here are some good ways to swer choices. The choice that matches your
check your work if you have time: answer is the right one. If more than one an-
n Ask yourself if your answer is reasonable, if it swer matches, do the problem again with differ-
makes sense. ent nice numbers. You’ll only have to check the
n Plug your answer back into the problem to answer choices that have already matched.
make sure the problem holds together.
n Do the question a second time, but use a Example:
different method. Judi went shopping with p dollars in her
n Approximate when appropriate. For example: pocket. If the price of shirts was s shirts for d
n $5.98 + $8.97 is a little less than $15. dollars, what is the maximum number of shirts
(Add: $6 + $9) Judi could buy with the money in her pocket?
n 0.9876 × 5.0342 is close to 5. a. psd
(Multiply: 1 × 5) b. ps

d
n Skip hard questions and come back to them pd
later. Mark them in your test book so you can c.
s
ds
find them quickly. d.
p
Backdoor Approaches for Answering To solve this problem, let’s try these nice num-
Questions That Puzzle You bers: p = $100, s = 2; d = $25. Now reread it with the
Remember those word problems you dreaded in high numbers in place:
school? Many of them are actually easier to solve by
backdoor approaches. The two techniques that follow Judi went shopping with $100 in her pocket. If
are terrific ways to solve multiple-choice word prob- the price of shirts was 2 shirts for $25, what is
lems that you don’t know how to solve with a straight- the maximum number of shirts Judi could buy
forward approach. The first technique, nice numbers, is with the money in her pocket?
useful when there are unknowns (like x) in the text of
103
– MATH REVIEW –
Since 2 shirts cost $25, that means that 4 shirts cost 3. Substitute in one of the remaining choices.
$50, and 8 shirts cost $100. So our answer is 8. Let’s 4. If none of the answers works, you may have
substitute the nice numbers into all four answers: made a careless error. Begin again or look for
your mistake.
a. 100 × 2 × 25 = 5,000
b. 100 2
25 = 8
Example:
100 25
Juan ate 13 of the jelly beans. Maria then ate 34
c. 2 = 1,250
of the remaining jelly beans, which left 10 jelly
25 2 1
d. 100 = 2 beans. How many jelly beans were there to
begin with?
The correct answer is choice b because it is the only a. 60 jelly beans
one that matches our answer of 8. b. 80 jelly beans
c. 90 jelly beans
Working Backward d. 120 jelly beans
You can frequently solve a word problem by substi-
tuting the answer choices back into the text of the Starting with one of the middle answers, let’s as-
problem to see which one fits all the facts stated in the sume there were 90 jelly beans to begin with:
problem. The process is faster than you think because Since Juan ate 13 of them, that means he ate 30
you’ll probably only have to substitute one or two an- (13 × 90 = 30), leaving 60 of them (90 – 30 = 60).
swers to find the right one. Maria then ate 34 of the 60 jelly beans, or 45 of them
This approach works only when: (34 × 60 = 45). That leaves 15 jelly beans (60 – 45 =
15).
n All of the answer choices are numbers. The problem states that there were 10 jelly
n You’re asked to find a simple number, not a beans left, and we wound up with 15 of them. That
sum, product, difference, or ratio. indicates that we started with too big a number, so
that means that 120 could not be correct, either. With
Here’s what to do: only two choices of 80 or 60 left, let’s use common
sense to decide which one to try next. Since 80 is only
1. Look at all the answer choices and begin with a a little smaller than 90 and may not be small enough,
choice that is in the middle of the range of an- let’s try 60:
swers. For example, if the answers are 14, 8, 2, Since Juan ate 13 of them, that means he ate 20
and 20, begin by substituting either 8 or 14 into (13 × 60 = 20), leaving 40 of them (60 – 20 = 40).
the problem since they are the two middle Maria then ate 34 of the 40 jelly beans, or 30 of them
choices when listed in numerical order: 2, 8, (34 × 40 = 30). That leaves 10 jelly beans (40 – 30 = 10).
14, 20. Because this result of 10 jelly beans left agrees
2. If your choice doesn’t work, eliminate it. If your with the problem, the correct answer is choice a.
answer needs to be bigger, then select a bigger
answer choice to try next. If your answer needs
to be smaller, try a smaller choice next. (This is
the benefit of having started with one of the
middle numbers!)
104
– MATH REVIEW –
Word Problems SUBTRACTION key words: difference; fewer, less,

or younger than; remain; left over (WARNING! Of-
Many of the math problems on tests are word prob- ten with subtraction key words like less than or
lems. A word problem can include any kind of math, younger than, you will need to switch the order of
including simple arithmetic, fractions, decimals, per- the information presented. Notice this in the follow-
centages, even algebra and geometry. ing examples!)
The hardest part of any word problem is trans- English Math
lating English into math. When you read a problem, The difference between two
you can frequently translate it word for word from numbers is 17. x – y = 17
English statements into mathematical statements. At Mike has 5 fewer cats than
other times, however, a key word in the word prob- twice the number Jan has. m = 2j – 5
lem hints at the mathematical operation to be per- Jay is 2 years younger than Brett. j = b – 2
formed. Here are the translation rules: After Carol ate 3 apples, r
apples remained. r=a–3
EQUALS key words: is, are, has
English Math MULTIPLICATION key words: of, product, times,
Bob is 18 years old. b = 18 each
There are 7 hats. h=7 English Math
Judi has 5 books. j=5 20% of the samples 0.20 × s
1
Half of the bacteria × b
2
ADDITION key words: sum; more, greater, or older The product of two numbers
than; total; altogether is 12. a × b = 12
English Math
The sum of two numbers is 10. x + y = 10 DIVISION key word: per, over
Karen has $5 more than Sam. k=5+s English Math
15 drops
The base is 3" greater than the 15 drops per teaspoon
teaspoon
height. b=3+h 22 miles
22 miles per gallon
gallon
Judi is 2 years older than Tony. j = 2 + t 60 pills
______
60 pills over 30 days 30 days
The total of three numbers is 25. a + b + c = 25
How much do Joan and Tom
have altogether? j+t=?
105
– MATH REVIEW –
Distance Formula: We solved it by working backward. Now let’s

Distance = Rate Time solve it using our translation rules.
The key words are movement words like distance, Assume Juan started with J jelly beans. If Juan ate
1 2
speed, rate, how fast, how far, how long, miles per hour. 3 of them, that means there were 3 of them left, or
2 3 1
In order to solve problems that involve distance, 3 × J jelly beans. Maria then ate 4, leaving 4 of the
2 1 2
rate, and time, follow these three steps: 3 × J jelly beans, or 4 × 3 × J jelly beans. Multiplying
out 14 × 23 × J gives 16J as the number of jelly beans left.
1. Write the formula “Distance = rate × time.” The problem states that there were 10 jelly beans left,
2. Fill in the information that is given where meaning that we set 16 × J equal to 10:
appropriate. 1
6 × J = 10
3. Solve for the missing piece of information us-
ing division or multiplication. Solving this equation for J gives J = 60. Thus,
the correct answer is choice a (the same answer we
n How far did the plane travel in 4 hours if it av- got when we worked backward). As you can see, both
eraged 300 miles per hour? methods—working backward and translating from
D=R×T English to math—work. You should use whichever
D = 300 × 4 method is more comfortable for you.
D = 1,200 miles
n Ben walked 20 miles in 4 hours. What was his Practice Word Problems
average speed? You will find word problems using fractions, deci-
D=R×T mals, and percentages in those sections of this chap-
20 = r × 4 ter. For now, practice using translation on problems
5 miles per hour = r that just require you to work with basic arithmetic.
Answers are at the end of the chapter.
Solving a Word Problem
Using Translation _______ 1. Joan went shopping with $100 and
Remember the problem at the beginning of this returned home with only $18.42.
chapter about the jelly beans? How much money did she spend?
a. $81.58
Juan ate 13 of the jelly beans. Maria then ate 34 b. $72.68
of the remaining jelly beans, which left 10 jelly c. $72.58
beans. How many jelly beans were there to d. $71.68
begin with? e. $71.58
a. 60 jelly beans
b. 80 jelly beans
c. 90 jelly beans
d. 120 jelly beans
106
– MATH REVIEW –
_______ 2. Each of five physical therapists at the Typically, they ask you to add, subtract, multiply, di-
therapy center works six hours per day. vide, or compare fractions.
Each therapist can work with three
patients per hour. In total, how many Working with Fractions
patients can be seen each day at the A fraction is a part of something.
center?
Example:
a. 18 patients
Let’s say that a pizza was cut into 8 equal slices
b. 30 patients
and you ate 3 of them. The fraction 38 tells you
c. 60 patients
what part of the pizza you ate. The following
d. 75 patients
pizza shows this: 3 of the 8 pieces (the ones you
e. 90 patients
ate) are shaded.
_______ 3. A speech therapist who charges $115 per
hour, billed $373.75 for a session. How
many hours did the therapist work?
a. 3
b. 3.25
c. 2.5
d. 3.5
e. 4
_______ 4. Mr. Wallace is writing a budget request

to upgrade his personal computer Three Kinds of Fractions
system. He wants to purchase a Proper fraction: The top number is less than the
wireless router, which will cost $100, bottom number:
1 2 4 8
two new software programs at $350 ; ; ;
2 3 9 13
each, a color printer for $249, and an The value of a proper fraction is
additional color cartridge for $25. less than 1.
What is the total amount Mr. Wallace Improper fraction: The top number is greater than
should write on his budget request? or equal to the bottom number:
3 5 14 12
a. $724 ; ; ;
2 3 9 12
b. $974 The value of an improper frac-
c. $1,049 tion is 1 or more.
d. $1,064 Mixed number: A whole number and a fraction
e. $1,074 are combined into one mixed
number:
1 2 3 3
32; 43; 124; 244
Fraction Review The value of a mixed number is
more than 1: It is the sum of the
Problems involving fractions may be straightforward whole number plus the fraction.
calculation questions, or they may be word problems.
107
– MATH REVIEW –
50 1
Changing Improper Fractions into Mixed or stance, 50¢ is
100 of a dollar, or 2 of a dollar. Reducing

Whole Numbers a fraction does not change its value.
It’s easier to add and subtract fractions that are mixed Follow these steps to reduce a fraction:
numbers rather than improper fractions. To change
an improper fraction, say 123, into a mixed number, 1. Find a whole number that divides evenly into
follow these steps: both numbers that make up the fraction.
6 2. Divide that number into the top of the fraction,
1. Divide the bottom number (2) into
213 and replace the top of the fraction with the
the top number (13) to get the whole 12 quotient (the answer you got when you
number portion (6) of the mixed 1 divided).
number: 3. Do the same thing to the bottom number.
2. Write the remainder of the division 4. Repeat steps 1–3 until you can’t find a number
1
(1) over the old bottom number (2): 62 that divides evenly into both numbers of the
3. Check: Change the mixed number fraction.
back into an improper fraction
(see steps that follow). For example, let’s reduce 284. We could do it in
8 ÷4 2 2÷2 1
two steps
24 ÷ 4 = 6; then 6 ÷ 2 = 3 . Or we could do it

8÷8 1
Changing Mixed Numbers into in a single step
24 ÷ 8 = 3.
Improper Fractions
It is impossible to multiply and divide mixed frac- Shortcut: When the top and bottom numbers
tions, so you have to be able to turn mixed fractions both end in zeros, cross out the same number of
into improper fractions. To change a mixed number, zeros in both numbers to begin the reducing
3 300 3
say 24, into an improper fraction, follow these steps: process. For example 00 reduces to 40 when
4,0
you cross out two zeros in both numbers.
1. Multiply the whole number (2) by
the bottom number (4): 2×4=8 Whenever you do arithmetic with fractions, re-
2. Add the result (8) to the top duce your answer. On a multiple-choice test, don’t
number (3): 8 + 3 = 11 panic if your answer isn’t listed. Try to reduce it and
3. Put the total (11) over the bottom then compare it to the choices.
11
number (4): 4
4. Check: Reverse the process by Reduce these fractions to lowest terms.
changing the improper fraction
into a mixed number. If you get _______ 5. 132
back the number you started with,
your answer is right. _______ 6. 1345
Reducing Fractions _______ 7. 2772

Reducing a fraction means writing it in lowest terms;
that is, with the smallest numbers possible. For in-
108
– MATH REVIEW –
Equivalent Fractions Write these fractions as equivalent fractions

Sometimes you need to make equivalent fractions to with the given denominators:
solve problems. Equivalent fractions have the same
value but are written differently. There are two ways _______ 8. 152 = 24
to find equivalent fractions: dividing and multiply-
ing. When dividing the numerator and denominator _______ 9. 29 = 27
of a fraction by the same number, you are reducing
the fraction. _______ 10. 25 =
500
1 4 1 ×4 _4
For example, _2 is equivalent to _8 , since ____
2 ×4 = 8 .
Here, we multiplied both the top and bottom of the Adding Fractions
1 You might remember that when adding and subtract-
fraction _2 by 4 to get an equivalent fraction.
12 4 12 ÷ 3 4 ing fractions the bottom number in both fractions
Also, __ __ _____ __
36 is equivalent to 12 , since 36 ÷ 3 = 12 . must be the same number. When adding and subtract-
Here, we divided both the top and bottom of the frac- ing fractions, the bottom number will stay the same,
12
tion __
36 by 3 to get an equivalent fraction. and only the top numbers will be added or subtracted.
If the fractions have the same bottom numbers,
Finding Equivalent Fractions just add the top numbers together and write the total
Using Multiplication over the bottom number.
You will need to use equivalent fractions in order to
add and subtract fractions. This is actually the oppo- Examples:
2 4 2+4 6
site of reducing a fraction. + = =
9 9 9 9 Reduce the sum: 23.
Follow these steps to raise 23 to 24ths: 5
something + 78 = 182 Change the sum to a mixed
For example, if you wanted to write 23 as ________ , 8
24 number: 148; then reduce:
you would follow these steps:
112.
1. First, notice what number the existing bottom
There are a few extra steps to add mixed num-
number needs to be multiplied by in order to
bers with the same bottom numbers, say, 235 + 145:
arrive at the new desired bottom number. In
this case, if you multiply the bottom number, 3, 3 4 7
1. Add the fractions: + =
5 5 5
by 8, then the product will be the new desired
2. Change the improper
bottom number, 24. This means that you will
fraction into a mixed
multiply both the top and bottom numbers of 7 2
number: = 1
5 5
your fraction by 8. Hint: If it’s not obvious to
3. Add the whole numbers: 2+1 = 3
you that 8 is the answer here, you can always
4. Add the results of steps 2 and 3: 125 + 3 = 425
divide the desired bottom number (24) by the
original bottom number (3) to get your answer.
2 Finding the Least Common Denominator
2. Multiply both the top and bottom of _3 by 8 to
16 If the fractions you want to add don’t have the same
get __
24 .
bottom number, you will have to raise some or all of
3. Check: Reduce the new fraction to see if you get the fractions to higher terms so that they all have the
16 8 2
back the original one:
24 8 = 3 same bottom number, called the common denomi-
109
– MATH REVIEW –
nator. All of the original bottom numbers divide If the fractions you want to subtract don’t have
evenly into the common denominator. If it is the the same bottom number, you will have to raise some
smallest number that they all divide evenly into, it is or all of the fractions to equivalent fractions so that
called the least common denominator (LCD). they all have the same bottom number, or LCD. If you
Here are a few tips for finding the LCD, the forgot how to find the LCD, just read the section on
smallest number that all the bottom numbers evenly adding fractions with different bottom numbers.
divide into:
5
Example: 6 – 34
n See if all the bottom numbers divide evenly
into the biggest bottom number.
1. Change each fraction to equivalent
n Inspect multiples of the largest bottom number
fractions with denominators of
until you find a number that all the other bot- 5

10
12 because 12 is the LCD, the 6 = 12
tom numbers evenly divide into.
smallest number that 6 and 4 both
n When all else fails, multiply all the bottom num-
divide into evenly: – 34 = 192
bers together.
2. Subtract the top numbers and keep
1
2 the bottom number the same:
Example:
3 + 45 12
Subtracting mixed numbers with the same bot-

1. Find the LCD. Multiply the
tom number is similar to adding mixed numbers.
bottom numbers: 3 × 5 = 15
2 10
2. Write each fraction with a = 15
3 Example: 435 – 125
denominator of 15: 4 12

5 =
15
3
3. Add the top numbers together and 1. Subtract the fractions:
5 – 25 = 15
22
keep the bottom number the same: 2. Subtract the whole numbers: 4–1= 3
15
1 1
3. Add the results of steps 1 and 2: + 3 = 3
5 5
Try these addition problems:
Sometimes, there is an extra “borrowing” step
_______ 11. 45 + 16 when you subtract mixed numbers with the same
bottom numbers, say, 735 – 245:
_______ 12. 78 + 23 + 34
1. You can’t subtract the fractions
_______ 13. 413 + 234 + 16 the way they are because 45 is
bigger than 35. So you borrow 1
Subtracting Fractions from the 7, making it 6, and
If the fractions have the same bottom numbers, just change that 1 to 55 because 5 is
subtract the top numbers and write the difference the bottom number: 735 = 655 + 35
over the bottom number. 2. Add the numbers from step 1: 655 + 35 = 685
4 3. Now you have a different
Example: – 39 =
4–3 1
9 = 9

9 version of the original problem: 685 – 245
110
– MATH REVIEW –
4. Subtract the fractional parts 18. Before leaving the hospital, the
8
of the two mixed numbers: 5 – 45 = 45 ambulance driver noted that the
5. Subtract the whole number mileage gauge on Ambulance 2
parts of the two mixed numbers: 6–2=4 registered 4,357140 miles. When he
6. Add the results of the last two arrived at the scene of the accident, the
steps together: 4 + 45 = 445 mileage gauge then registered 4,400110
miles. How many miles did he drive
Try these subtraction problems: from the hospital to the accident?
a. 42130 miles
_______ 14. 45 – 23 b. 42170 miles
_______ 15. 78 – 14 – 12 c. 43170 miles

d. 47120 miles
_______ 16. 413 – 234
Multiplying Fractions
Now let’s put what you have learned about adding and
Multiplying fractions is actually easier than adding
subtracting fractions to work in some real-life problems.
them. All you do is multiply the top numbers and
_______ 17. Visiting nurse Alan drove 312 miles to then multiply the bottom numbers.
the office to check his assignments for
2 25
the day. Then he drove 434 miles to his Examples:
3 × 57 =
10
3 7 = 21
first patient. When he left there, he 1 137

2 × 35 × 74 =
21
2 5 4 = 40
drove 2 miles to his next patient. Then
he drove 323 miles back to the office for Sometimes, you can cancel before multiplying.
a meeting. Finally, he drove 312 miles Canceling is a shortcut that makes the multiplication
home. How many miles did he travel go faster because you’re multiplying with smaller
in total? numbers. It’s very similar to reducing: If there is a
a. 17152 miles number that divides evenly into a top number and
b. 16152 miles bottom number, do that division before multiplying.
If you forget to cancel, you will still get the right an-
c. 15172 miles
swer, but you will have to reduce it.
d. 15152 miles
5
e. 131112 miles Example: 6 × 290
1. Cancel the 6 and the 9 by dividing 3

3 into both of them: 6 ÷ 3 = 2 and 5
6 × 290
2
9 ÷ 3 = 3. Cross out the 6 and the 9:
2. Cancel the 5 and the 20 by dividing 1 3
5 9
5 into both of them: 5 ÷ 5 = 1 and 6 ×
20
2 4
20 ÷ 5 = 4. Cross out the 5 and the 20:
3. Multiply across the new top numbers
13 3
and the new bottom numbers:
2 4 8
111
– MATH REVIEW –
Try these multiplication problems: Here are a few more real-life problems to test your
skills:
_______ 19. 15 × 23
_______ 25. Bobby’s two-year-old sister weighs
_______ 20. 23 × 4
7 × 3
5 3313 pounds. Bobby’s weight is 225
times the weight of his sister. How
_______ 21. 34 × 89 much does Bobby weigh?
a. 120 pounds
To multiply a fraction by a whole number, first b. 80 pounds
rewrite the whole number as a fraction with a bottom c. 200 pounds
number of 1. d. 66 pounds
e. 145 pounds
Example: 5 × 23 = 51 × 23 = 130 (Optional:
Convert 130 to a mixed number, 313.) _______ 26. If Henry spent 34 of a 40-hour work
week learning to use new laboratory
To multiply with mixed numbers, it’s easier to equipment, how many hours did he
change them to improper fractions before multiplying. spend in training?
a. 712 hours
Example: 423 × 512 b. 10 hours
c. 20 hours
1. Convert 423 to an improper d. 25 hours
432
fraction: 423 = 14
=
3 3 e. 30 hours
2. Convert 512 to an improper
fraction: 521
512 = 11
=
_______ 27. Technician Chin makes $14.00 an
2 2
hour. When she works more than
3. Cancel and multiply the 7 8 hours a day, she gets overtime pay

14
fractions: 3 × 121 = 737 of 112 times her regular hourly wage
1
4. Optional: Convert the for the extra hours. How much did
improper fraction to a she earn for working 11 hours in
77
mixed number: 3 = 2523 one day?
a. $77
Now try these multiplication problems with mixed b. $154
numbers and whole numbers: c. $175
d. $210
_______ 22. 413 × 25 e. $231
_______ 23. 212 × 6
_______ 24. 334 × 425
112
– MATH REVIEW –
Dividing Fractions _______ 30. 35 ÷ 3

Dividing fractions is a lot easier than you might
imagine. To divide one fraction by a second fraction, _______ 31. 456 723
follow these three steps:
Let’s wrap this up with some real-life problems.
1 3
Example:
2 ÷
5
_______ 32. Annika uses 14014 ounces of flour to
1. Find the reciprocal of the bake loaves of cinnamon bread for a
second fraction (that means hospital fund-raiser. Each loaf takes
flip the top and bottom numbers). 5

3
1234 ounces of flour. How many
2. Next, change the division loaves did she bake?
1 5
sign to a multiplication sign. ×
2 3
a. 11 loaves
3. Now multiply the first b. 12 loaves
fraction by the reciprocal c. 13 loaves
1 5 15 5
of the second fraction. × = =
2 3 23 6
d. 14 loaves
e. 15 loaves
To divide a fraction by a whole number, first
change the whole number to a fraction by putting it _______ 33. How many 212-pound chunks of cheese
over 1. Then follow the division steps above. can be cut from a single 20-pound
piece of cheese?
3 31
Example:
5 ÷ 2 = 35 ÷ 21 = 35 × 12 = 3
5 2 = 10
a. 2 chunks
b. 4 chunks
When the division problem has a mixed num- c. 6 chunks
ber, convert it to an improper fraction and then di- d. 8 chunks
vide as usual. e. 10 chunks
Example: 234 ÷ 16 _______ 34. Ms. Goldbaum earned $36.75 for
1
working 32 hours. What was her
243
1. Convert 234 to an improper 234 = 11
4 = 4
hourly wage?
fraction: a. $10.00
2. Divide 141 by 16: 11
4 ÷ 16 = 141 × 61 b. $10.50
3. Flip 16 to 61, change ÷ to ×, 3
c. $10.75
cancel, and multiply: 11
4 × 61 =
11× 3 33
×1 = 2
2
d. $12.00
2
e. $12.25
Here are a few division problems to try.
_______ 28. 13 ÷ 23
_______ 29. 234 ÷ 12
113
– MATH REVIEW –
Decimals number into the top number. Once you have set up
your division problem, you will need to put a decimal
What Is a Decimal? point and a few zeros on the right of the top number,
A decimal is a number that can be represented by a which is inside the division box. When you divide,
special kind of fraction. This special kind of fraction bring the decimal point up into your answer.
involves powers of the number 10: 10; 100; 1,000; etc.
You use decimals every day when you deal with Example: Change 34 to a decimal.
money—$10.35 is a decimal that represents 10 dol-
lars and 35 cents. The decimal point separates the 1. Add a decimal point and two zeros
dollars from the cents. Because there are 100 cents in to the top number (3): 3.00
1 2. Divide the bottom number (4)
one dollar, 1 cent is of a dollar, or $0.01.
100
Each decimal digit to the right of the decimal into 3.00: ––.75
––
4)3. 00
point has a name: 28
20
20
Examples: 0.1 = 1 tenth = 110 0
2
0.02 = 2 hundredths =
100 3. The quotient (result of the
3
0.003 = 3 thousandths = 1,0
00 division) is the answer: 0.75
4
0.0004 = 4 ten-thousandths =
10,000
Some fractions may require you to add many decimal
When you add zeros after the rightmost decimal zeros in order for the division to come out evenly. In
place, you don’t change the value of the decimal. For fact, when you convert a fraction like 32 to a decimal,
example, 6.17 is the same as all of these: you can keep adding decimal zeros to the top number
forever because the division will never come out
6.170 evenly. As you divide 3 into 2, you will keep getting 6’s:
6.1700 2 ÷ 3 = 0.6666666666 etc.
6.17000000000000000 This is called a repeating decimal and it can be written as
.666 or as .6623. You can approximate it as 0.67, 0.667,
If there are digits on both sides of the decimal 0.6667, and so on. When a bar is written above a digit or
point (like 10.35), the number is called a mixed deci- digits in a repeating decimal, it is those numbers that
mal. If there are digits only to the right of the decimal repeat (for example, 0.42 ៮ means 0.42424242 . . . and
point (like 0.53), the number is called a decimal. A 5.68374 measn 5.68374374374 . . . ).
whole number (like 15) is understood to have a deci-
mal point at its right (15.). Thus, 15 is the same as Changing Decimals to Fractions
15.0, 15.00, 15.000, and so on. It is also important to be able to change a decimal to a
fraction. First, determine what place the last digit of
Changing Fractions to Decimals the decimal holds. For example, the last digit can be
Sometimes it is necessary to change fractions to deci- in the tenths place, like 4.7; in the hundredths place,
mals. The fraction bar that separates the top and bot- like 0.93; in the thousandths place, like 1.005; and so
tom numbers in a fraction stands for division, so to on. Once you have determined the place of the last
change a fraction to a decimal, divide the bottom digit of the decimal, write that in the denominator of
114
– MATH REVIEW –
a fraction. Next write the digits of the decimal as the all your digits lined up evenly. Remember, if a num-
top number in that fraction. ber doesn’t have a decimal point, then put one at the
right end of the number.
Example: 0.018
Example: 1.23 + 57 + 0.038
1. Three places to the right of the
decimal means thousandths, so 1. Line up the numbers like this: 1.230
____
write 1,000 as the bottom number: 1,000 57.000
18
2. Write 18 as the top of the fraction: + 0.038
3. Reduce by dividing 2 into the top 2. Add: 58.268
18 2 9
and bottom numbers:
1,000 2 =
500
Example: 1.23 - 0.038
Change these decimals or mixed decimals to
fractions: 1. Line up the numbers like this: 1.230
- 0.038
_______ 35. 0.0125 2. Subtract: 1.192
_______ 36. 3.48 Try these addition and subtraction problems:
_______ 37. 123.456 _______ 38. 905 + 0.02 + 3.075
Comparing Decimals _______ 39. 3.48 – 2.573

Because decimals are easier to compare when they
have the same number of digits after the decimal _______ 40. 123.456 – 122
point, tack zeros onto the end of the shorter decimals.
Then all you have to do is compare the numbers as if _______ 41. James drove 3.7 miles to his physical
the decimal points weren’t there: therapist’s office. He then walked 1.6
miles on the treadmill to strengthen
Example: Compare 0.08 and 0.1 his legs. He got back into the car, drove
2.75 miles to his radiology appoint-
1. Tack one zero at the end of 0.1: .10 ment, and then drove 2 miles back
2. To compare 0.10 to 0.08, just compare 10 to 8. home. How many miles did he drive
3. Since 10 is larger than 8, 0.1 is larger than 0.08. in total?
a. 8.05 miles
Adding and Subtracting Decimals b. 8.45 miles
To add or subtract decimals, line them up so their c. 8.8 miles
decimal points are aligned. You may want to tack on d. 10 miles
zeros at the end of shorter decimals so you can keep e. 10.05 miles
115
– MATH REVIEW –
_______ 42. The average number of emergency If your answer doesn’t have enough digits, tack
room visits at City Hospital fell from zeros on to the left of the answer.
486.4 per week to 402.5 per week. By
how many emergency room visits per Example: 0.03 × 0.006
week did the average fall?
a. 73.9 visits 1. Multiply 3 times 6: 3 ×6 = 18
b. 83 visits 2. You need five decimal digits in
c. 83.1 visits your answer, so tack on three zeros: 00018
d. 83.9 visits 3. Put the decimal point at the front
e. 84.9 visits of the number (which is five digits
in from the right): 0.00018
Multiplying Decimals
To multiply decimals, ignore the decimal points and You can practice multiplying decimals with these:
just multiply the numbers. Then count the total
number of decimal digits (the digits to the right of _______ 43. 0.05 × 0.6
the decimal point) in the numbers you are multiply-
ing. Count off that number of digits in your answer _______ 44. 0.053 × 6.4
beginning at the right side and put the decimal point
to the left of those digits. _______ 45. 38.1 × 0.0184
Example: 215.7 × 2.4 _______ 46. Joe earns $42.65 per hour as an
occupational therapist. Last week, he
1. Multiply 2,157 times 24: 2,157 worked 12.75 hours. How much
× 24 money did he earn that week?
8628 a. $518.00
43140 b. $518.50
51768 c. $525.00
2. Because there are a total of two d. $536.50
decimal digits in 215.7 and 2.4, e. $543.79
count off two places from the
right in 51,768, placing the
decimal point to the left
of the last two digits: 517.68
116
– MATH REVIEW –
_______ 47. Nuts cost $3.50 per pound. 21

Example: 0.061. 8
Approximately how much will 4.25
pounds of nuts cost? 1. Because there are two decimal
a. $12.25 digits in 0.06, move the decimal
b. $12.50 point two places to the right in
c. $12.88 both numbers and move the .
d. $14.50 decimal point straight up into 21
.06.1. .↑8
哭哭
e. $14.88 the answer: 20.3
2. Divide using the new 1.
612 8
Dividing Decimals numbers: 120
01
Before we learn how to divide a decimal by a decimal, 00
let’s begin with dividing a decimal by a whole number. 18
18
To divide a decimal by a whole number, set up 0
56
the division (8.2 ) and immediately bring. the deci-
mal point straight up into the answer (8.256
↑ ). Then Under certain conditions, you have to tack on
divide as you would normally divide whole numbers: zeros to the right of the last decimal digit in the num-
ber you are dividing into:
Example: .032
8|.25
↑6 n if there aren’t enough digits for you to move the
0
25 decimal point to the right
24 n if the answer doesn’t come out evenly when you
16
16 do the division
0 n if you are dividing a whole number by a deci-
mal. Then you will have to tack on the decimal
When dividing by a decimal, there is one extra point as well as some zeros.
step involved. First, set up your problem in a division
box. Then, working with the decimal you’re dividing Try your skills on these division problems:
by (the one on the outside of the box), move the deci-
mal point to the right end of the number so it’s now a 8
_______ 48. 79.
whole number. Count the number of places you had
to move the decimal to the right in order to create that 05
_______ 49. 0.00040. 12

whole number, and move the decimal of the number
inside the division box the same number of spaces to .6
_______ 50. 0.0528
the right. Now the problem will look like you are di-
viding by a whole number. 6
_______ 51. 0.1419
117
– MATH REVIEW –
_______ 52. If James Worthington drove the sign (%) at the end. If the decimal point moves to the
mobile blood bank unit 92.4 miles in very right of the number, you don’t have to write the
2.1 hours, what was his average speed decimal point. If there aren’t enough places to move
in miles per hour? the decimal point, add zeros on the right before mov-
a. 41 miles per hour ing the decimal point.
b. 44 miles per hour
c. 90. miles per hour Examples:
d. 94.5 miles per hour 0.035 will become 3.5%
2 will become 200%
_______ 53. Mary Sanders walked a total of 0.7 will become 70%
18.6 miles in four days. On average,
how many miles did she walk each
day? Try changing these decimals to percents:
a. 4.15 miles
b. 4.60 miles _______ 54. 0.45
c. 4.65 miles
d. 22.60 miles _______ 55. 0.008
e. 74.40 miles
_______ 56. 0.169
Percents To change a percent to a decimal, drop off the

percent sign and move the decimal point two places
What Is a Percent? to the left. If there aren’t enough places to move the
A percent is a special kind of fraction with a denomi- decimal point, add zeros on the left before moving
nator that is always 100. For example, 17% is the same the decimal point.
17
as 0 . Literally, the word percent means per 100 parts.
10
The root cent means 100: A century is 100 years; there Examples:
are 100 cents in a dollar, etc. Thus, 17% means 17 345% will become 3.45
3
parts out of 100. Because fractions can also be ex- 26 _4 % will become 0.2675
pressed as decimals, 17% is also equivalent to 0.17, 0.6% will become 0.006
which is 17 hundredths.
You come into contact with percents every day. Now, change these percents to decimals:
Sales tax, interest, and discounts are just a few com-
mon examples. _______ 57. 12%
If you’re shaky on fractions, you may want to
review the fraction section before reading further. _______ 58. 8712%
Changing a Decimal to a Percent and _______ 59. 250%

Vice Versa
To change a decimal to a percent, move the decimal
point two places to the right and tack on a percent
118
– MATH REVIEW –
Changing a Fraction to a Percent and Example: Change 4% to a fraction.

Vice Versa
To change a fraction to a percent, there are two tech- 1. Remove the % and write the
4
niques. Each is illustrated by changing the fraction 14 fraction 4 over 100:
100
to a percent: 2. Reduce:
4÷4
= 215
100
÷4
Technique 1: Multiply the fraction by 100%. Here’s a more complicated example: Change 1623%
Multiply 14 by 100%: to a fraction.
25
1 %
100
× 1 = 25%

4
1
1. Remove the % and write the 1623

Technique 2: Divide the fraction’s bottom fraction 1623 over 100: 100
number into the top number; 2. Since a fraction means “top
then move the decimal point number divided by bottom
two places to the right and tack number,” rewrite the fraction
on a percent sign (%). as a division problem: 1623 ÷ 100
Divide 4 into 1 and move the 3. Change the mixed number
decimal point two places to (1623) to an improper
the right: fraction (530): 50 100
÷
3 1
.25 4. Flip the second fraction
00
41. 100
( 1 ) and multiply:
1
0.25 = 25%
50 1 1
× =
3 1
00 6
2
Try changing these fractions to percents: Now change these percents to fractions:
_______ 60. 18 _______ 63. 95%
_______ 61. 1235 _______ 64. 3712%
_______ 62. 172 _______ 65. 125%
To change a percent to a fraction, remove the percent Sometimes it is more convenient to work with a
sign and write the number over 100. Then reduce if percentage as a fraction or a decimal. Rather than
possible. having to calculate the equivalent fraction or decimal,
it is a good idea to memorize all of the conversions in
the following table. Not only will this increase your
efficiency on the math test, but it will also be practical
for real-life situations.
119
– MATH REVIEW –
CONVERSION TABLE The of is the number that usually follows the word of
DECIMAL % FRACTION in the question.
1
The % is the number that is in front of the % or per-
0.25 25% 4
cent in the question.
1
0.50 50% 2 Or you may think of the shortcut formula as:
3
0.75 75% 4 part %

whole =
100
1
0.10 10%
10
1 To solve each of the three varieties, we’re going

0.20 20% 5
to use the fact that the cross products are equal. The
2
0.40 40% 5 cross products are the products of the numbers diago-
3 nally across from each other. Remembering that prod-
0.60 60% 5
uct means multiply, here’s how to create the cross
4
0.80 80% 5 products for the percent shortcut:
0.333
3313% 1
3
part %

whole =
100
0.666
6623% 2
3
part × 100 = whole × %
Percent Word Problems Here’s how to use the shortcut with cross prod-
Word problems involving percents come in three ucts:
main varieties:
n Find a percent of a whole.
n Find a percent of a whole. What is 30% of 40?
Example: What is 30% of 40? 30 is the % and 40 is
is 30
n Find what percent one number is of another the of number: =
40 100
number. Cross multiply and solve
Example: 12 is what percent of 40? for is: is ×100 = 40 × 30
n Find the whole when the percent of it is given. is ×100 = 1,200
Example: 12 is 30% of what number? 12 ×100 = 1,200
Thus, 12 is 30% of 40.
While each variety has its own approach, there
n Find what percent one number is of another
is a single shortcut formula you can use to solve each
number.
of these:
12 is what percent of 40?
is % 12 is the is number and 40
= 12 %
of 100
is the of number: 40 =
100
Cross multiply and solve
The is is the number that usually follows or is just be-
for %: 12 ×100 = 40 × %
fore the word is in the question.
1,200 = 40 × %
1,200 = 40 × 30
Thus, 12 is 30% of 40.
120
– MATH REVIEW –
n Find the whole when the percent of it is given. Calculating Percent Increase
12 is 30% of what number? and Percent Decrease
12 is the is number and 30 Sometimes you’ll need to calculate the percent of in-
12 30
is the %: f =
o
100 crease or percent of decrease of something. To do this
Cross multiply and solve type of calculation, use the following formula:
for the of number: 12 × 100 = of × 30
amount of change
_______________
1,200 = of × 30 Percent of change = original amount
1,200 = 40 × 30
Thus, 12 is 30% of 40. The amount of change is the difference between the
original and new values (found by subtracting them).
Find a percent of a whole: If something has increased in value, then the original
value will be the lower value. But if something has de-
_______ 66. 1% of 25 creased in value, then the original value will be the
higher value. Once you have created this fraction, you
_______ 67. 18.2% of 50 will just turn it into a percent by using one of the
methods discussed earlier in this chapter.
_______ 68. 4412% of 600
Example: If a merchant puts the store’s $20 hats
_______ 69. 125% of 60 on sale for $15, by what percent does the mer-
chant decrease the selling price?
Find the percent that one number is of another
amount of change
_______________
number: Percent of change = original amount
20 – 15
______
_______ 70. 10 is what % of 20? Percent of change = 20
5
__ _1
_______ 71. 4 is what % of 12? Percent of change = = = 0.25 = 25%
20 4
_______ 72. 12 is what % of 4? Thus, the selling price is decreased by 25%.
Find the whole when the percent of it is given: The interesting thing about percents is that if the
same merchant were to raise $15 T-shirts to $20, that
_______ 73. 15% of what number is 15? would not be a 25% increase, even though going from
$20 to $15 was a 25% decrease. This is because the $5
_______ 74. 3712% of what number is 3? change in price is now being compared to an original
price of $15, instead of being compared to an original
_______ 75. 200% of what number is 20? price of $20. Look at how this changes the outcome:
amount of change
_______________
Percent of change = original amount
121
– MATH REVIEW –
Percent of change =
20 – 15
______ _______ 79. Sam’s Shoe Store put all of its mer-
15
chandise on sale for 20% off. If Jason
Percent of change =
5
__
= _1 1
= 0.33 = 33 _3 % saved $10 by purchasing one pair of
15 3
shoes during the sale, what was the
Thus the selling price in this example would be original price of the shoes before
1
increased by 33 _3 %. the sale?
a. $12
Now try your percent skills on some real-life problems: b. $20
c. $40
_______ 76. 15% of a 220-member nursing staff d. $50
took vacation. How many nurses e. $70
took vacation last week?
a. 5 nurses
b. 22 nurses Averages
c. 33 nurses
d. 15 nurses An average, also called an arithmetic mean, is a
e. 100 nurses measure of center that typifies a group of numbers.
You come into contact with averages on a regular ba-
_______ 77. Forty percent of General Hospital’s sis: your bowling average, the average grade on a test,
medical technologists are women. the average number of hours you work per week.
If there are 80 female medical To calculate an average, add up the number of
technologists, how many medical items being averaged and divide by the number of
technologists are male? items.
a. 32
b. 112 Example: What is the average of 6, 10, and 20?
c. 120
d. 160 Solution: Add the three numbers together and
6 + 10 + 20
e. 200 divide by 3: 3 = 12
_______ 78. Of the 840 biopsies performed last Shortcut

month, 42 were positive. What percent Here’s a neat shortcut for some average problems.
of the biopsies were positive?
n Look at the numbers being averaged. If they are
a. 0.5%
b. 2% equally spaced, like 5, 10, 15, 20, and 25, then
c. 5% the average is the number in the middle, or 15
d. 20% in this case.
n If there are an even number of such numbers,
e. 50%
say 10, 20, 30, and 40, then there is no middle
number. In this case, the average is halfway
between the two middle numbers. In this case,
the average is halfway between 20 and 30, or 25.
122
– MATH REVIEW –
n If the numbers are almost evenly spaced, you _______ 82. There are 10 females and 20 males in
can probably estimate the average without go- the first aid course. If the females
ing to the trouble of actually computing it. For achieved an average score of 85 and the
example, the average of 10, 20, and 32 is just a males achieved an average score of 95,
little more than 20, the middle number. what was the class average? (Hint:
Don’t fall for the trap of taking the
Try these average questions: average of 85 and 95; there are more
95s being averaged than 85s, so the
_______ 80. Bob’s bowling scores for the last five average is closer to 95.)
games were 180, 182, 184, 186, and
a. 9023
188. What was his average bowling
score? b. 9123
a. 182 c. 92
b. 183
d. 9223
c. 184
d. 185 e. 95
e. 186
_______ 81. Ambulance driver Conroy averaged 30

Working with
miles per hour for the two hours he
Length and Time Units
drove in town and 60 miles per hour
The United States uses the English system to measure
for the two hours he drove on the
length; however, most other countries use the metric
highway. What was his average speed
system, which is also prevalent in scientific use in the
in miles per hour?
United States. The English system requires knowing
a. 18 miles per hour
many different equivalences, but you’re probably
b. 2212 miles per hour
used to dealing with these equivalences on a daily ba-
c. 45 miles per hour
sis. Mathematically, however, it’s simpler to work in
d. 60 miles per hour
metric units because their equivalences are all multi-
e. 90 miles per hour
ples of 10. The meter is the basic unit of length, with
all other length units defined in terms of the meter.
Length Conversions
Math questions on standardized tests, especially
geometry word problems, may require conversions
within a particular system. An easy way to convert
from one unit of measurement to another is to multi-
ply by an equivalence ratio. A ratio is one number di-
vided by another, and an equivalence ratio is when
one unit of measurement (such as 1 foot), is placed
over (or under) another unit of measurement (such
as 12 inches) that has the same value. Such ratios
don’t change the value of the unit of measurement
because each ratio is equivalent to 1.
123
– MATH REVIEW –
ENGLISH SYSTEM METRIC SYSTEM

UNIT EQUIVALENCE UNIT EQUIVALENCE
foot (ft.) 1 ft. 12 in. meter (m) Basic unit

A giant step is about 1 meter long.
yard (yd.) 1 yd. 3 ft.
1 yd. 36 in. centimeter (cm) 100 cm 1 m
Your index finger is about 1 cm wide.
mile (mi.) 1 mi. 5,280 ft.
1 mi. 1,760 yds. millimeter (mm) 10 mm 1 cm; 1,000 mm 1 m
Your fingernail is about 1 mm thick.
kilometer (km) 1 km 1,000 m
Five city blocks are about 1 km long.
ENGLISH SYSTEM
METRIC SYSTEM
TO CONVERT MULTIPLY BY THIS
BETWEEN RATIO TO CONVERT MULTIPLY BY THIS
BETWEEN RATIO
1 ft.
inches and feet or
12
____in.
12 i n. 10 mm 1 cm
1 ft.
millimeters and
1 cm or
10 mm
inches and yards 36 in.

1 yd.
or centimeters
1 yd. 36
in.
1,000 mm 1m
3 ft. 1 yd . meters and millimeters or
feet and yards or
1
m 1,000
mm
1 y
d. 3 ft.
100 cm 1m
5,280 ft. 1 mi. meters and centimeters
1m or
100
cm
feet and miles
1 mi. or
5,28
0 ft.
1,000 m 1 km
meters and kilometers
1 km or
1,000m
1,760 yds. 1 mi.
yards and miles
1 mi. or
1,760yds.
Example: Convert 3 yards into feet. Example: Convert 31 inches into feet and
inches.
3 ft.
Multiply 3 yards by the ratio
1 yd. . Notice that 1 ft.
1. First, multiply 31 inches by 31 in. × in. =
12
3 ft. 1 yd.
we chose rather than because the 31 in. 1 ft.
1 yd. 3 ft. the ratio
1 ft.
12 in. :
12
in. = 3112 ft. =
yards in the bottom of the equivalence ratio 7
212 ft.
cancel with the yards on top during the multi-
plication: 2. Then change the 172 7 ft.
× =
12
12 in.
1 ft.
7 7 ft. 12 in.
portion of 2 12 ft. to inches:
12 ×1 ft. = 7 in.
3 ft. 3 yds. 3 ft.
3 yds.
1 yd. = 1 yd. = 9 ft. 3. 7
Thus, 31 inches is equivalent to both 212 ft. and
2 feet 7 inches.
124
– MATH REVIEW –
Convert as indicated. To add the lengths, add each column of length units
separately:
83. 2 ft. = _______ in.
5 ft. 7 in.
84. 3 cm = _______ mm 2 ft. 6 in.
6 ft. 9 in.
85. 16 m = _______ cm + 3 ft. 5 in.
16 ft. 27 in.
86. 294 cm = _______ m Since 27 inches is more than 1 foot, the total of 16 ft.
27 in. must be simplified:
Addition and Subtraction with Convert 27 inches to feet and inches:
1 ft. 27 3
Length Units 12 in. 12 ft. 2 12 ft. 2 ft. 3 in.
27 in. ×
In the health field, you will need to be able to combine
numbers that contain different units of measurement. Add: 16 ft.
In the following example, finding the perimeter, or + 2 ft. 3 in.
distance around the outside of the figure, will require 18 ft. 3 in. Thus, the perimeter is
adding lengths of different units. 18 feet 3 inches.
Example: Find the perimeter of the figure Finding the length of a line segment may require sub-
below. tracting lengths of different units.
3 ft. 5 in. Example: Find the length of line segment AB

below.
5 ft. 7 in. 9 ft. 3 in.

6 ft. 9 in. B
3 ft. 8 in.
2 ft. 6 in.
125
– MATH REVIEW –
To subtract the lengths, subtract each column of Time Conversions

length units separately, starting with the rightmost Word problems involving time typically ask you to
column. determine how long something takes. You might have
9 ft. 3 in. to add together the amount of time several activities
3 ft. 8 in. take in order to determine the total amount of time
the entire process takes or calculate the elapsed time
Warning: You can’t subtract 8 inches from 3 from the start to the finish of a particular activity.
inches because 8 is larger than 3! As in regular sub- Adding and subtracting time units is a lot like
traction, you have to borrow 1 from the column on adding and subtracting length units. You have to
the left. However, borrowing 1 ft. is the same as bor- make sure that you are adding hours to hours, min-
rowing 12 inches; adding the borrowed 12 inches to utes to minutes, and seconds to seconds. If the given
the 3 inches gives 15 inches. Thus: information is in different time units, then you’ll have
15 to convert to a common time unit before you can
8 122
9 ft. 3 in. proceed. Use the following conversion ratios:
2 3 ft. 8 in.
n
1 hour
5 ft. 7 in. Thus, the length of To convert minutes to hours:
60 mi
nutes

A
B is 5 feet 7 inches. n
60 minutes
To convert hours to minutes:
1 hour
n
1 minute
To convert seconds to minutes:
60 sec
onds
Add and simplify.
n
60 seconds
To convert minutes to seconds:
1 minute
1
Example: Convert 24 hours to seconds.
87. 5 ft. 3 in.
+ 2 ft. 9 in. 60 min.
1. Convert hours to minutes: 214 hr. × ––––––
1 hr. =
135 min.
88. 7 km 220 m
60 sec.
4 km 180 m 2. Convert minutes to seconds: 135 min. ––––––
1 min.
+ 9 km 770 m = 8,100 sec.
Subtract and simplify. The hours and minutes cancel, giving an answer
in seconds.
89. 4 ft. 1 in.
– 2 ft. 9 in. Calculating Elapsed Time
Calculating elapsed time when you’re given the start-
90. 14 cm 2 mm ing and ending time can be a bit tricky, depending on
– 6 cm 4 mm the starting and ending time. If the starting and end-
ing times are both A . M . or both P. M . of the same day,
you can calculate the elapsed time by simply sub-
tracting the starting time from the ending time. How-
ever, you may have to “regroup,” or “borrow.”
126
– MATH REVIEW –
Example: Radiology Associates opens at 2. Radiology Associates closes at

6:45 A . M . and closes for lunch at 11:35 A . M . 5:30 P. M . Thus, they’re open for
How long are they open in the morning? 5 hours 30 minutes in the afternoon.
10 9 3. Add the results together: 4:45
1. Set up the subtraction: 11:35 + 5:30
2. You can’t subtract 45 minutes from 9:75
35 minutes, so you have to – 6:45 4. The sum of 9 hours 75 minutes
“borrow” 1 hour from the 11 hours. needs to be adjusted because
Borrowing 1 hour from 11 hours 4:50 75 minutes is more than one hour.
is equivalent to borrowing 60 There’s a “carry” of 1 hour: The
minutes. Thus, you’re actually 75 minutes is equivalent to 1 hour
subtracting 45 minutes from 95 15 minutes. Thus, 9 hours 75
minutes (that is, 35 + 60 minutes). minutes is the same as 10 hours
15 minutes.
Radiology Associates is open for 4 hours 50 min-
utes in the morning. You follow the same procedure when the start-
ing time is P. M . of one day and the ending time is
If the starting time is A . M . and ending time is A . M . of the next day. Calculate the elapsed P. M . time
P. M . of the same day, you have to calculate the elapsed by subtracting the starting time from midnight. Then
time in two steps and then add the step results to- add the elapsed A.M. time, which is equivalent to the
gether. Calculate the elapsed morning time by sub- ending time.
tracting the starting time from noon. The elapsed If the starting and ending times are on different
afternoon time is equivalent to the ending time. So days, you calculate the elapsed time in three steps:
you add the elapsed morning time and the elapsed af- elapsed time on the starting day, elapsed time on the
ternoon time to get the total elapsed time. ending day, and the time of the intervening days.
Then you add the results of the three steps together.
Example: If Radiology Associates opens at
7:15 A . M . and closes at 5:30 P. M ., how long Example: Each week, Radiology Associates
are they open? turns their computers on at 6:45 A.M. on Mon-
5 day and turns them off for the weekend at
1 6 10 5:30 P.M. on Friday. How long are the comput-
1. Subtract the starting time from noon: 12:00 ers on, in hours?
(You’ll have to “borrow” 60
minutes from 12.) – 7:15
4:45
Radiology Associates is open for
4 hours 45 minutes in the morning.
127
– MATH REVIEW –
1. Starting day, Monday Now try these time problems:

5
1 6 10 _______ 91. Jan ran three tests in the lab that each
a. For the A.M. hours, subtract the 12:00
required 45 minutes. If she then ran a
starting time from noon: – 6:45
final test and all four tests required a
5:15
total of 314 hours, how long did the
b. For the P. M . hours, there are
final test take?
12 hours from noon until midnight.
a. 12 hour
c. Add the A . M . and P. M . hours to get 5:15
2
the total hours on the starting day: + 12:00 b. 3 hour
17:15 3
c. 4 hour
On Monday, 17 hours 15 minutes elapse.
d. 1 hour
2. Ending day, Friday
a. For the A . M . hours, there are e. 114 hours
12 hours from midnight until noon: 12:00
b. For the P. M . hours, the ending _______ 92. The staff at a hospital started to use a
time is the elapsed time: + 5:30 radiology room at 8:15 A.M. The room
c. Add the A . M . and P. M . hours to was used for 6 hours 15 minutes. What
get the total hours on the ending day: 17:30 time did the staff finish using the
On Friday, 17 hours 30 minutes elapse. radiology room?
3. The intervening days: Tuesday, a. 8:15 P.M.
Wednesday, and Thursday b. 1:45 P.M.
3 days × 24 hours per day = 72 hours c. 2:15 P.M.
4. Add the results of steps 1–3 together: 17:15 d. 3:30 P.M.
17:30 e. 2:30 P.M.
+ 72:00
106:45 _______ 93. Clara cultured a particular virus at
The total elapsed time is 106 hours 45 minutes. 2:30 P.M. on Monday and stored the
5. Since the question asks for the amount of time culture in the refrigerator until
the computers are on in hours, the 45 minutes 11:30 A.M. on Wednesday. How long
portion of the answer must be converted to a was the culture in the refrigerator?
fraction of an hour: a. 3 hours
1 hour 3 b. 21 hours
45 minutes × nutes = 4 hour
60 mi
Thus, the computers were on for a total of c. 27 hours
10634 hours. d. 45 hours
e. 69 hours
128
– MATH REVIEW –
Algebra Equations
An equation is a mathematical sentence stating that
Popular topics for algebra questions on health occu- two quantities are equal. For example:
pations exams include:
2x = 10
n solving equations x+5=8
n positive and negative numbers
n algebraic expressions The idea is to find a replacement for the un-
known that will make the sentence true. You solve
What Is Algebra? equations for the unknown variable. For example, in
Algebra is the mathematics that lets us use equations the equation 2x = 10, x = 5 because 2 × 5 = 10. In the
with numbers and symbols in order to model mathe- second example, x = 3 because 3 + 5 = 8.
matical relationships. These symbols, called un- Sometimes you can solve an equation by in-
knowns or variables, are letters of the alphabet that spection, as with the previous examples. Other equa-
are used to represent numbers. tions may be more complicated and require a
For example, let’s say you are asked to find out step-by-step solution, for example:
what number, when added to 3, gives you a total of 5.
Using algebra, you could express the problem as x + 3 n+2
+1=3
4
= 5. The variable x represents the number you are
trying to find. The general approach is to consider an equation
Here’s another example, but this one uses only like a balance scale, with both sides equally balanced.
variables. To find the distance traveled, multiply the Essentially, whatever you do to one side, you must
rate of travel (speed) by the amount of time traveled: also do to the other side to maintain the balance.
d = r × t. The variable d stands for distance, r stands Thus, if you were to add 2 to the left side, you would
for rate, and t stands for time. also have to add 2 to the right side.
In algebra, the variables may take on different Let’s apply this balance concept to our previous
values. In other words, they vary, and that’s why complicated equation. Remembering that we want to
they’re called variables. solve it for n, we must somehow rearrange it so the n
is isolated on one side of the equation. Its value will
Operations
then be on the other side. Looking at the equation,
Algebra uses the same operations as arithmetic: addi-
you can see that n has been increased by 2 and then
tion, subtraction, multiplication, and division. In
divided by 4 and ultimately added to 1. Therefore, we
arithmetic, we might say 3 + 4 = 7, while in algebra,
will undo these operations to isolate n.
we would talk about two numbers whose values we
don’t know that add up to 7, or x + y = 7. Here’s how
each operation translates to algebra:
ALGEBRAIC OPERATIONS
The sum of 2 numbers a+b
The difference of 2 numbers a–b
The product of 2 numbers a × b or a · b or ab
The quotient of 2 numbers a

b
129
– MATH REVIEW –
n+2
Begin by subtracting 1 from +1 = 3 Notice that each operation in the original equa-
4
both sides of the equation: –1 –1 tion was undone by using the inverse operation. That
n+2 is, addition was undone by subtraction, and division
= 2
4
n+2 was undone by multiplication. In general, each oper-
Next, multiply both sides 4×
= 2×4
4 ation can be undone by its inverse.
by 4: n+2 = 8
Finally, subtract 2 from both sides: –2 –2
This isolates n and solves the equation: n = 6
ALGEBRAIC INVERSES
OPERATION INVERSE OPERATION INVERSE
Addition Subtraction Subtraction Addition
Multiplication Division Division Multiplication
Square Square Root Square Root Square
After you solve an equation, check your work by Solve each equation:
substituting the answer back into the original equa-
tion to make sure it balances. Let’s see what happens _______ 94. x + 5 = 12
when we substitute 6 in for n:
_______ 95. 5x 4 = 26
6+2

4 +1 =3 ?
8
+1 =3 ? _______ 96. 14x = 7
4
2+1 =3 ?
3 =3 3
130
– MATH REVIEW –
Positive and Negative Numbers

Positive and negative numbers, also known as signed numbers, are best shown as points along the number line:
−5 −4 −3 −2 −1 0 +1 +2 +3 +4 +5
Numbers to the left of 0 are negative and those On the other hand, to say that –2 is less than 4,
to the right of 0 are positive. Zero is neither negative we use the less than sign (<):
nor positive. If a number is written without a sign, it
is assumed to be positive. Notice that when you are on –2 < 4
the negative side of the number line, bigger numbers
have smaller values. For example, –5 is less than –2. Arithmetic with Positive and
You come into contact with negative numbers more Negative Numbers
often than you might think; for example, very cold The table on the next page illustrates the rules for do-
temperatures are recorded as negative numbers. ing arithmetic with signed numbers. Notice that
As you move to the right along the number line, when a negative number follows an operation (as it
the numbers get larger. Mathematically, to indicate does in the second example that follows), it is often
that one number, say 4, is greater than another num- enclosed in parentheses to avoid confusion.
ber, say –2, the greater than sign (>) is used: When more than one arithmetic operation ap-
pears, you must know the correct sequence in which
4 > –2 to perform the operations. For example, do you know
what to do first to calculate 2 + 3 × 4? You’re right if
you said, “Multiply first.” The correct answer is 14. If
you add first, you’ll get the wrong answer of 20! The
correct sequence of operations is:
}
1. Parentheses This sequence of steps is often memorized
2. Exponents by using the mnemonic PEMDAS, which
3. Multiplication or Division some people like to remember with the
(whichever comes first when reading left to right) expression “Please Excuse My Dear Aunt
4. Addition or Subtraction Sally.”
(whichever comes first when reading left to right)
131
– MATH REVIEW –
Even when signed numbers appear in an equa- 1. Subtract 2 from both sides: -14x + 2 = -5
tion, the step-by-step process works exactly as it -2 = -2
-14x -7
does for positive numbers. You just have to remem-
-1
4 =-1
4
1
ber the arithmetic rules for negative numbers. For 2. Divide both sides by -14: -14x +2= 2
example, let’s solve –14x + 2 = 5. RULE
EXAMPLE
ADDITION
If both numbers have the same sign, just add them. The 3 ((–5) 8
answer has the same sign as the numbers being added. 3 (5) 8
If both numbers have different signs, subtract the smaller 3 ( (–5) 2

number from the larger. The answer has the same sign as 3 (5) 2
the larger number.
If both numbers are the same but have opposite signs, the 3 (3) 0
sum is zero.
SUBTRACTION
Change the subtraction sign to addition and also change the sign of 3 (5) 3 (5) 2
the number being subtracted. Add as above. 3 (5) 3 (5) 8
3 (5) 3 (5) 2
If both numbers are the same, the difference is zero. 5 (5) 0

6 (6) 0
MULTIPLICATION
Multiply the numbers together. If both numbers have the same 3 (5) 15
sign, the answer is positive; otherwise, it is negative. 3 (5) 15
3 (5) 15
3 (5) 15
If one number (or both) is zero, the answer is zero. 3 (0) 0
DIVISION
Divide the numbers. If both numbers have the same sign, 15 (3) 5
the answer is positive; otherwise, it is negative. 15 (3) 5
15 (3) 5
15 (3) 5
If the number to be divided (or the top number of a fraction) 3 0 is undefined.

is zero, the answer is zero. You cannot divide by zero; thus, 0 3 0
the bottom number of a fraction cannot be zero.
132
– MATH REVIEW –
1
Algebraic Expressions ______ 102. –2x – 2y + 4z; x = 5, y = –4, and z = 6
An algebraic expression is a group of numbers, un-
knowns, and arithmetic operations, like 3x – 2y. This ______ 103. The volume of a cylinder is given by
one may be translated as, “three times some number the formula V=pr2h, where r is the
minus two times another number.” To evaluate an al- radius of the base and h is the height of
gebraic expression, replace each variable with its the cylinder. What is the volume of a
value. For example, if x = 5 and y = 4, we would eval- cylinder with a base radius of 3 and
uate 3x – 2y as follows: height of 4? (Leave p in your answer.)
3(5) – 2(4) = 15 – 8 = 7
Even when signed numbers appear in an equa- Squares and Square Roots
tion, the step-by-step solution works exactly as it does It’s not uncommon to see squares and square roots
for positive numbers. on standardized math tests, especially on questions
For example, let’s solve 3x – 2y for x = –5 and that involve right triangles.
y = –8. To find the square of a number, multiply that
number by itself. For example, the square of 4 is 16,
1. Replace x with –5 and y with –8: because 4 × 4 = 16. Mathematically, this is expressed
3(–5) – 2(–8) as:
2. Perform the multiplication: 42 = 16
–15 – (–16) 4 squared equals 16.
3. Turn the subtraction into an addition problem
and complete: To find the square root of a number, ask your-
–15 + 16 = 1 self, “What number times itself equals the given num-
ber?” For example, the square root of 16 is 4 because
Now try these problems with signed numbers. 4 × 4 16. Mathematically, this is expressed as:
______ 97. –8x – 7 = 65 =4

16
The square root of 16 is 4.
______ 98. –3x + 6 = –18
Because certain squares and square roots tend
______ 99. –4x + 3 = –7 to appear more often than others on standardized
tests, the best course is to memorize the most com-
Evaluate these expressions. mon ones.
______ 100. 4a + 3b; a = 2 and b = –1
______ 101. 3mn – 4m + 2n; m = 3 and n = –3 COMMON SQUARES AND SQUARE
133
– MATH REVIEW –
COMMON SQUARES AND SQUARE ROOTS

SQUARES SQUARE ROOTS
12 = 1 72 = 49 132 = 169 =1

1 49=7
16
9 = 13
22 = 4 82 = 64 142 = 196 =2

4 64=8
19
6 = 14
32 = 9 92 = 81 152 = 225 =3

9 81=9
22
5 = 15
42 = 16 102 = 100 162 = 256 16=4

10
0 = 10 25
6 = 16
52 = 25 112 = 121 202 = 400 25=5

12
1 = 11 40
0 = 20
62 = 36 122 = 144 252 = 625 36=6

14
4 = 12 62
5 = 25
You can multiply and divide square roots, but It is a little more difficult to distribute a signed num-
you cannot add or subtract them: ber, because you have to remember that the negative
sign must be used in each step of multiplication:
a + b ≠ a

+b a b = a b –8(2 – 6h) = (–8)(2) – (–8)(6h) = –16 – (–48h)
a
b =
a
a – b ≠ a
–b = –16 + 48h
b
How to Solve an Equation

Use the previous rules to solve these problems in Example: 5 – 2(3x + 1) = 7x – 8
squares and square roots.
1. Remove parentheses by
______ 104. 4 × 9 = ? distribution: 5 – 6x – 2 = 7x – 8
2. If there are like terms on

16
______ 105. = ?
49 the same side of the
equals sign, combine them: 3 – 6x = 7x – 8
______ 106. 400
64
= ? 3. Decide where you want
all of the x terms. Put all
Parentheses and the the x terms on one side by + 6x = + 6x
Distributive Property addition and subtraction: 3 = 13x – 8
Another skill you’ll need when working with alge- 4. Get all the constants on
braic equations is how to handle parentheses. When the other side by 3 = 13x – 8
there is a number directly to the left or the right of addition and subtraction: +8 = +8
parentheses, that means the items inside the paren- 11 = 13x
theses are being multiplied by that number. The dis- 11
13x
5. Solve for x: 13 = 13

tributive property helps us to get rid of parentheses 11
13 =x
by allowing us to multiply the numbers on the inside
by the number on the outside. It works like this:
5(y – 7 + 3w) = 5(y) – 5(7) + 5(3w)

= 5y – 35 + 15w
(11k – 13r)2 = 11k(2) – 13r(2) = 22k – 26r
134
– MATH REVIEW –
______ 107. 3(x + 5) = –9 n The midpoint is a point on a line segment that

divides it into two line segments of equal
______ 108. –2 – 4(7 x) = 6x length. M is the midpoint of line segment AB.
• • •
A M B
n
Geometry Two line segments of the same length are said
to be congruent. Congruent line segments
Geometry questions cover points, lines, planes, an- are indicated by the same mark on each line
gles, triangles, rectangles, squares, and circles. You segment.
may be asked to determine the area or perimeter of a
X
particular shape, the measure of an angle, the length •
of a line, and so forth.
• ll ll •
Points, Lines, and Planes A W B
What Is a Point?
A point has position but no size or
•
dimension. It is usually represented Y
by a dot named with an uppercase n A line segment (or line) that divides another
letter: •A line segment into two congruent line segments
is said to bisect it. XY bisects AB since AW
What Is a Line? is congruent to BW. (Congruency is shown by
A line consists of an infinite number of points that drawing hash marks of equal number through
extend endlessly in both directions. each segment, as can be seen here.)
X
A line can be named in two ways: •
1. by a letter at one end (typically in lowercase): l
l • • • ll ll •
A B A W B
2. by two points on the line: ៭AB
៮៬ or ៭BA
៮៬
•
The following terminology is frequently used on math Y
tests: n A ray is a section of a line that has one end-
n Points are collinear if they lie on the same line.
point. The ray below is indicated as ៮៬AB .
Points J, U, D, and I are collinear.
l • • • • A B
J U D I
n A line segment is a section of a line with two What Is a Plane?
endpoints. The line segment below is indicated A plane is like a flat surface with no thickness. Al-
as
A
B. though a plane extends endlessly in all directions, it
• • is usually represented by a four-sided figure and
A B
135
– MATH REVIEW –
named by an uppercase letter in a corner of the An angle’s size is based on the opening between
plane: K. its sides. Size is measured in degrees (°). The smaller
K the angle, the fewer degrees it has. Angles are classi-
fied by size. Notice how the arc shows which of two
angles is indicated:
•A
•B
Acute angle: less than 90°
Points are coplanar if they lie on the same plane.

Points A and B are coplanar.
Angles
An angle is formed when two lines, segments, or rays Right angle: exactly 90°
meet at a point:
The lines are called the sides of the angle, and the
point where they meet is called the vertex of the
angle.
The little box indicates a right angle. A right angle is
The symbol used to indicate an angle is ⬔. formed by two perpendicular lines.
There are three ways to name an angle: Straight angle: exactly 180°
180°
n by the letter that labels the vertex: ⬔B •
n by the three letters that label the angle: ⬔ABC
or ⬔CBA, with the Obtuse angle: more than 90° and less than 180°
vertex letter in the middle
n by the number inside the vertex: ⬔1
A
1
B C
136
– MATH REVIEW –
Special Angle Pairs Hook: To prevent confusing complementary and

n Congruent angles: two angles that have the supplementary:
same degree measure. C comes before S in the alphabet, and 90
comes before 180.
Congruent angles are marked the same way. Complementary: 90°
Supplementary: 180°
n Vertical angles: two angles that are opposite

each other when two lines cross.
A B Two sets of vertical angles are formed:
⬔1 and ⬔4
The symbol is used to indicate that two angles are
⬔2 and ⬔3
congruent: ⬔A ⬔B.
Vertical angles are congruent which means ⬔1 ⬔4
and ⬔2 ⬔3.
n Complementary angles: two angles whose sum
is 90°.
1
2 3
⬔ABD and ⬔DBC are complementary angles. 4
⬔ABD is the complement of ⬔DBC, and vice versa. n When two lines cross, the adjacent angles (an-
A gles that are next to each other) are supplemen-
tary and combine to make a straight angle of
D
180°. The sum of all four angles is 360°.
Angle-pair problems tend to ask for an angle’s com-

B C plement or supplement.
n Supplementary angles: two angles whose sum Example: If the measure of ⬔2 = 70°, what are
is 180°. the measures of the other three angles?
1. ⬔2 ⬔3 because they’re vertical angles.

⬔ABD and ⬔DBC are supplementary angles.
Therefore, ⬔3 = 70°.
⬔ABD is the supplement of ⬔DBC, and vice versa. 2. ⬔1 and ⬔2 are adjacent angles and therefore
supplementary.
D
Thus, ⬔1 = 110° (180° – 70° = 110°).
3. ⬔1 ⬔4 because they’re also vertical angles.
A C
B
1
2 3
4
Therefore, ⬔4 = 110°.
Check: Add the angles to be sure their sum is
360°.
137
– MATH REVIEW –
To solve geometry problems more easily, draw a Special Line Pairs

picture if one is not provided. Try to draw the picture Parallel Lines
to scale. As the problem presents information about Parallel lines lie in the same plane and don’t cross at
the size of an angle or line segment, label the corre- any point.
sponding part of your picture to reflect the given in-
formation. As you begin to find the missing The arrowheads on the lines indicate that they are
information, label your picture accordingly. parallel. The symbol || is used to indicate that two
lines are parallel: l || m.
These word problems require you to find the mea-
sures of angles. When two parallel lines are crossed by another
line, two groups of four angles each are formed. One
______ 109. In order to paint the second story of group consists of ⬔1, ⬔2, ⬔3, and ⬔4; the other
his house, Alex leaned a ladder against group contains ⬔5, ⬔6, ⬔7, and ⬔8.
the side of his house, making an acute
angle of 58° with the ground. Find the t
size of the obtuse angle the ladder
l 1 2 >
made with the ground. 3 4
m 5 6 >
7 8
58° These angles have special relationships. The eas-

iest way to remember these relationships is to recall
that all the obtuse angles formed are congruent to
______ 110. Confusion Corner is an appropriately each other, and all the acute angles formed are also
named intersection that confuses congruent:
drivers unfamiliar with the area.
Referring to the following street plan, n The four obtuse angles are congruent: ⬔1
find the size of the marked angle. ⬔4 ⬔5 ⬔8.
n The four acute angles are congruent: ⬔2 ⬔3
⬔6 ⬔7.
n The sum of any one acute angle and any one
obtuse angle is 180° because the acute angles
70°
lie on the same line as the obtuse angles.
20°
Don’t be fooled into thinking two lines are par-
allel just because they look parallel. Either the lines
must be marked with similar arrowheads or there
must be an angle pair as just described.
138
– MATH REVIEW –
Perpendicular Lines Polygons

Perpendicular lines lie in the same plane and cross to A polygon is a closed, one-dimensional (flat) figure
form four right angles. formed by three or more connected line segments that
don’t cross each other. Familiarize yourself with the
The little box where the lines cross indicates a following polygons; they are the four most common
right angle. Because vertical angles are equal and the polygons appearing on standardized tests—and in life.
sum of all four angles is 360°, each of the four angles
is a right angle. However, only one little box is needed Triangle
6
to indicate this.
A height
6
C D base
Three-sided polygon; the height is always the per-
pendicular line drawn from the base of the triangle to
B the opposite vertex.
The symbol ^ is used to indicate that two lines
AB ^ ៭៮៬
are perpendicular: ៭៮៬ CD . Square
Don’t be fooled into thinking two lines are per- 5
pendicular just because they look perpendicular. The
problem must indicate the presence of a right angle
5 5
(by stating that an angle measures 90° or by the little
right angle box in a corresponding diagram), or you
must be able to prove the presence of a 90° angle. 5
Determine the measure of the marked angles.
Four-sided polygon with four right angles; all
______ 111. sides are congruent (equal), and each pair of oppo-
site sides is parallel.
75° Rectangle
12
4 4
12
______ 112. Four-sided polygon with four right angles; each
pair of opposite sides is parallel and congruent.
89°
>
>
139
– MATH REVIEW –
Parallelogram Write down the length of each side and add:

3 inches
2 inches
7 inches
4 inches
+ 2 inches
18 inches
Four-sided polygon; opposite sides are both parallel
and congruent, and opposite angles are also con- The perimeter P is 18 inches.
gruent.
Find the perimeters for these word problems:
Perimeter
Perimeter is the distance around a polygon. The ______ 113. 11
word perimeter is derived from peri, which means feet
6
around (as in periscope and peripheral vision), and feet 5
feet
meter, which means measure. Thus perimeter is the
measure around something. There are many everyday 8 3
feet 3 feet
applications of perimeter. For instance, a carpenter feet
measures the perimeter of a room to determine how
many feet of ceiling molding she needs. A farmer
measures the perimeter of a field to determine how ______ 114. 7 inches
many feet of fencing he needs to surround it. 4 inches 4 inches
Perimeter is measured in length units, like feet,
yards, inches, meters, and so on. It is usually repre- 5 inches 5 inches
sented by the letter P.
4 inches 4 inches
7 inches
To find the perimeter of a polygon, add the
Area
lengths of the sides.
Area is the amount of space taken by a figure’s sur-
face. Area is measured in square units.
For instance, a square that is 1 unit on all sides covers
Example: Find the perimeter of the polygon:
1 square unit. If the unit of measurement for each
3" 2"
2" side is feet, for example, then the area is measured in
square feet; other possibilities are units like square
4" inches, square miles, square meters, and so on.
7"
1
1 1
140
– MATH REVIEW –
You could measure the area of any figure by

counting the number of square units the figure occu-
pies. The first two figures are easy to measure because
the square units fit into them evenly, while the follow-
ing two figures are more difficult to measure because
the square units don’t fit into them evenly.
Because it’s not always practical to measure a

particular figure’s area by counting the number of
square units it occupies, an area formula is used. As
each figure is discussed, you’ll learn its area formula.
Although there are perimeter formulas as well, you
don’t really need them as long as you understand that
this perimeter is just the sum of the lengths of the
sides. (The only perimeter formula you will need to
learn is the one for circles, which is called circumfer-
ence and will be introduced later.)
Triangles
A triangle is a polygon with three sides, like those
shown here:
141
– MATH REVIEW –
The symbol used to indicate a triangle is D. Each Isosceles Triangle

vertex—the point at which two lines meet—is named n 2 congruent angles, called base angles; the third
by a capital letter. The triangle is named by the three angle is the vertex angle.
letters at the vertices, usually in alphabetical order: n Sides opposite the base angles are congruent.
DABC. n An equilateral triangle is also isosceles.
c a
l
l
A C
b ( (
There are two ways to refer to a side of a

triangle: Right Triangle
n by the letters at each end of the side: AB n 1 right angle (90°), the largest angle in the
n by the letter—typically a lowercase letter—next triangle

n The side opposite the right angle is the
to the side: c
(Notice that the name of the side is the same as hypotenuse, the longest side of the triangle.
the name of the angle opposite it, except the (Hook: The word hypotenuse reminds us
angle’s name is a capital letter and the side’s of hippopotamus, a very large animal.)
name is a lowercase letter.)
leg hypotenuse
There are two ways to refer to an angle of a
triangle:
n by the letter at the vertex: –A leg
n by the triangle’s three letters, with that angle’s n The other two sides are called legs.
vertex letter in the middle: –BAC or –CAB
Area of a Triangle
Types of Triangles To find the area of a triangle, use this formula:
Triangles can be classified in two ways: by the sizes of
their angles or by the lengths of their sides.
A = 12(bh)
Equilateral Triangle
n Three congruent angles, each 60°
Although any side of a triangle may be called its
n Three congruent sides
base, it’s often easiest to use the side on the bottom.
To use another side, rotate the page and view the tri-
Hook to help you remember: The word equilateral
angle from another perspective.
comes from equi, meaning equal, and lat, meaning
side. Thus, all equal sides.
l
142
– MATH REVIEW –
A triangle’s height is always the perpendicular Example: Find the area of a triangle with a 2-
line drawn from the angle opposite the base to the inch base and a 3-inch height.
base. Depending on the triangle, the height may be
inside, outside, or on the triangle. Notice the height
of the second triangle: We extended the base to draw
the height perpendicular to the base. The third trian- 3"
gle is a right triangle: One leg is used as the base and
the other leg is its height, since the two legs form a 2"
90° angle.
1. Draw the triangle as close to scale as you can.
2. Label the size of the base and height.
3. Write the area formula;
then substitute the base
height and height numbers into it: A = 12(bh)
4. The area of the triangle is A = 12(2 × 3)
3 square inches. A = 12 × 6
base
A=3
Find the area of the triangles.

height
______ 115.
base base
extension
6
4
height
______ 116.
base 4
Hook: Think of a triangle as being half a
rectangle. The area of that triangle is half the 9
area of the rectangle.
Triangle Rules
1
}2} The following rules tend to appear more frequently
1 on standardized tests than other rules. A typical test
}2}
question follows each rule.
A C
143
– MATH REVIEW –
The sum of the angles in a triangle is 180°: The longest side of a triangle is opposite the
⬔A + ⬔B + ⬔C = 180° largest angle. This rule implies that the second-
longest side is opposite the second-largest an-
gle, and the shortest side is opposite the
Example: One base angle of an isosceles triangle is shortest angle.
30°. Find the vertex angle.
l l largest angle
30° 30°
1. Draw a picture of an isosceles triangle. Drawing shortest

side
it to scale helps: Since it is an isosceles triangle,
smallest
draw both base angles the same size (as close to largest side angle
30° as you can) and make sure the sides oppo-
site them are the same length. Label one base
Example: In the triangle shown below, which
angle as 30°.
side is the shortest?
2. Since the base angles are congruent, label the
other base angle as 30°.
A
3. There are two steps needed to find the vertex
angle:
n Add the two base angles together:
30° + 30° = 60° 46° B

n The sum of all three angles is 180°. To find
C
the vertex angle, subtract the sum of the
1. Determine the size of ⬔A, the missing angle,
two base angles (60°) from 180°:
by adding the two known angles and then
180° – 60° = 120°
subtracting their sum from 180°:
Thus, the vertex angle is 120°.
90° + 46° = 136°.
Thus, ⬔A is 44°. 180° – 136° = 44°
Check: Add all three angles together to make
2. Since ⬔A is the smallest angle, side BC,
sure their sum is 180°:
30° + 30° + 120° = 180° 4
which is opposite ⬔A, is the shortest side.
Find the missing angles.
______ 117. K
40°
l
J L
144
– MATH REVIEW –
______118. N 2. Side c is the hypotenuse because it is the side

opposite the right triangle. Substitute the
given sides for two of the letters: a 3 and
M 75° 25° P c5
32 b2 52
The Pythagorean Theorem 9 b2 25
The Pythagorean theorem is a special rule about side 3. To solve this equation, –9 –9
subtract 9 from both sides: 2
b 16
lengths that applies only to right triangles. It states
that the sum of the squares of the legs of a right trian- 4. Then, take the square root
gle is equal to the square of the hypotenuse. The fol- of both sides. b2 16
lowing formula shows how this is normally Thus, the missing side has
represented. (It is standard to label the hypotenuse as a length of 4 units: b 4
c and the legs as a and b, but a right triangle doesn’t
have to be labeled that way.) Simplifying Radicals
radical sign
3
w
Ï48
index
The Pythagorean theorem:
a2 + b2 = c2
radicand
(c is the hypotenuse)
You often have to simplify square roots of numbers

that are not perfect squares. Let’s talk about how to
c simplify radicals of non-perfect squares. This will help
a
you simplify square roots when applying the
b Pythagorean theorem.
A radical is in simplified form if there is no per-
Example: What is the length of the missing fect square factor of the radicand, or number within
side of the preceding triangle? the square root symbol.
In order to simplify a square root with a non-
1. We find the length of the missing side by perfect square, rewrite the radicand as the product of
using the Pythagorean theorem: two numbers, making sure that one of the numbers is
a perfect square. (A perfect square is a number whose
5 square root is a whole number.) Once the radicand is
3
written as the product of a perfect square and a non-
perfect square, the simplified radicand will be rewrit-
a2 b2 c2 ten as the product of the square roots of the perfect
square times the remaining non-perfect square,
which is still in the radical sign.
.
Example: Simplify 50
50
= 25
× 2 = 25
×2 = 52
145
– MATH REVIEW –
Now simplify these radicals: Find the perimeter and area of each triangle. Hint:
Use the Pythagorean theorem.
______ 119. 242

______ 121.
______ 120. 75

3
Perimeter of Right Triangles
Find the perimeter of the right triangle.
3
1. Use the Pythagorean theorem to find the length
of the missing side. Let a = 6 and c = 20. We ______ 122.
find the value of b. 13
20 12
6 ______ 123. Irene is fishing at the edge of a
40-foot-wide river, directly across from
her friend Sam, who is fishing at the
edge of the other side. Sam’s friend
a2 + b2 = c2
Arthur is fishing 30 feet down the
62 + b2 = 202
river from Sam. How far is Irene
36 + b2 = 400
from Arthur?
b2 = 364
b = 364
A 30 ft. S
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
b = 4 ×91

b = 291 40 ft.
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
)
2. Now, find the perimeter of the triangle. Add the

I
length of all three sides. Add the whole num-
bers together. The radical term is not combined Quadrilaterals
with the whole numbers because of the radi- A quadrilateral is a four-sided polygon. Following are
cals. You can only add or subtract radical terms three quadrilaterals that are most likely to appear on
that have the same radical part. standardized tests (and in life):
P = 6 + 20 + 91
Rectangle
= 26 + 291 8
units.
The perimeter is 26 + 291
4 4
146
– MATH REVIEW –
Square These quadrilaterals have something in com-

4 mon besides having four sides:
n Opposite sides are the same size and parallel.

4 4 n Opposite angles are congruent.
However, each quadrilateral has its own distin-

4
guishing characteristics:
Parallelogram
8
4.5 4.5
QUADRILATERALS
RECTANGLE SQUARE PARALLELOGRAM
SIDES Adjacent sides are not All four sides are the Adjacent sides are not
necessarily the same length. same size. necessarily the same length.
ANGLES All the angles are right All the angles are right The opposite angles are the same
angles. angles. size, but they don’t have to be
right angles. (A rectangle leaning
to one side is a parallelogram.)
Rhombus Trapezoid
Four-sided polygon with two pairs of opposite and Four-sided polygon with exactly one pair of opposite
parallel sides, two pairs of opposite and congruent parallel sides.
angles, and four congruent sides.
147
– MATH REVIEW –
Isosceles Trapezoid Sometimes perimeter formulas are necessary if

you are given the perimeter of a shape and need to
work backward to solve for one of the side lengths.
The formulas for the area of a rectangle and the area
of a square look like this:
Perimeter of square = 4s
Trapezoid whose nonparallel sides (called legs) are (where s = side length)
Perimeter of rectangle/parallelogram =
congruent. The two obtuse angles are congruent and 2l + 2w (where l = length and w = width)
the two acute angles are congruent.
Here are some word problems on perimeters of

The naming conventions for quadrilaterals are simi-
quadrilaterals:
lar to those for triangles:
n The figure is named by the letters at its four
______ 124. What is the length of a side of a square
consecutive corners, usually in alphabetic
room whose perimeter is 58 feet?
order: rectangle ABCD.
n A side is named by the letters at its ends:
a. 8 feet
b. 14 feet
side AB.
n An angle is named by its vertex letter: –A.
c. 14.5 feet
d. 29 feet
e. 232 feet
The sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is 360°:
–A –B –C –D 360°
______ 125. Find the dimensions of a rectangle
with a perimeter of 16 feet and whose
A B
long side is three times its short side.
a. 4 ft. by 4 ft.
b. 4 ft. by 12 ft.
c. 3 ft. by 5 ft.
d. 2 ft. by 6 ft.
D C e. 2 ft. by 8 ft.
Perimeter of Quadrilaterals
Area of Certain Quadrilaterals
To find the perimeter of a quadrilateral, follow this
To find the area of a rectangle, square, or parallelo-
simple rule:
gram, use this formula:
P = Sum of all four sides

A = bh
Shortcut: Take advantage of the fact that the opposite

The base is the size of one of the sides. It is easi-
sides of a rectangle and a parallelogram are equal:
est if you call the side on the bottom the base, but any
Just add two adjacent sides and double the sum. Sim-
side can be a base. The height (or altitude) is the
ilarly, multiply one side of a square by four.
148
– MATH REVIEW –
length of the perpendicular line drawn from the base Now try some area word problems:
to the side opposite it. The height of a rectangle and a
square is the same as the size of its non-base side. ______ 126. Tristan is laying 12-inch-by-18-inch
tiles on the laboratory floor. If the lab
Rectangle measures 15 feet by 18 feet, how many
tiles does Tristan need, assuming
there’s no waste? (Hint: Do all your
height work in either feet or inches.)
a. 12 tiles
b. 120 tiles
base c. 180 tiles
Square d. 216 tiles
e. 270 tiles
height ______ 127. A rectangular operating room has an

area of 63 square meters. Its width is
7 meters. What is the length of the
base operating room?
a. 70 meters
Caution: A parallelogram’s height is not the same b. 9 meters
as the length connecting the base to its opposite side c. 18 meters
(called the slant height), but the size of a perpendicu- d. 49 meters
lar line drawn from the base to the side opposite it. e. 7 meters
Example: Find the area of a rectangle with a Circles

base of 4 meters and a height of 3 meters. We can all recognize a circle when we see one, but its
definition is a bit technical. A circle is a set of points
1. Draw the rectangle as close to scale as possible. that are all the same distance from a given point
2. Label the size of the base and height. called the center. The distance from the center point
3. Write the area formula; to the outside of the circle is called the radius. The
then substitute A bh diameter is twice the length of the radius; it passes
the base and height through the center of the circle.
numbers into it: A 4 × 3 12
Thus, the area is 12 square meters.
diameter
•
ra
di
3
us
center
149
– MATH REVIEW –
Circumference If the answer choices

The circumference (C) of a circle is the distance don’t includep,
around the circle (it is the perimeter of the circle). To substitute 272 or 3.14 C 2 × 272 × 7;
determine the circumference of a circle, use either of forpand multiply: C 44
these two equivalent formulas: C 2 × 3.14 × 7;
C 43.96
C 2pr If the answer choices C 2 ×p× 7;
or includep, just multiply: C = 14
C pd
All the answers—44 inches, 43.96 inches, and
14 inches—are considered correct.
n r is the radius Example: What is the diameter of a circle with

n d is the diameter a circumference of 62.8 centimeters? Use 3.14
n p is approximately equal (denoted by for p.
the symbol ) to 3.14 or 272
Note: Math often uses letters of the Greek al-

•
phabet, like p (pi). Perhaps that’s what makes math
seem like Greek to some people! In the case of the cir-
cle, you can use p as a hook to recognize a circle ques-
tion: A pie is shaped like a circle. 1. Draw a circle with its diameter and write the
diameter version of the circumference formula
Example: Find the circumference of a circle (because you’re asked to find the diameter):
whose radius is 7 inches. C pd
2. Substitute 62.8 for the circumference,
3.14 for p, and solve the equation:
• 7 in. 62.8 = 3.14d
62.8
____ 31.4d
_____
3.14 = 3.14 (divide both sides by 3.14)
20 = d
So the diameter is equal to 20 centimeters.
1. Draw this circle and write
the radius version of the
These word problems require you to find the circum-
circumference formula
ference:
(because you’re given the
radius): C 2pr
______ 128. What is the circumference of a circular
2. Substitute 7 for the radius: C 2(p)7
room whose diameter is 15 feet?
3. On a multiple-choice test,
a. 7.5p ft.
look at the answer choices
b. 15p ft.
to determine whether to
c. 30p ft.
leave p in your answer or
d. 45p ft.
substitute the value of p
e. 225p ft.
in the formula.
150
– MATH REVIEW –
p, use 3.14 forp(because

______ 129. What is the approximate circumfer- If the answers don’t include A 3.14 ×
ence of a round tower whose radius is 2.3 × 2.3
3121 feet? the radius is a decimal): A 16.6
a. 10 ft. If the answers includep,
b. 20 ft. multiply and round: A p× 2.3 × 2.3
c. 33 ft. A 5.3
d. 40 ft. Both answers—16.6 square inches and 5.3
e. 48 ft. square inches—are correct.
______ 130. Find the circumference of a water pipe Example: What is the diameter of a circle with
whose radius is 1.2 inches. an area of 9p square centimeters?
a. 1.2p in.
b. 1.44p in. 1. Draw a circle with its diameter
c. 2.4p in. (to help you remember that the
d. 12p in. question asks for the diameter);
2. Substitute 9pfor the area and

e. 24p in. then write the area formula: A pr 2
Area of Circles solve the equation: 9ppr 2

The area of a circle is the space its surface occupies. 9 r2
To determine the area of a circle, use this formula: Since the radius is 3 centimeters,
the diameter is 6 centimeters. 3r
A pr 2
Try these word problems on the area of a circle:
Hook: To avoid confusing the area and circumference
formulas, just remember that area is always measured ______ 131. What is the area in square inches of the
in square units, like 12 square yards of carpeting. Thus, bottom of a beaker with a diameter of
the area formula is the one with the squared term in it. 6 inches?
a. 6p square inches
Example: Find the area of the circle below, b. 9p square inches
rounded to the nearest tenth: c. 12p square inches
d. 18p square inches
e. 36p square inches
• 2.3 in.
______ 132. A hospital serves the residents living
within a 12-mile radius of the hospital.
What is the approximate area, in
1. Write the area formula: A pr 2
square miles, of the region served
2. Substitute 2.3 for the radius: A p× 2.32
by the hospital?
3. On a multiple-choice test,
a. 144 square miles
look at the answer choices
b. 452 square miles
por an approximate value
to determine whether to use
c. 24 square miles
d. 48 square miles
ofp(decimal or fraction) in
e. 113 square miles
the formula.
151
– MATH REVIEW –
______ 133. If a circular parking lot covers an area Answers to Math Problems
of 2,826 square feet, what is the size of
its radius? (Use 3.14 for p.) Word Problems
a. 30 ft. 1. a.
b. 60 ft. 2. e.
c. 90 ft. 3. b.
d. 450 ft. 4. e.
e. 900 ft.
Fractions
1
5.
4
2
6.
5
3
7.
8
8. 10
9. 6
10. 200
29
11.
30
55 7
12. or 224
24
13. 714
2
14. 15
1
15.
8
19 7
16. or 112
12
17. a.
18. b.
2
19. 15
8
20. 35
2
21.
3
26
22.
15 or 11115
23. 15
33
24.
2 or 1612
25. b.
26. e.
27. c.
1
28.
2
152
– MATH REVIEW –
29. 512 Percents

1
30. 5 54. 45%
29
31. 46 55. 0.8%
32. a. 56. 16.9%
33. d. 57. 0.12
34. b. 58. 0.875
59. 2.5
Decimals
1 60. 12.5% or 1212%
35.
80
61. 52%
36. 31225
456 57 62. 58.3% or 5813%
37. 123
1,000 or 123 125

19
63.
20
38. 908.095
3
64.
8
39. 0.907
5 1
65. or 1
4 4
40. 1.456
1
66. or 0.25
4
41. b.
67. 9.1
42. d.
68. 267
43. 0.03
69. 75
44. 0.3392
70. 50%
45. 0.70104
71. 3313%
46. e.
72. 300%
47. e.
73. 100
48. 1.4
74. 8
49. 128
75. 10
50. 572
76. c.
51. 1,400
77. c.
52. b.
78. c.
53. c.
79. d.
153
– MATH REVIEW –
Averages Geometry
80. c. 109. 122°
81. c. 110. 20°
82. b. 111. 75°
112. 91° (The horizontal lines are not parallel.)
Length and Time 113. 36 feet
83. 24 114. 40 inches
84. 30 115. 12 square units
85. 1,600 116. 18 square units
86. 2.94 117. ⬔J = ⬔L = 70°
87. 8 ft. 118. ⬔N = 80°
88. 21 km 170 m 119. 112
89. 1 ft. 4 in. 120. 53
90. 7 cm 8 mm 121. Perimeter = 6 + 32 units
91. d. Area = 4.5 square units
92. e. 122. Perimeter = 30 units
93. d. Area = 30 square units
123. 50 feet
Algebra 124. c.
94. x=7 125. d.
95. x=6 126. c.
96. 28 127. b.
97. x = –9 128. b.
98. 8 129. b.
99. 40 130. c.
100. 5 131. b.
101. –45 132. b.
102. 16 133. a.
103. 36p
104. 6
105. 47
106. 12
107. x = –8
108. x = –15
154
HealthOcc_07_155-186_LearningExpress 5/30/17 10:19 AM Page 155
7
C H A P T E R
BIOLOGY REVIEW
CHAPTER SUMMARY
This chapter reviews the key biology concepts tested by health
occupations entrance exams. After surveying the important con-
cepts and testing yourself with the sample questions in this
chapter, you will know where to concentrate further studies.
Biology Review: Important Concepts
I. General Introduction
A. Description of How Health Occupations Entrance Exams Test Biology

Health occupations entrance exams do not measure scientific knowledge in the same way. The natural sciences
section of the Health Occupations Aptitude Exam (HOAE) is made up of approximately 65 multiple-choice
questions, which can include biology questions. Other entrance exams, like the Health Occupations Basic En-
trance Test (HOBET), require only that you can read and understand college-level scientific material and iden-
tify key scientific concepts. It does not contain a separate test section on biology.
The following subject areas are important for you to know for your entrance exam: cell biology, heredity,
human structure and function, bacteria and viruses, and plants.
B. How to Use This Chapter

This chapter includes major biology concepts you will encounter on the exam. There is also a section on other
content areas that will be helpful to you in taking the test: the scientific method, the origin of life, a brief descrip-
tion of taxonomic classification systems, and the social behavior of animals. The general discussions in this
155
– BIOLOGY REVIEW –
chapter, lists of terms and concepts, and “You Should b. Eukaryotic Cells
Review’’ sections are meant to guide you in your Eukaryotic cells: cells found in all organisms ex-
studies—they are not exhaustive and must be supple- cept bacteria and archaea. These cells contain or-
mented with a good college textbook, a reliable med- ganelles, including a nucleus.
ical dictionary and dictionary of biology, and a fair
amount of general reading on the subject. 3. Organization of a Cell
After each main subject heading in this chapter, Cells contain specialized structures, and each
you will find several sample questions that represent serves a specific purpose.
the content and level of difficulty of the questions
that will appear on the test. You should first read Nucleus: The membrane-enclosed organelle
through the outline and try to answer the sample that houses the genetic material in eukary-
questions, and then make notes on those areas in otic cells. Prokaryotic cells do not have a
which you need more work. After that, you will want nucleus.
to go to your source material and review all subject Organelle: A specialized compartment within a
areas, with special emphasis on those areas where you cell that is designed to perform a specific
feel least confident. function. Only eukaryotes possess
Allow yourself plenty of time to prepare before organelles.
the exam. Remember that thorough preparation is Cell membrane: A primarily phospholipid
the most important factor in test-taking success. By boundary that separates the cell interior
studying and taking practice tests, you become famil- from its exterior. Found in all types of cells.
iar with subject areas and typical test questions, Cytoplasm: The material inside the cell mem-
boosting your ability to do your best on the exam. brane of a cell but outside of the nucleus. In
eukaryotes, the cytoplasm includes the or-
ganelles (except the nucleus) and the liquid
II. Main Topics that surrounds them. In prokaryotes, the
cytoplasm includes everything inside the
A. Cell Biology cell membrane.
1. Definition of a Cell Chromosome: A long threadlike structure car-
The cell is the structural and functional unit of life. rying genes in a linear sequence, consisting
The cell theory, generally credited to Schleiden of DNA and protein. Human beings possess
(1838) and Schwann (1839), maintains that 46 chromosomes. In eukaryotes, chromo-
somes are found in the nucleus. The chro-
n All living things are made up of cells and the mosome in prokaryotes forms a circular
products formed by cells. coil known as a plasmid.
n Cells are the basic units of structure and func- Ribosomes: Responsible for protein assembly.
tion. The ribosome receives messenger RNA
n All cells arise from preexisting cells. (mRNA) and translates it into proteins.
Found in all types of cells.
2. Two Types of Cells Cell wall: A semirigid outer layer that lies out-
a. Prokaryotic Cells side the cell membrane. It gives structural
Prokaryotic cells: cells found only in bacteria and support and protection to the cell. Cell walls
archaea. These cells lack a true nucleus and other are found in plant, bacterial, fungal, and
subcellular structures called organelles. algal cells.
156
Mitochondria: The “power plant” of the cell. Vacuoles: Compartments in the cell that store
The mitochondria are responsible for gener- and isolate various items depending on a
ating most of the cell’s energy (in the form of cell’s needs. These organelles are found
ATP). Found in eukaryotes. primarily in plant cells, but may also be
Chloroplasts: The organelle responsible for observed in other organisms.
photosynthesis. Chloroplasts contain ma- Cilia: Finger-like projections found in eukary-
chinery that allows them to extract energy otes that primarily serve as sensors for the
from light and convert it to ATP or to convert cell. In more complex organisms, cilia along
carbon dioxide to sugars, releasing oxygen. multiple cells can also be used to transport
Golgi apparatus: The organelle responsible for small particles—for example, to sweep
packaging and processing complex macro- particles out of the trachea.
molecules before they are shipped to other Flagella: Similar to cilia, flagella are tail-like
parts of the cell. Found in eukaryotes. structures that protrude from the cell and
Lysosomes: Organelles found primarily in ani- are used to control the motion of the cell.
mal cells and in some plant cells as well. Found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Lysosomes are compartments that envelop Centrioles: Found in animal cells, these
and destroy waste materials within the cell. organelles aid in the process of cell
division.
PROKARYOTES EUKARYOTES
BACTERIA AND ARCHAEA PLANTS ANIMALS
Nucleus 4 4
Organelle 4 4
Cell membrane 4 4 4
Cytoplasm 4 4 4
Chromosome(s) 4 4 4
Ribosomes 4 4 4
Cell wall 4 4
Mitochondria 4 4
Chloroplasts 4
Endoplasmic reticulum 4 4
Golgi apparatus 4 4
Lysosomes 4 4
Vacuoles 4 4
Cilia 4
Flagella 4 4
Centrioles 4 4
157
4. Energy Transformation in a Cell Catabolism: the metabolic breakdown of mole-

a. General Discussion of Energy cules (for example, respiration).
The two concepts most basic to science are matter Cellular respiration: a catabolic pathway for
and energy. the production of ATP, in which oxygen is
Matter: anything that has mass and takes up sometimes consumed along with an organic
space (volume) fuel (food). At other times, the process pro-
Energy: the capacity to do work ceeds without atmospheric oxygen, but this
is less efficient.
There are two types of energy: kinetic and n Anaerobic pathway of cellular respira-
potential. tion: Food (especially carbohydrates) is

partially oxidized and chemical energy is
Kinetic energy: the energy an object possesses released; however, atmospheric oxygen is
due to its motion not involved in the process.
Potential energy: the energy stored in a system n Aerobic pathway of cellular respiration:
(e.g., in the chemical bonds of ATP or in a Food is completely oxidized to carbon
compressed spring) dioxide and water, and chemical energy is
released; atmospheric oxygen is involved
b. Thermodynamics
in the process. The Krebs cycle, electron-
Thermodynamics: the physics of what is and is
transport chain, and oxidative phosphory-
not possible with regard to energy.
lation are important concepts here.
First law of thermodynamics: Energy can be
Photosynthesis: conversion of light energy into
transferred and transformed, but it can-
chemical energy, on which, directly or indi-
not be created or destroyed (conservation
rectly, all living things depend. Photosynthesis
of energy).
occurs in plants, algae, and certain prokaryotes.
Second law of thermodynamics: Every en-
ergy transfer or transformation results in d. Enzymology
the release of heat from the system to the Enzymology: the study of the speed of the
rest of the universe. transformation of energy in a cell; enzymes
are biological catalysts that accelerate the rate
c. Cell Metabolism
of a reaction without themselves being con-
Cell metabolism: energy management by a cell.
sumed by that reaction.
Many metabolic reactions occur within a
cell, aided by enzymes. e. Movement of Molecules
Bioenergetics: the study of how organisms Small molecules are steadily transported across the
manage energy, including heat production cell membrane. Types of transport include diffu-
and transfer; and regulation of body temper- sion and passive transport; osmosis (a special
ature (endothermy and ectothermy). case of passive transport); and active transport.
Metabolism: the totality of chemical reactions
that take place in an organism. 5. Cell Reproduction
Anabolism: the metabolic synthesis of pro- a. General Discussion of Cell Reproduction
teins, fats, etc., from simpler molecules; re- All cells arise from other cells. The basis of all bio-
quires energy in the form of adenosine logical reproduction is cell division. A single, intact
triphosphate (ATP). chain of life extends backward from today to the
first bacteria on Earth.
158
Prokaryotes often reproduce by binary fission, chromosomes. For descriptive purposes,

or division into identical halves. Eukaryotes have mitosis is divided into phases: prophase,
much more complicated genomes, and therefore, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
the process of reproduction is more complex. Prophase: DNA fibers (chromatin) condense
into chromosomes, the nuclear envelope
b. The Cell Cycle breaks down, and spindles begin to form at
The cell cycle describes the entire reproductive life the poles of the cell.
cycle of a cell and occurs in an orderly sequence. The Metaphase: Chromosomes align at the center
cell cycle can be divided into interphase, where most of the cell.
time is spent, and M phase, where cell mitosis (divi- Anaphase: Chromosomes split, and sister chro-
sion) occurs. Each of these phases can be divided matids separate to opposite poles of the cell.
into smaller components. When not dividing or Telophase: Nuclear envelopes re-form around
preparing to divide, the cell exists in a resting state, separated sister chromatids.
known as G0 phase. G0 phase follows cell division. Cytokinesis: Division of the cytoplasm into
two identical daughter cells, which occurs
c. Interphase during the telophase stage of mitosis.
Interphase is the time when the cell grows, takes in
nutrients, and copies its DNA. It can be divided e. Control of Cell Division
into three shorter phases. A certain timing and rate of division are necessary
to normal growth. Cell division can be interfered
G1 phase: The point in the cell life cycle where with by lack of nutrients, poisons, lack of growth
most cell growth occurs, organelles are syn- factors (for example, platelet-derived growth fac-
thesized, and nutrients are collected. Only tor or PDGF), cell size, and density.
when certain safeguards are met will the cell
move on to the next phase. The boundary f. When Things Go Wrong
between the G1 and S phases is called the In abnormal cell division (e.g., cancer), cells do not
restriction point because the safeguards here heed the restriction point; they may divide exces-
can restrict abnormal cells from dividing. sively, invading surrounding tissue. If given
S phase: Chromosomes are replicated. During enough nutrients, they may divide “forever’’ (see
this phase, minimal RNA transcription takes “immortal’’ or HeLa cells); or abnormal cells may
place. stop dividing at any point in the cell cycle, not just
G2 phase: The last phase before mitosis. Criti- at the restriction point.
cal machinery is manufactured within the
cell to enable cell division to occur. At the You Should Review
end of G2 phase, M phase begins. n the structure and function of prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells; comparison of the two
d. M phase n the composition, structure, and function of
It is during M phase that division of the nucleus and organelles: nucleus (chromosomes and nucleo-
cytoplasm occurs (replication of the chromosomes lus); ribosomes; rough endoplasmic reticulum;
was completed during the S phase of interphase). smooth endoplasmic reticulum; Golgi appara-
tus; lysosomes; peroxisomes; central vacuole in
Mitosis: division of the nucleus; distribution of plants; mitochondria; chloroplasts in plants
nuclear materials, particularly and some protists; cytoskeleton; cell wall in
159
plants, fungi, and some protists; glycocalyx in n how cell division is controlled
animals; and intercellular junctions n main features of abnormal cell division
n cell membrane structure and function n the following terms and concepts (among oth-
n major features of bioorganic molecules; ers): genome, haploid nucleus, diploid nucleus,
makeup of amino acids; genetic code (codons) chromatin, chromosome, centriole, atrophy,
for amino acids karyolysis, nucleic acid (especially DNA and
n why compartmental organization is important RNA), pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, uracil),
in eukaryotic cells and an understanding of the purines (guanine and adenine), nucleotide,
way in which the various compartments inter- transcription, translation, meiosis (do not
relate—i.e., how organelles “cooperate’’ confuse with mitosis), basal metabolic rate
n biological membranes and the importance of
their selective permeability; the fluid mosaic Questions
model of cell membrane structure; structure and 1. Most of a cell membrane’s specific functions
function of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates are controlled by
n differences between organelles of cells found in a. lipids.
organisms in the various kingdoms. (For more b. proteins.
on classification of living organisms, see page c. plasma.
183.) d. nitrogen.
n properties of energy
n heat production and transfer mechanisms in 2. The basic method by which chloroplasts and
various species; regulation of body temperature mitochondria generate ATP is
n ATP: structure and hydrolysis; how it performs; a. oxidation.
regeneration from ADP and phosphate; meta- b. photorespiration.
bolic disequilibrium; ATP synthases c. respiration.
n metabolic map—the catabolic and anabolic d. chemiosmosis.
pathways
n control of metabolism: feedback inhibition 3. Which of the following regions exists just
n how body size affects metabolic rate outside the nuclear membrane of most animal
n enzymes (most of which are proteins): six ma- cells?
jor groups (oxidoreductases, transferases, hy- a. the centrosome
drolases, lyases, isomerases, ligases) and the b. the equatorial plane
ways in which the various classes work; molec- c. the organelle
ular structure; how enzymes function as bio- d. the pellicle
logical catalysts; types and shapes of active sites;
response to environmental conditions; enzyme 4. The decay of a leaf after it falls from a tree
inhibitors indicates an increase in its
n coenzymes, especially vitamins: classifications a. ecological efficiency.
and functions b. entropy.
n cellular respiration c. metabolic disequilibrium.
n basic mechanisms of prokaryotic and eukary- d. estivation.
otic cell reproduction
n the cell cycle
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5. The sodium-potassium pump is an example of Answers

a. passive transport. 1. b. Although a cell membrane’s main fabric is
b. active transport. made of lipids, its specific functions are
c. osmosis. largely determined by proteins.
d. diffusion. 2. d. Chemiosmosis is the term used for this
process. It is important to cellular work,
6. Phagocytosis is a form of including ATP synthesis.
a. hydrolysis. 3. a. The centrosome (also called the microtubule-
b. exocytosis. organizing center) is found in all eukaryotic
c. glycolysis. cells and is important during cell division.
d. endocytosis. 4. b. Entropy (symbol S) is the quantitative
measure of a system’s disorder or random-
7. Which of the following is found in both plant ness. As systems—whether houses, people,
and animal cells? leaves, or stars—break down and undergo
a. chloroplasts irreversible changes, making less energy
b. centrioles available to them, their entropy increases.
c. flagella 5. b. In active transport, the cell provides energy
d. ribosomes to move substances across a membrane. The
sodium-potassium pump is an example of
8. Which of the following is the electron acceptor active transport. The sodium-potassium
in fermentation? pump uses the energy of ATP to move
a. pyridoxine potassium ions into a cell and sodium
b. pyruvate ions out of a cell.
c. pyrimidine 6. d. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are both
d. pyrrole forms of endocytosis, the process by which
materials enter a cell without passing
9. The small spherical bodies within a cell where through the cell membrane.
proteins are assembled according to genetic 7. d. Chloroplasts are found in plant cells, but
instructions are called not animal cells. Flagella and centrioles are
a. mitochondria. found in animal cells, but not plant cells.
b. ribosomes. Ribosomes are found in both plant and
c. Golgi apparatus. animal cells.
d. lysosomes. 8. b. Pyruvate is the correct answer. Under
anaerobic conditions, like fermentation,
10. The resting or G0 phase of a cell happens after it is converted to lactate or ethanol.
a. anaphase. 9. b. The ribosome is the site of protein
b. interphase. synthesis.
c. cell division. 10. c. A cell enters the resting or G0 phase when it
d. G2 phase. is not dividing or preparing to divide, which
occurs after cell division.
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B. Heredity the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, consisting of

1. Pre-Mendelian Concepts DNA (which stores or contains genetic infor-
Before Mendel’s discoveries, theories included av- mation) and protein. Human beings possess
erages or blending of colors like the mixing of 46 chromosomes; the ovum and sperm each
paints; physical characteristics carried only by the contain 23, of which 22 are autosomes and
male; characteristics carried by blood; small hu- one is a sex chromosome.
man grown large; pangenesis; and others. Chromatin: the substance that composes
eukaryotic chromosomes, consisting mostly
2. Mendelian Inheritance of proteins, DNA, and RNA
a. Mendel’s Experiments Chromatid: a threadlike strand formed as a
Gregor Mendel, the father of classical genetics, was an chromosome condenses during the early
Austrian monk who, in a small monastery, tended a stages of cell division
little garden and did experiments on garden peas, Character (or trait): a heritable feature; for each
which have great variety. He allowed pure strains character, an organism inherits two genes
(one with purple flowers, one with white) to either Genome: all the genes contained in a single
self-pollinate or cross-pollinate, strictly controlling set of chromosomes; an organism’s genetic
the parentage. Cross-pollinated breeds (hybrids) of material
purple and white flowers showed all purple flowers Autosome: a chromosome not directly involved
in the first generation. But when the second genera- in determining sex
tion self-pollinated, the white trait reappeared. Alleles: alternative versions of a gene, one from
Through his work, the theory of dominant and each parent. The existence of alleles explains
recessive traits was formed. why there is variation in inherited traits. An
expressed trait is determined by two alleles.
b. Mendel’s Major Discoveries A dominant allele is fully expressed in the
Mendel found that no averages or blendings take organism’s appearance; a recessive allele has
place; instead, particular characteristics are retained, no noticeable effect unless two recessive
which are either dominant or recessive. Today, we alleles are inherited, in which case, the reces-
know the mechanisms: genes and chromosomes, sive trait will be expressed. For some traits,
made up of DNA. there is incomplete dominance.
Phenotype: an organism’s appearance; its ob-
3. Chromosomal Genetics servable, physical and physiological traits;
Not all of a eukaryotic cell’s genes are located on often depends on environment as well as genes
nuclear chromosomes—some are found in cyto- Genotype: an organism’s genetic makeup (which
plasmic organelles. is not always apparent), its genetic composi-
tion; the combination of alleles it possesses
a. Genes and Chromosomes
Gene: a discrete heritable unit of information b. Punnett Square
located on the chromosomes and made up A Punnett square is a convenient tool for deter-
of DNA mining possible genotypes and phenotypes when
Chromosome: a long threadlike structure car- two organisms with known genotypes are crossed.
rying genes in a linear sequence, found in For example, if two blue flowers with a heterozy-
gous genotype—one dominant blue allele (B) and
162
one recessive white allele (b)—are crossed, the off- grees, one can analyze genetic traits, from harmless
spring can have one of three genotypes with the (such as eye color and texture of hair) to harmful
following probabilities: BB (25%), Bb (50%), or bb or lethal (such as the diseases discussed in the next
(25%). There is a 75% chance the offspring will section). Various tests for genetic defects are also
carry a blue phenotype. useful in the study of human genetics.
B b
5. Treatment of Genetic Diseases and
B BB Bb
Genetic Engineering
b Bb bb
a. Genetic Diseases
Although most harmful alleles are recessive, some
c. DNA and RNA genetic combinations can lead to lethal conditions.
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid): a double- Examples are Huntington’s disease, Tay-Sachs dis-
stranded, helical nucleic acid molecule capa- ease, sickle-cell anemia, and cystic fibrosis, as well
ble of replicating. DNA makes up the genetic as sex-linked disorders such as hemophilia. The
material of most living organisms and plays likelihood of two carriers of the same harmful al-
a central role in determining heredity. lele mating is increased in consanguineous (“same
RNA (ribonucleic acid): a single-stranded nu- blood’’) mating—i.e., mating between two close
cleic acid molecule involved in protein syn- relatives (for example, siblings or first cousins).
thesis, the structure of which is specified by However, consanguineous mating can also lead to
DNA. Messenger RNA (mRNA) is responsi- concentration of favorable alleles.
ble for carrying the genetic code transcribed In addition to simple Mendelian disorders, there
from DNA to specialized sites within a cell are multifactorial disorders, resulting from effects
(ribosomes) where the information is trans- of harmful alleles along with environmental fac-
lated into amino acids, the building blocks tors—for example, heart disease, diabetes, cancer,
of proteins. alcoholism, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder.
Genetic engineering (discussed next) may be im-
4. Molecular and Human Genetics portant in the treatment of some genetic diseases.
a. Molecular Genetics Already, genetic screening and counseling is being
Molecular genetics is a specialized type of molecu- undertaken in many hospitals, using tests along
lar biology, concerned with the analysis of genes. with family history to compute the odds for getting
certain hereditary diseases. Trait recognition in fe-
b. Human Genetics tuses is now possible through various tests, such as
Because human beings are much more complex amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling. Like-
organisms than the ones Mendel studied, and be- wise, newborns can be screened for genetic disor-
cause experimental breeding of humans is socially ders, most of which are untreatable, but a few of
unacceptable, study of human genetics must be which—for example, phenylketonuria—can be
done by analyzing the results of matings that have treated.
already occurred. This is done by examining the
pedigree of the subjects involved—the interrela- b. Genetic Engineering
tionships of parents and children across genera- Begun in the 1970s, genetic engineering is the ma-
tions—and constructing a pedigree chart to study nipulation of genes—that is, inserting new genes
both past and future. Through the study of pedi- into DNA, removing existing genes, or changing
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part of a gene. Here are a few examples of genetic n mutation

engineering in practice: n the Punnett square: a grid representing all pos-
sible genotypic combinations in the second
n The gene for human insulin has been added to generation produced by a male (gametes listed
a common bacterium, so that the bacterium horizontally) and a female (gametes listed verti-
produces insulin; bacteria is grown in tanks cally) of the first generation
and the insulin is then removed for treatment n the process of hybridization
of diabetes. n Mendel’s Law of Segregation (named after the
n Human protein (hormones, enzymes, and sorting of alleles into separate gametes)
other biological chemicals) made in the same n Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment
manner can be used to treat hemophilia, mul- n segregation of genes during gamete production
tiple sclerosis, and other previously untreat- n recessively inherited disorders and dominantly
able diseases. inherited disorders; multifactorial disorders
n New genes can be introduced into farm ani- n Thomas Hunt Morgan’s experiments with
mals to make them larger, or into plants to Drosophila melanogaster (the fruit fly)
make them disease- or insect-resistant. n genetic mapping
n the process of transcribing DNA to mRNA
Scientists have set up regulatory and ethics n discovery of the double helix by Rosalind
committees to regulate genetic engineering be- Franklin, James Watson, and Francis Crick and
cause of the worry that the process might create what the discovery has meant to the study of
dangerous new life forms. genetics
n processes of DNA replication and DNA repair
You Should Review n process of protein synthesis
n Mendel’s experiments with garden peas—self- n the genetic code
pollination and cross-pollination; dominant n the basics of genetic engineering
and recessive characteristics n recombinant DNA and gene cloning
n the genetic basis of variation among individuals n the following terms and concepts (among oth-
in a population ers): homozygous and heterozygous; genotypic
n how to use probability to determine inherited ratio; protein synthesis; transcription; transla-
characteristics; the statistical nature of inheri- tion; linked genes; crossing over; Barr body;
tance or inheritance as a game of chance; the karyotype; complete dominance, incomplete
rule of multiplication and the rule of addition dominance, and codominance; pleiotropy; epis-
n the testcross: breeding of a recessive homozy- tasis; quantitative characters; polygenetic inheri-
gote with an organism of dominant phenotype tance; norm of reaction; gene sequencing;
but unknown genotype pedigree chart
n inheritance patterns based on dominant and
recessive alleles Questions
n the “particulate model’’—that is, parents pass 11. The probabilities for all possible outcomes of
on discrete heritable units an event must add up to
n aneuploidy (chromosomal aberration); also, a. 0.1.
polyploidy (triploidy and tetraploidy), deletion, b. 1.
duplication, inversion, and translocation c. 10.
n genomic imprinting d. 100.
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12. When a red snapdragon is crossed with a white 17. When, in the 1960s, molecular biologists
one, all the F1 hybrids have pink flowers. This performed a series of experiments that showed
is an example of the amino acid translations of each of the
a. inheritance of acquired characteristics. codons of nucleic acids, they
b. the blending theory of inheritance. a. created a model for most later genetic
c. incomplete dominance. studies.
d. codominance. b. called into question an important Mendelian
law.
13. While doing his experiments on garden peas, c. cracked the code of life.
Gregor Mendel was unaware of the d. established the first link between practical
a. laws of probability. and applied genetics.
b. statistical nature of inheritance.
c. existence of particulate inheritance. 18. Lethal recessive mutations are perpetuated by
d. role of chromosomes in inheritance. the reproduction of carriers with normal
a. genotypes.
14. Which of the following is NOT a feature of b. Barr bodies.
Mendel’s Law of Segregation? c. linked genes.
a. The variation in inherited characters is caused d. phenotypes.
by alternative versions of heritable factors.
b. For each character, an organism inherits two 19. In helping determine whether a genetic
heritable factors, one from each parent. disorder is present in a fetus, which of the
c. The two heritable factors for each character following is an alternative to amniocentesis?
segregate during gamete production. a. chorionic villi sampling
d. When heritable factors cannot segregate, b. carrier recognition testing
they must be linked together and then c. RFLP analysis
passed on. d. use of labeled DNA probes
15. Sometimes, a gene at one locus (site) on the 20. The symptoms of sickle-cell anemia occur due
chromosome suppresses the phenotypic to one abnormal gene causing several different
expression of a gene at a different locus. traits. Which type of genetic inheritance causes
This is called sickle-cell anemia?
a. epistasis. a. pleiotropy
b. meiosis. b. codominance
c. carrier recognition. c. polygenetic inheritance
d. consanguinity. d. incomplete dominance
16. In a species of rabbit, black fur (B) is dominant

to brown fur (b). Which of the following could
be the genotype of a rabbit with brown fur?
a. Bb or bb
b. Bb or BB
c. bb only
d. BB only
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Answers 17. c. Cracking the genetic code was one of the

11. b. The probabilities for all possible outcomes most important steps taken in the field of
of an event, added together, must equal 1. molecular biology. Marshall Nirenberg,
For example, in the toss of a two-headed of the National Institutes of Health,
coin, the probability of tossing tails is ᎏ12ᎏ deciphered the first codon in 1961.
and of tossing heads ᎏ12ᎏ; in the throw of a 18. d. Unlike lethal dominant alleles, lethal
six-sided die, the probability of rolling the recessive alleles are masked in the
number 3 is ᎏ16ᎏ, and the probability of heterozygous carriers.
rolling a number other than 3 is ᎏ56ᎏ. 19. a. Chorionic villi sampling is the suctioning
12. c. Incomplete dominance is the correct off of a small amount of fetal tissue from
answer. Characteristics acquired during the villi of the embryonic membrane.
an individual’s lifetime (choice a)—for It yields more rapid results than amnio-
example, increased muscle mass in a centesis, but its risks are comparable.
runner’s legs due to running—are not 20. a. Pleiotropy is a type of inheritance where one
genetically controlled and are therefore gene results in several different traits. The
not heritable. The blending theory of gene responsible for sickle-cell anemia causes
inheritance (choice b) is discredited by abnormal red blood cells, which in turn
Mendel’s experiments with garden peas. cause anemia, blockage in blood vessels,
The blending theory would predict only damage to the kidneys, and other
pink offspring from this crossing, whereas symptoms of the disease.
the reality is that the red or white traits can
appear in the next generation—that is, one C. Structure and Function of
can predict a phenotypic ratio of 1 red to Human Systems
2 pink to 1 white. Codominance (choice d) 1. Integumentary System
arises when both alleles in a heterozygous a. Definition and Structure
organism are dominant and shown in the The integument is the outermost covering of the
phenotype. body and is its largest organ. It consists of the epi-
13. d. Until 1918, most biologists dismissed the dermis (thinner, outermost layer) and dermis
importance of chromosomes in inheritance. (thicker, innermost layer). It also includes special-
Mendel died in 1884. ized structures, the hair, and nails. Within the lay-
14. d. The discovery of linked heritable factors ers, there are also other structures. Beneath the
(now called genes) did not occur until after skin is the subcutaneous tissue.
Mendel’s death. The discovery was made
by Bateson and Punnett of Cambridge b. Function
University in 1906. The integumentary system has the following
15. a. Epistasis (Greek for standing still on) is the functions:
correct answer.
16. c. The recessive trait, brown fur, will be n In cooperation with the immune system, it
expressed only if both alleles for brown provides protection for the body from injury,
fur are present. A species of the rabbit with dehydration, and invasion by harmful agents
brown fur must have two recessive alleles, such as bacteria.
which is the genotype bb.
166
n As a sense organ, it provides sensitivity to n It protects vulnerable organs within the body.
pain, temperature, and pressure. n Along with the muscular system, it makes
n It aids in the regulation of body temperature. body movement possible.
n It stores calcium in the bones, which contain
2. Skeletal System marrow for production of red and white
a. Definition and Structure blood cells and platelets.
The skeleton is the chief structural system which,
along with the skin, provides form and shape to 3. Muscular System
the body. Comprised of 206 bones in adults, along a. Definition and Structure
with cartilage and ligaments, the skeletal system is The muscular system is made up of muscle tissue
rigid, yet flexible because of joints; the bones form in sheets or bundles of cells. Muscles can only
levers that are moved by muscles. contract—relaxation is passive—and are attached
There are two types of tissue that make up to the skeleton, generally in pairs that work against
bone: each other. There are three major types:
1. Cortical, or compact bone is strong and n voluntary (skeletal): can be controlled by

dense. It makes up the hard outer portion conscious thought—for example, the biceps.
of bone that supports the skeletal system. n involuntary (visceral, smooth): cannot be
2. Cancellous, or trabecular bone is spongy. It controlled by the will—for example, the walls
has a high surface area, contains many blood of the esophagus.
vessels, and makes up the inner portion of n cardiac (heart muscles): specialized and par-
bones. ticular to the heart, contract involuntarily, and
are regulated by nervous system intervention.
There are five types of bone:
b. Function
1. Long bones are longer than they are wide— Along with the skeletal system, the muscular sys-
for example, the femur, humerus, tibia, and tem is responsible for flexibility, movement, and
fibula. tension.
2. Flat bones form long, flat plates—for exam-
ple, the cranium and pelvis. 4. Circulatory System
3. Short bones are cube-shaped—for example, a. Definition and Structure
the bones of the wrist and ankle. The circulatory system consists of the cardiovascu-
4. Sesamoid bones are embedded in the lar and lymphatic systems: the heart; blood vessels
tendons—for example, the patella (kneecap). (tubes through which blood is carried to and from
5. Irregular bones are bones that do not fit into the heart, including arteries, arterioles, capillaries,
the aforementioned types—for example, the venules, and veins); blood; lymphatic vessels and
vertebrae of the spine. sinuses; and lymph.
b. Function b. Function
The skeletal system has the following functions: The circulatory system distributes blood and asso-
ciated chemicals throughout the body and under-
n It provides mechanical support. lies all functions within the human body.
167
5. Immune System b. Function

a. Definition and Structure The immune system protects the body from infec-
The immune system is the body’s protective mech- tion (invasion by pathologic agents—microorgan-
anism. It consists of the lymphatic system; the isms or viruses), diseases, and injury-causing
white cells of the blood and bone marrow; the thy- agents.
mus gland; and the outer fortress, the skin. There
are two types of immunity, inherited (natural or 6. Respiratory System
innate) and acquired (active and passive). a. Definition and Structure
The basic characteristics of the immune system The respiratory system consists of the organs re-
include the following concepts: sponsible for the exchange of gases between body
and atmosphere—the lungs (its center), the nose,
n Specificity: the immune system’s capacity to pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and diaphragm.
recognize and get rid of antigens—harmful
pathogens and molecules—by producing b. Function
lymphocytes and antibodies (specific proteins). The respiratory system functions to take in oxygen
An antigen (literally meaning “antibody- and eliminate carbon dioxide.
generating’’) can include anything “foreign’’
to the body, such as the molecules of viruses, 7. Digestive (or Gastrointestinal) System
bacteria, fungi, protozoans, parasitic worms, a. Definition and Structure
pollen, insect poison, and, unfortunately, tis- The digestive system includes the gastrointestinal
sue that has been transplanted from another tract (or alimentary canal), a tube with two open-
person. ings; the mouth and anus, for intake of food and
n Diversity: the immune system’s capacity to elimination of waste; as well as accessory struc-
respond to literally millions of invaders, due tures and organs such as teeth, tongue, liver, pan-
to the great variety of lymphocytes keyed to creas, and gallbladder.
particular antigen markers.
n Self/nonself recognition: the immune system’s b. Function
ability to distinguish its own body’s molecules The digestive system’s function is to break down
(“self’’) from antigens (“nonself’’). food for energy, reabsorb water and nutrients, and
n Memory: the immunological system’s capacity eliminate waste.
to remember formerly encountered antigens
and react more quickly when exposed again— 8. Renal System
called acquired immunity. There are two kinds a. Definition and Structure
of acquired immunity: active, as a response by The renal system consists of
the individual’s own immune system, either
naturally or artificially acquired as through n two kidneys: compact, bean-shaped organs
vaccines; and passive, as a response by anti- through which blood is cycled for removal of
bodies transferred from one person to nitrogenous waste and other substances
another—for example, a mother’s passing n the nephrons or excretory tubules contained
antibodies to the fetus or the artificial intro- within the kidneys
duction of antibodies from an immune n the blood vessels that serve the kidneys
animal or human.
168
n the structures that carry waste, in the form of b. Function

urine, out of the body (ureters, bladder, ure- The nervous system controls the flow of informa-
thra). Urine is 95% water and 5% solids in tion in the body between the sensory and motor
solution, including organic constituents cells and organs.
(urea, uric acid, creatinine) and inorganic
constituents (mainly salts of sodium and 10. Endocrine System
potassium). a. Definition and Structure
The endocrine system is the internal system of
b. Function chemical communication, involving
The renal system removes nitrogenous waste or
toxic byproducts from the blood and maintains n Hormones: substances that regulate growth
homeostasis of blood and body fluids. or functioning of a specific tissue or organ in
a distant part of the body—for example, in-
9. Nervous System sulin, sex hormones, corticosteroids, adrena-
a. Definition and Structure line, thyroxine, and growth hormone
The nervous system is one of two coordinating n the ductless glands that secrete hormones
systems. (The other is the endocrine system, with directly into the interstitial spaces: the pitu-
which the nervous system interacts and cooper- itary, adrenal, thyroid, parathyroid, ovary,
ates.) It is made up of the nerves, brain, and sense testis, placenta, and part of the pancreas
organs for sight, sound, smell, taste, and touch. The n the molecular receptors on or in target cells
nervous system is divided into two parts: that respond to hormones
n the central nervous system: the brain and b. Function

spinal cord In concert with the nervous system, the endocrine
n the peripheral nervous system: the rest of the system affects internal regulation and maintains
neural network—the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, homeostasis. Hormones affect the rate of metabo-
and sacral nerves that branch from the spine lism and metabolism of specific substances,
growth and developmental processes, develop-
The brain is the nervous system’s main control ment and functioning of reproductive organs and
center and consists of three parts: sexual characteristics, development of higher
nervous functions (for example, personality), and
n the cerebral hemispheres, which are responsi- the ability of the body to handle stress and resist
ble for higher functions, such as speech and disease.
hearing
n the cerebellum, which is responsible for 11. Reproductive System
subconscious activities and some balance a. Definition and Structure
functions Reproduction is the method by which new indi-
n the brain stem, which is responsible for viduals are created from existing ones. In humans,
necessary functions such as breathing and this involves two sets of organs, the internal repro-
circulation ductive organs and the external genitalia. Repro-
duction involves the fusion of two haploid
The cells of the nervous system consist of neu- gametes—the female ovum and the male sperma-
rons and supporting cells. tozoon—to form a diploid zygote.
169
The male reproductive system is made up of n Cleavage: zygote divides to form the blastula
n Gastrulation: cells become arranged into
n the external genitalia: the scrotum and penis three primary germ layers
n the internal reproductive organs: the gonads n Organogenesis or organogeny: further cell
(testes) and hormones, accessory glands, and a division and differentiation results in the for-
set of ducts that carry sperm and glandular mation of organs
secretions
At nine weeks, we refer to the growing organism
The female reproductive system is made up of as a fetus. From the third to the ninth month, the
fetus develops until it possesses all the organs nec-
n the external genitalia: the clitoris and two sets essary for life outside the womb.
of labia
n the internal system: the fallopian tubes, ovaries, You Should Review
uterus, vagina, and related organs. The ovaries n the structure of the skin, including sweat pores;
contain thousands of eggs. During a female’s temperature receptors; pain receptors; papillary
fertile years, an egg is released by one of the region; hair and hair follicles; sebaceous glands;
ovaries into the fallopian tube about once a arrector pili; Meissner’s corpuscle; stratum
month. If fertilization occurs, the egg attaches corneum; stratum granulosum; Malpighian
to the wall of the uterus and grows into a fetus. layer; sweat glands and sweat ducts; blood capil-
laries; the Pacinian corpuscles (pressure recep-
b. Function tors); sensory nerves; adipose (fat) tissue
The reproductive system functions to create new indi- n the way the skin functions in the immune system
viduals from existing ones and propagate the species. n the main parts of the skeleton and a little about
their individual functions, including the cranium
c. Fertilization, Descriptive Embryology, and its parts, as well as the mandible, sternum,
and Developmental Mechanics clavicle, rib cage, vertebrae, carpals, metacarpals,
Fertilization (syngamy): the union of male and phalanges, femur, patella, tibia, fibula, metatarsals,
female gametes to form a zygote, in human tarsals, phalanges, scapula, humerus, iliac crest,
sexual reproduction. Each gamete contains ulna, radius, pelvis, coccyx, and ischium
half the correct number of chromosomes; n the structure and function of the synovial
together, they form a full complement. joints: the ball-and-socket, ellipsoidal, gliding,
Embryology: the science that studies the devel- hinged, pivot, saddle, sutures/immovable joints
opment of the human embryo n the way bones, muscle, and cartilage work to-
gether to support weight and enable movement
The development of the embryo occurs roughly n axial versus appendicular skeletal components
in the second through eighth week after fertiliza- n the location, size, and shape of the main muscle
tion. During the first week, the zygote is formed groups, their action, origin, insertion, and in-
and enters the uterus, where implantation oc- nervation (You needn’t memorize all—there
curs. In the second through eighth weeks, the are about 700 of them!)
embryo develops and begins to show human n the structure and action of a voluntary muscle:
form. The development of the embryo occurs in the tendon, epimysium, bundle of muscle fibers,
the following stages: nucleus, single muscle fiber, and myofibril (light
170
band, dark band, sarcomere unit containing con- n some common blood disorders: for example,
tractile proteins); flexor versus extensor muscles various kinds of anemia, hemophilia, leukemia,
n the structure and action of an involuntary mus- polycythemia, or thrombosis
cle; location is in the skin, around hair follicles, n basics of homeostasis: acids, bases, normal
and in the internal organs (digestive tract, res- blood pH, fluid and electrolyte balance
piratory tract, urogenital tract, and circulatory n the basic characteristics of the immune system
system); the way an involuntary muscle is sup- n characteristics and importance of B cells and
plied by the autonomic nervous system; its T cells (the two main classes of lymphocytes)
composition of fusiform or spindle-shaped and their antigen receptors; the central role of
cells without striations T cells—cytotoxic or killer T cells and helper
n the structure and function of the cardiac mus- T cells
cle: for example, Purkinje fibers; intercalated n the molecular basis of antigen-antibody
discs; pacemaker channels; that it is striated but specificity
involuntary; action of the vagus nerve to pro- n the nature of antibodies (a class of proteins
duce bradycardia; action of cholinergic stimu- called immunoglobulins or Igs—includes IgM,
lation to increase blood pressure and heart rate IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE) and how they work in
n the structures of the heart; how the cardiac the human body
muscle works; how blood circulates; names of n the cellular basis for specificity and diversity
major blood vessels and lymphatic vessels n the humoral response and activation of B cells;
n the makeup of blood: (1) plasma—90% water; T-dependent and T-independent antigens
also contains fibrinogen (plasma protein to help n the main immune disorders—autoimmune
clotting), inorganic ions, dissolved gases (e.g., diseases, immunodeficiency, especially acquired
oxygen and carbon dioxide), organic nutrients immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and hu-
(amino acids and fats), hormones, antibodies, man immunodeficiency virus (HIV)—and
enzymes, and waste materials (e.g., uric acid their treatment
and urea); (2) erythrocytes (red blood cells); n the following terms and concepts related to the
(3) leukocytes and phagocytes (white blood immune system (among others): humoral im-
cells); and (4) platelets. You should become munity, cell-mediated immunity, effector cells,
familiar with what each type of blood cell does. plasma cells, clonal selection, primary and sec-
n the makeup of lymph (called tissue fluid in the ondary immune responses, memory cells, self-
intercellular spaces): alkaline, colorless (or yel- tolerance, cytokines (e.g., interleukin-1 and -2),
lowish or milky), and consisting mostly of wa- interferon
ter; also contains (1) proteins (serum albumin, n the organs of respiration (especially the lungs)
serum globulin, serum fibrinogen); (2) salts; and their specific structures and functions
and (3) organic substances (urea, creatinine, n how breathing is controlled (nerves in the
neutral fats, glucose). You should become fa- breathing center)
miliar with what each component contributes. n gas exchange in humans
n general facts about blood groups, blood banks, n the following terms and concepts related to the
tissue and organ transplants respiratory system (among others): oxygen
n general facts about blood types/antigens (e.g., transport and carbon dioxide transport, nega-
ABO, Rh factor) and blood transfusion; why tive pressure breathing, tidal volume, volume
blood typing is important capacity, residual volume
171
n major structures of the digestive system and the lobe, speech center, olfactory area, somatic sen-
function of each: oral cavity, esophagus, sory area, visual area, cerebellum, auditory area
diaphragm, liver, gallbladder, stomach, pan- n the cells of the nervous system, (i.e., the neu-
creas, spleen, large intestine (colon), small rons and supporting cells)
intestine, cecum, sigmoid colon, appendix, n neurons—cell body, dendrites, axons, Schwann
rectum, anus. The alimentary canal and acces- cells, myelin sheath (covers the axons of nerve
sory organs—the salivary glands (saliva, cells, composed of lipids and proteins), synaptic
salivary amylase), pancreas, liver, and terminals, synapses. The three kinds of neu-
gallbladder—and their functions rons: sensory neurons, motor neurons, and
n the various sphincters and the mechanism interneurons
of peristalsis n supporting cells (glial cells—meaning “glue
n the function and composition of gastric juices cells’’)—for example, in the central nervous
(e.g., pepsin/pepsinogen, hydrochloric acid), system, astrocytes (which contribute to the
zymogens, gastrin, acid chyme blood-brain barrier) and oligodendrocytes; in
n hormones and enzymes involved in the diges- the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells
tive process n how electrical signals are transmitted along a
n how digestive secretions are regulated neuron
n absorption and distribution of nutrients—the n the origin of electrical membrane potential
villi, microvilli, lacteal, chylomicrons, lipopro- n the endocrine glands: hypophysis/pituitary,
teins, capillaries, and hepatic portal vein lead- parathyroid, thyroid, suprarenal/adrenal
ing to the liver glands, islet of Langerhans in the pancreas,
n the process of elimination of waste and gonads (ovaries/testes)
n the structure and function of the renal system, n the hormones (chemical signals transmitted
especially the kidneys (collecting duct, cortex, throughout the body via the circulatory system;
medulla, glomeruli, Bowman’s capsule, loop of act upon body structures more or less distant)
Henle, and others) and the renin-angiotensin- and their target cells
aldosterone axis n the three general classes of hormones based on
n renal fluid composition chemical structure: (1) steroid hormones, in-
n concepts of pressure gradients, diffusion, os- cluding sex hormones; (2) amino acid deriva-
mosis, active transport, filtration, concentra- tives, generally from tyrosine, which include
tion, diuresis epinephrine/adrenaline, the “fight-or-flight’’
n the nervous system and functions of its main hormone; and (3) peptides, the most diverse
parts—for example, the spinal cord and its class, which includes insulin
regions (cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral); and n the hormone receptors
nerves (ulnar, median, radial, cauda equina, n the male and female reproductive structures
sciatic, femoral, saphenous, vagus) and functions
n the brain and functions of main parts—frontal n the hormonal control of human reproduction:
lobe, temporal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital (1) in males, androgens, especially testosterone;
lobe, cerebellum, brain stem (2) in females, the menstrual cycle, which can be
n the various areas of control in the brain—for described by changes in either the uterus or
example, the voluntary motor area, frontal ovary: the uterine cycle consists of the men-
strual flow, proliferative, and secretory phases,
172
while the ovarian cycle consists of the follicular 26. The enzyme that hydrolyzes protein in the
phase, ovulation, and luteal phase; hormones, in digestive system is called
particular estrogen, progesterone, and oxytocin a. erepsin.
n spermatogenesis and oogenesis b. steapsin.
n the main aspects of fertilization, embryo for- c. ptyalin.
mation, and development from zygote to fetus d. pepsin.
n the three trimesters of pregnancy
27. Which of the following is NOT a primary
Questions function of the integumentary system?
21. What are the two major systems making up the a. protecting the body from bacteria
circulatory system? b. sensing pressure and pain
a. heart and lung c. regulation of body temperature
b. vessel and sinus d. providing mechanical support
c. arterial and venous
d. cardiovascular and lymphatic 28. Which of the following is a disorder of body
fluids common in renal disease?
22. Which of the following structures is part of the a. acidocytosis
axial skeleton? b. phagocytosis
a. the bones of the limbs c. acidosis
b. the pectoral girdle d. polyposis
c. the pelvic girdle
d. the skull 29. Which disorder occurs due to a breakdown in
the body’s ability to recognize self and nonself?
23. Repetitive muscle contraction depends upon
a. cystic fibrosis
ADP receiving a phosphate group from
b. hemophilia
a. phosphagens.
c. rheumatoid arthritis
b. phosphorylases.
d. hepatitis B
c. phospholipids.
d. phosphokinase.
30. The area of the brain that integrates endocrine
24. The inner layer of squamous cells that lines the and neural functions is the
blood vessels is called the a. hippocampus.
a. endoderm. b. gyrus.
b. endothelium. c. hypothalamus.
c. endometrium. d. pons.
d. endomembrane.
31. LH and FSH are both
25. Which of the following aspects of the immune a. pituitary gonadotropins.
system is responsible for the rejection of organ b. placental hormones.
transplants? c. steroids.
a. phagocytosis d. androgens.
b. the formation of antibodies
c. the major histocompatibility complex
d. the activation of B cells
173
32. Which of the following structures is partially 26. d. Pepsin is the chief enzyme found in gastric
responsible for the fact that a mother does not juice and is responsible for hydrolyzing
reject the embryo as a foreign body, as she protein. Choices a, b, and c are enzymes
would a tissue or organ graft? present in intestinal juice, pancreatic juice,
a. the endometrium and saliva, respectively.
b. the erythroblast 27. d. The primary functions of the integumentary
c. the placenta system include protecting the body from
d. the trophoblast bacteria; sensing temperature, pressure, and
pain; and regulating the body’s temperature.
Answers Providing mechanical support is a main
21. d. The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems function of the skeletal system.
make up the circulatory system. They both 28. c. Acidosis is the excess acidity of body fluids
deliver fluids (blood and lymph, respectively) found in renal disease and diabetes.
and their associated materials throughout 29. c. An autoimmune disorder is a disorder
the body. The arterial and venous systems are where the immune system fails to
the divisions of the cardiovascular system, distinguish between self and nonself and
and vessels and sinuses are the conduits of attacks the body’s own tissues. Rheumatoid
the lymphatic system. arthritis is an autoimmune disorder.
22. d. The vertebrate frame has two parts, the 30. c. The hypothalamus initiates endocrine
axial skeleton and the appendicular signals after receiving information about
skeleton. The skull, vertebral column, the environment from the peripheral
and rib cage make up the axial skeleton. nerves and other parts of the brain.
The other answer choices make up the 31. a. LH (luteinizing hormone) and FSH
appendicular skeleton. (follicle-stimulating hormone) are pituitary
23. a. Phosphagens are high-energy phosphate gonadotropins, hormones whose levels
compounds, found in animal tissues, that affect oogenesis and spermatogenesis.
supply a phosphate group to ADP to make 32. d. The trophoblast is a barrier that prevents
ATP. Phosphorylases (choice b) are the the embryo from coming into contact
enzymes that add the phosphate groups with maternal tissue.
from phosphagens to ADP, but phosphory-
lases do not themselves supply the D. Viruses, Bacteria, and Archaea
phosphate groups. 1. Definitions
24. b. Endothelium is the correct answer. The a. Viruses
other choices relate to systems other than Viruses: the simplest of all genetic systems,
the human circulatory system. infectious particles the largest of which can
25. c. The major histocompatibility complex is part barely be seen with a light microscope
of the cell-mediated response system. Choice
Viruses hover between life and nonlife, being ei-
a, phagocytosis, is involved in the inflamma-
ther very complex molecules or very simple life
tory response; choices b and d are part of the
forms. They lack the structure and most of the
humoral immune response system.
equipment of cells, and they lack enzymes for me-
tabolism; they are merely aggregates of nucleic acids
and proteins—cores of nucleic acid packaged in pro-
174
tein coats called capsids. Some also bear an outer en- (plasmid). Prokaryotes lack membrane-enclosed
velope of proteins and lipids. Viruses are parasites of organelles. (See Section A, page 156, for more
animals, plants, and some bacteria, and can only me- detail.)
tabolize and reproduce within a living host cell. The
discovery of viruses began with the German scientist b. Shapes and Metabolic Requirements
Adolf Mayer in 1883; however, most of the research Bacteria and archaea are initially grouped accord-
on viruses has been done in the last 30 years. ing to:
Structure: nucleic acid coated with a shell of n Shape. They can be placed in three groups: cocci,
protein called a capsid, and sometimes a with a spherical shape; bacilli, with a rod-like
membranous envelope (shell of protein and shape; and spirilla, with a spiral shape.
lipids) coating the capsid. The envelope may n Metabolic requirements. They are further
help the virus enter the host cell. Whereas classified by how they get their energy and nu-
other genes are made of double-stranded trients, such as whether they require oxygen.
DNA, viral genomes may consist of double- n Aerobes require oxygen.
stranded or single-stranded DNA (DNA n Anaerobes do not require oxygen.
viruses), or double-stranded or single-

stranded RNA (RNA viruses). Bacteria and archaea have greater metabolic di-
versity than all eukaryotes combined. With regard to
b. Bacteria and Archaea procurement of energy and carbon, they fall into
Bacteria and Archaea: unicellular organisms— four categories:
prokaryotes—with no true nucleus
n Photoautotrophs harness light energy for
Bacteria are classified into two groups, gram-
positive and gram-negative, based on differences in synthesis of organic compounds from carbon
cell wall composition detected by Gram’s staining. dioxide—for example, cyanobacteria
Gram-negative bacteria are more dangerous to other (formerly called blue-green algae).
n Photoheterotrophs use light to generate ATP
life forms than gram-positive bacteria. Bacteria are
extremely adaptable with regard to their physiologi- but can get carbon only in organic form.
cal adjustment to changes in the environment. They (i.e., not from CO2)
n Chemoautotrophs obtain energy by oxidizing
are the principal decomposers of most ecosystems.
Bacteria were discovered by the Dutch maker of mi- inorganic substances, although they need
croscopes, Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723). only CO2 as source of carbon—for example,
Archaea may be descendants of the earliest forms Sulfobolus, which oxidizes sulfur.
n Chemoheterotrophs use organic molecules
of life. Many species are adapted to life in harsh con-
ditions, such as extremely hot, acidic, or salty envi- for both energy and carbon—the majority
ronments, and can use a variety of energy sources, of bacteria are in this category.
including sulfur, methane, ammonia, and sunlight.
Bacteria and archaea also vary in the effect oxy-
2. Structure, Shapes, Metabolism, and Life gen has on metabolism (obligate aerobes, faculta-
Cycle of Bacteria and Archaea tive anaerobes, obligate anaerobes), and in nitrogen
a. Structure metabolism.
The bacterial and archaeal genome is mainly a
single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule
175
c. Life Cycle b. Archaea

In their life cycle, bacteria and archaea do not un- Archaea used to be considered a type of bacteria,
dergo mitosis or meiosis, although they may un- but have since been placed in their own domain,
dergo genetic recombination by three mechanisms: Domain Archaea. Archaea are considered to be
transformation, conjugation, and transduction. In- more closely related to eukaryotes (Domain Eu-
stead, they reproduce by binary fission, each daugh- karya, the final domain) than bacteria, even
ter cell receiving a copy of the single parental though both archaea and bacteria are prokaryotes.
chromosome. Bacteria and archaea are exceptionally They include methanogens, extreme halophiles,
resistant to environmental destruction; some cannot and thermoacidophiles.
even be killed by boiling water, and endospores may
remain dormant for centuries. Unchecked by unfa- 4. Diseases
vorable environmental conditions, their growth is a. Viral Diseases
exponential. Generation times are usually one to Not all viruses are disease-causing; many viruses
three hours, but some species may double every 20 do no apparent harm. Diseases caused by viruses
minutes. include the common cold, influenza, AIDS, herpes,
viral pneumonia, meningitis, hepatitis, polio, and
3. Classification of Bacteria and Archaea rabies in animals, and tobacco mosaic disease in
a. Bacteria plants. Types of viruses include adenovirus, ar-
Bacteria used to be classified as plants; however, bovirus, herpesvirus, HIV, myxovirus, papillo-
prokaryotes and plants have a completely different mavirus, picornavirus, poxvirus, retrovirus, and
molecular composition. Instead of cellulose, bacte- (in plants) the tobacco mosaic virus.
rial walls are composed of peptidoglycan, which Bacterial viruses are called bacteriophages or
consists of polymers of modified sugars cross-linked simply phages and include, among many others,
by short polypeptides that vary according to seven that infect Escherichia coli.
species. Bacteria are usually classified as one of
three domains, in Domain Bacteria. b. Bacterial Diseases
Bacteria include, among others, actinomycetes Approximately half of all human diseases are caused
(e.g., Mycobacterium), chemoautotrophic bacteria by bacteria; they may be intruders from outside or
(e.g., Nitrobacter), cyanobacteria (e.g., Chroococ- opportunistic, that is, they live inside the body of a
cus), endospore-forming bacteria (e.g., Bacillus), healthy host, becoming destructive only when the
enteric bacteria (e.g., Escherichia), mycoplasmas host’s defenses are weakened. Pathogenic bacteria
(e.g., Mycoplasma), myxobacteria (e.g., Myxococ- can disrupt the physiology of the host by growing
cus), nitrogen-fixing aerobic bacteria (e.g., Azoto- inside and invading the tissues. Others exude poisons
bacter), pseudomonads (e.g., Pseudomonas), that are one of two types: exotoxins or endotoxins.
rickettsias and chlamydias (e.g., Rickettsia and (See Mechanisms of Infection/Bacteria, page 177.)
Chlamydia), and spirochetes (e.g., Borrelia). Examples of diseases caused by bacteria include
pneumonia, caused by the bacterium Streptococcus
pneumoniae; tuberculosis, caused by the bacterium
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which destroys parts of
the lung tissue and is spread through inhalation and
exhalation; syphilis, caused by the bacterium Tre-
ponema pallidum; and many others.
176
5. Mechanisms of Infection to humankind. From bacteria, we have learned

a. Viruses much about metabolism and molecular biology.
Lock-and-key fit is the method by which viruses Methanogens are used for sewage treatment by aer-
identify their hosts. Some viruses can infect several ating sewage. Some soil species of pseudomonads
species, such as the swine flu virus and the rabies are used to decompose pesticides and certain harm-
virus; some can infect only a single species, for ex- ful synthetic substances. Bacteria are used to make
ample, the human cold virus and HIV. Some vitamins, antibiotics, and certain foods—for example,
viruses depend on coinfection by other viruses. to convert milk to yogurt and some types of cheese.
The host range is the range of host cells a particu- Whether destructive or beneficial, bacteria do
lar type of virus can infect. not act alone but form relationships with other
bacterial species and organisms from other king-
n Lytic cycle: the reproductive cycle of virulent doms through symbiosis, which means “living to-
viruses that ends in the death of the host gether’’—if one symbiont is larger than another, it
n Lysogenic cycle: the reproductive cycle of is known as the host. There are three categories of
temperate viruses, which coexist with the symbiotic relationships:
host rather than killing it
n Vaccines: variants or derivatives of pathogenic n Mutualism: both symbionts benefit
microbes that help the cell defend against in- n Commensalism: one symbiont receives
fection (e.g., polio, rubella, measles, and benefits while neither harming nor
mumps). There is little that can be done to helping the other
cure a viral infection once it begins, as antibi- n Parasitism: one symbiont benefits but harms
otics are powerless; however, many new antivi- the host
ral agents have been developed in recent years.
You Should Review
b. Bacteria n the structure and evolutionary origin of viruses
One mechanism of infection is reproducing rap- n reproduction mechanism of viruses
idly and invading tissues. Bacteria that use this n plant viruses and viroids (even simpler pathogens
mechanism include rickettsias that cause Rocky than viruses)
Mountain spotted fever and typhus, and actino- n characteristics of the two kinds of virus, DNA
mycetes that cause tuberculosis and leprosy. Oth- and RNA
ers produce toxins of two types: n Gram’s staining
n metabolic processes of prokaryotes
n Exotoxins: proteins secreted by the bacterial
n nutritional needs of prokaryotes: Some are very
cell; examples are Clostridium botulinum,
specific in their needs (for example, Lactobacil-
which causes the often fatal disease botulism,
lus needs all 20 amino acids, several vitamins,
and Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera
n
and various organic compounds); some are not
Endotoxins: not secreted by the bacterium,
specific (for example E. coli can grow on a
but are merely components of its outer mem-
medium containing glucose or a substitute for
brane; examples are the various species of
glucose as the only organic component).
Salmonella that cause food poisoning, and
n process of nitrogen fixation
Salmonella typhi, which causes typhoid fever
n kinds of chemoheterotrophic bacteria—for
Many bacteria are harmless or even beneficial; example, saprophytes (decomposers) and para-
certainly they have had wide-ranging benefits
177
sites; there are no known present-day 35. The resistant cells some bacteria form to resist
phagotrophic bacteria environmental destruction are called
n life cycle of bacteria a. endospores.
n reproductive process of binary fission b. coenocytes.
n the various diseases caused by viruses and c. coenobia.
bacteria d. endosomes.
n Koch’s postulates
n the reproductive cycle of the HIV virus 36. If one member of an isolated bacterial colony
n the lytic cycle and defense mechanisms of cer- is found to be genetically different from the
tain bacteria against certain phages (e.g., re- rest, which of the following is the most likely
striction enzymes) explanation?
n the many variations of viral infection among a. Mitosis has taken place.
animal viruses, especially viruses with b. Mutation has taken place.
envelopes and viruses with RNA genomes, and c. Sexual reproduction has taken place.
the reproductive cycle of each d. Cloning has taken place.
n retroviruses; reverse transcriptase
n viruses and cancer; tumor viruses: HIV (the 37. Which of the following groups of microorgan-
AIDS-causing virus) isms is an example of an obligate anaerobe?
n the main groups of bacteria and kinds of bacte- a. methanogens
ria in these groups b. cyanobacteria
n sizes of various bacteria, along with motility; c. chemoautotrophs
capsules; spores; reproduction; colony formation; d. chemoheterotrophs
food, oxygen, and temperature requirements; and
activities (enzyme production, toxin production, 38. The ability of certain bacteria to assimilate
etc.) atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous
compounds that can be used by plants is
Questions called nitrogen
33. Bacteria and archaea are both classified as a. production.
a. eukaryotes. b. fixation.
b. prokaryotes. c. cycling.
c. bacteria. d. equilibrium.
d. viruses.
39. Which of the following is the main reason that
34. Which of the following diseases could be an influenza vaccine is generally only effective
effectively treated with antibiotics? for one season?
a. smallpox a. The virus responsible for influenza
b. rabies constantly mutates.
c. hepatitis A b. The antibodies present in the vaccine
d. typhoid fever degrade after a short time.
c. The influenza virus responds to the vaccine
and transforms.
d. The antigen in the vaccine is weakened by
the immune system.
178
40. Which of the following is a kind of movement 36. b. Since bacteria reproduce asexually by binary
of which certain bacteria are capable? fission, generally in an isolated colony all
a. chemotaxis will be genetically identical. Differences in
b. chemosmosis offspring in an isolated colony can,
c. chemosynthesis however, be caused by mutation. Neither
d. chemylosis mitosis nor sexual reproduction (choices a
and c) take place in bacteria; cloning
41. Destruction of bacteria by a lytic agent is (choice d) produces genetically identical
called individuals.
a. bacteriogenesis. 37. a. Methanogens produce methane and are
b. bacteriophagia. obligate or strict anaerobes, found in
c. bacteremia. oxygen-deficient environments such as
d. bacteriostasis. marshes, swamps, sludge, and the digestive
systems of ruminants (such as cows).
42. The discovery of the virus began with German 38. b. Nitrogen fixation is important to the
scientist Adolf Mayer, while he was seeking the nutrition of plants and can only be
cause of performed by certain bacteria. In terms of
a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. nutrition, this ability makes cyanobacteria
b. rabies. the most self-sufficient organisms on Earth.
c. tobacco mosaic disease. 39. a. Vaccines for viruses such as influenza are
d. fungal blight. usually effective for only a short time
because the virus mutates. Once the virus
Answers mutates, the immune system is unable to
33. b. Bacteria and archaea are both classified as recognize the virus and the vaccine’s
prokaryotes, as both are single-celled effectiveness is negated.
organisms that do not have organelles. 40. a. The word chemotaxis is derived from the
Archaea used to be classified as a type of Greek chemeia (chemistry) + taxis
bacteria, but they are now placed in their (arrangement). Positive chemotaxis is the
own domain. moving toward a chemical; negative
34. d. Antibiotics are effective against bacterial chemotaxis is the moving away from a
diseases only. Smallpox, rabies, and hepatitis chemical.
A are all viruses, and so cannot be 41. b. Bacteriophages are viruses that are parasitic
effectively treated with antibiotics. to bacteria. The lytic cycle of a bacterio-
35. a. The resistant cells, called endospores, can phage culminates in the death of the host.
survive almost anything, including boiling 42. c. Mayer noted that tobacco mosaic disease
water, lack of nutrients or water, and most was contagious, but he could find no
poisons. microbe in the infectious sap. He concluded
that the causal agent was a bacterium too
small to be seen with a microscope. Only
later were scientists able to discern the
characteristics that set viruses apart
from bacteria.
179
E. Plants 5. Structure and Function

1. Distinction between Plants Plants are classified as either nonvascular or vascular.
and Animals
Plants are multicellular eukaryotes, nearly all terres- a. Nonvascular Plants
trial in origin, though some have evolved so that Nonvascular plants have simpler tissues than vascu-
they can live in water. They differ from animals in lar plants. They are covered by a waxy cuticle to pre-
structure, life cycle, and modes of nutrition, and are vent dehydration, require water to reproduce, and
the mainstay of most ecosystems on Earth. They lack woody tissue and so do not grow tall but rather
draw their energy directly from sunlight and directly grow in mats low to the ground. The nonvascular
or indirectly feed the rest of the creatures on Earth, plants include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.
including animals; without them most ecosystems
would simply die. They are autotrophic in nutrition, b. Vascular Plants
making food by photosynthesis, or the conversion of Vascular plants have much more elaborate tissues,
light energy into chemical energy, a property they including vascular tissue; cells are joined into
share with algae and certain prokaryotes. tubes for transport of nutrients and water
throughout. There are two types of vascular tissue:
2. Photosynthesis phloem, which transports sugars from leaves to
a. Definition other parts of the plant; and xylem, which trans-
Photosynthesis: the process by which light energy, ports water and dissolved mineral nutrients from
captured by the chloroplasts of plants, is converted roots to other parts of the plant. Vascular plants
to chemical energy are of two types: seedless, including horsetails and
ferns, and seed plants. Seed plants in turn fall into
b. Process two categories:
Plants are equipped with the light-absorbing
molecules chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b and n Gymnosperms: seeds are uncovered; plants
certain carotenoid pigments that maximize the achieve fertilization mainly through wind-
collection of solar energy. borne pollen. This category includes conifers
and cycads, pines, firs, and spruce.
3. Cellular Anatomy
n Angiosperms: flowering plants such as grasses,
The cell walls of plants consist mostly of cellulose,
wildflowers, and hardwood trees; the dominant
and they store food in the form of starch. See Sec-
plant form today (about 235,000 species). An-
tion A, Cell Biology (page 156), for more on the
giosperms have the most advanced structural
structure of plant cells.
form: Seeds are enclosed in carpels, and animals
4. Nutritional Requirements and insects are employed for transfer of pollen
In order to live, plants require both macronutrients in order to achieve fertilization. Important
(nutrients required in large quantities), including structures of flowering plants include the
carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur, phos- flower, which is the reproductive structure (in-
phorus, calcium, potassium, and magnesium, and cludes the stamen with its filament and anthers,
micronutrients (nutrients required in smaller quan- petals, pistil with its stigma, style, ovary, and
tities), including iron, chlorine, copper, manganese, sepal); and the fruit, which is the structure
zinc, molybdenum, boron, and nickel. Fixed nitro- formed from the ovary of a flower, usually after
gen is important to all aspects of a plant’s life cycle. ovules have been fertilized, and which protects
dormant seeds and aids dispersal.
180
6. Reproduction and Development 44. Plants require the most of which of the
Some plants reproduce sexually; seeded plants following nutrients?
hold an egg, which, after the plant matures, is fer- a. zinc
tilized by pollen from itself or another plant. Oth- b. copper
ers reproduce asexually by cloning; bulbs, feelers, c. nickel
and rhizomes require only one plant; there is no d. sulfur
change in the chromosome number; and the off-
spring is exactly the same genetically as the parent. 45. A representation of the most recent evolution-
ary stage of plants is
You Should Review a. the cypress tree.
n the process of photosynthesis
b. the orchid.
n plant cellular structure
c. the ostrich fern.
n main characteristics of nonvascular and vascu-
d. the liverwort.
lar plants
n plant morphology and anatomy, especially of
46. The European butterwort, sundew, and pitcher
flowering plants
plant are examples of plants that are
n the processes of sexual and asexual reproduc-
a. medicinal.
tion in plants
b. poisonous.
n division of plants into monoecious plants (have
c. parasitic.
both male and female reproductive organs in
d. carnivorous.
the same flower) and dioecious plants (have
either male or female reproductive organs in
47. The term morphogenesis, an area particularly
separate flowers)
important in plant development, refers to the
n symbiotic relationships that exist between cer-
development of an organism’s
tain plants and animals
a. external form.
n the various types of plants cells—for example,
b. reproductive organs.
parenchyma cells, collenchyma cells,
c. cytoskeleton.
sclerenchyma cells, water-conducting cells,
d. nutritional uptake system.
food-conducting cells
n the transport systems of plants
48. Which plant hormones are produced in the
n plant hormones
roots and stimulate cell division during plant
n the following concepts and terms (among oth-
growth?
ers): autotrophic nutrition; photoautotrophy;
a. ethylene
light reactions; the Calvin cycle; nitrogen fixa-
b. gibberellins
tion; dermal, vascular, and ground tissue sys-
c. abscisic acid
tems; sporophyte and gametophyte
d. cytokinins
Questions
43. The sticky tip of the carpel of a flower, which 49. Which of the following could be called a plant
receives the pollen, is called the “antiaging hormone’’?
a. stigma. a. cytokinin
b. filament. b. gibberellin
c. anther. c. auxin
d. style. d. florigen
181
50. The major sites of photosynthesis in most 48. d. Cytokinins are a class of plant hormone
plants are the produced in the roots. The functions of
a. stems. cytokinins include stimulating cell division
b. seeds. and differentiation during plant growth.
c. leaves. 49. a. Cytokinins inhibit protein breakdown,
d. taproots. stimulate RNA and protein synthesis, and
mobilize nutrients. These attributes are
51. The least specialized of all plant cells are the thought to be involved in the retardation
a. sclerenchyma cells. of aging in some plant organs.
b. water-conducting cells. 50. c. Although green stems do perform
c. food-conducting cells. photosynthesis, the leaves are the most
d. parenchyma cells. important photosynthetic organs in most
plants.
52. Angiosperms respond physiologically to day 51. d. Parenchyma cells, relatively unspecialized
length by flowering. This response is called and usually lacking secondary walls, carry
a. the circadian rhythm. on most of the plant’s metabolic functions.
b. day-neutrality. 52. c. Photoperiodism is the physiological
c. photoperiodism. response of any organism to day length.
d. vernalization.
Answers III. Other Concepts You

43. a. The stigma, located at the carpel, one of the Should Be Familiar With
reproductive organs of a flower, receives
pollen. The following are not formal divisions of your health
44. d. Plant nutrients are divided into macronu- occupations entrance exam; however, concepts
trients, which plants require in relatively within them overlap with the subjects previously
large amounts, and micronutrients, which mentioned and may find their way into some of the
plants require in relatively small amounts. questions.
Sulfur is a macronutrient. Zinc, copper,
and nickel are micronutrients. A. The Scientific Method
45. b. The orchid is an angiosperm, a type of 1. General
flowering plant. Flowering plants came into The scientific method is employed by all sciences
existence about 140 to 125 million years to study the natural world, regardless of the partic-
ago. The other choices are considerably ular subject matter. Science studies only those as-
older. pects of nature that can be perceived by the senses.
46. d. All these plants are carnivorous, supplement-
ing their nutrition (usually in nutrient-poor 2. Steps
habitats such as acid bogs) by feeding on Ideally, the scientific method involves the following
insects. steps, though the process is never as smooth as that
47. a. The term morphogenesis is related to the outlined here, and steps may be taken out of order:
term morphology, which is the study of
the external structure of an organism. n Formulate the problem, the solution to which
explains an order or process in nature.
182
n Collect data via observations, measurements, 2. Distinction between Living and

and review of the past—look for regularity Nonliving Entities
and relationships between the data. Many biologists regard the distinction between liv-
n Form a hypothesis, an educated guess as to ing and nonliving entities as arbitrary, believing
what is going on, using inductive logic (spe- instead that there is a continuum, generally involv-
cific to general) to infer a general or universal ing complexity.
premise. The hypothesis must be logical and Overall, however, there is a difference, in that liv-
testable. Then formulate the hypothesis using ing entities ordinarily are capable of self-regulation,
deductive logic (general to specific—If . . . , metabolism, movement; irritability (response to
then . . . ). stimuli in its internal and external environments);
n Test the hypothesis by experimentation and growth (increase in mass through use of materials
gathering of new data. A hypothesis can be from the environment); adaptation (a tendency to
disproved, but never absolutely proved—it change, resulting in improved capacity to survive);
may change with tomorrow’s evidence. Exper- and reproduction (production of new individuals
iments must be free of bias and sampling er- like themselves).
ror, with control and experimental groups.
An adequate amount of data and/or adequate C. Classification of Living Entities
numbers of individuals must be tested, and 1. Systems of Classification
experiments must be reproducible by other The classification of living entities is an artificial
scientists. construct. There are various systems, ranging from
n Decide whether the hypothesis is to be ac- 3-domain to 7-kingdom classifications. Following
cepted, modified, or denied. are three examples:
n Formulate a new hypothesis and start again,
if necessary. n 3-domain classification: Bacteria, Archaea,
Eukarya
3. The Science of Biology n 7-kingdom classification: Bacteria, Archaea,
Biology applies the scientific method to living or- Protozoa, Chromista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
ganisms in order to attempt to arrive at an under- n Ecological classification: Autotrophs, includ-
standing of them. It looks at life using chemical and ing green plants and some bacteria;
physical approaches, mainly those processes that in- heterotrophs, including herbivores,
volve transformation of matter and energy. There carnivores, omnivores, scavengers, decom-
are vast numbers of kinds of living entities and posers, and parasites
therefore many branches of biology.
2. Linnaean System
B. The Origin of Life The hierarchical system most widely used is the
Linnaean system, devised by Swedish botonist
1. The Mechanistic View Carolus Linnaeus (Carl von Linné, 1707–1778).
Held by most scientists, the mechanistic view of This system consists of Kingdom, Phylum, Class,
the origin of life holds that Earth is billions of Order, Family, Genus, and Species.
years old and that life occurred at a point in time
along a continuum of increasingly complex mat-
ter. Biologists postulate a natural origin for life.
183
3. Binomial Nomenclature contest in which individuals threaten one

A system also devised by Linnaeus, binomial another until one backs down. Often such
nomenclature is still used for naming species of an behavior is ritualistic, as natural selection
organism. The first part is the generic name, the would favor individuals able to settle a contest
second the specific—the creature’s genus (capital- without injury.
ized) and species (lowercase) are reflected in the n dominance hierarchies
name. For example, the common house cat is n territoriality
called Felis silvestris; a bacterium that causes one n courtship rituals
type of streptococcal pneumonia is called Strepto- n communication among individuals
coccus pneumoniae. n altruistic behavior, though to a lesser extent
than in humans
D. Social Behavior of Animals
1. Humans Questions
A heated debate continues to rage over the distinc- 53. In science, which of the following is most
tion termed “nature versus nurture.’’ Some scien- nearly synonymous with the word “theory’’?
tists, particularly sociobiologists, believe that a. a proven fact
aspects of human behavior shared across cultures, b. a hypothesis that has withstood repeated
such as avoidance of incest, can be viewed as in- testing
nate, somehow evolutionarily programmed. Oth- c. an untested supposition
ers insist that such cultural features as taboos d. a body of published data
would be unnecessary if behavior were truly in-
nate; therefore, they say, much of what we view as 54. Which of the following is a key characteristic
particularly human behavior is learned. Those on of fungi?
the “nurture’’ side of the debate often point to al- a. single-celled
truistic behavior, which exists to a much greater b. undergo photosynthesis
extent in humans than in any other species. Those c. reproduce asexually
on the “nature’’ side of the debate insist that most d. produce seeds
altruistic behavior, if carefully looked at, does in
some way enhance the individual, even when it 55. The majority of primary producers in an
causes that individual’s death. ecosystem are
a. autotrophs.
2. Other Species b. carnivores.
Although much of the social behavior between c. detrivores.
members of a species involves cooperation, it is d. herbivores.
still the case that individuals act in their own best
interest, and that a good deal of competitive be- 56. Two organisms would be most closely related
havior arises in all animal populations. Important if they shared the same
aspects of social interaction include: a. phylum.
b. order.
n agnostic behavior/competitive behavior—for c. genus.
example, for food or a mate—involving a d. species.
184
57. An alternative view of the mechanistic origin Answers

of life holds that at least some organic 53. b. A theory has undergone testing. The word
compounds, including amino acids, originated is often mistakenly used to mean “just a
in the hundreds of thousands of meteorites guess.’’ This misuse is seen in such a
and comets that hit the earth during its early statement as, “Evolution is just a theory.’’ In
formation—that is, that life had extraterres- fact, evolution is regarded in the scientific
trial origins. This idea is called community as a hypothesis that is so well-
a. abiotic synthesis. supported by data as to be fact.
b. panspermia. 54. c. One of the key characteristics of fungi is
c. protobiotic aggregation. that they reproduce asexually. Fungi are also
d. the Oparin hypothesis. generally multicellular and are usually
classified as decomposers.
58. From the point of view of the scientific method, 55. a. The primary producers of an ecosystem are
the most important requirement for a sound autotrophs, most of them photosynthetic
hypothesis is that it be organisms that synthesize organic com-
a. able to be confirmed. pounds directly from light energy. All the
b. intuitively possible. other choices are consumers, directly or
c. useful in a practical sense. indirectly dependent on photosynthetic
d. testable through experimentation. products for nutrition.
56. d. The Linnaean classification scheme classifies
59. Altruistic behavior in humans can be explained living things using seven levels: kingdom,
as an innate behavior because it phylum, class, order, family, genus, and
a. occurs in all cultures. species. The more levels that are shared by
b. is culturally encouraged. two organisms, the more closely they are
c. also benefits the individual. related. Organisms of the same species are
d. leads to the individual’s death. the most closely related, followed by
organisms of the same genus.
60. The primary feature that distinguishes life 57. b. The theory of panspermia gained strength
from nonlife is that living organisms are in 1986 when spacecraft flying near Halley’s
capable of Comet showed that the comet contained far
a. reproduction. more organic material than had previously
b. entropy. been thought.
c. chemical evolution.
d. atomic bonding.
185
58. d. A hypothesis that is not testable is useless 59. c. Innate behaviors, those that are considered
from a scientific point of view. Hypotheses to be due to “nature,” have a genetic
can never be absolutely confirmed (choice component and therefore must allow an
a). Hypotheses frequently fly in the face of individual to pass on all or part of its
intuition (choice b); for instance, a flat genetic material, even if that behavior leads
Earth probably seems more intuitively right to the individual’s death. So the individual
than a spherical one. Many scientific must also benefit on some level when it
hypotheses have no immediately recogniza- behaves altruistically.
ble practical applications (choice c); an 60. a. All the other choices are properties of both
example might be David Reznik’s hypothe- living and nonliving entities.
ses concerning guppy populations in
Trinidad.
186
8
C H A P T E R
CHEMISTRY REVIEW
CHAPTER SUMMARY
This chapter is a general outline and review of the important
chemistry concepts that are tested by many health occupations
entrance exams. It begins with a topic outline of the chemistry
subjects covered, then reviews these important chemistry con-
cepts in the same outline format.
Chemistry Review: Important Concepts
A. Description of How Health Occupations Entrance Exams Test Chemistry

This chapter reviews essential concepts in chemistry that are covered in many health occupations entrance ex-
ams. Some tests contain specific chemistry or science sections; others ask you to be able to recognize important
ideas and terms.
Some of these key concepts are atomic structure, periodic table, chemical bonds, chemical equations, stoi-
chiometry, energy and states of matter, reaction rates, equilibrium, acids, bases, oxidation-reduction, nuclear
chemistry, and organic compounds.
187
– CHEMISTRY REVIEW –
B. How to Use This Chapter Read each topic in this chapter and answer the
This chapter is presented in outline form as a system- questions that follow. After answering the sample test
atic presentation of important chemistry topics to questions, you can pinpoint where you want to con-
help you review for your exam. This chapter does not centrate your efforts. If a question poses particular
constitute a comprehensive chemistry review—use it difficulty for you, study more problems of this type.
as an aid to help you recall concepts you have studied The more you hone your problem-solving skills, un-
and to identify areas in which you need more study. derstand basic principles, and recognize core terms,
the more relaxed and confident you will feel on test
day.
STUDY TIPS FOR CHEMISTRY

n Review the topics covered in this chapter carefully. Keep a copy of one or more of the suggested re-
source books handy for more extensive review.
n Don’t try to review all topics in one or two study sessions. Tackle a couple of topics at a time. Focus
more in-depth study on the items within a topic that you feel least confident about first.
n Complete each group of practice questions after you study each topic, and check your answers.
n Review all the answer choices carefully before making your selection. The wrong answers often give
you hints at the correct one, and also help you confirm that you really do know the correct answer. Re-
member that recognition is not necessarily understanding.
n When checking your answers to practice questions with the answer key, be sure you understand why
the identified choice is the correct one. Practice writing out your reasoning for choosing a particular
answer and checking it against the reasoning given in the answer key.
n Practice pronouncing chemical terminology aloud. If you can pronounce a term with ease, you are
more likely to remember the term and its meaning when reading it.
n Review carefully the visual aspects of chemistry, such as the use of symbols, arrows, and sub- and su-
perscripts. If you know the circumstances under which particular symbols are used, you will have im-
mediate clues to right and wrong answers.
n Focus on developing problem-solving skills. Almost all chemical problems require the analysis, sorting,
and understanding of details.
188
n
II. Main Topics Ernest Rutherford established that the atom
is composed of negatively charged electrons
A. Atoms moving in the empty space surrounding a
dense, positively charged nucleus.
n Henri Becquerel and Marie Curie discovered
1. Atomic Structure
An atom is the basic unit of an element that re- that the decay of radioactive (unstable) nuclei
tains all the element’s chemical properties. An resulted in the release of particles and energy.
atom is composed of a nucleus (which contains
3. Mass Number
one or more protons and neutrons) and one or
Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in
more electrons in motion around it.
the nucleus of the atom. It varies with the isotopes
An electron is of negligible mass compared to the
of each element. The mass number is indicated
mass of the nucleus and has a negative charge of –1.
by the number to the upper left of the element sym-
A proton has a mass of 1 amu (atomic mass
bol: 23Na.
unit) and a positive charge +1.
A neutron has a mass of 1 amu also but no
4. Atomic Number
charge.
Atomic number is the number of protons in the
Atoms are electrically neutral because they are
atom, specific for each element. The atomic num-
made of equal numbers of protons and electrons.
ber is indicated by the number to the lower left of
the element symbol: 11Na.
2. Dalton’s Atomic Theory
In 1808, John Dalton proposed his hypotheses 5. Isotopes
about the nature of matter that became the basis of Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have
Dalton’s atomic theory: the same number of protons (same atomic number)
but different number of neutrons (different mass
n All elements are made of tiny, indivisible number). Isotopes have identical chemical properties
particles called atoms (from the Greek ato- (same reactivity) but different physical properties
mos, meaning indivisible). (for example, some decay while others are stable).
n Atoms of one element are identical in size,
mass, and chemical properties.
ISOTOPES OF HYDROGEN
n Atoms of different elements have different
1H protium
masses and chemical properties.
n 2H
Compounds are made up of atoms of differ- (or D) deuterium
ent elements in a ratio that is an integer (a
3H (or T) tritium
whole number) or a simple fraction.
n Atoms cannot be created or destroyed. They
can be combined or rearranged in a chemical The atomic weight (or mass) of an element is
reaction. given by the weighted average of the isotopes’
masses.
Later experiments completed the under-
standing of atoms: 6. Classification of Matter
a. Elements
n J. J. Thomson discovered the electron. Elements are substances that are composed of
only one type of atom. Elements have chemical
189
symbols (letters of their names) that are used for example, 16 grams of oxygen will react with 14 grams
their representation in the periodic table. The of nitrogen to form NO and with 28 grams of nitro-
heaviest named element is oganesson, or Og, ele- gen to form N2O (1:2 ratio).
ment 118.
In nature, atoms of one element may be chemi- Questions
cally bonded to other atoms of the same element. 1. Which of the following statements about
For example, hydrogen and oxygen are always di- atoms is true?
atomic; that is, they exist as H2 and O2, respec- a. They have more protons than electrons.
tively. Elemental sulfur exists as S8. Many b. They have more electrons than protons.
atoms—for example, sodium—exist as single c. They are electrically neutral.
atoms in their elemental form. d. They have as many neutrons as they have
electrons.
b. Compounds
A compound is a combination of two or more 2. What is the mass number of an atom with
atoms of different elements in a precise proportion 60 protons, 60 electrons, and 75 neutrons?
by mass. In a compound, atoms are held together a. 120
by attractive forces called chemical bonds. b. 135
c. 75
c. Mixtures d. 195
A mixture is a combination of two or more com-
pounds (or substances) interacting but not 3. What is the atomic number of an atom with
bonded chemically with one another. Substances 17 protons, 17 electrons, and 20 neutrons?
that make up a mixture can be separated by physi- a. 37
cal means. b. 34
c. 54
7. Properties of Atoms d. 17
Law of conservation of mass: In a chemical reaction,
matter cannot be created or destroyed; that is, the 4. Two atoms, L and M, are isotopes. Which of
mass of the reagents equals the mass of the products. the following properties would they NOT
Likewise, the number of each type of atom will be have in common?
equal on each side of the reaction. a. atomic number
Law of constant (definite) proportion: A b. atomic weight
chemical compound will always have the same pro- c. chemical reactivity
portion of elements by mass—for example, water d. the number of protons in the nucleus
(H2O) will always be 98 oxygen and 91 hydrogen by
mass. 5. An atom with an atomic number of 58 and an
Law of multiple proportions: If two atomic mass of 118 has
elements form more than one compound between a. 58 neutrons.
them, then the ratios of the masses of the second ele- b. 176 neutrons.
ment that combine with a fixed mass of the first ele- c. 60 neutrons.
ment will be ratios of small whole numbers. For d. 116 neutrons.
190
6. Dalton’s theory included the concept that 4. b. By definition, isotopes have different
a. atoms are mostly made up of empty space. numbers of neutrons. Therefore, they
b. electrons balance the charge of the nucleus. differ in atomic weight.
c. atoms can neither be created nor destroyed. 5. c. The number of neutrons is equal to the
d. unstable nuclei can undergo radioactive atomic mass minus the atomic number
decay. (the number of protons): 118 – 58 = 60.
6. c. Dalton proposed that atoms cannot be
7. An atom has 12 protons and 10 electrons. created or destroyed, only recombined or
What is the charge of the atom? rearranged in chemical reactions. The other
a. 1 concepts were all discovered later by other
b. 2 scientists.
c. 1 7. b. Protons have a charge of +1 and electrons
d. 2 have a charge of –1. If there are two more
protons than electrons, the charge would
8. The majority of the space of an atom is made
be 2.
up of its
8. a. The nucleus of an atom contains the protons
a. electrons.
and neutrons and is responsible almost
b. protons.
entirely for the mass of the atom. The
c. nucleus.
electrons orbiting the nucleus take up
d. neutrons.
most of the space of an atom.
9. d. An element is a substance composed of only
9. Which of the following is an element?
one atom. Oxygen gas is an example of an
a. hydrochloric acid
element. Hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide,
b. carbon dioxide
and methanol are all compounds.
c. methanol
10. a. An atom consists of protons, neutrons, and
d. oxygen gas
electrons; the nucleus contains protons and
10. Which of the following is true of an atom? neutrons. The protons are equal in number
a. It consists of protons, neutrons, and to the electrons, but the nucleus itself is not
electrons. electrically neutral.
b. It has a nucleus consisting of protons,
B. Periodic Table (page 192)
neutrons, and electrons.
1. Periodic Law
c. The protons are equal in number to the
Periodic law is when the properties of the ele-
electrons, so the nucleus is electrically neutral.
ments are a periodic function of their atomic
d. All of the above are true.
number.
Periodic table is an arrangement of the elements
Answers
according to similarity in their chemical proper-
1. c. Atoms are electrically neutral; the number
ties and in order of increasing atomic number.
of electrons is equal to the number of
protons. 2. Properties of the Periodic Table
2. b. Mass number is the number of protons plus a. Periods
the number of neutrons: 60 + 75 = 135. Periods are the horizontal rows of the periodic
3. d. The atomic number is the number of table. Elements in the same period have the same
protons—in this case, 17. number of electron shells (or levels).
191
1 18
IA VIIIA
1 2
H 2 13 14 15 16 17 He
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 9 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
(223) (226) (227) (265) (268) (271) (270) (277) (276) (281) (280) (285) (286) (289) (289) (293) (294) (294)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
b. Groups d. Nonmetals
Groups are the vertical column of elements with A nonmetal is an element with poor conducting
the same number of electron(s) in their outermost properties. They are electronegative and accept
shell. The groups are numbered 1–18 from left to electrons in their valence shell. They are found in
right. An older system that uses Roman numerals the upper right-hand corner of the periodic table.
to indicate the number of valence (or outermost)
electrons is also sometimes used. Both numbering e. Metalloids
systems are shown in the periodic table above. Ele- A metalloid is an element with properties that are
ments in the same group share similar chemical intermediate between those of metals and non-
properties. metals, such as semiconductivity. They are also
found between metals and nonmetals in the peri-
c. Metals odic table.
A metal is an element that is a good conductor of
heat and electricity in addition to being shiny (re- 3. Electronic Structure of Atoms
flecting light), malleable (easily bent), and ductile a. Bohr Atom
(made into wire). Metals are electropositive, hav- Niels Bohr’s planetary model of the hydrogen atom,
ing a greater tendency to lose their valence elec- in which a nucleus was surrounded by orbits of elec-
trons. They are grouped in the left of the periodic trons, resembles the solar system. Electrons could be
table (groups 1-13 or IA-IIIA, IB-VIIIB. excited by quanta of energy and move to an outer
orbit (excited level). They could also emit radiation
when falling to their original orbit (ground state).
192
b. Orbitals e. Electron Configuration

An orbital is the space where one or two paired Electron configuration describes the exact arrange-
electrons can be located. These are mathematical ment of electrons (given in a superscript number) in
functions (or figures) with restricted zones, called successive shells (indicated by numbers 1, 2, 3, and
nodes, and specific shapes—for example, s orbitals so on) and orbitals (s, p, d, f) of an atom, starting
are spherical; p orbitals are dumbbell-shaped. with the innermost orbital.
For example, 1s2 2s2 2p6.
c. Quantum Numbers
There are four quantum numbers that describe an f. Hund’s Rule
electron in an atom. They are the principal quan- Hund’s rule states that the most stable arrange-
tum number (n), the orbital quantum number (l), ment of electrons in the same energy level is the
the magnetic quantum number (ml), and the spin one in which electrons have parallel spins (same
quantum number (ms). orientation).
n Principal quantum number (n) determines g. Outer Shell (or valence shell)
the overall energy level of the electron; n is a The outer shell is the last energy level in which
positive integer (n = 1, 2, 3, . . .). For a given loosely held electrons are contained. These are the
principal quantum number (n), there are n electrons that engage in bonding and are therefore
possible orbital quantum numbers (0, 1, 2, . . . , characteristic of the element.
n – 1). There is a maximum of n2 orbitals in
an energy level (and 2n2 electrons). You Should Review
n Orbital quantum number (l) determines the n periodic table: structure; specific names of the
shape of the orbital in which the electron different groups (group 1 or IA: alkali metal,
resides (0 = s, 1 = p, 2 = d, 3 = f, etc.). For a group 2 or IIA: alkaline earth, group 17 or
given orbital quantum number, l, there are 2l VIIA: halogens, etc); the location of metals,
+ 1 orbitals. nonmetals, and metalloids
n Magnetic quantum number (ml) corresponds n Bohr atom
to a specific orbital in which the electron re- n ground state
sides. For a given orbital quantum number, n quantization of energy
there are 2l + 1 magnetic quantum numbers n quantum number
(–l, –l + 1, –l + 2, . . . , 0, . . . , l – 2, l – 1, l). n Heisenberg uncertainty principle
n Spin quantum number (ms) describes the n the maximum number of electrons that can be
direction of the electron’s spin, which may be held in each energy level
either up (+12) or down (– 12). Therefore, for
two electrons to occupy the same orbital, they Questions
must be of opposite spins. 11. Which element has the electron configuration
1s22s22p6?
d. Pauli Exclusion Principle a. neon
The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two b. calcium
electrons can possess the same four quantum c. helium
numbers. As a consequence, each orbital holds a d. lithium
maximum of two electrons and only if they are of
opposite spin.
193
12. Choose the proper group of symbols for the 17. Which of the following is an alkali metal
following elements: potassium, silver, mercury, (group 1 or IA)?
lead, sodium, iron. a. calcium
a. Po, Ar, Hr, Pm, So, Fm b. sodium
b. Pb, Sl, Me, Le, Su, Io c. aluminum
c. Pt, Sr, My, Pd, Sd, In d. alkanium
d. K, Ag, Hg, Pb, Na, Fe
18. Who stated that an orbital can hold as many as
13. What is the maximum number of electrons two electrons if they have opposite spins, one
that each p orbital can hold? clockwise and one counterclockwise?
a. 8 a. Hund
b. 2 b. Dalton
c. 6 c. Pauli
d. 4 d. Bohr
14. What is the maximum number of electrons 19. Based on its position in the periodic table,
that the second energy level can hold? which element would be expected to be
a. 8 the best conductor of electricity?
b. 6 a. nickel
c. 2 b. argon
d. 16 c. bromine
d. boron
15. What is the name of the individual who
proposed that the atom was similar to a solar 20. If the electron configuration of an element is
system, with a dense nucleus and concentric written 1s22s22p63s23p3, the element’s atomic
circles around it? a. number is 15.
a. Hund b. number is 5.
b. Dalton c. weight is 15.
c. Pauli d. weight is 5.
d. Bohr
Answers
16. The horizontal rows of the periodic table 11. a. Neon has 10 electrons. The electron
are called configuration for neon is 1s22s22p6,
a. families. meaning that there are two electrons in the
b. groups. 1s orbital, two electrons in the 2s orbital,
c. representative elements. and six electrons in the 2p orbital.
d. periods. 12. d. See the periodic table.
13. b. Each p orbital holds two electrons. There
are three p orbitals, holding a total of six
electrons.
14. a. The second energy level has one s orbital and
three p orbitals, holding a total of eight
electrons.
194
15. d. Bohr proposed the model defined in the cations are metallic and have the same name as the
question. metallic element. For example, lithium ion (Li+)
16. d. By definition, the periods are the horizontal has one electron fewer than lithium atom (Li), hav-
rows on the periodic table. ing acquired the noble gas electron structure of He-
17. b. Sodium is an alkali metal. lium, or He.
18. c. The question defines the Pauli exclusion
principle. 3. Ionic Compounds
19. a. The position of nickel shows that it is a Ionic compounds are compounds formed by
transition metal. Transition metals are combining cations and anions. The attractive elec-
generally good conductors of electricity. trostatic forces between a cation and an anion is
Argon and bromine are nonmetals and called an ionic bond.
boron is a metalloid, and all are poor
conductors of electricity. 4. Molecular Compounds
20. a. Since the element has 15 electrons, it also has a. Covalent Bonds
15 protons and an atomic number of 15. A covalent bond is a type of bond formed when
two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons to
C. Chemical Bonds achieve an octet of electrons.
1. Octet Rule
Octet rule is when atoms bond by surrounding b. Lewis Structures
themselves with eight (octet) outer electrons (two Lewis structures are formulas for compounds in
electrons for H). They tend to acquire the stability which each atom exhibits an octet of valence elec-
of their closest noble gases in the periodic table, ei- trons. These are represented as dots (or a line for a
ther by losing (metals), gaining (nonmetals), or shared pair of electrons, leaving unshared pairs of
sharing electrons in their valence shell. electrons as dots).
unshared pairs of electrons

2. Ions
a. Anions
When an atom gains one or more electrons, it
becomes a negatively charged entity called an
anion. Most anions are nonmetallic. Their names
are derived from the elemental name with the suffix, shared pairs of electrons
-ide. For example, a chloride ion (Cl–) occurs when a
chlorine atom (Cl) has gained one electron to c. Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion
achieve the octet structure of Argon, or Ar. An oxide (VSEPR) Theory
ion (O2–) occurs when an oxygen atom (O) has The VSEPR model is based on electrostatic repul-
acquired two electrons in its valence shell and has the sion between electron pair orbitals. By pushing
same, stable electron configuration as Neon, or Ne. each other away as far as possible, electron pairs
dictate which geometry or shape a molecule will
b. Cations adopt. Molecules should be written as Lewis
A cation results when an atom loses one or more structures (see the electron-dot notation above).
electrons, becoming positively charged. Most
195
d. Electronegativity and Dipoles water can act as either a hydrogen bond donor or
Electronegativity is the ability of an atom in a acceptor.
bond to attract the electron density more than the
other atom(s) in the bond. Electronegativity in- 6. Polyatomic Ions
creases from left to right and from bottom to top Polyatomic ions are groups of two or more covalently
in the periodic table. Thus, fluorine (F) is the most bonded atoms that possess a positive or negative
electronegative element of the periodic table, with charge. They form ionic compounds in the same way
the maximum value of 4.0 in the Pauling scale of as single-atom ions. Polyatomic ions can be as simple
electronegativity. The Pauling scale is a range of as hydroxide (OH–). Other common examples are
electronegativity values based on fluorine having ammonium (NH4+), phosphate (PO43–), carbonate
the highest value at 4.0. These values have no (CO32–), nitrate (NO–3), and sulfate (SO42–).
units. Metals are electropositive (with a minimum
electronegativity value of 0.8 on the Pauling scale You Should Review
for most alkali metals). n polyatomic ions
A dipole results in a covalent bond between two n molecular structures
atoms of different electronegativity. Partial posi- n structures of water molecules and of biological
tive (+) and negative charges (–) develop at compounds
both ends of the bond, creating a dipole (i.e., two
poles) oriented from the positive end to the nega- Questions
tive end. 21. The bond between oxygen and hydrogen atoms
For example: H+–Cl– in a single water molecule is
a. a hydrogen bond.
5. Hydrogen Bonds b. a polar covalent bond.
Hydrogen bonds are weak bonds that form be- c. a nonpolar covalent bond.
tween dipoles of consecutive polar molecules (in- d. an ionic bond.
termolecular) or polar groups of macromolecules
(intramolecular), such as proteins and DNA, in 22. Which of the following is a nonpolar
which they play an important structural role. covalent bond?
Electronegative atoms (such as F, N, or O) cova- a. the bond between two carbons
lently bonded to H atoms are considered hydrogen b. the bond between sodium and chloride
bond donors. Electronegative atoms with free lone c. the bond between two water molecules
pairs in their Lewis structures act as hydrogen d. the bond between nitrogen and hydrogen
bond acceptors.
23. The type of bond formed between two
molecules of water is a
a. polar covalent bond.
! b. hydrogen bond.
The oxygen atom in acetone [(CH3)2CO] is a hy- c. nonpolar covalent bond.
drogen bond acceptor. The nitrogen atom in am- d. peptide bond.
monia (NH3) can act as either a hydrogen bond
donor or acceptor. Similarly, the oxygen atom in
196
24. Which of the following elements has the 28. Which of the following is true according to the
highest electronegativity? octet rule?
a. lithium a. Ions of all group 2 (IIA) elements have
b. radon electron configurations that conform to
c. silicon those of the noble gases and have charges
d. chlorine of +1.
b. Ions of all group 17 (VIIA) elements have
25. If X (atomic number 4) and Y (atomic number electron configurations that conform to
17) react, the formula of the compound those of the noble gases and have charges
formed will be of –2.
a. XY2. c. An ion of a metallic element that has lost
b. YX2. electrons to achieve noble gas configuration
c. X2Y2. is less stable than an atom of the same
d. XY4. element.
d. The most reactive elements are generally
26. To acquire an outer octet, an atom of element those whose atoms are nearest, but not
19 has to equal, to noble gas configurations.
a. lose one electron (and acquire a charge
of +1). 29. Which of the following is true about the
b. lose two electrons (and acquire a charge polyatomic ion NH+4 ?
of +2). a. Its N and H atoms are ionically bonded.
c. gain one electron (and acquire a charge b. It can form an ionic compound with Cl–.
of –1). c. Each atom in the ion has a charge of +1.
d. gain two electrons (and acquire a charge d. The +1 charge is located on the N atom.
of –2).
30. How many electrons does the ion O2– have in
27. The most common ions of the elements of its outer shell?
group 17 (VIIA) have electrical charges of a. four
a. +7. b. six
b. –7. c. eight
c. +1. d. ten
d. –1.
Answers
21. b. A covalent bond exists between H and O in
an H2O molecule. Since the bond is formed
between two different elements, it is polar.
22. a. The bond formed is covalent. Since it is
between two identical elements, it is
nonpolar.
23. b. Hydrogen bonds from the H of one water
molecule to the O of another hold water
molecules together weakly.
197
24. d. Electronegativity increases as you move left 2. Moles

to right across the periodic table and as you A mole of a particular substance is defined as the
move from bottom to top of the periodic number of atoms in exactly 12 g of carbon-12.
table. Chlorine is toward the top and right Experiments established that number to be
of the periodic table and is the most 6.02214199 × 1023 particles (Avogadro’s number).
electronegative of the elements listed.
25. a. The electron configuration of X is 1s22s 2, 3. Chemical Equations
and the electron configuration of Y is a. Balancing Equations
1s22s22p63s23p5. X needs to give away two Chemical reactions can be balanced by a “trial-
electrons to achieve the stable noble gas and-error” method.
configuration of He, which is 1s2. Y needs
n Write the correct formulas for all reactants
to accept one electron to achieve the outer
octet. Therefore, two Y are needed to and products.
n Compare the number of atoms on the reac-
accept two electrons.
26. a. The electron configuration of element 19 tant and product(s) sides.
n Rebalance and recheck if necessary.
is 1s22s22p 63s 23p64s1. To achieve the outer
n Always balance the heavier atoms before try-
octet, it must give away one electron.
27. d. Group 17 (VIIA) elements need to accept ing to balance lighter ones, such as H.
n Use fractions if necessary to reduce coefficients
one electron to achieve the outer octet.
28. d. The alkali metals (group 1 or IA) and the or use the smallest possible whole number.
n Verify (again!) that the number of atoms of
halogens (group 17 or VIIA) have atoms
that are near but not equal to noble gas each element is balanced.
configurations.
b. Use of Moles in Chemical Equations
29. b. Polyatomic ions can form ionic compounds
Stoichiometry establishes the quantities of reac-
with oppositely charged ions just like single
tants used and products obtained based on a bal-
atom ions. The atoms within a polyatomic
anced chemical equation.
ion are covalently bonded and the charge is
distributed among all the atoms in the ion, mass (in g)
________________
# moles = g
molar mass (in mol)
giving the ion the overall charge that it is
labeled with. 4. Theoretical Yield
30. c. The neutral oxygen atom has two electrons Theoretical yield is the amount of product ex-
in its inner shell and six electrons in its pected in a chemical reaction based on the mass of
outer shell. The O2– ion has two additional the starting materials and the stoichiometry of the
electrons in its outer shell and a stable balanced chemical equation.
outer shell of eight electrons.
5. Percentage Yield
D. Chemical Equations When a chemical reaction is run, often the amount
and Stoichiometry of product recovered is less than what is predicted
1. Molecular Weight by stoichiometry. The percentage yield is the ratio
Molecular weight is the sum of the atomic weights of the experimental (actual) yield of the product
of all the atoms in a molecular formula. It is the divided by the theoretical yield.
same as the molar mass (in grams) without the unit.
actual yield
% yield = ( al yield ) × 100%
theoretic
198
6. Basic Types of Chemical Reactions 34. A chemical reaction produced 0.1 grams of
n Combination reactions:
A+BÆC
hydrogen gas (H2). How many moles of
H2 + 12O2 Æ H2O
hydrogen gas did the reaction produce?
a. 0.05 moles
n Decomposition reactions:
CÆA+B
b. 0.2 moles
CaCO3 Æ CaO + CO2

c. 5 moles
d. 20 moles
n Single displacement reactions:
A + BC Æ B + AC 35. In the reaction CaCl2 + Na2CO3 Æ CaCO3 +

Zn + 2HCl Æ H2 + ZnCl2 2NaCl, if 0.5 mole of NaCl is to be formed,
n Double displacement reactions:
AB + CD Æ AC + BD
a. 1 mole of Na2CO3 is needed.
HCl + NaOH Æ H2O + NaCl

b. 0.5 mole of CaCO3 is also formed.
c. 0.5 mole of Na2CO3 is needed.
d. 0.25 mole of CaCl2 is needed.
36. In the reaction 2Cu2S + 3O2 Æ 2Cu2O + 2SO2,

You Should Review
n balancing equations and using polyatomic ions
in balancing equations if 24 moles of Cu2O are to be prepared, then
how many moles of O2 are needed?
Questions a. 24
31. Which of the following is the percentage b. 36
yield for a reaction that is expected to yield c. 16
2.5 grams of a product, but actually yields d. 27
2.4 grams of the product?
a. 2H2O2 Æ 2H2O + O2
a. 0.96% 37. Which of the following equations is balanced?
b. Ag + Cl2 Æ 2AgCl
b. 1.04%
c. KClO3 Æ KCl + O2
c. 96%
d. Na + H2O Æ NaOH + H2
d. 104%
32. The formula of carbon dioxide is CO2. Its

molecular weight is 44 amu. A sample of 38. Butane (C4H10) burns with oxygen in the air
2C4H10 + 13O2 Æ 8CO2 + 10H2O.

11 grams of CO2 contains according to the following equation:
a. 1.0 mole of carbon dioxide.
b. 1.5 grams of carbon. In one experiment, the supply of oxygen was
c. 3.0 grams of carbon. limited to 98.0 g. How much butane can be
d. 6.0 grams of oxygen. burned by this much oxygen?
a. 15.1 g C4H10
33. How many grams are contained in 0.200 mol b. 27.3 g C4H10
of calcium phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2? c. 54.6 g C4H10
a. 6.20 d. 30.2 g C4H10
b. 62.0
c. 124
d. 31.0
199
2NH3 Æ N2 + 3H2?
39. What type of chemical equation is 40. c. There are 12 C on both sides, 22 H on both
sides, and 11 O on both sides.
a. combination reaction
b. decomposition reaction E. Energy and the States of Matter
c. single displacement reaction 1. Solids
d. double displacement reaction A solid is the state of matter characterized by a
definite volume and shape. Solids are not com-
a. Mg + N2 Æ Mg3N2
40. Which of the following equations is balanced? pressible.
b. Fe + O2 Æ Fe2O3
c. C12H22O11 Æ 12C + 11H2O
2. Liquids
d. Ca + H2O Æ Ca(OH)2 + H2
A liquid is a fluid state of matter characterized by a
definite volume but no definite shape. Liquids are
also slightly compressible.
Answers
31. c. The percentage yield is found by dividing 3. Gases
the actual yield, 2.4 grams, by the expected All gases behave according to the following
yield, 2.5 grams, and multiplying the result characteristics:
by 100.
12 g
n
mol C
32. c. 11 g CO2 × CO × mol C = 3.0 g
44 g Gases expand to assume the volume and
2
33. b. 1 mole of Ca23(PO4) 2 = 310 g; shape of their container.
310 g n Many gases mix evenly and completely when
0.200 mol ×
mol = 62.0 g
34. a. The molar mass of hydrogen gas, H2, is confined in the same container.
n Gas molecules collide with each other; they do
2.01588 grams/mole, which means that one
mole of hydrogen gas has a mass of 2.01588 not attract or repel each other.
n Gas molecules have higher kinetic energy at
grams. The number of moles of gas
produced is found by dividing the mass of higher temperatures.
the hydrogen gas, 0.1 grams, by the molar
mass, 2.01588 grams/mole. 4. Pressure
35. d. One mole of CaCl2 would be needed to get Pressure is force exerted over an unit area. The at-
2 mol NaCl. Since 0.5 mol of NaCl, or 25% mospheric pressure exerted by Earth’s atmos-
of 2 moles, is to be formed, 0.25 mol CaCl2 phere is a function of the altitude and the weather
(25% of 1 mole) is needed. conditions. It decreases with higher altitude. Some
3 mol O2 useful units of pressure and how they relate are: 1
36. b. 24 mol Cu2O × 2 mol Cu2O = 36 mol O2
37. a. There are 4 H in the reactants and 4 H in atm (atmosphere) = 760 mm Hg = 760 torr =
the products, and 4 O in the reactants and 4 101,325 Pa (pascals).
O in the products.
38. b. Normally 2 moles of C4H10 react with 13 5. Gas Laws
moles of O2. The supply of oxygen is limited a. Boyle’s Law (at constant temperature)
mol O2 The volume of a sample of gas decreases as its
to 98 g, or 3.06 moles; 98.0 g O2 × g O2 ×
32.0
2 mol C4H10 58.0 g
= 27.3 g. pressure increases (P V1): P1V1 = P2V2.
13 mol O2 ×
mol C4H10
C Æ A + B.
39. b. A decomposition reaction takes the form
200
b. Charles’s Law (at constant pressure) bination of Boyle’s, Charles’s, and Avogadro’s
The volume of a sample of gas maintained at laws), R being the gas constant. The same relation
PV PV
constant pressure increases with its temperature can also be expressed by: 1 1 = 2 2 .
V V T1 T2
(V T): T1 = T2 .
1 2
You Should Review
c. Gay-Lussac’s Law (at constant volume) n properties of gases, liquids, and solids
The pressure of any sample of gas increases (main- n kinetic theory of gases
tained at constant volume) with the temperature n kinetic theory and chemical reactions
P P
(P T): T1 = T2 .
1 2
Questions
d. Avogadro’s Law (at constant T and P) 41. A pressure of 740 mm Hg is the same as
The volume of gas increases with the number of a. 1 atm.
moles of gas present at constant temperature and b. 0.974 atm.
V V
pressure (V n): n1 = n2 . c. 1.03 atm.
1 2
Standard temperature and pressure (STP) con- d. 0.740 atm.
dition is achieved at 273 K and 1 atm (760 torr)
when one mole (or 6.02 × 1023 particles) of any gas 42. According to Graham’s law, which of the
occupies a volume of 22.4 liters (molar volume following gases will effuse fastest?
at STP). a. NO2
b. CO2
e. Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure c. SO2
In a mixture of gases, individual gases behave in- d. N2O
dependently so that the total pressure is the sum of
partial pressures; PT = P1 + P2 + P3 + . . . 43. Charles’s Law describes the relationship
between
f. Graham’s Law of Effusion a. temperature and pressure.
Graham’s law of effusion is——
that:— b. pressure and volume.
kA
Effusion rate of A
_________________
Effusion rate of B
= ____
kB = √MW
MW of B
_________
of A .
c. volume and temperature.
d. pressure, volume, and temperature.
Graham’s law states that the rate of effusion of
two gases is inversely proportional to the square
44. Which of the following laws is related to this
root of their molecular weights. For example, if
expression: PT = P1 + P2 + P3?
hydrogen (H2, MW = 2 g/mol) and oxygen (O2,
a. Boyle’s law
MW = 32 g/mol) are used to fill a balloon and a
b. Charles’s law
small pinhole is introduced, hydrogen will escape
c. Gay-Lussac’s law
four times faster than oxygen.
d. Dalton’s law
kH2 32 g/mol
= =4 45. A substance has a definite volume. Which of
kO2 2 g/mol
the following could the substance be?
a. only a liquid
g. Ideal Gas Law
b. only a solid
An ideal gas is a gas whose pressure, volume, and
c. a liquid or a solid
temperature obey the relation, PV = nRT (a com-
d. a gas, a liquid, or a solid
201
46. Gases that conform to the assumptions of Answers

kinetic theory are referred to as 41. b. 760 mm Hg is equal to 1 atmosphere;
740 mm
a. kinetic gases. mm = 0.974.
760
b. natural gases. 42. c. Graham’s law states that the rate of effusion
c. ideal gases. of a gas is proportional to the inverse square
d. real gases. root of its molar mass. Thus, gases with
higher molar masses have faster rates of
47. What does the term pressure mean when effusion. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) has the
applied to a gas? highest molar mass of the gases listed,
a. weight 64 g/mol.
b. how heavy the gas is 43. a. Charles’s Law describes the relationship
c. mass divided by volume between temperature and pressure. It states
d. force exerted per unit area that the volume of a gas increases with
temperature.
48. A sample of helium at 25°C occupies a volume 44. d. Dalton’s law states that PT = P1 + P2 + P3.
of 725 ml at 730 mm Hg. What volume will it 45. c. Gases, liquids, and solids can be classified
occupy at 25°C and 760 mm Hg? based on whether they have definite volume
a. 755 ml and definite shape. Gases do not have a
b. 760 ml definite volume or a definite shape. Liquids
c. 696 ml and solids both have a definite volume, but
d. 730 ml only solids also have a definite shape. A
substance with a definite volume could be a
49. A sample of nitrogen at 20°C in a volume of liquid or a solid, but not a gas.
875 ml has a pressure of 730 mm Hg. What 46. c. The assumptions are applied to ideal gases.
will be its pressure at 20°C if the volume is 47. d. Pressure refers to the force exerted per unit
changed to 955 ml? area.
a. 750 mm Hg 48. c. Use Boyle’s law: P1V1 = P2V2.
b. 658 mm Hg 730 × 725 = 760V2
c. 797 mm Hg 529,250 = 760V2
529,250
d. 669 mm Hg 0 = V2
76
696 ml = V2
50. A mixture consisting of 8.0 g of oxygen and 49. d. Again, use Boyle’s law: P1V1 = P2V2.
14 g of nitrogen is prepared in a container such 730 × 875 = P1 × 955
that the total pressure is 750 mm Hg. The 638,750 = 955 P1
638,750
partial pressure of oxygen in the mixture is 5 = P1
95
a. 125 mm Hg. 669 mm = P1
mol O2
b. 500 mm Hg. 50. d. 8.0 g O2 × = 0.25 mol O ; 14 g N
32.0 g O 2 2
mol N 2
c. 135 mm Hg. 2 0.25
×
28.0 g N2
= 0.50 mol N2; PO2 =
0.25 +
0.50
d. 250 mm Hg. × 750 mm Hg = 250 mm Hg
202
F. Solutions trations. In dilution, equivalence must be achieved

1. Properties between the initial and final number of moles.
Solution is a homogeneous mixture. Since M (mol/L) × V (L) gives units of moles,
Solute is a substance dissolved in a solvent. this equation states that the amount of a substance
Solvent is a medium in which a solute is must be constant before and after a dilution occurs
dissolved. (i.e., if 1 L of an aqueous solution containing 0.1
Solvation is the process of dissolving solute mol [5.8 g] NaCl is diluted by adding an additional
molecules in a solvent. liter of water, there will still be 0.1 mol [5.8 g]
NaCl in the solution).
2. Solubility
Solubility is the maximum amount of solute (in 6. Colloids
grams) that can be dissolved in a certain amount Colloids are stable mixtures in which particles of
of solvent (in ml) at a particular temperature. rather large sizes (ranging from 1 nm [nanometer] to
1 m [micrometer]) are dispersed throughout
a. Pressure another substance. Aerosols (liquid droplets or solid
Solubility increases with pressure for a gas im- particles dispersed in a gas) such as fog can scatter a
mersed in a liquid. Solubility of solids and liquids beam of light. This is called the Tyndall effect.
does not vary significantly with pressure.
7. Water
b. Temperature a. Properties
Solubility of most solids and liquids increases with Water is the most abundant (and important, besides
increasing temperature while decreasing for gases oxygen) substance on Earth. Its O-H bonds are
dissolved in liquids (gas molecules tend to escape). highly polar, and water molecules form networks of
hydrogen bonds. It is found in large amounts in
3. Concentration of Solutions cells and blood. Water is an excellent solvent and has
Percent concentration expresses the concentra- a high boiling point, high surface tension, high heat
tion as a ratio of the weight (or the volume) of the of vaporization, and low vapor pressure.
solute over the weight (or the volume) of the solu-
tion. This ratio is then multiplied by 100. b. High Heat Capacity and High Heat
Weight grams of solute of Vaporization
me % =

vol u 100 ml of solvent
Volume volume of solute
Heat capacity is the amount of energy required to

volu
me %=
100 ml volume of final solution raise the temperature of a substance by one degree
Weight grams of solute Celsius. The specific heat capacity is the energy re-

wei
ght %=
100 g of solution
quired to raise 1 g of a substance by 1°C. Water has
4. Molarity high heat capacity, absorbing and releasing large
Molarity (M) expresses the number of moles of amounts of heat before changing its own tempera-
solute per liter of solution. A 0.1 M NaOH aque- ture. It thus allows the body to maintain a steady
ous (water) solution has 0.1 mol of solute (NaOH) temperature even when internal and/or external
in 1 liter of solution. conditions would increase body temperature.
Specific heat of vaporization is the heat re-
5. Dilution quired to evaporate 1 gram of a liquid. Water’s
MiVi = MfVf (i = initial; f = final) establishes the large heat of vaporization (540 calories/gram) re-
equivalence between the initial and final concen- quires large amounts of heat in order to vaporize it
203
into gas. During perspiration, water evaporates 53. How many grams of NaOH would be needed
from the skin and large amounts of heat are lost. to make 250 ml of 0.200 M solution?
(molecular weight of NaOH = 40.0)
c. Reactivity a. 8.00 g
Water is not reactive with most biological sub- b. 4.00 g
stances, so it can serve to transport substances in c. 2.00 g
the body. It takes part in most metabolic transfor- d. 2.50 g
mations (hydrolysis and dehydration reactions).
54. The number of moles of NaCl in 250 ml of a
You Should Review 0.300 M solution of NaCl is
n the characteristics of solutions and the proper- a. 0.0750.
ties of true solutions b. 0.150.
n the types of solutions and how they compare c. 0.250.
n saturated solutions d. 1.15.
n supersaturated solutions
n dilute solutions 55. Which of the following properties of water is
n concentrated solutions not dependent on the polar nature of water?
n how water dissolves ionic compounds a. color
n how water dissolves covalent compounds b. high boiling point
n hydrates c. solvent power
d. high heat of vaporization
Questions
51. In a dilute solution of sodium chloride in 56. Which change would increase the solubility of
water, the sodium chloride is the a salt in water?
a. solvent. a. decreasing the surface area of the salt
b. solute. b. increasing the temperature of the water
c. precipitate. c. decreasing the pressure on the water
d. reactant. d. increasing the pressure on the salt
52. To prepare 100 ml of 0.20 M NaCl solution 57. How many grams of sugar are needed to make
from stock solution of 1.00 M NaCl, you 500 ml of a 5% (weight/volume) solution of
should mix sugar?
a. 20 ml of stock solution with 80 ml of water. a. 20
b. 40 ml of stock solution with 60 ml of water. b. 25
c. 20 ml of stock solution with 100 ml of c. 50
water. d. 10
d. 25 ml of stock solution with 75 ml of water.
204
58. Which of the following types of bonds forms 56. b. One way to increase the solubility of liquids
when a hydrogen atom binds to a highly and solids is to increase the temperature of
electronegative atom and also partially either the liquid or solid. In this case,
binds to another atom? increasing the temperature of the liquid
a. coordinate covalent bond solvent would increase the solubility of the
b. hydrogen bond salt.
5 g solute
c. ionic bond 57. b. 5% wv = _____________
100 ml solution
d. covalent bond 5g
_____
=
x (solute needed)
_________________
100 ml 500 ml (final volume)
5 × 500
________
59. The heat of vaporization of methanol is 100 = x
43.5 kilojoules/mole. This indicates that 25 g = x
43.5 kilojoules of heat 58. b. Hydrogen atoms are capable of forming a
a. is required to raise the temperature partial bond between a highly electronega-
methanol by 1° Celsius. tive atom and another atom.
b. is released when one mole of methanol 59. c. Heat of vaporization is a measure of the
evaporates. amount of heat or energy needed to
c. is required to evaporate one mole of evaporate a substance. It is commonly
methanol. measured as kilojoules/mole or
d. is released as each molecule of methanol calories/gram.
evaporates. 60. c. Temperature, pressure, and the properties
of the solvent all affect solubility.
60. Which of the following is NOT a factor that
affects solubility? G. Reaction Rates and Equilibrium
a. temperature 1. Equilibrium
b. pressure Equilibrium is reached when two opposing reac-
c. particle size tions occur at the same rate. No change is observed
d. properties of the solvent in the system; for example, for the reaction A ⇆ B,
the rate at which A is converted to B is the same
Answers rate at which B is converted to A.
51. b. The substance being dissolved is the solute,
by definition. 2. Equilibrium Constant
52. a. You need 20 ml of stock solution; you The equilibrium constant, K, for a reaction de-
would fill the container with water to the scribes the concentrations of reactants and prod-
100 ml mark (80 ml H2O). ucts for a chemical reaction at equilibrium. K is
Mi × Vi = Mf × Vf often dependent on temperature. For a balanced
1.0 M × Vi = 0.2 M × 100 ml chemical equation the equilibrium constant is
1.0 Vi = 20 written as:
Vi = 210 = 20 ml
0.2 M NaOH [C]y[D]z
53. c. 250 ml × 1,000 m l = 0.05 mol; 0.05 moles
wA + xB ⇆ yC + zD K=
[A]w[B]x
× 40 g = 2.00 g
0.3 M NaCl
54. a. 250 ml × 1,000 m l = 0.0750 mol
where [A], [B], [C], and [D] are concentrations of
55. a. The other properties listed are due to the reactants and products and w, x, y, and z are the
polar nature of water. coefficients used to balance the chemical equation.
205
If one of the reactants or products is a solid, it is 7. Le Chatelier’s Principle

not included in the equilibrium expression. Le Chatelier’s principle states that when a system
at equilibrium experiences a change (e.g., in con-
3. Activation Energy centration, temperature, or partial pressure), it will
Activation energy is the minimum amount of en- respond to counteract this change and establish a
ergy required for reactants to be transformed into new equilibrium. For example, increasing the con-
products (i.e., to overcome the energy barrier be- centration of compounds on the right side of a
tween reactants and products). The higher the ac- chemical equation will shift the equilibrium to the
tivation energy, the slower the reaction. left.
4. Endothermic vs. Exothermic Reactions You Should Review

Endothermic reactions are reactions that con- n Le Chatelier’s principle and the different
sume energy in order to take place. Anabolic reac- stresses that can be placed on chemical
tions are examples. processes
Exothermic reactions are energy-releasing re- n equilibrium constants
actions. Most catabolic and oxidative reactions are n energy diagrams
examples.
Questions
5. Factors Affecting the Rate of Reaction 61. Which of the following is NOT true of
a. Temperature reversible chemical reactions?
Rates of reactions increase with temperature, as a. A chemical reaction is never complete.
more collisions between particles occur at higher b. The products of the reaction also react to
temperatures. reform the original reactants.
c. When the reaction is finished, both reactants
b. Particle Size and products are present in equal amounts.
Smaller particles react faster, as they collide often d. The reaction can result in an equilibrium.
at any given temperature and concentration.
62. Which is an example of an exothermic change?
c. Concentration a. sublimation
A high concentration of reacting particles increases b. condensation
the rate of chemical reactions between them. c. melting
d. evaporation
d. Catalysis
Catalysts speed the reaction rate by lowering the 63. Which of the following would decrease the rate
activation energy of the reaction. They are not of a reaction?
consumed in the reaction. a. decreasing the particle size
b. using a more dilute reactant
6. Reversible Reactions c. increasing the temperature
A double arrow (⇆) designates reversible (two- d. adding a catalyst
way) chemical reactions. If arrows differ in length,
the longer arrow indicates the major (faster) direc-
tion in which the reaction proceeds.
206
64. The following reaction is exothermic: hydroxide ions and cationic conjugate acids (posi-
AgNO3 + NaCl ⇆ AgCl + NaNO3. How will tively charged ions). Bases have a bitter taste and
the equilibrium be changed if the temperature feel slippery like soap.
is increased?
a. Equilibrium will shift to the right. 2. Reactions of Acids
b. Equilibrium will shift to the left. Common reactions include:
metal + acid Æ salt + hydrogen gas

c. The reaction will not proceed.
n
Zn + 2HCl Æ ZnCl2 + H2
d. Equilibrium will not change.
n base + acid Æ salt + water

NaOH + HNO3 Æ NaNO3 + H2O
Answers
metal oxide + acid Æ salt + water

61. c. The fact that a reaction is complete does not
n
CaO + 2HNO3 Æ Ca(NO3)2 + H2O

mean that both reactants and products are
metal carbonate + acid Æ salt + carbonic

present in equal amounts.
n
62. b. Condensation is an example of a reaction in
NaHCO3 + HCl Æ NaCl + H2CO3

which energy is given off. acid (unstable)
(H2CO3 Æ H2O + CO2)

63. b. Using a more dilute reactant would decrease
the rate of a reaction. Decreasing the particle
size, increasing the temperature, and adding
a catalyst would all increase the rate of a 3. Autoionization of Water
reaction. In pure water, 2H2O ⇆ H3O+ + OH–.
64. b. When the temperature is increased, the The molar concentration of H3O+ is equal to
equilibrium shifts to the left. molar concentration of OH– (i.e., [H3O]+ =
[OH–]).
H. Acids and Bases The ion product of water is Kw; Kw = [H3O+] ×
1. Definitions [OH–] = 1 × 10–14. Thus, in pure water: [H3O+] =
Acids are proton donors (according to Bronsted [OH–] = 1 × 10–7 moles/liter.
theory) or electron acceptors (according to Lewis
theory). Acids release protons (H+) and form an- 4. pH
ionic conjugate bases (negatively charged ions). pH = – log [H+] The pH measures the negative
Strong acids completely dissociate in water. Acids logarithm (for presentation of very small numbers
have a sour taste. in a large scale) of the hydrogen ion concentration
(in moles/liter). The pH scale runs from 0 to 14
COMMON STRONG ACIDS with acids in the lower end of the scale (smaller
Hydrochloric (HCl) than pH 7) and bases at the higher end (greater
than pH 7).
Hydrobromic (HBr)
Hydroiodic (HI) 5. Buffers

Perchloric (HClO4) Buffer is a solution of a weak base and its conju-
gate acid (weak also) that prevents drastic changes
Sulfuric (H2SO4)
in pH. The weak base reacts with any H+ ions that
Bases are proton acceptors (Bronsted) or elec- could increase acidity, and the weak conjugate acid
tron donors (Lewis). When dissolved in water, reacts with OH– ions that may increase the basicity
strong bases such as NaOH dissociate to release of the solution.
207
a. Carbonic Acid/Bicarbonate Buffer You Should Review

The pH of blood plasma must be maintained at pH n monoprotic, diprotic, and triprotic acids
7.40 by a buffer system consisting of H2CO3 and n organic and inorganic acids
HCO3–. n Arrhenius acids and bases
n Bronsted-Lowry acids and bases
n
HCO3– + H+ Æ H2CO3
Neutralization of acid: reactions of acids
n activity series of metals
n solubilities of salts
n
H2CO3 + NaOH Æ NaHCO3 + H2O

Neutralization of base: ionic equations
n buffer systems in the body
n metabolic acidosis and alkalosis
b. Phosphate Buffer n respiratory acidosis and alkalosis
The principal buffer system inside cells consists of
H2PO4– and HPO4–2. Questions
65. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of a
HPO4–2 + H+ Æ H2PO4–
Neutralization of acid: solution with a pH of 2.6?
a. 0.6 × 10–2.0
b. 1.0 × 10–2.6
H2PO4– + OH– Æ HPO4–2 + H2O

Neutralization of base: c. 1.0 × 10–11.4
d. 2.0 × 10–0.6
6. Titration 66. What is the formula of the hydronium ion?

Titration is a technique used to determine the un- a. H+
known concentration of substance of interest by b. NH4+
reacting it with a known quantity of a reagent. In c. H3O+
an acid–base titration, an acid or base of unknown d. H2O+
concentration is reacted with a known amount of
base or acid. 67. The pH of a blood sample is 7.40 at room
temperature. The pOH is therefore
a. Equivalence Point a. 6.60.
In an acid–base titration, the equivalence point is b. 7.40.
reached when the amount of titrant (acid or base c. 6 × 10–6.
of known concentration) is equal to the amount of d. 4 × 10–7.
analyte (base or acid of unknown concentration),
and the solution is of neutral pH. 68. As the concentration of hydrogen ions in a
solution decreases,
b. Normality (N) a. the pH numerically decreases.
Normality is the number of equivalents of the b. the pH numerically increases.
solute per liter of solution. 1 N solution of acid (or c. the product of the concentrations
base) contains 1 equivalent, that is, 1 mole of H+ [H+] × [OH–] comes closer to 1 × 10–14.
ions (or OH– ions), of an acid (or base) per liter of d. the solution becomes more acidic.
solution.
208
69. Which of the following best explains why 74. A substance that functions to prevent rapid,
hydrofluoric acid (HF) is considered a weak drastic changes in the pH of a fluid by
acid? changing strong acids and bases into
a. It only partially dissociates in water. weak acids and bases is called a(n)
b. It contains only one hydrogen atom. a. salt.
c. It is neutralized by water molecules. b. buffer.
d. It is a highly corrosive substance. c. enzyme.
d. coenzyme.
70. Which of the following acids is a weak acid?
NaHCO3 + HCl Æ NaCl +

a. H2SO4 75. Complete the following equation:
b. HCl
c. HNO3 a. HCO3.
d. H3PO4 b. H2CO3.
c. HCl.
71. An acid is a substance that dissociates in water d. H2PO4.
into one or more ions and one or
more ________. Answers
a. hydrogen . . . anions 65. b. pH = –log [H+], so [H+] = 1.0 × 10–pH
b. hydrogen . . . cations = 1.0 × 10–2.6.
c. hydroxide . . . anions 66. c. The formula is H3O+.
d. hydroxide . . . cations 67. a. [H+][OH–] = 1 × 10–14
1 × 10–14 1 × 10–14
[OH–] = ________
[H+]
= __________
1 × 10–7.40 = 1 × 10
–6.60
72. A pH of 4 denotes times fewer pOH = 6.60

________ than a pH of 3. or
a. 10 . . . hydrogen ions pH + pOH = 14.00
b. 4 . . . hydrogen ions pOH = 14.00 – 7.40 = 6.60
c. 10 . . . water molecules 68. b. As the concentration of hydrogen ions
d. 20 . . . hydroxide ions decreases, the pH increases.
69. a. A strong acid fully dissociates in water,
73. Which of the following is considered to be whereas a weak acid only partially
neutral on the pH scale? dissociates in water. Hydrofluoric acid
a. pure water only partially dissociates in water and
b. pure saliva so is a weak acid.
c. pure blood 70. d. Sulfuric acid (H2SO4), hydrochloric acid
d. pure urine (HCl), and nitric acid (HNO3) are all strong
acids. Phosphoric acid (H3PO4) is a weak
acid.
71. a. By definition, when an acid dissociates in
water, it produces one or more H+ and one
or more anions.
72. a. An increase of one pH unit is a tenfold
decrease in hydrogen ions.
209
73. a. The pH of pure H2O is 7. [H+] = [OH–] Questions
75. b. Metal bicarbonate + an acid Æ salt +

74. b. This is the definition of a buffer. 76. The number of electrons lost during oxidation
must always equal the
carbonic acid. a. charge of the ion.
b. total change in oxidation number.
I. Oxidation-Reduction c. number of electrons gained in the reduction.
1. Oxidation State d. number of electrons gained by the reducing
Oxidation state (or oxidation number) is the num- agent.
ber of charges carried by an ion in an atom, or the
number of charges that an atom would have in a 77. In a redox reaction, the oxidation number of
[neutral] molecule if electrons were transferred com- solid cadmium increases from 0 to +2. Which
pletely. Oxidation numbers enable the identification of the following correctly describes the
of oxidized (increase in oxidation number) and reaction?
reduced (reduction in oxidation number) elements. a. Cadmium is oxidized and is the oxidizing
The sum of the oxidation numbers of all atoms agent.
in the formula of a neutral compound is zero (or b. Cadmium is oxidized and is the reducing
equal to the charge on the ion for a polyatomic ion). agent.
c. Cadmium is reduced and is the reducing
2. Oxidation-Reduction (Redox) Reactions agent.
Oxidation corresponds to a loss of electrons. d. Cadmium is reduced and is the oxidizing
Reduction corresponds to a gain of electrons. agent.
Redox (reduction-oxidation) reaction involves
an electron transfer between the oxidizing (oxidizes Answers
another by accepting its electrons) and the reduc- 76. c. The number of electrons lost during
ing (reduces another by donating electrons) agents. oxidation must always equal the number
of electrons gained in the reduction.
Na Æ Na+ + e–
Example: 77. b. The oxidation number of the cadmium
atom has increased, which means the atom
Oxidation Number: 0 +1 –1 has lost electrons and cadmium has been
+
(Na is oxidized to Na ) oxidized. In a redox reaction, the substance
that is oxidized is the reducing agent.
Cl + e– Æ Cl–
Example:
J. Nuclear Chemistry
Oxidation Number: 0 –1 –1 1. Characteristics of Radioactivity
Sum: Na + Cl Æ Na+ + Cl–

(Cl is reduced to Cl–) Radioactivity is the process by which unstable nuclei
break down spontaneously, emitting particles and/or
electromagnetic radiation (i.e., energy) also called
You Should Review nuclear radiation.
n redox reactions: cellular respiration, combus- Heavy elements (from atomic numbers 83 to
tion, rusting 92) are naturally radioactive and many more (the
n oxidizing agents transuranium elements: atomic number 93 to 118)
n reducing agents have been generated in laboratories.
210
2. Alpha Emission 6. Half-Life

An alpha particle (symbol: 42He or a) corresponds Half-life (symbol: t1) is the time required for the
2
to the nucleus of a helium atom (having two pro- concentration of the nuclei in a given sample to
tons and two neutrons) that is spontaneously decrease to half of its initial concentration. Half-
emitted by a nuclear breakdown or decay. life is specific to a radioactive element and varies
a-particles are of low energy and therefore low widely (from a fraction of a second for 43Tc to mil-
penetrating (a lab coat is sufficient to block their lions of years for 238U).
penetration), but dangerous if inhaled or ingested.
7. Nuclear Fusion
3. Beta Emission Nuclear fusion is the process in which small nuclei
A beta particle (symbol: –10e or b–) is an electron re- are combined (fused) into larger, more stable ones
leased with high speed by a radioactive nucleus in with the release of a large amount of energy. Fu-
which neutrons are converted into protons and sion reactions take place at very high tempera-
electrons (b-particles). b-particles are medium- tures. They are also known as thermonuclear
penetrating radiation requiring dense material and reactions. Examples are the reactions that happen
several layers of clothing to block their penetration. in our Sun and H-bombs.
They are dangerous if inhaled or ingested.
8. Nuclear Fission
4. Gamma Emission Nuclear fission is the process in which a heavier,
Gamma rays (symbol: g) are a massless and chargeless usually less stable, nucleus splits into smaller nuclei
form of radiation (pure energy). They are the most- and neutrons. The process releases a large amount
penetrating form of radiation, similar to X-rays, and of energy and neutrons that can set up a chain re-
can only be stopped by barriers of heavy materials action (or self-sustaining nuclear fission reaction)
such as concrete or lead. They are extremely danger- with a more and more uncontrollable release of en-
ous and can cause damage to the human body. ergy (a highly exothermic reaction) and neutrons.
5. Transmutation 9. Radioactive Isotopes

Nuclear transmutation is the conversion of one Radioactive isotope (radioisotope) is an unstable iso-
element or isotope into another. This process may tope of an element that decays into a more stable isotope
be spontaneous (through a or b decay) resulting of the same or a different element. They are of great
in lighter elements, or it may occur when nuclei use in medicine as tracers in the body to help monitor
are bombarded by other particles (protons or neu- particular atoms in chemical and biological reactions.
trons) or nuclei, resulting in heavier elements. In this way, they aid with diagnosis and treatment.
During a nuclear reaction, there is: Doctors use Iodine (-131 and -123) and Technetium-99
because of their short half-lives. A short half-life
1. Conservation of mass number means a radioisotope decays into a stable (nonra-
2. Conservation of atomic number dioactive) substance in a relatively short time.
For example, 238U undergoes a decay to form You Should Review

234Th: n nuclear reactions
n writing balanced nuclear equations
238U→234 Th + 42He n radiocarbon dating
92 90
211
n the principles of nuclear power 82. If element 238

92U gives off a beta particle and
n the use of radioisotopes and their detection in gamma rays, what is the resulting element?
nuclear medicine a. 238
93Np
n the dangers of ionizing radiation 234 Th
b. 90
n radiation sickness/biological effects of radiation c. 239 U
92
n units of radiation measurement
d. 239 Pa
91
Questions
83. Iodine-123 has a half-life of 13 hours. How
78. The time required for 12 of the atoms in a
many grams of a 10-gram sample of iodine-
sample of a radioactive element to disintegrate
123 will remain after 39 hours?
is known as the element’s
a. 8.75 grams
a. decay period.
b. 5 grams
b. life time.
c. 2.5 grams
c. radioactive period.
d. 1.25 grams
d. half-life.
24A Æ 24B + ?
84. What is the missing product?
79. The least penetrating radiation given off by a 60 60
radioactive substance consists of 4
a. 2He
a. alpha particles.
b.
b. beta particles.
c. –10 e
c. gamma rays.
d. 10b
d. X-rays.
Answers
80. The half-life of a given element is 70 years.
78. d. The question gives the definition of half-
How long will it take 5.0 g of this element to be
life.
reduced to 1.25 g?
79. a. Alpha particles give off the least penetrating
a. 70 years
radiation.
b. 140 years
80. b. In 70 years, there will be 12 × 5.0 = 2.5 g.
c. 210 years
In 70 more years (140 total), there will be
d. 35 years 1
× 2.5 = 1.25 g.
2
81. b. Giving off an alpha particle is equivalent
81. If element 210
83A gives off an alpha particle, what to giving off a helium nucleus.
is the atomic number and mass of the resulting 210 A – 4He = 206 B
83 2 81
element B?
82. a. When a beta particle is given off, the
a. 210
81B nucleus has the same mass number, but
b. 206 B
81 the atomic number is greater by one since
c. 206 B
83 a neutron is converted to a proton and an
d. 204 B
81 electron.
212
83. d. The half-life is the time it takes for half of c. Disaccharides

the atoms in a sample to degrade. After Disaccharides are dimeric sugars made of two
39 hours, iodine-123 has gone through monosaccharides joined together in a reaction that
three half-lives. The mass of the element releases a molecule of water (dehydration). The bond
remaining is found by dividing the initial between the two sugar molecules is called glycosidic
mass in half three times. linkage and can have either an axial (b-glycoside) or
84. b. Gamma rays are not particles and therefore an equatorial (a-glycoside) orientation with respect
do not change the atomic number or to the ring conformation.
atomic mass.
Examples:
K. Organic Compounds Maltose is two glucose molecules joined to-
1. Definition gether, found in starch.
Organic compounds are compounds made of car- Lactose is one galactose joined to one glucose,
bon and hydrogen (hydrocarbon) and het- found in milk.
eroatoms such as oxygen, nitrogen, the halogens, Sucrose is one fructose joined to one glucose,
phosphorus, sulfur, and others. found in table sugar.
2. Stereoisomers d. Polysaccharides
Stereoisomers are two molecules having the same Polysaccharides are polymers, or a long chain of
molecular formula and structure but different spatial repeating monosaccharide units.
orientation with respect to the median axis or plane
of the molecule. Their three-dimensional shapes n Starch is a mixture of two kinds of polymers of
are, therefore, very different. glucose (linear amylose and amylopectin).
Amylose contains glucose molecules joined
3. Carbohydrates together by a-glycosidic linkages while amy-
a. Function lopectin has an addition of branching at C-6.
Carbohydrates (or sugars) serve as the main source They are used to store energy in plants.
of energy for living organisms. They are made of n Glycogen consists of glucose molecules linked
one, two, or more rings of carbon, hydrogen, and by a-glycosidic linkage (C-1 and C-4) and
oxygen. The names of carbohydrates end with the branched (C-6) by a-glycosidic linkage.
suffix -ose (for example, glucose and fructose). Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in
animals (in liver and skeletal muscle).
b. Monosaccharides n Cellulose consists of glucose molecules joined
Monosaccharides are the simplest carbohydrate together by b-glycosidic linkage. Cellulose is
structures made of one ring that can contain five C found in plants and is not digested by humans
atoms, called a pentose, or six C atoms, called a (they lack the necessary enzyme).
hexose. An example of a pentose is ribose, which is
a constituent of RNA. One example of a hexose is e. Condensation and Hydrolysis
galactose, that is derived from milk-sugar lactose. Condensation is the process of bonding together
separate monosaccharide subunits into a disaccha-
ride and/or a polysaccharide. It is also called dehy-
213
dration synthesis, as one molecule of water is lost d. Phospholipids

in the process. It is carried out by specific enzymes. Phospholipids are lipids containing a phosphate
Hydrolysis is the reverse process of condensa- group. They are the main constituents of cellular
tion as a water molecule and specific enzymes membranes.
break the glycosidic linkages in disaccharides and
polysaccharides into their constituting monosac- e. Steroids
charides. Steroids are organic compounds characterized by
a core structure known as gonane (three cyclo-
4. Lipids hexane—six carbon rings and one cyclopentane—
a. Function or five C rings fused together). Steroids differ by
Lipids are a diverse group of compounds that are the functional groups attached to the gonane core.
insoluble in water and polar solvents but soluble in Cholesterol is an example of a steroid and is a pre-
nonpolar solvents. Lipids are stored in the body as cursor for the steroid hormones such as the sex
a source of energy (twice the energy provided by hormones (androgens and estrogens) and the cor-
equal amounts of carbohydrates). ticosteroids (hormones of the adrenal cortex).
b. Triglycerides 5. Proteins
Triglycerides are lipids formed by condensation of a. Functions
glycerol (one molecule) with fatty acids (three Every organism contains thousands of different
molecules). They can be saturated (with fatty acids proteins with a variety of functions: structure (col-
containing only C-C single bonds) or unsaturated lagen, histones), transport (hemoglobin, serum al-
(presence of one or more C=C double bonds). bumin), defense (antibodies, fibrinogen for blood
Triglycerides are found in the adipose cells of the coagulation), control and regulation (insulin),
body (neutral fat) and are metabolized by the en- catalysis (enzymes), and storage.
zyme lipase (an esterase) during hydrolysis, pro-
ducing fatty acids and glycerol. b. Structure
Proteins (also called polypeptides) are long chains
c. Ketone Bodies of amino acids joined together by covalent bonds
Three ketone bodies are formed during the break- of the same type (peptide or amide bonds). There
down (metabolism) of fats: acetoacetate, -hydroxy- are 20 naturally occurring amino acids, each char-
butyrate, and acetone. They are produced to meet the acterized by an amino group at one end and a car-
energy requirements of other tissues. Fatty acids— boxylic acid group at the other end. Different
produced by hydrolysis of triglycerides—are con- proteins have different numbers and kinds of addi-
verted to ketone bodies in the liver. They are removed tional functional groups.
by the kidneys (ketonuria), but if they are found in The sequence of amino acids in the long chain
excess in the blood (ketonemia), ketone bodies can defines the primary structure of a protein.
cause a decrease of the blood pH and ketoacidosis A secondary structure is determined when sev-
may result. In ketoacidosis, acetone is exhaled via the eral residues, linked by hydrogen bonds, conform
lungs. The whole process is called ketosis. Ketonuria to a given combination (for example, the a-helix
and ketonemia are common in patients with diabetes or b-turns).
mellitus and cases of prolonged starvation.
214
Tertiary structure refers to the three- they catalyze (for example, the kinases, or phos-
dimensionally folded conformation of a protein. phorylation).
This is the biologically active conformation (crys- Enzymes are often found in multienzyme sys-
tal structure). tems that operate by simple negative feedback.
A quaternary structure can result when two or
more individual proteins assemble into a multi- d. Protein Denaturation
subunit complex. Protein denaturation occurs when the protein
Conjugated proteins are complexes of proteins configuration is changed by the destruction of the
with other biomolecules (for example, glycopro- secondary and tertiary structures (reduced to the
teins, also called sugar proteins). primary structure). Common denaturing agents
are alcohol, heat, and heavy metal salts.
c. Enzymes
Enzymes are biological catalysts whose role is to You Should Review
increase the rate of chemical (metabolic) reactions n stereoisomers
without being consumed in the reaction. They do n the structure of monosaccharides and
so by lowering the activation energy of a reaction hemiacetals
by binding specifically (in the active site) to their n the structure of disaccharides and acetals,
substrates in a “lock and key” or “induced-fit” glycosides
mechanism (enzyme-substrate complex). They do n reducing sugars
not change the nature of the reaction (in fact, any n stereoisomers and enzymes in carbohydrate
change is associated with a malfunctioning en- metabolism
zyme, the onset of a disease) or its outcome. (See n digestion and synthesis of carbohydrates
diagram at bottom.) n ketoacidosis, ketonemia, acetone breath, chemi-
cal structures of ketone bodies, gluconeogenesis
Enzyme activity is influenced by: n functions of proteins
n protein synthesis and amino acid structures
n temperature; proteins can be destroyed at n organic functional groups in proteins
high temperatures and their action is slowed n enzyme-catalyzed reactions
at low temperature. n vitamins, metal ion activators
n pH; enzymes are active in a certain range of n enzyme nomenclature
the pH. n multienzyme systems, simple negative feedback
n concentration of cofactors and coenzymes
(vitamins). Questions
n concentration of enzymes and substrates. 85. The elements found in carbohydrates are
n feedback reactions. a. oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen.
Enzyme names are derived from their substrate b. zinc, hydrogen, and iron.
names with the addition of the suffix, -ase. An ex- c. carbon, iron, and oxygen.
ample is sucrase (substrate is sucrose). There are d. hydrogen, iron, and carbon.
categories of enzymes according to the reactions
E + S Æ ES Æ E + P
enzyme substrate enzyme-substrate enzyme product
complex
215
86. Hemoglobin is a specialized protein that 92. In the multienzyme sequence shown here,
functions in the transport of molecules of E are able to fit to the enzyme E1
a. enzymes. and prevent the conversion of A to B. What is
b. oxygen and carbon dioxide. this action of E called?
A Æ B Æ C Æ D Æ E
c. glucose. E1 E2 E3 E4
d. androgens and estrogens.
a. effector inhibition
87. The primary function of food carbohydrates in b. allosteric inhibition
the body is to c. feedback inhibition
a. provide for the storage of glycogen in cells. d. competitive inhibition by nonproduct
b. maintain the constancy of the blood sugar.
c. maintain energy production within the 93. Which type of lipid contains a gonane core?
cells. a. fatty acid
d. contribute to the structure of the cells. b. phospholipid
c. steroid
88. A high level of ketone bodies in urine indicates d. triglyceride
marked increase in the metabolism of
a. carbohydrates. 94. The bonds between amino acids in a poly-
b. fats. peptide are
c. proteins. a. glycosidic bonds.
d. nucleic acids. b. ester bonds.
c. peptide bonds.
89. Which polysaccharide is a branched polymer d. hydrogen bonds.
of -glucose found in the liver and muscle
cells? Answers
a. amylase 85. a. By definition, carbohydrates are made of
b. cellulose oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen.
c. glycogen 86. b. Hemoglobin is a protein present in the
d. amylopectin blood. Its function is to transport carbon
dioxide and oxygen through the body.
90. The sequence of amino acids that make up a 87. c. Glucose, the monosaccharide, is the
protein is referred to as the protein’s primary energy source in the body.
a. primary structure. 88. b. Ketone bodies are formed from free fatty
b. secondary structure. acids.
c. tertiary structure. 89. c. Glycogen is a branched polymer of -
d. quaternary structure. glucose, which is found stored in limited
amounts in the liver and muscle cells.
91. The site on an enzyme molecule that does the 90. a. Proteins can be described by their primary,
catalytic work is called the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary
a. binding site. structure. The primary structure is the most
b. allosteric site. basic structure and refers to the sequence of
c. lock. amino acids that make up the protein.
d. active site.
216
91. d. The active site is where the substrate is units. It is expressed as a fraction. For instance,
1 kg
acted on. for 1 kg = 2.2 lbs., the conversion factor is: lbs. or
2.2
2.2 lbs.
92. c. E stops E1 from converting A to B. .
1 kg
93. c. Steroids are characterized by a gonane
core, which is three six-carbon rings Example:
(cyclohexanes) and one five-carbon ring Convert 50 cm to m:
(cyclopentane) fused together. Since 100 cm = 1 m, the conversion factor is
94. c. Peptide bonds are formed between adjacent 1m 100 cm

100
cm or 1m

amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
1m
So, 50 cm × ( cm ) = 0.50 m
100
III. Other Concepts You Example:

Should Be Familiar With How many grams are in 0.45 lbs.? (1 lb. = 453.6 g)
1 lb. 453.6 g
Conversion factor: 453.6 g or 1 l
b.
A. The Scientific Method Since we need an answer in grams, we will use
1. General the conversion factor that has the grams in
The scientific method is based upon observations the numerator.
453.6 g
that lead to the formulation of a hypothesis in an So, 0.45 lb. × (1 lb. ) = 204.1 g.

attempt to make a comprehensive guess. Only experi-
ments (reproducible ones) will confirm the hypothesis D. Significant Figures
and develop into a theory supported by all the facts. The number of significant figures in any physical
quantity or measurement is the number of digits
2. The Science of Chemistry known precisely to be accurate. The last digit to
Chemistry is the study of the structures, proper- the right is inaccurate. The rules for counting sig-
ties, and transformation of atoms and molecules. nificant figures are the following:
B. Metric System n Zeros sandwiched between nonzero digits are

Metric system is the standard system for recording significant. For example, both 400.005 and
measurements. It is a decimal system (the basic unit 400,005 have six significant figures.
and its subunits are separated by increasing and de- n Zeros that locate the decimal place (place
creasing powers of ten). Some of the basic units of holder) on the left are not significant. For
measurement are: example, 0.045 ml, 0.0045 ml, and 0.00045 ml
n
each have two significant figures.
Length: meter (m)
n Trailing zeros to the right of the decimal point
n Volume: liter (l)
n
are significant if the number is greater than 1.
Mass: kilogram (kg)
n
For example, 4.56000 has six significant figures.
Time: the second (s)
n For numbers smaller than 1, only zeros to the
n Temperature: Kelvin (K)
n
right of the first significant digit are signifi-
Amount of substance: mole (mol)
cant. For example, 0.020 has two significant
C. Unit Conversion: The Factor figures.
n Trailing zeros are not significant in a non-
Label Method
Conversion factor establishes a relationship of decimal number. For example, 5,500 has two
equivalence in measurement between two different significant figures.
217
E. Error, Accuracy, Precision, 6. Amine

and Uncertainty
N
Error is the difference between a value obtained ex-
perimentally and the standard value accepted by the
scientific community. 7. Amide
O
Accuracy establishes how close in agreement a
===
measurement is with the accepted value.
C
Precision of a measurement is the degree to NH2
which successive measurements agree with each other
(average deviation is minimized).
8. Ester
Uncertainty expresses the doubt associated O
===
with the accuracy of any single measurement.
C
F. Functional Groups in OR
Organic Chemistry
1. Alkene 9. Aromatic
C === C
10. Alkyne
2. Alcohol
C === C
OH
11. Ether
3. Aldehyde O
O
===
12. Disulfide
C
H S S
4. Ketone
O
===
5. Carboxylic Acid
O
===
C
OH
218
9
C H A P T E R
GENERAL SCIENCE
REVIEW
CHAPTER SUMMARY
This chapter highlights the core concepts that you need to know
for the general science section of most health occupations en-
trance exams—essential topics such as the scientific method,
formation of the universe, evolution, and biodiversity. Use this
chapter as a study aid to review important concepts and test
yourself with sample questions.
General Science Review: Important Concepts
A. Description of How Health Occupations Entrance Exams Test

General Science
Not all health occupations entrance exams measure scientific knowledge in the same way. The natural sciences sec-
tion of the Health Occupations Aptitude Exam (HOAE), made up of approximately 65 multiple-choice questions,
tests your knowledge of general science. Other entrance exams, like the Health Occupations Basic Entrance Test
(HOBET), require only that you can read and understand college-level scientific material, and do not have a sepa-
rate science test section.
The following subject areas are important for you to know for your exam: history and methods of sci-
ence, the cosmos, basics of matter, evolution and life, earth works, biodiversity, ecology, and global environ-
mental challenges.
219
– GENERAL SCIENCE REVIEW –
B. How to Use This Chapter Pythagorus (560–480 B.C.E.) discovered the

Use the information about core topics and the practice mathematics of musical harmony and the
questions in this chapter to guide you as you prepare for properties of right triangles (triangles with
your exam, but remember that this chapter should not one 90° angle in them).
be your only resource. Review scientific concepts more Hippocrates (460–370 B.C.E.) was called the “fa-
comprehensively in your own textbooks. ther of medicine.”
After you read each subject heading in this Plato (427–347 B.C.E.) was a major philosopher
chapter, answer the practice questions that follow. who wrote the dialogues of Socrates, cham-
These questions are designed to reflect the type of pioning logical thinking.
questions you will find on your health occupations Aristotle (384–322 B.C.E.) was a student of Plato
entrance exam. Once you have answered the sample and tutor of Alexander the Great. He wrote
questions, you can target the content areas where you volumes on the knowledge of everything,
need the most review. from plants to the heavens and politics.
Plan your study time effectively so that you have Euclid (325–270 B.C.E.) conducted significant
enough preparation for the test. Familiarizing your- work in geometry.
self with real test questions and brushing up on im- Archimedes (287–212 B.C.E.), according to leg-
portant natural science topics in a good college-level end, ran down the street naked after discov-
textbook will build your confidence and lessen your ering the law of buoyancy and density
test anxiety. during a bath, which allowed a king to verify
the amount of gold in a crown. He accom-
plished major work in geometry and was
II. Main Topics first to calculate the surface area and
volume of a sphere.
A. History and Methods of Science
Everywhere you look, science is evident from the tech- b. Originators of Modern Science
nology of medicine to our understanding of how stars Nicholas Copernicus (1473–1543), Polish. His
are made. Here you have an overview of what science is book showed that the motions of the Sun,
and how it works. Moon, and planets in the sky could be
explained by assuming that the planets go
1. Giants of Science around the Sun and that Earth is a planet
How did science begin? Who were the early discov- as well. The book had so much influence
erers of this way of exploring nature? It is impor- that we still talk about the “Copernican
tant to look back and review some of the influential Revolution.”
figures in this field. Tycho Brahe (1546–1601), Danish. His observa-
tions and notes of planetary motion were the
a. Ancient Greeks foundation of his student Johannes Kepler’s
(Some dates are approximate.) later work.
Francis Bacon (1561–1626), English. He wrote
Thales (624–546 B.C.E.), called the “father of early books on how to do science, emphasiz-
philosophy,” said the universe was ultimately ing experimentation and inductive reasoning
made of water (one of the four ancient (to make generalizations).
Greek elements of water, fire, earth, and air). Galileo Galilei (1564–1642), Italian. Galileo
studied the swing of a pendulum, found that
220
bodies of different masses fall at the same Sir Charles Lyell (1797–1875), Scottish. This
rate, and distinguished acceleration from geologist championed “uniformitarianism,”
velocity. He first saw the moons of Jupiter the idea that small constant changes over
and craters on Earth’s Moon. He was time created today’s Earth.
branded a heretic and condemned to house Baron von Humboldt (1769–1850), German.
arrest for his assertions of his findings. Baron von Humboldt was a geologist and
Johannes Kepler (1571–1630), German. Kepler world traveler. The “Humboldt Current” off
described the laws of planetary motion and South America is named after him.
declared that the paths of planets around the Matthias Jacob Schleiden (1804–1881), German.
Sun are ellipses, not circles. Schleiden contributed the cell theory for plants
René Descartes (1596–1650), French. This father that says that all plants are made of cells.
of modern philosophy invented coordinate Charles Darwin (1809–1882), English. Darwin’s
geometry (the x–y axis) and said, “I think, book The Origin of Species by Means of Natu-
therefore I am.” ral Selection started a new field of science,
Robert Hooke (1635–1703), English. Hooke evolutionary biology. He traveled extensively
published the book Micrographia, with de- in South America and discovered many new
tailed drawings of life under a microscope. species both modern and extinct.
He named the little units he saw in cork Theodor Schwann (1810–1882), German.
“cells,” which became the general word used Schwann contributed the cell theory for
in biology. animals that says that all animals are made of
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723), Dutch. cells and coined the term “metabolism.”
He perfected the microscope and made many Gregor Mendel (1822–1884), Austrian. Mendel
discoveries, such as human sperm cells. studied the heredity of pea plants, which led
Sir Isaac Newton (1643–1727), English. Newton to genetics.
discovered the law of gravity, discovered how Louis Pasteur (1822–1895), French. Pasteur
a prism splits light into colors, invented invented biochemistry, discovered right-
calculus, and set forth the laws of motion handed and left-handed crystals, worked
(such as “every action has an equal and with yeast and proved that life only came
opposite reaction”). from other life, and developed the germ
Pierre Simon Laplace (1749–1827), French. theory of disease.
Laplace applied math to the solar system in a Thomas Huxley (1825–1895), English. Huxley
new level of detail and correctly surmised championed the theory of evolution for
that the solar system was formed by conden- technical and popular audiences, and be-
sation from a gas nebula. came known as Darwin’s “bulldog.”
Lord Kelvin (1824–1907), Scottish. Kelvin made
c. Science Goes Full Tilt new calculations on heat and analyzed the
James Hutton (1726–1797), Scottish. This “father history of Earth.
of geology” realized the antiquity of Earth. James Clerk Maxwell (1831–1870), Scottish.
John Dalton (1766–1844), English. Dalton was a Maxwell developed mathematical laws of
chemist whose theory of atoms explained electromagnetism, now known as “Maxwell’s
why elements combined into molecules in equations.”
constant proportions.
221
Dmitri Mendeleyev (1834–1907), Russian. Linus Pauling (1901–1994), American. Pauling

Mendeleyev arranged elements in repeating studied electronegativity and chemical
sequences of properties, and thereby created bonds and is considered one of the most
the first periodical table of chemistry. He influential chemists of the twentieth century.
predicted new elements, which were, in fact, Francis Crick (1916–2004), English. Crick was
found. codiscoverer of the double helix structure
Ernst Mach (1838–1916), Austrian. Mach was a of DNA.
physicist honored by our use of the name Erwin Schrödinger (1887–1961), Austrian.
“Mach 1” for the speed of sound, “Mach 2” Schrödinger developed wave mechanics to
for twice the speed of sound, and so forth. explain the structure of atoms.
Sigmund Freud (1856–1939), Austrian. Freud James Watson (1928– ), American. Watson was
developed a theory of dreams and the un- also codiscoverer of the double helix struc-
conscious. ture of DNA and a leader in the recent Hu-
man Genome Project.
d. The Last 100 Years
Albert Einstein (1879–1955), German-Swiss. 2. Methods
Einstein computed the size of atoms. He What makes science special are its specific meth-
developed the special and general theories of ods that uncover the truths of nature, in ways that
relativity, for light and gravity, respectively. can be repeated by anyone. For example, after
He also described the concept of four- Galileo saw the moons of Jupiter, anyone could
dimensional space-time and made famous look at Jupiter through a telescope and see them.
the equation E = mc2. Science does not accept any revelations said to be
Marie Curie (1867–1934), Polish. Curie was the available only to visionary individuals.
first person to win two Nobel prizes, for her
pioneering studies of radioactivity. a. Scientific Method
Ernest Rutherford (1871–1937), New Zealand. The scientific method is used in all branches of sci-
Rutherford’s work with nuclear physics led ence to study the natural world. The method out-
the way for modern understanding of atomic lines a series of five principal steps that scientists
structure. His “gold-foil” experiment revealed must undertake in order to test and verify their
that atoms were mainly empty space with ideas. Let's review it again.
most of their mass located in a central nu-
cleus. 1. Formulate the problem: Develop a question,
Alfred Wegener (1880–1930), German. Wegener the solution to which explains an order or
proposed that all continents were once a process in nature.
single large one and had drifted apart in a 2. Collect data: Research background infor-
“continental drift.” mation and make observations that are re-
Niels Bohr (1885–1962), Danish. He described lated to the problem.
the “Bohr” model of the atom, in which elec- 3. Form a hypothesis: Develop an educated
trons rotate around a nucleus like planets guess based on your observations and back-
around the Sun. ground research that will answer the ques-
Werner Heisenberg (1901–1976), German. tion. The hypothesis must be logical and
Heisenberg developed the uncertainty testable—experiments must be possible that
principle of quantum physics. can disprove the hypothesis.
222
4. Do experiments: Conduct experiments to presence or absence of dust). Experiments also have

test the hypothesis. A hypothesis can be dis- dependent variables, which, in our example, is state
proved, but never absolutely proved—it may of the broth, which is affected by (and therefore is
change with new evidence! Experiments dependent upon) the independent variables. Often,
must be repeatable, free of bias, and ade- experiments are not a simple two-part system, but
quately controlled. include some variable that is shifted across a range
5. Analyze the data: Look at the results of your of values, to be compared to the control. If you were
experiments. Determine if they are consistent Pasteur, you might predict that using a different
with your hypothesis. If not, develop a new kind of meat broth would give the same results,
hypothesis that is consistent with all available thus confirming the original experiment. More re-
data. Begin the scientific method again with markably, you might predict the existence of small,
this new hypothesis! invisible organisms in the dust of air as the cause
of the spoiling of the meat broth (microbes in air
Successful hypotheses lead scientists to make pre- were in fact discovered).
dictions about the natural world that allow the hy- Hypothesis and theory: The process of experi-
pothesis to be tested further. ment is cyclic. That is, the experiment leads to new
ideas for further experiments. The cycle of the sci-
b. Conducting Good Experiments entific method is repeated.
Experiments are tests designed to evaluate a hy-
pothesis. In a good experiment, only one variable is c. How Truth Is Forged
changed at a time and all other variables are kept The ancient Greeks never formalized the process
constant; this is to ensure that any change is a result of experimentation in the way that Europeans did
of only that variable. Often in an experiment, two after Galileo’s time.
systems are compared; in one system nothing is Laws versus rules. When phenomena eventually
changed (the control), and in the other system the become explained, they become laws of science.
aspect to be tested is altered (the formal experi- This term is most appropriate in physics and
ment). The results of the two systems are compared. chemistry. Biology, in contrast, includes so many
creatures and types of ecosystems, that there are
Example: Louis Pasteur took two flasks of often exceptions to the norm. Biologists refer to
sterilized meat broth and configured their long rules instead of laws.
necks so air could go into both. But for one (the What determines scientific truth? The famous
experiment), dust normally in the air was blocked. philosopher of science, Karl Popper, said experi-
In the other (the control), the dust along with the ments never prove, they only fail to disprove. He
air could get in (as would usually be the situation, therefore said one should design experiments with
note the baseline is the control). the aim to falsify. Popper’s concept has been influ-
ential. So how is truth known? As more and more
In Pasteur’s experiment, he observed that the experiments fail to falsify a specific hypothesis, the
meat broth spoiled in the control flask open to both hypothesis comes to be known as true.
air and dust but not in the other experiment flask Paradigm shift is a term coined by the philo-
where dust was excluded. Experiments consist of in- sopher of the process of science, Thomas Kuhn,
dependent variables, which are usually consciously that refers to what happens when new scientific
varied by the experimenter (in Pasteur’s case, the discoveries overturn an entire body of knowledge.
223
Einstein’s theories of relativity were a paradigm today’s computer models of the weather that in-
shift. clude hundreds of equations.
Reductionism occurs when smaller entities in-
teracting as a system explain a phenomenon. 3. Measurements
Holism is sometimes contrasted to reductionism— Measurements are so important to science that a
it looks to the context, the larger system surround- practitioner once said that “the only things that
ing the phenomenon being studied, as key to the count are things that can be counted.” This goes
explanation. too far, but it captures the importance of measure-
Truth changes as science progresses. Does that ment. For example, the Egyptians knew how to lay
mean that anything goes, that anything is possible? out right triangles to measure areas of land and to
All scientific truth is tentative but not arbitrary. site the pyramids. The word geometry comes from
Truth is won by many practitioners, checking each ancient Greek, meaning “Earth-measurement.”
other’s results and trying new ideas for experi-
ments, over and over. a. Units Are Crucial
Two types of units are used in the world: the metric
d. Graphs, Calculations, and Models system and the English system (used only in the
Detailed data from experiments are often plotted United States). The units in the English system in-
as points or lines on graphs with x- and y-axes. clude pounds, quarts, feet, inches, miles, and de-
grees Fahrenheit. The modern metric system (also
x-axis: the horizontal axis, that by convention, known as the International System of Measure-
varies along the numerical range of the inde- ments or SI), used by most of the world and by sci-
pendent variable (either time or some other entists, is the universal language of science. Here
property being changed by the experimenter, are some units in the metric system, which uses fac-
such as temperature). tors of ten smaller or larger to develop the names.
y-axis: the vertical axis that contains the result Length: meter (m)
being measured, which is called the dependent micrometer (µm), also called a micron
variable. (0.000001 m)
millimeter (mm) (0.001 m)
Three-dimensional graphs are graphs that use
centimeter (cm) (0.01 m)
two horizontal axes for two independent variables
kilometer (km) (1,000 m)
(x,y) and a vertical axis called the z-axis for the de-
Time: second (s). Time in the metric system does
pendent variable.
not use factors (or powers) of ten, except for
Calculations are crucial to science. Important
units under a second (hundredths of a second,
tools are measurements, which then might be ana-
milliseconds, microseconds, and so forth).
lyzed by algebra (to relate variables), calculus (to
minute (min.)
look at changes in time, and changes in rates of
hour (h. or hr.)
processes in time), and statistics (to look at large
day (d.)
amounts of data that have inherent variability).
year (y. or yr.)
Models are conceptual or mathematical systems
that serve as explanations for phenomena. Models Note that there is another “second” in use as
can be simple, such as Copernicus’s model of the well. Consider: For degrees latitude and longitude,
solar system. But usually the term model refers to the 360 degrees of the circle is divided into smaller
conceptual systems that are more complex, such as units called “minutes” (60 to each degree, note this
224
is not a minute of time) and “seconds” (60 seconds 1012 tera (T), trillion
to a minute of degree). 1015 peta (P), quadrillion
Mass: gram (g)
micrograms (mg) (0.000001 g) Constants: Relating properties in the calcula-
milligrams (mg) (0.001 g) tions of science has resulted in universal constants
gram (g) for major laws. These constants have units that
kilograms (kg) (1,000 g) make the total units equal on both sides of scien-
metric tons (t) (1,000 kilograms) tific equations. You do not have to memorize the
Volume: liter (L) numbers, but you should be familiar with the exis-
milliliters (mL) (0.001 L) tence and use of these constants.
the cubic meter (1,000 L = 1 m3) Avogadro’s number NA or (n): In a “mole” of
Temperature: The degree Centigrade (°C, some- atoms of any element, for example, there is an Avo-
times also called degree Celsius). An interval gadro’s number of atoms. This number can also be
of one degree C is ᎏ95ᎏ times larger than the used for the number of molecules of a substance in
interval of one °F. To convert the numerical a mole of a pure compound.
scale of °F into the numerical scale of °C, use NA = 6.022 ¥1023 mole–1
the equation x°C = ᎏ59ᎏ(y°F – 32). The freezing Speed of light in a vacuum (c): 3.0 ¥ 108 ᎏmsᎏ.
point of water is 0°C or 32°F. Universal gas constant (R): used to relate pres-
Energy: The joule (J), or calorie (cal); 1 cal = sure, temperature, and volume of a gas in the gas
4.184 J. Note that 1 calorie of energy in food law.
(Cal) is actually a kilocalorie of energy in the J L ¥ atm
________ _________
metric system. Therefore, 1 Cal = 1,000 cal = R = 8.314 mol ¥ K or 0.08206 mol ¥ K
1 kcal. Also, power is energy summed up
over time. Therefore, another term for en- Stefan-Boltzmann constant (␴). It is used to re-
ergy is the kilowatt-hour (kW-h) [or joule late the energy of radiation of a material body
second (J-s)]. (such as the Sun) to its surface temperature.
Power: watt (W) J
___________
milliwatts (mW) s = 5.67 ¥10–8 s ¥ m2 ¥ K4
kilowatts (kW)
You Should Review
n major scientists
b. Powers of Ten and Constants
n major experiments and findings
Powers of ten with prefix names in the metric
n units of metric system
system:
n powers of ten
10–12 pico (p), one-trillionth
10–9 nano (n), one-billionth Questions
10–6 micro (µ), one-millionth 1. This man wrote The Origin of Species by Means
10–3 milli (m), one-thousandth of Natural Selection, which established the
10–2 centi (c), one-hundredth theory of evolution.
103 kilo (k), thousand a. Charles Darwin
106 mega (M), million b. Gregor Mendel
109 giga (G), billion c. Aristotle
d. René Descartes
225
2. If you are measuring how water chemistry 7. Who was the first to win two Nobel Prizes, for
changes in a river in the days after a flood, groundbreaking work on radioactivity?
the time measurement is the a. Niels Bohr
a. independent variable. b. Marie Curie
b. independent constant. c. Ernest Rutherford
c. dependent variable. d. Erwin Schrödinger
d. dependent constant.
8. You predict that salt will increase the boiling
3. In the metric system, the prefix tera- refers to point of water. Which answer best defines the
which number? nature of your “prediction”?
a. thousand a. It is an experiment.
b. trillion b. It is scientific theory.
c. ten thousand c. It is an observation.
d. three d. It is a hypothesis.
4. This codiscoverer published one of the giant 9. How many milliwatts are in 10 watts?
papers in the history of science in 1953, on a. 10,000
the double helix of DNA. b. 1,000
a. Albert Einstein c. 100
b. Francis Crick d. 10
c. Ernst Mach
d. Niels Bohr 10. Which of the following is the metric (SI) unit
for energy?
5. Mathematics provides science with analytical a. watt (W)
tools. The branch of mathematics that deals b. Centigrade (°C)
with the rates of changes of variables over c. joule (J)
time is d. ampere (A)
a. algebra.
b. calculus. Answers
c. statistics. 1. a. Darwin’s world-shaking book on evolution
d. tensor analysis. was published in 1859, in England. See
pages 220–222 for the others.
6. To compute the number of molecules in 2. a. The independent variable in this case is
2 moles of oxygen gas, you would use time, because that is what is changing by
a. Avogadro’s number. itself. On the other hand, the river
b. Einstein’s speed of light. chemistry is the dependent variable,
c. the Stefan-Boltzman constant. changing as a function of time.
d. Planck’s constant. Choices b and d are made up.
3. b. The prefix tera- refers to trillion. For
example, a teragram is a trillion grams.
226
4. b. Francis Crick not only described the double light. Visible red is a longer wavelength than blue.
helix of DNA, but went on to figure out the The particular wavelengths for each element form
genetic code that coded for amino acids that patterns, which are characteristic of that element,
are assembled into proteins. See pages and which might be called photon-prints, after the
220–222 for the others. patterns of the EM photons. As the numerous EM
5. b. Calculus can take derivatives of variables, emissions from a star pass through gases that con-
which gives rates of changes in the variables. tain particular elements, elements also absorb
6. a. Avogadro’s number is a specific number of wavelengths in their characteristic patterns. Thus
atoms or molecules (a very large number!). both emission spectra and absorption spectra can
Planck’s constant is a constant of quantum provide astronomers with information about the
physics. See pages 220–222 for the others. elements out in space.
7. b. Marie Curie was the first person to win two Hubble’s Observations: By examining spectra,
Nobel Prizes, one in physics in 1903 and Hubble found that compared to the photon-prints
one in chemistry in 1911. of elements on Earth, those elements found in the
8. d. A hypothesis or educated guess is a galaxies of deep space are shifted toward the red; in
formulated idea or prediction that can other words, the wavelengths are longer. This
then be tested with experiments. could only occur if the galaxies were moving away
9. a. Because there are 1,000 milliwatts in one from Earth. (If the galaxies were moving toward
watt, in 10 watts there are 10,000 milliwatts. us, the shift in the wavelengths of the patterns
10. c. The joule (J) is the metric (SI) unit used for would have been toward the blue, which was not
measuring energy. Watts measure power, observed.)
Centigrade (°C) measures temperature, and Hubble had discovered the expanding universe.
ampere (A) measures electric current. By extrapolating the expansion back in time, as-
tronomers concluded that the expansion started
B. The Cosmos with a single explosive event known as the Big Bang.
1. First Billion Years of the Universe If all galaxies are moving away from us, does
Nearly 14 billion years ago, our universe began that imply that we are at the center? No, because
with an event called the Big Bang and by a billion inhabitants of any galaxy would also observe that
years or so later, galaxies had formed. they appear to be at the center. To illustrate this
phenomenon, think of raisins in an expanding
a. Evidence for the Expanding Universe raisin bread. To each raisin, all the others are mov-
In the 1920s, American astronomer Edwin Hubble ing away.
measured the distances to a number of galaxies We can look back in time, as we look out into
and their spectra of light, which provided crucial space, because the light reaching us was emitted
evidence that the universe is expanding. long ago. Because the speed of light is finite (fast
Spectra: All elements, if above 0 K (absolute but finite), the light emitted from stars in our own
zero, the K or Kelvin scale of temperature, which is galaxy hundred of thousands of years ago or from
referenced to absolute zero, approximately –273° stars in other galaxies billions of years ago is just
C), glow at particular wavelengths. These are along now reaching us.
different parts of the electromagnetic (EM) spec-
trum, which spans the very long wavelengths of ra- b. The Big Bang
dio waves to the ultra short wavelengths of X-rays. The Big Bang occurred about 13.7 billion years ago
The wavelengths that our eyes see are called visible (with an uncertainty of a few hundred million years).
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At one microsecond (following the Big Bang): The radiation. This crucial event separated matter and
universe as a whole had a temperature of about energy. Except for small amounts absorbed over
one trillion K. Matter as we know it, as stable time by interactions with matter, this energy has
atoms, does not exist at this temperature. been traveling throughout the universe ever since,
Between the first microsecond and one second: Mat- as the universe stretches and cools with the ongo-
ter and antimatter nearly annihilated each other. ing expansion.
Antimatter is a form of matter that is the mirror In 1965, this radiation was detected. It is called
opposite of matter in all aspects. For a positively the cosmic background radiation. Its tempera-
charged particle, for example, the antiparticle is ture, which represents the average temperature of
negatively charged. Particles and their antiparticles the current state of the universe, is 2.7 K, very close
have the same masses. The key point is that when to absolute zero. (Locally, places like Earth and the
particles and antiparticles meet, they explode into Sun, of course, are much hotter.)
pure energy, in an amount according to Einstein’s At this point of formation of atoms, both
famous equation E = mc2. We know that antiparti- theoretical calculations and actual measurements
cles exist because they can be made in high-energy have shown that matter consisted of 76% hydro-
physics experiments. gen and 24% helium (with a trace of lithium). No
In the early universe, there was an imbalance other elements existed.
between matter and antimatter, to the extent of
about one part in 200 million. Therefore, in the d. Formation of Stars and Galaxies
matter-antimatter annihilation, only one part in Stars and galaxies formed between one million and
200 million remained as matter, and the rest be- one billion years after the Big Bang. Stars are cre-
came energy. ated when gas clouds in space condense, pulled to-
At one second: The universe was about one bil- gether by gravity. During the condensation, the gas
lion K. This was “cool” enough for protons, neu- becomes hotter and hotter. If the density and tem-
trons, and electrons to exist as stable particles, perature are high enough, the protostar ignites and
what physicists call “subatomic” particles, because is sustained as a glowing star by nuclear fusion.
they are basic constituents of atoms. Stars are within large gravitationally bound
Note that the proton by itself is the nucleus of a groupings called galaxies. Our Milky Way galaxy
hydrogen atom. has about 100 billion stars, which go through
birth, life, and death. In special cases, extremely
c. Formation of First Atoms large masses can contract so much that light itself
At around 300,000 years after the Big Bang, the tem- cannot escape; they are called black holes. Many
perature of the universe had dropped to about 3,000 galaxies are believed to have black holes in their
K (close to the temperature of our Sun’s surface). centers. Our galaxy has a central black hole.
This was cool enough for electrons to remain bound The contraction of the matter of the universe
to nuclei of protons and neutrons, creating atoms. into galaxies could only have occurred from some
(In contrast, at hotter temperatures, electrons are initial lumpiness in the universe, which was pre-
stripped off nuclei and atoms cannot exist.) dicted to be present in the cosmic background ra-
Astronomers talk about this event by saying that diation. Satellites such as the Cosmic Background
the “universe became transparent.” Before this Explorer did indeed find such inhomogeneities,
point, freely moving electrons (in the state of mat- which indicate differences in the distribution of
ter known as plasma, a kind of matter-energy energy in space from the time the universe became
“fog”) blocked the propagation of electromagnetic transparent. These differences are small, only + or
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–27 microdegrees warmer and cooler than the av- at their deaths. One supernova, for example, which
erage 2.7 K, but they are a crucial confirmation for occurred in our galaxy in A . D. 1066, is now the
the Big Bang theory. Our universe now contains Crab Nebula. Ancient people observed this bright
about 100 billion galaxies. new star in the sky before it faded.
Supernovas are important parts of how our
2. Birth of Chemical Elements in Stars universe works. They do two special things. First,
All elements heavier than the primordial triplet of all elements heavier than iron (such as gold and
elements, primarily hydrogen and helium with a uranium) are made in the intense heat and pres-
trace of lithium, are created in stars. sure of the supernova. Second, the supernovas dis-
perse all the elements inside the former star out
a. Nuclear Fusion into space. We can see these elements in the emis-
Stars are hot and are able to throw radiation into sion and absorption spectra in the regions sur-
space because of fusion reactions deep within rounding former sites of supernovas. In the
their cores. For atoms from hydrogen up to the dispersal of elements by supernovas, there are ele-
atomic weight of iron, energy is released when ments made earlier in fusion reactions during the
atoms are fused to make larger atoms. This is belong, ordinary lifetime of the star, as well as the
cause the protons and neutrons inside the nuclei new elements made only in the supernova itself.
of the larger atoms (again, up to iron) contain less The elements dispersed into space can eventu-
mass per subatomic particle and therefore less en- ally gather into gas clouds and might contract, af-
ergy according to Einstein’s equation. The excess ter mixing with remnants of other supernovas,
energy of fusion is released as heat and radiation. into totally new stars and their planets.
b. Sequence of Births of Elements 3. Formation of Earth

Inside stars, the first element to be fused is hydro- a. Ages of Sun and Earth
gen, the most abundant primordial element. Under About five billion years ago, a gas cloud condensed
intense temperature and pressure, two hydrogen into the star that is now our Sun, which has been
atoms are fused into one atom of helium, releasing burning since that birth.
energy and making stars hot, thus sustaining fur- Around the Sun, the gas cloud condensed into
ther fusion reactions. When the hydrogen is used smaller bodies (picture small whirlpools of contrac-
up, helium is fused into carbon, and then the car- tion around a large, central one). What started as
bon and some helium are fused into oxygen. All the dust grains coalesced into rocks, then boulders, then
elements up to iron can be made in this way. Note objects the size of mountains. By collisions and
(H) Æ Helium (He) Æ Carbon (C) Æ Oxygen (O).

the sequence of how elements are made: Hydrogen gravitational attraction, which held the bodies to-
gether, the objects grew. Sometimes, the collisions
All these fusion reactions release energy. created smaller bodies but, on the whole, growth in
size ruled. Earth formed about 4.5 billion years ago.
c. Supernovas and the Dispersal
of Elements b. Methods of Dating
Stars can run out of matter to fuel fusion; they can To date the formation of stars and planets, scientists
“die.” Some stars die by throwing off gases, then use radioactive clocks. Very large atoms, such as those
withering into small, smoldering white dwarfs. of uranium, can have unstable nuclei. These unstable
Very massive stars, on the order of ten times the nuclei restructure into nuclei that are slightly smaller
mass of our Sun, can create supernova explosions by giving off radioactive particles (there is also a kind
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of radioactive decay that only gives off energy). The In the manned U.S. space program, the Mercury
new atom might also be radioactive, and thus, the program put solo humans in orbit, the Gemini
process continues until it reaches an atom that is per- program put teams of two into orbit, and the
fectly stable. Lead-206, for example, is the stable Apollo program, with teams of three, aimed for the
daughter-product of what started as Uranium-238 Moon. The first manned Moon landing came in
(the numbers refer to the atomic weights). When 1969. The Russians had the first space station,
molten or gaseous, the lead-206 is driven off; the ra- called Mir (for “peace”), but eventually it could not
dioactive clock is thereby “reset.” We can use the clock be maintained and fell to Earth. The International
to date when rocks formed. The oldest Earth rocks Space Station, led by the efforts of the United
are 3.9 billion years old, the oldest Moon rocks 4.1 States, is currently in orbit, and every half year or
billion years old, and most meteorites about 4.6 bil- so, there are changes of crew. Russia has supplied
lion years old. Because the Moon and Earth would the rockets for these changes in recent years, fol-
have been molten even after they formed (see below), lowing the grounding of the U.S. space shuttles, af-
the date of the meteorites is taken to be that time that ter the second total loss of a space shuttle crew in
Earth condensed (4.6 billion years ago, or, rounded to 2003, during a disastrous reentry into Earth’s at-
the nearest half billion, about four and a half billion mosphere. The space shuttle program was rein-
years ago). stated in 2005 was retired July 21, 2011.
c. Formation of the Moon b. Discoveries from Venus

Though it was once thought that the Moon might Astronomers cannot see surface features of the
have condensed separately around Earth, scientists planet Venus because of its thick clouds. Several
believe the following scenario to be true (from U.S. and Russian probes have measured properties
multiple lines of evidence). A few hundred million of the Venusian atmosphere and even mapped the
years after the formation of Earth, a rogue body surface from orbit, using various wavelengths that
about the size of Mars, which had an odd orbit can penetrate the clouds. Despite its similar size to
around the Sun, smashed into Earth. Material Earth, Venus is very different from Earth. It is ex-
from both the colliding body and Earth flew off tremely hot, partly because it is closer to the Sun,
and condensed around Earth to form the Moon. but mostly because the atmosphere is about 600
The Moon was much closer and has been slowly times more massive than that of Earth, and is
moving away from Earth ever since. mostly carbon dioxide. This amount of CO2 pro-
duces an intense greenhouse effect, keeping the
4. Exploration of the Solar System planet hot. There is no water vapor or oxygen in
From the dawn of time, humans have looked up at the atmosphere.
the stars. Only in the past half century have we
been able to look back on Earth itself with satellite c. Discoveries from Mars
cameras and even human eyes. In the mid-1970s, the Viking probe successfully
landed on Mars and measured properties of the
a. From Satellites to Humans in Space soil, seeking signs of life. None was found, but sci-
Sputnik, which means “fellow traveler” in Russian, entists now believe there is a possibility for life in
was launched by the U.S.S.R. in 1957. It was the cracks in rocks, well beneath the surface. Unusual
first artificial satellite in orbit. bacteria are found in similar sites deep under the
Vanguard was the first U.S. satellite, in 1958. surface of Earth.
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In 2004, the United States successfully deployed constituent of known, ordinary matter and energy.
two more rovers on the surface of Mars, and in Here are the results:
2012 landed yet another. They have analyzed min-
erals and have concluded, through multiple lines Dark energy: 73% (the most of the substance of
of evidence, that Mars was once wet. Rivers flowed; the universe)
there was possibly a shallow ocean. Again, com- Dark matter: 23%
pared to Earth, the atmosphere of Mars is very for- Ordinary matter and energy: 4%
eign. The thin atmosphere (about 2% the
thickness of that of Earth) is, like that of Venus, c. Life and Intelligence Elsewhere
mostly carbon dioxide. There is only a faint trace Are we alone? The research program called SETI
of oxygen and little nitrogen (the two most abun- (the Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence) seeks
dant gases in Earth’s atmosphere). answers to this question. It assumes that other in-
telligent civilizations might send out signals to
5. Mysteries of the Cosmos space. So far, no definite signals have been found.
a. Dark Matter By measuring wobbles in stars, which are caused
When astronomers use the law of gravity to com- by planets circling the stars and perturbing the stars
pute what the spin of galaxies (such as ours) should with their gravity, astronomers were able to locate
be, given the presence of a known amount of matter, very large planets, assumed to be similar to Jupiter
they find that there must be a significant amount of and Saturn, the gas giants of our solar system. In
matter that is “dark,” unseen, and unknown. 2009, the U.S. launched the Kepler space telescope,
The dark matter is about six times the mass of which was able to detect much smaller planets.
the known, ordinary matter of stars and gas clouds. Thanks to Kepler, more than 3,500 planets around
other stars are currently known, some of which are
b. Dark Energy Earth-sized and capable of supporting life. The first
Certain kinds of supernovas explode with a fixed stars of the universe could not have had planets of
real brilliance. Astronomers have mapped these heavy elements, such as iron. Early planets could
“standard candles,” and, knowing their real bril- not have had carbon, a crucial element for life as we
liance, their apparent brilliance to us on Earth, and know it. This is because iron and carbon are made
their red shifts, can calculate their distances and in the fusion reactions inside stars. Therefore, the
ages. A startling fact has emerged, which has been density of carbon increases over time, as stars go
borne out by other lines of evidence as well: The through lifetimes and more stars form. Is there a
expansion of the universe has been accelerating critical density of carbon needed for life? Perhaps
since the Big Bang. we are alone (or nearly so), because just around the
What is causing the expansion? It is some kind time of formation of Earth the density of carbon
of energy that we cannot currently see. It is there- reached a value high enough to form life. This is a
fore known as dark energy. possible explanation for our apparent aloneness,
Using Einstein’s equation E = mc2, any amount but more work on the history and composition of
of energy can be computed as an equivalent mass. the cosmos needs to be done.
Therefore, scientists can ask about the amounts of
dark energy, dark matter, and the universe’s third
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You Should Review 15. A supernova is observed in a star that is a

n Big Bang theory distance of 500 light-years from Earth.
n formation of stars and galaxies That means we now see the star
n dating methods a. as it was 500 years in the past.
n supernovas b. as it was 500 years after the Big Bang.
n formation of Earth and Moon c. as it will be 500 years in the future.
n characteristics of planets in the solar system d. as it is, basically, today.
n discoveries from space exploration
n dark matter and dark energy 16. We can date very old rocks because of
what fact?
Questions a. Uranium turns into platinum.
11. What feature of our universe is demonstrated b. Uranium turns into lead.
by the “red shift”? c. Lead turns into uranium.
a. an increase in supernovas d. Gold turns into uranium.
b. the contraction of black holes
c. the expansion of the universe 17. How did the Moon form?
d. the decrease in gravity a. A large body crashed into Earth soon after
its own formation.
12. The universe formed approximately how b. A gas cloud condensed around Earth at the
long ago? same time Earth itself condensed.
a. 13.7 thousand years ago c. The early Earth was unstable and split into
b. 13.7 million years ago the Moon and what became Earth.
c. 13.7 billion years ago d. The Moon was captured by Earth early on.
d. 13.7 trillion years ago
18. Which planet is about the same size as Earth,
13. What is the current temperature of the has a blanket of thick clouds, and has a
universe, as indicated by the cosmic back- surface temperature that could melt lead?
ground radiation? a. Mercury
a. 2.7°C b. Jupiter
b. –2.7 K c. Titan
c. –2.7°C d. Venus
d. 2.7 K
19. What was Sputnik?
14. In the stages of nuclear fusion inside stars, a. the first satellite launched into Earth’s orbit
which element in the list, compared to the b. the first spacecraft to reach the moon
others, is the ultimate building block for c. the first manned spacecraft to orbit Earth
all the others? d. the first manned space station
a. hydrogen
b. helium
c. carbon
d. oxygen
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20. What is the main piece of evidence for dark 16. b. Uranium, a radioactive element, turns into
energy? lead, which is stable. The amount of a
a. black holes found in the centers of most particular isotope of lead gives the amount
galaxies of time that has passed since the rock
b. discovery of cosmic background radiation formed and any lead previously present
c. rotations of galaxies not explained by our would have been purged during a gaseous
known, ordinary matter and energy or molten state.
d. acceleration of the expansion of the 17. a. A large body crashed into Earth soon after
universe its own formation. From this collision,
material went into space and recondensed
Answers to form the Moon as well as restructuring
11. c. All galaxies have red shifts in the signatures the surface of Earth. This was after Earth
of elements in their spectra of light, which had already condensed.
shows us that the galaxies are all moving 18. d. Venus has a super-thick atmosphere of
away from each other and therefore that carbon dioxide that creates high surface
the universe is expanding. temperatures. Choice c is not a planet,
12. c. Based upon observations by Edwin Hubble, but a moon of Saturn.
the universe is expanding. Scientists believe 19. a. Sputnik was the first artificial satellite
our expanding universe originated in an launched into Earth’s orbit. The satellite was
event known as the Big Bang, approximately launched by the Soviet Union on October 4,
13.7 billion years ago. 1957, and spurred the U.S.–Soviet “space
13. d. 2.7 K. K for Kelvin refers to the temperature race” and exploration of space as we know
scale that uses absolute zero as the “zero” it today.
point. Note that it is written as just “K” rather 20. d. The existence of dark energy is evidenced by
than “° K.” You can figure this out if you know the accelerating expansion of the universe.
that 0 K refers to absolute zero and that the We know this by measuring the distances
average temperature of the universe is very to certain types of supernovas in distant
close to absolute zero. Negative K makes no galaxies, which serve as standard candles
sense. Choices a and c are too warm, given of known brightness.
that 0°C is about 273 K.
14. a. Hydrogen is the building block for other C. Basics of Matter
elements inside stars. It is the simplest 1. Physics
element, with one proton and one electron. Physics is the study of the constituents and forces
15. a. We see the star as it was 500 years in the that govern matter at its most elementary level.
past, because light can only travel at a finite
speed (fast but finite, the c in Einstein’s a. Atoms
famous equation). A light-year is the The word atom comes from the ancient Greek,
distance that light travels in a year. When meaning “indivisible.” Atoms are the most finely
we look out into space, we also are looking divided parts of matter that possess the character-
back in time. istics of a particular element, such as copper, gold,
carbon, or hydrogen.
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Atoms are not actually indivisible. Atoms not in radioactive, which means it is inherently unstable
molecules or ions are electrically neutral and con- and will decay in the following manner. One
tain equal amounts of positive and negative elec- neutron converts to a proton plus an electron
trical charges. The positive charge is concentrated that is shot out at great energy from the nucleus
in a tiny central massive region called the nucleus. (note that the electron was created by the
The negative charge is in one or more tiny elec- conversion; it was not “in” the nucleus). This is
trons, which “whir” around the nucleus, bound to beta decay, governed by the weak nuclear force.
it by electrical attraction. After beta decay, the atom is no longer carbon, it
The nucleus, too, has parts: protons and neu- is nitrogen, with 7 protons and 7 neutrons, and
trons. Protons are positively charged, neutrons are now is perfectly stable. Other radioactive
neutral. Their masses are nearly (but not exactly) isotopes, such as those of uranium, can decay
the same. The mass of a proton or neutron is about in another manner called alpha decay, when a
2,000 times the mass of an electron. bound particle of 2 protons and 2 neutrons
Quantum theory made the picture of the atom (an He nucleus) is ejected.
more complete though more difficult to visualize.
According to quantum mechanics, the electrons do b. Quarks and Charges
not orbit the nucleus like planets around a star, but From the discoveries of quantum mechanics, pro-
are more like clouds of probability, in which an tons and neutrons were found to be made of
electron can exist anywhere in its cloud (its range quarks. There are six flavors (types) of quarks ac-
of possible places), popping in and out of existence cording to the Standard Model (the current frame-
in different sites within its cloud, which fades out work used to describe elementary particles): up,
with distance from the nucleus. down, top, bottom, charm, and strange. Combina-
The atoms of a particular element all have the tions of quarks make up some subatomic particles.
same number of protons in their nuclei (which de- For example, the proton is made of two “up”
termines the charge of the nucleus, thus the number quarks and the neutron is one “up” quark and two
of electrons around the nucleus, and thus the chem- “down” quarks. Other combinations of quarks cre-
istry of the element). But atoms of elements can ate other kinds of particles in a quantum mechani-
vary in the number of neutrons in their nuclei. cal “zoo,” such as mesons. This zoo also contains
Therefore atoms of an element can vary in their chargeless particles called neutrinos with a mass
masses. Atoms with the same number of protons much less than that of electrons.
(same element), but a different number of neutrons
(different atomic mass), are referred to as isotopes. c. Essential Concepts
Velocity (v) is distance (d) covered per unit time
Example: (t): v = ᎏtdᎏ.
Most atoms of the element carbon contain 6 Acceleration (a) is the change in velocity over
protons and 6 neutrons in their nuclei. This is an interval of time. It can be written as a = ᎏ⌬⌬ᎏvt (Dd
carbon-12 (atomic number 6, atomic weight 12). = difference, or, in the terms of calculus, deriva-
About 1 in 100 atoms of carbon have 6 protons tive). If velocity is a change in position, accelera-
and 7 neutrons in their nuclei. This is carbon-13 tion is the change in velocity.
(atomic number 6, atomic weight 13). An even Newtonian concept of force (F): F = m ¥ a. It
smaller fraction of carbon is carbon-14. It has 6 takes force to accelerate a mass (m) (stepping on
protons and 8 neutrons in the nucleus. Also, it is the gas pedal of a car, which causes more gasoline
234
to be burned and converted into the car’s forward waves of compression and expansion in air (or wa-
motion). Honoring Newton, the metric unit of ter). Light waves (standing waves) are electromag-
kg ¥ m
force is called a Newton (N). Its units are ________
s2 netic, which can travel in a vacuum.
(the force it takes to accelerate one kilogram by one
meter by second over the course of one second). d. Basic Forces
Momentum is mass times velocity. A car travel- Physicists recognize four forces that are ultimately
ing at 60 mph has twice the momentum of a car of fundamental.
the same mass traveling at 30 mph.
Objects traveling not in straight lines but in 1. Gravity attracts two masses toward each other.
curved paths have angular properties—angular Mass accelerates due to the gravity at Earth’s
velocity, angular acceleration, and angular mo- surface, which is approximately 9.8 m/s2.
mentum. In the governing equations one must Newton wrote the main equation of gravity,
also account for the change in the angle. Earth has and Einstein’s general theory of relativity more
a huge angular momentum because of its huge completely explained gravity as a warping by
mass. matter of space-time. The force of gravity
Forces can be static as well as dynamic. Pres- obeys an inverse-square law: The force falls off
sure (for example the pressure that exists inside a as the square of the distance from the source.
N 2. Electromagnetism (EM) is the force that ex-
balloon blown up with air) is expressed as ____ m2 , a
force per area on the inner surface of the balloon. ists between charged particles. It is attractive
But once it is blown up, the balloon does not keep when the charges are opposite (positive and
expanding. This is because there is an equal and negative) and repulsive when the charges are
opposite force exerted by the stretched skin of the the same (both positive or both negative).
balloon as well as by the outside air pressure. The Electromagnetism holds atoms together—the
balloon remains at the same size (except for slowly EM force in various forms is the secret to the
leaking) because the two forces, from air and skin, chemical bond. The EM force, like gravity,
balance each other exactly. obeys an inverse square law. Its main theoreti-
Electricity is an entire special topic in physics. cal formulation is in Maxwell’s equations.
Voltage is the difference in electrical force that 3. Weak nuclear force, which has a very short
can drive electrons from one place to another; the range and is responsible for certain kinds of
unit is the volt. interactions within the atom, governs a partic-
Amperage is the actual amount of flow of elec- ular kind of radioactive decay called beta de-
tricity, or electrons; the unit is the ampere or amp. cay, in which a neutron converts to a proton
Resistance is the resistance to the flow of elec- plus an electron and antineutrino.
tricity, which varies among materials; the unit is 4. Strong nuclear force is the major stabilizer of
the ohm. The watt (W) is the amount of power the atomic nucleus, governing interactions
that flows when 1 amp flows through an electrical among the quarks that make up the protons
force of 1 volt. and neutrons. Unlike forces such as gravity
Another important topic in physics is waves. and EM that diminish with distance, strong
Waves are characterized by frequency (cycles per nuclear force strengthens with distance. The
time) and by wavelength (distance traveled by one more quarks are separated, the more strongly
cycle). Amplitude (strength) is another character- they are bound to each other. This is why free
istic. For example, sound consists of traveling quarks have never been observed.
235
2. Chemistry electrons, depending on which direction makes

Chemistry studies the interactions of atoms, how creating the full shell “easier.”
they form molecules, and the interactions of those For example, elements with one electron in an
molecules, which range from simple ions to com- outer shell will tend to give up that electron in a
plex organic molecules. chemical bond with a different atom. Elements with
7 electrons in the outer shell will tend to grab an
a. Atoms and the Periodic Table electron in a chemical bond with another atom. An
The naturally occurring elements contain from 1 example is table salt, NaCl. By themselves, atoms of
proton (hydrogen) to 92 protons (uranium) in the sodium (Na) have one outer electron, whereas those
nuclei of their atoms. Elements with more protons of chlorine (Cl) have seven outer electrons. In
have been made artificially in experiments of high- chemical contact, sodium gives up an electron to
energy physics. chlorine, thereby both achieving full shells. They
The electrons around each nucleus fill, in se- bond into a solid crystal (salt) of an alternating,
quence, what are called shells. These shells, and three-dimensional lattice of Na ions and Cl ions.
the number of electrons in them, determine the The outer shell that is chemically active by
chemical properties of the elements, such as crystal virtue of this tendency to give up or gain electrons
geometry, electrical conductivity, and, most im- is called the valence shell of atoms.
portantly, their bonding properties with other Depending on the strength of the tendency to
atoms into molecules. gain or lose electrons, and on the “needs” of chemi-
The first shell, K, can hold 2 electrons. The sec- cal partners, chemical bonds exist in different types.
ond shell, L, can hold 8 electrons (in two subshells Ionic bonds occur when one element completely
of s with 2 and p with 6). The third shell, M, can gives up electrons and the other element gains. An
also hold 18 electrons (in three subshells of s with example is table salt, where the sodium atoms, hav-
2, p with 6, and d with 10), and so on. Things being lost electrons, become ions with a positive charge
come more complicated as the elements move into (of +1), and the chlorine atoms, having gained elec-
higher atomic numbers (the number of protons in trons, become ions with a negative charge (of –1). In
their nuclei), with, for example, phenomena such another kind of bond, called a covalent bond, elec-
as a lower subshell filling after a more outer shell trons are shared in pairs. In a covalent bond, the re-
contains electrons. But basically, for most chem- sulting atoms in the bond do not become ions, but
istry we need to consider, the outermost shell will still can have a slight charge polarization. The com-
have 8 electrons when it is “full.” (Note that the plexities of forces between atoms in chemical bonds
first shell only holds 2 electrons.) and between molecules with charged surfaces create
These shells of electrons, and the fact that shells other types of bonds (for example, hydrogen bonds
can be full or less than full, creates cycles in the prop- and the bonds from van der Waal forces).
erties of elements. For example, elements with full
shells include helium, neon, and argon. These ele- b. Chemical Reactions
ments are in the family of elements called noble Chemical reactions occur when chemical reactants
gases, which tend not to combine with other ele- change into products. Reactions can be as simple as
ments (they don’t need the other elements to create a iron rusting, or as complex as two organic mole-
full shell of electrons, because they already are full). cules brought together into a larger one in the pres-
There is a tendency, driven by energy considera- ence of an enzyme. Parts on the left-hand side of a
tions, for atoms to achieve complete shells of elec- reaction equation are called the reactants. Parts on
trons. They may do this by either losing or gaining the right-hand side are called the products. By con-
236
vention, reactions are written with an arrow taking independent units, only bumping into other mole-
reactants into the state of products. cules (this bumping creates the gas pressure).
Chemical reactions must be balanced accord- The different states of matter contain different
ing to the law of conservation of matter: Matter amounts of energy. The energy required to change
can be neither created nor destroyed. (Changes in a substance from solid to liquid is called the heat
the nucleus, for example, from nuclear fusion, nu- of fusion (fusion here means melting). The energy
clear fission, or radioactive decay are not consid- required to change a substance from liquid to gas
ered chemical reactions, which involve only the is called the heat of vaporization. The heats of fu-
electrons of atoms, not their nuclei.) For instance, sion and vaporization occur at constant tempera-
the number of atoms of oxygen in the reactants tures. It requires energy to heat water to the boiling
has to equal the number of atoms of oxygen in the point, but then more energy is needed—at that
products. constant boiling point temperature—to turn the
Reactions can give off energy (exothermic). water into steam. Only after the water has become
These tend to occur spontaneously (but not in- steam can more energy raise the temperature of
stantaneously). Some reactions can require energy the steam itself. These heats of fusion and vapor-
supplied from the environment—these are called ization are unique for all substances, as are the
endothermic. freezing and boiling temperatures.
Many important chemical reactions are known Water, for example, has a heat of vaporization of
as oxidation-reduction reactions. One element 549 calories per gram.
gains electrons (is reduced). A different element When temperatures are extreme (as in the center
loses electrons (is oxidized). The word reduced of the Sun), electrons are stripped from their nuclei.
refers to the fact that the gain in electrons reduces The resulting state of matter is called a plasma (of-
the charge of the element to a more negative value. ten plasma is called a fourth state of matter).
Acids are substances whose dissolution creates
hydrogen ions (H+) in water. Bases are substances d. Organic and Inorganic Molecules
whose dissolution accepts hydrogen ions (H+) in Basically, organic molecules contain a reduced
water. The pH scale is the measure of acidity. form of carbon, in other words, carbon with a
slightly negative charge from the stronger attrac-
c. States of Matter tion for electrons (electron affinity) that it shares
Solid: the state of matter in which the atoms or with other atoms, notably hydrogen. Carbon has
molecules are bound tightly and move together as four electrons in an outer energy level, thus requir-
a unit. Some solids are mathematically regular in ing four more to complete the shell of eight. It is
their atomic structure (such as crystals). Other special. Carbon can bond with itself in chains, a
solids can be more amorphous (such as coal). virtually unique feature of its atomic structure (sil-
Liquid: the state of matter in which the atoms icon also has this special characteristic). Pure
or molecules can glide past each other, loosely forms of carbon include diamonds, graphite, and
bound but not attached to specific neighbors. the recently discovered form of carbon in hollow
However, in liquids, the molecules still have some spheres of 60 atoms called “buckyballs.”
degree of coherence to each other. Organic molecules are the stuff of life. There-
Gas: the state of matter in which atoms or mole- fore, organic chemistry is the chemistry of life it-
cules are totally free of each other. In air, for exam- self. There are important classes of organic
ple, the molecules of nitrogen and oxygen travel as molecules in living things.
237
Proteins are organic molecules made from In the first law of thermodynamics, energy is nei-
smaller organic components called amino acids. ther created nor destroyed, but only transformed.
Amino acids contain the element nitrogen. Enzymes One of the amazing discoveries in the history of
and many structural parts of cells are all types of pro- science was the gradual realization that types of
teins. Hemoglobin in our blood is a protein. energy can be equivalent in value (the manifesta-
Carbohydrates are organic molecules of carbon tion of the first law). How can the warmth of our
in chains that are fairly short, with side groups that body or the strength of our arms come from the
branch off the chains and consist of hydrogen and food we eat? Joule discovered that, indeed, me-
hydrogen-oxygen pairs (hydroxyl groups). The chanical motion and heat could be put into equiv-
chemical formulae for carbohydrates often look alent terms as forms of energy. In heat, the unit is
like they consist of carbon plus multiples of water the calorie. In the mechanical equivalent of heat,
(for example, C6H12O6)—thus, the name carbo- 4.18 J = 1 calorie. One feature shared by all forms
hydates. Examples are sugars such as sucrose and of energy is that they can be converted into heat,
lactose, and starch. The important structural mol- or work.
ecule of plants—cellulose—is also a carbohydrate.
Lipids are very long chains of carbon atoms, b. Second Law of Thermodynamics
with side groups that are primarily single hydro- All forms of energy can be converted to heat; how-
gen atoms. Other side groups also occur. Examples ever, heat cannot be converted to all other forms of
of lipids are the molecules in various kinds of oils energy with equal efficiency. In a sense, heat is the
(saturated versus unsaturated). Lipids are crucial most degraded form of energy, because it is least con-
in the membranes of cells, which all consist of vertible into the other forms. This fact—that not all
complex lipids called phospholipids, because they forms of energy are equal in “quality”—led to what is
have a phosphate group at one end. Most lipids are known today as the second law of thermodynamics.
insoluble in water. The second law states that entropy always in-
Nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, are im- creases. Entropy is often taken to mean “disorder.”
portant coding molecules for the genetics of living Indeed, there is a relationship between the order of
things and are located inside cells. matter and its entropy content. Thus, a gas has a
Inorganic chemistry deals with the chemistry higher entropy than a solid, because compared to
of everything that is not organic. This includes, for the molecular chaos of a gas, the solid has atoms
example, the chemical reactions between simple and molecules in relatively neat arrangements.
charged ions dissolved in water, and the structures Physicist Ludwig Boltzman (1844–1906)
of crystals, with their different planes of cleavage. worked out the relationship between entropy and
Inorganic chemistry includes many kinds of reac- the number of states possibly occupied by a state
tions among molecules in Earth’s atmosphere. of matter. He had the equation for entropy put on
his gravestone.
3. Energy In general, entropy will increase over time. Dis-
a. First Law of Thermodynamics order increases. A hot cup of tea placed in an ordi-
Work is force times distance, which has the same units nary room will cool off. Its energy goes into the
as energy. The metric unit of energy is the joule (J, room’s air. Thus, the tea cooled off by many degrees
therefore 1 J = 1 N · m). The unit is named after James as the room warmed up a tiny amount of tempera-
Prescott Joule (1818–1889), one of the founders of the ture (because it has a bigger mass). Because the
concept of the conservation of energy. heat, as energy, went from a more concentrated
238
state (in the tea) to a more diffuse state (in the c. Types of Energy
room’s air), there was an increase in entropy of the Heat (also called thermal energy), on a molecular
tea-and-room considered as a system. A concen- scale, whether for a solid, liquid, or gas, is the
trated amount of heat at a high temperature is not as motion of molecules. In a solid, the atoms or mole-
degraded as a diffuse amount of heat at a lower tem- cules do not go anywhere, they vibrate in place. In a
perature. In fact, the unit of entropy is the heat per gas, higher temperatures mean faster velocities for
calorie
unit degree Centigrade, in other words, the ______
°C . the molecules. As a cup of hot tea cools, the fast
(Note from this definition that one calorie of heat at molecules of the tea hit the molecules of the tea cup,
a lower temperature has a higher entropy than one which causes them to vibrate faster; these, in turn,
calorie at a higher temperature.) A state of higher come in contact with the molecules of air around the
entropy is a more disorderly and a more degraded cup, causing the air molecules to move faster. The air
state of energy. These considerations are essential molecules that are faster collide into the slower
for the industrial world—for example, in the design ones, causing them to move. Thus, the heat moves
and operation of the electrical power plants. outward as the cup cools. In addition to this con-
Entropy can sometimes decrease. Energy can duction of heat, heat can also move by convection, as
become more useful (less degraded). For example, when waves of air waft upward from a hot highway
in plant photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water during midday in summer. Heat can also move by
are transformed into carbohydrates, which are radiation, which is why your hands held near a
food energy that we can eat. The carbon dioxide campfire are warmed.
and water have a higher entropy than the same Mechanical energy is the sum of a system’s po-
atoms arranged into the carbohydrate molecules. tential energy (stored energy) and its kinetic energy
In this case, entropy decreased, an apparent viola- (energy of motion). Mechanical energy can be rep-
tion of the law. But photosynthesis takes sun- resented by the example of water in a waterfall
light—solar energy—which itself is a very high turning a turbine. As a very high quality (low en-
quality (low entropy) form of energy. One can tropy) form of energy, mechanical motion can be
compute the efficiency of photosynthesis, which is easily converted into other high-quality forms,
the efficiency of the conversion of solar energy such as electricity.
into chemical energy of food. The wasted light Light is an electromagnetic wave or particle (re-
(this waste is an unavoidable part of the process) ferred to as wave-particle duality) that travels in a
goes off as heat from the plant. This heat is an in- vacuum at the universal constant velocity, the
crease in entropy. When we combine the entropies speed of light. The energy of an individual quan-
for the two processes (1. some part of the sunlight, tum packet of light in this wave (the photon) is
along with carbon dioxide and water, goes into higher for shorter wavelengths. Thus, a blue pho-
carbohydrates in an entropy decrease; 2. the other ton has higher energy than a red photon, and an
part of sunlight goes into heat in an entropy in- ultraviolet photon has even higher energy. A very
crease), it turns out that the increase dominates. high energy photon would be the X-ray. A low en-
Local decreases in entropy have always been ergy photon is the microwave.
found to co-occur with increases in entropy at a Electricity is moving electrons. In direct current
larger scale, when more factors are included. (DC, as from a battery), electrons actually move
Therefore, some prefer to state the second law as from the negative pole to the positive pole. Eventu-
the fact that in any process that transforms energy, ally, the battery becomes dead when the electrons
the entropy of the universe always increases. that can move have all done so. In alternating cur-
239
rent (AC, 60 cycles per second in the United States), do this when consuming the food. Our cells convert
electrons are vibrated back and forth, first toward the energy into other molecules that can store en-
one direction in the wire, then toward the other di- ergy. This stored energy can then be used to con-
rection. So they do not actually travel any real dis- struct the other molecules we need to live.
tance because they end up where they started. We Kinetic energy is a type of mechanical energy
use AC for most power needs, because it is safer at and is called the energy of motion. It is propor-
the high voltages needed for long-distance trans- tional to the square of the velocity of an object.
1
mission from the power plants to individual homes. Ek = _2 mv2 (m is the mass of the object, and v is
Nuclear energy is the energy inherent in the the velocity).
nuclei of certain atoms. For example, nuclear
power plants use the nuclear energy of a uranium You Should Review
isotope (U-235), which can be split in a controlled n laws of motion, gravitation, momentum
chain reaction of nuclear fission. This source of n light and magnetism
energy turns water to steam to spin a turbine and n electricity
thereby generate electricity. In the Sun, the form of n structure of the atom
nuclear energy is nuclear fusion, in which hydro- n periodic table
gen is fused to helium, with the release of energy. n chemical bonds
Work is formally defined as force times distance n forms of energy
(w = F ¥ d). For example, to lift a heavy box from the n first and second laws of energy thermodynamics
ground is work. You exert a force, counter to that of
gravity, to lift the mass through a distance. Work has Questions
the same units as energy. Work requires the expen- 21. The atomic number of carbon is 6. Which of
diture of energy. Where has the energy gone? Some the following determines carbon’s atomic
went into body heat as your muscles were used. number?
Some went into lifting the box, now above the a. The six neutrons located in carbon’s nucleus.
ground, and now a form of potential energy. b. The six protons located in carbon’s nucleus.
Gravitational and mechanical potential energy: c. The six electrons surrounding carbon’s
There are many forms of potential energy, which nucleus.
usually means that energy is held in a static arrange- d. The average masses of all of carbon’s isotopes.
ment of matter in some form, with the potential to
be released and turned into some other form of en- 22. Which of the following is a true statement?
ergy, such as kinetic or electrical or heat (thermal). a. Velocity is the rate of change of time.
An object lifted above the ground has potential en- b. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
ergy (thus, every leaf on a tree has potential energy). c. Velocity is the rate of change of acceleration.
Potential energy also resides in the mechanical ten- d. Acceleration is the rate of change of time.
sion of a pressed or stretched spring.
Chemical potential energy exists when any two 23. What type of reaction occurs when a substance
or more substances are capable of undergoing a changes from solid to liquid?
chemical reaction that could potentially release en- a. fusion
ergy in an exothermic reaction. One example is food b. exothermic
and the oxygen in the air. That pair has the chemical c. sublimation
potential to “burn” together and release energy. We d. vaporization
240
24. Which force gets stronger as the distance 30. Moving electrons are best described as
increases? a. electricity.
a. strong nuclear force b. heat.
b. gravity c. kinetic energy.
c. weak nuclear force d. light.
d. electromagnetism
Answers
25. When a sodium atom gives up an electron to 21. b. The atomic number of any element is
enter into an ionic bond with chorine in table determined by the number of protons
salt, it does so because located in the atom’s nucleus.
a. it requires an electrical charge of +1. 22. b. Velocity is a change in distance; acceleration
b. it requires an electrical charge of –1. is a change in velocity.
c. it creates a negative potential energy. 23. a. When a substance changes from solid to
d. it achieves a full outer electron shell. liquid, it undergoes melting, or fusion. This
is an endothermic reaction that requires the
26. Dissolving H2SO4 in water creates an acid by input of energy, not an exothermic one.
increasing the concentration of 24. a. The strong nuclear force exhibits this
a. sulfate ions. counterintuitive behavior.
b. water ions. 25. d. The sodium atom has 1 electron in its
c. hydrogen ions. outermost shell; by losing 1 electron, it
d. oxygen ions. achieves a full outermost (valence) shell
(the next innermost one was already full).
27. Which organic molecule contains nitrogen? The sodium atom achieves an electrical
a. carbohydrate charge of +1, which is the result of, not
b. lipid the reason for, giving up an electron.
c. cellulose 26. c. Hydrogen ions come directly from putting
d. protein H2SO4 into solution.
27. d. The amino acids that make up proteins all
28. What is the first law of thermodynamics? have nitrogen atoms in them. Cellulose is a
a. Matter can be neither created nor destroyed, carbohydrate.
but only transformed. 28. c. Thermodynamics covers the properties of
b. Energy moves from higher forms to lower energy, and the first law is about the
forms. conservation of energy.
c. Energy can be neither created nor 29. a. Entropy is the measure of a system’s
destroyed, but only transformed. “disorder.” The more disordered a system,
d. Matter moves from higher forms to lower the greater its entropy. In a pot of boiling
forms. water, the water is changing from its liquid
form to its gaseous form, steam, which is a
29. Which system exhibits the greatest entropy? more disordered system than solid ice or
a. a pot of boiling water liquid water alone.
b. a glass of water sitting on the counter 30. a. Electricity is electrons in motion.
c. an ice cube in the freezer
d. a puddle of water in the road
241
D. Evolution and Life abundant complex minerals—were sites for key

1. Origin of Life steps in the origin of life.
Life on Earth has persisted for nearly four billion
years. How did it begin? c. Membranes
All cells have membranes that separate their in-
a. Formation of Organic Molecules sides from the outside environment and regulate
In 1953, a Nobel Prize–winning experiment by the exchange of matter and energy.
Harold Urey and Stanley Miller created organic Organic molecules (lipids) from certain kinds
molecules by passing a spark through a mixture of of meteorites, when added in water, spontaneously
gases, such as methane and ammonia, presumed form spherical vesicles (liposomes). According to
constituents of an early Earth atmosphere. Zap- some, these gifts from space could have created the
ping inorganic molecules with energy—a possible molecular vesicles that became protocells, within
analogy to lightning in ancient Earth’s atmos- which ran self-perpetuating chemical reactions, a
phere—could create certain constituents for life. step on the way to real life.
Other possible sources of organic molecules are The details of how the origin of life went from
(1) space, because organic molecules do occur in simple organic molecules, perhaps enclosed in
certain types of meteorites, and (2) deep sea vents, membranes, to real cells with the genetic machin-
where raw chemicals from the inner Earth provide ery of proteins and DNA, are still unknown. Many
a source of materials and chemical energy. scientists claim that RNA served as the first genetic
material, only later supplanted by DNA, at which
b. Concentration of Organic Molecules time RNA then took on the role of helper mole-
To form life, organic molecules need to be concen- cules in that machinery.
trated. Darwin had the concept of a warm little pond
as a site for the origin of life. Lagoons that periodi- d. Evidence in the Rocks
cally flooded and then dried up might have concen- Two types of evidence for early life have been
trated organic molecules during the dry stages. discovered.
Scientists are not sure of the temperature of early An isotope of carbon, carbon-13, is set in a spe-
Earth at the time of the formation of life. Some say cial ratio to ordinary carbon-12 when carbon
that if early Earth was cold enough for ice to at least passes through living metabolisms. Some evidence
occasionally form, the freezing of water, which ex- of this isotopic signature of early life has been
cludes any organic molecules present, could have found in rocks as old as 3.9 billion years old.
concentrated organic molecules at the surfaces of ice. Scientists (micropaleontologists) find ancient
Clay minerals are complex, and some scientists rocks, slice them, and look at them through a micro-
have suggested clay as a material for the concentra- scope to seek direct visual evidence of cells. There are
tion and even organization of organic molecules indications of cells in rocks from 3.5 billion years ago.
into more complex networks, on the way to life. To gain clues to the origin of life, scientists seek
As a possible source of organic molecules, deep organisms generally known as extremophiles
sea vents are also candidates for their necessary across Earth. These are bacteria or archaea adapted
concentration. In fact, in recent years, various lab to (and requiring) extreme conditions of acid or
experiments have increased the odds that the temperature to live (acidophiles, thermophiles,
vents—with hot water rich with minerals and and others).
242
2. Recipe for Evolution The simplest type is base substitution, in

a. Inheritance, Variation, and Selection which, say, a T is removed and an A, C, or G is sub-
Inheritance is when organisms in each generation stituted. In another kind of mutation, entire genes
share many of the same features of their predecessors, can be duplicated and put somewhere else into the
because the DNA is copied from parent to offspring. DNA. If the original gene continues with its func-
Variation: Often, offspring are not exactly like tion, the duplicated gene is free to mutate into pos-
the parents. Variation is key because this serves as sibly a new and beneficial function.
the raw material that can be molded by evolution There can be insertions and deletions from sec-
into new types of creatures. tions of the code.
Selection (natural selection) is defined as sur- All mutations potentially serve as variation that
vival of the fittest. Not all offspring live long can be selected for in the process of evolution.
enough to put forth the next generation. Those How is the genetic code translated to proteins?
with variations that can withstand drought, or Triplets of bases code for single amino acids (there
seek out food most efficiently, or run the swiftest, are about 20 of these). Amino acids are assembled in
survive. The environment selects certain types of chains that then fold into complex, bulbous shapes
creatures (and their variation) to carry on. of proteins. Many proteins are active enzymes, oth-
In summary, evolution is modification by natu- ers are structural. Enzymes facilitate the assembly of
ral selection. The process repeats: inheritance, other types of molecules through chemical reactions
variation, selection. It operates over and over, as inside cells and perform many other tasks.
generations roll along, and it has been doing so for
nearly four billion years. c. “Blind Watchmaker” of Natural Selection
Before evolution was accepted, a story about a watch
b. DNA and Mutations found on a beach was used as a parable to suggest
The molecule DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is key to the presence of a creator for all life forms. It was
inheritance and variation. It is the famous double thought that a watch, being so complex, obviously
helix, with double strands of alternating sugar and had a watchmaker. The scientist and prominent
phosphate units, between which are set rungs of the writer about evolution, Richard Dawkins, coined the
genetic code. The code is made of four bases: adenine phrase the “blind watchmaker” to describe evolu-
(A), cytosine (C), thymine (T), and guanine (G). tion. Evolution creates wondrous organisms, but the
Base A always pairs with base T, base C always pairs process is “blind”—it doesn’t know where it is going.
with base G. The double helix allows a way for DNA
3. Types of Cells
to make copies. In the copying process, DNA unrav-
a. Prokaryotes
els, and because of the rule of pairing (A-T, C-G), the
Prokaryotic cells were the earliest type of cell. They
code on both individual strands can be both made
are small and simple. The word prokaryote means
double again, as the complementary bases are
“before” (pro) and “kernel” (karyote), signifying that
added, rung by rung. This copying creates faithful
the prokaryotes are single cells with no central nu-
inheritance.
cleus (in other words, no kernel). Prokaryotes have
Mistakes, or mutations, in the copying some-
their DNA floating inside, and do not contain
times occur randomly. Most mutations have no ef-
membrane-bound organelles. Today, there are two
fect on or are detrimental to the offspring. But
types of prokaryotic organisms: archaea and bacte-
some can be beneficial (for example, a mutation
ria. Prokaryotes reproduce primarily by fission of
might create a more effective pore in the cell mem-
the cell into two equal daughter cells in a process
brane for the transport of nutrients into the cell).
243
called mitosis. Bacteria also have ways to exchange cells that merged had specific ways to help the
parts of their genomes with different bacteria of the other (probably sharing metabolic products that
same species or even other species. were needed by the other). Eventually, this merger
became permanent. Genes were transferred from
b. Eukaryotes the small, embedded cell into the genome of the
Eukaryotes are larger cells that make up animal and larger host. One strong piece of evidence of this
plant matter and fungi. Some types of single-celled ancient merger is the fact that today’s mitochon-
creatures, such as amoebas and paramecia, are also dria have a remnant of still useful DNA inside
eukaryotes. The word eukaryote means “good” (eu) them. Also, the mitochondria are about the same
and “kernel” (karyote), signifying that eukaryotic cells size as typical bacteria.
have a central, membrane-bound nucleus, which The chloroplast also came about from a symbiotic
houses the DNA for these complex cells. Eukaryotic merger with something like today’s cyanobacteria (a
cells also have other membrane-bound organelles in- type of photosynthesizing, chlorophyll-containing
side them, which support special functions for the bacterium). As in the case of the mitochondrion,
cells. All eukaryotic cells have mitochondria, power- most of the DNA from the symbiotic cyanobacteria
plant organelles that take food nutrients and create migrated into the genome of the larger host cell,
high-energy molecules used elsewhere in the cell for but there still exists remnant DNA for a few pro-
various metabolic tasks. Plant cells have another or- teins in the modern cell’s chloroplast. Again, the
ganelle, called the chloroplast. It is also membrane chloroplast's size is also about right for the theory.
bound and contains the photosynthetic machinery Because all eukaryotic cells have mitochondria
for the plant cell. Eukaryotic cells have internal struc- but only some have chloroplasts, the symbiotic
tures, like wires and tent posts, called, respectively, event that created the mitochondria came first. Sci-
microfilaments and microtubules. These allow the entists do not know how the nucleus itself evolved.
big cells to take on complex shapes (or even creep
along as the amoeba does). d. The Universal Tree of Life
Eukaryotic cells (for example, paramecia or our All life possesses DNA and much the same genetic
skin cells) can reproduce by mitosis. In addition, machinery. This is strong evidence that all current
multicellular eukaryotes (animals, plants, fungi) life shares a universal ancestry. In addition, all or-
have sexual reproduction of the entire organism, ganisms manufacture proteins at cell sites called
which uses meiosis to generate sex cells with half ribosomes (where the amino acids are linked into
the parent's genetic components (sperm and egg). chains, on the way to forming proteins). The ribo-
some contains some structural RNA as a perma-
c. Cell Evolution by Symbiosis nent subunit. All organisms thus contain rRNA
The eukaryotic cell evolved about two billion years (for ribosomal RNA). This rRNA varies from crea-
ago, at about the same time that Earth’s atmos- ture to creature, because the rRNA mutated over
phere shifted from anaerobic (with virtually no time. The closer in structure the rRNA is between
oxygen) to a level of oxygen about ten percent of two creatures, the more closely related they are.
today’s amount. The eukaryotic cell evolved from a Scientists can construct a tree of all life, using
symbiotic merger between a large prokaryote and the degree of similarity of rRNA as the metric to
a smaller prokaryote, which eventually became the distinguish and group organisms. The rRNA tree
mitochondrion of the new, eukaryotic type of cell. of life reveals three major lobes: the eukaryotes, the
Symbiosis means working together, and the two archaea (a type of prokaryote), and the bacteria
244
(another type of prokaryote). Eukaryotes most the Cambrian explosion formed most of the ba-
likely gained some of their genetic material from sic body plans of animals. The action was all
the archaea and some from the bacteria. underwater, with arthropods (such as crustaceans
The universal tree of life constructed from the called trilobites) and bizarre creatures crawling on
patterns of rRNA shows that most of the organ- the sea floor while others swam and sported for-
isms near the trunk (prokaryotes living today that midable jaws. Scientists have not yet determined
presumably are similar to those that lived long ago, the trigger for this blossoming of life.
when the tree was near its trunk stage in evolu-
tionary time) are hyperthermophilic (they require c. Evolution of Trees and Fungi
high temperatures). These creatures might indi- The Devonian period was a period roughly be-
cate a very high temperature origin for life. Such tween 300 and 400 million years ago, in which new
temperatures would have occurred at the deep sea types of creatures emerged. Important adaptations
vents, or possibly over the entire Earth. made this evolution possible. For land plants, these
changes included: (1) molecules such as cellulose
4. Multicellular Life and lignin that could give structure to stems and
The eukaryotic cells gave rise in evolution to true trunks and lift plants up into the air and (2) vascu-
multicellular life forms: fungi, plants, and animals. lar tissues in the stems, trunks, and roots that
could transport water and mineral ions up from
a. Earliest Evidence the roots to the photosynthetic parts (via tubes
Evidence of the first multicelled creatures is obscure called the xylem) and could transport manufac-
because their soft bodies meant they were only rarely tured food downward from the photosynthetic
preserved as fossils. Scientists use fossil and genetic parts to the roots (via tubes called the phloem).
evidence (the universal tree of life) to estimate the The fossil record shows that plants evolved from
date of origin of multicellularity at about one billion tiny, moss-sized beings into tall trees over a period
years ago. That means that for nearly three-fourths that was only about 20 million years long. No flow-
of the history of life, all creatures were single-celled. ering plants (angiosperms)—like deciduous trees—
Ediacaran fauna was an early type of multicel- existed yet. Fossil evidence shows that fungal cells
lular life, which lived about 600 million years ago (visible as microscopic fossils) occurred inside the
(MYA). Scientists named these strange, flat crea- roots of ancient plants. Apparently, these fungi lived
tures found in many shapes and sizes after the Edi- like some kinds of fungus do today, in a symbiotic
acara Hills of Australia, where their fossils were partnership with plants. Most fungi live as micro-
first found. Some scientists believe that the Edi- scopic underground threads, called hyphae.
acarans went extinct when predators evolved.
d. Animals
b. Cambrian Explosion What makes an animal? One defining characteris-
The Cambrian explosion was the geological time tic is a blastula stage (a hollow ball of cells) during
period of ten million years that began around 540 early embryonic development.
million years ago, in which suddenly all kinds of Vertebrates evolved in the ocean as fish.
animals with hard parts (that is why they were pre- Animal life came ashore during the Devonian,
served) “exploded” into the fossil record. The hard as fishlike creatures with four legs (tetrapods). Be-
parts—shells of various types—used calcium from sides the legs, lungs were another key development
ocean water. Except for the absence of vertebrates, for what became amphibians.
245
To become fully terrestrial, vertebrates had to c. End of Cretaceous and End of Dinosaurs
solve the problem of living in the desiccating air. In the 1980s, an unusually large amount of a rare
Reptiles became terrestrial with adaptations like a element called iridium (Ir) was discovered in a
water-retaining amnion (sac) in their embryo stages, centimeter-thick clay layer in rocks in Italy, dating
a waterproof egg, and a watertight skin of scales. from the time of the dinosaur extinction. This
Mammals evolved by around 200 million years anomaly of iridium was subsequently found all
ago, from mammal-like reptiles, which had split over the world.
off from other reptiles about 260 million years ago. Iridium occurs at such concentrations only in
Adaptations of mammals include hair and nursing meteorites. This discovery pointed to a large im-
the young with mammary glands. pactor (comet or asteroid) as the cause of the irid-
ium and the mass extinction. Such an object would
5. Mass Extinctions have smashed into Earth at a speed of 20 km/s, and
In just the last 20 years, scientists have discovered what is estimated to have been about the size of Man-
they believe to be the cause of the extinction of the di- hattan (10 km or 6 miles in diameter).
nosaurs. The answer has given new understanding to A few years later, evidence from gravity patterns
what factors contributed to the story of life. (mapped by a Mexican oil company, during
prospecting) revealed a crater buried under sedi-
a. Origin of the Dinosaurs ments in the Yucatan Peninsula of Mexico. About
Dinosaurs are a group of reptiles that diverged 200 km in diameter (about the estimated size of
from early reptiles by 220 million years ago. An the crater made by a 10-km object), it dates to ex-
adaptation of dinosaurs was a new kind of hip actly 65 million years ago, the end of what geolo-
joint that allowed many early (and late) dinosaurs gists call the Cretaceous (K) and the beginning of
to run bipedally. Species of dinosaurs came and the Paleogene (Pg), formerly known as the Terti-
went over more than 150 million years of time, un- ary (T). A wealth of other evidence for the K-Pg
til their sudden extinction at 65 million years ago. (K-T) impact has been found, including material
ejected close to the impact and shocked minerals,
b. Evidence for Impacts from Space as well as chemical evidence for worldwide fires
Objects from space occasionally strike Earth— and other environmental disruptions.
evidence includes the meteor crater in northern At the K-Pg boundary, 65 million years ago,
Arizona and the Sudbury crater in Canada (the re- many other types of life also went extinct, on all
sult of a much larger impact occurring about two scales, all the way down to the plankton. One
billion years ago). The longer the time period be- group of creatures survived that had been alive at
tween impacts, the more chance for a devastating the time of the K-Pg extinction and were directly
impact. (Small objects enter Earth’s atmosphere descended from the dinosaurs. These are the birds.
every night, and burn up—shooting stars.) On the And, fortunately for us, mammals survived, too,
Moon and Mars where little or no geological probably because the mammals back then were
change occurs, scientists see evidence (craters) of only the size of rats, and could weather the catas-
large impacts. On Earth, as wind and water shift trophe underground in burrows.
sediments, as continents rise and fall, most craters
are buried or erased. d. End of Permian
Another large extinction occurred 250 million
years ago, at the end of the Permian period, and
246
beginning of the Triassic (the P-Tr boundary). It At about 8–10 MYA, the lineage leading to
came just before either dinosaurs or mammals ex- modern gorillas diverges.
isted, during an age of giant amphibians and early At about 5–7 MYA, humans and chimps branch
reptiles. Some paleontologists have called this the off from a common ancestor. Many lines of
mother of all mass extinctions. What caused it is evidence—from morphology to genetics—
not yet known. show that chimpanzees are our closest living
animal relative.
e. Other Mass Extinctions
Species are always going extinct. Based on the fossil b. Many Species of Hominids
record, scientists have uncovered a cyclical nature Australopithecus is the genus that evolved in Africa
for mass extinctions, with large-scale extinctions oc- after the hominids’ divergence from chimps.
curring approximately every 62 million years for the Australopithecus africanus is the species thought
last 540 million years. The cause of this extinction to be a human ancestor; the fossil called “Lucy” was
pattern is still unknown. In some cases, scientists this species, which lived about 3.5 million years
name climate change or large impacts as the cause. ago. It had a brain size equivalent to the modern
Though the stories of individual mass extinctions chimp’s (humans’ famed evolutionary brain
are still being assembled from field data, the discov- growth had not yet begun), but the species stood
ery of the K-Pg impact and the mass extinction of the upright and its legs, feet, spine, pelvis, and skull
dinosaurs has given us new insight into how precari- were adapted to upright living. Some paleontolo-
ous life on Earth has been and how evolution has gists suggest that living upright freed the hands to
been subjected to random shocks from space. What if carry objects (but no real stone tools yet), and that
the impact had been larger? And what if it had not caused selective pressure for more braininess.
taken place? Before the dinosaurs went extinct, mam- Homo is the genus of modern human, which
mals had remained small for over a hundred million evolved by 1.5 million years ago. An early impor-
years. In the millions of years following the demise of tant species in genus Homo is Homo erectus, which
the dinosaurs, mammals evolved into a huge variety evolved in Africa but spread as far as China and
of species, some of them as big as hippopotamuses other parts of Asia. Some paleontologists think a
and elephants. In terms of evolutionary biology, the closely related species, Homo ergaster, is more
mammals radiated. Without the K-Pg extinction, this likely our direct ancestor. Compared to Australop-
radiation would not have occurred. ithecus, the brains and bodies of Homo erectus and
Homo ergaster are larger. Scientists have found evi-
6. Human Evolution dence of the first stone tools—crudely chipped
a. Chimps, Gorillas, and the Hominid Tree rocks—which were likely made for cutting meat,
of Life scraping, and pounding.
The molecular clock, the rate at which certain pro- There were other species of genus Homo in the
teins mutate over time, has been used to date the time between 500,000 to 200,000 years ago. Paleon-
divergences of evolutionary lineages of humans tologists are still sorting out (and discovering) evi-
from the great apes: orangutans, gorillas, and chim- dence. Some of these species reached Europe and
panzees. These are all modern creatures, but we are evolved, by 150,000 years ago, into Homo nean-
trying to date their most recent common ancestors. derthalensis, the Neanderthals. They were large and
powerfully muscular, with brow ridges above their
At about 12–15 MYA, the lineage leading to eyes, and slightly bigger brains than humans have to-
orangutans diverges. day. Though the word Neanderthal is sometimes
247
used to mean “dumb,” these creatures are considered d. Evolutionary Psychology

intelligent. Why did they go extinct? Was it from Evolutionary psychology is the study of the evo-
competition or interbreeding with our species? Was lution of human behavior, considered controver-
it climate change? They did survive in Europe and sial by some because scientists cannot directly
Russia during a deep ice age. study the minds and emotions of ancestral hu-
Homo sapiens, the species of modern humans, mans. No other mammal species wages war, al-
originated in Africa about 150,000 years ago. Homo though male chimps have been observed in
sapiens migrated from Africa into the Middle East similar behavior, forming a band to kill a solitary
and even shared land with Neanderthals in some individual in a competing band. Humans also co-
cases. Over this span of human evolution, from Aus- operate to an unprecedented degree. In a central
tralopithecus africanus to Homo sapiens, brain size African jungle lives another kind of chimp called
increased about threefold. Human brains (relative the bonobo. Unlike the male-dominated chimp
to body size) are way above the mammalian average culture, the bonobo has a female-bonded society
and enormous even for the brains of primates. and uses sex as a social lubricant. Chimps and
bonobos genetically diverged 2–3 million years
c. The Creative Explosion ago, after their shared lineage diverged from the
A creative explosion occurred between about lineage that led to us. Evolutionary psychologists
60,000–30,000 years ago and included complex study chimps and bonobos to investigate how the
tool making (using animal bones for needles, har- behavior of humans may have evolved.
poons, and other craft items), clothing, and elabo- The human brain contains an organ that
rate burial practices. An early sculpture from senses danger and creates the emotion of fear (the
Germany shows what seems to be a standing man brain organ is the amygdala). Humans share this
with a lion’s head. Was this a shaman? Does this with other mammals and most vertebrates. But
signal the birth of myths? (Some scholars claim we humans can also project into the future more than
will find evidence for art even earlier, when the any other creature. We know we are going to die.
time period of 100,000 years ago is examined more Evolutionary psychologists investigate whether
carefully in Africa.) By 30,000 years ago, we have this knowledge is lined with the origin of religion.
evidence of paintings deep within caves, elaborate
color paintings of animals, usually the animals that You Should Review
were hunted. Were these the sites for rituals? For n cell evolution
initiation ceremonies? n prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
A find in the Ukraine, dated at about 15,000 n major events of evolution
years ago, shows that these people constructed dome n major adaptations leading to new kinds of
homes out of mammoth bones, probably covered organisms
with mammoth hides. Thus, they had architecture. n steps in human evolution
What was their language? Scholars tend to n mass extinctions
agree that by the time of cave art and elaborate bone
tools and carvings, language was used to educate the Questions
young and to organize complex social dynamics. But 31. The four bases of DNA are
did language come even earlier? And was the creative a. ACEG.
explosion due to a final genetic advance or was it all b. CMEP.
cultural? Scientists do not yet have the answers. c. TAGC.
d. MGPA.
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32. Considering the problem of the origin of life 38. Which animal today is the direct descendant of
on Earth, which is NOT a possible source of the dinosaurs?
organic molecules? a. ostrich
a. dissolution of rocks b. white shark
b. lightning in the atmosphere c. African lion
c. deep sea vents d. humpback whale
d. meteorites from space
39. The “Cambrian Explosion” refers to
33. Which cell type has a nucleus? a. the appearance of the first hominids
a. bikaryotic approximately 3.5 million years ago.
b. prokaryotic b. the period of widespread volcanic activity
c. eukaryotic on Earth that paved the path for the
d. postkaryotic evolution of life.
c. the collision of a large meteor with Earth,
34. For what fraction of the span of life’s existence which is believed to have caused the
on Earth was life only microbial? extinction of dinosaurs.
a. ᎏ11ᎏ d. the large-scale appearance of animals as
b. 3
ᎏ4ᎏ
indicated by the fossil record.
1
c. ᎏ2ᎏ
40. Which is the second oldest, in terms of
1
d. ᎏ5ᎏ evolution?
a. Homo erectus
35. Based upon the rock record, approximately b. Homo sapiens
how long ago did simple cells emerge? c. Neanderthal
a. 3.5 trillion years d. Australopithecus
b. 3.5 billion years
c. 3.5 million years Answers
d. 3.5 thousand years 31. c. The four DNA bases are tyrosine, adenine,
guanine, and cytosine.
36. What was the mass extinction that ended the 32. a. Dissolution of rocks creates ions in water,
reign of the dinosaurs? but this has nothing to do with actually
a. Cretaceous-Paleogene forming organic molecules. All the other
b. Permian-Triassic choices are definite possibilities.
c. Triassic-Jurassic 33. c. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus in each cell.
d. Carboniferous-Permian The word means “good (or true) kernel.”
34. b. Life became single celled nearly four billion
37. The most direct ancestor of the mammals was a years ago, but multicellular life did not
a. mammal-like amphibian. evolve until about one billion years ago.
b. mammal-like reptile. Therefore, the time period over which life
c. mammal-like fish. was only microbial was ᎏ34ᎏ of the total time
d. mammal-like crocodile. of life.
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35. b. Scientists believe the first cells, the Earth’s history. For example, when molten rock
precursors to life, appeared on Earth (magma) cools to become solid rock, if the rock is
around 3.5 billion years ago. Evidence of the slightly magnetic, it takes on the magnetic field of
cells has been found in ancient rocks. Earth, which depends on latitude. Rocks near the
36. a. The Cretaceous-Paleogene event caused the poles have signatures of ancient latitudes near the
extinction of the dinosaurs, about 65 million equator and vice versa.
years ago. (This is also called the K-Pg
boundary—K for Cretaceous, in geologist’s b. Seafloor Spreading
terminology.) In the 1960s, new lines of evidence supported the
37. b. Because fish evolved into amphibians, idea of shifting continents, but the focus changed
which evolved into reptiles, the ancestor of to the spreading ocean floor. Ships drilled and
mammals was a mammal-like reptile. brought to the surface cores from the ocean’s rocky
Crocodiles came much later. floor, and the cores were analyzed for periodic re-
38. a. The ostrich, like all birds, is a descendent of versals in Earth’s magnetic fields.
the dinosaurs. On both sides of the Atlantic Ocean’s mid-ocean
39. d. The Cambrian Explosion refers to the ridge, stripes showed times when Earth’s magnetic
widespread appearance of life approxi- field was normal and reversed. The ocean’s floor had
mately 540 million years ago. Prior to this been growing over time, and the Atlantic Ocean was
time, most life forms were “soft bodied,” not slowly increasing in size. This ocean floor provided a
allowing for adequate fossil preservation. record of the history of seafloor spreading. The At-
The Cambrian period saw the evolution of lantic Ocean spreads at a rate of 1–2 inches per year
life with “hard” parts (shells, for example) (consider that rate over tens of millions of years).
that were retained in the fossil record. Finally, scientists had a mechanism for continen-
40. a. Homo erectus came after Australopithecus tal drift. It wasn’t that the continents drifted, but
but well before the Neanderthal and that they were moved by changes in the ocean’s floor.
Homo sapiens. Seafloor spreading replaced continents drifting.
E. Earth Works c. Subduction Zones and Plate Tectonics

1. Continental Drift and Plate Tectonics If the Atlantic Ocean is growing, what about the
a. History other oceans? Because Earth is a constant size, the
In 1912, German scientist Alfred Wegener proposed other oceans cannot be growing, too. However, there is
that continents could move around, or “drift.” One of a north-south underwater volcanic ridge in the Eastern
Wegener’s clues to the drift was the fact that the east Pacific, and that is spreading even several times faster
coast of South America could fit into the lower half of than the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. Eventually, the solution
the west coast of Africa, almost like puzzle pieces. We- was found in the discovery of what are called sub-
gener also pointed to evidence in South America, duction zones. These are regions (“lines”) where
Africa, India, and Australia for ice sheets at about the ocean crust disappears by diving down into the deep
same time, 300 million years ago, which made no Earth, by subducting. The loss of ocean floor (crust)
sense with the continents in their present positions, in subduction zones balances the creation of new
because some of these sites are at today’s equator. ocean floor (crust) in mid-ocean ridges.
Modern geologists have evidence that conti- The modern theory of plate tectonics was thus
nents have shifted positions radically throughout born. Earth’s geological activities have always been
250
called tectonism. What about the term plate? Hadean (4.6–4 billion years ago) was the earli-
Think of an egg shell with patterns of cracks in it, est eon and means “time of hell.” Earth still experi-
creating zones of the shell. That’s the crust of enced many bombardments from space.
Earth. Earth’s surface is divided into a number of The Archean eon (4–2.5 BYA) was when single-
major plates. Sometimes, continents ride within celled life originated.
the areas of the plates; sometimes edges of conti- The Proterozoic eon (about 2,500–545 millions
nents coincide with edges of plates. From some of of years ago) was the time of the first great rise in
the edges of the plates emerges new ocean crust oxygen and evolution of eukaryotic cell about
from mid-ocean ridges and seafloor spreading. 2,000 MYA. Near the end of the eon, multicellular
Into other cracks, ocean crust subducts (the west- life evolved. There is also evidence for massive ice
ern coast of South America and the ocean trench ages, which came close to covering the entire Earth
regions of the western Pacific are examples). Plates in ice sheets.
grow and shrink in size with the geological ages. The Paleozoic eon (545–250 MYA) started with
Thus, continents shift positions. the Cambrian explosion of life and by its end,
South America, Africa, and Antarctica were all plants had evolved into tall trees. Giant amphibians
joined as recently as 200 million years ago. and early reptiles were the dominant life on land.
Plate tectonics is an overarching theory that The Phanerozoic is the current eon, further di-
solves many separate mysteries about geology. vided into eras. The Mesozoic era (250–65 MYA) is
What made mountain ranges? Why do earthquakes subdivided into three main periods called the Triassic,
and volcanoes occur where they do? Why is there a Jurassic, and Cretaceous. The Jurassic was the reign of
“ring of fire” around the outer edge of the Pacific dinosaurs. The mass extinction at 65 MYA ended the
Ocean, a ring with huge numbers of earthquakes dinosaurs’ existence and the Mesozoic period.
and volcanoes? It turns out that earthquakes and The Cenozoic period (from 65 MYA to today) is
volcanoes tend to occur at the boundaries between the age of mammals. The Pleistocene epoch (a
two plates, because that is where geological activity subdivision of the Cenozoic period) lasting from 2
happens. The Pacific ring of fire occurs because the MYA to 10,000 years ago, is a time of the growth
Pacific Ocean is ringed by many plate edges. The fa- and then retreat of giant ice sheets, in cycles of
mous San Andreas fault in California, which is the about 100,000 years each. During the height of the
origin of California’s earthquakes, is a plate bound- last ice age, for example, ice sheets a mile thick
ary (here the two plates are sliding past each other, covered all of Canada and extended as far south as
neither subducting nor spreading apart). The tow- New York City. Sea level was 100 meters lower, and
ering Andes mountain chain along the western the ocean was therefore far offshore of its present
coast of South America has been lifted up by a plate location. At the final deglaciation, about 10,000
plunging under South America from the west, put- years ago, geologists end the Pleistocene and start a
ting pressure from below to lift the mountains up. new epoch, called the Holocene (for “wholly re-
cent”). Because humans are perturbing so much of
d. Earth Over Time and the Geological the planet, there has been the suggestion that we
Time Scale have inaugurated what should be called a new
Planet Earth coalesced from planetary materials epoch, perhaps the “anthropocene,” the “human-
brought together by gravity about 4.6 billion years made recent.”
ago (BYA).
251
2. Earth’s Layers cooler, is brittle. The border between lithosphere

a. Core and Mantle and asthenosphere is defined by this change in be-
When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, the heat havior of the rock, from brittle to malleable.
generated from all the impacts that formed it, and The crust under the ocean’s water is thin, about
heat from the high levels of radioactive rock, put 10 km deep.
Earth into a molten state. Being molten, elements The crust under the continents is thick, about
and minerals could separate according to their den- 50 km deep.
sity. The heavier materials sunk toward Earth’s cen-
ter. The lighter materials floated, so to speak, nearer c. Oceans
the surface. The average depth of the ocean is about four km.
Earth’s metallic core is solid near the center and Around the continents, the ocean is shallow, about
liquid further out. It is about 1,200 kilometers 100–300 meters deep. This so-called continental
thick and mostly iron, with smaller amounts of shelf is really part of the continental mass. Head-
nickel and other elements. ing seaward from the continental shelf, the bottom
Circulation of the liquid iron in the core gener- of the ocean drops downward in a steep slope. This
ates Earth’s magnetic field. This field is related to region is called the continental slope.
Earth’s spin, but the north and south magnetic Much of the ocean, at its deepest, is in the 3–5
poles are not in the same locations as the north km range of depth. Exceptions are the very deep
and south poles of Earth’s spin axis. trenches, formed where slabs of ocean floor are
Outside the core is the layer called the mantle. subducting downward into the mantle at plate
With a thickness of about 2,800 km, the mantle boundaries. Other exceptions are the mid-ocean
reaches to 10–50 km below the surface. The upper ridges, which are mountain ranges underwater
layer of the mantle belongs to the lithosphere (see where new crust is forming, as described above.
below). Then, below the lithosphere and about 250 At places on Earth, plumes of magma in semi-
km thick, is a layer of the mantle called the as- permanent columns from the mantle rise into the
thenosphere. This is crucial because although lithosphere. These are the hotspots. For example,
made of rock, the asthenosphere can move like the Hawaiian islands have been formed by one of
putty over long time periods. The circulation of the these hotspots. As the Pacific plate moves west-
asthenosphere is one main factor in plate tectonics. ward (its motion created by plate tectonics), the
When Earth’s crust enters subduction zones, the plate moves over the hotspot (which remains ap-
material sinks back down into the asthenosphere proximately stationary). The Hawaiian islands
(in other words, into the mantle), melting and have been formed, one by one, sequentially, as the
joining with the deep Earth material. Pacific plate moved over the hotspot over tens of
millions of years. Therefore, the oldest Hawaiian
b. Lithosphere island is the one furthest to the west, Kauai. The
Lithosphere (literally “rock-sphere”), the uppermost recent Hawaiian island, with active volca-
most and lightest layer, consists of the outermost noes, is the “big island,” called Hawaii itself. Be-
crust and a thin upper part of mantle. Below the cause new ocean floor (crust) is continually being
lithosphere, the rock is malleable (the putty of the formed and then subducted, the average age of the
asthenosphere). The lithosphere itself, being oldest ocean floor is about 100 million years.
252
d. Continents most of Earth’s surface. Fossil evidence for the

The continents are also part of the crust, much origin of life comes from sedimentary rocks
thicker than the ocean-floor crust. Continents that (3.5–3.9 BYA).
are elevated because of mountain ranges also have Some types of sedimentary rock are made from
deep roots below. The continental masses, in a physical particles cemented together: conglomer-
sense, float on the heavier asthenosphere. ate (from sedimented gravel), sandstone (from
Continents form when relatively light magma sedimented sand), siltstone (from sedimented silt),
bursts from below to the surface, solidifying as and shale (from sedimented mud). Note that this
rock. Plate movements that rub bits of crust to- sequence progresses from coarse to fine particles.
gether can cause continents to grow as the lightest Some types of sedimentary rock are made prima-
material ends up staying on the surface. rily from chemical precipitation: limestone (from
Geologists believe that the early Earth had al- the mineral calcite) and dolostone (from the mineral
most no continents or, at most, very small ones. dolomite). Calcite and dolomite are calcium carbon-
Continents have generally been growing through- ate and calcium-magnesium carbonate, respectively.
out time, because once the light rock reaches the These precipitates are usually biogenic, created by
surface it tends to stay there. organisms that precipitate shells. The shells later
A distinctive feature of continents is mountain were fused into rock. Examples of limestone are the
ranges, which form as plates crash together and white cliffs of Dover in England and much of Indi-
then are eroded over tens of millions of years or ana, Illinois, and Florida. Sometimes limestone can
more. Rocks on continents can be very old. Some be directly precipitated from water, such as stalactites
of the oldest, more than three billion years old, are and stalagmites that form in caves. Other types of
found in Canada and Australia. sedimentary rock are created from precipitation
during the evaporation of seawater: halite (salt) and
3. Rocks and Minerals gypsum (calcium sulfate).
a. Igneous
Igneous rock, which was once very hot and molten, c. Metamorphic
makes up most of Earth’s crust. Molten magma from Metamorphic rock is created when either igneous or
under Earth’s surface, when it cools and solidifies, sedimentary rock is subjected to great heat and pres-
becomes igneous rock. Volcanoes create igneous rock sure. Rock already at Earth’s surface can be buried
(extrusive igneous rock). Molten bodies of rock under deep, creating heat and pressure, or trapped in a
the surface also create igneous rock (intrusive igneous mountain-building event, which squeezes the rock
rock). The base of the ocean’s floor is igneous rock, and twists the sediments. The mineral structure is
having emerged at mid-ocean ridges. Types of igneous changed though the rock is not melted (that would
rock include granite, rhyolite, gabbro, and basalt. turn it back into igneous rock). Some types of meta-
Igneous rocks have crystals of minerals, which morphic rock include slate (from shale), marble
form when the magma cools and becomes rock. The (from limestone), and quartzite (from sandstone).
slower the cooling, the larger the crystals. Therefore,
d. Element Abundances
crystals are larger in intrusive igneous rocks.
Minerals
b. Sedimentary What elements make up the crust of the continents?
Sedimentary rock is formed by sediments, which Here are the main elements and their percentages,
are either tiny particles physically deposited or rounded off to whole numbers: Oxygen (45%), sili-
chemicals precipitated from water. It makes up con (27%), aluminum (8%), iron (6%), calcium
253
(5%), magnesium (3%), sodium (2%), potassium itation but as reflectors of sunlight. Globally, clouds
(2%), and titanium (1%). Hydrogen, manganese, reflect about 30% of the sunlight back into space.
phosphorus, and all the others make up the rest. The atmosphere has four layers:
The large amount of oxygen and silicon in the
crust means that many minerals are silicon oxides, 1. Troposphere: the lowest layer, about 15 km
or silicates. Other elements join in to create differ- high (which varies with latitude and seasons).
ent kinds of silicates, such as magnesium-iron sili- Weather takes place in the troposphere; almost
cates, magnesium-aluminum silicates, and so forth. all clouds are in the troposphere. Temperature
Rocks are made of specific minerals, with defi- decreases with height in the troposphere.
nite chemical compositions and crystal structures. 2. Stratosphere: next layer, up to about 50 km
The minerals can be classed by hardness. Diamond, (between troposphere and stratosphere is a
of course, is the hardest, with number ten on Mohs’ thin transition zone called the tropopause).
Scale of Hardness. Talc is the softest, at number one Temperature increases with height in the strat-
on the scale. Other examples include calcite (hard- osphere, primarily because in the upper re-
ness three) and quartz (hardness seven). gions the gas ozone (O3) absorbs much of the
ultraviolet energy in the Sun’s spectrum.
Rock Cycle 3. Mesosphere: layer up to about 80 km (between
Elements are shifted from rock to the ocean by two stratosphere and mesosphere is a transition
processes. In physical weathering, bits of rock are zone called the stratopause). Temperatures
sloughed off and transported by rivers to the ocean. again drop with increasing altitude.
In chemical weathering, minerals are actually dis- 4. Thermosphere: in this layer, temperatures
solved or react with chemicals in water, and are rise with altitude. The air in this zone is ex-
then transported to the ocean. In this way, one kind tremely thin.
of rock contributes to the chemistry of future kinds
of rock. Rocks are thereby recycled and reformed. Air pressure drops exponentially with altitude.
For example, at the top of Mount Everest, it is only
4. Structure of the Biosphere about 40% that of the pressure at sea level. If one
The biosphere is the thin, dynamic upper layer of were to compress the atmosphere all to a uniform
our planet, which includes air, water, soil, and life. pressure equal to that at sea level, the atmosphere
would only be about 10 km thick (6 miles).
a. Atmosphere The winds, which move air from surface regions
The atmosphere has a mixture of gases: nitrogen of high pressure to regions of low pressure, mix
(N2, 78.08%), oxygen (O2, 20.95%), and argon (Ar, the entire atmosphere, even between northern and
0.93%). These three gases make up most of dry air; southern hemispheres, in about a year.
all the other gases are only 0.04% of the total. Of The spin of Earth creates the Coriolis force,
these, the most abundant is carbon dioxide or CO2 which makes winds around low pressure systems
(0.037%). Water vapor is not included in the dry in the northern hemisphere turn counterclockwise
air percentages, because it varies with the humid- and winds around high pressure systems turn
ity, from 0.3% to 4%. clockwise. The directions are reversed in the
Clouds consist of huge numbers of condensed southern hemisphere.
water droplets, microscopic aerosols. Clouds are im-
portant to climate, not only as the sources of precip-
254
b. Hydrosphere cipitated, the sodium and chloride form salt,

The oceans are also mixed by surface currents, though the other elements are present as well.
moved by the winds and tides. Large-scale, ocean-
wide gyres (a circular ocean current) turn the wa- c. Soil
ter, and in places near certain western coasts of the Soil is derived from two factors: rock that has been
ocean the flow intensifies to true currents: the Gulf physically weathered to small particles and biolog-
Stream off the American Atlantic coast, the Pa- ical material such as dead leaves. The amount of
cific’s Kuroshio Current off Japan, and the South organic matter in the soil (from leaves and parts of
Atlantic’s Brazil Current off Brazil. organisms, for example) decreases with depth in
The large, basin-wide ocean gyres circulate the soil. Soil is typically about a meter thick, but
clockwise in the northern hemisphere (North Pa- this varies tremendously from place to place.
cific, North Atlantic) and counterclockwise in the The amount of organic matter in the soil depends
southern hemisphere (South Pacific, South At- on the vegetation and, most crucially, on the temper-
lantic). Again, Earth’s spin and the resulting Corio- ature. Bacteria and fungi in the soil feed upon and
lis force is the cause of these patterns. thus break down the organic matter. This rate of
The oceans have a second, different kind of circu- breakdown changes with temperature. At higher
lation: the thermohaline (“temperature” [thermo] + temperatures, the bacteria are more active, at lower
“salt” [haline])—the factors that determine the den- temperatures, less so. Very cold climates, then, tend
sity of water). When water gets cold, for example, in to have thick soils with a high content of organic
winter at high latitudes, it becomes more dense and matter. Famous for this are the peats of northern
will tend to sink. When sea ice forms, also in winter at Canada and Siberia. Tropical soils, despite the rich
high latitudes, the freezing of fresh water into ice vegetation, tend to be thin with low amounts of or-
leaves the remaining ocean water more salty. Saltier ganic matter, because the reuptake of nutrients by
water is heavier water, and also tends to sink. These the vegetation is so rapid.
two factors create the densest water at certain high Soils hold water, to greater or lesser degrees.
latitude regions, particularly in the north Atlantic This water dissolves elements from the mineral
and around Antarctica, in winter. This dense water grains in the soil (the material that came from par-
plunges downward, flooding the deep basins of the ent rocks). The resulting dissolved ions serve as
world’s oceans with cold water. Thus, surprisingly, if new sources of nutrients for the plants. The dis-
one goes downward from the hot water at the sur- solved ions can also move away from the soil and
face of the equator, one finds near the bottom a thick into groundwater. These ions are carried by the
layer of water that is just a couple degrees above freez- flow of groundwater into streams and then rivers,
ing. This cold water has come from the polar regions. eventually depositing them into the ocean.
Considering the surface gyres and the deep The soil is key to the recycling of elements from
thermohaline circulation, the world’s oceans circu- vegetation to ions and then back to vegetation. As
late in about 1,000 years. In that time period, all is bacteria and fungi feed on the detritus from vege-
mixed from surface to deep. tation (leaves, dead roots, branches), they return
Oceans cover about 71% of Earth’s surface. elements to ionic forms in the soil water, making
The dominant ions in seawater are chloride these nutrients again available for the plants.
(55% by weight), sodium (30%), sulfate (8%), Organisms in the soil must breathe. They can
magnesium (4%), and calcium (1%). When pre- do so because air circulates between atmosphere
and soil, via pores in the soil.
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d. Life 42. The San Andreas fault in California is a

Life is an active part of the biosphere, and it makes a. subduction zone.
a huge difference to the surface state of the b. spreading ridge.
planet—to soil, ocean, and atmosphere. c. place of magnetic reversal.
Without life, there would be essentially no soil, d. site of plate slippage.
only sand piles here and there between large zones
of bedrock. The roots of plants and the organic 43. Key evidence for the modern theory of plate
matter from the detritus of plants create a matrix tectonics came from
that holds soil together, a matrix that can retain a. the apparent fitting together of continents.
water. Furthermore, the acids put forth by certain b. mapping of depth contours on the ocean
forms of soil life increase the rate of chemical bottom.
weathering of soil minerals. c. magnetic field stripes in the Atlantic Ocean’s
In the oceans, algae photosynthesize at the sur- floor.
face where the sunlight is. Other creatures feed on d. chemical analysis of volcanoes.
the algae. Their waste and also the dead bodies of
algae sink downward. This removes elements from 44. Earth has layers because
the surface of the ocean and places them into deep a. all planets have layers when they form.
water. The elements circulate back up to the surface b. elements were in layers in the gas nebula
via the currents and the thermohaline circulation. that formed the solar system.
Life, therefore, affects the chemistry of the ocean. c. it was once molten.
Life affects the atmosphere. Oxygen would be d. plate tectonics causes geological shifts.
virtually nonexistent without photosynthesis.
Other gases, such as carbon dioxide and methane 45. Which of Earth’s layers is liquid?
are also altered by the presence of life. Compared a. inner core
to the CO2-rich atmospheres of Mars and Venus b. outer core
(with hardly any oxygen), Earth’s atmosphere is c. mantle
low in CO2 and high in O2. d. crust
You Should Review 46. Which class(es) of rocks contain(s) fossil

n basic geological structure of Earth evidence?
n theory of plate tectonics a. sedimentary
n geological time scale b. igneous
n types of rocks c. metamorphic
n structure and composition of atmosphere, d. all of the above
ocean, and soil
47. Which event would most likely create
Questions metamorphic rocks?
41. The Atlantic Ocean is a. seafloor spreading
a. growing at several kilometers per year. b. volcanic eruption
b. shrinking at several kilometers per year. c. mineral precipitation from water
c. shrinking at several centimeters per year. d. mountain building
d. growing at several centimeters per year.
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48. When magma cools slowly, 46. a. Sedimentary rocks form on Earth’s surface,
a. its mineral crystals are small. where life is found. Plant and animal
b. it has streaks. remains become fossilized in the sedimen-
c. its mineral crystals grow large. tary rocks as the rocks form. Fossils are not
d. it has bubbles. found in igneous or metamorphic rocks
since they form under conditions of intense
49. Which is the second most abundant gas in heat and pressure.
Earth’s atmosphere? 47. d. Metamorphic rocks form under conditions
a. carbon dioxide of heat and pressure that changes rock
b. oxygen minerals without melting them. Mountain-
c. nitrogen building events commonly form large-scale
d. water vapor regions of metamorphic rocks. Seafloor
spreading and volcanic eruption form
50. The thermohaline circulation is igneous rocks, and sedimentary rocks can
a. the way the polar atmosphere mixes. form from mineral precipitation from
b. the way the deep ocean mixes. water.
c. the way the lithosphere mixes. 48. c. The crystals grow relatively large when the
d. the way the soil mixes. magma cools slowly. Whether it has streaks
or bubbles cannot be determined from the
Answers information given.
41. d. The Atlantic Ocean is growing in width, as 49. b. At about 21%, oxygen is number two in
magma at the mid-ocean ridge spreads the abundance, after nitrogen. Even under moist
ocean floor, at a very slow rate. conditions, water vapor concentration does
42. d. At the San Andreas fault, two continental not become as high as oxygen.
plates are slipping past each other. This 50. b. The thermohaline (referring to temperature
happens in occasional jolts, causing the and salt) creates dense water that sinks in
earthquakes in that region. the polar regions of the ocean, thereby
43. c. Magnetic field stripes in the Atlantic Ocean’s mixing the deep ocean.
floor showed that the floor was growing in
size, spreading away from the Mid-Atlantic F. Biodiversity and Ecology
Ridge. 1. Species and Biodiversity
44. c. Earth, in its early “years,” was molten, which One can note biodiversity on a number of scales,
caused heavier materials to sink toward the from genes to ecosystems. But the focus at some
center, segregating Earth into layers. point always comes down to that of species.
45. b. Earth’s outer core is molten iron and nickel.
The flow of this liquid metal creates Earth’s a. What Is a Species?
magnetic field. Although comprised of the In its classic sense, a species is a group of geneti-
same material, Earth’s inner core is solid cally related organisms with the potential for mat-
because of the greater pressure at the very ing and producing offspring who are themselves
center of the Earth. capable of successfully mating. For example,
robins can reproduce only with other robins. A
species is thus reproductively isolated.
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Reproductive isolation is brought about by any species is Homo sapiens, which consists of a genus
number of evolved mechanisms: physical mating ap- (Homo) and the species name (sapiens). Within any
paratus, mating rituals, genetic compatibility. Geo- genus, there can be many species. The ancient Nean-
graphical separation often plays a role in allowing derthals, Homo neanderthalensis, are the same genus
different populations of a species to genetically diverge as modern humans, but a different species.
and separate into two different species over time. Levels of classification (in increasing levels of
A subspecies is a taxonomic level within a inclusivity):
species that is genetically distinct but not repro-
ductively isolated. In other words, members of dif- family (more inclusive than genus)
ferent subspecies can reproduce. For example, the order
Florida panther is a subspecies of the mountain class
lion, which lives in the western United States (but phylum
formerly lived all across the United States). kingdom
In 1973, the Endangered Species Act was passed
d. Tropical Biodiversity
to protect any species whose population is declin-
The tropics, in particular the rain forests, are famed
ing to such a level that the existence of the species
for their biodiversity. Maps of the numbers of
is threatened.
species, from poles to tropics, for amphibians, trees,
b. How Many Species? and others show species diversity increasing in al-
Today, we have catalogued and defined about 1.8 mil- most all cases toward the tropics. A single forest plot
lion species. Total species estimates range from 3–30 in South America could have as many species of
million. Most ecologists think the number is some- butterfly or tree as all of England. There are many
where in between, perhaps 10 or more million. Occa- possible reasons for the high diversity in the tropics.
sionally, a new primate is discovered (for example, a The high amount of incoming sunlight in the
new monkey was discovered recently in South Amer- tropics supplies energy to the plants, which, in
ica), but most undiscovered animal species are insects. turn, supports more animals. The larger the
Estimates are made by surveying regions where amount of biomass that can be supported, the
new species are found. One technique kills all the larger the potential number of species.
insects on a specific tree. The insects are surveyed Stability of climate allows species to enter into
for new species that seem to be specific for that highly specific arrangements with each other. Species
tree. Then, knowing how many trees are in the of fig tree, for instance, are pollinated with a single
area, one can estimate the number of unknown species of fig wasp. Both depend on each other. Also,
insects in that area. during the recent ice ages, the tropical rain forests
Here are some different groups of organisms might have dried up into zones called refugia, where
and the number of species currently known: plants pressures to evolve made many new species.
(300,000), insects (1,000,000), fungi (100,000), The high latitudes experience large seasonal
mammals (5,400), and birds (9,900). changes, which makes those species more adapted
to wide geographical ranges, creating less diversity.
c. Classification
Organisms are classified according to a nested hierar- e. Biomes
chy of named groups. Each species has a double name Biomes are large geographical regions within
of genus and species. Humans are Homo sapiens. The which are located relatively similar basic types of
word species gets applied in two different ways: The plant and animals. A biome is larger than an
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ecosystem. The main determining factors that give greater number of species, when specific groups
shape to biomes are temperature and rainfall. were examined, such as birds or amphibians.
Tundra is characterized by polar regions with The theorists went farther. What determines the
tiny plants produced during short summer grow- number of species on islands? Species die (go lo-
ing seasons. It has thick soils of peat because of cally extinct) and species originate (they migrate
slow decomposition. from the mainland, fly over in the case of insects
Boreal forest is characterized by evergreen trees and birds, are blown over by the winds in the case
such as spruce and fir across Canada and Russia. It of small insects, and come aboard from floating
has cold winters but warm summers. logs and other debris, in the case of lizards).
Temperate deciduous forest is characterized by For islands of the same size, islands closer to the
trees such as maple, birch, and oak, which lose their mainland have a greater number of species be-
leaves each winter. It has cold winters and hot sum- cause the immigration rate is higher. Islands with
mers with adequate rainfall for trees. Despite the diverse habitats (such as mountains and swamps)
loss of the leaves, deciduous trees in these regions have a great number of species. For all else equal,
fare better than evergreen trees because flat leaves smaller islands have a greater rate of extinctions,
are more efficient solar collectors than needles. because the smaller populations are more suscepti-
Prairies and grasslands are characterized by ble to environmental stressors or disease, which
warmer summers than areas of deciduous forests, leads to a smaller number of species.
but less rainfall. Hot dry summers create condi- For example, in the Caribbean, Cuba, the largest
tions for fires, which is often an important part of island, has the greatest number of species of rep-
the structure of these biomes. Clearing native tiles and amphibians. Furthermore, plotting the
grasslands has created some of the great “bread- sizes of islands versus their number of species
basket” farmlands of the world. shows a mathematical law, allowing scientists to
Deserts are very dry biomes with little rain. count on some theory behind the distributions.
Plants and animals have special adaptations. Many Data roughly along lines compatible with the
plants are bulbous (cacti) to store water in their theory of island biogeography from other regions
bodies for times of extended drought. on continents show that the theory has some ap-
Tropical seasonal forests and rain forests: plicability to what will happen to species as hu-
Some areas of the tropics have wet and dry sea- mans fragment the landscape more and more. The
sons. In these areas, many trees can also be decidu- theory will help in the design of nature preserves.
ous because they lose their leaves during the dry For example, butterflies increase in English wood-
seasons. In the rain forests, enough year-round lands as the sizes of the woodlands increase.
moisture supports green vegetation all year.
Species diversity is at a maximum. b. Predators and Prey
A key kind of interaction in nature is the food chain,
2. Principles of Biodiversity the chain of eating: mouse eats seed, snake eats
a. Island Biogeography mouse, hawk eats snake. In real nature, we find not
In the 1960s, MacArthur and Wilson developed simple chains but webs, more complex networks be-
the theory of island biogeography by studying the cause predators often (not always) feed upon many
relationship between numbers of species and areas different kinds of prey, and prey often can be fed
of islands. They found that larger islands held a upon by many different kinds of predators.
259
Trophic levels describe the position on the off or swim away to form new individuals. Some
food chain that an organism occupies. There are insects and even some vertebrates (several species
four levels. of lizards, for example) are capable of asexual re-
production in which the females lay eggs that are
Level 1 (Primary producers)—autotrophs, capable of growing into new adults.
producers such as plants and algae that For the individual of an asexual species, repro-
turn sunlight, carbon dioxide, and nutri- duction is less efficient than in the sexual mode,
ents into their bodies upon which all other because, in sex, each parent is only putting half its
terrestrial life depends. genes into the offspring. In the asexual mode, the
Level 2 (Primary consumers)—herbivores, sole parent is putting one hundred percent of its
creatures such as deer and many insects genes into each offspring.
that feed on plants However, sexual reproduction has the benefit of
Level 3 (Secondary consumers)—carnivores mixing genes, which creates variation, one of the
that prey on the herbivores stages in the recipe for evolution. Mitosis relies on
Level 4 (Tertiary consumers)—also mutations for variation (except in some cases in
carnivores, which in the idealized situation which bacteria exchange genes)—but sex creates
feed on other carnivores of level 3 variation by its very nature. Parasites and diseases can
evolve quickly, putting populations of clones at risk.
As food passes from trophic level to trophic
But when sex mixes genes, offspring are all different.
level (from gut to gut), it is converted into new or-
There is good evidence that sexual species can have
ganism bodies with an efficiency that is typically
lower susceptibility to parasites and other diseases.
about 10%. In other words, it might take 10 kg of
What is gained in producing lots of genetic variation
plant matter to make 1 kilogram of herbivore, and
seems to make up for what is lost in efficiency of
then 10 kg of herbivore to make 1 kg of carnivore.
gene transfer for each individual during sex.
This is why the spectacular predators of ecosys-
In higher organisms, such as plants and ani-
tems are rare and why there will always be far
mals, sex cells (pollen and egg in plants, sperm and
fewer eagles, for example, than mice.
egg in animals), receive half the chromosomes and
therefore half the genes of the cells of the adults
c. Sex
they derive from, in a special process of cell divi-
Many creatures reproduce without sex between
sion called meiosis.
males and females. Bacteria, for instance, can re-
produce by cell splitting, creating two clones in a
d. Invasive, Umbrella, and
process called mitosis. Each daughter cell has the
Keystone Species
same DNA as the mother cell.
Keystone species are species that play a key role
Many plants can reproduce by vegetation prop-
(like the keystone in an arch) by holding the struc-
agation (for example, taking a cutting from a
ture of the ecosystem together. Many top predators
houseplant, rooting it in water, and then planting
are keystone species because they affect the popu-
it in soil), making a clone of the original plant.
lations of their prey, which affects the populations
Some trees, such as aspens, reproduce with under-
lower in the trophic levels. For example, the
ground runners. So what looks like a patch of indi-
starfish along rocky coastlines can be a keystone
vidual trees is actually a family of clones. Certain
species because starfish affect the populations of
invertebrates, such as hydra, can also reproduce
many species of mollusks and barnacles.
asexually, by budding off small replicas, which fall
260
Umbrella species are species that have a role in gascar. Special regions where there are a large
conservation. Preserving an umbrella species that number of endemic species that are under threat
needs a particular habitat will automatically act like (and which are unusually rich in overall biodiver-
an umbrella to save many other species that also use sity) are called hotspots.
that habitat. A classic example is the northern spot-
ted owl of the old-growth forests of the Pacific 3. Basics of Ecology
Northwest. (An old-growth forest is forest that has Ecology is the study of the interactions of organ-
never been cut.) The owl requires holes in old isms with each other and with their physical and
growth trees for its nests and will not nest elsewhere. chemical environments.
A poster or flagship species is a particularly
charismatic species that people tend to naturally a. Definitions
rally around for its preservation. The giant panda A population is the system of locally interacting
of China is an example. members of the same species. When individuals in a
Invasive species are also called alien or intro- local population have substantial interaction among
duced species, because they come from other re- them (say, as potential mates) but only occasional
gions of the world, transported by humans. The links to other populations (say, in another valley),
introduction is sometimes intentional, but is often the populations are then said to be metapopula-
unintentional, as species hitch rides on ships or even tions in the context of the larger, more loosely
in airplane wheel cases. A classic example is the zebra linked species system.
mussel, originally from waters in Russia, now found A community is the locally interacting system of
all over the Great Lakes of the United States and even organisms of different species, usually considered as
up stretches of the Missouri River. Its huge, dense the plants, animals, and fungi. But there can also be
populations clog pipes of factories and power plants, soil communities that include species of bacteria.
and cause billions of dollars of damage each year. An ecosystem can be a pond, swamp, local area of
Introduced species can be successful invaders prairie, local woods, and so forth. It usually does not
when they come into an area with no natural pred- have defined boundaries (except in cases like ponds),
ators and where the prey lacks evolved defenses but consists of the community or communities of
against the new species. Invasive species are a seri- creatures and the nonliving parts of the environ-
ous problem for the world’s healthy maintenance ment they are in contact with, such as water and soil.
of biodiversity and economies. Ecosystems can become disturbed, either by
Extinct species are a natural part of Earth’s natural events such as volcanoes or by humans. If
past. But humans are causing extinctions at a far left to restore themselves, they undergo a process
greater rate than the “background” rate of nature of succession. Early, colonizing species come in
(not counting mass extinctions from impacts, for first, followed by later species that often require the
instance, like the one that took out the dinosaurs). conditions created by the earlier species. Eventu-
The passenger pigeon and the dodo bird are two ally, a stable endpoint community of organisms is
bird species that humans (or the animals humans reached, called a climax community.
introduced) caused to go extinct. Carrying capacity is the maximum number of
Endemic species are species that occur in a organisms of a particular species that an ecosystem
rather small region and nowhere else. Islands often can support.
have large numbers of endemic species. Lemurs, Reserves are parts of nature set aside by humans
for example, are endemic to the island of Mada- for the preservation of species or wilderness in gen-
261
eral. Reserves include National Parks and National the shallow water, thereby mixing up nutrients from
Wildlife Refuges in the United States and various below to the surface. The open ocean is sometimes
regions with different names in other countries. considered a marine desert; life is more sparse there.
Fragmentation occurs when a force (primarily At the top of the ocean is a zone called the mixed
human) fragments the natural landscape into layer, varying in depth but usually about 100 meters
patches (examples: construction of interstate high- thick. It is well mixed, having been stirred by the
ways and other roads, housing and urban develop- winds. The upper part that receives light is called
ments, draining parts of wetlands, or cutting down the pelagic zone, which varies depending on how
parts of forests for farmlands). far light penetrates down. The deep parts are called
A watershed is a region that includes all the the benthos. Thus, marine biologists distinguish or-
drainage of tributaries that feed a larger stream or ganisms as pelagic species and benthic species.
river. For example, the very large Mississippi wa- Special areas called upwelling zones occur off
tershed would include the watershed of the Mis- certain coasts, such as Chile and the coast of
souri River, because the Missouri River empties northwest Africa. Here, deep, nutrient-rich waters
into the Mississippi. are brought up and fish are hugely abundant.
Tiny organisms in the ocean constitute the plank-
b. Soil Ecology ton, which generally drift with the currents. There
When leaves die from trees in autumn or grasses are phytoplankton, which are green because they
die for winter, they fall to the ground. This mate- have chlorophyll and perform photosynthesis (eu-
rial contains carbon and other elements that start karyotic algae and prokaryotic cyanobacteria), and
to decompose and become part of the soil. zooplankton (“animal-plankton”). Zooplankton in-
The new material is called detritus. Organisms in clude tiny multicellular swimming crustaceans as
the soil that perform decomposition are called de- well as the swimming larvae of creatures that will
tritus feeders, and include various insects, worms, grow to adult sizes out of the plankton range, such as
fungi, and bacteria. Though we normally know jellyfish and mollusks. Zooplankton feed on phyto-
fungi as their visible forms of mushrooms (the re- plankton, and all are fed upon by a variety of fish
productive bodies), they normally occur as invisible and other organisms, making a marine food web.
threads (called hyphae) throughout the soil. A fishery is a commercial entity engaged in har-
Organisms in the soil breathe because air enters vesting fish in a particular region (examples:
and leaves the soil through openings between its northwest salmon fishery, the New England cod
grains. The deeper one goes in the soil, the air has fishery). Many fisheries are in decline as the stocks
less oxygen, because the oxygen has been used by of fish have been depleted.
the soil organisms. Aquaculture is the commercial raising of fish,
Soil has layers. The uppermost, rich layer is top- shrimp, or oysters in tanks or fenced off areas of
soil, which is important to preserve in farmlands. the ocean.
Farmers must beware of losing topsoil to erosion
by wind and water. d. Ecology and Energy
Sunlight is captured by plants using the pigment
c. Marine Ecology molecule chlorophyll. Plants are green because
The continental shelf regions of oceans tend to be chlorophyll absorbs the red and blue wavelengths
richer in life because they obtain increased nutrients of light, reflecting some of the green. The energy
from rivers and from the winds and tides that stir thus captured is used to drive the process of pho-
262
tosynthesis, which creates simple sugar molecules metabolism of molecules inside a plant is less—
from carbon dioxide and water. Plants get water that is called net primary production (NPP).
from the soil (through their xylem) and carbon
dioxide from the air, through pores in their leaves GPP = NPP – respiration
called stomata (or stomates). Marine algae are also
green because of chlorophyll, but they get the car- NPP can be calculated at the level of ecosystem
bon dioxide from the water. and biome, as well. It varies across ecosystems and
Terrestrial plants and marine algae are called biomes, being highest in tropical rain forests and
autotrophs, for “self-feeders,” because they create lowest in deserts.
their own food, in a sense, from inorganic mole- Limiting factors limit the amount of net primary
cules. Insects and humans are heterotrophs, reproduction. Depending on the ecosystem or biome,
quiring autotrophs for food. limiting factors could include water, nitrate, phos-
The molecules of organisms are high energy phate, and other nutrients. Farmers overcome lim-
molecules, because they can be “burned” by the me- iting factors in soils by adding fertilizers.
tabolisms of organisms to maintain their bodies
and exert force upon the environment for move- 4. Biogeochemical Cycles
ment and food capture. The energy comes from the Biogeochemical cycles are the cycles of elements
Sun. Thus, when we walk, we are using transformed essential to life. These cycles are thus biological
and stored solar energy. Life runs on solar energy. (bio) and include geological processes (geo) and
The mass of a living thing or a collection of liv- chemical reactions (chemical).
ing things is called biomass, or biological mass.
One can ask about the biomass of trees in a forest, a. Carbon on Land
or the insect biomass of an ecosystem. The most important biogeochemical cycle is that
When plants convert their simple sugars made of carbon, the essential element in the organic
by photosynthesis into more complex organic molecules of life. Carbon moves in and out of var-
molecules that they need, such as proteins and ious forms. Photosynthesis and respiration form a
starches, they use some of the sugar as a source of coupled pair of processes that convert carbon
carbon for this next generation of organic mole- dioxide into organic molecules (carbohydrates)
cules. They also “burn” some of the sugar for en- and back again. Most respiration takes place in the
ergy, to drive the chemical reactions inside their soil, as respiration from bacteria and fungi releases
cells that create the next generations of molecules. carbon dioxide. The cycle is more complex with
This burning uses up some of the sugars and re- other forms of carbon as well. Some bacteria re-
quires oxygen, and results in the chemical prod- lease waste carbon in the form of methane (CH4).
ucts of carbon dioxide and water, thus reversing Other types of bacteria consume methane.
the process of photosynthesis. This is called respi-
ration. Heterotrophs perform respiration, too b. Carbon in the Biosphere
(but not photosynthesis). The atmosphere contains about 700 billion tons of
The amount of biomass created by the photo- carbon, primarily in the form of carbon dioxide.
synthesis in a plant is called gross primary pro- The carbon in all biomass is about the same
duction (GPP). It is usually expressed in terms of amount. The carbon in the world’s soils is about
carbon. The carbon that actually goes into the full three times that amount. The oceans contain the
263
largest pool or reservoir of carbon, because seawa- simpler than the cycles of carbon and nitrogen, be-
ter has carbon in yet other forms: bicarbonate and cause phosphorus does not have a gaseous form. It
carbonate ions. Atmosphere, plants, algae, soil, and primarily cycles between its ion (phosphate ions in
ocean—these are all considered pools, between soil and water) and its form in life (various mole-
which carbon is shuffled in and out of various cules inside cells). Phosphorus is used as part of
forms, in amounts known as fluxes. Global net pri- the ladder of DNA and is essential for energy mol-
mary productivity is the flux of carbon from the at- ecules inside cells, such as ATP.
mosphere into all photosynthesizers, for example.
e. Bioessential Elements
c. Nitrogen in the Biosphere All the dozen or so elements that are essential to liv-
Nitrogen, which is important in protein synthesis, is ing things have their biogeochemical cycles. The ma-
another element that has a biogeochemical cycle. jor elements and their approximate mass percentages
Like carbon, there are pools (or reservoirs) of nitro- in a typical plant are carbon (C, 45%), oxygen (O,
gen, in the atmosphere (as N2 gas), in organisms 45%), hydrogen (H, 6%), nitrogen (N, 1.6%), sulfur
(primarily in proteins), in the soil (in the detritus), (S, 0.1%), phosphorus (P, 0.2%), potassium (K, 1%),
and in water (as nitrate and ammonium ions). calcium (Ca, 0.5%), magnesium (Mg, 0.2%), and
Fluxes describe the conversion of nitrogen from one iron (Fe, 0.01%). The elements N, S, P, K, Ca, and Mg
form to another. are the macronutrients, because they occur in rela-
Nitrogen fixation occurs when soil or marine tively large amounts. Iron and other elements not
bacteria take nitrogen gas and convert it into the listed, such as manganese, molybdenum, and copper,
useful ammonium ion for their bodies. Some eco- are micronutrients. Hydrogen and oxygen, though
logically and agriculturally important soil bacteria essential elements, are not considered nutrients be-
live within the roots of plants, in a symbiotic rela- cause they occur abundantly in water. In humans, the
tionship. When we say that bean plants or clover percentages change somewhat but not drastically
can fix nitrogen, it is really the bacteria in the nod- (not so much that iron is larger than phosphorus, for
ules on their roots that perform that function, not example). More proteins in humans means more ni-
the plants themselves. trogen, to cite one element’s differences between hu-
Ammoniafication is also done by bacteria, in the mans and plants.
soil, as the bacteria process proteins in detritus and
converts the organic nitrogen into ammonium ions. You Should Review
Nitrogen assimilation occurs when organisms n principles of biodiversity and ecology
take up nitrogen as ammonium ions or nitrate n numbers of species
ions from the environment of soil or water. n classification system
In denitrification, other kinds of bacteria con- n biome types
vert nitrate ions in soil or water into nitrogen gas. n food webs in ocean and on land
Denitrifiers live in places of no or little oxygen. Fi- n interaction of predators and prey
nally, nitrifying bacteria take ammonium ions and n asexual versus sexual reproduction
make nitrate ions. n biogeochemical cycles of carbon and nitrogen
d. Phosphorus in the Biosphere

Phosphorus is another crucial element for all liv-
ing things. It has a cycle, too, which is relatively
264
Questions 55. The California sea otter, native to the coast,

51. According to biological classification, which controls the populations of starfish, which
group has the potential for mating and control the populations of many other marine
producing offspring? creatures among the kelp beds. The otter is an
a. family example of a(n)
b. species a. umbrellate species.
c. kingdom b. invasive species.
d. class c. keystone species.
d. mammal species.
52. The high diversity in the tropics occurs
because these regions 56. Consider the following food web: oak
a. receive high levels of solar energy. seedlings eaten by rabbits; rabbits eaten by
b. are closest to the oceans. wolves. What happens to the oak seedlings if
c. have high seasonal variability. the wolf population suddenly declines from a
d. contain more land area. disease?
a. Seedlings decrease.
53. Fire can be an important part in the structure b. Seedlings are eaten by something else.
of an ecosystem. This is particularly true in c. Seedlings increase.
which of the following biomes? d. Seedlings are also hit by a disease.
a. tundra
b. chaparral 57. Which organisms are at the base of the marine
c. boreal forest food web?
d. prairie a. crustaceans
b. jellyfish
54. Food chains are parts of food webs, in which c. phytoplankton
we go from plants at the first trophic level d. zooplankton
(primary producers) to a second trophic level,
and so on. Why do food chains in nature rarely 58. The term fragmentation refers to which of the
exceed four or five levels? following?
a. because evolution has not yet created that a. invasive species that divide the structure of
degree of complexity ecosystems
b. because organisms die more easily at the b. the dispersed nature of marine food webs
higher levels c. successive waves of species as an ecosystem
c. because of inefficiencies; the available develops
energy becomes less and less at higher levels d. humans segregating up nature into chunks
d. because food chains limit the levels of
food webs 59. In considering the pools of the biogeochemical
carbon cycle, which has the most carbon in it?
a. ocean
b. soil
c. plants
d. atmosphere
265
60. The process by which bacteria convert 59. a. The ocean has about 10–50 times more
nitrogen gas into useful compounds like carbon than any of the other pools. In the
ammonia is ocean, carbon is found mostly in the form
a. denitrification. of the bicarbonate ion (with the carbonate
b. nitrogen assimilation. ion second).
c. nitrogen fixation. 60. c. Nitrogen fixation occurs when bacteria
d. ammoniafication. convert atmospheric nitrogen into
ammonium ions and turn them into useful
Answers compounds like ammonia for their bodies.
51. b. In a basic sense, species are genetically related Ammoniafication involves the conversion
organisms able to produce offspring. of organic nitrogen in detritus material
Biological classification, in decreasing order into ammonium ions. Organisms that
of inclusivity, is: kingdom, phylum, class, cannot independently perform nitrogen
order, family, genus, and species. fixation may use the process of nitrogen
52. a. Tropical regions receive a high amount of assimilation.
sunlight year-round, which supports the year-
round growth of a greater number of plants. G. Global Environmental Challenges
This in turn supports a larger population of 1. Population and Land Use
animals, increasing biodiversity further. a. Population
53. d. Prairies have dense vegetation and often Prior to the invention of agriculture, some 10,000
long intervals of summer drought. Fires years ago, humans in their hunting and gathering
started by lightning are a natural part of phase were limited to about ten million people
these grasslands, and many plants have even worldwide. But by the pyramid days of ancient
become evolutionarily adapted by having Egypt, 5,000 years ago, global population had
seeds that germinate after a fire. grown tenfold, to about 100 million, an increase
54. c. Typically, each level only converts 10% of due to agriculture.
the energy of the previous level. As the By 1830, the population had reached the first
levels progress, the energy available is very billion.
small, thus limiting the levels reached. By the late 1950s, the world held two billion
55. c. The otter is a keystone species, because like people.
the top stone in an arch, it holds much of The third, fourth, and fifth billion marks were
the rest of the ecosystem in its structure. reached by the late 1950s, the early 1970s, and the
56. a. If the wolves decline, the rabbits increase in mid-1980s, respectively.
population. If the rabbits increase, they eat The six-billion mark was reached in the late
more seedlings, so the seedlings decline. 1990s, and seven billion in 2011, due to a growth
57. c. Phytoplankton are photosynthetic rate of about 85 million people a year (10 times the
organisms like algae and cyanobacteria that population of New York or Los Angeles). However,
produce their own food using energy from while the population continues to grow, the growth
sunlight. Thus, they are primary producers rate is starting to decline. Factors that cause the
at the lowest level of the marine food web. growth rate to decline include a higher standard of
58. d. Human activities fragment nature. living and better education (for women, in particu-
lar). Scientists expect the world population to reach
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at least eight billion, but variables may influence cules of air (such as N2, O2, and so forth). Today,
how high the population climbs. CO2 is somewhat more than 400 ppm (which is
equal to 0.040%).
b. Land Use CO2, though such a small amount of the atmos-
Global land = 140 million square kilometers = 14 phere, is of critical importance because it is a
billion hectares (about five acres per person). greenhouse gas. Oxygen and nitrogen gases are
Usable land: 31% of the world’s land (4.4 bil- not. A greenhouse gas lets in visible radiation
lion hectares) is unusable, because it is rock, ice, (light, short-wave radiation) from the Sun, which
tundra, or desert, leaving 9.6 billion hectares for enters the atmosphere, and passes directly through
potential human use. to the ground (therefore we can’t see the CO2). But
Agricultural use: The major human land use is a greenhouse gas absorbs infrared radiation. In-
for agricultural production, which is currently 4.7 frared radiation (long-wave radiation) is what the
billion hectares. Of that, 70% is permanent pasture Earth emits to outer space to cool its surface and to
and 30% is crop land. So agriculture (pasture + balance the energy received from the Sun. Green-
crops) takes 34% of the world’s land. house gases are like one-way insulation, letting
Urbanized land: Globally, only about 1% of light in but blocking the escape of infrared radia-
land (about 140 million hectares) is considered ur- tion. Earth’s surface will warm up as a result of any
banized, including highways. In some local areas, extra insulation in the atmosphere.
the urbanized land approaches 100% of coverage. Without CO2, Earth would be very cold, below
Therefore, 14 billion hectares – 4.4 billion (un- the freezing point of water. So present conditions
usable) – 4.7 billion (agriculture) – 0.14 billion require CO2.
(urbanized) = 4.8 billion hectares of potential us- But there can also be too much: CO2, emitted as
able land remains. a waste gas from the combustion of fossil fuels
This is about 34% of the total land, or about as (coal, oil, natural gas), is rising. Data from bubbles
much as humans currently use for all agriculture. trapped in ice at Antarctica show that for 10,000
However, much of the prime land for agriculture is years prior to the industrial revolution, CO2 was
already in use, so what remains is not as high in fairly constant at about 280 ppm. Now it is above
quality. 400 ppm and rising from human activities at the
rate of 1.5–2 ppm per year.
2. Humans Alter the Biosphere
Unlike other species, humans deploy vast arrays of b. Ozone and Ultraviolet Radiation
chemical processes (factories, residences, and Ozone (O3) is a molecule with three oxygen atoms,
forms of transportation). In our use of energy and unlike regular oxygen (O2) that makes up 21% of
in the ways we process matter, we create substances Earth’s atmosphere. Ozone is made naturally, by
that alter the chemistry of the biosphere. cosmic rays that cause chemical reactions in
Earth’s stratosphere. Ozone readily absorbs the ul-
a. Carbon Dioxide and the traviolet portions of the Sun’s spectrum that enters
Greenhouse Effect Earth’s atmosphere. This absorption also destroys
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is typically measured in some of the ozone, so a balance is reached between
units of ppm (parts per million), because there are creation and destruction, resulting in a natural
only small amounts of it in the atmosphere. Mil- amount of ozone that is constantly present.
lion refers to a million randomly selected mole-
267
Without this protective ozone layer, biologically Acid rain falls mostly in the regions downwind
damaging ultraviolet (UV) rays would reach the of power plants. It has been responsible for ecolog-
surface of the planet. UV exposure is a main cause ical damage to many streams and lakes.
of skin cancer. Laws governing the release of acids from power
Until recently, ozone was on a worrisome plants are in place, but could be strengthened fur-
decline. Human-made gases called chlorofluoro- ther. Acid rain is a problem that potentially could be
carbons (CFCs, containing chlorine, fluorine, and controlled, with adequate environmental regulation.
carbon) used in refrigerators, air-conditioners, Emissions of pollutants from automobiles have been
and some aerosol cans, when released, travel up improved, for example, with better technology.
into the stratosphere. There, the CFCs act as a cat-
alyst to destroy the ozone at a rate much faster d. Toxins
than its natural rate of destruction. Humans had Primary pollutants are chemicals released directly
altered the balance, and global ozone levels started into the atmosphere.
dropping, particularly in the ozone “hole” area Besides some of the gases already discussed, pri-
above Antarctica, endangering people in Australia mary pollutants include the following:
and New Zealand.
In 1987, many nations signed the Montreal Pro- n Suspended particulate matter (PM) consists of
tocol, a global agreement to phase out the produc- all kinds of tiny particles from smog stacks
tion and use of CFCs. Substitute gases were and even from metals.
invented to replace CFCs. As a result, the ozone de- n Volatile organic compounds (VOC, hydrocar-
cline has been halted. Over the coming decades, bons) are organic gases from a variety of
the ozone layer should be able to repair itself and sources, such as leaks into the air that you
return to its natural level. smell when you fill your car with gasoline and
even gases from lighter fluids used to start
c. Acid Rain barbecues.
Acid rain is yet another human perturbation to the n Carbon monoxide (CO) derives from incom-
atmosphere, related to the combustion of fossil fu- plete combustion of fossil fuels (organic car-
els, coal in particular. Coal, the remains of ancient bon is oxidized to CO, rather than CO2 during
plants from hundreds of millions of years ago, complete combustion); an odorless gas, CO is
contains sulfur (one of the bio-essential elements). the leading annual cause of death by poison-
When the coal is burned in power plants to obtain ing in the United States.
energy (most of which comes from converting car-
bon to CO2), the sulfur also combines with oxygen Primary pollutants can be altered chemically by
to create sulfur dioxide (SO2), a gas that enters the interactions with sunlight, and become secondary
atmosphere. The SO2 further combines with water or photochemical pollutants.
vapor and ultimately becomes sulfuric acid
(H2SO4) in cloud droplets. The rain that falls from n Tropospheric ozone is one such pollutant.
these clouds is acidic—acid rain. Different from the natural, much-higher-up
Nitrogen also contributes to acid rain, as nitric stratospheric ozone, tropospheric ozone is
acid, derived from nitrogen oxides created from ozone or pollution in an urban area.
the high temperature reactions with air in power n Photochemical smog, another secondary pol-
plants and automobiles. lutant, is created when car exhaust is acted
268
upon by sunlight to form a brown haze that is Energy is the summation of power over time;
highly irritating to the lungs. Smog is particu- measured in kilowatt-hours or BTU (for
larly troublesome in cities that lie in valleys British thermal unit, the energy it takes to raise
and are subject to air inversions, in which a lid 1 pound of water by 1 degree Fahrenheit).
of air sits over the city and does not move for a
long period of time. b. Fossil Fuel Combustion
All fossil fuels contain carbon and hydrogen. When
After cigarette smoke, radon gas is the second a fossil fuel is reacted (burned) with oxygen (from
leading cause of lung cancer. Radon, a daughter the air), the chemical products are carbon dioxide
product of uranium in Earth’s rocks, is a radioactive and water (as a vapor). Because the produced CO2
gas that leaks from particular kinds of soils. It can and H2O together have a lower molecular energy
accumulate indoors, for example, in basements. than the reactants of fossil fuel and oxygen, energy
When breathed in, radon follows a nuclear decay is released in the reaction. Fossil fuel energy is the
pathway within the lungs, releasing radiation and main source of energy for all the processes of civi-
ultimately leaving lead trapped within the lungs. lization.
Scrap rocks from uranium mining are a form of Types of fossil fuels differ in their relative
radioactive waste. Of even more concern are the amounts of carbon and hydrogen. The more car-
waste byproducts from nuclear power plants. bon a fossil fuel has, the more carbon dioxide it re-
These are daughter products of the process of con- leases for a given amount of energy. In this regard,
trolled nuclear fission, which uses uranium but coal is the worst fuel and natural gas (which is pri-
then creates radioactive iodine, cesium, pluto- marily methane, CH4) is the best fuel, with oil rat-
nium, and other elements as waste. This material is ing somewhere in the middle.
secured and stored on the site of the nuclear power Fossil fuels come from biological sources of
plants, but plans are being created for long-term, many millions of years ago. Oil is from marine al-
permanent storage. Many communities oppose gae, buried and transformed. Coal is from terres-
nuclear waste storage in their areas due to fears of trial plants that lived in vast swampy environments,
radioactive contamination. The most planning has buried and transformed. Natural gas (methane) is
been done for a site in Nevada, at which the mate- mostly derived as a breakdown product of either
rial would have to be kept safe from earthquakes coal or oil. All occur underground and must be dug
and groundwater for many thousands of years. up or piped to the surface, transported, and
However, most Nevadans oppose the construction processed for human use.
of such a site, and political and technological diffi- A significant factor in world politics is the un-
culties have delayed the opening of this facility. even distribution of fossil fuels, especially oil. This
shows how geological processes from hundreds of
3. Energy Systems millions of years ago affect human life today.
Our lives are dependent on external sources of en-
ergy, as we burn fossil fuels at a total rate that is c. Energy Today
many times greater than the metabolisms of all The global primary energy supply consists of the
humans. following (total is 99% because numbers are
rounded off):
a. Energy versus Power
Power is the rate of energy flow; unit is kilowatts n oil (31%)
(1 kW = 1 kilojoule
_______ n
second ). coal (29%)
269
n natural gas (21%) e. Future Energy Technologies

n wood and combustible wastes (10%) Research continues on future energy technologies,
n nuclear (5%) on sources of energy that do not emit carbon diox-
n hydroelectric (2%) ide and are renewable.
n other (renewable sources): 1% Hydrogen can be burned with oxygen to pro-
duce harmless water (vapor). However, hydrogen
How is energy used? Roughly one-third of it is does not occur naturally. To have a hydrogen econ-
used for industry, one-third for transportation, omy in the future, therefore, we need to make hy-
and one-third for residential (varies by country). drogen from the splitting of water, which requires
Hydroelectric energy uses vertical drops in an energy source, like fossil fuel or solar energy.
rivers. Water is diverted, usually from behind dams, (Hydrogen can also be made from natural gas
into turbines, which turn generators to produce [methane], but this creates CO2, so to avoid the
electricity. (All mechanical electricity-generating emission of CO2, it would have to be sequestered.)
power plants turn turbines to make electricity.) Carbon sequestration is a technology that
Nuclear power plants generate intense heat stops the emission of CO2 (by trapping and dis-
from the controlled splitting (fission) of uranium posing of carbon dioxide waste) and would allow
atoms. The heat creates steam, which turns tur- humans to continue burning fossil fuels, depend-
bines to make electricity. ing on supply. One possibility is to pipe carbon
Fossil fuel power plants work the same way, ex- dioxide deep into the ocean (but this might make
cept that the source of heat is the combustion of conditions intolerably acidic for some benthic ma-
the fuel. rine life). Another possibility is to pipe it into deep
aquifers of salty, unusable water far beneath the
d. Efficiency from Supply to Use land surface. But would the CO2 leak back up into
Efficiency is output of useful work divided by the the atmosphere? A small industrial project off the
input energy, measured in percent. For example, shores of Scandinavia is currently injecting CO2
how much of the energy in oil goes into making into the ocean. Much remains to be tested with
the automobile travel, and how much is wasted as these technologies.
heat in the exhaust system and from cooling the Wind energy uses the pressure of moving air to
engine? turn turbines to make electricity. Many large wind
For fossil fuel power plants, a typical efficiency turbines are going up all over the world, particu-
is about 33%. Although better engineering can im- larly in northern Europe. These have blades 100
prove this number, it cannot and will not ever be feet or more in length. Wind energy is site-specific.
100%, because the Second Law of Thermodynam- In the United States, for example, states such as the
ics limits how much of one kind of energy can be Dakotas and the western part of Texas have partic-
converted into a different kind of energy. ular potential for wind development. If set up in
All devices, from refrigerators to light bulbs to farm fields, only a small percent of the land is used,
cars, can be quantified in terms of efficiency. Im- and farmers can still grow their crops under the
provements in energy efficiency can cut down on turbines; the land would then do double duty.
pollutants and the use of fossil fuels, which not Solar energy has two main types: solar thermal
only are nonrenewable but produce the green- energy that uses sunlight to heat water or air for
house gas carbon dioxide. direct use, mainly for domestic water heating or
270
wintertime home heating, but also for heating liq- b. Deforestation

uids into vapor to turn turbines and generate elec- Deforestation is the cutting of areas of forest. This
tricity; and solar photovoltaic energy that uses occurs at a rate of 10 million hectares per year. De-
solar cells (silicon cells, originally perfected by forestation occurs to supply raw material for the
NASA for space use) to create electricity directly lumber and paper industries, or it can also take
from the photons of the Sun. Like wind electricity, place when trees are burned to create open land
photovoltaic electricity is increasing, especially as for pasture or crops.
the cost of solar cells continues to drop. Clear-cutting is the term used when patches of
Nuclear fusion would use energy released from forest are completely cut for industrial use. The
fusing hydrogen into helium (which is the process other approach is selective cutting, when only cer-
that takes place in the center of the Sun). Fusion tain trees (such as large trees or a certain species)
requires enormous temperatures and pressures in are harvested, leaving the rest to grow for future
the fusion reactor’s center, which will probably use harvests or just remain as forest.
incredibly high-tech magnetic “bottles” to hold the Certain regions, such as the New England states,
reactants (because nothing material could with- are undergoing reforestation. Farming, which was
stand those conditions). Fusion has been accom- a strong part of the region’s economy up to a hun-
plished in high-energy physics labs, but no fusion dred years ago, eventually could not compete with
energy plants exist yet. the midwestern and western farms. Through refor-
estation, much land in New England is returning
4. Systems of Matter and Life to forest.
The biosphere is an interacting system of matter Deforestation usually releases CO2. If trees are
and energy, of humans and nature. burned, CO2 goes right into the atmosphere. Even
if the trees are to be used for paper or lumber, the
a. Waste Disposal twigs and dead roots decay fairly rapidly, and thus
Municipal solid waste describes general garbage. are a lesser, though still important, source of CO2
Disposal methods include landfills, combustion, from these areas of deforestation. Reforestation, on
recycling, and the composting of organics. the other hand, removes CO2 from the atmos-
Sewage describes liquid and solid body wastes phere, and thus can help mitigate the rising threat
treated in sewage treatment plants. A number of of a greenhouse effect.
steps are involved: Preliminary and primary treat-
ments remove debris and organic particles, respec- c. Nature’s Services
tively. Secondary treatment involves bacteria in Nonrenewable resources are resources that can-
aqueous slurries. The bacteria consume the dis- not be renewed in anywhere close to the time in
solved organics in the sewage. Before the treated which we are depleting them. For example, though
waste water is put back into a natural water sys- oil is formed continuously during the geological
tem, it is disinfected. Many variations exist, and ages, the rate is infinitesimal compared to our rate
new technologies, often using more advanced bio- of extraction and burning it. Minerals are also
logical processes to help, are being explored. In nonrenewable resources.
sewage treatment, we are mimicking (and using) Renewable resources, on the other hand, can be
the natural recycling capabilities of bacteria in na- regenerated by natural processes. For example,
ture, in the soil, and in the deep ocean. fresh water is reformed by the water cycle, in which
271
water from the ocean is evaporated (leaving the 62. Which of the following statements about
salt behind), then forms droplets in clouds, which global land use is NOT true?
in turn rain over land. Thus, the fresh water in a. Cropland is increasing.
rivers is renewed. Of course, humans can still exert b. Old-growth forest is decreasing.
stress upon the water systems, when deep, under- c. Unusable land (rock, ice, desert) is greater
ground aquifers are pumped faster than they are than urbanized land area.
being renewed, or when water is drawn from wa- d. Pasture is less than cropland.
tersheds at rates that do not allow enough water
for the fish in the natural stream. 63. Considering the unit ppm as parts per million,
Trees would be considered a renewable re- how many ppm is oxygen in Earth’s atmos-
source, because they can regrow. However, old- phere?
growth forests are nonrenewable, because they a. 21 ppm
take many hundreds of years to develop to the full b. 21,000 ppm
climax state. c. 210,000 ppm
Nature is our basic life support system. It is im- d. 2,100 ppm
portant to preserve the services of nature. Much is
not yet understood, but it is clear that biodiversity 64. Stratospheric ozone absorbs
is crucial for the healthy continuation of most nat- a. infrared radiation.
ural systems. b. visible light.
c. ultraviolet radiation.
You Should Review d. green radiation.
n human population
n land use 65. The Montreal Protocol limited
n greenhouse effect a. the production of carbon dioxide.
n acid rain b. the production of acid rain.
n toxins c. the production of dimethyl sulfide.
n ozone depletion d. the production of chlorofluorocarbons.
n energy technologies
n waste disposal and deforestation 66. Place your hand on a running gas powered car
n renewable versus nonrenewable resources engine, and it will feel hot. You will also hear
the sound of the engine running and feel it
Questions vibrating. All of these are signs that
61. Based upon current population projections, a. the engine is not 100% efficient.
what will be the approximate world population b. the engine is releasing particulate matter
in 2025? c. energy is not being conserved.
a. five billion d. the car is releasing carbon monoxide.
b. six billion
c. seven billion 67. Which is mostly methane?
d. eight billion a. oil
b. natural gas
c. coal waste
d. propane
272
68. Which is not a future possibility as a primary 65. d. The Montreal Protocol was a global
source of energy? agreement to phase out the production and
a. fusion release of the ozone-destroying chlorofluo-
b. hydrogen rocarbons.
c. wind 66. a. Based on the Second Law of
d. photovoltaic Thermodynamics, no machine can be 100%
efficient in converting energy to work (in
69. A good future source of energy for farmers to this case, gas making the car move). Rather,
consider as a source of profit is energy is converted into other forms of
a. fission. energy, such as heat and sound.
b. fusion. 67. b. Natural gas is predominantly methane,
c. wind. piped up from underground reservoirs,
d. hydrogen. sometimes from gas domes at the top of
oil pools under the earth.
70. Which is NOT a primary pollutant? 68. b. Hydrogen cannot be a primary source of
a. carbon monoxide energy because there are no natural supplies
b. tropospheric ozone of hydrogen. Hydrogen must be made from
c. suspended particulate matter water, by splitting water (or using methane)
d. volatile organic compounds via a primary energy source. Hydrogen is
therefore best considered a possible energy
Answers storage material.
61. d. The current human population is about 69. c. Wind energy could be particularly attractive
seven billion people. Based upon current to farmers because the wind turbines take
projections, the world population will be up little space and thus the land can still be
approximately eight billion in 2025. used for farming as well. Thus, the land
62. d. Pasture is about twice the area of cropland, does double duty.
for the world average. The other statements 70. b. Primary pollutants are released directly
are true. from a polluting source. They can be altered
63. c. Oxygen gas is 21% of Earth’s atmosphere, by reactions that are catalyzed by sunlight,
which converts to 210,000 ppm; creating secondary pollutants (also known
210,000
(ᎏ ,000 = 0.21 = 21%).
1,000ᎏ as photochemical pollutants) such as
64. c. Stratospheric ozone is a natural protective tropospheric ozone.
shield because it absorbs the ultraviolet
wavelengths of solar radiation that would
otherwise cause great damage to living
things at the surface.
273
10
C H A P T E R
PRACTICE EXAM II
CHAPTER SUMMARY
This is the second of three practice exams based on actual
health occupations entrance exams used today. Take this test to
see how much you have improved since you took the first exam.
T he practice test that follows is closely modeled after real entrance exams used to admit candidates
to health education programs throughout the country. This test will help prepare you for admis-
sions tests like the HOAE, the TEAS, and other entrance tests. As with the first practice test in
Chapter 3, it covers six essential topics—Verbal Ability, Reading Comprehension, Math, General Science, Biol-
ogy, and Chemistry—and uses a multiple-choice format, with four answer choices, a–d. Although the practice
tests in this book will prepare you for any health occupations entrance exam, be sure to learn the specifics about
the exam that you are facing—it may vary somewhat in content and format (number of questions or sections)
from this practice test.
For this second exam, simulate an actual test-taking experience as much as possible. First, find a quiet
place where you can work undisturbed for four hours. Keep a timer or alarm clock on hand to observe the time
limits specified in the directions. Time each section separately, according to the directions set out at the begin-
ning of each segment. Stop working when the alarm goes off, even if you have not completed the section. Be-
tween sections, take five minutes to clear your mind, and take a 15-minute break after Section 3. These breaks,
and the time limits given for each section, approximate the testing schedule of commonly used entrance exams,
such as the HOAE and TEAS.
275
– PRACTICE EXAM II –
Using a number 2 pencil, mark your answers on not refer to it until you have completed the test. A
the answer sheet on the following pages. The answer section about how to score your exam follows the an-
key is located on page 316—of course, you should swer key.
276

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
277
Section 3: Math
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
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Section 5: Biology
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
279
Section 1: Verbal Ability 10. a. phenomina

b. phenominna
Find the correctly spelled word in each of the follow- c. phenomena
ing lists. You have 15 minutes to answer the 50 ques-
tions in this section. 11. a. compatibel
b. compatable
1. a. commitment c. compatible
b. committent
c. comittment 12. a. clinician
b. clinishan
2. a. rediculous c. cliniachen
b. rediculus
c. ridiculous 13. a. comencement
b. commencement
3. a. respatory c. commencment
b. respiratory d. comencment
c. respireatory
14. a. superviser
4. a. percise b. supervisor
b. precize c. supervizor
c. precise
15. a. neumonia
5. a. asurrance b. pneumonia
b. assurance c. pnumonia
c. assurence
16. a. annoid
6. a. frequently b. anoyed
b. frequintly c. annoyed
c. frequentlly
17. a. apperatus
7. a. developement b. aparatus
b. develupment c. apparatus
c. development
18. a. coedeine
8. a. concede b. codine
b. conceed c. codeine
c. consede
19. a. accompany
9. a. encouredging b. acommpany
b. encouraging c. accompeny
c. incurraging
281
20. a. incessent 30. a. sensable

b. incessant b. sensible
c. incesant c. sensibal
21. a. delemma 31. a. heifer

b. dilemma b. hiefer
c. dilema c. heifre
22. a. eficient 32. a. association

b. eficeint b. associacion
c. efficient c. associatione
23. a. therupy 33. a. rehearsel

b. therapy b. rehearsal
c. thairapy c. reahearsal
24. a. viewpoint 34. a. fasinated

b. veiwpoint b. facinated
c. viewpointe c. fascinated
25. a. agravated 35. a. destructive

b. agravaeted b. distructive
c. aggravated c. destructiv
26. a. artieries 36. a. disolve

b. artaries b. dissollve
c. arteries c. dissolve
27. a. alumni 37. a. illuminate

b. alumnuses b. iluminate
c. allumni c. ilumminate
28. a. announcement 38. a. knowledje

b. anouncement b. knowladge
c. announcemant c. knowledge
29. a. asle 39. a. metearology

b. aisl b. meteorology
c. aisle c. meterology
282
40. a. adjournment Section 2:

b. ajournment Reading Comprehension
c. adjurnment
41. a. vengence the information in the text. You have 45 minutes to
b. vengance complete this section.
c. vengeance
Millions of people in the United States are
42. a. tremendus affected by eating disorders. More than 90% of
b. tremendos those afflicted are adolescent or young adult
c. tremendous women. While all eating disorders share some
common manifestations, anorexia nervosa,
43. a. imortality bulimia nervosa, and binge eating each have
b. immortality distinctive symptoms and risks.
c. immortalaty People who intentionally starve
themselves (even while experiencing severe
44. a. capitalizashion hunger pains) suffer from anorexia nervosa.
b. capitolization The disorder, which usually begins around the
c. capitalization time of puberty, involves extreme weight loss
to at least 15% below the individual’s normal
45. a. brilliant body weight. Many people with the disorder
b. brilleant look emaciated but are convinced they are
c. briliant overweight. In patients with anorexia nervosa,
starvation can damage vital organs such as the
46. a. parenthiseses heart and brain. To protect itself, the body
b. parenthesis shifts into slow gear: Menstrual periods stop,
c. parenthesise blood pressure rates drop, and thyroid
function slows. Excessive thirst and frequent
47. a. wierd urination may occur. Dehydration contributes
b. werd to constipation, and reduced body fat leads to
c. weird lowered body temperature and the inability to
withstand cold. Mild anemia, swollen joints,
48. a. sonet reduced muscle mass, and light-headedness also
b. sonnit commonly occur in those with anorexia
c. sonnet nervosa.
Anorexia nervosa sufferers can exhibit
49. a. depot sudden angry outbursts or become socially
b. depo withdrawn. One in ten cases of anorexia nervosa
c. depote leads to death from starvation, cardiac arrest,
other medical complications, or suicide. Clinical
50. a. presum depression and anxiety place many individuals
b. presumme
c. presume
283
with eating disorders at risk for suicidal Binge-eating disorder is found in about 2%
behavior. of the general population. As many as one-third
People with bulimia nervosa consume of this group are men. It also affects older
large amounts of food and then rid their bodies women, though with less frequency. Recent
of the excess calories by vomiting, abusing research shows that binge-eating disorder
laxatives or diuretics, taking enemas, or occurs in about 30% of people participating in
exercising obsessively. Some use a combination medically supervised weight-control programs.
of all these forms of purging. Individuals with This disorder differs from bulimia because its
bulimia who use drugs to stimulate vomiting, sufferers do not purge. Individuals with binge-
bowel movements, or urination may be in eating disorder feel that they lose control of
considerable danger, as this practice increases themselves when eating. They eat large
the risk of heart failure. Dieting heavily quantities of food and do not stop until they
between episodes of binging and purging is are uncomfortably full. Most sufferers are
common. overweight or obese and have a history of
Because many individuals with bulimia weight fluctuations. As a result, they are prone
binge and purge in secret and maintain normal to the serious medical problems associated with
or above-normal body weight, they can often obesity, such as high cholesterol, high blood
successfully hide their problem for years. But pressure, and diabetes. Obese individuals also
bulimia nervosa patients—even those of have a higher risk for gallbladder disease, heart
normal weight—can severely damage their disease, and some types of cancer. Usually, they
bodies by frequent binge eating and purging. In have more difficulty losing weight and keeping
rare instances, binge eating causes the stomach it off than do people with other serious weight
to rupture; purging may result in heart failure problems. Like anorexics and bulimics who
due to loss of vital minerals such as potassium. exhibit psychological problems, individuals
Vomiting can cause the esophagus to become with binge-eating disorder have high rates of
inflamed and glands near the cheeks to become simultaneously occurring psychiatric
swollen. As in anorexia nervosa, bulimia may illnesses—especially depression.
lead to irregular menstrual periods.
Psychological effects include compulsive 1. Fatalities occur in what percent of people with
stealing as well as possible indications of anorexia nervosa?
obsessive-compulsive disorder, an illness a. 2%
characterized by repetitive thoughts and b. 10%
behaviors. Obsessive-compulsive disorder can c. 15%
also accompany anorexia nervosa. As with d. 30%
anorexia nervosa, bulimia typically begins
during adolescence. Eventually, half of those 2. Which of the following consequences do all
with anorexia nervosa will develop bulimia. the eating disorders mentioned in the passage
The condition occurs most often in women but have in common?
is also found in men. a. heart ailments
b. stomach rupture
c. swollen joints
d. diabetes
284
3. Which of the following best describes the word 8. Which of the following is true of bulimia
withdrawn as it is used in the third paragraph patients?
of the passage? a. They may demonstrate unpredictable social
a. pulled behavior.
b. taken b. They often engage in compulsive exercise.
c. introverted c. They are less susceptible to dehydration
d. undone than are anorexia patients.
d. They frequently experience stomach
4. People usually begin suffering from anorexia ruptures.
nervosa when they are in
a. childhood. 9. The passage is chiefly concerned with the
b. adolescence. similarities and differences between different
c. late teens. kinds of
d. adulthood. a. individuals.
b. diseases.
5. People who have an eating disorder but c. diets.
nevertheless appear to be of normal weight d. disorders.
are most likely to have
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. The U.S. population is going gray. A rising
b. bulimia nervosa. demographic tide of aging baby boomers—
c. binge-eating disorder. those born between 1946 and 1964—and
d. anorexia nervosa. increased longevity have made adults age 65
and older the fastest growing segment of today’s
6. Which paragraph explains why glandular population. In thirty years, this segment of the
functions of anorexia patients slow down? population will be nearly twice as large as it is
a. Paragraph 1 today. By then, an estimated 70 million people
b. Paragraph 2 will be over age 65. The number of “oldest
c. Paragraph 3 old”—those age 85 and older—is 34 times
d. Paragraph 4 greater than in 1900 and likely to expand five-
fold by 2050.
7. Recent research shows that binge-eating This unprecedented “elder boom” will
disorder occurs in about 30% of have a profound effect on American society,
a. people participating in medically supervised particularly the field of healthcare. Is the U.S.
weight-control programs. health system equipped to deal with the
b. people participating in marathon running. demands of an aging population? Although we
c. people between the ages of 60 and 75. have adequate physicians and nurses, many of
d. people who had recently moved higher on them are not trained to handle the multiple
the corporate ladder. needs of older patients. Today, we have about
285
9,000 geriatricians (physicians who are experts Healthcare providers could play a vital role in
in aging-related issues). Some studies estimate a preventing this outcome—several studies have
need for 36,000 geriatricians by 2030. shown that up to 75% of seniors who die by
Many doctors today treat a patient of 75 suicide visited a primary care physician within
the same way they would treat a 40-year-old a month of their death.
patient. However, although seniors are healthier Healthcare providers face additional
than ever, physical challenges often increase challenges to providing high-quality care to the
with age. By age 75, adults often have two to aging population. Because the numbers of
three medical conditions. Diagnosing multiple ethnic minority elders are growing faster than
health problems and knowing how they the aging population as a whole, providers
interact is crucial for effectively treating older must train to care for a more racially and
patients. Healthcare professionals—often ethnically diverse population of elderly
pressed for time in hectic daily practices—must patients. Respect and understanding of diverse
be diligent about asking questions and cultural beliefs is necessary to provide the most
collecting “evidence” from their elderly effective healthcare to all patients. Providers
patients. Finding out about a patient’s over-the- must also be able to communicate complicated
counter medications or living conditions could medical conditions or treatments to older
reveal an underlying problem. patients who may have a visual, hearing, or
Lack of training in geriatric issues can cognitive impairment.
result in healthcare providers overlooking As older adults make up an increasing
illnesses or conditions that may lead to illness. proportion of the healthcare caseload, the
Inadequate nutrition is a common, but often demand for aging specialists must expand as
unrecognized, problem among frail seniors. An well. Healthcare providers who work with the
elderly patient who has difficulty preparing elderly must understand and address not only
meals at home may become vulnerable to the physical but mental, emotional, and social
malnutrition or another medical condition. changes of the aging process. They need to be
Healthcare providers with training in aging able to distinguish between “normal”
issues may be able to address this problem characteristics associated with aging and illness.
without the costly solution of admitting a Most crucially, they should look beyond
patient to a nursing home. symptoms and consider ways that will help a
Depression, a treatable condition that senior maintain and improve his or her quality
affects nearly five million seniors, also goes of life.
undetected by some healthcare providers. Some
healthcare professionals view depression as 10. The author uses the phrase going gray in order to
“just part of getting old.” Untreated, this illness a. maintain that everyone’s hair loses its color
can have serious, even fatal consequences. eventually.
According to the National Institute of Mental b. suggest the social phenomenon of an aging
Health, older Americans account for a population.
disproportionate share of suicide deaths, c. depict older Americans in a positive light.
making up 18% of suicide deaths in 2000. d. demonstrate the normal changes of aging.
286
11. In the third paragraph, the author implies that 14. Which of the following is true based on the
doctors who treat elderly patients as they table?
would a 40-year-old patient a. The average life expectantly has risen
a. provide equitable, high-quality care. consistently since 1880.
b. avoid detrimental stereotypes about older b. An average life expectancy of 100 is only
patients. speculation.
c. encourage middle-age adults to think about c. The average life expectancy will eventually
the long-term effects of their habits. fall again.
d. do not offer the most effective care to their d. The average life expectancy will never rise
older patients. above 100.
12. The number of senior citizens who suffer from Scientists have been studying radon and its
depression is approximately effects since the turn of the century. This inert
a. 9,000. gas has been proven to cause lung cancer and is
b. 36,000. suspected of being responsible for a range of
c. 5 million. other serious illnesses.
d. 70 million. Radon gas is created as the result of the
decaying of uranium and radium. At the
13. The sixth paragraph is chiefly concerned with culmination of this lengthy process, the
a. race. disintegrating matter becomes radon, which
b. ethnicity. then decays further, releasing additional
c. diversity. radiation and transforming into what are
d. communication. known as radon daughters. Unlike radon, the
daughters are not inert because they are highly
AVERAGE LIFE EXPECTANCY sensitive to their surroundings and are
FROM 1880 TO 2080 chemically active. Thus, when the daughters
YEAR AVERAGE LIFE EXPECTANCY enter buildings, attach to clothing, mingle with
dust particles, or are inhaled, health risks
1880 39
increase dramatically. Radon exists across the
1940 62 United States, with somewhat higher amounts
1980 73 located in areas where granite is common.
Radon gas released directly into the
2020 81
atmosphere poses slight health risks.
2080 100 Conversely, when it is trapped and has the
opportunity to accumulate, such as beneath
houses and other structures, risks increase
significantly. This colorless, tasteless, and
odorless element can seep into buildings
through walls, soil, water supplies, and natural
gas pipelines. It can also be part of the
287
properties of materials such as brick, wallboard, Serious problems materialize when cells
and concrete. When radon is prevalent in a are exposed repeatedly. The cycle of exposure-
building, it circulates in that building’s air damage-regeneration-exposure can weaken
exchange and is inhaled by humans. cells and ultimately change their makeup.
The majority of the radon daughters Cell alteration can lead to lung cancer, genetic
exhibit electrostatic qualities as they attach to changes, and a host of other medical problems.
items such as clothing, furniture, and dust, a
magnetic process known as plating out. The 15. As radon decays, it transforms into
remainder of the daughters do not attach to a. uranium.
anything. As an individual breathes the b. radium.
potentially damaging air, the attached and c. daughters.
unattached daughters enter the body. As the d. radiation.
daughters travel through the body, particles
become attached to the respiratory tract, the 16. It can be inferred from the passage that an
bronchial region, the nose, and the throat. inert gas such as radon is
Some particles are expelled during exhalation, a. unusually likely to decay.
but most remain within the individual. b. dormant in terms of chemical reactions.
The unattached daughters are the most c. more dangerous than radon daughters.
dangerous as their untethered route often d. created as the result of a distinct series of
carries them directly to the lungs. They deposit events.
significantly more radioactivity than the
attached daughters—indeed, up to 40 times as 17. One reason unattached daughters are more
much. Research indicates that those individuals dangerous than attached daughters is that they
who breathe primarily through their noses a. demonstrate electrostatic qualities.
receive fewer doses than those who breathe b. are less likely to be expelled.
primarily through their mouths. c. regenerate after entering the lungs.
Alpha radiation begins penetrating the d. have a free path toward internal organs.
lungs and other organs after radon daughters
settle there. Penetration and the subsequent 18. Plating out is a term for a process of
depositing of radiation are the result of a a. cohering.
continuation of the decaying process. An b. disseminating.
appreciable dose of alpha particles can lead to c. deteriorating.
cell destruction. Higher doses can be fatal. One d. permeating.
comparative study analyzed similar doses from
radon, X-rays, and atom bombs, and concluded 19. A study comparing similar doses from radon,
that the chances of developing lung cancer X-rays, and atom bombs found that the
from radon were equal to those from the other chances of developing lung cancer
two radiation sources. In the United States, a. were equal from all three sources.
most incidences involve lower-level doses, b. were greatest from an atom bomb.
which destroy a relatively low number of cells. c. were significantly less from radon.
The body will regenerate lost cells, so serious d. were higher from X-rays.
health problems become less likely.
288
20. Radon is formed as a consequence of unrelenting; however, sometimes, there is little

a. the alteration of cells. or no progression.
b. the breakdown of elements. Torsion dystonia, previously called
c. exposure to the atmosphere. dystonia musculum deformans or DMD, is a
d. an electrostatic process. rare, generalized dystonia that may be
inherited, usually begins in childhood, and
21. Radon released into the atmosphere is mostly becomes progressively worse. It can leave
a. deadly. individuals seriously disabled and confined to a
b. visible. wheelchair.
c. dangerous. Spasmodic torticollis, or torticollis, is the
d. harmless. most common of the focal dystonias. In
torticollis, the muscles in the neck that control
The dystonias are movement disorders in which the position of the head are affected, causing
sustained muscle contractions cause twisting the head to twist and turn to one side. In
and repetitive movements or abnormal addition, the head may be pulled forward or
postures. The movements, which are involun- backward. Torticollis can occur at any age,
tary and sometimes painful, may affect a single although most individuals first experience
muscle; a group of muscles such as those in symptoms in middle age. It often begins slowly
the arms, legs, or neck; or the entire body. and usually reaches a plateau. About 10% to
Diminished intelligence and emotional 20% of those with torticollis experience a
imbalance are not usually features of the spontaneous remission; however, the remission
dystonias. may not be lasting.
Generalized dystonia affects most or all of Blepharospasm, the second most common
the body. Focal dystonia is localized to a specific focal dystonia, is the involuntary, forcible
body part. Multifocal dystonia involves two or closure of the eyelids. The first symptoms may
more unrelated body parts. Segmental dystonia be uncontrollable blinking. Only one eye may
affects two or more adjacent parts of the body. be affected initially, but eventually both eyes
Hemidystonia involves the arm and leg on the are usually involved. The spasms may leave the
same side of the body. eyelids completely closed, causing functional
Early symptoms may include a deteriora- blindness even though the eyes and vision are
tion in handwriting after writing several lines, normal.
foot cramps, and a tendency of one foot to pull Cranial dystonia is a term used to describe
up or drag after running or walking some dystonia that affects the muscles of the head,
distance. The neck may turn or pull involuntar- face, and neck. Oromandibular dystonia affects
ily, especially when the person is tired. Other the muscles of the jaw, lips, and tongue. The
possible symptoms are tremor and voice or jaw may be pulled either open or shut, and
speech difficulties. The initial symptoms can be speech and swallowing can be difficult.
very mild and may be noticeable only after Spasmodic dysphonia involves the muscles of
prolonged exertion, stress, or fatigue. Over a the throat that control speech. Also called
period of time, the symptoms may become spastic dysphonia or laryngeal dystonia, it causes
more noticeable and widespread and may be strained and difficult speaking or breathy and
289
effortful speech. Meige’s syndrome is the 25. Meige’s syndrome directly affects both
combination of blepharospasm and oro- a. speech and mobility.
mandibular dystonia and sometimes spasmodic b. mobility and vision.
dysphonia. c. vision and speech.
Dopa-responsive dystonia (DRD) is a d. hearing and vision.
condition successfully treated with drugs.
Typically, DRD begins in childhood or 26. The symptoms of torticollis are most similar to
adolescence with progressive difficulty in those of
walking and, in some cases, spasticity. In a. cranial dystonia.
Segawa’s dystonia, the symptoms fluctuate b. DRD.
during the day from relative mobility in the c. blepharospasm.
morning to increasingly worse disability in the d. oromandibular dystonia.
afternoon and evening as well as after exercise.
Some scientists feel DRD is not only rare but 27. A person with DRD usually
also rarely diagnosed since it mimics many of a. has difficulty verbalizing.
the symptoms of cerebral palsy. b. experiences writer’s cramp.
c. improves following exercise.
22. Which is true about torticollis? d. responds well to medication.
a. It is the rarest of all the types of focal
dystonias. 28. All dystonia patients experience
b. About 10% to 20% of patients have a a. uncontrolled movement.
spontaneous remission, but it may not last. b. progressive deterioration.
c. It affects only people in their teens. c. symptoms at an early age.
d. It affects only the muscles of the hand, d. incessant discomfort.
making it hard to write.
29. Cranial dystonia is an example of a
23. One symptom not typically experienced by a. hemidystonia.
dystonia patients is b. multifocal dystonia.
a. enunciation difficulties. c. segmental dystonia.
b. hampered mobility. d. generalized dystonia.
c. optical deficiencies.
d. emotional instability. 30. Which of the following describes the word
progressive as it is used in the final paragraph
24. Genetics may be implicated in of the passage?
a. torsion dystonia. a. improved
b. torticollis. b. futuristic
c. oromandibular dystonia. c. liberal
d. DRD. d. increased
290
Lyme disease is sometimes called the “great one of the early visible signs is a rash called
imitator” because its many symptoms mimic erythema migrans, although in some cases,
those of other illnesses. When treated, this there is no rash at all. The mark left by the tick,
disease usually presents few or no lingering often taking a bull’s-eye shape, can range from
effects. Left untreated, however, it can be the size of a quarter to one foot across. Some
extremely debilitating and sometimes fatal. rashes disappear temporarily and then return.
Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium This inconsistent symptom adds to the
carried and transmitted by the Ixodes dammini perplexing nature of the disease.
family of ticks. In 1982, the damaging Symptoms can materialize within a few
microorganism was identified as Borrelia days to a few weeks following bacterial
burgdorferi. Ticks are parasites that require transmission and include flu-like aches and
blood for sustenance. They feed three times pains, fever, and weakness. As the illness
during a two-year life cycle (the larva, nymph, progresses, problems such as respiratory
and adult stages), and feedings can last up to distress, irregular heartbeat, liver infection,
several days. As many as 3,000 eggs hatch into bladder discomfort, and double vision can
larvae, the first stage of the life cycle. The larvae occur. Infected individuals may experience all,
then attach to host organisms, such as mice. none, or a combination of symptoms.
Human infection by a tick at this stage is a rare Early diagnosis and antibiotic treatment
occurrence. of the earliest acute stage of Lyme disease
Following the first blood meal, larvae generally leads to rapid recovery. An inaccurate
molt into nymphs. These transformed diagnosis or lack of early treatment can lead to
organisms are about the size of a bread crumb. health problems such as heart muscle damage,
During this and subsequent stages of the life severe joint pain, and meningitis. Lyme disease
cycle, the tick chooses larger hosts on which to that reaches a chronic stage can lead to severe
feed, including humans. Because of their tiny arthritis, paralysis, brain infection, and nervous
size, nymphs present the greatest danger to system disorders; however, symptoms of
humans. Some studies indicate that as many as chronic Lyme disease, despite lasting six
80% of human hosts are infected by nymphs. months or longer, are generally treatable with
As the life cycle progresses, nymphs engorged antibiotics, and long-term illness is rare.
with blood become adults. During this stage, Researchers are working on a vaccine, but its
adults will mate, assuring continuance of the completion remains uncertain.
life cycle. Ticks generally rely on humid
conditions and temperatures above 40° 31. Which is a fact about ticks that transmit Lyme
Fahrenheit. disease?
Human infection occurs when the tick a. They are parasites that feed on blood.
attaches itself to the body, feeding on blood b. They have a two-year life cycle.
while transmitting the bacteria. Since this c. A female may lay as many as 3,000 eggs.
process can take up to 48 hours, it is possible d. all of the above
for an individual to remove the tick before
infection occurs. When infection does occur,
291
32. Lyme disease that reaches the chronic stage age of 55, it used to be called adult-onset dia-
tends to exhibit symptoms for betes. Its symptoms often develop gradually and
a. 48 hours or less. are hard to identify at first; therefore, nearly half
b. a few days. of all people with diabetes do not know they
c. six months or more. have it. For instance, someone who has devel-
d. at least two years. oped Type II diabetes may feel tired or ill with-
out knowing why. This can be particularly
33. The third paragraph is chiefly concerned with dangerous because untreated diabetes can cause
a. molting. damage to the heart, blood vessels, eyes, kidneys,
b. hosts. and nerves. While the causes, short-term effects,
c. mating. and treatments of the two types of diabetes dif-
d. nymphs. fer, both types can cause the same long-term
health problems.
34. Diagnosis of Lyme disease is made difficult Most important, both types affect the
by the body’s ability to use digested food for energy.
a. similarities between it and other ailments. Diabetes does not interfere with digestion, but
b. changing shape of the erythema migrans. it does prevent the body from using an
c. unpredictable life cycle of the tick. important product of digestion, glucose
d. lack of prolonged effects produced. (commonly known as sugar), for energy. After a
meal, the normal digestive system breaks some
35. Transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi to food down into glucose. The blood carries the
humans during the larva stage glucose or sugar throughout the body, causing
a. accounts for the majority of infections. blood glucose levels to rise. In response to this
b. is a relatively infrequent phenomenon. rise, the hormone insulin is released into the
c. generally occurs at temperatures below bloodstream and signals the body tissues to
40°F. metabolize or burn the glucose for fuel, which
d. lasts up to several days. causes blood glucose levels to return to normal.
The glucose that the body does not use right
36. One early symptom of Lyme disease is away is stored in the liver, muscle, or fat.
a. arthritis. In both types of diabetes, however, this
b. meningitis. normal process malfunctions. A gland called
c. fever. the pancreas, found just behind the stomach,
d. difficulty breathing. makes insulin. In people with insulin-
dependent diabetes, the pancreas does not
There are two types of diabetes, insulin-dependent produce insulin at all. This condition usually
and non-insulin-dependent. Between 90% and begins in childhood and is known as Type I
95% of the estimated 13 to 14 million people in (formerly called juvenile-onset) diabetes. These
the United States with diabetes have non- patients must have daily insulin injections to
insulin-dependent, or Type II, diabetes. Because survive. People with non-insulin-dependent
this form of diabetes usually begins in adults diabetes usually produce some insulin in their
over the age of 40 and is most common after the pancreas, but the body’s tissues do not respond
292
very well to the insulin signal and therefore do 37. The second paragraph is chiefly concerned
not metabolize the glucose properly, a with how diabetes affects the body’s ability
condition known as insulin resistance. to use
Insulin resistance is an important factor a. energy.
in non-insulin-dependent diabetes, and b. blood.
scientists are searching for the causes of insulin c. insulin.
resistance. They have identified two possibili- d. sugar.
ties. The first is that there could be a defect in
the insulin receptors on cells. Like an appliance 38. Which of the following are the same for Type I
that needs to be plugged into an electrical and Type II diabetes?
outlet, insulin has to bind to a receptor in order a. treatments
to function. Several things can go wrong with b. long-term health risks
receptors. For example, there may not be c. short-term effects
enough receptors for insulin to bind to, or a d. causes
defect in the receptors may prevent insulin
from binding. The second possible cause of 39. Blood glucose rises after eating food rich in
insulin resistance is that, although insulin may a. protein.
bind to the receptors, the cells do not read the b. calories.
signal to metabolize the glucose. Scientists c. vitamins.
continue to study these cells to see why this d. carbohydrates.
might happen.
A National Institutes of Health panel of 40. A diet dominated by which of the following is
experts recommends that the best treatment for recommended for non-insulin-dependent
non-insulin-dependent diabetes is a diet that diabetics?
helps one maintain a normal weight and pays a. protein
particular attention to a proper balance of the b. fat
different food groups. Many experts, including c. carbohydrates
those in the American Diabetes Association, d. raw foods
recommend that 50% to 60% of daily calories
come from carbohydrates, 12% to 20% from 41. Which of the following is the main function
protein, and no more than 30% from fat. Foods of insulin?
that are rich in carbohydrates, like breads, a. It signals tissues to metabolize sugar.
cereals, fruits, and vegetables, break down into b. It breaks down food into glucose.
glucose during digestion, causing blood glucose c. It carries glucose throughout the body.
to rise. Additionally, studies have shown that d. It binds to receptors.
cooked foods raise blood glucose higher than
raw, unpeeled foods. A doctor or nutritionist
should always be consulted for more informa-
tion and for help in planning a diet to offset the
effects of this form of diabetes.
293
42. Which of the following statements best NUMBER OF DIABETES

summarizes the main theme of the passage? YEAR SUFFERERS IN THE U.S.
a. Type I and Type II diabetes are best treated 1995 7,765,000
by maintaining a high protein diet. 1996 8,147,000
b. Type II diabetes is a distinct condition that
can be managed by maintaining a healthy 1997 8,462,000
diet. 1998 8,876,000

c. Type I diabetes is an insidious condition
most harmful when the patient is not taking 1999 9,269,000
daily insulin injections.
2000 9,952,000
d. Adults who suspect they may have Type II
diabetes should immediately adopt a high 2001 10,699,000
carbohydrate diet.
2002 11,533,000
43. Which of the following is mentioned in the

2003 12,466,000
passage as a possible problem with insulin
receptors in insulin-resistant individuals? 2004 13,417,000
a. Overeating causes the receptors not to 2005 14,473,000
function properly.
b. There may be an overabundance of
receptors present. 44. Which of the following is true based on the
c. A defect causes the receptors to bind with table?
glucose. a. Most of the people in the table have Type I
d. A defect hinders the receptors from binding diabetes.
with insulin. b. There will be fewer cases of diabetes as
diabetes education increases.
c. The passage was likely written in 2004.
d. The U.S. has the highest population of
diabetes sufferers in the world.
45. Based on the information in the passage,

which of the following best describes people
with Type I diabetes?
a. They do not need to be treated with
injections of insulin.
b. They comprise the majority of people with
diabetes.
c. Their pancreases do not produce insulin.
d. They are usually diagnosed as adults.
294
Section 3: Math 5. What is the area of a triangle with a height of

10 inches and a base of 2 inches?
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 a. 10 square inches
minutes to complete this section. b. 12 square inches
c. 20 square inches
2 1 3
1. 45 + 32 + 8 is equal to d. 22 square inches
3
a. 720.
2
6. It takes a medical transcriptionist 0.75 seconds
b. 75. to transcribe one word. At this rate, how many
11
c. 840. words can be transcribed in 60 seconds?
7 a. 4.5
d. 88.
b. 8
c. 45
2. A doctor works nine hours and sees 32 patients.
d. 80
What is the average amount of time, to the
nearest minute, that he spent with each
7. If 2x + 6x = 4, what is x?
patient?
1
a. 170 a.
24
b. 17 1
b. 6
c. 28 c. 3
d. 225 d. 6
3. A licensed practical nurse has to lift four 8. 105 ÷ 102 is equal to

patients during his eight-hour shift. The a. 10.
patients weigh 152 pounds, 168 pounds, 182 b. 103.
pounds, and 201 pounds. Approximately how c. 107.
many pounds will the nurse have to lift during d. 1010.
his shift?
a. 690 pounds 9. 3.16 ÷ 0.079 is equal to
b. 700 pounds a. 0.025.
c. 710 pounds b. 2.5.
d. 750 pounds c. 4.0.
d. 40.0.
4. If x = 6, y = –2, and z = 3, what is the value of
the following expression? 10. 258 ÷ 13 is equal to
xz – xy

z2 a. 813.
a. 5
b. 778.
b. 313
2 c. 51214.
c. 3
d. 78.
d. –23
295
11. What is the area of the following figure? 15. What kind of polygon is the following figure?
5 ft.
2 ft.
7 ft.
a. pentagon
b. octagon
c. hexagon
2 ft. d. heptagon
a. 19 square feet
b. 20 square feet 16. Which of the following is equivalent to 2y2?
c. 24 square feet a. 2y(y)
d. 38 square feet b. 2(y + y)
c. y2 + 2
12. What is 715% of 465, rounded to the nearest d. y + y + y + y
tenth?
a. 32.5 17. 367.08 × 0.15 is equal to
b. 33 a. 22.0248.
c. 33.5 b. 55.051.
d. 34 c. 55.062.
d. 540.62.
13. At a hospital 855 nurses, or 57% of all the
nurses, are bilingual. How many nurses does 18. (–10) + (–4) + (12) – (–14) is equal to
the hospital have? a. –534.
a. 86
b. –614.
b. 488
c. 1,500 c. –1314.
d. 15,000 d. –1334.
14. On the following number line, point L is to be 19. Solve the equation 2(x – 14) = –6(–3x – 4)
located halfway between points M and N. for x.
What number will correspond to point L?
a. x = – 143
M N
b. x = 143
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 c. x = 13
d. x = – 14
a. –14
b. –12
c. –114
d. 0
296
20. What is the volume of a pyramid that has a 26. A hospital emergency room receives an
rectangular base 5 feet by 3 feet and a height admission on August 3 at 10:42 P. M . and
of 8 feet? (V = 13lwh) another admission at 1:19 A . M . on August 4.
a. 16 cubic feet How much time has elapsed between
b. 30 cubic feet admissions?
c. 40 cubic feet a. 1 hour 37 minutes
d. 120 cubic feet b. 2 hours 23 minutes
c. 2 hours 37 minutes
21. What is another way to write 7.25 × 103? d. 3 hours 23 minutes
a. 72,500
b. 7,250 27. A nurse currently receives a yearly salary of
c. 725 $69,000. He will make $72,450 next year.
d. 72.5 What percent increase did he receive?
a. 5%
22. If 8n + 25 = 65, then n is b. 2.5%
a. 5. c. 15%
b. 10. d. 10%
c. 40.
d. 90. 28. Which of the following hospital rooms has the
greatest perimeter?
23. What is the reciprocal of 378? a. a rectangular room 12 feet × 8 feet
a. 381 b. a rectangular room 14 feet × 7 feet
b. 31
8
c. a square room 10 feet × 10 feet
8
d. a square room 11 feet × 11 feet
c. 2
d. –381 29. A person can be scalded by hot water at a

temperature of about 122°F. At about what
24. Evaluate the expression z(x2 y) for x 3, temperature Centigrade could a person be
y 2, and z = –5. scalded?
a. 35 C = 59(F – 32)
b. 10 a. 35.5°C
c. –10 b. 50°C
d. –35 c. 55°C
d. 216°C
苶兹625
25. 兹400 苶 is equal to
a. 20.
b. 45.
c. 40.
d. 30.
297
30. New nursing staff have to buy shoes to wear on 34. An insurance policy pays 80% of the first
duty at the full price of $84.50, but nurses who $20,000 of a certain patient’s medical expenses,
have worked in the hospital at least a year can 60% of the next $40,000, and 40% of the
get a 15% discount at a local shoe store, and $32,000 after that. If the patient’s total medical
nurses who have worked at least three years get bill is $92,000, how much will the policy pay?
an additional 10% off the discounted price. a. $36,800
How much does a nurse who has worked at b. $49,600
least three years have to pay for shoes? c. $52,800
a. $63.78 d. $73,600
b. $64.65
c. $71.83 35. A doctor can treat four Alzheimer’s patients
d. $72.05 per hour; however, stroke patients need three
times as much of the doctor’s time. If the
31. There are 176 men and 24 women serving in a doctor treats patients six hours per day and
U.S. Army hospital. What percentage of the has already treated ten Alzheimer’s patients
hospital’s staff is women? and three stroke patients today, how many
a. 12% more stroke patients will she have time to
b. 14% treat today?
c. 16% a. one
d. 24% b. two
c. three
32. Body mass index (BMI) is equal to weight d. five
in kg divided by (height in m)2. A man who
weighs 64.8 kg has a BMI of 20. How tall is he? 36. If an ambulance travels at the speed of 62 mph
a. 0.9 m for 15 minutes, how far will it travel?
b. 1.8 m a. 9.3 miles
c. 2.16 m b. 15.5 miles
d. 3.24 m c. 16 miles
d. 24.8 miles
33. Write an algebraic expression for the following
phrase. 37. What is the value of x in the following figure?
The cost of the surgery, x, is three times the
sum of $4,000 and the cost of materials, y. 10
1
a. x 3(4,000 y)
b. x 3(4,000)
c. x 3(4,000 x) x
d. x 4,000 y a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 9
298
38. A-1 Painting was hired to paint a circular area 43. What is the surface area of a cylinder that is
in the entrance of a hospital. The diameter of 0.8 meters wide and 2 meters tall?
the circle is 6 feet. What is the area of the a. 0.48p
circle? Use 3.14 for p. b. 0.96p
a. 452.16 square feet c. 1.92p
b. 37.68 square feet d. 3.84p
c. 18.84 square feet
d. 113.04 square feet 44. What is the value of x in the following figure?
39. Ron is half as old as Sam, who is three times as

old as Ted. The sum of their ages is 55. How
x
0
old is Ron?
15
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
90 160
d. 30
a. 200
40. The area of a triangle is 45 square feet. The b. 210
length of the base of the triangle is 5 feet. c. 240
What is the height of the triangle? d. 270
a. 9 feet
b. 10 feet 45. If the following figure is a regular decagon
c. 18 feet with a center at Q, what is the measure of the
d. 5 feet indicated angle?
41. A floor plan is drawn to scale so that 14 inch

represents 2 feet. If a hall on the plan is 4
inches long, how long will the actual hall be
when it is built?
Q
a. 2 feet
b. 8 feet
c. 16 feet
d. 32 feet
42. 160% is equal to a. 36°

a. 245. b. 45°
b. 35. c. 90°
d. 108°
c. 65.
d. 85.
299
46. Which number is read as seven and ninety-one 50. Fifteen milliliters of a solution separates into
thousandths? two liquids as shown in the following figure.
a. 7.91 The lighter liquid makes up what percentage
b. 791.91 of the total solution?
c. 7.091
d. 7.0091
47. If no treatment has been given within three

hours after injury to a certain organ, the 15
organ’s function starts decreasing by 20% each
hour. If no treatment has been given within six
hours after injury, about how much function 10
will remain?
a. 50%
b. 60%
5
c. 70%
d. 80%
48. A study shows that 600,000 women die each 0

year in pregnancy and childbirth, one-fifth a. 33%
more than scientists previously estimated. b. 40%
How many such deaths did the scientists c. 60%
previously estimate? d. 66%
a. 120,000
b. 300,000
c. 480,000 Section 4: General Science
d. 500,000
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45
49. To lower a fever of 105°, ice packs are applied minutes to complete this section.
for 1 minute and then removed for 5 minutes
before being applied again. Each application 1. Considering the four fundamental forces of
lowers the fever by half a degree. How long physics, this one governs beta decay of radio-
will it take to lower the fever to 99°? active atoms.
a. 1 hour a. strong nuclear force
b. 1 hour 12 minutes b. electromagnetism
c. 1 hour 15 minutes c. gravity
d. 1 hour 30 minutes d. weak nuclear force
300
2. What important event happened in 1957? 7. In photosynthesis, the charge on the carbon in
a. first human to orbit Earth the reactant carbon dioxide is +4, the charge
b. first landing of a rover on Mars on the carbon in the resulting carbohydrate
c. first human landing on the Moon product is –4. In this reaction, the carbon is
d. first satellite to be put in orbit said to have been
a. stripped.
3. Common table salt, NaCl, forms from the b. increased.
attraction of positively charged sodium (Na+) c. neutralized.
particles and negatively charged chloride (Cl–) d. reduced.
particles. What type of bond is this?
a. covalent 8. Applying an amount of energy less than the
b. ionic heat of fusion to a liquid at the melting point
c. metallic of a particular substance does what?
d. van der Waals a. settles the liquid
b. warms the liquid
4. The parts of an atom that create the chemical c. starts to solidify the liquid
bonds with other atoms are d. evaporates the liquid
a. valence shells.
b. nuclei. 9. The basic building blocks of protein are
c. quark triplets. a. amino acids.
d. isotopes. b. nucleic acids.
c. carbohydrates.
5. In this kind of bond between atoms, electrons d. lipids.
are shared in pairs.
a. ionic 10. Which is an example of an inorganic material?
b. hydrogen a. blood hemoglobin
c. van der Waals b. quartz
d. covalent c. DNA
d. wood
6. Consider the chemical reaction for photosyn-
thesis: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + _____ O2. 11. Which biome is characterized by trees that lose
How many molecules of oxygen (O2) are made their leaves every winter?
on the right-hand side (that is, what number a. boreal forest
goes in the blank space)? b. tropical rain forest
a. 6 c. temperate deciduous forest
b. 1 d. tundra
c. 12
d. 4
301
12. Which unit of energy is equivalent to a 17. When entropy decreases, what else must be
Newton-meter? true?
a. joule a. Entropy must increase on some larger scale.
b. watt b. The decrease must be at the level of the
c. volt universe.
d. calorie c. A mistake was made in the calculation.
d. Entropy is adjusted to a flow of heat.
13. Crude oil originates from
a. ancient fossilized organic materials. 18. Which scientist, often called the father of
b. the natural metabolic processes of plants modern science, was tried for heresy by the
and organisms. Roman Inquisition and forced to spend the
c. minerals subjected to high temperatures rest of his life under house arrest?
and pressures. a. Isaac Newton
d. coal deposits that have liquefied. b. Johannes Kepler
c. Galileo Galilei
14. Albert Einstein developed the d. Nikola Tesla
a. wave theory of light.
b. general theory of relativity. 19. When a crane at a building site lifts a beam to
c. three laws of motion. its top height, what type of energy is created?
d. theory of universal gravitation. a. kinetic energy
b. potential energy
15. Density is the relationship between an object’s c. chemical energy
mass and its volume. It can be measured in d. electrical energy
grams per cubic centimeter (g/cm3). A student
shakes a jar containing pure water (density = 20. Your body operates on
1.00 g/cm3), olive oil (density = 0.80 g/cm3), a. gravitational potential energy.
and saltwater (density = 1.03 g/cm3) and b. electrical energy.
observes the liquids as they settle out. Starting c. chemical potential energy.
at the top of the jar and working down, in d. nuclear energy.
what order will the liquids settle?
a. saltwater, olive oil, pure water 21. Entomology is the study of
b. olive oil, saltwater, pure water a. birds.
c. saltwater, pure water, olive oil b. plants.
d. olive oil, pure water, saltwater c. insects.
d. mammals.
16. All forms of energy can be converted at
maximum efficiency into
a. mechanical motion.
b. electricity.
c. potential energy.
d. heat.
302
22. Bernoulli’s Principle states that as the speed of 27. Liposomes formed from lipids might be
a fluid increases, pressure within the fluid naturally occurring structures that formed the
decreases. This explains why it may be helpful precursors for what later structure of cells?
to do what to a house during a tornado? a. immune systems
a. open the windows b. enzymes
b. turn off the electricity c. nuclei
c. shut off the main water valve d. membranes
d. close interior doors
28. In the evolutionary sense, which is most
23. Penicillin is a group of antibiotics derived from closely related to Tyrannosaurus rex?
a. bacteria. a. today’s rattlesnakes
b. fungi. b. today’s pigeons
c. plants. c. today’s lobsters
d. animals. d. today’s frogs
24. In the ribosomes, which all cells have, what 29. If a cell has an organelle called a chloroplast,
important cell process occurs? which type of cell is it?
a. DNA is duplicated. a. bikaryotic
b. Proteins are assembled. b. prokaryotic
c. Cell membranes are synthesized. c. eukaryotic
d. Cell nuclei are degraded. d. postkaryotic
25. Groups of DNA bases that code for types of 30. Which of the following places the levels of
amino acids occur as ecological organization in order from least
a. quintuplets. to most inclusive?
b. doublets. a. population, community, ecosystem, biome
c. triplets. b. biome, ecosystem, community, population
d. quadruplets. c. ecosystem, population, biome, community
d. community, ecosystem, biome, population
26. In the universal tree of life, derived from
comparing the rRNA possessed by all living 31. Which of the following is true about a
forms, what does the r stand for? hypothesis?
a. rhizocyclic a. It cannot be revised.
b. retrospiral b. It can never be proven.
c. recentible c. It is based on a theory.
d. ribosomal d. It is formed before observations are made.
32. What were two evolutionary innovations that

led to trees?
a. flowers and cellulose
b. cellulose and xylem
c. xylem and blastula
d. blastula and flowers
303
33. The bifocal lens was invented by 38. A 1,500 kg car traveling at 100 km/h has the
a. Thomas Edison. same momentum as which of the following
b. Benjamin Franklin. cars?
c. Albert Einstein. a. 1,000 kg car traveling at 100 km/h
d. John Isaac Hawkins. b. 1,500 kg car traveling at 50 km/h
c. 2,000 kg car traveling at 100 km/h
34. What type of organism has an embryonic stage d. 3,000 kg car traveling at 50 km/h
called a blastula?
a. plants 39. The intensity of an earthquake is measured by
b. fungi what instrument?
c. animals a. altimeter
d. bacteria b. electrometer
c. seismometer
35. What best describes the evolutionary events d. spectrometer
that were happening around 265 MYA?
a. radiation of reptiles 40. The first Homo sapiens appeared about 150,000
b. origin of life years ago. Approximately how many times
c. extinction of the dinosaurs longer did dinosaurs roam Earth compared
d. emergence of australopithecines to Homo sapiens to this point?
a. 10
36. In plants, which type of vascular tissue takes b. 100
food made in the leaves all the way down to c. 1,000
the roots? d. 10,000
a. xylem
b. trachea 41. The first American to orbit Earth was
c. capillaries a. John Glenn.
d. phloem b. Neil Armstrong.
c. Buzz Aldrin.
37. We know that the Cretaceous-Paleogene d. Mike Adams.
(Cretaceous-Tertiary) mass extinction, which
killed off the dinosaurs and many other 42. If you were a scientist investigating the origin of
species, was caused from an impact of a giant human social bonding, you would be in the
object from space, because of field of
a. a worldwide clay layer that contains lots of a. evolutionary psychology.
the element iridium. b. reversible geology.
b. charcoal evidence of worldwide forest fires. c. physical anthropology.
c. chemical signatures of massive amounts of d. revolutionary biology.
sulfuric acid aerosols in the atmosphere.
d. mutations in the surviving organisms
caused by UV radiation after the ozone layer
was destroyed.
304
43. Of the organisms listed, which evolved the 48. The Principle of Superposition states that in a
most recently? sequence of undisturbed rock layers, the oldest
a. Australopithecus rock layer can be found at the bottom of the
b. cyanobacteria sequence and the youngest layer on top of the
c. fungi sequence. Why is this principle useful for
d. lichen geologists?
a. Geologists use this information to
44. Considering human ancestry, which of the reconstruct past tectonic activity.
following is the most distantly related to b. It provides geologists with exact dates of
humans? rock layer formation.
a. bonobo c. Geologists can use it to determine the type
b. chimp of environment in which the rock layers
c. gorilla formed.
d. orangutan d. It can be used to determine the relative ages
of the rock layers.
45. If an aqueous solution is alkaline, it is
a. acidic. 49. Which geologic timespan accounts for 85% of
b. basic. Earth’s history, beginning with Earth’s
c. neutral. formation and lasting up until about 540
d. ionic. million years ago?
a. Cenozoic
46. Alfred Wegener developed the theory of b. Precambrian
a. ice ages. c. Paleozoic
b. dinosaur extinction. d. Pleistocene
c. polar wander.
d. continental drift. 50. Until fairly recently, mammoths roamed
Earth during a series of ice ages. This time
47. What is a subduction zone? is called the
a. places where currents fall toward Earth’s a. Pleistocene.
core b. Anthropocene.
b. places where magma oozes downward from c. Miocene.
a volcano d. Oligocene.
c. places where ocean crust plunges toward the
mantle
d. places where currents in the ocean head
toward the bottom
305
Section 5: Biology 6. Swelling that occurs due to excess fluid

accumulating in interstitial spaces is
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 known as
minutes to complete this section. a. effusion.
b. erythema.
1. Autotrophs are most likely to have which c. edema.
organelle(s)? d. progenesis.
a. Golgi apparatus
b. chloroplasts 7. Pyruvate is converted to carbon dioxide and
c. lysosomes ethanol during which of the following
d. mitochondria processes?
a. photosynthesis
2. In most flowering plants, water moves upward b. glycolysis
from the roots via which of the following c. alcoholic fermentation
structures? d. oxidation
a. sieve tubes
b. phloem 8. Self-fertilization may also be referred to as
c. stomata a. syngamy.
d. xylem b. autogamy.
c. allogamy.
3. A third copy of a chromosome is an example of d. incompatibility.
a. haploidy.
b. diplody. 9. The embryological process by which a
c. polyploidy. fertilized ovum divides is known as
d. aneuploidy. a. the G2 phase.
b. the M phase.
4. The reproductive organ of a plant that is c. cleavage.
responsible for pollen production is known d. cytokinesis.
as the
a. carpel. 10. A cell spends most of its time in which stage of
b. pistil. the cell cycle?
c. stamen. a. anaphase
d. stigma. b. interphase
c. metaphase
5. Which of the following is a rod-shaped d. prophase
bacteria?
a. Lactobacillus
b. Streptococcus
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Spirillum
306
11. According to Linnaeus’s classification system, 17. Blood from the lungs travels to the left atrium
which of the following groups is the most of the heart through the
specific (i.e., has the smallest number of a. aorta.
organisms)? b. superior vena cava.
a. phylum c. pulmonary artery.
b. genus d. pulmonary veins.
c. class
d. order 18. A person with phenylketoneuria should limit
intake of what amino acid?
12. More than 80% of all the known species of a. tyrosine
animals belong to the phylum b. phenylalanine
a. Mollusca. c. histidine
b. Arthropoda. d. asparagine
c. Echinodermata.
d. Chordata. 19. Transfusion of incorrect blood types results in
a. excess production.
13. Which of the following is the main function of b. chemical reduction of hemoglobin.
the gallbladder? c. agglutination of erythrocytes.
a. to produce enzymes d. lymphocytosis.
b. to digest fats
c. to produce bile 20. Plants differ from animals because plants
d. to store bile a. cannot live in water.
b. have cell walls.
14. Essential amino acids c. are prokaryotes.
a. must be supplied by diet. d. do not have specialized tissues.
b. are not endogenously synthesized.
c. include phenylalanine, threonine, and valine. 21. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary
d. all of the above gland to secrete vasopressin when
a. the amount of water in the blood is too low.
15. The last and longest portion of the small b. a woman’s estrogen level increases.
intestine is called the c. the thyroid is not functioning properly.
a. ascending colon. d. insulin production is too high.
c. jejunum.
b. duodenum. 22. A bacteriophage can be described as
d. ileum. a. a bacterium that causes illness.
b. a virus that infects bacteria.
16. About how much blood does the average c. a bacteria-fighting organelle.
person have in his or her body? d. an inner membrane of bacteria.
a. 2.5 to 3 liters
b. 4.5 to 5 liters
c. 6 to 7 liters
d. 8 to 9.5 liters
307
23. Which of the following is characteristic of 27. Which organelle has the main function of
smooth, or nonstriated, muscles? providing the cell with energy?
a. They are voluntary muscles, controlled at will. a. nucleus
b. When viewed under a microscope, they b. ribosomes
have a striped appearance. c. mitochondria
c. They make up the walls of the hollow d. endoplasmic reticulum
organs of the body.
d. They are not stimulated by nerves. 28. Which of the following is an example of an
exocrine gland?
24. Contraction of the biceps muscle causes the a. pineal
a. elbow joint to bend. b. pituitary
b. arm to straighten. c. salivary
c. triceps muscle to contract simultaneously. d. adrenal
d. shoulder to relax.
29. Urine produced by the kidneys first flows into
which structure?
25. Which of the following is true of a resting
a. bladder
neuron?
b. ureter
a. There is an equal concentration of both
c. urethra
sodium and potassium within the cell.
d. adrenal gland
b. The cell membrane becomes more perme-
able, and a flow of sodium and potassium
30. In plants, the reverse reaction of photosynthe-
ions causes a depolarization.
sis is
c. The concentration of sodium outside the
a. anabolism.
cell is higher than it is inside; the concentra-
b. fermentation.
tion of potassium inside the cell is lower
c. oxidation.
than it is outside.
d. respiration.
d. The concentration of sodium outside the
cell is higher than it is inside; the concentra- 31. The ventricles are actively filled during which
tion of potassium inside the cell is higher phase of the cardiac cycle?
than it is outside. a. atrial systole
b. atrial diastole
26. What is the main function of the cerebellum? c. ventricular systole
a. to control respiration and heartbeat d. valvular stenosis
b. to coordinate skeletal movements
c. to determine personality 32. In pea plants, purple flower color (P) is
d. to act as a relay center between the dominant to white flower color (p). If two
cerebrum and the medulla pea plants with genotypes Pp are crossed,
what percentage of the offspring would be
expected to have purple flowers?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
308
33. Which of the following is the site of protein 39. What are the tiny air sacs where exchange of
synthesis within a eukaryotic cell? respiratory gases occurs in mammals and
a. the ribosomes reptiles?
b. the nucleus a. the bronchioles
c. the mitochondria b. the bronchi
d. the Golgi apparatus c. the sinuses
d. the alveoli
34. Hypertension is commonly known as
a. high blood pressure. 40. During anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes
b. diabetes. separate into two sister
c. high cholesterol. a. alleles.
d. arthritis. b. centrosomes.
c. chromatids.
35. Nutrients, wastes, and gases are exchanged d. homologues.
between maternal and fetal blood via the
a. placenta. 41. Which of the following is the bony material
b. amnion. perforated by tiny canals containing nerve
c. yolk sac. cells in human teeth?
d. fallopian tube. a. gingiva
b. pulp
36. The gene for blue eyes is recessive. If your c. enamel
mother has blue eyes and your brown-eyed d. dentin
father has one gene for blue eyes and one for
brown eyes, what are your chances of having 42. Macular degeneration is a condition affecting
blue eyes? what organ?
a. 100% a. the kidney
b. 75% b. the liver
c. 50% c. the eye
d. 25% d. the brain
37. On some invertebrates, which of the following 43. A symbiotic relationship where one member
are the bristle-like, hollow, or chitinous benefits and the other is unaffected is known as
outgrowths of the epidermis? a. mutualism.
a. the setae b. commensalism.
b. the cilia c. parasitism.
c. the hair d. predation.
d. the whiskers
44. Which of the following is considered an
38. A low hematocrit is a symptom of accessory organ in the digestive system?
a. anemia. a. the anus
b. atherosclerosis. b. the liver
c. type I diabetes. c. the esophagus
d. arthritis. d. the pharynx
309
45. Which of the following would be considered 48. The volume of air that remains in the lungs
an acquired characteristic? after strenuous exhalation is the
a. the large muscles of a weight lifter a. volume capacity.
b. the appendix of a human being b. residual volume.
c. the nocturnal vision of an owl c. tidal volume.
d. the large ears of a rabbit d. vital capacity.
46. What is the fluid found in animals with open 49. Groups of three nucleotides that specify a
circulatory systems? particular amino acid to be added in a protein
a. blood sequence are known as
b. adrenaline a. base pairs.
c. hemolymph b. chromosomes.
d. protoplasm c. genes.
d. codons.
47. The human pelvic girdle consists of the
50. The formation of rhizomes is an example of
ischium, pubis, and
which type of asexual reproduction?
a. scapulae.
a. fragmentation
b. clavicles.
b. binary fission
c. sternum.
c. budding
d. ilium.
d. vegetative reproduction
1 18
IA VIIIA
1 2
H 2 13 14 15 16 17 He
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 9 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
(223) (226) (227) (265) (268) (271) (270) (277) (276) (281) (280) (285) (286) (289) (289) (293) (294) (294)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
310
Section 6: Chemistry 6. Which of the following is a noble gas?

a. xenon
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 b. potassium
minutes to complete this section. Use the periodic c. iodine
table on page 310 to help you answer the questions d. barium
when necessary.
7. What is the formula for cobalt (II) phosphate?
1. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. CoPO4
a. one water molecule b. Co2PO4
b. one mole of electrons c. Co3(PO4)2
c. one mole of protons d. Co2(PO4)3
d. five molecules of benzene
8. Which of the following choices best describes
2. Which of the following is immiscible with water? the structure of the class of molecules that is
a. HCl the major constituent of cell membranes?
b. CCl4 a. a carboxylic acid bonded to an amino group
c. methanol b. one molecule of glycerol bonded to three
d. KOH fatty acids
c. one molecule of glycerol bonded to two
3. How many moles of hydrogen are in 18.0 g fatty acids and one phosphate group
H2O? d. one molecule of glycerol bonded to one
a. one fatty acid and two hydroxyl groups
b. two
c. nine 9. Osmotic pressure is defined as
d. 18 a. the change in pressure of a liquid undergo-
ing osmosis.
4. The reaction Fe2O3 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O3 is b. pressure that must be applied to prevent net
best classified as what type of reaction? diffusion of pure solvent through a semi-
a. double displacement reaction permeable membrane into solution.
b. oxidation-reduction reaction c. the combined pressure of gases in the
c. acid–base reaction external atmosphere of a system undergoing
d. decomposition reaction osmosis.
d. pressure that is proportional to osmotic
5. Which of the following elements is in period V potential.
of the periodic table?
a. B 10. Which of the following is classified as an
b. N aldehyde?
c. Nb a. CH4
d. Rb b. CH2Cl2
c. CH3C(O)CH3
d. CH3CH2C(O)H
311
11. The nuclear process 238 234 4

92U → 90Th + 2He is an
17. What is the molecular formula of a compound
example of with empirical formula CH2O and molar mass
a. a decay. 90 g?
b. b decay. a. CH2O
c. g emission. b. C3H3O3
d. nuclear fusion. c. C3H6O3
d. C6H14O
12. What is the formula for bismuth (III) hydroxide?
a. Bi3OH 18. Which of the following has the largest radius?
b. Bi(OH)3 a. K
c. Bi(OH)2 b. Rb
d. BiOH c. Ca
d. Sr
13. What are the products of the reaction between
sodium metal and water? 19. Avogadro’s number, 6.02 × 1023, is equal to
+ + OH–
a. NaH(aq) a. the number of atoms or molecules in one
(aq)
mole of any substance.
b. NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
b. the number of atoms or molecules in
c. Na(s) + H2(g) + O2(g) 1.0 gram of any substance.
d. NaOH(aq) + H2(g) + O2(g) c. the number of carbon atoms in 1.0 gram
of carbon.
14. Which best describes the following redox d. the number of atoms in 12.0 grams of any
reaction: element.
– + MnO –
Br(aq) +2
4 (aq) → Br2(l) + Mn(aq)?
a. Br and Mn are both reduced. 20. Which of the following species is being
b. Br is oxidized and Mn is reduced. oxidized in this redox reaction?
2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
Zn(s) + Cu(aq)
c. Br is oxidized and O is reduced. (aq) (s)
d. Br is reduced and Mn is oxidized. a. Zn(s)
b. Cu2+
(aq)
15. Which type of bonding occurs in ammonia c. Zn2+
(aq)
(NH3)? d. Cu(s)
a. covalent
b. ionic 21. What is the oxidation number of nickel in
c. metallic nickel oxide (NiO2)?
d. covalent network a. 2
b. 4
16. Which of the following is a weak acid? c. 2
a. HCl d. 4
b. HNO3
c. H2SO4
d. H2CO3
312
22. Which of the following is a key characteristic 27. Which of the following has the greatest
of the alkali metals? number of atoms?
a. highly stable a. 1.0 mol N
b. poor coductivity b. 1.0 g N
c. highly reactive with water c. 1.0 mol NO2
d. gases at room temperature d. 0.5 mol NH3
23. b decay results in the emission of _______ 28. Which of the following equations describes the
from a heavy atom. reaction between Al(s) and H2SO4?
a. a helium nucleus a. 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) → Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2(g)
b. an electron b. Al(s) + H2SO4(aq) → Al(SO4) + H2(g)
c. a proton c. 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) → Al2(SO3)3 + 3H2O(l)
d. a high-energy photon d. No reaction occurs.
29. Which of the following is a transition metal?

24. A “trans” fat describes fatty acids that contain
a. lithium
a. no C–C double bonds.
b. iron
b. multiple C–C double bonds and some C–C
c. aluminum
single bonds.
d. tin
c. at least one C–C double bond with a trans
geometry.
30. Which of the following is the probable charge
d. only C–C double bonds.
for an ion formed from Ca?
a. +1
25. Which of the following are the general
b. +2
products of a hydrocarbon combustion
c. –1
reaction?
d. –2
a. C(s), O2, and H2
b. C(s), H2O, and O2 31. Which of the following is the electron
c. CO2 and H2 configuration of a neutral atom of Ca?
d. CO2 and H2O a. [Ar] 3s2
b. [Ar] 3d2
26. The normal boiling point of water is 100°C. c. [Ar] 4p2
Suppose 256 grams of a compound with the d. [Ar] 4s2
formula C10H8 is dissolved in 5.15 kg of water.
Kb of water is 0.52°C kg/mol. What is the 32. The phosphate buffer system helps maintain a
change in the boiling point? relatively constant pH within living cells:
a. 0.2° – → H+ + HPO2–
H2PO4(aq) ← (aq) 4(aq)
b. 0.05°
c. 0.4° What happens to this equilibrium reaction if
d. 2.0° the interior of the cell becomes more acidic?
a. less HPO2–4 is consumed
b. less H2PO2–4 is produced
c. more H+ is produced
d. more HPO2– 4 is consumed
313
33. What is the equilibrium constant, Kc, of the 37. Which of the following elements is a member
following reaction? of the actinide series?
→ XeF a. uranium
Xe(g) + 2F2(g) ← 4(g)
b. terbium
[XeF4]
________
a. Kc = [Xe][F2]
c. tellurium
[Xe][F2] d. radon
________
b. Kc = [XeF4]
[XeF4]
_________ 38. Which of the following is the symbol for the
c. Kc = [Xe][F2]2
2
isotope with 18 protons and 22 neutrons?
[Xe][F2]
_________
d. Kc = [XeF4] a. 40
18 Ar
22
b. 18 Ar
34. What is the oxidation number of sodium in c. 40
22 Ti
90
d. 40 Zr
the following reaction? Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaI(aq)
→ PbI2(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)
a. +1
b. +2
c. –1
d. –2
35. Carbon dating takes advantage of the beta !

decay of a carbon-14 isotope. Which of the
following equations describes this decay? 39. Vanillin, the molecule shown here that is
a. 14 13
6C→ 5B+1H
1 responsible for vanilla’s taste and smell,
b. 14 14 0
6 C → 7 N + –1
possesses all of the following functional
14 13 1
c. 6 C → 5 B + 0 n groups EXCEPT
d. 14 1 14
7N+0n→ 6C+1H
1 a. aldehyde.
b. ketone.
36. A dating technique involves electron capture c. alcohol.
by the potassium-40 isotope according to the d. ether.
following equation: 40 0 40
19 K + –1 e → 18 Ar. If the
half-life is 1.2 × 109 years, how long does it take 40. What is the effect of the addition of a catalyst
for only 10 g to remain of the original 40 g of to a reaction in equilibrium?
potassium-40 in a rock sample? a. The reaction favors the formation of the
a. 1.2 × 109 years products.
b. 0.6 × 109 years b. The reaction favors the formation of the
c. 2.4 × 109 years reactants.
d. 1.8 × 109 years c. There is no change in composition of the
reaction.
d. The rate of the reaction slows.
314
41. Which of the following pairs are allotropes? 46. Which of the following classes of molecules
a. O2 and O3 does NOT have a carbonyl group?
b. Fe2+ and Fe3+ a. ester
c. OH– and H3O+ b. amide
d. H2O2 and H2O c. aldehyde
d. amine
42. A gas is held in a rigid 4 L container at 1 atm
and 27°C. If the temperature is raised to 47. If temperature and pressure are held constant
117°C, what will the pressure in the for a sample of gas, and the number of moles
container be? is doubled, in what manner will the volume
a. 4.3 atm change?
b. 0.77 atm a. It will double.
c. 1.3 atm b. It will quadruple.
d. 0.23 atm c. It will be halved.
d. There will be no change.
43. The combustion of methane with oxygen
produces carbon dioxide and water: 48. What will happen if a semipermeable membrane
is placed between two different concentrations
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
of a NaCl solution?
If 4.00 g of CH4 and 4.00 g of O2 are com- a. The solute will move toward the higher
busted in a closed container, what is the concentration of NaCl.
maximum amount of CO2 that can be b. The solute will move toward the lower
produced? concentration of NaCl.
a. 2.25 g c. The solvent will move toward the higher
b. 2.75 g concentration of NaCl.
c. 5.50 g d. The solvent will move toward the lower
d. 11.0 g concentration of NaCl.
44. Which fuctional group characterizes carboxylic 49. Ethyl acetate has the molecular formula
acid? C4H8O2. What is the empirical formula
a. COOH of ethyl acetate?
b. C=O a. CHO
c. OH b. C2H4O
d. C=C c. CH2O
d. C2H6O
45. Which of the following does NOT have the
electron configuration [Ne] 3s23p6? 50. Proteins are polymers of which of the
a. Cl following organic compounds?
b. S2– a. amino acids
c. K+ b. alkynes
d. Ca2+ c. alcohols
d. fatty acids
315
Answers 40. a. adjournment

41. c. vengeance
Section 1: Verbal Ability 42. c. tremendous
1. a. commitment 43. b. immortality
2. c. ridiculous 44. c. capitalization
3. b. respiratory 45. a. brilliant
4. c. precise 46. b. parenthesis
5. b. assurance 47. c. weird
6. a. frequently 48. c. sonnet
7. c. development 49. a. depot
8. a. concede 50. c. presume
9. b. encouraging
10. c. phenomena Section 2: Reading Comprehension
11. c. compatible 1. b. See the third paragraph: One in ten (10%
12. a. clinician of) cases of anorexia end in death.
13. b. commencement 2. a. See the second and third paragraphs for
14. b. supervisor reference to heart problems with anorexia,
15. b. pneumonia the fourth and fifth paragraphs for
16. c. annoyed discussion of heart problems with bulimia,
17. c. apparatus and the last paragraph, where heart disease
18. c. codeine is mentioned as a risk in obese people who
19. a. accompany suffer from binge-eating disorder.
20. b. incessant 3. c. Each answer choice can be a synonym of
21. b. dilemma withdrawn, but in this context, only
22. c. efficient introverted describes the condition of being
23. b. therapy emotionally removed, which is how the
24. a. viewpoint word is used to describe people who suffer
25. c. aggravated from anorexia in paragraph 3.
26. c. arteries 4. b. According to the second paragraph, the
27. a. alumni disorder usually begins around the time of
28. a. announcement puberty, which occurs during adolescence.
29. c. aisle 5. b. The first sentence of the fifth paragraph tells
30. b. sensible us that bulimia sufferers are often able to keep
31. a. heifer their problem a secret, partly because they
32. a. association maintain a normal or above-normal weight.
33. b. rehearsal 6. b. In the second paragraph, the thyroid gland
34. c. fascinated function is mentioned as slowing down—
35. a. destructive one effort on the part of the body to
36. c. dissolve protect itself.
37. a. illuminate 7. a. According to the last paragraph, about
38. c. knowledge 30% of people participating in medically
39. b. meteorology supervised weight-control programs have
binge-eating disorder.
316
8. b. As stated in the opening sentence of the 19. a. The sixth paragraph states that a study
fourth paragraph, bulimia patients may found an equal chance of getting cancer
exercise obsessively. from exposure to the same amount of
9. d. The main idea of the passage is stated in the radon, X-rays, and atomic bombs.
first paragraph: all eating disorders share 20. b. The beginning of the second paragraph says
some common manifestations, but each has that radon is formed as uranium and
distinctive symptoms and risks. Disorders radium decay.
and diseases are not the same things, and 21. d. The answer to this question can be found in
choice b is incorrect. the first sentence of the third paragraph,
10. b. The author uses the phrase going gray as a which states that radon gas released directly
metaphor for growing older. It describes into the atmosphere poses slight health risks.
the phenomenon of a large segment of a 22. b. The fifth paragraph describes torticollis
population growing older. and states that 10% to 20% of patients
11. d. The passage emphasizes the need for age- experience spontaneous remission, but it
specific care. may not last long. Details also reveal it is
12. c. According to the fifth paragraph of the the most common of focal dystonias,
passage, depression is a treatable condition affects people at any age, and affects the
that affects nearly five million seniors. neck muscles.
13. c. The sixth paragraph is mainly about how 23. d. Emotional imbalance is not usually a feature
the diverse ethnicities and races of patients of the dystonias, as stated in the last sentence
raise new challenges for healthcare providers. of the first paragraph.
Choice c is correct because it takes both 24. a. According to the fourth paragraph, torsion
race and ethnicity into account. dystonia may be inherited.
14. b. What the average life expectancy will be in 25. c. Meige’s syndrome combines symptoms of
2080 can only be determined with specula- blepharospasm (affecting the eyes) and
tion since no one can read the future. oromandibular dystonia (affecting the
15. c. See the second paragraph of the passage. lips and tongue).
It explains that as radon decays further it 26. a. Both torticollis and cranial dystonia affect
releases radiation and transforms into the neck and head, as indicated in the fifth
radon daughters. and seventh paragraphs.
16. b. That inert gases are chemically inactive can 27. d. The first sentence of the last paragraph
be inferred from the second paragraph, states that DRD patients can be successfully
which says that radon is unlike its treated with drugs.
chemically active daughters. 28. a. The second sentence states that dystonia-
17. d. The fifth paragraph says that the unattached related movements are involuntary.
daughters pose danger to the lungs because 29. c. Cranial dystonia affects muscles in the head,
they can travel directly to those organs. face, and neck. Since it affects two or more
18. a. The fourth paragraph says that plating out is adjacent body parts, cranial dystonia is a
the process by which radon daughters segmental dystonia.
attach to matter.
317
30. d. Each answer choice can be used as a 41. a. The second and fourth paragraphs mention
synonym of progressive, but the context of this that the main role of insulin is to signal the
particular passage must be used to determine burning of glucose/sugar for energy. Most
the correct answer. It is used in the final hormones function as stimuli for other
paragraph of this passage to describe the processes.
increased difficulty in walking of children 42. b. Type II, or non-insulin-dependent, diabetes
and adolescents who suffer from DRD. is the main subject of the passage, which
31. d. See the second paragraph of the passage. distinguishes Type II from Type I and goes
32. c. See the last paragraph of the passage. on to stress the importance of diet.
33. d. The third paragraph deals with the nymph 43. d. The fourth paragraph of the passage says
stage as a whole, including how larvae that possible problems with insulin receptors
become nymphs by molting, how they affect include a paucity of receptors or a defect
human hosts, and when they mate. causing improper binding of the insulin
34. a. See the first sentence of the passage. to the receptors.
35. b. The end of the second paragraph says that 44. c. The first paragraph of the passage indicates
larval infection is a rare occurrence. that 13 to 14 million people in the United
36. c. After the rash, which may or may not States have diabetes, and 2004 is the only
appear, the next symptoms are the flu-like year in the list indicating such an average.
symptoms listed in the fifth paragraph. Although it is possible that this number
37. d. The second paragraph chiefly describes how has dropped since 2004, there is no way of
diabetes makes it difficult for the body to knowing it from the passage and table, so
use glucose, which is another name for choice c remains the likeliest answer.
sugar. 45. c. Type I diabetes is the insulin-dependent
38. b. According to the end of the first paragraph, form of this condition. The minority of
only the long-term health problems are the diabetics are afflicted with this form. They
same for these two different disorders. are diagnosed as children and must take
39. d. This answer choice can be found in the final daily injections of insulin to make up for
paragraph of the passage, which states that what their pancreases do not produce.
foods that are rich in carbohydrates, like
breads, cereals, fruits, and vegetables, break Section 3: Math
down into glucose during digestion, causing 1. c. 425 + 312 + 38 can be rewritten: 4 + 3 + 25 + 12
blood glucose to rise. + 38. To add the fractions, find the least
40. c. According to the last paragraph, non- common multiple of 5, 2, and 8, which is
insulin-dependent diabetics should stick to 40. Next, rewrite the problem: 7 + 1460 + 2400 +
15 51 11
a diet consisting of 50% to 60% carbohy- = 7 = 8.
40 40 40
drates. The paragraph also notes that raw 2. b. Multiply 9 by 60 to get 540 minutes in 9
foods do not cause as high a blood sugar hours. Then divide 540 by 32. The quotient
level as cooked foods. is 16.875, or rounded to the nearest minute,
17 minutes.
3. b. Add all four weights for a total of 703;
703 rounded to the nearest tenth is 700.
318
4. b. Substitute the values into the given 18. c. Do the operations in order from left to
6(3) – 6(–2)
expression: 9
then becomes right: –10 + (–4) = –14. Next, –14 + 12 =
18 – (–12) 30 1
= , or 3.
9 9 3 –1312. Then, –1312 – (–14) = –1312 + 14 =
5. a. The formula to use here is A = 12bh or –1314.
A = 12(10)(2) = 10 square inches. 19. a. 2(x 14) = 6(–3x 4). Multiply 2 by the
6. d. This problem is solved by dividing 60 by terms in parentheses on the left side of the
0.75 to get 80. equation and multiply 6 by the terms in
7. d. First, find the least common denominator, the parentheses on the right hand side:
which is 6. The equation then becomes 2x 28 = 18x 24. Then add 28 to both
3x x 4x
6 + 6 = 4, or 6 = 4. Multiply both sides by sides: 2x = 18x 52. Subtract 18x from
6 to get 4x = 24. Divide through by 4 to get both sides: 16x = 52. Divide both sides
x = 6. by –16 and reduce the fraction: x = 5126
8. b. To divide exponential expressions = 143 .
containing the same base, subtract the 20. c. (13)(5)(3)(8) = 40
exponents. 21. b. (7.25)(10)(10)(10) = 7,250
9. d. This is a simple division problem as long as 22. a. Subtract 25 from both sides to get 8n = 40,
you keep the decimal values straight. and divide both sides by 8 to get n = 5.
10. b. First, convert the mixed number in the 23. a. Convert the mixed number 378 to the
numerator to a fraction: 281. Then, invert the improper fraction 381 and then invert.
denominator and multiply: (281)(31) = 683, 24. d. z(x2 y) = 5(32 2) = 5(9 2) =
or 778. 5(7) = 35
11. b. To solve this problem, find the area of two 25. b. 兹400 苶兹625 苶 = 20 25 = 45
rectangles and then add the results. Use 26. c. From 10:42 to 12:42, 2 hours have elapsed.
an imaginary line to block off the first From 12:42 to 1:00, another 18 minutes
rectangle at the top of the figure. This have elapsed (60 – 42 = 18). Next, between
rectangle measures 5 feet by 2 feet. Using 1:00 and 1:19, there are another 19 minutes,
the formula A = lw, this comes to 10 square for a total of 2 hours 37 minutes.
feet. The second rectangle is also 5 feet by 27. a. The salary increase $72,450 – $69,000 =
2 feet. Add the two together for a total of $3,450. To calculate percentage increase,
20 square feet. divide this increase of $3,450 by the original
12. c. Change the percent to a decimal and then salary of $69,000 to get 0.05, which equals
multiply: 0.072 465 = 33.48, which, 5%.
rounded to the nearest tenth, is 33.5. 28. d. First, you have to determine the perimeters
13. c. Solve the problem: 855 is 57% of what of all four rooms. This is done by using the
855
number? Then solve 855 = 0.57x. x = 0.57 = formula for a square (P = 4s), or for a
1,500. There are 1,500 nurses. rectangle (P = 2l + 2w), as follows: (2 × 12)
14. a. The halfway point on the number line is + (2 × 8) = 40 for choice a; (2 × 14) +
between 0 and –12, which is –14. (2 × 7) = 42 for choice b; 4 × 10 = 40 for
15. d. A heptagon has seven sides. choice c; 4 × 11 = 44 for the correct answer,
16. a. To square y, multiply y times y. choice d.
17. c. This is a simple multiplication problem as 29. b. Convert Fahrenheit to Centigrade using the
long as you keep the decimal values straight. formula given: C = 59(122 – 32); that is,
C = 59 × 90; so C = 50°.
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30. b. You cannot just take 25% off the original 37. b. Use the Pythagorean theorem: 12 + x2 =
price, because the 10% discount after three (兹10苶)2; 1 + x2 = 10, so x2 = 9. Thus, x = 3.
years of service is taken off the price that 38. d. The radius of the circle is r = 6. The formula
has already been reduced by 15%. Figure for the area of a circle is given by A = pr2.
the problem in two steps: After the 15% The area of the circle is A = p62 = (3.14)(36)
discount, the price is $71.83. Ninety percent = 113.04 square feet.
of that—subtracting 10%—is $64.65. 39. c. Let T = Ted’s age; S = Sam’s age = 3T; R =
31. a. Add the number of men and number of Ron’s age = 2S = 32T. The sum of the ages is
3T 3T 6T 2T 11T
women to get the total number of staff: 200. 2 + 3T + T = 2 + 2 + 2 = 2, which is
The number of women, 24, is 12% of 200. equal to 55. Now multiply both sides of the
11T
32. b. Substituting known quantities into the resulting equation, 55 = 2, by 2 to get 110
64.8
formula yields 20 = 2 . Next, multiply
x = 11T. Divide through by 11 to get 10 = T.
both sides by x to get 20x2 = 64.8, and then
2
That is Ted’s age, so Sam is 3T = 3(10) = 30
divide through by 20 to get x2 = 3.24. Now years old, and Ron is 2S = 320 = 15 years old.
take the square root of both sides to get 40. c. The formula for the area of a triangle is
1
x = 1.8. A = ( _2 )bh. The value of b is 5, so 45 =
33. a. The sum of $4,000 and y is written as 1
( _2 )(5)h. Multiply both sides of the equation
4,000 y. Three times the sum of 1
by 2 to get rid of the ( _2 ): 90 = 5h. Divide
$4,000 and y is 3(4,000 y). The
both sides by 5: 18 = h. The height is 18 feet.
correct translation of the sentence is
41. d. Four inches is equal to 16 quarter inches.
x = 3(4,000 y).
Since each quarter inch is 2 feet, multiply
34. c. You must break the 92,000 into the
16 by 2 to get 32 feet.
amounts mentioned in the policy: 160
42. d. 160% is equal to 100 . Reduce this fraction

92,000 = 20,000 + 40,000 + 32,000. The
by dividing both top and bottom by 20 to
amount the policy will pay is (0.8)(20,000)
get 85.
+ (0.6)(40,000) + (0.4)(32,000) = 16,000 +
43. c. The surface area of a cylinder is equal to
24,000 + 12,800 = 52,800.
the area of the two circles on the top and
35. a. Each Alzheimer’s patient takes 14 hour. Each
bottom plus the area of a rectangle that is
stroke patient thus takes 34 hour. The doctor
as tall as the cylinder and as wide as the
has already spent 10(14) + 3(34) = 140 + 94 =
19 3 circumference of the circles. The area of the
= 4 hours with patients today. Her
4 4
two circles = 2pr2 = 2p(0.4)2 = 2p(0.16)
6-hour schedule minus 434 hours leaves
= 0.32p. The area of the rectangle is its
114 hours left to see patients. Since each
height multiplied by the circumference of
stroke patient takes 34 hour, the doctor has
the circle = 2(2pr) = 2(2p)(0.4) = 1.6p.
time to treat only one more stroke patient
Now add: 0.32p + 1.6p = 1.92p.
in the 114 hours remaining.
36. b. Solving this problem requires converting
15 minutes to 0.025 hour, which is the time,
then using the formula distance = rate ×
time: 62 mph × 0.25 hour = 15.5 miles.
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44. a. Use the Pythagorean formula to find the 50. b. The lighter liquid is 165, or 25, of the total
height of the smaller triangle: solution; 25 = 0.4, or 40%.
a2 + b2 = c2
902 + b2 = 1502 Section 4: General Science
8,100 + b2 = 22,500 1. d. The weak nuclear force determines beta
b2 = 14,400 decay, which occurs when a neutron
b =120, which is the height of both the converts to a proton, with the ejection
smaller triangle and the larger triangle. of an electron.
Use the Pythagorean formula again to find 2. d. Sputnik 1 was the first satellite to be put
the length of x: into Earth’s orbit in 1957 by the Soviet
a2 + b2 = x2 Union.
1602 + 1202 = x2 3. b. Ionic bonds form when oppositely charged
40,000 = x2 ions attract in order to become neutral and
200 = x stable. Sodium gives up its one outer shell
45. d. If the figure is a regular decagon, it can be electron leaving it with a +1 positive charge,
divided into 10 equal sections by lines and chlorine gains this electron, giving it
passing through the center. Two such lines a –1 charge. Together, they form the
form the indicated angle, which includes chemically neutral salt molecule NaCl.
three of the 10 sections; 130 of 360° = 108°. 4. a. The valence shell either gains or loses
46. c. 7.91 is read as seven and ninety-one electrons to create bonds with other atoms.
hundredths. 791.91 is read as seven hundred Valence means strength (think valiant).
ninety-one and ninety-one hundredths. 5. d. The covalent bond is a shared pair of
7.0091 is read as seven and ninety-one electrons, which “spend time” in both
hundred thousandths. atoms, though often in one more than
47. a. At the end of three hours, the organ still has the other.
100% function. After four hours, it has 80% 6. a. The number 6 brings the total number of
of that 100%, or 0.8. After five hours, it has oxygen atoms on the right-hand side to 18,
80% of the 80% it had at the end of four the same as the total on the left-hand side,
hours: (0.8)(0.8) = 64%. After six hours, it thereby balancing the reaction.
has 80% of the 64% it had after five hours: 7. d. Reduction of an element in a chemical
(0.8)(0.64) = 0.512, or about 50%. reaction occurs when its charge is
48. d. Let E = the estimate. One-fifth more than numerically lowered (in this case, from
the estimate means 65 or 120% of E, so +4 to –4).
600,000 = 1.2(E). Divide both sides by 1.2 8. b. The liquid is warmed. The heat of fusion
to get E = 500,000. is the amount of energy is takes to melt a
49. b. The difference between 105° and 99° is 6°. solid, to turn it into liquid at the same
Application of the ice pack plus a resting temperature. Because our example is
period of 5 minutes before reapplication already liquid, applying any heat at all only
means that the temperature is lowered by warms it up. This may or may not also
half a degree every 6 minutes, or 1° every evaporate the liquid, we don’t know
12 minutes. Six degrees times 12 minutes without more information.
per degree is 72 minutes, or 1 hour
12 minutes.
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9. a. Amino acids combine to form proteins. 18. c. Galileo Galilei was called the father of
Nucleic acids combine to form DNA and modern science. The Roman Inquisition
RNA. investigated him and believed that his work
10. b. Only quartz contains no carbon, a necessary challenged the Catholic Church. He was
condition for an organic molecule. found guilty of heresy and ordered to live
Therefore, quartz is an inorganic molecule. under house arrest.
11. c. Temperature deciduous forests have hot 19. b. Potential energy is created at the top, when
summers and cold winters. During the the crane stops. Kinetic energy would occur
winter, there is not enough sunlight to were the beam dropped.
support tree growth, so trees lose their 20. c. Chemical potential energy is released from
leaves every winter. In tropical rain forests, the food we eat, when combined with
there is enough sunlight and rain to oxygen in the air.
support greenery year-round. 21. c. Entomology is the scientific study of
12. a. The joule is 1 N-m. The calorie is also a unit insects. The word comes from the Greek
of energy but is not equal to an N-m. The entomos, which means “that which is cut
watt is a unit of energy flow rate, or power, into pieces or segmented” (meaning
not energy itself. insects).
13. a. The breakdown of plant and animal matter 22. a. The fast blowing wind around the house
over long periods of time under special creates an area of low pressure. If the house
conditions leads to the formation of oil. is tightly sealed, its pressure will remain
14. b. Albert Einstein published the general theory higher inside. The higher pressure area
of relativity in 1916. It describes gravity as a within the house will try to stabilize by
geometric property of space and time. potentially “blowing” the windows and roof
15. d. Less dense liquids will float on top of more out into the lower pressure area surround-
dense liquids. In this case, the olive oil has ing the house. Thus, opening the windows
the lowest density, then the pure water, and may help to stabilize the pressure.
finally the saltwater. This also explains why 23. b. Penicillin is derived from the fungi
oil floats on ocean water when oil spills Penicillium. Penicillin antibiotics were the
occur. first drugs to cure serious bacterial
16. d. Though all forms of energy can be converted infections, and are still widely used today.
into all other forms, the efficiency varies 24. b. Proteins are assembled at ribosomes, from
and is sometimes very low. Heat, the most amino acids brought to the ribosomes by
degraded form of energy, according to the transfer RNA molecules, according to the
law of entropy, can be made from the other genetic code.
forms with a conversion rate that is 25. c. Triplets of bases—for example, AAT, CGT,
theoretically 100%. or GAC—code for amino acids. This was
17. a. Entropy can decrease only if the decrease is discovered by, among others, English
strictly local and is more than balanced by biologist Francis Crick, who first discovered
an increase on some larger scale. the double helix structure of DNA many
years earlier.
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26. d. The r in rRNA stands for ribosomal. The 35. a. It’s the radiation of reptiles. The other
ribosomes are used to construct the universal answers are either much earlier (the origin
tree of life because all organisms possess of life) or substantially later.
ribosomes. 36. d. Phloem is the special tube-like tissue in
27. d. Liposomes are hollow spheres of lipid plants that transports food downward.
molecules, which are similar to (though Xylem conducts water and minerals up
simpler than) membranes of cells. from the soil. The other choices are
Liposomes might have played a role in the found in animals.
origin of life and the evolution of cells. 37. a. The evidence of a worldwide clay layer that
28. b. Today’s pigeons descended from ancestral contains lots of the element iridium was
birds, which descended directly from found first in Italy, and then in many parts
bipedal dinosaurs. of the world. Iridium at those concentra-
29. c. Eukaryotic cells have organelles while tions must have come from an impactor
prokaryotic cells do not. from space.
30. a. A population is all the individuals of the 38. d. Momentum equals mass times velocity,
same species living in the same place at so the momentum of the first car is
the same time. A community is all the (1,500 kg)(100 km/h) = 150,000 kg⋅km/h.
populations in that place and time. An The only other car with the same value for
ecosystem includes the community and mass times velocity is the heaviest car:
nonliving (abiotic) factors in that place and (3,000 kg)(50 km/h) = 150,000 kg⋅km/h.
time. A biome is a set of ecosystems with 39. c. A seismometer (or seismograph) measures
similar environmental conditions. motions of the ground, including those
31. b. A hypothesis can never be absolutely caused by earthquakes and volcanoes.
proven, only disproven. There can be so The term comes from the Greek seismos,
much data that supports it that it becomes meaning “shaking or quaking,” and metron,
a theory or law, but new data can always meaning “measure.”
refute or revise it. A hypothesis is formed 40. c. Dinosaurs roamed Earth for about
after observations are made. 150 million years. 150,000,000 divided by
32. b. The cellulose molecule and the xylem tube 150,000 is about 1,000 times longer that the
system inside plants enabled tallness to dinosaurs dominated Earth than Homo
evolve, and thus paved the way for trees. sapiens have.
The blastula is a feature of the animal 41. a. John Glenn orbited Earth in 1962 in
embryo, and flowers only came millions of Friendship 7. He was the first American to
years after the evolution of trees. do so.
33. b. Benjamin Franklin is credited for inventing 42. a. The field that studies the evolution of human
bifocal lenses, and was one of the first to use behavior and the evolution of the human
them. The term bifocal was introduced in mind is called evolutionary psychology.
1824 by John Isaac Hawkins, the creator of 43. a. Australopithecus, a human ancestor
trifocals, but the invention was credited to (a hominid), is the most recent by far.
Franklin by Hawkins. 44. d. The orangutan is most distantly related to
34. c. Animals have the blastula stage of us. Its lineage diverged from the lineage that
embryonic development, which is a tiny led to humans the longest time ago.
hollow sphere of cells.
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45. b. Alkaline is another term for basic, which is 3. d. Aneuploidy describes extra individual
defined by a pH > 7. chromosomes, while polyploidy describes
46. d. Wegener called his idea “continental drift,” extra sets of homologous chromosomes.
because it looked like South America and 4. c. Pollen released by the stamen is captured by
Africa were once together and then the stigma and reaches the carpels, where
drifted apart. the ovum cells are located.
47. c. Places where ocean crust plunges toward 5. a. The shapes of bacteria can be determined
the mantle are called subduction zones, from their names, where “coccus” describes
because the crust is subducted down into a spherical shape, “bacillus” describes a rod-
the deeper layers of rock. like shape, and “vibrios” and “spirilla”
48. d. Superposition is one of several relative describe spiral shapes.
dating techniques geologists use to identify 6. c. Edema, also known as dropsy, is the
the age of rocks in comparison to other interstitial collection of watery fluid.
rock layers surrounding them. Although 7. c. Alcoholic fermentation occurs during
this is useful for determining the sequence anaerobic respiration, producing ethanol
of rock formation, it does not directly and carbon dioxide.
provide the exact dates of rock formation— 8. b. Remember that the prefix auto means self.
other techniques, such as radiometric Autogamy is a common method of
dating, would be required. fertilization used in plants. Syngamy is the
49. b. The Precambrian or “time of hidden life” union of male and female gametes also
encompassed about the first four billion known as fertilization, and allogamy is
years of Earth’s history. The Precambrian cross-fertilization.
can further be subdivided into the Hadean, 9. c. A single fertilized egg cell divides and
Archean, and Proterozoic Eons. becomes multicellular during cleavage. The
50. a. The time of recent ice ages was the other answers are all stages that a cell passes
Pleistocene, near the end of which (defined through during the four-stage cell cycle:
by the last melting of the ice sheets), humans G2 phase, M phase (mitosis and cytokinesis),
reached a high level of culture, as shown by G1 phase, and S phase.
cave art. They also hunted mammoths. 10. b. A cell spends most of its time in interphase,
which includes all phases of the cell cycle
Section 5: Biology except for mitosis (M phase). The
1. b. Autotrophs generate energy from sunlight remaining choices are all phases of mitosis.
rather than consuming other sources of 11. b. In the complete Linnaean classification of an
energy. Chloroplasts contain the photosyn- organism, the groups from most inclusive to
thetic machinery necessary for harvesting most exclusive are kingdom, phylum, class,
solar energy. order, family, genus, and species.
2. d. Xylem tissue conducts water and minerals 12. b. The largest phylum is Arthropoda, the
from the roots to the rest of the plant, while arthropods, which include insects. Insects
phloem tissue carries sugars from the leaves make up approximately 80% of all known
to other parts of the plant. Sieve tubes are animal species.
phloem components. Stomata are minute 13. d. Bile is produced in the liver and stored in
openings in leaves that allow air to enter. the gallbladder.
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14. d. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized 24. a. Muscles work in pairs. Contraction of the
by the body and must be ingested. In addition biceps muscle bends the elbow; contraction
to phenylalanine, threonine, and valine, the of the triceps muscle straightens the arm.
complete list of essential amino acids 25. d. Because a resting neuron’s cell membrane is
contains tryptophan, isoleucine, methion- relatively impermeable to both sodium and
ine, leucine, lysine, and histidine. potassium, and because active transport
15. d. The first part of the small intestine is the systems work to move sodium to the
duodenum; the second part is the jejunum; extracellular fluid and potassium to the
the third, last, and longest part is the ileum. intracellular fluid, the concentration of
16. b. Every person’s body contains an average of sodium ions is about 14 times higher
4.5 to 5 liters of blood. outside the cell than inside, and the
17. d. Oxygen-rich blood collects into venules and concentration of potassium ions is 20 to
finally into a pulmonary vein from each 30 times higher inside the cell than outside.
lung. Veins return blood to the heart, while 26. b. The cerebellum coordinates impulses sent
arteries carry blood away from the heart. out from the cerebrum. Its main function
18. b. Phenylketoneuria (PKU) is a hereditary is to coordinate skeletal movements.
disease that results in loss of function of 27. c. Mitochondria are organelles present in both
the enzyme that converts phenylalanine plant and animal cells. The main function
to tyrosine. Buildup of phenylalanine can of mitochondria is to provide the cell with
cause many deleterious effects, so only energy.
limited amounts may be safely consumed 28. c. The salivary glands have ducts and are called
by those with PKU. exocrine glands. The others are endocrine
19. c. If incorrect blood types are transfused (for glands, which are ductless and release their
example, if type B blood is injected into a secretions directly into the blood.
person with type A blood), red cells will 29. b. The urine produced by the kidneys first
clump together. This process is called drains into the ureters, which carry the
agglutination. urine to the bladder, where it is stored. It
20. b. Unlike animals, plants have cell walls made then flows out of the body via the urethra.
out of cellulose. Plants can live in water and The adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys
do have specialized tissues, like animals. and are part of the endocrine system, not
Plants and animals are both eukaryotes, not the renal system.
prokaryotes. 30. d. The overall reaction for photosynthesis is
21. a. Water balance in the blood is controlled by 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 so the
the hormone vasopressin, which is secreted reverse reaction is C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2
by the pituitary gland. + 6H2O. This reverse reaction is the overall
22. b. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect reaction for respiration, the breakdown
bacteria. of sugar into carbon dioxide and water,
23. c. Smooth muscles are called involuntary which releases energy for the cell to use.
muscles. They make up the walls of the Fermentation does break down sugar, but
hollow organs of the body, such as those of into ethanol or lactic acid, not carbon
the alimentary canal. dioxide and water.
325
31. b. The diastole phase of a heartbeat occurs 40. c. During anaphase, the centrosome holding
between two contractions of the heart the two identical halves of each chromo-
during which the heart muscles relax some disintegrates and the chromosome
and the ventricles fill up with blood. separates into sister chromatids. It is during
32. c. A Punnett square of Pp and Pp shows anaphase I of meiosis, not mitosis, that
that offspring would have three potential homologous chromosomes separate.
genotypes: PP, Pp, and pp. Half of the 41. d. Dentin is the thick, bony layer underneath
offspring would be Pp, one-fourth PP, and the calcium phosphate deposit that makes
one-fourth pp. Since P is dominant, it up the enamel of teeth.
would be expressed for two of the 42. c. The macula is a spot near the center of the
genotypes, PP and Pp, and therefore three- retina in the eye. Macular degeneration
fourths of the offspring. Therefore, 75% of results in loss of central vision.
the offspring would be expected to have 43. b. Symbiotic relationships can be divided into
purple flowers. three categories: mutualism, commensal-
33. a. Ribosomes, located on the endoplasmic ism, and parasitism. Commensalism occurs
reticulum (ER) and the cytoplasm, are where one member of the pair benefits from
where protein synthesis occurs. the other without either harming or helping
34. a. Hypertension is the medical term for the other.
increased blood pressure. 44. b. Digestive organs called accessory organs
35. a. The placenta is the organ in viviparous contribute to the digestive process, but food
animals that connects the embryo to its does not pass through them. Choice b, the
mother’s uterus. liver, is an example. The other choices are
36. c. Draw a Punnett square diagram. Blue eye part of the alimentary canal or gastroin-
color (b) is a recessive trait and brown (B) is testinal tract, which is the tube through
dominant. Your mother must be homozy- which food passes as it is digested.
gous recessive to have blue eyes (bb) and 45. a. Acquired characteristics are features that
your father is heterozygous (Bb). Therefore, develop within the lifetime of an individual
your chances of having blue eyes is 50%. organism, as do large muscles in a weight
37. a. Setae (singular seta) are the bristle-like lifter. The large ears of rabbits and
projections on some invertebrates. Hair nocturnal vision of owls have developed
only occurs on mammals, and whiskers are over generations to help these animals
a type of hair. survive. The human appendix is a vestigial
38. a. Hematocrit describes the percentage of organ.
blood volume occupied by red blood cells. 46. c. In arthropods, hemolymph carries nutrients
Anemia is a condition characterized by too and oxygen to cells.
few healthy red blood cells. 47. d. The ilium is the third component of the
39. d. The alveoli, where carbon dioxide and human pelvic girdle. The human pectoral
oxygen are exchanged, are located at the girdle consists of the scapulae and clavicles.
ends of tubes called bronchioles. 48. b. After exhalation, a volume of air still
remains in the lungs. Residual volume is a
measure of lung capacity that measures the
amount of air remaining in the lungs after
strenuous exhalation.
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49. d. Codons are three-letter codes of either DNA 7. c. Phosphate has a charge of –3, and cobalt
or mRNA that code for a specific amino (II) has a charge of +2. To balance the
acid that is added during translation. charges, they must be combined in the ratio
50. d. Vegetative reproduction refers to types of Co3(PO4)2.
asexual reproduction where parts of a 8. c. Phospholipids, the major components of
parent plant form new individual plants. cell membranes, are made up of one
Rhizomes are stems that form near a parent molecule of glycerol bonded to two fatty
plant and grow into new individual plants. acids and one phosphate group. Choice a
describes a peptide bond, and choice b
Section 6: Chemistry describes a triglyceride.
1. c. A proton weighs considerably more than 9. b. Choice b is the definition of osmotic
an electron, so one mole of protons weighs pressure. Osmotic potential, mentioned in
more than one mole of electrons. A water choice d, is inversely proportional to
molecule weighs approximately the same osmotic pressure and is the Gibbs free
as 18 protons, and 5 molecules of benzene energy value for the osmosis reaction.
weighs approximately the same as 390 10. d. An aldehyde is a molecule containing a
protons, both considerably less than the carbonyl group (C=O), a hydrogen atom,
6.02 × 1023 protons in a mole. and an alkyl group. The only choice that fits
2. b. Water is a polar molecule, so other polar this definition is choice d.
molecules will be soluble in it but nonpolar 11. a. a decay is a decay process where a helium
molecules will not. Like dissolves like. CCl4 nucleus is released.
is the only choice that is nonpolar. 12. b. Bismuth (III) has an oxidation number of
3. b. There is one mole of H2O in 18.0 g water. +3, and the hydroxide ion has an oxidation
Each mole of water contains two moles of number of –1. Therefore, three hydroxide
hydrogen. ions must bond to each bismuth atom to
4. b. In this reaction, the iron is reduced from Fe form an uncharged compound.
(III) to Fe (0) and the aluminum is oxidized 13. b. When an alkali metal such as sodium reacts
from Al (0) to Al (III). with water, an explosive reaction takes
5. d. Periods are the horizontal rows on the place, and the result is a metal hydroxide
periodic table. Period V is the fifth row and hydrogen gas.
down from the top, which begins with Rb 14. b. When an atom loses electrons, it is said to
(rubidium) and ends with Xe (xenon). N be oxidized; and when an atom gains
(nitrogen) and Nb (niobium) are in groups electrons, it is said to be reduced. In this
VA (15) and VB (5), respectively, which are reaction, Br goes from negatively charged to
the vertical columns on the table. B (boron) neutral, thus losing an electron and being
has an atomic number of 5 but is not in oxidized. Mn goes from a charge of +7 to a
period 5. charge of +2, gaining electrons in the
6. a. Noble gases are the elements in group VIIIA process and becoming reduced.
(group 18) of the periodic table. The noble 15. a. Covalent bonding occurs when two atoms
gases are helium, neon, argon, krypton, share electrons. In ammonia, each hydrogen
xenon, and radon. atom shares an electron with the nitrogen
atom.
327
16. d. Carbonic acid, H2CO3, has a pKa of 6.35. Kb(moles solute)

________________
26. a. Use the equation DT = mass of solvent . This
The other choices are all strong acids. 0.52(256
128 ) 0 . 5 2

17. c. The mass of the empirical compound gives 5.15 ; is approximately 110, and
5.15

256
CH2O = (1C × 12 g) + (2H × 1 g) + = 2, so the answer is 0.2.
128
(1O × 16 g) = 30 g. Since the molar mass 27. c. Because the molar mass of N is greater than
of the compound is 90 g, the multiplier is 1, there are more atoms in 1 mole of N than
90 in 1 gram. There are obviously more atoms
= 3, yielding a molecular formula of
30
C3H6O3. in 1 mole of NO2 than in 1 mole of N, since
18. b. As a general rule, radius increases as you go NO2 has 3 atoms compared with 1 atom in
down and to the left in the periodic table. N. While there are 4 atoms in each molecule
Rb is the farthest down and to the left. of NH3, there are half as many molecules in
19. a. The number of atoms or molecules in one the NH3 as in the NO2 (0.5 mol compared
mole of a substance is 6.02 × 1023. This to 1 mol).
number is known as Avogadro’s number 28. a. Because H2SO4 is a strong acid, it will react
and is derived from the number of carbon-12 with Al. Choice a is the only option that is
atoms in 12.0 grams of carbon. balanced.
20. a. In redox reactions, atoms that lose 29. b. Transition metals are those with partially
reaction Zn(s) Æ Zn2+

electrons are being oxidized. The half filled d orbitals. Iron is the only element of
– the list that fits that criterion.
(aq) + 2e shows that
Zn(s) is losing two electrons in this reaction. 30. b. Use the periodic table to answer this
21. b. The oxidation number of an atom in a question. Elements in group IIA (group 2)
compound is equal to the charge carried by tend to go to a +2 ion.
the ion. In the compound NiO2, the nickel 31. d. Ca has two valence shells, which occur in
ion has a charge of +4. the 4s shell.
22. c. The alkali metals are found in group IA 32. d. If the cell becomes more acidic, this means
(group 1) of the periodic table. They share that more H+ ions are introduced into the
the characteristic of being highly reactive system. This will cause more HPO2– 4 to be
with water. When in contact with water, a consumed as it reacts with this additional
rapid reaction occurs that produces metal H+, regenerating more H2PO2– 4 (the
hydroxide and hydrogen gas. equilibrium shifts to the left). More H+ ions
23. b. b decay results in the conversion of a would not be produced since this would
neutron into a proton and an electron and make the cell even more acidic and would
the expulsion of the electron from the not counteract the change in pH.
nucleus. 33. c. For a given reaction, wA + xB ← → yC + zD,
y
[C] [D] z
_________
24. c. Trans fats are fatty acids with at least one Kc = [A]w[W]x . There are 2 moles of F2
trans C–C double bond. These fats are reacting for every mole of Xe, so be sure to
found in partially hydrogenated oils and square the concentration of F2 in the
have been associated with many negative equilibrium constant.
health effects. 34. a. The oxidation numbers of NO3– and I– are
25. d. Combustion of hydrocarbons produces generally both –1; to make the net charge zero,
CO2 and H2O. the oxidation number for Na must be +1.
328
35. b. Choice b is the only one involving a beta 46. d. Amines are organic molecules with an NR3
particle. (R = alkyl or hydrogen) group.
36. c. It will take one half-life to go from 40 g to 47. a. This problem follows Avogadro’s law, which
20 g; it will take another half-life to go from states that volume is proportional to the
20 g to 10 g. This gives a total of 2.4 × number of moles if temperature and
109 years. pressure are constant.
37. a. Uranium is an actinide. Actinides are 48. c. This is an example of osmosis. If the
elements with partially filled 5f orbitals concentration of solute is unequal on either
(elements 89 to 103). side, the solvent will move toward the
38. a. The number of protons is the atomic higher concentration of solute.
number, or the lower number; the upper 49. b. The molecular formula describes the actual
number is the sum of the protons and atoms of the molecule. The empirical
neutrons. formula reduces the empirical formula to
39. b. A ketone features a carbonyl group (C=O) the simplest ratio of molecules. C4H8O2 is
with two carbons bound to either side of it. reduced to C2H4O.
40. c. The only effect of the addition of a catalyst 50. a. Proteins are macromolecules consisting of
is to increase the rate of reaction. There is amino acids.
no change in the composition.
41. a. Allotropes are two different formats of an
element. Ozone and O2 are two different Scoring
formats for the element oxygen.
42. c. For an ideal gas in a fixed volume, After you take your actual exam, a complicated for-
temperature and pressure are directly mula will be used to convert your raw score on each
proportional. The temperature must be section of the test into a percentile. The raw score is
converted to Kelvin (27°C = 300 K and simply the number you get right on each section;
117°C = 390 K). The temperature is wrong answers don’t count against you. A percentile is
390
increased by ___300 = 1.3, so the new pressure a way of comparing your score with that of other test
must be 1 atm × 1.3 = 1.3 atm. takers; this number indicates what percent of other
4.00 g 4.00 g
43. b. _________
16 g/mol
= 0.25 mol CH4; _________
32 g/mol
test takers scored lower than you did on this section.
= 0.125 mol O2 First, count the number of questions you got
The limiting reactant in this reaction is right in each section, and record them in the blanks:
oxygen.
1__________
mol CO2 Section 1: of 50 questions right
1 mol O2 × 0.125 mol O2 × 44 g/mol CO2 Section 2: of 45 questions right
= 2.75 g CO2 Section 3: of 50 questions right
44. a. Carboxylic acids are organic compounds Section 4: of 50 questions right
characterized by the presence of a carboxyl Section 5: of 50 questions right
group, COOH. The carboxyl group is a Section 6: of 50 questions right
carbon atom with a double-bonded oxygen
atom and a hydroxyl group. Next, convert your raw score into a percentage for
45. a. The electron configuration for Cl is each section of the exam. (Remember that this per-
[Ne] 3s23p5. centage is not the same as a percentile.) By now, your
quantitative ability should be good enough to tell you
329
how to arrive at a percentage, but if you’ve forgotten, is your best bet. If you don’t have time or
refer back to the scoring instructions in Chapter 3. money for a complete course, find a tutor who
Now you can compare your scores on this test will work with you individually. Most colleges
with those on the first practice exam. Chances are, have free or low-cost peer tutorial programs, or
your scores went up. If they didn’t, it’s probably be- you may be able to get help from a professional
cause you took the first practice exam without having teacher for a reasonable hourly fee.
to worry about time, whereas in this exam, you had n For sections on which you scored 50–70%,
some fairly tight time limits to meet. more review and practice is in order. Find a
So if your scores went down between the first tutor, or form a study group with other stu-
practice exam and this one, the problem is not so much dents who are preparing for the exam. Go to
the limits of your knowledge as your ability to work the library or bookstore for other books that
quickly without sacrificing accuracy. In that case, reread review the relevant areas; if those books also
Chapter 2, “LearningExpress Test Preparation System,” for contain practice test questions, all the better.
tips on how to improve your time management during When you’ve done a fair amount of review, go
the exam. Then, practice your time management skills back to the appropriate chapters of this book to
on the sample exam in the next chapter. Before you review the practice questions and strategies.
begin each section, figure out the average amount of n For sections on which you scored 70–80%,
time allotted for each question by dividing the number of you’re on your way to a score that will look good
minutes allowed by the number of questions. Then, as to the admissions department of your chosen
you work through the section, keep yourself moving program, but a little more work wouldn’t hurt.
according to the schedule you’ve worked out. Remember Start by reviewing the appropriate chapters in
to rack up the easy points by answering the easiest ques- this book. If you feel at all shaky about the ma-
tions first, leaving the harder questions for last. terial, use other resources: additional books, a
On the other hand, if your scores went up, you’re friend who’s good at the appropriate subject, a
probably wondering if they went up enough and, if not, study group, or a peer tutor.
what you should do about it. First of all, remember that n For sections on which you scored more than
no one is expected to score 100% on a section, so don’t 80%, you’re in pretty good shape. But you
be too hard on yourself. Here’s what you should do, should keep studying and practicing up to the
based on your percentage scores on this practice exam: day before the test, so you’ll know that you’re as
prepared as possible to score as well as you can.
n For sections on which you scored less than Keep reviewing Chapters 4–9 of this book right
50%, you need some concentrated work in up until test day, and use additional resources
those areas. (If you scored under 50% on all whenever you can.
five sections, you might have to postpone tak-
ing the exam while you work on your skills.) If One of the biggest keys to your success on the
biology and chemistry were your problem ar- exam is your self-confidence. The more comfortable
eas, more work with your textbooks and other you are with your ability to perform, the more likely
materials might be enough, especially if you you are to do well. You know what to expect, you know
weren’t very conscientious about reviewing your strengths and weaknesses, and you can work to
before you took this practice exam. For other turn those weaknesses into strengths before the actual
areas, and for biology and chemistry if you did exam. Your preparedness should give you the confi-
review your textbooks, an extra college course dence that you’ll need to do well on exam day.
330
11
C H A P T E R
PRACTICE EXAM III
CHAPTER SUMMARY
How ready are you? This is the last of the three practice exams
presented in this book. Use this test for extra practice and to
determine the areas in which you should concentrate your at-
tention in the time leading up to exam day.
T his practice test will give you additional preparation and help you focus your study in the final days
before the exam. As with the two earlier practice exams, this multiple-choice test is designed to reflect
the topics and format of the entrance exams used by health training programs. The six test sections
include Verbal Ability, Reading Comprehension, Math, General Science, Biology, and Chemistry. Although this
practice test is general enough to prepare you for any health occupations entrance exam, be sure to investigate the
specifics of the test you will be taking. The more you know, the better prepared you will be.
Before you take this third exam, find a quiet place where you can work undisturbed for four hours. Set a
timer, stopwatch, or alarm clock to time yourself according to the directions in each section. Work as quickly as
you can to meet the time limits, but do not sacrifice accuracy. Stop working when you run out of time even if
you have not answered all of the questions. Allow yourself a five-minute break between each section and a 15-
minute break after Section 3.
Using a number 2 pencil, mark your answers on the answer sheet on the following pages. The answer key
is located on page 372—refer to this only once you have completed the test. A section about how to score your
exam follows the answer key.
331

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
333
Section 3: Math
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d

1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
334
Section 5: Biology
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
1. a b c d 18. a b c d 35. a b c d
2. a b c d 19. a b c d 36. a b c d
3. a b c d 20. a b c d 37. a b c d
4. a b c d 21. a b c d 38. a b c d
5. a b c d 22. a b c d 39. a b c d
6. a b c d 23. a b c d 40. a b c d
7. a b c d 24. a b c d 41. a b c d
8. a b c d 25. a b c d 42. a b c d
9. a b c d 26. a b c d 43. a b c d
10. a b c d 27. a b c d 44. a b c d
11. a b c d 28. a b c d 45. a b c d
12. a b c d 29. a b c d 46. a b c d
13. a b c d 30. a b c d 47. a b c d
14. a b c d 31. a b c d 48. a b c d
15. a b c d 32. a b c d 49. a b c d
16. a b c d 33. a b c d 50. a b c d
17. a b c d 34. a b c d
335
– PRACTICE EXAM III –
Section 1: Verbal Ability 10. a. disaese

b. desease
Find the correctly spelled word in each of the c. disease
following lists.
11. a. inundated
1. a. abscessed b. innundated
b. absessed c. inondatted
c. abscesed
12. a. lazyness
2. a. paralel b. lazeness
b. paralell c. laziness
c. parallel
13. a. practitoners
3. a. accidentelly b. practitioners
b. accidentally c. practishoners
c. accidently
14. a. prosecuted
4. a. tonsillitis b. prossecuted
b. tonsilitis c. prosecutted
c. tonscilitis
15. a. counterfiet
5. a. exeled b. counterfit
b. exceled c. counterfeit
c. excelled
16. a. symmetrically
6. a. guardain b. symetrically
b. guardian c. symmetricully
c. gardain
17. a. dalaying
7. a. accustomed b. delaying
b. acustomed c. deleying
c. acusstomed
18. a. vacuum
8. a. pastureized b. vaccuum
b. pasteurized c. vacum
c. pastuerized
19. a. acomodate
9. a. delirious b. acommodate
b. delerious c. accommodate
c. delireous
337
20. a. coleagues 30. a. gullible

b. collegues b. gullable
c. colleagues c. gullibel
21. a. consceintious 31. a. grattitude

b. conscientious b. gratitude
c. consheentious c. gratitud
22. a. indescribeable 32. a. musicaly

b. indiscribable b. musicly
c. indescribable c. musically
23. a. ilegible 33. a. tragedies

b. illegible b. tragedys
c. ilegable c. tragedis
24. a. penicillen 34. a. bulletine

b. penicillin b. bulletin
c. penicillen c. buletin
25. a. adolescense 35. a. embasy

b. adolessents b. embassie
c. adolescence c. embassy
26. a. preceding 36. a. nevertheles

b. preceeding b. nevertheless
c. preeceding c. neveretheless
27. a. nusance 37. a. questionairre

b. nuisance b. questionnaire
c. nuissance c. questionaire
28. a. peacable 38. a. pungent

b. peaceabel b. pungant
c. peaceable c. pungennt
29. a. luxurient 39. a. hygenic

b. luxouriant b. hyginic
c. luxuriant c. hygienic
338
40. a. ilegal Section 2:

b. illegal Reading Comprehension
c. illegul
41. a. corosiveness the information in the text. You have 45 minutes to
b. corrosiveness complete this section.
c. corrossiveness
One out of five Americans suffers from an
42. a. gymnest allergic disease, which results from the immune
b. gymnist system reacting to a normally innocuous
c. gymnast substance such as pollen or dust. Most of these
people have allergies that affect nasal passages
43. a. useful and sinuses, including allergies to pollen (“hay
b. usful fever”) and allergic reactions in the airways of
c. usefull the lungs that contribute to asthma. Hay fever
alone affects some 22 million Americans, who
44. a. organising in total see their doctors 9.4 million times a
b. organizing year. Asthma afflicts 10 to 15 million Americans.
c. organizeing An allergic response begins with a process
called sensitization. When a foreign substance
45. a. jewelry such as pollen (an allergen) first enters the
b. jewellry body of an allergic person, cells called
c. jewelery macrophages engulf the invader, chop it into
pieces, and display the pieces on their surfaces.
46. a. crazyness T-helper cells recognize certain allergen
b. crazyiness fragments and bind to the macrophages. This
c. craziness process causes the T-helper cells to secrete
signaling molecules, including interleukin-4
47. a. returnabel (IL-4). IL-4, in turn, spurs nearby B cells to
b. returnible mature into plasma cells. Plasma cells produce
c. returnable Y-shaped antibody proteins.
One class of antibodies of great impor-
48. a. chaise tance in allergic diseases and asthma is
b. chaisse immunoglobulin E (IgE). The two arms of IgE
c. chais are tailor-made to specifically attach to the
allergen. The stem of the IgE molecule attaches
49. a. extremely to two classes of immune cells: mast cells,
b. extremeley which concentrate in tissues exposed to the
c. extremly outside world, especially the skin, and the
linings of the nose, lungs, and gastrointestinal
50. a. freindly tract; and basophilic cells, which circulate in
b. friendly the blood.
c. friendlly
339
When the same allergen next enters the 2. Cells that surround pollen within the body are
person’s body, it binds to the arms of the IgE known as
molecules protruding from the surfaces of mast a. T-helper cells.
cells and basophils. The interaction of an b. macrophage cells.
allergen with two IgE molecules triggers c. B cells.
enzymes associated with the cell membrane, d. plasma cells.
such as tyrosine kinases. The enzymes start a
series of biochemical reactions in the cell, 3. The substances that diminish lung capacity
which causes the cell to release chemicals, a. are present during sensitization.
including histamine, from storage pouches b. can alleviate skin inflammation.
called granules in the cell interior. c. can trigger the development of plasma cells.
These chemicals allow fluid to leak from d. are located inside granules.
blood vessels, producing symptoms such as
redness and swelling in nearby tissues. They 4. Which of the following describes the word
also constrict smooth muscles and stimulate concentrate as it is used in the third paragraph
mucus production. In addition, the reactions of the passage?
cause such symptoms as a runny nose, a. mass
sneezing, itching, hives, or abdominal cramps. b. think
In severe cases, anaphylactic shock may occur c. reduce
following the release of some chemicals, like d. deliberate
histamine, which can constrict the lungs’
5. One result of mast cells’ chemical messenger
airways. Also, mast cells secrete chemical
activity is
messengers that recruit other cells from the
a. relief of symptoms such as inflamed tissue.
bloodstream, including T lymphocytes and
b. an allergen connecting to immunoglobulin E.
eosinophils, into the tissues.
c. the development of enzymes such as
In the tissues, some of the recently arrived
tyrosine kinases.
cells release substances that can increase and
d. an increase in the duration of patients’
prolong early symptoms and may injure and
symptoms.
inflame local tissue. Such responses often occur
several hours after the initial encounter with an 6. What occurs the second time an allergen enters
allergen. Collectively, they are called the late- the body?
phase reaction. The cells present in late-phase a. Macrophages cut the allergen into pieces.
reactions are quite similar to those cells found b. Mast cells become connected to the allergen.
in the tissues of patients with chronic allergic c. T-helper cells detect portions of the allergen.
rhinitis and asthma. d. The allergen eliminates tyrosine kinases.
1. Hay fever is an allergy to 7. How many Americans suffer from either hay
a. dust. fever (allergy to pollen) or asthma?
b. hay. a. 32 to 37 million
c. pollen. b. 22 million
d. seeds. c. 10 to 15 million
d. 40 to 80 million
340
By using tiny probes as neural prostheses, to the visual center in the cortex, thereby
scientists may be able to restore nerve function circumventing damaged eyes and optic nerves.
in quadriplegics and make the blind see or the In quadriplegics and paraplegics, probes
deaf hear. Thanks to advanced techniques, a might bridge injured areas of the spinal cord
single, small, implanted probe can stimulate and restore nerve connection to the limbs.
individual neurons electrically or chemically Additionally, people who lack or produce too
and then record responses. Preliminary results little of essential biochemicals or who need drugs
suggest that the microprobe telemetry systems could receive minute doses delivered with
can be permanently implanted and replace pinpoint accuracy through permanently
damaged or missing nerves. implanted probes.
The tissue-compatible microprobes One obstacle to using any electrode as
represent an advance over the typical aluminum a long-term implant has been the lack of
wire electrodes used in studies of the cortex and satisfactory connections to the outside world.
other brain structures. Researchers accumulate Wires are bulky, they break easily, and they must
much data using traditional electrodes, but be tethered to prevent damage to surrounding
there is a question of how much damage they tissue. Even with implantable telemetry systems,
cause to the nervous system. Microprobes, which have their own power supply and can
which are about as thin as a human hair, cause transmit data via radio waves, leads still must
minimal damage and disruption of neurons connect the electrodes to the electronic package
when inserted into the brain. (a system similar to integrated circuits used on
In addition to recording nervous system computer chips). To overcome the connection
impulses, the microprobes have minuscule problem, researchers have developed ultra-
channels that open the way for delivery of drugs, flexible silicon ribbon cables. The cables are
cellular growth factors, neurotransmitters, and significantly more flexible than a commonly
other neuroactive compounds to a single used aluminum wire.
neuron or to groups of neurons. The probes It is easiest to place probes in the brain
can have up to four channels, each with its own cortex, compared to deeper structures. Because
recording/stimulating electrode. the probes are so small, implantation must be
The probes can be left in place for a fairly viewed under the microscope. They can be
long time. In one guinea pig, a probe continued manually inserted using forceps or affixed
to transmit data from the animal’s hearing center to special mounting mechanisms.
for eleven months. The long-term implantability
of the probes makes them promising candidates 8. A major benefit of microprobes is that their
for neural prostheses. Researchers envision the wires are
probes being used to affect the motor center of a. strong.
the brain: for example, to stimulate a hand grasp b. thin.
in patients who have lost motor control. They c. stiff.
might also be used to create a visual prosthesis, d. wide.
connecting an external miniature video camera
341
9. Which of the following is NOT something A government report addressing concerns

with which the author of the passage would about the many implications of genetic testing
likely agree? outlined policy guidelines and legislative
a. Microprobes are safer to use than tradi- recommendations intended to avoid involun-
tional electrodes. tary and ineffective testing and to protect
b. There are not any significant concerns confidentiality.
about attaching probes to the brain. The report identified urgent concerns,
c. Inadequate connections are a major defect such as quality control measures (including
of electrodes. federal oversight for testing laboratories) and
d. The ethics of using probes to cure blind better genetics training for medical practition-
people needs to be explored more. ers. It recommended voluntary screening;
urged couples in high-risk populations to
10. Who would most likely benefit from perma- consider carrier screening; and advised caution
nent implantation of a microprobe telemetry in using and interpreting presymptomatic or
system? predictive tests as certain information could
a. a patient who is overweight easily be misused or misinterpreted.
b. a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis About three in every 100 children are born
c. a patient who is in a drug-induced coma with a severe disorder presumed to be genetic or
d. a patient who is a quadriplegic partially genetic in origin. Genes, often in concert
with environmental factors, are being linked to
11. The initial function of microprobe channels the causes of many common adult diseases such
is to as coronary artery disease, hypertension, various
a. create pathways. cancers, diabetes, and Alzheimer’s disease. Tests
b. disrupt neurons. to determine predisposition to a variety of
c. replace ribbon cables. conditions are under study, and some are
d. study the brain. beginning to be applied.
The report recommended that all
12. The sixth paragraph is chiefly concerned with screening, including screening of newborns,
the problems with be voluntary. Citing results of two different
a. probes. voluntary newborn screening programs, the
b. implants. report said these programs can achieve
c. aluminum. compliance rates equal to or better than those
d. wires. of mandatory programs. State health depart-
ments could eventually mandate the offering
13. Devising acceptable external telemetry links is of tests for diagnosing treatable conditions in
essential to newborns; however, careful pilot studies for
a. the implanting of probes with special tools. conditions diagnosable at birth need to be
b. the administration of drugs with pinpoint done first.
accuracy.
c. improvement in the duration of implants.
d. creation of a usable power supply.
342
Although the report asserted that it would 14. As it is used in the passage, the word
prefer that all screening be voluntary, it did predisposition most nearly means
note that if a state requires newborn screening a. willingness.
for a particular condition, the state should do b. susceptibility.
so only if there is strong evidence that a newborn c. impartiality.
would benefit from effective treatment at the d. composure.
earliest possible age. Newborn screening is the
most common type of genetic screening today. 15. The author stresses the need for caution in the
More than four million newborns are tested use and interpretation of
annually so that effective treatment can be a. predictive tests.
started in a few hundred infants. b. newborn screening.
Prenatal testing can pose the most c. informed consent.
difficult issues. The ability to diagnose genetic d. pilot studies.
disorders in the fetus far exceeds any ability to
treat or cure them. Parents must be fully 16. According to the report, most screenings
informed about risks and benefits of testing should not be
procedures, the nature and variability of the a. optional.
disorders they would disclose, and the options b. insured.
available if test results are positive. Obtaining c. mandatory.
informed consent—a process that would include d. complementary.
educating participants, not just processing
documents—would enhance voluntary 17. One intention of the policy guidelines was to
participation. When offered testing, parents a. implement compulsory testing.
should receive comprehensive counseling, b. minimize concerns about quality control.
which should be nondirective. Relevant medical c. endorse the expansion of screening programs.
advice, however, is recommended for treatable d. preserve privacy in testing.
or preventable conditions.
Genetics also can predict whether certain 18. When discussing prenatal testing in the sixth
diseases might develop later in life. For single- paragraph, the author’s tone could best be
gene diseases, population screening should only described as
be considered for treatable or preventable a. jovial.
conditions of relatively high frequency. b. anxious.
Children should be tested only for disorders c. assured.
for which effective treatments or preventive d. difficult.
measures could be applied early in life.
343
TYPES OF SCREENINGS and its airways but gives no measure of

NAME DETECTS ACCURACY function. Conventional MRI, because it images
water protons, provides poor images of the
First trimester Down syndrome 83%
lungs, which are filled with air, not water.
combined screen Trisomy 18 75%
The new MRI technique detects not water
Second trimester Spina bifida 80% but inert gases whose nuclei have been strongly
quad screen Down syndrome 75% aligned, or hyperpolarized, by laser light. Ini-
Trisomy 18 98% tially this technique seemed to have no practical
application, but exhaustive research has proven
Cell free fetal Down syndrome 99%
its potential. Scientists plan to further refine this
DNA screen Trisomy 18 98%
technology with animal and human studies, in
part because they have yet to produce a viable
19. Which of the following is true based on the 3-D image of human lungs.
above table? By 1995 researchers had produced the
a. Getting screened during the third trimester first 3-D MRI pictures of a living animal’s
will yield the most accurate results. lungs. In the first human test, a member of the
b. The most accurate screening for Down research team inhaled hyperpolarized helium-
syndrome is performed in the first 3. His lungs were then imaged using a standard
trimester. MRI scanner that had been adjusted to detect
c. Spina bifida cannot be tested accurately helium. The results were impressive, consider-
with a prenatal screening. ing that the system had yet to be optimized and
d. The most accurate screening for trisomy 18 there was only a relatively small volume of gas
is performed in the second trimester. with which to work.
When a standard MRI is taken, the patient
Scientists have developed an innovative enters a large magnet. Many of the body’s
procedure that reveals details of tissues and hydrogen atoms (primarily the hydrogen atoms
organs that are difficult to see by conventional in water) align with the magnetic field like tiny
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). By using bar magnets, and the nucleus at the center of
“hyperpolarized” gases, scientists have taken each atom spins constantly about its north-
the first clear MRI pictures of human lungs and south axis. Inside the MRI scanner, a radio
airways. Researchers hope the new technique pulse temporarily knocks the spinning nuclei
will aid the diagnosis and treatment of lung out of position, and as their axes gradually
disorders, and perhaps lead to improved realign within the magnetic field, they emit
visualization of blood flow. faint radio signals. Computers convert these
The air spaces of the lungs have been faint signals into an image.
notoriously difficult for clinicians to visualize. The new gas-based MRI is built around
Chest X-rays can detect tumors or inflamed similar principles. But circularly polarized light,
regions in the lungs but provide poor soft- rather than a magnet, is used to align spinning
tissue contrast and no clear view of air nuclei, and the inert gases helium-3 or xenon-
passages. Computed tomography, a cross 129 (rather than hydrogen) provide the nuclei
sectional X-ray scan, can provide high that emit the image-producing signals. The
resolution images of the walls of the lungs laser light polarizes the gases through a
344
technique known as spin exchange. Helium-3 25. An image lacking in clarity is likely to be the
and xenon-129 are ideal for gas-based MRI result of
because they take hours to lose their polarization. a. a high number of aligned nuclei.
Most other gases readily lose their alignment. b. hydrogen being replaced with xenon.
The clarity of an MRI picture depends in part c. an abbreviated period of alignment.
on the volume of aligned nuclei. d. nuclei regaining their aligned position.
20. The MRI innovation is different from the Once people wore garlic around their necks to
standard MRI in that it ward off disease. Today, most Americans would
a. distinguishes gases rather than water. scoff at the idea of wearing a necklace of garlic
b. uses magnets rather than light. cloves to enhance their well-being. However,
c. has a range of useful applications. you might find a number of Americans willing
d. provides better images of blood circulation. to ingest capsules of pulverized garlic or other
herbal supplements in the name of health.
21. Chest X-rays have the most difficulty Complementary and alternative medicine
photographing (CAM), which includes a range of practices
a. tumors. outside of conventional medicine such as herbs,
b. inflammations. homeopathy, massage, yoga, and acupuncture,
c. lungs. holds increasing appeal for Americans. In fact,
d. air passages. according to one estimate, 42% of Americans
have used alternative therapies. A Harvard
22. Standard MRI scanners detect radio signals Medical School survey found that young adults
emitted (those born between 1965 and 1979) are the
a. before nuclei rotate on an axis. most likely to use alternative treatments,
b. before atoms align with magnets. whereas people born before 1945 are the least
c. after nuclei are aligned by magnetism. likely to use these therapies. Nonetheless, in all
d. after signals are transformed into pictures. age groups, the use of unconventional
healthcare practices has steadily increased since
23. The word that can best be interchanged with the 1950s, and the trend is likely to continue.
hyperpolarization in the passage is CAM has become a big business as
a. visualization. Americans dip into their wallets to pay for
b. alignment. alternative treatments. A 1997 American
c. emission. Medical Association study estimated that the
d. tomography. public spent $21.2 billion for alternative
medicine therapies in that year, more than half
24. Use of which of the following is substituted for of which were “out-of-pocket” expenditures,
use of a magnet in one of the MRI techniques? meaning they were not covered by health
a. light insurance. Indeed, Americans made more out-
b. hydrogen of-pocket expenditures for alternative services
c. helium-3 than they did for out-of-pocket payments for
d. X-rays hospital stays in 1997. In addition, the number
345
of total visits to alternative medicine providers that garlic use in the diet may act as a cancer-
(about 629 million) exceeded the tally of visits fighting agent, particularly for prostate and
to primary care physicians (386 million) in stomach cancer. However, these findings have
that year. not been confirmed in clinical studies. And yes,
However, the public has not abandoned reported side effects include garlic odor.
conventional medicine for alternative healthcare.
Most Americans seek out alternative therapies 26. The author describes wearing garlic as an
as a complement to their conventional healthcare example of
whereas only a small percentage of Americans a. an arcane practice considered odd and
rely primarily on alternative care. Why have so superstitious today.
many patients turned to alternative therapies? b. the ludicrous nature of complementary and
Frustrated by the time constraints of managed alternative medicine.
care and alienated by conventional medicine’s c. a scientifically tested medical practice.
focus on technology, some feel that a holistic d. a socially unacceptable style of jewelry.
approach to healthcare better reflects their
beliefs and values. Others seek therapies that 27. As it is used in the second paragraph, the word
will relieve symptoms associated with chronic conventional most nearly means
disease, symptoms that mainstream medicine a. appropriate.
cannot treat. b. established.
Some alternative therapies have crossed c. formal.
the line into mainstream medicine as scientific d. moralistic.
investigation has confirmed their safety and
efficacy. For example, today physicians may 28. According to the Harvard Medical School
prescribe acupuncture for pain management survey cited in the passage, the people most
or to control the nausea associated with likely to use alternative treatments were
chemotherapy. Most U.S. medical schools a. people born between 1921 and 1946.
teach courses in alternative therapies and b. people born between 1948 and 1960.
many health insurance companies offer some c. people born between 1965 and 1979.
alternative medicine benefits. Yet, despite their d. people born between 1980 and 2007.
gaining acceptance, the majority of alternative
therapies have not been researched in 29. The statistic in the third paragraph comparing
controlled studies. New research efforts aim at total visits to alternative medicine practitioners
testing alternative methods and providing the with those to primary care physicians is used
public with information about which ones are to illustrate the
safe and effective and which ones are a waste of a. popularity of alternative medicine.
money, or possibly dangerous. b. public’s distrust of conventional healthcare.
So what about those who swear by the c. accessibility of alternative medicine.
health benefits of the “smelly rose,” garlic? d. affordability of alternative therapies.
Observational studies that track disease
incidence in different populations suggest
346
30. In paragraph four, complement most nearly search for the molecular mechanisms behind
means bone loss, and they hope these studies will help
a. tribute. develop a prevention strategy to control tissue
b. commendation. loss associated not only with weightlessness but
c. replacement. also with prolonged bed rest.
d. addition. Doctors simulate bone-depleting
microgravity conditions by putting volunteers to
31. CAM may have disadvantages that are bed for long time periods. The bed support of the
a. medical. supine body decreases the load on it significantly,
b. ethical. thus simulating reduced gravity. One study
c. conventional. involves administering either alendronate, a drug
d. financial. that blocks the breakdown of bone, or a placebo,
a look-alike substance without medical effects, to
In space flight, there are the obvious hazards volunteers for two weeks prior to and then
of meteors, debris, and radiation; however, during a three-week bed rest.
astronauts must also deal with two vexing Prior to bed rest, alendronate-treated
physiological foes—muscle atrophy and bone volunteers excreted only about one-third as
loss. Space shuttle astronauts, because they much calcium as did the persons receiving the
spend only about a week in space, undergo placebo. Bed rest increased urinary calcium
minimal wasting of bone and muscle. But when excretion in both groups, but in alendronate-
longer stays in microgravity or zero gravity are treated persons the urinary calcium levels were
contemplated, as in the space station or a two- even lower than those in the placebo group
year round-trip voyage to Mars, these problems before bed rest. Blood levels of parathyroid
are of particular concern because they could hormone and vitamin D, which are involved in
become acute. regulation of bone metabolism, were also
Some studies show that muscle atrophy can significantly elevated in drug recipients.
be kept largely at bay with appropriate exercise, Although these results suggest that
but bone loss caused by reduced gravity cannot. alendronate inhibits bone loss and averts high
Scientists can measure certain flight-related urinary calcium concentrations that can cause
hormonal changes and can obtain animal bone kidney stones, they do not point to the precise
biopsies immediately after flights, but they do not molecular mechanisms at work. Thus, plans are
completely understand how gravity affects the to initiate a more prolonged bed rest project
bones or what happens at the cellular level. over the next several years.
Even pounding the bones or wearing a
suspender-like pressure device does nothing to 32. One factor that has a negative affect on bones
avert loss of calcium from bones. Researchers say in space is
that after a three-month or longer stay in space, a. radiation.
much of the profound bone loss may be b. calcium.
irreversible. Some argue that protracted missions c. microgravity.
should be curtailed. They are conducting a d. hormones.
347
33. Compared to volunteers who received a with glaucoma until they have significant loss
placebo, volunteers who received alendronate of vision.
experienced Laser therapy is a safe and effective alterna-
a. lower levels of parathyroid hormone. tive to eyedrops as a first-line treatment for
b. lower levels of hormonal changes. patients with newly diagnosed primary open-
c. higher levels of vitamin D. angle glaucoma. This finding comes from a
d. higher levels of calcium excretion. follow-up study undertaken to learn if early laser
treatment is safe and whether it offers any
34. Specialized equipment for astronauts in medical advantages over eyedrops for newly
weightless conditions diagnosed open-angle glaucoma. A total of
a. reduces the amount of calcium in their bones. 271 patients were enrolled in the initial study.
b. makes lengthy space flights more feasible. Each patient had laser treatment in one eye and
c. enables scientists to better comprehend medication in the other eye. Over 200 patients
molecular mechanisms. were followed for an average of seven years after
d. has a negligible impact on bone loss. treatment.
Post-study analysis revealed that all
35. The passage suggests that the bone-loss studies measures used to evaluate the two treatments
may yield information that could aid the showed that the “laser-first” eyes and the
treatment of “medication-first” eyes had a similar status
a. kidney stones. on all measures used to evaluate the two
b. muscular atrophy. treatments. Researchers assessed changes in the
c. thyroid disease. patient’s visual field, visual acuity, intraocular
d. urinary infections. pressure, and optic nerve. The results suggested
that initial treatment with laser surgery is at
36. Doctors simulated bone-depleting micro- least as effective as initial treatment with
gravity conditions by eyedrops. However, researchers cautioned that
a. having volunteers work out on treadmills neither treatment method is a “magic bullet”
for an hour. for long-term control of glaucoma. They noted
b. having volunteers stay in bed for three weeks. that two years after the start of treatment, 56%
c. having volunteers run in a marathon. of “laser-first” eyes and 70% of “medication-
d. having volunteers stay in bed for three months. first” eyes needed new or extra medications to
control pressure inside the eye.
About three million Americans have open-angle Researchers noted that both treatments
glaucoma, the most common form of glaucoma caused side effects. However, the side effects of
in the United States. For unknown reasons, laser treatment were temporary or made no
small changes within the eye gradually interfere apparent difference in the long run, whereas the
with the normal flow of fluids that feed tissues side effects of eyedrops were troublesome for
in the front of the eye. If these fluids do not drain some patients for as long as the drops were
properly, the resulting higher pressure inside the used. Eyedrops used for glaucoma treatment
eye can damage the optic nerve and narrow can cause discomfort in the eye, blurry vision,
the field of vision. This change happens so headaches, and fast or slow heartbeat.
slowly that many people are not diagnosed
348
In 34% of “laser-first” eyes, the laser Almost 50% of American teens are not
treatment caused a temporary jump in vigorously active on a regular basis, contributing
intraocular pressure for the first few days after to a trend of sluggishness among Americans of
treatment. Also, some 30% of the “laser-first” all ages, according the U.S. Centers for Disease
eyes developed peripheral anterior synechiae— Control (CDC). Adolescent female students
adhesions that form when the iris sticks to part are particularly inactive—29% are inactive
of the cornea. compared with 15% of male students.
Unfortunately, the sedentary habits of young
37. Over half the patients in the study discussed in “couch potatoes” often continue into adulthood.
the passage required supplemental treatment According to the Surgeon General’s Report on
for Physical Activity and Health, Americans become
a. optic nerve damage. increasingly less active with each year of age.
b. intraocular pressure. Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor,
c. visual field weakness. setting the stage for obesity and associated
d. lack of visual acuity. chronic illnesses like heart disease or diabetes.
The benefits of exercise include building bone,
38. The fourth paragraph is chiefly concerned muscle, and joints, controlling weight, and
with preventing the development of high blood
a. eyedrops. pressure.
b. headaches. Some studies suggest that physical activity
c. research. may have other benefits as well. One CDC
d. side effects. study found that high school students who take
part in team sports or are physically active
39. Greater pressure within the eye results from outside of school are less likely to engage in
a. a disruption of fluid concentration. risky behaviors, like using drugs or smoking.
b. the rapid accumulation of fluids. Physical activity does not need to be strenuous
c. a gradual broadening of the field of vision. to be beneficial. The CDC recommends
d. initial treatment with eyedrops. moderate, daily physical activity for people of
all ages, such as brisk walking for 30 minutes
40. The study concluded that, compared with or 15–20 minutes of more intense exercise.
medication, laser therapy is A survey conducted by the National Association
a. slightly more effective. for Sport and Physical Education questioned
b. significantly more effective. teens about their attitudes toward exercise and
c. just as effective. about what it would take to get them moving.
d. less effective. Teens chose friends (56%) as their most likely
motivators for becoming more active, followed
41. The study was conducted on patients who by parents (18%) and professional athletes
were (11%).
a. in the initial stages of open-angle glaucoma.
b. experiencing a rare form of glaucoma.
c. given eyedrop medication in both eyes.
d. in the late stages of open-angle glaucoma.
349
42. The author defines smoking as behavior that is Section 3: Math

a. deadly.
b. unhygienic. Choose the correct answer for each problem. You
c. risky. have 45 minutes to complete this section.
d. chronic.
1. How many inches are there in 3ᎏ13ᎏ yards?
43. In the first paragraph, sedentary most nearly a. 120
means b. 126
a. slothful. c. 160
b. apathetic. d. 168
c. stationary.
d. stabilized. 2. Lori ran 45 miles over the last three weeks.
Paola ran ᎏ23ᎏ the number of miles that Lori ran
BENEFITS OF EXERCISE— over the same time period. How many miles
REPORTED BY TEENS did Paola run?
PERCENTAGE THAT a. 20 miles
BENEFIT REPORTED BENEFIT
b. 90 miles
Good self-image 53% c. 30 miles
Good mood 40% d. 15 miles
Less stressed 32%

3. A patient started a particular test at 7:15 A . M .
After two hours, he had a break for 15 minutes.
44. Which of the following is true based on the The rest of the test took three hours 10 minutes.
table? What time did the patient finish the test?
a. Exercise is an essential component of a. 12:40 P. M .
self-esteem. b. 9:30 A . M .
b. Exercise is a key tactic for lowering stress. c. 12:30 P. M .
c. Exercise has more dramatic effects on adults d. 11:40 A . M .
than teens.
d. Exercise can have emotional benefits for 4. In a triangle, angle A is 70° and angle B is 30°.
certain teens. What is the measure of angle C?
a. 90°
45. The primary purpose of the passage is to b. 70°
a. refute an argument. c. 80°
b. make a prediction. d. 100°
c. praise an outcome.
d. promote a change. 5. 63 is equal to
a. 36.
b. 1,296.
c. 18.
d. 216.
350
6. Dr. Drake charges $36.00 for an office visit, 11. 6(33 ⫺ 7) ⫹ 50 ⫼ 2 is equal to
which is ᎏ34ᎏ of what Dr. Jean charges. How a. 85.
much does Dr. Jean charge? b. 145.
a. $48.00 c. 31.
b. $27.00 d. 28.
c. $38.00
d. $57.00 12. Order the numbers from least to greatest.
3 5
ᎏᎏ, 0.7, 0.44, ᎏᎏ, 0.35
8 7
7. The nursing assistants give baths to the patients a. ᎏ57ᎏ, 0.35, ᎏ38ᎏ , 0.44, 0.7
every morning at 7:00. Tasha gives Ms. Rogers b. 0.35, ᎏ38ᎏ, 0.44, 0.7, ᎏ57ᎏ
her bath in 20 minutes. Lou gives Mr. Taft his c. 0.35, 0.44, 0.7, ᎏ57ᎏ, ᎏ38ᎏ
bath in 17 minutes, and Marie gives Ms. Johnson d. ᎏ57ᎏ, ᎏ38ᎏ, 0.7, 0.44, 0.35
her bath in 14 minutes. What is the average
time for the three baths? 13. Which of the following is 14% of 232?
a. 20 minutes a. 3.248
b. 17 minutes b. 32.48
c. 14 minutes c. 16.57
d. 12 minutes d. 165.7
8. What percentage of 50 is 12? 14. One side of a square bandage is 4 inches long.
a. 4% What is the perimeter of the bandage?
b. 14% a. 4 inches
c. 24% b. 8 inches
d. 34% c. 12 inches
d. 16 inches
9. A hospital waiting room is 8 feet wide and
10 feet long. What is the area of the waiting 15. 12(9 × 4) is equal to
room? a. 432.
a. 18 square feet b. 72.
b. 40 square feet c. 108.
c. 60 square feet d. 336.
d. 80 square feet
16. 33 is 12% of which of the following numbers?
10. Mr. Beard’s temperature is 98° Fahrenheit. a. 3,960
What is his temperature in degrees Centigrade? b. 396
C = ᎏ59ᎏ(F – 32) c. 275
a. 35.8° d. 2,750
b. 36.7°
c. 37.6°
d. 31.1°
351
17. 945.6 ÷ 24 is equal to 22. What is the value of 195.6 divided by 7.2,
a. 3,940. rounded to the nearest hundredth?
b. 394. a. 271.67
c. 39.4. b. 27.17
d. 3.946. c. 27.16
d. 2.717
18. A medical assistant makes $14.25 an hour. He
receives a 10% raise. What is his hourly pay 23. What is the correct way to write the number
after he receives the raise? 65.19?
a. $1.43 a. sixty-five and nine tenths
b. $16.25 b. sixty-five and nineteen thousandths
c. $17.10 c. sixty-five and nineteen hundredths
d. $15.68 d. sixty-five and nine hundredths
5
19. The radius of a circle is 13. What is the 24. ᎏ8ᎏ ÷ 3 is equal to
approximate area of the circle? a. 5
ᎏᎏ.
24
a. 81.64 3
b. 1,666.27 b. ᎏᎏ.
8
c. 530.66 c. 1ᎏ78ᎏ.
d. 169 d. 3
ᎏᎏ.
24
7
20. ᎏᎏ
8 – ᎏ35ᎏ is equal to 25. On the cardiac ward, there are seven nursing
11
a. ᎏᎏ.
40 assistants. Emily has eight patients; Luis has
b. 1ᎏ13ᎏ. five patients; Keisha has nine patients; Ray has
1
ten patients; Dawn has ten patients; James
c. ᎏ10ᎏ.
has 14 patients, and Sheela has seven patients.
d. 1ᎏ1490ᎏ. What is the average number of patients per
nursing assistant?
21. All the rooms on the orthopedic ward are a. 7
rectangular with 8-foot ceilings. One room is b. 8
9 feet wide by 11 feet long. What is the c. 9
combined area of the four walls, including d. 10
doors and windows?
a. 99 square feet 26. (25 + 17)(64 – 49) is equal to
b. 160 square feet a. 57.
c. 320 square feet b. 630.
d. 72 square feet c. 570.
d. 63.
352
27. What percentage of 18,000 is 234? 34. The floor of an operating room has a length of
a. 1,300% 11 yards and a width of 9 yards. The flooring
b. 130% for the room costs $12.25 per square yard.
c. 13% How much does the flooring of the operating
d. 1.3% room cost?
a. $140.25
28. How many minutes are in 7ᎏ16ᎏ hours? b. $1,212.75
a. 430 minutes c. $490.00
b. 2,580 minutes d. $1,245.25
c. 4,300 minutes
d. 258 minutes 35. 703 × 365 is equal to
a. 67,595.
29. 72.687 + 145.29 is equal to b. 255,695.
a. 87.216. c. 256,595.
b. 217.977. d. 263,595.
c. 217.877.
d. 882.16. 36. 4ᎏ15ᎏ + 1ᎏ25ᎏ + 3ᎏ130ᎏ is equal to
a. 9ᎏ110ᎏ.
30. 12(84 – 5) – (3 × 54) is equal to b. 8ᎏ190ᎏ.
a. 54,000.
b. 841. c. 8ᎏ45ᎏ.
c. 796. d. 8ᎏ165ᎏ.
d. 786.
37. A store puts its pens on sale by 25%. Kathy
31. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is buys a pen with a sale price of $22.50. What
22.5 centimeters. What is the length of one was the amount of her discount?
side of the triangle? a. $7.50
a. 11.25 centimeters b. $5.50
b. 7.5 centimeters c. $37.50
c. 7 centimeters d. $30.00
d. 9 centimeters
38. 76ᎏ12ᎏ + 11ᎏ56ᎏ is equal to
32. 6.35 × 5 is equal to a. 87ᎏ12ᎏ.
a. 31.75. b. 88ᎏ13ᎏ.
b. 30.75.
c. 3.175. c. 88ᎏ56ᎏ.
d. 317.5. d. 89ᎏ16ᎏ.
33. 2,273 × 4 is equal to

a. 9,092.
b. 8,982.
c. 8,892.
d. 8,882.
353
39. Juan makes a special window for the waiting 45. A piece of gauze 3 feet 4 inches long was divided
room of a clinic. The window has a width of into 5 equal parts. How long was each part?
4 feet 3 inches and a length of 3 feet 5 inches. a. 1 foot 2 inches
Juan needs to put trim around the window. b. 10 inches
How much trim does he need? c. 8 inches
a. 8 feet 6 inches d. 6 inches
b. 13 feet 3 inches
c. 6 feet 10 inches 46. What is 0.716 rounded to the nearest tenth?
d. 15 feet 4 inches a. 0.7
b. 0.8
40. 30 ÷ 2ᎏ12ᎏ is equal to c. 0.72
a. ᎏ115ᎏ. d. 1.0
b. 12.
c. 15. 47. Which of these has a 9 in the thousandths place?
d. 75. a. 3.0095
b. 3.0905
41. 172 × 0.56 is equal to c. 3.9005
a. 9.632. d. 3.0059
b. 96.32.
c. 963.2. 48. Out of 100 shoppers polled, 80 said they buy
d. 0.9632. fresh fruit every week. How many shoppers out
of 30,000 could be expected to buy fresh fruit
42. 7,400 ÷ 74 is equal to every week?
a. 1. a. 2,400
b. 10. b. 6,000
c. 100. c. 22,000
d. 1,000. d. 24,000
43. (–ᎏ130ᎏ) ÷ (–ᎏ15ᎏ) is equal to 49. Which of the following means 5n + 7 = 17?
a. 1ᎏ12ᎏ. a. seven more than five times a number is 17.
b. –ᎏ23ᎏ. b. five more than seven times a number is 17.
c. seven less than five times a number is 17.
c. –ᎏ530ᎏ. d. 12 times a number is 17.
3
d. ᎏᎏ.
50
50. What is the value of y when x = 3 and y = 5 +
44. 35% of what number is equal to 14? 4x?
a. 4 a. 6
b. 40 b. 9
c. 49 c. 12
d. 400 d. 17
354
Section 4: General Science 7. Most of the rock at Earth’s surface is

a. sedimentary.
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 b. metamorphic.
minutes to complete this section. c. igneous.
d. bedrock.
1. Earth’s core is
a. divided into two parts. 8. Which of the following is the metric (SI) unit
b. also called the mantle. for mass?
c. largely composed of lead. a. newton
d. located 400 miles beneath the surface. b. ounce
c. pound
2. When did Earth form? d. gram
a. 4.6 billion years ago
b. 3.5 billion years ago 9. The four planets known as the gas giants are
c. 4.6 hundred million years ago Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and
d. 3.5 hundred million years ago a. Mars.
b. Uranus.
3. The lithosphere is c. Pluto.
a. relatively buoyant and deep in the Earth. d. Venus.
b. relatively buoyant and on the Earth’s
surface. 10. What kind of rock is obsidian?
c. relatively dense and deep in the Earth. a. sedimentary
d. relatively dense and on the Earth’s surface. b. igneous
c. metamorphic
4. Most weather phenomena occur in the d. mantle
a. lithosphere.
b. troposphere. 11. In which century did the world see the biggest
c. thermosphere. increase in its population?
d. stratosphere. a. thirteenth
b. twentieth
5. Which of the following is the primary driving c. nineteenth
force behind ocean tides? d. seventeenth
a. the Moon
b. the Sun 12. How long does it take the global atmosphere
c. wind to circulate?
d. Coriolis effect a. one day
b. one year
6. Earth’s mantle c. one decade
a. is between the crust and the core. d. one century
b. is under the core and the crust.
c. is heavier than the core.
d. contains both crust and core.
355
13. What ultimately drives the circulation of the 18. Today, we have classified about 310,000 species
atmosphere and ocean? of vascular plants. Which of these groups has
a. biosphere an even larger number of species already
b. the Sun described?
c. volcanism a. insects
d. lithosphere b. fungi
c. viruses
14. Which of the following correctly places the d. mollusks
four layers of Earth’s atmosphere in order
beginning at the surface of Earth and 19. A tropical entomologist wants to know how
increasing in altitude toward space? many species of insects still remain to be
a. stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere, discovered, especially in the tropical rain forests.
mesosphere The entomologist observes that 100 species of
b. troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, insects are specialized to just the canopy of a
thermosphere particular species of tropical tree. Half the
c. thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, species of insects that are specialized to this
troposphere tree species live in the canopy, and half live
d. mesosphere, troposphere, thermosphere, underground in and around the roots of that
stratosphere species. How many total species of insects
are specialized to that species of tree?
15. The timescale for the entire ocean to mix is about a. 50
a. one year. b. 100
b. one decade. c. 200
c. one thousand years. d. 400
d. one hundred thousand years.
20. Which biome has the thickest soils that are
16. Why do oceans have waves, but small ponds hugely abundant in organic matter, because
do not? decomposition is so slow?
a. Ponds do not have enough depth for waves a. tropical rain forests
to develop. b. tundra
b. The surface area of a pond is not large c. tropical dry forests
enough for wind to create waves. d. chaparral
c. Oceans experience much greater, steadier
wind duration than ponds. 21. In which biome are the solar collecting organs
d. Wind velocities are much greater over the of the net primary producers particularly
open ocean than small ponds. tough with the chemical called lignin?
a. tundra
17. Soil is thickest, generally, where b. tropical dry forest
a. vegetation is densest. c. deciduous forest
b. climate is coldest. d. boreal forest
c. vegetation is hardiest.
d. climate is wettest.
356
22. Which of the following is true in biological 27. What is an invasive species?
classification? a. a nonnative species that is introduced from
a. Family is equal to genus. elsewhere and spreads
b. A genus has many families. b. a native species that suddenly booms in
c. Genus is equal to species. population, threatening the other native
d. A genus has many species. species
c. an endemic species that suddenly booms in
23. Uranus and Neptune are composed mainly of population, threatening the native species
a. rocks. d. an endemic species that is introduced from
b. metals. elsewhere and spreads
c. various ices.
d. hydrogen. 28. The loudness of a sound wave depends on its
a. pitch.
24. High-temperature magma behaves much like b. amplitude.
a. running water. c. frequency.
b. rubber. d. wavelength.
c. thick oil.
d. a sponge. 29. The functional role that bacteria play in the
recycling of elements in the ocean is the
25. The special type of cell division that creates sex equivalent to the role played on land by
cells with half the number of chromosomes a. leaf litter.
(and thus genes) from an individual male or b. worms.
female in a sexual species is called c. root nodules.
a. mitosis. d. soil bacteria.
b. symbiosis.
c. parthenogenesis. 30. Dolly the sheep was involved in what scientific
d. meiosis. achievement?
a. the first genetically modified animal
26. The Northern spotted owl is protected because b. the first animal-to-human organ transplant
it requires the old growth forests of the Pacific c. the first cloned mammal
northwest. It therefore is an example of a(n) d. the first animal-human hybrid
a. umbrella species.
b. invasive species. 31. The limit to a population of a species in a
c. keystone species. community, determined by environmental
d. extinct species. conditions or species interactions, is called the
a. ultimate yield.
b. maximum sustainable yield.
c. carrying capacity.
d. deadlock number.
357
32. A steady influx of nutrients makes which of 37. The main supply of phosphorus to the ocean
these regions of the ocean among the most (and thus to marine life in the ocean) is as
productive fishing grounds? phosphate ions, via
a. hydrothermal vents a. wind.
b. transition zones b. undersea volcanoes.
c. upwelling zones c. rain.
d. deep layers d. rivers.
33. In the carbon cycle, photosynthesis removes 38. From most to least, in terms of mass, the four
carbon (in the form of CO2) from the most abundant elements in the human body are
atmosphere, while which process returns a. H, C, Fe, P.
it back to the atmosphere? b. H, C, P, Fe.
a. burial c. C, H, P, Fe.
b. respiration d. C, P, Fe, H.
c. dissolution
d. sequestration 39. Which is NOT a macronutrient?
a. copper
34. Two gases that contain carbon and are released b. magnesium
by bacteria are c. nitrogen
a. sulfuric acid and methane. d. sulfur
b. carbon dioxide and methane.
c. sulfuric acid and water. 40. During the hunting and gathering stage of
d. water and carbon dioxide. human history, prior to agriculture, the global
population was about
35. Bacteria that live in nodules attached to the a. 10 thousand.
roots of certain plants perform the chemical b. 10 billion.
transformation called c. 100 thousand.
a. denitrification. d. 10 million.
b. ammoniafication.
c. nitrification. 41. Although coal is a relatively abundant energy
d. nitrogen fixation. resource, many environmentalists oppose the
construction of new coal power plants because
36. Negative population growth in some countries these plants release which of the following into
is due to the atmosphere?
a. sub-replacement fertility rates. a. ammonia, sucrose, calcium carbonate
b. overpopulation. b. carbon dioxide, volatile organic com-
c. high fertility rates. pounds, radiation
d. medical technology. c. sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen
oxide
d. radon, lead, asbestos
358
42. Toxicology is the study of 47. Methane in Earth’s atmosphere, like CO2, is a
a. viruses. greenhouse gas. A greenhouse gas
b. transportation. a. absorbs shortwave radiation and is
c. poisons. transparent to long-wave radiation.
d. cancers. b. absorbs shortwave radiation and reflects
long-wave radiation.
43. The remaining land that can be converted to c. absorbs long-wave radiation and is
agriculture might not be as good as the land transparent to shortwave radiation.
already employed for agriculture, because d. absorbs long-wave radiation and reflects
a. erosion from irrigation has already taken shortwave radiation.
a toll.
b. its soils are less rich. 48. One would expect acid rainfall to be worst
c. it is closer to the poles. downwind of a
d. it would be reclaimed from former urbanized a. coal power plant.
land. b. nuclear power plant.
c. wind farm.
44. The urbanized area of the world is d. wastewater treatment plant.
a. about 1%.
b. shrinking as people move to dense cities. 49. Nitrates and sulfates in Earth’s atmosphere
c. about equal to the tundra biome. create
d. about 10%. a. polar melting.
b. acid rain.
45. What is removed from water in the process of c. a greenhouse effect.
desalination? d. equilibrium clouds.
a. salt
b. lead 50. Which of the following is the term for a
c. electrolytes mathematical system that attempts to
d. pollution simulate a natural phenomenon?
a. calculation
46. The burning of a fossil fuel does not create b. variable
a. greenhouse gases. c. statistic
b. stratospheric ozone. d. model
c. carbon dioxide.
d. acid rain.
359
Section 5: Biology 6. Carbohydrates are much better foods for quick

energy than fats because they
There are 50 questions in this section. You have 45 a. are digested more easily and absorbed more
minutes to complete this section. quickly.
b. supply essential amino acids, which provide
1. Which of the following vitamins prevents energy.
scurvy, aids in the production of collagen, and c. are high in both protein and iron.
may boost the immune system? d. carry oxygen to the blood.
a. vitamin K
b. vitamin C 7. Which of the following systems contains
c. vitamin A sebaceous glands?
d. vitamin D a. integumentary system
b. digestive system
2. Which of the following is a viral disease? c. circulatory system
a. botulism d. respiratory system
b. syphilis
c. tuberculosis 8. The process that yields four gametes, each
d. polio containing half the chromosome number of
the parent cell, is
3. Which of the following actions is controlled by a. morphogenesis.
smooth muscles? b. mitosis.
a. running c. metamorphosis.
b. heart beat d. meiosis.
c. peristalsis
d. movement of bones and joints 9. What are the two kinds of chambers of the
heart, and how are they different from one
4. The resting potential of a neuron is another?
a. –70 mV. a. A superior vena cava pumps blood to areas
b. +70 mV. above the heart, and an inferior vena cava
c. –50 mV. pumps blood to the lower body.
d. 0 mV. b. A superior vena cava pumps blood to the
lower body, and an inferior vena cava
5. An important function of a plant’s root system pumps blood to areas above the heart.
is to c. An atrium pumps blood away from the
a. produce glucose through photosysnthesis. heart, and a ventricle receives blood coming
b. break down organic compounds. from the heart.
c. release carbon dioxide. d. An atrium receives blood coming into the
d. absorb minerals and water from the soil. heart, and a ventricle pumps blood away
from the heart.
360
10. An aneurysm is best described as a 16. Which of the following parts of the brain
a. weak spot that swells in a main artery. controls breathing rates?
b. coronary heart attack. a. the medulla oblongata
c. buildup of fatty deposits. b. the cerebellum
d. calcium deposit in the wall of an artery. c. the thalamus
d. the temporal lobe
11. Which of the following groups of organisms
produce flowers? 17. For the DNA segment 5'-AAT-GAC-TGG-3',
a. angiosperms what mRNA segment will be generated by
b. mosses transcription?
c. gymnosperms a. 5'-TTA-CTG-ACC-3'
d. fungi b. 5'-UUA-CUG-ACC-3'
c. 5'-CCA-GUC-AUU-3'
12. Which of the following is NOT an effect of the d. 5'-CCA-GTC-ATT-3'
hormone adrenaline?
a. enhancement of the effects of sympathetic 18. In what organelle does most protein synthesis
nerves occur?
b. decrease in blood sugar a. the nucleus
c. increase in the heartbeat rate b. the ribosome
d. inhibition of movement of smooth muscles c. the cytoplasm
in the stomach and intestines d. the lysosome
13. Which organ is made up of nephrons? 19. Which of the following best defines an antigen?
a. heart a. a chemical that prevents blood clotting
b. kidney b. a chemical extracted from a living microbe
c. liver c. an antibody that attaches itself to a toxin
d. pancreas and makes the toxin harmless
d. a substance that stimulates the production
14. Which of the following structures is present in of antibodies
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
a. nucleus 20. Cell membranes generally have which of the
b. chloroplast following structures?
c. chromosome a. phospholipid bilayer
d. mitochondrion b. amino acid monolayer
c. aminopeptide bilayer
15. All of the following bones are found in a d. phosphopeptide monolayer
human leg EXCEPT the
a. fibula. 21. Which of the following is a vertebrate?
b. ulna. a. a sponge
c. patella. b. a starfish
d. femur. c. an octopus
d. a snake
361
22. In genetics, what kind of diagram indicates all 27. Which organ is affected by meningitis?
of the possible genotypes in the F2 generation a. brain
of a Mendelian cross? b. liver
a. Punnett square c. lungs
b. flow chart d. spleen
c. periodic table
d. test square 28. Which of the following causes a seed’s first
stem to grow upward?
23. Which of the following is the function of a a. gravitropism
ligament? b. phototropsim
a. to connect bones together c. hydrotropism
b. to connect muscles together d. thermotropism
c. to attach muscle to bone
d. to serve as a cushion between vertebrae 29. A group of individuals that belong to the same
species and inhabit a particular geographic
24. Which of the following plants lacks a vascular area is called
system? a. a community.
a. a moss b. an ecosystem.
b. a fern c. a population.
c. a fir tree d. a kingdom.
d. a peanut plant
30. Which of the following types of substances is
25. An energy-rich molecule found in cells is lipase?
a. adrenaline. a. vitamin
b. adenosine triphosphate. b. lipid
c. acetylcholine. c. enzyme
d. amino acids. d. steroid
26. In humans, wet earwax (W) is dominant to 31. What molecule is the terminal source of
dry earwax (w). What is the chance that two electrons during photosynthesis?
heterozygous parents (Ww) will have an a. H2O
offspring that has the homozygous b. O2
dominant genotype (WW)? c. CO2
a. 0% d. C6H12O6
b. 25%
c. 50% 32. The transition between the G1 and S phases
d. 100% of the cell cycle that prevents abnormal cells
from dividing is called the
a. interphase boundary.
b. mitotic boundary.
c. resting phase.
d. restriction point.
362
33. An osteocyte is a 39. In messenger RNA, a codon contains how

a. muscle cell. many nucleotides?
b. blood cell. a. one
c. nerve cell. b. two
d. bone cell. c. three
d. four
34. Bat wings and bird wings are an example of
a. homologous structures. 40. Which of the following is another word for the
b. vestigial structures. digits in the hands and feet of vertebrates?
c. analogous structures. a. carpals
d. divergent structures. b. tarsals
c. phalanges
35. In the scientific name for the emperor penguin, d. metacarpals
Aptenodytes forsteri, the word Aptenodytes
indicates the 41. During protein synthesis, the process of
a. phylum. synthesizing RNA from DNA is known as
b. genus. a. translation.
c. species. b. transcription.
d. order. c. elongation.
d. initiation.
36. Which category of living things creates the
energy that all organisms need to survive? 42. What are the blood vessels that carry blood
a. consumers toward the heart?
b. producers a. arteries
c. decomposers b. veins
d. herbivores c. capillaries
d. arterioles
37. The human appendix and the coccyx are
examples of 43. A human embryo will be female if the
a. homologous structures. a. mother’s egg contributes an X chromosome.
b. vestigial structures. b. mother’s egg contributes a Y chromosome.
c. analogous structures. c. father’s sperm contributes an X chromosome.
d. convergent structures. d. father’s sperm contributes a Y chromosome.
38. A chemical signal emitted by one animal to 44. What is the term for the skeleton of soft-
stimulate a specific response in another animal bodied animals such as mollusks and annelid
of the same species is called worms?
a. a hormone. a. internal skeleton
b. a pheromone. b. hydrostatic skeleton
c. an antigen. c. exoskeleton
d. a receptor. d. external skeleton
363
45. In warm-blooded animals, shivering is an Section 6: Chemistry

aspect of
a. thermoregulation. There are 50 questions in this section. Use the periodic
b. freezing. table on page 365 when necessary to help you answer
c. osmoregulation. the questions. You have 45 minutes to complete this
d. hibernation. section.
46. Which of the following is the region between 1. Give the number of protons, neutrons, and
two nerve cells across which electronic electrons of this isotope of oxygen: 178O
impulses are transmitted? a. 8 protons, 8 neutrons, 17 electrons
a. neuron b. 8 protons, 8 neutrons, 9 electrons
b. myelin sheath c. 8 protons, 9 neutrons, 8 electrons
c. synapse d. 8 protons, 17 neutrons, 8 electrons
d. axon
2. What are the spectator ions in the following
47. When egg cells are produced and grow in an
Ca(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KCl (aq) Æ CaCl2 (sol) +
equation?
animal ovary, the process is called
a. oogenesis. 2KNO3 (aq)
b. oocyte. a. Ca2+ (aq), 2NO3– (aq), 2K+(aq), 2Cl–(aq)
c. oogonia. b. Ca2+ (aq), 2NO3– (aq)
d. ova. c. Ca2+ (aq), 2K+ (aq), 2Cl– (aq)
d. 2NO3– (aq), 2K+ (aq)
48. A genetic disorder caused by a mutation on the
X chromosome 3. What are the products of the following
a. will affect only men. equation? sodium chloride (aq) + lead(II)
b. will affect only women. nitrate (aq) Æ
c. is more likely to affect men. a. sodium nitrate + lead(II) chloride
d. is more likely to affect women. b. sodium + chloride
c. sodium + chloride + lead(II) + nitrate
49. In humans, the ossicles, utricle, and cochlea are
d. sodium(II) nitrate + lead chloride
all part of which organ?
a. the stomach 4. What is the net ionic equation of the following
b. the heart
Ca(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KCl (aq) Æ CaCl2 (sol) +
transformations?
c. the ear
d. the brain
a. 2NO3– (aq) + 2K+ (aq) Æ 2KNO3 (aq)
2KNO3 (aq)
b. Ca2+ (aq) + 2Cl– (aq) Æ CaCl2 (sol)

50. An embryo first develops three germ layers
(endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm) during
(aq) Æ CaCl2 (sol) + 2K+ (aq) + 2NO3– (aq)
c. Ca2+ (aq) + 2NO3– (aq) + 2K+ (aq) + 2Cl–
which stage of development?
a. cleavage
(aq) Æ Ca2+ (aq)+2Cl– (aq)+2K+
d. Ca2+ (aq) +2NO3– (aq) + 2K+ (aq)+2Cl–
b. gastrulation
c. fertilization
(aq)+2NO3– (aq)
d. organogenesis
364
1 18
IA VIIIA
1 2
H 2 13 14 15 16 17 He
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.941 9.012182 10.811 12.0107 14.00674 15.9994 18.9984032 20.1797
11 12 9 13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
39.0983 40.078 44.955910 47.867 50.9415 51.9961 54.938049 55.845 58.933200 58.6934 63.546 65.39 69.723 72.61 74.92160 78.96 79.904 83.80
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
85.4678 87.62 88.90585 91.224 92.90638 95.94 (98) 101.07 102.90550 106.42 107.8682 112.411 114.818 118.710 121.760 127.60 126.90447 131.29
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
132.90545 137.327 138.9055 178.49 180.9479 183.84 186.207 190.23 192.217 195.078 196.96655 200.59 204.3833 207.2 208.98038 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
(223) (226) (227) (265) (268) (271) (270) (277) (276) (281) (280) (285) (286) (289) (289) (293) (294) (294)
* Lanthanide 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
140.116 140.90765 144.24 (145) 150.36 151.964 157.25 158.92534 162.50 164.93032 167.26 168.93421 173.04 174.967
** Actinide 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

232.0381 231.03588 238.0289 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (262)
5. Complete the following precipitation reaction 7. Identify the oxidizing agent and the reducing
knowing that nitrate ions remain in solution: agent in the following reaction:
Hg2(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) Æ ____ + ____ 8H+ (aq) + 6Cl– (aq) + Sn (s) + 4NO3– (aq) Æ
a. Hg2I2 (s) + 2K+ (aq) + 2(NO3)– (aq) SnCl2–
6 (aq) + 4NO2 (g) + 4H2O (l)
b. Hg2I2 (s) + 2KNO3 (s) a. oxidizing agent: 8H+(aq), reducing agent:
c. Hg22+ (aq) + 2(NO3)– (aq) + 2K+ (aq) + Sn (s)
2(NO3)– (aq) b. oxidizing agent: 4NO3–(aq), reducing agent:
d. Hg2I2 (aq) + 2K+ (aq) + 2(NO3)– (aq) Sn (s) (g)
c. oxidizing agent: 4NO3–(aq), reducing agent:
6. What is the product when an acid and a base 4NO2 (g)
are combined? d. oxidizing agent: 4NO3–(aq), reducing agent:
a. water and a salt 8H+(aq)
b. hydrogen and a salt
c. an oxidant and a reductant 8. Which two atoms would form a covalent bond?
d. no reaction occurs a. sodium and chloride
b. iron and oxygen
c. nitrogen and oxygen
d. magnesium and sulfur
365
9. Classify the following reaction as combination, 13. Which reactant is oxidized and which is
decomposition, or single or double displace- reduced in the following reacton?
ment reaction: C2H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) Æ 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
Cr(NO3)3 (aq) + Al (s) Æ Al(NO3)3 (aq) + Cr (s) a. oxidized: C2H4 (g), reduced: 3O2 (g)
a. decomposition b. oxidized: C2H4 (g), reduced: 2H2O (g)
b. combination c. oxidized: C2H4 (g), reduced: 2CO2 (g)
c. double displacement d. oxidized: 2CO2 (g), reduced: C2H4 (g)
d. single displacement
14. Which one of the following compounds is a
10. Classify the following reaction as combination, nonelectrolyte when dissolved in water?
decomposition, or single or double displace- a. KOH
ment reaction: b. NH3
PF3 (g) + F2 (g) Æ PF5 (g) c. NaBr
a. combination d. CaCl2
b. decomposition
c. simple displacement 15. Which of the following solutions will have the
d. double displacement highest electrical conductivity?
a. 0.1M AlCl3
11. Balance the following equation: b. 0.15M SrBr2
Ba(OH)2 (aq) + HNO3 (aq) Æ Ba(NO3)2 (aq) c. 0.2M NaBr
+ H2O(l) d. 0.25M Mg(NO3)2
a. Ba(OH)2 (aq) + 2HNO3 (aq) Æ Ba(NO3)2
(aq) + 2H2O (l) 16. A precipitate will form when an aqueous
b. Ba(OH)2 (aq) + 2HNO3 (aq) Æ Ba(NO3)2 solution of Ba(NO3)2 is added to an aqueous
(aq) + 4H2O (l) solution of Na2SO4. How many moles of
c. Ba(OH)2 (aq) + 2HNO3 (aq) Æ Ba(NO3)2 sodium sulfate are required to produce
(aq) + H2O (l) 10.0 g of the precipitate?
d. Ba(OH)2 (aq) + HNO3 (aq) Æ Ba(NO3)2 a. 1 mole
(aq) + H2O (l) b. 10.0 mole
c. 0.04 mole
12. The chemical formula for the polyatomic ion d. 0.4 mole
nitrite is
a. N2O–. 17. A 1.0 L sample of gas with a pressure of
b. NO2–. 2.0 atm is placed in an expandable container at
c. NO2–. 25°C. If the temperature remains constant, to
what volume does the container need to be
d. NO3–.
expanded for the pressure to be lowered to
1.8 atm?
a. 0.9 L
b. 1.1 L
c. 1.8 L
d. 3.6 L
366
18. When vinegar (acetic acid, CH3COOH) is 23. A chemical reaction has an enthalpy change
combined with baking soda (sodium bicarbon- of –285 kJ. Which of the following can be
ate, NaHCO3), a gas is released. What is the determined from this?
identity of the gas? a. The reaction is exothermic.
a. O2 b. The reaction is endothermic.
b. H2 c. The reaction involved oxidation.
c. CO2 d. The reaction involved reduction.
d. CO
24. What is the concentration of ions when
19. What ions form NaCl? 47.6 g magnesium chloride is dissolved in
a. Na and Cl 2 L water?
b. Na+ and Cl+ a. 0.250
c. Na+ and Cl– b. 0.500
d. Na– and Cl+ c. 0.750
d. 1.50
20. The density of acetic acid is 1.05 g/mL. What is
the volume of 275 g of acetic acid?
25. Find all the enantiomeric pairs (i.e., mirror
a. 275 mL
image) among the following sets of stereoiso-
b. ⬃262 mL
mers (a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h) on page 368.
c. ⬃100 mL
a. a, b, c, e, h
d. 22.4 L
b. b, c, d, h
c. a, c, f
21. The correct formula for converting Fahrenheit
d. d, e, g
to Centigrade is given by: °C = ᎏ59ᎏ(°F – 32).
Convert 72°F into temperature in Centigrade.
26. Find all the diastereomeric pairs among the
a. 72°C
sets of stereoisomers shown on page 368.
b. 40°C
a. b, d, g
c. 25°C
b. b, d
d. 22.2°C
c. g
22. Which of the following compounds is held d. h
together by ionic bonds?
a. CaCl2
b. CCl4
c. SiO4
d. H2O
367
a. b.
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH HO H
H OH HO H HO H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
c. d.
CH2 OH CH2OH CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH Br H
H OH HO H Br H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
e. f.
CH3 CH3
CH3 Br
H OH H OH
(R) (R)
HO H HO H Br H 3C
Cl H H Cl
CH3 CH3
g. h.
H H H CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 H
(R) (R) (R) (S)
(S) (R) (R) (S)
H H 3C H 3C H
CH3 H H CH3
27. Choose the correct answer (correct number of 28. Express 0.05620 in exponential notation.
significant figures) for the following calcula- a. 0.057 × 10–3
tion: 3.33 × 10–5 + 8.13 × 10–7 b. 57 × 10–3
a. 3.41 × 10–5 c. 563 × 10–4
b. 11.46 × 10–7 d. 5.620 × 10–2
c. 11.46 × 10–5
d. 11.46 × 10–12
368
29. Which pairs of stereoisomers represent 31. What volume of a 0.5 M solution of NaOH is
diastereomers? required to fully neutralize a 100 mL solution
a. of 1 M H2SO4?
CH3 CH3
a. 50 mL
HO H H OH
b. 100 mL
HO H HO H
c. 200 mL
CH3 CH3 d. 400 mL
b.
CHO CHO
32. How many significant figures are there in the
(R) (S)
H OH HO H value 0.00250?
(R) (S)
H OH HO H a. 2
CH2OH CH2OH b. 3
c. 5
c.
CH3 CH3 d. 6
H OH H OH
HO H H OH 33. Identify the following as an oxidation, a

CH3 CH3 reduction, a decomposition, or a dismutation
reaction.
d.
Cl2 + 2e– Æ 2Cl–
H H H H
a. a reduction
b. an oxidation
H CH3
c. a decomposition
H CH3 H H d. a dismutation
CH3 CH3 34. What is the [OH–] of a solution that has a pH

a. a, b of 3?
b. a, c a. 1 × 10–3
c. a, d b. 1 × 10–4
d. a c. 1 × 10–6
d. 1 × 10–11
30. Which of the following describes a Bronsted
base?
a. a proton donor
b. a proton acceptor
c. an electron donor
d. an electron acceptor
369
35. When linoleic acid, an unsaturated fatty acid, 39. Elements in the same period of the periodic
reacts with hydrogen, it forms a saturated table have the same number of
C18H32O2 + 2H2 Æ C18H36O2

fatty acid. a. protons.
b. neutrons.
How many moles of hydrogen H2 are c. electron shells.
required to hydrogenate 5.0 g of d. valence electrons.
unsaturated linoleic acid?
a. 1 mol 40. Which of the following is the formula for the
b. 10 mol simplest alkene?
c. 0.20 mol a. CH4
d. 0.36 mol b. C2H4
c. C2H2
36. Valence electrons are those in the outermost d. CH3OH
shell of an atom. Indicate the number of
valence electrons for Sc (Scandium). 41. When a chemical reaction occurs between two
a. 1 atoms, their valence electrons are reorganized
b. 2 so that an attractive force, called a chemical
c. 4 bond, occurs between atoms. Name the type
d. 3 of bond that is formed when electrons are
transferred from one atom to another.
37. Based on its position in the periodic table, a. molecular bond
which element is most likely to be a b. covalent bond
semiconductor? c. ionic bond
a. potassium d. transfer bond
b. chromium
c. oxygen 42. When CO2 is processed by plants during
d. germanium photosynthesis, what happens to the
carbon?
38. In an atom, how many orbitals have a principal a. It is oxidized.
quantum number, n, of 2? b. It is reduced.
a. one c. It undergoes a-decay.
b. two d. It is expelled as waste.
c. three
d. four
370
43. What is the equilibrium constant (Ka) for the 47. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?
dissociation of the weak acid H2CO3 (carbonic a. NH3
acid)? H2CO3(aq) ←Æ H+ + HCO– b. H2O
(aq) 3(aq)
[H +][HCO–]
____________
3 c. PCl3
a. Ka = [H2CO3]
d. N2
[H +][H CO ]
____________
2 3
b. Ka = [HCO3–]
48. Write the Lewis electron dot structures for
[H2CO3]
____________
c. Ka = [H+][HCO3–] kitchen salt (NaCl).
a. Na:Cl:
d. Ka = [H+][HCO3–]
b. Na:Cl
c. :Na:Cl:
44. Methane (CH4) has four hydrogen atoms
d. Na-Cl
bonded to a carbon atom. Based on the VSEPR
model, what shape is a methane molecule? 49. In a storage area where the temperature has
a. tetrahedral reached 55° C, the pressure of oxygen gas in
b. trigonal pyramidal a 15.0 L steel cylinder is 965 torr. To what
c. trigonal planar temperature would the gas have to be cooled
d. linear to reduce the pressure to 850 torr?
a. 40° C
45. Give the number of valence electrons for b. 30° C
boron (B). c. 15° C
a. 5 d. 50° C
b. 3
c. 2 50. What is the volume of 64.0 g of oxygen gas
d. 13 (O2) at the standard temperature and
pressure (STP) conditions?
46. What is the maximum number of electrons a. 4 L
that can be described by a principal quantum b. 2 L
number of 3 and an orbital quantum number c. 22.4 L
of 2? d. 44.8 L
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
371
Answers 40. b. illegal

41. b. corrosiveness
Section 1: Verbal Ability 42. c. gymnast
1. a. abscessed 43. a. useful
2. c. parallel 44. b. organizing
3. b. accidentally 45. a. jewelry
4. a. tonsillitis 46. c. craziness
5. c. excelled 47. c. returnable
6. b. guardian 48. a. chaise
7. a. accustomed 49. a. extremely
8. b. pasteurized 50. b. friendly
9. a. delirious
10. c. disease Section 2: Reading Comprehension
11. a. inundated 1. c. The answer to this question is in the first
12. c. laziness paragraph of the passage, which defines
13. b. practitioners allergies to pollen as hay fever.
14. a. prosecuted 2. b. See the second paragraph: Cells called
15. c. counterfeit macrophages engulf the invader (i.e.,
16. a. symmetrically pollen).
17. b. delaying 3. d. The fourth paragraph states that histamines
18. a. vacuum (chemicals) are stored in and released from
19. c. accommodate granules. The fifth paragraph says that
20. c. colleagues histamines can constrict the lungs’ airways.
21. b. conscientious 4. a. Each answer choice is a synonym for
22. c. indescribable concentrate, but only mass explains how the
23. b. illegible word is used in the context of the third
24. b. penicillin paragraph, which explains how cells
25. c. adolescence mass together in tissues.
26. a. preceding 5. d. The fifth paragraph says that mast cells
27. b. nuisance secrete chemical messengers that recruit other
28. c. peaceable cells into the tissues. As a result (according
29. c. luxuriant to the sixth paragraph), some of the recently
30. a. gullible arrived cells release substances that can
31. b. gratitude increase and prolong early symptoms.
32. c. musically 6. b. See the fourth paragraph, which states,
33. a. tragedies When the same allergen next enters the
34. b. bulletin person’s body, it binds to the arms of the IgE
35. c. embassy molecules protruding from the surfaces of
36. b. nevertheless mast cells and basophils. Macrophages cut
37. b. questionnaire the allergen the first time it enters the body.
38. a. pungent The same is true for T-helper cells detecting
39. c. hygienic fragments of the allergen.
372
7. a. The first paragraph gives the facts that hay 16. c. The answer to this question can be found in
fever affects 22 million Americans and the fourth paragraph. The paragraph begins
asthma affects 10 to 15 million, so in tandem, with the statement The report recommended
the two conditions affect 32 to 37 million that all screening, including screening of
people. newborns, be voluntary and states that they
8. b. Unlike traditional electrodes, which have should only be mandatory in the case of
relatively wide and stiff wires of aluminum, diagnosing treatable conditions in newborns.
the silicon wires of microprobes are as thin 17. d. The first paragraph says that the report
as a human hair, which helps them to cause addressed concerns to protect confidentiality.
minimal damage and disruption of neurons 18. c. Although the paragraph discusses the
when inserted into the brain, according to potentially anxiety-inducing topic of the
the second paragraph of the passage. difficulties of prenatal testing and the
9. d. The author only writes of probes in positive importance of performing them, the tone
terms, and even uses the word thanks to does not alter significantly. The sixth
imply gratitude for the use of probes in paragraph is as professional and assured as
repairing nerve damage in the first the rest of the passage.
paragraph. Therefore, it is most likely that 19. d. According to the table, the first trimester
the author would not think there are ethical combined screen for trisomy 18 are not as
issues with using probes to cure anyone. accurate as the second trimester quad
10. d. According to the first paragraph, the tiny screens are. Choice a is incorrect because
probes may restore nerve function in the third trimester is not mentioned in the
quadriplegics. table at all.
11. a. The first sentence of the third paragraph 20. a. According to the first sentence of the third
says that microprobes have channels that paragraph, the new MRI detects not water
open the way for delivery of drugs. but inert gases.
12. d. The sixth paragraph is mainly about how 21. d. The answer to this question can be found in
bulky wires cause problems when using the second paragraph, which states that
electrodes in surgical procedures. chest X-rays can detect tumors or inflamed
13. c. See the sixth paragraph, in which it is regions in the lungs but provide poor soft-
understood that long-term implantation tissue contrast and no clear view of air
has to rely on satisfactory connections to the passages.
outside world. 22. c. See the fifth paragraph: Radio signals knock
14. b. Susceptible means being liable to be affected nuclei out of position, but as they are
by something. According to the third realigned, they transmit faint radio signals.
paragraph, some patients are genetically 23. b. The first sentence of the third paragraph
predisposed, or susceptible, to some diseases. states the equivalency: Nuclei are aligned,
15. a. The last sentence of the second paragraph or hyperpolarized.
indicates that the report advised caution in 24. a. The last paragraph says that light, rather
using . . . predictive tests. than a magnet, is used to align nuclei,
suggesting that the two serve equivalent
purposes in the two MRI processes.
373
25. c. See the last sentence of the passage. Since 36. b. The last sentence of the fourth paragraph
lesser gases lose their alignment more quickly, states that volunteers took a three-week bed
a shorter period of alignment would lead to rest.
poorer clarity. A higher number of aligned 37. b. The last sentence of the third paragraph
nuclei would theoretically lead to a better states that 56% of “laser-first” and 70% of
image. “medication-first” patients (over half)
26. a. The author contrasts the public’s dismissal needed new or extra medications to control
of the arcane practice of wearing garlic with pressure inside the eye.
its increasing acceptance of herbal remedies. 38. d. The fourth paragraph is chiefly about the
27. b. In this context, conventional refers to the side effects of both laser surgery and
established system of Western medicine medication such as eyedrops.
or biomedicine. 39. a. See the second and third sentences of the
28. c. The second paragraph states that the survey first paragraph.
found those born between 1965 and 1979 40. c. The third sentence of the third paragraph
most likely to use alternative treatments. states that initial treatment with laser surgery
29. a. The statistic illustrates the popularity of is at least as effective as initial treatment
alternative therapies without giving any with eyedrops.
specific information as to why. 41. a. The second paragraph says that the patients
30. d. The author states that Americans are not were newly diagnosed.
replacing conventional healthcare but are 42. c. In the second paragraph, the author states
adding to or supplementing it with alterna- that exercise can help teens to avoid risky
tive care. behaviors and uses smoking as an example
31. d. According to the third paragraph of the of such behavior.
passage, nearly half of CAM expenses had to 43. c. One meaning of sedentary is settled; another
be paid out of pocket because they were not meaning is doing or requiring much sitting.
covered by medical insurance. Therefore, Stationary, defined as fixed in a course or
it is reasonable to infer that CAM has mode, is closest in meaning.
financial disadvantages. 44. d. The chart shows that roughly half of the
32. c. The answer to this question can be found in teens surveyed enjoyed emotional benefits
the first paragraph of the passage. The from exercising. This is not a very dramatic
paragraph suggests that longer stays in percentage, but it does support choice d as
microgravity can have an acute effect on the best answer. Choices a and b imply
bone loss. emotional benefits more dramatic than this
33. c. According to the fifth paragraph, levels of survey indicates, so they are not the best
vitamin D were elevated in drug recipients. answers.
34. d. The third paragraph states that a pressure 45. d. The passage promotes change in teenagers’
device does nothing to avert loss of calcium. exercise habits by emphasizing the benefits
35. a. The last paragraph states that high urinary of exercise, the moderate amount of exercise
calcium concentrations can cause kidney needed to achieve benefits, and some factors
stones. Treatment that inhibits urinary that may encourage teenagers to exercise.
discharge of calcium, such as use of
alendronate, could therefore help in the
treatment of kidney stones.
374
Section 3: Math 13. b. Convert the percentage to a decimal:

1. a. To solve this problem, you must first 232 × 0.14 = 32.48.
convert yards to inches. There are 36 inches 14. d. The perimeter is the total length of all sides.
in a yard. 36 × 3ᎏ13ᎏ = 120. In a square, all four sides are of equal length,
2. c. Multiply ᎏ32ᎏ by1545 and cancel common factors: so the perimeter is 4 + 4 + 4 + 4, or 16.
2 45 2 45 = 30. Paola ran 30 miles.
ᎏᎏ × ᎏᎏ = –3 × ––
3 1
15. a. Perform the operation in parentheses first:
1 1
3. a. The test starts at 7:15 A . M . Two hours later 9 × 4 = 36; 36 × 12 = 432.
12 33
is 9:15 A . M . Add 15 minutes to get a time of 16. c. The proportion is ᎏ 0 = ᎏxᎏ, or 100 × 33 =
10ᎏ
9:30 A.M. Three hours later is 12:30 P.M. Add 12x; 3,300 ÷12 = 275; therefore, x = 275.
10 more minutes to get a time of 12:40 P.M., 17. c. It is important to keep the decimal values
which is the time the patient finished the test. aligned. Divide as usual, and then bring the
4. c. The sum of the measure of the angles in a decimal point straight up into the answer in
triangle is 180°; 70° + 30° = 100°; 180° – order to get 39.4.
100° = 80°. Therefore, angle C measures 80°. 18. d. 10% of $14.25 is 0.10 × 14.25 = $1.43. Then
5. d. 63 is equal to 6 × 6 × 6, or 216. add $14.25 and $1.43 to get $15.68 as the
6. a. The ratio of Drake’s charge to Jean’s charge new hourly wage.
is 3 to 4, or ᎏ34ᎏ. To find what Jean charges, 19. c. The formula for finding the area of a circle
you must use the proportion ᎏ34ᎏ = ᎏ3x6ᎏ, or 3x = is A = pr2. First, square the radius: 13 × 13
4 × 36; 4 × 36 = 144, which is then divided = 169. Then, multiply by the approximate
by 3 to arrive at x = 48. value of p, 3.14, to get 530.66.
7. b. To find the average time for the three baths, 20. a. In order to subtract fractions, you must first
you must add the times for all the baths and find the least common denominator, in this
divide by the number of baths: 20 + 17 + 14 case, 40. The problem is then ᎏ3450ᎏ – ᎏ2440ᎏ, or ᎏ1410ᎏ.
= 51; 51 ÷ 3 = 17. 21. c. Each 9-foot wall has an area of 9 × 8 or
8. c. A percentage is a portion of 100, or ᎏ x 72 square feet. There are two such walls, so
10ᎏ 0 . The
proportion here is ᎏ x 12 those two walls combined have an area of
10ᎏ0 = ᎏ50ᎏ, or 12 × 100 =
50x. Divide both sides by 50 to get x = 24%. 72 × 2 or 144 square feet. Each 11-foot
9. d. The area is the width times the length—in wall has an area of 11 × 8 or 88 square feet,
this case, 10 × 8, or 80 square feet. and again, there are two such walls: 88 × 2
10. b. Use the formula beginning with the operation = 176. Finally, add 144 and 176 to get
in parentheses: 98 – 32 = 66. After that, multiply 320 square feet.
66 by ᎏ59ᎏ, first multiplying 66 by 5 to get 330; 22. b. 195.6 ÷ 7.2 yields a repeating decimal,
330 divded by 9 is 36.6苶, which is rounded up 27.1666666 . . . , which rounded up to the
to 36.7. nearest hundredth is 27.17.
11. b. Simplify the parentheses first: 6(33 – 7) + 23. c. 65.19 is read as sixty-five and nineteen
50 ⫼ 2 = 6(27 – 7) + 50 ⫼ 2 = 6(20) + 50 hundredths. Choice a is 65.9. Choice b
⫼ 2. Then do the multiplication or division is 65.019. Choice d is 65.09.
from left to right: 6(20) + 50 ⫼ 2 = 120 + 25. 24. a. The first step is to convert 3 to a fraction,
Then add or subtract: 120 + 125 = 145. which is ᎏ31ᎏ. Divide by inverting the second
12. b. First, convert the fractions to decimals: fraction, making it ᎏ13ᎏ, and multiplying:
5 1 5
3 5
ᎏᎏ = 0.375 and ᎏᎏ = 0.72. Then the order from ᎏ8ᎏ × ᎏ3ᎏ = ᎏ24ᎏ.
8 7
least to greatest is: 0.35, ᎏ38ᎏ, 0.44, 0.7, ᎏ57ᎏ.
375
25. c. To find the average, first find the total 37. a. $22.50 is 75% of the original price. To find x,
number of patients: 8 + 5 + 9 + 10 + 10 + solve the equation 22.50 = 0.75x. Divide
14 + 7 = 63. Then, divide the number of both sides by 0.75. The original price is $30.
patients by the number of nursing The amount of the discount is $30 – $22.50
assistants: 63 ÷ 7 = 9. = $7.50.
26. b. Perform the operations within the parenthe- 38. b. The correct answer is 88ᎏ13ᎏ. To work the
ses first: 25 + 17 = 42; 64 – 49 = 15; 42 × 15 problem, you must first convert ᎏ12ᎏ to ᎏ36ᎏ.
= 630. 39. d. Find the perimeter of the window: 4 feet
x
27. d. A percentage is a portion of 100, or ᎏ 100 .
ᎏ 3 inches ⫹ 4 feet 3 inches ⫹ 3 feet 5 inches ⫹
x 234
The equation here is 100 = 18,000 , or 234 ×
ᎏ ᎏ ᎏ ᎏ 3 feet 5 inches = 14 feet 16 inches = 15 feet
100 = 18,000x; 23,400 ÷ 18,000 = 1.3. 4 inches. Juan needs 15 feet 4 inches of trim.
28. a. There are 60 minutes in an hour. Multiply 40. b. To do division with mixed numbers, you
60 × 7ᎏ16ᎏ by multiplying 60 × 7 = 420 and must first rewrite the mixed numbers as
1 5
60 × ᎏ16ᎏ = 10. Then add 420 + 10 to get improper fractions: 30 ÷ 2 _2 = 30 ÷ _2 .
430 minutes. Then, in order to perform the division, use
29. b. Think of 145.29 as 145.290, and then line the reciprocal of the second fraction and
up the decimal points and add the numbers turn the problem into multiplication:
5 2 60
to get the correct answer, 217.977. 30 ÷ _2 = 30 × _5 = __ 5 = 12.
30. d. Perform the operations in parentheses first, 41. b. The correct answer has only two decimal
left to right: 84 – 5 = 79. Now, multiply places: 96.32.
12(79) = 948. Next, do the other parentheti- 42. c. The number 74 goes into 7,400 one
cal operation: 3 × 54 = 162. Now, do the hundred times.
final operation: 948 – 162 = 786. 43. a. Remember that two negatives multiplied
31. b. The sides of an equilateral triangle are yield a positive. Invert the second fraction
of equal length. Divide 22.5 by 3 to get and multiply: –ᎏ130ᎏ × (–5) = ᎏ32ᎏ = 1ᎏ12ᎏ.
the length of each side: 22.5 ⫼ 3 = 44. b. To find the answer, divide 14 by 0.35 to get
7.5 centimeters. 40.
32. a. The correct answer is 31.75. Not lining up 45. c. Three feet 4 inches equals 40 inches;
the decimal points when multiplying is the 40 divided by 5 is 8.
most common error in this type of problem. 46. a. Choice b is rounded up instead of down;
33. a. This is a simple multiplication problem. choice c is rounded to the nearest hundredth;
The correct answer is 9,092. choice d is rounded to the nearest whole
34. b. The area of the operating room is 11 × 9 number.
= 99 square yards. The cost of the flooring is 47. a. In choice b, the 9 is in the hundredths place;
99 × 12.25 = $1,212.75. in choice c, it is in the tenths place; and in
35. c. The correct answer is 256,595. When choice d, it is in the ten thousandths place.
multiplying three-digit numbers, be careful 48. d. Eighty out of 100 is 80%. Eighty percent of
in computation and in aligning numbers. 30,000 is 24,000.
36. b. The correct answer is 8ᎏ190ᎏ. Incorrect answers 49. a. The expression 5n means 5 times n. The
could result from adding both the numerator addition sign before the 7 indicates the phrase
and the denominator or not converting fifths more than.
to tenths properly. 50. d. Substitute 3 for x in the expression 5 + 4x to
determine that y = 17.
376
Section 4: General Science 13. b. The energy of the Sun that falls upon the
1. a. Earth’s core is divided into two parts: the land and ocean creates difference in
solid inner core and the liquid outer core. temperature, which drives the circulation of
2. a. It was 4.6 billion years ago, which we know atmosphere and ocean.
from radioactive dating of meteorites, 14. b. The troposphere is the atmospheric layer
which all come in about that age. where weather occurs. Next is the strato-
3. b. The lithosphere has a low density and sphere, where temperature actually increases
“floats” on the more dense layers of with altitude because energy from the Sun
Earth that are below. is absorbed by ozone here. Next is the
4. b. The troposphere is the lowest portion of mesosphere, where temperatures drop. Last is
Earth’s atmosphere, and it is where most the thermosphere, where the air is very thin.
weather phenomena take place. The word 15. c. The mixing time for the entire world’s
comes from the Greek tropos, meaning oceans is about one thousand years.
“turning or mixing,” since the troposphere’s 16. b. Although depth, surface area, wind
structure and behavior are caused by mixing. duration, and wind velocity all influence
5. a. The gravitational pull of the Moon is the wave generation and behavior, it is the
primary force creating ocean tides. The limited surface area, or “fetch,” of ponds that
Sun’s gravitational force also influences keeps waves from forming. Even sustained
tides, but because of the great distance hurricane-force winds would create no more
between Earth and the Sun, it influences than ripples on a small pond because the
tides with about half the force as the Moon. wind does not have a large enough surface
6. a. The mantle is the thick zone beneath Earth’s area over which to generate waves.
crust but not as deep as the inner core. 17. b. Temperature is the main determinant of
7. a. Most of Earth’s surface is sedimentary rock, bacterial activity in the soil, which decomposes
or rock formed from the breakdown of organic matter. Where it is cold, bacterial
other rocks. activity is low, and that explains the famously
8. d. The metric (SI) unit for mass is the gram. thick soils of the arctic tundra, often called
The newton is the unit for weight, which is peat. Moisture comes into play as well, but
the force exerted on an object by gravity. temperature is influence number one.
While in common language weight and 18. a. Insects are the most species-rich type of
mass are interchangeable, they are not the creature on Earth. Most of the estimated
same in scientific terms. millions of species yet to be discovered
9. b. Uranus is the fourth planet known as a gas and classified are insects.
giant—a large planet not composed primarily 19. c. If 100 species live in the canopy, and those
of rock or solid matter. are only half of the total that are specialized
10. b. Obsidian is igneous rock, formed from lava for that species of tree (because the other half
that has cooled rapidly. live underground in and around the roots),
11. b. The twentieth century had the world’s largest then twice the number from the canopy must
population increase. This was due to medical be the total for the tree. Twice 100 is 200.
advances and agricultural technology. 20. b. Paradoxically, though tundra has a low
12. b. In about one year, the entire atmosphere amount of plants because of the cold, lack
mixes, even between the northern and of sunlight, and short growing season, it has
southern hemispheres. a huge amount of organic matter in its soil.
377
21. d. Boreal forests, with their evergreens of fir 31. c. The carrying capacity is the limit asked for
and pine, sport tough needles with lots of in the question. Words with “yield” usually
lignin to give them strength to endure the refer to the human harvesting of creatures,
winds and freezing of winter in the very such as fish.
high latitudes. 32. c. Areas of upwelling bring cool, nutrient-rich
22. d. A genus consists of many species (usually, waters from ocean depths to the surface,
in rare cases, a genus might only have one allowing for plankton blooms, which in turn
living species, but would have had more in attract large fish. By weight, over 50% of
the past). A family consists of many genera. ocean fish are fed by upwelling zones, making
23. c. Uranus and Neptune are mostly composed these regions productive grounds for fishing.
of ammonia, water, and methane frozen into 33. b. When organisms use respiration to convert
ices, and are often referred to as “ice giants.” carbon-based sugars into energy, they
24. c. Magma is a high-temperature fluid release CO2 back into the atmosphere. The
substance, and it behaves like thick oil. other processes listed all take carbon out of
25. d. Meiosis is the process in which parent sex the atmosphere and lock it into the land
cells from males and females create four or oceans.
gametes (eggs or sperm in the case of 34. b. Bacteria (different kinds) make the gases
animals) with half the genes and chromo- carbon dioxide and methane as wastes
somes of the parents. from their metabolisms.
26. a. Preserving the owl means preserving the old 35. d. Bacteria in root nodules are nitrogen fixers.
growth forests and thereby all other species 36. a. Negative population growth in some
that require the old growth forests. Preserving countries is due to sub-replacement fertility
the owl acts like an umbrella for many other rates (less than 2.1 children per woman in
species, protecting them all from extinction developed countries).
as a group. 37. d. Rivers carry the most phosphorus to the
27. a. A nonnative species introduced from sea. There is some phosphorus in the dust
elsewhere and that spreads is called an carried by wind, which is less than the
invasive species (also called an introduced phosphorus in rivers. Regardless, the
or alien species). Endemic means extremely phosphorus in dust is not in the dissolved
native (occurring nowhere else), so c makes ion form, which was asked for.
no sense. Choice b is not the definition of an 38. c. Although you wouldn’t be expected to
invasive species, and choice d makes no memorize numbers, it should be noted that
sense, since an endemic species cannot, by carbon is the most abundant and iron is a
definition, be introduced from elsewhere. micronutrient. In between these two,
28. b. The loudness of a sound wave depends on hydrogen is in all organic molecules, while
its amplitude, or height of its wave crests. phosphorus has specialized uses in cells.
The pitch depends on its frequency. Therefore, it is logical that carbon is first,
29. d. Both in the ocean and in the soil, bacteria followed by hydrogen, then phosphorus,
recycle nutrients from their organic forms then iron.
into their inorganic forms. 39. a. Copper is needed by cells in only trace
30. c. In 1996, Dolly became the first mammal to amounts; it is therefore not a macronutrient
be cloned using a process called nuclear but a micronutrient.
transfer.
378
40. d. Estimates place the preagricultural popula- 49. b. Acid rain forms when nitrates and sulfates
tion at about ten million. The other answers in clouds fall to Earth as nitric and sulfuric
are either definitely too little or too big. acids in rainwater.
41. c. Old coal-fired power plants release many 50. d. A model is a complex mathematical or
pollutants into the atmosphere; the most conceptual system that tries to explain a
dominant of these are sulfur dioxide, carbon natural phenomenon. The other choices
monoxide, and nitrogen oxide. Efforts are can all be part of a model but are too
taken to “scrub” or remove some of these simple to be models on their own.
harmful byproducts before they are released
into the atmosphere. “Clean coal” technology Section 5: Biology
is expensive and impractical economically on 1. b. Vitamin K is important in the clotting of
a large scale. Not a single "clean coal" plant blood, vitamin A is important in vision,
has yet opened in the United States. and vitamin D is important in the
42. c. Toxicology is the study of poisons and the formation of bone.
adverse effects of chemicals on living 2. d. Polio, or poliomyelitis, is a viral disease.
organisms. It comes from the Greek Botulism, syphilis, and tuberculosis are
toxicos, which means “poisonous.” all bacterial diseases.
43. b. Land already used for agriculture tends to be 3. c. The other actions are controlled by skeletal
prime land that was formerly grasslands and muscles (choices a and d) or cardiac muscles
prairies in Europe, the United States, Russia, (choice b).
and China. Remaining land still convertible 4. a. The resting potential of a neuron is –70 milli-
to agriculture includes land in the Amazon volts (mV).
with thin soils and land in Africa with 5. d. Glucose production (glycolysis) is done
workable but still less than ideal soils. primarily in the leaf chloroplasts, breakdown
44. a. The urbanized land use is about 1% of the of organic compounds is primarily done in
world’s land. the mitochondria, and roots do not release
45. a. Desalination is the process of removing salt carbon dioxide.
from water. It is done to convert saltwater 6. a. Carbohydrates are digested more easily and
into freshwater that is suitable for human use. absorbed more quickly than fats. Choice b
46. b. The burning creates all those items except is incorrect because amino acids are the
stratospheric ozone. Natural processes high building blocks of proteins. Choices c and
in Earth’s atmosphere create that kind of d are not true of carbohydrates.
ozone. 7. a. Sebaceous glands, or oil glands, are glands
47. c. Solar radiation is primarily shortwave in the skin that secrete oil to lubricate the skin
radiation, which greenhouse gases are and to kill bacteria on the skin. The sebaceous
transparent to. Greenhouse gases do absorb glands are part of the integumentary system.
long-wave radiation, so the concentration of 8. d. Meiosis results in four reproductive cells,
these gases is very important in determining each with half the number of chromosomes
how much energy the atmosphere absorbs. found in the parent cell. This is often
48. a. A major source of acid rain is the sulfur confused with mitosis, the result of which
dioxide produced by the combustion of is two daughter cells with the same number
fossil fuels for energy, the main source of of chromosomes as the parent cell.
which are coal power plants.
379
9. d. Choices a and b are incorrect because the 19. d. Antigens are chemicals recognized as foreign
superior and inferior vena cava are not by the immune system. Viruses and bacteria
chambers of the heart. Choice c is incorrect are typically antigenic because of their
because the functions of the atrium and structure.
ventricle are reversed. 20. a. Cell membranes are generally composed of
10. a. A weak spot in a main artery, such as the phospholipids—molecules arranged in two
aorta, causes an aneurysm, or swelling. layers with the phosphate ends pointing in
11. a. Gymnosperms produce pine cones with toward the cell’s center in one layer and to
seeds, not flowers; mosses are not vascular the outside environment in the other layer;
plants and do not produce flowers; fungi the lipid ends of the molecules are sand-
are not plants and produce spores from wiched in the middle of the membrane.
fruiting bodies, not flowers. 21. d. The snake is the only vertebrate—that is, it
12. b. Adrenaline causes an increase in blood sugar is the only one of the four animals that has
by releasing stored carbohydrates. Choice d a backbone.
is incorrect because adrenaline does inhibit 22. a. The Punnett square is a grid that represents
these muscles, even though it stimulates all of the possible genotypic combinations
muscles in the spleen, hair follicles, and eyes. in the F2 generation produced by a male
13. b. Nephrons are processing units that filter (gametes listed horizontally) and a female
blood and form urine. Each kidney contains (gametes listed vertically).
over one million nephrons. 23. a. Ligaments are the dense parallel bundles of
14. c Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells collagen fibers that hold bones together at a
contain chromosomes, which make up joint.
the genetic material of an organism. 24. a. Mosses are bryophytes, which are character-
Prokaryotic cells do not contain any ized by their lack of a vascular system.
membrane-bound organelles, so they do 25. b. Adrenaline is a hormone, acetylcholine is a
not have any of the other choices, while neurotransmitter, and amino acids are the
eukaryotic cells can have all of them. building block molecules of proteins.
15. b. The ulna is a bone in the lower arm. 26. b. Each heterozygous parent will provide one
16. a. The medulla oblongata controls many dominant (W) and one recessive allele (w),
involuntary responses including heart so there is a 25% chance that they will have
and breathing rates. a homozygous dominant offspring, a 25%
17. c. DNA is transcribed to mRNA by pairing chance for a homozygous recessive
AÆU, TÆA, GÆC, and CÆG. The 5' end offspring, and a 50% chance for a
of DNA aligns with the 3' end of RNA, so heterozygous offspring.
the mRNA sequence is the complement of 27. a. The meninges are connective tissue
the DNA sequence when it is read from 3' membranes in the brain. Meningitis is
to 5'. a bacterial or viral disease that involves
18. b. The ribosome is the site of protein synthesis inflammation of the meninges.
within the cell. The nucleus houses the 28. a. Gravitropism refers to a growth response
genetic material; the cytoplasm is the fluid based on gravity, which causes a seed’s first
inside the cell membrane, and the lysosome root to grow downward and its first stem
manages waste. to grow upward.
380
29. c. Choice a is incorrect because a community 38. b. Pheromones are chemical signals that may be
includes the protists, plants, and animals released either in a secretion or as an odor.
living in a particular area. Choice b is 39. c. A codon is a triplet of nucleotides that,
incorrect because an ecosystem includes all during protein synthesis, usually represents
the organisms in a particular area plus the a genetic code for an amino acid.
abiotic factors with which they interact. 40. c. Vertebrate digits are also referred to as
Choice d is incorrect because a kingdom is a phalanges.
much broader classification than a species. 41. b. Protein synthesis involves two stages:
30. c. Enzymes are substances that act as catalysts transcription and translation. Transcription
for chemical reactions. The enzyme lipase involves synthesizing RNA from DNA. This
acts as a catalyst in the reactions that break is followed by translation, which is where
down lipid molecules. proteins are synthesized from the RNA.
31. a. Photosynthesis oxidizes water into O2 and 42. b. Veins carry blood in the direction of the heart.
protons (with electrons released during the 43. c. In humans, an embryo’s sex is always
reaction). These electrons and protons are determined by the sperm. The egg always
ultimately used to reduce CO2 into more contributes an X chromosome, while the
complex molecules. sperm contributes either an X (for a female)
32. d. Abnormal cells are stopped from dividing at or a Y (for a male).
the restriction point between the G1 and S 44. b. The hydrostatic skeleton works by muscles
phases of the cell cycle. A cell must have a pressing against a fluid-filled area to
large enough size and energy reserves, as produce movement. Humans have internal
well as undamaged DNA, to pass the skeletons. Insects have exoskeletons,
restriction point and begin replicating otherwise known as external skeletons.
its DNA. 45. a. In a cold environment, warm-blooded
33. d. Osteocytes are living cells within the animals may shiver involuntarily in order to
minerals of bone. Osteo is the combining thermoregulate or raise their body tempera-
form for bone. ture. Choice c, osmoregulation, is an
34. c. Analogous structures describe two unrelated organism’s way of keeping a constant
species separately evolving similar traits. The internal water level.
closest common ancestor of birds and bats 46. c. The junction of two nerve cells is called a
did not have wings, yet each evolved them. synapse.
35. b. In binomial nomenclature, the genus name 47. a. Oogenesis is the name of the process in
(Aptenodytes) precedes the species name which the ova (egg cells) are produced and
(forsteri). grow in the ovary. Special ovarian cells called
36. b. Producers are living things that use sunlight oogonia divide repeatedly to make large
to produce food and are mainly plants. numbers of prospective eggs called oocytes.
Producers create the food all living things 48. c. Men are more likely to be affected by an
need to survive. X-linked disorder, as they possess only one
37. b. Vestigial structures are structures within an copy of the gene, whereas women possess two
organism that have lost their original copies. Therefore, X-linked recessive disorders
function through evolution. The appendix are often inherited through the mother—
was part of the digestive system of a human who is a carrier and shows no symptoms as
ancestor, and the coccyx is a remnant of a tail. she has a second, functional allele.
381
49. c. The ossicles, utricle, and cochlea are all 11. a. Ba(OH)2 (aq) + 2HNO3 (aq) Æ Ba(NO3)2
components of the human ear. (aq) + 2H2O (l)
50. b. The embryo first develops into the three The left side of the equation must equal the
germ layers during gastrulation, after it right side of the equation for all atoms:
has implanted in the uterus. Organogenesis 1 Ba [in Ba(OH)2] for 1 Ba [in Ba(NO3)2],
(formation of organs) occurs later. 2 N (in 2 HNO3) for 2 N [in Ba(NO3)2],
Fertilization and cleavage occur earlier, 8 O [2 in Ba(OH)2 and 6 in 2HNO3]
when the embryo is still a zygote. for 8 O [6 in Ba(NO3)2 and 2 in 2H2O]
4 H [2 in Ba(OH)2 and 2 in 2HNO3]
Section 6: Chemistry for 4 H [4 in 2H2O]
1. c. # electrons = # protons for atomic neutrality, 12. c. The formula for nitrite is NO2– and nitrate is
# neutrons = mass number – # protons. NO3–.
2. d. Spectator ions (in bold in the following 13. a. C2H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) Æ 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
equation) stay in solution (i.e., aqueous) Oxidation: increase of the oxidation # of C
before and after the reaction. from [–2] in C2H4 (g) to [+4] in CO2 (g)
Ca2+ (aq) + 2NO3– (aq) + 2K+ (aq) + 2Cl– and reduction: decrease of the oxidation
(aq) Æ CaCl2 (sol) + 2K+ (aq) + 2NO3– (aq) # of O from [0] in O2 (g) to [–2] in CO2 (g).
3. a. Sodium nitrate + lead(II) chloride. A double 14. b. Only NH3 is not ionic and cannot be
displacement reaction: A+B– + C+D– Æ A+D– broken into ions.
+ B–C+. 15. d. 3 ions: 2 NO3– and 1 Mg2+: 3 × 0.25 M =
4. b. A precipitation reaction produces solid 0.75 M, which is greater than 0.4 M (Al3+
CaCl2 from Ca2+ and 2Cl– ions. and 3 Cl–), 0.45 M (Sr2+ and 2 Br–), and
5. a. Nitrate ions recombine with potassium 0.4 M (Na+ and Br–).
ions, which both remain in solution, while 16. c. In the equation Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 Æ
mercury[II] ions and iodide ions form the BaSO4 (s) + 2NaNO3, 1 mole of sodium
precipitate in this double displacement sulfate produces 1 mole of the precipitate
reaction. barium sulfate [137.3 (Ba) + 32 (S) + 4 ×
Hg2+ – +
2 (aq) + 2(NO3) (aq) + 2K (aq) + 2I
– 16 (4O) = 233.3 g]. So, to produce 10.0 g
10.0
(aq) Æ Hg2I2 (s) + 2K+ (aq) + 2(NO3)– (aq) of barium sulfate, only (ᎏ233ᎏ.3 ) × 1 mol =
6. a. Acids and bases neutralize each other, creating 0.04 mol of sodium sulfate is required.
P1V1
water and a salt (HA + BOH Æ H2O + AB). 17. b. At constant T, P1V1 = P2V2, so V2 = _____P
2
7. b. Oxidation: increase of the oxidation # of Sn (2.0 atm)(1.0 L)
_______________
= 1.8 L = 1.1 L.
from Sn [0] to SnCl62– [+4]. Oxidizing agent:
18. c. CH3COOH + NaHCO3 Æ NaCH3COO +
4NO3– (aq), while Sn (s) is the reducing agent
H2CO3 is an acid-base reaction. Carbonic
(it is oxidized).
acid decomposes to H2O and CO2, which is
8. c. A covalent bond is one where electrons are
released as a gas.
shared between atoms. Nitrogen and oxygen
19. c. Na+ and Cl– form NaCl.
would form a covalent bond. Sodium and 275 g
20. b. d = ᎏmvᎏ implies that v = ᎏm __________
dᎏ = 1.05 g/mL
chloride, iron and oxygen, and magnesium
⬃ 262 mL.
and sulfur would all form ionic bonds.
21. d. ᎏ59ᎏ(72 – 32) = ᎏ59ᎏ × 40 = 22.2°C
9. d. Cr in Cr(NO3)3 is displaced by Al.
10. a. Combination of PF3 (g) and F2 (g).
382
22. a. Ionic complexes are formed from combina- structure or not). In (a), (e), and (f), we
tions of metals and nonmetals. All other have the same structure: On rotating the
choices contain only nonmetals, which form second structure (in plane strictly for (a)
covalent bonds with each other. and (e) since these are Fischer projections
23. a. The enthalpy change of a chemical reaction and out of plane for (f)) by 180°, we obtain
indicates whether the reaction is exothermic the first structure: (a), (e) and (f) are not
or endothermic. A reaction with a negative pairs of enantiomers or mirror images. Set
enthalpy change is exothermic, while a (g) is labeled (R),(S) for one and (R),(R) for
reaction with a positive enthalpy change is the other structure and cannot therefore
endothermic. constitute a set of enantiomers (in which
24. c. 47.6 g MgCl2 is equivalent to 0.500 mol. absolute configuration shouldn’t be the same
0.500 mol ÷ 2.00 L = 0.250 M MgCl2. In for same chiral carbons of the structures).
solution, MgCl2 dissociates into three ions Choices (b), (c), (d), (h) are sets of
(1 Mg2+ and 2 Cl–), so the total concentra- enantiomers or mirror images, with (h)
tion of ions is 0.750 M. showing (R),(R) and (S),(S) (opposite
25. b. Mirror images are two structures that are not configurations) for the same chiral carbons
superposable (upon rotation/flipping of the that is characteristic of enantiomeric pairs.
a. b.
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH HO H
H OH HO H HO H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
c. d.
CH2 OH CH2OH CH3 CH3
H OH HO H H OH Br H
H OH HO H Br H H OH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
e. f.
CH3 CH3
CH3 Br
H OH H OH
(R) (R)
HO H HO H Br H 3C
Cl H H Cl
CH3 CH3
g. h.
H H H CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 H
(R) (R) (R) (S)
(S) (R) (R) (S)
H H 3C H 3C H
CH3 H H CH3
383
26. c. Since (g) is labeled (R),(S) for one and 37. d. A metalloid is an element with properties
(R),(R) for the other structure and cannot between those of metals and nonmetals. One
therefore constitute a set of enantiomers, of the common properties of metalloids is
it’s a set of diastereomers. that they are semiconductors. Germanium,
27. a. 3.33 × 10–5 + 8.13 × (10–5 × 10–2) = silicon, and arsenic are all metalloids.
(3.33 + 8.13 × 10–2) ⫻ 10–5 = 3.41 × 10–5 38. d. For a principal quantum number of 2, there
(2 decimal digits as in 3.33 and 8.13) are four orbitals: 2s, 2px, 2py, and 2pz.
28. d. 0.05620 = 0.5620 × 10–1 = 5.620 × 10–2 39. c. Elements in the same period, or row, of the
29. b. By assigning the absolute configurations, periodic table have the same number of
set (a) is (R),(S) and (S),(S) and therefore electron shells, or levels. In other words,
clearly a pair of diastereomers and set (c) these elements all have the same principal
shows groups that are not symmetrical by a quantum number.
mirror located between the two Newman 40. b. An alkene is an organic compound made up
projections. of carbon and hydrogen atoms, where the
30. b. Bronsted theory defines acids as proton carbon atoms are joined by a double bond.
donors and bases as proton acceptors. Lewis The simplest alkene is ethene, which is
theory defines acids as electron acceptors made up of two double-bonded carbon
and bases as electron donors. atoms and four hydrogen atoms.
31. d. The acid concentration of H2SO4 is 2 M 41. c. An ionic bond forms when electrons are
(2 H+ per H2SO4). The acid is neutralized transferred from one atom (now a positively
when it has been reacted with an equimolar charged cation) to another (which becomes
amount of base. Using M1V1 = M2V2: a negatively charged anion).
(2 M)(0.1 L) = (0.5 M)(x L) Æ x = 0.4 L 42. b. In CO2, carbon has a +4 oxidation state.
(400 mL). During photosynthesis, it is reduced to a
32. b. Significant figures include all nonzero digits lower oxidation state as it is converted into
and trailing zeros in a number that contains carbohydrates that are used as fuel.
a decimal point. In the number 0.00250, the 43. a. For the dissociation of a weak acid,
bolded digits are significant. HA ← Æ H+ + A–, the equilibrium constant K
a
33. a. This is a reduction reaction because it (also known as the acid dissociation
[H+][A–]
reduces the oxidation number of Cl from constant), is Ka = _________
[HA]
. As with any
[0] in Cl2 to [–1] in Cl. equilibrium constant, Ka is the product
34. d. [H+] = 1 × 10–pH = 1 × 10–3 of the concentration of the products over
[H+][OH–] = 1 × 10–14 the product of the concentration of
× 10–14
1________ × 10–14
1________
[OH+] = [H+]
= 1 × 10–3 = 1 × 10–11 the reactants. So for carbonic acid,
+
[H ][HCO3] –
35. d. 2 mol of H2 react with 1 mol (280 g) of Ka = _____________
.
[H2CO3]
linoleic acid. To form 5.0 g of linoleic acid,
5.0 44. a. The VSEPR model describes the shape of
the required amount of H2 is (ᎏ 280 ) × 2 mol
ᎏ
1 molecules based on the number of bonds
= ᎏ28ᎏ mol.
and the number of unbonded electron
36. d. Sc has 3 valence electrons (3d14s2) and is
pairs. The carbon atom of methane has four
therefore in group IIIB (group 3, or
bonds and no unbonded pairs, so its shape
transition metals).
is tetrahedral.
384
45. b. Boron is in group IIIA (group 13), so it has Scoring

3 valence electrons.
46. d. An orbital quantum number of 2 corre- Your scores on the six sections of the exam and on the
sponds to a d orbital. There are five d test as a whole will be reported both as scaled scores
orbitals, each of which can hold two and as percentiles. A scaled score is a way of convert-
electrons, for a total of 10 electrons that ing the number you got right on this test to a number
can have these quantum numbers. that can be compared with the number other people
47. d. N⬅N got right on other forms of the test, which may have
N2 is nonpolar since both N atoms are been harder or easier. A percentile is a comparison of
identical in nature and physical properties. your scaled score with the scaled scores of other test
48. a. Na:Cl: displays 8 dots (a complete octet) takers. If your percentile score is 60, you scored higher
around Cl and 2 dots around Na (the than 60% of all test takers; if your percentile score is
particular “He” octet for group IA/group 1 84, you scored higher than 84% of all test takers.
atoms is 2 electrons). In NaCl, Na has There is no “passing” scale or percentile score.
transfered its lone valence electron to Cl Individual schools set their own standards, and it’s
(which has added it to its original 7 to make worth your while to find out what scores the schools
a complete octet). you want to apply to will accept.
P P
49. c. At constant V, ᎏTᎏi = ᎏTᎏf implies that, in The testing agency uses complicated formulas to
i f
T 850
Kelvins Tf = Pf ᎏPᎏi = (ᎏ come up with scaled and percentile scores. A more
i 5 ) × 328 K = 288.64 K
96ᎏ
= 15° C. meaningful way for you to look at your performance
50. d. At STP conditions, the molar volume of 1 on this practice test is to convert your scores to per-
mole (i.e., 32 g) of O2 is 22.4 L. Thus, 64.0 g centages so that you will be able to compare how you
(2 moles) of O2 gas will occupy 2 × 22.4 L = did on the six sections of the test. A percentage is not
44.8 L volume. the same as the percentile that will appear on your
score report. The percentage is simply the number you
would have gotten right if there had been 100 ques-
tions in the section; it will enable you to compare your
scores among the various sections. The percentile
compares your score with that of other candidates.
In order to find your percentage scores, first add
up the number you got right in each section and
write it in the following blanks. Questions you didn’t
answer or got wrong don’t count; only count the ones
you got right. Then add up the total number of ques-
tions you got right.
Section 1: of 50 questions right

385
To figure the percentages for each section and given section, you can’t afford to skip studying that
for your total, divide your raw score by the number of section altogether. After all, you want the highest
questions, and then move the decimal point two score you can manage in the time left before the
places to the right to arrive at a percentage. exam.
Now that you know what percentage of the Having taken this practice exam is one impor-
questions on each section you got right, you can diag- tant step toward that high score. Simply knowing
nose your strengths and weaknesses. The sections on what to expect is a big help in taking a standardized
which you got the lowest percentages are the ones you exam. You are now familiar with the format and con-
should plan on studying hardest. Sections on which tent of the exam—an advantage many test takers
you got higher percentages may not need as much of don’t have. Make the most of this advantage by using
your time. However, unless you scored over 90% on a your scores to help you focus your additional study.
386
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CHAPTER 1 Health Occupations Entrance Exam Planner 1

CHAPTER 2 LearningExpress Test Preparation System 9

CHAPTER 3 Practice Exam I 25

CHAPTER 4 Verbal Ability 81

CHAPTER 5 Reading Comprehension 89

CHAPTER 6 Math Review 101

CHAPTER 7 Biology Review 155

CHAPTER 8 Chemistry Review 187

CHAPTER 9 General Science Review 219

CHAPTER 10 Practice Exam II 275

CHAPTER 11 Practice Exam III 331

ADDITIONAL ONLINE PRACTICE 387

– HEALTH OCCUPATIONS ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

– HEALTH OCCUPATIONS ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

– HEALTH OCCUPATIONS ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

SECTION SCORE ANALYSIS

Most people do better on some sections of the Planning for Success

– HEALTH OCCUPATIONS ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

– HEALTH OCCUPATIONS ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

– HEALTH OCCUPATIONS ENTRANCE EXAM PLANNER –

n being unfamiliar with the format of the exam

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

TEST ANXIETY QUIZ

Your Test Stress Score

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

n Choice d is also a possibility. “Difficulty When a nursing assistant is preparing to ambu-

Key Words Step 6: Know When to Guess

USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION

Use the process of elimination to answer the following questions.

USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION (continued)

YOUR GUESSING ABILITY

1. September 7 is Independence Day in 4. American author Gertrude Stein was born in

YOUR GUESSING ABILITY (continued)

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Are you a risk taker? Diet

PHYSICAL PREPARATION CHECKLIST

Exam minus 7 days Exam minus 3 days

Breakfast: _____________________________________ Breakfast: _____________________________________

Lunch: _______________________________________ Lunch: _______________________________________

Dinner: _______________________________________ Dinner: _______________________________________

Snacks: _______________________________________ Snacks: _______________________________________

Exam minus 6 days Exam minus 2 days

Breakfast: _____________________________________ Breakfast: _____________________________________

Lunch: _______________________________________ Lunch: _______________________________________

Dinner: _______________________________________ Dinner: _______________________________________

Snacks: _______________________________________ Snacks: _______________________________________

Exam minus 5 days Exam minus 1 day

Breakfast: _____________________________________ Breakfast: _____________________________________

Lunch: _______________________________________ Lunch: _______________________________________

Dinner: _______________________________________ Dinner: _______________________________________

Snacks: _______________________________________ Snacks: _______________________________________

Exam minus 4 days

– THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM –

Getting to the Exam Site

Breakfast: _ Breakfast: _

Lunch: _ Lunch: _

Dinner: _ Dinner: _

Snacks: _ Snacks: _

Breakfast: _ Breakfast: _

Lunch: _ Lunch: _

Dinner: _ Dinner: _

Snacks: _ Snacks: _

Breakfast: _ Breakfast: _

Lunch: _ Lunch: _

Dinner: _ Dinner: _

Snacks: _ Snacks: _