Professional Documents
Culture Documents
www.jayaram.com.np
Date:2065/4/15 Because of resource constants , engineering must be closely
associated with economy. It is essential that engineering proposals
Engineering Economics: be evaluated in terms of worth and cost before they are
undertaken.
Recommended Books:
E.P. Degrama, W.G Sullivan and J.A Bostadel The Bi-Environmental Natural of Engineering:
N.N Borish and S. Kaplan “ Economic analysis for
Engineering and Managerial Decision making. Physical environmetn
Production
Economic enviromnet
Want Satisfaction
Indirect labour cost: Labour cost not charged directly are indirect
labour cost. In general salary or wage of the following are treated
as indirect wages: foreman, supervisor, maintenance labour etc.
Indirect expenses:
a. Rent, rates(taxes) , insurance in relation to factory.
b. Depression, power and fuel, repair and maintenance of plant
machinery and building.
c. Other sundry expenses like first aid employment etc.
Date: 2065/4/27
Fixe
d
over
head
effic
ienc
y
vari
ance
.
(i) Direct material price variance = AQ ( AR –SR)
= 56250(24- 25)
= 56250 ×-1
Fixed overhead expenditure: = - Rs. 56250 ( Therefore variance)
Actual fixed overhead – budgeted fixed overhead (ii) Diect material uses variance: = SR(AQ-SQ)
= AHx AR – AHx SR = 25( 56250-50000)
= AH(AR+SR) =Rs. 156250 ( Therefore adverse
Fixed overhead efficiency variance:. variance)
AH. SR – SH x SR Therefore, Total material cost variance = Direct material price
= SR(AH-SH) variance + Direct
material cost
Date:2065/4/29 variance.
A
c
t
u
a
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
= -Rs 56250+ Rs. = Rs. 8 s
156250 10000 6 .
Production (units) 10000 7500 2 1
Direct material (kg) 50000 56250 5 2
Direct material cost(Rs.) 1250000 1350000 0 0
Direct labour cost (Rs) 11500000 7,425,000 0 0
Fixed overhead cost(Rs) 13,800,000 7,796,250 ) 0
Variable overhead cost(Rs) 9,200,000 5,197,500 = 0
- Hence the variance is
= (AH*SR) – R favourable.
Calculate: a) total material ((AP*SH/unit) (c ) Variable [
cost variance. *SR) overhead S
b) Total wage = 67500*115- variance: e Date:
variance ((7500*10,0000 (i) Variance e 2065/
c) Variable /10,000)*115) overhead i 4/31
overhead = 7762500- Expenditure n
variance 8625000 variance m
d) Fixed = -Rs. 862500 = a
overhead (favorable n
variance. variance) A u
Indicating the separate H a
components of each Therefore, Total usage l
variance. Also indicate variance = (i) +(ii) * f
favorable or adverse = A o
variance -R R r
s. t
a) Total material cost 33 – h
variance: 75 A
9 e
00 H o
+ * r
Rs S y
(- R ]
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
= AH(AR- 10000*92 = .
SR) ) 67500( 7796250/6750 103500
= = 0– 0)
67500( (51 -Rs. 69000 13800000/100000) = -Rs.
97500/6750 (favaurable variance) = 67500( 115.50-138) 255375
0) – Therefore , Variance = -Rs. 1518750 0
(9700000/1 overhead variance = (favaourable ) (
00000)) (i) +(ii) (ii) Fixed overhead h
= = efficency variance. e
67500( 77- -Rs = (AH* SR) – ( n
92) .10 AP*SH/unit* c
= -Rs. 125 SR) e
1012500( fa 00 = ( 67500- f
vourable + (- *138) – a
variance) Rs. ( 7500*100000 v
(iii) Variable overhead 690 /10000*138) o
efficiency variance: 000 = u
= ) -Rs. 1035000 r
(AH* = ( favourable) a
SR) -Rs Therefore , b
– . Total fixed l
(AP* 170 overhead cost e
SH/u 250 = (i) + (ii) v
nit*S 0 = a
R) Hence Favourable variance. -R r
= s i
( 675 (d) Fixed overhead variance: 15 a
00*9 (i) Fixed overhead 18 n
2)- expenditure variance: 75 c
(750 = 0+ e
0*10 AH( AR- (- )
0000/ SR) Rs
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
2.4 Job Costing and # Product A is iii. direct expenses 300 Rs. 5100 and production per
Process costing: produced after three iv. pro. Overhead 200 unit (kg). is
Total cost for each: 2600
distinct processes. The Process cost for each: 26
= Rs. 5100/100Kg. = Rs. 51
following information is Process per kg.
obtained from the
accounts of a period. Now , production was 3.0 Interest and time value
Items Total 100 kg. No opening or of money:
closing stocks, Hence ,
Process The cost of product A is 10
Because of money can original rupee + its interest will
Direct material 3000 earned at a certain interest rate be large amount than the rupee
Direct wages 500 through its investment for a received at that time.
Direct expenses 600 period of time, a rupee
received at some future date is 3.1 Simple interest;
The production not worth as much as a rupee compound
overhead is Rs.1000 in hand at present interest, interest
and is 200% of direct . This relationship between tables, interest charts.
wages . Production was interest and time leads to the 1. Simple interest: I =
100 kg. No opening or concept of time value of PTR/100
closing stocks prepare money.
process cost accounts A rupee in hand 2. Compound interest:
assuming no process now is worth more than a
loss, rupee received after ‘n’ year Discrete compounding and
form now . Why? Because discrete cash flow:
Solution: having the rupee now provides
Proce the opportunity for investing a. Single payment (single cash
ss that rupee ‘n’ years more than flow):
cost a rupee to be received in ‘n’
accou years. Since money has Compound amount factor (F/p,
nt earning power, this i, N ) [i = R/100]
Items Process-I
i. direct material 2000
opportunity will earn a return,
ii. direct wages 100 so that after ‘n’ years the
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
amount factor.
Year(n) Amount at ,
Compound amount i
Beginning of At end of year , b. Single payment present
Year(P) t
(A) =(P+i) worth factor (p/F, i, n)
1 P P(1+i)h n
2 P(1+i) P(1+i)i ) F
3 P(1+i)2 P(1+i)s The factor (1+i)n is known as
. . . single payment compound Z
0
. . . i n-2n-1
1 2
. . . s
n-1 P(1+i)n-2 P(l+i) F = (Future value)
P
n P(1+i)n-1 P(1+i)w
r We know,
Therefore,1AF =2 P(1+i)
3
n
........
i n-2 n-1 n F = p(1+i)n
I t Therefore, P = F/
n t P= (1+i)n = F(1+i)-n
e (Present
value) 11
f n
u In functional form,
n a Date
s P= F ( p/F, i, n) 2065
c
t The factor (1+i)-n is known as d. Equal – payment series
i F single payment present worth sinking fund factor [ A/F, i,
o factor and is designated as n]
(p/F, i, n) ⎛ i ⎞
n = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ A = F. (1 i) 1
n ⎝
a In A = F ( A/F, i, n )
l P C. Equal-payment, series
( compound amount factor gener
f F (F/n, i, n)
o /
al
r P Cash flow
m , F
form;
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
⎠ ⎞
Figure: (i)
⎛ i ⎞ ⎛
We know that A = F. i
The ⎜⎜(1 i) n 1 ⎟⎟
123 n-1 resulting
factor ⎝ ⎠
.....................
F(1+i) = A(1+i)+ A(1+i) 2 And F = P( 1+i)n (ii)
⎜ Putting the value of F in
+ …………....+A(1+i)n
⎟ is know …….(ii)
as equation (i)
⎜ (1 i) n 1 ⎟ payments
series
⎝ ⎠ From (i) and (ii)
n n ⎛
sinking fund factor ad is
designed [A/F, i, n] i
A ⎞
A A
e. F ⎜ (1 i) n 1⎟
A A =
Equal payment series capital i ⎝ ⎠
Recovery Factor (A/F, i, n) F = A{(1+i)n n
-1} ⎜ ⎟ ⎛ i(1 i) ⎞
E future A=p n
= A ( F/A, i ⎝ (1 i) 1 ⎠
q amou ⎛ i(1n
% , n) i)
u nt.
al This can be
written
F = A1 + A 2 form as in the
functional
The
a (1+i) +A(1+i) + res
……………..+A(1+i)n-1 ulti
n …..(i) ng
fact
or ⎜
n
u ⎟ is
kno
wn
al as
s equ
al
pay
me
e nt
seri
ri ⎜ (1
es
F ⎛ (1 i) n
e = 1⎞
A
s (
F
a /
A
n ,
i,
d n
)
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
⎝ ital Recovery
cap factor.
The ⎟ is known as equal payment series
⎠
factor
⎜
⎝
c f. Equal
o 12
payment series
m Present worth
p factor ( P/A, i, n)
o
u
n
d
a
m
o
u
n
t
f
a
c
t
o
r
.
www.jayaram.com.np
Therefore, A = Rs 200000 x 0.069 = Rs. 13800
⎛ (1 i) n 1⎞
Therefore P = A ⎜ ⎟
n
⎝ i(1 i) ⎠n Hence , the man has to deposit Rs 13800 each year in the saving
⎛ (1 i) account
1⎞
The resulting factor ⎜ ⎟ is know as equal series present
⎝ i(1 i) ⎠ # (2) If a women deposits Rs. 1500 at the end of each year for 10
n
worth factor and is designed ( P/A, i, n) continuous years, how much money is accumulated at the end of
10 years ? i = 10% compounded annually.
# (1) A man wants to have Rs 200000 for the studies of his son Solution:
after a period of 10 yrs. How much does he has to deposit each Given, No. of year, (n) = 10 yrs
year in a saving account that earns 8% per year? Interest rate, i = 10% = 0.1
Annuity, A = Rs. 1500
Solution:
Rs. 200000 F
012346678 9 10 012345678 9 10
i = 8% i = 10%
A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A
A A A=Rs. 1500
⎛ (1 i) 1⎞
We know that , F = A. ⎜ n ⎟
Given No of years (n) = 10 yrs i
⎝ ⎠
Interest rate, i = 8% = 0.08 ⎛ (1 i) n 1⎞
Future worth , F = Rs. 200000
Annuity, A = ? Equal payment series compound amount factor = ⎜ ⎟
⎝ i ⎠
We know that , A = F ⎜⎜⎛ ⎟⎞ = (1+0.10)10-1/ 0.10 = 15.937
(1 ii) 1⎟
n
⎛ ⎝ i ⎞ ⎠ 10
Sinking Factor = ⎜ = 0.08 / (1+ 0.08) -1 = 0.069 #(3) How much money should you deposit , now in a saving
⎜ (1 i) n 1⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠ account earning 10% interest rate compound rate annually so that
you may make eight end of year withdrawals of Rs. 2000 each.
13
A A A A A A A F
P= Rs. 100000
A
i = 10% 12345678
12 346678 i = 10%
P
A A A A A A A A
= (1+ 0.10)8-1/0.10(1+0.10)8
= 5.3349 3.2 Present Worth (PW): Present worth (PW) is the equivalent
P = 2000 x 5.3349 worth of all cash flows relative to some base point in time is
= 100670 called present , i.e all cash in flows and outflows discounted to
a base point at interest MARR ( minimum Attractive Rate of
#(4) If a man wishes to repay a loan of Rs. 100000 by paying Return). Discounting future amounts to present,
equal amount at the end of 8 successive years, what is the end of Figure:
year payment? The first payment is due one year after receiving F1 Fk Fn
the loan, i = 10% . 1 2
Solution:
F2
F0
3.4 Continuous Compounding and continuous compounding b) Single payment present worth factor ( P/F, r,
formula: n) We know F = per.n
Continuous compounding assumes that cash flows occur at Therefore, P = F. [ 1/er.n]
discrete intervals but the compounding is continuous throughout The resulting factor e-r.n is the single payment present worth factor
the intervals. for continuous compounding interest and is designated as (P/F, r,
a) Single –payment compound amount factor for annual n)
compounding. c) Equal payment series compound amount factor (F/A, r, n):
F = P(1+r)n We know for discrete compounding F = A[((1+i) n-1)/i] and
For semi-annual compounding er = 1+i
F = p(1+1/r)2n i = er -1
For monthly compounding Therefore, F = A [ (er.n-1)/er-n]
F = p(1 + r/12)12n The resulting factor ( (er.n-1)/er-1) is the equal payment series
In general , if there are m compounding periods per year. compound amount factor for continuous compounding interest and
F = p(1+r/m)mn is designated as [F/A, r, n]
Date: 2065/5/13 d) Equal payment series sinking fund factor.( A/F, r,
n) A = F[(er-1)/er.n-1]
The resulting factor [(er-1)/er.n-1] is the equal payment series
When interest is assumed to compound continuously. The interest sinking fund factor for continuous compounding interest and is
earned is instantaneously added to the principal at the end of each designated as (A/F, r, n)
infinitesimal interest period. For continuous compounding , the e) Equal payment series present worth factor ⎡(1(P/A,
i) r,
1n) ⎤
number of compounding periods pre year is considered to be We know for discrete compounding P = A n
infinite. ⎢ n⎥
⎣ ⎦ i(1 i)
Therefore, F m As we
= p* [lim m ⎡ ⎤
have, er r.n
( 1+r/m) =1+i,
= p* [lim m
∞ { ( m/r r.n = er -1
1+r/m) } ]
But, lim = e = 2.7182
m ∞
(1+r/m)m/r
16
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
For s compounding P = A ⎢ r
e
continuou
c
F = pern r
⎣ (e o
For n years the 1)e
n
compound amount r.n
⎦ t
factor will be er.n.
i
Since er.n for
n
continuous
u
compounding
o
corresponding to
n u
(1+i) for discrete
s
compounding.
⎤
The en
r.
is the equal payment series preset
resulting
⎡ c
factor o
1 ⎢ r r.n ⎥ m
(e 1)e
⎣ ⎦ p
w oEnd of year Gradient series Set of series Annual
o u Equivalent to series
r n Gradient series
t d0 0 0 0
h i1 0 0 0
n2 G G A
f g3 2G G+G A
a 4 3G G+G+G A
c a. . . .
t n. . . .
o d. . . .
r (n-1) (n-2)G G+G…..+G A
in (n-1)G G+G+G…..+G A
f s
o
17
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
r.n
d 1)e ⎤
e ⎢ ⎥
⎣ ⎦ e r.n 1
s The
i result
ing r
factor ⎡ (er.n is the equal payment series
g 1)e
⎤
n
⎢ ⎥
a ⎣ ⎦ e r.n 1
t capital recovery factor for
e continuous compounding
d and designated as [A/P,
r,n]
a 3.5 Interest calculation for
s uniform gradient:
Some time we have to
[ deal with receipts or expenses Finding F when G is given.
P that are projected to increase or F = G ( F/A, i, n-1) +
/ decrease by a uniform amount, G(F/A, i, n-2)+……
A each period +G(F/A, i, 2)+
, , thus constituting an G(F/A, i, 1)
arithmetic sequence of cash
r flows. For example ,
, maintenance and repair
expenses on specific
n equipment may increase by a
] relatively constant amount
. each period. It can be shown in
f) Equal payment series capital recovery factor (A/P, r, n) the form of uniform rate ‘n’
(e
A r given below.
⎡(1 i) n1 1⎤ ⎡(1 ⎡2 (1 i)
= = i)
n2 1⎤
⎢
1⎤
P
⎡ ..... (n-2) (n-1) n
G
1 2 3 4 5 18
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
i
) present equivalent
n value of first year (b)
⎥ uniform annual
equivalent value at
1 the end of each of the
⎥G ⎤
4 year.
⎢ nG
i
⎢
G
n ==4$1000
⎥+ i
⎣ ⎦
⎥
⎦ ⎣
Fin A
⎣ ⎦ when
⎡
G ⎥
G is
i ⎢
⎣ ⎦ given:
The cash flow diagram given We
above shows a sequence of
=
G
(1 i)n2
n1
know
(1 i) 2 that
end of period cash flow .......... 1(1 i)
(1 i) (n A⎡=
increasing by a constant i) i ⎤F
amount G, each period. G is =
G
n1
(1 i) (1 i) nG
n2
.......... ⎢ n
(1 i) 1
⎥
know as uniform gradient
2 1
(1 i) (1 i) 1 ⎣ ⎦ i
amount . It should be noted ⎢
G⎥⎡⎥2(1
n
⎥n i)i 1⎤ ⎡ 1 1 ⎤ nG ⎡ 3 i ⎤
= ⎢ii)
i)(1
1 i
1
(1 2
that the ⎣ 0
cash flows start from the end of 2nd period onwards. All the
⎦ i=1
i
formule given The bracketed term ⎣
her are based constitute the ⎦
on this equal
assumption payment series ⎣
compound amount factor
for n years. ⎦
G nG ⎡ i ⎤
G ⎡(1 19 =
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
⎣ ⎦ i
⎢ ⎥
i i (1 i) n 2 1
n as
⎣ ⎡1 ⎦
Therefore, A = G
.
n ⎤ $2000
b
is P0
called unipolar gradient e =
series
G
⎢ Po = c
⎣i ⎦ ? $ (p
3 a /
⎥ 0
n
(1 i) 1 0 l G
0 c ,
factor (a) u 1
and is T l 5
designe h a %
dG e t ,
(A/G, i, p e 4)
n) r d ⎡(i 1) n
Finding e =
1 $1000
ni ⎤
As i ⎣ ⎦ ⎢
p when s 2
i⎥ (1
n
G is e ⎢ i)
⎦ ⎣
given, n ⎡
10.15)
⎡(1
4
⎡(1 ⎤⎡(1 4
n
i)
t n
0.15⎤
⎤ e ⎥
1 1 n ⎤
q Or
⎢
, P=G
1
2
0.15 (1 0.15)
4
⎥
⎢ ⎥ u n n
i ⎣⎦ i (1 i) 1⎦ ⎣ 1(1 i) ⎦
v
a ⎡(1 (1 i)
n
i(1
n
=G l i) n⎥
1 i)
e
n n
t
c ⎤
⎢
⎣ ⎦ a i
2
20
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
= 0
$1000* (b) The annual
(3.79) equipment can
=$379 be calculated
from
P⎡⎢ A = G [A/G, 15%,
⎣ ⎦ 4]
1 n
= = G[ –
G
n
The term inside bracket is i (1 i) 1
called present worth
conversion factor.
=
$1000
⎡
⎣ ⎦
4
⎤
D ⎢
0.15 (1
a
4 ⎥
0.15) 1
# Suppose that certain of year = $ 1000 * 1.3263 = $1326.30
cash flow are expected to be
$1000 for the second year, # The cash flow as follows:
$2000 for the third year and End of year Cash
$3000 for fourth year and
interest is 15% per year, it is
designed to find the (a)
21
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
1 -5000 # The cash flow as follows:
2 -6000 End of each year cash flows($)
3 -7000 1 -8000
4 2 -7000
3 -6000
Calculate the present equivalent at i = 15% 4 -5000
Solution:
0 1 2 3 4 Calculate the present equivalent at i = 15%
Solution:
$5000 0 1 2 3 4
$6000
$7000
PoT = ? $5000
$6000
0 1 2 3 4 $7000
i= 15% PoT= ? $8000
0 1 2 3 4
$5000 $5000 $5000$5000
i=15%
PoA = ?
2 4 $8000 $8000 $8000$8000
3
PoA = ?
$1000 PoG = ? $1000 $1000 $3000
$2000
$3000
PoA = ? i=15%
POT = POA +
1 2 3 4
POG
⎡ 1 i 1 ni
n
n ⎤
⎡(1 i)
= A⎢
1⎤ ⎥
n i(1 i) 2
i (1 i)
n
POT = pOA – pOG
⎥ G⎢
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎡ (1 i) n ⎡ 1 i n 1 ni ⎤
1⎤
⎡ (1 0.15) 4 1 ⎤ ⎥
⎡ 1 0.154 1 4 = -A ⎢ ni(1 i) ⎥ G⎢ i (1 i)
2 n
0.15⎤
⎢ ⎥ &1000⎢ ⎥
= -$5000 0.15(1 0.15)4 2
0.15 (1 0.15)
4
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
⎣ ⎦ ⎦ ⎡ (1 0.05) 4n 1 ⎤ ⎡ 1 0.152 1 4 * 0.15 ⎤
⎣
=$8000
= -&5000(2.8550)-$1000(3.74) $1000⎦⎢
= -$14275 - $3790 = -$18065 ⎢ ⎣ 4⎥ 2 ⎣ 4 ⎥ ⎦
0.15(1 0.15) 0.15 (1 0.15)
= -$19050
Given , i = 10% , n = 5 yrs, G = Rs 50,000 , A = Rs 3,00,000
# (5) The first investment cash for a projects is Rs 500000. The net P = Rs 500,000
annual revenue from the end of first years onwards are 3,00, 000,
2,50,000, 2,00,000, 1,50,000 and so on i.e decreasing by an FwT = FW1 + FWg + FW3 n
= -p(1+i )n + A ⎡ (1 i) 1⎤ ⎡ G ⎧ 1 i nG ⎤
n
amount of Rs 50,000 each year. Find out the FW of this cash flows
1⎫
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎨
at the end of 5 years. i = 5%. i
i i ⎬ ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎢⎣ ⎩ ⎭ i ⎥⎦
Solution:Rs300000 = $5,00000(1+0.01)5 5 +
Rs25000 Rs200000 Rs150000 Rs100000
⎧ 1 0.10 1⎬⎫5.50000 ⎥⎤
⎡ (1 0.01) ⎥1⎤ ⎡⎢50000 ⎨
5
# An investment of $1000 can be made in a project that will 4.3 Internal rate of return (IRR) Method:
produce a uniform annual revenue of $5310 for five years and In this method that interest rate is found out that equates the
then have a market (salvage) value of $2000. Annual expenses will equivalent worth of an alternative’s Cash inflows ( receipts or
be savings) to the equivalent worth of cash outflows (expenditure
N
or
investments). The interest rate i’% is calculated at which R0k
$3000 each year. The company is will to accept any project that
will earn 10% per year or more on all invested capital. Show
N
whether this is desirable investment by using the PW method.
(p/F, i’%, k ) = Ek (p/F, i’, k) by using present worth
0
Figure: formulation.
For a single alternative , IRR is not positive unless both receipts
AW(%) = R-E-CR and expenses are present in the cash flow pattern and the sum of
= $5310 - $3000 – [ $1000(A/P, 10%, 5) - $2000(A/F,10%, receipts exceeds the sum of all cash outflows cash flow pattern and
5) = $ 5310 (1 5 the sum of receipts exceeds the
-$ ⎡3000 0.01) sum of all cash outflows.
- 0.10
⎤
-$
⎢ (1 Rk = net receipts for kth
⎦ ⎣
0.10)
⎥
5
year.
1
⎡ Ek = net expenses
(1 including
investment for
0.05 the kth year.
1)
0.1
0⎤
2000 ⎢ ⎣
⎦
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
(1 ⎥ N = project life. investment balance:
0.10) Once i’% is D
5
1 calculated it is # at
compared with
MARR. If i’% ≥ Examp e:
= -$5310-$3000-[$2638-$32800] le for 20
MARR , the
=0 IRR 65
alternative is
The project is shown to be metho /6
acceptable,
marginally acceptable. d. /1
otherwise not.
Alternative 3
4.2 Future Worth method:
form
In this method all cash inflow N N
a a
s r
r
a o
w
f
u i
n n
c d
t i
i c
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
a
t
e
s
r
e
t
u
r
n
s
23
www.jayaram.com.np
A $1568 d B
PW
12 3 4 5
e
5%10% 15%
C 4
$1262
0 1 2 3
30, 000 30,000
1 -42500
2 +92,800
3 386,000 200,000
4 614,600
5 -202,200 AW = R-E-CR = 0
Solution: AW = 30,000 -200,000(A/P,i’,3) = 0
Or , 30,000 – 200,000 [{(1+i’)3 i’}/((1+i’)3-1)] = 0
28
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
Q.3. What do you mean by external rate of return method? 3000000
Calculate ERR for the following project of E = 15% per year. 200000
Year Cashflow
10
0 -25000 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1 8000
2 8000
50000
3 8000 150000
4 8000 250,0000
5 13000
5000 Date: 2065/7/27
8000 8000 80008000 8000
(
0 4 5
1 2 3 1
+
i
’
)
25000
25000( 5
F/p, i’,
5) = =
8000(F
/A, E 8
%, 5)+ 0
5000 0
O 0
r
, [
{
2 (
5 1
0 +
0 0
0 .
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
15)5- 5. Cost/Benefit analysis: methods. i.e PW, defiend as the ratio 5000
www.jayaram.com.np
Cost Annual tax and insurance = 1 ½ % of investment
MARR = 15%
Break even point How many hours/yr would the motors have to be operated at full
CT = Total cost
load for load for annual costs to be equal.
Electricity cost = Rs.5/hrs.
Variable cost Cv
(iii) Salvage value: Solve for
future resale that would
Fixed costCf result in indifference as to
U preference for an alternative
n
i
.
t (iv) Equipment life: Solve for
the hour of utilization per
o
f year at which an alternatives
are equally desirable.
o
/ Through breakeven analysis one
p can solve for the value of
( parameter at which the conclusion
x is stand off. That value is
)
breakeven point.
The breakeven principal can be
Example: 100 HP
used for the following parameters:
Motor A Motor B
Purchase cost 125000 1,60,000 (i) Revenue & annual cost:
Solve for annual revenue
74% 92%
required to breakdown with
Life 10 yrs 10 yrs
annual costs. Then compare
Maintenance cost 5000/yrs 2500 yrs
between alternatives.
(ii) Rate of return: Solve for the
rate of return at which two
given alternatives are
equally desirable.
30
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
746*5x = n 5+5000 160000*0.01
Motor )/0.75 = n 5 = 2400
A: 504x 0 u Motor B: Maintenance
CR Mainte . a CR cost = 160000 (A/p, 15, cost = 2500
cost nance 0 l 10) Total annual cost =
= cost = 1 = 31880.32+ 405.43x +
125 5000/yr 5 c 160000[(0.15*1.1510) 2400+2500 Now ,
000 s o /(1.1510-1)] According to given
( A/ T * s = 31880.32 condition,
P, a t O.P cost = (100*0.746*5x)/0.92 = Annual cost of Motor A =
15,1 x 1 405.43x Annual cost of Motor B .
0) 2 = Tax and 24906.50 + 504x+1875+5000 =
= a 5 insurance 31880.32+405.43x+2400+2500
125 n 0 2 cost = x = 50.713 51 hrs.
000[ d 0 4 Annual
(0.1 0 9 Cost AW method:
5*1. i 0 AWA(10%) = R-E-CR = 69000-
15 n = 6 Motor Motor A
390000(A/P,10%,10) =5529.00
/(1.1 s .
510 u 1 5 FW method:
1)] r 8 0 B FWA(10%) =
= a 7 +
51 -390000(F/p,10%,10)+69000(F/A,
249 n 5 5 10%,10) = 88122
Hrs
06.5 c 0
0 e T 4 # When estimated costs only are
<6.0> Investment relevant:
Operati o x
Decision: Dat A
ng cost c t Useful life
for o a + e: 5 5 5 5
B
Annual O & M 206
power: s l 1 C
Power 680
5/8/ 689 1200 1260
= t 8 D
Labour 4 6600 6000 4200 3700
(100*0. A 7 Investment
Maintenance 400 450 650 500
Tax and insurance 120 152 248 260
31
Total annual cost
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np 7800 7282 6298 5720
i = 10%
Pw of investment 6000 7600 12400 13000
) e 0
< fe: (b) R nt y
6. (a) E at w r y
1 q e o s r
> u of rt . s
C i re h
o v tu m M S
m a rn et A a
p l m h R l
a e et o R v
ri n h d a
s t o s: = g
o w ds # e
n o (I 1
of rt R S 0 v
al h R, t % a
te m E u U l
r e R d s u
n t R y e e
at h ) f
iv o p u =
e d ( e l
h : a r 0
a ( ) i l Which alternative should be
vi p E o i selected?
n w q d f Alterna
g , u e tive
u F i = A
se
Investment cost W v 390000 920000 660000 = C
f ,
Net annual recipts less aexpenses 69000
1 167000 133500
ul A l 0 1
li W
32
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
/ 0 ,10%,10) = 160300
P A 0 P Therefore, order of
W , 0 W preference is C>B>A
me 1 + c
tho 0 1 (
d: % 6 1
P , 7 0
W 1 0 % Total annual cost
A 0 0 )
( ) 0 295682760523874 21683
1 = ( = (p/A,10%,5)
0 P -35568
% 3 / - -35205
) 3 A 6 -36274
9 , 6 34683
= 7 1 0
5 0 0 The order of preference:
- % 0 D>B>A>B
3 P , 0
9 W 1 + Aw method:
0 B 0 1 O& M -7800 7282
0 ( ) 3 6298 5720
0 1 3 CR -1583 -2005
0 0 = 5 3271 -3429
+ % 0 -9383 -9287
6 ) 1 0 9569 -9143
9 = 0 + Order of preference is same.
0 6 (
0 - 1 p
0 9 4 /
( 2 3 A
p
33
Downloaded from www.jayaram.com.np
Date: 2065/8/9 End of period A B C
0 -640000 -680000 -755000
Rate of Return Method: 1 2620000 -40000 205000
A B C D E F 2 290000 392000 406000
Inv. Cost 900 1500 2500 4000 5000 7000 3 302000 380000 400000
Annual.Rev. 150 276 400 925 1125 1425 4 310000 380000 390000
Less cost. 5 310000 380000 390000
6 260000 380000 324000
N = 10 yrs
S=0 Figure:
MARR = 10 %
Solution:
AW formulation , 0 = -900(A/P,i’, 10) + 150
i’ = 10.6% Solution:
For project A:
IRR on A B C D E F 640000(F/P,i’%,6) =
Tot. inv. 10.6 13 9.6 19.1 18.3 15.6 262000(F/P,20%,5)+290000(F/P,20%,4)+302000(F/P,20%,3)+310
000(F/P,20%,2)+310000(F/P,20%,1)+260000(F/P,20%,0)
C is rejected as its IRR is below 10% i’A% = …….
Increment Consider A A-B B-D D-E E-F For project B:
∆ inv.cost 900 600 2500 1000 2000 { 680000+40000(P/F,20%,1)}(F/P,i’,6) =
∆ Annual rev. less cost 150 126 649 200 300 392000(F/P,20%,4)+380000(F/P,20%,3)+380000(F/p,20%,2)+380
IRR on ∆ inv.cost 10.6%16.4%22.6%15.1%8.1% 000(F/P,20%,1)+380000
Is increment justified yes yes yes yes No. i’B = …..
Hence the project is better.
For Project C:
# Using ERR method. 755000(P/F,i’c%,6) = 205000(F/P, 20%,5) + 406000(F/P,20%,4) +
N = 6yrs 400000(F/p,20%,3)+390000(F/p,20%,2)+39000(F/p,20%,1)+3240
MARR = 20% 00(F/p, 20%, 0)
E = MARR
i’c = ……
(b) Coterminated assumption may be used in their comparison if
Incremental cash flow: study period is finite and identical. This is the approach most
A A-B A-C frequently used in engineering practice because product life
-640000 -40000 -115000 cycle are becoming shorter.
262000 -302000 -57000 - To force a match of cash flow durations to the
290000 102000 116000 cotermination time, adjustment are made to cash flow
302000 78000 98000 estimates of the project alternatives having useful life
310000 70000 80000 different from the study period.
310000 7000 80000
260000 120000 64000 Date: 2065/8/11
A A-B A-C # The following data have been estimated for tow manually
ERR on ∆ cash flow 28.3% 14.3% 27% exclusives alternatives A and B , associated with a small
Is increment is justified yes no yes engineering project for which revenues as well as expenses are
C is preferred. involved. The y have useful live of 4 and 6 years respectively Of
MARR = 10% per year, show which alternatives is more desirable
6.2 Comparison of alternatives having different useful life: by suing equivalent worth methods. Use the repeatability
When the useful lives of mutually exclusive alternatives are assumption
different, A B
(a) Repeatability assumption may be used in their comparison of Capital investment 3500 5000
the study period can be infinite in length or a common Annual Revenue 1900 2500
multiple of the useful lives. Annual expenses 645 1020
- The economic consequence that are estimated to happen in an Useful life(yrs) 4 6
alternative’s initial life span will also in all succeeding life Salvage value 0 0
span (replacement). 1900 1900 1900 1900
- Actual situation in engineering practice seldom meet this
condition. This has tended to limit the use of the repeatability i = 20%
assumption, except in those situation where difference between
the annual worth of the first life cycle and the annual worth 645 645 645 645
over more than one cycle of the assets involved is quite small. 3500 A
2500 PW(10%)B = -500-500(P/F,10%,6) + (2500-1020)(P/A,10%,12)
Since , PW(10%)B > PW(10%)A
6
Therefore choose alt B .
1 2 3 4 5
1020
5000 B Date: 2065/8/13
The least common multiple of # Suppose in the above
A3 the useful lines of alt A and B is example the expected period of
12. required service for A and B is
A1 A2 only 6 yrs. MARR = 10%,
0 4 8 12 Three cycle of Which alternative is more
Alt A. desirable using co-terminated
B1 B2 assumption.
6 Two cycle of Alt B.
Solution:
A
0 4 6
1900
Assumed
reinvestment of
the cash flow at
the MARR for
tow years.
1
3 45 7 1 B
9 0
2 6 When
1
645
1
useful life is less than the
3500
3500
study period all cash flow
350
1 will be reinvested by the firm
2
0 of MARR until the end of
study period. This will apply
to alt. A.
Downloaded from
www.jayaram.com.np
1020
U - (1900- FW(10 10 th RR= 10% which alternative
12
s 3 645) %) = [ # e is more desirable using
i 5 (P/A,10 -3500(F/ ex coterminated assumption?
n 0 %,12) P,10%,4 S pe
34
g 0 = )+ ct
u
( 1028 (1900- ed
p
P P 645) p pe
W / 10% 4] o ri
F (F/p, s od
m , 10%, 2) e of
e 1 = 847 re
t 0 PW(10 i qu
h % )B = n ir
o , -500 ed
d 4 (F/P,10 t se
: ) %,6) + h rv
P - (2500- e ic
W 3 1020) e
( 5 (F/A, a fo
1 0 10%,6) b r
0 0 = 2561 o A
% ( FW(10 v an
) P %)A e d
A / FW(10 B
F )B e is
= , Choose x on
1 alternativ a ly
- 0 e B. m 4
3 % p ye
5 ,1 500
3 6 7 8 l ar
0
0 8 5 5 9
e s.
0
0 ) 0 M
+ 0 A
www.jayaram.com.np
A CW = [X(A/F,i%,K)]
0 4
B
# MARR=15%
0 4
6
Assume salvage value of the cash flow for 2years M N
of MARR at the end of 4 years . I 12000 40000
Salvage value of 4 years, S 0 40000
S4 = [ 5000(A/P, 10%, 6)] (P/A, 10%,2) Annual expenses 2200 1000
= x Useful life 10 25
Assume infinite project life
AW(10%)A = R-E-CR = 1900-645-3500(A/P,10%,4) =
AW(10%)B = R-E-CR = 2500-1020-{5000(A/P,10%,4) – Solution:
x(A/F,10%,4)} M N
First cost 12000 40000
<6.4> Comparison of alternative using capitalized worth Replacements:
method (CW method): 12000(A/F,15%,10)/0.15 3940
Capitalized worth (CW) is the present worth of all receipts or (40000-10,000)(A/F,15%,25)/0.15 940
expenses over an infinite length of time. This method of Annual expenses 14667
comparison is called CW method. If only expenses are Considered 2200/0.15
we called it capitalized cost method. This method is used for 1000/0.15 6667
comparing mutually exclusive alternatives when period of service Total capitalized worth (cost) 30607 47607
needed is indefinitely large or common multiple of lives is very
long , and repeatability assumption is applicable.
CW of a perpetual series of end of period uniform Date: 2056/8/16
payment A with interest at i% per period is A(P/A,i%,∞ )
Capitalized worth of A, 6.3 Definition of Mutually exclusive investment alternatives in
P = A(P/A,i%, ∞ ) terms of combination of project:
⎡ n
(1 i) 1⎤ A Category of investment opportunities:
= A⎢ h n⎥
i(1 i) ⎦ i (a) Mutually exclusive: at most one project out of group can be
⎯⎯ →
lim
⎣
Annual worth of a series of payment of amount X at the end of kth chosen.
period at int. rate i% is X(A/F, i%, k ) 35
(b) Independent: the choice of a project independent of the choice
of any other project in the group so that all or none of the Suppose A is contigent on acceptance of B and C, C is contigent
project may be selected, or some number in between . on acceptance of B. The mutually exclusive combinations are,
(c) Contingent: Choice of a project is condifional on the choice of (a) Do nothing
one or more other projects. (b) B only
There may be different types of projects. So we must list feasible (c) B and C
combination of projects and analyze them. Such combination will (d) A , B and C
then be mutually exclusive. The net cash flow of each combination
is determined simply by adding period by period the cash flow of Next, two independent sets of mutually exclusive projects. A1 and
each project included in the combination. A2 are mutually exclusive and B1 and B2 also same.
Suppose we have three projects: A,B,C. If all are mutually
exclusive then following combination are obtained. Mutually exclusive Project
Combination
Mutually exclusive Project xA1 xA2 xB1 xB2
Condition XA XB XC 1
1 0 0 0 Accept none 2
2 1 0 0 Accept A 3
3 0 1 0 Accept B 4
4 0 1 1 Accept C 5
6
Mutually exclusive combination of three independent project:
Combined project cash flow: 7.3 Decision tree (Risk tree analysis):
Mutually C.F(1000) init.cap. pw(10%)
Exclusive 0 1 2 3 4
1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
2 -50 20 20 20 20 -50 13.4
3 -30 12 12 12 12 -30 8.0
Competative price payoff Profit (000) Adj.cost (000)
0.4 High 150
Low success 2000
0.5 medium -50 0.1
High 0.1 Lalitpur 200
Low -250 0.4 Mediiumsuccess
0.1 High 200 Lalitpu 3500
r
medium 0.6 medium 100 0. high success 4500
0.3 -100 4
Low Low success 2000
170 0.8 Low 0.1 High 150
0.4
Market 0.2
0.2 medium -50 Mediiumsuccess 3000 150
170 0.7 Bhaktapur
0.2 Low 50 0.4
High 650 high success 4000
medium 450
Finish price (2000*0.2)+(0.4*3500)+(450*0.4)-200 = 3400
Low 250
(2000*0.4)+(3000*0.2)+(4000*0.4) -150 = 2850
(150*0.4)+(-50*0.5)+(-250*0.1)= 60 -25 -25 = 10
(200*0.1)+(100*0.6)+(-100+0.3) = 20+60-30 = 50 7.4 Sensitivity Analysis:
(150*0.1)+ (50*0.1)+ (0.7*0.5) = 15+10-35 = -10 # Investigate the pw of the following project of a machine over a
range of +-40% in (a) initial investment (b) Annual net revenue
Q. A ktm business form is considering the possibility of expanding (c) Salvage value and (d) Useful life.
its business to one of the two possible market area lalitpur or Initial investment, I = 11,500
Bhaktapur. A preliminary analysis following data Net annual revenue, A = 3000
Salvage value, S = 1000
lalitpur Bhaktapur Useful life, N = 6 yrs
probability Profit(000) Probability Profit(000) MARR = 10%
Low success 0.20 2000 0.40 2000 Draw also the sensitivity diagram.
Medi. Success 0.04 3500 020 3000
High success 4500 0.40 4000
Pw(10%) = -11,500 +A(p/A,10%,6) +S(P/F,10%,6) = 2130
The cost of advertising for lalitpur is Rs. 200000 and for (a) When the initial investment varies by +-P% , the present worth
Bhaktapur is Rs. 150000. Find out which market should be is ,
targeted by the firm. PW(10%) = -11500(1+-P%) +
3000(P/A,10%,6)+1000(p/F,10%,6)
When I varies +40%
PW(10%) = ……….
When I varies
+40% PW(10%) =
……..
P(w)
(b) When annual revenue changes by +-a%,
7000
PW(10%) = -11,500+3000(1+-a%)(p/A,10%,6)+1000(p/F,10%,6)
When a% varies +40% 6000
PW(10%)= …… 5000 A
When a% varies -40% 4000
(c ) When salvage value varies by +-s% , the present worth, -50% -40% -30% -20% -10% 200 10%
0 20%30%40%50%
Regression Analysis:
This method involves.
- Determining the trend of Consumption by analysis past
consumption statistics.
- Projecting future consumption by extrapolating trend.
Most commonly used relationship is the linear relationship.
y = a+bx
39
www.jayaram.com.np
Where, y = Demand or sales for year t.
x = Time variable.
a and b = parameter.
b = (∑xy – n xy )/(∑x2 – n x 2 )
Example:
Year Demand xy x2
(x) (y)
1 13 13 1
2 14 28 4
3 17 51 9
4 18 72 16
5 18 90 25
6 19 114 36
7 20 140 49
8 22 207 81
9 23 220 100
10 22 264 125
11 24 288 144
12 24 325 169
13 25
∑x = 91 ∑y= 259 ∑xy = 1998 ∑x2 = 819
∑x = 91 ∑y = 259
X(bar) = 7 y(bar) = 19.92
∑xy = 1998 ∑x2 = 819
b = (∑xy – n xy )/(∑x2 – n x 2 )
= 1.018
a = y(bar) – bx(bar)
= 19.92 – 1.018*7
= 12.794 40