PMP/CAPM Flashcards

NOTE: The following includes a wealth of information. Don’t fret!!

Prior to class, it is recommended to have some familiarity with this terminology.
This information is solely for students taking Project Management Mentors Exam Prep Classes.

Approving (accepting) work performed as it satisfies acceptance criteria as

per business and/or customer requirements. (e.g. “Formalized
Acceptance” includes the Quality Control and Validate Scope processes.
Project milestones often require “acceptance criteria” to know whether the
work is completed as required. Sponsors often accept Project Charters,
Project Management Plans, and Lessons Learned documents. Also, the
Change Control Board is responsible for accepting, rejecting, or deferring
changes. Customers accept the product, whereas the Project Sponsor
accepts the project.)

Answer: Acceptance (Formalized Acceptance).

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Performance requirements, essential conditions and other criteria that

must be satisfied before the deliverables of the project are accepted.
Acceptance criteria/checklists may be documented in WBS Dictionary, the
W.A.S, or the Quality Management Plan. Acceptance criteria help ensure
quality objectives are met.

Answer: Acceptance Criteria.

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Products, results, or capabilities produced by a project and validated by

the customer or project sponsor(s) as meeting their specified acceptance
criteria.

Answer: Acceptance Deliverables.

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Obtaining quotations, bids, offers, or proposals from sellers.

Answer: Accept Seller Responses.

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Obtaining the human resource “staff” needed to execute the project. This
process is typically done early in the Executing Process Group. Project
Managers often have to “negotiate” with Functional Managers.

Answer: Acquire Resources.

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The process of acquiring consultants, or outsourcing work to outside

subcontractors. Project Managers should be involved in this process
which also includes obtaining the desirable contract type (i.e. Fixed Price).

Answer: Acquisition.
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The act of listening completely with all senses so as to pick up all of the
information that is being communicated. Active listening entails
paraphrasing or reciting back what is heard to ensure accurate
understanding of what has been stated.

Answer: Active Listening.

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A component of work performed during the course of the project. For the
exam, PMI uses the word activity instead of task. Schedule Network
Diagrams (i.e. PDM) often include milestones, activities, and arrows to
show sequence/dependencies. NOTE: Activities have duration, whereas
milestones do not.

Answer: Activity.
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Relates to the characteristics of an activity. Includes, but not limited to,

code of accounts, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource
requirements, constraints, assumptions, etc.

Answer: Activity Attributes.

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Quantitative estimates of the estimated costs for the resources required to

complete the required activities. Can utilize historical information (e.g.
Organizational Process Assets), analogous, bottom-up, and/or three-point
estimates (i.e. Optimistic, Most Likely, Pessimistic).

Answer: Activity Cost Estimates.

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Additional details supporting the schedule activity cost estimate.

Answer: Activity Cost Estimate Supporting Detail.

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The time in work periods between the start and finish of a schedule activity.
(e.g. 5 days)

Answer: Activity Duration.

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Quantitative assessments of the most likely number of work periods which

will be needed to complete an activity. Can utilize three-point estimating
(i.e. Optimistic, Most Likely, Pessimistic).

Answer: Activity Duration Estimates.

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A short text identifier or number assigned to schedule activities to identify

them uniquely within a schedule network diagram.

Answer: Activity Identifier/Name.

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A list of activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a
sufficiently detailed description of the scope of work, so that the project
team members can understand what work needs to be performed. Along
with a milestone list, the activity list is a key input for developing a project
schedule network diagram. (Also see Precedence Diagramming Method
(PDM.))

Answer: Activity List.

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Identification and description of the types and quantities of resources (e.g.

people, things, money) required for each activity in the work package.
Staff may be acquired through the Acquire Project Team (HR process) or
vendors (Procure Sellers).

Answer: Activity Resource Requirements.

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Total costs actually incurred and recorded in accomplishing work performed

during a given time period for a schedule activity or work breakdown
structure component. Actual cost can sometimes be direct labor hours
alone, direct costs alone, or all costs including indirect costs. Used in
Earned Value Management (EVM) calculations. (e.g. CPI = EV / AC)

Answer: Actual Costs (AC).

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The time in calendar units between the actual start date of the schedule
activity and either the data date of the project schedule if the schedule
activity is in progress or the actual finish date if the schedule activity is
complete.

Answer: Actual Duration.

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This could relate to change-driven, iterative, incremental, evolutionary,

backlog, and user stories. Often, these lifecycles are used for shorter
projects, and require frequent stakeholder involvement as changes are the
norm, not the exception.

Answer: Adaptive Lifecycle.

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Some additional Quality planning tools include brainstorming, affinity

diagrams, force field analysis, nominal group techniques, matrix diagrams,
and prioritization matrices. Also see the seven basic quality tools. For the
exam, many tool/technique-related questions relate to the Quality Knowledge
Area.

Answer: Additional Quality Planning Tools.

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Generating, gathering, and disseminating information to formalize project

completion, or the completion of a project lifecycle phase. Often performed
at the end of a phase and typically including Lessons Learned
meetings/reports.

Answer: Administrative Closure.

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The procedure that includes all the activities, interactions, roles and
responsibilities needed in executing the administrative closure (i.e. Close
Project or Phase) procedure for the project; includes product verification,
contract closeout, integrated activities to collect all project records, analysis
of project success or failure (i.e. performance), gather lessons learned,
project acceptance, archive project information for future use, and releasing
the resources.

Answer: Administrative Closure Procedure.

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Expanding the list of potential suppliers (e.g. newspapers/professional

journals). Many government entities mandate public advertising when
procuring sellers.

Answer: Advertising.
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A group creativity technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be

classified into groups for review and analysis.

Answer: Affinity Diagram.

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Contract term and condition. An authorized representative of each party of

the agreement.

Answer: Agent.
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Generating and evaluating options or alternatives. In project management, it

is used to evaluate ideas about how to conduct the project; in business
analysis, it is used to evaluate solution options.

Answer: Allocate requirements.

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Many schedule activities can have alterative methods to accomplish the work
(i.e., different size or types of machines, make-or-buy decisions, etc.)

Answer: Alternatives Analysis.

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Using techniques such as brainstorming, lateral thinking, etc. to generate

different approaches to perform the work of the project.

Answer: Alternatives Identification.

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Top-down method of estimating, used when there is limited amount of

information. May also be referred to as Rough Order of Magnitude level of
estimating accuracy (i.e. -25% to +75%). Uses the values of the parameters
of scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale like size, weight,
and complexity from a previous, similar activity as a basis for estimating for a
future activity. As a form of expert judgment, it is less costly and less
accurate than other estimating techniques. May also indicate the level of
commitment management has for the project.

Answer: Analogous Estimating.

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The process of breaking down something complex into something that can
be more easily understood. For the exam, analysis is a key Tool and
Technique for processes. Analysis can be performed directly with people
(e.g. qualitative risk analysis), or with computers (e.g. quantitative risk
analysis). Also see, decomposition and progressive elaboration.

Answer: Analysis.
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A category of projects that have common components significant in such

projects, but are not needed or present in all projects. Application areas are
usually defined in terms of either the product, (i.e, by similar technologies or
production methods) the type of customer, (i.e, internal versus external,
government versus commercial) or industry sector (i.e, utilities, automotive,
aerospace, information technologies, etc.). Application areas can overlap.

Answer: Application Area.

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A change request that has been processed through the integrated change
control process and approved by the Change Control Board (CCB). Once
approved, changes are communicated and implemented during Executing by
the appropriate stakeholders. For the exam, “following your change control
process,” is strongly recommended.

Answer: Approved Change Request.

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Leads and lags maybe applied and documented to accurately define logical
relationships between dependencies. Applying leads and lags relates to the
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), a project schedule network
diagramming method. Starting the successor before the predecessor is
done refers to lead time. Inserted waiting time refers to lag time. Typically
requires a computer and appropriate software (e.g. MS Project).

Answer: Applying Leads and Lags.

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A method to resolve disputes that uses private third parties to render a

decision on the dispute. Arbitration is paid for by the parties and is used
because it is usually faster and cheaper than legal courts. Procurement
consideration when a negotiation impasse is reached.

Answer: Arbitration.
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A method to describe an organization by mapping its essential

characteristics, such as people, locations, processes, applications, data, and
technology.

Answer: Architecture.
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A depiction of the current state of a process, representing how a process is

currently performed in the organization.

Answer: As-Is Process.

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Contract term and condition. When one party assigns its rights or obligations
under a contract to another party.

Answer: Assignment.
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Factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be true, real or certain
without proof or demonstration, and involve a degree of risk. Assumptions
are identified, validated and documented in Initiating and/or in early
Planning. Assumptions affect all aspects of project planning and are part of
the progressive elaboration of the project.

Answer: Assumptions.
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A technique that explores (tests) the accuracy of assumptions and identifies

risks to the project from inaccuracy, inconsistency, or incompleteness of
assumptions. Assumptions are often risks to the project.

Answer: Assumptions Analysis.

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Contains assumptions related to the project. T he log is updated through the

project as a result of risk responses. Logs may refer to the information within
the Project Management Plan.

Answer: Assumptions Log.

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An interview in which the participants are not engaged in the interview at the
same time. Asynchronous interviews can be conducted through email or van
be prerecorded by the interviewer and provided to the interviewee at a later
time.

Answer: Asynchronous Interview.

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The authority to apply/allocate project resources, expend funds, make

decisions, or give approvals. May also refer to RACI RAMs which illustrate
authority levels. Authority levels often come from the Project Sponsor and/or
senior management. For the exam, the Project Manager is assigned
authority for the project when the Project Sponsor approves/signs the Project
Charter.

Answer: Authority.
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A listing of product requirements, written as stories, and prioritized by the

organization to manage/organize project work. This topic may relate to
iterative project lifecycles for smaller/informal projects (e.g. Agile).

Answer: Backlog.
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Performed by working backwards through the schedule network logic from

the project’s end date to the project’s start date. May be used to determine
float/slack of activities, project end dates, or impact to subsequent projects.
To determine slack/float of an activity: Late Finish – Early Finish. 0 or less
float means the activity is on the critical path, or late, respectively. Also see
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM).

Answer: Backward Pass.

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A graphic display (typically generated by “project management software”) of

project schedule-related aspects of the WBS components, durations and
perhaps, calendar information. For the exam, this is useful for providing a
quick look at the project’s progress. NOTE: Most people refer to this as a
Gantt chart.

Answer: Bar Chart.

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The approved time-phased plan (for a project, a work breakdown structure

component, a work package or a schedule activity), plus or minus approved
project scope, cost, schedule, and technical changes. Generally refers to
the current, approved baseline, but may refer to the original or some other
baseline. Usually used with a modifier (e.g. cost baseline, schedule
baseline, scope baseline, performance measurement baseline, technical
baseline, etc.). Baseline information for scope, schedule, and cost often
includes the information included in each of the “management plans”
associated with each of the respective knowledge areas.

Answer: Baseline.
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A clear and complete understanding of how the cost estimates were derived.
This information might include adaptation procedures, assumptions,
constraints, range estimates and how much confidence can be put in the
actual estimate.

Answer: Basis of Estimates.

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Comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects

(either internal or external) to generate ideas for improvement and to provide
a standard by which to measure performance. For the exam, benchmarking
tools/techniques are listed for both the Scope and Quality Knowledge Areas.

Answer: Benchmarking.
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Ratio of expected benefits to costs-both expressed in monetary terms.

Answer: Benefit Cost Ratio BCR.

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Conferences and pre-bid conferences are meetings with prospective sellers

prior to preparation of a proposal used to ensure that all prospective sellers
have a clear common understanding of the procurement (i.e. technical and
/or contract requirements). All potential sellers must remain on equal
standing during the process. NOTE: “Assume” you will be selecting sellers
at bidder conferences. For the exam, make sure you attend bidders
conferences and that all bidders have equal opportunities.

Answer: Bidder Conferences.

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Contract term and condition. Often used as “insurance” for seller’s

performance. This protects the buyer from claims of non-payment by the
seller.

Answer: Bonds.
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Method of estimating a specific component of work. Work packages have

been decomposed to understand more details about the scope of the work.
The people doing the work create the estimates. The accuracy level of
estimates is enhanced by the size and complexity of the smaller scopes of
work at the lower levels. For the exam, bottom-up estimating is more time-
consuming, but considered more accurate than analogous estimates. Three-
point estimates can also refer to bottom-up estimating.

Answer: Bottom-Up Estimating.

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A general data gathering and creativity technique that can be used to

identify risks, ideas, or solutions to issues by using a group of team members
or subject-matter experts. Typically, a brainstorming session is structured so
that each participant’s ideas are recorded for later analysis.

Answer: Brainstorming.
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Contract term and condition. Occurs when an obligation of the contract is

not met. The response to a breach always begins with the issuance of a
letter (Letter of Default) informing the other party of the breach, in an effort to
protect the relationship. For the exam, project managers should strive to
resolve conflicts and issues first, not simply terminate the seller.

Answer: Breach/Default.
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The approved estimate for the project or any work breakdown structure
component or any schedule activity. See also estimate. Also see BAC
below.

Answer: Budget.
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The sum of all the budgets established for the work to be performed on a
project or a work breakdown structure component or a schedule activity. The
total planned expense for the project, as approved by the Project Sponsor,
and included in the Project Management plan.

Answer: Budget at Completion (BAC).

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Either a calculated Estimate at Completion (EAC) or bottom-up EAC figure.

This should be documented and communicated to the stakeholders.
Forecasting may also include Estimate to Completion (ETC). Essentially,
EAC = AC + ETC. The Control Costs process includes all the forecast
formulas. For the exam, see the PMM Exam Reference Sheet for the key
forecast formulas.

Answer: Budget Forecasts.

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A visual chart depicting the number of backlog items remaining at any point
in time in a project. Burndown charts are used on projects using an adaptive
life cycle.

Answer: Burndown.
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Shows the flow of business activities using UML notation. May use vertical
swim lanes (aka: UML activity diagram).

Answer: Business activity diagram.

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The set of activities performed to identify business needs; recommend

relevant solutions; and elicit, document, and manage requirements.

Answer: Business analysis.

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A description of how the business analysis process will be conducted for the
project or program. The business analysis approach is documented in the
business analysis plan.

Answer: Business analysis approach.

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An organizational structure created whereby business analysts are

managed centrally or are provided mentorship centrally for the purpose of
improving the business analysis discipline across the organization. Also
called Center of Business Analysis Practice.

Answer: Business analysis center of excellence.

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The set of business analysis information produced as an output of the

business analysis work conducted on a program or project. Such output may
be comprised of business analysis deliverables, business analysis work
products, or a combination thereof.

Answer: Business analysis documentation.

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A subplan of the project management plan that defines the business analysis
approach, including the tasks that will be performed, the deliverables that will
be produced, the roles required to carry our the process, and process
decisions regarding how requirement-related decisions will be made; how
requirement priorities will be set; how changes to requirements will be
proposed, approved, and managed; how requirements will be validated,
verified, monitored, and traced; and how business analysis communication
will be preformed.

Answer: Business analysis plan.

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The domain of business analysis that involves planning all of the business
analysis activities and reaching the necessary process decisions required for
running an effective business analysis process for a program or project.

Answer: Business analysis planning.

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A collection of the business functions, organizational structures, locations,

and processes of an organization, including documents and depictions of
those elements.

Answer: Business architecture.

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Documented after analyzing the Business Need. Illustrates why the project a
viable venture. The business case is an input to the Develop Project Charter
process in the Initiating Process Group. Customer satisfaction is also
important, however, it is very important the business requirements are kept.

Answer: Business Case.

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The impetus for a change in an organization, based on an existing problem

or opportunity. The business need provides the rationale for initiating a
project or program.

Answer: Business Need.

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A business analysis model that relates the business problems, business

objectives, and top-level features. This model encompasses the justification
for a project.

Answer: Business Objectives Model.

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Requirements are analyzed, prioritized, and documented as they relate to

the needs for the preforming organization. Also see business need, and
documented in the business case. Benefit analysis (e.g. with the help of the
Business Analyst) tracks business requirements through project, and even
after the project has been completed.

Answer: Business Requirements.

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A risk that has a chance for “profit or loss.” (i.e. Threat or opportunity) For
example, going into business you have a chance to succeed, or go bankrupt.

Answer: Business (Inherent) Risk.

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Constraints about how the organization wants to operate. These constraints

are usually enforced by data and/or processes and are under the jurisdiction
of the business.

Answer: Business Rule.

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A process for evaluating, designing, and implementing the rules that govern
the organization, its processes, and its data.

Answer: Business Rule Analysis.

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A business analysis model that details all of the business rules and their
related attributes.

Answer: Business Rule Catalog.

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A business analysis model that details all of the business rules and their
related attributes.

Answer: Business Rule Catalog.

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A concept that is unique to each organization and includes tangible and

intangible elements. In business analysis, business value is considered the
return, in the form of time, money goods, or intangibles in return for
something exchaned.

Answer: Business Value.

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The acquirer of products, services, or results for an organization. For

procurement questions on the exam, this refers to you, the Project Manager.
The “seller” refers to the contractor/vendor.

Answer: Buyer.
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Structured review of seller’s actual vs. planned contractual performance.

May include quality audits, buyer inspections, earned value analysis, etc.

Answer: Buyer Conducted Performance Review.

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The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project. These units are
generally in hours, days, or weeks, but can also be in quarter years, months,
shifts, or even in minutes. Contrast with duration (work periods).

Answer: Calendar Unit.

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The ability to add value or achieve objectives in an organization through a

function, process, service, or other proficiency.

Answer: Capability.
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A collection of an organization’s capabilities, organized into manageable

pieces, similar to a business architecture.

Answer: Capability Framework.

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A table that displays the capabilities needed to solve a problem or sieve an

opportunity. This tool can show the relationship between a situation, its root
causes, and the capabilities needed to address the situation.

Answer: Capability Table.

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Also called, Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams, this brainstorming tool shows

how various factors (causes) might be linked to potential problems or effects.
This is one of the key seven basic quality tools, but may also be used for risk
management.

Answer: Cause-and-Effect Diagram.

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Identifying, documenting, approving or rejecting, and controlling changes to

the project baselines.

Answer: Change Control.

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A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing,

evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, with all
decisions and recommendations being recorded. Typically includes the
Project Sponsor(s), senior management, and perhaps the customer.

Answer: Change Control Board.

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Meetings of the Change Control Board to review, accept, or reject proposed

change requests based on severity levels or impact to the project. This is a
Tool/Technique for the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

Answer: Change Control Meetings.

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Often a subset of the Configuration Management System in most application

areas. It is a system of formal written procedures that define how project
documentation and deliverables will be controlled, changed, approved or
rejected. For the exam, the Project Manager should strive to prevent
unnecessary changes, but when changes are necessary, following a formal,
approved, change control process is paramount.

Answer: Change Control Process / System.

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Changes that occur during the project are documented in this project
document—often in the Scope and/or Integration sections of the Project
Management Plan. Changes should be communicated to the project team
and other stakeholders as appropriate. Even changes that have been
rejected should be recorded in the change log.

Answer: Change Control Tools.

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Changes that occur during the project are documented in this project
document—often in the Scope and/or Integration sections of the Project
Management Plan. Changes should be communicated to the project team
and other stakeholders as appropriate. Even changes that have been
rejected should be recorded in the change log.

Answer: Change Log.

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The plan that defines the process for managing change on the project.

Answer: Change Management Plan.

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Formal requests to expand or reduce the project scope, modify policies,

processes, plans or procedures, modify costs or budgets, or revise
schedules. Sources of change could come from: external event, error or
omission in defining the scope of the product/project, value added change,
implementing contingency or workaround plans to respond to a risk. These
are formally approved or rejected through the change control process and
implemented only upon approval. They are ALWAYS process outputs until
they become an input for the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

Answer: Change Requests.

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To cause a difference, alter, substitute, convert or replace with something

other than the originally designed or recommended action, product, person
or thing. Changes will typically affect forms used, scope, schedules,
budgets, quality, etc. Also see “change requests.”

Answer: Changes.
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Items are listed together for ease to compare (e.g. list created during Risk
Identification for analysis and response at a later time), or to ensure the
actions associated with them are managed appropriately and not forgotten.
These are outputs of the Plan Quality Management process, but may also be
documented in WBS Dictionaries and/or Work Authorization Systems
(W.A.S.).

Answer: Checklist.
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A checklist developed based on historical information and knowledge. (e.g.

the lowest level of the Risk Breakdown structure [RBS] can be used as a risk
checklist.)

Answer: Checklist analysis.

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Sometimes referred to as “tally sheets.” Used for collecting useful data (for
potential quality problems). This information may then be modeled in Pareto
charts, histograms, bar charts, etc. Checksheets are one of the 7 basic
quality tools.

Answer: Checksheets.
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Contract term and condition. A request, demand, or assertion of rights by a

seller against a buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or
payment under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as a disputed
charge.

Answer: Claim.
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Document, monitor, process and manage changes (contested, requested,

etc.), disputes, appeals, and claims between buyer and seller. Done
throughout the contract life cycle, usually according to contract terms and
conditions.

Answer: Claims Administration.

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Includes the concepts of the business (Classes, nouns, entities), their

characteristics, and their behaviors. Used in object-oriented analysis and
design.

Answer: Class diagram.

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The person or organization responsible for contract administration provides

the seller with formal written notice that the contract has been completed.
Requirements for formal contract closure are usually defined in the terms of
the contract. Relates to the Close Procurements process during the Closing
Process Group.

Answers: Closed Contracts.

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A question that calls for a response from a limited list of answer choices.
Types of closed-ended questions are forced choice, limited choice, and
confirmation.

Answers: Close-ended questions.

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Those processes performed to finalize all activities across all Project

Management Process Groups for formally close the project or phase. For
the exam, the two closing processes include Close Project or Phase, and
Close Procurements. For the exam, many of the Closing-related questions
are sequence related.

Answer: Closing Processes.

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The process of completing each project procurement. Incorporated as part

of the Close Project or Phase process during Closing. Contracts are
typically completed as expected, or terminated early.

Answer: Close Procurements.

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The process of finalizing all activities across all of the project process groups
to formally close the project or phase. (Sometimes referred to as
“Administrative Closure,” it incorporates the Close Procurements process.)

Answer: Close Project or Phase.

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Any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work
breakdown structure (WBS). For the exam, do not confuse

Answer: Code of Accounts.

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The process that documents and defines the stakeholders’ needs, required
to meet the project objectives. For the exam, having all the appropriate
stakeholders is key to collecting/eliciting requirements. NOTE: “Elicit” refers
to “drawing out” the requirements, not just “collecting” them.

Answer: Collect/Elicit Requirements.

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Locating project team members in close, physical, proximity to one another

to improve communication, working relationships, and productivity. For the
exam, this may also relate to the “tight matrix.” For the exam, do not confuse
the “tight matrix,” with the Weak, Balanced, Strong, and Composite matrix
organizational structures.

Answer: Colocation.
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A document as part of the Project Management Plan that describes:

communication needs and expectations for the project, how and in what
format information will be communicated, when and where each
communication will be made, and who is responsible for providing each type
of communication. For the exam, all project-related communication should
be gathered, distributed, and stored as per the communications
management plan.

Answer: Communication Management Plan.

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Utilizing methods identified in the Communications Management Plan to

appropriately communicate with each project stakeholder. Basically,
communication is verbal (which can include body language), or written.
Three examples of communication methods include: ‘Interactive
Communication’ (face to face, meetings, video, phone calls), ‘Push’ (letters,
faxes, emails, voice mail, etc.), and ‘Pull’ (Intranet, web sites, e-learning,
etc.) Face to face is considered to be the best form of communication.

Answer: Communication Methods.

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How ideas or information is sent and received between two parties, defined
as the sender and the receiver. This model has included the following
components: Encode, Message, Medium, Noise and Decode. To translate
thoughts or ideas into a language that is understood by others is called
“Encode.” The “Message” is the output of encoding. The method used to
convey the message is called the “Medium.” Anything that interferes with the
transmission and understanding of the message is often referred to as
“communication blockers/noise.” To translate the message back into
meaningful thoughts or ideas is to “Decode.” For the exam, ensure you
know the components of this model.

Answer: Communication Models.

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Analysis of the sum of the information requirements of the project

stakeholders related to: project organization and stakeholder responsibility
relationships, disciplines, departments, specialties, logistics (how many
people and where), and external information (i.e. communications with
media). For the exam, typically high-level information is provided to high-
level managers. Detailed information should be distributed to stakeholders
actually doing the work.

Answer: Communication Requirements Analysis.

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Not the same as Project Management Communications, but is the art of

communications encompassing sender/receiver models, choice of media
depending on the situation, writing style, presentation techniques, and
meeting management techniques. Skill areas include: Written and oral;
listening and speaking; internal and external; formal and informal; vertical
and horizontal. Para lingual cues relate to the pitch and/or tone of a person’s
voice. 55% of communications is body language.

Answer: Communications Skills.

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Technologies/methods used to transfer information back and forth among

project stakeholders. Factors include: immediacy of information; availability
of technology; compatibility with current staff (i.e. would they need training?);
project environment (virtual or not); length of the project (i.e. obsolescence of
technology before the end of the project). Typically analyzed during the Plan
Communications Management process.

Answer: Communications Technology.

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The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller and awarding a

contract. Typically done early during the Executing Process Group. For the
exam, “objectivity” is the key to selecting sellers.

Answer: Conduct Procurements.

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Usually pertaining to information of private, proprietary, or secret matters that

must not be made known to or shared with third parties. May relate to non-
disclosure for contract terms and conditions.

Answer: Confidentiality.
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A collection of formal documented processes, templates, and documentation

used to apply governance to changes to the product, service, result, or
subcomponent being developed.

Answer: Configuration Management.

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A subset of the overall Project Management System. It is a collection of

formal documented procedures used to apply technical and administrative
direction and surveillance to: identify and document the functional and
physical characteristics of a product, result, service, or component; control
any changes to such characteristics; record and report each change and its
implementation status; and support the audit of the products, results, or
components to verify conformance to requirements. In most application
areas, the configuration management system includes the change control
system. A Business Analyst (BA) may closely monitor this system.

Answer: Configuration Management System.

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The use of project management practices, ground rules, interpersonal skills,

role definition and communications for dealing with conflict. Project team
members are initially responsible for resolving their own conflicts. If conflict
escalates, the project manager should help facilitate a satisfactory resolution.
Also addresses the sources of conflict, such as schedules, priorities,
resources, etc. Five conflict management types may be mentioned on the
exam: Problem solving (best), compromising, smoothing, avoiding, forcing
(worst). This is part of the Project Manager’s responsibility to “manage” the
project team, thus conflict. For the exam, conflict must be managed in a
timely manner, and can even be beneficial.

Answer: Conflict Management.

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Delivering results that fall within the limits that define acceptable variation for
a quality requirement. Going beyond conformance, could relate to “gold
plating.”

Answer: Conformance.
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Anything the limits the project team’s options. This refers to the state,
quality, or sense of being restricted to a given course of action or inaction--an
applicable restriction or limitation, either internal or external to the project,
which will affect the performance of the project or a process. For example, a
schedule constraint is any limitation or restraint placed on the project
schedule that affects when a schedule activity can be scheduled and is
usually in the form of fixed imposed dates. A cost constraint is any limitation
or restraint placed on the project budget such as funds available over time.
A project resource constraint is any limitation or restraint placed on resource
usage, such as what resource skills or disciplines are available and the
amount of a given resource available during a specified time frame. Contrast
with risk.

Answer: Constraint.
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A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system

(process, equipment, computer system, etc.) and how people and other
systems (actors) interact with it.

Answer: Context Diagram

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A question that can only be answered as it references the subject at hand;

namely, the problem domain or the proposed solutions.

Answer: Contextual question

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A question that can be asked in any situation.

Answer: Context-free questions

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The amount of funds, budget, or time needed above the estimate to reduce
the risk of overruns of project objectives to a level acceptable to the
organization. Also called a “reserves” or a “contingency allowance.”
Contrast with Management (contingency) reserve.

Answer: Contingency Reserve.

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Risk responses designed to respond to pre-identified risks under certain

predefined conditions. It is believed that there will be sufficient warning to
implement the plan (i.e. triggers such as, missing intermediate milestones).
Often these strategies require additional time and money added to the
definitive schedule/budget. As a result of “reserve analysis,” additional
duration may be added to the schedule, and additional money to the budget.
Also see risk response strategies for threats and opportunities.

Answer: Contingent Response Strategies.

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A contract is a mutually binding agreement issued by the buyer, that

obligates the seller to provide the specified product or service or result and
obligates the buyer to pay for it. It may include special provisions/terms and
conditions. The components for a legal contract include an offer,
acceptance, consideration (e.g. currency), legal capacity, and legal purpose.

Answer: Contract.
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Managing the contract and the relationship between the buyer and seller.
For the exam, Project Managers should be very involved in the selection of
the vendor and the type of contract, however, Contract Administrators can be
very helpful for day-to-day contract administration. Also see Control
Procurements.

Answer: Contract Administration.

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Defines the process by which the contract may be modified (includes

approval levels, dispute resolution procedures, etc.). It is integrated with the
integrated change control system.

Answer: Contract Change Control System.

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The process of completing and settling the contract, including resolution of

any open items and closing each contract. Contracts are typically closed as
expected, or terminated early. Essentially, the Close Contracts process for
the exam.

Answer: Contract Closure.

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Methodology developed and actions performed to deal with any issues

related to contract terms and conditions to formally close all contracts
associated with the completed project.

Answer: Contract Closure Procedure.

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Used to perform the contract closure process. Includes: the contract, product
description, requested/approved changes, deliverables, acceptance criteria,
invoices, payment records, supporting schedules, seller’s performance
reports, etc. For the exam, contracts should be in writing to be legally
binding.

Answer: Contract Documentation.

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Complete set of indexed records to be included with project files. This

information may be stored in the “Records Management System.”

Answer: Contract file.

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The document that describes how a specific contract will be administered

and can include items such as required documentation delivery and
performance requirements. Each contract management plan is listed in the
Procurement Management Plan, a subsidiary plan to the Project
Management Plan.

Answer: Contract Management Plan.

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Clarification and mutual agreement on the structure/requirements of the

contract prior to the signing of the contract. All aspects (i.e. laws, technical,
business, price, authorities, responsibilities, contract financing) should be
incorporated. The seller may use tactics to try to force the buyer to yield to
pressure to make a decision they may regret later.

Answer: Contract Negotiation.

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A narrative description of products, services, or results to be supplied under

contract. For the exam, the more comprehensive this is, the better
probability you will get a Fixed Price (FP) contract with the seller.

Answer: Contract Statement of Work (SOW).

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The three “main” types include:

1. Fixed price (lump-sum): Least risk to buyer, fixed total price. (well–
defined SOW).
2. Cost-reimbursable (variable): Involves payment to seller(s) for actual
costs plus a fee for seller’s “profit.” (vague SOW)
3. Time and materials (variable and fixed): Hybrid of fixed price and cost-
reimbursable. Cost-type arrangements are “open-ended.”

Answer: Contract Types.

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A management control point where scope, budget (resource plans), actual

cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for
performance measurement. Control accounts are placed at selected
management points of the WBS above the work package level. Each
Control Account can include one or more work packages, but work packages
can be associated with only one Control Account. Used as a basis of
planning when associated work packages have not yet been planned (scope
not well defined or understood). Control accounts (and planning packages)
are sometimes documented in the Project Charter. For the exam, relate this
to funding limit reconciliation.

Answer: Control Account.

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Used in project management to show how a process behaves over time, to

determine whether a process is in control.

Answer: Control Chart.

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The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project
budget and managing changes to the cost baseline. Most of the EVM and
forecasting formulas are included in the Control Costs process. Formulas:
EV – AC = CV & AC / CV = CPI.

Answer: Control Costs.

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The area composed of three standard deviations on either side of the

centerline, or mean, of a normal distribution of data plotted on a control chart
that reflects the expected variation in the data. For the exam, this typically
relates to a quality control chart.

Answer: Control Limits (i.e. upper and lower).

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The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract

performance, and making changes and corrections, as needed. Performed
during Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer: Control Procurements.

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Monitoring specific project results to verify relevant quality standards and

identify ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance. May utilize
the 7 basic quality tools. Typically relates to monitoring and controlling the
quality of the product (e.g. inspections, quality control charts).

Answer: Control Quality.

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The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress
and managing changes to the schedule baseline. Formulas: EV – PV = SV
& EV / PV = SPI.

Answer: Control Schedule.

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The process of monitoring the status of the project and the product scope
and managing changes to the scope baseline.

Answer: Control Scope.

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Monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships and adjusting strategies

and plans for engaging stakeholders. For the exam, this closely relates to
stakeholder communication.

Answer: Control Stakeholder Engagement.

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Recommended action as a result of a QA/QC measurement or some

Monitoring and Controlling Process and implemented during Executing to
bring future performance of the project in line with the Project Management
Plan.

Answer: Corrective Action.

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Aggregating (i.e. adding) the estimated costs of individual schedule activities

or work packages to establish a total cost baseline for measuring project
performance.

Answer: Cost aggregation.

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The approved time-phased plan plus or minus approved project scope, cost,
schedule, and technical changes. Baselines can be established for project,
WBS component, a work package, or a schedule activity.

Answer: Cost baseline.

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Cost-Benefit analysis is a comparative approach and typically done during

project selection. Benefits must outweigh the costs to produce project
deliverables. This relates to “value,” and is often performed during Initiating.
Part of this decision is to consider the tradeoffs.

Answer: Cost-Benefit Analysis.

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Defined procedures integrated with the Integrated Change Control Process

describing how the cost baseline maybe modified.

Answer: Cost Change Control Systems.

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The high-level economic feasibility of a potential project or program, taking

into account both financial benefits and costs.

Answer: Cost-Effectiveness Feasibility.

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Describes how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
over the project lifecycle.

Answer: Cost Management Plan.

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The authorized time-phased Budget at Completion (BAC) used to measure,

monitor, and control cost performance on the project. Essentially, this
information is recorded in the Cost Management Plan, and usually refers to
the “definitive budget.”

Answer: Cost Performance Baseline.

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Measures the efficiency of cost on a project. It is the ratio of Earned Value

(EV) to Actual Costs (AC). The formula is: CPI = EV / AC. If the CPI is less
than 1, you are over budget; if the CPI is 1, you are on budget; if the CPI is
greater that 1, it means you are under budget. (e.g. If CPI is .8, it means you
are only getting a return of 80 cents on the dollar.) Also see Earned Value
Management. Contrast with SPI.

Answer: Cost Performance Index (CPI).

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A cost reimbursable contract type where the buyer reimburses the seller for
the seller’s costs as agreed to in the contract plus an agreed upon fixed fee.

Answer: Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF).

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This is a cost reimbursable type contract where the seller earns additional
profits by meeting a pre-defined performance target in addition to any agreed
upon costs according to the contract. Award fees are a fixed amount,
whereas an incentive fee is set up to pay a variable amount, usually based
on early completion. If agreed upon, award and incentive monies must be
incorporated into the final, definitive budget. Earned Value Management
may also be used to measure vendor performance. For the exam, ensure
that award incentive fees have been added into your definitive budget.

Answer: Cost Plus Award /Incentive Fee (CPIF).

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Determining the preventative and failure costs incurred to ensure quality.

Prevention and appraisal costs (i.e. cost of conformance) include costs for
quality planning, quality control (QC), and quality assurance to ensure
compliance to requirements (i.e. training, QC systems, etc.). Failure costs
(i.e. cost of non-conformance) include costs to rework products, components,
or processes that are non-compliant, costs of warranty work and waste, and
loss of reputation. For the exam, prevention costs (cost of conformance)
may need to be added into your definitive budget.

Answer: Cost of Quality (COQ).

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A type of contract involving reimbursement by the buyer to the seller for the
seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing seller’s profit. Costs are
usually classified as direct costs or indirect costs. Sometimes there are
additional fees, incentive clauses, or bonuses involved depending on the
type of cost reimbursable contract. These contract types typically provide
more risk to the buyer, and are more common when the SOW is vague. For
the exam, these contracts are considered more risky than fixed price
contracts.

Answer: Cost Reimbursable Contract.

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An Earned Value Management formula to measure (in dollars) the cost

performance on a project and a part of Earned Value Management. The
formula is CV = EV - AC. A CV of 0 means you are on budget; less than 0
means you are over budget, and greater than 0 means you are under
budget. Contrast with Schedule Variance.

Answer: Cost Variance.

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Schedule duration compression technique related to adding resources to the

project in which cost and schedule tradeoffs are analyzed to determine how
to obtain the correct amount of compression for the least incremental cost.
Crashing often increases cost, but is less risky that “fast-tracking” (i.e.
performing activities concurrently).

Answer: Crashing.
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This scope management process takes the project deliverables and breaks
them down to smaller components, which are more easily managed. This
process occurs after developing the Project Scope Statement, and produces
the “Scope Baseline.”

Answer: Create WBS (Work Breakdown Structure).

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A standard of judgment or criticism; a rule or principle for evaluating or

testing something. Also see acceptance criteria.

Answer: Criteria.
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Any schedule activity on the critical path in a project schedule network

diagram. Most commonly determined by using the critical path method.
Although some activities are “critical,” in the dictionary sense, without being
on the critical path, this meaning is seldom used in the project context.
Activities on the critical path have float/slack of 0 (or less). Also see critical
path.

Answer: Critical Activity.

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A schedule network analysis technique used to modify the project schedule

to account for limited resources and/or time limits. Mixes probabilistic and
deterministic approaches to schedule network analysis.

Answer: Critical Chain Method.

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Generally, but not always, the sequence of schedule activities that

determines the duration of the project. This is the longest path through the
project schedule network diagrams well as shortest timeframe in which the
project can be completed. However, this path can end, as an example, on a
schedule milestone that is in the middle of the project schedule and that has
a finish-no-later than imposed date schedule constraint. A project with more
than one these increases the risk. For the exam, this relates to a key benefit
for developing project schedule network diagrams.

Answer: Critical Path.

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A Schedule Network analysis technique used to determine the amount of

scheduling flexibility (or the amount of float) on the various logical network
paths in the project schedule network, and to calculate the minimum total
project duration. Early Start and Early Finish dates are calculated using a
Forward Pass and a specified start date. Late Start and Late Finish dates
are used to calculate activity free float/slack by performing a backward pass.

Answer: Critical Path Method (CPM).

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Create, Read, Update, Delete matrix used in data analysis to make sure that
every data element is supported by processes that perform the activities.

Answer: CRUD matrix.

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Reformatting existing business information for use in a new solution (part of

transition requirements).

Answer: Data Conversion.

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A business analysis model that catalogs the attributes of specific data

objects.

Answer: Data Dictionary.

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A business analysis model that combines processes, systems, and data to

show how data flows through a solution.

Answer: Data Flow Diagram.

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Techniques used include: Interviewing (to quantify the probability and

impact), probability distribution (Beta and Triangular), and expert judgment
(Subject Matter Experts to validate data and techniques).

Answer: Data Gathering and Repression Techniques.

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A semiformal activity, conducted by someone with in-depth business

knowledge. The results obtained from DITL testing enable validation or
evaluation of whether or not a product or service or solution provides the
functionality for a typical day of usage by a role that interacts with the
solution.

Answer: Day in the Life Testing (DITL).

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An Analysis model that uses a tabular format to display complex business

rules by representing decision points in the upper rows and outcomes in the
bottom rows with the purpose of providing all combinations of choices.

Answer: Decision Table.

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A quantitative risk analysis technique, which consists of a diagram that

describes a decision under consideration and the implications of choosing
one or another of the available alternatives. It is used when some future
scenarios or outcomes of actions are uncertain. It incorporates probabilities
and the costs or rewards of each logical path of events and future decisions
and uses expected monetary value analysis to help the organization identify
the relative values of alternate actions. Essentially, expected monetary value
calculations are used to help make decisions. For the exam, ensure the two
branches of the “uncertain outcome” add to 100%.

Answer: Decision Tree/Expected Monetary Value Analysis.

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A planning technique (during the Create WBS, and Define Activities planning
processes) that subdivides the project scope and project deliverables into
smaller, more manageable components, until the project work associated
with accomplishing the project scope and providing the deliverables is
defined in sufficient detail to support executing, monitoring and controlling
the work. For the exam, this may also be called deconstruction, and relate to
progressive elaboration.

Answer: Decomposition.
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A model that is used to divide and subdivide a high-level concept into lower-
level concepts, for example, dividing the project scope and project
deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts for the purpose of analysis.
Also known as decomposition diagram.

Answer: Decomposition Model.

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An imperfection or deficiency in a project component where that component

does not meet its requirements or specifications and needs to be either
repaired or replaced. Checksheets and Pareto diagrams may be used to
collect and prioritize defect-related information, respectively. Preventive and
corrective action may be required to analyze/repair these.

Answer: Defect.
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Formally documented identification of a defect in a project component with a

recommendation to either repair the defect, or completely replace the
component.

Answer: Defect Repair.

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Formally documented identification of a defect in a project component with a

recommendation to either repair the defect, or completely replace the
component.

Answer: Defect Repair Review.

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Identifying the specific activities that must be performed in order to produce

the various project deliverables. This process yields a list of milestones, a
list of activities, and a list of activity attributes (characteristics).

Answer: Define Activities.

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The process of developing a detailed project scope statement, which is often

used as the basis for future project decisions. This project scope statement
should be developed prior to creating a WBS.

Answer: Define Scope.

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To complete the “formalized acceptance” of deliverables, deliverables are

“verified” during the Quality Control process and “validated” during the
Validate Scope process.

Answer: Deliverable Acceptance.

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Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability, to perform a service

that must be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Often used
more narrowly in reference to an external deliverable, which is a deliverable
that is subject to approval by the project sponsor or customer. Also see
deliverable acceptance.

Answer: Deliverables.
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An information gathering technique used as a way to reach a consensus of

experts on a subject. Experts on the subject participate in this technique
anonymously through the use of blind surveys. For the exam, this may be
mentioned as a technique used during the Initiating Process Group to reduce
bias and encourage more participation during the project selection analysis.

Answer: Delphi Technique.

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Another name for “logical relationships” in a project schedule network

diagram. The four types of logical dependency relationships are: Finish-to-
Start; Finish-to-Finish; Start-to-Start; and Start-to-Finish. The four
dependency types are: Mandatory (hard logic), Discretional (preferential- soft
logic), internal, and external. For the exam, this relates to the Sequence
Activity process using the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM). (e.g.
One activity may require other activities being underway, or completed.)

Answer: Dependency.
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An elicitation technique that analyzes existing documentation and identifies

information relevant to the requirements.

Answer: Dependency analysis.

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The exam may reference four types of dependencies defining the sequence
among activities: Mandatory, or inherent in the nature of the work being
done and unchangeable (hard logic), Discretionary, based upon knowledge
of best practices in some application area and more flexible (preferential or
soft logic), Internal, often involving dependency relationships within the
organization (prototypes), and External, involving a relationship between
project activities and non-project activities (usually unwelcome).

Answer: Dependency Determination.

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Quality tool; a statistical method that helps identify which factors might
influence specific variables. Usually applies to the product, by looking for the
most desirable characteristics. Typically uses a computer to compare project
management tradeoffs (e.g. senior engineers cost more, but may be able to
get the job done faster).

Answer: Design of Experiments.

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The process of aggregating (adding) the estimated costs of individual

activities or work packages to establish the cost baseline. May require
funding limit reconciliation if aggregated costs exceed funding limits
documented in the Project Charter. The baseline typically relates to the
Budget a Completion (BAC).

Answer: Determine Budget (Baseline).

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Rates such as staff cost per hours, material cost per foot, etc. May be
gathered from commercial databases, quotes or estimated by the team. Part
of the Estimate Costs process.

Answer: Determine Resource Cost Rates.

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The process of developing a formal document that formally authorizes a

project or phase and documenting initial requirements that satisfies the
stakeholders’ need and expectations. The Project Charter provides a high-
level vision statement for what the project will entail, and why it should be
done. The Project Sponsor(s) approves/authorizes the Project Charter.

Answer: Develop Project Charter.

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The process of documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare,

integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a project management
plan. The Project Management Plan includes information on how to execute,
monitor, control, and close the project. Takes into consideration all
Knowledge Areas. The Project Sponsor(s) approves the Project
Management Plan.

Answer: Develop Project Management Plan.

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A process performed during the Executing Process Group, for improving the
competencies (i.e. training), and interaction of team members to enhance
project performance. “Team training” is considered a “direct cost” included in
the project’s budget. For the exam, this could relate to training the team to
incorporate six sigma, ISO, Agile, etc.

Answer: Develop Team.

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Cause-and-effect diagrams, system flow charts and influence diagrams (i.e.

graphical representations of a problem showing causal influences, time of
events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes), Precedence
Diagramming Method (PDM), and other various network diagramming
techniques. For the exam, diagrams and/or modeling can help graphically
illustrate/simplify complex concepts.

Answer: Diagramming Techniques.

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The process of executing the work defined in the project management plan
to achieve the project’s requirements defined in the Project Management
Plan. This may also include approved change requests, or other
considerations found during the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

Answer: Direct and Manage Project Work.

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A way to describe the desired behaviors of the components on a wireframe

or screen mockup

Answer: Display action response model.

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Making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely

manner. Typically relates to the “Manage Communications” process.
Information should be distributed as per the Communications Management
Plan.

Answer: Distribute Information.

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Procedures and tools used to store, track, version, and archive documents.

Answer: Document Management System (DMS).

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Structured reviews (e.g. of the project management plan), and assumptions;

both high level, as well as at a detailed level. Although this may refer to “as-
is” information, it may provide information appropriate to the project quickly.
Also see organizational process assets.

Answer: Documentation Reviews.

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The total number of work periods (not including holidays or other non-
working periods) required to complete a scheduled activity or work
breakdown structure component. Usually expressed as workdays or
workweeks. Sometimes incorrectly equated with elapsed time. Contrast
with effort and calendar dates.

Answer: Duration.
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In the critical path method (CPM), the earliest possible point in time on which
the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity (or the project) can finish,
based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule
constraints. Early finish dates can change as the project progresses and as
changes are made to the Project Management Plan.

Answer: Early Finish Date.

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In the critical path method (CPM), the earliest possible point in time on which
the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity (or the project) can start,
based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule
constraints. Early start dates can change as the project progresses and as
changes are made to the Project Management Plan.

Answer: Early Start Date.

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The value of completed work expressed in terms of the approved budget

assigned to that work for a schedule activity or work breakdown structure
component. Also see Earned Value Management.

Answer: Earned Value (EV).

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A management methodology for integrating scope, schedule, resources, and

for objectively measuring project performance and progress. Performance is
measured by determining the budgeted cost of work performed (i.e., earned
value) and comparing it to the actual cost of work performed (i.e., actual
cost). Progress is measured by comparing the earned value to the planned
value. Sometimes referred to as Earned Value Analysis (EVA). SV = EV-PV,
CV = EV-AC, SPI = EV/PV, CPI = EV/AC.

Answer: Earned Value Management (EVM).

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A nonconventional accounting procedure that measures an operation’s “real”

profitability. (After tax profit minus the total annual cost of capital.) For the
exam, EVA may be listed as a project selection technique during Initiating.
NOTE: DO not confuse with Earned Value Analysis (EVA).

Answer: Economic Value Added (EVA).

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A business analysis model that shows the systems involved in a project and
how they interrelate with each other.

Answer: Ecosystem Map.

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The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work

breakdown structure component. Usually expressed as staff hours, staff
days, or staff weeks. Contrast with duration.

Answer: Effort.
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Developing more details or more clarity within requirements or models.

Answer: Elaboration (progressive).

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An informal device used by a business analyst to prepare for the elicitation

work.

Answer: Elicitation Plan.

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A session or activity conducted for the purpose of obtaining information from

participants. In business analysis, elicitation sessions are conducted in order
to obtain the information needed to define the requirements.

Answer: Elicitation Session.

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Sometimes called emotional quotient (EQ). EI is the ability to recognize our

own as well as other people’s emotions, to discriminate between different
feelings, and to use this information to guide thinking/behavior. Having a
high EI is considered to be good for leadership, mental health, and better job
performance.

Answer: Emotional Intelligence (EI).

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A risk response strategy used with positive risks (opportunities) to increase

the probability of the opportunity. It is done by identifying and enhancing the
key drivers for positive impact on the project objectives.

Answer: Enhance.
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A collection of the business and technology components needed to operate

an enterprise. The business architecture is usually a subset of the enterprise
architecture and is extended with the applications, information, and
supporting technology to form a complete blueprint of an organization.

Answer: Enterprise Architecture.

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KEY PROCESS INPUT. Any or all external environmental factors and

internal organizational environmental factors that surround or influence the
project’s success. These factors are from any or all of the enterprises
involved in the project, and include organizational culture and structure,
infrastructure, existing resources, work conditions, access to commercial
databases, market conditions, etc. When developing the Project Charter any
and all of the organization’s environmental factors and systems that surround
and influence the project’s success should be considered.

Answer: Enterprise Environmental Factors.

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A business analysis model that shows the business data objects involved in
a project and the relationships between those objects, including he
cardinality of those relationships.

Answer: Entity Relationship Diagram.

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A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome. Usually applied

to project costs, resources, effort, and durations and is usually preceded by a
modifier (i.e., preliminary, conceptual, feasibility, analogous, rough order-of-
magnitude (-25% to +75%), definitive (-5% to +10%), bottom-up, three-point,
parametric, etc.). It should always include some indication of accuracy (e.g.,
± x percent). For the exam, estimates typically relate to resources,
schedule, and cost.

Answer: Estimate.
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The process of estimating the number of work periods that will be needed to
complete individual scheduled activities. NOTE: Duration is determined
before determining calendar dates.

Answer: Estimate Activity Duration.

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The process of estimating the types and quantities of resources required to

perform each scheduled activity. Resources often include people, things,
money, etc. Also provides an input to the Plan Human Resource
Management process.

Answer: Estimate Activity Resources.

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The expected total cost of a schedule activity, a work breakdown structure

component, or the project when the defined scope of work will be completed.
EAC is equal to the actual cost (AC) plus the estimate to complete (ETC) for
all of the remaining work. EAC = AC plus ETC. The EAC may be calculated
based on performance to date or estimated by the project team based on
other factors, in which case it is often referred to as the latest revised
estimate. See also earned value technique and estimate to complete.

Answer: Estimate At Completion (EAC).

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The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources

needed to complete project activities. Estimating can be analogous, bottom-
up, or from parametric/published estimating data. NOTE: Typically, Rough
Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimating is done during Initiating, whereas
Definitive Estimating is typically performed (e.g. Schedule and Budget),
during Planning.

Answer: Estimate Costs.

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Used in cost forecasting. The expected cost needed to complete all the
remaining work for a schedule activity, work breakdown structure component,
or the project. See also earned value management, and estimate at
completion (EAC).

Answer: Estimate To Complete (ETC).

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The tendency to view the traits, ways, ideas, and values observed in other
cultures as invariably inferior and less natural or logical than those of one's
own group. For the exam, this may relate to Organizational Process Maturity
Model (OPM3), which ranks organizations based on their process maturity
capabilities.

Answer: Ethnocentrism.
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In procurement, objective evaluation criteria is often developed and used to

score and rate proposals from sellers. The criteria can be subjective or
objective. Should be included in bid documents to give the seller a better
understanding of the buyer’s needs.

Answer: Evaluation Criteria.

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Directing, managing, performing, and accomplishing the project work,

providing the deliverables, and providing work performance information.

Answer: Execute/Executing.
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Those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project

management plan to accomplish the project’s objectives defined in the
project scope statement.

Answer: Executing Processes.

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Something that occurs; an occurrence; an outcome. Often, a key milestone

may reflect a key goal or objective.

Answer: Event.
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(Victor Vroom motivation theory) The worker is motivated to perform their

duties because they expect a “desired reward” when they successfully
complete the task. Link the workers performance to the reward. The type of
reward expected may change over time. Motivation theories are applied
during the Executing Process Group.

Answer: Expectancy Theory.

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KEY TOOL/TECHNIQUE. Provided by groups or individuals with specialized

knowledge or training in an application/knowledge area, discipline, or
industry. Such experts could come from other units from within the
performing organization, consultants, stakeholders, customers, professional
and technical associations, industry groups, etc. Often relates to processing
information with people and/or computers, to produce desired
outputs/results.

Answer: Expert Judgment.

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A strategy used dealing with positive risks or opportunities. It is used to

ensure that the opportunity is realized (i.e. add more talented resources to
reduce completion time).

Answer: Exploit.
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A statistical technique that calculates the average outcome when the future
includes scenarios that may or may not happen. A common use of this
technique is within decision tree analysis. Modeling and simulation are
recommended for cost and schedule risk analysis because it is more
powerful and less subject to misapplication that expected monetary value
analysis. The two, uncertain outcomes should add to 100% to perform the
calculations. For the exam, choose the potential decision that has the
highest EMV.

Answer: Expected Monetary Value Analysis (EMV) / Decision Tree Analysis.

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Workshops are well-focused groups that bring together essential

stakeholders from a cross section of functional groups to help define product
requirements. They are interactive and in most cases driven to impartiality by
a group facilitator. There are different methods of facilitated workshops
depending on industry application. For example, JAD (Joint Application
Development) in the software field and QFD (Quality Function Deployment)
in manufacturing. Often used to “collect/elicit” requirements. For the exam,
facilitation is an important skillset Project Managers should have.

Answer: Facilitated Workshops.

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A duration compression technique. Doing multiple activities concurrently to

compress the duration of the project schedule without changing the project
scope. Can result in increased risk, rework, and requires more attention to
communication. Also relates to project schedule network diagrams.

Answer: Fast Tracking.

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A study that produces a potential recommendation to address business

needs. It examines feasibility using one or more of the following variables:
operational, technology/system, cost-effectiveness, and timeliness of the
potential solution.

Answer: Feasibility Analysis.

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Represents profit as a component of compensation to a seller. NOTE: The

fee is not listed in a fixed price (FP) type of contract.

Answer: Fee.
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“The product of the project.” Formal acceptance and handover of the final
product, service or result, to the customer including receipt of a formal
statement that the terms of the contract have been met, that the project was
authorized to produce.

Answer: Final Product, Service, or Result.

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The logical relationship where completion of work of the successor activity

cannot finish until the completion of work of the predecessor activity.

Answer: Finish-to-finish (FF).

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The logical relationship where initiation of work of the successor activity

depends upon the completion of work of the predecessor activity. Also see
logical relationship.

Answer: Finish-to-start (FS).

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A type of fixed price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount
(e.g. “lump sum.” as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

Answer: Firm Fixed Price (FFP) Contract.

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A version of a cause-and-effect diagram that depicts a problem and its root

causes in a visual manner. It uses a fish image, listing the problem at the
head, with causes and subcauses of the problem represented as bones of
the fish. See also cause-and-effect diagram.

Answer: Fishbone Diagram.

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A technique for conducting root cause analysis suggesting anyone trying to

understand a problem to ask why it is occurring up to five times to thoroughly
understand its causes.

Answer: Five Whys.

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A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined
by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller
meets defined performance criteria. For the exam, award and incentive fees
“synchronize the objectives of the buyer and the seller,” and must be
included in the Definitive Budget.

Answer: Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

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A type of contract involving a fixed total price for a well-defined product.

Fixed-price contracts may also include incentives for meeting or exceeding
selected project objectives, such as schedule targets. The simplest form of a
fixed price contract is a purchase order. NOTE: The fee is not listed in a
fixed price (FP) type of contract.

Answer: Fixed Price or Lump Sum Contract.

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Also called slack. For the exam, three types cited are: Free float: Amount
of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the early start of the
following activity (Free float = Late Finish – Early Finish). Total float:
Amount of time and activity can be delayed without delaying a milestone, or
the project’s completion date. Project float: Amount of time a project can
be delayed without delaying the externally imposed completion date or
subsequent projects. NOTE: Activities with float/slack are NOT on the critical
path.

Answer: Float.
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Any graphical representation of a process that shows how various elements

of a system interrelate. Flowchart diagrams can help the project team
anticipate where and what quality problems might occur. One of the seven,
basic quality tools.

Answer: Flowcharts.
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This is a form of qualitative research whereby a group of people (e.g.

customers) are asked about their attitude towards a product, service,
concept, advertisement, idea, or packaging. Questions are asked in an
interactive group setting where participants are free to talk with other group
members.

Answer: Focus Groups.

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Analyzing the expected pressures for and against a change or new idea.

Answer: Force Field Analysis.

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Contract term and condition. A situation that is referred to as an act of God

(e.g. fire, storm, hurricane, earthquake, etc.). Typically, it is an allowable
excuse for either party not meeting contract requirements. It is usually
resolved through the seller being given an extension of time on the contract.

Answer: Force Majeure.

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Relates to estimates calculated in advance. For the exam, it may include

Estimate to Completion (ETC), Estimate at Completion (EAC), and/or To
Complete Performance Index (TCPI). The formulas are listed on the PMM
Exam Reference Sheet, and are further described in the Control Costs
process.

Answer: Forecasts.
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Estimate how much the project will cost at completion (EAC), how much will
it cost to complete (ETC), or using the “To Complete Performance Index”
(TCPI).

Answer: Forecasted Completion.

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Estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project’s future

based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast.
Forecasts are based on past work performance information and expected
future performance and how this could impact the project’s estimate at
completion or estimate to completion.

Answer: Forecasting.
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Documents providing the formal confirmation that the product, service or

result of the project has been accepted by the project sponsor and/or
customer.

Answer: Formal acceptance Documentation.

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The calculation of the early start and early finish dates for the uncompleted
portions of all network activities. (Early start + Duration = Early Finish.) A
forward pass will yield the duration of the project. A forward pass is done
prior to doing a Backward Pass.

Answer: Forward Pass.

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Someone with management authority (e.g. department manager) over an

organizational unit within a functional organization. The manager of any
group that actually makes a product or performs a service. Sometimes
called a line manager. For the exam, situations may have project managers
negotiating with functional managers for resources.

Answer: Functional Manager.

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A hierarchical organization where each employee has one clear superior,

staff are grouped by areas of specialization, and managed by a person with
expertise in that area. For the exam, functional organizations work well for
operations, but not for projects.

Answer: Functional Organization.

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Requirements that describe the behaviors of a product.

Answer: Functional Requirements.

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Expenditures are periodically compared and reconciled with funding limits

set by the customer or the performing organization (i.e. resource leveling
maybe used to smooth large variations). This technique is often done when
determining the budget during the Planning Process Group. After estimates
have been added (aggregated), funding limit reconciliation may result in
continuing as planned, closing the project, requesting additional monies for
the project, and/or cutting scope or quality. Also see control account and
planning package.

Answer: Funding Limit Reconciliation.

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A technique for understanding the gap between current capabilities and

needed capabilities. Filling the gap is what comprises a solution
recommendation.

Answer: Gap Analysis.

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Soft skills often include: Leading, communicating, facilitating, negotiating,

mentoring, coaching, problem solving, conflict resolution, influencing the
organization, etc.

Answer: General Management Skills.

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Tool to analyze goals, problems, objectives, success metrics and high level
features.(business objective model)

Answer: Goal model.

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A list of acceptable and unacceptable behaviors adopted by a Project

Management Staff to improve working relationships, effectiveness, and
communication. Team ground rules should be determined by the project
team.

Answer: Ground Rules.

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Examples would be brainstorming, nominal group voting techniques, Delphi

technique, idea/mind mapping for consolidation, and affinity diagrams for
sorting ideas into groups for further analysis. For the exam, link the words
“brainstorming,” and “creativity.”

Answer: Group Creativity Techniques.

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The process of assessing multiple options with an expected outcome

resulting in future actions resolution. Unanimity, Majority, Plurality (i.e.
highest %, but not a majority), and Dictatorship are examples.

Answer: Group Decision Making Techniques.

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Often refers to a subset/fragnet of a complete project schedule network

diagram (e.g. one objective of the entire project or phase. Usually relates to
the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM).

Answer: Hammock Activity.

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Abraham Maslow motivation theory) 5 levels cited, from top to bottom:

Physiological, Safety, Social, Esteem, and Self Actualization. This theory
states that the needs of each level must be fulfilled before the person can go
on to fulfilling the needs of the next level. Motivation theories are applied
during the Executing Process Group.

Answer: Hierarchy of Needs Theory.

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A method of prototyping that creates a functioning representation of the final

finished product to the user. High-fidelity prototyping is performed using a
programming language or a pseudo language of the product to be
demonstrated.

Answer: High-Fidelity Prototyping

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Bar chart showing distribution of variables, the characteristics of a problem,

and relative frequency of occurrence to help identify the cause of problems in
a process by the shape and width of the distribution. May be used to
illustrate resource leveling. Histograms are typically generated with project
management software.

Answer: Histogram.
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Documents and data on prior projects including project files, records,

correspondence, closed contracts, and closed projects. For the exam, this
often refers to “organizational process assets,” and “lessons learned.”
Parametric and analogous estimates rely on parameters based on known
historical information. Analogous and parametric models are likely to be
more accurate when the historical information they are based on is true and
correct, when the parameters used for the estimates are provable, and when
the models can work for both any size project (i.e. they are scalable).

Answer: Historical Information.

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(Frederick Herzberg motivation theory) Includes Hygiene Factors: (minimum

requirements for workers): Administrative policies, working conditions, salary,
personal life, peers, superior, subordinate relationships, status, security.
Motivating Agents (provide increased incentive for the workers):
Recognition, work content, responsibility, and professional growth, are typical
motivating agents. Motivation theories are applied during the Executing
Process Group.

Answer: Hygiene Theory.

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The process of determining which risks may affect the project and
documenting their characteristics. Risks have probability impact, and
urgency (timing) considerations. Risks can be identified at any time, but
comprehensive risk identification.

Answer: Identify Risks.

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The process of identifying all the people or organizations impacted by the

project, and documenting relevant information regarding their interests,
involvement and impact on the project. This process often begins in
Initiating. Stakeholder identification can include determining stakeholder
influence, impact (positive or negative), interest level, involvement, and
interdependency.

Answer: Identify Stakeholders.

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A technique for evaluating a change in relation to how it will affect other

requirements, the product, the program, and the project.

Answer: Impact analysis.

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Relates to determining scope early, and modifying schedule and cost

routinely over the course of the project. Functionality is incrementally added
over time. Contrast with iterative and predictive lifecycles.

Answer: Incremental Life Cycle.

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Benefits the seller receives for aligning with the buyer’s objectives of time,
cost, quality, risk and performance (referred to as synchronization). Award
and incentive fees “synchronize the objectives” of the buyer and the seller.

Answer: Incentives.
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Contract term and condition. Used to protect against or keep free from, loss
or damage. Should specify which party is liable for personal injury, damage
and accidents.

Answer: Indemnification (liability).

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Relates to when the seller is not an employee of the buyer’s organization (as
stated in the contract).

Answer: Independent Contract/Seller.

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Using an impartial third party to conduct estimates can sometimes help

understand if the scope was properly understood internally. NOTE: Project
managers are responsible for “sanity checking,” all estimates.

Answer: Independent Estimates.

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A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time

ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes.
For the exam, these may relate to cause-and-effect diagrams, and often
relate to risk management.

Answer: Influence Diagram.

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Brainstorming possible risks, interviewing, root cause identification, Delphi

technique, Strength, Weakness, Opportunity and Threat (SWOT) analysis.
Often relates to collecting/eliciting requirements.

Answer: Information Gathering Techniques. (i.e Facilitation).

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Software packages used to make presentations. Includes, table reporting,

spreadsheet analysis, graphic capabilities, etc. Project management
software can be used as a tool for modeling information.

Answer: Information Presentation Tools.

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May include manual filing systems, electronic databases, project

management software, and repositories for project related information. For
the exam, this may relate to the Project Management Information System
(PMIS), or Organizational Process Assets. (For example, “SharePoint.”)

Answer: Information Retrieval Systems.

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Used to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the contract

administration process (i.e. automated records management system and/or
electronic data exchange between buyer and seller, etc.). May also refer to
technology required for effective communication (e.g. for virtual teams).

Answer: Information Technology.

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Those processes performed to define a new project of phase of an existing

project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase. The two
“featured” processes are Develop Project Charter, and Identify Stakeholders.
For the exam, look for planning-related words that relate to “high-level,”
initial, analogous, etc.

Answer: Initiating Processes.

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Any item required by a process in order for that process to progress. These
could be outputs from previous processes. For the exam, Organizational
Process Assets, and Enterprise Environmental Factors are common.

Answer: Input.
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Measuring, examining, verifying and testing. Undertaken to determine

whether an activity, component, product, result or service conforms to
specified requirements. (Reviews, Audits, Product Reviews, Walk-Through,
Peer Reviews, etc.) For the exam, this often relates to the Quality Control,
and Validate Scope processes, but can also relate to procurement and/or
risks. Controlling procurements can also utilize inspection. For the exam,
inspection is not a way to ensure quality.

Answer: Inspection.
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The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes and

controlling changes to deliverables and organizational process assets. For
the exam, always strive to follow the change control process. The Change
Control Board (CCB), approves, rejects, or defers change requests.

Answer: Integrated Change Control.

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Legal ownership rights such as patents, trademarks, copyrights, processes,

etc. It is used in connection with or developed as part of the contract, along
with certain warranties to use certain intellectual properties in performance of
the contract. For the exam, this may relate to non-disclosure clauses
needed in contracts, or not considering a seller to keep proprietary
information confidential to the organization.

Answer: Intellectual Property.

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The projected annual yield of a project investment, incorporating both initial

and ongoing costs into an estimated percentage growth rate a given project
is expected to have.

Answer: Internal Rate of Return (IRR).

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Often called “soft skills.” Empathize, anticipate the needs of, acknowledge
the concerns of, communicate, facilitate, inspire, resolve conflict, negotiate,
etc. For the exam, this may also relate to “leadership skills.”

Answer: Interpersonal Skills.

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Used to gather information. Formal/structured, and Informal/unstructured.

For the exam, this technique is often used to collect/elicit requirements.

Answer: Interviews.
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A special type of cause-and-effect diagram that depicts related causes and

effects for a given situation. Interrelationship diagrams help to uncover the
most significant causes and effects involved in a situation. See also cause-
and-effect diagram.

Answer: Interrelationship Diagram.

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Sometimes this term may relate to “Request for Proposal” (RFP). However,
in some environments it may have a more narrow or slightly different
meaning. For the exam, and IFB typically requires a comprehensive SOW.

Answer: Invitation To Bid.

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Billing, charges or fees for an itemized list of goods sold or services rendered
by the seller to the buyer. This is typically more labor intensive for “cost plus”
types of contracts. (NOTE: Fixed price contracts generally require less
invoicing than cost reimbursable contracts.)

Answer: Invoicing.
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A point or matter in question or in dispute, or a point or matter that is not

settled and is under discussion or over which there are opposing views or
disagreements. When a risk actually occurs, it relates to this.

Answer: Issue.
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A written log, documenting the person responsible for resolving specific

issues. Helps the team monitor issues until resolved.

Answer: Issue Log.

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Relates to determining scope early, and modifying schedule and cost

routinely over the course of the project. The product is developed through a
series of iterations (repeated cycles). Contrast with incremental and
predictive lifecycles. Also see Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA).

Answer: Iterative Lifecycle.

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Elicitation technique used to bring a group of stakeholders to consensus

about a requirement or design (Facilitated workshop).

Answer: Joint Application Development or Design (JAD).

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Suppliers deliver goods only when they are needed. Relates to LEAN. For
the exam, JIT “forces” quality because extra materials are not readily
available.

Answer: Just In Time (JIT).

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Relates to making small improvements in products and/or processes to

reduce costs, and ensure consistency or performance of products or
services.

Answer: Kaizen.
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A method for managing knowledge work with an emphasis (JIT), and LEAN.
Work is pulled from a que. May also relate to visual process management.

Answer: Kanban.
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A tool used within the continuous improvement method of Kanban to visually

depict workflow and capacity and assist team members in seeing the work
that is planned, in process or completed. The Kanban board is a variation of
the orginal Kanban cards.

Answer: Kanban Board.

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A type of performance measurement used to evaluate the success of the

project. (E.g. zero defects, meets business requirements, customer
satisfaction.)

Answer: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs).

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A stakeholder who is identified as having a significant stake in the project or

program and who holds key responsibilities such as approving requirements
or approving changes to product scope.

Answer: Key Stakeholders.

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“Kickoff Meetings” should be held after the Project Management Plan has
been approved. (“Project Kickoff Meetings” may be held after the Project
Charter has been approved.) The appropriate stakeholders should be
invited to the meetings. Kickoff meetings are beneficial for project team
communication, helping ensure a common understanding, team-building,
and clarification of roles and responsibilities prior to execution of the project.
For the exam, the kickoff meeting signals the beginning of Executing, and
transition from the project management staff, to the project team.

Answer: Kickoff Meetings.

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A knowledge area represents a complete set of concepts, terms, and

activities that make up a professional field, project management field, or area
of specialization. Currently, Knowledge Areas include: Integration, Scope,
Schedule, Cost, Quality, Resources, Communications, Risk, Procurement, &
Stakeholders.)

Answer: Knowledge Areas.

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Inserted waiting time (e.g. waiting for concrete to cure). A modification of a

logical relationship that directs a delay in the successor activity. Having this
on the critical path is generally not desirable.

Answer: Lag Time.

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In the critical path method (CPM), the latest possible point in time that a
schedule activity may be completed based upon the schedule network logic,
the project completion date, and any constraints assigned to the schedule
activities without violating a schedule constraint or delaying the project
completion date. The late finish dates are determined during the backward
pass calculation of the project schedule network.

Answer: Late Finish (LF).

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In the critical path method (CPM), the latest possible point in time that a
schedule activity may begin based upon the schedule network logic, the
project completion date, and any constraints assigned to the schedule
activities without violating a schedule constraint or delaying the project
completion date. The late start dates are determined during the backward
pass calculation of the project schedule network.

Answer: Late Start (LS).

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A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the

successor activity. Starting the successor activity before the predecessor is
complete.

Answer: Lead.
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A systematic method for the elimination of waste within a manufacturing

system. Focuses on what “adds value” by reducing everything else. For the
exam, it typically relates to quality, Just in Time, and perhaps Kanban.

Answer: LEAN.
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The learning gained from the process of performing the project. Lessons
learned may be identified at any point, but should be performed at key phase
gates/stage exits/milestones. Also considered a project record, to be
included as an “organizational process asset” in the project management
information system (PMIS). For the exam, lessons learned may refer to a
meeting, or the information learned and/or documented.

Answer: Lessons Learned.

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What went well? What could been done differently? The causes of the
variances, the reasoning behind the corrective action chosen, and other
types of lessons learned should be documented so that they become part of
the historical database for this project and other projects of the performing
organization. The database is also the basis of knowledge management.
For the exam, this relates to organizational process assets and a project
management information system (PMIS).

Answer: Lessons Learned Knowledge Base.

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A procurement document stating that the buyer intends to hire the seller. It is
not considered a contract, and is usually not legally binding.

Answer: Letter of Intent.

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Used to measure work performance (e.g. EVM) over the passage of time, not
by the delivery of end products.

Answer: Level of Effort

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Contract term and condition. Estimated damages for specific defaults

(usually from a default by the seller). Remedies for default should be
specifically stated in the contract.

Answer: Liquidated Damaged.

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A document used to record and describe or denote selected items identified

during execution of a process or activity. Usually used with a modifier, such
as issue, quality control, action, or defect. Change control log, risk log, issue
log, and defect log are sometimes cited on the exam.

Answer: Log.
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A dependency between two project schedule activities, or between a project

schedule activity and a schedule milestone. See also precedence
relationship. The four possible types of logical relationships are: Finish-to-
Start (FS); Finish-to-Finish (FF); Start-to-Start (SS); and Start-to-Finish (SF).

Answer: Logical Relationship.

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A method of prototyping that provides fixed sketches, diagrams, and notes

to provide a visual representation of what a screen will look like. Static
prototypes do not demonstrate the operation of the system to the user.

Answer: Low-Fidelity Prototype.

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A general management technique used to determine whether to produce a

product or service in house or procure from outside the performing
organization. Decision factors often include organizational capability,
availability, proprietary issues, cost, or loss of control. Used for make-or-buy
decisions.

Answer: Make-or-Buy Analysis.

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The documented decisions of what project products, services, or results will

be either be acquired outside of the project organization or will be developed
by the project team. Seller capability/availability, proprietary information,
cost, and loss of control may all be taken into consideration in the analysis.

Answer: Make-or-Buy Decisions.

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The process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to

achieve the project’s objectives and contribute to organizational learning.

Answer: Manage Project Knowledge.

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The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback,

resolving conflict/issues, and coordinating changes to enhance project
performance. For the exam, this could also relate to manage conflict
resolution.

Answer: Manage Team.

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Communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their expectations.

For the exam, this often refers to communicating with stakeholders.

Answer: Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Talents inherently required of managers; including, but not limited to,

organizational, time management, presentation, negotiation, facilitation,
communication, writing skills, etc.

Answer: Management Skills.

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Monies withheld for management control purposes, and unforeseen work

within the scope of the project.

Answer: Management (Contingency) Reserves.

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Requirements established by senior management for each project to

accomplish meeting attendance, approval of staff, etc. For the exam, this
may be referred to as “Business Requirements.”

Answer: Management Requirements.

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Relates to optimal quality being reached at the point where incremental

revenue from improvement equals the incremental cost to secure it.

Answer: Marginal Analysis.

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Relates to contract terms and conditions. A breach so large that it may not
be possible to complete the work under the contract.

Answer: Material Breach.

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Any organizational structure in which the project manager shares

responsibility with the functional managers for assigning priorities and for
directing and allocating resources for the work of persons assigned to the
project. (May refer to Weak Matrix (lower project coordination authority),
Balanced Matrix, Strong Matrix, or Composite Matrix (higher project
coordination authority). This may also relate to “project-based organizations
(PBOs),” whose major focus is on project-based activities. For the exam,
these organizations have resources that can work on multiple projects
simultaneously.

Answer: Matrix Organization.

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(David McClelland motivation theory) According to this theory, worker needs

can be “shaped/acquired” over time. McClelland used the Thematic
Appreciation Test (TAT) to assess the individual needs of people. The test
uses pictures that the subject responds to develop “their own spontaneous
story” which provides insight as to the needs they aspire to. 1) Achievement:
“They have the need to achieve.” High achievers should be given
challenging projects, but reachable goals. They have a need to achieve, but
it must be perceived as being possible (i.e. approximately 50% likelihood).
Money can be an effective form of feedback, but not as important as a
motivator. 2) Affiliation: People that have a high need for affiliation perform
best in cooperative environments. The tend to conform more to the norms of
the group and “go with the flow.” 3) Power: Categorized as either personal
power or institutional power. Both have a need to direct others, however,
those who need institutional power are more effective in the organization
than those who have the need for personal power.

Answer: McClelland’s Theory.

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Estimate of how long it takes to perform the repair (e.g. of a defect).

Answer: Mean Time To Repair (MTTR).

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A significant point or event in the project, with no duration. A scheduled

event often used to measure progress. Milestones often relate to the Project
Scope Statement. For the exam, milestones may also designate
checkpoints to perform lessons learned, audits, scope validation, etc.

Answer: Milestone.
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Primarily used as a status report for high-level management/stakeholders to

depict only the milestones in a project schedule. Milestone charts may be
generated by project management software.

Answer: Milestone Chart.

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This is a list of significant events in the project and indicates whether the
milestone is optional or mandatory- possibly because it is a contract
stipulation. A list of milestones and activities are required to develop a
project schedule network diagram. Activities are performed to achieve
milestones.

Answer: Milestone List.

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A risk strategy used in dealing with negative risks, or threats. Utilized in

seeking to reduce (lower) the probability and or consequence of an adverse
risk event to an acceptable threshold. When probability cannot be reduced,
a back-up could be built to address the impact. Mitigate can be as simple as
just communicating with the appropriate stakeholder.

Answer: Mitigate.
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Techniques used to iterate the project cost, project schedule or project risk
using input values selected at random from probability distributions (i.e.
Monte Carlo Analysis). For the exam, this typically requires a computer.

Answer: Modeling and Simulations.

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The process of tracking, reviewing, regulating the progress to meet the

performance objectives defined in the project management plan. This may
include reviewing earned value management and other technical
performance information.

Answer: Monitor and Control Project Work.

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Monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, executing risk reduction plans
and evaluating their effectiveness throughout the project life cycle.
Performed during Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer: Monitor and Control Risk.

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A collection of monitoring processes performed to measure and monitor each

knowledge area so corrective action can be taken when necessary to control
the execution of the phase or project.

Answer: Monitor and Controlling Processes.

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A technique that computes, or iterates, the project cost or project schedule

many times using input values selected at random from probability
distributions of possible costs or durations, to calculate a distribution of
possible total project cost or completion dates. (Requires a computer.) This
technique often relates to quantitative risk analysis, but may also be used
during Initiating to help with project selection (i.e. constrained optimization
method).

Answer: Monte Carlo Analysis.

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A technique used for establishing requirement priorities. In this technique,

the participants divide the requirements into four categories of must haves,
should haves, could haves, and won’t haves.

Answer: MoSCoW.
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A schedule activity that has low total float. (NOTE: Critical path activities
have 0 or less float/slack.) The concept of near critical is equally applicable
to a schedule activity or schedule network path. The limit below which total
float/slack is considered near critical is subject to expert judgment and varies
from project to project. For example, if the critical path shows that the project
will take 300 days, paths that have 290 days could be considered the “near
critical path.”

Answer: Near-Critical Path Activity.

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A strategy of conferring with parties of shared or opposite interests with the

goal of reaching an agreement or compromise. Talks with project managers,
functional managers, sellers, or other stakeholders to achieve a mutual (win-
win) result. Negotiate on the merits and joint problem solving is referred to
on the exam for effective negotiations. (“Be tough on the problem, easy on
the person.”) “Getting to Yes,” (Fisher and Ury) is the book that exam
questions are derived from.

Answer: Negotiation.
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The collection of schedule activity dependencies that makes up a project

schedule network diagram (i.e. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM).)

Answer: Network Templates.

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Developing relationships with persons who may be able to help in reaching

objectives.

Answer: Networking.
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One of the defining points of a schedule network; a junction point joined to

some or all of the other dependency lines. The Precedence Diagramming
Method (PDM), has also been referred to as “Activity on Node (AON).”

Answer: Node.
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Brainstorming with a smaller group, followed by a voting process to rank the

most effective ideas for further brainstorming and/or prioritization. Link with
word “creativity.”

Answer: Nominal Group Technique.

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Brainstorming with a smaller group, followed by a voting process to rank the

most effective ideas for further brainstorming and/or prioritization. Link with
word “creativity.”

Answer: Nominal Group Technique.

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Contract term and condition. Relates to certain correspondence sent to

contractors regarding specific issues. It is typically detailed in the contract.
On the exam, this may relate to a letter of default, as it is not advisable to
abruptly terminate a seller without notice.

Answer: Notice.
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Something toward which work is to be directed, a strategic position to be

attained, or a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to
be produced, or a service to be performed. Completing objectives helps
achieve goals.

Answer: Objective.
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A direct way to view how individuals work in their environment and how they
carry out tasks or perform processes. Sometimes called “job shadowing.”

Answer: Observations.
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Uses only one (e.g. most likely) estimate. May increases likelihood of
padding, inaccuracy, and uncertainty. Contrast with three-point estimating.

Answer: One-Time/Single-Point Estimating.

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A condition or situation favorable to the project, a positive set of

circumstances, a positive set of events, a risk that will have a positive impact
on project objectives, or a possibility for positive changes. Response
strategies for these include Exploit, Share, Enhance, Accept.

Answer: Opportunity.
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A hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization arranged so

as to relate the work packages to the performing organizational units.
Typically, shown in the Human Resource Management Plan.

Answer: Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS).

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A hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization arranged so

as to relate the work packages to the performing organizational units.
Typically, shown in the Human Resource Management Plan.

Answer: Organizational Chart and Position Description.

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An Enterprise Environmental Factor that can affect how resources are

allocated and how a project is conducted. They are typically categorized as
Functional, Matrix, and Projectized. Matrix organizations are further broken
down to Weak, Balanced, Strong, and Composite. For the exam, the
following lists the organizational structures in the order of “project
management authority:” Functional (lowest), Weak Matrix, Balanced Matrix,
Strong Matrix, Composite Matrix, and Projectized (highest). (NOTE: “Tight
matrix” merely refers to colocation.) This relates to enterprise environmental
factors, and should be considered as part of the organization’s commitment
towards project management, levels of authority, allocating resources,
communication, employee performance assessment, etc.

Answer: Organizational Structure.

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Substantial body of literature related to how organizations should be

structured. Also see Organizational Structure above.

Answer: Organizational Theory.

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A result of a process, or service generated by a process. Processes

produce outputs. Understanding process sequence is important because
outputs may be inputs to subsequent processes. Each PMI process has
Inputs, Tools/Techniques, and Outputs. For the exam, updates are always
process outputs. With the exception of the Perform Integrated Change
Control process, “change requests” are always process outputs as well.

Answer: Output.
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Key input to the Develop Project Management Plan process. (Subsidiary

“management” plans become inputs to the Project Management Plan.)

Answer: Outputs From Planning Processes.

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Uses a mathematical model based on relationship between historical data

and other variables (e.g. lines of code in software or square footage in
construction) to calculate estimates for activity characteristics (parameters)
such as scope, cost, budget and duration. Regression analysis (scatter
diagram) and Learning Curve are two examples.

Answer: Parametric Estimating.

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A type of histogram (vertical bar chart), ordered by frequency of occurrence,

that shows how many results were generated by each identified cause.
Pareto charts can help the appropriate stakeholders focus on the vital few.
For the exam, Pareto charts may also relate to the 80/20 rule (e.g. 80% of
the defects, come from 20% of the causes.)

Answer: Pareto Chart.

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“Work expands so as to fill the time (and perhaps, money) available for its
completion.” May be a consideration for stakeholders padding their
estimates. For the exam, Parkinson’s Law is something to avoid, perhaps by
adopting three-point estimates to reduce “padding/buffering.”

Answer: Parkinson’s Law.

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The merging or joining of parallel schedule network paths into the same
node in a project schedule network diagram. Path convergence is
characterized by a schedule activity with more than one predecessor activity.
For the exam, this may also relate to “sensitive” (e.g. quantitative risk
analysis) areas within the project schedule network diagram.

Answer: Path / Point of Convergence.

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Monetary disbursements transferred from the buyer to seller for services or

products produced by seller as agreed upon in the contract. For the exam,
be aware of payment management questions (i.e. if the seller distributes
inaccurate invoices the buyer could only stop payment on the disputed
amounts, after notification to the seller of the dispute).

Answer: Payments.
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Assumes that the project is using an external payment system. If it were

internal, it would be “payment.” More administration is required for cost
reimbursable type contracts.

Answer: Payment Schedules and Requests.

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Accounts payable system to pay the seller. (Review, approve, and pay.) For
the exam, you may see situations where you have a contract administrator
working on your project team to help with seller payments. NOTE: Cost-
reimbursable contracts typically require more administration for payment
systems.

Answer: Payment Systems.

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An estimate, expressed as a percent, of the amount of work that has been

completed on an activity or work breakdown structure component. When
percent complete information is not easy to determine, project managers
may apply the 50/50, 20/80, or 0/100 percent complete “heuristics / rule of
thumb.”

Answer: Percent Complete.

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The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and

managing changes to the deliverables, organizational process assets,
project documents, and project management plan (i.e. Follow your change
control process). Also see Change Control Board (CCB). For the exam, this
is the only process that has “change requests” as a process input.

Answer: Perform Integrated Change Control.

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The process of prioritizing risks (subjectively. e.g. on a scale for 1-10) for
further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of
occurrence and impact on project objectives. For the exam, this may also
refer to a P-I matrix to illustrate threats and opportunities. Contrast with
quantitative risk analysis.

Answer: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

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Applying planned, systematic, quality activities (such as audits, peer reviews,

etc.) to ensure that the project will employ all processes to satisfy all relevant
quality standards. Often audits standards/processes. For the exam, look for
“implementing/following standards,” “auditing processes,” and making
process improvements. NOTE: Quality Control typically inspects/verifies the
product.

Answer: Perform Quality Assurance.

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Numerically analyzing and measuring the probability and impact of identified

risks on project objectives. Ranks risk based on the expected monetary
value (EMV). For the exam, this typically requires a computer—also look for
words such as “modeling,” and “simulation.” Also see Perform Qualitative
Risk Analysis and Decision Tree/Expected Monetary Value Analysis.
Contrast with qualitative risk analysis.

Answer: Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Information gathered and compiled from electronic databases, project

management software, manual filing systems, etc. Typically performed
during Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer: Performance Information Gathering and Compilation.

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The performance measurement baseline integrates scope, schedule, cost,

and quality parameters of a project. Project execution is compared and
deviations are measured for management control. The calculated variances
are documented and communicated to stakeholders. For the exam, Earned
Value Analysis (EVA) is considered to be the key performance measurement,
and typically require project management software (e.g. MS Project).

Answer: Performance Measurements.

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An approved integrated scope-schedule-cost plan for the project work

against which the project execution is compared to measure and manage
performance. Technical and quality parameters may also be included. Used
for Earned Value Management (EVM), and Forecasting measurements.
Essentially, this information should be included in the Project Management
Plan.

Answer: Performance Measurement Baseline.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Documents and presentations that provide organized and summarized work

performance information, earned value management parameters and
calculations, and analyses of project work progress and status. Common
formats for performance reports include bar charts, S-curves, histograms,
tables, and project schedule network diagram showing current schedule
status. Performance reports can also be used for personnel assessment.

Answer: Performance Reports.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

This often refers to a structured review of the seller’s progress to perform or

deliver the agreed-upon goods or services for quality, cost and schedule as
agreed upon in the contract. For the exam, project managers may provide
information to functional managers for team/staff performance reviews.

Answer: Performance Reviews.

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Developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications

based on stakeholder information needs and requirements, and
organizational assets. Determining the information and communications
needs of the project stakeholders; who they are, what is their level of interest
and influence on the project, who needs what information, when will they
need it, and how it will be given to them. Produces a communications
management plan. Also consider the “communications model” for the exam.

Answer: Plan Communications Management.

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Establishes the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning,

managing, expending, and controlling project costs. Produces a cost
management plan/cost baseline. Contrast with procurement management.

Answer: Plan Cost Management.

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For the exam, relate this to Total Quality Management, quality improvement,
Edwards Deming, iterative/incremental/adaptive lifecycles, Agile, and
possibly rolling wave/progressive elaboration.

Answer: Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA).

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Identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills,

reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan. For the
exam, also consider organizational charts, and the RACI RAM. Produces a
Resources Management Plan.

Answer: Plan Resource Management.

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Documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach, and

identifying potential sellers. Includes make-or-buy analysis, procurement
documentation, and objective source selection criteria. For the exam, the
project manager should be involved in both vendor and contract-related
decisions. For the exam, contrast with cost management. Produces the
Procurement Management Plan.

Answer: Plan Procurement Management.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and

determining how to satisfy them. For the exam, ensure you know quality
tools/techniques (e.g. Seven basic quality tools). This process yields quality
metrics, quality checklists, and the continuous process improvement plan.
Produces the Quality Management Plan.

Answer: Plan Quality Management.

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The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a

project. The key component of the risk management plan is the risk register.
Produces a Risk Management Plan.

Answer: Plan Risk Management.

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The process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and

to reduce threats to project objectives. Often this includes time and money
that must be added to the schedule and budget. For threats; Avoid, Transfer,
Mitigate, Accept. For Opportunities; Exploit, Share, Enhance, Accept.
Residual and secondary risks may also need to be considered.

Answer: Plan Risk Responses.

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Establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning,

developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.
Includes analyzing schedule activity sequences, schedule activity durations,
resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project
schedule. Produces a Schedule Management Plan/schedule baseline.

Answer: Plan Schedule Management.

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Creating a scope management plan that documents how the project scope
will be defined, validates, and controlled. For the exam, understanding
scope is key. Produces a scope management plan/scope baseline.

Answer: Plan Scope Management.

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Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be

impacted by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project; and analyzing and
documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement,
interdependencies, and potential impact on project success. Stakeholders
provide scope-related information.

Answer: Plan Stakeholder Management.

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The authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work to be accomplished

for a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component.
(SV = EV – PV) (SPI = EV / PV)

Answer: Planned Value (PV).

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Meetings conducted for the purpose of evaluating risks to the project and
developing a Risk Management Plan. Teams should develop their own
ground rules. Virtual team meetings are typically more difficult than face-to-
face meetings (e.g. communication-related risks/issues).

Answer: Planning Meeting and Analysis.

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WBS component below the control account with known work content but
without detailed schedule activities. May be documented in the Project
Charter. For the exam, this may also be related to funding limit reconciliation
when determining the budget. Also see Control Account.

Answer: Planning Package.

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Those processes performed to define and mature the project scope, develop
the project management plan, and identify and schedule the project
activities* that occur within the project. NOTE: For the exam, the subsidiary
plans (management plans) are inputs to the Project Management Plan.

Answer: Planning Processes.

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Relates to contract terms and condition. A pricing (cost) strategy: Long-term

costs = absorption cost. For long-term pricing, cost may be defined as
absorption cost (e.g. direct materials, direct labor, variable manufacturing
overhead, and fixed manufacturing overhead). Stresses that all elements of
production must be recovered in the selling price. Data should be readily
available because the absorption cost is used for valuing inventory on the
balance sheet.

Answer: Point of Total Absorption.

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Contract term and condition. A pricing (cost) strategy: Long-term costs =

absorption cost. For long-term pricing, cost may be defined as absorption
cost (e.g. direct materials, direct labor, variable manufacturing overhead, and
fixed manufacturing overhead). Stresses that all elements of production
must be recovered in the selling price. Data should be readily available
because the absorption cost is used for valuing inventory on the balance
sheet.

Answer: Point of Total Assumption.

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Relates to program management. A collection of projects or programs and

other work that are grouped together to facilitate effective management of
that work to meet strategic business objectives. The projects or programs of
the portfolio may not necessarily be interdependent or directly related. Also
see portfolio management.

Answer: Portfolio.
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The centralized management of one of more portfolios, which includes

identifying, prioritizing, authorizing, managing and controlling projects,
programs and other related work to achieve specific strategic business
objectives. Relates to program management, and the Program Management
Office (PMO).

Answer: Portfolio Management.

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Sometimes, project staff may be pre-assigned if the project is the result of a

competitive proposal and specific staffs were promised on the project. Pre-
assignments are also done if, it is an internal project and staff assignments
were defined within the Project Charter. For the exam, this often relates to
the Acquire Project Team process.

Answer: Pre-assignment (resources).

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Popular project schedule network diagramming method in which schedule

activities are represented by boxes (or nodes), and linked by one or more
logical relationships to show the sequence of the activities to be performed.
Used to sequence activities to determine/manage the critical path.

Answer: Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM).

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The schedule activity that determines when the logical successor activity can
begin or end. (Relates to the Sequence Activities process in Planning.)

Answer: Predecessor Activity.

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Scope, schedule, and cost are determined early in the lifecycle. Typically
used for more formal, longer, and more comprehensive projects. Considered
to better minimize risk. Contrast with iterative and incremental lifecycles.

Answer: Predictive Lifecycle.

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List of those risks that pose the greatest threat to the project. May use a
computer and software tool such as “Crystal Ball.” Risks are prioritized
based on their Probability and Impact. Also see Perform Quantitative Risk
Analysis.

Answer: Prioritized List of Quantified Risks.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Forecasting potential project schedule and cost results, listing the possible
completion dates or project duration and costs, with confidence levels. For
the exam, this topic may relate to a “Constrained Optimization Method”
(computer) project selection technique that may be used during Initiating.

Answer: Probabilistic Analysis of the Project.

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Risk priority methodology used to rank risks by combining two dimensions of

risk; its probability of occurrence, and its impact if it does occur. Performed
as part of Qualitative Risk Analysis. (Scales often include Very High, High,
Medium, Low, and Very Low, and may be modeled using red, yellow, green
colors.) For the exam, it may refer to both project threats and opportunities.

Answer: Probability and Impact Matrix.

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Probability of achieving the project objectives under the current plan and with
current knowledge. This may be determined by Monte Carlo analysis during
quantitative risk analysis.

Answer: Probability of Achieving Time and Cost Objectives.

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Identifies needed improvements from an organizational and technical

standpoint (I.e. root cause analysis). Used to take preventive actions for
similar problems.

Answer: Process Analysis.

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Used to illustrate goals and the steps required to achieve the goals.

Answer: Process Decision Program Charts (PDPC).

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A “sub-plan” of the Quality Management Plan that increases customer value

by identifying/addressing waste. (I.e. process metrics, process configuration,
process boundaries, etc.). Often this plan is “audited” during the Quality
Assurance process.

Answer: Process Improvement Plan.

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Structured review of the procurement process from plan purchases and

acquisitions process through contract administration. Used to identify
successes and failures that warrant investigation/recognition/reporting, etc.
Procurement audits are typically performed during Monitoring and
Controlling, and may be required prior to paying the seller.

Answer: Procurement Audits.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Structured review of the procurement process from plan purchases and

acquisitions process through contract administration. Used to identify
successes and failures that warrant investigation/recognition/reporting, etc.
Procurement audits are typically performed during Monitoring and
Controlling, and may be required prior to paying the seller.

Answer: Procurement Documents.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Negotiations help buyers and sellers come to agreed-upon terms and

conditions for contracts. Having objective source selection criteria is
important when selecting sellers. For the exam, sellers may use tactics to
get the buyer yield to pressure (e.g. Deadline, good guy/bad guy, missing
man, & fait accompli).

Answer: Procurement Negotiations (Tactics).

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Procurement Management Plan. Describes how the procurement process
will be managed from developing procurement documentation through
contract closure.
Descriptions can include:
- Type of contract to be used
-If independent estimates will be needed as evaluation criteria, then, who will
prepare them and when.
-What actions the procurement department/Project Management Staff will
take.
-Information on standardized procurement documentation.
-How multiple providers will be managed?
- How procurement will be coordinated with other projects, etc. Informal or
formal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based on the needs of the project.

Answer: Procurement Management Plan.

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Each procurement has it’s own statement of work which is developed from
the project scope baseline. The scope for that contract is given in enough
detail to let prospective sellers understand whether they can provide the
goods and/or services to comply with the contract’s requirements. For the
exam, the more comprehensive the SOW, the more likely the buyer will be
able to negotiate a fixed price contract.

Answer: Procurement Statement of Work (SOW).

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An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in

itself or a component item. Additional words for products are materiel and
goods. For the exam, this may be referred to as the “product of the project.”
The customer formally approves the product during Closing.

Answer: Product.
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Techniques for translating project objectives into tangible requirements and

deliverables, such as systems engineering, value analysis, product
breakdown analysis, quality functionality and deployment. Product analysis
may relate to developing the Project Scope Statement, by reviewing the
Project Charter.

Answer: Product Analysis.

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A collection of generally sequential, non-overlapping product phases whose

name and number are determined by the manufacturing and control needs of
the organization. The last product life cycle phase for a product is generally
the product’s retirement. Generally, a project life cycle is contained within
one or more product life cycles.

Answer: Product Lifecycle.

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The features and functions that define a product, service or result. For the
exam, it is sometimes referred to as the “Product of the Project.”

Answer: Product Scope.

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A business stakeholder affected by a problem or opportunity, or impacted by

or interested in the solution.

Answer: Product Stakeholder.

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A group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits

and control not available from managing them individually. Programs usually
include elements of related work outside of the scope of the discrete projects
in the program. Also see portfolio and portfolio management.

Answer: Program.
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A technique for estimating that applies a weighted average of optimistic (O),

most likely (M), and pessimistic (P) estimates when there is uncertainty with
the individual activity estimates. The formula is: O + 4M + P / 6

Answer: Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT).

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The centralized coordinated management of a program to arrive at the

program’s targeted benefits and purposes. May relate to the Project
Management Office (PMO). Also see program, portfolio, and portfolio
management.

Answer: Program Management.

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Project progress report includes current schedule status (such as start and
finish dates) and the remaining durations for unfinished schedule activities
(i.e. Bar or Gantt charts). Reports could be electronic or paper-based, or
even verbal.

Answer: Progress Reporting.

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Continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detailed and specific

information and more accurate estimates become available as the project
progresses, and thereby producing more accurate and complete plans that
result from the successive iterations of the planning process. Typically,
uncertainty is higher at the beginning of the project, and progressive
elaboration refines/defines over the course of the project.

Answer: Progressive Elaboration.

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A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or

result. (NOT repeatable work/operations.)

Answer: Project.
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A calendar with established activity dates that shows working and idle dates.
Updated to reflect any approved changes. Contrast with duration.

Answer: Project Calendar.

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A high-level document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally

authorizes the existence of a project, and provides the Project Manager with
the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. This is a
key process input when developing a Project Management Plan. These
documents are approved by the project sponsor(s).

Answer: Project Charter.

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Documents formalizing the procedures for transferring both the incomplete

and completed deliverables of both a completed or cancelled project to
others (e.g. the operations group). A key document is “Lessons Learned.”
Also see administrative closure, and administrative closure procedure.

Answer: Project/Phase Closure Documents.

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A subset of project management that includes the processes required to

ensure proper collection, analysis, dissemination, and storage of project-
related information. May also relate to “Engaging Stakeholders.” Includes
the Plan Communications Management, Manage Communications, and
Monitor Communications processes.

Answer: Project Communications Management.

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Includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting,

financing, funding, managing, and controlling costs, so that the project can
be completed within the approved budget. Provides a baseline for
monitoring and controlling costs.

Answer: Project Cost Management.

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These documents are used to assist the Project Manager, but are often not
included in the Project Management Plan.

Answer: Project Documents.

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These documents which are affected at the outcome of a process need to be

updated. This is a standard ITTO output, and could relate to any number of
project documents affected by any change in the project. NOTE: For the
exam, “updates” are always outputs.

Answer: Project Document Updates.

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Documents and records generated from project activities. (e.g. Risk

Registers, baselines, project calendars, etc.) Often, project files are stored in
Project Management Information System (PMIS).

Answer: Project Files.

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Total and periodic (i.e. annual or quarterly) project funding requirements are
derived from the cost baseline. For the exam, this may reflect the result of
the funding limit reconciliation. Adjusted for cost overruns or early progress.
This is an output of the Determine Budget process in the Planning Process
Group.

Answer: Project Funding Requirements.

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Aligning project objectives with the strategy of the organizations, the Project
Sponsor, and the Project Manager. This may include enlisting the
appropriate stakeholders for appropriate project-related activities.

Answer: Project Governance.

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Includes the processes that organize, manage sand lead the project team.
For the exam, this often relates to “staff.” Includes the Plan Resources,
Acquire Resources, Develop Team, and Manage Team processes.

Answer: Project Resource Management.

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Includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine,

unify and coordinate the various processes and project management
activities within the Project Management Process Groups. Processes
include; of Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan,
Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge, Monitor and
Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Change Control, and Close Project
or Phase. Project managers are responsible for project integration. For the
exam, Project Managers should focus on integration/coordination.

Answer: Project Integration Management.

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A collection of generally sequential project phases whose name and number

are determined by the control needs of the organization or organizations
involved in the project. These can be documented with a methodology.
Contrast with project management lifecycle which incorporates Process
Groups—not phases.

Answer: Project Lifecycle.

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The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project

activities in order to meet project requirements. (Essentially, it entails
gathering, analyzing, and reporting project-related “intelligence.”)

Answer: Project Management.

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An inclusive term that describes the sum of knowledge within the profession
of project management. As with other professions such as law, medicine,
and accounting, the body of knowledge rests with the practitioners and
academics that apply and advance it. The complete project management
body of knowledge includes proven, traditional practices that are widely
applied and innovative practices that are emerging in the profession. PMI
Standard is constantly evolving, but does not provide specific information on
how to execute projects.

Answer: Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK).

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Computerized spreadsheets, simulation, and statistical tools used to help

estimate costs. For the exam, “project management software” may be used
for both the Time and Cost Knowledge Areas.

Answer: Project Management Estimating Software.

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A repository of tools, techniques, processes, methodologies, procedures to

gather, integrate, refine, facilitate, and disseminate the outputs of the Project
Management processes. Outputs could include for example, Project
Charter, Project Management Plan, etc. This could comprise both
automated (e.g. SharePoint) and manual systems.

Answer: Project Management Information System.

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An identified area of project management defined by its knowledge

requirements and described in terms of its component processes, practices,
inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques. Currently includes Integration, Scope,
Schedule, Cost, Quality, Resources, Communications, Risk, Procurement,
and Stakeholder management. Considering and integrating all of these
helps ensure things don’t fall through the cracks on your project.

Answer: Project Management Knowledge Area.

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This strategy defines a set of Project Management Process groups, their

related processes and the related control functions that are consolidated and
combined into a functioning unified whole. This could be a formal mature
process or an informal technique that aids a Project Manager/Project
Management Staff in effectively developing a Project Management Plan.

Answer: Project Management Methodology.

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A formal, approved document that is used to manage project executing,

monitoring and controlling. It also defines what the project is and what it is
not. It comprises of one or more subsidiary management plans and other
planning documents. “Subsidiary” plans within this document often include
plans for managing all of the Knowledge Areas. For the exam, this plan is
typically approved by the Project Sponsor(s).

Answer: Project Management Plan.

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A logical grouping of project management inputs, tools/techniques, and

outputs. Includes Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling,
and Closing. They are not phases, but “groups of processes.” For the exam,
it’s important to understand the questions and determine which Process
Group, and then which Knowledge Areas.

Answer: Project Management Process Groups.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

49 of these are cited in the PMBOK to be performed on any given project. A

process is an action that brings about a result. These are divided into five
Process Groups, Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling,
and Closing. The five Process Groups have interdependencies and must be
performed sequentially, regardless of the application area or specific project
life cycle. These are unique to Project Management. For the exam, having a
solid understanding of the Inputs, tools/techniques, and outputs (ITTOs) can
help you identify these, which is key to understanding sequence.

Answer: Project Management Processes.

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Software designed to aid in project planning, controlling, scheduling, cost

estimating, etc. (e.g., MS Project). For the exam, this is a tool/technique
used for the Time and Cost Knowledge Areas, including providing calculation
support for Earned Value Analysis (EVA) performance measurements. For
the exam, this is cited as a key tool for both Time and Cost management.

Answer: Project Management Software.

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The aggregation of the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies,

resources, and procedures to manage a project. May also relate to project
integration management.

Answer: Project Management System.

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The person assigned by the performing organization to achieve the project

objectives. Have the primary responsibility for the success (or failure) of the
project. These stakeholders should focus on project integration.

Answer: Project Manager.

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A chart that shows project team members, and how they relate to each other
in a hierarchical relationship. These charts may be illustrated within the
Human Resources (Staffing) Management Plan.

Answer: Project Organization Chart.

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Formal or informal appraisals to provide feedback, provide further training

and or deal with unresolved issues. Project managers may provide this
information to functional managers for employee performance appraisals.
For the exam, this may relate to meetings held to review performance reports
in conjunction with performance-reporting techniques (i.e. variance analysis,
trend analysis, etc.)

Answer: Project Performance Appraisals / Reviews.

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A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the

completion of a major deliverable. Project phases (also called phases) are
mainly completed sequentially, but can overlap in some project situations.
For the exam, this typically relate to the “project lifecycle,” NOT the “project
management lifecycle.” Phases can be subdivided into sub phases and then
subcomponents. This hierarchy, if the project or portions of the project are
divided into phases, is often illustrated in the work breakdown structure
(WBS). The end of project phases may require lessons learned, audits,
scope validation, approvals, etc. Also see “project lifecycle.”

Answer: Project Phase.

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A subset of project management that includes the processes to purchase or

acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project
team to perform the work. It consists of Plan Procurement Management,
Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
processes. Project Managers should be involved in the process of
seller/contract decisions. For the exam, contrast with Cost Management.

Answer: Project Procurement Management.

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Includes the processes and activities of the performing organization that

determine quality policies, standards, objectives, and responsibilities so that
the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken. It consists of
Quality Planning (determine quality standards), Manage Quality (implement
quality standards), and Control Quality (inspect/verify product).

Answer: Project Quality Management.

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Includes the processes concerned with conducting risk management

planning, identification, analysis, response planning, and monitoring and
controlling on a project. Risks should be prioritized based on probability and
impact, and listed in the risk register. Includes the Plan Risk Management,
Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk
Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses, and Monitor
Risks processes.

Answer: Project Risk Management.

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The planned calendar dates for performing schedule activities and the
planned dates for meeting schedule milestones. Also relates to the schedule
baseline. Often developed and tracked using project management software.

Answer: Project Schedule.

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Includes the processes required to manage a timely completion of the

project. It consists of Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity
Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule and Control
Schedule.

Answer: Project Schedule Management.

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A schematic display of project activities and their dependencies (logical

relationships). Helps illustrate the sequence of activities, and determine the
critical path. Can be produced manually or with “project management
software.” May include full project details or summary activities. Also see
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM). For the exam, these diagrams
are beneficial for showing interdependencies. Also see, Precedence
Diagramming Method (PDM).

Answer: Project Schedule Network Diagram.

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All of the work and only the work required to deliver a product, service or
result with specified, agreed upon features and functions. Relates more to
the processes to produce the product.

Answer: Project Scope.

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Includes the processes required to ensure that all the work required, and
only the work required to complete the project successfully. Includes the
Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create
WBS, Control Scope, and Validate Scope processes.

Answer: Project Scope Management.

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The narrative description of the project scope, including major deliverables,

project objectives, project assumptions, project constraints, and a statement
of work, that provides a documented basis for making future project
decisions and for confirming or developing a common understanding of
project scope among the stakeholders. Sometimes referred to as the “scope
of work” (SOW).

Answer: Project Scope Statement.

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The person or group that provides the financial resources, in cash or in kind,
for the project. Approves the Project Charter, the Project Management Plan,
Lessons Learned, and perhaps key product approvals. Helps determine the
risk tolerance levels.

Answer: Project Sponsor.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

The appropriate people are assigned to work on the project. Also see pre-
assignment.

Answer: Project Staff Assignments.

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Includes the processes required to identify people, groups, or organizations

that could impact, or be impacted by the project, to analyze stakeholder
expectations and their impact on the project, and to develop appropriate
management strategies for effectively engaging stakeholders to project
decisions and execution. Includes the Identify Stakeholders, Plan
Stakeholder Management, Engage Stakeholders, and Monitor Stakeholder
Engagement processes.

Answer: Project Stakeholder Management.

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A narrative description of products, services, or results to be supplied. For

internal projects, the project initiator or sponsor provides the SOW based on
business needs, product, or service requirements. For external projects, the
SOW can be received from the customer as part of a Bid Document, for
example, Request for Proposal (RFP), Request for Quote (RFQ), or as part
of a contract. May be an input for developing the Project Charter.

Answer: Project Statement of Work (SOW).

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

A set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work
of the project to achieve its objectives.

Answer: Project Team.

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A project document that provides team information including names, what

activities they are performing, and contact information. Typically
documented within the Project Human Resources Plan/Staffing Plan.

Answer: Project Team Directory.

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Includes the following phases: Forming, Storming (conflict), Norming,

Performing, and when complete (Adjourning/Mourning). The project
manager manages conflict (storming phase), when productivity is typically
lower.

Answer: Project Team Lifecycle (Tuckman’s stages of group development).

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Any organizational structure in which the Project Manager has the highest
authority to assign priorities, apply resources, and direct the work of
individuals assigned to the project. However, internal stakeholders do not
have a “home” when the project is complete, and there is no allocation of
resources between projects. This may also relate to “project-based
organizations (PBOs),” whose major focus is on project-based activities.

Answer: Projectized Organization.

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Combination of evaluation criteria, weighting system, expert judgment, inputs

from multiple reviewers, etc. Used to rate and score proposals. May use
both subjective and objective components.

Answer: Proposal Evaluation Technique.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Seller prepared documents that describe the seller’s ability and willingness
to provide the requested product or service. Considered formal and legally
binding. Maybe supplemented with an oral presentation.

Answer: Proposals.
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Combination of evaluation criteria, weighting system, expert judgment, inputs

from multiple reviewers, etc. Used to rate and score proposals. May use
both subjective and objective components.

Answer: Proposal Evaluation Techniques.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

These can include any number of Quality Management Methodologies. For

example, Lean Six Sigma, CMMI, OPM3, etc.

Answer: Proposal Quality Management Methodologies.

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Getting feedback from an early working model. These may be nonfunctional

(e.g. using Post-Its to illustrate), or functional (an actual working model that
may evolve into the finished product.).

Answer: Prototypes.
 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

A risk that only has the chance for loss. For example, weather-related
threats. Purchasing insurance may help transfer some pure risks.

Answer: Pure Risk.

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A list developed (e.g. from existing procurement files) maintained by the

organization (e.g. sellers you have done business with successfully in the
past). Often includes general information available through libraries, local
associations, trade associations, etc. This relates to “single source.”
Contrast with “sole source.” For the exam, the vendor must have the
capability to do the work you need done.

Answer: Qualified Sellers List.

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The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

Conformance to requirements, specifications, and fitness for use. Relates to
the correctness of the work.

Answer: Quality.
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Structured review of other quality management activities to improve

performance of this project or other projects within the organization. Can be
scheduled or random, internal or facilitated by external vendors. For the
exam, this is often done during Quality Assurance during Executing.

Answer: Quality Audits.

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Structured tool, usually item-specific, used to verify that a set of required

steps has been performed. Once completed, becomes part of the project’s
records.

Answer: Quality Checklists.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

One of the seven, basic quality tools. Used to gather information that can be
graphically illustrated in charts (e.g. Histograms, Pareto charts).

Answer: Quality Checksheets.

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Refers to a graphic display of data results, over time, of a process. The

process should be adjusted only if the item being measured is out of control.
These charts are one of the seven, basic quality tools, and often appear on
the exam. For the exam, the mean, specification limits, control limits, the
rule of seven, and assignable cause, are the key components of this chart.

Answer: Quality Control Charts.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

The documented results of activities related to quality control in a format

agreed upon and specified during Quality Planning. Quality Control testing
and measurement results are fed back to Quality Assurance to re-evaluate
and analyze the quality standards and processes of the performing
organization.

Answer: Quality Control Measurements.

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A rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use, but do
not share the same requirements for quality. (e.g. Something may never
break, but may not have the grade needed for a specific application.) A
product can be a high quality l___________ (no major defects), but a low
quality g_________ (few features).

Answer: Quality Grade / Quality Level.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Describes how the team will implement its Quality Policy (ISO 9000, “Project
Quality System”). The organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures,
processes and resources needed to implement quality management.
Provides input to the overall project plan, and must address quality control,
quality assurance, and quality improvement for the project. (Could be formal
or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based on the requirements of
the project.)

Answer: Quality Management Plan.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

An operational definition that describes in very specific terms, what

something is and how the quality control process measures it. These are
determined during the Plan Quality Management process.

Answer: Quality Metrics.

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Performing the organization’s intended direction regarding quality standards.

It is typically endorsed by senior management within the performing
organization. The Project Management Staff may need to develop a quality
policy for the project if one is unavailable.

Answer: Quality Policy.

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Commonly used techniques for quantitative risk analysis includes:

Sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, modeling and simulation (e.g.
Monte Carlo), and expected monetary value analysis (i.e. decision tree).

Answer: Quantitative Risk Analysis and Modeling Techniques.

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

Written sets of questions to engender informative responses from

respondents. For the exam, these may be used to collect/elicit requirements
from a large number of stakeholders.

Answer: Questionnaires and Surveys.

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A RAM that uses Responsible, Accountable, Consult and Inform to define

involvement within the matrix.

Answer: RACI.
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A common type of responsibility assignment matrix that uses responsible,

accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of
stakeholders in project activities.

Answer: RACI model.

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Used to promote and reinforce desired behavior. These should not only
focus on the team, but individuals. For the exam, this may relate to the
motivation theories.

Answer: Recognition and Rewards.

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Used by the project manager to manage contract documents and

correspondence. Relates to a Project Management Information System
(PMIS), but for contract-related information.

Answer: Records Management System.

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The process of collecting and distributing performance-related information.

This includes status reporting, progress measurement, and forecasting. For
the exam, if applicable, ensure you report “bad news” too.

Answer: Report Performance.

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A standard tool for capturing, storing and distributing information to

stakeholders about the project’s cost, progress, and performance. These
may be as simple as a spreadsheet or a graph or they may be more
complex, such as customized vendor packages designed for specific project
management application areas. For the exam, these relate to instructions for
disseminating all project information as typically documented in the
Communications Management Plan.

Answer: Reporting Systems.

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A type of procurement document whereby the buyer requests a potential

seller to provide various pieces of information related to a product or service
or seller capability.

Answer: Request for Information (RFI).

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

). A type of procurement document used to request proposals from

prospective sellers of products or services. In some application areas, it may
have a narrower or more specific meaning.

Answer: Request for Proposal (RFP).

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from

prospective sellers of common or standard products or services. Sometimes
used in place of request for proposal and in some application areas, it may
have a narrower or more specific meaning.

Answer: Request for Quote (RFQ).

 PMP/CAPM Flashcards

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from

prospective sellers of common or standard products or services. Sometimes
used in place of request for proposal and in some application areas, it may
have a narrower or more specific meaning.

Answer: Request for Quote (RFQ).

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A condition or capability that must be met or possessed by a system,

product, service, result, or component to satisfy a contract, standard,
specification, or other formally imposed document. Requirements should
also be prioritized (e.g. must have, should have, could have, and won’t have.
i.e. MoSCoW). Requirements include the quantified and documented needs,
wants, and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders.

Answer: Requirement.
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The process of examining, breaking down, and synthesizing information to

further understand it, complete it, and improve it.

Answer: Requirements Analysis.

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A property of a requirement used to store descriptive information about the

requirement, such as last change date, author, source, etc.

Answer: Requirements Attribute.

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Describes how individual requirements meet the business

requirements/need/case for the project. Often includes how requirements
are identified, prioritized, managed, etc. Output for the Collect Requirements
process in Planning.

Answer: Requirements Documentation.

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Documents how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed

through the full course of the project. Often includes how to prioritize
requirements (e.g. MoSCoW). Output for the Plan Scope Management
process. Also see requirement.

Answer: Requirements Management Plan.

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. A table that links requirements to their origin and traces them through the
project lifecycle from beginning to end. Some of the items that may be
traced through the project are business need, opportunities, project goals,
and various project and product requirements. If a Business Analyst is
assigned to your team, they may help develop and maintain a requirements
traceability matrix.

Answer: Requirements Traceability Matrix.

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A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule

risk. Usually described as either management reserves or contingency
reserves to describe which type(s) of risk are to be mitigated.

Answer: Reserve.
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Analysis undertaken to determine the additional amount to be added to

duration, or budget for the project (i.e. contingency reserve.) Used to
address risk, and typically listed in the risk register. For the exam, these
should be considered before submitting your Project Management Plan to
the Project Sponsor for approval.

Answer: Reserve Analysis.

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A risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.

Answer: Residual Risk.

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Issue log will document stakeholder requirements, issues and concerns that
have been identified and resolved (i.e. customers agree to a follow-on
contract).

Answer: Resolved Issues.

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Skilled human resources (specific disciplines either individually or in crews or

teams), equipment, services, supplies, commodities, material, budgets, or
funding. “Resources” are authorized by the Project Sponsor when they
approve the Project Charter, but resources are acquired after the Project
Management Plan has been approved.

Answer: Resource.
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Relates to information regarding the potential availability of resources (such

as, people, equipment and materials). This is used to estimate the resource
types. Resource “capability” should be considered BEFORE this.

Answer: Resource Availability.

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This is a variation of the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) or Linear

Resource Chart (LRC); generally used when assigning work components to
individuals and the material resources they need. It is a hierarchical
representation of resources by category and type. Resources often include,
people, things, money.

Answer: Resource Breakdown Structure.

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Relates to a composite resource calendar that typically defines resource

availability periods and resource-specific holidays. Also see resource
availability.

Answer: Resource Calendar.

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A schedule network analysis technique in which scheduling decisions are

driven by limited resources. It enables the Project Manager to level out
peaks and valleys of resources. Sometimes called the resource-based
method of network analysis. Also see, histogram.

Answer: Resource Leveling.

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A structure that relates the project organizational breakdown structure to the

work breakdown structure to help ensure that each component of the
project’s scope of work is assigned to a responsible person/team. Often
listed in the Human Resources Management Plan. To further illustrate roles
for the project team, Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform (RACI),
letters may be used in this document.

Answer: Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) & RACI.

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An output from performing project management processes and activities.

Results often include outcomes (e.g., integrated systems, revised process,
restructured organization, tests, trained personnel, etc.) and documents
(e.g., policies, plans, studies, procedures, specifications, reports, etc.).
Contrast with product and service. Also see “deliverable.”

Answer: Result.
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Contract terms and conditions. A specified amount of money (typically

agreed upon in the contract), usually in the range of 5-10%, withheld from
each payment until the final work is completed.

Answer: Retainage.
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Projected percent return of an investment calculated by taking projected

average of all net benefits and dividing them by the initial cost. Typically
based on a minimum ROI required (hurdle rate).

Answer: Return on investment (ROI).

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Action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into

compliance with requirements or specifications. Also relates the cost of
quality (COQ) (e.g. Cost of nonconformance).

Answer: Rework.
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An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative

effect on a project’s objectives. See also risk category and risk breakdown
structure. Risks have between a 1% to 99% probability of occurrence.

Answer: Risk.
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An Risk auditors and/or other stakeholders examine and document the

effectiveness of the risk strategies taken. These are typically performed
within the Risk Control process during Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer: Risk Audits.

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This process of examining a program, project, or process for risk.

Answer: Risk Analysis.

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Grouping risks by sources and common root causes can lead to effective risk
response (i.e. using a Risk Breakdown Structure as well as technical,
environmental and organizational sources of risk.) May include prioritization,
and be graphically illustrated in a risk breakdown structure (RBS).

Answer: Risk Categorization.

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Data associated with a risk needs accurate and unbiased examination of the
extent of understanding of the risk, data available about the risk, quality of
data, reliability, and integrity of the data.

Answer: Risk Data Quality Assessment.

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An estimate of the probability that a given risk event will occur (i.e. 1% to
99%). Risks are prioritized based on probability and impact, and are
documented in the risk register.

Answer: Risk Event Probability.

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An estimate of the gain or loss (impact) that will be incurred if the risk event
does occur (expressed as consequences, impact or amount at stake).
Commonly used with decision tree analysis. Also see Expected Monetary
Value (EMV).

Answer: Risk Event Value.

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The process of determining which risks might affect the project and
documenting their characteristics.

Answer: Risk Identification.

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A “subsidiary plan” of the Project Management Plan. It describes how risk

management will be structured and performed. Includes: Methodology
(approaches, tools, etc.), roles and responsibilities, budgeting, timing
(frequency), reporting formats (risk register), risk categories (RBS),
definitions of risk probability and impact (during qualitative analysis),
probability and impact matrix, tracking (how everything will be recorded for
current and future projects), and stakeholders’ risk thresholds. Also see risk
register.

Answer: Risk Management Plan.

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The process of deciding how to approach and plan for anything that could
impact the project positively or negatively by planning for risk management
activities, and strategies for a project.

Answer: Risk Management Planning.

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The likelihood and consequences applied to specific risk events. Risk

probabilities and impacts are rated according to definitions in the Risk
Management Plan. Used to prioritize threats and opportunities.

Answer: Risk Probability and Impact Assessment.

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Allocates the risk between the parties in a contract should goods or services
be lost or destroyed during the performance of a contract. On the exam, this
may be referred to as a “pure risk.”

Answer: Risk of Loss (Threat).

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Regularly scheduled to identify new risks, reassessment of risks; maybe

necessary to perform additional response planning to control risk. Typically
performed within the Control Risks process, during Risk Monitoring and
Control.

Answer: Reassessment.
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A key component of the Project Risk Management Plan containing the

results of the qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis, and risk
response planning. Details all identified risks, their probability of occurrence,
impact, owners, proposed responses, causes, current status, etc.

Answer: Risk Register.

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Contracts showing responsibilities for specific identified risks (i.e. insurance).

This relates to “transferring” threats and/or, “sharing” opportunities.

Answer: Risk Related Contract Decisions.

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Threats (negative risks):

-Acceptance. A threat or opportunity risk response planning techniques that indicates that the project team
has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other
suitable response strategy.
-Avoidance. One of four risk response planning techniques for threats that creates changes to the project
management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk or to protect the project objectives from its impact.
Generally, risk avoidance involves relaxing the time, cost, scope, or quality objectives.
-Mitigate. One of four risk response planning techniques for threats that lowers the probability and/or impact
of the threat.
-Transfer. One of four risk response planning techniques for threats that makes another party responsible for
the risk. NOTE: There may be residual and secondary risks associated with transferring risks.

Opportunities (positive risks):

-Acceptance. A threat or opportunity risk response planning techniques that indicates that the project team
has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other
suitable response strategy.
-Enhance. One of four risk response planning techniques for opportunities that increases the probability
and/or impact. Strengthen the cause of the opportunity.
-Exploit. One of four risk response planning techniques for opportunities that eliminates the uncertainty
associated with the opportunity – ensure the opportunity will occur.
-Share. One of four risk response planning techniques for opportunities that allocates ownership to a third
party who is best able to capture the opportunity (e.g. joint ventures)

Answer: Risk Response Strategies.

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Prioritizing risks based on urgency/timing of required response. Factors

could include: risk triggers, risk rating, etc.

Answer: Risk Urgency Assessment.

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Project roles: who does what? Who decides what? Who has what
capabilities? These can be defined as hierarchical charts, matrix type charts
or text-based documents.

Answer: Roles and Responsibilities.

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A form of progressive elaboration (incremental) planning. During the early

stages of planning if information is less well defined then the work in the near
term is planned in detail at the lowest level of the WBS. All future work is
planned at a high level of the WBS. For the exam, this typically relates to
progressive elaboration, and/or project scope planning, and perhaps, the
iterative lifecycle.

Answer: Rolling Wave Planning.

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One of the seven basic quality tools. An analytical technique used to

determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance or a defect or
a risk. This may underlie more than one variance, defect, or risk. For the
exam, this may relate to fishbone/Ishikawa diagrams.

Answer: Root Cause Analysis (Diagrams).

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Used to show trends and variations over time. Trend analysis is used to
monitor technical performance (i.e., how many errors or defects? How many
remaining uncorrected defects? ) Also used in cost and schedule
performance (i.e. how many activities per period were completed with
significant variances?). Also see scatter diagrams, which is more commonly
cited on the exam.

Answer: Run Chart.

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Graphic display of cumulative costs, labor hours, percentage of work, or

other quantities, plotted against time. These are used to depict planned
value, earned value, and actual cost of project work. The name is derived
from the S-like shape of the curve (flatter at the beginning and end, steeper
in the middle) produced on a project that starts slowly, accelerates, and then
tails off. Also a term for the cumulative likelihood. For the exam, this may
relate to constrained optimization and/or quantitative risk analysis
computerized tools

Answer: S-Curve.
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One of the seven basic quality tools. Shows the pattern of relationship
between two variables (i.e. X / Y. Regression analysis).

Answer: Scatter Diagram.

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A discrete scheduled component of work performed during the course of a

project. These normally have an estimated duration, an estimated cost, and
estimated resource requirements, and are connected to other schedule
activities or schedule milestones with logical relationships and are
decomposed from work packages. (NOTE: Milestones do NOT have
duration.)

Answer: Schedule Activity.

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Specific version of the project schedule accepted and approved by the

Project Management Staff to be used as the baseline. It includes the
baseline start and finish dates. For the exam, this includes information
documented within the Schedule Management Plan. Output of the Develop
Schedule process, during Planning.

Answer: Schedule Baseline.

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A part of the integrated change control process, it defines the procedures

needed to change project schedule and includes tracking systems, forms,
and approval levels necessary. All change control systems should be
integrated as a change to one component could impact others.

Answer: Schedule Change Control System.

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Shortening the project schedule duration without reducing the project scope.
Two methods are commonly employed: Crashing (adding more resources),
fast-tracking (doing tasks in parallel) learning curve (“practice makes
perfect”), and cutting scope/quality (based on priorities), are all forms of
schedule compression. Sometimes this is called duration compression.

Answer: Schedule Compression.

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The process of controlling changes to the project schedule. Should be

integrated with other change control processes.

Answer: Schedule Control.

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Includes the project schedule milestones, schedule activities, activity

attributes, and documentation of all identified assumptions and constraints.
Output of the Develop Schedule process, during Planning.

Answer: Schedule Data.

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A “subsidiary” plan within the Project Management Plan, this establishes a

baseline and defines how changes to the schedule will be managed (formally
or informally, highly detailed or broadly framed).

Answer: Schedule Management Plan.

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Combination of manual methods and computer software used to perform

network analysis to generate a project schedule. Supporting data includes
milestone, activities, activity attributes, and all identified assumptions and
constraints. Output of the Develop Schedule process, during Planning.

Answer: Schedule Model.

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Used to identify Early Start and Late Start dates as well as Early Finish and
Late Finish dates for the uncompleted portions of project schedule activities.
Also see project schedule network diagrams, and precedence diagramming
method (PDM).

Answer: Schedule Network Analysis.

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Standardized templates for use in expediting project activities into a

workable network diagram.

Answer: Schedule Network Templates.

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A measure of schedule efficiency on a project. It is the ratio of earned value

(EV) to planned value (PV). The formula is: SPI = EV / PV. If the SPI is less
than 1, you are over budget; if the SPI is 1, you are on schedule; if the SPI is
greater that 1, it means you are ahead of schedule. (If SPI is .8, it means
you are only progressing at 80% of rate originally planned.) Also see earned
value management.

Answer: Schedule Performance Index (SPI).

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A measure of schedule performance on a project. It is the algebraic

difference between the earned value (EV) and the planned value (PV).
SV = EV - PV. See also earned value management (EVM).

Answer: Schedule Variance.

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The point in time that work was scheduled to start on a schedule activity.
This date is normally within the range of dates delimited by the early start
date and the late start date. It may reflect resource leveling of scarce
resources.

Answer: Scheduled Start Date.

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The point in time that work was scheduled to finish on a schedule activity.
This date is normally within the range of dates delimited by the early finish
date and the late finish date. It may reflect resource leveling of scarce
resources.

Answer: Scheduled Finish Date.

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A software package used to help facilitate and automate the scheduling

process. MS Project would be an example.

Answer: Scheduling Tool.

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The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.

Generally, scope should always be understood before proceeding on the
project. Relates to all the work, and only the work.

Answer: Scope.
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The approved project scope statement and its associated detailed WBS and
the WBS dictionary. It provides the basis for monitoring and controlling
performance. Also relates to the information documented within the Scope
Management Plan.

Answer: Scope Baseline.

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Any modification to the project scope. A scope modification almost always

requires an adjustment to the project cost or schedule. For the exam, always
follow your change control process.

Answer: Scope Change.

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The process of controlling changes to the project scope. This formal process
must be integrated with other control processes (i.e. schedule, cost, quality,
etc.). Changes, if applicable, must comply with contractual obligations.
Uncontrolled changes to scope are often referred to as scope creep.

Answer: Scope Control.

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Adding features and functionality (i.e. scope/quality) without addressing the

effects on time, costs, and resources, or without customer approval. Often
has an adverse impact to schedule, cost, quality, risk, etc.

Answer: Scope Creep.

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A subsidiary plan reflecting how requirements will be analyzed, documented,

and managed throughout the project. For the exam, consider the phrase “all
the work, and only the work.” Also see scope baseline.

Answer: Scope Management Plan.

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A type of model that identifies the boundaries of the project, program,

product, and/or system under analysis. A context diagram is one example of
a scope model.

Answer: Scope Model.

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Establishing minimum requirements for one or more of the seller evaluation

criteria. Screening and weighting systems should be determined during
Planning, but are used to Conduct Procurements. For the exam, this should
be applied equitably, and may be included as source selection criteria. Also
see weighting systems.

Answer: Screening Systems.

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A type of adaptive life cycle where a product is built in small incremental

portions and each cycle of development builds upon the last version of the
product.

Answer: Scrum.
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A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response. Also see
residual risk.

Answer: Secondary Risk.

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Sellers whose reputation, goods or services were judged satisfactory enough

to award a contract. This is performed as part of the Conduct Procurements
process, during Executing. For the exam, look for phrases such as “fair and
reasonable,” and “objective.”

Answer: Select Sellers.

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A provider or supplier of products, services, or results to an organization.

For the exam, this can also relate to “vendor,” or “contractor.”

Answer: Seller.
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Evaluation prepared by the buyer to rate seller’s performance. It is used to

make decisions regarding continuation, termination or rehiring of the seller.
Also see award and incentive fees. For the exam, objectivity is key.

Answer: Seller Performance Evaluation Documentation.

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Used in addition to other evaluation criteria and screening/weighting systems

to select sellers. Usually based on past performance, contractual
compliance, and quality ratings.

Answer: Seller Rating Systems.

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Lists with information on prospective and previously qualified sellers,

possibly including relevant past experience and other characteristics of the
prospective sellers. This may relate to single source.

Answer: Sellers Lists.

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Quantitative risk analysis technique to determine which risks have the most
potential impact on the project. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty
of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other
uncertainties are held at their baseline values.

Answer: Sensitivity Analysis.

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The process of identifying and documenting dependencies interactivity

between schedule activities -typically in a project schedule network diagram.
Sequencing occurs before estimating resources/duration, and determining
calendar dates. Also see project schedule network diagram and Precedence
Diagramming Method (PDM).

Answer: Sensitivity Activities.

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UML diagram to show software components and their interactions by

showing messages sent between them.

Answer: Sensitivity Diagram.

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These tools recognized by quality management gurus to solve most quality

problems and attributed to Kaoru Ishikawa for their importance and
recognition. They are: Cause-and-effect diagrams (fishbone/Ishikawa),
flowcharts, control charts, checksheets, histograms, Pareto charts, and
scatter diagrams. (Also see Plan Quality Management section.) For the
exam, ensure you know your quality tools and techniques well.

Answer: Seven Basic Quality Tools.

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This uses a project model that translates the uncertainties specified at a

detailed level into their potential impact on objectives that are expressed at
the level of the total project. This uses computer models and estimates of
risk, usually expressed as a probability distribution of possible costs or
durations at a detailed work level, and are typically performed using Monte
Carlo analysis.

Answer: Simulation.
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(Hersey Blanchard motivation theory) The effectiveness of the leader

depends on how their leadership style interrelates with the follower, and thus
the situation. Motivation theories are applied within the Manage Project
Team process, during the Executing.

Answer: Situational Management (Leadership) II.

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Provides a formal, and consistent methodology for addressing issues and

recommending workarounds/corrective actions. This may relate to creating a
workarounds.

Answer: Six Phased Decision Model (Problem Solving Process.

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A defined set to techniques and tools (i.e. steps) for quality process
improvement. (e.g. reduce schedule, reduce cost, increase customer
satisfaction.) A quality standard. May also relate to 99% defect free.

Answer: Six Sigma.

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Another name for float.

Answer: Slack.
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Goals that are well-written to meet the quality criteria of being specific,
measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bounded.

Answer: SMART Goals.

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The project selection criteria for choosing from among potential contractors
or vendors. These may include variables like need, cost, technical
capabilities, risk, lifecycle costs, production capabilities, timelines, past
performance, proprietary rights, etc. For the exam, strive for “fair and
reasonable,” and “objective” source selection criteria.

Answer: Source Selection Criteria.

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The area, on either side of the centerline (i.e. mean), of data plotted on a
quality control chart that meets the customer’s requirements for a product or
service. This area may be greater than, or less than the area defined by the
control limits. Illustrated with a solid line, higher and lower than the control
limits. Also see control limits.

Answer: Specification Limits.

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A person or group who provides resources and support for the project,
program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success.

Answer: Sponsor.
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Describes when and how the human resources needs of a project will be
met. See Human Resource Management Plan.

Answer: Staffing Management Plan.

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Persons and organizations such as customers, sponsors, performing

organization and the public, that are actively involved in the project, or whose
interests may be positively or negatively impacted by execution or
completion of the project. They may also exert influence over the project and
its deliverables. For the exam, consider Influence, Impact, Interest,
Involvement, and interdependencies for identifying stakeholders.

Answer: Stakeholder.
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Systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative

information to determine whose interests must be taken into account
throughout the project. During Initiating, stakeholders are then documented
in the stakeholder register. Also see, stakeholder.

Answer: Stakeholder Analysis.

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The qualities and attributes of a stakeholder, which together determine

aspects of how the stakeholder behaves.

Answer: Stakeholder Characteristics.

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The process of determining the stakeholder impacted by a business problem

or opportunity.

Answer: Stakeholder Identification.

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A collection of stakeholders who have similar likes, interests, and

stakeholder characteristics. Stakeholder groups are used by project
managers and business analysts to manage large groups of stakeholders.

Answer: Stakeholder Groups.

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This defines how to increase stakeholder support, and minimize potential

negative impact from stakeholders throughout the full length of the project.

Answer: Stakeholder Management Strategy.

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A technique used to visually analyze stakeholders and their relationship to

each other and to the problem or opportunity under analysis.

Answer: Stakeholder Map.

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Identifies the interest in the project or impact on quality various stakeholders

represent. Incorporated in the Project Charter. It is also used to help identify
stakeholder requirements to help create/update the Stakeholder
Requirements Plan.

Answer: Stakeholder Register.

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The project document that reports the requirements of the stakeholders as

identified by Stakeholder Identification. Should align with the “business
requirements.”

Answer: Stakeholder Requirements.

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A document established by consensus and approved by a recognized body.

It provides for common and repeated use, rules, guidelines or
characteristics, for activities or their results. Standards are NOT mandatory
regulations. Their goal is to achieve the optimum degree of order, in a given
context. For the exam, “standard” often relates to quality standards (e.g.
ISO, IEEE, Six Sigma, Agile, CMMI, etc.).

Answer: Standard.
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The logical relationship where completion of the successor schedule activity

is dependent upon the initiation of the predecessor schedule activity. See
also logical relationship.

Answer: Start to Finish (SF).

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The logical relationship where initiation of the work of the successor

schedule activity depends upon the initiation of the work of the predecessor
schedule activity. See also logical relationship.

Answer: Start to Start (SS).

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A narrative description of product, services, or results to be supplied. An

input to the Develop Project Charter process.

Answer: Statement of Work (SOW).

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Choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. May be performed

when it is not feasible to inspect all product scope. Must be random to reflect
statistical significance. Relates to quality control inspections.

Answer: Statistical Sampling.

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Periodic meetings to review project performance/progress. Either face-to-

face, or virtual meetings.

Answer: Status Review Meetings.

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Strategies that address negative risks, or threats that may negatively affect
project objectives. The four strategies to respond to threats are; Avoid,
Transfer, Mitigate, and Accept.

Answer: Strategies for Negative Risk or Threats.

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Strategies that address positive risks, or opportunities, that may have

potentially positive impacts on project objectives. The four strategies to
respond to opportunities are; Exploit, Share, Enhance, and Accept.

Answer: Strategies for Positive Risk or Opportunities.

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Strategies to deal with threats and/or opportunities

Answer: Strategies for Both Threats and Opportunities.

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Stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. This

information gathering technique examines the project from the perspective of
each project’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to increase
the breadth of the risks considered by risk management. For the exam, this
might be mentioned as a tool for identifying risks.

Answer: SWOT Analysis.

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A person who is considered an expert in a particular subject area. In

business analysis, SMEs are often involved in providing the requirements for
their area of expertise.

Answer: Subject Matter Expert (SME).

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A subdivision (fragment) of a project schedule network diagram, usually

representing a subproject or a work package. Often used to illustrate or
study some potential or proposed schedule condition, such as changes in
preferential schedule logic or project scope. For the exam, this may refer to
a “hammock.”

Answer: Subnetwork.
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A smaller portion of the overall project created when a project is subdivided

into more manageable components or pieces. Subprojects are usually
represented in the work breakdown structure. A subproject can be referred to
as a project, managed as a project, and acquired from a seller. Subprojects
may also relate to composite matrix organization type.

Answer: Subproject.
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The schedule activity that follows a predecessor activity, as determined by

their logical relationship. Also see project schedule network diagrams, and
precedence diagramming method (PDM).

Answer: Successor Activity.

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A group of related schedule activities aggregated at some summary level,

and displayed/reported as a single activity at that summary level. Also refer
project schedule network diagrams, hammock, and precedence
diagramming method (PDM).

Answer: Summary Activity.

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Analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an

organization, project, or opinion.

Answer: SWOT Analysis.

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An integrated set of regularly interacting or interdependent components

created to accomplish a defined objective, with defined and maintained
relationships among its components, and the whole producing or operating
better than the simple sum of its components. These may be either
physically process based or management process based, or more commonly
a combination of both. For project management, these are composed of
project management processes, techniques, methodologies, and tools
operated by the project management staff/project team.

Answer: System.
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A term for work whose meaning and placement within a structured plan for
project work varies by the application area, industry, and brand of project
management software. For the exam, “activity” is the term most commonly
used.

Answer: Task.
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Undertakings of management and individuals to improve team performance,

involving staff in key decisions, building trust, establishing good working
relationships (i.e. developing WBS, professional virtual training for remote
teams, etc.) Often more difficult with virtual teams.

Answer: Team Building Activities.

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Formal or informal evaluation of the project team’s effectiveness. Often

supplied be the Project Manager during Executing.

Answer: Team Performance Assessment.

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An agreement arrived at by two or more parties or entities to create a joint

venture, partnership, or other arrangement. Buyer and seller roles are
defined by the agreement and are terminated when the business opportunity
ends.

Answer: Teaming Agreements.

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Identifying variances from the Project Management Plans schedule of

technical achievement. (e.g. Quality control chart)

Answer: Technical Performance Measurement.

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Partially complete document in a predefined format used to collect, organize

and present information and data. Usually gathered from standard industry
publications or based on documents from previous projects. Reduces time
and effort and increases consistency of results. Often, organizations have
“generic” templates to collect project-related information (e.g. Project
Charter, Project Management Plan, Lessons Learned).

Answer: Templates.
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Stopping the work (or contract) before its planned completion. Typically, this
exercised by the buyer, but it should not take place until all affected parties
have been notified.

Answer: Termination.
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Contract term and condition. Often documented in the contract in case the
buyer must terminate the seller based on certain conditions. For the exam,
always strive to NOT terminate the seller (i.e. send a letter of default first).

Answer: Termination Clause.

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(Douglas McGregor motivation theory) The worker is lazy and needs

constant supervision and/or punishment to motivate them to work, or the
worker is self-motivated and willing to perform their duties.

Answer: Theory X and Y.

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(William Ouchi motivation theory) The participative management style that

relates to lifetime employment, that workers are motivated by a sense of
commitment, opportunity, and advancement (e.g. moving up through the
ranks of the company). This theory is considered superior to Theory Y—see
above.)

Answer: Theory Z.
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A condition or situation unfavorable to the project, a negative set of

circumstances, a negative set of events, a risk that will have a negative
impact on project objectives, or a possibility for negative changes.
Response strategies for these include Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept.

Answer: Threat.
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An analytical technique that uses three cost or duration estimates to

represent the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic scenarios. These
estimates improve the accuracy of estimates. These are also called
triangular estimates, or Beta/PERT estimates. The formula for triangular
estimates is; O + M + P / 3. The formula for PERT is; O + 4M + P / 6.

Answer: Three-Point Estimates.

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A type of contract that is a hybrid contractual arrangement containing

aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts. These contracts
resemble cost-reimbursable type arrangements in that they have no
definitive end, because the full value of the arrangement is not defined at the
time of the award. Thus, these contracts can grow in contract value as if
they were cost-reimbursable-type arrangements. Conversely, these
arrangements can also resemble fixed-price arrangements. For example,
the unit rates are preset by the buyer and seller, when both parties agree on
the rates for the category of senior engineers.

Answer: Time and Material (T&M) Contract.

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Contract term and condition. A phrase used to notify the seller that time is
extremely important and that any delay may be considered a material
breach. In these situations, delivery is strictly binding.

Answer: Time is of the Essence.

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Any project schedule network diagram drawn in such a way that the
positioning and length of the schedule activity represents its duration.
Essentially, it is a bar chart that includes schedule network logic.

Answer: Time-Scaled Schedule Network Diagram.

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The calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the

remaining work to meet a specified management goal, such as budget at
completion (BAC) or the estimate at completion (EAC). It is the ratio of
“remaining work” to the “funds remaining.” Formulas include: BAC – EV /
BAC – AC and BAC – EV / EAC – AC. Less than 1 is good.

Answer: To Complete Performance Index (TCPI).

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Something tangible, such as a template or software program, used in

performing an activity to produce a product or result. (e.g. Project
management software)

Answer: Tool.
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A philosophy (common approach) for implementing a quality improvement

program within an organization and finding ways to continuously improve
processes.

Answer: Total Quality Management.

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Traceability provides the ability to track product requirements from their

origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

Answer: Traceability.
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The domain of business analysis concerned with building and maintaining

the traceability matrix to manage requirements and product scope,
baselining the product requirements, assessing impacts of proposed
requirement changes, and managing the required updates to the
requirements and other business analysis deliverables once proposed
changes are approved.

Answer: Traceability and Monitoring.

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Relates to enhancing competencies of the project team. This may be

provided as part of the Develop Project Team process during Executing. For
the exam, this can be formal or informal, and “team training” may be
considered a direct cost that should be added into your definitive budget
during the Planning Process Group.

Answer: Training.
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Requirements that are the temporary capabilities, such as data conversion

and training requirements, needed to transition from the current as-is state to
the future state.

Answer: Transition Requirements.

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A risk response strategy used for addressing threats to shift the

consequences of the risk to a third party (i.e. using insurance, and fixed price
contract).

Answer: Transfer.
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An analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future

outcomes based on historical results. It is a method of determining the
variance from a baseline of a budget, cost, schedule, or scope parameter by
using prior progress reporting periods’ data and projecting how much that
parameter’s variance from baseline might be at some future point in the
project if no changes are made in executing the project. May relate to the
Control Risk process during Monitoring and Control.

Answer: Trend Analysis.

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Indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur. These may be

discovered in the risk identification process and watched in the risk
monitoring and control process. These are sometimes called risk symptoms,
or early warning signs.

Answer: Triggers.
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Unified modeling language; a standard maintained by the object

management group to ensure consistency in diagramming and modeling in
object-oriented analysis design.

Answer: UML.
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Testing a small piece of the solution (sub-program, sub-routine, module)

referred to as a unit. Small piece that can be tested independently. Typically
the first testing phase since localized problems are easier to fix.

Answer: Unit testing.

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. An analysis model that describes a flow of actor-system interactions and

boundaries for those interactions, including trigger, initiating, and
participating actors, and preconditions and post conditions.

Answer: User case.

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The person or organization that will use the project’s product or service (e.g.
end user). Also see “customer.”

Answer: User (end User).

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A business analysis model that shows all of the in-scope use cases for a
project and which actors have part in those use cases.

Answer: User case Diagram.

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A group of stakeholders who are users of a software system, product, or

service and are grouped together due to the similarity in their requirements
and use of the product.

Answer: User class.

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Also referred to as user interface analysts; individuals who are responsible

for studying user behavior, preferences, and constraints in order to identify
user interface and usability requirements for software applications and other
products.

Answer: User experience Analyst.

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Diagram that shows how screens or pages will be connected or navicated.

Answer: User interface flow.

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The technique of evaluating a component or product during or at the end of a

phase or project to ensure it complies with the specified requirements. For
the exam, “validate” should be linked with the this process (accepted
deliverables). “Verify” should be linked with the Quality Control process.
Also see accepted deliverables.

Answer: Validate Scope.

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Any changed or repaired items are inspected and will either be accepted or
rejected before notification of the decision is provided. Rejected items may
need to be re-worked.

Answer: Validated Changes.

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The results of quality control are deliverables that can be verified as correct,
and then validated as complete (e.g. Validate Scope). Also see accepted
deliverables and validate scope.

Answer: Validated / Accepted Deliverables.

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The assurance that a product, service, or system meets the needs of the
customer and other identified stakeholders. It often involves acceptance and
suitability with external customers. Contrast with verification.

Answer: Validation.
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A creative approach used to optimize project life cycle costs, save time,
increase profits, improve quality, expand market share, solve problems,
and/or use resources more effectively.

Answer: Value Engineering.

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A quantifiable deviation from a known baseline (e.g. scope, schedule, cost),

or expected value. For the exam, this often relates to “planned, versus
actual.”

Answer: Variance.
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Comparing planned scope, schedule, and cost variables with actual scope,
schedule, and cost variables and resolving the variances.

Answer: Variance Analysis.

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Are assumptions still valid? Has the risk changed, or can it be retired? Have
Risk management policies been followed? Can contingency reserves be
modified? These are some of the goals when using this performance
information gathered throughout the project.

Answer: Variance and Trend Analysis.

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Cost estimating technique that assumes what a project should cost based on
analysis of the responsive bids from trusted, qualified vendors. For the
exam, this may relate to the Estimate Activity Resources process.

Answer: Vendor Bid Analysis.

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The technique of evaluating the correctness of a component or product at the

end of a phase or project to assure or confirm it satisfies the conditions
imposed. For the exam, this relates to the Control Quality process.

Answer: Verification.
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The process of maintaining a history of changes on software or

documentation.

Answer: Version Control.

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A system that is used to track the history of revisions, often but not always
related to software.

Answer: Version Control System (VCS).

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A group of persons with a shared objective who fulfill their roles with little or
no time spent meeting face to face, sometimes separated by great distances.
For the exam, these present additional communications issues related to
language, culture, time zones, technology, motivation, etc.

Answer: Virtual Teams.

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Contract term and condition. Statements declaring that rights under the
contract may not be waived or modified other than by express agreements of
the parties. Project Managers can intentionally or unintentionally give up a
right in the contract through conduct, inadvertent failure to enforce or lack of
oversight.

Answer: Waivers.
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Contract term and condition. A guarantee of quality for the goods or services
delivered under the contract, usually restricted to a limited time period.

Answer: Warranties.
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A table used in decision making that combines pair matching of all

alternatives with weighted criteria to add objectivity when formulating a
decision or recommendation. Each alternative is compared with every other
alternative on the basis of weighted criteria, and the resulting scores are
added together to determine the preferred choice.

Answer: Weighted Ranking Matrix.

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Analysis of the question, “what if the situation represented by scenario ‘X’

happens?” Most common is Monte Carlo stimulation, where the computer
runs several “what-if” scenarios (combinations) to come up with the most
accurate estimates. For the exam, this often relates to computerized tools
(e.g. MS Project).

Answer: What-If Scenario Analysis.

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A reactive response to a negative risk (threat) that has occurred.

Distinguished from contingency plan in that this is not planned in advance of
the occurrence or the risk event. The six-phased decision model / problem
solving process may be used to facilitate an select and effective solution.

Answer: Workaround.
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A subsystem of the overall project management system. May take the form
of a WBS Dictionary, but used to perform and check the work during
Executing and Monitoring and Controlling, respectively. It is a collection of
formal documented procedures that defines how project work will be
authorized to ensure that the work is done according to the identified
documents, tracking system, acceptance criteria, and defined approval levels
needed to issue work authorizations. Also see WBS Dictionary.

Answer: Work Authorization System (WAS).

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A deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed

by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the
required deliverables. It organizes and defines the total scope of the project.
Each descending level represents an increasingly detailed definition of the
project work. Decomposed into work packages. The deliverable orientation
of the hierarchy includes both internal and external deliverables. For the
exam, creating this is vital to developing a good Project Management Plan.

Answer: Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

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Describes and cross-references each component in the WBS. A brief

definition of the scope or statement of work, defined deliverables, a list of
associated activities and a list of milestones is included for each component.
It identifies assigned resources, the responsible organization or person, start
and end dates, quality requirements, etc. It facilitates and increases
understanding of the effort associated with each WBS component.
Sometimes referred to as an “activity description.”

Answer: Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Dictionary.

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WBS from previous projects can be saved (usually in the PMIS) and then
modified and reused on future projects. Many application areas of
performing organizations have standard templates. The PMI Practice
Standards for WBS Publication provides industry-specific templates that can
be tailored to specific projects. NOTE: The WBS and the WBS Dictionary
information may be stored outside these.

Answer: Work Breakdown Structure Templates.

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A deliverable or project work component at the lowest level of each branch of

the work breakdown structure (WBS). These are further decomposed into
activities and the schedule milestones required to complete the work
package deliverable or project work component. For the exam, this may
refer to the “lowest level,” depicted in the WBS.

Answer: Work Package.

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Information and data routinely collected during Executing is used to

determine the status of the project work being performed. Status of
deliverables starts and end dates of schedule activities, status of change
requests, corrective actions, resource utilization details, etc. are good
examples. This is a key input for many of the Monitoring and Control
processes. For the exam, “work” can refer to “scope.”

Answer: Work Performance Data.

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Planned verses actual results or other measurements defined by the scope

of the project to be documented and reported to the stakeholders. For the
exam, this would most likely relate to earned value management (EVM).

Answer: Work Performance Measurements.

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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What are the PM Process Groups?

Answer: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing.

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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What are some key words for Initiating?

Answer: Initial, business needs/requirements/case, high-level, product

description, project selection, Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM), analogous,
authorized, project kickoff.
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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What are some key words for Planning?

Answer: Definitive, details, refine, comprehensive, baseline, kickoff meeting.

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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What are some key words for Executing?

Answer: Perform work, implement standards, acquire/train project team,

quality assurance, continuous improvement, quality audit, engage
stakeholders, distribute communications.
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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What are some key words for Monitoring and
Controlling?

Answer: Check, assess, monitor, control, verify, validate, accept

deliverables, performance measurements, variance, earned value
management (EVM), funding requirements, change control, CCB, EV, SV,
SPI, CV, CPI, BAC, ETC, EAC, TCPI, recommend preventive/corrective
action, defect repair.
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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What are some key words for Closing?

Answer: Administrative closure, close procurements, terminate, accept

product (customer), accept project )project sponsor), lessons learned,
archive, open issues, release resources.
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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What are the PM Knowledge Areas?

Answer: Integration, Scope, Schedule, Cost, Quality, Resource

Management, Communications, Risk, Procurement, & Stakeholders.
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OVERVIEW QUESTIONS: What does each process have?

Answer: Inputs, Tools/Techniques, Outputs