匀夀䰀䰀䄀䈀唀匀

䐀爀
⸀ 
䜀漀戀椀
渀搀 
刀愀椀
 䜀愀爀
最
QuesID: -1
Low Vd means
1. The drug has very long half life
2. The drug does not accumulate in tissues
3. The drug has low oral bioavailability
4. The drug has weak plasma protein binding

QuesID: -2
All of the following agents act by intracellular receptors except:
1. Thyroid hormones
2. Vitamin D
3. Insulin
4. Steroids

QuesID: -3
The extent to which ionization of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa
of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which
of the following statements is NOT correct?
1. pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized
2. Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not
affect its degree of ionization.
3. Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behaviour in
various body fluids.
4. Phenobarbitone (an acidic drug) with a pKa of 7.2 is largely unionized
at acid pH and will be about 40% non-ionized in plasma.
QuesID: -4
Dose response curves of salbutamol for bronchodilation and tachycardia
are widely separated on the dose axis. This information suggests that
salbutamol is:
1. Highly potent cardiac stimulant
2. Highly efficacious bronchodilator
3. Highly toxic drug
4. Highly selective drug

QuesID: -5
With respect to clinical trials of new drugs, which of the following is most
correct?
1. Phase I involves the study of a small number of normal volunteers by
highly trained clinical pharmacologists
2. Phase II involves the use of the new drug in a large number of
patients (1000-5000) who have the disease to be treated
3. Phase III involves the determination of the drug’s therapeutic index by
the cautious induction of toxicity
4. Phase IV involves the detailed study of toxic effects that have been
discovered in phase III.

QuesID: -6
A three year old child is brought to the emergency department having just
ingested a large overdose of an antihistaminic drug. This drug is a weak
base capable of entering most tissues including the brain. On physical
examination the heart rate is 100/ minute, blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg
and the respiratory rate is 20/ minute. In this case of poisoning:
1. Urinary excretion would be accelerated by administration of NH4Cl,
an acidifying agent
2. Urinary excretion would be accelerated by administration of NaHCO3,
an alkalinizing agent
3. More of the drug would be ionized at blood pH than at stomach pH
4. Absorption of the drug would be faster from the stomach than from
the small intestine.

QuesID: -7
Loading dose depends on the following factors except:
1. Drug concentration to be achieved
2. Volume of distribution
3. Clearance of the drug
4. Bioavailability of drug

QuesID: -8
Partial agonist possess
1. High Affinity and High Intrinsic activity
2. High Affinity and Low Intrinsic activity
3. Low Affinity and High Intrinsic activity
4. Low Affinity and Low Intrinsic activity

QuesID: -9
Therapeutic monitoring of plasma level of drug is done when using all of
the following drugs except
1. Warfarin
2. Gentamicin
3. Cyclosporine
4. Phenytoin

QuesID: -10
Which of the following metabolic reactions is not catalysed by microsomal
enzymes?
1. Glucuronidation
2. Acetylation
3. Oxidation
4. Reduction

QuesID: -11
Which of the following drugs should be given in sustained release oral
dosage form?
1. An anti-arrhythmic drug with a plasma half life of 10 seconds used for
acute treatment of PSVT
2. An anti-inflammatory drug with a plasma half life of 24 hr
3. A hypnotic drug with a plasma half life of 2 hours
4. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

QuesID: -12
Steady state plasma concentration obtained after a dosage regimen
depends on
1. Duration of action of the drug
2. Dosing rate
3. Half life of a drug
4. Dosage interval
QuesID: -13
Phenytoin is a drug that follows zero order kinetics at high doses and first
order kinetics at low doses. Suppose, 400 mg phenytoin is present in the
body and its rate of elimination at this dose is 200 mg/hr, how much will
remain in plasma after 2 hours?
1. 200 mg
2. 100 mg
3. Zero
4. Can not be predicted from this information

QuesID: -14
A patient requires ceftriaxone 180 mg. You have a 2 mL syringe with 10
divisions per mL. The vial contains 100 mg/mL of ceftriaxone. How many
divisions in the 2 mL syringe will you fill to give 180 mg ceftriaxone?
1. 18
2. 1.8
3. 20
4. 2

QuesID: -15
Hepatic First pass metabolism will be encountered by which of the following
routes of drug administration?
1. Oral
2. Intravenous
3. Sublingual
4. Subcutaneous
QuesID: -16
Therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its?
1. Safety
2. Efficacy
3. Potency
4. Selectivity

QuesID: -17
Which of the following drug must be sold by retail only on production of
prescription by a registered medical practitioner?
1. Schedule H
2. Schedule G
3. Schedule X
4. Schedule M

QuesID: -18
Acetazolamide is given to a patient of angle closure glaucoma. It is a non-
competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase enzyme. Which of the following
should be the effect of this drug?
1. Decrease in Vmax
2. Decrease in Km
3. Decrease in both Km and Vmax
4. No change in Vmax

QuesID: -19
'Store in a cool place' is written on a drug label. It means drug should be
stored at a temperature of
1. -2 degree Celsius
2. 0 degree Celsius
3. 2-8 degree Celsius
4. 8-15 degree Celsius

QuesID: -20
A patient comes 6 hours after consuming morphine and presents with pin
point pupils and respiratory depression. T 1/2 of morphine is 3 hours and
volume of distribution (Vd) is 200 L. Plasma concentration is 0.5
microgram/ ml. Calculate the initial morphine dose consumed by the
person.
1. 100 mg
2. 400 mg
3. 10 mg
4. 50 mg

QuesID: -21
Which of the following drug is not metabolized by acetylation?
1. Isoniazid
2. Hydralazine
3. Phenytoin
4. Procainamide

QuesID: -22
A patient Raj Kishore was given pilocarpine. All of the following can be the
features seen in him except:
1. Sweating
2. Salivation
3. Miosis
4. Cycloplegia

QuesID: -23
Lallu, a farmer comes to you in the emergency in comatose state. Patient
had profuse sweating and lacrimation. Diarrhea and urination were
apparent.On examination pupil was constricted and BP of the farmer was
80/60 mm Hg. You make a diagnosis of anticholinesterase poisoning. You
decide to administer him atropine. All of the following actions will be
reversed by atropine EXCEPT:
1. Hypotension
2. Central excitation
3. Muscle paralysis
4. Bronchoconstriction

QuesID: -24
You are being asked to give your expert opinion as a toxicologist regarding
an effective antidote for belladonna poisoning. Which of the following
agents would you suggest?
1. Neostigmine
2. Physostigmine
3. Pilocarpine
4. Atropine

QuesID: -25
Anti-Muscarinic drugs are used for all of the following indications EXCEPT:
1. Hypertension
2. Motion sickness
3. Parkinson's disease
4. To produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

QuesID: -26
The only non-catecholamine sympathomimetic drug out of the following is:
1. Adrenaline
2. Ephedrine
3. Dopamine
4. Isoprenaline

QuesID: -27
A drug is shown to activate dopaminergic D1 and D2 and adrenergic α and
β1 but not β2 receptors. Which of the following can be the drug being
talked about?
1. Dopamine
2. Dobutamine
3. Methoxamine
4. Phenylephrine

QuesID: -28
A patient Ram kali presents with the symptoms suggestive of
pheochromocytoma. Her urine metanephrine and vinylmandelic acid levels
are above normal but normetanephrine level is less than normal. She later
presents to you in emergency with chest pain and severe headache. An
ECG indicates MI. Her blood pressure is 220/160 mm Hg and the heart rate
is 160/ min. On examination she appears to be dehydrated also. The doctor
attending her gives her phentolamine i.v. Within 8-10 min, she goes in a
state of shock with her blood pressure being 36/0 mm Hg. Vasoconstrictors
are ineffective and she dies within 4 hrs. Which of the following best
explains the exaggerated response to phentolamine in this patient?
1. Escape of the autonomic nervous system control over blood pressure
2. Metastasis of the tumor to the vasomotor centre in medulla
3. Patient’s tumor secreting almost pure adrenaline and no
noradrenaline
4. Overdose of phentolamine because of the rarity of such cases in the
emergency

QuesID: -29
All of the following are features of metoprolol in comparison to propanolol
EXCEPT:
1. It is ineffective in suppressing muscle tremor
2. It is relatively safer in diabetics
3. It is less likely to cause bradycardia
4. It is less likely to worsen Raynaud’s disease

QuesID: -30
Which of the following effects of adrenaline would be blocked by
phentolamine but NOT by propanolol?
1. Cardiac stimulation
2. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
3. Relaxation of the uterus
4. Contraction of the radial smooth muscle in the iris

QuesID: -31
Propanolol is useful in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Angina
2. Partial atrioventricular block
3. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy
4. Familial tremor

QuesID: -32
All of the following effects are seen with cholinergic muscarinic receptor
stimulation except:
1. Sweating
2. Rise in blood pressure
3. Bradycardia
4. Urination

QuesID: -33
Intravenous administration of norepinephrine in a patient already taking an
effective dose of atropine will often:
1. Increase heart rate
2. Decrease total peripheral resistance
3. Decrease pupil size
4. Has no effect on cardiovascular system
QuesID: -34
Identify the unknown drug (given at arrow) by observing its effect on dog
blood pressure.
1. Low dose adrenaline
2. High dose adrenaline
3. Nor-Adrenaline
4. Isoprenaline

QuesID: -35
A drug X reverses the actions produced by parasympathetic nervous
system in the body but is not able to reverse the actions of exogenously
administered acetylcholine in in-vitro experiments. The mechanism of drug
X can be
1. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
2. Muscarinic receptor antagonist
3. Muscarinic receptor agonsit
4. Inhibitor of release of Ach from synaptic vesicles

QuesID: -36
Which of the following can be blocked by atropine, a muscarinic receptor
blocker?
1. Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine
2. Increased skeletal muscle strength caused by neostigmine, an
acetycholine esterase inhibitor
3. Bradycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine
4. All of these

QuesID: -37
A healthy adult subject is given an intravenous injection of a test drug. Both
blood pressure and total peripheral resistance rise promptly. This is
followed immediately by a reduction of heart rate. In repeated experiments
we find that the vasopressor response is not affected by pretreatment with
prazosin. However, pretreatment with atropine prevents the cardiac
chronotropic response. The test drug was most likely which of the
following?
1. Angiotensin II
2. Isoproterenol
3. Norepinephrine
4. Epinephrine

QuesID: -38
During your rural posting after the internship, you encounter a patient of
acute cardiac failure. Your preferred drug for this condition is dobutamine.
However, it is not available there. Which of the following other drugs, or
combination of drugs, would be a suitable alternative, giving the
pharmacologic equivalent of what you want the dobutamine to do?
1. Dopamine (at a very high dose)
2. Ephedrine plus propranolol
3. Norepinephrine plus phentolamine
4. Methoxamine plus atropine
QuesID: -39
Treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock is:
1. Adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000 solution by intramuscu¬lar route
2. Adrenaline 1 mL of 1:10000 by intravenous route
3. Atropine 3 mg intravenously
4. Adenosine 12 mg intravenously

QuesID: -40
A patient of septic shock was given intravenous nor-epinephrine. The
response to this drug is best checked by:
1. Increase in heart rate
2. Decrease in heart rate
3. Increase in mean arterial pressure
4. Decreased renal perfusion and reduced urine output

QuesID: -41
A patient present with diabetic macular edema with glaucoma. Which of the
following drug should be used last for this patient?
1. Alpha agonist
2. Acetazolamide
3. Beta blockers
4. Prostaglandin analogues

QuesID: -42
Acetylcholine decrease heart rate by which of the following mechanisms?
1. By decreasing the rate of diastolic depolarization of SA node
2. By causing delay through AV node
3. By blocking calcium channels and prolonging the plateau phase
4. By reducing the rate of ventricular repolarization

QuesID: -43
Beta-blockers are used in all of the following except:-
1. Essential tremors
2. AV block
3. Angina pectoris
4. Migraine prophylaxis

QuesID: -44
Pirenzepine is used in:
1. Peptic ulcer disease
2. Bronchial asthma
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Motion sickness

QuesID: -45
Which of the following conditions increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
1. Administration of quinidine
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypermagnesemia
4. Hypocalcemia

QuesID: -46
Which of these drugs DOES NOT decrease angiotensin II activity:
1. Enalapril
2. Valsartan
3. Nesiritide
4. Omapatrilat

QuesID: -47
Which of the following is true regarding enalapril treatment in patients of
essential hypertension?
1. Decreased angiotensin II concentration in the blood
2. Decreased concentration of renin in the blood
3. Decreases sodium and increases potassium in the urine
4. All of the above

QuesID: -48
The antihypertensive agent that should be avoided in young females and is
used topically to treat alopecia is:
1. Hydralazine
2. Prazosin
3. Minoxidil
4. Indapamide
QuesID: -49
The drug effective for treatment as well as prophylaxis of angina pectoris is:
1. Isosorbide dinitrate
2. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
3. Diltiazem
4. Dipyridamole

QuesID: -50
Propanolol is contra-indicated in a patient of angina pectoris who is already
receiving:
1. Nifedipine
2. Aspirin
3. Verapamil
4. Isosorbide mononitrate

QuesID: -51
All of the following drugs can be used for the chronic oral treatment of
arrhythmia except:
1. Amiodarone
2. Esmolol
3. Quinidine
4. Verapamil

QuesID: -52
Which of the following statements is WRONG about amiodarone?
1. It is longest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.
2. It has positive ionotropic action
3. It contains iodine
4. It causes pulmonary fibrosis.

QuesID: -53
Drugs that reduce myocardial remodeling in CHF include all of the following
except:
1. Carvedilol
2. Digoxin
3. Enalapril
4. Spironolactone

QuesID: -54
Mechanism of action of digitalis in atrial fibrillation is:
1. By decreasing cardiac contractility
2. Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition
3. Increase in refractoriness of AV nodal tissue
4. By causing bradycardia

QuesID: -55
Lignocaine is useful for the treatment of:
1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
3. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles
4. All of the above

QuesID: -56
Losartan is similar to enalapril in all of the following features except:
1. Anti-hypertensive efficacy
2. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy
3. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance
4. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

QuesID: -57
All of the following drugs increase plasma renin activity except
1. Hydralazine
2. Clonidine
3. Enalapril
4. Prazosin

QuesID: -58
Which one of the following statements correctly summarizes how losartan
differs from lisinopril?
1. Losartan causes a higher incidence of bronchospasm and
hyperuricemia
2. Lisinopril effectively inhibits synthesis of Angiotensin II, losartan does
not
3. Losartan is preferred for managing hypertension during pregnancy,
whereas lisinopril is contraindicated
4. Losartan is suitable for administration to patients with heart failure,
whereas lisinopril should be avoided

QuesID: -59
Which of the following drug can cause coronary steal phenomenon?
1. Hydralazine
2. Glyceryl trinitrate
3. Disopyramide
4. Diltiazem

QuesID: -60
Drugs that consistently reduce the potassium repolarizing current and
thereby prolong the action potential duration include all of the following
except:
1. Amiodarone
2. Lignocaine
3. Quinidine
4. Sotalol

QuesID: -61
Major mechanism of action of nitrates in acute attack of angina is
1. Coronary vasodialtion
2. Decrease in preload
3. Decrease in afterload
4. Decrease in heart rate

QuesID: -62
Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to form an active metabolite. This
active metabolite of sodium nitroprusside act via activation of
1. Phospholipase A
2. Phospholipase C
3. Guanylate cyclase
4. Protein kinase C

QuesID: -63
What is the mechanism of action of sacubitril?
1. ACE inhibitor
2. Neutral endopeptidase inhibitor
3. Endothelin antagonist
4. Angiotensin receptor blocker

QuesID: -64
A hypertensive patient with BP 160/90 mm of Hg presents with increased
level of Lipoprotein a. Which hypolipidemic drug will you prescribe?
1. Fenofibrate
2. Pitavastatin
3. Niacin
4. Ezetimibe

QuesID: -65
Which of the following is a new drug that acts by inhibiting PCSK9?
1. Reslizumab
2. Brodalumab
3. Alirocumab
4. Ixekizumab

QuesID: -66
Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is:
1. Digoxin
2. Propranolol
3. Adenosine
4. Diltiazem

QuesID: -67
Calcium channel blocker causing cerebral vasodilatation is:-
1. Nimodipine
2. Felodipine
3. Amlodipine
4. Nitrendipine

QuesID: -68
Long-term use of which diuretic agent can result in gynaecomastia?
1. Amiloride
2. Spironolactone
3. Triamterene
4. Acetazolamide

QuesID: -69
Which of the following is NOT associated with thiazide diuretics?
1. Hypercalciuria
2. Hyponatremia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hyperuricemia

QuesID: -70
Both loop diuretics and thiazides can cause hypokalemia by:
1. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+reabsorption
2. Inhibiting Na+-K+-2Cl–cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of
Henle
3. Increasing the availability of Na+in the distal tubular fluid to exchange
with interstitial K+
4. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

QuesID: -71
Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus is:
1. Insulin
2. Desmopressin
3. Diazoxide
4. Chlorpropamide

QuesID: -72
Flumazenil can reverse the respiratory depression caused by which of the
following?
1. Fentanyl
2. Ketamine
3. Midazolam
4. Propofol

QuesID: -73
Drug of choice in drug induced Parkinsonism is:
1. Levodopa
2. Benzhexol
3. Amantidine
4. Carbidopa

QuesID: -74
Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa is not minimized even
after combining it with carbidopa?
1. Involuntary movements
2. Nausea and vomiting
3. Cardiac arrhythmia
4. ‘On-off’ effect

QuesID: -75
Which of the following statements about vigabatrin is TRUE?
1. Blocks neuronal reuptake of GABA
2. Drug of choice in absence seizures
3. Life threatening skin disorders may occur
4. Visual disturbances can occur

QuesID: -76
Which of the following drugs has a high affinity for 5-HT2 receptors in the
brain, does not cause extrapyramidal dysfunction or hematotoxicity, and is
reported to increase the risk of significant QT prolongation?
1. Chlorpromazine
2. Clozapine
3. Olanzapine
4. Ziprasidone

QuesID: -77
Propanolol is useful in the management of which of the following side
effects of a typical neuroleptic drug?
1. Parkinsonism
2. Acute muscle dystonia
3. Tardive dyskinesia
4. Akathisia

QuesID: -78
A psychiatric patient taking medication develops a tremor, thyroid
enlargement and leucocytosis. Drug implicated is:
1. Clomipramine
2. Haloperidol
3. Lithium
4. Olanzapine

QuesID: -79
A patient Manoj with severe pain thought to be of gastrointestinal origin
received 60 mg of meperidine subsequent to which he developed reaction
characterized by tachycardia, hypertension, hyperpyrexia and seizures. He
gave the history that he is also taking some medicine for his psychiatric
condition. Which of the following drug can be held responsible for this sort
of reaction?
1. Alprazolam
2. Imipramine
3. Lithium
4. Phenelzine

QuesID: -80
The combination of alcohol and disulfiram results in nausea and
hypotension as a result of accumulation of:
1. Acetaldehyde
2. Acetate
3. Methanol
4. NADH

QuesID: -81
The drug which is a specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase
and is useful in the treatment of methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning is:
1. Disulfiram
2. Ethylene glycol
3. Calcium leucovorin
4. Fomepizole

QuesID: -82
Which of the following statements regarding barbiturates is accurate?
1. Benzodiazepines exhibit a steeper dose response relationship as
compared to barbiturates
2. Barbiturates may increase the half lives of drugs metabolized by the
liver
3. Alkalization of the urine will accelerate the elimination of
phenobarbitone
4. Respiratory depression caused by barbiturate overdosage can be
reversed by flumazenil

QuesID: -83
A patient of Parkinsonism developed this condition after treatment. Which
of the following drugs is likely to cause this adverse effect?

1. Levo-dopa
2. Amantadine
3. Selegiline
4. Pramipexole

QuesID: -84
In treatment of Parkinsonism, L-Dopa is combined with carbidopa mainly:
1. To decrease the treatment duration
2. To decrease central side effects of L-Dopa
3. To decrease effectiveness of L-Dopa
4. To increase crossing of L-Dopa through blood brain barrier

QuesID: -85
Which antiepileptic drug can lead to this adverse effect:
1. Phenytoin
2. Carbamazepine
3. Valproate
4. Lamotrigine

QuesID: -86
Prolonged use of one of the following anticonvulsant drugs can produce
weight loss:
1. Gabapentin
2. Oxcarbazepine
3. Topiramate
4. Valproic acid

QuesID: -87
A 20 years old female with generalized tonic clonic epilepsy well controlled
of phenytoin 300 mg/day, becomes pregnant. Pick the correct advise you
would give her:
1. Stop Phenytoin + start Phenobarbitone and Folic acid
2. Stop Phenytoin + start Lamotrigine and Folic acid
3. Stop Phenytoin + start Magnesium infusion
4. Continue with Phenytoin and add Tab. Folic acid and during the last 2
weeks of pregnancy give oral Vitamin K too

QuesID: -88
One of the following limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants has been
overcome by selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Which is it?
1. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects
2. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose
3. Delayed responses
4. Both (a) and (b) are correct

QuesID: -89
A large number of deaths of opioid abusers were reported who had
purchased and self administered illicit drugs that contained lethal amounts
of fentanyl. One patient who received this fentanyl-laced drug presents in
your emergency department, barely alive. Which of the following drugs
should you administer first, with the best hope that it can promptly reverse
the lethal effects of the fentanyl?
1. Naloxone
2. Diazepam
3. Flumazenil
4. Fomepizole

QuesID: -90
A patient presented with pain in the right lower quadrant of abdomen. He
has history of renal stones in right kidney. He was prescribed an opioid
which is agonist at kappa receptors and antagonist at mu receptors. The
likely drug given was:
1. Pentazocine
2. Buprenorphine
3. Tramadol
4. Fentanyl

QuesID: -91
Morphine should not be used in the treatment of
1. Ischemic pain
2. Biliary colic
3. Cancer pain
4. Post operative pain

QuesID: -92
New drug approved for treatment of tardive dyskinesia is:
1. Safinamide
2. Tetrabenazine
3. Valbenazine
4. Deutetrabenazine

QuesID: -93
The risk of carbamazepine induced Stevens–Johnson syndrome is
increased in the presence of which of the following genes?
1. HLA-B* 5801
2. HLA-B* 1502
3. HLA-B* 5701
4. HLA-B 27
QuesID: -94
Maximum increase in prolactin level is caused by:
1. Risperidone
2. Clozapine
3. Olanzapine
4. Aripiprazole

QuesID: -95
Which of the following drugs has caused hyperkalemia leading to cardiac
arrest in patients with neurological disorders?
1. Baclofen
2. Dantrolene
3. Succinylcholine
4. Tubocurarine

QuesID: -96
Patient undergoing surgery was given a muscle relaxant. It produced
marked fall in B.P. and increase in airway resistance which were reversed
with diphenhydramine. The muscle relaxant was most probably:
1. Pancuronium
2. Diazepam
3. Tubocurarine
4. Vecuronium
QuesID: -97
The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a
measure of its:
1. Potency
2. Therapeutic index
3. Diffusibility
4. Oil: water partition coefficient

QuesID: -98
‘Dissociative anaesthesia’ is produced by:
1. Ketamine
2. Fentanyl
3. Propofol
4. Thiopentone

QuesID: -99
Epinephrine added to a solution of lignocaine for a peripheral nerve block
will:
1. Increase risk of convulsions
2. Increase the duration of action of the local anesthetic
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these
QuesID: -100
Postoperative vomiting is uncommon with this intravenous anaesthetic
agent and patients are able to ambulate sooner than those who receive
other anaesthetic agents:
1. Ketamine
2. Enflurane
3. Propofol
4. Remifentanil